TEST BANK For An Introduction to PSYCHOLOGICAL SCIENCE First Canadian Edition. by StudyGuide

Table of Contents

CHAPTER 1

INTRODUCING PSYCHOLOGICAL SCIENCE ....................................... 1 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions.............................................................. 1 Fill in the Blank Questions .............................................................................. 64 Main Bank True False Questions ..................................................................... 67 Main Bank Essay Questions ............................................................................ 73 Quiz.................................................................................................................. 74 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions........................................................ 77

CHAPTER 2

READING AND EVALUATING SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH.................. 88 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions............................................................ 88 Fill in the Blank Questions ............................................................................ 150 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................... 153 Main Bank Essay Questions .......................................................................... 158 Quiz................................................................................................................ 160 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions...................................................... 162

CHAPTER 3

BIOLOGICAL PSYCHOLOGY ................................................................ 178 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions.......................................................... 178 Fill in the Blank Questions ............................................................................ 239 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................... 243 Main Bank Essay Questions .......................................................................... 246 Quiz................................................................................................................ 247 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions...................................................... 249

CHAPTER 4

SENSATION AND PERCEPTION............................................................ 273 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions.......................................................... 273 Fill in the Blank Questions ............................................................................ 337 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................... 340 Main Bank Essay Questions .......................................................................... 343 Quiz................................................................................................................ 345 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions...................................................... 347

CHAPTER 5

CONSCIOUSNESS ...................................................................................... 369 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions.......................................................... 369 Fill in the Blank Questions ............................................................................ 431 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................... 434 Main Bank Essay Questions .......................................................................... 437 Quiz................................................................................................................ 439 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions...................................................... 441

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CHAPTER 6

LEARNING .................................................................................................. 448 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions.......................................................... 448 Fill in the Blank Questions ............................................................................ 509 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................... 512 Main Bank Essay Questions .......................................................................... 515 Quiz................................................................................................................ 517 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions ..................................................... 519

CHAPTER 7

MEMORY .................................................................................................... 564 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions.......................................................... 564 Fill in the Blank Questions ............................................................................ 627 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................... 630 Main Bank Essay Questions .......................................................................... 633 Quiz................................................................................................................ 635 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions ..................................................... 637

CHAPTER 8

THOUGHT AND LANGUAGE ................................................................. 654 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions.......................................................... 654 Fill in the Blank Questions ............................................................................ 707 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................... 710 Main Bank Essay Questions .......................................................................... 713 Quiz................................................................................................................ 715 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions ..................................................... 717

CHAPTER 9

INTELLIGENCE, APTITUDE, AND COGNITIVE ABILITIES .......... 720 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions.......................................................... 720 Fill in the Blank Questions ............................................................................ 761 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................... 763 Main Bank Essay Questions .......................................................................... 765 Quiz................................................................................................................ 767 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions...................................................... 769

CHAPTER 10

LIFE SPAN DEVELOPMENT .................................................................. 771 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions.......................................................... 771 Fill in the Blank Questions ............................................................................ 828 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................... 831 Main Bank Essay Questions .......................................................................... 834 Quiz................................................................................................................ 836 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions ..................................................... 838

CHAPTER 11

MOTIVATION AND EMOTION .............................................................. 854 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions.......................................................... 854 Fill in the Blank Questions ............................................................................ 898 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................... 901 Main Bank Essay Questions .......................................................................... 903 Quiz................................................................................................................ 905 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions...................................................... 907

CHAPTER 12

PERSONALITY........................................................................................... 910 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions.......................................................... 910 Fill in the Blank Questions ............................................................................ 963 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................... 966 Main Bank Essay Questions .......................................................................... 969 Quiz................................................................................................................ 970 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions...................................................... 972

CHAPTER 13

SOCIAL PSYCHOLOGY ........................................................................... 983 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions.......................................................... 983 Fill in the Blank Questions .......................................................................... 1033 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................. 1035 Main Bank Essay Questions ........................................................................ 1037 Quiz.............................................................................................................. 1039 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions.................................................... 1041

CHAPTER 14

HEALTH, STRESS, AND COPING ........................................................ 1053 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions........................................................ 1053 Fill in the Blank Questions .......................................................................... 1105 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................. 1108 Main Bank Essay Questions ........................................................................ 1111 Quiz.............................................................................................................. 1112 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions.................................................... 1114

CHAPTER 15

PSYCHOLOGICAL DISORDERS .......................................................... 1115 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions........................................................ 1115 Fill in the Blank Questions .......................................................................... 1169 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................. 1172 Main Bank Essay Questions ........................................................................ 1174 Quiz.............................................................................................................. 1175 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions.................................................... 1177

CHAPTER 16

THERAPIES .............................................................................................. 1194 Main Bank Multiple Choice Questions........................................................ 1194 Fill in the Blank Questions .......................................................................... 1251 Main Bank True False Questions ................................................................. 1254 Main Bank Essay Questions ........................................................................ 1257 Quiz.............................................................................................................. 1258 General Bank Multiple Choice Questions.................................................... 1260

Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

1) Psychology is best defined as the study of mental illness and abnormal behaviour. a. True b. False Correct: Psychology is the scientific study of behaviour, thought, and experience. It is much more than the study of mental illness. Answer: b Page Reference: 3 2) A hypothesis is a testable prediction about processes that can be observed and measured. a. True b. False Correct: This is the definition of a hypothesis. Answer: a Page Reference: 3 3) A good hypothesis is one that is stated in the most general terms possible. a. True b. False Correct: A good scientific hypothesis is stated in precise terms that can clearly be confirmed or rejected. Answer: b Page Reference: 4 4) Theories are basically the same thing as opinions or beliefs. a. True b. False Correct: Some people use the term theory in casual conversation to mean "guess" or "opinion," but this is not how the term is used in science. Answer: b Page Reference: 4 5) Part of being scientifically literate is being able to apply scientific knowledge to realworld situations. a. True b. False

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

Correct: Scientific literacy includes the ability to understand, analyze, and apply scientific information to real-world situations. Answer: a Page Reference: 6 6) Critical thinking involves exercising curiosity and skepticism when evaluating the claims of others, and with our own assumptions and beliefs. a. True b. False Correct: Critical thinking involves having curiosity that drives us to ask thoughtful questions and to look beyond simple answers, and skepticism toward anything that seems to be an easy or obvious answer. It also involves questioning our own assumptions and conclusions, along with those of others. Answer: a Page Reference: 9 7) Critical thinkers realize that all opinions are created equal. a. True b. False Correct: Critical thinking means respecting other viewpoints, but it also means that some ideas can be incorrect. In many cases, one answer emerges as the best one because a large body of evidence converges upon it. Answer: b Page Reference: 9 8) Empiricism means that knowledge about the world is based on careful observation, not common sense or speculation. a. True b. False Correct: Empiricism is a philosophical tenet that knowledge comes through experience and careful observation. Answer: a Page Reference: 13 9) Psychology became a scientific discipline in the 1600s. a. True b. False Correct: Psychology became a formal discipline in the late 1800s with the founding of Wilhelm Wundt's laboratory. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

Answer: b Page Reference: 20 10) Phrenologists suggested that specific mental traits and dispositions could be read by examining the surface of the skull. a. True b. False Correct: Phrenologists believed that the brain was comprised of different "organs," each corresponding to a specific function or trait. They also believed that these organs could be discovered by examining the skull over different parts of the brain. Answer: a Page Reference: 16–17 11) Sigmund Freud's work using hypnosis to cure patients made him realize that many of his patients' symptoms had mental, not physical, causes and this led to the development of psychoanalysis. a. True b. False Correct: Freud was interested in how hypnosis seemed to cure several patients of hysterical paralysis—a condition in which an individual loses feeling and control in a specific body part, despite the lack of any known neurological damage or disease. These experiences led Freud to believe that unconscious processes were responsible for his patients' symptoms and to develop his famous approach, called psychoanalysis. Answer: a Page Reference: 17 12) Psychoanalysis emphasizes the influence of unconscious urges and memories on behaviour. a. True b. False Correct: Psychoanalysis is a psychological approach that attempts to explain how behaviour and personality are influenced by unconscious processes. Answer: a Page Reference: 17 13) Credit for establishing psychology as an independent field of science is generally given to William James. a. True b. False

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

Correct: Most contemporary psychologists have agreed that Wilhelm Wundt established the first laboratory dedicated to studying human behaviour, and was responsible for establishing psychology as an independent field of science. Answer: b Page Reference: 20 14) The goal of Wilhelm Wundt's trained introspection volunteers was to break down behaviour into its most basic elements. a. True b. False Correct: Wundt used introspection to analyze conscious experience by breaking it down into basic elements, and to understand how these elements work together. Answer: a Page Reference: 20 15) Structuralism was an early psychological approach that emphasized the purpose of behaviour and consciousness. a. True b. False Correct: This describes functionalism, not structuralism. Structuralism was an attempt to analyze conscious experience by breaking it down into basic elements, and to understand how these elements work together. Answer: b Page Reference: 20–21 16) Humanistic psychology is an approach emphasizing that psychologists need to focus on the whole of the perception and experience, rather than its parts. a. True b. False Correct: This is a description of gestalt, not humanistic, psychology. Humanistic psychology focuses on the unique aspects of each individual human, their freedom to act, their rational thought, and the belief that humans are fundamentally different from other animals. Answer: b Page Reference: 22, 25 17) The cognitive perspective is an approach that emphasizes mental processes in thinking, memory, language, and other areas of behaviour.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

a. True b. False Correct: Cognitive psychology is a modern psychological perspective that focuses on processes such as memory, thinking, and language. Thus, much of what cognitive psychologists study are mental processes that are inferred through rigorous experimentation. Answer: a Page Reference: 25 18) Applied psychology is the study of psychological issues in order to seek knowledge for its own sake rather than for its practical application. a. True b. False Correct: This is the description of basic research, not applied. Applied psychology uses psychological knowledge to address problems and issues across various settings and professions, including law, education, clinical psychology, and business organization and management. Answer: b Page Reference: Module 1.3 19) Programs leading to a Psy.D. are usually designed to prepare a person both as a scientist and as a clinical practitioner. a. True b. False Correct: Unlike the Ph.D. degree, which combines science and practice of psychology, the Psy.D. degree focuses almost exclusively on the practice of psychology. Answer: b Page Reference: Module 1.3 20) Most of the helping professions in psychology require graduate degrees and provincial licensure or certification. a. True b. False Correct: While individuals with a bachelor's degree can work in treatment settings on a basic level, most mental health jobs in psychology require a graduate degree (e.g., MSW, PhD, PsyD, MD) and licensure or certification as approved by individual provinces. Answer: a Page Reference: Module 1.3

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

21) Health psychologists are interested in how lifestyle choices and other behaviours combine with genetics and environment to affect physical health. a. True b. False Correct: Health psychology (or behavioural medicine), the study of how individual, biological, and environmental factors affect physical health. Answer: a Page Reference: Module 1.3 22) Only a small percentage of this year's Bachelor-level psychology graduates will go on to work in psychological fields. a. True b. False Correct: Most psychology students who major or minor in psychology end up applying their knowledge in other areas, including teaching, marketing, nursing, and business. Answer: a Page Reference: Module 1.3

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science 1. Psychology can be considered a collection of many related fields of study. What is one of the features that all of these fields have in common? a. The use of the scientific method b. The study of mental illness c. The belief that the unconscious mind determines human behaviour d. The use of introspection Answer: A Module 1.1 2. _____ are built from _____ that are repeatedly tested and confirmed. a. Theories; hypotheses b. Hypotheses; theories c. Predictions; observations d. Observations; predictions Answer: A Module 1.1 3. The biopsychosocial model assumes that: a. behaviour often can be fully explained only by combining multiple perspectives. b. biological factors are more important than social factors in determining behaviour. c. all living organisms form social groups, based on their physical and psychological needs. d. the simplest explanation for behaviour is usually the best. Answer: A Module 1.1 4. Which of the following is true about the concept of scientific literacy? a. Only trained scientists are considered scientifically literate. b. Scientific literacy is the ability to answer basic science questions without looking up their answers. c. A person who can understand, analyze, and apply scientific information is demonstrating scientific literacy. d. Knowledge of scientific terminology is the most important part of scientific literacy. Answer: C Module 1.1 5. _____ is the belief that knowledge comes through observation and experience. a. Determinism b. Parsimony c. Skepticism d. Empiricism Answer: D Module 1.2 6. Psychology has been a science since a. around 470 BCE. b. the early 1600s. c. the late 1800s. d. the mid-1900s. Answer: C Module 1.2

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science 7. How did physiologists and physicists, like Gustav Fechner, contribute to the development of psychology as a science? a. They studied the relationship between the physical world and the mental representation of that world. b. They demonstrated that the brain was responsible for consciousness. c. They identified the locations of specific functions within the brain. d. They extended Darwin’s theory of evolution to behaviour and cognitive abilities. Answer: A Module 1.2 8. The belief that the unconscious mind has an influence on a person’s behaviour is part of which early approach to psychology? a. Structuralism b. Functionalism c. Psychoanalysis d. Behaviourism Answer: C Module 1.2 9. The question of nature and nurture relationships centres on how _____ (nature) and _____ (nurture) influence behaviour and mental processes. a. environment; heredity b. heredity; environment c. emotion; logic d. logic; emotion Answer: B Module 1.2 10. Why was the perspective followed by Wilhelm Wundt and his followers called structuralism? a. They wanted to identify the major brain structures. b. Their primary goal was to understand the physiology of the mind. c. They focused their efforts on analyzing the elements of the nervous system. d. Their primary focus was on describing the structure of conscious experience. Answer: D Module 1.2 11. Which school of psychology questioned whether psychologists should study the mind, which was thought to be unobservable? a. Psychoanalysis b. Behaviourism c. Gestalt psychology d. Humanism Answer: B Module 1.2 12. You attend a lecture by a psychologist who uses terms such as free will and life’s meaning. Which psychological perspective is most consistent with the points the psychologist presented? a. Behaviourism b. Humanistic psychology c. Functionalism d. Psychodynamics Answer: B Module 1.2 13. _____ psychologists are generally interested in how the behaviour of individuals can be influenced by other people. a. Social Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science b. Gestalt c. Behavioural d. Humanistic Answer: A Module 1.2 14. Dr. Fernwood is a research psychologist. The main focus of her research is the use of psychological knowledge to find ways to reduce bullying in schools. Dr. Fernwood’s research could be described as _____ psychology. a. basic b. forensic c. applied d. I/O Answer: C Module 1.3 15. In which field is someone with a background in psychology likely to work? a. Advertising b. Teaching c. Management d. Any of the above Answer: D Module 1.3

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

1) In order to be scientific, it must be possible to test a hypotheses. Correct: A testable hypothesis is one that can be confirmed or rejected (you do not prove a hypothesis), and a scientific hypothesis must be testable. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the steps of the scientific method. 2) For psychologists, critical thinking means that we apply scientific methods carefully, examine our assumptions and biases, and tolerate ambiguity when the evidence is inconclusive. Correct: Critical thinking involves exercising curiosity and skepticism when evaluating the claims of others, and with our own assumptions and beliefs. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 9 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the steps in critical thinking 3) The principle of parsimony holds that, when dealing with competing theories, the simplest one should be chosen. Correct: Scientific and critical thinking involves the use of the principle of parsimony, which means that the simplest of all competing explanations (the most "parsimonious") of a phenomenon should be the one we accept. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 10 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of the scientific method. 4)

The main difference between modern psychology and earlier attempts to understand the mind and behaviour is psychology's use of the scientific method. Correct: Psychologists, like earlier philosophers, are interested in why people think and behave the way they do. The main difference between the two is that psychologists apply scientific methods to find answers. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

Page Reference: 13 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history. 5) Clinical psychology is the field of psychology that concentrates on the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders. Correct: This is a description of clinical psychology. Psychiatry also involves the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders, but this is not the best answer because psychiatry is branch of medicine, while psychology is not. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 16 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. 6) Psychoanalysis was developed by Sigmund Freud as a way to treat his patients. Correct: Psychoanalysis is a psychological approach that attempts to explain how behaviour and personality are influenced by unconscious processes. Freud developed this approach after concluding that his patients' symptoms were being caused by unconscious urges, thoughts, and memories. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 17-18 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history. 7) Wundt's primary research method was training volunteers to use introspection. Correct: Introspection means to "look within," or to examine one's own perceptions and thoughts. William Wundt had his trained volunteers experience a stimulus and then report each individual sensation he or she could identify through introspection. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 20 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history. 8) Although Ivan Pavlov is usually credited with its discovery, professor Edwin Twitmyer was one of the first people to study classical conditioning.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

Correct: While studying the patellar kick reflex, Edwin Twitmyer discovered that if participants heard a bell before the mallet struck their patellar tendon, they would eventually begin to respond to the bell alone. This process is now known as classical conditioning and was famously studied by Ivan Pavlov. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 21 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history. 9) While popular with audiences, television shows about criminal profilers and crime-scene investigation generally misrepresent the job of a typical forensic psychologist. Correct: Forensic psychology encompasses work in the criminal justice system, including interactions with the legal system and its professionals. The field is often glorified in movies and TV as criminal profiling and investigation, but it is in most cases a practical profession involving very little of what is portrayed in these shows. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. 10) Industrial/organizational psychology is a branch of applied psychology in which psychologists work for businesses and other organizations to improve employee productivity and the organizational structure of the company or business. Correct: I/O psychologists work with companies and large organizations. For example, they may develop tests to hire workers who have the best chance at succeeding, they may assist work teams to improve communication and responsibility, and they may help organizations with the management of change. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the various professional settings occupied by psychologists.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

1) Psychologists use research techniques based on __________. a. inductive reasoning b. objective introspection c. deductive reasoning d. the scientific method Answer: d Page Reference: 3 2) The pattern of characteristic thoughts, feelings, and behaviours that persists over time and situations and distinguishes one person from another is called _______. a. a trait b. an emotional profile c. personality d. the primary process Answer: c Page Reference: 13, 22, 26 3) Structuralism emphasizes __________. a. individual differences b. the application of biological principles to the mind c. the influence of subconscious urges on conscious behaviour d. the basic units of experience and their combinations Answer: d Page Reference: 20 4) The first psychology laboratory was founded by __________. a. Wundt b. James c. Titchener d. Watson Answer: a Page Reference: 20 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

5) Freud was the founder of __________. a. existential psychology b. behavioural psychology c. psychoanalysis d. behaviourism Answer: c Page Reference: 17 6) In the late 20th century, psychology __________. a. expanded dramatically b. stagnated c. contracted slightly d. contracted dramatically Answer: a Page Reference: 25–26 7) By general agreement, psychology was born in __________. a. 1642 b. 1853 c. 1879 d. 1906 Answer: c Page Reference: 20 8) Freud's theories differed radically from the views of his predecessors because of __________. a. his extensive use of laboratory research to support its claims b. the emphasis it placed on Eastern philosophies and culture c. the emphasis it placed on unconscious processes d. his emphasis on environmental learning as the source for most personality characteristics

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

Answer: c Page Reference: 22 9) Titchener was a member of the ___________ school of thought. a. structuralist b. functionalist c. behaviourist d. reductionist Answer: a Page Reference: 20 10) As a science, psychology is approximately how old? a. 50 years b. 100+ years c. 150 years d. 2500 years, since the field dates back to the ancient Greeks Answer: b Page Reference: 20 11) Modern psychology is said to have begun when a. Greek philosophers began studying the differences between people. b. Wundt opened the first laboratory devoted to the scientific study of psychology. c. Freud developed psychoanalytic theory and therapy. d. it was discovered in the early 1900s that many illnesses have no medical basis. Answer: b Page Reference: 20 12) The psychological school that asks, ”What are mental processes for?” rather than ”What are mental processes?” is which of the following? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. humanism d. Gestalt Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

Answer: b Page Reference: 21 13) What word describes the method of investigation used by Wundt? a. structuralism b. psychoanalysis c. functionalism d. introspection Answer: d Page Reference: 20 14) Studying the elements of sensations, feelings, and images is most directly associated with which school of psychology? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. behaviourism d. humanism Answer: a Page Reference: 20 15) The primary method of investigation used by structuralists was a. natural observation. b. dream interpretation. c. introspection. d. experimentation. Answer: c Page Reference: 20 16) Psychology is said to have begun when a. medicine was seen to be ineffective in treating neurosis. b. Wilhelm Wundt started the first psychological laboratory. c. Sigmund Freud opened his private practice in Vienna.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

d. it was discovered in the early 1900s that many illnesses have no medical basis. Answer: b Page Reference: 20 17) Psychologists stopped relying on the method of introspection as their primary research tool because a. they wanted to study mental processes rather than observable behaviour. b. results were inconsistent across labs. c. laboratory research was replaced by field research. d. the technique did not provide useful information for therapists. Answer: b Page Reference: 20 18) A psychologist bases his/her theories completely on measuring observable behaviours. This psychologist is probably a __________. a. humanist b. behaviourist c. structuralist d. functionalist Answer: b Page Reference: 21 19) Psychology: a. has an applied side. b. is a science of behaviour. c. has goals of describing, predicting, and explaining events. d. all of the above Answer: d Page Reference: 19–26 20) Cognitive psychologists are a subgroup of experimental psychologists who are concerned primarily with a. neurobiological events that underlie behaviour. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

b. the function of age on behaviour. c. mental events that intervene between stimuli and responses. d. how people are affected by social situations. Answer: c Page Reference: 24–26 21) Cognitive psychologists are concerned with the scientific study of __________. a. reinforcement b. alienation and apathy c. mental processes d. self-actualization Answer: c Page Reference: 25 22) Psychologists use techniques based on ___________. a. cultural ethnocentrism b. objective introspection c. philosophical logic d. the scientific method Answer: d Page Reference: 3 23) An individual's personality, as well as situational variables, will determine that person's _______. a. behaviour b. predispositions c. uniqueness d. all of the above Answer: a Page Reference: 26

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

24) Which aspect of the mind held the greatest fascination for Freud? a. the preconscious mind b. the conscious area c. suppressions d. the unconscious Answer: d Page Reference: 17–18 25) ___________________ emphasizes that humans are positively motivated and progress toward higher levels of functioning. a. Humanistic psychology b. Psychoanalytic theory c. Social learning theory d. Trait theory Answer: a Page Reference: 23 26) Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow are _______. a. behaviourists b. psychoanalysts c. humanists d. cognitivists Answer: c Page Reference: 23 27) Who of the following believes humans have a natural motivation to reach their highest potential? a. Maslow b. Skinner c. Adler d. Jung Answer: a Page Reference: 23 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

28) _______ is the name of the theory that emphasizes the concept that humans are positively motivated and progress toward higher levels of functioning. a. Humanism b. Psychoanalysis c. Social learning d. Traitism Answer: a Page Reference: 23 29) A therapist is interested in interpreting dreams and in having clients relate their thoughts without modifying them. This therapist is most likely to be a a. client-centred therapist. b. psychoanalyst. c. cognitive therapist. d. behaviour therapist. Answer: b Page Reference: 18 30) Client-centred therapy was founded by __________. a. Rogers b. Wolpe c. Adler d. Jung Answer: a Page Reference: 15 31) Psychoanalysis was a therapy technique designed by __________. a. Fritz Perls b. Sigmund Freud c. Carl Rogers d. Alfred Adler Answer: b Page Reference: 17

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

32) Genuineness, empathy, unconditional positive regard, and self-growth are all associated with ________ therapy. a. gestalt b. humanistic c. cognitive d. behavioural Answer: b Page Reference: 22–23 33) Freud believed that many psychological problems were the result of: a. feelings and emotions repressed during childhood. b. genetic factors. c. organic disturbances. d. the identity crises. Answer: a Page Reference: 18 34) Person-centred therapy has its roots in a. humanistic psychology. b. the medical model. c. psychoanalysis. d. the cognitive model. Answer: a Page Reference: 22–23 35) Psychoanalytic theory was developed by a. Freud. b. Perls. c. Erikson. d. Rogers. Answer: a Page Reference: 17–18 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

36) Of the following, which type of therapist would be more interested in a client's past rather than the current situation? a. psychoanalytic b. rational-emotive c. behavioural d. Gestalt Answer: a Page Reference: 17–18 37) Which of the following approaches is based on the premise that people naturally strive to reach their potential and lead a fulfilling life? a. psychoanalytic b. behavioural c. humanistic d. biomedical Answer: c Page Reference: 22–23 38) In Gestalt psychology, the focus is on: a. changing overt behaviour. b. becoming more aware of the self. c. resolving repressed conflicts. d. fulfilling personal potential. Answer: b Page Reference: 25 39) The belief that anxiety results from feelings and emotions repressed during childhood was proposed by _______. a. Perls b. Moniz c. Pinel d. Freud

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

Answer: d Page Reference: 18 40) Which of the following types of psychologists is most prepared to help a person who hears voices and believes she is Joan of Arc? a. forensic b. counselling c. school d. clinical Answer: d Page Reference: 1.3 41) Steve, a college student, is seeing a psychologist because of his intense fear of people. His counsellor feels that Steve's fear is a product of unresolved conflicts about his parents and his childhood experiences with them. Steve's therapist is most characteristic of which school of psychology? a. behaviourism b. psychoanalytic c. humanistic d. Gestalt Answer: b Page Reference: 1.3 42) Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. A psychologist is a medical doctor specializing in the treatment of emotional disturbances. b. A psychiatrist is a medical doctor specializing in the treatment of emotional disturbances. c. Clinical psychologists treat severe psychological disturbances and psychiatrists treat mild disorders. d. Both clinical psychologists and psychiatrists can prescribe medications to their patients. Answer: b Page Reference: 1.3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

43) Political polls taken before major elections are examples of __________ research. a. correlational b. experimental c. case study d. survey Answer: d Page Reference: 1.3 44) Physiological psychologists study __________. a. human mental and physical growth from the prenatal period through childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and old age b. the biological basis for human behaviour c. the differences among individuals in such traits as anxiety, sociability, self-esteem, the need for achievement, and aggressiveness d. how people influence one another Answer: b Page Reference: 1.3 45) In keeping with scientific skepticism, upon what basis should scientific claims be accepted? a. upon the evidence b. upon unfalsifiable evidence c. upon the disconfirmation bias d. upon compatibilism Answer: a Correct: Taking a skeptical approach means basing beliefs on evidence. Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 9, Module 1.1 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the steps in critical thinking. 46) Dr. Martian claims that aliens are real and have been performing mind experiments on humans for years. Which principle of critical thinking is most important to consider when evaluating this claim? Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 1: Introducing Psychological Science

a. being curious b. avoiding emotional reasoning c. examining the nature of the source of the evidence d. tolerating ambiguity Answer: c Correct: There is no real evidence to support the claim regarding aliens. Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 9, Module 1.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the steps in critical thinking. 47) Dr. Siela claims that all humans have invisible souls that guide their behaviour. Which principle of a good scientific theory is most important to consider when evaluating this claim? a. replicability b. Occam’s razor c. ruling out rival hypotheses d. falsifiability Answer: d Correct: It is not possible to prove this theory wrong; a theory must be falsifiable to be a valid theory. Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 4, Module 1.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the steps in the scientific method. 48) Which claim is falsifiable? a. Men are more physically aggressive than women. b. A weak superego is at the root of psychopathy. c. Bad things happen to bad people because of karma. d. Introspection is a valid approach to studying sensation. Answer: a Correct: This hypothesis can be falsified by measuring aggression in men and women. Diff: 3 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 4, Module 1.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the steps in the scientific method. 49) Researchers who have questioned the effectiveness of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy argue that supporters have failed to consider that patients are being administered exposure therapy at the same time as EMDR. Furthermore, the apparent effectiveness of EMDR is due to this exposure and not the eye movements. Which principle of critical thinking is best exemplified? a. considering other viewpoints b. falsifiability c. correlation versus causation d. Occam’s razor Answer: a Correct: Statement of fact Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 9, Module 1.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the steps of critical thinking. 50) Proponents of speed-reading courses hold stubbornly to their beliefs, despite contradictory evidence. Which aspect of pseudoscience is being characterized? a. intolerance of ambiguity b. reliance on emotional evdience c. lack of self-correction d. absence of connectivity Answer: c Correct: A scientific theory is modified when a hypothesis is disproven; this does not occur with pseudoscience. Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 4, Module 1.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the steps of the scientific method.

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1) Many non-scientists confuse the terms hypothesis and theory. Explain the difference between the two terms and the interaction between hypothesis testing and the construction of theories in the scientific method. Answer: A hypothesis is a testable prediction whereas a theory is an explanation of some aspect of the world. Theories gain support when the hypotheses that they generate are proved to be true. For example, if someone poses the theory “Males are more outgoing than females” this theory would gain support if the hypothesis “Males score higher on scales of extraversion than females” is proven to be true; the theory would lose support if the hypothesis it generates is proven to be false. In order to be a true theory, an argument must be testable using hypotheses. Hypotheses and theories are both essential parts of the scientific method. Page Reference: 3–4 2) To most people, the word psychologist conjures up an image of a therapist listening intently to a client. But not all psychologists do clinical work. Describe the different professional activities of psychologists. Answer: Discussion should include research, clinical, forensic, school, and neurological psychologists and the nurses that support treatments. Details may include: Research and teaching psychologists usually work at universities or government agencies teaching students or doing research in theoretical or applied psychology in a specific domain such as social or cognitive psychology. Clinical psychologists work to diagnose and treat people with psychological disorders. Counselling psychologists treat people with less severe psychological difficulties. Community psychologists provide mental health services and prevention campaigns to communities. Forensic psychologists work in the judiciary system and are often asked to determine if individuals are mentally fit to stand trial. Psychiatrists diagnose and treat psychological disorders and psychiatric nurses help implement treatments. School psychologists diagnose behaviour problems at schools and develop programs to help individual students. Neuropsychologists diagnose and treat people with neurological damage. Page Reference: Module 1.3 3) Describe three careers in applied psychology that are discussed in your text. Answer: I/O psychologists work with businesses to help hiring. Human factors psychologists work to make human machine interfaces user friendly. Environmental psychologists work to make spaces ‘more livable’. Page Reference: Module 1.3

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1) According to your authors, the discipline of psychology is best thought of as a. a field of self-help principles to eliminate mental problems. b. a mixture of anecdotes and personal intuition about human behaviour and mental processes. c. a process for encouraging people to reach their ultimate potential. d. the scientific study of behaviour, thought, and experience. Correct: Psychology includes many different fields of study and has a variety of goals, but the two qualities shared by all psychological fields are the use of the scientific method and the study of behaviour (including perceptions, thoughts and emotions). Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 3 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of the scientific method.

2) Liam mentions to a friend that he is currently taking an introduction to psychology course. "Why would you want to do that?" asks his friend. "Psychology is mostly therapists analyzing people's problems and self-help gurus selling books." What should Liam's response be? a. "No, psychology has nothing to do with helping people." b. "Actually, psychology is a vast discipline that covers much more than mental health and self-help." c. "Ok, those self-help gurus usually aren't real psychologists, but all real psychologists are trained to really help people improve their lives." d. "Psychology is actually about studying how chemicals in the brain interact." Correct: Psychology includes many different fields of study and has a variety of goals. While some psychologists try to help people with mental health and well-being issues, many psychologists work in other areas including learning, memory, animal behaviour, sensation and perception, and many others. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 3 Skill: Applied

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Objective: Know the key terminology of the scientific method.

3) Psychology can be considered a collection of many related fields of study. What is one feature that all of these fields have in common? a. the use of the scientific method b. the study of mental illness c. the belief that the unconscious mind determines human behaviour d. the use of introspection Correct: Psychology includes many different fields of study and has a variety of goals, but the two qualities shared by all psychological fields are the use of the scientific method and the study of behaviour (including perceptions, thoughts, and emotions). Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of this module.

4) All types of psychology involve a. interactions between patients and therapists. b. replicating what is already known via common sense. c. treating people's behavioural and emotional problems. d. the use of scientific method. Correct: All types of modern psychology rely on the scientific method (which often yields results that conflict with "common sense" explanations). Not all psychologists work with patients and treat psychological problems. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of the scientific method.

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5) Caroline is interested in determining how squirrels find the caches of nuts they buried several months earlier. She watches the squirrels in a park and notices that they tend to bury food near landmarks, such as trees or benches. She predicts that moving these landmarks after the squirrels have buried their food will prevent them from finding it later on, and designs an experiment to test her prediction. Caroline's approach is an example of a. pseudoscience. b. the scientific method. c. the psychoanalytic model. d. the biopsychological model. Correct: Caroline is clearly using the scientific method, which involves collecting observations, making predictions, and then testing the predictions. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 3–4 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the steps of the scientific method.

6) Collecting observations, testing predictions about how to best explain the observations, and developing theories are all part of a. the scientific method. b. pseudoscience. c. the biopsychosocial model. d. the psychoanalytic model. Correct: The scientific method is a way of learning about the world through collecting observations, stating predictions about how to best explain the observations, developing theories to explain the observations, and using the theories to make predictions about future events. It involves a dynamic interaction between hypothesis testing and the construction of theories. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 3–4 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the steps of the scientific method. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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7) "Children who watch violent cartoons will become more aggressive." According to the scientific method, this statement is most likely a(n) a. theory. b. untestable statement. c. hypothesis. d. fact. Correct: A hypothesis is a testable prediction that can be confirmed or rejected. In this example, an experiment could be designed to test whether children who watch violent cartoons do or do not become more violent. The statement is not a theory, because a theory is an explanation for a broad range of observations. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 3–4 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of the scientific method. 8) As part of the scientific method, scientists form testable predictions that can be observed and measured. These are called a. theories. b. proofs. c. hypotheses. d. models. Correct: A hypothesis is a testable prediction that can be confirmed or rejected. In contrast, a theory is an explanation for a broad range of observations. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 3–4 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the steps of the scientific method. 9) In order to be considered scientific, a hypothesis must be a. testable. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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b. believed true by a majority of experts. c. proven. d. stated in very general terms. Correct: Scientific hypotheses should be precise, and must be testable (i.e., it must be possible to demonstrate if they are false). Hypotheses that withstand testing are said to be "confirmed," not "proven." Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 3–4 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the steps of the scientific method.

10) Which of the following is a good scientific hypothesis? a. Everything happens for a reason. b. Happiness is the meaning of life. c. People born with the zodiac sign Taurus have higher IQ scores on average than others. d. All humans are connected by an unseen force that cannot be measured or observed. Correct: Scientific hypotheses must be testable (i.e., it must be possible to demonstrate if they are false). Although it would probably be shown to be false, "people born with the zodiac sign Taurus have higher IQ scores on average than others" is the only option that would be testable. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 3–4 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the steps of the scientific method.

11) Randi is a practitioner of crystal healing: the use of different crystals to treat medical disorders ranging from headaches to cancer. Crystal healers like Randi use scientific terminology (e.g., energy, vibrations, etc.) when explaining the technique to patients, but do not use the scientific method to develop or test their treatments. This makes crystal healing a

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a. metascience. b. pseudoscience. c. episcience. d. protoscience. Correct: Ideas that are presented as science, but do not use the basic principles of scientific thinking or procedure, are called pseudoscience. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 4 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of the scientific method.

12) The term pseudoscience refers to a. the scientific study of psychology and related phenomena. b. hypotheses that have been rejected through observation and testing. c. ideas that are presented as science but in fact do not use the basic principles of scientific thinking or procedure. d. the belief that the mind is separate from the body. Correct: Ideas that are presented as science, but do not use the basic principles of scientific thinking or procedure, are called pseudoscience. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 4 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of the scientific method.

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d. Theory Correct: Ideas that are presented as science, but do not use the basic principles of scientific thinking or procedure, are called pseudoscience. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 4 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of the scientific method.

14) In science, a theory can be defined as a. an educated guess. b. an explanation that explains and integrates numerous findings and observations into a coherent whole. c. a personal understanding of natural laws. d. a testable prediction. Correct: While nonscientists often use the word theory to describe a guess or a prediction, in science, a theory is an explanation for a broad range of observations that also generates new hypotheses and integrates numerous findings into a coherent whole. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 4 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the use of the term scientific theory.

15) __________ are built from __________ that are repeatedly tested and confirmed. a. Theories; hypotheses b. Hypotheses; theories c. Predictions; observations d. Observations; predictions

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Correct: Theories are built from hypotheses that are repeatedly tested and confirmed. While theories can also lead to new hypotheses, in the scientific method, hypotheses, not theories, are directly tested and confirmed. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 3–4 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the steps of the scientific method.

16) What property do hypotheses and theories share? a. They are both types of educated guesses. b. They both integrate numerous findings and observations. c. They are both types of opinions or beliefs. d. In order to be scientific, they both must be capable of being proven false. Correct: Hypotheses are specific predictions, while theories are explanations for a broad range of observations. In order to be scientific, both hypotheses and theories must be falsifiable (i.e., it must be possible to demonstrate that they are not true). Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 4 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the steps of the scientific method.

17) When a psychologist uses the term scientific theory, he or she is referring to something that a. is guaranteed to be true. b. explains a wide range of observations. c. is no more or less plausible than any other theory. d. is an educated guess.

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Correct: While nonscientists often use the word theory to describe a guess or a prediction, in science, a theory is an explanation for a broad range of observations that also generates new hypotheses and integrates numerous findings into a coherent whole. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 4 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the use of the term scientific theory.

18) Which of the following is true about scientific theories? a. All theories are equally plausible. b. The quality of a theory cannot be measured by the number of people who believe it to be true. c. Theories are the same thing as opinions or beliefs. d. A theory is only valid if it has been proven to be true. Correct: There are many misconceptions about theories. The textbook specifically addresses three common issues: theories are not the same thing as opinions or beliefs, all theories are not equally plausible, and a measure of a good theory is not the number of people who believe it to be true. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 4 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the use of the term scientific theory.

19) Lidia gives a talk at a psychology conference in which she presents her new theory about the causes of autism. At one point, an audience member interrupts and says, "But that's just your theory." What is the problem with this statement? a. A theory is not the same thing as an opinion or belief. b. If Lidia is presenting the theory at a psychology conference it must be true. c. If most of the psychologists in the audience agree with Lidia, then the theory is likely to be true.

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d. The audience member should have used the term hypothesis, not theory. Correct: Theories are not the same thing as opinions or beliefs, which is implied by the audience member's critique. The validity of a theory is measured by scientific testing, not by who believes in it or where it is presented. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 4 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze the use of the term scientific theory.

20) Dr. Preston is a psychologist studying why some people develop depression while others do not. She realizes that the reasons are probably complicated, and include factors such as genetics, brain chemistry, how individuals might experience events differently, and how family members and others influence each other. Dr. Preston's approach is an example of a. pseudoscience. b. the biopyschosocial model. c. the psychoanalytic model. d. gestalt psychology. Correct: The biopsychosocial model is a means of explaining behaviour as a product of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors. Psychologists who use the biopsychosocial model believe that many behaviours can only be fully explained by combining these multiple perspectives. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 5 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the biopsychosocial model to behaviour.

21) A perennial question for educational psychologists is, "Why do some students in a class succeed while others perform poorly?" According to the biopsychosocial model, which of the following is a possible explanation for this phenomenon? a. biological differences in brain structures and chemistry

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b. social and cultural differences among students c. cognitive, emotional, and personality differences among students d. each student's biological makeup, social and cultural background, and their cognitive abilities, emotional state, and personality combine to make them different from any other student in the class Correct: The biopsychosocial model is a means of explaining behaviour as a product of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors. Psychologists who use the biopsychosocial model believe that many behaviours can only be fully explained by combining these multiple perspectives. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 5 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the biopsychosocial model to behaviour.

22) The biopsychosocial model assumes that a. behaviour often can only be fully explained by combining multiple perspectives. b. biological factors are more important than social factors in determining behaviour. c. all living organisms form social groups, based on their physical and psychological needs. d. the simplest explanation for behaviour is usually best. Correct: The biopsychosocial model is a means of explaining behaviour as a product of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors. Psychologists who use the biopsychosocial model believe that many behaviours can only be fully explained by combining these multiple perspectives. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 5 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the biopsychosocial model to behaviour.

23) Which of the following is true about the concept of scientific literacy?

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a. Only trained scientists are considered scientifically literate. b. Scientific literacy is the ability to answer basic science questions without looking up the answers. c. A person who can understand, analyze, and apply scientific information is demonstrating scientific literacy. d. Knowledge of scientific terminology is the most important part of scientific literacy. Correct: Scientific literacy is the ability to understand, analyze, and apply scientific information. A person does not need to be an expert or a scientist to be scientifically literate, but should be able to read and interpret scientific information, or know where to go to find out more. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 6–7 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the concept of scientific literacy.

24) The ability to understand. analyze, and apply scientific information is called a. the biopsychosocial model. b. scientific literacy. c. skepticism. d. empiricism. Correct: Scientific literacy is the ability to understand, analyze, and apply scientific information. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 6 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the concept of scientific literacy.

25) Ms. Patel is a third-grade teacher. Several children in her class have been having trouble concentrating and sitting still in her class, so she finds several articles from psychology journals on hyperactivity and attention in young children. Although she is not

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a scientist, Ms. Patel is able to understand the articles and then use the information to redesign her classroom schedule to help improve attention. This is an example of a. the scientific method. b. the biopsychosocial model. c. scientific literacy. d. empiricism. Correct: Scientific literacy is the ability to understand, analyze, and apply scientific information. A person does not need to be an expert or a scientist or even use the scientific method to be scientifically literate, but should be able to read and interpret scientific information, and be able to apply it to real-world situations. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 6–7 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the concept of scientific literacy.

26) Which of the following techniques could be described as massed learning? a. Studying for a test by breaking up your lecture notes into sections and mastering each section before moving on to the next. b. Studying for a chapter test by reading through the entire chapter before going back to the beginning and starting over again. c. Studying each flash card in a large pile before starting over again. d. A football player learning the playbook by reviewing each play once before starting over again. Correct: Massed learning involves concentrating all of the studying of a single piece of information into a short period of time. In contrast, spacing spreads the studying of a single piece of information out over a longer period of time. Studying for a test by breaking up lecture notes into sections and mastering each section by itself is a form of massed learning because the studying of each section is concentrated into a short period of time. In contrast, all of the other examples involve spacing. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 7 Skill: Conceptual

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Objective: Understand the concept of scientific literacy.

27) A friend of yours has 30 Spanish vocabulary words to learn by tomorrow. Which of the following is the best way for her to use flashcards to study? a. Study each card only once. b. Divide the cards into five piles and then study each pile four times before moving on to the next pile. c. Go through the entire pile of 30 cards four times. d. Divide the cards into 10 piles and then study each pile four times before moving on to the next pile. Correct: Going through the entire pile of 30 cards four times involves spacing, because there is a relatively long period of time before each card is reviewed again. All of the other options involve massing the studying of each card into a shorter period of time, which has been demonstrated to be less effective. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 7–8 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the concept of scientific literacy.

28) Which of the following is the best conclusion to draw from the massed learning versus spacing experiment discussed in the textbook? a. Massing is better than spacing for all types of learning. b. Massing is better than spacing for studying vocabulary. c. Spacing is better than massing for all types of learning. d. Spacing is better than massing for studying vocabulary. Correct: The 2009 study discussed in the textbook showed that spacing was better than massing when studying vocabulary flashcards. The study did not, however, provide enough evidence that spacing works for all types of learning. More research would be needed to support this conclusion. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 7–8 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the concept of scientific literacy.

29) Jose reads in an article from a psychology journal that people tend to remember the first and last few items in long lists of information, but have the most trouble remembering the items in the middle. He immediately starts thinking of how he can use this information to change the way he studies the long list of vocabulary terms for his upcoming exam. Which part of the scientific literacy model does this demonstrate? a. application b. scientific explanation c. knowledge gathering d. critical thinking Correct: Scientific literacy is the ability to understand, analyze, and apply scientific information. In this example, Jose is specifically applying psychological information to his own life and a specific situation. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 7–8 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the concept of scientific literacy.

30) Caroline's best friend tells her that eating a chili pepper with each meal will increase her metabolism and help her burn more calories. "That sounds interesting," says Caroline, "but is there any evidence to back up this claim?" Caroline's question illustrates what element of critical thinking? a. the principle of parsimony b. cynicism c. tolerating ambiguity d. skepticism Correct: Skepticism involves not automatically accepting statements as fact, and instead asking to see the evidence behind it. This is not the same as being cynical or scornful of other people's beliefs.

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Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 9 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of this module. 31) Being skeptical about a claim means a. asking if there is sound evidence to support it. b. realizing that most complex issues do not have easy answers. c. not believing the claim, no matter what. d. believing the claim unless evidence to the contrary is presented. Correct: Skepticism involves not automatically excepting statements as fact, and instead asking to see the evidence behind it. This is not the same as being cynical or scornful of other people's beliefs. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 9 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of the scientific method.

32) As a critical thinker, what habit is most likely to keep you from basing your conclusions on poor research? a. examine assumptions and biases b. examine the nature and source of the evidence c. tolerate ambiguity d. avoid overly emotional thinking Correct: While all of the options are important skills, the reason critical thinkers are encouraged to examine the nature and source of evidence is specifically to avoid basing conclusions on unreliable or poor evidence. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 9 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the steps in critical thinking.

33) For a class project, Brenda read about the results of several studies investigating the causes of schizophrenia. Some of the studies seemed to indicate that schizophrenia is genetic, while others indicated that schizophrenia could be triggered by environmental factors. Eventually, Brenda had to accept that schizophrenia is a complicated disease, and that there probably is not a clear-cut reason why some people develop it. This illustrates what critical thinking habit? a. examine assumptions and biases b. examine the nature and source of the evidence c. tolerate ambiguity d. consider alternatives Correct: Tolerating ambiguity refers to the ability to accept situations where there is not a clearly defined answer. People who tolerate ambiguity recognize that most complex issues do not have clear-cut answers. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 9 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the steps in critical thinking.

34) Which of the following is true about critical thinking? a. If used properly, everyone who uses it will come to the same conclusion. b. It forces us to break persistent mental habits that almost everyone uses. c. It often requires being negative or arbitrarily critical of other people's ideas. d. It always guarantees a correct answer. Correct: Truly engaging in critical thinking can be challenging. One thing it asks us to do is break some persistent mental habits employed by nearly everyone, even the best scientists and most rational thinkers. It does not, however, guarantee a correct answer, nor is it meant to make everyone come up with the same answer. Critical thinking means respecting other viewpoints, while at the same time recognizing that some ideas can be incorrect.

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 9 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the steps in critical thinking.

35) ____________ holds that, when dealing with competing theories, the simplest one should be chosen. a. Skepticism b. Ambiguity c. The principle of parsimony d. Critical thinking Correct: Scientific and critical thinking involves the use of the principle of parsimony, which means that the simplest of all competing explanations (the most "parsimonious") of a phenomenon should be the one we accept. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 10 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of the scientific method.

36) Leonard is missing a sock. His sister suggests that a friend of his may have snuck into his room while he was sleeping and taken the sock as a practical joke; however, Leonard decides it is much more likely that the sock was simply lost when he last did the laundry. What element of critical thinking most likely influenced his decision? a. skepticism b. the principle of parsimony c. tolerance of ambiguity d. avoiding overly emotional thinking Correct: Leonard is demonstrating the principle of parsimony: the simplest of all competing explanations should be the one we accept. While both explanations for the

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missing sock are possible, Leonard's is simpler than his sister's, and should therefore be favoured. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 10 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the steps in critical thinking.

37) According to the principle of parsimony, reports of alien abduction are unlikely to be true because a. there are several other explanations that are much simpler. b. aliens do not really exist. c. eyewitness reports should never be believed. d. people who think they were abducted by aliens are clearly mentally unstable. Correct: According to the principle of parsimony: the simplest of all competing explanations should be the one we accept. Because there are several alternative explanations for reports of abductions that are simpler than the explanation that real aliens travelled to Earth, evaded detection, and secretly kidnapped people before returning them, this idea should be rejected. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 10 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the steps in critical thinking.

38) ______________ is the belief that knowledge comes through observation and experience. a. Determinism b. Parsimony c. Skepticism d. Empiricism

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Correct: Empiricism is a philosophical tenet that knowledge about the world comes from careful observation, not commonsense or speculation. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 13 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

39) A research psychologist is interested in whether children who play violent videogames display above average violent behaviour in real life. Which approach to this question could the psychologist take that would be consistent with the principles of empiricism? a. Use common sense to determine if there is a connection. b. Ask children to speculate about the connection. c. Carefully measure the type and amount of videogame play in children and observe their behaviour. d. Ask parents and teachers to speculate about the connection. Correct: Empiricism is a philosophical tenet that knowledge about the world comes from careful observation, not common sense or speculation. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 13 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze how the philosophical ideas of empiricism and determinism are applied to human behaviour.

40) Which of the following questions represents the concept of empiricism? a. Would Martin Luther King, Jr., have been a good president? b. What is the meaning of life? c. Was the Civil War necessary? d. Is there life on other planets?

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Correct: Empiricism is a philosophical tenet that knowledge about the world comes from careful observation, not commonsense or speculation. The question of life on other planets could be answered by observation (data from space probes, receiving radio signals from another planet, etc.), whereas the other questions can only be addressed by speculating. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 13 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

41) Dr. Patel is a school psychologist who has noticed that a fifth-grade student has recently begun to misbehave and fall behind academically. He decides there must be a reason for the student's sudden problems and decides to try to figure out what it is. Dr. Patel's belief that the student's behaviour is the result of some unknown cause is an example of a. determinism. b. parsimony. c. skepticism. d. empiricism. Correct: Determinism is the belief in cause-and-effect relationships, for example, if you do X, then Y will be the result. In this example, Dr. Patel assumes that the student's behaviour did not change spontaneously, and that it must be the result of one or more factors. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 13 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze how the philosophical ideas of empiricism and determinism are applied to human behaviour.

42) According to the principle of _______________, human behaviour is the result of factors that influence us is predictable ways.

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a. free will b. materialism c. determinism d. empiricism Correct: Determinism is the belief in lawful, cause-and-effect relationships. As it relates to psychology, determinism means that behaviour is determined or influenced by many factors and natural laws. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 13 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze how the philosophical ideas of empiricism and determinism are applied to human behaviour.

43) The belief that behaviour follows lawful, cause-and-effect relationships is known as a. free will. b. materialism. c. empiricism. d. determinism. Correct: Determinism is the belief in lawful, cause-and-effect relationships. As it relates to psychology, determinism means that behaviour is determined or influenced by many factors and natural laws. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 13 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

44) The concept of free will—the idea that we are in charge of our own behaviour—is often in conflict with the concept of a. empiricism.

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b. determinism. c. parsimony. d. materialism. Correct: Determinism is the belief in lawful, cause-and-effect relationships. The debate about whether we are in charge of our own behaviour or whether human behaviour is determined is often referred to as free will vs. determinism. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 13 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze how the philosophical ideas of empiricism and determinism are applied to human behaviour.

45) Psychological science is a. both empirical and deterministic. b. empirical but not deterministic. c. deterministic but not empirical. d. neither empirical nor deterministic. Correct: Psychological science is both empirical and deterministic. Our understanding of behaviour comes from observing what we can see and measure, and behaviour is caused by a multitude of factors. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 13 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze how the philosophical ideas of empiricism and determinism are applied to human behaviour.

46) Psychology has been a science since a. around 470 BCE. b. the early 1600s.

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c. the late 1800s. d. the mid 1900s. Correct: Although the scientific method started to take hold around 1600, psychology didn't become a science until the late 1800s due to zeitgeist. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 14 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

47) During the Victorian period in Europe, sexuality of any kind was considered taboo. Today of course, most adults are more open about their sexuality. This is an example of how the ____________ of different periods can affect the way people behave and think. a. psychophysics b. zeitgeist c. dualism d. materialism Correct: Zeitgeist refers to a general set of beliefs of a particular culture at a specific time in history. In this example, the zeitgeist of Victorian Europe was extremely conservative about sex, which greatly affected the way people thought about the body and relationships between the sexes. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 14 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

48) In a given culture, certain periods of its history are dominated by a general set of beliefs and attitudes known as a. zeitgeist. b. metaperspective.

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c. parsimony. d. gestalt. Correct: Zeitgeist refers to a general set of beliefs of a particular culture at a specific time in history. For example, the zeitgeist of Victorian Europe was extremely conservative about sex. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 14 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

49) According to the authors of the textbook, what is a key reason why psychology took almost 300 years longer than physics, biology, and chemistry to become scientific? a. Early scientific methodology was too primitive to use to study the mind. b. Laws were passed in the 1600s that made studying the mind illegal. c. Few people were interested in the mind and behaviour prior to the 20th century. d. The zeitgeist of the 1600s prevented people from believing that science could be applied to the study of the mind. Correct: The power of zeitgeist can be very strong and there are several ways it prevented psychological science from emerging in the 1600s. Perhaps most important is that people were not ready to accept a science that could be applied to minds. To the average person of the 1600s, viewing human behaviour as the result of predictable physical laws was troubling. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 14 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

50) According to the authors of the textbook, scholars in the 1600s did not apply scientific methodology to the study of the mind and human behaviour because of what belief? Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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a. that scientific methodology did not work b. that science needed more time to develop c. that humans were not just physical machines, and could not be studied using science d. that it was a religious sin to try to understand the nature of the mind Correct: A likely reason why the science of psychology did not develop in the 1600s is that people were not ready to accept a science that could be applied to minds. To the average person then, viewing human behaviour as the result of predictable physical laws was troubling. Doing so would seem to imply the philosophy of materialism: the belief that humans, and other living beings, are comprised exclusively of physical matter. This would mean that we are nothing more than complex machines that lack a self-conscious, self-controlling soul. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 14 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

51) The belief that the mind or soul is separate from the physical body is known as ____________, whereas the belief that humans are completely physical beings is called _____________. a. determinism; empiricism b. empiricism; determinism c. dualism; materialism d. materialism; dualism Correct: Dualism refers to the belief that the mind or soul is not part of the material body. In contrast, materialism is the belief that humans are entirely made of physical matter, including our conscious minds. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 14 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

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52) The philosopher and mathematician René Descartes famously believed that the mind was not made of physical matter, and could exist outside of the body. Descartes' belief in the relationship between mind and body could be described as a. determinism. b. empiricism. c. materialism. d. dualism. Correct: Dualism refers to the belief that the mind or soul is not part of the material body. In contrast, materialism is the belief that humans are entirely made of physical matter, including our conscious minds. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 14 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

53) How did physiologists and physicists, like Gustav Fechner, contribute to the development of psychology as a science? a. They studied the relationship between the physical world and mental representation of that world. b. They demonstrated that the brain was responsible for consciousness. c. They identified the locations of specific functions within the brain. d. They extended Darwin's theory of evolution to behaviour and cognitive abilities. Correct: Fechner researched psychophysics, which is the study of the relationship between the physical world and the mental representation of that world. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 14 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

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54) Brenda is a participant in an experiment. She is told to watch a series of lights and to identify which one is the brightest. It is likely that Brenda is participating in a(n) ________________ experiment. a. psychophysics b. anthropometric c. phrenology d. eugenics Correct: Psychophysics is the study of the relationship between the physical world and the mental representation of that world. In this example, the experimenters appear to be studying how different physical stimuli (the lights) are perceived. The experiment is unlikely to involve anthropometry or phrenology, which both involve relating physical features to psychological characteristics, or eugenics, which is the discredited belief in the genetic superiority of some individuals. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 14 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

55) Psychophysics is the study of a. how the mind controls the body. b. the relationship between the physical world and the mental representation of that world. c. the relationship between mental abilities and bumps on the head. d. how information is stored in the brain. Correct: Psychophysics is the study of the relationship between the physical world and the mental representation of that world. It involves determining how physical stimuli (e.g., light, sound, pressure) are detected and represented by the nervous system. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 14 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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56) Which of the following is true regarding Darwin's theory of evolution? a. It applies to physical characteristics, but not to behaviour. b. It applies to behaviour, but not to physical characteristics. c. It applies to physical characteristics as well as to behaviours. d. It was discredited along with Francis Galton's concept of eugenics. Correct: Charles Darwin recognized that natural selection could shape behaviour as well as physical characteristics. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 16 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

57) Who proposed that emotions and other behaviours were the result of natural selection? a. Spurzheim b. Wernicke c. Freud d. Darwin Correct: Charles Darwin recognized that natural selection could shape behaviour as well as physical characteristics. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 16 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

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58) Suppose a small number of geese are born with a genetic mutation that makes them spend more time caring for their eggs. As a result, more chicks hatch from these eggs that then survive to reproduce themselves. According to the principle of natural selection, which of the following would be the likely result? a. Other genetic mutations would start occurring at a faster rate. b. The genetically inherited behaviour would become more common after many generations. c. The genetically inherited behaviour would become less common after many generations. d. The rate of genetic mutations would slow drastically. Correct: Charles Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection states that genetically inherited traits that contribute to survival and reproductive success are more likely to flourish within the breeding population. In this example, the genetically inherited trait improves the chance of survival for the chicks, many of which will inherit the gene from their parent. Therefore, the trait will become more common over time. This process generally does not affect the rate of genetic mutations. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 16 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

59) How would Charles Darwin likely explain maternal aggression when something or someone threatens a mother's children? a. Young girls learn to protect their children by watching their mothers. b. Maternal aggression is an inherited trait that is selected for because it contributes to the survival of the offspring. c. Mothers are rewarded for being protective of their children. d. Mothers learn to be protective of their children through trial and error. Correct: Charles Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection states that genetically inherited traits that contribute to survival and reproductive success are more likely to flourish within the breeding population. In this example, maternal aggression improves the chance of survival for the child, who may have inherited the trait from the mother. Therefore, the trait will become more common over time. Answer: b Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 16 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

60) "Brain localization" refers to the idea that a. the brain is wired for the spatial mapping of our surroundings. b. neurons in the brain only communicate with nearby neurons. c. the brain, and not the heart, is the seat of the human consciousness. d. certain parts of the brain control specific mental abilities and personality characteristics. Correct: Brain localization is the idea that specific brain regions are associated with specific functions. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 16 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

61) Which two physicians developed phrenology? a. Gall and Spurzheim b. Broca and Wernicke c. Mesmer and Freud d. Galton and Wundt Correct: Franz Gall and Johann Spurzheim developed the now discredited theory of phrenology. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 16–17 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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62) Which of the following is true regarding phrenology? a. It is still used by forensic psychologists. b. It was an early approach to brain localization. c. It was developed by Karl Wernicke and Paul Broca. d. It was developed in the 1950'. Correct: Phrenology, which is the study of how raised features on the surface of the skull correspond to mental traits, was developed primarily by Franz Gall and Johann Spurzheim in the mid-1800s. Although considered a pseudoscience today, phrenology is still notable as an early approach to the localization of specific abilities within the brain. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 16–17 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

63) Kelly notices a bump on the side of Roger's head and points it out to him. He replies, "That means I'm a passionate person!" Roger's joke is based on the theory of a. phrenology. b. eugenics. c. parsimony. d. psychophysics. Correct: Phrenology is the study of how raised features on the surface of the skull correspond to mental traits. Roger's comment is clearly a joke, because phrenology was discredited long ago. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 16–17 Skill: Applied Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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64) Which early approach to brain localization was used by physicians like Paul Broca, and was more scientific than phrenology? a. using electricity to stimulate different brain regions b. surgically removing brain regions c. studying the behaviour of patients who had experienced brain injuries d. studying the shape and size of the human skull Correct: An early approach to studying brain localization was to study how specific brain injuries, such as strokes, affected behaviour. Paul Broca famously discovered that patients with damage to a specific brain region lost the ability to speak. He therefore concluded that language production was located in that region, which is known as Broca's area. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 17 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

65) Which two doctors were able to identify important language centres in the brain by studying their patients? a. Gall and Spurzheim b. Broca and Wernicke c. Mesmer and Freud d. Galton and Wundt Correct: Paul Broca and Karl Wernicke are well known for discovering brain regions that, when damaged, lead to difficulty speaking (Broca's area) and understanding (Wernicke's area) language. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 17

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66) Who developed a now discredited medical treatment using magnets, and contributed to the development of hypnosis? a. Galton b. Wernicke c. Mesmer d. Freud Correct: Franz Mesmer, an 18th-century Austrian physician practising in Paris, believed that prolonged exposure to magnets could redirect the flow of metallic fluids in the body, thereby curing disease and insanity. Mesmer was able to put his patients into a trancelike state that became known as hypnosis. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 17 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

67) How did Franz Mesmer influence the early development of psychology? a. He developed the concept of brain localization. b. He discovered a brain region responsible for language. c. He developed psychoanalysis. d. He contributed to the development of hypnosis, which Freud began to use to treat his patients. Correct: Franz Mesmer was able to put his patients into a trancelike state that became known as hypnosis. This caught the attention of an Austrian physician named Sigmund Freud, who began to use hypnosis to treat his own patients. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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68) The belief that the unconscious mind has an influence on one's behaviour is part of what early approach to psychology? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. psychoanalysis d. behaviourism Correct: Developed by Sigmund Freud, psychoanalysis is a psychological approach that attempts to explain how behaviour and personality are influenced by unconscious processes. Structuralism, functionalism, and behaviourism do not share this focus on the unconscious mind. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 17–18 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

69) What did Sigmund Freud consider as the key to understanding the psychosomatic conditions he observed? a. free will b. brain physiology c. the unconscious mind d. external consequences Correct: Freud's work with his patients led him to conclude that their disorders were the result of unconscious thoughts, memories, and urges. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 17–18 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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70) Which treatment approach did Sigmund Freud develop for treating his patients? a. drug therapy b. neuropsychology c. clinical psychology d. psychoanalysis Correct: Freud's work with his patients led him to conclude that their disorders were the result of unconscious thoughts, memories, and urges, and not physical ailments. This led Freud to develop his famous approach called psychoanalysis. Although psychoanalysis and clinical psychology are sometimes superficially similar, the field of clinical psychology was not developed until later. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 17–18 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

71) Freud stressed the importance of a. early life experiences. b. adolescence. c. early adulthood. d. middle adulthood. Correct: Freud placed great emphasis on how early life experiences influence our behaviour as adults. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 18

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72) One of the lasting legacies of Freud's theories is the _____________ approach to scientific psychology. a. biological b. behavioural c. social d. medical model Correct: The use of medical ideas to treat disorders of emotions, thought, and behaviour, an approach known as the medical model, can be traced to Freud's influence. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 18 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

73) The question of nature and nurture relationships centres on how ____________ (nature) and ____________ (nurture) influence behaviour and mental processes. a. environment; heredity b. heredity; environment c. emotion; logic d. logic; emotion Correct: The terms nature and nurture are used as shorthand when discussing the relative roles of heredity (nature) and environment (nurture) in determining specific traits. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 18

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74) Which of the following would be most difficult for Francis Galton to explain with his theories? a. Close family relatives often have similar traits. b. Sometimes children from very humble families become very successful. c. Successful parents often have successful children. d. In the United States, Whites are, on average, more successful than non-Whites. Correct: Galton believed that heredity (genetics) explained psychological differences among people. The idea of hereditary psychology fit Galton's beliefs about social class, specifically that the reason why some people, races, and families were more successful than others was because they had "better" genes. The idea that a child from humble beginnings—and therefore bad genes—could become successful conflicts with Galton's beliefs. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 18 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

75) Which of the following is true regarding the legacy of Francis Galton? a. Although his ideas have been discredited, his use of statistical methods to measure and study behaviour has had a lasting impact on scientific psychology. b. While many of his ideas are still considered valid, Galton failed to use scientific methodology. c. Both his ideas and methodology are still considered valid today. d. Although important in his time, Galton had almost no lasting impact on scientific psychology. Correct: Galton's excessive focus on the role of genetics in determining behaviour and his belief in the genetic superiority of some individuals are no longer accepted by mainstream psychologists. However, Galton's use of statistical methods to measure and study behaviour and mental processes has had a lasting impact on how psychological research is conducted. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 18 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

76) Which individual is usually credited with establishing the first scientific psychological laboratory? a. Sigmund Freud b. William James c. John Watson d. Wilhelm Wundt Correct: Most contemporary psychologists have agreed that Wilhelm Wundt established the first laboratory dedicated to studying human behaviour and was responsible for establishing psychology as an independent field of science. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 20 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

77) Wilhelm Wundt is best known for a. establishing the first psychology laboratory in Leipzig, Germany. b. writing books on ethics and logic. c. establishing phrenology as a science. d. training doctors to treat mental illness. Correct: Most contemporary psychologists have agreed that Wilhelm Wundt established the first laboratory dedicated to studying human behaviour, and was responsible for establishing psychology as an independent field of science.

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Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 20 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

78) Introspection requires a. metaphysical experiences. b. self-skepticism about experiences. c. empiricism. d. examining one's own perceptions and thoughts. Correct: Introspection means to "look within," or to examine one's own perceptions and thoughts. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 20 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

79) The school of psychology called structuralism used a technique called ___________, which involved reporting the contents of consciousness to study a person's experiences. a. intervention b. introspection c. insight inventory d. induction Correct: Introspection means to "look within," or to examine one's own perceptions and thoughts. William Wundt had his subjects use introspection to perform his research, which was continued by Edward Titchener and developed into structuralism. Answer: b

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Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 20 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

80) At the close of the nineteenth century, Gerhard is excited to find that he has been accepted for training in the psychology laboratory of Wilhelm Wundt. It is likely that Gerhard will be trained to a. analyze how to break down his sensations into their most basic elements. b. determine the function or purpose of a particular human behaviour. c. listen intently while individuals tell him of their depression or nervousness. d. carefully feel the bumps on a person's head in order to determine his or her character traits. Correct: Wundt believed that basic sensations are the "atoms" of more complicated experiences, an idea that later became known as structuralism. Structuralism was an attempt to analyze conscious experience by breaking it down into basic elements, and to understand how these elements work together. This is in contrast to functionalism, which attempted to determine the function or purpose of behaviours. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 20 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

81) Why was the perspective followed by Wilhelm Wundt and his followers called structuralism? a. They wanted to identify the major brain structures. b. Their primary goal was to understand the physiology of the mind. c. They focused their efforts on analyzing the elements of the nervous system. d. Their primary focus was on describing the structure of conscious experience. Correct: Structuralism was an attempt to analyze conscious experience by breaking it down into basic elements, and to understand how these elements work together. In this Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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context, "structure" refers to the way in which conscious experiences were believed to be composed of basic elements, similar to how molecules are composed of atoms. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 20 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

82) Which school of thought in psychology tried to identify the basic elements of sensations, images, and feelings? a. structuralism b. phrenology c. functionalism d. psychoanalysis Correct: Structuralism was an attempt to analyze conscious experience by breaking it down into basic elements, and to understand how these elements work together. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 20 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

83) A person is asked to break down all the different components of taste when biting into an orange. This type of research would be typical in which of the following schools of psychology? a. psychoanalysis b. functionalism c. behaviourism d. structuralism

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Correct: Using introspection to break down all the different components of a perception such as taste was the approach of structuralism. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 20 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

84) In America, Wilhelm Wundt's ideas were popularized by one of his students, _______________, who gave Wundt's approach the name "structuralism." a. Sigmund Freud b. John Watson c. William James d. Edward Titchener Correct: Wundt's ideas made their way to the U.S. through students who worked with him. One student, Edward Titchener, adopted the same method of introspection used by Wundt to devise an organized map of the structure of human consciousness. He called the approach structuralism. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 20 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

85) What early American psychologist yearned to create a periodic table of the elements of consciousness? a. Sigmund Freud b. William James c. B. F. Skinner

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d. Edward Titchener Correct: The only proponent of structuralism listed is Edward Titchener. Structuralists like Titchener believed that mental experiences were made up of a limited number of sensations, which were analogous to elements in physics and chemistry. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 20 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

86) Who was an early proponent of functionalism? a. Ivan Pavlov b. William James c. Wilhelm Wundt d. Max Wertheimer Correct: Influenced by Charles Darwin, William James developed functionalism, the study of the purpose and function of behaviour and conscious experience. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 21 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

87) How behaviours and mental processes help us adapt to the environment is a question addressed by which early movement of psychology? a. behaviourism b. cognitism c. functionalism d. structuralism

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Correct: Influenced by Charles Darwin, William James developed functionalism, the study of the purpose and function of behaviour and conscious experience. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 21 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

88) Which school of thought in psychology was heavily influenced by the evolutionary theories of Charles Darwin? a. phrenology b. structuralism c. functionalism d. psychoanalysis Correct: Influenced by Charles Darwin, William James developed functionalism, the study of the purpose and function of behaviour and conscious experience. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 21 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

89) Patricia believes that the purpose of jealousy in men is to prevent their mates from becoming impregnated by other men. The reason why it is so common, she argues, is that this is a very adaptive behaviour from an evolutionary perspective. Patricia's approach to jealousy is an example of a. structuralism. b. functionalism. c. empiricism. d. behaviourism. Correct: Functionalism is the study of the purpose and function of behaviour and conscious experience. In this example, Patricia is arguing that the "function" of male Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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jealousy is to avoid raising the offspring of another male. William James, who developed functionalism, was greatly influenced by Darwin's theory of evolution. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 21 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

90) Suppose you were one of the early graduate students in the newly developed field of psychology. Your mentor is interested in discovering the answers to questions like, ”Why is the ability to forget helpful?” and ”How do emotions assist us in social situations?” Your mentor's approach is most consistent with the ___________ perspective. a. behaviourist b. functionalist c. psychoanalytic d. structuralist Correct: Functionalism is the study of the purpose and function of behaviour and conscious experience. In this example, both questions centre on how specific behaviours and mental processes are adaptive, in other words, "What is their function?" Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 21 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

91) John Watson believed that psychology should involve the study of a. behaviour. b. the mind. c. the brain. d. consciousness. Correct: John Watson argued that only changes in the environment and behaviour can be observed and measured, and that the mind and consciousness cannot be studied Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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scientifically. While Watson's approach did not exclude studying the physical brain from the field of psychology, Watson believed that psychology should fundamentally be the study of behaviour. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 21–22 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

92) Which school of psychology questioned whether psychologists should study mental processes? a. psychoanalysis b. behaviourism c. Gestalt psychology d. humanism Correct: Proponents of behaviourism—like John Watson—argued that only changes in the environment and behaviour can be observed and measured, and that mental events and processes cannot be studied scientifically. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 21–22 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

93) What advice might John B. Watson have offered to psychologists of his time? a. "Focus on observable behaviour." b. "Life is an effort to overcome inferiority." c. "We cannot know others until we know ourselves." d. "Remember that what we accomplish is due to the composition of our genes."

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Correct: Proponents of behaviourism—like John Watson—argued that only changes in the environment and behaviour can be observed and measured, and that mental events and processes cannot be studied scientifically. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 21–22 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

94) Suppose you were a graduate student studying for a Ph.D. in psychology in the 1920s. Your advisor was strongly influenced by John B. Watson. Which of the following might your advisor consider an acceptable choice for your research? a. a survey of daydreams b. an analysis of how specific behaviours are acquired c. a survey of sexual imagery in dreams of men and women d. an analysis of the thought processes students report while answering test items Correct: Proponents behaviourism—like John Watson—argued that only changes in the environment and behaviour can be observed and measured, and that mental events and processes cannot be studied scientifically. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 21–22 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

95) Which founding contributors to psychology helped develop behaviourism? a. Gestalt and Wundt b. Freud and Watson c. Watson and Pavlov d. Pavlov and Wundt

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Correct: The Russian physiologist Ivan Pavlov contributed to the discovery of classical conditioning, which became central to behaviourism. John Watson popularized behaviourism in the United States. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 21–22 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

96) B. F. Skinner is most associated with which perspective? a. behaviourism b. cognitivism c. functionalism d. psychoanalysis Correct: Like John Watson before him, B.F. Skinner was also a behaviourist and had considerable influence over American psychology for several decades. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 22 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

97) Humanism developed, in part, as a reaction against which two perspectives? a. the cognitive and learning perspectives b. the behaviourist and psychoanalytic perspectives c. the sociocultural and cognitive perspectives d. the biological and behaviourist perspectives Correct: Prior to the development of humanistic psychology in the 1950s, the behaviourist and psychoanalytic perspectives left little room for the concept of free will

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in psychology. In contrast, humanistic psychology focuses on the unique aspects of each individual human and their freedom to act. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 22 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

98) You attend a lecture by a psychologist who uses terms such as free will and life's meaning. Which psychological perspective is most consistent with the points the psychologist presented? a. behaviourism b. humanism c. functionalism d. psychodynamics Correct: Humanistic psychology focuses on the unique aspects of each individual human, their freedom to act (i.e., free will), their rational thought, and the belief that humans are fundamentally different from other animals. Humanistic psychologists generally seek to understand the meaning of personal experience. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 22–23 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

99) Early leaders in __________________ believed that people are generally motivated to personally grow and fulfill their potential. a. behaviourism b. cognitive psychology c. functionalism

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d. humanistic psychology Correct: Humanistic psychology focuses on the unique aspects of each individual human, their freedom to act (i.e., free will), their rational thought, and the belief that humans are fundamentally different from other animals. Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow, two major figures of humanistic psychology, believed that humans strive to develop a sense of self and are motivated to personally grow and fulfill their potential. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 22–23 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

100) Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow were two major figures in the development of which psychological perspective? a. humanistic psychology b. functionalism c. cognitive psychology d. behaviourism Correct: Among the many major figures of humanistic psychology were Carl Rogers (1902–1987) and Abraham Maslow (1908–1970). Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 22–23 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

101) Memory researchers like Herman Ebbinghaus and Frederick Bartlett contributed to the beginning of the ____________ perspective. a. humanistic b. psychoanalytic

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c. cognitive d. behaviourist Correct: Unlike the behaviourists, Herman Ebbinghaus and Frederick Bartlett believed that mental processes like memory could be studied scientifically. Their work, and the work of other European psychologists studying the mind, marked the beginning of cognitive psychology. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 24–25 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

102) The origins of the cognitive perspective can be traced back to a handful of European psychologists who were studying a. memory. b. behaviour. c. computers. d. language. Correct: The European focus on thought flourished through the early 1900s, long before psychologists in the U.S. began to take seriously the idea that they could study the mind, even if they could not see it. Thus, it was the work of European psychologists that formed the basis of the cognitive perspective. Early evidence of an emerging cognitive perspective concerned the study of memory, and included the work of Herman Ebbinghaus and Frederick Bartlett. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 24–25 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

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103) The early perspective called gestalt psychology has evolved into the current perspective called a. psychoanalysis. b. cognitive psychology. c. behavioural psychology. d. social psychology. Correct: Gestalt psychology was a precursor to cognitive psychology. Gestalt psychology emphasized that psychologists need to focus on the whole of the perception and experience, rather than its parts. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 25 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology.

104) "The whole is greater than the sum of the parts" is a statement that can be associated with the perspective of a. introspection. b. functionalism. c. psychoanalysis. d. gestalt psychology. Correct: Gestalt psychology was a precursor to cognitive psychology. Gestalt psychology emphasized that psychologists need to focus on the whole of the perception and experience, rather than its parts. In other words, the whole of a perceptual experience cannot be understood by simply examining individual elements or parts. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 25 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

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105) Professor Ashmore approaches questions about human behaviour from a perspective that emphasizes how people reason, remember, and understand language. It is most likely that she accepts the _____________ perspective. a. biological b. behavioural c. cognitive d. sociocultural Correct: Cognitive psychology is a modern psychological perspective that focuses on processes such as memory, thinking, and language. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 25 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

106) ______________ psychologists are generally interested in how the behaviour of individuals can be influenced by other people. a. Social b. Gestalt c. Behavioural d. Humanistic Correct: Social psychologists are particularly interested in how the presence of other people influences behaviour. This is not a central theme of the other options listed. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 25 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology.

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107) Kurt Lewin is often cited as the founder of which perspective? a. social psychology b. cognitive psychology c. behaviourism d. humanistic psychology Correct: Although social psychology was born out of collaboration, Kurt Lewin is often cited as the founder of modern social psychology. Trained as a gestalt psychologist, Lewin shifted his attention to focus on race relations in the United States. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 26 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology.

108) A central theme in social psychology is that a. human behaviour can be best understood by studying individuals out of context. b. behaviour is a function of both the individual and the environment they are in. c. social situations generally have the same effect on everyone. d. individuals act similarly, no matter what context they are placed in. Correct: Kurt Lewin, the founder of modern social psychology, concluded that behaviour is a function of the individual and the environment. This means that behaviour is the result of an interaction between the individual and the social context they are in. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 26 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology.

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109) Dr. Barnouti has a Ph.D. in psychology and works for the military. His goal is to find a way to keep soldiers alert and focused during long missions where they get little to no sleep. Dr. Barnouti would best be described as a _________ psychologist. a. basic b. research c. forensic d. academic Correct: Research psychologists typically work at universities, corporations, in the military, and in governmental agencies. Many psychologists working in these different settings focus on applying basic principles of psychology to real-world settings. Dr. Barnouti's research would not be described as basic, because its goal is to solve a specific problem (i.e., sleep deprivation in soldiers). He also would not be considered an academic psychologist because he does not work at a university or college, nor a forensic psychologist because he does not deal with issues involving the law. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify the job title of psychologists based on their work.

110) The goal of ______________ is to use psychological knowledge to address problems and issues across various settings and professions, including law, education, clinical psychology, and business organization and management. a. basic psychology b. industrial and organizational psychology c. forensic psychology d. applied psychology Correct: Applied psychology uses psychological knowledge to address specific problems. In contrast, the goal of basic psychology is to acquire knowledge, not to solve specific problems. While I/O and forensic psychology are types of applied psychology, I/O psychologists work specifically with companies and other organizations, while forensic psychologists work specifically with issues involving the law. Answer: d Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of psychological professions.

111) Dr. Fernwood is a research psychologist. The main focus of her research is to use psychological knowledge to find ways to reduce bullying in schools. Dr. Fernwood's research could be described as ____________ psychology. a. basic b. forensic c. applied d. I/O Correct: Applied psychology uses psychological knowledge to address specific problems, such as school bullying. In contrast, the goal of basic psychology is to acquire knowledge, not to solve specific problems. While I/O and forensic psychology are types of applied psychology, psychologists in these fields would be unlikely to study school bullying. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of psychological professions.

112) No matter what they specialize in, psychologists who teach and/or conduct research at universities can be referred to as ______________ psychologists. a. academic b. school c. forensic d. clinical Correct: Academic psychologists work at colleges and universities and most combine teaching with conducting research, although some do only one or the other. Answer: a Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of psychological professions.

113) Which of the following is true about psychiatrists and clinical psychologists? a. Psychiatrists have Psy.D. degrees while clinical psychologists typically have a Ph.D. b. Psychiatrists have Ph.D. degrees while clinical psychologists typically have a only a Master's degree. c. Psychiatrists have Ph.D. degrees while clinical psychologists typically have a Psy.D. d. Psychiatrists have medical degrees while clinical psychologists typically have a Ph.D. or Psy.D. Correct: Psychiatry is a branch of medicine and is practiced by physicians with medical degrees. Some states allow clinical psychologists to work with a master's degree, but many clinical psychologists have either a Ph.D. or a Psy.D. degree. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the distinctions among mental health professions in their approaches and educational requirements.

114) What is one similarity shared by clinical psychologists and psychiatrists? a. They obtain the same graduate education. b. They have the same training experiences after college. c. They view abnormal behaviours as arising from the same causes. d. They diagnose and treat people experiencing psychological disorders. Correct: Both clinical psychologists and psychiatrists diagnosis and treat individuals with mental and behavioural disorders. However, unlike clinical psychologists, psychiatrists are physicians with medical degrees and different training. As a result, the two types of mental health professionals tend to view the causes and treatment of abnormal behaviour differently. Answer: d Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the distinctions among mental health professions in their approaches and educational requirements.

115) In general, _________________ are more likely to prescribe drugs when treating mental health concerns and problems, while _________________ are more likely to emphasize psychological approaches such as talk therapy. a. social workers; psychiatrists b. psychiatrists; clinical psychologists c. clinical psychologists; psychiatrists d. social workers; clinical psychologists Correct: As physicians, psychiatrists are likely to prescribe drugs such as antidepressants. Clinical and counselling psychologists are more likely to emphasize different approaches like talking therapies to treat mental health concerns and disorders. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the distinctions among mental health professions in their approaches and educational requirements.

116) A friend of yours is interested in getting a graduate degree and eventually becoming a clinical psychologist. She wants her education to focus almost exclusively on the practice of clinical psychology, and to include very little research or scientific training. Which type of graduate degree programs should she apply to? a. Ph.D. b. Psy.D. c. M.D. d. Ed.D.

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Correct: Clinical psychologists typically have a Doctor of Philosophy (Ph.D.) or a Doctor of Psychology Psy.D. degree. Unlike the Ph.D., which combines science and practice, the Psy.D. degree focuses almost exclusively on the practice of psychology. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the distinctions among mental health professions in their approaches and educational requirements.

117) Nico is meeting with his academic adviser. He wishes to pursue a career where he'll work to diagnose and treat mental disorders. Nico aspires to be a(n) a. clinical psychologist. b. experimental psychologist. c. forensic psychologist. d. school psychologist. Correct: Clinical psychology is the field of psychology that concentrates on the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders. The other types of psychologists listed do not typically diagnose or treat mental disorders. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify the job title of psychologists based on their work.

118) Because ______________ is a branch of medicine, it is usually practiced by a medical doctor (M.D.). a. psychiatry b. clinical psychology c. social work d. forensic psychology

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Correct: Unlike clinical psychology, which is usually practised by someone with a Ph.D. or a Psy.D., psychiatrists are physicians (M.D.s). Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the distinctions among mental health professions in their approaches and educational requirements.

119) Vido has a Master's degree and has been studying how family dynamics and a person's socioeconomic situation can affect wellbeing and mental health. What type of professional is Vido most likely to become? a. human factors psychologist b. psychiatrist c. school psychologist d. social worker Correct: Social workers are likely to emphasize the social context of the individuals in treatment, such as the family's dynamics, socio-economic status, and community. Unlike many other jobs in psychology, which typically require a doctorate, social workers usually have a Master's in Social Work (MSW). Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the distinctions among mental health professions in their approaches and educational requirements.

120) A __________ works in prisons, trains and evaluates police officers, assists with jury selection, and evaluates whether defendants are able to stand trial. a. clinical psychologist b. school psychologist c. I/O psychologist

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d. forensic psychologist Correct: Forensic psychology encompasses work in the criminal justice system, including interactions with the legal system and its professionals. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify the job title of psychologists based on their work.

121) Which of the following is a forensic psychologist most likely to do? a. train and evaluate police officers b. profile criminals c. help detectives investigate a crime d. read the body language of suspects Correct: In contrast to the way it is usually portrayed on TV and in movies, few forensic psychologists are involved in criminal profiling or investigation. You would more likely see forensic psychologists working in prisons, training and evaluating police officers, or assisting with jury selections and evaluating whether defendants are able to stand trial. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the various professional settings occupied by psychologists.

122) What two things do most members of the helping profession (i.e., mental health professionals) have in common? a. They have graduate degrees and focus on improving the life of the patient and/or his/her family. b. They perform research and work at universities. c. They have a Ph.D. and a federal certificate to practise psychotherapy.

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d. They can prescribe medication and have people committed to psychiatric hospitals. Correct: Most of the helping professions have two things in common: (1) graduate degrees and (2) a focus on helping improve quality of life. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the various professional settings occupied by psychologists.

123) ________________ psychology involves work with students with special needs, such as emotional, social, or academic problems. a. Forensic b. Academic c. Clinical d. School Correct: School psychologists work with teachers, parents, and counsellors to address ways to change troubling or disruptive behaviour, or a cognitive disability that interferes with learning, such as dyslexia. School psychologists may spend a lot of time observing a child's behaviour or administering special psychological tests to identify learning disabilities. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the various professional settings occupied by psychologists.

124) Which of the following is true about school psychologists? a. They only work with students who have moderate to severe cognitive disabilities. b. They typically spend most of their time doing experimental research. c. Most school psychologists have only a Bachelor's degree. d. They usually work in coordination with teachers, parents, and counsellors.

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Correct: School psychologists rarely work alone; instead, they are more often part of students' educational teams, which include their parents, teachers, and counsellors. In addition to working with students with cognitive disabilities, they also work with students with behavioural and/or social problems. Like most psychological health professionals, most school psychologists are required to have a graduate degree. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the various professional settings occupied by psychologists.

125) A central concept behind the field of health psychology is that a. psychologists should treat the body before they treat the mind. b. certain behaviours and psychological traits can have a detrimental effect on your health. c. mental health problems are the result of untreated physical ailments. d. psychologists should treat patients in the same way physicians treat physical disease. Correct: Health psychology (or behavioural medicine) is the study of how individual, biological, and environmental factors affect physical health. This field deals with the behaviours and personality traits that put people at risk and that, when combined with an unfortunate genetic heritage or infection, lead to disease. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the various professional settings occupied by psychologists.

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Correct: Industrial/organizational (I/O psychology) is a branch of applied psychology in which psychologists work for businesses and other organizations to improve employee productivity and the organizational structure of the company or business. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the various professional settings occupied by psychologists.

127) As cellphones, cameras, music players, and other devices become more complicated, a major problem companies face is how to design the controls and menus so that they are easy and intuitive to operate. What area of psychology specializes in solving this and similar problems? a. forensic b. clinical c. human factors d. academic Correct: Human factors psychology is the study of how people interact with tools, physical spaces, or products. One job of human factors psychologists is to study humancomputer interaction to develop user-friendly software and other products. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify the job title of psychologists based on their work.

128) Which of the following is an environmental psychologist most likely to do? a. redesign an office to encourage communication between employees b. study how global warming is affecting the behaviour of chimpanzees in the wild c. help clients get in touch with nature d. develop ways to encourage recycling Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Correct: Environmental psychologists study factors that improve working and living conditions by studying how the environment affects individuals or groups. Results from this type of research may be used in the design of working and living spaces to foster communication, to reduce distractions, and to prevent or reduce strain, stress, and fatigue. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 1.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the various professional settings occupied by psychologists.

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1) Good scientific research is based on measurements that are objective, valid, and reliable. a. True b. False Correct: Objective measurements are the foundation of the scientific method. In addition to objectivity, measurements should be valid (actually measure what they are supposed to measure), and reliable (provide consistent answers if remeasured). Answer: a Page Reference: 32 2) If someone takes an intelligence test several times and receives the same score, the test has high validity. a. True b. False Correct: The test in the example has reliability, but not necessarily validity. Validity is the degree to which an instrument or procedure actually measures what it claims to measure. If the score the person keeps receiving does not reflect his or her actual intelligence, then the test has low validity. Answer: b Page Reference: 32–34 3) Using random sampling increases the likelihood that the results from studying a sample will generalize to the population. a. True b. False Correct: In order for a sample to generalize to a population, psychologists prefer to use random sampling whenever possible. Answer: a Page Reference: 35 4) In a double-blind experiment, neither the participant nor the researcher knows which treatment group the participant is in. a. True b. False Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: a Page Reference: 39

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5) Once the results of a study have been peer reviewed and published they are considered accurate, even if other researchers cannot replicate them. a. True b. False Correct: Replicating studies is an important component of the scientific method and helps to identify and correct flawed research. Results that cannot be replicated are eventually abandoned. Answer: b Page Reference: 40 6) Surveys and questionnaires are used to collect self-report data. a. True b. False Correct: Surveys and questionnaires come in many different forms, but all of them rely on participants to speak for themselves and make their own observations. Answer: a Page Reference: 48 7) A correlation of –.80 is a stronger relationship than a correlation of +.50. a. True b. False Correct: The closer the absolute value of a correlation coefficient is to 1.0, the stronger the relationship. The positive and negative signs indicate the direction of the correlation, not its strength. Answer: a Page Reference: 50 8) If a group of researchers find that the number of books fifth grade students read is positively correlated with their scores on an intelligence test, it would be correct to conclude that having children read more increases their intelligence. a. True b. False Correct: Correlation is not a measure of causality. Being intelligent might cause children to read more, or a third variable like parenting style might affect both intelligence and reading. Answer: b Page Reference: 49–50

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9) Pedro designs an experiment to test whether drinking a protein shake after weightlifting increases muscle development. The independent variable in his experiment is the protein shake. a. True b. False Correct: The independent variable is the variable that the experimenter manipulates to distinguish between the groups. In this experiment, one group of participants would receive the protein drink while the other would not. Pedro would then measure the muscle development (dependent variable) in each group to determine if the independent variable had an effect. Answer: a Page Reference: 52 10) Asking participants to write about upsetting or traumatic experiences puts them at risk for cognitive and emotional stress. a. True b. False Correct: Physical risks are rare in psychological research. More common are measures that involve possible cognitive and emotional stress. While the amount of risk is most likely small, writing about upsetting or traumatic experiences can cause stress. Answer: a Page Reference: 56 11) Researchers are not allowed to deceive participants about the purpose of the study. a. True b. False Correct: Sometimes it is necessary to use deception in psychological research. In these situations, the potential harm caused by the deception must be weighed against the potential benefits of the research. Answer: b Page Reference: 57 12) The right to give informed consent stays with a volunteer throughout the entire study, and they should be able to withdraw at any point. a. True Correct: This is one of the key elements of modern psychology research. b. False

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Answer: a Page Reference: 57–58 13) Researchers must give participants total anonymity. a. True b. False Correct: Anonymity means that the data collected during a research study cannot be connected to individual participants. Sometimes this is not possible. In these cases, confidentiality is a reasonable substitute. Answer: b Page Reference: 58 14) For security and confidentiality reasons, once the results of a study are reported in a journal or at a conference, the data should be destroyed. a. True b. False Correct: Once data are reported in a journal or at a conference, they should be kept for a reasonable amount of time—generally, three to five years is acceptable. The purpose for keeping data relates to the public nature of good research. Other researchers may request access to the data to re-interpret it, or perhaps examine it before doing a replication. Answer: b Page Reference: 61–62 15) A negatively skewed distribution has a long tail on the right of the cluster. a. True b. False Correct: A negatively skewed distribution occurs when the curve has an extended tail to the left of the cluster. If the tail is on the right, it is called a positively skewed distribution. Answer: b Page Reference: 65 16) The mean, median, and mode are all measures of central tendency. a. True b. False Correct: Statement of fact.

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Answer: a Page Reference: 65–66 17) When a distribution is skewed, the median is a better measure of the "average" than the mean. a. True b. False Correct: Because the mean is disproportionally affected by the few extreme scores in the tail, the median is considered a better measure of central tendency for skewed distributions. Answer: a Page Reference: 67 18) If the distribution of quiz scores for a class has high variability, most of the students scored within a few points of each other. a. True b. False Correct: Variability is the degree to which scores are dispersed in a distribution. If the variability is high, the scores would be more spread out and less clustered. Answer: b Page Reference: 67 19) If researchers find a statistically significant result, they would be likely to find the same result if they replicated the study again. a. True b. False Correct: Statistical significance implies that an observed difference between groups was unlikely to have occurred by random chance. Therefore, the same effect should almost always occur again if the experiment is replicated. In contrast, if an effect is not statistically significant, it may not be able to be replicated. Answer: a Page Reference: 70–71

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1. By studying a _____, scientists hope that they can generalize the results of their investigation to the _____. a. sample; population b. population; sample c. convenience sample; random sample d. random sample; convenience sample Answer: A Module 2.1 2. Which of the following is an example of demand characteristics affecting an experiment? a. An experimenter draws the wrong conclusions from a study because she did not use the correct statistical analysis. b. A participant changes his response to a question because he has the feeling that the experimenter wants him to do so. c. An experimenter stops using a test because it does not appear to be reliable. d. A participant in a double-blind experiment believes she is in the control group. Answer: B Module 2.1 3. Why it is a bad idea to draw conclusions from anecdotal evidence? a. Such conclusions usually go against common sense. b. Anecdotes are reliable only if they come from experts, which they rarely do. c. Anecdotes are a single-blind technique, not a double-blind method. d. There is no way to know if the anecdote is true or if it will generalize to other people and situations. Answer: D Module 2.1 4. What does a correlation coefficient of -0.94 indicate about two variables? a. The variables are weakly associated, with both increasing together. b. The variables are strongly associated, with both increasing together. c. The variables are weakly associated, with one increasing as the other decreases. d. The variables are strongly associated, with one increasing as the other decreases. Answer: D Module 2.2 5. Most people would agree that anxiety can lead to sleep loss. However, Dr. Jenkins believes that sleep deprivation can also cause increased anxiety. Which research method would allow him to test a cause-effect relationship between the two? a. Naturalistic observation b. Experimental c. Correlational d. Survey Answer: B Module 2.2 6. Which of the following statements describes the amount of cognitive and emotional risk to participants allowed in psychological research today? a. Any amount of risk is acceptable. b. No amount of risk is acceptable. c. A little risk is always acceptable, but more than minimal risk is never acceptable. d. The amount of acceptable risk depends in part on the likely benefits from the study. Answer: D Module 2.3

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7. The use of deception in psychological research is: a. not a serious issue. b. never acceptable. c. generally acceptable when absolutely necessary for the research. d. acceptable only in nonhuman research. Answer: C Module 2.3 8. Under which of the following circumstances would the mean be the best measure of central tendency to use? a. The data have a normal distribution. b. The data are positively skewed. c. The data are negatively skewed. d. The mean is always the best measure of central tendency Answer: A Module 2.4 9. A teacher notices that, on the last science test, some students did very well while other students performed poorly or had grades in the middle of the pack. If she wanted to measure how “spread out” all of the scores were, which descriptive statistic could she use? a. Median b. Mode c. Standard deviation d. Mean Answer: C Module 2.4 10. Keisha performs an experiment with two randomly assigned groups of school children. The first group is allowed 15 minutes of recess play before a math test, while the second group watches a video before the test. When she analyzes the test scores, she finds that there is a statistical difference between the groups, with the recess group scoring higher on average. Which conclusions can be drawn from this result? a. The difference between the scores for the two groups is probably due to random chance. b. The difference between the scores for the two groups is likely due to their differing pretest activities, and did not happen by chance. c. Students who are good at math prefer recess to watching a video. d. Students who are good at math prefer watching a video to recess. Answer: B Module 2.4

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1) Before beginning an experiment, researchers use operational definitions to define exactly how variables like "intelligence" or "happiness" will be measured. Correct: Operational definitions are statements that describe the procedures (or operations) and/or specific measures that are used to record observations. By carefully defining psychological terms such as "intelligence" or "happiness," everyone can understand exactly how these variables are being objectively measured. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 33 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. 2) Demand characteristics are a major problem in psychology research, and can cause participants to change their behavior based on how they think they are supposed to behave. Correct: Demand characteristics are inadvertent cues given off by the experimenter or the experimental context that provide information about how participants are expected to behave. Demand characteristics can range from very subtle to obvious influences on the behavior of research participants Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 36-38 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. 3) Before research findings can be published they go through peer review, which is a process in which papers submitted to publication in scholarly journals are read and critiqued by experts in the specific field of study. Correct: In the peer review process, the editors and reviewers serve as gatekeepers for the discipline, ensuring that the best research is made public. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 39 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. 4) Tabitha is convinced that vaccines cause autism because her friend's child was diagnosed with autism only a week after being vaccinated. Because Tabitha's "evidence" is essentially a story

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

about one person, it should be considered anecdotal evidence and cannot be considered reliable. Correct: Anecdotal evidence is an individual's story about an observation or event that is used to make a claim as evidence. Although sometimes correct, it is too unreliable to form a basis for scientific conclusions, even if the basic facts of the story are correct. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 41 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information. 5) Case studies, naturalistic observation, and surveys and questionnaires are all types of descriptive research, because they can only be used to collect observations. Correct: The goal of descriptive research is to simply describe the thing being studied. In psychology, this is usually accomplished by using case studies, naturalistic observation, or surveys and questionnaires. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 45 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs. 6) Experimental designs are the only research method that can provide strong evidence for cause-and-effect relationships. Correct: It is the manipulation of variables along with random assignment that allows an experiment to make cause-and-effect conclusions about the independent and dependent variables. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: Module 2.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. 7) To study the effect of subliminal advertising on consumer behavior, participants were randomly assigned to watch a movie either with or without subliminal advertising. The group of participants that saw the movie without the ads is called the control group.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

Correct: A control group is the group that does not receive the treatment and therefore serves as a comparison for the experimental group(s). Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 52 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs. 8) Research participants in psychology studies must give informed consent, meaning that they are told about the experiment—including any potential risks—and then freely agree to participate. Correct: Current research practice uses the concept of informed consent: A potential volunteer must be informed (know the purpose, tasks, and risks involved in the study) and give consent (agree to participate based on the information provided) without pressure. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 56 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of research ethics. 9) The normal distribution is a commonly occurring distribution that is characterized by its symmetrical shape with values clustered around a mean value. Correct: A normal distribution (sometimes called the bell curve) is a symmetrical distribution with values clustered around a central, mean value. Many variables wind up in a normal distribution, such as the scores on most standardized tests or the average high temperature in Moose Jaw, Saskatchewan, throughout the month of January. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 65 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics. 10) If the difference between groups in an experiment is unlikely to have occurred by random chance alone, the difference is said to be statistically significant. Correct: A difference is said to be statistically significant when the analyses indicate that there is a lot probability that the outcome occurred by chance. Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

Type: FIB Page Reference: 70 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

1) A large group of people whom you want to know about is called a __________. a. control group b. treatment group c. population d. sample Answer: c Page Reference: 35 2) A scientist, conducting a research study on sleep and learning, questions her own objectivity and decides to let a third person, not associated with conducting the experiment, score the tests. The scientist is probably trying to eliminate __________. a. experimenter bias b. sample bias c. control bias d. treatment bias Answer: a Page Reference: 37 3) A psychologist, studying pilot trainees, picks a select group of trainees who she hopes representative of all other trainees. The group of trainees being studied by this psychologist is collectively known to researchers as a __________. a. sample b. population c. target group d. control group Answer: a Page Reference: 35 4) Expectations by the experimenter that might influence the results of an experiment or their interpretation are called __________. a. experimental blinds b. experimenter bias c. sample bias d. treatment bias Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

Answer: b Page Reference: 37 5) A subset of cases selected from a larger population is a __________. a. control group b. target group c. treatment group d. sample Answer: d Page Reference: 35 6) A sample that does not truly represent the population in question is known as a _____________ sample. a. random b. chance c. biased d. representative Answer: c Page Reference: 35 7) Experimenter bias can best be controlled using ________. a. a placebo b. double-blind control c. randomization d. subjects who do not know the purpose of the study Answer: b Page Reference: 37 8) One of the main reasons for using a laboratory for psychological research is to a. prevent subjects from escaping. b. study behaviour in a natural setting. c. do large-scale studies.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

d. allow the researchers to control certain factors. Answer: d Page Reference: 34 9) A ”fake treatment” is one way to define a ______. a. decoy b. demand characteristic c. control group d. placebo Answer: d Page Reference: 38 10) To determine if sugar-rich diets affect hyperactivity in kids, a researcher prepared two daily menus that children would receive for a 30-day period. A high-sugar diet was given to the boys, while the girls had a menu that seemed identical but was not a highsugar diet. At the end of 30 days, the boys and girls were evaluated to determine their levels of hyperactivity. In the study, the high-sugar diet is the _______. a. placebo b. independent variable c. dependent variable d. control group Answer: b Page Reference: 38 11) Dr. Welsh is doing experiments using drugs. He is concerned that his subjects will respond to demand characteristics. He may want to control for this by using which of the following? a. stratification b. two independent variables c. a placebo d. randomization Answer: c Page Reference: 38

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

12) Mr. Marshall hired June to collect data from a group of subjects. Neither June nor the subjects were aware of the independent variable that Mr. Marshall had manipulated. This is an example of _______. a. randomization b. a placebo c. double-blind control d. experimenter bias Answer: c Page Reference: 39 13) Experimenter bias can best be controlled using ________. a. a placebo b. double-blind control c. randomization d. subjects who do not know the purpose of the study Answer: b Page Reference: 39 14) Observing behaviour as it happens in real-life natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the __________. a. naturalistic observation method b. experimental method c. correlational method d. psychometric approach Answer: a Page Reference: 47 15) Research in which a carefully selected group of people is asked a set of predetermined questions in interviews or through questionnaires is known as __________. a. correlational research b. case study research c. survey research d. experimental research Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

Answer: c Page Reference: 48 16) A research method in which the real-life behaviour of a pre-selected person or a group is studied in depth for some time through the use of observation, interviews, and writings (such as letters) is the _____________ method of research. a. survey b. psychometric c. case study d. naturalistic observation Answer: c Page Reference: 45 17) As part of an assignment, Bill's class was asked to complete an anonymous questionnaire on prejudice. Which research method was Bill's professor using? a. field experiment b. survey c. naturalistic observation d. laboratory experiment Answer: b Page Reference: 48 18) Naturalistic observation is ____________________. a. re-creating natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid b. studying behaviour in its natural context c. basically the same process as objective introspection d. observing behaviour in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experiment findings Answer: b Page Reference: 47

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

19) Collecting objective data without interference in the subject's normal environment is associated with ________. a. survey research b. applied research c. laboratory research d. naturalistic observation Answer: d Page Reference: 47 20) Positive correlation shows a. the extent to which two independent variables change together. b. that as one independent variable increases, another decreases. c. that as one variable changes, another changes in the same direction. d. that as one variable changes, another changes in the opposite direction. Answer: c Page Reference: 50 21) A researcher wished to study the relationship between high school grades and postsecondary grades. Of the following research methods, which would be the most appropriate? a. case study b. correlation c. experiment d. survey Answer: b Page Reference: 50 22) A correlation of .00 means a. you made a mistake in calculation. b. you did not find out anything about the relationship between the two variables. c. the two variables are unrelated. d. everyone who scored low on one variable scored high on the other variable, and vice versa.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

Answer: c Page Reference: 50 23) A correlation tells us a. whether a cause-effect relationship exists. b. whether two variables are related c. whether or not a test is efficient. d. if people are responding to demand characteristics. Answer: b Page Reference: 49 24) A psychologist uses the correlational method to _________. a. explain the effects of one variable on another b. compare two groups of subjects c. determine what causes a variable to change d. identify relationships between variables Answer: d Page Reference: 49–50 25) As children grow older, their discretionary income usually increases. The best conclusion to draw about the variables age and income are that they are a. causally related. b. uncorrelated. c. negatively correlated. d. positively correlated. Answer: d Page Reference: 50 26) In an experiment to test the effects of anxiety on performance, the dependent variable is the __________. a. amount of anxiety b. age of the person c. person's performance Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

d. cause of the anxiety Answer: c Page Reference: 52 27) In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The second variable, which is observed for any possible effects, is called the __________. a. dependent variable b. control variable c. independent variable d. hypothetical variable Answer: a Page Reference: 52 28) In a controlled experiment, the group subjected to a change in the independent variable is called the __________ group. a. independent b. experimental c. dependent d. control Answer: b Page Reference: 52 29) If explanation of the causes of thoughts, feelings, and behaviour is a psychologist's goal, then the __________ method of research should be used. a. correlational b. experimental c. survey d. naturalistic observation Answer: b Page Reference: 51–52

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

30) In a controlled experiment, the group not subjected to a change in the independent variable, and used for comparison with the group receiving the experimental change, is the __________ group. a. independent b. experimental c. dependent d. control Answer: d Page Reference: 52 31) In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The manipulated variable is called the a. dependent variable. b. experimental variable. c. independent variable. d. placebo. Answer: c Page Reference: 52 32) A group of students was asked to write an essay in support of the legalization of marijuana. They were paid $0.50. Another group of students received $2.00 for the same task. It was subsequently found that those students who received only $0.50 developed a more positive attitude towards the legalization of marijuana. The experiment in this study was using (the) a. correlational method. b. experimental method. c. naturalistic observation. d. survey research. Answer: b Page Reference: 51–52 33) Using both independent and dependent variables is associated with which of the following types of research used in psychology? a. experimentation b. naturalistic observation Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

c. correlation d. correlation and experimentation Answer: a Page Reference: 52 34) A researcher, based on her review of relevant scientific studies, believes that there is a relationship between the frequency of a baby's crying and whether it was nursed at set intervals or on a demand schedule. If this belief were tested by experimentally manipulating feeding schedules, the feeding schedule would be called the a. independent variable. b. dependent variable. c. extraneous variable. d. control factors. Answer: a Page Reference: 52 35) A researcher, based on her review of relevant scientific studies, believes that there is a relationship between the frequency of a baby's crying and whether it was nursed at set intervals or on a demand schedule. If this belief were tested by experimentally manipulating feeding schedules, frequency of crying would be called the a. latent factor. b. dependent variable. c. independent variable. d. control factor. Answer: b Page Reference: 52 36) The process of establishing causal relationships is associated most with a. naturalistic observation. b. experiments. c. correlation. d. surveys. Answer: b Page Reference: 51–52 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

37) A researcher tests the hypothesis that students who study in the room where they take their tests will perform better on the tests than students who study in other rooms. She requires one group to study in the classroom where the exam is given and another group to study in the library. All students take the test in the classroom, and their test performance is compared. In this example, where students study is the a. independent variable. b. dependent variable. c. manipulation. d. hypothesis. Answer: a Page Reference: 52 38) In psychological studies, random assignment is used to ensure that a. there will be an independent and a dependent variable. b. each person has an equal chance of being assigned to each group. c. the control group does not know the purpose of the study. d. the experimenter won't know who is in each group. Answer: b Page Reference: 51 39) The method of psychological research that utilizes a control group, a dependent variable, and an independent variable is a. the experiment. b. the survey. c. the case study. d. naturalistic observation. Answer: a Page Reference: 51–52 40) Professor McSpell designed an experiment to test her hypothesis that exercise will increase spelling ability. She divided children into three groups and had one group do 10 minutes of exercises, one group do 30 minutes of exercises, and the third group do no exercise. She then tested all three groups of children to see how many words they could spell correctly on a spelling test. In this experiment, the scores on the spelling test serve as the Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

a. dependent variable. b. independent variable. c. control group. d. reliability measure. Answer: a Page Reference: 52 41) Which of the following is a strength of experiments? a. They cannot be repeated by anyone other than the experimenter. b. They allow for the establishment of cause-effect relationships. c. They are not subject to demand characteristics since the subjects do not know they are being observed. d. They allow us to draw definitive conclusions about behaviour in the natural environment based on subjects' behaviour in the laboratory. Answer: b Page Reference: 53 42) In an experiment, the ”measurable aspect of the behaviour of the subject” is called the __________ variable. a. dependent b. focal c. independent d. control Answer: a Page Reference: 52 43) The purpose of an experiment is to discover whether there is a relationship between the ___________ and the ___________. a. independent variable; control variable b. dependent variable; control variable c. control group; experimental group d. independent variable; dependent variable Answer: d Page Reference: 52 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

44) Cause-and-effect conclusions can be drawn from the results of an experiment because a. it is almost always performed in a laboratory setting. b. statistical analysis can be applied to data from an experiment. c. the independent variable is manipulated while other possible causes of change in the dependent variable are held constant. d. several groups of subjects, not just one sample, are typically investigated in a laboratory experiment. Answer: c Page Reference: 52 45) In an experiment on the effects of level of motivation on the performance of typists, the researcher randomly assigned one-third of her subjects to each of three levels of motivation (and then induced different levels of motivation in the three groups). She measured the average words typed per minute by each group, and found that performance was highest under medium motivation, average under low motivation, and worst under high motivation. What was the independent variable in this experiment? a. motivation b. typing speed c. variation in typing speed d. manipulation of typing speed Answer: a Page Reference: 52 46) A psychologist wanted to see if people are more prone to seek the company of others when anxious than when calm. He randomly assigned half of his subjects to an anxiety group and then told them that, as part of the study, they would receive electric shocks. He did not frighten the other group of subjects. Finally, he recorded how many subjects in each group chose to be ”tested” in a group setting and how many chose to be ”tested” alone. What was the independent variable in this study? a. tendency to desire the company of others b. level of shock c. level of anxiety d. the anxious group Answer: c Page Reference: 52 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

47) In an experiment, four groups of college students used different memorizing strategies to learn the material in one chapter of a textbook. Then each group was given the same multiple-choice test on the material. What was the dependent variable in this study? a. the students' performance on the test b. the four different groups c. the four different memorizing strategies d. manipulation of memorizing strategies Answer: a Page Reference: 52 48) A psychologist wanted to see if people are more prone to seek the company of others when anxious than when calm. He randomly assigned half of his subjects to an anxiety group and then told them that, as part of the study, they would receive electric shocks. He did not frighten the other group of subjects. Finally, he recorded how many subjects in each group chose to be ”tested” in a group setting and how many chose to be ”tested” alone. What was the dependent variable in this study? a. the two groups b. the level of anxiety c. preference for being alone or in a group d. manipulation of anxiety Answer: c Page Reference: 52 49) A psychologist wanted to see if people are more prone to seek the company of others when anxious than when calm. He randomly assigned half of his subjects to an anxiety group and then told them that, as part of the study, they would receive electric shocks. He did not frighten the other group of subjects. Finally, he recorded how many subjects in each group chose to be ”tested” in a group setting and how many chose to be ”tested” alone. In this study, the group that was NOT frightened would be called the ____________ group. a. experimental b. control c. placebo d. test

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Answer: b Page Reference: 52 50) The purpose of a control group in an experiment is to a. serve as a check on the interpretation of results. b. increase the ability to generalize the findings. c. manipulate the dependent variable. d. represent the general, nonlaboratory population. Answer: a Page Reference: 52 51) In an experiment, the group of subjects to which the experimental group is compared is called the a. comparison group. b. standard group. c. confederate group. d. control group. Answer: d Page Reference: 52 52) In an experiment concerning the effect of auditory feedback on accuracy in writing computer programs, one group hears a computer-simulated voice say each character or symbol that they type in as they are writing their programs. The second group does not receive the auditory feedback as they type their program lines. This second group is the ___________ group. a. experimental b. control c. placebo d. confederate Answer: b Page Reference: 52 53) Why is it essential that the experimental and control groups be treated identically in every respect but one? a. so that the dependent variable can be accurately measured Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

b. so that the results will apply outside the laboratory setting. c. so that if the behaviour of the two groups differs, the difference can be credited to the one thing that distinguished the groups from one another d. so that if the behaviour of the two groups differs, that difference can be used to establish a functional relationship between the independent and dependent variables Answer: d Page Reference: 52 54) An experiment was run in which group A was given 3 minutes to study a word list, while group B was given 10 minutes to study the same list. Later, both groups were asked to recall words from the list. In this study, the number of words recalled is the _______. a. independent variable b. dependent variable c. placebo d. control group Answer: b Page Reference: 52 55) To obtain objective information, researchers sometimes must deceive their subjects. Ethically, research involving deception must always _________. a. pay participants b. maintain subject anonymity c. use double-blind control d. explain the deception to the subjects after the data are collected and obtain their informed consent to use the information obtained Answer: d Page Reference: 58 56) Sasha read about a study in the newspaper that reported a relationship between schizophrenia and crime. What type of research design was most likely used in this study? a. naturalistic observation b. case study design c. correlational design

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Correct: Correlation is used to study things that cannot be manipulated in a lab, such as criminal acts. d. experimental design Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 49, Module 2.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs. 57) Which term best describes the correlation between depression and fatigue? a. illusory b. zero c. positive Correct: Two variables that increase or decrease together are positively correlated. d. negative Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 49, Module 2.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. 58) Which term best describes the correlation between the full moon and violent crime? a. positive b. negative c. zero d. illusory Correct: Many believe there is a correlation between violent crime and the moon but no correlation actually exists. Answer: d Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 49, Module 2.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. 59) What is the primary weakness of a scale that adds two kilograms to everything it weighs? a. poor test-retest reliability b. low interrater reliability c. the placebo effect d. lack of validity Correct: A scale that does not measure what it is intended to measure is not valid. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 32,Module 2.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research. 60) Under which circumstance is the use of deception justified by ethics review boards? a. when the study could not have been conducted without deception Correct: Some topics of value cannot be studied without some deception. b. when the research involves a medical or therapeutic intervention c. when participants might not agree to participate unless deception is used d. when the placebo effect is likely to occur Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 57–58,Module 2.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the role of using deception in psychological research.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

61) When plotting data, Dr. Ryeburn notes that the distribution has an elongated tail to the right. Which descriptive statistic would offer the best measure of central tendency in this case? a. mean b. median Correct: When a distribution is skewed, the median gives a better measure of central tendency. c. standard deviation d. range Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 66, Module 2.4 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the choice of central tendency statistics based on the shape of the distribution. 62) Dr. Jamal has decided to increase the sample size of a study from 20 participants to 100 participants. What is the most likely impact of this decision? a. The results are more likely to be practically significant. b. The results are more likely to be statistically significant. Correct: Larger sample sizes increase statistical power. c. The results are more likely to have face validity. d. The results are more likely to be reliable. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 70, Module 2.4 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how and why psychologists use significance tests. 63) Mario is researching the topic of obsessive-compulsive disorder as part of a course requirement. Which source of online information would most likely be peer reviewed? a. Wikipedia b. AboutOCD.com Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. Scientific American website Correct: This website reports scientific studies from peer-reviewed journals. d. YouTube Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 39, Module 2.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the importance of reporting and storing data. 64) In a test of the effects of sleep deprivation on problem-solving skills, research participants are allowed to sleep either four or eight hours on each of three consecutive nights. This research is an example of a. naturalistic observation. b. survey research. c. a case study. d. an experiment. Correct: When there is an independent variable and a dependent variable, you have an experiment. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 51, Module 2.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

1) What are the five characteristics of good research described in the textbook? Briefly explain each. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Research should be based on measurements that are * objective: consistent across instruments and observers * valid: actually measure what they claim to measure * reliable: provide consistent answers when remeasured - Good research can be generalized to situations, individuals, and events beyond the original study. - It should use techniques to reduce bias from both the participants and the experimenters. - Research should be made public, usually through the peer-review process and publication in an academic journal. - Finally, it must be possible for other researchers to replicate the results of good research. Page Reference: 32–35 2) Anecdotal evidence, appeals to authority, and appeals to common sense are all considered poor forms of evidence. Provide an example of each and explain why claims based on them cannot be trusted. Answer: Anecdotal evidence is the experience of one person generalized into a theory, such as a person listens to hypnosis CDs and loses 58 pounds in three months. This is anecdotal evidence and not real evidence because no hypothesis was tested in developing the theory. The result could have been for any number of things other than the CD causing the weight loss. Appeal to authority is evidence from an “expert” that is assumed to be valid and reliable simply because an expert said it was true. An expert may claim to have found a great weight-loss program but experts can be wrong and experts can have hidden agendas. It is important to see what the expert may have to gain by claiming an untested theory is true. Appeal to common sense is evidence that sounds like it must be true but hasn’t necessarily been tested. A great example is that people long thought that the earth was stationary and the centre of the universe because this theory made sense based on their other (limited) knowledge of the cosmos. The best theory is always based on the results of hypotheses tested using the scientific method. Page Reference: 41–42 3) Describe and compare correlational research and experimental research. What key advantage does experimental research have over correlational research? Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

Answer: Correlational research shows you that a change in one variable will likely result in a change in another variable but this type of research does not determine why that change occurs. A third variable could cause both variables to change. Experimental research is designed to test a hypothesis in tightly controlled conditions so that a cause-and-effect relationship can be established. Page Reference: 49–53

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 2: Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

1) Which of the following is subjective? a. the height of a tree b. the speed of a reflex c. the weight of a soil sample d. the value of a painting Correct: Subjective refers to observations that are shaped by prior beliefs, expectations, experiences, and even mood. In contrast, observations like height, speed, and weight are objective, because everyone should generally agree on them given the same tools, the same methods, and the same context. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 32 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

2) _______________assumes that there are facts about the world that can be observed and tested independently from the individual who describes them. a. Subjectivity b. Objectivity c. Validity d. Generalizability Correct: Objectivity suggests that everyone should be able to agree on certain facts given the same tools, the same methods, and the same context. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 32 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. 3) Which of the following is one of the five characteristics of quality research listed in the textbook? a. using subjective measurements Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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b. keeping sensitive results secret c. making sure results can be replicated d. avoiding generalizing results Correct: According to the textbook, quality scientific research 1. is based on measurements that are objective, valid, and reliable; 2. can be generalized; 3. uses techniques that reduce bias; 4. is made public; and 5. can be replicated. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 32 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research.

4) In order to make objective measurements, psychologists generally measure ___________. a. behaviour b. introspection c. thoughts d. feelings Correct: Objective measurements are measurements that, within an allowed margin of error, are consistent across instruments and observers. Because behaviour can be seen and recorded, it can generally be measured objectively. Thoughts and feelings are much more difficult to measure objectively, because they cannot be directly measured. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 32 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research.

5) A group of researchers are studying depression in a sample of patients. Each researcher independently assesses the level of depression in each patient, but their assessments do not match. The problem with the research is that

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a. depression cannot be studied scientifically. b. the researchers do not have an objective measure of depression. c. there are too many researchers. d. the patients are not really depressed. Correct: Objective measurements are measurements that, within an allowed margin of error, are consistent across instruments and observers. In this example, the fact that different researchers cannot agree on the depression levels in the same patient indicates that they are not using an objective measurement. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 32–34 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research.

6) In research, the object, concept, or event being measured is called a ____________. a. data unit b. population c. variable d. sample Correct: The term variable refers to the object, concept, or event being measured. Psychologists have developed a variety of instruments to take objective measures of variables related to behaviour and thought Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 33 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

7) A researcher uses a blood pressure cuff (technically called a sphygmomanometer) to measure the blood pressure of participants while they are shown sexual, violent, or

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relaxing videos. The blood pressure measurement in this study is an example of ______________. a. a variable b. a sample c. self-reporting d. a demand characteristic Correct: The term variable refers to the object, concept, or event being measured. Psychologists have developed a variety of instruments to take objective measures of variables related to behaviour and thought. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 33 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

8) ______________ is a method where researchers typically use interviews, phone surveys, and questionnaires to directly collect responses from the people being studied. a. Generalizing b. Random sampling c. Self-reporting d. Blind sampling Correct: A common method used by psychologists is self-reporting, a method in which responses are provided directly by the people who are being studied, typically through face-to-face interviews, phone surveys, paper and pencil tests, and web-based questionnaires. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 48 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

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9) The purpose of operational definitions in science is to a. keep participants from knowing which treatment group they are in. b. reduce demand characteristics. c. increase ecological validity. d. carefully define terms and variables so they can be objectively studied. Correct: Operational definitions are statements that describe the procedures (or operations) and specific measures that are used to record observations. By carefully defining psychological terms such as "intelligence" or "happiness," everyone can understand exactly how these variables are being objectively measured. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 33 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

10) Before beginning a study on the health effects of obesity, a group of researchers agree that, for the purposes of their research, anyone with a Body Mass Index greater than 30 kg/m2 will be considered obese. This is an example of _______________. a. a confounding variable b. an operational definition c. convenience sampling d. an appeal to common sense Correct: Operational definitions are statements that describe the procedures (or operations) and specific measures that are used to record observations. By carefully defining the terms in a study, everyone can understand exactly how the variables are objectively measured. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 33 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

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11) According to your text, which of the following have researchers concluded about the "Mozart effect"? a. Listening to classical music, but not other types of music, causes a long-lasting improvement in several types of thinking and reasoning. b. Listening to all types of music causes a long-lasting improvement in several types of thinking and reasoning. c. Listening to classical music appears to have only a small, short-lasting effect on spatial reasoning. d. Listening to classical music has no effect on any type of thinking or reasoning. Correct: Despite the reaction of legislators and the general public, listening to classical music appears to only cause a small increase in spatial reasoning that only lasts for about 10 minutes. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 33–34 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research.

12) __________ is consistency of measurement. a. Random assignment b. Validity c. Reliability d. Confounding variable Correct: A measure demonstrates reliability when it provides consistent and stable answers across multiple observations and points in time. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 34 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

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13) Dr. Sparks is concerned because he gave Julie a new intelligence test that he personally designed and her scores do not seem very consistent. Which aspect of psychological testing is Dr. Sparks concerned with? a. validity b. self-report measures c. reliability d. falsifiability Correct: Reliability refers to how consistent and stable measurements are across multiple observations and points in time. In this example, the inconsistency of Julie's test scores indicates that the test is not reliable. Although it is likely that the test is also not valid (i.e., it does not really measure intelligence), Dr. Sparks' immediate concern is clearly with the reliability of the test. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 34 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts of reliability and validity to examples.

14) When assessing patients' personalities using an "ink blot" test that she created, Dr. Hardcastle is gaining confidence in the test's reliability. Which of the following is likely to be happening? a. Her patients are enjoying being tested every day. b. The test is generating approximately the same results each time. c. The test is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring. d. The test is likely to be uninformative. Correct: Reliability refers to how consistent and stable measurements are across multiple observations and points in time. For the test in the example to be reliable, the results for each patient must be approximately the same each time they are retested. This does not necessarily imply that the test has validity, and is actually measuring what it is supposed to be measuring (personality). Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 34 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts of reliability and validity to examples.

15) Brittany, a softball player who plays catcher for the local university, has thrown out base stealers at the rates of 42, 39, and 41 percent over her three years. Her performance could be considered which of the following? a. valid b. invalid c. reliable d. not reliable Correct: Reliability refers to how consistent and stable measurements are across multiple observations and points in time. In this example, Brittany's performance is very consistent over the three years. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 34 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts of reliability and validity to examples.

16) __________ is the extent to which a measure assesses what it claims to measure. a. Operationalization b. Reliability c. Validity d. Control group Correct: Validity refers to the degree to which an instrument or procedure actually measures what it claims to measure. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 34 Skill: Factual

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Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

17) Jasmine took a self-administered online intelligence test three times yesterday and obtained scores of 124, 128, and 125. This made her feel great because the score she received from the psychologist last month at school was only a 95. What characteristic might the online test be lacking? a. reliability b. validity c. both reliability and validity d. Nothing. The test appears to have both reliability and validity. Correct: Validity refers to the degree to which an instrument or procedure actually measures what it claims to measure. In this example, the test is clearly reliable because she received approximately the same score each time. However, because the score is drastically higher than she received on the professionally administered test, it is likely that the online test is not actually measuring her intelligence. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 34 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts of reliability and validity to examples.

18) The degree to which one set of results can be applied to other situations, individuals, or events is called __________. a. objectivity b. reliability c. validity d. generalizability Correct: In psychological research, generalizability refers to the degree to which one set of results can be applied to other situations, individuals, or events. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 34 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

19) One way to increase the possibility that research results will generalize is to study a ____________ sample. a. small b. large c. single-person d. convenience Correct: All other things being equal, the results of studies with large samples are more likely to generalize than those conducted with smaller samples. Using convenience sampling increases the risk that the results will not generalize because it does not use random sampling. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 35 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

20) Which of the following is true? a. Researchers typically study populations because it is often too difficult to study samples. b. Researchers typically study samples because it is often too difficult to study populations. c. Researchers typically include both samples and populations in their research. d. Researchers typically avoid studying both populations and samples. Correct: A population is the group that researchers want to generalize about. However, because populations are usually very large, psychologists typically study a sample (i.e., a select group of population members). Once the sample has been studied, then the results may be generalized to the population as a whole. Answer: b Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 35 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

21) The most important factor to ensure that one's results apply to other people in other settings is to use a. a convenience sample. b. extremely small sample sizes. c. random assignment. d. a random sample. Correct: In order for a sample to generalize to a population psychologists prefer to use random sampling and large sample sizes whenever possible. The idea of random sampling is distinct from random assignment, which is a technique used in experiments to make groups as similar as possible before manipulating the independent variable. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 35 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

22) Although not ideal, researchers often use _______________ samples, which are samples of individuals that are the most readily available. a. random b. confound c. ecological d. convenience Correct: Obtaining a true random sample can be extremely difficult to do. In practice, psychologists are more likely to settle for convenience samples, which are samples of individuals that are the most readily available. Answer: d Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 35 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

23) Ecological validity refers to a. whether the results of a laboratory study can be applied to the real world. b. the impact of a scientific study on the environment. c. the degree to which animal research can be applied to humans. d. the degree to which naturalistic research techniques are used. Correct: Because of the artificial nature of the laboratory research, the results sometimes have low ecological validity, which is the degree to which the results of a laboratory study can be applied to or repeated in the natural environment. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 35 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

24) Ursula works in an office. One day, her boss tells her that researchers will be in the office to observe productivity. Because she knows she is being observed, Ursula finds that she is working harder than she normally does. What is this an example of? a. the placebo effect b. the Heisenberg principle c. a single-blind study d. the Hawthorne effect Correct: The Hawthorne effect is a term used to describe situations in which behaviour changes as a result of being observed. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 35 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

25) The term demand characteristics refers to a. a set of personality traits that most good scientists share. b. unintended cues that suggest how study participants should behave. c. statements that describe the specific measures that are used to record observations. d. claims based on anecdotal evidence. Correct: When studying human behaviour, a major concern is demand characteristics, inadvertent cues given off by the experimenter or the experimental context that provide information about how participants are expected to behave. Demand characteristics can range from very subtle to obvious influences on the behaviour of research participants. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 36–38 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

26) Louis is participating in a survey on undergraduate drug use. When the interviewer asks Louis whether he has used illegal drugs in the last 6 months, he lies and says 'no' because he doesn't want the interviewer to have a poor opinion of him. Louis's response is an example of ________________. a. socially desirable responding b. sampling bias c. peer review d. an appeal to authority Correct: Socially desirable responding occurs when research participants respond in ways that increase the chances that they will be viewed favourably. This type of bias is particularly relevant when the study involves an interview in which the researcher has face-to-face contact with the volunteers. Answer: a Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 36 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

27) Alex, a university student, wants to know how many of her dorm mates have tried marijuana, so she decides to survey everyone on her floor. Despite rumours to the contrary, the results suggest that fewer than ten percent of her classmates have tried the drug. What is the most likely explanation for her findings? a. People being interviewed often change their answers to increase the chances that they will be viewed favourably. b. Her dorm mates did not understand the question. c. Alex did not calculate the findings correctly. d. Surveys are not an acceptable means to gather new information. Correct: Socially desirable responding occurs when research participants respond in ways that increase the chances that they will be viewed favourably. This type of bias is particularly relevant when the study involves an interview in which the researcher has face-to-face contact with the volunteers. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 36 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

28) Eila is participating in a psychological experiment for one of the graduate students at her university. She is pretty confident that she knows the true intent of the study and is trying to answer the questions accordingly. A common pitfall in experiments, Eila is falling prey to ______________. a. intentionality b. the Rosenthal effect c. observer bias d. demand characteristics

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Correct: Demand characteristics are inadvertent cues given off by the experimenter or the experimental context that provide information about how participants are expected to behave. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 36 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

29) An important danger of the various types of research bias discussed in Chapter 2 is that they lead us a. to become anxious or depressed about our place in the world. b. to draw incorrect conclusions and then become convinced that they are accurate. c. to doubt our intuition and gut feelings in important real-life circumstances. d. to underestimate our general levels of cognitive abilities and skills. Correct: Both researchers and participants can be affected by bias. If procedures are not used to reduce its impact, biases can alter the results of an experiment and lead researchers to draw incorrect conclusions. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 36–38 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

30) One difficulty in conducting medical research is that participants often assume that any treatment will be effective in alleviating their symptoms. Therefore, a researcher has to design an experiment that measures the influence of ____________. a. random selection b. medical confounds c. the Rosenthal effect d. the placebo effect

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Correct: The placebo effect is a measureable and experienced improvement in health or behaviour that cannot be attributable to a medication or treatment. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 38–39 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

31) When people report feeling better after taking medication even though it hasn't had time to be effective, they are experiencing _________________. a. the experimenter bias effect b. low reliability c. the placebo effect d. confirmation bias Correct: The placebo effect is a measureable and experienced improvement in health or behaviour that cannot be attributable to a medication or treatment. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 38–39 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

32) Dr. Wilkins randomly assigns subjects to one of two groups. He is interested in the effects of caffeine on anxiety levels. He gives subjects in the first group an extra two cups of coffee a day for six months. The second group receives an extra two cups of decaffeinated coffee a day for the same time period. Importantly, subjects do not know whether they are being given regular or decaffeinated coffee. By providing one group with decaffeinated coffee, Dr. Wilkins is trying to account for which potential element of the experiment? a. participant fraud b. inter-rater reliability c. the placebo effect Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. variability Correct: The placebo effect is a measureable and experienced improvement in health or behaviour that cannot be attributable to a medication or treatment. In this example, subjects drinking coffee may act more anxiously simply because they expect coffee to make them anxious. Because subjects do not know whether they are receiving regular or decaffeinated coffee, Dr. Wilkins can control for this effect. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 38–39 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

33) Lisa, a university student, had a great time at the party last night. She danced, sang karaoke, and even played the "Rock Band" video game—all behaviours that she had never exhibited in public before. She had been drinking the "punch" all night long, which she was told contained high levels of alcohol. Lisa was quite surprised to find out the next morning that the punch did NOT contain any alcohol. What concept may explain Lisa's behaviour? a. the Rosenthal effect b. illusory correlations c. the noce

bo effect

d. the placebo effect Correct: The placebo effect is a measureable and experienced improvement in health or behaviour that cannot be attributable to a medication or treatment. Lisa's change in behaviour after drinking the punch is similar to the reaction of patients when given a placebo that they expect to improve their health. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 38–39 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

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a. use random sampling b. provide anonymity and confidentiality c. use random assignment d. submit the research to peer review Correct: Socially desirable responding occurs when research participants respond in ways that increase the chances that they will be viewed favourably. The best technique for reducing the social desirability bias is by providing anonymity and confidentiality to the volunteers. Random sampling, random assignment, and peer review generally cannot control for the social desirability bias. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 38 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

35) In a single-blind study, who is "blind" to the treatment? a. the peer reviewers b. the participants c. the experimenters d. both the experimenters and participants Correct: In a single-blind study, only the participants are prevented from knowing the true purpose of the study and which type of treatment they are receiving (for example, a placebo or a drug). In contrast, in a double-blind study, both the participants and the experimenters are "blind" to the exact treatment each participant receives until after the study has concluded. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 39 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

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36) An experiment is said to be __________ when neither researchers nor participants are aware of who is in the experimental or control group. a. single-blind b. unfalsifiable c. a placebo d. double-blind Correct: In a double-blind study, neither the participant nor the experimenter knows the exact treatment for any individual. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 39 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

37) How does conducting a double-blind study attempt to remedy the effect of bias? a. The experimenter does not know but the participant does know what condition the participant is assigned to. b. The experimenter and the participant both know what condition the participant is assigned to. c. The experimenter knows but the participant does not know what condition the participant is assigned to. d. Neither the experimenter nor the participant knows what condition the participant is assigned to. Correct: In a double-blind study, neither the participant nor the experimenter knows the exact treatment for any individual. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 39 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

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38) A mechanism by which experts in a field carefully screen the work of their colleagues is known as ____________. a. experimental validity b. experimenter bias effect c. peer review d. peer assessment Correct: Before research findings can be published they go through peer review—a process in which papers submitted to publication in scholarly journals are read and critiqued by experts in the specific field of study. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 39 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

39) The peer review process is designed to a. block alternative therapies from being made available to the general public. b. identify flaws in a research study's methods, findings, and conclusions. c. make researchers feel bad when their article is not published. d. place obstacles in front of people whose theories differ from mainstream science. Correct: Peer reviewers critique the methods and results of research articles submitted to journals and make recommendations to the editor regarding the merits of the research. In this process, the editors and reviewers serve as gatekeepers for the discipline, ensuring that the best research is made public. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 39 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research.

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40) Without the process of replication as part of the scientific process, what would happen? a. Incorrect results would often go uncorrected. b. Demand characteristics would have larger effect on data. c. The Hawthorne effect would increase. d. Samples would be less representative of the populations they came from. Correct: Replication is the process of repeating a study and finding a similar outcome each time. This is part of the self-correcting process of science that helps to identify incorrect results. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 40 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research.

41) The main purpose of replicating studies is to a. keep the scientific community aware of the results. b. renew drug and technology patents based on the research. c. ensure that the results are correct. d. secure extra funding. Correct: Replication is the process of repeating a study and finding a similar outcome each time. This is part of the self-correcting process of science that helps to identify incorrect results. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 41 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research.

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42) Chen believes that red cars are more likely to be stolen than non-red cars because one week after she bought a red car, it was stolen. This is an example of which type of evidence? a. anecdotal b. falsified c. common-sense d. authoritative Correct: Anecdotal evidence is an individual's story about an observation or event that is used to make a claim as evidence. Although sometimes correct, it is too unreliable to be the basis for scientific conclusions. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 41 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information.

43) Support for a claim that is based on a story about an individual or event is called ___________ evidence. a. anecdotal b. narrative c. objective d. authoritative Correct: Anecdotal evidence is an individual's story about an observation or event that is used to make a claim as evidence. Although sometimes correct, it is too unreliable to be the basis for scientific conclusions. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 41 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information.

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44) In general, which of the following is true about anecdotal evidence? a. It is reliable as long as the facts are correct. b. It takes a long time to collect. c. It is the basis for most scientific conclusions. d. It is poor and unreliable. Correct: Anecdotal evidence is an individual's story about an observation or event that is used to make a claim as evidence. Although sometimes correct, it is too unreliable to be the basis for scientific conclusions, even if the basic facts of the story are correct. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 41 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information.

45) Appeals to authority are generally considered a(n) ____________ kind of evidence because _______________________. a. reliable; experts know a lot about their subjects b. reliable; experts don't want to ruin their reputations by being wrong c. unreliable; most experts don't know what they are talking about d. unreliable; expertise is not actually evidence Correct: An appeal to authority is the belief in an expert's claim even when no supporting data or scientific evidence is present. Expertise is not actually evidence; the word "expert" describes the person making the claim, not the claim itself. The expert could be mistaken, dishonest, overpaid, or misquoted. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 41 Skill: Conceptual

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Objective: Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information

46) Claims based on common sense a. should be considered true. b. should be considered false. c. may be true, but cannot be evaluated by this standard alone. d. should be considered true, but only if offered by an expert in the subject. Correct: Claims based on common sense, tradition, or novelty may be worthy of consideration, but whether something is true or not cannot be evaluated by these standards alone. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 42 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information.

47) Kia and her friend are discussing why so many child actors become troubled adults. Kia says, "Obviously they were spoiled as children, which made them unprepared to become adults." From a scientific point of view, what is wrong with Kia's statement? a. It is based on anecdotal evidence. b. It is an appeal to authority. c. It is an appeal to common sense. d. Nothing; it is a well-supported conclusion. Correct: Appeals to common sense are claims that appear to be sound, but lack supporting scientific evidence. They may be worthy of consideration, but whether something is true or not cannot be evaluated by these standards alone. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 42

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Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information.

48) Which of the following is one of the questions that a researcher should ask herself before conducting a research study? a. "How can I avoid using statistics to analyze my results?" b. "What research strategies should I use to test my hypothesis?" c. "Will I be able to prove my hypothesis?" d. "How can I guarantee that I obtain subjective results?" Correct: Because there are several types of designs, psychologists must choose the one that best addresses the research question and that is most suitable to the subject of their research. Recall from Chapter 1 that the goal of scientific research is to test hypotheses, not to prove hypotheses. Also, the goal of science is to obtain objective results, not subjective results. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 44–45 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

49) _____________ research does not attempt to explain how or why something happened, but instead it is an opportunity to present observations about the characteristics of the subject. a. Descriptive b. Quasi-experimental c. Experimental d. Subjective Correct: The goal of descriptive research is to simply describe the thing being studied. In psychology, this is usually accomplished by using case studies, naturalistic observation, or surveys and questionnaires. Answer: a Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 45 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

50) Which of the following is NOT a descriptive research method? a. case study b. naturalistic observation c. experiment d. survey Correct: The goal of descriptive research is to simply describe the thing being studied. In psychology, this is usually accomplished by using case studies, naturalistic observation, or surveys and questionnaires. Experimental designs are used for determining causeand-effect relationships. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 45–48 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

51) A(n) ____________ involves an extremely deep and detailed information-gathering from a single individual over a long period of time. a. case study design b. correlational design c. experimental design d. naturalistic observation design Correct: A case study is an in-depth report about the details of a specific case. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 45

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Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

52) Sarah, a graduate student in psychology, just heard about a five-year-old child who has already learned calculus. She is thinking about conducting an in-depth study of the child for her dissertation. Sarah is considering which research method? a. naturalistic observation b. experiment c. correlational d. case study Correct: A case study is an in-depth report about the details of a specific case. While some of Sarah's research might involve naturalistic observation, it is unlikely that Sarah could study the child in depth using this technique. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 45 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

53) Why is it difficult to make generalizations based on the results of case study research? a. Case study research is, by definition, immune to the error of making generalizations. b. Case studies involve far too many people to allow for generalizations. You would be better off using a research design that uses fewer participants. c. Because a case study involves only one or a few subjects, their actions may be atypical and not representative of a larger group of people or population. d. The statistics involved in case study research do not allow one to draw larger conclusions about a population. Correct: The main drawback to the case study design is that the findings that seem to apply to one case may not apply to others, so there is no guarantee that the case study can be generalized to other individuals and situations. Answer: c Diff: 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 46–47 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the pros and cons of descriptive, correlational, and experimental research designs.

54) Which of the following statements is true about naturalistic observation? a. It recreates natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid. b. It involves observing behaviour in its natural context. c. It is basically the same process as objective introspection. d. It involves observing behaviour in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experimental findings. Correct: When psychologists engage in naturalistic observation, they unobtrusively observe and record behaviour as it occurs in the subject's natural environment. Any research that takes place in an artificial laboratory setting is, by definition, not naturalistic observation. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 47–48 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

55) Watching behaviour in real-world settings is known as ___________. a. a case study b. a correlation design c. naturalistic observation d. a self-report Correct: When psychologists engage in naturalistic observation, they unobtrusively observe and record behaviour as it occurs in the subject's natural environment. Answer: c Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 47–48 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

56) Dr. Watson wanted to know which gender was better at sharing at the sixth-grade level, so he went to the local middle school to observe lunch periods. This is a form of ____________. a. case study b. naturalistic observation c. experimental design d. confirmation bias Correct: When psychologists engage in naturalistic observation, as in this example, they unobtrusively observe and record behaviour as it occurs in the subject's natural environment. Dr. Watson's research is not a case study because he is not studying one student in depth. It also is not an experiment, because he is only observing, not manipulating independent variables. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 47–48 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

57) A researcher is interested in determining how frequently bullying behaviour occurs in real-life settings. This researcher would best be advised to use the _________________. a. case study design b. correlational design c. experimental design d. naturalistic observation design Correct: Naturalistic observation is generally the best method for studying behaviour in natural settings. A case study of one bully or victim would be unlikely to generalize to bullying in general, and correlational and experimental designs are used to study the relationships between two or more variables.

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Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 47–48 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

58) Dr. Potter, an English professor, is curious about his students' attitudes toward one of his favourite books. What research method is he most likely to use to gather this information? a. case study b. survey c. experiment d. correlational Correct: The survey method is generally the most appropriate when we are interested in people's attitudes or opinions. A case study would only tell the professor about a single student's attitudes, and correlational and experimental designs are used to study the relationships between two or more variables. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 48 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

59) If you are interested in examining the relationship between the number of class days missed and one's subsequent semester grade point average, you would be best served to use a(n) ________ to study this relationship. a. case study design b. correlational design c. experimental design d. naturalistic observation design

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Correct: Correlational research involves measuring the degree of association between two or more variables. In this example, the goal is to find the correlation between days missed and grade point average. Experimental designs can also be used to find relationships between variables, but are more complicated and they are generally only used when the goal of the research is to find cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 49 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

60) Two variables are said to have a correlation when scores on one variable a. are unrelated to the scores on the second variable. b. are related to scores on the second variable. c. cause the scores on the second variable. d. are different from the scores on the second variable. Correct: When two variables are related so that the value of the first variable is associated with the value of the second, the two variables are said to be correlated. This does not necessarily mean that the first variable causes the value of the second variable—an important concept in correlational research is that correlation is a measure of association, not a measure of causality. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 49–50 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

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d. negative Correct: Correlations are usually classified as either positive or negative, depending on whether the two variables change in the same direction (positive), or are inversely related (negative). Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 49–50 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

62) As the average daily temperature in Edmonton, Alberta, decreases the number of persons who are observed wearing sweaters in the workplace increases. This is an example of a(n) ________ correlation. a. illusory b. negative c. positive d. zero Correct: When an increase in one variable is associated with a decrease in another (or vice versa) the two variables are said to be negatively correlated. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 49–50 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

63) One hopes that the amount of time a student spends studying would show a(n) __________ correlation with the student's grades. a. negative b. zero

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c. positive d. illusory Correct: When two variables are positively correlated, an increase in the first variable is associated with an increase in the second variable. In this example, an increase in studying should be associated with an increase in grade. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 49–50 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

64) There is a negative correlation between wearing one's seat belt and the severity of injuries received during an accident. Which statement correctly illustrates this correlation? a. The more often you wear your seat belt, the more serious the injury you are likely to receive in an accident. b. The more you wear your seat belt, the less likely you are to suffer serious injuries in an accident. c. Wearing your seatbelt prevents you from being injured in an accident. d. Failing to wear your seat belt increases the likelihood that you will sustain serious injuries in an accident. Correct: A negative correlation means that as one variable increases the other decreases. In this example, the more you wear your seatbelt the less likely you are to be injured. At first, this may seem the same as saying "wearing seatbelts prevents injury" or "failing to wear seatbelts increases injury," however, these are statements of causality, not simply correlation. A negative correlation between seatbelt wearing and injury could be the result of safe driving habits (i.e., safe drivers are more likely to wear their seatbelts and also be involved in less serious accidents). Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 49–50 Skill: Applied

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Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

65) A graph that can be used to represent the pattern of relationship between scores from two variables is called a ____________. a. bar graph b. frequency polygon c. histogram d. scatterplot Correct: Relationships between two variables (i.e., correlations) can be visualized when presented in a graph called a scatterplot. The other types of graphs listed are not used to visualize correlations. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 49 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

66) Dr. Schott's scatterplot reveals no real patterns or clusters. In fact, the data seems to fall randomly on the graph. This pattern of results is most likely from which type of correlation? a. positive b. zero c. negative d. skewed Correct: When the dots on a scatterplot do not follow any discernable pattern, it indicates that the correlation between the two variables is close to zero. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 49–50 Skill: Applied

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Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

67) Dr. Stanhope is trying to determine which type of correlation is represented on his scatterplot, in which nearly all of his data are clustered along a diagonal line running from higher numbers on the left down to lower numbers on the right. Which type of correlation is represented by this pattern? a. positive b. zero c. negative d. We need more information to draw a conclusion. Correct: When the dots on a scatterplot show a pattern that is slanted downward to the right, it indicates that there is a negative correlation between the two variables. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 49–50 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

68) Mr. Jones, a sixth-grade science teacher, has tried to predict his students' end-of-theyear grades by looking at their grades from the previous year. Unfortunately, there does not seem to be any systematic relationship between these two variables. The correlation between these two variables is probably ____________. a. near zero b. positive c. negative d. near 1.0 Correct: If there is little to no pattern in the relationship between two variables, the correlation coefficient will be close to zero. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 49–50 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

69) Which correlation coefficient is most likely to describe the relationship between brushing one's teeth and the number of cavities one gets? a. –.62 b. +.83 c. –.08 d. +.45 Correct: Because better dental hygiene is associated with fewer cavities, the correlation between the two variables should be fairly strong and negative. –.08 is a very weak negative correlation, making –.62 the most likely answer. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 49–50 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

70) A correlation coefficient will always range between: a. 0 and 1. b. –10 and +10. c. 0 percent and 100 percent. d. –1.0 and +1.0. Correct: Correlation coefficients can range from –1.0 to +1.0, with –1.0 being a perfect negative correlation, +1.0 a perfect positive correlation, and 0 being no correlation. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 50

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Skill: Factual Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

71) Which of the following correlations represents the weakest degree of relation between two variables? a. Daily calcium intake and bone mass density, correlation coefficient = +.11 b. Degree of exposure to lead and IQ scores in children, correlation coefficient = –.12 c. Hours of exposure to media violence and aggressive behaviour, correlation coefficient = +.31 d. Number of cigarettes smoked per day and incidence of lung cancer, correlation coefficient = +.39 Correct: The magnitude or strength of a correlation coefficient is indicated by its absolute value. The closer to an absolute value of 1, the stronger the correlation. While it may at first seem that –.12 is weaker than +.11, the absolute value of .11 is less than .12. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 50 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

72) Which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest degree of relation between two variables? a. +.19 b. –.25 c. +.43 d. –.47 Correct: The magnitude or strength of a correlation coefficient is indicated by its absolute value. The closer to an absolute value of 1, the stronger the correlation. While it may at first seem that +.43 is stronger than –.47, the absolute value of .43 is less than .47. Answer: d Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 50 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

73) Correlational research designs are NOT appropriate for purposes of _______________. a. causation b. description c. prediction d. describing relationships Correct: Because correlations are measures of association and not causality, correlational research cannot be used to determine cause-and-effect relationships. Correlational research is good, however, for finding and describing relationships, and can allow researchers to make predictions about one variable based on its correlation with a second variable. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 49–50 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the pros and cons of descriptive, correlational, and experimental research designs

74) The perception of a statistical association between two variables where none exists is known as ______________. a. confirmation bias b. illusory correlation c. existence proof d. type II error Correct: Illusory correlations are relationships that really only exist in the mind, rather than reality.

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Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 50 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

75) When asked if there are more ice cream cones sold in November or July, Mary answers "July" immediately. She is surprised to find out that there is little to no difference between the two months in terms of ice-cream-cone sales. Mary's error is most clearly an example of ___________________. a. imaginary correlation b. common sense c. superstitions d. illusory correlation Correct: Illusory correlations are relationships that really only exist in the mind, rather than reality. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 50 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

76) The only research design that allows one to make inferences on cause- effect is the ________ design. a. case study b. correlational c. experimental d. naturalistic observation Correct: It is the manipulation of variables along with random assignment that allows an experiment to make cause-and-effect conclusions. The other research methods listed do not permit causal inferences.

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 51 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships.

77) What is the main difference between an experiment and a correlational study? a. A correlational study involves the manipulation of variables, while an experiment does not. b. An experiment uses random sampling, while a correlational study uses random assignment. c. A correlational study looks at the relationship between independent and dependent variables, while an experiment looks at the relationship between confounding variables. d. An experiment involves the manipulation of variables, while a correlational study does not. Correct: It is the manipulation of variables along with random assignment that allows an experimenter to make cause-and-effect conclusions about the independent and dependent variables. Correlational studies do not involve specific independent and dependent variables, and do not involve manipulation or random assignment. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 51 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships.

78) One key aspect of an experiment that is missing in other research designs is a. the ability to test predictions. b. the use of variables. c. the use of operational definitions. d. random assignment.

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Correct: All research methods generally use variables, operational definitions, and can be used to test predictions made by theories. The experimental method, however, is the only type of research that involves random assignment. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 51 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships.

79) A research design characterized by random assignment of participants to conditions and manipulation of an independent variable is called a(n) ________________. a. case study b. naturalistic observation c. experiment d. survey Correct: The experimental method is the only type of research that involves random assignment and the manipulation of one or more independent variables. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 51 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships.

80) Professor Golder is studying hyperactivity in preschool-age children. She is concerned that differences in child rearing, diet, and so forth may affect her results. To minimize these potential preexisting variables, she should be sure to do which of the following? a. Use random assignment when forming her groups. b. Include an independent variable. c. Include a dependent variable. d. Assign boys to the experimental group and girls to the control group.

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Correct: In an experiment, it is the random assignment of participants to different groups that insures that the groups are roughly equal. This is important, because without random assignment, preexisting differences between participants could act as confounding variables and end up affecting the results. While the independent and dependent variables are also an important part of the experimental method, they do not help to control for preexisting variables. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 51–52 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

81) Why is it important to make sure that different participant groups are roughly equivalent in terms of personal characteristics (e.g., age, gender) before any independent variable is introduced? a. It is important to treat all research participants equally so that they feel that they are not being manipulated. b. Research ethics forbid any experiment to take place when the participant groups are fundamentally different from each other. c. It is important so that no major differences between the groups unduly bias the results of the experiment. d. This is generally what happens when participants are allowed to choose their own groups. Correct: When the groups are different before the research begins, any changes in the dependent variable might be caused by those differences (which are called confounding variables). This problem is usually avoided by using random assignment. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 51–52 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships.

82) The __________ variable is what the experimenter manipulates (or varies).

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a. control b. dependent c. operational d. independent Correct: In an experiment, the independent variable is the variable that the experimenter manipulates to distinguish between the different groups. This is in contrast with the dependent variable, which is manipulated as part of the experiment and data from the different dependent variable groups are compared. The goal of an experiment is to determine if manipulating the independent variable affects the dependent variable. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

83) The variable that an experimenter assesses or measures is called the _______________. a. causal variable b. confounding variable c. dependent variable d. independent variable Correct: In an experiment, the dependent variable is the observation or measurement that is recorded during the experiment and subsequently compared across all groups. This is in contrast with the independent variable, which is the variable that the experimenter manipulates to distinguish between the different groups. The goal of an experiment is to determine if manipulating the independent variable affects the dependent variable. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

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84) An administrator believes that the placement of motivational posters on the walls in classrooms of academic buildings will lead to increased GPAs (grade point averages) at his school. To test his theory, he randomly assigns certain classrooms within the university’s Faculty of Science to have the posters while others do not. None of the remaining four faculties will have any posters placed in their classrooms. What is the independent variable in this study? a. faculties b. classroom posters c. gender of the student d. grade point average Correct: In an experiment, the independent variable is the variable that the experimenter manipulates to distinguish between the different groups. The dependent variable is the variable which is measured and subsequently compared across all groups. The goal of an experiment is to determine if manipulating the independent variable affects the dependent variable. In this example, the goal is to determine if manipulating the posters affects the GPA scores. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

85) A medical doctor believes that the presence of aromatherapy candles will reduce the anxiety of first-time mothers-to-be during labour and will increase their reported satisfaction with their care at his hospital. He randomly assigns mothers to give birth in a room either with or without aromatherapy candles. What is the independent variable in this example? a. anxiety level during labour b. number of previous birthing experiences c. room environment d. satisfaction with hospital care Correct: In an experiment, the independent variable is the variable that the experimenter manipulates to distinguish between the different groups. The dependent variable is the variable which is measured and subsequently compared across all groups. The goal of an experiment is to determine if manipulating the independent variable affects the dependent

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variable. In this example, the goal is to determine if manipulating the room environment with candles will affect the two dependent variables: anxiety and satisfaction with care. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

86) Professor Todd decides to test her hypothesis that eating chocolate prior to exams increases students' test scores. She randomly assigns students to two groups at the beginning of the semester. One group receives a bar of chocolate before each test, while the other group receives another type of candy. She compares their scores at the end of the year, and finds that the students who ate the chocolate scored an average of ten points higher on their exams. What is the dependent variable in this experiment? a. students' test scores b. chocolate bars c. the students themselves d. the professor Correct: In an experiment, the independent variable is the variable that the experimenter manipulates to distinguish between the different groups. The dependent variable is the variable which is measured and subsequently compared across all groups. The goal of an experiment is to determine if manipulating the independent variable affects the dependent variable. In this example, the goal is to determine if manipulating what students eat before an exam affects their performance. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

87) Professor Todd decides to test her hypothesis that eating chocolate prior to exams increases students' test scores. She randomly assigns students to two groups at the beginning of the semester. One group receives a bar of chocolate before each test, while

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the other group receives another type of candy. She compares their scores at the end of the year, and finds that the students who ate the chocolate scored an average of ten points higher on their exams. What is a fair conclusion that can be drawn from this experiment? a. Eating chocolate causes students' test scores to increase. b. Eating chocolate has no relationship to students' test scores. c. Eating chocolate may increase students' satisfaction with the class. d. Eating chocolate makes students happy. Correct: An experiment with random assignment to groups allows researchers to determine cause and effect between the independent and dependent variables. In this example, because the dependent variable was the students' test scores, it can be concluded that eating chocolate increased the test scores. While the chocolate may have also affected the students' satisfaction and happiness, this cannot be concluded based on the experiment's design. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

88) In an experiment, a researcher wants to avoid the presence of _______________. a. confounding variables b. dependent variables c. independent variables d. random assignment Correct: Confounding variables are variables outside of the researcher's control that might affect the results. In an experiment, it is important to avoid or control for confounding variables because they can make it difficult to determine if the independent variable is really affecting the dependent variable or not. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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89) In an experiment, the __________ group receives no manipulation. a. control b. dependent c. independent d. experimental Correct: A control group is the group that does not receive the treatment and therefore serves as a comparison for the experimental group(s). Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

90) A researcher wants to see whether she can make the typical administrative assistant job more motivating at Acme, Inc. To experimentally investigate this possibility, she randomly assigns administrative assistants to one of the following conditions: doing the job as it has always been done, having a computer performance monitoring device installed, receiving feedback about their performance on a weekly basis, or being given a say in how one's workload is structured and done. Which of the preceding conditions is an example of a control group? a. being given a say in how one's workload is structured and done b. doing the job as it has always been done c. having a computer performance monitoring device installed d. receiving feedback on a weekly basis Correct: A control group is the group that does not receive the treatment and therefore serves as a comparison for the experimental group(s). Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Applied

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Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

91) Ryan, a professional bass fisherman, is trying to determine which lure is most effective on Wakeby Lake: the plastic worm he normally uses or the new minnow-style lure he bought yesterday. Based on this scenario, what would constitute the control? a. the new minnow lure b. the plastic worm c. both the minnow lure and the plastic worm d. there is no control Correct: A control group is the group that does not receive the treatment and therefore serves as a comparison for the experimental group(s). In this example, Ryan normally uses the plastic worm, so this will act as a baseline to compare with the new lure he is "experimenting" with on the lake. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

92) Dr. Johansen randomly assigned subjects to three different groups during her last experiment. She then proceeded to give all the participants in the experiment a new study technique designed to enhance their learning for the upcoming test. What critical error did she make during her experiment? a. She failed to identify the independent variable. b. She failed to identify the dependent variable. c. She failed to include an experimental group. d. She failed to include a control group. Correct: A control group is the group that does not receive the treatment and therefore serves as a comparison for the experimental group(s). In this example, by giving all of the participants the new study technique, Dr. Johansen will not have a control group to compare to the subjects with the new technique. While the independent and dependent variables were not explicitly stated in the example, they are clearly the new study technique and the exam performance, respectively.

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Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples.

93) The group that receives the manipulation of an independent variable is called the _______________. a. control group b. dependent group c. experimental group. d. independent group Correct: The experimental group is the group in the experiment that is exposed to the independent variable. This is in contrast to the control group, which receives no manipulation. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

94) Quasi-experimental designs are similar to true experimental designs, except for what difference? a. random assignment is not possible b. there is more than one independent variable c. there is more than one dependent variable d. there is no dependent variable Correct: Quasi-experimental research is a research technique in which the two or more groups that are compared are selected based on pre-determined characteristics, not random assignment. Answer: a Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

95) If researchers wanted to study the effect of various factors on reaction time, which factor would require the researchers to use a quasi-experimental design instead of an experimental design? a. alcohol b. sleep deprivation c. gender d. caffeine Correct: Quasi-experimental designs are used when the groups that are compared are selected based on pre-determined characteristics and random assignment cannot be used. In this example, participants could be randomly assigned to an experimental group that receives caffeine, alcohol, or is deprived of sleep. However, it is not possible to randomly assign participants to be male or female. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 52 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to research designs.

96) The MKUltra project is often cited as an example of a. unethical research on animals. b. unethical research on human beings. c. why it is sometimes necessary to deceive participants. d. why REBs sometimes cause more harm than good. Correct: These studies of brainwashing and torture often had very negative effects on the participants. MKUltra was officially ended in 1973. Answer: b Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 55 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the ethical principles of scientific research to examples.

97) What is the purpose of a research ethics board? a. to help protect research participants from abuse b. to hinder the research process by placing unnecessary hurdles in the way of researchers c. to help protect the university from lawsuits from unhappy research participants d. to encourage the use of deception in medical and psychological research with humans Correct: A research ethics board (REB)is a committee of researchers and officials charged with the protection of human research participants at an institution. The REB is intended to protect individuals in two main ways: (1) the committee weighs potential risks to the volunteers against the possible benefits of the research, and (2) it requires that volunteers agree to participate in the research. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 56 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of research ethics.

98) Kendra serves on a committee whose job is to review proposed psychology studies. The committee refuses to approve one study because it feels the possible benefit from the research is too little given the potential risk to the participants. Kendra's committee is most accurately called an _________________. a. ethics commission b. inquisition c. academic safety advisory committee d. research ethics board Correct: A research ethics board (REB) is a committee of researchers and officials charged with the protection of human research participants at an institution. The REB is intended to protect individuals in two main ways: (1) the committee weighs potential

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risks to the volunteers against the possible benefits of the research, and (2) it requires that volunteers agree to participate in the research. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 56 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of research ethics.

99) Which of the following is true about studies that potentially increase mortality salience in participants? a. Mortality salience is classified as a physical risk. b. Studies that increase mortality salience are unethical. c. Stress from mortality salience is typically short term and can be an acceptable risk. d. Studies that increase mortality salience are always acceptable. Correct: Making subjects more aware of death (mortality salience) is sometimes a side effect of measures used in psychological research. While it can cause psychological stress, this tends to be short term. Therefore, the benefits of a study must be weighed against the risk to participants. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 56 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of research ethics.

100) What is informed consent? a. Volunteers agree to participate in a study after the purpose, tasks, and risks of the study are explained to them. b. REBs must be informed about the purpose, tasks, and risks of a study before they approve it. c. Researchers agree to be legally responsible for the physical and psychological safety of their participants.

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d. Participants must be informed of the results of the study they participated in and give their consent before the research is published. Correct: Current research practice uses the concept of informed consent: A potential volunteer must be informed (know the purpose, tasks, and risks involved in the study) and give consent (agree to participate based on the information provided) without pressure. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 55 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of research ethics.

101) Which of these is an essential concern regarding ethical principles for human research? a. Research participants must give informed consent. b. Research participants must be deceived so that they do not know the true nature of the research to which they are contributing. c. Research participants must be paid for their contribution. d. As long as informed consent has been given, research participants may be subjected to any level of physical or psychological pain or discomfort. Correct: Participants in psychological research must give informed consent (i.e., they must be told about the purpose, tasks, and any risks, and then consent to participate). This does not mean that informed consent allows researchers to do anything they want. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 57–58 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of research ethics.

102) What effect does the planned use of deception have on the approval of a study? a. Studies with deception can be approved, but only if the deception is necessary and the risk to participants is minimal. b. The use of deception has no effect on the likelihood the study will be approved. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. Studies that involve deception go through a different approval process. d. Studies with deception are never approved. Correct: Deception can have serious consequences for participants. However, researchers can use deception under most circumstances when it is necessary. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 57 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the role of using deception in psychological research.

103) Professor Wagner is explaining to his subjects the purpose behind the experiment they just participated in, along with a general description of the results. He is engaging in what aspect of a research study? a. debriefing b. informed consent c. institutional review d. deception Correct: After participating in a study, subjects undergo a full debriefing, in which the researchers explain the true nature of the study, and especially the nature of and reason for any deception. In contrast, informed consent must be obtained prior to participation. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 58 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of research ethics.

104) Participants in modern psychology experiments are given the right to a. choose which treatment group they are in. b. with hold responses to questions they feel uncomfortable answering. c. review the results of the study before they are published.

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d. write a formal response to the published paper. Correct: Volunteers have the right to withdraw from the study, at any time, without penalty. The right to give informed consent stays with the participants throughout the entire study. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 58 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the ethical principles of scientific research to examples.

105) Confidentiality requires researchers to do which of the following? a. Provide complete anonymity when collecting data. b. Erase all confidential data as soon as the results of the study are published. c. Use a double-blind procedure. d. Remove any specific information that can be connected with a participant when sharing data. Correct: Researchers cannot always guarantee complete anonymity when collecting data, but they must at least provide confidentiality. There are at least two parts to confidentiality. First, researchers cannot share specific data or observations that can be connected with an individual. Second, all records must be kept securely (for example, in a password-protected database or locked filing cabinet) so that identities cannot be revealed unintentionally. These records should be kept for a reasonable amount of time, even after the study has been published. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 58 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the ethical principles of scientific research to examples.

106) Dr. Nolen wants to know the effects of removing portions of one's hippocampi on long-term memory, in the hopes of one day finding a cure for patients with Alzheimer's disease. The subjects for his study are most likely to be ___________.

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a. humans b. nonhuman animals c. robots d. insects Correct: Some research cannot ethically be conducted on humans, so nonhuman animals (most often mice or rats) are used instead. When researching human diseases, the closer the animal is to humans, the more likely it is that the results will generalize to people. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 58–59 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand why animals are often used in scientific research.

107) According to your text, which of the following is true of the use of animal research in psychology? a. Animal research is important for several reasons, but it requires attention to many of the same ethical issues that apply to human research. b. All animal research must be ended as soon as is possible because it is generally cruel. c. Animal research is misguided because psychology is the study of human behaviour. d. Animal research is useful because risk and discomfort to non-human subjects do not need to be addressed. Correct: There are several reasons to use non-human subjects in psychology research, especially when a procedure would be unethical on humans. However, many of the same ethical considerations for human research also apply to animal research, including the importance of minimizing unnecessary risk and discomfort. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 58–59 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand why animals are often used in scientific research.

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108) Which of the following is an advantage of using non-human subjects in psychology research? a. Research on non-humans does not have to be reviewed by ethics committees. b. Many lab animals have relatively short life spans, so several generations can be observed. c. Researchers do not have to justify risk and discomfort by the potential scientific value of the research. d. There are no advantages of animal research over human research. Correct: Genetic research requires species with much shorter life spans than our own so that several successive generations can be observed. Animal research is reviewed by committees for ethical treatment, which requires any risk or discomfort to be justified, just as it is for human subjects. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 58–59 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand why animals are often used in scientific research.

109) In general, what should researchers do with data after the results of a study have been published? a. Destroy it immediately. b. Keep it forever. c. Keep it secure for around 25 to 50 years. d. Keep it secure for around 3 to 5 years. Correct: Once data are reported in a journal or at a conference, they should be kept for a reasonable amount of time—generally, three to five years is acceptable. The purpose for keeping data relates to the public nature of good research. Other researchers may request access to the data to re-interpret it, or perhaps examine it before doing a replication. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 61 Skill: Factual

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Objective: Understand the importance of reporting and storing data.

110) _______________ are a set of techniques used to organize, summarize, and interpret data. a. Central tendencies b. Inferential statistics c. Distributions d. Descriptive statistics Correct: Descriptive statistics are mathematical tools used primarily to organize and summarize data. While central tendency is a type of descriptive statistic, measures of central tendency only describe the central point of a distribution. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 65 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics.

111) In order to organize and summarize a large set of data, use a set of mathematical techniques called a. hypothesis testing. b. inferential statistics. c. descriptive statistics. d. variability testing. Correct: Descriptive statistics are mathematical tools used primarily to organize and summarize data. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 65 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics.

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112) Which of the following is the correct description of frequency? a. the number of observations that fall within a certain category or range of scores b. a measure of how spread out values are within a distribution c. a measure of the central point of a distribution d. the distance between the highest and lowest value in a distribution Correct: Frequency simply indicates the number of instances of something. For example, if three students scored a 100% on a quiz, the frequency of perfect scores would be three. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 65 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics.

113) What does the height of the bars on a histogram indicate? a. mean b. range c. frequency d. score or value Correct: Psychologists usually present data in a type of bar graph called a histogram. Like other bar graphs, the vertical axis shows the frequency, or the number of observations that fall within a certain category or range of scores. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 65 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to interpret the most frequently used types of graphs.

114) The scores on most standardized tests have a __________________ distribution.

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a. normal b. positively skewed c. negatively skewed d. bimodal Correct: Many variables display in a normal distribution, such as the scores on most standardized tests or the average high temperature inSault Ste. Marie, Ontario, throughout the month of January. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 65 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics.

115) A teacher is disappointed to find that most of her students' test scores are clustered together at the low end of the grading scale, with only a few students having high grades. If she were to graph the distribution, what shape would it have? a. normal b. positively skewed c. negatively skewed d. central Correct: A positively skewed distribution occurs when the long tail is on the right of the cluster. In this example, the students would be clustered together on the left of the graph, with an increasingly smaller tail of "good" students trailing off to the right. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 65 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to interpret the most frequently used types of graphs.

116) A frequency distribution with a cluster of scores and a long tail to its left is called a ________________ distribution.

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a. negatively skewed b. positively skewed c. normal d. biased Correct: A negatively skewed distribution occurs when the curve has an extended tail to the left of the cluster. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 65 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics.

117) Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? a. mode b. variability c. range d. standard deviation Correct: Mode, median, and mean are the three most commonly used measures of central tendency. Range and standard deviation are measures of variability. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 65–66 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics.

118) A university president asks her psychology department chair if the university has more male or more female undergraduate psychology majors. What measure of central tendency is she asking about? a. mean b. median

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c. mode d. range Correct: The mode is the category with the highest frequency (that is. the category with the most observations). In this example, the mode would be whichever category (male or female) had the highest frequency. Range is not a measure of central tendency. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 66 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics.

119) If a set of data has a normal distribution, which measure of central tendency should be used? a. mean b. median c. mode d. It doesn't matter; they will be the same. Correct: For normal distributions, the mean, median, and mode are always equal to each other. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 66 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the choice of central tendency statistics based on the shape of the distribution.

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d. standard deviation Correct: When a distribution is skewed, the mean is pulled away from the centre. On the other hand, the median stays relatively stable, and so it is a better choice for describing central tendency when dealing with skewed data. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 66–67 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the choice of central tendency statistics based on the shape of the distribution.

121) If all of the scores in a distribution are clustered closely together, the distribution has ____________. a. low variability b. high variability c. a positive skew d. a negative skew Correct: Variability is the degree to which scores are dispersed in a distribution. The scores in a distribution with low variability cluster close together. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 67 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics.

122) Conceptually, the standard deviation for a distribution can be thought of as a. the centre of the distribution. b. the average frequency for each category. c. the average distance from the mean. d. the distance between the highest and lowest values.

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Correct: The standard deviation is a measure of variability around the mean. It can be thought of as an estimate of the average distance from the mean. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 68 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics.

123) Standard deviation is a measure of ______________. a. central tendency b. variability c. statistical significance d. correlation Correct: The standard deviation is a measure of variability around the mean. It can be thought of as an estimate of the average distance from the mean. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 68 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics.

124) Ada's professor tells her class that the average score on the last test was 72 points. Ada wants to know if most students actually scored near 72, or if the grades were more spread out, with many students doing much better or worse than a 72. What statistic could Ada ask her professor to calculate to help answer her question? a. standard deviation b. median c. mode d. correlation coefficient Correct: The standard deviation is a measure of variability around the mean. It can be thought of as an estimate of the average distance from the mean. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 68 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of statistics.

125) The term statistical significance implies that the results are ________________. a. important b. extremely meaningful c. valid d. not likely due to chance Correct: In an experiment, statistical significance implies that the means of the groups are further apart than you would expect them to be by random chance alone. Therefore, the results are likely to be the same if the study wererepeated again. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 70–71 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how and why psychologists use significance tests.

126) Dr. Kwan hypothesizes that allowing factory employees to listen to music while working will improve productivity. After conducting the experiment, Dr. Kwan finds that the group of participants who were allowed to listen to music was more productive than the group who did not, but this difference was not statistically significant. What should Dr. Kwan conclude about the difference between the two groups? a. It supports his hypothesis. b. He is likely to find the same effect if he replicated the study. c. There is an unacceptable chance that the difference is due to random chance. d. The experiment was biased. Correct: Statistical significance implies that the means of the groups are further apart than you would expect them to be by random chance alone. If a result is not statistically

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significant, then the difference between the groups is too likely to be due to random chance to support the hypothesis. This means that the results may not be able to be replicated. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 70–71 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze the conclusions that psychologists can make based on significance tests.

127) Researchers use _________________ to determine whether the difference between groups is statistically significant. a. correlation coefficients b. descriptive statistics c. hypothesis testing d. vector analysis Correct: When researchers determine the significance of their results, they use a set of procedures called a hypothesis test, which measures the difference between the means of the two groups relative to the variability one would expect due to chance in the means (which is calculated based on the standard deviation and the size of the sample). The results of a hypothesis test will tell us if the two groups are significantly different (different because of the independent variable) with a certain degree of probability. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 69 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how and why psychologists use significance tests.

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1) Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes. a. True b. False Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: a Page Reference: 76 2) Monozygotic twins are more likely to share a trait with high heritability than are dizygotic twins. a. True b. False Correct: Monozygotic twins, unlike dizygotic twins, come from a single ovum (egg), which makes them genetically identical. Therefore, if a trait has high heritability, it is more likely to be shared by monozygotic twins. Answer: a Page Reference: 79 3) A heritability estimate around .53 for a trait indicates that 0.53% of the individual differences in the trait can be attributed to genetic factors in the population that was studied. a. True b. False Correct: A heritability estimate around .53 would indicate that 53%, not 0.53%, of the variability in a trait can be attributed to genetic factors. Answer: b Page Reference: 80 4) Neurons greatly outnumber glial cells in the brain. a. True b. False Correct: There are approximately ten times as many glial cells as neurons in the brain. Answer: b Page Reference: 95 5) The action potential is a chemical substance that alters the activity of a receiving neuron. a. True

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

b. False Correct: An action potential is a wave of electrical activity that originates at the base of the axon and rapidly travels down its length. Answer: b Page Reference: 96 6) Serotonin affects neurons involved in sleep, appetite, and mood. a. True b. False Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: a Page Reference: 98 7) The autonomic nervous system controls skeletal muscles. a. True b. False Correct: The autonomic nervous system is the portion of the peripheral nervous system responsible for controlling organs and glands. The somatic nervous system controls skeletal muscles. Answer: b Page Reference: 106–107 8) The brain stem's two main structures are the medulla and the pons. a. True b. False Correct: At the top of the spinal cord is a region called the brainstem, which consists of the medulla and the pons. Answer: a Page Reference: 108 9) After split-brain surgery, patients are unable to walk or to care for the physical needs of everyday life. a. True b. False Correct: Split-brain patients are surprisingly normal, with no obvious deficits. Careful study, however, reveals interesting behaviours. Answer: b Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 115 10) Transcranial magnetic stimulation uses a powerful magnetic field to temporarily stimulate or inactivate neural circuits. a. True b. False Correct: Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is a procedure in which researchers send an electromagnetic pulse to a targeted region of the brain to stimulate or disrupt its activity. Answer: a Page Reference: 122

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

1) Research suggests which of the following is true regarding the nature-nurture debate? a. Psychological traits are mostly determined by genes. b. Psychological traits are mostly determined by environmental factors. c. Genes and environment both independently influence traits, but do not interact. d. Some psychological traits are more influenced by genes, while others are more the result of environment. Correct: All the available evidence suggests that nature and nurture are on a continuum, with some traits under the greater influence of genes while others are more environmentally based. Most important, we now know that genes and experience are never independent; they interact to make us who we are. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 76 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

2) Which of the following best reflects the modern scientific approach to the naturenurture question? a. Why does environment have so little influence over behaviour compared to genes? b. How do genes and environment interact to produce behaviour? c. Why do genes have so little influence over behaviour compared to environment? d. Is nature or nurture more important for determining behaviour? Correct: For centuries, the nature-nurture debate has centered on the question of which is more important: nature or nurture. However, we now know that genes and experience are never independent; they interact to make us who we are. Therefore, the modern scientific nature-nurture question does not split them into two exclusive possibilities. Rather, we ask how do genes and environment interact to produce behavior? Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 76 Skill: Conceptual

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Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

3) The most basic units of heredity that regulate development and physiological processes are called a. proteins. b. genes. c. phenotypes. d. amino acids. Correct: Genes are the basic units of heredity; they are responsible for guiding the process of creating the proteins that make up our physical structures and regulate development and physiological processes throughout the lifespan. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 76 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

4) Genes are organized along ________________, structures in the cellular nucleus that are lined with all of the genes an individual inherits. a. genotypes b. proteins c. amino acids d. chromosomes Correct: Genes are organized along chromosomes, structures in the cellular nucleus that are lined with all of the genes an individual inherits. In humans, there are about 30 000 genes distributed across 23 pairs of chromosomes, half contributed by the mother and half by the father. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 76

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Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

5) Approximately how many genes do humans have? a. 500 b. 25 000 c. 900 000 d. 10 000 000 000 Correct: Despite the complexity of human beings, we only have about 25 000 genes. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 76 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

6) Kendra (female) and Robert (male) are the biological parents of a male child. Which of the following correctly describes how their son inherited his genes? a. All of them were contributed by Robert. b. All of them were contributed by Kendra. c. Half came from Kendra and the other half came from Robert. d. Two-thirds came from Robert and one-third came from Kendra. Correct: In humans, there are about 25 000 genes distributed across 23 pairs of chromosomes, half contributed by the mother and half from the father. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 76 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

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7) The sequence of nucleotides in DNA represents a code that cells can use to create a. amino acids. b. chromosomes. c. proteins. d. genes. Correct: The nucleotides contained within the DNA molecule are typically abbreviated by their first letter A, C, G, and T. Each gene is a unique combination of these four nucleotides that represents the code used to create proteins. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 76 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

8) The sequence of letters TATAAGGCACCC most likely represents a. the order of genes on a chromosome. b. the types of chromosomes in a cell. c. the order of nucleotides in a gene. d. the types of DNA in a chromosome. Correct: Genes are comprised of DNA molecules formed in a double helix shape that contain four nucleotides, which are abbreviated A, C, T, and G. The order of these nucleotides in a gene forms a code. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 76 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

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9) Yani inherited the gene for blue eyes from his mother, but he actually has brown eyes. What is his eye colour phenotype? a. brown b. blue c. both blue and brown d. Yani does not have a phenotype because he is not heterozygous. Correct: Phenotype refers to the observable characteristics. While Yani's genotype must include genes for both blue and brown eyes, his actual eye colour—and therefore his phenotype—is brown. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 76 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

10) Our genetic code usually determines whether we have typically male or female bodies. Occasionally however, individuals are born who are genetically male, but who physically appear female. These children are ______________ male, but __________________ female. a. heterozygous; homozygous b. homozygous; heterozygous c. phenotypically; genotypically d. genotypically; phenotypically Correct: The term genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an organism. The unique set of genes that comprise every chromosome represents the genotype of the individual, while the phenotype refers to the observable characteristics, including physical structures and behaviours. In this example, a child who is genetically male but physically female has a male genotype and a female phenotype. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 76 Skill: Applied Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

11) Having a dimple on your chin is determined by a single gene pair. If you inherited one dimple gene and one non-dimple gene from your parents, you could be described as ____________ for this trait. a. heterozygous b. homozygous c. phenotypical d. genotypical Correct: Genes come in pairs, one inherited from each parent, aligned along the chromosomes. If two corresponding genes at a given location on a pair of chromosomes are the same, they are referred to as homozygous. If the two genes differ they are heterozygous. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 77 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

12) If two corresponding genes at a given location on a pair of chromosomes are the same, they are referred to as a. genotyped. b. homozygous. c. phenotyped. d. heterozygous. Correct: Genes come in pairs, one inherited from each parent, aligned along the chromosomes. If the two copies of the gene are the same, then they are called homozygous. In contrast, if the genes differ they are heterozygous. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 77 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

13) For a simple trait with one dominant and one recessive gene, a person will display the recessive trait a. if they are heterozygous or homozygous for the recessive trait. b. only if they are homozygous for the recessive trait. c. only if they are heterozygous. d. as long as they inherit one copy of the recessive trait. Correct: In order to display a recessive trait, a person must be homozygous (i.e., both of their copies of the gene must be recessive). Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 77 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

14) Behavioural genetics is the study of how a. specific phenotypes influence genotypes. b. different behaviours lead to changes in the genetic code. c. genes and environment influence behaviour. d. monozygotic twins are created. Correct: Behavioural geneticists study how genes and environment influence behaviour. While they sometimes use twins in their research, behavioural genetics does not focus on the biology of twinning. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 78 Skill: Factual

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Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

15) Which of these research methods would a behavioural geneticist be likely to employ to study the influence of genetics on personality? a. examining heritability in twins and adopted individuals b. interviewing people who have known others who were particularly odd or unique c. administering paper and pencil or computerized questionnaires to hundreds of people d. documenting the patterns of development and difficulties of psychiatric patients Correct: Behavioural genetic methods applied to humans typically involve comparing people of different levels of relatedness, such as parents and their offspring, siblings, and unrelated individuals, and measuring resemblances for a specific trait of interest. Twins and adopted children present particularly important ways of studying heredity. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 79 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour.

16) Which of these sibling pairs will share the greatest number of genes? a. two brothers who were born of the same two parents 18 months apart b. a brother and sister who are fraternal twins c. two brothers who develop from the same fertilized egg d. two sisters who are fraternal twins Correct: Monozygotic twins come from a single ovum (egg), which makes them genetically identical. In contrast, dizygotic twins (fraternal twins) come from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells; therefore, they share the same number of genes as do non-twin siblings. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 79

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour.

17) What is the maximum value for heritability? a. 0.1 b. 1.0 c. 10 d. 100 Correct: Heritability is a statistic, expressed as a number between zero and one, that represents the degree to which genetic differences between individuals contribute to individual differences in a behaviour or trait found in a population. A heritability of zero means that genes do not contribute to individual differences in a trait, whereas heritability of 1.0 indicates that genes account for all individual differences in a trait. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 79 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

18) Suppose a researcher is studying twins where at least one twin suffers from depression. The researcher finds that both twins are much more likely to share the disorder if they are monozygotic and not dizygotic twins. What should the research conclude? a. depression is entirely genetic b. the heritability of depression is high c. the heritability of depression is low d. monozygotic twins are at a higher risk for depression than non-twins Correct: Because monozygotic twins have identical genes, traits that are strongly influenced by genes are much more likely to be shared by monozygotic twins than dizygotic twins. This does not mean that being a twin increases an individual's risk for a particular disease. Answer: b Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 79–80 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour.

19) Suppose for a particular personality trait, dizygotic twins both share the trait 13% of the time while monozygotic twins share the trait 14% of the time. The heritability for this trait would be close to a. 0 b. .13 c. .14 d. 1 Correct: Heritability is a statistic, expressed as a number between zero and one, that represents the degree to which genetic differences between individuals contribute to individual differences in a behaviour or trait found in a population. Because the trait is only slightly more likely to be shared by monozygotic twins (who are genetically identical) than dizygotic (who are not), the heritability appears close to zero. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 79–80 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour.

20) What is the maximum value for heritability? a. 0.1 b. 1.0 c. 10 d. 100 Correct: Heritability is a statistic, expressed as a number between zero and one, that represents the degree to which genetic differences between individuals contribute to individual differences in a behaviour or trait found in a population. A heritability of zero Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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means that genes do not contribute to individual differences in a trait, whereas heritability of 1.0 indicates that genes account for all individual differences in a trait. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 80 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

21) A heritability of .37 indicates what about a trait? a. 0.37% of individual differences in the trait can be attributed to environmental factors. b. 0.37% of individual differences in the trait can be attributed to genetic factors within the population. c. 37% of individual differences in the trait can be attributed to environmental factors within the population. d. 37% of individual differences in the trait can be attributed to genetic factors within the population. Correct: Heritability is a statistic, expressed as a number between zero and one, that represents the degree to which genetic differences between individuals contribute to individual differences in a behaviour or trait found in a population. For example, a heritability of .85 would indicate that 85% of individual differences in the trait can be attributed to genetic factors within the population. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 79–80 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

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c. schoolmates. d. other adopted children. Correct: If adopted children are more like their biological parents than their adoptive parents on measures of traits such as personality and intelligence, this tells us that there is a strong genetic component to these traits. On the other hand, if the children are more like their adoptive, genetically unrelated parents, a strong case can be made that environmental factors outweigh the biological predispositions. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 80 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour.

23) A researcher is studying factors that influence political philosophy (conservative or liberal). She finds that adopted children are more likely to share their political philosophy with their adoptive parents than their biological parents. Which of the following should she conclude? a. Genes have no influence on political philosophy. b. Adoptive parents are more likely to be liberal. c. Political philosophy has high heritability. d. Political philosophy has low heritability. Correct: If adopted children are more like their biological parents than their adoptive parents on measures of traits such as personality and intelligence, this tells us that there is a strong genetic component to these traits. On the other hand, if the children are more like their adoptive, genetically unrelated parents, a strong case can be made that environmental factors outweigh the biological predispositions. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 80 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour.

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24) Gi works in a laboratory that identifies which genes are present among individuals with particular traits that are not present in others. The goal of the lab is to understand how specific genes are related to behaviour. Gi works in which field? a. eugenics b. DNA phenotyping c. behavioural genomics d. psychobehavioural genetics Correct: Behavioural genomics is the study of DNA and how specific genes are related to behaviour. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 78 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

25) Which of the following is a limitation associated with behavioural genomics? a. Most traits are not controlled by single genes. b. Technology is not yet sufficiently advanced to identify single genes. c. The Human Genome Project has not yet been completed. d. Laws prevent researchers from sequencing the genes of individuals. Correct: Despite the sequencing of the human genome and other technological advances, a major difficulty with behavioural genomics is that most traits do not have a single allcontrolling gene. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 78 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

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26) Which of the following is true? a. Most traits are controlled by a single gene. b. Each gene can only affect one trait. c. A single gene can often be a risk factor for several disorders. d. No trait is determined by a single gene. Correct: While some traits are controlled by single genes, most complicated behaviours are controlled by multiple interacting genes. Furthermore, single genes often affect several traits. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 78 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze claims that scientists have located a specific gene that controls a single trait or behaviour.

27) Aaron is working at his job as an editor of a science magazine when a reporter places an article on his desk entitled "Gene for Optimism Found." To avoid confusing the readers about what the scientists most likely found, what could Aaron change the title to? a. "Pessimists are Missing a Crucial Gene" b. "Scientists Find Gene's Purpose is to Increase Optimism" c. "Scientists Find the Single Gene for Optimism" d. "Gene Found to be a Factor in Optimism" Correct: While some traits are controlled by single genes, most complicated behaviours are controlled by multiple interacting genes. Furthermore, single genes often affect several traits. Claims that scientists have discovered the gene for a particular trait are usually overstating the fact that a gene has been found to be one of the factors affecting a trait, not the lone cause. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 78 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze claims that scientists have located a specific gene that controls a single trait or behaviour.

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28) Which of the following correctly describes an adaptation? a. any heritable trait, both physical and behavioural, that can pass from one generation to the next b. a change in the frequency of genes within a population c. a heritable trait that contributes to the survival, health, or sexual behaviour of an organism d. any gene pasted from one generation to another Correct: Adaptations are heritable traits that increase the likelihood that an organism will survive and reproduce. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 82–83 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of genes and behaviour to hypothesize why a trait might be adaptive.

29) Which of the following is the most clearly adaptive for humans? a. hiccups b. the fight-or-flight response c. schizophrenia d. red hair Correct: Adaptations increase the likelihood that an organism will survive and reproduce. The fight-or-flight response is most likely to be adaptive because it clearly helps individuals in potentially dangerous situations, where the only way to avoid injury or death requires extra energy. While it is possible that hiccups and red hair might have some adaptive function, this is not nearly as obvious. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 82 Skill: Conceptual

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Objective: Apply your knowledge of genes and behaviour to hypothesize why a trait might be adaptive.

30) "Natural selection" is a process by which a. favourable traits become increasingly common in a population of interbreeding individuals, while traits that are unfavourable become less common. b. animal breeders select animals in each generation that have the most "natural" traits to breed the next generation. c. favourable traits become increasingly common in a population over the course of a single generation. d. genetic mutations lead to random changes within a population of organisms. Correct: Natural selection is the process by which favourable traits become increasingly common in a population of interbreeding individuals, while traits that are unfavourable become less common. This is generally a very slow process and does not occur in a single generation. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 82 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology.

31) Which best describes the current understanding of gender differences in cognitive abilities? a. There are no gender differences in cognitive abilities. b. There is currently a debate about whether these differences are genetic or the result of cultural and environmental factors. c. There is no evidence that these differences are biological. d. There is no evidence that cultural and environmental factors can affect these differences. Correct: Studies pointing to gender differences in cognitive abilities and sexual motivation have led to debates about what those differences mean and how they arise. Some studies indicate that these differences are due to sociocultural influences and personal experiences. Gender differences in mental rotation ability, however, appear to

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be linked to testosterone and are found across cultures, indicating a biological explanation. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 89 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze explanations for cognitive gender differences that are rooted in genetics.

32) Researchers have found that the male advantage in mental rotation tasks is related to a. cultural factors. b. estrogens. c. testosterone levels. d. educational factors. Correct: Researchers have found a positive correlation between testosterone levels and ability to solve a mental rotation task. Specifically, males with high testosterone levels were better at solving the task than males with low levels. Researchers have observed a male advantage in this task across different cultures.Overall, evidence from many studies suggests that there is a biological and evolutionary explanation for a male advantage to this specific task. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 89 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze explanations for cognitive gender differences that are rooted in genetics.

33) ______ are responsible for sending and receiving messages throughout the body. a. Glial cells b. Neurons c. Nodes of Ranvier d. Reuptake inhibitors

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Correct: Neurons are a type of cell found in the nervous system that are responsible for sending and receiving messages throughout the body. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 93 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

34) Neurons are a. cells in the brain that are believed to help clean and feed brain cells. b. cells that send and receive information. c. bundles of nerves. d. chemical transmitters found in the hypothalamus. Correct: Neurons are a type of cell found in the nervous system that are responsible for sending and receiving messages throughout the body. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 93 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

35) The ___________ is the central region of the neuron that contains genes that synthesize proteins that comprise the chemicals and structures that allow the neuron to function. a. neuronal membrane b. dendrite c. axon d. cell body

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Correct: The cell body (also known as the soma) is the part of a neuron that contains the nucleus that houses the cell's genetic material. Genes in the cell body synthesize proteins that comprise the chemicals and structures that allow the neuron to function. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 93 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

36) Which part of the neuron is responsible for manufacturing proteins? a. axon b. cell body c. dendrite d. membrane Correct: The cell body (also known as the soma) is the part of a neuron that contains the nucleus that houses the cell's genetic material. Genes in the cell body synthesize proteins that comprise the chemicals and structures that allow the neuron to function. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 93 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

37) The branchlike structures that receive messages from other neurons are called a. axons. b. nerve bundles. c. dendrites. d. synapses.

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Correct: Dendrites are the small branches radiating from a neuron, which receive messages from other cells and transmit the message toward the cell body. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 93–94 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

38) Which part of the neuron acts like an antenna to receive messages from other neurons? a. cell body b. dendrite c. axon d. glia Correct: Dendrites are the small branches radiating from a neuron, which receive messages from other cells and transmit the message toward the cell body. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 93–94 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

39) Which part of a neuron transports information from the neuron to other neurons through an electrochemical reaction? a. soma b. axon c. dendrite d. cell membrane Correct: The axon is the structure that transports information from the neuron to other neurons in the form of electrochemical reaction. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 94 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

40) If neuronal communication were compared to radio, the _______________ would be the transmitter at the radio station and the _______________ would be the antenna on your car. a. cell bodies; axons b. dendrites; myelin sheaths c. myelin sheaths; cell bodies d. axons; dendrites Correct: The axon is the structure that transports information from the neuron to other neurons in the form of electrochemical reaction. Dendrites are the small branches radiating from a neuron, which receive messages from other cells and transmit the message toward the cell body. Conceptually, the dendrites can be thought of as the neuron's receiver, while the axon can be thought of as the transmitter. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 93–94 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

41) The structures at the far end of the axon (i.e., furthest from the cell body) are called a. axon terminals. b. dendrites. c. glial junctions. d. spines.

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Correct: At the end of the axon are axon terminals, which form synapses with other neurons, muscles, or glands. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 94 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

42) Kerry works as a messenger for a business. His job is to carry messages between different buildings. Kerry's role for the company is similar to the function of ______________ for a neuron. a. neurotransmitters b. receptor sites c. dendrites d. somas Correct: Neurotransmitters are the chemicals that function as messengers, allowing neurons to communicate with each other. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 94 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

43) The tiny space between the axon terminal of one cell and the dendrites of the next cell is called the a. receptor site. b. synapse. c. dendrite knob. d. axon terminal.

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Correct: Synapses are the microscopically small spaces that separate the axon terminals of one neuron from the next neuron. Neurons communicate by releasing neurotransmitters into synapses. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 96 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

44) Mary put her hand on a hot stove. Which type of neuron is responsible for sending a pain message towards her spinal cord? a. motor neuron b. interneuron c. sensory neuron d. efferent neuron Correct: Sensory neurons bring information from the bodily senses (e.g., touch, pain, temperature) toward the spinal cord and brain. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 94 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

45) What is the function of the myelin sheath? a. to serve as a structure for neurons b. to monitor neural activity c. to speed up the neural impulse d. to produce neurotransmitters Correct: Myelin is a fatty sheath that insulates axons from one another, resulting in increased speed and efficiency of neural communication. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 95 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

46) The __________ speeds up the passage of electrical messages by acting as an insulator of the neuronal signal. a. blood-brain barrier b. terminal button c. myelin d. synaptic vesicles Correct: Myelin is a fatty sheath that insulates axons from one another, resulting in increased speed and efficiency of neural communication. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 95 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

47) Kalika is told by her physician that her symptoms are caused by a loss of myelin. Her diagnosis would most likely be a. Parkinson's disease. b. multiple sclerosis. c. early stage Alzheimer's disease. d. epilepsy. Correct: Multiple sclerosis is a disease in which the immune system does not recognize myelin and attacks it. This can devastate the structural and functional integrity of the nervous system. When myelin breaks down in multiple sclerosis, the resulting symptoms include numbness or tingling sensations. This reflects the disruption of sensory nerve cell signals reaching the brain. The disorder also involves problems with voluntary,

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coordinated movement, which is due to the breakdown of myelin that supports motor nerves. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 95 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

48) What type of cell in the nervous system is responsible for mounting immune responses in the brain, removing wastes, and is found in myelin? a. endorphins b. epithelial cell c. glial cell d. neuron Correct: Glial cells are specialized cells of the nervous system that are involved in mounting immune responses in the brain, removing wastes, and synchronizing activity of the billions of neurons comprising the nervous system. Myelin is also made from glia cells. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 94–95 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

49) Which type of cell is responsible for supporting the function of neurons? a. GABA b. glial c. epithelial d. dedrocytes Correct: Glial cells are specialized cells of the nervous system that are involved in mounting immune responses in the brain, removing wastes, and synchronizing activity of Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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the billions of neurons comprising the nervous system. Myelin is also made from glia cells. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 94–95 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

50) What do we call the state of a neuron when it is not transmitting or receiving messages? a. action potential b. resting potential c. neutral period d. refractory period Correct: The resting potential of a neuron refers to its stable, inactive state during which the cell is not transmitting or receiving messages. In contrast, the refractory period refers to a state during which a neuron cannot fire, even if stimulated. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 95 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

51) The voltage of a neuron's ______________ is typically around –70 millivolts. a. postsynaptic potential b. resting potential c. action potential d. graded potential Correct: The resting potential of a neuron refers to its stable, inactive state during which the cell is not transmitting or receiving messages. It is typically around –70 millivolts. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 95 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

52) During an action potential, the electrical charge inside the neuron is _________ compared to the electrical charge outside the neuron. a. positive b. balanced c. negative d. neutral Correct: During an action potential, a wave of electrical activity originates at the base of the axon and rapidly travels down its length. The action potential moves down the length of the axon as positively charged ions rush through the membrane pores. During the action potential, the net charge of the cell goes from negatively to positively charged. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 96 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

53) When a neuron is sufficiently stimulated it a. becomes very negatively charged relative to outside of the cell. b. initiates an action potential. c. expands in size. d. closes all of its membrane pores. Correct: When a neuron is stimulated past a certain threshold, it initiates an action potential. During an action potential, a wave of electrical activity originates at the base of the axon and rapidly travels down its length. The action potential moves down the length of the axon as positively charged ions rush through the membrane pores. During the action potential, the net charge of the cell goes from negatively to positively charged. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 96 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

54) "All or none" is the principle stating that a. a neuron always fires at the same strength. b. a neuron fires at full strength or half strength. There are no other "partial" firing options. c. all the dendrites must be receiving messages telling the neuron to fire or it will not fire at all. d. all somas must be receiving messages telling the neuron to fire or it will not fire at all. Correct: When stimulated, a given neuron always fires at the same intensity and speed. This is referred to as the all-or-none principle: individual nerve cells fire at the same strength every time an action potential is reached. Neurons do not "sort of" fire, or "over fire", they just fire. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 97 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

55) ________ is the creation of new neurons. a. Neurogenesis b. Neural plasticity c. Long-term potentiation d. Synaptogenesis Correct: The creation of new neurons is called neurogenesis. Fairly recently, researchers have found that neurogenesis occurs in a limited number of regions in adult brains. Answer: a Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 95 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the claim that we are born with all the nerve cells we will ever have.

56) What interesting discovery about the nervous system was made in the last 15 years or so? a. Humans only use 10% of their neurons. b. We are born with all of the neurons we will ever have. c. New neurons are formed in some brain regions. d. We are born with all of the glial cells we will ever have. Correct: The creation of new neurons is called neurogenesis. Fairly recently, researchers have found that neurogenesis occurs in a limited number of regions in adult brains. It is a myth that humans only use 10% of their brains. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 95 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the claim that we are born with all the nerve cells we will ever have.

57) Which structure is like a locked door that only certain neurotransmitter keys can unlock? a. synapses b. receptors c. neural chiasms d. response terminals Correct: A lock-and-key analogy is sometimes used to explain how neurotransmitters and their receptors work: When neurotransmitters are released at the axon terminal, they cross the synapse and fit like a key in a receptor on the dendrite. Answer: b Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 97 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

58) ____________neurotransmitters make it more likely that a neuron will generate action potentials, whereas _____________ neurotransmitters make it less likely that a neuron will do so. a. Excitatory; inhibitory b. Inhibitory; excitatory c. Augmentation; depletion d. Depletion; augmentation Correct: When a neurotransmitter binds to the receptor, in general, it can trigger one of two types of reaction in the receiving neuron. The effect can be either excitatory, increasing action potentials, or it may be inhibitory and decrease action potentials. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 97 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

59) After neurotransmitter molecules are released, they may be broken down by enzymes, or they may be re-absorbed back into the axon, a process known as a. inhibition. b. neurogenesis. c. refraction. d. reuptake. Correct: Reuptake is a process where neurotransmitter molecules that have been released into the synapse are re-absorbed into the axon terminals of the presynaptic neuron. Reuptake is a very important process. It is a sort of natural recycling system for neurotransmitters. Answer: d Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 97 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

60) Which of the following neurotransmitters affects neurons involved in voluntary movement, processing rewards, and mood? a. serotonin b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. GABA Correct: Dopamine is a monoamine neurotransmitter involved in such varied functions as mood, controlling voluntary movement, and processing rewarding experiences. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 98–99 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

61) Which neurotransmitter is associated with sleep, mood, and appetite? a. GABA b. serotonin c. dopamine d. acetylcholine Correct: Sleep, mood, and appetite are complicated processes involving many different types of neurotransmitters; however, serotonin is particularly associated with these three functions. Therefore, it is the best answer. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 99 Skill: Factual

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Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

62) Andy has decided to seek medical help for mood disturbances and appetite problems. Which neurotransmitter is most likely involved in the problems Andy is experiencing? a. GABA b. dopamine c. serotonin d. acetylcholine Correct: Serotonin is particularly associated with mood and appetite. Therefore, it is the best answer. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 99 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

63) Elizabeth was driving on the freeway when a car passed abruptly in front of her and almost hit her vehicle. As a result of the stress produced by this incident, her heart rate increased and she felt "on edge." Which of the following neurotransmitters is likely responsible for Elizabeth's response? a. serotonin b. dopamine c. GABA d. norepinephrine Correct: Norepinephrine is synthesized from dopamine molecules and is involved in regulating stress responses, including increasing arousal, attention, and heart rate. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 99 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

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64) __________ plays a critical role as a neurotransmitter that stimulates voluntary muscle movement directly at the junction between nerves and muscles. a. acetylcholine b. GABA c. dopamine d. endorphin Correct: Acetylcholine is one of the most widespread neurotransmitters within the body. It is found at the junctions between nerve cells and skeletal muscles and so is very important for voluntary movement. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 99 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

65) The main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the nervous system is a. glutamate. b. GABA. c. acetylcholine. d. serotonin. Correct: GABA is a primary inhibitory neurotransmitter of the nervous system, meaning that it prevents neurons from generating an action potential. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 98 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

66) The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the nervous system that plays a role in memory and learning is

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a. glutamate. b. GABA. c. acetylcholine. d. serotonin. Correct: Glutamate is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the nervous system. It is believed to play a critical role in memory and learning. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 98 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

67) African naked mole rats show no behavioural response when exposed to capsaicin, the active ingredient in chili peppers. This is most likely due to the fact that they lack the neurotransmitter a. glutamate. b. GABA. c. substance P. d. serotonin. Correct: Substance P is a neurotransmitter involved in the experience of pain, including the pain caused by capsaicin. African naked mole rats lack substance P, and therefore do not appear to experience pain when they come into contact with a stimulus such as capsaicin. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 100 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate.

68) Drugs that block neurotransmitter activity are called a. agonists.

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b. antagonists. c. excitatory. d. reuptake inhibitors. Correct: Drugs classified as antagonists inhibit neurotransmitter activity by blocking receptors or preventing synthesis of a neurotransmitter. For example, taking a dopamine antagonist will reduce dopamine activity in the brain. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 101 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the ways that drugs and other substances affect the brain.

69) Luisa is diagnosed with a medical disorder caused by too much dopamine activity in certain brain regions. Her doctor is likely to prescribe a dopamine ________________ to treat her. a. reuptake inhibitor. b. stimulator. c. agonist. d. antagonist. Correct: Drugs classified as antagonists inhibit neurotransmitter activity, while agonists are drugs that enhance or mimic the effects of a neurotransmitter's action. Because Luisa suffers from too much dopamine activity, her doctor would prescribe an antagonist. A reuptake inhibitor would not be prescribed because inhibiting the reuptake of dopamine actually increases its effect. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 101 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the ways that drugs and other substances affect the brain.

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b. specific organs. c. nerve endings. d. the brain. Correct: Hormones are chemicals secreted by the glands of the endocrine system. Unlike neurotransmitters, which are released into synapses, hormones are secreted into the bloodstream and travel throughout the body. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 102 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the role that hormones play in our behaviour.

71) The ________ regulates and maintains constant internal bodily states by stimulating the pituitary gland. a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. amygdala d. hippocampus Correct: Through its control of the pituitary gland, the hypothalamus can control the endocrine system and contribute to homeostasis: the balance of energy, metabolism, body temperature, and other basic functions. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 102 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

72) Which endocrine gland controls all of the other glands in the body? a. thyroid gland b. adrenal gland

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c. pancreas d. pituitary gland Correct: The pituitary gland is sometimes called "the master gland" because it sends commands about hormone production to the other glands of the endocrine system. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 102 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour.

73) The pituitary gland is known as the _______ gland because it controls the other glands in the body. a. master b. alpha c. dominant d. ventral Correct: The pituitary gland is sometimes called "the master gland" because it sends commands about hormone production to the other glands of the endocrine system. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 102 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour.

74) Which of the following is a likely effect of damage to the hypothalamus? a. reduced use of left arm b. deregulation of hormones c. development of aphasia d. reduced ability to reason

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Correct: The hypothalamus is a brain structure that regulates basic biological needs and motivational systems. Specialized chemicals called releasing factors are secreted by the hypothalamus and stimulate the pituitary to release specific hormones. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 102 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour.

75) Which part of the brain controls the pituitary gland? a. hypothalamus b. hippocampus c. amygdala d. diencephalon Correct: The activity of the pituitary is controlled in large part by the hypothalamus. Specialized chemicals called releasing factors are secreted by the hypothalamus and stimulate the pituitary to release specific hormones. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 102 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour.

76) Mobombi had completed about a quarter of the distance in the marathon in which he was a participant. Suddenly, he stumbled and fell. Despite feeling a sharp pain initially, he got up and continued to run until he completed the race. Upon crossing the finish line he fell down writhing in pain. When checked out, it was discovered that Mobombi had broken his leg. He was able to run the remainder of the marathon relatively pain free due to the release of a. enzymes. b. amino acids. c. monoamines.

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d. endorphins. Correct: Endorphins are produced by the pituitary gland and the hypothalamus and function to reduce pain and induce feelings of pleasure. Endorphins are released into the bloodstream during events such as strenuous exercise, sexual activity, or injury. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 102–103 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour.

77) Because they have similar chemical structures, morphine and other opiates are able to lock into receptor sites for a. GABA. b. serotonin. c. dopamine. d. endorphins. Correct: Endorphins are produced by the pituitary gland and the hypothalamus and function to reduce pain and induce feelings of pleasure. Morphine—a drug derived from the poppy plant—binds to endorphin receptors (the term endorphin translates to internal or endogenous morphine). Morphine molecules fit into the same receptor sites as endorphins, and therefore produce the same pain-killing and euphoric effects. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 102–103 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour.

78) The two main divisions of the nervous system are the __________ and the __________. a. brain; spinal cord b. autonomic; somatic nervous systems

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c. peripheral nervous system; central nervous system d. glands; muscles Correct: The two main divisions of the nervous system are the peripheral nervous system and the central nervous system. The peripheral nervous system can then be further divided into the autonomic and somatic nervous systems, and the central nervous system can be divided into the brain and spinal cord. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 106 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

79) The peripheral nervous system consists of the __________ and the __________ nervous systems. a. autonomic; somatic b. autonomic; sympathetic c. parasympathetic; somatic d. parasympathetic; sympathetic Correct: The peripheral nervous system transmits signals between the brain and the rest of the body and is divided into two subcomponents, the somatic system and the autonomic system. The autonomic system can be further divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 106–107 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

80) The brain and spinal cord make up the a. central nervous system.

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b. autonomic nervous system. c. peripheral nervous system. d. somatic nervous system. Correct: This is the definition of the central nervous system. In contrast, the peripheral nervous system consists of the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 106 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

81) As she walks out of the living room, Gloriann turns out the light. In this example, Gloriann's __________ nervous system is active. a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. autonomic d. somatic Correct: The somatic nervous system controls skeletal muscles, which are responsible for voluntary and reflexive movement. In this example, the voluntary action of turning out the light would require the somatic nervous system. In contrast, the autonomic nervous system (composed of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems) is responsible for controlling organs and glands. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 107 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

82) The subdivision of the peripheral nervous system that consists of nerves that control organs and glands is called the ___________ nervous system.

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a. somatic b. autonomic c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic Correct: The autonomic nervous system is the part of the peripheral nervous system that is responsible for controlling organs and glands. It can be divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, each of which has a specific effect on the organs and glands. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 107 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

83) The fight-or-flight response is mobilized by the a. central nervous system. b. somatic nervous system. c. sympathetic nervous system. d. parasympathetic nervous system. Correct: The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response of an increased heart rate, dilated pupils, and decreased salivary flow—responses that prepare the body for action. In contrast, the parasympathetic nervous system generally has the opposite effect on the body and conserves energy. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 107 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

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84) As Molly is walking across campus, a car swerves toward her. Her heart races and sweat breaks out as she jumps out of harm's way. This mobilization of energy is due to the action of Molly's a. somatic nervous system. b. skeletal nervous system. c. parasympathetic nervous system. d. sympathetic nervous system. Correct: The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response of an increased heart rate, dilated pupils, and decreased salivary flow—responses that prepare the body for action. In contrast, the parasympathetic nervous system generally has the opposite effect on the body and conserves energy. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 107 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

85) Malcolm is studying alone in his room late at night when he hears a loud noise downstairs. His heartbeat increases significantly and his breathing becomes shallow. He wonders if a burglar has entered the house and decides to investigate. When he gets downstairs he discovers his cat has knocked over a plant stand. His body begins to relax and return to normal. Which part of his nervous system is responsible for returning Malcolm to a normal state? a. spinal cord b. somatic nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. parasympathetic nervous system Correct: The parasympathetic nervous system helps maintain homeostatic balance in the presence of change, and following sympathetic arousal, it works to return the body to a baseline, nonemergency state. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 107 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

86) There are approximately __________ individual cells in your brain alone. a. 10 million b. 100 million c. 100 billion d. 10 trillion Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 112 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

87) An auto accident rendered Chris's nervous system unable to send messages for him to breathe, so he is on a respirator. Which brain structure was damaged in the accident? a. pons b. medulla c. cerebellum d. reticular formation Correct: Nerve cells in the medulla connect with the body to perform basic functions such as breathing, heart rate, sneezing, salivating, and even throwing up—all those actions your body does with little conscious control on your part. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 108 Skill: Applied

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Objective: Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased.

88) The _______________ is a structure in the brain stem responsible for life-sustaining functions, such as breathing and heart rate. a. reticular formation b. pons c. medulla d. cingulate gyrus Correct: Nerve cells in the medulla connect with the body to perform basic functions such as breathing, heart rate, sneezing, salivating, and even throwing up—all those actions your body does with little conscious control on your part. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 108 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

89) Damage to the cerebellum is likely to disrupt which of the following? a. playing basketball b. sleeping c. homeostasis d. thinking Correct: The cerebellum is the lobe-like structure at the base of the brain that is involved in the details of movement, maintaining balance, and learning new skills. In this example, the complex timing and coordination required for playing basketball would be the most likely to be affected by damage to the cerebellum. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 109 Skill: Applied

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Objective: Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased.

90) The brain is divided into several different structures on the bottom part of the brain referred to as the "hindbrain." Which of the parts of the brain listed below is located in the hindbrain? a. amygdala b. occipital lobe c. cerebellum d. thalamus Correct: The cerebellum is the only structure listed that is considered part of the hindbrain. Other hindbrain structures include the medulla, pons, and reticular formation. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 108–109 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

91) Which of the following would most likely involve the midbrain? a. raising your body temperature on a cold night b. deciding to bet all of your chips in a poker game c. remembering where you left your keys d. ducking just in time to avoid being hit by a sudden foul ball at a baseball game Correct: The midbrain allows us to detect sudden movements out of the corner of our eyes. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 109 Skill: Conceptual

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Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

92) Tourette's syndrome—a condition marked by erratic and repetitive facial and muscle movements (called tics) and frequent noise making such as grunting, snorting, or sniffing—is believed to be caused by an imbalance in the a. hippocampus. b. medulla. c. basal ganglia. d. thalamus. Correct: An excess of dopamine within the basal ganglia is believed to contribute to many of the classic symptoms of Tourette's. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 110 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased.

93) A researcher implants an electrode in a rat's brain, and then wires the electrode so that it stimulates a specific brain region every time the rat presses a lever. The rat finds the stimulation so rewarding that it does nothing but press the lever all day. Which of the following brain regions does the electrode most likely stimulate? a. nucleus accumbens b. amygdala c. cerebellum d. thalamus Correct: The nucleus accumbens is part of the basal ganglia, and is believed to be involved in pleasurable and rewarding sensations associated with certain behaviours. Researchers have found that rats will continuously self-stimulate the accumbens and related regions by pressing a lever. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 111 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

94) The part of the brain dedicated to emotion and memory is the a. endocrine system. b. limbic system. c. reticular formation. d. lymphatic system. Correct: The limbic system is an integrated network involved in emotion and memory. Two important structures in the limbic system are the hippocampus and amygdala. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 111 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

95) Stan has been extremely afraid of cats since he was scratched as a 5-year-old. Whenever he sees a cat, he starts to feel afraid. If a cat comes towards him, he often runs away immediately as he is afraid of being scratched again. Stan's response is likely a result of the ____________ in the limbic system. a. hippocampus b. thalamus c. amygdala d. medulla Correct: The amygdala facilitates memory formation for emotional events, mediating fear responses, and appears to play a role in recognizing and interpreting emotional stimuli. In this example, Stan's involuntary fear of cats is likely due to a fear memory formed by the amygdala. Answer: c Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 111 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

96) As Joe walks to his car late at night, he hears footsteps behind him. Feeling afraid, Joe grips his keys and quickens his pace. It is likely that Joe's ____________ has been activated. a. hypothalamus b. hippocampus c. amygdala d. cerebellum Correct: The amygdala facilitates memory formation for emotional events, mediating fear responses, and appears to play a role in recognizing and interpreting emotional stimuli. In this example, Stan's fear response is likely the result of amygdala activation. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 111 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

97) Eating, drinking, sexual behaviour, and body temperature control are most strongly influenced by the a. hippocampus. b. thalamus. c. hypothalamus. d. amygdala. Correct: The hypothalamus is a brain structure that regulates basic biological needs and motivational systems, such as those involved in hunger, thirst, sexual behaviour, and body temperature. These are not functions associated with the other structures listed. Answer: c

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 111 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

98) What part of the brain acts as a relay station for incoming sensory information? a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. pituitary gland d. endocrine system Correct: The thalamus is involved in relaying sensory information to different regions of the brain. Most of the incoming sensory information, such as what we see and hear, is routed through the thalamus and then proceeds to more specialized regions of the brain for further processing. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 111 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

99) Most of the higher functions of the brain, such as reasoning and language, are located in the a. limbic system. b. midbrain. c. cerebral cortex. d. brainstem. Correct: The cerebral cortex is the convoluted, wrinkled outer layer of the brain that is involved in multiple higher functions, such as thought, language, and personality. It is a highly advanced, complex structure that has increased dramatically in size as the primate brain has evolved.

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Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 111 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

100) "Ewww!" says TJ when he sees an actual human brain on display at the science museum, "I didn't realize how convoluted and wrinkly it would be." Because he can only see the outer layer of the brain, TJ is actually describing just the a. cerebral cortex. b. tectum. c. limbic system. d. basal ganglia. Correct: The cerebral cortex is the convoluted, wrinkled outer layer of the brain that is involved in multiple higher functions, such as thought, language, and personality. It is a highly advanced, complex structure that has increased dramatically in size as the primate brain has evolved. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 111 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

101) The wrinkling of the surface of the brain serves what purpose? a. It cushions the brain and protects it from trauma. b. It increases blood flow that brings oxygen and nutrients to neurons. c. It allows heat to radiate away from the brain more effectively. d. It increases the surface area without increasing the size of the brain. Correct: Because the skull can only be so large and still fit through the birth canal, the brain has compromised by forming a wrinkled surface—thereby increasing its surface area. More surface area means more neurons and, possibly, cognitive complexity. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 111 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

102) Neuroscientists often categorize parts of the brain into grey matter and white matter. What makes the white matter regions appear white? a. It contains only dendrites. b. It is composed of myelinated axons. c. It produces a natural bleaching chemical. d. It contains only white cell bodies. Correct: White matter is composed of myelinated axons that interconnect the different regions of the brain. The myelin makes the regions appear white. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 112 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

103) Which lobes are associated with higher cognitive functions, such as planning, inhibiting impulses and emotion, language production, and voluntary movement? a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital Correct: The frontal lobes are portions of the brain important in numerous higher cognitive functions, such as planning, inhibiting impulses and emotion, language production, and voluntary movement. The frontal lobes also allow you to deliberately guide and reflect on your own thought processes. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 113 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

104) Marta was in an automobile accident and suffered an injury to her brain resulting in paralysis of her left arm. What part of Marta's brain was injured? a. auditory association area b. primary motor cortex c. somatosensory cortex d. Broca's area Correct: The primary motor cortex is located in the frontal lobe and is involved in the voluntary control of movement. Each region of primary motor cortex corresponds to a specific region of the body. The other regions listed are not involved in movement. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 113 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased.

105) Which lobes are involved in our experiences of touch as well as bodily awareness? a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital Correct: The parietal lobes, located behind the frontal lobes, are involved in our experiences of touch as well as bodily awareness. Answer: b Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 112 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

106) Darla was in an automobile accident that resulted in an injury to her brain. Her sense of touch has been affected. Which part of the brain is the most likely site of the damage? a. frontal lobe b. temporal lobe c. occipital lobe d. parietal lobe Correct: The somatosensory cortex is responsible for our awareness of touch, and is located in the parietal lobes. This function is not generally associated with the other lobes. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 112 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased.

107) After a head injury, a person reports that she is unable to see, although her eyes are uninjured. A doctor would suspect an injury in the _________ lobe. a. occipital b. parietal c. temporal d. frontal Correct: The lobe most closely associated with vision is the occipital lobe. Answer: a Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 112 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased.

108) Which lobes are involved in hearing, language, and object and face recognition? a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital Correct: The temporal lobes are located at the sides of the brain near the ears and are involved in hearing, language, and some higher level aspects of vision such as object and face recognition. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 113 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

109) Which of the following is true about the left and right hemispheres of the brain? a. The right hemisphere is generally more specialized for visual skills and music processing, while the left hemisphere is more specialized for language and math. b. Analytical types rely almost exclusively on their right hemispheres. c. Creative artists are accurately described as being "right-brained" because they think mostly with their right hemisphere. d. There are no significant differences between the two hemispheres. Correct: Generally, the right hemisphere is specialized for cognitive tasks that involve visual and spatial skills, recognition of visual stimuli, and musical processing. Generally, the left hemisphere is more specialized for language and math. However, the degree to which people are left- or right-"brained" is highly exaggerated in popular culture. Answer: a

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Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 115 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

110) If Darren's brain is like that of most people, then the majority of language skills will be handled by his a. corpus callosum. b. occipital lobe. c. right cerebral hemisphere. d. left cerebral hemisphere. Correct: Virtually all right-handed and about two-thirds of left-handed individuals show language dominance in the left hemisphere. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 115 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system.

111) Bill was admitted to the hospital last week after he fell. When Bill's son visited, he found his father was unable to get words out in a smooth, connected fashion. If Bill's difficulty speaking is due to brain damage, what is the likely location of the damage? a. Broca's area b. Gall's area c. Wernicke's area d. Korsakoff's area Correct: Located in the frontal lobe, Broca's area is responsible for complex grammar and speech production. Loss of speech function is referred to as Broca's aphasia. In contrast, Wernicke's area is involved in language comprehension. Damage to Wernicke's area can affect the content of speech, but does not affect the flow or grammar.

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Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 117–118 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased.

112) The corpus callosum a. is a bundle of nerves that connects the two halves of the cerebral cortex. b. is made of fibrous muscle that holds the hemispheres together. c. causes a vegetative state when severed accidentally. d. is the boundary between the brainstem and the reticular formation. Correct: The corpus callosum is a collection of nerves that allow the two hemispheres of the cerebrum to communicate. Severing the corpus callosum creates a bizarre "splitbrain" condition, where patients usually appear normal, but one half of their brain is unaware of what is happening in the other half. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 115 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain.

113) Sometimes a person's corpus callosum is split, which separates the two hemispheres completely. This is done to a. study the effects of a split brain. b. change a person's personality. c. determine the precise area of cognitive functioning. d. control epilepsy. Correct: Staring in the 1940s, split-brain surgeries began to be used to treat extremely severe cases of epilepsy. It is a very rare operation, and it would be unthinkable to use it

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as an experimental procedure, despite the wealth of information researchers have attained by studying split-brain patients. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 115 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain.

114) Jack suffered a brain injury as a result of hitting his head while waterskiing. One of the problems that developed was that Jack could not pronounce certain words correctly for a long period of time until he had extensive speech therapy. Now Jack can speak as he did before his accident. This is an example of _____________, which allowed the structure and function of Jack's brain cells to change to adjust to the trauma. a. adaptology b. neural stagnation c. neuroplasticity d. the reflex arc Correct: Neuroplasticity is the capacity to change and rewire itself based on individual experience. Neuroplasticity is very important when it comes to recovery from brain injury, because existing areas can often be modified to accommodate the injury. In this example, it appears that an area related to speech became damaged. With the help of speech therapy however, Jack's brain was able to rewire over time. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 116 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with measuring and observing brain activity.

115) Researchers have developed a therapy for stroke patients with Broca's aphasia that uses ________________ to encourage neuroplasticity. a. electrodes

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b. practising singing words c. neurotrophic drugs d. exercise Correct: A therapy called Melodic Intonation Therapy (MIT) has been developed to retrain the brains of individuals with Broca's aphasia to speak through singing. The therapy does not "heal" damaged nerve cells in the left hemisphere at Broca's area. Rather, language function is taken over by the corresponding area of the right hemisphere. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 117 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with measuring and observing brain activity.

116) Small electrodes are pasted onto Miranda's scalp and are connected by wire to a machine that translates the electrical energy from her brain into wavy lines on a moving piece of paper. From this description, it is evident that Miranda's brain is being studied through the use of a. a CT scan. b. functional magnetic resonance imaging. c. a microelectrode. d. an electroencephalogram. Correct: An electroencephalogram (EEG) measures patterns of brain activity with the use of multiple electrodes attached to the scalp. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 124 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries.

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117) Which of the following is a machine designed to measure the brain wave patterns produced by electrical activity of the brain? a. DDT b. EMG c. ESG d. EEG Correct: An electroencephalogram (EEG) measures patterns of brain activity with the use of multiple electrodes attached to the scalp. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 124 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries.

118) Libby's physician refers her to a medical centre in order to have the biochemical activity in her brain analyzed. She is given an injection of a radioactive glucose-like substance and then is told to lie down with her head in a scanner. The technique being used is a. positron emission tomography. b. functional magnetic resonance imaging. c. microelectrode recording. d. an electroencephalogram. Correct: Positron emission tomography (PET) scans use low levels of radioactive glucose that is injected into the blood to visualize which areas of the brain are engaged by various tasks (active nerve cells use up the glucose at a faster rate than do resting cells). Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 125 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries.

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119) A major drawback associated with PET scans is that a. they are not accurate. b. they are dangerous. c. they take a long time to acquire data. d. they cannot detect which brain regions are active during a task. Correct: Positron emission tomography (PET) scans use low levels of radioactive glucose that is injected into the blood to visualize which areas of the brain are engaged by various tasks. A drawback is that PET scans take a long time to acquire—which is a problem when you want to see moment-by-moment activity of the brain. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 125 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries.

120) A brain-imaging method using magnetic fields to measure the spinning of hydrogen atoms in the brain is called a. electroencephalography (EEG). b. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). c. positron emission tomography (PET). d. computed tomography (CT). Correct: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses a giant magnetic field to align and spin hydrogen atoms in the same direction. Radio waves are then passed through the brain, disrupting the alignment of the atoms. These disruptions produce a signal that can be translated into a detailed, three-dimensional image of the brain. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 123 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries.

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a. structures of the brain. b. structural detail of various structures. c. the release of energy from water in biological tissue. d. the flow of blood within the brain. Correct: Traditional MRIs only allow researchers to visualize the structures of the brain. Functional MRIs (fMRI) allow researchers to visualize blood flow, which is closely correlated to brain activity. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 125–127 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries.

122) Which technique measures the electrical activity of brain cells directly? a. MRI b. fMRI c. PET scan d. MEG Correct: Unlike PET scans and fMRIs, which measure brain activity indirectly, magnetoencephalography (MEG), measures the tiny magnetic fields created by the electrical activity of nerve cells in the brain. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 125 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries.

123) An area of damage in the brain is called a(n) a. wound. b. lesion.

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c. stereotoxic infiltration. d. invasive cortical manifestation. Correct: A lesion is any kind of damage to the brain. Researchers sometimes make intentional lesions to animal brains to see how they affect behaviour. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 121 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries.

124) Which technique for investigating the function of brain regions is similar to lesioning, but has no ill effects? a. TMS b. fMRI c. PET scan d. MEG Correct: Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is a procedure in which an electromagnetic pulse is delivered to a targeted region of the brain. The result is a temporary disruption of brain activity, analogous to the permanent disruption caused by a brain lesion. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 122 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries.

125) In what way is transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) different than other techniques researchers use to study brain activity, such as PET scans, fMRIs, and MEG? a. TMS requires the use of radioactive materials. b. Other techniques take much longer to acquire data compared to TMS. c. TMS records the activity of glial cells as well as neurons.

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d. TMS is used to actually change the activity in the brain by either stimulating or disrupting activity. Correct: Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is a procedure in which researchers send an electromagnetic pulse to a targeted region of the brain to either stimulate or disrupt activity. This differs from PET scans, fMRI, and MEG, which are passive techniques and do not alter brain functioning. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 122–125 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries.

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1) Rod inherited two different versions of a gene for hair colour from his parents. Therefore Rod can be described as heterozygous for that trait. Correct: Genes come in pairs, one inherited from each parent, aligned along the chromosomes. If the two copies of the gene are the same, then they are called homozygous. In contrast, if the genes differ they are heterozygous. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 77 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology. 2) Within an interbreeding population, the frequency of genes can change over many generations. This process is called evolution. Correct: Evolution is the change in the frequency of genes occurring in an interbreeding population over generations. It occurs through the process where the genes for adaptive traits are more likely to be passed to the next generation than those for non-adaptive or maladaptive traits. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 82 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology. 3) The activity of neurons is highly dependent on the support of glial cells, which surprisingly outnumber neurons 10 to 1 in the brain. Correct: Outnumbering neurons 10 to 1, glial cells are specialized cells of the nervous system that are involved in mounting immune responses in the brain, removing wastes, and synchronizing activity of the billions of neurons comprising the nervous system. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 94-95 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

4) Lasting only a few milliseconds, there fractory period is a brief period after an action potential when a neuron cannot fire again. Correct: Following an action potential, there is a refractory period: a brief period in which a neuron cannot fire. Within a couple of milliseconds, however, the neuron returns to its resting potential and can fire again if stimulated. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 96 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate. 5) Because GABA is a primary inhibitory neurotransmitter, it facilitates sleep and reduces arousal of the nervous system. Correct: GABA is a primary inhibitory neurotransmitter of the nervous system, meaning that it prevents neurons from generating an action potential. It does this by reducing the negative charge of neighboring neurons even further than their resting state of –70mv. As an inhibitor, GABA facilitates sleep and reduces arousal of the nervous system. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 98 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the ways that drugs and other substances affect the brain. 6) Kyle has a paper due for a class in two days and he hasn't even started it. When Kyle realizes how much work he still needs to do, the adrenal glands are stimulated to start producing stress hormones, such as cortisol and epinephrine, to help mobilize the body. Correct: The adrenal glands are paired endocrine glands adjacent to the kidneys that release stress hormones, such as cortisol and epinephrine. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 98 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the role that hormones play in our behaviour. 7) Part of the thrill some people feel from riding roller coasters comes from the beating heart, dry mouth, and sweaty palms they get as the roller coaster slowly climbs the first hill. These physiological responses are all caused by the sympathetic nervous system division of the autonomic nervous system. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

Correct: The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response of an increased heart rate, perspiration, dilated pupils, and decreased salivary flow—responses that prepare the body for action. It is one-half of the autonomic nervous system. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 107 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. 8) The amygdala and the hippocampus are two of the interconnected structures that form the limbic system, which is involved in emotion and memory. Correct: The limbic system is an integrated network of forebrain structures which is involved in emotion and memory. The amygdala and hippocampus are both well-studied parts of the limbic system. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 111 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. 9) Sapna's grandmother has a stroke that damages tissue in one of her occipital lobes. Sapna is told to expect that her grandmother might have difficulty seeing even after she recovers. Correct: The occipital lobes are at the rear of the brain where visual information is processed. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 112 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. 10) Dr. McKenzie is performing a study to determine which brain regions are most active when participants recall traumatic events. To do this, he injects them with radioactive glucose. The slight radioactivity allows him to track the glucose using a PET scan to determine which brain regions are using glucose at a fast rate.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

Correct: In PET scans, low levels of radioactive glucose are injected into the blood, and its movement to regions of the brain engaged in a particular task is measured (active nerve cells use up the glucose at a faster rate than do resting cells). This technique allows researchers to monitor brain activity while a person performs a task such as reading or viewing emotionally charged stimuli. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 125 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

1) What number reflects the amount of differences in a population attributable to genetic influences? a. concordance b. heritability c. eugenics index d. correlation coefficient Answer: b Page Reference: 79 2) A young woman returns from a day at the beach to find she has developed a severe sunburn. Which neurons are sending the messages from her burned skin to her brain informing her of the pain from the burn? a. sensory neurons b. motor neurons c. synaptic neurons d. association neurons Answer: a Page Reference: 94 3) Which of the following most directly controls bodily reflexes? a. peripheral nervous system b. brainstem c. spinal cord d. hindbrain Answer: c Page Reference: 106 4) A long structure leaving the cell body that action potential travels along is called the __________. a. cell membrane b. dendrite c. axon d. myelin sheath

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

Answer: c Page Reference: 96 5) The short fibres that extend from the neurons allowing it to receive messages from other neurons are a. axons. b. dendrites. c. nerve bundles. d. synapses. Answer: b Page Reference: 93–94 6) The part of the neuron that carries outgoing messages either to another neuron or to a muscle or gland is the a. myelin sheath. b. axon. c. dendrite. d. cell body. Answer: b Page Reference: 94 7) The cell body is enclosed by the a. axon. b. dendrite. c. cell membrane. d. myelin sheath. Answer: c Page Reference: 96 8) The three parts of every neuron are a. myelin; glia; cell body. b. dendrite; cell body; axon. c. glia; dendrite; axon. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

d. myelin; cell body; dendrite. Answer: b Page Reference: 93–94 9) The small gap between adjacent neurons is the a. glia. b. myelin sheath. c. synaptic cleft. d. terminal. Answer: c Page Reference: 97 10) The neural impulse traveling down the axon is _______; it gets across the synapse by _______. a. electrical; remaining electrical but changing from positively charged to negatively charged b. electrical; remaining electrical but changing from negatively charged to positively charged c. electrical; being changed into a chemical message d. chemical; being changed into an electrical message Answer: c Page Reference: 96 11) Neurons are a. cells in the brain that are believed to help clean and feed brain cells. b. cells that send and receive information. c. bundles of nerves. d. chemical transmitters found in the hypothalamus. Answer: b Page Reference: 93 12) Axons a. receive/detect neural impulses. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

b. carry messages away from a cell body. c. secrete chemicals to lubricate the cell body. d. are found in the cell body. Answer: b Page Reference: 94 13) The myelin sheath a. is a fatty substance protecting the dendrites. b. helps to speed up neural messages within the cell. c. is found in all neurons. d. protects the cell's vesicles. Answer: b Page Reference: 95 14) The basic message-carrying cells of the nervous system are labelled a. dendrites. b. neurons. c. nerves. d. ganglia. Answer: b Page Reference: 93 15) What kinds of neurons are connected to receptor cells in the skin, muscles, and joints? a. peripheral neurons b. interneurons c. sensory neurons d. motor neurons Answer: c Page Reference: 94

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

16) A nerve impulse from one neuron affects the activity of a neighbouring neuron at a point of interaction called the a. corpuscle. b. synapse. c. transmission cleft. d. neuronal junction. Answer: b Page Reference: 96 17) Specialized cells in the brain that send and receive information are called a. limbic cells. b. neurons. c. ganglia. d. gonads. Answer: b Page Reference: 93 18) Axons a. may be up to a quarter of a mile long. b. carry messages away from a cell body. c. are primarily responsible for the hypothalamic functions of regulation and motivation of sexual functions. d. are contained within the cell nucleus. Answer: b Page Reference: 94 19) Dendrites a. may be up to a quarter of a mile long. b. carry messages to cell bodies. c. are primarily responsible for the hypothalamic functions of regulation and motivation of sexual functions. d. are contained within the cell nucleus.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

Answer: b Page Reference: 93–94 20) The myelin sheath a. is a special substance protecting the dendrites. b. helps to speed up transmission of neural messages. c. is responsible for polarization. d. all of the above Answer: b Page Reference: 95 21) Dr. Chapin has just finished a delicate brain operation. He turns to a group of interns and says, ”She probably lost about 1000 ___________, but since she still has over 100 billion left, she should recover nicely.” Dr. Chapin was most likely referring to a. parts of the brain. b. neurons. c. pituitary glands. d. speech and language areas. Answer: b Page Reference: 106 22) A synapse is most important in a. separating the medulla from the hindbrain. b. regulating the parasympathetic nervous system. c. the process of transmitting messages between neurons. d. connecting the basal ganglia. Answer: c Page Reference: 96 23) The smallest unit in the nervous system is the _________. a. dendrite b. neuron c. axon

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

d. myelin sheath Answer: b Page Reference: 93 24) The cell that underlies the activity of the entire nervous system is the _________. a. transmitter cell b. amoeba c. neuron d. carcinoma Answer: c Page Reference: 93 25) The short fibres that extend from the neuron allowing it to receive messages from other neurons are __________. a. axons b. dendrites c. nerve bundles d. cell membranes Answer: b Page Reference: 93–94 26) The entire area composed of the axon terminal of one neuron, the synaptic cleft, and the dendrite or cell body of the next neuron is called the _________. a. synaptic vesicle b. synaptic knob c. synaptic space d. synapse Answer: d Page Reference: 96 27) Most axon terminals contain a number of tiny oval sacs called __________. a. synaptic vesicles b. synaptic knobs Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

c. neurotransmitters d. receptor sites Answer: a Page Reference: 98 28) When a neural impulse reaches the end of an axon, it causes the tiny oval sacs at the end of the axon to release chemicals called __________. a. effectors b. neurotransmitters c. stimulants d. ions Answer: b Page Reference: 97 29) Which of the following is NOT true of all neurotransmitters? a. They are chemicals. b. They are stored in synaptic vesicles. c. They are released across the synaptic space. d. They increase the likelihood that the next neuron will fire. Answer: d Page Reference: 97–98 30) Axons _______. a. receive/detect neural impulses b. carry messages away from a cell body c. secrete chemicals to lubricate the cell body d. are found in the cell body Answer: b Page Reference: 94 31) The glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream are called __________. a. lymph glands Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

b. exocrine glands c. hippocampal glands d. endocrine glands Answer: d Page Reference: 102 32) Endocrine glands are glands that secrete __________. a. excitory neurotransmitters b. inhibitory neurotransmitters c. hormones d. enzymes Answer: c Page Reference: 102 33) Chemical substances released by the endocrine glands to help regulate bodily functions are __________. a. enzymes b. neurotransmitters c. antigens d. hormones Answer: d Page Reference: 102 34) The thyroid and pituitary glands are parts of the _______ system. a. gonad b. endocrine c. steroid d. lymphatic Answer: b Page Reference: 102

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

35) The endocrine system is made up of a. special centres that control our language functions. b. neurons that transmit electrically charged messages. c. glands that release hormones into the bloodstream. d. none of the above Answer: c Page Reference: 102 36) Which of the following is NOT a part of the endocrine system? a. thyroid b. pons c. pituitary d. pancreas Answer: b Page Reference: 102, 108 37) The area in the back of the temporal lobe that is important in our ability to listen and in processing and understanding what others are saying is __________. a. Korsakoff's area b. Wernicke's area c. Broca's area d. Sach's area Answer: b Page Reference: 113 38) Garfield is having great difficulty controlling his appetite. All he wants to do is eat and no matter how much he eats he is still hungry. His weight is approaching 160 kgs and he still constantly wants to eat. His physician says the problem is due to a disorder in a specific cenrtr of the brain. The brain centre is most likely the a. medulla b. cerebral cortex c. thalamus d. hypothalamus

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

Answer: d Page Reference: 109 39) Despite its dangers, a young man continues to take cocaine because of the feeling of euphoria it produces for him. This powerful arousal of his nervous system is probably due to cocaine's ability to a. inhibit enzymes that break down neurotransmitters. b. increase the release of neurotransmitters. c. block the receptor sites for neurotransmitters. d. prevent neurotransmitters from being reabsorbed into the synaptic vesicles. Answer: d Page Reference: 101 40) Eating, drinking, sexual behaviour, temperature control, and sleeping are most strongly influenced by the a. medulla. b. cerebral cortex. c. thalamus. d. hypothalamus. Answer: d Page Reference: 109 41) Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? a. regulating eating b. regulating sleeping c. relaying sensory inputs to the higher centres in the brain d. regulating the ”restorative” functioning of the autonomic nervous system after an emergency has passed Answer: c Page Reference: 109 42) The hypothalamus does NOT control a. bowel movements. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

b. sweating. c. reactions to pain. d. fine motor coordination. Answer: d Page Reference: 109, 111 43) Darlene has just discovered that she made the dean's list, and she's in ecstasy— singing and dancing down the corridor. Which area of the brain is directing her behaviour? a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. cerebellum d. midbrain Answer: a Page Reference: 109, 111 44) The brain is connected to the other parts of the nervous system by the ________. a. spinal cord b. corpus callosum c. brainstem d. peripheral nervous system Answer: a Page Reference: 106 45) Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? a. maintaining homeostasis b. regulating the output of the pituitary c. controlling the emergency response of the autonomic nervous system d. coordinating smooth muscle movement Answer: d Page Reference: 109, 111

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

46) The branch of the autonomic nervous system that prepares the body for quick action in an emergency is the __________ division. a. central b. secondary c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic Answer: c Page Reference: 106–107 47) The system that relays messages in the form of electrochemical impulses throughout the body is called __________. a. the arousal system b. the nervous system c. the limbic system d. the endocrine system Answer: b Page Reference: 106 48) All nerve cells and fibres that are NOT in the brain or spinal cord make up the __________ nervous system. a. central b. peripheral c. autonomic d. sympathetic Answer: b Page Reference: 106 49) The division of the nervous system that connects the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body is the __________ system. a. peripheral nervous b. endocrine c. central nervous d. secondary nervous

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

Answer: a Page Reference: 106–107 50) The deer waits motionlessly, hidden in the thicket as the band of hunters approaches. As the hunters get closer, their dogs bark, picking up the scent of their prey. In a futile effort to escape, the deer bolts. Which of the following most accurately describes the nervous system of the hunted deer at this point? a. Its sympathetic nerve fibres are more active than its parasympathetic nerve fibres. b. Its parasympathetic nerve fibres are more active than its sympathetic nerve fibres. c. Both its sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibres are equally active. d. Neither its sympathetic nor its parasympathetic nerve fibres are aroused. Answer: a Page Reference: 106–107 51) The autonomic nervous system is responsible for a. controlling the skeletal muscles. b. sending sensory input to the brain. c. making choices and decisions. d. the activity of internal organs and glands. Answer: d Page Reference: 107 52) The part of the nervous system that allows the brain to regulate digestion, heart rate, and respiration without our conscious attention is the a. autonomic nervous system. b. central nervous system. c. somatic nervous system. d. spinal cord. Answer: a Page Reference: 107 53) The nervous system called the ”fight or flight” system is the _______ system. a. central Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. sympathetic Answer: d Page Reference: 107 54) Calm is to aroused as _______ is to _______. a. parasympathetic; sympathetic b. autonomic; motor c. sympathetic; parasympathetic d. central; peripheral Answer: a Page Reference: 107 55) One evening Betty was walking to the dorm from the gym when she was stopped by two men who demanded her money. Because she was a good athlete, Betty decided to make a run for it. Pretending to open her purse, she suddenly turned and dashed off. Although pursued, Betty outran her assailants. During this incident, which part of Betty's nervous system was most directly responsible for her successful escape? a. midbrain b. parasympathetic nervous system c. forebrain d. sympathetic nervous system Answer: d Page Reference: 107 56) The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions make up the a. motor cortex. b. endocrine system. c. autonomic nervous system. d. neocortex. Answer: c Page Reference: 107 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

57) When the sympathetic nervous system assumes control of the involuntary bodily processes during a stressful situation, which of the following changes is likely to occur? a. digestion slows down b. less blood is pumped to muscles c. air passages become smaller d. sweat glands are less active Answer: a Page Reference: 107 58) Assume that you are testing a split-brain human subject whose language centre is in his left hemisphere. If you place a house key into his left hand, he will a. not be able to later select the object he was holding from a group of various objects. b. not be able to tell you what object he is presently holding. c. immediately be able to tell you what he is holding. d. be able to tell you what he is presently holding if allowed to think about it for several seconds. Answer: b Page Reference: 115 59) The limbic system is responsible for ___________. a. filtering incoming messages to the brain b. connecting the brain to most of the rest of the body c. fighting disease organisms that attempt to infect the brain d. controlling learning and emotional behaviour Answer: d Page Reference: 111 60) Which hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is usually dominant in spatial tasks? a. the front hemisphere b. the rear hemisphere c. the left hemisphere d. the right hemisphere

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

Answer: d Page Reference: 115 61) The structure in the hindbrain that controls certain reflexes and coordinates the body's movements is the __________. a. medulla b. cerebellum c. pons d. reticular formation Answer: b Page Reference: 109 62) The part of the brain that receives sensations of touch, balance, and bodily position and oversees spatial abilities is the __________. a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe Answer: c Page Reference: 112 63) The outer surface of the two cerebral hemispheres that regulate most complex behaviour is called the __________. a. cerebellum b. corpus callosum c. cerebral cortex d. substantia nigra Answer: c Page Reference: 111 64) The part of the brain that helps process hearing and gives meaning to words is the __________. a. occipital lobe Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe Answer: b Page Reference: 113 65) The cerebellum __________. a. controls blood pressure b. is involved in emotional behaviour c. coordinates actions so that movements are efficient d. relays messages from the sensory receptors Answer: c Page Reference: 109 66) Which hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is usually dominant in language tasks? a. the front hemisphere b. the rear hemisphere c. the left hemisphere d. the right hemisphere Answer: c Page Reference: 115 67) The part of the brain that interprets visual information is the __________. a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe Answer: a Page Reference: 112

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

68) A young woman recovering from a blow to her head finds she has great difficulty maintaining her balance and coordinating her movements. Injury to which part of her brain is likely to be causing her difficulties? a. cerebellum b. medulla c. cerebral cortex d. thalamus Answer: a Page Reference: 109 69) The part of the hind brain that largely controls breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure is the ______________. a. cerebral cortex b. pons c. medulla d. cerebellum Answer: c Page Reference: 108 70) The site of many mental processes that are unique to humans (self-awareness, initiative, planning ability, and goal-directed behaviour) is the __________. a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe Answer: d Page Reference: 113 71) ”Split-brain” patients are patients who have had _________. a. a prefrontal lobotomy b. their cerebellum split in the middle c. their corpus callosum cut d. a fracture skull in which bone fragments penetrated into the brain

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

Answer: c Page Reference: 115 72) The part of the brain that controls hearing, does some additional processing of visual information, and is probably the site of permanent memory storage is a. the occipital lobe. b. the temporal lobe. c. the parietal lobe. d. the frontal lobe. Answer: b Page Reference: 113 73) The structure that connects the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex is the a. corpus callosum. b. pineal gland. c. pons. d. reticular formation. Answer: a Page Reference: 115 74) A ”split-brain” patient is asked to stare at a spot on a screen. When a picture of an object is shown to the left of the spot, the patient can a. identify the object verbally and pick it out of a group of hidden objects using her right hand. b. identify the object verbally and pick it out of a group of hidden objects using her left hand. c. pick the object out of a group of hidden objects using her left hand, but cannot identify it verbally. d. pick the object out of a group of hidden objects using her right hand, but cannot identify it verbally. Answer: c Page Reference: 115

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

75) The brain's ”relay station” is the _______. a. hypothalamus b. medulla c. pons d. thalamus Answer: d Page Reference: 109 76) If the limbic system were destroyed, which of the following structures would be damaged? a. cerebellum and corpus callosum b. cerebellum and amygdala c. amygdala and hippocampus d. hippocampus and corpus callosum Answer: c Page Reference: 111 77) Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the brain? a. corpus callosum b. frontal c. occipital d. parietal Answer: a Page Reference: 109 78) The somatosensory cortex is located in the _______ lobe of the brain. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal Answer: c Page Reference: 112 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

79) The motor cortex is located in the _______ lobe of the brain. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal Answer: a Page Reference: 113 80) Damage to the medulla can seriously impair one's ability to a. sing. b. write. c. breathe. d. metabolize food. Answer: c Page Reference: 108 81) Which part of the brain can be thought of as a major switching station that directs incoming information to the correct brain structure? a. midbrain b. thalamus c. cerebellum d. reticular activating system Answer: b Page Reference: 111 82) The motor impulses/commands associated with the muscular coordination and movements necessary for one to write originate in which lobe of the cerebral cortex? a. temporal b. parietal c. occipital d. frontal

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Answer: d Page Reference: 113 83) A brain tumour's growth has caused Dick's vision to suffer. Which lobe of the brain is being affected by the tumour's growth? a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal Answer: b Page Reference: 112 84) After removal of a tumour from the LEFT side of her brain, Sharon recovered well. However, some of her former abilities are now limited. Which of the following abilities are most likely affected? a. coordinated walking movements b. solving algebra equations c. assembling puzzles d. recognizing objects that she sees Answer: b Page Reference: 115 85) The two major divisions of the central nervous system are a. left and right hemispheres. b. the brain and autonomic systems. c. brain and spinal cord. d. peripheral and autonomic systems. Answer: c Page Reference: 106 86) The part of the brain that controls breathing, heartbeat, and posture is the a. pituitary gland. b. neocortex. c. hypothalamus. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

d. medulla. Answer: d Page Reference: 108 87) The medulla, pons, and cerebellum are all part of the a. midbrain. b. hindbrain. c. spinal cord. d. forebrain. Answer: b Page Reference: 108–109 88) The part of the hindbrain that controls such things as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure is the __________. a. cerebral cortex b. pons c. medulla d. cerebellum Answer: c Page Reference: 108–109 89) The left cerebral hemisphere primarily controls a. the right side of the body. b. the left side of the body. c. all motor functions. d. spatial reasoning. Answer: a Page Reference: 116 90) The right cerebral hemisphere primarily controls a. the right side of the body. b. the left side of the body.

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c. speech and language. d. a and c. Answer: b Page Reference: 116 91) The hemisphere of the brain that acts as an interpreter, helping us with sequencing and logic, is the __________. a. front b. rear c. left d. right Answer: d Page Reference: 115–116 92) It is believed that the hypothalamus controls ________. a. aggression b. social learning abilities c. long-term mechanisms of body weight d. biological motives Answer: a Page Reference: 111 93) The notion that human language production is controlled primarily by the left cerebral cortex was first proposed by __________. a. Paul Broca b. Sally Shaywitz c. Karl Wernicke d. Hermann Ebbinghaus Answer: a Page Reference: 117 94) Which neural structure is essentially a “little bag of molecules”? a. synapse Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

b. synaptic vesicle Correct: A synaptic vesicle holds molecules until they are needed. c. axon terminal d. dendrite Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 94, Module 3.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate. 95) During an action potential, what changes are evident in the negative ions inside the neuron? a. Negative ions rush out of the axon to increase the positive charge inside the axon. b. Negative and positive ions flow into the axon to maintain a balanced proportion. c. There is little or no net change in the distribution of negative ions. Correct: Statement of fact. d. Negative ions trigger the release of neurotransmitters in the axon terminals. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 96, Module 3.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. 96) Which neurological disorder is caused by degeneration of the myelin sheath? a. multiple sclerosis Correct: The degeneration of myelin causes a disruption in neural functioning. b. cystic fibrosis c. Parkinson’s disease d. Alzheimer’s disease Answer: a Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 95, Module 3.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate. 97) How does communication between neurons occur? a. through graded potentials b. through action potentials c. through neurotransmitters Correct: Statement of fact. d. through axons Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 94, Module 3.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how nerve cells communicate. 98) Carmen, who is right-handed, sustained a head injury and is now unable to speak smoothly. Which brain structure was most likely involved? a. Wernicke’s area b. Broca’s area Correct: Broca’s area is responsible for speech production. c. the cerebellum d. the thalamus Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 117, Module 3.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased.

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99) Joey is about to eat his lunch. What part of Joey’s brain is primarily responsible for helping him make the movements he needs to obtain his sandwich? a. substantia nigra b. basal ganglia Correct: The basal ganglia is responsible for movement. c. basal forebrain d. thalamus Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 109, Module 3.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. 100) Marlen suffered damage to his hippocampus. What problem is Marlen most likely to encounter as a result? a. expressing negative emotions b. remembering previous experiences c. controlling his voluntary movements on the right side d. forming new memories Correct: The hippocampus is essential for forming new memories. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 109, Module 3.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. 101) The endocrine system is to _________________ as the nervous system is to ________________. a. glands; muscles b. autonomic system; somatic system

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

c. hormones; neurotransmitters Correct: The endocrine system produces hormones. The nervous system produces neurotransmitters. d. hypothalamus; pituitary gland Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 111, Module 3.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. 102) What is one of the primary functions of adrenalin? a. It prevents the breakdown of fatty acids. b. It stimulates the digestive tract. c. It contracts the heart muscle. Correct: Statement of fact. d. It constricts the pupils. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 99, Module 3.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. 103) Which statement about encephalography (EEG) is accurate? a. It has high spatial resolution. b. It has high temporal resolution. Correct: An EEG can show brain activity in real time. c. It detects what is happening inside the neuron. d. It detects which neurons are most active. Answer: b Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 124, Module 3.4 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with measuring and observing brain activity. 104) Eli has brown eyes and black hair. Which term best reflects these traits? a. genotype b. phenotype Correct: A phenotype is a physical trait that shows genetic variation. c. genome d. recessive Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 76, Module 3.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to genes, inheritance, and evolutionary psychology. 105) Which genetic disease is untreatable and cannot be controlled by modifying environmental influences? a. Huntington’s chorea Correct: Huntington’s is a genetic disease. The other diseases listed have all been associated with environmental factors. b. Alzheimer’s disease c. multiple sclerosis d. phenylketonuria (PKU) Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 110, Module 3.3 Skill: Factual

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. 106) When Emily was a child, a blood clot severely damaged her left cerebral hemisphere. Emily is now a successful college student who lives a normal life. Her success best illustrates the importance of a. aphasia. b. hemispherectomy. c. tomography. d. neuroplasticity. Correct: Neuroplasticity is the capacity of the brain to repair itself based on individual experience. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 116, Module 3.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether neuroplasticity will help people with brain damage.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 3: Biological Psychology

1) What are genes? Explain how they influence our physical and psychological traits. Answer: Genes are the basic units of heredity. Genes are responsible for regulating the process of creating the proteins that make up our physical structure and regulate development and physiological processes throughout the lifespan. Some of these physiological processes in turn influence behaviour. Page Reference: 76 2) Describe the electrical and chemical communication within and between neurons. Answer: When a neuron is positively stimulated, there is a surge of positive ions into the cell that changes the potential of the neuron (e.g., changing from –70 mV to –68 mV). These charges flow down the dendrites and cross the cell body to the axon hillock, where the cell body meets the axon. If enough positively charged ions reach the axon hillock to push its charge past that cell's firing threshold (e.g., –55 mV), the neuron will then initiate an action potential, a wave of electrical activity that originates at the base of the axon and rapidly travels down its length. When an action potential occurs, the charge of that part of the axon changes from approximately –70 mV to approximately +35 mV; in other words, the cell changes from being negatively to positively charged. When the action potential reaches the axon terminal, it triggers the release of that cell's neurotransmitters into the synapses, the microscopically small spaces that separate individual nerve cells. The cell that releases these chemicals is known as the presynaptic cell ("before the synapse") whereas the cell that receives this input is known as the postsynaptic cell (or "after the synapse"). The dendrites of the postsynaptic cell contain specialized receptors that are designed to hold specific molecules, including neurotransmitters. Then, this process of neural communication will begin again. Page Reference: 95–96

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

1) The terms sensation and perception have the same meaning and are interchangeable. a. True b. False Correct: Sensation and perception are different, yet integrated, processes. Answer: b Page Reference: 131 2) When measuring absolute threshold, reliable detection is said to occur when a person can detect a signal 99 percent of the time. a. True b. False Correct: Absolute threshold is the minimum amount of energy, or quantity of a stimulus, required for it to be reliably detected at least 50% of the time it is presented. Answer: b Page Reference: 134 3) The intensity or brightness of light corresponds to the amplitude of the light wave. a. True b. False Correct: Low amplitude waves correspond with dim colours, and high amplitude waves with bright colours. Answer: a Page Reference: 144 4) Dark adaptation is the process by which visual receptors become increasingly sensitive to dim light. a. True b. False Correct: Low amplitude waves correspond with dim colours, and high amplitude waves with bright colours. Answer: a Page Reference: 147 5) There are three basic types of cones in the retina, each of which responds maximally to a different wavelength. a. True b. False Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

Correct: The trichromatic theory (or Young-Helmholtz theory) maintains that colour vision is determined by three different cone types that are sensitive to short, medium, and long wavelengths of light. Modern technology has been used to measure the amount of light that can be absorbed in cones and confirmed that each type responds to different wavelengths. Answer: a Page Reference: 147–148 6) The intensity of a wave's pressure corresponds to a sound's pitch. a. True b. False Correct: Pitch is the perceptual experience of sound wave frequencies, not intensity. Answer: b Page Reference: 160 7) A sound coming from your left will reach your left ear faster and with more intensity than it will reach your right ear. Your brain can use these two facts to compute the location of the sound's source. a. True b. False Correct: Sound localization is the process of identifying where sound comes from, and is handled by a brain structure called the inferior colliculus. Both the relative timing and intensity of a sound in the left and right ears can be used for this purpose. Answer: a Page Reference: 162 8) There are no effective treatments for phantom limb pain. a. True b. False Correct: One ingenious treatment for treating phantom pain involves a mirror box illusion. Nobody is sure why mirror box therapy works, but evidence suggests that the short-term benefits are due to how compelling the illusion is, and in the long term may actually result in reorganization of the somatosensory cortex. Answer: b Page Reference: 172–173 9) Despite the fact that we have only about 1000 different types of receptors, we can detect about 10 000 different odours. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

a. True b. False Correct: Despite the fact that we have only about 1000 different types of receptors, we can detect about 10 000 different odours. This is because odour molecules can simultaneously stimulate several receptors at once. It is the pattern of the stimulation, involving more than one receptor, which gives rise to the experience of a particular smell. Answer: a Page Reference: 175

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception 1. Which of the following requires the greatest amount of cognitive processing? a. Transduction b. Sensation c. Perception d. Sensory adaptation Answer: C Module 4.1 2. Research into subliminal perception has found that: a. human beings are not affected by subliminal stimuli. b. subliminal advertising is an effective way to influence purchasing habits. c. human beings can be affected by subliminal stimuli, but the effect is small. d. subliminal stimuli can be used to induce a form of “mind control.” Answer: C Module 4.1 3. When Keith had to give a presentation to the entire class, his classmate Daniel decided to wear a large fake mustache to make Keith laugh. To Daniel’s disappointment, when Keith gave his presentation, he seemed completely unaffected, despite looking at Daniel several times. Afterward, Keith said that he was so focused on the presentation that he didn’t even notice the mustache! This scenario is an example of: a. inattentional blindness. b. a blind spot. c. top-down processing. d. sensory adaptation. Answer: A Module 4.1 4. At which structure does the transduction of light into a neural signal occur in the visual system? a. 4etina b. cornea c. LGN d. lens Answer: A Module 4.2 5. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the trichromatic and opponent-process theories of colour vision? a. Research suggests that the trichromatic theory is incorrect. b. Research suggests that the opponent-process theory is incorrect. c. Both theories are correct; they simply describe colour processing at different steps in the visual system. d. Researchers are still uncertain about which of the two theories is correct. Answer: C Module 4.2 6. Which of the following depth cues requires two eyes? a. motion parallax b. retinal disparity c. linear perspective d. relative size Answer: B Module 4.2 7. The place theory of hearing states that: a. the place or location from which a sound is coming is identified based on the difference in intensity between the two ears.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception b. the location along the basilar membrane that is stimulated by sound determines how we perceive the sound’s pitch. c. the same frequency sound will have a different sound depending on the location of the sound source relative to the head. d. the primary auditory cortex is located in the same place in all human brains. Answer: B Module 4.3 8. Cochlear implants are electronic hearing devices that can “replace” which part of the auditory system when it is damaged? a. the pinna b. the eardrum c. the hair cells d. the ossicles Answer: C Module 4.3 9. Sally is a ballet dancer. Although she often practises with her eyes closed, she is always aware of exactly where her arms and legs are and how her knees and elbows are bent. This is an example of which bodily sense? a. nociception b. gustation c. haptics d. kinesthesis Answer: D Module 4.4 10. What do taste and smell have in common? a. Both senses rely on receptors located in structures called papillae. b. Both senses rely on receptors located on the tongue and in the back of the throat. c. Both senses are part of the olfactory system. d. Both senses detect chemicals. Answer: D Module 4.4

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

1) The role of the photoreceptors in the eye is to convert the physical stimulus of light into a nerve impulse that can be relayed to the brain. This process is known as transduction. Correct: Transduction is the process in which physical or chemical stimulation is converted into a nerve impulse that is relayed to the brain. It is part of the process of sensation. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 132 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. 2) In order to detect a noticeable difference between two similar stimuli, the difference between the two stimuli must be above the difference threshold. Correct: A difference threshold is the smallest detectable difference between stimuli. In contrast, the absolute threshold is the minimum amount of energy, or quantity of a stimulus, required for it to be reliably detected at least 50% of the time it is presented. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 134 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand what stimulus thresholds are. 3) Mohamed is home alone one evening when he thinks he hears a voice. He investigates and finds that there's no one there. This would be called a false alarm in the terminology of signal detection theory. Correct: In signal detection theory experiments, if a participant thinks she detected the signal when no signal is present, this is called a false alarm. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 135 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of signal detection theory to identify hits, misses, and correct responses in examples. 4) When we look directly at an object, the light focuses on the central region of the retina, called the fovea, which allows us to see it clearly and in full colour. Correct: The fovea is the central region of the retina that contains the highest concentration of cones; this is why objects we centre our vision upon are the clearest and most colourful relative to objects in the periphery.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 145-146 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. 5) The opponent-process theory explains why we see a yellow afterimage after staring at a blue wall. Correct: According to the opponent-process theory, we perceive colour in terms of opposite ends of the spectrum: red to green, yellow to blue, and white to black. It explains why we see the opponent colour after staring at something, a phenomenon known as negative afterimage. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 148 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the theories of colour vision. 6) Another name for the condition known as face blindness is prosopagnosia. Correct: Specific genetic problems or damage to this area can result in failure to recognize people’s faces (a condition called pro so pa g n o s I a, or face blindness). People with face blindness are able to recognize voices and other defining features of individuals, but not faces. Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 151 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. 7) Glenda looks at the textbooks on her shelf. Because her history book is covering part of her psychology book's cover, her brain can use the concept of interposition to know that the history book is closer to her. Correct: Interposition is a simple dept cue where nearby objects block our view of far-off objects, such as umbrellas blocking the view of buildings behind them. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 156 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

8) Special devices called cochlear implants consist of a microphone, speech processor, and electrodes, which can restore some hearing by artificially stimulating intact nerve endings in the ear. Correct: Cochlear implants are small electronic devices that consist of a microphone, speech processor, and electrodes that are placed into the cochlea. Thousands of tiny electrodes placed along the wire stimulate the intact nerve endings, effectively replacing the activity of hair cells. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 162 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how technology is used to restore hearing. 9) The primary taste called umami is associated with high-protein foods and the seasoning MSG. Correct: The primary tastes include salty, sweet, bitter, and sour. In addition, a fifth taste, called u m a mi, has been identified. U m a mi is a Japanese word that refers to tastes associated with seaweed or the seasoning monosodium glutamate (MSG), and protein-rich foods such as milk and aged cheese. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 174 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the relationship between smell, taste, and food flavour experience. 10) The olfactory system is involved in smell—the detection of airborne particles with specialized receptors located in the nose. Correct: Olfaction is another name for our sense of smell. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 175 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

1) The minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensations at all in a person is the ____________. a. absolute threshold b. difference threshold c. minimum threshold d. noticeable threshold Answer: a Page Reference: 134 2) Which of the following statements is true? a. Only the difference threshold varies from person to person. b. Only the absolute threshold is constant for all people. c. Both the difference threshold and the absolute threshold are constant for all people at all times. d. Both the absolute threshold and the difference threshold vary from person to person over time. Answer: d Page Reference: 134 3) Sensation is to _______ as perception is to _______. a. psychological; physical b. gathering; understanding c. understanding; gathering d. interpreting; detecting Answer: b Page Reference: 132 4) The process whereby we receive information from the environment through our receptors is _______. a. encoding b. perception c. sensation d. transduction

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

Answer: c Page Reference: 132 5) Sensation is a. the organization of stimuli to create meaningful patterns. b. the stimulation of the senses. c. the presence of sensory cell activity in the absence of external stimulation. d. the result of activity in the efferent nervous system. Answer: b Page Reference: 132 6) Our ________ enable us to make sense of the sensations that we are continually experiencing. a. sensory organs b. motor abilities c. perceptual abilities d. sensory abilities Answer: c Page Reference: 132 7) The smallest change in stimulation that can be detected 50 percent of the time is called the __________. a. separation threshold b. difference threshold c. response threshold d. absolute threshold Answer: b Page Reference: 134 8) Which of the following is NOT a measure of threshold? a. absolute threshold b. difference threshold c. just noticeable difference Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

d. separation threshold Answer: d Page Reference: 134 9) When Ann went to her doctor, he gave her a hearing test. During the test, the doctor struck several tuning forks, each of which vibrated at a distinct pitch, and asked her to choose two tones that sounded almost the same in pitch. The doctor was testing Ann's __________. a. auditory convergence b. refractory threshold c. absolute threshold d. difference threshold Answer: d Page Reference: 134 10) Dr. Delmar wants to determine how loud a certain noise must be in order for it to be heard from a distance of 50 feet. Her question involves the concept of: a. relative magnitude. b. difference threshold. c. absolute threshold. d. just noticeable difference (JND). Answer: c Page Reference: 134 11) If a researcher wanted to know how loudly a person must speak in order to be heard above the noise of two other simultaneous conversations, the researcher would likely measure the ________. a. difference threshold b. marginal intensity c. relative magnitude d. absolute threshold Answer: a Page Reference: 134

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

12) _______ theory was developed to isolate separate measures of sensory sensitivity and decision criteria used. a. Method of limits b. Method adjustment c. Signal-detection d. Method of constant stimuli Answer: c Page Reference: 135 13) The relation between the amount of physical energy in a stimulus and the sensory experience of that stimulus is studied by: a. encoding psychology. b. psychophysics. c. sensory physiology. d. transduction psychology. Answer: b Page Reference: 134 14) The minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation at all in a person is the _______. a. absolute threshold b. difference threshold c. minimum threshold d. noticeable threshold Answer: a Page Reference: 134 15) _______ studies the relationship between physical energies and psychological experiences. a. Physiology b. Psychophysics c. Psychometrics d. Psychopathology

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

Answer: b Page Reference: 134 16) Which Gestalt principle of form perception must always occur even if other principles are also illustrated? a. figure-ground b. similarity c. proximity d. closure Answer: a Page Reference: 137 17) Elements that share common features such as size, shape, or colour are viewed as a set. This defines which Gestalt law of organization? a. figure-ground b. similarity c. proximity d. closure Answer: b Page Reference: 138 18) Perceiving incomplete objects as complete define: a. figure-ground. b. similarity. c. proximity. d. closure. Answer: d Page Reference: 138 19) Figure-ground is to _______ as dream interpretation is to psychoanalysis. a. structuralism b. functionalism c. Gestalt Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

d. humanism Answer: c Page Reference: 137–138 20) Experiencing MEANINGFUL patterns in the jumble of sensory information received by the brain is _______. a. sensation b. perception c. adaptation d. transduction Answer: b Page Reference: 132 21) Gestalt theorists propose that much of what we see is divided into: a. proximal and distal. b. figure and ground. c. standard and deviant. d. chromatic and monocular. Answer: b Page Reference: 137 22) Perceptions differ from sensations in that: a. perceptions depend as much on prior experience as they do on neural cues travelling between receptors and the brain. b. perceptions are purely psychological, whereas sensations are purely neural. c. each sensation is actually a large set of perceptions. d. sensations depend mostly on learning, whereas perceptions are innate processes. Answer: a Page Reference: 132 23) An object's elevation is a perspective cue to _______. a. distance b. shape Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

c. shadowing d. size Answer: a Page Reference: 156 24) The wavelength of the light to reach your eyes determines what __________ you see. a. brightness b. hue c. saturation d. fine detail Answer: b Page Reference: 144–145 25) The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the __________. a. cornea b. pupil c. lens d. retina Answer: b Page Reference: 145 26) The pupil is the __________. a. opening in the centre of the iris b. coloured part of the eye c. white of the eye d. lining in the back of the eyeball Answer: a Page Reference: 145 27) If you stare for 30 seconds at a red object and then look at a blank sheet of white paper, you will see a greenish image of the object. This phenomenon best supports the a. Young-Helmholtz opponent-process theory of colour vision.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

b. Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory of colour vision. c. Hering opponent-process theory of colour vision. d. Hering trichromatic theory of colour vision. Answer: c Page Reference: 148 28) The depressed spot in the retina that occupies the centre of the visual field in which images are focused MOST sharply is called the a. fovea. b. cornea. c. iris. d. optic nerve. Answer: a Page Reference: 145–146 29) Which type of receptor cell is associated with seeing colours? a. ganglia b. bipolar c. rods d. cones Answer: d Page Reference: 146 30) The lens: a. is the transparent outer membrane of the eye that covers the pupil and iris. b. allows one to focus on objects at different distances. c. allows light initially to enter the eye. d. controls the amount of light entering the eye. Answer: b Page Reference: 145

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

31) ________ are receptors that are best for seeing details. a. Cones b. Rods c. Bipolar cells d. Ganglion cells Answer: a Page Reference: 146 32) The inner lining on the back of the eyeball that is sensitive to light is called the _______. a. fovea b. retina c. iris d. optic nerve Answer: b Page Reference: 146 33) Light is focused on the retina by the _______. a. cornea b. pupil c. iris d. lens Answer: d Page Reference: 145 34) The shape of the lens adjusts in order to a. protect the eye from too much light. b. let in more light when it is dark. c. focus on different objects at different distances. d. allow time for the eye to adjust to bright light. Answer: c Page Reference: 148

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

35) Rods and cones are found in the _______. a. retina b. iris c. optic nerve d. cornea Answer: a Page Reference: 146 36) Photo receptors that see best at night are the _______. a. foveas b. cones c. shafts d. rods Answer: d Page Reference: 146 37) The range of electromagnetic wavelengths that we can see is called the a. visible spectrum. b. acuity range. c. visual field. d. visual angle. Answer: a Page Reference: 144 38) Adaptation is the process in which a. receptor cells become linked to one another. b. receptor sensitivity changes depending upon the intensity of the stimulus. c. visual acuity improves as one centres an object's light on the fovea. d. nonspectral colours can be seen. Answer: b Page Reference: 133

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

39) The process by which rods and cones become more sensitive to light in response to lowered levels of illumination is called _______. a. afterimage resolution b. light adaptation c. dark adaptation d. afterimage adaptation Answer: c Page Reference: 147 40) The aspect of colour that corresponds to names such as red, green, and blue is __________. a. brightness b. hue c. saturation d. fine detail Answer: b Page Reference: 144–145 41) The purity, richness, or vividness of a hue is known as its __________. a. brightness b. saturation c. additive mix d. depth Answer: b Page Reference: 144–145 42) The Young-Helmholtz theory of colour vision assumes that a. colour receptors exist in opposing pairs. b. colour perception is determined by differences in the firing rates of three types of retinal cells. c. there are three different types of cones. d. all of the above

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

Answer: c Page Reference: 147 43) The opponent-process theory of colour vision contends that colour vision is a result of a. lateral inhibition on the retina itself. b. lateral inhibition in the visual cortex. c. calculation of differences in the firing rates of three types of retinal cells. d. competition between three types of rods and three types of cones. Answer: c Page Reference: 148 44) Our tendency to see objects as relatively stable and unchanging despite changing sensory information is called perceptual __________. a. closure b. constancy c. reversibility d. coherency Answer: b Page Reference: 153 45) People with normal vision will perceive a pyramid whether they see the object from the side, top, or any other angle as long as the object is, in fact, a pyramid. This is the law of a. shape constancy. b. size constancy. c. figure-ground. d. visual angle. Answer: a Page Reference: 153 46) Single-eye vision is to _______ as double-eye vision is to _______. a. kinetic; monocular

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

b. monocular; kinetic c. monocular; binocular d. binocular; monocular Answer: c Page Reference: 154–155 47) You are seated at a small table talking to a friend opposite you who is drinking coffee. As she lifts the cup off the saucer and raises it to her mouth, the image made on your retina by the bottom of the cup actually changes shape, but you still ”see” it as round due to a. good continuation. b. movement parallax. c. perceptual constancy. d. proximity. Answer: c Page Reference: 153 48) Colour, shape, size, and brightness are all types of perceptual _______. a. closure b. constancy c. reversibility d. coherency Answer: b Page Reference: 153 49) Size constancy explains why a. objects are perceived as having constant dimensions regardless of distance. b. perception of size is inversely related to distance. c. closer objects are perceived as smaller than far-away objects. d. distance affects perceived size. Answer: a Page Reference: 153

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

50) Whether you are standing right next to it or a mile away from it, you know a tree is the same size because of _______. a. the figure-ground distinction b. the phi phenomenon c. perceptual constancy d. retinal disparity Answer: c Page Reference: 153 51) When you stand to the side of a window frame, it casts a trapezoidal (nonrectangular) image on your retina. It still seems rectangular to you, though, because of _______. a. size constancy b. shape constancy c. figure-ground constancy d. the phi phenomenon Answer: b Page Reference: 153 52) The distance cue in which objects at greater distances appear to be smoother is __________. a. linear perspective b. aerial perspective c. texture gradient d. motion parallax Answer: c Page Reference: 156 53) The distance cue in which two parallel lines extend into the distance and seem to come together at one point is called __________. a. linear perspective b. aerial perspective c. shadowing d. motion parallax

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

Answer: a Page Reference: 156 54) How blurry-looking an object appears and linear perspective are cues associated with _______ depth perception. a. binocular disparity b. kinesthetic c. monocular d. binocular Answer: c Page Reference: 155–156 55) Which of the following is an example of a monocular cue? a. far objects looking clear, and near ones looking blurry b. the trees in a forest converging in the distance c. the double image of a finger held in front of one eye d. the appearance of a small light making movements against a dark background Answer: b Page Reference: 155–156 56) Which of the following is NOT a monocular cue? a. clearness b. linear perspective c. retinal disparity d. texture Answer: c Page Reference: 154–156 57) When you look out the window of a car that is traveling 100 km/h, objects at different locations appear to move in different directions and different speeds. This apparent motion is known as a. the kinetic depth effect. b. motion parallax.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

c. movement illusion. d. linear perspective. Answer: b Page Reference: 155 58) When you look out the window of a car that is traveling 100 km/h, close objects appear a. to be moving faster than far ones. b. to be moving slower than far ones. c. to be moving at the same speed as far ones. d. to be stationary and the far ones appear to be moving in the opposite direction as the car. Answer: a Page Reference: 155 59) Shadowing is a cue to _______. a. linear perspective b. width perception c. depth perception d. colour perception Answer: c Page Reference: 156 60) The monocular distance cue in which objects closer than the point of visual focus seem to move in the direction opposite to the viewer's moving head, and objects beyond the viewing point move in the same direction as the viewer's head, is _______. a. retinal disparity b. motion parallax c. subliminal motion d. motion differential Answer: b Page Reference: 155

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

61) If perceptual information aiding in depth perception must be drawn simultaneously from both eyes, it is referred to as _______. a. a monocular cue b. a binocular cue c. contralateral input d. a duoretinal image Answer: b Page Reference: 154 62) A drawing of a gravel road depicts the tiny rocks as becoming smaller and less distinct as one looks ”down the lane.” This simulation of depth on a two-dimensional sheet of paper is an example of the _______ cue. a. interposition b. texture gradient c. elevation d. shadowing Answer: b Page Reference: 156 63) Which of the following is an example of a monocular cue? a. far objects looking clear, and near ones looking blurry b. when in motion, objects that are far away appear to move more slowly than objects that are close c. the double image of a finger held in front of one eye d. the appearance of a small light making movements against a dark background Answer: b Page Reference: 156 64) The physical stimuli for the sense of hearing are called __________ waves. a. alpha b. infrared c. sound d. sine

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception

Answer: c Page Reference: 160 65) The structures in the inner ear that are particularly sensitive to body rotation are the __________. a. vestibular sacs b. saccules c. semicircular canals d. papillae Answer: c Page Reference: 161 66) Hertz is a unit of measurement of __________. a. frequency b. amplitude c. loudness d. overtones Answer: a Page Reference: 160 67) The middle ear includes the ______. a. ear canal b. round window c. hammer d. basilar membrane Answer: d Page Reference: 161 68) The flexible membrane inside the cochlea is called the a. round window. b. eardrum. c. oval window.

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d. basilar membrane. Answer: d Page Reference: 161 69) An increase in the frequency of sound waves will correspond most directly to an increase in _______. a. amplitude b. pitch c. loudness d. decibels Answer: b Page Reference: 160 70) As sounds become louder, their ______ increases. a. frequency b. pitch c. amplitude d. hertz Answer: c Page Reference: 160 71) The physical stimuli for the sense of hearing are called _______ waves. a. alpha b. radio c. sound d. beta Answer: c Page Reference: 160 72) Frequency determines _______. a. pitch b. amplitude

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c. timbre d. overtones Answer: a Page Reference: 160 73) The height of a sound wave represents its _______. a. pitch b. amplitude c. timbre d. overtones Answer: b Page Reference: 160 74) Decibels are used to measure _______. a. frequency b. amplitude c. loudness d. overtones Answer: c Page Reference: 160 75) The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are the _______. a. three components of the eardrum b. three tiny bones in the middle ear c. membranes in the oval window d. three components of the basilar membrane cochlea Answer: b Page Reference: 160 76) Hearing begins when sound waves bump against the _______. a. earlobe b. eardrum

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c. oval window d. round window Answer: b Page Reference: 160 77) The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are all located in the _______. a. middle ear b. inner ear c. external ear d. oval window Answer: a Page Reference: 160 78) The patch of nasal membrane tissue that houses receptor cells for smell is the __________. a. olfactory bulb b. Golgi tendon organ c. olfactory epithelium d. olfactory mucosa Answer: c Page Reference: 175 79) Flavour is a. taste. b. smell. c. a combination of taste and smell. d. a combination of touch and taste. Answer: c Page Reference: 175 80) Taste buds are contained in the tongue's _______. a. papillae

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b. hair cells c. underside d. saccules Answer: a Page Reference: 174 81) A spook house in a local carnival offered its potential patrons free admission if they would allow themselves to be blindfolded and then to eat raw worms. Although they were actually fed cold spaghetti, most of the customers believed they were swallowing real worms. What is the MOST plausible explanation for this finding? a. The cold spaghetti dulled nerve endings in the taste buds. b. This particular food failed to depolarize adjacent neurons in the tongue. c. Food flavour is really a composite of taste, smell, sight, and texture. d. Sensory receptors in the brain were not activated. Answer: c Page Reference: 175 82) The first location to receive smell information in the brain is the __________. a. olfactory bulb b. olfactory epithelium c. thalamus d. vomeronasal organ Answer: a Page Reference: 175 83) What sensations are detected by the skin? a. pressure, pain, warmth, and cold b. only pain, warmth, and cold c. only pressure, pain, and warmth d. only pressure and pain Answer: a Page Reference: 169–170

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84) How do researchers in perception explain “backward messaging”? a. through top-down processing Correct: Experience with language can make us “fill in the blanks” when a message is ambiguous. b. through activation of neuronal patterns specific to an object c. through the process of transduction d. through the raw sensory data Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 139, Module 4.1 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze claims that subliminal advertising and backward messages can influence your behaviour. 85) David is attempting to assemble a jigsaw puzzle without ever having seen the picture on the box. Which type of information processing is David most likely utilizing? a. bottom-up processing Correct: David is using the individual pieces to imagine a larger image of a completed puzzle. b. top-down processing c. cross-modal processing d. parallel processing Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 149, Module 4.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze claims that subliminal advertising and backward messages can influence your behaviour. 86) Carrie misread the number 13 as the letter B because she was expecting to see a letter rather than a number. Which term best characterizes this phenomenon? a. perceptual constancy b. selective attention Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. feature binding d. perceptual set Correct: The active perceptual set, such as letters or numbers, influences what we recognize most quickly. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 140, Module 4.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. 87) Which Gestalt principle is used to add visual impact during Olympic opening and closing ceremonies? a. closure b. proximity c. similarity Correct: Individual Olympic athletes wearing their country’s uniform appear grouped because of the similarity in the uniforms’ colours. d. continuity Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 138, Module 4.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. 88) Which statement is true with respect to the doctrine of specific nerve energies? a. The sensation one experiences is determined by the nature of the sense receptor, not the stimulus. Correct: Statement of fact. b. The brain responds differently when either light or touch activates sense receptors in the eyes. c. Distinct stimulus energies (e.g., light, sound) cause different sensations in the same sense receptor.

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d. Specific nerve energies involve processing in sense receptors but have few links to cortical pathways. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 133, Module 4.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. 89) Which phenomenon is an example of multi-modal processing? a. the perception of phosphenes b. the McGurk effect Correct: The McGurk effect occurs when visual stimuli affect the perception of auditory stimuli. c. the moon illusion d. the Ponzo illusion Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 176, Module 4.4 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze how different senses are combined together. 90) When equal amounts of the three primary colours of light are added together, what is the end result? a. a dark colour b. white Correct: Statement of fact c. beige d. black Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 144, Module 4.2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the theories of colour vision. 91) In which scenario would the pupils most likely constrict? a. Danilla rubs belladonna juice on her eyes and goes to see her lover. b. Sally is working hard to solve some chemistry equations for a class she is taking. c. Janelle is just walking outside from an afternoon movie she went to see. Correct: Pupils constrict when the amount of light in the environment increases. d. Tanya is in a dimly lit bar and is very attracted to the person that is sitting next to her. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 145, Module 4.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. 92) When an individual’s rods are fatigued and the photopigments are depleted from staring at an image for a long period of time, which phenomenon would this individual most likely experience? a. a blind spot b. hyperopia c. accommodation d. a negative afterimage Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 148, Module 4.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the theories of colour vision. 93) Which aspect of the sound wave is related to the pitch of a tone? a. timbre b. frequency

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Correct: As frequency increases, pitch increases. c. intensity d. amplitude Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 160, Module 4.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand different characteristics of sound and how they correspond to perception. 94) Which of the following plays the biggest role in our feeling dizzy and unbalanced after a thrilling roller coaster ride? a. striate cortex b. ganglion cells c. basilar membranes d. semicircular canals Correct: Fluid displacement in the semicircular canals helps a person maintain his or her balance. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 161, Module 4.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the ear and hearing. 95) Damage to the fovea would have the greatest effect on a. night vision. b. peripheral vision. c. visual acuity. Correct: The fovea has the densest concentration of cells and our visual acuity is highest for images processed in the foveal area. d. sensory adaptation.

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 147, Module 4.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. 96) With her eyes closed, Sandra can accurately touch her mouth, nose, and chin with her index finger. Sandra's accuracy illustrates the importance of a. accommodation. b. kinesthesis. Correct: Kinesthesis allows us to know the position of our body without using vision. c. sensory interaction. d. sensory adaptation. e. feature detectors. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 169, Module 4.4 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of touch and the chemical senses. 97) Visual information is processed by____

____before it is processed by________.

a. feature detectors; rods and cones b. ganglion cells; feature detectors Correct: Visual information goes from the ganglion cells in the eye to feature detectors in the cortex. c. bipolar cells; rods and cones d. the optic nerve; ganglion cells Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 150, Module 4.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with the eye and vision.

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1) Ordinarily we need to know not only what something is, but also where it is. Because vision doesn't give us this information directly, we must infer it. Explain five of the visual cues listed in the textbook. Answer: A good answer will include five of the following key points. - Convergence—The eyes turn inward when looking at a close object; the degree of convergence corresponds to the closeness of the object. - Retinal disparity—The two eyes see slightly different images of the world; this difference can be used to infer depth. - Interposition—Closer objects partially block our view of more distant objects. - Linear perspective—When two parallel lines are viewed receding into the distance, they appear to converge. - Light and shadow—Light and shadow give objects the appearance of three dimensions. - Motion parallax—When an observer is moving, objects appear to move at different speeds and in different directions depending on their distance from the observer. - Relative size—The smaller an object's image on the retina, the farther away the object appears. - Texture gradients—Distant parts of a uniform surface appear denser; that is, its elements seem spaced more closely together. - Height in plane—Objects that are higher in our visual field are perceived as further away than objects low in our visual field. Page Reference: 154-156 2) Sound waves are collected by the outer ear and channelled down the auditory canal. Describe the major structures of the ear and describe the role each plays in the process of hearing. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - A sound wave enters the outer ear and strikes the eardrum, causing it to vibrate. - This vibration is passed along to three tiny bones in the middle ear called the ossicles. - The innermost bone transfers the vibrations to the fluid-filled cochlea of the inner ear. - The hair cells on the basilar membrane in the cochlea back and forth as the fluid in the cochlea moves. - This causes the hair cells to initiate a signal that is passed along to the auditory nerve, which carries the signal to the brain.

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Page Reference: 160-162 3) Humans can recognize approximately 10 000 different smells. Explain how this is possible, including a general description of the olfactory process. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Olfaction begins with nasal airflow bringing in molecules that bind with receptors at the top of the nasal cavity. - Within the nasal cavity is the olfactory epithelium, a thin layer of cells that are lined by sensory receptors called cilia, which are tiny hair-like projections that contain specialized proteins that bind with the airborne molecules that enter the nasal cavity. - Despite the fact that we have only about 1000 different types of receptors, we can detect many more distinct odours. This is because odour molecules can simultaneously stimulate several receptors at once. It is the pattern of the stimulation, involving more than one receptor, which gives rise to the experience of a particular smell. - The information is transmitted to the olfactory bulb, which is the brain's central region for processing smell. The olfactory bulb connects with several regions of the brain through the olfactory tract, including the limbic system (emotion) as well as regions of the cortex where subjective experience of pleasure (or disgust) occurs. Page Reference: 175

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1) The ability to detect external events through our sensory systems is known as ______________. a. accommodation b. perception c. sensation d. sensory adaptation Correct: Sensation is the process of detecting external events by sense organs and turning those events into neural signals. In contrast, perception involves attending to, organizing, and interpreting stimuli that we sense. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 132 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

2) Sensation is to _______ as perception is to _______. a. psychological; physical b. gathering; understanding c. understanding; gathering d. interpreting; detecting Correct: Sensation is the process of detecting external events by sense organs and turning those events into neural signals. In contrast, perception involves attending to, organizing, and interpreting stimuli that we sense. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 132 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

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3) The organization and interpretation of olfactory information is one example of ____________. a. accommodation b. perception c. sensation d. transduction Correct: Sensation is the process of detecting external events by sense organs and turning those events into neural signals. In contrast, perception involves attending to, organizing, and interpreting stimuli that we sense. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 132 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

4) __________ involves the detection of energy by sense organs, whereas __________ involves interpreting sensory inputs. a. Perception; sensation b. Adaptation; perception c. Sensation; perception d. Sensation; adaptation Correct: Sensation is the process of detecting external events by sense organs and turning those events into neural signals. In contrast, perception involves attending to, organizing, and interpreting stimuli that we sense. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 132 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

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5) The conversion of external energy into something that the nervous system can understand is known as _____________. a. accommodation b. perception c. sensation d. transduction Correct: Transduction is the process in which physical or chemical stimulation is converted into a nerve impulse that is relayed to the brain. It is part of the process of sensation. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 132 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

6) When Bethany steps on her digital scale, a mechanism in it measures the physical pressure pushing down on the scale and converts it into an electrical signal that can be read by the scale. The converting of the physical pressure on the scale caused by Bethany's weight into an electrical signal is similar to the process of ____________. a. transduction b. bottom-up processing c. top-down processing d. perception Correct: Transduction is the process in which physical or chemical stimulation is converted into a nerve impulse that is relayed to the brain. It is part of the process of sensation. Bottom-up and top-down processing are part of the perceptual process. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 132 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

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7) When she walks into her mother's kitchen, Amelia doesn't know how long she will be able to stay in the room because of the overpowering smell of onions. But when her sister comes home an hour later and complains about the smell, Amelia realizes that she no longer smells the onions at all. This is an example of ________________. a. sensory adaptation b. just noticeable difference c. a correct rejection d. a false alarm Correct: Sensory adaptation is the reduction of activity in sensory receptors with continued exposure to a stimulus. In this example, Amelia smells the onions when she first walks into the kitchen. However, after being continuously exposed to the smell for a while, her olfactory receptors stop sending the signal to brain. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 133 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

8) When first exposed to a stimulus, our sensory receptors tend to respond strongly. However, if the stimulus remains unchanged, the activity of the receptors tends to decrease. This process is called ________________. a. selective attention b. top-down processing c. sensory adaptation d. transduction Correct: Sensory adaptation is the reduction of activity in sensory receptors with continued exposure to a stimulus. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 133 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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9) One reason sensory adaptation can be beneficial is that it allows us to a. ignore continuous stimuli and shift our focus and attention to other events. b. detect visual stimuli outside of the normal visual spectrum. c. locate the source of sounds in the environment. d. convert physical and chemical stimuli into nerve impulses. Correct: Sensory adaptation is the reduction of activity in sensory receptors with continued exposure to a stimulus. Because of sensory adaptation, we experience ongoing stimuli less intensely, which allows us to focus on other events that are possibly more important. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 133 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

10) The study of how physical energy such as light and sound and their intensities relate to psychological experience is called _________________. a. psychophysics b. Gestalt psychology c. signal detection theory d. haptics Correct: Physicist and philosopher William Gustav Fechner coined the term psychophysics to refer to the study of how physical energy such as light and sound and their intensity relate to psychological experience. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 134 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

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11) The lowest level of a stimulus needed for the nervous system to detect a change half the time is called the ___________. a. difference threshold b. just noticeable difference c. sensory adaptation d. absolute threshold Correct: The absolute threshold is the minimum amount of energy, or quantity of a stimulus, required for it to be reliably detected at least 50% of the time it is presented. In contrast, the difference threshold is the smallest detectable difference between stimuli. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 134 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand what stimulus thresholds are. 12) When Ann went to her doctor, he gave her a hearing test. During the test, the doctor presented tones to Ann through earphones. The tones varied only along the loud-soft dimensions (from very loud to very soft). The doctor asked Ann to raise her hand whenever she heard a sound. The doctor was testing Ann's _____________. a. auditory convergence b. refractory threshold c. absolute threshold d. difference threshold Correct: The absolute threshold is the minimum amount of energy, or quantity of a stimulus, required for it to be reliably detected at least 50% of the time it is presented. In this example, the doctor is trying to find the quietest sound Ann can reliably detect (i.e., the absolute threshold). In contrast, to determine a difference threshold, the doctor would need to ask Ann if she perceived two sounds as being the same or different volumes. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 134 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand what stimulus thresholds are.

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13) A single eyelash lands on Neil's hand, but because the pressure is __________________, he does not notice it. a. above the difference threshold b. below the difference threshold c. above the absolute threshold d. below the absolute threshold Correct: The absolute threshold is the minimum amount of energy, or quantity of a stimulus, required for it to be reliably detected at least 50% of the time it is presented. In contrast, a difference threshold is the smallest detectable difference between two stimuli. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 134 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand what stimulus thresholds are.

14) The difference threshold is a. the minimum amount of energy, or quantity of a stimulus, required for it to be reliably detected at least 50% of the time it is presented. b. the smallest difference in stimulation that can be detected by an observer when two stimuli are compared. c. the difference in absolute thresholds between individuals with normal sensory abilities and those who have limitations in one or more senses. d. the smallest amount of stimulation that can be detected after sensory adaptation. Correct: A difference threshold is the smallest detectable difference between two stimuli. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 134 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand what stimulus thresholds are.

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15) Keegan notices that his favorite 55-cent candy bar seems lighter than usual and so he checks the label to find that it is lighter by 10 g than it used to be. He decides to buy a larger candy bar instead and doesn't notice that the 99-cent candy bar is also 10 g lighter. Keegan's behaviour illustrates the fact that a. the just noticeable difference is not a reliable measure of psychophysiological judgment. b. sensory adaptation may occur in the short time between holding one candy bar and then the other. c. difference thresholds are unpredictable because sometimes he can and sometimes he can't detect a 10 g change. d. the larger a weight is, the greater the change must be before one can detect a difference. Correct: A difference threshold is the smallest detectable difference between two stimuli. Whether you detect a difference, known as a just noticeable difference, depends on the intensity of the original stimulus. The more intense the original stimulus is, the more of it that must be added in order for the difference threshold to be reached. In this example, Keegan was able to notice the 10 g difference in the 55-cent bar because the original bar was relatively light. Because the 99-cent bar was heavier to begin with however, Keegan was not able to detect a change of only 10 grams. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 134 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand what stimulus thresholds are.

16) ___________ was developed to isolate separate measures of sensory experience and the decision process of the person being tested. a. The absolute threshold b. The difference threshold c. Signal detection theory d. Psychophysics Correct: Signal detection theory states that whether a stimulus is perceived depends on both sensory experience and judgment made by the subject. Thus, the theory requires us to examine two processes: a sensory process and a decision process.

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 135 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the methods of signal detection theory.

17) In a signal detection task, the participant says that he detects a signal when no signal is present. This is called a __________. a. hit b. false alarm c. miss d. correct rejection Correct: In signal detection theory experiments, if a subject thinks he or she detected a stimulus when none is present is referred to as a false alarm. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 135 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of signal detection theory to identify hits, misses, and correct responses in examples.

18) In a signal detection task, the participant says that he detected a signal and a signal was present. This is called a ____________. a. hit b. false alarm c. miss d. correct rejection Correct: In signal detection theory experiments, if a subject correctly detects a signal on a trial when it is present, it is called a hit. Answer: a Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 135 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of signal detection theory to identify hits, misses, and correct responses in examples.

19) In a signal detection task, the participant says that she doesn't detect a signal but a signal was present. This is called a _____________. a. hit b. false alarm c. miss d. correct rejection Correct: In signal detection theory experiments, if a subject fails to detect a stimulus it is called a miss. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 135 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of signal detection theory to identify hits, misses, and correct responses in examples.

20) The processing of sensory information that occurs below the level of conscious awareness is called ____________. a. selective attention b. top-down processing c. subliminal perception d. bottom-up processing. Correct: Subliminal perception refers to perception below conscious thresholds. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 136 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

21) Miley is concerned that advertisers are using subliminal messages to make her buy their products. Based on the information in your textbook, what should you tell her? a. You're right, subliminal messages are very powerful. b. It's unclear; almost no research has been done on subliminal perception. c. Don't worry; people cannot perceive subliminal stimuli at all. d. There is little evidence that subliminal messages can be used to persuade people to do anything. Correct: Many studies have demonstrated that people can be affected by subliminal stimuli. However, there is no evidence that such messages have much effect, and certainly not to the extent that many people fear. At best, flashing a brief message on a screen can have a very temporary effect on thought. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 136 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze claims that subliminal advertising and backward messages can influence your behaviour.

22) According to your textbook, subliminal advertising a. is a form of "mind control." b. can lead people to purchase items they otherwise would not. c. at most can have only a very temporary effect on thought. d. are pointless, because humans are not affected by subliminal stimuli. Correct: Many studies have demonstrated that people can be affected by subliminal stimuli. However, there is no evidence that such messages have much effect, and certainly not to the extent that many people fear. At best, flashing a brief message on a screen can have a very temporary effect on thought. Answer: c Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 136 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze claims that subliminal advertising and backward messages can influence your behaviour.

23) Which psychological school first identified that visual perception occurs in terms of whole objects rather than individual component parts? a. behaviourism b. Gestalt c. humanistic d. osychoanalytic Correct: Gestalt psychology is an approach to perception that emphasizes "the whole is greater than the sum of its parts." In other words, the individual parts of an image may have little meaning on their own, but when combined, the whole takes on a significant, perceived form. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 137 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

24) Which saying captures the principle emphasized by the Gestalt psychologists? a. The whole is greater than the sum of its parts. b. Perception is based more on what we do not see than on what we do see. c. Perception is part sensory experience and part judgment. d. No two people will perceive a stimulus in the exact same way. Correct: Gestalt psychology is an approach to perception that emphasizes "the whole is greater than the sum of its parts." In other words, the individual parts of an image may have little meaning on their own, but when combined, the whole takes on a significant, perceived form. Answer: a

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 137 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

25) As we listen to music on the radio or on our iPods, we often are more aware of the arrangement of tones into melodies rather than just focusing on the individual notes. This auditory perception is compatible with the principles established by _____________. a. behavioural psychologists b. Gestalt psychologists c. humanistic psychologists d. psychodynamic psychologists Correct: According to Gestalt psychology, individual parts of an image may have little meaning on their own, but when combined, the whole takes on a significant, perceived form. When listening to music, our experience is based on the combination of notes, and cannot be understood by examining each note individually. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 137–138 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

26) According to the ________________ principle, when we look at an image, we tend to perceive some parts as standing out and other parts as being part of the background. a. figure-ground b. closure c. proximity d. continutiy Correct: One basic Gestalt principle is that objects or "figures" in our environment tend to stand out against a background. Gestalt psychologists refer to this basic perceptual rule as the figure-ground principle.

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Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 137–138 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

27) As she watches her granddaughter's dance recital, Patty perceives two separate groups of dancers. Her granddaughter's group wears bright turquoise costumes with gold accents and the other group wears bright gold costumes with turquoise accents. Patty perceives the girls as belonging to two different groups due to the Gestalt principle of ____________. a. proximity b. continuity c. similarity d. closure Correct: According to the Gestalt principle of similarity, we tend to group objects based on similarity of properties such as colouration, shape, and orientation. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 138 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

28) Elements that share common features such as size, shape, or colour are viewed as a set. This defines which Gestalt law of organization? a. figure-ground b. similarity c. proximity d. closure Correct: According to the Gestalt principle of similarity, we tend to group objects based on similarity of properties such as colouration, shape, and orientation.

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Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 138 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

29) Two or more objects that are close together are viewed as belonging to the same a set. This defines which Gestalt law of organization? a. figure-ground b. similarity c. proximity d. closure Correct: According to the Gestalt principle of proximity, we tend to treat two or more objects that are in close proximity to each other as a group. Because of their proximity, a dozen eggs in a carton look like two rows of six eggs, rather than six rows of two. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 138 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

30) ______________ refers to the perceptual rule that lines and other objects tend to be continuous, rather than abruptly changing direction. a. Figure-ground b. Continuity c. Proximity d. Closure Correct: Continuity or "good continuation" refers to the perceptual rule that lines and other objects tend to be continuous, rather than abruptly changing direction. Answer: b Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 138 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

31) When you look at the drawing below, your brain fills in the gaps so that you perceive a complete form—in this case, a square. This occurs due to the principle of ___________.

a. proximity b. continuity c. similarity d. closure Correct: The Gestalt principle of closure refers to the tendency to fill in gaps to complete a whole object. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 138 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

32) In __________ processing, we construct a whole stimulus from its parts. a. parallel b. bottom-up c. perceptual set d. top-down

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Correct: Bottom-up processing involves constructing a whole perception or concept from bits of raw sensory information, for example, identifying a whole word by first identifying each letter. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 139 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

33) __________ processing is conceptually driven and influenced by our beliefs and expectations. a. Bottom-up b. Parallel c. Top-down d. Sensory Correct: Top-down processing occurs when prior knowledge and expectations guide what is perceived. For example, an ambiguous character that could be either a "5" or an "S" will be perceived differently depending on whether you expect it to be a number or a letter. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 139 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

34) Lidia visits an art exhibit of abstract paintings. One painting is composed of seemingly random lines and shapes. However, because Lidia knows the painting is supposed to be a portrait, she perceives the various lines and shapes as forming a face. Which type of perceptual processing is Lidia most likely using? a. Top-down b. Parallel c. Bottom-up Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. Sensory Correct: Top-down processing occurs when prior knowledge and expectations guide what is perceived. In this example, Lidia's expectation that the painting is of a person influences how she perceives the painting. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 139 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

35) Which of the following accurately describes how we perceive and interpret the visual world? a. We always start with small details and use them to build a recognizable whole. b. We always start with our expectations of what we are looking at, which guides how we will perceive it. c. Perception involves neither top-down nor bottom-up processing. d. Perception is a combination of both top-down and bottom-up processing. Correct: We perceive the world is a combination of both top-down and bottom-up processing—it is hard to imagine not having some kind of expectation about an experience, and even harder to imagine perception without some kind of raw sensation. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 139 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

36) The process of selecting one stimulus or task to focus on and ignoring or minimizing others is called ____________. a. selective perception b. selective attention c. perceptual set

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d. selective processing Correct: Selective attention involves focusing on one particular event or task, such as focused studying, driving without distraction, attentively listening to music, or watching a movie. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 140 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

37) Clay has played professional soccer for seven years and is easily able to tune out the sound of the crowd and all other irrelevant sensory information during the game. Bruce is a rookie and is often distracted by what his opponents are saying and the mood of the crowd. Clay and Bruce are showing differing levels of ______________. a. absolute thresholds b. parallel processing c. selective attention d. top-down processing Correct: Selective attention involves focusing on one particular event or task, such as focused studying, driving without distraction, attentively listening to music, or watching a movie. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 140 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

38) During a break from his job as a waiter, Barnardo begins to read Hamlet and is so engrossed in the play that he fails to notice the clattering of dishes all around him. This is an example of _______________. a. feature detection b. absolute threshold Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. bottom-up processing d. selective attention Correct: Selective attention involves focusing on one particular event or task, such as focused studying, driving without distraction, attentively listening to music, or watching a movie. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 140 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

39) Failure to consciously perceive something you are looking at because your attention is directed elsewhere is called ___________. a. sensory overload b. selective attention c. inattentional blindness d. divided attention Correct: Missing the obvious can be surprisingly easy—especially if you are focused on just one particular aspect of your environment. This phenomenon is called inattentional blindness. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 141 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

40) Freddy is looking for his girlfriend in a large crowd of people. Because he is so focused on finding her, he fails to notice when a man in a clown costume walks right up next to him. This is an example of ______________. a. a feature detection failure b. sensory overload

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c. sensory adaptation d. inattentional blindness Correct: Missing the obvious can be surprisingly easy—especially if you are focused on just one particular aspect of your environment. This phenomenon is called inattentional blindness. This example is very similar to a classic experiment in which participants fail to notice a man in a gorilla costume because their attention is focused on another task. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 141 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of sensation and perception.

41) Light, a central player in our visual perception of the world, is a form of _____________. a. chemical energy b. mechanical energy c. vibration d. electromagnetic energy Correct: The term light actually refers to radiation that occupies a relatively narrow band of the electromagnetic spectrum. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 144 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

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d. bluish and bright Correct: Long wavelengths correspond with reddish colours and short wavelengths with bluish colours. Low amplitude waves correspond with dim colours, and high amplitude waves with bright colours. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 144–145 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

43) Visible light with a long wavelength and a low amplitude would be perceived as ______________. a. reddish and dim b. bluish and dim c. reddish and bright d. bluish and bright Correct: Long wavelengths correspond with reddish colours and short wavelengths with bluish colours. Low amplitude waves correspond with dim colours, and high amplitude waves with bright colours. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 144 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

44) When scuba divers take red objects underwater, they appear to lose their colour, but this does not happen to bluish objects. This demonstrates that water filters out light waves that have a. long wavelengths. b. short wavelengths. c. a high amplitude.

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d. a low amplitude. Correct: Long wavelengths correspond with reddish colours and short wavelengths with bluish colours. Therefore, if red objects appear to lose their colour underwater, it is because the water filters out light with long wavelengths. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 144 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

45) Which animal can see ultraviolet light? a. humans b. whales c. bees d. snakes Correct: Some organisms, such as bees, can see in ultraviolet, and some reptiles can sense infrared light. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 144 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

46) The intensity of the reflected light that reaches our eyes is known as ____________. a. hue b. contrast c. brightness d. saturation Correct: How we perceive the light reflected off of an object depends on its hue (colours of the spectrum), intensity (brightness), and saturation (colourfulness, or density).

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 144–145 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

47) When light enters the eye, it first passes through what structure? a. cornea b. lens c. pupil d. sclera Correct: The cornea is the clear layer that covers the front portion of the eye and also contributes to our ability to focus. Light entering the eye first passes through the cornea. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 145 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

48) When you enter a dim room, the _______________ widens to let more light in. a. pupil b. lens c. cornea d. retina Correct: The pupil regulates the amount of light that enters by changing its size; it dilates to allow more light to enter and constricts to allow less. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 145 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

49) When Brett walks out of the theatre into the glare of the sun, his _______________ get smaller to let less light in. a. pupils b. lenses c. corneas d. retinas Correct: The pupils regulate the amount of light that enters by changing their size; they dilate to allow more light to enter and constrict to allow less. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 145 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

50) The pupil is the a. coloured part of the eye. b. opening in the centre of the iris. c. white of the eye. d. lining in the back of the eyeball. Correct: Light enters the eye through the cornea and passes through an opening called the pupil. The pupil regulates the amount of light that enters by changing its size; it dilates to allow more light to enter and constricts to allow less. The iris is actually a round muscle that adjusts the size of the pupil, and is also what gives your eyes their characteristic colour. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 145 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

51) The coloured part of the eye that contains muscles to contract or expand the pupil is the ____________. a. lens b. fovea c. iris d. cornea Correct: The iris is a round muscle that adjusts the size of the pupil, and is also what gives your eyes their characteristic colour. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 145 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

52) Which of the following is the correct order in which light passes through the structures of the eye? a. lens, pupil, cornea b. lens, cornea, pupil c. cornea, lens, pupil d. cornea, pupil, lens Correct: Light enters the eye through the cornea and passes through an opening called the pupil. Behind the pupil is the lens, a clear structure that focuses light onto the back of the eye. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 145 Skill: Factual

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Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

53) The lens a. is the transparent outer membrane of the eye that covers the pupil and iris. b. allows one to focus on objects at different distances. c. allows light initially to enter the eye. d. controls the amount of light entering the eye. Correct: The lens is a clear structure that focuses light onto the back of the eye. Changing the shape of the lens allows you to focus on objects at different distances. This process is known as accommodation. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 145 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

54) What structure is primarily responsible for focusing light onto the back of the eye? a. cornea b. fovea c. lens d. retina Correct: While the cornea does contribute somewhat to our ability to focus, the lens is the primary structure that focuses light onto the back of the eye. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 145 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

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55) Our visual sensory receptor cells are located in the ___________. a. cornea b. fovea c. optic nerve d. retina Correct: The retina lines the inner surface of the eye and contains specialized receptors called photoreceptors. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 146 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight.

56) Which structure in your eye is most like the film in a camera? a. the retina b. the lens c. the cornea d. the pupil Correct: While the visual system is not a camera, some parts perform similar functions. In a camera, the light is "detected" when it comes into contact with the film. In the eye, light is not detected until it reaches the retina. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 146 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight.

57) Rods and cones are both types of _________.

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a. foveas b. lenses c. retinas d. photoreceptors Correct: The specialized receptors of the retina are called photoreceptors, There are two general types of photoreceptors, rods and cones, and each responds to different characteristics of light. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 146 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

58) The central portion of the retina is the ____________. a. fovea b. lens c. cornea d. cones Correct: The fovea is the central region of the retina that contains the highest concentration of cones; this is why objects upon which we centre our vision are the clearest and most colourful relative to objects in the periphery. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 146 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

59) _____________ are sensitive to the different wavelengths of light, which is what allows us to detect colour. ______________ do not detect colour, but can work under low light conditions. a. Foveae; Retinas Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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b. Retinas; Foveae c. Cones; Rods d. Rods; Cones Correct: Cones are photoreceptors that are sensitive to the different wavelengths of light that we perceive as colour. Rods are photoreceptors that occupy peripheral regions of the retina, and are highly sensitive under low light levels. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 146 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

60) Which of the following is true of the fovea? a. It contains only rods. b. It contains the highest concentration of cones. c. It is located around the periphery of the retina. d. It works best in low light conditions. Correct: The fovea is the central region of the retina that contains the highest concentration of cones; this is why objects upon which we centre our vision are the clearest and most colourful relative to objects in the periphery. Because cones do not work well in low light conditions, the fovea does not function efficiently in low light. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 146 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. 61) Light receptors that help us to see best at night are the __________. a. foveae b. cones c. shafts

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d. rods Correct: Rods are photoreceptors that occupy peripheral regions of the retina, and are highly sensitive under low light levels. We do not see colour at night or in darkness because rods do not detect colour and they are more active under low light levels than cones. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 147 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

62) The process by which rods and cones become more sensitive to light in response to lowered levels of illumination is called ______________. a. afterimage resolution b. light adaptation c. dark adaptation d. afterimage adaptation Correct: Dark adaptation is the process by which the rods and cones becomes increasingly sensitive to light under low levels of illumination. This process explains why we can gradually see more objects at very low light levels. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 147 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

63) The ______________ carries sensory information from the retina to the brain areas where visual perception will occur. a. fovea b. lens c. optic nerve

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d. retina Correct: Each eye has an optic nerve, a cluster of neurons that gathers sensory information, exits at the back of the eye, and connects with the brain. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 146 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight.

64) A blind spot is a part of the visual field we can't see, where the _____________ connects to the_____________. a. retina; pupil b. cornea; iris c. optic nerve; retina d. optic nerve; sclera Correct: Each eye has an optic nerve, a cluster of neurons that gather sensory information, exits at the back of the eye, and connect with the brain. This nerve presents a challenge to the brain. Because it travels through the back of the eye it creates an area in the retina with no rods or cones, called the optic disc. The result is a blind spot—a space in the retina that lacks photoreceptors. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 146 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight.

65) Although she is normally not aware of its existence, Ingrid discovers that she has a blind spot in her vision by closing one eye and focusing on a fixed point. What explains why Ingrid has this blind spot in her vision? a. She suffers from retinal degeneration.

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b. She is experiencing sensory adaptation. c. No photoreceptors are located where the optic nerve leaves the eye. d. There is insufficient light to activate her rods. Correct: Each eye has an optic nerve, a cluster of neurons that gathers sensory information, exits at the back of the eye, and connects with the brain. This nerve presents a challenge to the brain. Because it travels through the back of the eye it creates an area in the retina with no rods or cones, called the optic disc. The result is a blind spot—a space in the retina that lacks photoreceptors. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 146 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. 66) Why are we normally unaware of the blind spot in our vision? a. Light does not normally fall on the blind spot. b. Our brains "fill in" the missing visual information for us. c. Despite the name, the blind spot does not actually prevent light in our visual field from being detected. d. The blind spot is only an issue in very low light conditions. Correct: Because the optic nerve connects to the back of the eye it creates an area in the retina with no rods or cones, called the optic disc. The result is a blind spot—a space in the retina that lacks photoreceptors. The brain however, "fills in" the missing part of the visual field with what it expects to be there. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 146 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight.

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67) Jan can see objects well up close, but they appear blurry from afar. She is probably ____________. a. colour blind b. nearsighted c. farsighted d. developing a cataract Correct: Nearsightedness occurs when the eyeball is slightly elongated, causing the image that the cornea and lens focus on to fall short of the retina. People who are nearsighted can see objects that are relatively close up but have difficulty focusing on distant objects. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 148 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision.

68) The visual information from each eye is split at the __________________, with half of the nerve fibres from each eye projecting to each half of the brain. a. fovea b. optic chiasm c. lateral geniculate nucleus d. visual cortex Correct: The first major destination of visual information sent from the eyes is the optic chiasm, the point at which the optic nerves cross at the midline of the brain. Roughly half of the nerve fibres travel to the same side of the brain, and half of them travel to the opposite side. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 149 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight.

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69) Visual information is sent to a part of the thalamus called the ______. a. LGN b. MLN c. MGN d. LMN Correct: Fibres from the optic nerve first connect with the visual area of the thalamus at a region called the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN). The LGN then sends messages to the visual cortex, located on the occipital lobe, where the process of visual perception begins. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 150 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight.

70) Which is the correct order of structures as visual information travels from the eye to the visual cortex? a. LGN; optic chiasm; occipital lobe b. optic chiasm; occipital lobe; LGN c. LGN; occipital lobe; optic chiasm d. optic chiasm; LGN; occipital lobe Correct: Visual information travels first through the optic chiasm. It is then sent to the thalamus before finally being sent to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 149–150 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight.

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71) Feature detection cells in the visual cortex respond primarily to features such as a. colour and brightness. b. size and distance. c. angles and edges. d. eyes, noses, and mouths. Correct: One set of cells in the visual cortex are referred to as a feature detection cells, which respond selectively to simple and specific aspects of a stimulus, such as angles and edges. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 150 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight.

72) The ventral stream is a pathway extending from the visual cortex to the temporal lobe and is where ______________occurs. In contrast, the dorsal stream extends from the visual cortex to the parietal lobe of the cortex and is where ________________ occurs. a. object recognition; depth and movement perception b. depth and movement perception; object recognition c. colour perception; control of eye movements d. control of eye movements; colour perception Correct: The ventral stream is a pathway extending from the visual cortex to the temporal lobe and is where object recognition occurs. The dorsal stream extends from the visual cortex to the parietal lobe of the cortex and is where depth and motion are perceived. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 150 Skill: Factual

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Objective: Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight.

73) Our ability to see objects as relatively stable and unchanging despite changing sensory information is called perceptual ___________. a. closure b. constancy c. reversibility d. coherency Correct: Despite the diverse ways that an object can be sensed, it is still perceived as the same object. This observation highlights what is called perceptual constancy, the ability to perceive objects as having constant shape, size, and colour despite changes in perspective. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 153 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze how we perceive objects and faces.

74) When we look at a white house, we can recognize it as a white house by day or night and from any angle. This is due to perceptual _____________. a. closure b. constancy c. reversibility d. coherency Correct: Despite the diverse ways that an object can be sensed, it is still perceived as the same object. This observation highlights what is called perceptual constancy, the ability to perceive objects as having constant shape, size, and colour despite changes in perspective. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 153 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze how we perceive objects and faces.

75) People with normal vision will perceive a pyramid whether they see the object from the side, top, or any other angle as long as the object is, in fact, a pyramid. This is an example of ________________. a. shape constancy b. size constancy c. figure-ground d. visual angle Correct: Perceptual constancy is the ability to perceive objects as having constant shape, size, and colour despite changes in perspective. In this example, shape constancy allows people to recognize a pyramid's shape from any angle. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 153 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze how we perceive objects and faces.

76) Stewart is sitting in his office, which is lighted with a bluish neon light, eating a red apple. Even though the apple is bathed in bluish light, he continues to perceive it as red. This illustrates: a. the trichromatic theory. b. retinal disparity. c. the opponent-process theory. d. colour constancy. Correct: Perceptual constancy is the ability to perceive objects as having constant shape, size, and colour despite changes in perspective. Colour constancy allows us to recognize an object's colour under varying levels of illumination. For example, a bright red car is recognized as bright red whether in the shade or in full sunlight. Answer: d Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 153 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze how we perceive objects and faces.

77) Kevin watches as his wife Denise walks toward the house. Even though Denise fills more and more of Kevin's visual field as she approaches, she does not appear to be growing larger as she moves closer to Kevin. This illustrates ______________. a. relative size b. size constancy c. retinal disparity d. linear perspective Correct: Perceptual constancy is the ability to perceive objects as having constant shape, size, and colour despite changes in perspective. In this example, size constancy prevents Kevin from thinking his wife is changing size. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 153 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze how we perceive objects and faces.

78) Prosopagnosia is the inability to a. see far-away objects. b. see objects in your peripheral vision. c. perceive depth or distance. d. recognize faces. Correct: Specific genetic problems or damage to this area can result in failure to recognize people's faces (a condition called prosopagnosia, or face blindness). People with face blindness are able to recognize voices and other defining features of individuals, but not faces. Answer: d Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 151–153 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze how we perceive objects and faces.

79) Caleb has good vision and can easily recognize common objects. However, he cannot recognize people by looking at their faces. For example, Caleb often relies on the sound of her voice to be certain he is talking to his wife and not another person. Caleb suffers from a rare disease called _______________. a. retinal disparity b. prosopagnosia c. parallaxia d. tactile agnosia Correct: Specific genetic problems or damage to this area can result in failure to recognize people's faces (a condition called prosopagnosia, or face blindness). People with face blindness are able to recognize voices and other defining features of individuals, but not faces. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 51–153 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze how we perceive objects and faces.

80) Which of the following is true regarding the normal perception of faces? a. We rely most on the nose and ears to identify faces. b. The perception of faces is no different than the perception of any other object. c. Viewing a face upside down makes it much more difficult to recognize facial expressions. d. A part of the frontal lobe is specialized for facial recognition. Correct: When a face is presented upside down, our ability to recognize the face and facial expressions diminishes. In part, this is because we are especially attentive to the eyes and mouth when looking at faces. Our brains are actually specially wired to recognize faces, including a special region located in the lower part of the temporal lobe of that is specialized for facial recognition. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 151 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze how we perceive objects and faces.

81) Visual distance and depth cues that require the use of both eyes are called _______________. a. monocular cues b. diocular cues c. binocular cues d. dichromatic cues Correct: Binocular depth cues are distance cues that are based on the differing perspectives of both eyes. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 154 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field.

82) When focusing on a close object that is directly in front of you, eye muscles contract to turn your eyes inward toward the nose. This is called _______________. a. convergence b. retinal disparity c. monocular depth d. binocular depth Correct: One type of binocular depth cue, called convergence, occurs when the eye muscles contract so that both eyes focus on a single object. The sensations that occur as these muscles contract to focus on a single object create the perception of depth. Convergence typically occurs for objects that are relatively close to you. For example, as

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you track an object that is moving toward you, such as your fingertip toward your nose, your eyes move inward toward the nose. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 154 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field.

83) When Bill looks at his lamp alternately with his left eye and right eye, the image seems to jump from one position to another. This phenomenon illustrates ______________. a. retinal disparity b. convergence c. divergence d. interposition Correct: Retinal disparity (or binocular disparity) is the difference in relative position of an object as seen by both eyes, which provides information to the brain about depth. In this example, closing one eye and then the other allows Bill to notice the slight difference (disparity) in how each eye views the lamp. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 154 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field.

84) The fact that each one of our two eyes receives a slightly different image of an object we are looking at is known as ______________. a. retinal disparity b. binocular inversion c. convergence d. stereophonic vision

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Correct: Retinal disparity (or binocular disparity) is the difference in relative position of an object as seen by both eyes, which provides information to the brain about depth. It requires stereoscopic vision, not "stereophonic." Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 154–155 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field.

85) Which of the following is a binocular cue to depth? a. interposition b. height in plane c. retinal disparity d. linear perspective Correct: Retinal disparity is a binocular depth cue because it requires information from both eyes. The other depth cues listed are all monocular cues. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 154–155 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field.

86) While riding on a train, David notices that the trees and telephone poles close to the tracks seem to flash by, while the buildings, trees, and mountains that are farther away seem to move by more slowly. This phenomenon is called _______________. a. aerial perspective b. subliminal motion c. motion parallax d. motion differential Correct: Motion parallax is a monocular depth cue. This cue is used when you or your surroundings are in motion. For example, as you sit in a moving car and look out of the Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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passenger window, you will notice objects closer to you, such as the roadside, parked cars, and nearby buildings appear to move rapidly in the opposite direction of your travel. However, the foothills and mountains in the distance appear to move much more slowly, indicating that they are further away. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 155 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field.

87) Changing the shape of the lens to focus on objects near or far is called a. convergance. b. accommodation. c. constriction. d. dilation. Correct: Accommodation takes place when the lens of your eye changes shape to allow you to focus on near or far objects. The degree of accommodation necessary to properly focus on an object can be used by the brain as a depth cue. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 155 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field.

88) As Shane stands between the railroad tracks, the rails appear to converge in the distance. This cue to inferring depth and distance is called _______________. a. linear perspective b. retinal disparity c. parallax d. relative size

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Correct: Parallel lines stretching to the horizon appear to move closer together as they travel further away. This is called linear perspective, and can be used by the brain as a cue to depth. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 156 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field.

89) The distance cue in which two parallel lines extend into the distance and seem to come together at one point is called _________________. a. linear perspective b. aerial perspective c. shadowing d. motion parallax Correct: Parallel lines stretching to the horizon appear to move closer together as they travel further away. This is called linear perspective, and can be used by the brain as a cue to depth. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 156 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field.

90) The monocular cue of ___________ is being used when an artist places objects in front of other objects to create a sense of depth when the picture is viewed. a. interposition b. light and shadow c. linear perspective d. relative size

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Correct: Interposition is a simple depth cue where nearby objects block our view of far off objects, such as the umbrellas blocking the view of buildings behind them in Figure 4.26. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 156 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field.

91) Tom spent the morning taking pictures in the small coves of a local lake. What monocular cue is providing depth perception when the near objects in his photographs appear much larger than those on the opposite shore of the cove? a. height in plane b. interposition c. linear perspective d. relative size Correct: If two objects in an image are known to be of the same actual size, the larger of the two must be closer. This monocular depth cue is known as relative size. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 156 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field.

92) The trichromatic theory states that a. the visual system treats triads of colour as antagonistic to each other. b. three types of colour feature detectors in the visual cortex are responsible for colour perception. c. three types of cones exist, each sensitive to a certain range of wavelengths. d. species that detect ultraviolet light perceive three colours that are outside of the range of humans.

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Correct: The trichromatic theory (or Young-Helmholtz theory) maintains that colour vision is determined by three different cone types that are sensitive to short, medium, and long wavelengths of light. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 147–148 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the theories of colour vision.

93) According to the opponent process theory of colour vision, the correct pairings of opposite colours are a. black versus white, red versus green, and blue versus yellow b. black versus gray and white versus coloured c. grayscales, blue versus red, and green versus yellow d. blue versus green and red versus yellow Correct: According to the opponent-process theory, we perceive colour in terms of opposite ends of the spectrum: red to green, yellow to blue, and white to black. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 148 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the theories of colour vision.

94) Sandra stares for about 30 seconds at a green square. After 30 seconds, she looks at a white sheet of paper. What will she "see"? a. a red square b. a blue square c. a yellow square d. a green square Correct: According to the opponent-process theory, we perceive colour in terms of opposite ends of the spectrum: red to green, yellow to blue, and white to black. This can Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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be demonstrated by the phenomenon of negative afterimages, where we briefly see the opponent colour after the first colour is removed. In this example, the opponent colour of green is red, so Sandra will see a red afterimage. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 148 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the theories of colour vision. 95) The trichromatic and opponent process theories of colour vision are not in conflict because each corresponds to a. a different portion of the spectrum. b. the opposite half of perceivable colours. c. one type of colour blindness. d. a different stage of visual processing. Correct: The trichromatic theory explains how colour is detected at the level of the cones. The opponent-process theory explains the activity of specialized neurons that transmit messages via the optic nerve to the brain. Both the trichromatic and opponent-process theories are correct—they are both required to explain how we see colour. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 148 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the theories of colour vision.

96) The ____________ is the perceptual experience of the wave frequency of a sound. a. audition b. timbre c. amplitude d. pitch Correct: Pitch is the perceptual experience of sound wave frequencies.

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Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 160 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand different characteristics of sound and how they correspond to perception.

97) An increase in the frequency of sound waves will correspond most directly to an increase in __________. a. amplitude b. pitch c. loudness d. decibels Correct: Pitch is the perceptual experience of sound wave frequencies. High frequency sounds, such as tires screeching on the road, have short wavelengths and a high pitch. Low frequency sounds, such as those produced by a bass guitar, have long wavelengths and a low pitch. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 160 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand different characteristics of sound and how they correspond to perception.

98) Brightness refers to the intensity of light. The corresponding term when discussing sound is __________. a. hue b. loudness c. pitch d. timbre

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Correct: The amplitude of a sound wave determines its loudness; high-amplitude sound waves are louder than low-amplitude waves. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 160 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand different characteristics of sound and how they correspond to perception.

99) Loudness is associated with a sound wave's ___________. a. amplitude b. length c. pitch d. timbre Correct: The amplitude of a sound wave determines its loudness; high-amplitude sound waves are louder than low-amplitude waves. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 160 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand different characteristics of sound and how they correspond to perception.

100) Humans can hear sounds ranging from about a. 20 to 2000 dB. b. 20 to 2000 Hz. c. 20 to 20 000 dB. d. 20 to 20 000 Hz. Correct: Humans are able to detect sounds ranging from 20 Hz. to 20 000 Hz. Hertz (Hz) is a measure of frequency (pitch), whereas decibels (dB) are a measure of sound

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amplitude (loudness). 2000 and 20 000 dB would be impossibly loud sounds—standing near a jet engine is only 140 dB. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 160 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand different characteristics of sound and how they correspond to perception.

101) The part of the ear we see is called the ____________. a. cochlea b. pinna c. tympanic membrane d. ossicle Correct: The most noticeable part of your ear is the pinna, the outer region that helps channel sounds waves to the ear and allows you to determine the source or location of a sound. The other structures listed are located within the skull. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 160 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the ear and hearing.

102) The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are the three a. components of the eardrum. b. tiny bones in the middle ear. c. parts of the pinna. d. components of the basilar membrane. Correct: The middle ear consists of three tiny moveable bones called ossicles (known individually as the hammer, anvil, and stirrup). The eardrum is attached to these bones,

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so any movement of the eardrum due to sound vibrations results in movements of the ossicles. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 160 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the ear and hearing.

103) Which represents the correct order in which vibrations pass from the outer to inner ear? a. cochlea; auditory canal; ossicles b. ossicles; auditory canal; cochlea c. auditory canal; cochlea; ossicles d. auditory canal; ossicles; cochlea Correct: The auditory canal is part of the outer ear, the ossicles are located in the middle ear, and the cochlea is located in the inner ear. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 160–162 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the ear and hearing.

104) The spiral-shaped sense organ used for hearing is the _______________. a. basilar membrane b. cochlea c. timbre d. pinna Correct: Located in the inner ear, the cochlea is a fluid-filled membrane that is coiled in a snail-like shape and contains the structures that convert sound into neural impulse.

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Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 161 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the ear and hearing.

105) The sensory receptors in the ear are found in the ____________. a. cochlea b. ear canal c. eardrum d. pinna Correct: Located in the inner ear, the cochlea is a fluid-filled membrane that is coiled in a snail-like shape and contains the receptors that convert sound into neural impulse. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 161 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the ear and hearing.

106) Once sound waves have been converted into neural activity, the ___________ carries them to the brain for auditory perception. a. auditory nerve b. basilar membrane c. cochlea d. pinna Correct: The auditory nerves are composed of bundles of neurons that fire as a result of hair cell movements. These auditory nerves in turn send signals to the auditory cortex, located within the temporal lobe. Answer: a Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 161–162 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the ear and hearing.

107) Uri is walking home alone on a dark night. He hears a stick breaking and immediately turns to his right to see what made the noise. What cue could Uri have used to tell which direction the sound came from? a. the location along the basilar membrane stimulated by the sound b. the slight time difference between when the sound reached each ear c. the overall loudness of the sound d. the frequency of the sound Correct: To locate the direction a sound is coming from, we depend in part on the fact that we have two ears. A sound arriving from the right reaches the right ear a fraction of a second sooner than it reaches the left ear, and vice versa. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 162 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of sound localization.

108) The head can block some of the sound reaching one ear, which makes the sound more intense in one ear than the other. The brain can use this phenomenon—known as a sound shadow—to determine which of the following? a. the frequency of the sound b. the location of the sound's source c. the loudness of the sound d. what the sound is Correct: We can localize sound by using differences in the intensity in which sound is heard by both ears—a phenomenon known as a sound shadow. If the source of the sound is to your left, the left ear will experience the sound more intensely than the right because the right ear will be in the sound shadow.

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 162 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of sound localization.

109) The _______________ theory states that how we perceive pitch is based on the location along the basilar membrane that sound stimulates. a. frequency b. opponent process c. place d. volley Correct: Not all hair cells along the basilar membrane are equally responsive to sounds within the 20–20 000 Hz range of human hearing. High-frequency sounds stimulate hair cells closest to the ossicles, and lower-frequency sounds stimulate hair cells toward the end of the cochlea. According to the place theory of hearing, the brain can use this information to determine the frequency of sounds. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 163 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the ear and hearing.

110) According to the ________________ theory, the perception of pitch is related to the frequency at which the basilar membrane vibrates. a. frequency b. opponent process c. place d. volley Correct: According to frequency theory, the perception of pitch is related to the frequency at which the basilar membrane vibrates. A 70 Hz sound, at 70 cycles per second, stimulates the hair cells 70 times per second. Thus, 70 nerve impulses per second travel

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from the auditory nerves to the brain, which interprets the sound frequency in terms of pitch. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 163 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the ear and hearing.

111) Human perception of high-pitched tones is best explained by ___________ theory. a. frequency b. opponent process c. place d. volley Correct: The place theory of hearing states that how we perceive pitch is based on the location (place) along the basilar membrane that sound stimulates. Place theory is most applicable to high-pitched noises. Frequency theory combined with the volley principle better explains how we hear low-pitched noises. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 163 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to the ear and hearing.

112) According to your textbook, which of the following is true regarding cochlear implants? a. They can greatly improve language comprehension and expression in young children. b. Adults do not benefit from cochlear implants. c. They are most effective for the treatment of conduction hearing loss. d. Most people with cochlear implants report an immediate and pleasurable increase in their ability to hear.

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Correct: In one three-year study, children greatly improved in both language comprehension and expression after cochlear implants. Adults can also benefit from these devices. It is important to note, however, that the process of adjusting to cochlear implants can be slow and arduous. At first, the sound of people speaking, or any sound for that matter, can be disorienting and even unpleasant. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 162 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how technology is used to restore hearing.

113) Sarah is a pianist who reports that she sees musical tones as colours. This is one example of ____________. a. binocular cues b. the Ganzfield technique c. the Ponzo illusion d. synesthesia Correct: Synesthesia is a rare condition which results in blended sensory experiences. People with synesthesia might hear colours or feel sounds. For the rare individuals who experience this, even letters or numbers may have a colour associated with them. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 176 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses.

114) The skin covering which part of the body would have the LOWEST acuity? a. lips b. palms c. fingertips d. lower back

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Correct: Parts such as the fingertips, palms, and lips are highly sensitive to touch, compared to regions such as the calves and lower back. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 169 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge about touch to describe the acuity of different areas of skin.

115) A researcher uses a device to press two closely-spaced pins onto various places on participants' bodies. Each time, the research asks the participant to say whether they feel two distinct points or only one. The researcher is testing the _____________ of the skin on the different body parts. a. gate threshold b. flexibility c. acuity d. nociception Correct: Sensitivity to touch varies across different regions of the body. One simple method of testing sensitivity, or acuity, is to use the two-point threshold test. Regions with high acuity, such as the fingertips, can detect the two separate but closely-spaced pressure points of the device, while less sensitive regions such as the lower back will perceive the same stimuli as only one pressure point. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 169 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge about touch to describe the acuity of different areas of skin.

116) To help identify objects with our sense of touch, we move the object in our hands and actively explore it. This is known as ___________. a. gustation

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b. haptics c. kinesthesis d. nociception Correct: Haptics is the active, exploratory aspect of touch sensation and perception that helps us identify objects. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 169 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses.

117) The name given to the sense of our body position is _____________. a. gustation b. the kinesthetic sense c. somatosensory sense d. the vestibular sense Correct: Kinesthesis is our sense of bodily motion and position. Receptors for the kinesthetic sense reside in the muscles, joints, and tendons. The receptors transmit information about movement and the position of your muscles, limbs, and joints to the brain. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 169 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses.

118) Without ________________, we could cut our arm with a knife and feel nothing more than the slight pressure of the blade. a. gustation b. haptics

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c. kinesthesis d. nociception Correct: Nociception is the activity of nerve pathways that responds to uncomfortable stimulation. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 170 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses.

119) The gate-control theory of pain suggests that a. the pain signals must pass through a kind of "gate" located in the spinal cord. b. the skin receptors act as a gate for the pain sensation. c. the cortex blocks pain unless released by substance P. d. the gate is a physical structure that blocks pain signals. Correct: A long-held theory of pain perception is called gate-control theory, which explains our experience of pain as an interaction between nerves that transmit pain messages and those that inhibit these messages. Cells in the spinal cord regulate how much pain signalling reaches the brain. Thus, the spinal cord serves as a "neural gate" that pain messages must pass through. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 170 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how pain messages travel to the brain.

120) According to the gate-control theory of pain, which of the following would be an effective way to decrease the pain of banging your elbow? a. jumping up and down b. rubbing the area around it c. screaming very loudly Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. thinking happy thoughts Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 170 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how pain messages travel to the brain. Correct: A long-held theory of pain perception is called gate-control theory, which explains our experience of pain as an interaction between nerves that transmit pain messages and those that inhibit these messages. Put simply, rubbing, touching, or tickling an area stimulates nerve fibres that "close" the pain gates, inhibiting the pain signal coming from the same area.

121) Ursula is an army veteran who had to have her leg amputated after an explosive device detonated near her. Surprisingly, she still awakens in the middle of the night and feels her missing leg itching, twitching, or even hurting. Ursula is experiencing _________________ sensations. a. amputation syndrome b. gate-control c. phantom limb d. post-traumatic stress disorder Correct: Phantom limb sensations are frequently experienced by amputees, who report pain and other sensations coming from the absent limb. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 172–173 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses.

122) A leading theory of phantom limb pain holds that this experience is due to a. expectations of pain. b. leftover nerve endings in the missing body part.

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c. the rewiring of the brain after the loss of input from the lost limb. d. the release of inflammatory substances that cause pain. Correct: One explanation for phantom pain is that re-wiring occurs in the brain following loss of the limb. When a limb is lost, an area of the somatosensory cortex is no longer stimulated by the lost limb. Thus, if someone has their left arm amputated, the right somatosensory cortex that registers sensations from the left arm no longer has any input from it. Healthy nerve cells become hypersensitive when they lose connections. The phantom sensations, including pain, may occur because the nerve cells in the cortex continue to be active, despite the absence of any input. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 172 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how pain messages travel to the brain.

123) Karen has suffered from phantom limb pain for several years. She visits a neurologist who proposes trying a therapeutic treatment that has been proven to be effective. Karen is surprised that this simple treatment uses a. a bucket of ice and a bucket of warm water. b. a mirror. c. mental visualization and guided meditation. d. acupuncture needles. Correct: One ingenious treatment for treating phantom pain involves the mirror box (Figure 4.37). This apparatus uses the reflection of the amputee's existing limb, such as an arm and hand, to create the visual appearance of having both limbs. Amputees often find that watching themselves move and stretch the phantom hand, which is actually the mirror image of the real hand, results in a significant decrease in phantom pain and discomfort. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 172–173 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses.

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124) Bumps on the tongue called __________ contain numerous __________ . a. mechanoreceptors; taste buds b. papillae; taste buds c. taste buds; mechanoreceptors d. taste buds; papillae Correct: Receptors for taste are located in the visible small bumps, called papillae that are distributed over the surface of the tongue. The papillae are lined with taste buds. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 174 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses.

125) We are sensitive to _________ basic tastes. a. three b. five c. seven d. countless Correct: The primary tastes include salty, sweet, bitter, and sour. In addition, a fifth taste, called umami, has been identified. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 174 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the relationship between smell, taste, and food flavour experience.

126) Which of the following is the most recently identified of the basic taste sensations? a. fatty b. acrid

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c. umami d. sour Correct: The primary tastes include salty, sweet, bitter, and sour. In addition, a fifth taste, called umami, has been identified. Umami is a Japanese word that refers to tastes associated with seaweed or the seasoning monosodium glutamate (MSG), and proteinrich foods such as milk and aged cheese. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 174 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the relationship between smell, taste and food flavour experience. 127) Which of the following is true regarding supertasters? a. Supertasters have many more taste buds than non-supertasters. b. Less than 1% of the population are supertasters. c. Supertasters prefer sweet and fatty foods. d. The tongues of supertasters are physiologically identical to non-supertasters. Correct: Supertasters, comprising about 25% of the population, are especially sensitive to bitter tastes such as those of broccoli and black coffee. They also tend to dislike fatty and sweet foods. Compared to non-supertasters, supertasters have many times more papillae, and therefore more taste buds. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 174–175 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to determine if you or someone you know is a "supertaster."

128) Tory eats a piece of broccoli and spits it out and says, "That's so bitter!" She also does not like fatty or sweet foods. It is likely that Tory is a. a supertaster. b. a taster.

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c. a nontaster. d. an umami. Correct: Supertasters, comprising about 25% of the population, are especially sensitive to bitter tastes such as those of broccoli and black coffee. They also tend to dislike fatty and sweet foods. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 174 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to determine if you or someone you know is a "supertaster."

129) The complex flavours we experience when we bite into a great sandwich are due to: a. the gustatory system. b. the olfactory system. c. haptics. d. both the gustatory and olfactory systems working in concert. Correct: Smell works in concert with taste to give us the experience of flavour. Without smell, a slice of onion might be difficult to discriminate from a slice of apple; their textures are quite similar and our taste buds alone may not be sufficient to discriminate one from the other. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 175 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the relationship between smell, taste, and food flavour experience.

130) Why might food taste bland if your nose were congested due to a cold or allergies? a. Mucus inhibits taste buds. b. Some taste buds are located in the nasal epithelium. c. Smell works in concert with taste to give us the experience of flavour. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. Having to breathe through your mouth inhibits the gustatory process. Correct: Smell works in concert with taste to give us the experience of flavour. If the nose is blocked due to congestion, nasal airflow cannot bring the molecules from the food to the olfactory epithelium. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 175 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the relationship between smell, taste and food flavour experience.

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1) Melatonin, a hormone involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms, is secreted by the pineal gland. a. True b. False Correct: The pineal gland releases a hormone called melatonin, which peaks at nighttime and is reduced during wakefulness. Thanks to this system, light is the primary stimulus regulating our circadian rhythm and it tells us to sleep at night and stay awake for the day. Answer: a Page Reference: 182 2) Sigmund Freud would agree that the key to a dream's meaning will be found in its manifest content. a. True b. False Correct: Freud believed that the true meaning of a dream was hidden in its latent content, not its manifest content. Answer: b Page Reference: 189 3) The “preserve and protect” theory of dreaming states that the purpose of dreaming is to reduce the likelihood of people encountering predators. a. True b. False Correct: This theory suggests in part that most predators of humans are nocturnal and that sleep keeps us away from animals that hunt at night; support for this theory comes from observing that animals such as antelope, that cannot shelter from predators, sleep less than animals with few predators, such as brown bats.. Answer: a Page Reference: 186 4) Insomnia is a disorder categorized by the temporary inability to breathe during sleep and results in the person gasping for air. a. True b. False Correct: This is a description of sleep apnea, not insomnia. Answer: b Page Reference: 194 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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5) One technique to improve sleep is to stay in bed for 30 minutes. If you are not asleep by then, get up and do something else until you are about to fall asleep, then return to bed. a. True b. False Correct: This is one of the techniques recommended for improving sleep. Answer: a Page Reference: 196 6) Hypnotists can make subjects perform tasks they normally would never do, such as commit murder. a. True b. False Correct: Hypnotists cannot make people do things they normally wouldn't do. For example, you could not suggest an honest person rob a bank and expect for him to comply. Answer: b Page Reference: 199 7) Hypnosis increases the overall accuracy of memory. a. True b. False Correct: Hypnosis does not improve memory. In fact, it can contribute to the creation of false memories. Answer: b Page Reference: 201 8) There is hope for recovery if the patient improves within the first few months of persistent vegetative state (PVS), but the chances for recovery decrease sharply between 6 and 12 months. a. True b. False Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: a Page Reference: 205

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9) Cocaine is a natural drug that is synthesized from leaves. a. True b. False Correct: Cocaine, one of the most commonly abused stimulants, is synthesized from coca leaves, most often grown in South American countries such as Peru and Colombia. The people who harvest these plants often take the drug in its simplest form—they chew on the leaves and experience a mild increase in energy. Answer: a Page Reference: 213 10) Relatively few people use prescription drugs for nonmedical purposes. a. True b. False Correct: Prescription drugs are now second only to marijuana as the most commonly abused drug among illicit users. Answer: b Page Reference: 219–221

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1) A person's subjective awareness, including thoughts, perceptions, experiences of the world, and self-awareness is called a. intelligence. b. consciousness. c. mindfulness. d. creativity. Correct: This is the textbook's definition of consciousness. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 181 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

2) What term do psychologists use to designate our personal awareness of feelings, sensations, and thoughts? a. thinking b. cognition c. conscience d. consciousness Correct: Consciousness is a person's subjective awareness, including thoughts, perceptions, experiences of the world, and self-awareness. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 181 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

3) Our sleeping-waking cycle follows a(n) __________ rhythm. a. infradian b. circadian

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c. diurnal d. ultradian Correct: Circadian rhythms are internally driven daily cycles of about 24 hours affecting physiological and behavioural processes. They involve the tendency to be asleep or awake at specific times, to feel hungrier during some parts of the day, and even the ability to concentrate. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 182 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

4) A circadian cycle is about ______ hours long. a. 1.5 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24 Correct: Circadian rhythms are internally driven daily cycles of about 24 hours affecting physiological and behavioural processes. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 182 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

5) A biological cycle, or rhythm, that is approximately 24 hours long is called a(n) ___________ cycle. a. infradian b. circadian c. diurnal

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d. ultradian Correct: Circadian rhythms are internally driven daily cycles of about 24 hours affecting physiological and behavioural processes. They involve the tendency to be asleep or awake at specific times, to feel hungrier during some parts of the day, and even the ability to concentrate. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 182 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

6) Which of the following is true of circadian rhythms? a. They are artificial inventions of timekeepers. b. They are internally driven cycles. c. They are sequences of events that occur once a month. d. They occur on the same schedule regardless of the changes from day to night. Correct: Circadian rhythms are internally driven daily cycles of about 24 hours affecting physiological and behavioural processes. Light is the primary stimulus regulating our circadian rhythm and it tells us to sleep at night and stay awake for the day. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 182 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

7) The sleep–wake cycle is ultimately controlled by the part of the brain called the a. optical nerve. b. substantia nigra. c. suprachiasmatic nucleus. d. median forebrain bundle.

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Correct: One key brain structure in the regulation of the sleep-wake cycle is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the hypothalamus. Cells in the retina of the eye relay messages about light levels in the environment to the SCN. The SCN in turn communicates signals about light levels with the pineal gland. The pineal gland releases a hormone called melatonin, which peaks at nighttime and is reduced during wakefulness. Thanks to this system, light is the primary stimulus regulating our circadian rhythm and it tells us to sleep at night and stay awake for the day. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 182 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

8) While university students may sometimes be an exception, most humans sleep at night and are awake during the day. What maintains this relationship? a. The eye relays messages to the brain about light levels, which synchronizes the circadian rhythms to the day-night cycle. b. People get more exercise during daylight, which promotes alertness and wakefulness. c. Ambient air temperature is cooler at night, which triggers the body to sleep. d. Our internal biological clock is synchronized with the day-night cycle when we are born. Correct: One key brain structure in the regulation of the sleep-wake cycle is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the hypothalamus. Cells in the retina of the eye relay messages about light levels in the environment to the SCN. The SCN in turn communicates signals about light levels with the pineal gland. The pineal gland releases a hormone called melatonin, which peaks at nighttime and is reduced during wakefulness. Thanks to this system, light is the primary stimulus regulating our circadian rhythm and it tells us to sleep at night and stay awake for the day. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 182 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

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9) SCN stands for a. stop control now. b. suprachiasmatic nucleus. c. serotonin controlled nucleus. d. sleep control nucleus. Correct: One key brain structure in the regulation of the sleep-wake cycle is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the hypothalamus. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 182 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

10) Where is the suprachiasmatic nucleus located? a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. basal ganglia d. hypothalamus Correct: One key brain structure in the regulation of the sleep-wake cycle is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which is part of the hypothalamus. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 182 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

11) _______________, a hormone involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms, is secreted by the pineal gland. a. Norepinephrine b. Testosterone

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c. Estrogen d. Melatonin Correct: Cells in the retina of the eye relay messages about light levels in the environment to the SCN. The SCN in turn communicates signals about light levels with the pineal gland. The pineal gland releases a hormone called melatonin, which peaks at nighttime and is reduced during wakefulness. Thanks to this system, light is the primary stimulus regulating our circadian rhythm and it tells us to sleep at night and stay awake for the day. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 182 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

12) The hormone melatonin reaches peak levels in the body during the a. morning. b. early evening. c. afternoon. d. night. Correct: The pineal gland releases a hormone called melatonin, which peaks at nighttime and is reduced during wakefulness. Thanks to this system, light is the primary stimulus regulating our circadian rhythm and it tells us to sleep at night and stay awake for the day. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 182 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

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b. taste c. smell d. touch Correct: Light is the primary stimulus regulating our circadian rhythm and it tells us to sleep at night and stay awake for the day. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 182 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

14) When endogenous rhythms are studied by removing all external cues for what time of day it is, what duration of circadian rhythm do most people adopt? a. a rhythm that is between 23 and 24 hours long b. a rhythm that is 24 to 25 hours long c. a rhythm that is 25 to 26 hours long d. People do not establish a normal rhythm when cues about time of day are removed. Correct: When clocks and daylight are removed most people will go to sleep slightly later each night indicating a long circardian rhythm. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 182 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

15) Which of the following statements accurately reflects the relationship of the amount of sleep that an individual receives as a function of age? a. We require more sleep as we age. b. As we age, we tend to need less sleep.

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c. We require much sleep during infancy and early childhood, less sleep in adolescence and early adulthood, and then more sleep in middle and older age. d. The amount of sleep we require does not follow a consist pattern as we age. Correct: Researchers have found that we need much less sleep—especially REM sleep— as we move from infancy and early childhood into adulthood. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 183 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

16) Kendra is on a camping trip with several generations of her family. One night, the group decides to wake up the next morning at first light and go on a long dawn hike. If the sleep habits of her family members are typical for their ages, what should happen on the morning of the hike? a. The middle-aged adults will be groggier and less alert than the teenagers. b. The middle-aged adults will be more alert and function better than the teenagers. c. The youngest children in the group will be the most alert because they require the least amount of sleep. d. Everyone will be equally alert, regardless of age. Correct: In our teens and twenties, many of us become night owls who prefer to stay up late and sleep in. Later in adulthood, many of us will find ourselves going to bed earlier, getting up earlier, and we may begin to prefer working or exercising before our teenage children even begin to stir. However, research shows that these are more than just preferences: People actually do show higher alertness and cognitive functioning during their preferred time of day. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 183 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

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17) Yusef spends a night at a sleep clinic. The technicians at the clinic hook Yusef up to sensors to measure respiration, body temperature, muscle movements, and brain activity while he sleeps. What technique is the clinic using to study Yusef's sleep pattern? a. positive sleep state analysis (PSSA) b. somnambulism c. polysomnography d. biofeedback Correct: Polysomnography refers to a set of objective measurements used to examine sleep-wake rhythms. Polysomnograms usually include recordings of brain activity, eye and muscle movements, respiration, heart rate, and body temperature. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 183 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

18) Which device would a sleep researcher use to monitor a sleeping person's brain waves? a. electromyogram (EMG) b. electrocardiogram (EKG) c. electro-oculogram (EOG) d. electroencephalogram (EEG) Correct: Sleep cycles themselves are most often defined by the electroencephalogram or EEG, a device that measures brain waves. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 183 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

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19) You are watching sleep researchers monitor the sleep of a normal adult. The participant is hooked up to an EEG. What brain waves would you observe as the person becomes drowsy and then enters the first stage of sleep? a. alpha eventually replaced by delta b. delta eventually replaced by theta c. alpha eventually replaced by theta d. delta eventually replaced by beta Correct: As people begin to shift into sleep, their brain waves start to become slower, larger, and more predictable; these waves are known as alpha waves, and they signal that a person may be daydreaming, meditating, or starting to fall asleep. As people progress further into stage 1 sleep, their brain waves continue to slow down and become higher in amplitude—these are known as theta waves. Delta waves are only seen in deep sleep (stages 3 and 4). Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 184 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

20) Emily is currently in Stage 1 sleep. This means she is a. experiencing theta waves and light sleep. b. experiencing delta waves and walking in her sleep. c. relaxed but awake. d. hard to rouse and her muscles are completely relaxed. Correct: In stage 1, brain waves slow down and become higher in amplitude—these are known as theta waves. Breathing, blood pressure, and heart rate all decrease slightly as an individual begins to sleep, but this is the lightest of the first four stages of sleep, making it fairly easy to rouse someone in this stage. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 184 Skill: Applied Objective: Underst

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21) Emilio is currently in stage 2 sleep. This means his EEG is showing __________ waves. a. only delta b. occasional delta c. occasional bursts of rapid, high-peaking d. only small, irregular Correct: During stage 2 sleep, the brain emits occasional short bursts of rapid, highpeaking waves called sleep spindles. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 184 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

22) Brain activity during sleep a. is relatively uniform, and does not change throughout the night. b. is very similar to activity during the waking state. c. is almost nonexistent. d. is correlated with changes in muscle tension, breathing, and other physiological responses. Correct: Sleep is characterized by rhythms of brain activity. These changes in brain activity correspond to physiological changes, such as decreases in breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure as the sleeper passes through sleep stages 1–4. While it is true that EEG activity during REM sleep is very similar to activity during the waking state, this is not the case for brain activity during the non-REM stages. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 183–185 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

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23) Which is the stage of sleep from which you would be most easily awakened? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. stage 4 Correct: As we progress through the first four stages of sleep, we respond to fewer and fewer external stimuli such as light and sounds. This continues into the deepest stage of sleep, stage 4, during which time the sleeper will be difficult to awaken. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 184 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

24) During which sleep stage do sleep spindles first occur? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. stage 4 Correct: Stage 2 is the first sleep stage to include sleep spindles—periodic bursts of EEG activity. What these large spikes in brain activity mean is not completely understood, but evidence suggests they may play a role in the process of memory storage. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 184 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

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25) Short, rhythmic bursts of brainwave activity that appear during stage 2 sleep are called a. delta waves. b. sleep spindles. c. paradoxical sleep waves. d. beta waves. Correct: Stage 2 is the first sleep stage to include sleep spindles—periodic bursts of EEG activity. What these large spikes in brain activity mean is not completely understood, but evidence suggests they may play a role in the process of memory storage. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 184 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

26) Maxine is currently sleeping. She is continuing to experience delta waves and she is very hard to rouse. Maxine is in __________ sleep. a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 4 d. REM Correct: The deepest stage of sleep is stage 4, during which time the sleeper will be difficult to awaken. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 184–185 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

27) The deepest stage of sleep is __________ sleep.

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a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. REM d. stage 4 Correct: The deepest stage of sleep is stage 4, during which time the sleeper will be difficult to awaken. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 184–185 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

28) People in stage 4 sleep a. dream all the time. b. are hard to wake up. c. are easy to wake up. d. hallucinate. Correct: The deepest stage of sleep is stage 4, during which time the sleeper will be difficult to awaken. Most vivid dreams occur during REM sleep, not stage 4 sleep. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 184–185 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

29) Marsha is a participant in a sleep study. After about 30 minutes of sleep, she enters stage 4. What are the researchers most likely to observe when studying Marsha during this period? a. slow, rolling eye movements b. reports of vivid, unrealistic dreams if Marsha is awakened

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c. slow brain waves called delta waves d. fast, brain waves called alpha waves Correct: Slow, large amplitude delta waves characterize stage 3 and stage 4 sleep. Eye movements and vivid dreaming are associated with REM sleep, not stage 4 sleep. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 184 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

30) REM sleep has been called "paradoxical sleep" because a. the brain is very active, yet the body is entirely inactive. b. the body is very active and restless, but the brain is very inactive. c. the eyes are open, though the person remains asleep. d. colourful dreams occur, in contrast to the black-and-white dreams of NREM sleep. Correct: REM is sometimes known as paradoxical sleep because the EEG waves appear to represent a state of wakefulness, but it is in fact a stage of sleep, during which body movements are inhibited. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 185 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

31) What term do sleep researchers use to designate stages 1–4 of sleep? a. REM sleep b. Non-REM sleep c. REMN sleep d. paradoxical sleep

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Correct: REM is sometimes known as paradoxical sleep because the EEG waves appear to represent a state of wakefulness, but it is in fact a stage of sleep, during which body movements are inhibited. The REM pattern is so distinct that the first four stages are known collectively as non-REM or NREM sleep. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 185 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

32) Periods of REM sleep alternate with periods of non-REM sleep in a cycle that recurs about every _____________ minutes or so. a. 30–40 b. 90–100 c. 150–160 d. 210–220 Correct: On a typical night, at the end of the first REM phase we cycle back toward the deep sleep stages and back into REM sleep again every 90–100 minutes. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 185 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

33) John will likely experience REM rebound tonight if he a. takes a sleeping pill before bed tonight. b. drinks too much caffeine prior to sleeping. c. did not sleep much last night. d. slept more than eight hours last night.

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Correct: When we are deprived of sleep, we typically experience a phenomenon called REM rebound—our brains spend an increased time in REM phase sleep when given the chance. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 190 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

34) A person who gets very little sleep one night is likely to spend an increased amount in ____________ sleep, relative to the other stages, the following night. a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 4 d. REM phase Correct: When we are deprived of sleep, we typically experience a phenomenon called REM rebound—our brains spend an increased time in REM phase sleep when given the chance. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 190 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works.

35) According to this hypothesis, sleep is necessary for fixing the wear and tear caused to the body during the day. a. restore and repair b. activation-synthesis c. preserve and protect d. problem-solving

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Correct: The restore and repair hypothesis is the idea that the body needs to restore energy levels and repair any wear and tear on the body from the day's activities. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 185 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand theories of why we sleep.

36) Which explanation of why we sleep would predict that long-term sleep deprivation would cause cognitive declines and physical problems, such as an impaired immune system? a. preserve and protect b. activation-synthesis c. restore and repair d. problem-solving Correct: The restore and repair hypothesis is the idea that the body needs to restore energy levels and repair any wear and tear on the body from the day's activities. Unlike the preserve and protect hypothesis, the restore and repair hypothesis predicts that physical "wear and tear" would accumulate if a person were not allowed to sleep. The activation-synthesis and problem-solving hypotheses are theories of dreaming, and do not predict physical or cognitive decline will result from sleep deprivation. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 185 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand theories of why we sleep.

37) Which of the following statements supports the "preserve and protect" hypothesis of sleep? a. People tend to require more sleep after a hard day of work. b. Sleep deprivation can lead to impaired cognitive abilities. c. Jet lag is usually worse when traveling east than it is when traveling west. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. Many small animals sleep during the day, when they could be easily seen by a predator. Correct: The preserve and protect hypothesis suggests two more adaptive functions of sleep: preserving energy and protecting the individual organism from harm. To support this hypothesis, researchers cite that the animals most vulnerable to predators sleep in safe hideaways and during the time of day when they are most susceptible. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 186 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand theories of why we sleep.

38) Summer and Freddy are walking through the woods late at night. "It's so dark out here, we could walk over a cliff without even knowing it or get attacked by a bear!" says Freddy. "We should be asleep in bed instead of walking around at night." Freddy's comment reflects the logic behind which explanation of why we sleep? a. activation-synthesis b. preserve and protect c. restore and repair d. problem-solving Correct: The preserve and protect hypothesis suggests two more adaptive functions of sleep: preserving energy and protecting the individual organism from harm. To support this hypothesis, researchers cite that the animals most vulnerable to predators sleep in safe hideaways and during the time of day when they are most susceptible. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 186 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand theories of why we sleep.

39) Kendra stays up all night partying with her friends. Based on sleep deprivation research, what is she likely to experience the next day?

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a. normal levels of wakefulness b. sleepiness for the entire day c. periods of sleepiness and periods of normal wakefulness d. severe cognitive impairment for the entire day Correct: Whether it is staying up all night to study or to play, the result the next day is predictable. There will be periods when the sleep deprivation leads to sleepiness, and other periods when individuals feel perfectly normal levels of wakefulness. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 186–187 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

40) _____________ is the discomfort one feels when sleep cycles are out of synchronization with light and darkness. a. REM rebound b. Jet lag c. Sleep displacement d. Sleep state misperception Correct: Jet lag is the discomfort one feels when sleep cycles are out of synchronization with light and darkness. How much jet lag people experience is related to how many time zones they cross, and how quickly (e.g., driving versus flying). Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 188 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

41) Jet lag is typically the worst when travelling a. north.

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b. south. c. east. d. west. Correct: It is typically easier to travel west. When travelling east, a person must try to fall asleep earlier than usual, which is difficult to do. Most people find it easier to stay up longer than usual, which is what westward travel requires. Travelling north and south has little impact on sleep because time zones typically run west–east. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 188 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

42) Freud called the hidden meaning of a dream its __________ content. a. surface b. manifest c. unconscious d. latent Correct: In Freud's theory of dream interpretation, latent content refers to the unconscious meaning of a dream built on suppressed sexual or aggressive urges. This is in contrast to the explicit images and story line of a dream, which is called the manifest content. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 189 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

43) Dr. Sanchez is a psychoanalyst who is interested in analyzing dreams using Freud's perspective. As a psychoanalyst, he focuses on interpreting the __________ content of his clients' dreams in an attempt to understand their unconscious wishes and thoughts that may be expressed symbolically in their dreams. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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a. latent b. patent c. manifest d. marginal Correct: In Freud's theory of dream interpretation, latent content refers to the unconscious meaning of a dream built on suppressed sexual or aggressive urges. Freud believed that the true meaning of the dream was hidden in the latent content—not the overt manifest content—and required interpretation. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 189 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

44) According to Freud, the visible, or directly observable, content of a dream is its __________ content. a. primary b. secondary c. manifest d. latent Correct: In Freud's theory of dream interpretation, the explicit images and story lines of dreams are called the manifest content. This is in contrast to the latent content, which are the unconscious meanings of dreams built on suppressed sexual or aggressive urges. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 189 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

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45) Steve is currently undergoing psychoanalysis. His therapist asks him to write down everything he remembers about his dreams upon awakening. According to Freud's theory of dreaming, Steve is writing about the __________ content of his dreams. a. latent b. patent c. manifest d. marginal Correct: In Freud's theory of dream interpretation, the explicit images and story lines of dreams are called the manifest content. This is in contrast to the latent content, which are the unconscious meanings of dreams built on suppressed sexual or aggressive urges. In this example, what Steve would consciously remember about his dreams would be the manifest content. His therapist would then interpret Steve's dreams to determine the latent content. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 189 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream. 46) Cory is in therapy due to trauma he experienced as a child. His Freudian-trained therapist regularly asks him about his dreams. The therapist is interested in his dreams a. in order to gain insight into his motives, desires, and conflicts of which he is unaware. b. because he wants to understand Cory's random brainstem signals. c. in order to help him resolve current concerns and problems he is consciously aware of. d. as a way to help him eliminate or strengthen neural connections. Correct: Freud viewed dreams as an unconscious expression of wish fulfillment, and believed that all humans are motivated by primal urges, with sex and aggression being the most dominant. Analyzing the latent content of dreams could therefore help patients gain insight into these unconscious forces. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 189 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

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47) The psychoanalytic theory of dreaming states that a. the purpose of dreaming is to express unconscious wishes and urges. b. there is no purpose to dreaming; dreams occur because of random brainstem signals. c. the purpose of dreaming is to resolve current concerns and problems that we are conscious of. d. dreaming is a by-product of a process of eliminating or strengthening neural connections. Correct: Freud viewed dreams as an unconscious expression of wish fulfillment, and believed that all humans are motivated by primal urges, with sex and aggression being the most dominant. Because these urges are impractical most of the time, not to mention they are often considered immoral, we learn ways of keeping these urges suppressed and outside of our conscious awareness. However, as we sleep we lose the power to suppress our urges and these drives begin to create all kinds of visions. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 189 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

48) This dream theory states that the purpose of dreaming is to express unconscious wishes and urges. a. problem solving b. cognitive c. psychoanalytic d. activation-synthesis Correct: The psychoanalytic approach views dreams as an unconscious expression of wish fulfillment, and that all humans are motivated by primal urges, with sex and aggression being the most dominant. Because these urges are impractical most of the time, not to mention they are often considered immoral, we learn ways of keeping these urges suppressed and outside of our conscious awareness. However, as we sleep we lose the power to suppress our urges and these drives begin to create all kinds of visions. Answer: c Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 189 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

49) Interpretation of the ________ content of a dream is expected to reveal the ________ content. a. latent; manifest b. manifest; latent c. manifest; sublimated d. metaphorical; denotative Correct: In Freud's theory of dream interpretation, the explicit images and story lines of dreams are called the manifest content. This is in contrast to the latent content, which are the unconscious meanings of dreams built on suppressed sexual or aggressive urges. While manifest content is obvious, determining the latent content of a dream requires interpretation. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 189 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

50) Manifest content is to latent content as a. obvious is to symbolic. b. wish is to fulfillment. c. symbolic is to obvious. d. unconscious is to conscious. Correct: In Freud's theory of dream interpretation, the explicit images and story lines of dreams are called the manifest content. This is in contrast to the latent content, which are the unconscious meanings of dreams built on suppressed sexual or aggressive urges. Manifest content is obvious to the dreamer, whereas latent content is hidden in symbolic representations that must be interpreted to be understood.

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Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 189 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

51) According to Sigmund Freud, the important underlying meaning of our dreams is found in the a. deep content. b. latent content. c. manifest content. d. subliminal content. Correct: In Freud's theory of dream interpretation, the latent content are the unconscious meanings of dreams built on suppressed sexual or aggressive urges. Freud believed that this hidden content revealed the true meaning of a dream. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 189 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

52) If Alice's strange adventures in Wonderland were actually the dreams of a young girl, they probably occurred when she was in __________ sleep. a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 4 d. REM Correct: Dreams are most common and the most complex in REM sleep. Answer: d Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 190 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

53) During which part of sleep are you most likely to dream? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. REM sleep Correct: Dreams are most common and the most complex in REM sleep. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 190 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

54) According to the activation-synthesis theory of dreaming, the source of a dream is neuronal firing in the a. limbic system. b. cortex. c. thalamus. d. brainstem. Correct: The activation-synthesis hypothesis predicts that dreams arise from brain activity originating from bursts of excitatory messages arising from the brainstem. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 189–190 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

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55) The activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreaming states that a. the purpose of dreaming is to express unconscious wishes, thoughts, and conflicts. b. there is no purpose to dreaming; dreams occur because of random brainstem signals. c. the purpose of dreaming is to resolve current concerns and problems. d. dreaming is a by-product of a process of eliminating or strengthening neural connections. Correct: The activation-synthesis hypothesis predicts that dreams arise from brain activity originating from bursts of excitatory messages arising from the brainstem. The activation-synthesis hypothesis views dream content as random side effects of brain activity with little or no meaning. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 189–190 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream. 56) The explanation of dreaming that places the LEAST importance on the underlying meaning of dreams is the ____________ approach. a. problem-solving b. psychoanalytic c. Freudian d. activation-synthesis Correct: The activation-synthesis hypothesis predicts that dreams arise from brain activity originating from bursts of excitatory messages arising from the brainstem. The activation-synthesis hypothesis views dream content as random side effects of brain activity with little or no meaning. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 189–190 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

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57) The activation-synthesis theory proposes that a. the brain tries to make sense of random neural activity by creating dream narratives. b. the cortex is inactive during dreaming, so dreaming is completely controlled by the brainstem. c. the activity in the brainstem constructs or synthesizes dream narratives. d. dreams are active attempts to synthesize solutions to problems. Correct: The activation-synthesis hypothesis predicts that dreams arise from brain activity originating from bursts of excitatory messages arising from the brainstem. The burst of activity activates perceptual areas of the brain, producing imaginary sights and sounds, and it also activates emotional areas. Thus, the brainstem actions initiate the activation component of the model. The synthesis component arises as the cortical areas try to make sense of all the activity. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 189–190 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

58) The best adjectives associated with the activation-synthesis hypothesis are a. bizarre, meaningless, and random. b. unconscious, symbolic, and meaningful. c. meaningful, problem-oriented, and historical. d. intelligent, free, and neurotic. Correct: The activation-synthesis hypothesis predicts that dreams arise from brain activity originating from bursts of excitatory messages arising from the brainstem. Because this activity is random, dreams are bizarre and meaningless. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 189–190 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

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59) The dream theory that thoughts and concerns are continuous from waking to sleeping, and that dreams may function to facilitate finding solutions to problems encountered while awake, is known as the a. problem-solving theory. b. cognitive-dream theory. c. psychoanalytic approach. d. activation-synthesis hypothesis. Correct: Sleep researcher Rosalind Cartwright has proposed the problem-solving theory—the theory that thoughts and concerns are continuous from waking to sleeping, and that dreams may function to facilitate finding solutions to problems encountered while awake. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 190 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

60) The problem-solving explanation of dreaming suggests that a. the symbols and metaphors in a dream disguise a person's true unresolved problems. b. dreams are usually about our everyday problems and may even help us to solve those problems. c. there is no purpose to dreaming; dreams occur because of random brainstem signals. d. we are more likely to dream about good things that happen to us than about our problems. Correct: Sleep researcher Rosalind Cartwright has proposed the problem-solving theory—the theory that thoughts and concerns are continuous from waking to sleeping, and that dreams may function to facilitate finding solutions to problems encountered while awake. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 190–191 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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61) Which approach to dreaming suggests that our dreams are simply a modification of the thinking that occurs when we are awake? a. the problem-solving approach b. the psychoanalytic approach c. the lucid dreaming approach d. the activation-synthesis approach Correct: Sleep researcher Rosalind Cartwright has proposed the problem-solving theory—the theory that thoughts and concerns are continuous from waking to sleeping, and that dreams may function to facilitate finding solutions to problems encountered while awake. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 190–191 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

62) Which approach to explaining dreams is best supported by the fact that students who are worried about getting a good grade in a class often have recurring dreams of running out of time on exams, oversleeping and missing class, or suddenly realizing that a paper deadline was just missed? a. psychoanalytic b. problem-solving c. latent-dream theory d. activation synthesis Correct: Sleep researcher Rosalind Cartwright has proposed the problem-solving theory—the theory that thoughts and concerns are continuous from waking to sleeping, and that dreams may function to facilitate finding solutions to problems encountered while awake. The theory predicts that the amount of waking concern about an issue will be positively correlated with the number of times it appears in a person's dreams. In contrast, the psychoanalytic theory focuses much more on the latent or unconscious content of dreams. Answer: b Diff: 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 190–191 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

63) A weakness of the _______________ theory is that there is little to no evidence that the brain can find solutions to our concerns while we sleep. a. psychoanalytic b. problem-solving c. circadian d. activation-synthesis Correct: Dreaming about events of the waking hours may be beneficial, but there is not much evidence that a solution awaits us when we awaken as the problem-solving theory suggests. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 191 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze different theories about why we dream.

64) Insomnia affects about _______________ Canadians. a. 1 in 3 b. 1 in 5 c. 1 in 7 d. 1 in 10 Correct: The most widely recognized sleeping problem is insomnia (which literally means lack of sleep), a disorder that affects around 1 in 7 Canadians. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 192

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Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

65) A diagnosis of insomnia is based primarily on which of the following? a. the number of hours of sleep on an average night b. a polysomnogram recording c. the degree to which a person feels rested during the day d. a blood analysis Correct: Although the average adult may need around seven to eight hours of sleep to feel rested, there are substantial individual differences. Therefore, insomnia is defined not in terms of the hours of sleep, but the degree to which a person feels rested during the day. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 192 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. 66) A sleep disorder characterized by difficulty in falling asleep or remaining asleep throughout the night is a. zombulism. b. cataplexy. c. narcolepsy. d. insomnia. Correct: The most widely recognized sleeping problem is insomnia (which literally means lack of sleep). It can involve difficulty falling asleep, difficulty returning to sleep, or waking too early. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 192 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

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67) People with insomnia have difficulty with which of the following? a. only with falling asleep b. only with returning to sleep after waking in the night c. only with waking up too early d. with falling asleep, returning to sleep after waking, and waking up too early Correct: Although insomnia is often thought of as a single disorder, it may be more appropriate to refer to insomnias in the plural. Onset insomnia occurs when a person has difficulty falling asleep (30 minutes or more), maintenance insomnia occurs when an individual cannot easily return to sleep after waking in the night, and terminal insomnia is a situation in which a person wakes up too early—sometimes hours too early—and cannot return to sleep. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 192 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

68) If you have been waking up too early for several weeks, you are probably suffering from a. terminal insomnia. b. REM rebound. c. hypersomnia. d. reverse insomnia. Correct: One type of insomnia, terminal insomnia, is a situation in which a person wakes up too early—sometimes hours too early—and cannot return to sleep. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 192 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

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69) ______________ occur during REM sleep, while __________________ occur during NREM sleep. a. Night terrors; nightmares b. Nightmares; night terrors c. Ordinary dreams; nightmares. d. Nightmares; ordinary dreams Correct: Nightmares are particularly vivid and disturbing dreams that, like most dreams, occur during REM sleep. In contrast, night terrors are not dreams, and occur in NREM sleep. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 193 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

70) Which of the following is true about nightmares and night terrors? a. They are two different names for the same phenomenon. b. Night terrors involve real daytime fears and actual events, whereas nightmares involve unreal content such as monsters. c. Nightmares are a type of dream, whereas night terrors appear not to involve dream content. d. Nightmares involve real daytime fears and actual events, whereas night terrors involve unreal content such as monsters. Correct: Unlike nightmares, night terrors are not dreams. These episodes occur during NREM sleep, and the majority of people who experience them typically do not recall any specific dream content. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 193 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

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71) When he was a young child, Jerry would sometimes wake in the middle of the night screaming. He wouldn't remember having a bad dream, but remembers experiencing raw panic. Jerry most likely had a. night terrors. b. sleep apnea. c. REM behaviour disorder d. nightmares. Correct: Night terrors are intense bouts of panic and arousal that awaken the individual, typically in a heightened emotional state. A person experiencing a night terror may call out or scream, fight back against imaginary attackers, or leap from the bed and start to flee before waking up. The majority of people who experience them typically do not recall any specific dream content, and they are more common in young children than in adults. In contrast, nightmares are a type of dream. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 193 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

72) Vanya's legs bother him while he tries to sleep, and he feels the need to constantly move them into different positions. Sometimes it even causes him to wake up in the middle of the night. Vanya would be most likely to be diagnosed with a. restless legs syndrome. b. terminal insomnia. c. REM behaviour disorder. d. somnambulism. Correct: Restless legs syndrome is a persistent feeling of discomfort in the legs and the urge to continuously shift them into different positions. For those who are in constant motion, sleep becomes very difficult. They awake periodically at night to reposition their legs, even though in some cases individuals do not remember waking the next day. While restless leg syndrome might be a factor in some cases of insomnia, terminal insomnia is specifically a situation in which a person wakes up too early in the morning, which was not described as one of Vanya's symptoms. Answer: a

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 193 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

73) Ernie's muscle movements are not inhibited when he is dreaming. As a result, he literally acts out his dreams, sometimes injuring himself in the process. Ernie appears to suffer from a. severe sleepwalking. b. sleep apnea. c. narcolepsy. d. REM behaviour disorder. Correct: A severe and potentially dangerous condition is REM behaviour disorder. People with this condition do not show the typical restriction of movement during REM sleep; in fact, they appear to be acting out the content of their dreams. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 194 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

74) REM behaviour disorder results from a. too much sleep. b. not enough sleep. c. the body not experiencing the typical restriction of movement during REM sleep. d. deterioration of the medial hypothalamus. Correct: A severe and potentially dangerous condition is REM behaviour disorder. People with this condition do not show the typical restriction of movement during REM sleep; in fact, they appear to be acting out the content of their dreams. Answer: c Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 194 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

75) Which sleep disorder involves people literally acting out their dreams? a. sleepwalking b. REM rebound c. REM behaviour disorder d. sleep misperception Correct: A severe and potentially dangerous condition is REM behaviour disorder. People with this condition do not show the typical restriction of movement during REM sleep; in fact, they appear to be acting out the content of their dreams. Contrary to popular belief, sleepwalkers are NOT acting out a dream. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 194 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

76) Another name for sleepwalking is a. narcolepsy. b. somnambulism. c. REM behaviour disorder. d. sleep misperception. Correct: Somnambulism, or sleepwalking, is a disorder that involves wandering and performing other activities while asleep. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 194

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Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. 77) Which of the following is true about sleepwalking? a. It is dangerous to wake a sleepwalker. b. Sleepwalking is a sign of an underlying emotional disturbance. c. Sleepwalkers are acting out a dream. d. Sleepwalking is more prevalent in childhood. Correct: Somnambulism, or sleepwalking, is more prevalent during childhood. Sleepwalking is not necessarily indicative of any type of sleep or emotional disturbance. People who sleepwalk are not acting out dreams, and typically do not remember the episode. It is not dangerous to wake up a sleepwalker, as commonly thought. At worst, he or she will likely be disoriented. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 194 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. 78) Sleep apnea is a disorder in which a. a person suddenly falls asleep without warning during the day. b. a person has difficulty waking from sleep in the morning. c. a person periodically stops breathing during sleep. d. a person experiences bursts of aggressive behaviour during sleep. Correct: Sleep apnea is a disorder characterized by the temporary inability to breathe during sleep (apnea literally translates to without breathing). Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 194 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

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79) ___________________ is a disorder in which breathing briefly stops during sleep, causing the person to gasp for air. a. Sleep apnea b. Insomnia c. Narcolepsy d. Non-REM sleep Correct: Sleep apnea is a disorder characterized by the temporary inability to breathe during sleep (apnea literally translates to without breathing). Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 194 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

80) Naomi's breathing stops briefly during sleep, causing her to gasp. What problem does Naomi most likely have? a. sleep apnea b. insomnia c. narcolepsy d. REM behaviour disorder Correct: Sleep apnea is a disorder characterized by the temporary inability to breathe during sleep (apnea literally translates to without breathing). Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 194 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

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81) A sleep disorder that may require the use of a machine to force air gently into the nasal passages is a. sleep apnea. b. insomnia. c. narcolepsy. d. cataplexy. Correct: Sleep apnea is a disorder characterized by the temporary inability to breathe during sleep. For moderate to severe cases, a continuous positive airway pressure device—also known as CPAP—can force air through the nose, keeping the airway open through increased air pressure. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 194 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

82) If your physician says you need a treatment called a CPAP device, you are suffering from a. insomnia. b. narcolepsy. c. sleep apnea. d. sleep terrors. Correct: Sleep apnea is a disorder characterized by the temporary inability to breathe during sleep. For moderate to severe cases, a continuous positive airway pressure device—also known as CPAP—can force air through the nose, keeping the airway open through increased air pressure. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 194 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

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83) Narcolepsy involves a. unpredictable daytime attacks of sleep. b. inability to breathe while sleeping. c. a need for 12 to 14 hours of sleep each night. d. a need for only 5 to 6 hours of sleep each night. Correct: Narcolepsy is a disorder in which a person experiences extreme daytime sleepiness and even sleep attacks. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 195 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

84) When Larry was a teenager, he began experiencing periods when he had a lot of trouble staying awake during the day, even though he was getting enough sleep each night. He also would experience sudden sleep "attacks" where he would collapse to the floor in the middle of an activity. Larry suffered from a. sleep apnea. b. insomnia. c. narcolepsy. d. REM behaviour disorder. Correct: Narcolepsy is a disorder in which a person experiences extreme daytime sleepiness and even sleep attacks. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 195 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

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85) _______________ is a sleep disorder involving excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden, unpredictable lapses into sleep. a. Sleep apnea b. Insomnia c. Narcolepsy d. REM behaviour disorder Correct: Narcolepsy is a disorder in which a person experiences extreme daytime sleepiness and even sleep attacks. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 195 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

86) Sleep displacement would occur in which scenario? a. flying from New York to Los Angeles b. flying from New York to Athens Greece c. flying from New York to Buenos Aires. d. flying from New York to Buffalo. Correct: Sleep displacement happens when you must sleep earlier; an issue when travelling west to east. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 187–188 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

87) Studies of the impact of sleep deprivation have had an impact on what type of education discussed in your text? a. law school

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b. medical school c. armed forces training d. truck driving school Correct: Medical students can now request shorter shifts during residency and fewer on call nights. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 186–187 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

88) Asha has had trouble sleeping for the last three nights. Tonight, she is planning on drinking a couple of glasses of wine before bed to help her get to sleep. Which of the following is true about Asha's plan? a. Although excessive alcohol use should be avoided, having one or two drinks is an effective way to get a good night's sleep. b. Drinking alcohol before bedtime actually leads to partial arousal. c. Alcohol may encourage sleep, but it disrupts the quality of sleep, making people feel unrested the next day. d. Alcohol has no effect on people with insomnia. Correct: Although alcohol may make you sleepy, it disrupts the quality of sleep, especially the REM cycle, and may leave you feeling unrested the next day. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 195 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify and practise good sleep habits. 89) Which of the following is a problem with many of the drugs used to treat insomnia? a. People can become dependent on the drugs and cannot sleep without them. b. These drugs do not actually encourage sleep.

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c. People tend to develop a sensitivity to the drugs (i.e., the same dose has a greater effect over time.) d. Nothing; when taken correctly, sedatives are the best treatment for difficulty sleeping. Correct: Although these drugs manage to put people to sleep, several problems frequently occur. People quickly develop a tolerance, meaning they require higher and higher doses to get the same effect, and many soon come to depend on the drugs so much that they cannot sleep without them. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 195–196 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify and practise good sleep habits.

90) Your textbook recommends which of the following to improve sleep? a. exercising an hour before bedtime b. concentrating on falling to sleep c. forcing yourself to stay in bed until you fall asleep d. waking up at the same time each morning Correct: Getting up at the same time every morning is a good sleep practice. Although this may lead to sleepiness the first day or two, eventually it helps set the daily rhythm. Exercising during the day can also be a good sleep practice, however, exercise late in the day may leave you restless and aroused at bedtime. Concentrating on sleep and continuing to lie in bed without sleeping are also not recommended. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 196 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify and practise good sleep habits.

91) A central idea in the description of hypnosis is the word a. suggestion.

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b. sleep. c. trance. d. force. Correct: Hypnosis is a procedure of inducing a heightened state of suggestibility. According to this definition, hypnosis is about suggestibility, it is not a trance as is often portrayed. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 199 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, meditation, and disorders of consciousness.

92) A procedure of inducing a heightened state of suggestibility can be called a. hypnosis. b. meditation. c. dream state. d. mind control. Correct: Hypnosis is a procedure of inducing a heightened state of suggestibility. According to this definition, hypnosis is about suggestibility, it is not mind control as is often portrayed. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 199 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do.

93) Hypnosis can be best described as a. a hypothetical method for influencing behaviour that is more myth than science. b. a type of meditation.

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c. a procedure of inducing a heightened state of suggestibility. d. a trance-like state. Correct: Hypnosis is a procedure of inducing a heightened state of suggestibility. According to this definition, hypnosis is about suggestibility; it is not mind control as is often portrayed. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 199 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, meditation, and disorders of consciousness.

94) A hypnotist tells a subject that he will have trouble lifting his arms. This is an example of a _______________suggestion. a. ideomotor b. challenge c. cognitive-perceptual d. paralysis Correct: Challenge suggestions indicate actions that are not to be performed, so that the subject appears to lose the ability to perform an action. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 199 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, meditation, and disorders of consciousness.

95) How does the dissociation theory explain hypnosis? a. Hypnosis increases dopamine levels in the body. b. People merely fake being hypnotized.

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c. Hypnotized individuals dissociate the conscious mind into an "observer" part and a "hidden observer" part. d. Hypnosis allows us to dissociate ourselves from our beliefs and expectations. Correct: Dissociation theory explains hypnosis as a unique state in which consciousness is divided into two parts: an observer and a hidden observer. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 199 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the competing theories of hypnosis.

96) A "hidden observer" is a. a person, out of sight of the hypnotist, who monitors the process to make sure the hypnotist does not violate ethical standards. b. a part of the mind of the hypnotized person that remains separate. c. a friend or family member who observes the hypnosis to protect the hypnotized person. d. a form of hypnotic suggestion, where subjects are told to imagine someone is constantly watching them. Correct: Dissociation theory explains hypnosis as a unique state in which consciousness is divided into two parts: an observer and a hidden observer. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 199 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the competing theories of hypnosis.

97) A fairly recent approach to understanding hypnosis, the __________________theory, explains hypnosis by emphasizing the degree to which beliefs and expectations contribute to increased suggestibility. a. cognitive-perceptual b. dissociation

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c. hidden observer d. social-cognitive Correct: Social-cognitive theory explains hypnosis by emphasizing the degree to which beliefs and expectations contribute to increased suggestibility. In other words, people's behaviour under hypnosis reflects their beliefs and expectations about the procedure. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 200 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the competing theories of hypnosis.

98) Which theory suggests that hypnosis is the result of people conforming to their beliefs about how people should behave when under hypnosis? a. cognitive-perceptual b. dissociation c. social-cognitive d. challenge suggestion Correct: Social-cognitive theory explains hypnosis by emphasizing the degree to which beliefs and expectations contribute to increased suggestibility. In other words, people's behaviour under hypnosis reflects their beliefs and expectations about the procedure. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 200 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the competing theories of hypnosis.

99) Which of the following is true regarding the general effectiveness of hypnosis for the treatment of problems such as anxiety and depression? a. There is no evidence that hypnosis is an effective form of therapy. b. Hypnosis is typically more effective than other forms of therapy. c. Hypnosis is effective for 75% of all patients. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. Hypnosis can be moderately effective, especially when combined with other proven treatments. Correct: Research shows that hypnosis in therapy is sometimes successful, especially when used in conjunction with other evidence-based psychological or medical treatments. However, the overall benefits are typically relatively small, and hypnosis is far from a cure-all. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 200 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do.

100) The textbook authors argue that because of its relative safety and low cost, hypnosis might become a preferred method for treating a. pain. b. obesity. c. repressed memories. d. menopause. Correct: Perhaps the most practical use for hypnosis is in the treatment of pain. If hypnosis researchers can demonstrate its effectiveness, it may be a preferred method of pain control given the potentials for side effects and dependence with drugs, not to mention that hypnosis treatments for medical procedures cost about half as much as drugs. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 200 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do.

101) A study reported in your textbook found that hypnosis is generally more effective for ____________ pain than for treating ___________ pain. a. acute; chronic

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b. chronic; acute c. back; joint d. joint; back Correct: Patterson and Jenson (2003) reported that hypnosis generally worked as well as drug treatments for acute pain, which is the intense, temporary pain of a medical or dental procedure. Hypnosis is also somewhat effective for chronic pain, the types of pain that last for long periods of time. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 200–201 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do.

102) Regarding the use of hypnosis to assist the memory of crime victims, what is the main problem observed in the recall of information in studies so far? a. There is so much information recalled that it is difficult to handle. b. Most people recall things under hypnosis as if they were someone else, which challenges the chain of evidence. c. People under hypnosis are vulnerable to prompts and suggestion and can create a false memory. d. The recall of crimes under hypnosis is extremely traumatic for the victim. Correct: Hypnosis leaves individuals vulnerable to prompts and suggestions by the hypnotist. A cooperative person could certainly comply with suggestions and create a story that, in the end, is entirely false. This has happened time and again. The truth is, hypnosis does not improve memory. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 201 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do.

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103) Research indicates that hypnosis is a(n) ______________ method for recovering lost memories. a. effective b. traumatic c. dangerous d. error prone Correct: Hypnosis leaves individuals vulnerable to prompts and suggestions by the hypnotist. A cooperative person could certainly comply with suggestions and create a story that, in the end, is entirely false. This has happened time and again. The truth is, hypnosis does not improve memory. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 201 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do. 104) Any procedure that involves a shift in consciousness to a state in which an individual is highly focused, aware, and in control of mental processes is called a. a trance. b. meditation. c. hypnosis. d. a minimally conscious state. Correct: This is the definition of meditation. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 202 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, meditation, and disorders of consciousness.

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105) One approach to meditation, called __________________, has been shown to reduce everyday levels of stress, depression, anxiety, as well as more chronic psychiatric disorders. a. hypnocognitve relaxation therapy b. dissociative thinking c. hidden observer visualization d. mindfulness-based stress reduction Correct: Mindfulness-based stress reduction (MBSR) programs have been developed to teach and promote mindfulness as a way of improving well-being and reducing negative experiences. Mindfulness-based interventions are generally well-received by patients and can significantly reduce everyday levels of stress, depression, anxiety, as well as more chronic psychiatric disorders. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 203 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the effectiveness of meditation for use in therapy.

106) What is the correct order of disorders from the most to least severe? a. minimally conscious state, persistent vegetative state, coma b. coma, persistent vegetative state, minimally conscious state c. persistent vegetative state, coma, minimally conscious state d. minimally conscious state, coma, persistent vegetative state Correct: A coma is a state marked by a complete loss of consciousness. If a patient in a coma improves slightly, he or she is likely to enter a persistent vegetative state (PVS), a state of minimal to no consciousness, where the patient's eyes may be open, and he or she will develop sleep-wake cycles although there are no clear signs of consciousness. The least severe of these disorders is the minimally conscious state (MCS), a disordered state of consciousness marked by the ability to show some behaviours that suggest at least partial consciousness, even if on an inconsistent basis. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 204

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, meditation, and disorders of consciousness.

107) Following a car accident, Missy has only minimal consciousness. Sometimes her eyes may open, and she spends part of her time seemingly awake (i.e., not sleeping), but there are no clear signs of consciousness. Medical professionals would most accurately describe her condition as a a. minimally conscious state. b. coma. c. persistent vegetative state. d. dissociative state. Correct: If a patient in a coma improves slightly, he or she is likely to enter a persistent vegetative state (PVS), a state of minimal to no consciousness, where the patient's eyes may be open, and he or she will develop sleep-wake cycles although there are no clear signs of consciousness. For example, PVS patients do not appear to focus on objects in their visual field, nor do they track movement. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 204 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, meditation, and disorders of consciousness.

108) Chemical substances that change emotions and perceptions are called __________ drugs. a. psychosomatic b. analgesic c. psychoactive d. prescription Correct: Psychoactive drugs are substances that impact functions such as thinking, behaviour, perception, and emotion. Answer: c Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 213 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

109) Cocaine is a(n) a. opiate. b. stimulant. c. barbiturate. d. hallucinogen. Correct: Cocaine is one of the most commonly abused stimulants. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 213 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

110) Stimulants are a. drugs that speed up activity in the central nervous system. b. any drug capable of influencing perception, mood, cognition, or behaviour. c. drugs that slow down activity in the central nervous system. d. drugs derived from the opium poppy that relieve pain and produce euphoria. Correct: Stimulants are a category of drugs that speed up the nervous system, typically enhancing wakefulness and alertness. Cocaine and amphetamines are both examples of stimulants. Drugs derived from the opium poppy, which relieve pain and produce euphoria, are naturally occurring opiates, not stimulants. Answer: a Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 213 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

111) Amphetamines are a. barbiturates. b. stimulants. c. hallucinogens. d. opiates. Correct: Amphetamines are classified as stimulants, and come in a variety of forms. Some are prescription drugs such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) and modafinil (Provigil) used to treat ADHD and narcolepsy, respectively. Some abused stimulants, mostly methamphetamine, are not prescribed drugs. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 213 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

112) Which of the following drugs is a stimulant? a. mescaline b. alcohol c. amphetamines d. psilocybin Correct: Amphetamines are classified as stimulants, and come in a variety of forms. Mescaline and psilocybin are hallucinogens and alcohol is a sedative. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 210–215 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

113) Despite its dangers, a young man continues to take cocaine because of the feeling of euphoria it produces for him. This powerful arousal of his nervous system is probably due to cocaine's ability to a. inhibit enzymes that break down neurotransmitters. b. increase the release of neurotransmitters. c. block the receptor sites for neurotransmitters. d. prevent neurotransmitters from being reabsorbed into presynaptic terminals. Correct: Cocaine blocks reuptake of dopamine by binding to presynaptic terminals. By blocking reuptake of dopamine, cocaine allows excess amounts of this neurotransmitter to remain in the synapse and continue binding with postsynaptic receptors. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 213 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

114) Trisha is at a club dancing, when someone offers her a pill. Soon after taking the drug, she begins to start hugging her friends and telling them how close she feels to them. She also experiences some minor visual hallucinations before passing out from dehydration and heatstroke. What was the pill that Trisha most likely took? a. methamphetamine b. Ecstasy (MDMA) c. DMT d. Xanax Correct: The drug Ecstasy (MDMA) is typically classified as a stimulant, but also has hallucinogenic effects. It is popular at clubs and raves and is known to increase social bonding and compassion among those who are under its influence. Heat stroke and dehydration are major risks associated with Ecstasy use, especially when taken in a rave Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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where there is a high level of physical exertion from dancing in an overheated environment. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 214 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

115) Stanley takes LSD. As a result he may experience which of the following effects? a. wakefulness, alertness, and shortened reaction time b. reduced anxiety and tension, and sedation c. a mixture of stimulant and narcotic effects d. powerful emotions and perceptual distortions Correct: LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide) is a type of hallucinogen. Like other hallucinogens, it produces perceptual distortions such as hallucinations. LSD can also elicit powerful emotional experiences that can be widely ranging—from extreme euphoria to fear, panic, and paranoia. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 214–215 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

116) Which of the following drugs is a hallucinogen? a. ketamine b. barbiturates c. amphetamines d. heroin

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Correct: Ketamine is a hallucinogen that induces dream-like states, memory loss, dizziness, confusion, and a distorted sense of body ownership. Barbiturates, amphetamines, and heroin are classified as sedatives, stimulants, and an opiate, respectively. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 215 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

117) Which of the following drugs is used by some cultures for spiritual and medicinal reasons? a. salvia b. ketamine c. barbiturates d. heroin Correct: Among the Mazateca people of Mexico, salvia is used in divine rituals in which an individual communicates with the spiritual world. Shamans of the Mazateca people use salvia for spiritual healing sessions. Thus, these people believe the drug has profound medicinal properties. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 215 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the difference between spiritual and recreational drug use.

118) The active ingredient in marijuana is a. PCB. b. THC. c. LSD.

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d. PCP. Correct: The bud of the marijuana plant contains a high concentration of a compound called THC (tetrahydrocannabinol). THC binds to cannabinoid receptors, which are distributed across various regions of the brain. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 216 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

119) Which of the following drugs is an opiate? a. mescaline b. psilocybin c. LSD d. heroin Correct: Heroin is an opiate drug. The rest of the drugs are all hallucinogens. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 218 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

120) These drugs bind to endorphin receptors and mimic the action of endorphins. a. barbiturates b. opiates c. sedatives d. hallucinogens

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Correct: Endorphins (from endogenous andmorphine) are neurotransmitters that reduce pain and produce pleasurable sensations. Because opiates bind to endorphin receptors in the nervous system, they mimic and amplify many of these effects. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 218–219 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

121) Elsa has just had major abdominal surgery and is in great pain. She asks her doctor if there is a medication that will relieve the pain from her injury. Which of the following is her doctor most likely to prescribe? a. a sedative b. amphetamine c. an opiate d. a hallucinogen Correct: Because opiates bind to endorphin receptors in the nervous system, they can be used to reduce pain and are very common in medical and emergency room settings. For example, the drug Fentanyl is used in emergency rooms for people in extreme pain. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 218–219 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

122) Which of the following is a sedative? a. nicotine b. barbiturates c. heroin

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d. mescaline Correct: Barbiturates were an early form of medication used to treat anxiety and promote sleep. They are classified as a sedative drug. Nicotine, heroin, and mescaline are a stimulant, opiate, and hallucinogen, respectively. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 219 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

123) Shateesh takes a moderate dose of a benzodiazepine. She is likely to experience a. wakefulness, alertness, and shortened reaction time. b. reduced anxiety and panic, and sedation. c. euphoria and relief of pain. d. exhilaration, visions, and hallucinations. Correct: Benzodiazepines are a form of sedative. They increase the effects of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, which helps reduce feelings of anxiety or panic. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 219 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

124) Which of the following is most likely to be associated with a sedative drug? a. feelings of excitement, confidence, and euphoria b. feelings of increased energy and pep c. a sense of calmness and relaxation d. wakefulness, alertness, and shortened reaction time

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Correct: Sedative drugs, sometimes referred to as "downers," depress activity of the central nervous system. They are typically used to reduce feelings of anxiety and panic (i.e., they have a calming and relaxing effect). Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 219 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

125) Prescription drugs a. are only used by a small number of illicit users. b. are only used by illicit users if "street" drugs are unavailable. c. are non-addictive. d. are second only to marijuana as the most commonly abused drug. Correct: Prescription drugs are now second only to marijuana as the most commonly abused drug among illicit users. In 2011, more than one million Canadians reported having used prescription drugs for nonmedical reasons within the month prior to the survey. Users opt for prescription drugs because they are legal (when used as prescribed), clean, and relatively easy to get. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 220 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

126) Alcohol has a(n) ______________ effect on the nervous system by _______________ the activity of GABA. a. depressing; facilitating b. stimulating; facilitating c. depressing; inhibiting Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. stimulating; inhibiting Correct: Alcohol facilitates the activity of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter. The net effect is to depress the central nervous system, which helps explain the impairments in balance and coordination associated with alcohol. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 221 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

127) At a biological level, how do psychoactive drugs primarily work? a. They alter the body's basal metabolism rate. b. They act on brain neurotransmitters and receptors. c. They disrupt glial cell activity in the cortex. d. They interfere with brainstem function, which leads to cortical dysfunctions. Correct: Most psychoactive drugs have their effect by binding to or blocking receptors in the brain, or otherwise affecting neurotransmitter activity in the brain. Cocaine, for example, blocks reuptake of dopamine by binding to presynaptic terminals. By blocking reuptake of dopamine, cocaine allows excess amounts of this neurotransmitter to remain in the synapse and continue binding with postsynaptic receptors. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 214 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

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c. approximately the same amount of d. significantly less, but are more likely to binge when they do drink Correct: Researchers find that university students drink significantly more than their peers who do not attend university. Nearly one half of university students binge drink, one-third drove under the influence, 10–12% sustained an injury or were assaulted, and 2% were victims of date rape. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 221 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

129) The phenomenon whereby higher doses of a drug are required to produce its original effects is a. a craving. b. potentiation. c. tolerance. d. withdrawal. Correct: Tolerance occurs when repeated use of a drug results in a need for a higher dose to get the intended effect. People build up a tolerance to most drugs, including alcohol. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 195 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand drug tolerance and dependence. 130) The need to take a drug in order to avoid withdrawal symptoms is called a. a craving. b. tolerance. c. obsessive compulsion.

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d. dependence. Correct: Dependence refers to a need to take a drug to ward off unpleasant physical withdrawal symptoms, and it is often referred to as addiction. In contrast, tolerance is when repeated use of a drug results in a need for a higher dose to get the intended effect. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 211–212 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand drug tolerance and dependence.

131) After taking a drug for several years, Bruce decides to quit taking the drug. He begins to experience a variety of negative physical symptoms and a strong craving for the substance. What term is used to describe what Bruce is experiencing? a. tolerance b. dependence c. drug psychosis d. drug intoxication Correct: Dependence refers to a need to take a drug to ward off unpleasant physical withdrawal symptoms, and it is often referred to as addiction. In contrast, tolerance is when repeated use of a drug results in a need for a higher dose to get the intended effect. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 211–212 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand drug tolerance and dependence.

132) According to your textbook, which of the following is a long-term effect associated with methamphetamine and Ecstasy? a. changes in brain structure b. increased risk of thyroid cancer c. permanent psychosis

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d. There are no known long-term risks associated with these drugs. Correct: Long-term exposure to methamphetamine and Ecstasy can cause significant damage to nerve cells that transmit dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin. These brain chemicals are important for regulating cognition, emotion, learning, sleep and many other functions. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 213 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the short- and long-term effects of drug use.

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1) The pineal gland releases a hormone called melatonin, which is critical to maintaining the sleep-wake cycle. Correct: The SCN communicates signals about light levels with the pineal gland. The pineal gland releases a hormone called melatonin, which peaks at nighttime and is reduced during wakefulness. Thanks to this system, light is the primary stimulus regulating our circadian rhythm and it tells us to sleep at night and stay awake for the day. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 182 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. 2) An EEG recording showing delta waves would indicate that the subject is either in Stage 3 or 4 sleep. Correct: Slow, large amplitude delta waves characterize Stage 3 and 4 sleep. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 184 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works. 3) Sleep researchers use the term non-REM to collectively refer to sleep stages 1–4. Correct: The REM pattern is so distinct that the first four stages are known collectively as non-REM or NREM sleep. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 185 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the sleep cycle works. 4) Young children sometimes experience night terrors, which can cause them to wake from NREM sleep screaming. Correct: A person experiencing a night terror may call out or scream, fight back against imaginary attackers, or leap from the bed and start to flee before waking up. Unlike nightmares, night terrors are not dreams. These episodes occur during NREM sleep, and the majority of people who experience them typically do not recall any specific dream content. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 193 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. 5) According to the dissociation theory of hypnosis, a part of our consciousness called the hidden observer remains separate during hypnosis and silently watches. Correct: Dissociation theory explains hypnosis as a unique state in which consciousness is divided into two parts: an observer and a hidden observer. Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 199 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, meditation, and disorders of consciousness. 6) A patient with severe brain injury would be diagnosed as being in a coma if all signs pointed to a complete loss of consciousness. Correct: A coma is a state marked by a complete loss of consciousness. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 204 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, meditation, and disorders of consciousness. 7) Opiates bind to receptors for endorphins, which are neurotransmitters that reduce pain and produce pleasurable sensations. This explains why opiates have a similar effect. Correct: Endorphins (from endogenous and morphine) are neurotransmitters that reduce pain and produce pleasurable sensations. Because opiates bind to endorphin receptors in the nervous system, they mimic and amplify many of these effects. Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 218-219 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. 8) Because barbiturates can fatally suppress breathing and heart rate at high doses, benzodiazepines are generally considered a safer alternative drug.

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Correct: The major advantage of benzodiazepine drugs over barbiturates is that they alone do not affect brain regions responsible for breathing, and even at high doses are unlikely to be fatal. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 219 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. 9) When Jenna started using heroin, a small amount had a huge effect on her. Now she requires a much larger dose to get the same effect. This is an example of the process known as tolerance. Correct: Tolerance occurs when repeated use of a drug results in a need for a higher dose to get the intended effect. People build up a tolerance to most drugs, including alcohol. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 211 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand drug tolerance and dependence.

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1) Describe the typical sleep cycle, starting with falling asleep and ending with the first REM period of the night. Make sure to describe the EEG and physiological characteristics associated with each stage. Answer: Stage 1: brain waves become higher amplitude (theta waves), breathing, blood pressure and heart rate decrease; stage 2, 10 to 15 minutes after stage 1, brain waves continue to slow, sleep spindles first appear, as do K complexes, as stage 2 progresses the individual responds to fewer and fewer external stimuli; stage 3, about 20 minutes after we begin stage 2 we enter into stage 3 which is characterized by very slow brain waves called ‘delta waves’ that are high amplitude and low frequency, after stage 3 and usually within an hour of beginning stage 1, stage 4 begins, which is a time when the sleeper is difficult to awaken; after stage 4 the sleeper enters REM sleep for the first time, where brain wave activity increases and resembles wakefulness. During REM sleep eyelids may flicker. The sleeper alternates between stage 4 and REM sleep in ninety-minute phases for the remainder of their time asleep. Page Reference: 184 2) Suppose someone you knew was suffering from insomnia. Explain five healthy sleeprelated habits or techniques that that person could use to improve his or her sleep? Answer: A good answer will include: 1. Use your bed for sleep and sexual activity only. 2. Do not “try too hard” to fall asleep; this will just keep you awake. 3. Keep clocks out of sight. 4. Exercise, but not in the evening hours. 5. Avoid caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol, which all disrupt sleep cycles. Page Reference: 196 3) What are some of the therapeutic uses for hypnosis? Is it generally effective? Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Psychotherapy research combining hypnosis with cognitive-behavioural therapy (known as cognitive hypnotherapy) has been shown to be equally effective as, and perhaps more effective than, CBT alone.

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- Similar research shows that hypnotherapy is an effective addition to medical treatments for anxiety related to post-traumatic stress, and cognitive hypnotherapy has been shown to reduce public-speaking anxiety. - The therapeutic effect of hypnosis is often small; for example. adding hypnosis to smoking sensation and treatment for depression adds only a small benefit. - Perhaps the most practical use for hypnosis is in the treatment of pain. Hypnosis generally worked as well as drug treatments for acute pain, which is the intense, temporary pain of a medical or dental procedure. Hypnosis is also somewhat effective for chronic pain, the types of pain that last for long periods of time. Page Reference: 199–201

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 5: Consciousness 1. REM sleep is sometimes referred to as paradoxical sleep because: a. the more sleep deprived a person is, the less REM sleep she experiences. b. REM sleep is not really a sleep stage. c. electrical activity in the brain completely shuts down during REM sleep. d. EEG activity in the brain during REM is similar to EEG activity during an awake state. Answer: D Module 5.1 2. Which of the following statements supports the “preserve and protect” hypothesis of sleep? a. People tend to require more sleep after a hard day of work. b. Sleep deprivation can lead to impaired cognitive abilities. c. Jet lag is usually worse when travelling east than it is when travelling west. d. Many small animals sleep during the day, when they could be easily seen by a predator. Answer: D Module 5.1 3. Erica tells her friend that last night she dreamed she was asking her boss for a promotion. If Erica’s friend believes in the activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreaming, which of the following is she likely to say about the dream? a. “The latent content of the dream is more important than the manifest content.” b. “The dream is the result of random activity in the brain and has no deep symbolic meaning.” c. “The dream indicates that your brain is trying to figure out how to get you promoted.” d. “The dream is your brain’s way of forming new memories.” Answer: B Module 5.1 4. Affecting approximately 10% of the U.S. population, _____ is the most widely recognized sleeping problem. a. sleep apnea b. insomnia c. sleep-state misperception d. somnambulism Answer: B Module 5.1 5. Recently, Zane has been very tired during the day and feels like he hasn’t been sleeping well. His wife mentions that he often makes a strange gasping noise several times during the night. Which sleep disorder does Zane most likely have? a. sleep apnea b. narcolepsy c. sleep-state misperception d. somnambulism Answer: A Module 5.1 6. Hypnosis is best thought of as: a. a trance. b. a state of increased suggestibility. c. mind control. d. a myth. Answer: B Module 5.2

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 5: Consciousness 7. Which of the following statements is true about the use of hypnosis to recover memories? a. It is generally ineffective, but poses no risks and is harmless. b. Research has shown hypnosis to be an effective way to recover memories. c. Research indicates that hypnosis does not work, and that it can potentially create false memories. d. While some debate persists regarding the technique’s effectiveness, most U.S. courts accept testimony obtained from a person who is placed under hypnosis. Answer: C Module 5.2 8. Which of the following definitions accurately describes the state of coma? a. a prolonged state of consciousness similar to non-REM sleep b. a state marked by a complete loss of consciousness c. a disordered state of consciousness marked by the ability to show some behaviours that suggest at least partial consciousness, even if on an inconsistent basis d. a state of minimal consciousness, where the patient’s eyes may be open, and he or she experiences a sleep-wake cycle Answer: B Module 5.2 9. Opiates create their euphoric effects by stimulating receptors for: a. GABA. b. endorphins. c. anan damide. d. dopamine. Answer: B Module 5.3 10. Repeated use of drugs over a period of time can result in a need for a higher dose to get the intended effect. This condition is known as: a. addiction. b. dependence. c. withdrawal. d. tolerance. Answer: D Module 5.3

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1) Freud believed that many unconscious desires are a. the result of excessive punishment. b. by-products of introspection. c. the result of excessive reinforcement. d. sexual in nature. Answer: d Page Reference: 189 2) For Freud, much of our behaviour is controlled by __________. a. unconscious desires b. environmental stimuli c. mental Gestalts d. mental associations Answer: a Page Reference: 189 3) What early school of thought in psychology was noted for its emphasis on the unconscious determinants of behaviour? a. structuralism b. behaviourism c. Gestalt psychology d. psychoanalytic theory Answer: d Page Reference: 189 4) The pea-sized gland that is stimulated by light and helps regulate activity levels over the course of a day is the __________ gland. a. adrenal b. pituitary c. pineal d. thyroid Answer: c Page Reference: 182 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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5) Which of the following is true of circadian rhythms? a. They are artificial inventions of timekeepers. b. They are internally generated cycles. c. They are sequences of events that occur once a month. d. They occur on the same schedule regardless of the changes from day to night. Answer: b Page Reference: 182 6) Our sleeping-waking cycle follows a(n) __________ rhythm. a. infradian b. circadian c. diurnal d. ultradian Answer: b Page Reference: 182 7) The low-voltage brain waves produced during relaxed wakefulness or the twilight stage between waking and sleeping are called __________ waves. a. alpha b. beta c. delta d. theta Answer: c Page Reference: 184 8) The stage of sleep marked by the production of very slow delta waves is __________ sleep. a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. stage 4

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Answer: a Page Reference: 184–185 9) The deepest stage of sleep is __________ sleep. a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. REM d. stage 4 Answer: d Page Reference: 184–185 10) Our awareness of various mental processes such as making decisions, daydreaming, reflecting, and concentrating is called __________. a. intelligence b. consciousness c. self-awareness d. creativity Answer: b Page Reference: 181 11) If Alice's strange adventures in Wonderland were actually the dreams of a young girl, they probably occurred when she was in __________ sleep. a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 4 d. REM Answer: d Objective: 185 12) Freud called the hidden meaning of a dream its _______ content. a. surface b. manifest c. unconscious

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d. latent Answer: d Page Reference: 189 13) According to Freud, the visible, or directly observable, content of a dream is its __________ content. a. primary b. secondary c. manifest d. latent Answer: c Page Reference: 189 14) Daydreaming, meditation, intoxication, sleep, and hypnosis are all types of __________. a. altered states of consciousness b. self-awareness c. waking consciousness d. self-absorption Answer: a Page Reference: 181 15) The trancelike state in which a subject responds readily to suggestions is __________. a. stage 4 sleep b. hypnosis c. coma d. meditation Answer: b Page Reference: 199 16) The most frequently used drug in Western societies is __________. a. alcohol Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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b. nicotine c. cocaine d. marijuana Answer: a Page Reference: 220 17) Amphetamines are __________. a. barbiturates b. stimulants c. hallucinogens d. opiates Answer: b Page Reference: 212, 213 18) Cocaine is a(n) __________. a. opiate b. stimulant c. barbiturate d. hallucinogen Answer: b Page Reference: 213 19) The active ingredient in marijuana is __________. a. PCB b. THC c. LSD d. PCP Answer: b Page Reference: 216

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20) Chemical substances that change moods and perceptions are called __________ drugs. a. psychosomatic b. analgesic c. psychoactive d. prescription Answer: c Page Reference: 213 21) The phenomenon whereby higher doses of a drug are required to produce its original effects is __________. a. a craving b. potentiation c. tolerance d. withdrawal Answer: c Page Reference: 211 22) Drugs that activate the sympathetic nervous system and produce feelings of optimism and boundless energy are called __________. a. hallucinogens b. opiates c. barbiturates d. stimulants Answer: d Page Reference: 213 23) Amphetamines are __________. a. barbiturates b. stimulants c. hallucinogens d. opiates

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 5: Consciousness

Answer: b Page Reference: 213 24) Cocaine is a(n) __________. a. opiate b. stimulant c. barbiturate d. hallucinogen Answer: b Page Reference: 213 25) Chemical substances that change moods and perceptions are called __________ drugs. a. psychosomatic b. analgesic c. psychoactive d. prescription Answer: c Page Reference: 213 26) ________________ is to acting out your dreams as ________________ is to walking while asleep but engaging in relatively little activity otherwise. a. Somnambulism; cataplexy b. Restless legs syndrome; REM behaviour disorder c. REM behaviour disorder; somnambulism Correct: With a REM behaviour disorder a person acts out their dreams; a person experiencing somnambulism is sleepwalking. d. Cataplexy; restless legs syndrome Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 194, Module 5.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 5: Consciousness

27) Which statement reflects one of the misconceptions about hypnosis? a. Amazing experiences in hypnotized subjects are likely due to suggestibility and stage whispers. b. Brain waves of hypnotized subjects are different from those of subjects who are asleep. c. Hypnotized people are fully aware of their surroundings. d. Hypnosis improves memory and can help individuals recover memories of experiences they have forgotten. Correct: A common misconception is that hypnosis aids memory. It does not. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 201, 5.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

1) When one of Pavlov's dogs salivated in response to the food, the salivation was a(n) unconditioned response, but when the dogs salivated to the sound of a metronome, the salivation should be called a(n) conditioned response. Correct: An unconditioned response (UR) is a reflexive, unlearned reaction to an unconditioned stimulus. In contrast, a conditioned response (CR) is the learned response that occurs to the conditioned stimulus. In Pavlov’s basic experiment, the food was the unconditioned stimulus because dogs instinctually salivate to food. The dogs were conditioned to salivate to the metronome or similar stimulus by pairing it with the food until the two stimuli became associated. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 227-228 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. 2) John Watson and Rosalie Rayner demonstrated that people suffering from phobias may have been accidentally conditioned to have emotional responses to specific stimuli or situations. Correct: Watson and Rayne famously conditioned an infant to fear a rat by pairing the rat with a loud noise. Conditioned emotional responses like these offer a possible explanation for phobias, which are intense, irrational fears of specific objects or situations. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 232-233 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. 3) One reason why drug users increase their dosages over time is a classical conditioning phenomenon known as conditioned drug tolerance, which involves physiological responses in preparation for drug administration. Correct: Conditioned drug tolerance develops as the body begins associating environmental cues that accompany drug use with the drug itself. The conditioned responses involve responses that prepare the body for something potentially dangerous. Over time, when drug use is done in a consistent environment, more of the drug is needed to override these preparatory responses so that the desired effect can be obtained. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 239 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

4) When researchers want to use operant conditioning to train animals to perform complicated behaviours, they must use a step-by-step procedure called shaping. Correct: Shaping is a step-by-step procedure in which a specific operant response is created by reinforcing successive approximations of that response.

Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 251 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. 5) A slot machine is a classic example of a(n) variable-ratio schuedule of reinforcement because players never know how many times they will have to pull the arm before they win again. Correct: In a variable-ratio schedule, the number of responses required to receive reinforcement varies according to an average. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 252 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. 6) Learning that involves processes such as reading, listening, and test taking is called cognitive learning. Correct: The activities that students do—reading, listening, and taking tests in order to acquire new information. This process is known as cognitive learning. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 226 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. 7) One of the primary mechanisms that allows observational learning to take place is imitation, the recreating of a motor behaviour or expression, often to accomplish a specific goal. Correct: This is the definition of imitation. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 263 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

8) The four processes involved in observational learning include attention to the act or behaviour, memory for it, the ability to reproduce it, and the motivation to do so. Correct: These are the four processes Albert Bandura identified in observational learning. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 261 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. 9) One of the difficulties in demonstrating that exposure to media violence increases aggression is that fact that much of the research on media violence and aggression relies on correlational designs, which do not allow researchers to determine cause-and-effect relationships. Correct: Decades of research indicate that a positive correlation exists between exposure to violent media and aggressive behaviour in individuals. However, because co r relational designs do not allow researchers to determine cause and effec , the nature of this correlation is not well understood. Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 263-265 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the claim that viewing violent media increases violent behaviour.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning 1. In classical conditioning, a(n) _____ becomes a(n) _____, which elicits a response. a. neutral stimulus; conditioned stimulus b. neutral stimulus; unconditioned stimulus c. unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus d. unconditioned stimulus; neutral stimulus Answer: A Module 6.1 2. Most mornings, Becky listens to her favourite song as she gets ready for work, including putting in her contacts. One afternoon, Becky hears her favourite song playing, and her eyes start watering—something that usually happens only when she put her contacts in. If this is an example of classical conditioning, what is the unconditioned stimulus? a. eye watering b. Becky’s contacts c. the song d. getting ready for work Answer: B Module 6.1 3. How would John B. Watson have explained why many people have a phobia of flying on airplanes? a. Flying is unnatural for human beings. b. The brain has difficulty understanding how something heavy can fly. c. Extensive news coverage of airplane crashes cause people to associate airplanes with danger. d. People with a flying phobia are actually afraid of being trapped in small spaces. Answer: C Module 6.1 4. An important distinction between classical and operant conditioning is that: a. classical conditioning involves voluntary responding, while operant conditioning involves involuntary responding. b. classical conditioning involves reinforcement, while operant conditioning involves punishment. c. classical conditioning involves cognitive learning, while operant conditioning involves associative learning. d. responding does not affect the presentation of stimuli in classical conditioning, but in operant conditioning responding has consequences. Answer: D Module 6.2 5. The word negative in the term negative reinforcement refers to: a. the removal of a stimulus. b. an unwanted conditioned behaviour. c. the use of punishment. d. the use of inappropriate stimuli. Answer: A Module 6.2 6. A rat is conditioned to press a lever for food. One day, a food pellet jams in the automatic feeder and the rat no longer receives food after pressing the lever. After a few minutes, the rat eventually stops pressing the lever. This is an example of: a. negative reinforcement. b. extinction. c. classical conditioning. d. avoidance learning. Answer: B Module 6.2

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning 7. All other things being equal, an animal trained on which of the following schedules of reinforcement should experience extinction most quickly when the reinforcement is removed? a. Fixed-interval schedule b. Continuous schedule c. Variable-ratio schedule d. Variable-interval schedule Answer: B Module 6.2 8. Learning that occurs, but is not expressed until later, is called: a. observational learning. b. classical conditioning. c. latent learning. d. discriminative learning. Answer: C Module 6.3

9. Which of the following statements best describes our current understanding of the relationship between exposure to media violence and future aggression? a. There is no relationship between media violence and aggression. b. Media violence clearly causes aggression. c. There is a positive correlation between media violence and aggression. d. There is a negative correlation between media violence and aggression. Answer: C Module 6.3

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

1) The process by which experience or practice results in a relatively permanent change in behaviour or potential behaviour is known as __________. a. learning b. intelligence formation c. imprinting d. cognition Answer: a Page Reference: 226 2) Learning is a process by which experience results in __________. a. acquisition of motivation b. relatively permanent behaviour change c. amplification of sensory stimuli d. delayed genetic behavioural contributions Answer: b Page Reference: 226 3) The process by which experience results in a relatively permanent change in what one is capable of doing is called: a. knowledge. b. intelligence. c. learning. d. performance. Answer: c Page Reference: 226 4) Which of the following is an example of learning? a. The human brain continues to grow and develop after birth. b. A human male develops the capacity to produce sperm cells at puberty. c. Drinking coffee makes a person more aroused. d. A student does not swat at a wasp buzzing around her head. Answer: d Page Reference: 226

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

5) Ivan Pavlov is most closely associated with __________. a. vicarious learning b. the law of effect c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning Answer: d Page Reference: 227 6) By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the presentation of the meat was the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Answer: a Page Reference: 228 7) An experiment finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he hears a certain piece of music. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then plays the piece of music. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the UNCONDITIONED response is the: a. increased heartbeat. b. piece of music. c. sound of the buzzer. d. listening to the music. Answer: a Page Reference: 227–229 8) Many individuals decide that they feel hungry and eat lunch when they see both hands of the clock on the 12, indicating that it is noontime. This may occur regardless of how recently they ate breakfast. In this example, the conditioned response is: a. the act of eating breakfast. b. the act of eating lunch. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

c. the counting of the number of hours since breakfast. d. the watching of the hands of the clock. Answer: b Page Reference: 227–229 9) Some of the simplest and most basic learning that involves the acquisition of fairly specific patterns of behaviours in the presence of well-defined stimuli is: a. motivation. b. cognitive dissonance. c. integration. d. conditioning. Answer: d Page Reference: 227–229 10) We associate the name of _______ most closely with classical conditioning. a. B. F. Skinner b. Robert Rescorla c. Albert Bandura d. Ivan Pavlov Answer: d Page Reference: 227 11) Classical conditioning was discovered by _______. a. Pavlov b. Watson c. Thorndike d. Skinner Answer: a Page Reference: 227 12) What must be paired together for classical conditioning to occur? a. unconditioned stimulus and unconditioned response

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b. conditioned response and unconditioned response c. neutral stimulus and unconditioned stimulus d. neutral stimulus and conditioned stimulus Answer: c Page Reference: 227 13) When Ivan Pavlov presented meat powder, the dog salivated. The meat powder was the ________ and salivation was the ________. a. UR, US b. US, UR c. CS, CR d. CR, CS Answer: b Page Reference: 227–228 14) By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the ringing of the bell was the __________. a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response Answer: c Page Reference: 227–228 15) Rachel has found that when she opens the cupboard door to get the cat food, the cats come running to the kitchen. Rachel knows that this is classical conditioning and that the conditioned stimulus is the __________. a. cat food b. cat c. running of the cats d. cupboard door opening Answer: d Page Reference: 227–228

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

16) Which of the following illustrates an unconditioned stimulus (US)? a. blinking when air is blown into your eye b. blinking when you hear your favourite song c. your favourite song d. a puff of air to your eye Answer: d Page Reference: 227 17) A research participant hears a tone followed by a puff of air directed toward his eye. Later, he blinks when he hears the tone. Before ending the experiment, what could the researcher do in order to extinguish the blinking to that tone? a. present the tone alone repeatedly b. present the puff of air alone repeatedly c. increase the loudness of the tone d. increase the amount of air that is directed toward the eye Answer: a Page Reference: 227 18) When Casey opens the closet door to get some dog food, her dog salivates. What is the conditioned stimulus in this example? a. dog food b. the cat running c. the sound of the closet door opening d. the dog Answer: c Page Reference: 227–228 19) Rachel has found that when she opens the cupboard door to get the cat food, the cats come running to the kitchen. Rachel knows that this is classical conditioning and that the unconditioned stimulus is the __________. a. cat food b. cat c. running of the cats d. cupboard door opening Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

Answer: a Page Reference: 227–228 20) Which of the following statements about classical conditioning is true? a. Most classical conditioning requires repeated trials. b. One trial is usually enough for conditioning to occur. c. Learning will continue to increase indefinitely. d. Learning is more effective if trials follow each other very quickly. Answer: a Page Reference: 227–228 21) New learning that works in the opposite direction from the original learning results in ________. a. shaping b. generalization c. spontaneous recovery d. extinction Answer: d Page Reference: 231 22) Many animals fear snakes, what does research suggest is the source of this fear? a. operant conditioning b. instinct c. classical conditioning d. shaping Answer: c Page Reference: 234 23) Rachel has found that when she opens up the cupboard door to get the cat food, the cats come running to the kitchen. Rachel knows that this is classical conditioning, that the unconditioned stimulus is the __________ and that the conditioned stimulus is the ___________. a. cat food; cupboard door opening Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

b. kitchen; cat food c. cupboard door opening; cat food d. cat food; kitchen Answer: a Page Reference: 227–228 24) In classical conditioning, when a neutral stimulus is paired with a stimulus that naturally elicits a response, the neutral stimulus eventually elicits a similar response or becomes a/an _______ stimulus. a. conditioned b. discriminative c. higher-order d. unconditioned Answer: a Page Reference: 227–228 25) How does one know he/she has classically conditioned a person or an animal? a. The unconditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the unconditioned response. b. The unconditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the conditioned response. c. The conditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the conditioned response. d. The unconditioned response all by itself elicits the conditioned response. Answer: c Page Reference: 227–228 26) Which of the following is an example of classical conditioning? a. A child learns to blink her eyes to a bell because the ringing of the bell has been followed by a puff of air to the eye. b. A pigeon learns to peck at a disk in a Skinner box to get food. c. Rich saw that when Donna banged her fist against a particular vending machine, she got a free soft drink, so now he bangs his fist against that machine when he wants a free soft drink. d. A monkey learns to escape from a cage. Answer: a Page Reference: 227–228

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

27) Most young children put their hands over their ears when they hear the loud boom of firecrackers at a Canada Day festival, but at first pay just scant attention to the person lighting the firecrackers. However, after just a few firecrackers have been exploded, some of the children put their hands over their ears as soon as they see the person approach the firecracker with a match! What is the unconditioned stimulus? a. the person lighting the firecrackers b. the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers c. the children putting their hands over their ears when they see the person about to light the firecrackers d. the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode Answer: b Page Reference: 227–228 28) Most young children put their hands over their ears when they hear the loud boom of firecrackers at a Canada Day festival, but at first pay scant attention to the person lighting the firecrackers. However, after just a few firecrackers have been exploded, some of the children put their hands over their ears as soon as they see the person approach the firecracker with a match! What is the conditioned stimulus? a. the person lighting the firecrackers b. the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers c. the children putting their hands over their ears when they see the person about to light the firecrackers d. the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode Answer: a Page Reference: 227–228 29) Most young children put their hands over their ears when they hear the loud boom of firecrackers at a Canada Day festival, but at first pay scant attention to the person lighting the firecrackers. However, after just a few firecrackers have been exploded, some of the children put their hands over their ears as soon as they see the person approach the firecracker with a match! What is the unconditioned response? a. the person lighting the firecrackers b. the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers c. the children putting their hands over their ears when they see the person about to light the firecrackers d. the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

Answer: d Page Reference: 227–228 30) Bobby and Sue were parked at Lover's Lane. When Bobby kissed Sue, his breathing accelerated. Sue always wore Chanel 5 when she went out with Bobby. Whenever Bobby smelled Chanel 5, he began to breathe faster. Sue's kiss was the a. US. b. UR. c. CS. d. CR. Answer: a Page Reference: 227–228 31) Bobby and Sue were parked at Lover's Lane. When Bobby kissed Sue, his breathing accelerated. Sue always wore Chanel 5 when she went out with Bobby. Bobby's accelerated breathing when he and Sue kissed is the a. US. b. UR. c. CS. d. CR. Answer: b Page Reference: 227–228 32) Bobby and Sue were parked at Lover's Lane. When Bobby kissed Sue, his breathing accelerated. Sue always wore Chanel 5 when she went out with Bobby. Chanel 5 is the a. US. b. UR. c. CS. d. CR. Answer: c Page Reference: 227–228 33) Bobby and Sue were parked at Lover's Lane. When Bobby kissed Sue, his breathing accelerated. Sue always wore Chanel 5 when she went out with Bobby. Bobby's faster breathing rate when he smells Chanel 5 is the Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

a. US. b. UR. c. CS. d. CR. Answer: d Page Reference: 227–228 34) In classical conditioning, one must pair the _______ before conditioning can occur. a. US and CR b. US and CS c. CR and CS d. UR and CR Answer: b Page Reference: 227–228 35) Of the four basic elements of classical conditioning, the one the organism learns to respond to is the a. US. b. UR. c. CS. d. CR. Answer: c Page Reference: 227–228 36) As she walked through her neighbourhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any colour or size. In the example, the dog's bark and bite are the a. US. b. CS. c. UR. d. CR.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

Answer: a Page Reference: 227–228 37) As she walked through her neighbourhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any colour or size. Jodie's crying when she sees dogs is the a. US. b. CS. c. UR. d. CR. Answer: d Page Reference: 227–228 38) As she walked through her neighbourhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any colour or size. The sight of dogs is the a. US. b. CS. c. UR. d. CR. Answer: b Page Reference: 227–228 39) Paul is coming down with the flu, but he eats spaghetti anyway and subsequently becomes violently ill. A month later he sees that spaghetti is being served in the dining hall and is overcome by nausea. What type of learning is illustrated by this episode? a. operant conditioning b. cognitive learning c. latent learning d. classical conditioning Answer: d Page Reference: 227–228, 235

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

40) In classical conditioning, the stimulus that normally evokes an automatic response even without new learning is called the a. conditioned stimulus. b. reflexive stimulus. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. orienting stimulus. Answer: c Page Reference: 227–228 41) When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increased. Luke always wore Old Spice After Shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice, her heart raced. Luke's kiss was the a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Answer: a Page Reference: 227–228 42) When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increased. Luke always wore Old Spice After Shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice, her heart raced. Laura's increased heart rate when Luke kissed her was the a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Answer: b Page Reference: 227–228 43) When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increased. Luke always wore Old Spice After Shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice thereafter, her heart raced. Old Spice After Shave was the a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

d. conditioned response. Answer: c Page Reference: 227–228 44) When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increased. Luke always wore Old Spice After Shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice, her heart would race. Laura's increased heart rate when she smelled Old Spice was the a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Answer: d Page Reference: 227–228 45) Pairing the US and CS is essential for _______ to occur. a. extinction b. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning d. shaping Answer: b Page Reference: 227–228 46) By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, salivation to the meat was the _______. a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response Answer: b Page Reference: 227–228 47) An experimenter finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he sees a picture of a nude female. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

presents such a picture. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the UNCONDITIONED response is the _______. a. increased heartbeat b. female's picture c. sounds of the buzzer d. viewing of the picture Answer: a Page Reference: 227–228 48) An experimenter finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he sees a picture of a nude female. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then presents such a picture. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the CONDITIONED response is the ________. a. increased heartbeat b. nude female's picture c. sounds of the buzzer d. viewing of the picture Answer: a Page Reference: 227–228 49) When a stimulus similar to the CS also elicits the CR, the phenomenon is called _______. a. stimulus discrimination b. stimulus generalization c. spontaneous recovery d. second-order conditioning Answer: b Page Reference: 231 50) Repeatedly presenting a CS by itself will result in ________. a. extinction b. spontaneous recovery Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

c. stimulus discrimination d. stimulus generalization Answer: a Page Reference: 231 51) Spontaneous recovery a. occurs before the pairing of the CS and US. b. occurs after a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement. c. is an unlearned response. d. can occur once a response has been extinguished. Answer: d Page Reference: 231 52) Taste aversions seem to be specific examples of what type of learning? a. classical conditioning b. insight learning c. vicarious learning d. operant conditioning Answer: a Page Reference: 227–228, 235 53) In the experiment with Little Albert, the unconditioned stimulus was _______. a. the experimenter b. the laboratory c. the loud noise d. the rat Answer: c Page Reference: 232 54) In the experiment with Little Albert, the conditioned response was _______. a. the rat b. the laboratory Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

c. the loud noise d. fear Answer: d Page Reference: 232 55) In the experiment with Little Albert, the unconditioned response was _______. a. fear of the loud noise b. fear of the rat c. fear of the experimenter d. fear of the laboratory Answer: a Page Reference: 232 56) One of the best-known examples of classical conditioning in humans was the Little Albert study, conducted by _______. a. Pavlov b. Freud c. Watson d. Skinner Answer: c Page Reference: 232 57) In the classic study of fear conditioning in a human infant (the ”Albert” experiment), what was the CS? a. the rat b. the rabbit c. the loud noise d. the crying response Answer: a Page Reference: 232

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

58) In the classic study of fear conditioning in a human infant (the ”Albert” experiment), what was the US? a. the rat b. the rabbit c. the loud noise d. the crying response Answer: c Page Reference: 232 59) In the experiment with Little Albert, the conditioned stimulus was __________. a. Albert b. the rat c. the loud noise d. the laboratory room Answer: b Page Reference: 232 60) Who was Little Albert? a. developer of the concept of classical conditioning b. an animal trained by using operant conditioning procedures c. creator of methods for teaching children d. a child who developed a fear as part of a demonstration of classical conditioning Answer: d Page Reference: 232 61) Little Albert learned through classical conditioning to fear ______. a. brown cats b. black dogs c. white rats d. his mother Answer: c Page Reference: 232 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

62) If a rat has learned to press a lever to obtain pellets of food and, all of a sudden, the response permanently ceases to produce any food, then _______ will occur. a. shaping b. discrimination c. generalization d. extinction Answer: d Page Reference: 231 63) Which two learning processes seem to be opposites? a. acquisition and generalization b. discrimination and extinction c. discrimination and generalization d. acquisition and discrimination Answer: c Page Reference: 231–232 64) A pigeon learns to peck only at a red disk. It will not peck at an identical disk of any other colour. This illustrates the concept of ___________. a. extinction b. discrimination c. avoidance training d. desensitization Answer: b Page Reference: 232 65) The process of presenting the conditioned stimulus alone so often that the learner no longer associates it with the unconditioned stimulus and stops making the conditioned response is called _________ . a. extinction b. generalization c. spontaneous recovery d. shaping Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

Answer: a Page Reference: 231 66) The process of learning to respond only to a single specific object or event is called _________ . a. extinction b. inhibition c. stimulus generalization d. discrimination Answer: d Page Reference: 232 67) Reacting to a stimulus that is similar to the one you have learned to react to is called ___________ . a. stimulus generalization b. response generalization c. higher-order conditioning d. modelling Answer: a Page Reference: 231 68) If a dog salivates when it sees a green light or a yellow light, it is exhibiting ________. a. generalization b. discrimination c. higher-order conditioning d. extinction Answer: a Page Reference: 231 69) The spread of conditioning to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus is called a. associative linkage. b. generalization. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

c. higher-order conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery. Answer: b Page Reference: 231 70) Of the following phenomena, which one best explains the spreading of phobias to objects similar to the one to which the phobia was originally acquired? a. discrimination b. extinction c. generalization d. spontaneous recovery Answer: c Page Reference: 231 71) A small boy has just recently delighted his parents because he learned to call his father ”daddy.” However, it has now become an embarrassment to his mother when she takes him out with her because he keeps calling other men ”daddy.” This is an example of a. associative linkage. b. generalization. c. higher-order conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery. Answer: b Page Reference: 231 72) Once conditioning has been acquired, presenting just the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus produces a. extinction. b. generalization. c. a new conditioned response. d. spontaneous recovery. Answer: a Page Reference: 231 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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73) As she walked through her neighbourhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any colour or size. This illustrates which of the following? a. generalization b. discrimination c. extinction d. spontaneous recovery Answer: a Page Reference: 231 74) When a CS is repeatedly presented by itself, ______ will occur. a. generalization b. discrimination c. extinction d. stimulus substitution Answer: c Page Reference: 231 75) John's heart has been conditioned to beat rapidly whenever he smells Windsong perfume on a woman. However, John's heart also races when he smells Chanel 5 and other perfumes. This illustrates a. stimulus generalization. b. discrimination. c. extinction. d. spontaneous recovery. Answer: a Page Reference: 231 76) Stimulus discrimination a. is a response followed by a reinforcer. b. occurs when responses are made to stimuli that are similar to the original CS. c. is the removal of a stimulus. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. occurs when responses are made to certain stimuli, but not to others. Answer: d Page Reference: 232 77) When a CR has been conditioned to a particular stimulus, the organism will also tend to make the CR in response to other stimuli. This phenomenon is called a. discrimination. b. spread of effect. c. generalization. d. response shifting. Answer: c Page Reference: 231 78) Laura's heart rate had been conditioned to increase whenever she smelled Old Spice After Shave. However, her heart would also race to the aroma of Brut and English Leather. This reaction is known as: a. shaping. b. stimulus generalization. c. operant conditioning. d. discrimination. Answer: b Page Reference: 231 79) Stimulus generalization occurs a. only when a response is followed by a reinforcer. b. only to those with a high capacity to learn. c. after extinction. d. when a conditioned response is elicited by stimuli similar to the CS. Answer: d Page Reference: 231

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80) This is the first exam you have ever taken in Professor Smith's class. You know nothing about her tests, and she has never done anything harmful to you or anyone else. Nonetheless, you are anxious about the test. Your anxiety in this situation is an example of a. generalization. b. discrimination. c. backward conditioning. d. none of the above. Answer: a Page Reference: 231 81) Corky's mouth waters when he sees Ball Park Franks, but not when he sees other brands of franks. This response is known as a. extinction. b. discrimination. c. generalization. d. intelligence. Answer: b Page Reference: 232 82) The opposite of stimulus generalization is a. stimulus discrimination. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned stimulus. d. response generalization. Answer: a Page Reference: 231–232 83) Reacting to a stimulus that is similar to the one to which you have learned to react is called _______. a. stimulus generalization b. response generalization c. higher-order conditioning d. modelling Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: a Page Reference: 231 84) The process of learning to respond only to a single specific object or event is called _______. a. extinction b. inhibition c. stimulus generalization d. discrimination Answer: d Page Reference: 232 85) A person is conditioned to fear white rats. Soon after, she also begins to fear white cats, white dogs, and white rabbits. Her new, unconditioned fears result from _______. a. modelling b. discrimination c. response generalization d. stimulus generalization Answer: d Page Reference: 231 86) A person originally feared great heights, such as standing on top of tall buildings. Now the person has also developed fears of flying in airplanes, standing on ladders, and even watching high-wire artists perform. These new fears are probably the result of _______. a. modelling b. discrimination c. stimulus generalization d. response generalization Answer: c Page Reference: 231 87) A child who calls all four-legged animals ”dogs” is exhibiting ______. a. simplification Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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b. response generalization c. stimulus generalization d. equipotentiality Answer: c Page Reference: 231 88) Sweet taste seems to play a role in ___________. a. stimulating eating b. cutting calories c. weight gain d. stomach contractions Answer: a Page Reference: 240 89) Anything that follows a response, making that response more likely to recur, is a. an antecedent. b. an enhancement. c. reinforcement. d. consequence. Answer: c Page Reference: 244 90) Thorndike was known for his work with __________. a. a puzzle box b. modelling c. monkeys d. a Skinner box Answer: a Page Reference: 244 91) Thorndike conducted research on a. operant conditioning. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 6: Learning

b. classical conditioning. c. shaping. d. higher-order conditioning. Answer: a Page Reference: 244 92) Thorndike's main apparatus in his operant conditioning research was a. a wire monkey. b. a cognitive map. c. a puzzle box. d. a buzzer. Answer: c Page Reference: 244 93) A negative reinforcment takes place when a stimulus is ________ and thus ________ the probability of a response. a. removed; increases b. presented; decreases c. removed; decreases d. presented; increases Answer: a Page Reference: 246 94) When you were first learning to make your bed, your parents told you that you did a good job when you got the bedspread pulled up, even though the bed was still a little messy. For the next week they showed you how to be a little neater each time you made the bed. What operant conditioning procedure did your parents use? a. generalization b. extinction c. shaping d. punishment Answer: c Page Reference: 251 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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95) A child is praised for using his fork instead of his fingers to eat some spaghetti. This is an example of __________ reinforcement. a. positive b. extrinsic c. higher-order d. secondary Answer: a Page Reference: 246 96) On a variable-interval schedule, reinforcement is given for the __________. a. first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed b. first correct response after varying amounts of time have passed c. next correct response after a fixed number of responses have occurred d. next correct response after a varying number of responses have occurred Answer: b Page Reference: 253 97) Elizabeth was given a $1000 raise after her last performance evaluation. Her raise is a a. primary reinforcer. b. punisher. c. negative reinforcer. d. secondary reinforcer. Answer: d Page Reference: 247 98) What has occurred when there is a decrease in the likelihood or rate of a target response? a. positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. punishment d. positive reinforcement

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Answer: c Page Reference: 245 99) Positive reinforcement takes place whena stimulus is ________ and thus ________ the probability of a response. a. removed; decreases b. presented; increases c. presented; decreases d. removed; increases Answer: b Page Reference: 246 100) Any event whose presence decreases the likelihood that ongoing behaviour will recur is __________. a. a secondary reinforcer b. an aversive stimulus c. punishment d. negative reinforcement Answer: c Page Reference: 245 101) Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? a. a bar of candy b. warm, physical contact c. money d. a drink of water Answer: c Page Reference: 247 102) Nagging someone to do something until they do it is an example of __________. a. negative reinforcement b. aversive conditioning c. punishment

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d. positive reinforcement Answer: a Page Reference: 246 103) A reinforcer that adds something rewarding to a situation is called a(n) __________ reinforcer. a. positive b. additive c. primary d. secondary Answer: a Page Reference: 246 104) When someone uses negative reinforcement to change a behaviour, the behaviour is likely to __________ . a. occur less frequently b. occur more frequently c. occur at the same rate d. completely stop Answer: b Page Reference: 246 105) A camp leader repeatedly hugs a camper after she helps her friend. Each time, the camper is embarrassed and shies away from future acts of assistance. In the example, "hugging the camper" is _______. a. a positive reinforcer b. a primary reinforcer c. a punishment d. none of the above Answer: c Page Reference: 245, 247

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106) Mary arrives home to find her son washing the dirty dishes left from his party the night before. When she discovers his first-semester grade report on the table and sees that he got straight A's, Mary rewards him by relieving him of the unpleasant task of finishing the dishes. Which operant process does the example illustrate? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. extinction d. punishment Answer: b Page Reference: 246 107) Wearing sunglasses ALL THE TIME because people tell you they make you look ”irresistible” is an example of which of the types of punishment and reinforcement? a. aversive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. response cost Answer: c Page Reference: 246 108) Negative reinforcement is best thought of as a. reinforcement for an undesirable activity. b. punishment. c. something that was predicted to serve as reinforcement but did not do so. d. stimuli whose termination or removal increases behaviour. Answer: d Page Reference: 246 109) Putting on sunglasses to relieve glare is an example of which of the types of punishment and reinforcement? a. aversive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. response cost Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: b Page Reference: 246 110) To avoid getting a headache, Lory always lets her dog outside when it sits by the door and howls. This is an example of which type of punishment or reinforcement? a. aversive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. response cost Answer: b Page Reference: 246 111) Training a rat to push a lever to escape from an electric shock is an example of a. aversive punishment. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive reinforcement. d. response cost. Answer: b Page Reference: 246 112) Positive reinforcement a. weakens behaviours they follow. b. is always learned. c. strengthens behaviours it follows. d. is always unlearned. Answer: c Page Reference: 246 113) Which of the following statements about positive reinforcement is accurate? a. It is used in negative reinforcement. b. It weakens behaviours that it follows. c. It strengthens behaviours that it follows.

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d. It strengthens behaviours that lead to its removal. Answer: c Page Reference: 246 114) If a POSITIVE REINFORCER is added after a behaviour and the behaviour is strengthened/increased, the process used is called a. negative reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. extinction. d. punishment. Answer: b Page Reference: 246 115) Mom and Dad think it is really funny, and laugh when their 2-year-old, Bruce, says dirty words. When Bruce is sent home from kindergarten because of swearing, they don't understand why he cusses. Now when he cusses at home they ignore the cussing (they don't think it's cute anymore). Laughing in this example is a. positive reinforcement. b. a negative reinforcer. c. a primary reinforcer. d. a neutral stimulus. Answer: a Page Reference: 246 116) Which of the following is NOT negative reinforcement? a. turning off an electric shock b. giving a spanking c. removing a noxious odour d. silencing a banging door Answer: b Page Reference: 246

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117) Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. grades b. water c. money d. recognition Answer: b Page Reference: 247 118) Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? a. water b. food c. grades d. physical support Answer: c Page Reference: 247 119) At the local zoo, a polar bear suffered a broken tooth, and keepers needed a safe way of treating the problem. The bear was rewarded first for sticking its nose through a slot in the cage door, then for allowing a keeper to lift its lip and touch its teeth. Finally, a veterinarian was able to treat the damaged tooth while the bear waited placidly for its familiar reward. This is an example of _______. a. modelling b. shaping c. negative reinforcement d. secondary learning Answer: b Page Reference: 251 120) Anything that increases the likelihood that a behaviour will increase is called a(n) _______. a. aversive control b. punishment c. antecedent d. reinforcer Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: d Page Reference: 245 121) When someone uses negative reinforcement to change a behaviour, the behaviour is likely to ______. a. decrease b. increase c. remain the same d. completely stop Answer: b Page Reference: 246 122) When someone uses punishment to change a behaviour, the behaviour is likely to ______. a. decrease b. increase c. remain the same d. generalize Answer: a Page Reference: 245–247 123) Which of the following statements is true? a. Punishment does not always work. b. The effectiveness of punishment depends solely on its force. c. Punishment should be applied intermittently. d. Punishment usually enhances the learning process. Answer: a Page Reference: 245–247 124) Which of the following statements about punishment is NOT true? a. Punishment does not always work. b. Rewards should always immediately follow punishments. c. Effective punishment is consistent punishment. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. In itself, punishment serves to inhibit responses. Answer: b Page Reference: 245–247 125) A reinforcer that adds something rewarding to a situation is called a ________ reinforcer. a. positive b. negative c. primary d. secondary Answer: a Page Reference: 246 126) A reinforcer that removes something unpleasant from a situation is called a ________ reinforcer. a. positive b. negative c. primary d. secondary Answer: b Page Reference: 246 127) The 5-year-old child of two very busy parents has been throwing tantrums. Whenever the child goes off the deep end, one or both of his parents immediately come to his side and fuss over and cajole him. Nevertheless, his tantrums do not diminish; they even seem to increase. We may assume that his parents' fussing over him serves as _______. a. negative reinforcement b. punisher c. positive reinforcement d. model Answer: c Page Reference: 246

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128) A child is scolded for using his fingers instead of his fork to eat some spaghetti. The scolding stops when he picks up his fork. This is an example of _______ reinforcement. a. positive b. negative c. tertiary d. secondary Answer: b Page Reference: 246 129) Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. money b. a bar of candy c. a buzzer d. poker chips Answer: b Page Reference: 247 130) Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? a. good grades b. a bar of candy c. attention d. a drink of water Answer: a Page Reference: 247 131) Which of the following would be classified as a secondary reinforcer? a. a sandwich b. the word good c. reduction of pain d. a drink of soda Answer: b Page Reference: 247 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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132) Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. a sandwich b. praise c. money d. grades Answer: a Page Reference: 247 133) Electric shock, scoldings, and bad grades are a. secondary reinforcers. b. primary reinforcers. c. aversive stimuli. d. conditioned stimuli. Answer: c Page Reference: 247 134) A woodchuck tries to crack a walnut shell in two different ways-—with his paws and with his teeth. The last method worked and the first did not; hence, the woodchuck will be more likely to rely on his teeth for splitting the next nut. This observation illustrates the a. the discrimination principle. b. the law of practice. c. the law of effect. d. the Premack principle. Answer: c Page Reference: 245 135) When the removal of an event increases the likelihood of a prior response, _______ has occurred. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: b Page Reference: 246 136) The Canada Revenue Agency threatens Sue with a penalty if she fails to pay her back taxes. She pays, and the threat is withdrawn. In the future, she is more prompt in meeting her obligation. This is an example of the use of _______ to control behaviour. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment Answer: b Page Reference: 246 137) What is the typical dependent variable used in studies of the operant conditioning of lever pressing in rats? a. the number of responses per minute b. the cumulative record of lever press responses c. the average intensity of lever presses d. none of the above Answer: b Page Reference: 250 138) Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? a. money b. sex c. food d. warmth Answer: a Page Reference: 247 139) The presentation of an aversive stimulus following a particular operant response is called a. negative reinforcement. b. discrimination training. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. aversion conditioning. d. punishment. Answer: d Page Reference: 245–247 140) Negative reinforcement is to punishment as _______ is to _______. a. presenting; withdrawing b. withdrawing; presenting c. aversive; pleasant d. give; take Answer: b Page Reference: 245–247 141) Which of the following is NOT negative reinforcement? a. turning off an electric shock b. slamming a door c. removing a noxious odor d. silencing a banging door Answer: b Page Reference: 246 142) Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. grades b. water c. money d. recognition Answer: b Page Reference: 247 143) Billy throws rocks. Each time he throws a rock, he is immediately spanked. Spanking is a ________. a. positive reinforcer

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b. negative reinforcer c. secondary reinforcer d. punishment Answer: d Page Reference: 245–247 144) Negative reinforcement is negative in the sense that a. a consequence stimulus is delivered in a negative manner. b. it results in the removal of the behaviour. c. the behaviour results in the removal of a negative reinforcer. d. the behaviour is decreased/weakened. Answer: c Page Reference: 246 145) Aunt Bea gave Opie fried chicken livers every time he made his bed. Opie began making his bed more often than he used to. In this example, chicken livers are a _______ reinforcer. a. neutral b. negative c. secondary d. primary Answer: d Page Reference: 247 146) The apparatus that has come to symbolize the theory of operant conditioning is the a. Rubik's cube. b. Skinner box. c. Pavlov bell. d. Thorndike puzzle. Answer: b Page Reference: 245

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147) An example of a behaviour that is learned through operant conditioning is _____________. a. blinking in response to a flash of light b. studying in order to get a teacher's approval c. sneezing in response to dust d. pulling one's hand away from a flame Answer: b Page Reference: 244 148) Shaping is achieved through a. discrimination training. b. generalization. c. higher-order conditioning. d. successive approximations. Answer: d Page Reference: 251 149) To teach a tiger to jump through a flaming hoop, the tiger is first reinforced for jumping up on a certain pedestal, then for leaping from that pedestal to another. Next the tiger has to jump through a hoop between the pedestals to get the reward. Finally, the hoop is set afire and the tiger must jump through it to get the reward. This is an example of __________. a. modelling b. shaping c. negative reinforcement d. secondary learning Answer: b Page Reference: 251 150) A young girl is just learning to dress herself. At first, the parents call her a “big girl” just for putting on her clothes “frontwards,” even if they are not buttoned. Then, they call her a “big girl” if she tries to button them-—even if the buttons are not in the right holes. Then, they call her a “big girl” only if she buttons them correctly. They have been using: a. discrimination. b. generalization. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. higher-order conditioning. d. successive approximation. Answer: d Page Reference: 251 151) Operant conditioning assumes that a. events that follow behaviour affect whether the behaviour is repeated in the future. b. one's mental processes (e.g., memory and perception) mediate what behaviours one does in a situation. c. voluntary behaviours are reflexive. d. one learns by watching others' behaviour. Answer: a Page Reference: 244 152) Peggy wanted to teach her dog how to roll over. She tried giving him instructions, but it didn't work. She tried waiting for him to roll over so she could reinforce the behaviour, but she had to go to bed before the dog rolled. Finally, she began reinforcing the dog when it made behaviours that more closely resembled rolling over. At last, using _______, she was able to teach the dog to do the trick. a. shaping b. positive reinforcement c. positive reinforcers d. secondary reinforcers Answer: a Page Reference: 251 153) Reinforcing behaviours that more closely resemble a final, terminal behaviour are called: a. positive reinforcement. b. shaping. c. positive reinforcers. d. secondary reinforcers. Answer: b Page Reference: 251 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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154) A procedure used to teach a whole behaviour by first training its parts is called: a. higher order conditioning. b. shaping. c. modelling. d. response generalization. Answer: b Page Reference: 251 155) Changing behaviour through the reinforcement of partial responses is called _______. a. modelling b. shaping c. negative reinforcement d. classical conditioning Answer: b Page Reference: 251 156) Which type of learning occurs when we observe other people act? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. insight learning d. observational learning Answer: d Page Reference: 260 157) What do we call learning that has taken place but is not demonstrated? a. insight learning b. serial enumeration c. latent learning d. shaping Answer: c Page Reference: 259 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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158) Learning that occurs but is not immediately reflected in a behaviour change is called __________. a. vicarious learning b. innate learning c. latent learning d. insight Answer: c Page Reference: 259 159) In Bandura's classic (1965) study of children exposed to a film of an adult hitting a Bobo doll, __________ . a. children who saw the model punished learned to be more aggressive than children who saw the model rewarded b. children who saw the model rewarded learned to be more aggressive than children who saw the model punished c. children who saw the model punished performed more aggressively in a free play situation than children who saw the model rewarded d. children who saw the model rewarded performed more aggressively in a free play situation than children who saw the model punished Answer: d Page Reference: 263–265 160) The concept of latent learning was developed by __________. a. Watson b. Skinner c. Thorndike d. Tolman Answer: d Page Reference: 259 161) Observational learning theory's foremost proponent is __________. a. Watson b. Thorndike c. Skinner Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. Bandura Answer: d Page Reference: 261 162) A key to observational learning is ____________. a. insight learning b. cognitive mapping c. latent learning d. imitation Answer: d Page Reference: 261 163) According to observational theory, a child who pretends she is smoking because she saw her favourite TV star smoking would be learning through ______________. a. reinforcement b. punishment c. imitation d. practice Answer: c Page Reference: 261 164) Johnny watches as his older brother, Billy, jumps up and down on their parent’s bed squealing with delight. Johnny wants to join in, but stops himself when he sees Billy fall off of the bed and hurt his arm. From this experience, Johnny never ever wants to jump up and down on their parent’s bed. Which term best explains Johnny’s behaviour? a. reciprocal determinism b. reciprocal imitation c. social learning theory d. observational learning Correct: Observational learning occurs when there is a change in behaviour from watching others. Answer: d Diff: 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 260, Module 6.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. 165) According to classical conditioning theory, why do psychopaths repeatedly engage in criminal behaviour? a. Psychopaths don’t develop conditioned fear to signals of threat or punishment. Correct: Psychopaths don’t fear punishment, so they repeat antisocial behaviour over and over again. b. Psychopaths have been conditioned to interpret fear as pleasurable. c. Psychopaths don’t respond to aversive stimuli as they fail to see them as painful. d. Psychopaths can be conditioned to respond to punishment, but only if the punishment is severe enough to override their lack of inhibition to commit crimes. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 234, Module 6.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. 166) Which scenario would result in the fastest acquisition of a classically conditioned response? a. Hugh repeatedly rings a bell after he gives his dog a bone, over multiple trials. b. Hugh rings a bell and then gives his dog a treat 30 minutes later,over multiple trials. c. Hugh makes his dog “play dead” and then gives him a treat if he has performed the behaviour. d. Hugh makes two pieces of toast every morning , and when they pop out of the toaster, he throws one of the pieces of toast to his dog. Correct: The fastest conditioning occurs when the CS (popping toaster) comes immediately before the US (food). Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 230, Module 6.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. 167) Drew works for an advertising company and is trying to sell a new product called “day goggles”. He knows he needs to make the day goggles appear cool and desirable, so he decides to have well-known Hollywood actress Angelina Jolie wear his goggles. Despite his intensive ad campaign featuring the famous actress, he found little evidence that having Angelina Jolie in his advertisement affected preferences for his goggles and did not see any changes in sales. Which learning principle most likely underlies this disappointing outcome? a. higher-order conditioning b. latent inhibition Correct: Frequent exposure to a US (Angelina Jolie) before it is paired with a CS (goggles) will inhibit learning. c. extinction d. conditioned compensatory response Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 236, Module 6.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. 168) Which scenario is an example of classical conditioning? a. Training a rat to run a maze by rewarding it with food once it reaches the end. b. Ignoring a patient who fakes anxiety attacks because the attacks normally result in attention from staff. c. Teaching a child to do her chores by giving her a cookie when she has completed them. d. Helping a patient’s phobia of spiders by exposing him to the dangerous stimuli when in a relaxed state. Correct: Pairing relaxation with a feared stimulus should lead to a reduction in fear. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 232, Module 6.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. 169) How does operant conditioning differ from classical conditioning? a. The target behaviour is a function of the autonomic nervous system. b. The target behaviour is a function of stimuli that precede the behaviour. c. The target behaviour is elicited automatically. d. The target behaviour is emitted voluntarily. Correct: In classical conditioning the learned response is automatic; in operant conditioning it is a choice based on previous consequences. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 244, Module 6.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the role that consequences play in increasing or decreasing behaviour 170) What did Thorndike’s research with cats lead him to conclude? a. Cats learn by insight and can grasp the nature of a problem. b. All animals are capable of experiencing an “aha reaction” when they solve a problem and respond correctly after that point. c. All learning, in animals and humans, occurs by trial and error. Correct: Statement of fact. d. Learning that is strongly reinforced occurs faster and is less subject to extinction. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 244, Module 6.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the role that consequences play in increasing or decreasing behaviour.

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171) Which scenario is an example of negative reinforcement? a. Cheyenne was a good girl at daycare, so her mother relieved her from her evening chores. Correct: Negative reinforcement will increase the frequency of a behaviour. b. Zane did not do his homework when he got home from school, so his mother took away his video games. c. Devin was speeding, so the police officer gave him a ticket. d. Kennedy was teasing her brother, so her mother gave her a spanking. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 246, Module 6.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. 172) Which scenario is an example of negative punishment? a. Nicole yelled at her boyfriend because he was rude. b. Russ disobeyed his parents so he was not allowed to play with his friends. Correct: Negative punishment occurs when a preferred experience is withheld following a behaviour. c. Shannon gave the rat an electric shock because it wouldn’t move to the right side of the cage. d. Rodney made fun of a girl on his basketball team because she was not very coordinated. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 246, Module 6.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. 173) What is one POSSIBLE disadvantage of punishment? a. It causes aggression. b. It may prompt the individual to become sneakier.

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Correct: If a person is punished, the person may simply be more secretive next time instead of stopping the behaviour. c. It decreases the likelihood that a given behaviour will recur. d. Mild forms of punishment are largely ineffective. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 246, Module 6.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. 174) Which learning principle is characterized by a less-pronounced response to stimuli that differ from the original stimulus? a. habituation b. stimulus generalization c. extinction d. stimulus discrimination Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 249, Module 6.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. 175) Chiquita is afraid of robots. When she avoids them, her anxiety is reduced. Which learning principle most likely underlies the persistence of Chiquita’s phobia? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement Correct: The reduction in anxiety is negatively reinforcing her phobia, causing it to persist. c. classical conditioning d. observational conditioning

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 246, Module 6.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. 176) Dan and Joel, both four-year olds, have been watching reruns of Superman on television. Joel’s mother recently found the boys standing on the garage roof, ready to try flying. What best accounts for the boys’ behaviour? a. shaping b. delayed reinforcement c. observational learning Correct: When there is a change in behaviour from watching others do something, it is referred to as “observational learning.” d. immediate reinforcement Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 260, Module 6.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the principles of observational learning outside of the laboratory.

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1) __________ is a change in an organism's behaviour or knowledge brought about by experience. a. Learning b. Adaptation c. Memory enhancement d. Accommodation Correct: Learning is a process by which behaviour or knowledge changes as a result of experience. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 226 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

2) Which of the following is true of learning? a. Learning is the process that allows a species to slowly adapt over generations. b. All learning involves the acquisition of new knowledge and information. c. Learning involves a change in behaviour or knowledge as a result of experience. d. Humans are the only species known to be capable of true learning. Correct: Learning is a process by which behaviour or knowledge changes as a result of experience. One type of learning, known as cognitive learning, involves the acquisition of new information. However, associative learning involves making connections between stimuli or between a stimulus and a behaviour. Almost all animals are capable of this type of learning. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 226 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

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3) The type of learning students do when studying information for a test is primarily ______________ learning. a. cognitive b. observational c. classical d. associative Correct: Learning that involves the acquisition of new information is known as cognitive learning. In contrast, associative learning involves making connections between stimuli or between a stimulus and a behaviour. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 226 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

4) For Kyle, the smell of freshly baked cookies will always be connected to the memory of his grandmother. This is an example of which type of learning? a. cognitive b. observational c. latent d. associative Correct: Associative learning involves making connections between stimuli or between a stimulus and a behaviour. In this example, a particular smell is associated with a particular person. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 226 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

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5) __________ was one of the first people to describe learning as acquired through classical conditioning while studying the digestive process of dogs. a. John Watson b. Ivan Pavlov c. B. F. Skinner d. Albert Bandura Correct: Ivan Pavlov was a Russian physiologist who studied digestion, using dogs as a model species. He accidently found that the dogs would learn to salivate to stimuli that were associated with food. Pavlov's discovery began a long tradition of inquiry into what is now called classical conditioning. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 227 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

6) Before studying conditioning, Ivan Pavlov studied ______________. a. cardiac physiology b. canine anatomy c. digestive processes d. the endocrine system Correct: Ivan Pavlov was a Russian physiologist who studied digestion, using dogs as a model species. He accidently found that the dogs would learn to salivate to stimuli that were associated with food. Pavlov's discovery began a long tradition of inquiry into what is now called classical conditioning. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 6.1 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

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7) Ivan Pavlov is most closely associated with ______________. a. vicarious learning b. the law of effect c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning Correct: Ivan Pavlov was a Russian physiologist who studied digestion, using dogs as a model species. He accidently found that the dogs would learn to salivate to stimuli that were associated with food. Pavlov's discovery began a long tradition of inquiry into what is now called classical conditioning. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 227 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

8) Learning that occurs when a neutral stimulus elicits a response that was originally caused by another stimulus is called ___________________. a. cognitive learning b. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning d. observational learning Correct: This is the definition of classical conditioning. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 227 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

9) In classical conditioning, the term neutral is used to indicate that a stimulus a. can never be capable of causing a response.

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b. is reinforcing for the subject. c. does not initially elicit a response. d. cannot be detected by the subject. Correct: A neutral stimulus in classical conditioning is one that does not elicit a response. However, a neutral stimulus can come to elicit a response through classical conditioning. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

10) Which of the following is a stimulus? a. blinking b. food c. salivation d. fear Correct: A stimulus is an external event or cue that can elicit a response. All of the other options are responses, not stimuli. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 227 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

11) In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus is a. the stimulus that triggers a response after being paired with a conditioned stimulus. b. the stimulus that triggers a conditioned response. c. the stimulus that triggers a response after being paired with another stimulus. d. the stimulus that triggers a response without learning having taken place.

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Correct: An unconditioned stimulus (US) is a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response without learning. The reflexive response to an US is known as an unconditioned response (UR). Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

12) The abbreviation US stands for _______________. a. unconditional statement b. uniform subject c. unconditioned sensation d. unconditioned stimulus Correct: An unconditioned stimulus (US) is a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response without learning. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 227 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

13) Every week, Jade spends her allowance on sour lemon gummy candies even though they always make her mouth water. One day, as she is walking down the street, Jade sees a girl carrying a little white bag that looks like a candy shop bag! Jade notices that her mouth is puckering and overflowing with saliva. In this example, the unconditioned stimulus is the a. little white bag b. allowance money c. puckering and saliva d. sour lemon gummy candy

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Correct: An unconditioned stimulus (US) is a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response without learning. In this example, the stimulus that automatically causes Jade's mouth to water before "conditioning" is the sour candy. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

14) Which of the following illustrates an unconditioned stimulus (US)? a. blinking when air is blown into your eye b. blinking when you hear your favourite song c. your favourite song d. a puff of air to your eye Correct: An unconditioned stimulus (US) is a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response without learning. In this example, the only stimulus to which people have an unlearned response is a puff of air to the eye. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 227 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

15) In classical conditioning, the stimulus that normally evokes an automatic response without new learning is called the _____________. a. conditioned stimulus b. reflexive stimulus c. unconditioned stimulus d. orienting stimulus

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Correct: An unconditioned stimulus (US) is a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response without learning. The reflexive response to an US is known as an unconditioned response (UR). Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

16) When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increased. Luke always wore Old Spice aftershave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice, her heart raced. Luke's kiss was the _______________. a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response Correct: An unconditioned stimulus (US) is a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response without learning. In this example, the stimulus that automatically caused Laura's heart to race before "conditioning" was Luke's kiss. In contrast, the after shave only caused Laura's heart to race because she learned to associate it with Luke. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

17) The classical-conditioning term for a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response in the absence of learning is _______________. a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus

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d. conditioned response Correct: An unconditioned stimulus (US) is a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response without learning. The reflexive response to an US is known as an unconditioned response (UR). Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

18) Alan always turns the aquarium light on before putting fish food into the tank. After a while he notices that the fish swim to the top to look for the food as soon as he turns on the light. In this example, the __________ is the unconditioned stimulus (US). a. tank b. fish swimming to the top c. fish food d. aquarium light Correct: An unconditioned stimulus (US) is a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response without learning. In this example, fish would naturally swim to the surface in response to fish food. In contrast, the fish swim to the surface when the light is turned on only because it has a history of being paired with the food; this makes the light a conditioned stimulus (CS). Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

19) Whenever five-year-old Claire goes to the dentist, she becomes anxious and cries. Since she was not afraid of the dentist on her first visit, her fear is a learned behaviour. The US in this case was probably _________________. a. the dentist's beard

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b. sweet toothpaste c. painful teeth cleaning d. small prizes given after the exam Correct: An unconditioned stimulus (US) is a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response without learning. In this example, the painful teeth cleaning elicits fear and crying reflexively. As a result of this US being paired with going to the dentist, the once neutral dentist comes to elicit a fear response. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

20) Because dogs do not need to be conditioned to salivate to food, salivation to food is a(n) ______________. a. conditioned response b. conditioned reflex c. unconditioned response d. neutral response Correct: An unconditioned response (UR) is a reflexive, unlearned reaction to an unconditioned stimulus. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

21) Salivation in response to food being placed in the mouth and an eye blink response to a puff of air are both examples of _______________. a. unconditioned stimuli b. conditioned responses Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. conditioned stimuli d. unconditioned responses Correct: An unconditioned response (UR) is a reflexive, unlearned reaction to an unconditioned stimulus. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

22) An experimenter finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he sees a picture of a nude female. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then presents such a picture. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the unconditioned response (UR) is the _______________. a. increased heartbeat b. female's picture c. sounds of the buzzer d. viewing of the picture Correct: An unconditioned response (UR) is a reflexive, unlearned reaction to an unconditioned stimulus. In this example, the male subject's reflexive response to the picture of a nude female is to increase his heart rate. The other options are all stimuli, not responses. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

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b. US and CR c. CS and UR d. US and UR Correct: Because a US reflexively elicits a UR prior to any conditioning, this association is unlearned. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–229 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

24) Five-year-old Samantha is watching a storm from her window. A huge bolt of lightning is followed by a tremendous thunderclap. Startled, Samantha jumps at the noise. This happens several times. As the storm moves farther away, Samantha jumps at the sight of a lightning bolt but doesn't hear the thunder until after she jumps! In this example, the unconditioned stimulus is the _______________ and the conditioned stimulus is the _______________. a. thunder; lightning b. jumping; lightning c. lightning; thunder d. thunder; jumping Correct: The unconditioned stimulus is the stimulus (in this case, the thunder) that elicits a reflexive response without learning, and the conditioned stimulus is the once neutral stimulus that now elicits a conditioned response because it has a history of being paired with an unconditioned stimulus (the lightning). Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

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25) Of the four basic elements of classical conditioning, the one the organism learns to respond to is the _____. a. US b. UR c. CS d. CR Correct: A conditioned stimulus (CS) is a once neutral stimulus that elicits a conditioned response because it has a history of being paired with an unconditioned stimulus. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

26) In Pavlov's “salivating dogs” studies, the CR was _____________. a. salivation b. food c. sound d. biting Correct: A conditioned response (CR) is the learned response that occurs to the conditioned stimulus (CS). Pavlov's dogs famously learned to salivate to a once neutral sound, making salivation the CR. Salivation was also the unconditioned response (UR) in Pavlov's experiment because the dogs' reflexive response to the food was to salivate. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

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a. conditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned response d. unconditioned stimulus Correct: A conditioned response (CR) is the learned response that occurs to the conditioned stimulus (CS). Pavlov's dogs famously learned to salivate to a once neutral sound, making salivation the CR. In contrast, the salivation in response to the food was the unconditioned response (UR), because the dogs did not have to learn this reflexive response. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

28) Which of the following statements pertaining to the conditioned response is accurate? a. The conditioned response is elicited by the unconditioned stimulus. b. The conditioned response is an instinctual behaviour. c. The conditioned response is elicited by the conditioned stimulus. d. The conditioned response in classical conditioning is always salivation. Correct: A conditioned response is the learned (i.e., not instinctual) response that occurs to the conditioned stimulus. The conditioned response varies depending on the type of classical conditioning. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost.

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29) For several weeks Allen had to clean the men's restroom at the restaurant where he worked. The task always made him nauseated. He has since gone on to better things, but still cannot walk by the door to a men's restroom without becoming slightly queasy. For Allen, the door to the men's room has become a(n) ________________. a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned response. d. conditioned stimulus. Correct: A conditioned stimulus (CS) is a once neutral stimulus that elicits a conditioned response (CR) because it has a history of being paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US). In this example, the door (CS) has a history of being paired with the nauseating bathroom (US). As a result, a bathroom door (CS) now elicits nausea (CR) all by itself. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

30) The conditioned stimulus is defined as a. the stimulus that automatically produces the unconditioned response. b. the previously neutral stimulus that automatically produces the unconditioned response. c. the previously neutral stimulus that has acquired the capacity to produce the conditioned response. d. the stimulus that remains neutral throughout classical conditioning. Correct: A conditioned stimulus (CS) is a once neutral stimulus that elicits a conditioned response because it has a history of being paired with an unconditioned stimulus. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

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31) How do you know you have classically conditioned a person or an animal? a. The unconditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the unconditioned response. b. The unconditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the conditioned response. c. The conditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the conditioned response. d. The unconditioned response all by itself elicits the conditioned response. Correct: To establish that conditioning has taken place, the conditioned stimulus must elicit a response (the conditioned response) in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 227–228 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

32) The initial phase of learning in which a response is first established is known as _________________. a. generalization b. acquisition c. spontaneous recovery d. extinction Correct: The first phase of conditioning, during which the conditioning first occurs, is known as acquisition. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 230 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

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33) ________________is the loss or weakening of a conditioned response when a conditioned stimulus and unconditioned stimulus no longer occur together. a. Generalization b. Forgetting c. Spontaneous recovery d. Extinction Correct: This is the definition of extinction. Importantly, extinction is NOT forgetting, but a form of learning. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 231 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

34) Extinction occurs in classical conditioning when the ________ no longer produces the ________. a. CS; US b. CS; CR c. US; CR d. US; UR Correct: Extinction is the loss or weakening of a conditioned response (CR) when a conditioned stimulus (CS) and unconditioned stimulus no longer occur together. Extinction is complete when the CS no longer elicits a CR at all. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 231 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost.

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35) Repeatedly presenting a CS by itself will result in ______________. a. extinction b. spontaneous recovery c. stimulus discrimination d. stimulus generalization Correct: Extinction is the loss or weakening of a conditioned response when a conditioned stimulus and unconditioned stimulus no longer occur together. For example, with the dogs in Pavlov's experiment, if a tone is presented repeatedly and no food follows, then salivation should occur less and less, until eventually it may not occur at all. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 231 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost.

36) Extinction is believed to be a form of _____________. a. learning b. forgetting c. operant conditioning d. generalization Correct: The fact that extinguished responses can be spontaneously recovered suggests that extinction does not result in "forgetting." Rather, the opposite seems to be occurring—namely, extinction involves learning something new. In classical conditioning, for example, extinction occurs when the subject learns that the CS no longer predicts the US. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 231 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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37) Which phenomenon supports the theory that extinction is not a form of forgetting? a. conditioned emotional responding b. spontaneous recovery c. discrimination d. generalization Correct: The fact that extinguished responses can be spontaneously recovered suggests that extinction does not result in "forgetting." Rather, the opposite seems to be occurring—namely, extinction involves learning something new. In classical conditioning for example, extinction occurs when the subject learns that the CS no longer predicts the US. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 231 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost.

38) The reappearance of a learned response after its apparent extinction is called ________________. a. generalization b. reacquisition c. spontaneous recovery d. discrimination Correct: Spontaneous recovery is the reoccurrence of a previously extinguished conditioned response, typically after some time has passed since extinction. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 231 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

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39) Spontaneous recovery a. occurs before the pairing of the CS and US. b. occurs after a fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement. c. is an unlearned response. d. can occur once a response has been extinguished. Correct: Spontaneous recovery is the reoccurrence of a previously extinguished conditioned response, typically after some time has passed since extinction. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 231 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

40) As a child, Blaine was attacked by a goose and subsequently developed a severe fear of waterfowl. As he got older, the fear gradually faded until it was all but forgotten. Blaine is now in his early twenties and recently went strolling through a park by the river where he came across a flock of geese. The geese stared at him and he felt slightly fearful, though not as afraid as he had been as a child. Blaine's fear response to the geese in the park is an example of _______________. a. stimulus discrimination b. stimulus generalization c. extinction d. spontaneous recovery Correct: Spontaneous recovery is the reoccurrence of a previously extinguished conditioned response, typically after some time has passed since extinction. In this example, Blaine's conditioned fear had undergone extinction, but reoccurred later. Stimulus discrimination and generalization only apply to situations when the stimulus eliciting the response is different from the original CS. In this example, the stimulus eliciting the response and the initial CS were both geese. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 231

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Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost.

41) You train your dog Milo to salivate to the sound of a bell. Then you ring the bell every five minutes and don't follow the ringing with food for Milo. He salivates less and less and finally stops salivating at all when the bell rings. But the next morning, when you ring the bell, Milo salivates! What term is used to explain the reappearance of this response? a. latent learning b. spontaneous recovery c. extinction d. stimulus generalization Correct: Spontaneous recovery is the reoccurrence of a previously extinguished conditioned response, typically after some time has passed since extinction. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 231 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost.

42) The tendency to respond to a stimulus that is similar to the original conditioned stimulus is called ______________. a. generalization b. adaptation c. discrimination d. extinction Correct: Generalization is a process in which a response that originally occurs to a specific stimulus also occurs to different, though similar, stimuli. Answer: a Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 231 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

43) Ken's mouth waters every time he hears the ice-cream truck's familiar song in the distance. One day a slightly different song is heard in the distance and Ken's mouth waters. Ken's behaviour illustrates ____________. a. generalization b. assimilation c. recovery d. discrimination Correct: Generalization is a process in which a response that originally occurs to a specific stimulus also occurs to different, though similar, stimuli. In this example, Ken is conditioned to respond to the first song, but still responds to the slightly different song. In contrast, if Ken had not salivated to the new song, he would have been demonstrating discrimination. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 231 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

44) The proverb "He who hath been bitten by a snake fears a rope" illustrates ______________. a. stimulus discrimination b. extinction c. spontaneous recovery d. stimulus generalization. Correct: Generalization is a process in which a response that originally occurs to a specific stimulus also occurs to different, though similar,* stimuli. The proverb in this example means that someone who has been bitten by a snake will also fear ropes, in other words, people bitten by snakes generalize their fear to stimuli that are similar to snakes. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 231 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

45) You classically condition your dog Milo to salivate when middle C is played on the piano, but you find that he also salivates when a high G is played. You make a point of playing high G and not giving Milo any food afterward, whereas you do give him food after you play C. After a few days, Milo stops salivating when high G is played but continues to salivate to middle C. This phenomenon is known as ________________. a. generalization b. discrimination c. bitonal judgment d. spontaneous recovery Correct: Discrimination occurs when an organism learns to respond to one original stimulus but not to new stimuli that may be similar to the original stimulus. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 232 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

46) As an infant, Stephanie received many penicillin injections from the doctor. When she later saw a photographer in a white coat that was similar to the doctor's coat, she started to cry. This is an example of ______________. a. operant conditioning b. observational learning c. classical conditioning d. habituation

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Correct: This is an example of classical conditioning, where the white lab coat is the CS, the injections are the US, and the crying after seeing the photographer is the CR. John Watson called this type of classical conditioning "conditioned emotional responding." Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 232 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

47) Who was Albert B. (also known as "Little Albert")? a. developer of the concept of classical conditioning b. an animal trained by using operant conditioning procedures c. a creator of methods for teaching children d. a child who developed a fear as part of a demonstration of classical conditioning Correct: Albert B (or "Little Albert") was the pseudonym used for the subject of a classical conditioning experiment conducted by John Watson and Rosalie Rayner. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 232 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

48) Albert B. (or "Little Albert") was initially not afraid of rats, but when a white rat and a loud noise were presented together, Albert learned to fear them. In this famous example, the rat was the __________. a. CS b. US c. CR d. UR Correct: A conditioned stimulus (CS) is a once neutral stimulus that elicits a conditioned response (CR) because it has a history of being paired with an unconditioned stimulus Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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(US). In this famous Watson and Rayner experiment, the rat was the CS, the noise was the US, and the Albert's fear to the rat after conditioning was the CR. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 232 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

49) Shelly has developed a fear of bridges due to the recent, graphic news coverage of people falling from a collapsed bridge. Which of the following is the CS? a. bridges b. graphic news coverage c. people falling d. collapsed bridges Correct: A conditioned stimulus (CS) is a once neutral stimulus that elicits a conditioned response (CR) because it has a history of being paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US). In this example, bridges used to be neutral, but now elicit fear. In contrast, graphic news coverage, people falling, and collapsed bridges were never neutral stimuli. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 232 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

50) The results of Watson and Rayner's famous experiment with Albert B. (or "Little Albert") provide a possible explanation for the development of _____________. a. depression b. schizophrenia c. phobias d. psychopathy

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Correct: Watson and Rayner's experiment demonstrated the possibility of conditioned emotional responses—emotional and physiological responses that develop to a specific object through classical conditioning. This offers a possible explanation for phobias, which are intense, irrational fears of specific objects or situations. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 232 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

51) People diagnosed with psychopathy show an impaired ability to learn to a. associate fear with faces when the faces are paired with a shock. b. extinguish responding after the removal of the US. c. associate tastes with illness. d. blink to a tone which precedes a puff of air to the eye. Correct: In one study, people diagnosed with psychopathy showed little response to faces which had been paired with a shock during fear conditioning. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 233 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

52) Which of the following terms refers to the fact that animals and human beings may be evolutionarily predisposed to learn to fear certain stimuli that threaten their survival? a. instinctive drift b. construct survival c. emotional aversions d. preparedness

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Correct: The term preparedness refers to the biological predisposition to rapidly learn a response to a particular class of stimuli, such as dangerous animals like snakes and spiders. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 235 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning.

53) According to the concept of preparedness, which stimulus would make the most effective CS in a fear conditioning experiment? a. gun b. spider c. flower d. rabbit Correct: The term preparedness refers to the biological predisposition to rapidly learn a response to a particular class of stimuli, such as dangerous animals like snakes and spiders. Although dangerous, we have not evolved a predisposition to fear guns because they are relatively new in our species’ history. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 235 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning.

54) Last month, Walter became sick after eating two chili dogs, and he now finds the very thought of chili dogs to be repulsive. Walter has experienced ________________. a. discrimination b. conditioned taste aversion c. operant taste conditioning Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. negative reinforcement Correct: A conditioned taste aversion is the acquired dislike or disgust of a food or drink because it was paired with illness. In these situations, a taste (the CS) is paired with food (the US). Getting sick is the UR. The CR is the nausea and other signs of disgust in response to the CS. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 235 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

55) Taste aversions seem to be specific examples of what type of learning? a. classical conditioning b. insight learning c. vicarious learning d. operant conditioning Correct: A conditioned taste aversion is the acquired dislike or disgust of a food or drink because it was paired with illness. It is a specific form of classical conditioning where a taste (the CS) is paired with food (the US). Getting sick is the UR. The CR is the nausea and other signs of disgust in response to the CS. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 235 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

56) People appear to have a biological predisposition to associate nausea with what type of stimuli? a. lights b. tastes c. smells

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d. sounds Correct: Humans are biologically prepared to associate food, but not other types of stimuli, with illness. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 235 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning.

57) Which of the following is one of the ways in which conditioned taste aversions are NOT like other forms of classical conditioning? a. Conditioned taste aversions do not require a CS. b. Conditioned taste aversions only last one or two days. c. The CS and US can be separated by several hours. d. The subject does not have to respond to develop a taste aversion. Correct: The interval between ingesting the food (CS) and experiencing the illness (US) may be a matter of hours in conditioned taste aversions, whereas most conditioning happens only if the CS and the US occur very closely to each other in time. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 235 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning.

58) Which form of classical conditioning is most likely to occur with only a single CSUS pairing? a. salivary conditioning b. conditioned eye blink responding c. conditioned taste aversion

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d. fear conditioning Correct: Unlike other types of conditioning, conditioned taste aversions typically develop after a single experience. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 235 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning.

59) Which of the following would be an example of advertisers applying classical conditioning to the marketing of a product? a. The product is shown with stimuli that viewers already view positively, such as attractive people. b. A commercial shows individuals modelling the correct use of the product. c. Customers are rewarded with a free product for every five they purchase. d. Advertisers saturate print and broadcast media with images of the product so people will remember it. Correct: Advertisers often use principles of classical conditioning to elicit positive responses in their viewers. To do this, advertisers pair the product (CS) with a stimulus (US) that viewers already have a positive emotional response to (UR). Through this pairing, viewers begin to have a positive emotional response (CR) to the product itself. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 236 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples.

60) Why are heroin users more likely to overdose when they inject heroin at a place other than their usual location? a. Heroin users tend to inject a larger dose in new locations. b. Heroin users learn to associate safe practices with their usual location. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. Heroin users find drug use more rewarding in new locations. d. Cues that normally trigger a conditioned response that helps to prepare the body for the heroin are missing in the new locations. Correct: Conditioned drug tolerance develops as the body begins associating environmental cues that accompany drug use with the drug itself. The conditioned responses involve responses that prepare the body for something potentially dangerous. Over time, more of the drug is needed to override these preparatory responses so that the desired effect can be obtained. This can lead to overdoses if this same dose is used without the presence of the environmental cues. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 239 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

61) Larry has been using heroin for several years. Normally he injects the drug in his basement, but one night on a vacation he injects the drug in his hotel room. Despite the fact that he uses the same heroin and dose that he normally does, Larry overdoses and dies. What phenomenon is likely responsible? a. spontaneous recovery b. preparedness c. negative punishment d. conditioned drug tolerance Correct: Conditioned drug tolerance develops as the body begins associating environmental cues that accompany drug use with the drug itself. The conditioned responses involve responses that prepare the body for something potentially dangerous. Over time, more of the drug is needed to override these preparatory responses so that the desired effect can be obtained. This can lead to overdoses if this same dose is used without the presence of the environmental cues. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 248 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

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62) In studies with male Japanese quails, when objects are repeatedly paired with female quails, the male quails will begin to _____________ the object. a. attack b. copulate with c. make a nest for d. sing to Correct: Males quails will vigorously copulate with an artificial model (the CS) that has a history of being paired with a female quail (the US). Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 240 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

63) Research on the sexual conditioning of Japanese quails provides a possible explanation for which phenomenon? a. avian flu b. sexual fetishism c. monogamy d. polygamy Correct: Male quails will vigorously copulate with an artificial model (the CS) that has a history of being paired with a female quail (the US). Some have argued that this persistent copulation with an inanimate object mirrors the sexual fetishism found in some humans. In theory, sexual fetishes toward a specific stimulus could develop because that stimulus has a history of being paired with sexual encounters. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 240 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning.

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64) How can learning theory help to explain why diet drinks are ineffective in helping people lose weight? a. Sugar acts as a positive reinforcer, but artificial sweeteners act as a negative reinforcer. b. Stimulus discrimination allows the body to tell the difference between real sugar and artificial sweeteners. c. Extinction occurs when artificial sweeteners are introduced, but spontaneous recovery leads to a return of overeating. d. People normally learn that sweet tastes (CS) predict calories (US), but artificial sweeteners weaken this association. Correct: Sweet tastes send a message to the body that a high dose of calories is on the way. For example, the taste of a candy bar is a conditioned stimulus (CS) that tells the body that a large amount of calories (the US) is soon to arrive in the gut. This relationship is an important one for the body to learn, as it helps maintain an energy balance—eventually your body tells you it is time to stop eating sweets and switch to something else, perhaps with fewer calories. Artificially sweetened beverages disrupt this relationship between the sugary sweet CS and high-calorie food US. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 240–241 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze claims that artificially sweetened beverages are a healthier choice.

65) In which type of learning is an organism's behaviour influenced by the consequences of that behaviour? a. classical conditioning b. latent learning c. operant conditioning d. consequential learning Correct: Operant conditioning is a type of learning in which behaviour is influenced by consequences. Answer: c Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 244 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

66) The term operant refers to the fact that, in operant conditioning, a. the organism must operate on the environment before consequences can occur. b. reinforcers and punishers operate on the organism to change its behaviour. c. the US operates on the CS to change its association with the CR. d. the experimenter operates on the organism to change its behaviour. Correct: Operant conditioning is a type of learning in which behaviour is influenced by consequences. The term style is used because the individual operates on the environment before consequences can occur. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 244 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

67) In classical conditioning, the responses involved tend to be __________________, but in operant conditioning they are __________________. a. punished; reinforced b. reinforced; punished c. reflexive; voluntary d. voluntary; reflexive Correct: Classical conditioning involves reflexive or automatic responses. In contrast, operant conditioning primarily involves voluntary responses. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 244

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

68) In operant conditioning, reinforcement is a. never presented. b. presented regardless of the organism's behaviour. c. presented as a consequence of the organism's behaviour. d. presented prior to the organism's behaviour. Correct: In operant conditioning, the organism's behaviour controls the delivery of reinforcers (or punishers). Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 244 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

69) The process by which a stimulus strengthens or increases the probability of the response that it follows is called ______________. a. higher-order conditioning b. latent learning c. classical conditioning d. reinforcement Correct: Reinforcement is a process in which an event or reward that follows a response increases the likelihood of that response occurring again. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 244 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

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70) Thorndike was known for his work with ______________. a. puzzle boxes b. modelling c. monkeys d. a Skinner box Correct: We can trace the scientific study of reinforcement's effects on behaviour to Edward Thorndike, who conducted experiments in which he measured the time it took cats to learn how to escape from puzzle boxes. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 245 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

71) Thorndike conducted research on ______________. a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. shaping d. higher-order conditioning Correct: Although it was not called operant conditioning at the time, we can trace the scientific study of reinforcement's effects on behaviour to Edward Thorndike, who conducted experiments in which he measured the time it took cats to learn how to escape from puzzle boxes. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 244–245 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

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72) Operant conditioning is most closely associated with ________________. a. John Watson b. Ivan Pavlov c. B. F. Skinner d. John Garcia Correct: B. F. Skinner is famous for his work on operant conditioning. The other researchers listed are all better known for their contributions to classical conditioning. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 244–245 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

73) A Skinner box is most likely to be used in research involving ________________. a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. latent learning d. observational learning Correct: Operant chambers are sometimes referred to as Skinner boxes. They typically include a lever or key that the subject can manipulate. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 245 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

74) A reinforcer is a consequence that ______________ the likelihood of a behaviour, and a punisher is a consequence that ____________ the likelihood of a behaviour. a. increases; increases b. decreases; decreases

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c. decreases; increases d. increases; decreases Correct: A reinforcer is a stimulus that is contingent upon a response, and that increases the probability of that response occurring again. In contrast, a punisher is a stimulus that is contingent upon a response, and that results in a decrease in behaviour. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 245 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the role that consequences play in increasing or decreasing behaviour.

75) A punisher is any outcome presented ___________ a behaviour that ___________ the likelihood of the behaviour reoccurring. a. before; decreases b. before; increases c. after; decreases d. after; increases Correct: A punisher is a stimulus that follows a behaviour, and that results in a decrease in that behaviour. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 245–246 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

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d. secondary Correct: Primary reinforcers consist of reinforcing stimuli that satisfy basic motivational needs. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 247 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

77) __________ is an example of a primary reinforcer, whereas __________ is an example of a secondary reinforcer. a. A cupcake; a certificate of achievement b. Money; receiving an A+ c. Water; food d. A gold star; cupcake Correct: Primary reinforcers consist of reinforcing stimuli that satisfy basic motivational needs, such as food, water, and shelter. On the other hand, many stimuli that we find reinforcing, such as money or grades, are reinforcing only after we first learn that they have value. Secondary reinforcers consist of reinforcing stimuli that acquire their value through learning. In this example, eating a cupcake is intrinsically rewarding, but a certificate of achievement only acts a reward because people learn to value it as a sign of accomplishment. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 247 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

78) Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? a. water b. food

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c. shelter d. a gold star on a test Correct: Secondary reinforcers are stimuli that we find reinforcing only after we first learn that they have value. A gold star only acts a reward because students learn to associate with praise and success. In contrast, food, shelter, and food are primary reinforcers because they satisfy basic motivational needs. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 247 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

79) The rewarding property of reinforcing stimuli like food and sex is believed to be related to the activity of which brain structure? a. hippocampus b. nucleus accumbens c. amygdala d. thalamus Correct: The nucleus accumbens becomes activated during the processing of all kinds of rewards, including primary ones such as eating and having sex, as well as "artificial" rewards such as using cocaine and smoking a cigarette. It is believed to function as a reward center. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 248 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

80) Negative reinforcement is a stimulus that is__________ and thus __________the probability of a response. a. removed; increases

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b. removed; decreases c. presented; increases d. presented; decreases Correct: Negative reinforcement involves the strengthening of a behaviour because it removes or diminishes a stimulus. For example, if a child is excused from chores for a week for getting good grades, he or she is more likely to get good grades in the future because taking away the chores is reinforcing. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 246 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the role that consequences play in increasing or decreasing behaviour.

81) Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement? a. giving children candy for completing their homework b. removing a child's chores when he or she completes homework c. ending class 10 minutes early if students work hard during class d. taking away privileges if a child does not follow classroom rules Correct: Positive reinforcement involves strengthening behaviours by following them with a rewarding stimulus. Giving children candy for completing their homework is positive reinforcement because presenting the candy will make children more likely to complete their homework in the future. Situations where stimuli (chores, class time, privileges) are removed cannot be positive reinforcement because positive reinforcement, by definition, involves the presentation of a stimulus, not the removal of a stimulus. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 246 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

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82) Bill hates to clean up after dinner. One night, he volunteers to bathe the dog before cleaning up. When he finishes with the dog and returns to the kitchen, his wife has cleaned everything up for him. Which of the following statements is most likely true? a. Bill will start cleaning up the kitchen before he bathes the dog. b. Bill's wife has positively reinforced him for bathing the dog. c. Bill's wife has negatively reinforced him for bathing the dog. d. Bill's wife has established bathing the dog as a secondary reinforcer. Correct: Much of what we do is for the purposes of avoiding or getting rid of something aversive (unpleasant). These actions serve as examples of negative reinforcement, the strengthening of a behaviour because it removes or diminishes a stimulus. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 246 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples.

83) Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement? a. a student is sent to detention for fighting b. a student is exempted from a weekly quiz for exemplary homework c. a student loses earned free time for playing with lab equipment d. a student turns in neater homework when the teacher praises neatness Correct: Negative reinforcement involves encouraging a behaviour by removing or diminishing an aversive stimulus. In contrast, punishing a subject to decrease an undesirable behaviour, or encouraging a behaviour by presenting a stimulus as a reward are, by definition, not forms of negative reinforcement. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 246 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

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84) Nicky tends to bite his nails when he becomes nervous because it calms him down. Nicky's behaviour is an example of _______________. a. negative reinforcement b. generalization c. classical conditioning d. shaping Correct: Negative reinforcement involves the strengthening of a behaviour because it removes or diminishes a stimulus. In this example, because Nicky's behaviour of biting his nails is followed by a decrease in nervousness, Nicky is more likely to continue biting his nails. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 246 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples.

85) Kathy takes her 2-year-old son to the supermarket every Saturday. Each week, the same sequence of events unfolds: Her son screams, demanding that Kathy buy him treats. Although she refuses to give in to his demands, he continues to scream. Finally, Kathy yells at the top of her lungs, "QUIET!" He stops screaming instantly. What operant conditioning concepts are illustrated in this story? a. Kathy is using negative reinforcement to increase her son's screaming. b. Kathy is using punishment to suppress the screaming; her use of punishment is negatively reinforced by the cessation of screaming. c. Kathy's son probably learned how to scream by observing his parents at home, and now he is reinforced on a variable-interval schedule of reinforcement. d. Kathy's son probably learned how to scream by observing his parents at home, and now he is reinforced on a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement. Correct: In this example, Kathy is decreasing her son's behaviour (screaming for treats) by presenting a stimulus (yelling); therefore she using positive punishment. At the same time, Kathy's yelling is being negatively reinforced because her yelling is followed by the removal of an aversive stimulus (her son's screaming). Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 245–247 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples.

86) Presenting a stimulus to a person or animal that decreases the probability of a particular response is known as a. positive punishment. b. negative punishment. c. negative reinforcement. d. vicarious punishment. Correct: Positive punishment is a process in which a behaviour decreases because it adds or increases a particular stimulus. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 247 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

87) Which of the following will decrease the likelihood of behaviour reoccurring? a. negative punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. fixed-ratio reinforcement Correct: Punishment—positive or negative—is a process that decreases the future probability of a response. In contrast, all forms of reinforcement increase the likelihood of that response will occur again. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 247 Skill: Factual

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Objective: Understand the role that consequences play in increasing or decreasing behaviour.

88) When a stimulus is removed from a person or animal resulting in a decrease in the probability of response, it is known as a. positive punishment. b. negative punishment. c. punishing reinforcement. d. negative reinforcement. Correct: Negative punishment occurs when a behaviour decreases because it removes or diminishes a particular stimulus. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 247 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

89) Bob has learned that he can usually get what he wants from his parents if he keeps whining for something. One day Bob starts whining in the toy store because he wants an action figure. His father refuses to give it to him and ignores his whining. What process is likely to happen as a result? a. generalization b. extinction c. spontaneous recovery d. negative reinforcement Correct: In operant conditioning, a conditioned behaviour tends to weaken or disappear when it is no longer reinforced. This process is called extinction. Although spontaneous recovery may eventually happen at some later time point, extinction must occur first. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 249

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Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples.

90) Extinction in operant conditioning involves _________________. a. negative reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. punishment d. withholding reinforcement Correct: In operant conditioning, extinction refers to the weakening of an operant response when reinforcement is no longer available. Therefore, if an experimenter wanted to extinguish a conditioned behaviour, the experimenter would stop or withhold reinforcement. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 249 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

91) A rat learns that pressing the lever in the operant chamber will only deliver food if a red light above the lever is on. In this scenario, the red light is acting as a _________________. a. discriminative stimulus b. reinforcer c. conditioned stimulus (CS) d. punisher Correct: In operant conditioning, a discriminative stimulus is a cue or event that indicates that a response, if made, will be reinforced. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 248 Skill: Applied Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

92) A pigeon learns to peck only at a red disk. It will not peck at any disk that is identical except for its colour. This illustrates the concept of ______________. a. extinction b. discrimination c. avoidance training d. desensitization Correct: In operant conditioning, discrimination occurs when an operant response is made to one stimulus but not to another, even similar, stimulus. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 249 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

93) An animal trainer is trying to teach a lion to perform tricks for the circus. First the lion is given food if he sits quietly on a chair. Next the lion is given food if he raises one paw. Finally the lion is given food if he gives the trainer a "high-five." In this example, the lion is being trained by ________________. a. negative reinforcement b. generalization c. punishment d. shaping Correct: Shaping is a step-by-step procedure in which a specific operant response is created by reinforcing successive approximations of that response. In this example, the target behaviour (the high-five) is conditioned by first reinforcing simpler approximations of the behaviour. The trainer in this example used positive reinforcement to shape the lion. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 251 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

94) ______________ is an operant-conditioning procedure in which successive approximations of a desired response are reinforced. a. Shaping b. Spontaneous recovery c. Stimulus generalization d. Stimulus discrimination Correct: Shaping is a step-by-step procedure in which a specific operant response is created by reinforcing successive approximations of that response. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 251 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

95) A child receives one homework pass—a coupon that allows her to skip a homework assignment—for every 10 word problems she completes during class. This is an example of both ___________ reinforcement and a ___________ schedule of reinforcement. a. negative; fixed ratio b. positive; variable ratio c. negative; variable ratio d. positive; fixed interval Correct: A homework pass is a negative reinforcer because it increases the behaviour that precedes it by removing a stimulus (the homework). The schedule of reinforcement is fixed-ratio, because the reinforcement is delivered after a specific number of responses have been completed, in this case, 10 word problems. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 246, 252

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Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples.

96) Julie is expected to cut the lawn weekly. Her parents only give her money once in a while after she cuts the lawn. Julie is being reinforced using a _____________ schedule of reinforcement. a. continuous b. partial c. classical d. secondary Correct: With partial (intermittent) reinforcement, not every response or instance of a behaviour is rewarded. In this example, Julie does not receive money every time she cuts the lawn, so she is on a partial schedule of reinforcement. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 251 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples.

97) What kind of reinforcement is used if Sally's parents give her $10 every time she accumulates six As on her report card? a. gradual reinforcement b. sporadic reinforcement c. continuous reinforcement d. partial reinforcement Correct: With partial (intermittent) reinforcement, not every response or instance of a behaviour is rewarded. Sporadic and gradual reinforcement are not commonly used terms in operant conditioning. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 251

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Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples.

98) A fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement involves giving reinforcement a. on the first response after a varied amount of time has elapsed. b. on the first response after a specific amount of time has elapsed. c. after a specific number of responses have been completed. d. after a varied number of responses have been completed. Correct: In a fixed-ratio schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a specific number of responses have been completed. For example, a rat may be required to press a lever 10 times to receive food. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 252 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

99) When the number of responses is important to a schedule of reinforcement, that schedule is called a _____________ schedule. a. ratio b. interval c. conditioned d. time-delayed Correct: Ratio schedules of reinforcement are based on the amount of responding. In contrast, interval schedules are based on the passage of time. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 252 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

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100) The broken vending machine in Cathy's office dispenses sodas inconsistently. Sometimes Cathy gets a soda after putting in two quarters, but sometimes she only gets a soda after putting in five or six quarters. In operant conditioning terms, Cathy is being reinforced on a ________________ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-ratio d. variable-interval Correct: In a variable-ratio schedule, the number of responses required to receive reinforcement varies according to an average. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 252 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples.

101) Kwan checks her email for new messages several times during the day. She realizes that because emails are sent on a ________________ schedule, checking her email more frequently will not increase the number of new emails she receives in a day. Furthermore, she knows that she cannot predict when people will email her, but if an email has been sent to her, she will receive it the next time she checks. a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-ratio d. variable-interval Correct: On a variable-interval schedule, the first response is reinforced following a variable amount of time. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 253 Skill: Applied Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Objective: Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples.

102) Learned behaviour is less prone to extinction if it is conditioned by ____________ reinforcement. a. partial b. negative c. delayed d. continuous Correct: Organisms that have been conditioned under partial reinforcement resist extinction longer than those conditioned under continuous reinforcement. This is known as the partial reinforcement effect. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 253 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how schedules of reinforcement affect behaviour.

103) Which of the following statements is true about operant conditioning? a. Neither partial nor continuous reinforcement leads to behaviours that will persist for long periods of time. b. Continuous reinforcement leads to behaviours that will persist longer than behaviour learned through partial reinforcement. c. Partial reinforcement leads to behaviours that will persist longer than behaviour learned through continuous reinforcement. d. Continuous reinforcement and partial reinforcement lead to behaviours that persist for equally long periods of time. Correct: One general characteristic of schedules of reinforcement is that partially reinforced responses tend to be very persistent. Organisms that have been conditioned under partial reinforcement resist extinction longer than those conditioned under continuous reinforcement. This is known as the partial reinforcement effect. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 253 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how schedules of reinforcement affect behaviour.

104) Which of the following is true concerning partial schedules of reinforcement? a. Interval schedules tend to yield higher rates of responding as compared to ratio schedules. b. Ratio schedules tend to yield higher rates of responding as compared to interval schedules. c. Fixed schedules tend to yield higher rates of responding as compared to variable schedules. d. All combinations of intermittent schedules tend to yield similar rates of responding. Correct: Ratio schedules tend to generate relatively high rates of responding. This outcome makes sense in light of the fact that in ratio schedules, reinforcement is based on how often you engage in the behaviour. This is not the case with interval schedules, which tend to generate lower rates of responding. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 253 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how schedules of reinforcement affect behaviour.

105) B.F. Skinner rigged the cages of pigeons so that food was delivered every 15 seconds. Within a short time most of the pigeons were practising some sort of consistent behaviour, even though the behaviour did not have any effect on the delivery of the reinforcer. The birds were a. demonstrating spontaneous recovery. b. developing phobias. c. demonstrating the partial reinforcement effect. d. behaving superstitiously. Correct: This experiment demonstrated the development of superstitious behaviour. Superstitious behaviour can occur when reinforcement is delivered randomly, because whatever behaviour precedes the reinforcer will become more likely to occur, even if it had nothing to do with its delivery. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 253–254 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how schedules of reinforcement affect behaviour.

106) Which of the following statements is true regarding corporal punishment? a. Spanking is generally a very effective punisher when it is used for immediately stopping a behaviour. b. There is no evidence that spanking can lead to poor mental health. c. Corporal punishment teaches appropriate behaviours. d. Corporal punishment is best if administered several hours after the target behaviour has occurred. Correct: Spanking is generally a very effective punisher when it is used for immediately stopping a behaviour. However, few psychologists advocate spanking and other severe forms of punishment because they do not teach children appropriate behaviour and are associated with poor mental health. When punishments are administered, they are most effective when they occur immediately after the behaviour. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 255 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the effectiveness of punishment on changing behaviour.

107) In general, research on the use of corporal punishments, such as spanking, suggests that a. despite the common belief, corporal punishment is the preferred method of behaviour modification. b. corporal punishment is ineffective in stopping behaviours. c. severe instances of corporal punishment should be avoided because of its negative side effects. d. corporal punishment works best when it is administered randomly. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Correct: Spanking is generally a very effective punisher when it is used for immediately stopping a behaviour. However, few psychologists advocate spanking and other severe forms of punishment because they can have severe side effects. In general, punishments are more effective if they are given consistently. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 255 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the effectiveness of punishment on changing behaviour.

108) The concept of latent learning was developed by ___________. a. Watson b. Skinner c. Tolman d. Thorndike Correct: Psychologist Edward Tolman proposed that humans, and even rats, express latent learning—learning that is not immediately expressed by a response until the organism is reinforced for doing so. He was able to demonstrate latent learning in rats running a maze. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 259 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning.

109) Learning that is not directly observable is called _____________. a. insight b. innate learning c. vicarious learning d. latent learning

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Correct: Psychologist Edward Tolman proposed that humans, and even rats, express latent learning—learning that is not immediately expressed by a response until the organism is reinforced for doing so. He was able to demonstrate latent learning in rats running a maze. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 259 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning.

110) Studies of latent learning emphasize the importance of ______________ on learning. a. reinforcement b. associations c. cognitive processes d. punishment Correct: Tolman's studies of latent learning indicate that rats are capable of more than just forming simple associations and behavioural responses. The fact that the rats learned the maze without reinforcement indicates that they had formed a cognitive map or representation of the maze. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 259 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning.

111) Which of the following is true concerning Tolman and Honzik's classic study of latent learning? a. Rats were able to learn without receiving reinforcement. b. Rats learned when receiving punishment but not when receiving reinforcement.

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c. Rats were not able to learn if reinforcement was withheld for long periods of time. d. Rats learned only when reinforcement was presented immediately following behaviour. Correct: Tolman's studies of latent learning indicate that rats are capable of more than just forming simple associations and behavioural responses. The fact that the rats learned the maze without reinforcement indicates that they had formed a cognitive map or representation of the maze. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 259 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning.

112) Sarah has just received her driver's licence and is now ready to drive to school. Although she's never driven to her school before, Sarah knows the way. The fact that Sarah can drive herself to school suggests that _________ has occurred. a. latent learning b. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning d. classical and operant conditioning Correct: Psychologist Edward Tolman proposed that humans, and even rats, express latent learning—learning that is not immediately expressed by a response until the organism is reinforced for doing so. In this example, Sarah's knowledge of how to get to school remains hidden until she is allowed to drive. This is similar to Tolman's experiment where rats learned the layout of a maze without reinforcement, but this learning was hidden until the rats were reinforced to navigate the maze. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 259 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning.

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113) You spend days wandering aimlessly around a park with many different paths that end at different parts of the park. One day when you arrive at the park you get a call on your cell phone from your cousin whom you haven't seen for years, and she says she is waiting for you in a particular section of the park. Even though the paths are complicated and twisted, you manage to find the shortest route to your cousin. Tolman would explain your efficient passage through the park as an example of a. insight. b. the formation of a cognitive map. c. unconscious trial-and-error imagery. d. spontaneous recovery. Correct: Tolman and Honzik assumed that rats, like humans, possess a cognitive map of their environment. This map allows us to efficiently navigate our environment. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 259–260 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning.

114) Which type of learning occurs when we observe other people act? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. insight learning d. observational learning Correct: Observational learning involves changes in behaviour and knowledge that result from watching others. The other types of learning listed do not require watching the behaviour of others. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 260 Skill: Conceptual

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Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning.

115) After watching her teenage sister put on lipstick, Julie applies some to her own lips. Julie acquired this behaviour through ________________. a. classical conditioning b. observational learning c. operant conditioning d. stimulus generalization Correct: Observational learning involves changes in behaviour and knowledge that result from watching others. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 260 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning.

116) Which of the following is the best example of observational learning? a. Greg hears on the radio that a huge storm is blowing in, so he cancels his trip. b. After several hours of staring at the computer screen, Marley suddenly realizes the solution to the puzzle he is trying to solve. c. Carey figures out if she doesn't give her boss a hard time, he's a lot nicer to be around. d. Ingrid swam poorly until she noticed the efficient stroke of the man in the next lane; now her swimming is greatly improved. Correct: Observational learning involves changes in behaviour and knowledge that result from watching others. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 260–261 Skill: Applied

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Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning.

117) John sees others being praised for using good penmanship and now he attempts to use good penmanship. This behaviour is reflective of ________ learning. a. observational b. conditional c. operant d. conformist Correct: Observational learning involves changes in behaviour and knowledge that result from watching others. Observing someone being rewarded for a behaviour facilitates imitation of the same behaviours that bring about rewards. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 263 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning.

118) In a demonstration of observational learning, rats can identify food that is safe to eat by a. observing where humans place poison rat traps. b. feeding small pieces of the food to other rats and observing the result. c. smelling the breath of other rats. Correct: Before setting off in search of food, rats smell the breath of other rats. They will then search preferentially for food that matches the odour of their fellow rats' breath because it is presumably safe if the other rat is still alive. Although rats can associate taste with illness, this mechanism relies on classical conditioning, not observational learning. d. associating certain tastes with illness. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 261 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning.

119) Which of the following is NOT one of the processes Albert Bandura identified as supporting observational learning? a. memory b. attention c. motivation d. stress Correct: For observational learning to occur, several processes are required: attention, memory, the ability to reproduce the behaviour, and the motivation to do so. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 261 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning.

120) According to your textbook, which of the following is true about animals teaching other members of their species? a. Researchers have observed members of several different species transmitting new behaviours to others through imitation. b. Humans are the only species known to transmit information through demonstration and imitation. c. Several animals can imitate behaviours demonstrated by humans, but they cannot learn new behaviours from members of their own species. d. Only primates are capable of imitation, hence the phrase "monkey see, monkey do." Correct: Several examples given in the textbook support the idea that animals can teach new behaviours to others of their species. For example, mother killer whales appear to show their offspring how to beach themselves, a behaviour that is needed to feed on seals that congregate along the shoreline.

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Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 261, 262 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning.

121) Which of the following is true concerning Bandura's classic “Bobo" doll study? a. Exposure to aggressive models led to increased aggression in children. b. Exposure to aggressive models did not influence levels of aggression in children. c. Exposure to aggressive models led to decreased levels of aggression in children. d. Exposure to nonaggressive models led to increased levels of aggression in children. Correct: In Bandura's classic study, groups of children watched an adult attack a "Bobo" doll, while another group of children watched adults who did not attack the doll. Children who watched adults attack the doll did likewise when given the opportunity, in some cases even imitating the specific attack methods used by the adults. The other children did not attack the doll. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 263–265 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the claim that viewing violent media increases violent behaviour.

122) Bandura conducted a classic study known as the "Bobo" doll study. The term Bobo refers to a. Bandura's pet name for the dog used in the study. b. Bandura's loyal but strange assistant that carried out the study. c. Bandura's nickname that his wife had given him. d. the type of inflatable doll that was used in the study. Correct: In Bandura's classic study, groups of children watched an adult attack a "Bobo" doll, while another group of children watched adults who did not attack the doll.

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Children who watched adults attack the doll did likewise when given the opportunity, in some cases even imitating the specific attack methods used by the adults. The other children did not attack the doll. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 263–265 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the claim that viewing violent media increases violent behaviour.

123) Which of the following is true about the relationship between media violence and aggression? a. Watching media violence definitely causes children to become more aggressive. b. Watching media violence is positively correlated with aggression, but it is difficult to establish a cause-and-effect relationship. c. Media violence and aggression are unrelated. d. Having an aggressive temperament actually causes children to watch more violent media. Correct: Decades of research indicate that a positive correlation exists between exposure to violent media and aggressive behaviour in individuals, and that this correlation is stronger than those between aggression and peer influence, abusive parenting, or intelligence. However, the nature of this research makes it difficult to understand the cause-and-effect relationship between these two variables. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 266 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the claim that viewing violent media increases violent behaviour.

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1) An unconditioned stimulus is an event or a thing that elicits a response automatically or reflexively. a. True b. False Correct: An unconditioned stimulus (US) is a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response without learning. Answer: a Page Reference: 227 2) Extinction is the result of forgetting. a. True b. False Correct: The fact that responses can be spontaneously recovered suggests that extinction does not result in "forgetting." Instead, extinction appears to be the result of new learning. Answer: b Page Reference: 231 3) Shaleigh developed a conditioned taste aversion to spearmint gum by chewing it when she had the stomach flu. Later she realized that the experience also gave her a taste aversion to peppermint gum. This is an example of discrimination. a. True b. False Correct: This is an example of generalization, not discrimination. + Answer: b Page Reference: 231–232 4) All forms of classical conditioning require multiple pairings of stimuli. a. True b. False Correct: Unlike most forms of classical conditioning, conditioned taste aversions can be learned in a single CS-US pairing. Answer: b Page Reference: 235

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5) Operant conditioning occurs when a stimulus that resembles the conditioned stimulus elicits the conditioned response. a. True b. False Correct: This is a description of generalization. Conditioned stimuli and conditioned responses are elements of classical conditioning, not operant conditioning. Answer: b Page Reference: 227–228, 231 6) A key difference between operant and classical conditioning is that in classical conditioning a response is not required for a reward (or unconditioned stimulus) to be presented. a. True b. False Correct: Unlike in operant conditioning, where the reward or punishment is a consequence of the organism's behaviour, in classical conditioning, the organism does not control the presentation of stimuli. Answer: a Page Reference: 244 7) Having a gold star placed on one's spelling quiz would be a secondary reinforcer. a. True b. False Correct: Secondary reinforcers consist of reinforcing stimuli that acquire their value through learning. Answer: a Page Reference: 247–248 8) In order for latent learning to occur, there must be reinforcement. a. True b. False Correct: Latent learning is learning that occurs without reinforcement, but is not expressed by a response until the organism is reinforced for doing so. Answer: b Page Reference: 259

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9) The process of observational learning would explain how 3-year-old Ryan knows how to lather up his own face after watching his dad shave earlier that day. a. True b. False Correct: Observational learning involves changes in behaviour and knowledge that result from watching others. Ryan's behaviour is an example of imitation, one of the primary mechanisms that allows observational learning to take place. Answer: a Page Reference: 260–263

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

1) In the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, incoming information must make a brief stop in the sensory stores, the gateway to memory. a. True b. False Correct: According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, information enters the sensory memory store through vision, hearing, and other senses, and the control process we call attention selects which information it will pass on to short-term memory. Answer: a Page Reference: 271–273 2) The tendency for recall of the items in the middle of the list to surpass recall of the first and last items on a list is called the serial position effect. a. True b. False Correct: According to the serial position effect, people tend to remember the first few and last few items in a list, not those in the middle. Answer: b Page Reference: 276 3) George Miller's estimate of the capacity of short-term memory is the "magical 2 to 20 range." a. True b. False Correct: Miller's estimate of the capacity of short-term memory is +/– 2. Answer: b Page Reference: 273 4) Declarative memories are the type of long-term memories that you are aware of. a. True b. False Correct: Declarative memories are memories that we are consciously aware of and can be verbalized, including facts about the world and one's own personal experiences. In contrast, nondeclarative memories do not require awareness. Answer: a Page Reference: 280

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5) Long-term potentiation may represent the first stages of memory. a. True b. False Correct: At the neural level, memory formation is thought to begin with long-term potentiation. Answer: a Page Reference: 282 6) Elaborative rehearsal is defined as the rote repetition of material in order to prolong exposure. a. True b. False Correct: This describes maintenance rehearsal, not elaborative rehearsal. Answer: b Page Reference: 289 7) Flashbulb memories, unlike other memories, are accurate records of the past. a. True b. False Correct: Flashbulb memories are not any more accurate than other memories and they fade over time. Answer: b Page Reference: 295 8) An effective way to conceptualize memory is to think of it as a movie camera that records each moment of a person's life. a. True b. False Correct: Research shows that instead of remembering a bunch of accurate details (which would be very time consuming), we remember events using constructive memory, a process by which we first recall a generalized schema and then add in specific details. Therefore, memories are not always a precise record of an event. Answer: b Page Reference: 303

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9) In general, psychologists agree that the inability to remember experiences during the first years of life is due to the defence mechanism of repression. a. True b. False Correct: Infantile amnesia is probably due to immaturity of certain brain regions involved in memory. Answer: b Page Reference: 304 10) False memories are especially likely to occur if you have thought about the imagined event many times. a. True b. False Correct: Imagination inflation refers to the increased confidence in a false memory of an event following repeated imagination of the event. Answer: a Page Reference: 308

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1) According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, human memory consists of ____________ memory stores. a. two b. three c. seven plus or minus two d. a potentially infinite number of Correct: According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, human memory includes three memory stores: sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 271–272 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

2) The Atkinson-Shiffrin model of memory consists of ____________, which retain information in memory without using it for any specific purpose, and ____________, which shift information from one type of memory to another. a. central executives; episodic buffers b. episodic buffers; central executives c. stores; control processes d. control processes; stores Correct: According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, human memory includes three memory stores: sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory. Stores retain information in memory without using it for any specific purpose. In addition, control processes shift information from one memory store to another. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 271 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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3) Carlos finds a friend on Facebook whom he has not talked to in years. As they reminisce about things that happened 10 years ago, the information from old memories is transferred from Carlos' long-term memory into his short-term memory. This process is known as a. storage. b. retrieval. c. recovering memories d. encoding Correct: Retrieval brings information from LTM back into STM; this happens when you become aware of existing memories. In contrast, recovered memories refer to memories of a traumatic event that are suddenly recovered after blocking the memory of that event for a long period of time, which is not what Carlos is experiencing. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 271 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

4) Using the terminology of computer science, _____________ is the input process to long-term memory and ____________ is the output. a. encoding; storage b. encoding; retrieval c. storage; retrieval d. chunking; storage Correct: Encoding is the process of storing information in the LTM system. Retrieval brings information from LTM back into STM. These processes are analogous to the inputting and outputting of information for a computer's memory. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 271 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

5) Which memory system provides us with a very brief image of all the stimuli present at a particular moment? a. long-term memory b. sensory memory c. primary memory d. short-term memory Correct: Sensory memory is a memory store that accurately holds perceptual information for a very brief amount of time. For example, when we see something, that visual information is held for about one-half second in sensory memory. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 271 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

6) Visual images remain in sensory memory for about a. one-half to one second. b. two to three seconds. c. thirty seconds. d. one minute. Correct: Sensory memory holds iconic memory, the visual form of sensory memory, for about one-half to one second. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 271 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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7) Echoic memory is to hearing as ______________ memory is to vision. a. sensory b. long-term c. short-term d. iconic Correct: Iconic and echoic memories are both types of sensory memories. Echoic memory is the auditory form of sensory memory and iconic is the visual form. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 271 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

8) Auditory images remain in the sensory register for about a. one-half second. b. five seconds. c. thirty seconds. d. one minute. Correct: Echoic memory, the auditory form of sensory memory, is held for about five seconds. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 271 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

9) Why is studying sensory memory so difficult? a. Sensory memory has no effect on the way individuals perceive the world. b. Sensory memory cannot be distinguished from long-term memory. c. Sensory memory is not very accurate. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. Sensory memory disappears faster than an individual can report everything that it can hold. Correct: Very precise measurements are needed to identify sensory memory, because it disappears faster than an individual can report everything that it can hold. Despite its short duration, this highly accurate form of memory has an important effect on how we perceive the world. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 271 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

10) Conrad is a participant in a memory experiment. He is shown a grid of letters for a fraction of a second, and then quickly asked to report the letters he saw in the top, middle, or bottom row. The researchers conducting this experiment are most likely measuring Conrad's _____________ memory. a. short-term b. long-term c. sensory d. echoic Correct: This experiment is similar experiments conducted by George Sperling to investigate sensory memory. Echoic memory is the auditory form of sensory memory, not the visual. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 271 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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11) In the partial report method of Sperling's study of sensory memory, the participants were to report a. one of three lines of letters as indicated by the sound of a tone immediately presented after the letters had disappeared. b. only one or two of the letters in the cued line. c. the first letter of each line only. d. the middle letter of each line. Correct: In the partial report condition devised by Sperling, researchers flash a set of letters on the screen, but the display is followed immediately by a tone that is randomly chosen to be low, medium, or high. After hearing the tone, participants are to report the corresponding line—bottom, middle, or top. Under these conditions, participants still report only three or four of the letters, but they can report them from any randomly selected line. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 271 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

12) Using the partial report method, Sperling found the capacity of iconic memory could hold a. about four or five letters. b. about nine or ten letters. c. all the letters present. d. about one to two letters. Correct: Using the partial report method, participants were only asked to report only three or four of the letters they had seen, but they could report them from any randomly selected line. Thus Sperling argued that iconic memory had to hold all 12 letters as a mental image. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 271 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

13) Without sensory memory, which of the following would be likely? a. Moving objects would appear to be a series of isolated still images. b. We would have trouble remembering the smell of our grandmother's old house. c. We could not be conditioned to fear a tone. d. We could not perform mental arithmetic. Correct: If not for iconic sensory memory, our visual experience would probably be similar to that of looking around a room with a strobe light flashing—everything would appear to be a series of isolated and still images. Instead, iconic sensory memory holds images long enough to provide smooth, continuous perceptions. Sensory memory lasts for too short a duration to play a prominent role in the other listed abilities. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 272 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

14) Alice was distracted when her friend asked her a question. She started to ask her friend to repeat the question, when she suddenly realized what her friend had been asking her. This is likely because the question was still stored in her a. working memory. b. short-term memory. c. long-term memory. d. sensory memory. Correct: Sensory memory is a memory store that accurately holds perceptual information for a very brief amount of time. The fact that auditory information is briefly held in sensory memory allows us to access information for a few seconds after we hear it. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 271 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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15) What system of memory has the longest duration? a. iconic memory b. long-term memory c. sensory memory d. short-term memory Correct: Long-term memory is a memory store that holds information for extended periods of time, if not permanently. In contrast, short-term memory generally lasts for less than 1 minute, and sensory memories (including iconic sensory memory) last only seconds. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 274–275 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

16) Steve just joined a fraternity. He was introduced to 55 new "brothers." If asked to recall all of their names, which ones would he be most likely to struggle with? a. the names of brothers in the middle of the group b. the names of brothers at the beginning of the group c. the names of brothers at the end of the group d. any names that were strange or peculiar Correct: According to the serial position effect, in general, most people will recall the first few items from a list and the last few items, but only an item or two from the middle. This finding holds true for many types of information, ranging from simple strings of letters to the ads you might recall after watching the Super Bowl. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 276–277 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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17) According to the serial-position effect, if you are shown a list of items and then asked to immediately recall them a. you will most easily recall items from the beginning and the middle of the list. b. you will most easily recall items from the beginning and the end of the list. c. you will most easily recall items from the middle and the end of the list. d. retention of any particular item is based on emotional valence, not its position in the list. Correct: According to the serial position effect, in general, most people will recall the first few items from a list and the last few items, but only an item or two from the middle. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 276 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

18) Margeaux is introduced to the following people when she arrives at the party: Derek, Kayla, Calvin, Debbie, Rose, Melanie, Garrett, Tom, Francis, Jane, and Vincent. According to the serial-position effect, it will be most DIFFICULT to remember the names of a. Derek, Kayla, Jane, and Vincent. b. Tom, Francis, Jane, and Vincent. c. Derek, Kayla, Melanie, and Garrett. d. Debbie, Rose, Melanie, and Garrett. Correct: According to the serial position effect, in general, most people will recall the first few items from a list and the last few items, but only an item or two from the middle. This finding holds true for many types of information, ranging from simple strings of letters to the ads you might recall after watching the Super Bowl. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 276 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

19) The tendency to recall items at the beginning of a list is known as the ___________ effect, and the tendency to recall of items at the end of a list is known as the ___________ effect. a. recency; primacy b. primacy; recency c. serial-position; primacy d. serial-position; recency Correct: According to the serial position effect, in general, most people will recall the first few items from a list (the primacy effect) and the last few items (the recency effect), but only an item or two from the middle. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 276 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

20) Adrianna is trying to memorize the names of the bones in the hand. She had gone through a list of them when her phone rang. After she gets off the phone, she is MOST likely to remember the first few bone names because of the a. elaboration effect. b. recency effect. c. primacy effect. d. maintenance effect. Correct: The first few items of a long list are remembered relatively easily. This is known as the primacy effect. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 276 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

21) According to the primacy effect, if your father read you a list of 10 items to pick up at the hardware store you would most easily recall those items a. from early in the list. b. in the middle of the list. c. from the end of the list. d. that are most distinctive. Correct: The first few items of a long list are remembered relatively easily. This is known as the primacy effect. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 276 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

22) Proactive interference as used in the study of memory refers to when a. older information already in memory interferes with the retrieval of newer information. b. newer information interferes with the retrieval of older information. c. information is not attended to and fails to be encoded. d. information that is not accessed decays from the storage system over time. Correct: Proactive interference occurs when the first information learned interferes with the learning of newer information. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 276 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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23) _______________ is defined as forgetting that occurs when previously stored material interferes with the ability to remember similar, more recently stored material. a. Recency effect b. Proactive interference c. Decay d. Retroactive interference Correct: Proactive interference occurs when the first information learned interferes with the learning of newer information. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 276 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

24) Retroactive interference as used in the study of memory refers to when a. older information already in memory interferes with the retrieval of newer information. b. newer information interferes with the retrieval of older information. c. information is not attended to and fails to be encoded. d. information that is not accessed decays from the storage system over time. Correct: Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned information overshadows some older memories. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 276 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

25) __________ occurs when recently learned material interferes with the ability to remember older information. a. Replacement

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b. Retroactive interference c. The primacy effect d. Proactive interference Correct: Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned information overshadows some older memories. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 276 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

26) All night, Pedro has been staring at Samantha from across the dance floor. At the end of the night, he finally gets the courage to ask her for her telephone number. His mental repetition of the number on the drive home is one example of a. chunking. b. the power of suggestion. c. rehearsal. d. transference of memory. Correct: Rehearsal is the repeating of information until you do not need to remember it anymore. In this example, Pedro is using rehearsal to keep the phone number in his short-term memory until he has an opportunity to write it down. Rehearsal can also sometimes help memories transfer to long-term memory. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 278 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

27) After you finish reading this sentence, the information will remain in your ________ as you consider each of the answers below. a. long-term memory

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b. photographic memory c. sensory memory d. working memory Correct: Working memory is a model of short-term remembering that includes a combination of memory components that can temporarily store small amounts of information for a short period of time while you use or work with it. Sensory memory only lasts for a few seconds; therefore, sensory memory is too short to be useful while trying to solve a multiple choice problem. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 278 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

28) Sarah is doing an arithmetic problem, and this component of her memory contains the numbers and the instructions for doing the necessary operations for each step as she goes through the problem. a. serial-position memory b. tool-box memory c. working memory d. episodic memory Correct: Working memory is a model of short-term remembering that includes a combination of memory components that can temporarily store small amounts of information for a short period of time while you use it or work with it. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 278 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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a. sensory memory b. working memory c. long-term memory d. procedural memory Correct: The working memory model for short-term remembering can be subdivided into three storage components—the phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad, and an episodic buffer. In addition, working memory includes one component that is not primarily used for storing information. Instead, the central executive is the control centre of working memory; it coordinates attention and the exchange of information among the three storage components. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 278–280 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

30) The _______________is a storage component of working memory that relies on rehearsal and stores information as sounds, or an auditory code. a. phonological loop b. central executive c. episodic buffer d. visuospatial sketchpad Correct: The phonological loop is a storage component of working memory that relies on rehearsal and stores information as sounds, or an auditory code. It engages some portions of the brain that specialize in speech and hearing, and it can be very active without affecting memory for visual and spatial information. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 278–279 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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31) Recent research suggests that working memory includes a(n) _______________, which acts as a storage component of working memory that combines the images and sounds from the other two components into coherent, story-like episodes. a. phonological loop b. central executive c. episodic buffer d. visuospatial sketchpad Correct: The episodic buffer is a storage component of working memory that combines the images and sounds from the other two components into coherent, story-like episodes. These episodes include the relevant information to make sense of the images and sounds. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 279–280 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

32) When an individual repeats a piece of information to herself so she doesn't forget it, which part of working memory is she making use of? a. the phonological loop b. the central executive c. the episodic buffer d. the visuospatial sketchpad Correct: The phonological loop is a storage component of working memory that relies on rehearsal and stores information as sounds, or an auditory code. It engages some portions of the brain that specialize in speech and hearing. When an individual repeats information—such as a telephone number—to herself, she is using the phonological loop. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 278–279 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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33) Gillian is assembling a bookcase. She studies one of the diagrams in the instructions and then looks for the parts she needs and begins to put them together. According to the working memory model discussed in your textbook, which part of Gillian's memory remembers what the parts in the diagram looked like while she works? a. the phonological loop b. the central executive c. the episodic buffer d. the visuospatial sketchpad Correct: The visuospatial sketchpad is a storage component of working memory that maintains visual images and spatial layouts in a visuospatial code. In this example, the visuospatial sketchpad stores the image of the diagram, so Gillian can compare it to the parts she is actually looking at. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 279 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

34) Which part of working memory does not actually store information, but instead guides attention and ensures that the other components are working on the appropriate task? a. the phonological loop b. the central executive c. the episodic buffer d. the visuospatial sketchpad Correct: The central executive is the control centre of working memory; it coordinates attention and the exchange of information among the three storage components. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 279–280 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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35) The magical number of short-term memory is a. fifteen plus or minus two. b. nine plus or minus two. c. seven plus or minus three. d. seven plus or minus two. Correct: Miller famously described the capacity of STM as 7 +/– 2. This is referred to as the "magic number." Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 273 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

36) When asked to recall single-digit numbers presented in various digit span sizes, the typical adult would probably start to encounter difficulty once they got past ________ digits. a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 Correct: The average capacity of short-term memory is generally thought to be around 7 items. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 273 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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37) The system of memory that can hold approximately 7 “chunks” of information is called a. long-term memory. b. permastore memory. c. sensory memory. d. short-term memory. Correct: The average capacity of short-term memory is general thought to be around 7 items. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 273 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

38) One way to store more information in short-term memory is called ____________, which involves organizing smaller units of information into larger, more meaningful units. a. rehearsal b. consolidation c. chunking d. dual coding Correct: Because the average capacity of short-term memory is 7 "units" of items, one way to store more information is to rearrange smaller units into larger "chunks" of information, a process known as chunking. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 273 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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39) If one wants to increase the capacity of short-term memory, more items can be held through the process of a. chunking. b. decoding. c. rote rehearsal. d. data compression. Correct: Because the average capacity of short-term memory is 7 "units" of items, one way to store more information is to rearrange smaller units into larger "chunks" of information, a process known as chunking. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 273 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

40) Chunking is a means of a. immediately forgetting irrelevant details. b. combining information into meaningful units. c. arranging details into a hierarchy from most to least important. d. storing long-term memories. Correct: Because the average capacity of short-term memory is 7 "units" of items, one way to store more information is to rearrange smaller units into larger "chunks" of information, a process known as chunking. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 273 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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41) Loni is asked to memorize the letters I K T E A L N in no particular order. She memorizes them by reorganizing them into the words INK and LATE. This tactic is called a. cueing. b. shadowing. c. rote rehearsal. d. chunking. Correct: Because the average capacity of short-term memory is 7 "units" of items, one way to store more information is to rearrange smaller units into larger "chunks" of information, a process known as chunking. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 273 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

42) Maria finds that it is easier to remember her student ID number if she thinks of it in segments, such as the first three digits, then the next two, and then the final four. Each of these short segments of the number are called a. codes. b. cues. c. chunks. d. stores. Correct: Because the average capacity of short-term memory is 7 "units" of items, one way to store more information is to rearrange smaller units into larger "chunks" of information, a process known as chunking. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 273 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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43) Most people cannot store the following list of letters in short-term memory. GOTOYOURBEDROOM However, if the letters are grouped meaningfully into words, they fit short-term's memory span: Go to your bedroom. This illustrates a. chunking. b. backward masking. c. verbal coding. d. selective attention. Correct: Because the average capacity of short-term memory is 7 "units" of items, one way to store more information is to rearrange smaller units into larger "chunks" of information, a process known as chunking. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 273 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

44) Telo convinces a woman he finds attractive to give him her telephone number. Unfortunately, the number is ten digits long with the area code, and Telo cannot find a place to write it down. As he looks for a pen and paper, what can Telo do to help him remember the number? a. Nothing will help because 10 digits is beyond short-term memory capability. b. Thinking of something else will help Telo. c. "Chunking" the numbers into fewer units will help Telo. d. Using his sensory memory will help Telo Correct: Because the average capacity of short-term memory is 7 "units" of items, one way to store more information is to rearrange smaller units into larger "chunks" of information, a process known as chunking. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 273 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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45) Which fact does NOT support the idea that the amount of information that can be stored in short-term memory (STM) is determined by the number of chunks? a. Organizing digits into larger numbers allows people to remember more digits at one time. b. There is a limit to the number of units of information that can be stored in STM at one time. c. Chunking can increase the amount of information people can place in STM. d. Individuals can remember more words from a list of single-syllable words than they can from a list of four- or five-syllable words. Correct: People remember more one-syllable words (sum , pay , bar, etc.) than four- or five-syllable words (helicopter, university, alligator, etc.) in a short-term task. This is known as the word-length effect. This conflicts with the idea that the capacity of STM is determined by the number of "chunks" of information because, although both "bar" and "alligator" are single chunks, you remember more chunks if they are single syllables. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 273–274 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

46) If research participants are not allowed to rehearse the information, about how long can they keep a meaningless trigram in phonological memory? a. 2 seconds b. 15 seconds c. 1 minute d. 20 minutes Correct: With this particular kind of stimulus and interference to prevent rehearsal, the forgetting takes place within 15 to 18 seconds. Thus the duration of the phonological memory is believed to be approximately 15 seconds. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 279 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

47) In the Brown-Peterson test, subjects read a trigram (an unpronounceable series of three letters), and are then asked to count backwards by threes from a given number. What is the purpose of having the subjects count backward? a. To test if the subject can multitask. b. To test if they can remember how to subtract. c. To interfere with the subject's ability to rehearse the trigram. d. To determine if numerical and phonetic memories are stored in different areas of the brain. Correct: In the Brown-Peterson test, subjects are asked to count backwards from a given number so that they cannot repeat the trigram they are trying to remember to themselves. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 288 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

48) Similar to chunking, the visuospatial process of combining visual features into a single unit is called a. feature binding. b. visual buffering. c. voxel smoothing. d. sketchpadding. Correct: Visuospatial working memory may use a form of chunking. This process of combining visual features into a single unit goes by a different name, however: feature binding. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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49) Visuospatial memory can accurately retain approximately ________ whole objects. a. four b. seven c. ten d. fifteen Correct: Unlike non-visual information like words and numbers, visuospatial memory can only accurately retain approximately four whole objects. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 279 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

50) The provincial psychology association has invited teams from all the universities in the province to compete in a Psych Bowl. The teams will answer questions such as “Who founded the first psychology laboratory?” Where is this information stored? a. long-term memory b. short-term memory c. conceptual memory d. primary memory Correct: Memories lasting more than about one minute without rehearsal are stored in long-term memory. This is an example of a semantic long-term memory. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 280–281 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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51) Memories that we are consciously aware of and can verbalize, including facts about the world and one's own personal experiences, are called ______________ memories. a. phonological b. procedural c. nondeclarative d. declarative Correct: This is the definition of declarative memories. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 280–281 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

52) Which two types of memories are both considered to be types of declarative memory? a. semantic and episodic b. semantic and procedural c. episodic and conditioning d. procedural and conditioning Correct: Declarative memory comes in two varieties: episodic and semantic. In contrast, procedural and some types of conditioning are nondeclarative memories. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 280–281 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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53) ___________ memories could be called "knowing that" memories, while ____________ memories could be called "knowing how" memories. a. Procedural; declarative b. Nondeclarative; procedural c. Declarative; nondeclarative d. Nondeclarative; declarative Correct: Declarative memories are memories that include facts about the world and one's own personal experiences. Nondeclarative memories include actions or behaviours that you can remember and perform without awareness. Some have referred to this distinction as the difference between knowing that something is true (declarative) and knowing how to do something (nondeclarative). Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 280–282 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

54) ____________ memories include actions or behaviours that can be remembered and performed without awareness. a. Declarative b. Nondeclarative c. Semantic d. Episodic Correct: This is the definition of nondeclarative memories. Both episodic and semantic memories are types of declarative memories. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 280 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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55) After Tanya has practised a dance for her ballet class for a while, she feels as if her muscles know exactly what to do at each point in the piece. This is an example of a _____________ memory. a. episodic b. semantic c. declarative d. nondeclarative Correct: This is an example of a procedural memory, which consists of patterns of learned muscle movements. Procedural memories are one type of nondeclarative memory. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 281 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

56) Because classical conditioning can occur without a person's knowledge, it can be considered one type of ____________ memory. a. procedural b. semantic c. declarative d. nondeclarative Correct: Some types of classical conditioning are considered nondeclarative memories, which include actions or behaviours that you can remember and perform without awareness. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 281 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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57) Which of the following would be a nondeclarative memory? a. your father's first name b. how to pitch a curveball c. the time you broke your leg d. how it felt to break up with a boyfriend of girlfriend for the first time Correct: Nondeclarative memories include actions or behaviours that you can remember and perform without awareness. Learning to pitch a curveball in baseball requires developing a nondeclarative, procedural memory for the required pattern of muscle movements. A pitcher does not necessarily need to consciously know or understand this precise pattern in order to perform the action. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 281 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

58) The terms "muscle memory" and "motor memory" are synonymous with which type of memory? a. procedural memory b. episodic memory c. classically conditioned memory d. sensory memory Correct: Procedural memories are memories for patterns of muscle movements such as how to walk, play piano, or shift gears while driving. People often refer to these as muscle or motor memories. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 281 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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59) Which type of memory is concerned with remembering the day your parents bought you a car? a. nondeclarative memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. procedural memory Correct: Episodic memories are declarative memories for personal experiences that seem to be organized around "episodes" and are recalled from a first-person ("I" or "my") perspective. The memory of an event like the day your parents bought you a car would be an episodic memory. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 280 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

60) Steve was recalling his first day in college, including walking into the wrong class, dropping his books as he left, and the long line at the registrar's office he encountered when he had to switch classes. These memories are examples of a. semantic memory. b. nondeclarative memory. c. procedural memory. d. episodic memory. Correct: Episodic memories are declarative memories for personal experiences that seem to be organized around "episodes" and are recalled from a first-person ("I" or "my") perspective. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 280 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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61) Your memories of personal information such as what you wore to work yesterday or what you ate for breakfast this morning are stored in a. procedural memory. b. semantic memory. c. episodic memory. d. nondeclarative memory. Correct: Episodic memories autobiographical memories for personal experiences. Because what you ate or wore yesterday are autobiographical and likely to be associated with specific events, they would most likely be episodic memories. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 280 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

62) Which of the following is an example of episodic memory? a. words b. concepts c. symbols d. events Correct: Episodic memories are declarative memories for personal experiences that seem to be organized around "episodes" or events. In contrast, memories for words, concepts, and symbols would be semantic memories. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 280 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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63) Memories of personally experienced events and the contexts in which they occurred are called a. procedural memories. b. semantic memories. c. short-term memories. d. episodic memories. Correct: Episodic memories are a type of long-term memories for personal experiences that seem to be organized around "episodes" or events. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 280 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

64) Jesse still has very vivid memories of his first romantic kiss. This example illustrates a specific form of __________ memory known as a(n) ___________ memory. a. declarative; episodic b. nondeclarative; episodic c. declarative; semantic d. nondeclarative; semantic Correct: Episodic memories are a type of declarative memory for personal experiences that seem to be organized around "episodes" or events. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 280 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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65) Our memories of general knowledge items such as the meanings of words or the dates of famous historical events are stored in a. procedural memory. b. semantic memory. c. episodic memory. d. nondeclarative memory. Correct: Semantic memories are declarative memories that include facts about the world. They can be thought of as the non-fiction reference books of your long-term memory. In contrast, episodic memories are declarative memories for personal experiences that recalled from a first-person perspective. Because the meaning of words and historical dates are factual, not autobiographical, they are semantic, not episodic memories. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 280–281 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

66) On a TV game show, Jeannette is asked to name the provincial capital of Manitoba. This information is most likely stored in a. procedural memory. b. semantic memory. c. episodic memory. d. nondeclarative memory. Correct: Semantic memories are declarative memories that include facts about the world. They can be thought of as the non-fiction reference books of your long-term memory. In contrast, episodic memories are declarative memories for personal experiences that recalled from a first-person perspective. Because the memories for provincialcapital names are factual, not autobiographical, they are semantic, not episodic memories. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 280–281 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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67) The type of memory that is most like an encyclopedia or a dictionary is a. emotional memory. b. episodic memory. c. procedural memory. d. semantic memory. Correct: Semantic memories are declarative memories that include facts about the world. They can be thought of as the non-fiction reference books of your long-term memory. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 280–281 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

68) Which of the following would be among Patty's semantic memories? a. remembering shopping for her wedding gown with her future mother-in-law b. the memory of her four siblings dancing at the reception c. recalling when her husband proposed d. knowing that it is appropriate to stand when the bride walks down the aisle Correct: Semantic memories are declarative memories that include facts about the world. They can be thought of as the non-fiction reference books of your long-term memory. In contrast, episodic memories are declarative memories for personal experiences that are recalled from a first-person perspective. All of the memories listed are of personal episodes, except for remembering that it is appropriate to stand when the bride walks down the aisle, which is a semantic (factual) memory. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 280–281 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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69) A long-lasting increase in connectivity and transmission between two neurons is called a. consolidation b. long-term potentiation. c. cross-cortical storage. d. chunking. Correct: Long-term potentiation (LTP) means that there is an enduring increase in connectivity and transmission of neural signals between nerve cells that fire together. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 282 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form.

70) A researcher identifies a neuron in the brain that sends signals to a second neuron. After stimulating the neurons, the researcher finds that the signal being sent between the neurons is stronger than before. Which phenomenon can explain this result? a. consolidation b. cross-cortical storage c. long-term potentiation d. interference Correct: Long-term potentiation (LTP) means that there is an enduring increase in connectivity and transmission of neural signals between nerve cells that fire together. LTP was first discovered to occur when researchers stimulated specific pathways in part of a rabbit's brain and recorded activity in the hippocampus. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 282 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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71) _______________ may represent the first stages of memory. a. COD b. LTP c. ERE d. SMM Correct: Long-term potentiation (LTP) means that there is an enduring increase in connectivity and transmission of neural signals between nerve cells that fire together. LTP may represent the first stages of memory. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 282 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form.

72) ______________is the process of converting short-term memories into long-term memories in the brain. a. Retrieval b. Consolidation c. Lesioning d. Chunking Correct: This is the definition of consolidation given in the textbook. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 283 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form.

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73) Penny recalled the vocabulary definitions they learned in Introductory Spanish immediately after class, but when she was given a pop quiz a couple of days later, she couldn't remember many of the words. Which of the following is the most likely biological explanation for this? a. Hippocampal damage impaired her nondeclarative memory. b. LTP occurred. c. Her brain failed to consolidate the information. d. She developed a brain lesion between after the first class, which caused anterograde amnesia. Correct: Lasting memories require consolidation, the process of converting short-term memories into long-term memories in the brain. In this example, a failure to consolidate the vocabulary information would cause it to eventually fade away over the two-day period. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 283 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form.

74) The area of the brain critically involved in the formation of long-term declarative memories is a. the amygdala. b. the hippocampus. c. Wernicke's area. d. the thalamus. Correct: Long-term memory storage of declarative memories requires a critical phase of consolidation that takes place in the hippocampus. Although the hippocampus is not where most declarative memories are actually stored, it is still key to the consolidation process. Without a functioning hippocampus, it becomes very difficult to form new longterm memories. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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75) Which of the following is true about the hippocampus? a. Long-term memories are permanently stored in the hippocampus. b. The hippocampus is only involved in the creation of nondeclarative memories. c. Memories appear to require the hippocampus until they can be consolidated in the cortex. d. Damage to the hippocampus is most likely to affect long-term memories after they have undergone consolidation. Correct: Although the hippocampus is not where most declarative memories are actually stored, it is still key to the consolidation process. For this process to occur, the hippocampus maintains the memory trace until more permanent connections can form throughout the cortex. Once the memory traces are formed in the cortex, the memory is distributed in an entire network of cells. At this point, if an individual experiences damage to the hippocampus, the person would be less likely to lose long-term memories that have been consolidated. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 283–284 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form.

76) Even after long-term memories have been consolidated, they may still be updated or changed through a process known as a. synching. b. long-term potentiation. c. cellular rewriting. d. reconsolidation.

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Correct: When memories are recalled, they can undergo a process called reconsolidation, in which the hippocampus functions to update, strengthen, or modify existing long-term memories. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 285 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form.

77) The character of Dori from the movie Finding Nemo keeps complaining that she has short-term memory loss because she can't remember the name of the friend she met a few minutes earlier. What is a more likely explanation for her memory failure? a. anterograde amnesia b. retrograde amnesia c. amygdala damage d. blocking Correct: Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories for events occurring after a brain injury. It is primarily associated with damage to the hippocampus and surrounding region, not the amygdala. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 283–285 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

78) Who is most likely suffering from retrograde amnesia? a. Billy, who can't seem to learn a foreign language. b. Margie, who can't remember much of anything prior to being attacked on the street after a late-night party. c. Cecil, who cannot remember long telephone numbers without writing them down right away. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. Mariana, who struggles to remember the names of the people she just met. Correct: Retrograde amnesia is a condition in which memory for the events preceding trauma or injury is lost. Anterograde amnesia is the opposite effect—the inability to form new memories for events occurring after a brain injury. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 285 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

79) Following a car accident, Jane and Joan both suffer head injuries with resulting amnesia. Joan cannot remember events that occurred before the accident, while Jane cannot remember events that occurred afte the accident. Joan suffers from __________ amnesia and Jane from __________ amnesia. a. anterograde; retrograde b. retrograde; anterograde c. proactive; retroactive d. retroactive; proactive Correct: Retrograde amnesia is a condition in which memory for the events preceding trauma or injury is lost. Anterograde amnesia is the opposite effect—the inability to form new memories for events occurring after a brain injury. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 283–285 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

80) Damage to the hippocampus would most likely result in which disorder? a. anterograde amnesia b. retroactive interference c. retrograde amnesia

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d. proactive interference Correct: The hippocampus is important for the consolidation of new long-term memories, but is not where long-term memories are permanently stored. Therefore, hippocampal damage is likely to prevent the formation of long-term memories (anterograde amnesia). This is supported by the case of H.M., who suffered from anterograde amnesia following surgery that involved removing his hippocampus. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 283–284 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of the brain basis of memory to predict what types of damage or disease would result in certain types of memory loss.

81) After studying the memory difficulties of H.M. and patients like him, it became apparent that a. nondeclarative memories cannot be retained but declarative memories can be recalled normally. b. incoming sensory information bypasses the sensory memory causing severe memory deficits. c. the ability to transfer declarative information from STM into LTM is intact. d. the ability to bring information from long-term memory into working memory is intact. Correct: H.M. was a famous patient with anterograde amnesia. Research indicated that he could not consolidate new declarative long-term memories, but his ability to bring previously formed long-term memoires to mind was—generally speaking—not affected. Also left intact was H.M.'s ability to learn new nondeclarative memories. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 283–284 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of the brain basis of memory to predict what types of damage or disease would result in certain types of memory loss.

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82) The famous research subject H.M. developed a form of amnesia following surgery to treat his epilepsy. Following the surgery, H.M. a. could not recall any memories from before the surgery. b. could form no new long-term memories of any kind. c. could form nondeclarative, but generally not declarative long-term memories. d. could form episodic, but generally not procedural long-term memories. Correct: H.M. was a famous patient with anterograde amnesia. Research indicated that he could not consolidate new declarative long-term memories, but his ability to recall memories formed before this surgery was—generally speaking—not affected. Also left intact was H.M.'s ability to learn new nondeclarative memories. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 283–284 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of the brain basis of memory to predict what types of damage or disease would result in certain types of memory loss.

83) The order of the basic memory processes in which information enters the memory system and is later used is a. encoding, retrieval, and storage. b. encoding, storage, and retrieval. c. acquisition, elaboration, and storage. d. acquisition, encoding, and retrieval. Correct: Encoding is the process of transforming sensory and perceptual information into memory traces, and retrieval is the process of accessing memorized information and returning it to short-term memory. In between these two is the concept of storage, which refers to the time and manner in which information is retained between encoding and retrieval. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 288 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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84) __________ is the first process of transferring sensory and perceptual information into a memory trace. a. Acquisition b. Memorization c. Elaboration d. Encoding Correct: Encoding is the process of transforming sensory and perceptual information into memory traces. It is the first step in the process of acquiring and recalling memories. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 288 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval.

85) To aid students in their retention of information, which subsequently enables them to earn higher exam scores, memory researchers would highlight the use of a. eidetic memory. b. elaborative rehearsal. c. maintenance rehearsal. d. rote memorization. Correct: Elaborative rehearsal involves prolonged exposure to information by thinking about its meaning. In contrast, rote learning or maintenance rehearsal involves simply repeating information. Research indicates that elaborative rehearsal is much more effective than maintenance rehearsal for learning. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 289 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter.

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86) Who is most likely to obtain the top score on his or her vocabulary test? a. James, who made flash cards of all his words and is going over and over them. b. Cynthia, who has written down each word and definition five times in her notebook. c. Ryan, who has drawn a picture to illustrate each word. d. Harriet, who says the words and definitions over and over to herself all day long. Correct: Elaborative rehearsal involves prolonged exposure to information by thinking about its meaning. Research indicates that elaborative rehearsal is much more effective than simply repeating information for learning. In this example, Ryan is the only student using elaborative rehearsal. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 289 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter.

87) Which of the following correctly describes the basic levels of processing (LOP) effect? a. The longer someone is exposed to information, the more they will encode. b. Long-term memories are processed at a deeper level than short-term memories. c. Thinking deeply about information leads to better encoding than shallow thinking. d. Memories are easier to recall in the same context they were originally processed and encoded. Correct: According to the LOP model, deeply processed information is recalled much better than information that has only undergone shallow processing. The LOP effect has been demonstrated for both long-term and short-term memories. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 289 Skill: Conceptual

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Objective: Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter.

88) On the first day of class, Sheila asked her professor the best way to learn and remember the material for the course. The professor responded, ”Focus on identifying and understanding the meaning of the important terms and concepts.” The instructor is advocating a ___________ level of processing. a. shallow b. maintenance c. deep d. visual Correct: According to the levels of processing model, deeply processed information is recalled much better than information that has only undergone shallow processing. Understanding the meaning of important terms involves deep processing. In contrast, simply memorizing the definitions of terminology would involve a shallower form of processing. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 289 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information.

89) Dr. James advises that if you study for your next psychology exam in the same room where you take the exam, your score will improve. He is basing this advice on a. state-dependent learning b. the serial-position effect. c. context-dependent learning. d. familiarity schemas. Correct: Retrieval is more effective when it takes place in the physical setting (context) as encoding. This is known as context-dependent learning. Answer: c Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 290–292 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval.

90) If a researcher showed that people remember pleasant memories better when they are happy than sad, this would be one method for demonstrating the importance of a. context-dependent learning. b. priming. c. mood-dependent learning. d. trait-dependent learning. Correct: People remember better if their mood at retrieval matches their mood during encoding. This is known as mood-dependent learning. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 293 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval.

91) State-dependent learning is superior retrieval of information when the organism a. is highly motivated to perform. b. stores information while very emotional. c. is very relaxed. d. is in the same state as it was during encoding. Correct: Retrieval is more effective when internal conditions—such as heart rate and arousal (physiological state)—match those experienced during encoding. This is known as state-dependent learning. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 292–293

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval.

92) Misty and her family just got back from a vacation at Disney World, where they had a great time. Under which of the following circumstances is Misty likely to have difficulty remembering what they did? a. right after viewing a documentary about serial killers b. at a sleepover with her friends c. during a lunch break at school d. while attending the circus Correct: People remember better if their mood at retrieval matches their mood during encoding. This is known as mood-dependent learning. Conversely, recall is more difficult when an individual's mood is different during recall than it was during encoding. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 293 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval.

93) Mimi is recovering from serious back surgery and has been taking pain medication for the last several days. She has received multiple phone calls from friends and family. Later that week, off her medication, she can't seem to remember the names of anyone who called her. Which of the following provides the best explanation for her memory failure? a. context-dependent learning b. state-dependent learning c. retroactive interference d. proactive interference Correct: Retrieval is more effective when internal conditions—such as heart rate and arousal (physiological state)—match those experienced during encoding. This is known as state-dependent learning. In this example, it is likely that recall was made more difficult after Mimi stopped taking the medication, because the pain medication had created a unique physiological state.

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 292–293 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval.

94) At the beginning of history class, the teacher reviewed the major battles of the Napoleonic Wars. Later in class, he showed a video on the Holocaust during World War II. Based on the experiments on the effects of emotions on memory discussed in your textbook, what effect will watching the video have on the students' memories for the battles of the Napoleonic wars? a. The video will likely increase their recall for the battles. b. The video will likely decrease their recall for the battles. c. The video will likely have no effect on their recall for the battles because the video was on a different topic. d. The video will likely decrease their recall in the short term, but improve it in the long term. Correct: Emotions can lead to stronger memory formation, even if the information is not directly related to the emotional event. For example, in one study discussed in the textbook, participants studied a list of words and were then randomly assigned to view a tape of oral surgery (the emotional condition) or the way to brush your teeth effectively (not the emotional condition). After the slideshow, the group members who viewed the surgery tape remembered more of the words. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 294 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval.

95) Which of the following situations is most likely to create a flashbulb memory? a. watching a favourite movie for the fifteenth time b. playing tennis with a friend c. finding out that one's partner is pregnant

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d. attending a basketball game with one's father and grandfather Correct: A flashbulb memory is an extremely vivid and detailed memory about an event and the conditions surrounding how one learned about the event. They occur in response to extremely emotional events, both negative and positive. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 295 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval.

96) You are telling your friend about a trip you took to Sea World when you were a child. During the middle of the show, the trainer slipped, fell into the water, and was nearly killed. You can remember the scene as if it happened yesterday. This is an example of which type of memory? a. phantom b. semantic c. flashbulb d. procedural Correct: A flashbulb memory is an extremely vivid and detailed episodic memory about an event and the conditions surrounding how one learned about the event. Flashbulb memories occur in response to extremely emotional events. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 295 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval.

97) "You should have seen it! First the car flipped over and then it exploded! I will never forget it!" What type of memory may have just formed in this eyewitness? a. flashbulb b. implicit

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c. semantic d. procedural Correct: A flashbulb memory is an extremely vivid and detailed episodic memory about an event and the conditions surrounding how one learned about the event. They occur in response to extremely emotional events. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 295 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval.

98) Flashbulb memories a. are not subject to periodic revision. b. concern events that are highly significant. c. are almost always highly accurate. d. include a memory's main subject, but not the background events. Correct: Although flashbulb memories are very detailed and individuals reciting the details are very confident of their accuracy, they are not necessarily more accurate than any other memories. Research indicates that flashbulb memories fade and can be revised over time, just as regular memories can. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 295 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether emotional memories are more accurate than non-emotional ones.

99) Which of the following statements about flashbulb memories is true? a. Flashbulb memories tend to be about as accurate as other types of memories. b. People feel unconfident about their recall of flashbulb memories. c. A major news event automatically causes a person to store a flashbulb memory. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. Your memory of how you felt at the onset of a flashbulb memory rarely changes over time. Correct: Although flashbulb memories are very detailed and individuals reciting the details are very confident of their accuracy, they are not necessarily more accurate than any other memories. Research indicates that flashbulb memories fade and can be revised over time, just as regular memories can. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 295–296 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether emotional memories are more accurate than non-emotional ones.

100) Ebbinghaus found that information is forgotten a. more rapidly as time goes by. b. gradually at first, then with increasing speed. c. quickly at first, then tapers off gradually. d. most quickly one day after learning. Correct: Ebbinghaus created his famous "forgetting curve" based on his experiments with memorizing nonsense syllables. The curve showed that most forgetting occurs right away, and that the rate of forgetting eventually slows to the point where one does not seem to forget at all. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 296–297 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval.

101) As Dominique reviews the vocabulary terms for her French class, she is most likely to experience the greatest degree of forgetting a. immediately after learning new words. b. immediately after finishing a semester. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. immediately after taking a test. d. immediately before taking a test. Correct: As Ebbinghaus found, most forgetting occurs right after learning. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 297 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information.

102) In order to help her music students learn the lines of the treble clef in musical notation, the teacher has them learn the sentence Every Good Boy Does Fine." This is an example of a. reconstructive memory. b. a mnemonic. c. serial-position effect. d. pattern recognition. Correct: Mnemonics are techniques that are intended to improve memory for specific information. This is an example of the first-letter technique, where individuals use the first letters of a set of items to spell out words that form a sentence. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 297 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information.

103) One way to improve memory is to use techniques that allow the information to be stored in more than one form. This is known as a. binary encoding. b. elaborative rehearsal.

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c. flashbulb encoding. d. dual coding. Correct: A number of mnemonic devices are based on the premise of dual coding. Dual coding occurs when information is stored in more than one form—such as a verbal description and a visual image, or a description and a sound—and it regularly produces stronger memories than the use of one form alone. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 298 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information.

104) Jasmine needs to remember an eight-line poem for her fifth-grade English class next week. Her mother suggests that she link the first few words from each line with a different part of their home, starting with the front door. This suggestion is most similar to the memory strategy known as a. an acronym. b. the keyword method. c. the method of loci. d. the pegword method. Correct: The method of loci is a mnemonic that connects words to be remembered to locations along a familiar path. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 297–298 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information.

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105) One potential drawback to the use of mnemonic devices is that they a. can help with rote memorization; they may not improve your understanding of material. b. can lead to the formation of false memories that seem real. c. cannot be used to remember more than approximately 20 items. d. are usually only useful for remembering information for short periods of time. Correct: While mnemonics can be very useful for memorizing long lists of information, they do not necessarily improve a person's understanding of the material, and are mostly useful for rote memorization. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 299 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information.

106) Which of the following is most likely to improve performance on an exam? a. using maintenance rehearsal instead of elaborative rehearsal b. taking a practice test before hand c. avoiding "over studying" the material d. studying from small stacks of flashcards instead of one big stack. Correct: Taking practice tests can improve exam performance, even without additional studying. This is known as the testing effect. Using maintenance rehearsal, stopping studying once you feel that you know the material, and studying from small stacks of flashcards actually impair exam performance. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 299 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information.

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107) Aleixo just started his job as an advertising intern. When he arrived at the office, he was surprised that everyone was wearing jeans or other types of informal attire. The situation most likely violates Aleixo's __________ of office workers. a. chunk b. mnemonic c. primer d. schema Correct: A schema is an organized cluster of memories that constitutes one's knowledge about events, objects, and ideas. Whenever we encounter familiar events or objects, these schemas become active, and they allow us to know what to expect, what to pay attention to, and what to remember. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 302 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories.

108) A __________ is an organized cluster of memories that constitutes one's knowledge about events, objects, and ideas . a. chunk b. mnemonic c. primer d. schema Correct: This is the definition of a schema. Whenever we encounter familiar events or objects, these schemas become active, and they allow us to know what to expect, what to pay attention to, and what to remember. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 302 Skill: Factual

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Objective: Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories.

109) One reason for misremembering an event is that our __________ influence what to pay attention to, and what we expect to happen in certain situations. a. executive controllers b. schemas c. mnemonics d. demand characteristics Correct: A schema is an organized cluster of memories that constitutes one's knowledge about events, objects, and ideas. Whenever we encounter familiar events or objects, these schemas become active, and they allow us to know what to expect, what to pay attention to, and what to remember. Misremembering can occur when the actual events do not fit with the pre-existing schema for a situation. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 302–304 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories. 110) How have clinical psychologists applied the concept of schemas to the treatment of psychological problems like depression? a. Abnormal schemas can be used as a diagnostic tool to identify depression in patients. b. Patients are encouraged to develop a "therapeutic process" schema that facilitates treatment. c. Schemas can be used by therapists to recover blocked memoires, which are causing the disorder. d. Some therapists attempt to change negative self-schemas, which contribute to negative thoughts. Correct: An individual with depression is likely to have a very negative self-schema, which means that he will pay attention to things that are consistent with the depressive symptoms. Research shows that by helping them change their self-schemas, therapists can help individuals recover from even very serious bouts of depression. Answer: d Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 304 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories.

111) Which of the following best describes human memory? a. Memory is like a video camera recording an entire experience. b. Memories are reconstructed based on a combination of schemas and specific details. c. Memories for events are a jumble of unrelated details and facts, with no system of organization. d. Memories generally consist of nothing but false beliefs and misinformation. Correct: Research shows that instead of remembering a bunch of photographic details (like a video camera), we remember events using constructive memory, a process by which we first recall a generalized schema and then add in specific details. The schema provides the framework that provides an organization for the details. Although this process can sometimes lead to misremembering, it is not accurate to say that memories are generally inaccurate. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 302 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories.

112) Information that does not fit our expectations for a situation, but is not extremely unexpected, is likely to a. be forgotten. b. be added to our schema. c. be remembered. d. trigger a flashbulb memory.

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Correct: When we encounter new information, if it does not fit our schema, but is not all that unusual, it will likely be forgotten. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 302–305 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories.

113) Mariska cannot remember events that occurred in her life prior to three years of age. She is most likely experiencing a. anterograde amnesia. b. infantile amnesia. c. repression. d. traumatic amnesia. Correct: Most people don't have any personal or autobiographical memories from before their third birthday, a phenomenon called infantile amnesia. The idea that traumatic childhood events can be repressed is very controversial, and not accepted by many psychologists. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 304 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology used in discussing how memories are organized and constructed.

114) Which of the following do the textbook authors suggest might be a cause of infantile amnesia? a. hippocampal damage b. extinction c. young children lack schemas

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d. repression Correct: Cross-cultural cognitive research indicates that self-schemas begin to develop around the ages of 18 to 24 months. Without these schemas, it is difficult and maybe even impossible to organize and encode memories about the self. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 304 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories.

115) Roseanne claims that she can remember instances of childhood abuse that started at 6 months of age. Why are most psychologists likely to be skeptical of this and other such claims? a. because decay leads to almost immediate forgetting of newly learned information. b. because infantile amnesia makes it unlikely that these are true memories from that age c. because children do not tell the truth d. because repression inhibits the conscious recognition of traumatic events such as childhood sexual abuse Correct: Most people don't have any personal or autobiographical memories from before their third birthday, a phenomenon called infantile amnesia. The idea that traumatic childhood events can be repressed is very controversial, and not accepted by many psychologists. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 304 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology used in discussing how memories are organized and constructed.

116) Billy has just returned home from visiting his grandparents. His grandfather always had a jar of jelly beans on the table, and his mother asked Billy about the jar. "Sure," says Billy, "it was right there where it always was." Billy's mother knew that the jar was gone. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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The grandfather had recently been diagnosed with diabetes and had cut down on his sugar intake. Why did Billy remember seeing the jar of jelly beans? a. he probably has a damaged hippocampus b. he was using the representativeness heuristic c. he had repressed the memory of his trip d. he reconstructed his memory using new and old information Correct: Incorrect memories do not necessarily indicate a dysfunction of memory, but rather reflect normal memory processes—which are very much imperfect. Memory does not store information as accurately as a video camera would. Instead, remembering is a process of reconstructing stored information. Every time we reconstruct a memory, there is a possibility that we are getting some of the details incorrect, even those about which we are extremely confident. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 305 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories.

117) Jermaine sees a car accident and he initially estimates the offending driver to be traveling at 60 kilometres per hour. However, after hearing another witness's report of the cars ”bumping” and answering a police officer's questions about the rate of speed when the cars ”contacted” he subsequently revises his estimate to 50 kilometres per hour and his memory of the accident changes. This is an example of a. bias. b. decay. c. interference. d. the misinformation effect. Correct: The misinformation effect occurs when information occurring after an event becomes part of the memory for that event. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 306

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Skill: Applied Objective: Apply what you have learned to judge the reliability of eyewitness testimony.

118) Which of the following situations is most likely to lead to the misinformation effect? a. Professor Weiss asked his chemistry students how terrifying the explosion was. b. Jared's mother asks him about his day at school. c. The police detective asked the witness to describe what happened. d. Danny asks his girlfriend what they had for dinner last night. Correct: The misinformation effect occurs when information occurring after an event becomes part of the memory for that event. In this example, the use of the word "terrifying" is most likely to affect the way the students recall the event. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 306 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how psychologists can produce false memories in the laboratory.

119) Benjamin is a participant in a lab experiment. He is shown a list of words that include: engine, tire, trunk, drive, gasoline, and cup holder. When later asked, Benjamin says that "car" was one of the words he saw on the list, even though it was not there. This experiment is using _______________ to study memory. a. guided imagery b. a recovered memory technique c. imagination inflation d. the DRM procedure Correct: In the DRM procedure, participants study a list of highly related words called semantic associates. The word that would be the most obvious member of the list just happens to be missing. This missing word is called the critical lure. A significant proportion remember the critical lure, even though it never appeared on the list. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 308 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how psychologists can produce false memories in the laboratory.

120) The more times an individual imagines an event, the more likely he is to believe the event really happened, even if it did not. This is known as a. the DRM procedure. b. the misinformation effect. c. imagination inflation. d. self hypnosis. Correct: Imagination inflation refers to the increased confidence in a false memory of an event following repeated imagination of the event. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 307–308 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how psychologists can produce false memories in the laboratory.

121) To impress her friends, Wanda began telling them that she once met a famous celebrity, which was a lie. After years of retelling the same story, Wanda begins to believe that it really did happen to her. This is an example of a. the DRM effect. b. imagination inflation. c. anterograde amnesia. d. a recovered memory. Correct: Imagination inflation refers to the increased confidence in a false memory of an event following repeated imagination of the event. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 307–308

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Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology used in discussing how memories are organized and constructed.

122) In a study discussed in your textbook, volunteers were shown old childhood photos their parents had provided, including pictures of events like riding in a balloon. What did this study find? a. The photos triggered repressed memories from some volunteers' childhoods. b. The volunteers could not remember any of the events that occurred before they were three years old. c. After several sessions, many volunteers could recount memories for the events in the photos, even when the photos had been digitally altered to show things that never happened to them. d. The photographs that were in colour were more successful in cueing forgotten memories than the black-and-white photographs. Correct: In this study, researchers took one of the pictures and digitally cut and pasted it into a balloon ride. On three occasions the participants went through the set of pictures, the true originals plus the doctored photo. By the end of the third session, half the participants had some memory for the balloon ride event, even though it never occurred. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 308 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how psychologists can produce false memories in the laboratory.

123) Which of the following is a major problem with recovered memories? a. All psychologists agree that trauma does not cause memories to be repressed. b. Recovery of traumatic memories would have no therapeutic benefit. c. The techniques used to recover memories tend to be the same ones used by researchers to create false memories. d. No one has ever claimed to have successfully recovered a repressed memory. Correct: Some therapists try to help patients recover repressed memories, arguing that this can help them find ways to cope with the repressed trauma. Many people have reported recovering memories this way, however skeptics point out that the techniques

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

that might help "recover" a memory bear a striking resemblance to those that are used to create false memories in laboratory research. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 309 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the arguments in the "recovered memory" debate.

124) Proponents of recovered memories argue that they are memories of traumatic events that have been repressed. Opponents of recovered memories argue that they are instead a. false memories of events that never happened. b. memories of everyday events that were simply forgotten. c. memories of past lives. d. memories that were never really repressed in the first place. Correct: Many psychologists who are very skeptical that repression occurs at all and assert that any so-called recovered memory is actually a false memory. This perspective argues that the techniques that might help "recover" a memory bear a striking resemblance to those that are used to create false memories in laboratory research. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 309 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the arguments in the "recovered memory" debate.

125) The most important factor in the majority of the cases, more than 75 percent, where DNA evidence led to the overturning of a unjust conviction of an innocent person was a. false confessions. b. mistaken eyewitness identification. c. the use of jailhouse snitches. d. the use of ”junk” science.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

Correct: In the United States, more than 220 individuals convicted of crimes have been exonerated based on DNA evidence; more than 75% of the original convictions were the result of mistaken eyewitness testimony. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 307 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply what you have learned to judge the reliability of eyewitness testimony.

126) Which of the following is one way to reduce the likelihood a witness to a crime will pick an innocent person from a police photo lineup? a. Make sure the investigator asking the witness questions knows which photo is of the suspect. b. Tell the witness that the person who committed the crime is definitely one of the people in the photos. c. Show the photos one at a time, not all at once. d. Tell the witness that they have to pick someone, even if they are unsure. Correct: When an entire lineup is shown simultaneously, the witness may assume one of the people is guilty and settle on the best candidate. If the persons in the lineup are presented one at a time, witnesses are less likely to pick out an incorrect suspect because they are willing to consider the next person in the sequence. The other options would actually increase the rate of false identifications. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 307 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply what you have learned to judge the reliability of eyewitness testimony.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory 1. Which type of memory can hold information for only a few seconds? a. semantic memory b. short-term memory c. sensory memory d. long-term memory Answer: C Module 7.1 2. “About seven” is a famous estimate for: a. the number of memory stores in the human brain. b. the capacity of long-term memory. c. the number of minutes information can stay in short-term memory without rehearsal. d. the capacity of short-term memory span. Answer: D Module 7.1 3. Latasha remembers visiting Ottawa on a cloudy day when she was a child. She recalls being bored at the time, but now wishes she had paid more attention. Latasha’s memory is an example of a(n )_____ memory. a. episodic b. semantic c. sensory d. nondeclarative Answer: A Module 7.1 4. Long-term potentiation refers to the ability of neurons to a. increase their size. b. decrease their size. c. strengthen their signalling with other neurons. d. weaken their signalling with other neurons. Answer: C Module 7.1 5. Damage to the hippocampus is most likely to lead to the loss of a. long-term memories that have been consolidated. b. recent short-term memories. c. recent long-term memories that have not yet been consolidated. d. procedural memories. Answer: C Module 7.1 6. According to the LOP framework, how well we encode long-term information is most directly related to a. how often we encounter the information. b. how deeply we process the information. c. how long we are exposed to the information. d. how motivated we are to learn the information. Answer: B Module 7.2

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory 7. Which of the following statements is true about flashbulb memories? a. They are far more accurate than standard memories. b. They are typically no more accurate than standard memories. c. They last for a much shorter period than standard memories. d. They contain fewer details than standard memories. Answer: B Module 7.2 8. Early research into forgetting by Hermann Ebbinghaus found that forgetting occurs a. slowly over a long period of time. b. mostly between 12 and 24 hours after the learning event. c. slowly at first, but the rate of forgetting increases over time. d. quickly at first, but the rate of forgetting slows over time. Answer: D Module 7.2 9. What role are schemas believed to play in memory? a. Schemas store complete memories of events that can be “played back” at will. b. Schemas ensure that memories are highly accurate. c. Schemas organize information so that memories are easier to encode, store, and recall. d. Schemas act as a buffer while memories are being consolidated. Answer: C Module 7.3 10. Terri was mugged one night while she was walking home. Later that same night, a police officer called to tell her that the police had arrested a man wearing a red baseball cap who was found in the area. Although Terri’s mugger was not wearing a hat when she was mugged, she now recalls the hat when she remembers the mugging. This is an example of the: a. levels of processing effect. b. imagination inflation effect. c. DRM effect. d. misinformation effect. Answer: D Module 7.3

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

1) Memory is a. a capacity for learning. b. a system that allows people to retain information over time. c. an ability of humans only. d. unchangeable. Answer: b Page Reference: 271 2) A system that allows people to retain information over time is called a. memory. b. cognition. c. computer. d. intelligence. Answer: a Page Reference: 271 3) Memory is classically defined as a. a capacity for learning. b. the ability retain information over time. c. an ability of humans only. d. unchangeable. Answer: b Page Reference: 271 4) What is the system(s) or process(es) by which the products or results of learning are stored for future use? a. cognition b. memory c. perception d. sensation Answer: b Page Reference: 271 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

5) The step in the memory process that actually makes our memories available to us is a. retrieval. b. encoding. c. rehearsal. d. storage Answer: a Page Reference: 271 6) Encoding is a. recalling information. b. recognizing information. c. representing information. d. remembering information. Answer: c Page Reference: 271 7) The process of getting information out of memory is known as a. retention. b. retrieval. c. reconstruction. d. reliable. Answer: b Page Reference: 271 8) Sensory memory a. holds information for as long as you rehearse it. b. holds information for about 30 seconds. c. holds information for about 5 seconds. d. processes information for permanent encoding. Answer: c Page Reference: 271 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

9) Unprocessed stimulation from the environment is first held in a. short-term store. b. sensory memory. c. long-term store. d. intermediate store. Answer: b Page Reference: 271 10) How long do the contents of the sensory store normally last? a. about five seconds b. about four to twenty seconds c. about five to nine minutes d. up to a lifetime Answer: a Page Reference: 271 11) You looked up a friend's address for a letter you wrote. Suddenly the phone rings— wrong number. Even though you were interrupted for only a few seconds, you've forgotten the address. Which memory system failed you? a. permanent memory b. long-term memory c. sensory register d. short-term memory Answer: d Page Reference: 273 12) The hippocampus is instrumental in a. the formation of short-term memory. b. the retrieval of memories from long-term memory. c. maintaining a constant level of information filtration by the sensory registers. d. transferring information from short-term to long-term memory.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

Answer: d Page Reference: 293 13) The working memory is known as the _____________ memory. a. tertiary b. primary c. short-term d. long-term Answer: c Page Reference: 278 14) Many years ago, telephone numbers had only four or five digits. Even now, no more than seven digits are used for phone numbers. The most reasonable psychological explanation for this is that ________________. a. there is a direct relationship between the number of items in the sensory registers and their retention b. there is an inverse relationship between the number of items in the sensory registers and their retention c. there is a direct relationship between the number of items in short-term memory and their retention d. there is an inverse relationship between the number of items in short-term memory and their retention Answer: d Page Reference: 273 15) Information in short-term memory is retained ________. a. for about 60 seconds b. as long as it is rehearsed c. for several seconds without rehearsal d. up to several minutes Answer: b Page Reference: 272

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

16) The capacity of short term memory is _______ items. a. unlimited b. 7 +/– 2 c. 12 d. 22 Answer: b Page Reference: 273 17) What is the capacity of short-term memory? a. five, plus or minus two letters b. seven, plus or minus two chunks c. five, plus or minus two engrams d. seven, plus or minus two numbers Answer: b Page Reference: 273 18) What is the capacity of short-term memory? a. 7 bits of information b. 7 chunks of information c. 12 letters, if measured by Sperling's partial report technique d. 16 letters, if measured by Sperling's partial report technique Answer: b Page Reference: 273 19) Most normal adults have a memory span of a. fewer than 5 items. b. more than 9 items. c. more than 12 items. d. between 5 and 9 items. Answer: d Page Reference: 273

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

20) The short-term memory capacity (digit-span) in a normal adult is about a. 9 items. b. 7 or 8 items. c. 4 or 5 items. d. 14 or 15 items. Answer: b Page Reference: 273 21) The average memory span consists of _______ items. a. five b. six c. seven d. nine Answer: c Page Reference: 273 22) Information is grouped for storage in short-term memory through the process of __________. a. rote rehearsal b. cueing c. chunking d. categorizing Answer: c Page Reference: 273 23) Chunking is a means of _______________. a. immediately forgetting irrelevant details b. organizing information into meaningful units c. arranging details into a hierarchy from most important to least important d. storing long-term memories Answer: b Page Reference: 273 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

24) Most people cannot store the following list of letters in short-term memory: ITISNOTRAINING However, if the letters are grouped meaningfully into words, they fit short-term's memory span: It is not raining. This illustrates _________.a. chunking b. backward masking c. verbal coding d. selective attention Answer: a Page Reference: 273 25) Chunking aids a. understanding. b. perception. c. retention. d. encoding. Answer: c Page Reference: 273 26) Which type of memory is concerned with remembering the day your parents bought you a car? a. implicit memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. procedural memory Answer: c Page Reference: 280 27) The Canadian Psychology Group has invited teams from all the universities across Canada to compete in a Psych Bowl. The teams will answer questions such as ”Who founded the first psychology laboratory?” Where is this information stored? a. long-term memory b. short-term memory Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

c. conceptual memory d. primary memory Answer: a Page Reference: 280–281 28) The type of memory that is most like an encyclopedia or a dictionary is __________. a. emotional memory b. episodic memory c. procedural memory d. semantic memory Answer: d Page Reference: 280 29) The portion of long-term memory that stores specific information that has personal meaning is called __________ memory. a. emotional b. episodic c. semantic d. procedural Answer: b Page Reference: 280 30) Your street address, telephone number, and social insurance number are stored in a. numerical memory. b. short-term memory. c. long-term memory. d. sensory memory. Answer: c Page Reference: 280–281

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

31) Steve was recalling his first day in university, including walking into the wrong class, dropping his books as he left, and the long line at the registrar's office he encountered when he had to switch classes. These memories are examples of a. semantic memory. b. implicit memory. c. procedural memory. d. episodic memory. Answer: d Page Reference: 280 32) The hippocampus seems to be essential for __________. a. the recall of old memories b. maintaining one's balance c. the formation of new long-term memories d. proactive and retroactive inhibition Answer: c Page Reference: 283 33) An individual's semantic memory contains a. memories about events. b. background knowledge about words, symbols, concepts, and rules arranged as hierarchies of information in categories and subordinate categories. c. autobiographical information about one's previous experiences. d. memories that are recalled from an “I” or “my” perspective. Answer: b Page Reference: 280–281 34) Connie lost her keys. She searches her memory for when she last had them, and goes to that place in the hope that it will help her remember where she misplaced them. Connie is ________ activating her _________. a. unconsciously; semantic memory b. consciously; semantic memory c. unconsciously; episodic memory d. consciously; episodic memory Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

Answer: d Page Reference: 280–281 35) Your memories of personal information such as what you wore to work yesterday or what you ate for breakfast this morning are stored in _______________. a. procedural memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. eidetic memory Answer: c Page Reference: 280 36) Scott remembers all of the details of his wedding seven years ago. This information is most likely stored in _______ memory. a. iconic b. episodic c. semantic d. short-term Answer: b Page Reference: 280 37) Semantic memory is organized __________. a. in chunks b. sequentially and chronologically c. hierarchically d. chronologically Answer: c Page Reference: 280–281 38) Which of the following is an example of semantic memory? a. events b. concepts c. time Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

d. place Answer: b Page Reference: 280–281 39) Which of the following is an example of episodic memory? a. words b. concepts c. symbols d. events Answer: d Page Reference: 280 40) Which of the following is NOT an example of long-term memory? a. identifying a perfume as that worn by your grandmother 20 years ago b. repeating an address after it was told to you c. repeating a poem learned in nursery school d. remembering how to ride a bike Answer: b Page Reference: 280–282 41) The concept of a house would be stored in _______. a. the sensory registers b. short-term memory c. eidetic memory d. long-term memory Answer: d Page Reference: 280–281 42) Our memories of general knowledge items such as the meanings of words or the dates of famous historical events are stored in _______. a. procedural memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

d. eidetic memory Answer: b Page Reference: 280–281 43) When Rip Van Winkle returns to his native village, after 20 years of sleeping in the mountains, he goes immediately to the location of his former house and asks for his wife and children by name. The kind of memory that he is exhibiting is _______. a. procedural memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. eidetic memory Answer: c Page Reference: 280 44) On a TV game show, Jeannette is asked to name the provincial capital of Ontario. This information is most likely stored in ______. a. procedural memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. eidetic memory Answer: b Page Reference: 280–281 45) Tim is studying for a test. After seven consecutive hours of studying, he finds he can remember what he just finished studying, but he can no longer remember what he studied five or six hours ago. Tim's memory problems are BEST explained by __________. a. proactive interference b. retrograde amnesia c. memory diffusion d. retroactive interference Answer: d Page Reference: 276

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

46) Proactive interference of long-term memory means ___________ . a. new material interferes with memory of old material b. new material has suppressed short-term memories c. old material interferes with memory of new material d. old material has eliminated memories of new material Answer: c Page Reference: 276 47) Retroactive interference of long-term memory means __________. a. new material interferes with memory of old material b. new material has suppressed short-term memories c. old material interferes with memory of new material d. old material has eliminated memories of new material Answer: a Page Reference: 276 48) ”Old information inhibits one's ability to remember newer information” defines _________. a. interference b. retroactive inhibition c. proactive interference d. suppression Answer: c Page Reference: 276 49) What kind of forgetting does the following incident illustrate? Ruth studied the names of learning theorists for her psychology class, after which she began studying the names of political theorists for her political science class. Much to her frustration, she found the names of the learning theorists were keeping her from being able to learn the names of the political theorists. a. decay b. proactive interference c. repression d. retroactive interference Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

Answer: b Page Reference: 276 50) Kerry's grandparents moved to a new neighborhood last year. Today, Kerry can easily remember their address but messes up their old one. This illustrates a. trace decay. b. interference. c. retroactive interference. d. proactive inhibition. Answer: c Page Reference: 276 51) Little Tammy is talking to her grandfather. She loves to listen to him tell stories about when he was a child. He has very vivid recollections of his youth and enjoys telling people about his fond memories. Unfortunately, grandpa has a difficult time remembering what happened within the last few days or weeks. If there are no physiological problems, grandpa's memory problems are best explained by ______. a. proactive interference b. memory diffusion c. retroactive interference d. retrograde amnesia Answer: a Page Reference: 276 52) Your tutor has ”one last word&” for you before she ends today's session. She tells you to study material in the middle of your study session a little harder. What concept from memory research is the basis of her advice? a. serial position effect b. state-dependent learning c. transfer test d. imagery Answer: a Page Reference: 276

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

53) The theory that states that we forget information because other information gets in the way is the _______ theory. a. signal detection b. trace decay c. interference d. inhibition Answer: c Page Reference: 276 54) Retrieval cues ______. a. are important in helping us remember items stored in long-term memory b. are aids in rote rehearsal in short-term memory c. can be helpful in both long and short-term memory d. have been recently shown to be inefficient in accessing available information in memory. Answer: a Page Reference: 290 55) Memories that concern events that are highly significant and are vividly remembered are called __________. a. elaborative rehearsals b. flashbulb memories c. eidetic images d. eyewitness images Answer: b Page Reference: 295 56) Flashbulb memories _______. a. are not subject to periodic revision b. concern events that are highly significant c. are almost always highly accurate d. include a memory's main subject, but not the background events

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

Answer: b Page Reference: 295 57) Flashbulb memories ______________. a. are not subject to periodic revision b. usually concern events that are emotionally charged c. are almost always highly accurate d. usually concern events from early childhood Answer: b Page Reference: 295 58) Flashbulb memories are a. eidetic memories. b. clear and vivid memories of where one was and what one was doing when a special event occurred. c. photographic memories. d. visual images that are extremely difficult to describe. Answer: b Page Reference: 295 59) What are the components of the information processing model in order? a. retrieval, encoding, storage b. encoding, capturing, retrieval c. capturing, encoding, retrieval d. encoding, storage, retrieval Answer: d Page Reference: 288 60) If you want to remember something for a couple of minutes, the MOST effective device is __________. a. visual imagery b. tactile imagery c. rote rehearsal d. elaborative rehearsal Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

Answer: c Page Reference: 288 61) Hermann Ebbinghaus found that memory is best immediately after we learn information, and we gradually forget more as time passes. What name is given to this observation? a. serial position curve b. mirage effect c. free recall curve d. curve of forgetting Answer: d Page Reference: 296–297 62) Last week, Lisa took an abnormal psychology test and did not miss a question. However, when a guest speaker came to class a week later to talk about schizophrenia, she had trouble remembering some of the relevant class material. She remembered even less about the topic when she saw a news report on schizophrenia a month later. What memory phenomenon explains what Lisa is experiencing? a. mirage effect b. serial position curve c. free recall curve d. cforgetting curve Answer: d Page Reference: 296–297 63) Long-term memory is sometimes unreliable because of _______ of information. a. reconstruction b. retention c. coding d. chunking Answer: a Page Reference: 305

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64) Which of the following is NOT true of schemas? a. They are a part of short-term memory. b. They can influence the amount of attention you pay to a given event. c. They help people retrieve information from memory. d. They help determine what you will recall. Answer: a Page Reference: 302–305 65) Which scenario would likely be the most difficult to remember? a. a study group meeting with a classmate b. a car accident that was witnessed on the way to school c. the image of a penny Correct: People do not encode irrelevant information. People tend to remember emotional events and novel events best. d. ordering dinner at a new restaurant Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 306, Module 7.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how schemas serve as frameworks forencoding and constructing memories. 66) What is the approximate duration of an iconic memory? a. half a second Correct: Statement of fact b. 5-10 seconds c. 20 seconds d. longer than 20 seconds Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 272, Module 7.1 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems. 67) When Dana asked Rachel what she had for dinner last night, Rachel said that she couldn’t remember because her short-term memory was poor. How should Dana respond to Rachel? a. “You should consider seeing your doctor to get your short-term memory assessed.” b. “The duration of your short-term memory is really only about 20 seconds, so it’s not likely the problem.” Correct: Sara was having trouble with long-term memory, not short-term memory. c. “Your sensory memory is likely at fault – not your short-term memory.” d. “Try not to be too hard on yourself. Most of us have difficulty with our short-term memories.” Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 272, Module 7.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems 68) If the capacity of short-term memory is so limited, how is it that individuals are able to remember as much information as they do? a. The information is transferred quickly and automatically to long-term memory. b. Processes such as chunking and rehearsal expand the capacity of short-term memory. Correct: Statement of fact. c. Phonological analysis of information in short-term memory allows for deep processing. d. Increased production of GABA in the hippocampal area allows for better encoding. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 273, Module 7.1 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

69) Which individual studying for a test will most likely be able to remember the information accurately? a. Dan is reciting definitions repeatedly to himself from cue cards. b. Nancy is trying to link the concepts to examples in her own life. Correct: By adding self reference to a memory, you improve memory for that item. c. Karen is looking at the concepts in her textbook and trying to recall how they look. d. Matt is focusing on how the concepts sound to him and trying to make them rhyme. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 289, Module 7.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. 70) The primacy effect is to _____________ as the recency effect is to _____________. a. phonological encoding; visual encoding b. long-term memory; short-term memory Correct: Statement of fact. c. maintenance rehearsal; elaborative rehearsal d. short-term memory; sensory memory Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 275, Module 7.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems. 71) Which type of memory allows individuals to perform tasks automatically, such as driving, typing, or riding a bike? a. declarative memory b. non-declarative memory Correct: Non-declarative memory is “memory without awareness,” including the completion of automatic tasks. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

c. episodic memory d. semantic memory Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 302, Module 7.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology used in discussing how memories are organized and constructed. 72) Non-declarative memory is to ______________ as declarative memory is to _______________. a. procedural memory; priming b. priming; semantic memory Correct: Non-declarative memories can be studied by looking at priming experiments; declarative memory can be looked at by examining semantic memory experiments. c. episodic memory; procedural memory d. semantic memory; episodic memory Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 281, Module 7.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems. 73) Godden and Baddeley conducted a classic study on learning and memory in scuba divers. What were the results of the study? a. Scuba divers who learned words underwater remembered them best when tested underwater. Correct: This result showed the importance of context on memory retrieval. b. Scuba divers who learned words underwater remembered them best when tested on land. c. Scuba divers who learned words on land remembered them best when tested underwater.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

d. Scuba divers remembered the words similarly across both land and underwater learning conditions. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 290, Module 7.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances ofremembering what you encounter. 74) Chess grandmasters can recall the exact positions of most pieces on the board after a brief glance. This ability is best explained by which concept? a. flashbulb memory b. iconic memory c. the lack of retroactive interference d. chunking Correct: Chunking involves organizing a large number of small units into a smaller number of meaningful units, which are easier to remember. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 274, Module 7.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems. 75) Arnold so easily remembers his old girlfriend's telephone number that he finds it difficult to recall his new girlfriend's number. Arnold's difficulty best illustrates which concept? a. retroactive interference b. the next-in-line effect c. proactive interference Correct: Proactive interference occurs when the first learned item prevents new information from being learned. d. source amnesia e. repression Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 276, Module 7.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to memory systems. 76) Many people retain their classically conditioned fears without any conscious recollection of how or when those fears were learned. This fact best illustrates______________memory. a. implicit Correct: Implicit memory is memory without awareness. b. short-term c. sensory d. flashbulb Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 280, Module 7.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems. 77) After studying biology all afternoon, Abba is having difficulty remembering details of the chemistry lecture he heard that morning. Abba's difficulty best illustrates a. encoding failure. b. retroactive interference. Correct: Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned information affects recall of earlier learned information. c. the spacing effect. d. proactive interference. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 276, Module 7.1 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 7: Memory

Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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1) Patrick is picking up a foreign exchange student from France at the airport. Before he goes in, he quickly looks at a photo of the student so he can recognize him, and looks up how to say "Hello. Welcome to Canada" in French. As Patrick scans the crowd for the student, he repeats the French phrase in his head. Using the working memory model, describe what each of the four components are likely doing as Patrick waits. Answer: The phonological loop will be used to repeat the ‘welcome to Canada’ phrase in French. The visuospatial sketchpad will be holding selected faces in the crowd in short-term memory long enough for them to be compared to a representation in LTM The central executive will be selecting faces from the crowd to be compared to longterm memory and ensuring that the phonological buffer and visuospatial sketchpad are doing their jobs. The episodic buffer will be putting together the sights and sounds of the airport and creating a memory of the episode. Page Reference: 278–280 2) Psychologists have identified several factors that can lead to better encoding and recall of information. Using this information, describe four ways you could study material for this class that should increase your exam performance. Answer: A good answer will include some of the following: Levels of processing: processing the class material at a meaningful level will make it more likely to be recalled later. Self reference: making material relevant to yourself will improve your memory for it. Survival processing: try to relate to material to your survival; material linked to survival is better remembered than material that is not. The method of loci: associate concepts to be remembered with familiar locations, such as rooms in your house. The first letter technique: use the first letter of concepts to create an easy to remember sentence (such as the first letter for each part of the working memory model, V, P, C, and E and memorizing “Vincent Price cracked eggs.” Dual coding: memorize both a verbal and a visual depiction of a concept. The testing effect: complete multiple practice tests to improve future test performance. Page Reference: 289, 297–299

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3) Many people think of memory as an accurate "recording" of past events. However, researchers have been able to demonstrate that it is fairly easy to make subjects misremember events, or even remember events that did not occur. Explain three different techniques that researchers have used to create these false memories. Provide examples of each. Answer: Three examples include: Changing words: by asking about a car ‘crash’ versus a car ‘accident’ researchers have been able to make people falsely remember a more serious accident than they actually witnessed. Providing misinformation after the event: when participants were quizzed about a ‘yield sign’ that was not in a car accident video they were shown, the participants falsely remembered the yield sign as being present. Feedback: “Imagination inflation” (Making people imagine the event): having participants imagine an event that didn’t really happen increased the likelihood that the participants would later report that the imagined event actually did happen to them. Page Reference: 308

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1) A concept is the mental representation of an object, event, or idea. a. True b. False Correct: This is the definition of a concept. Answer: a Page Reference: 315 2) One problem with the theory that individuals use prototypes to categorize is that it does not allow for the possibility of graded membership. a. True b. False Correct: This is a problem for classical categorization, not categorization using prototypes. Answer: b Page Reference: 315 3) Basic level categories are always located at the most general level of a semantic network. a. True b. False Correct: Basic level concepts are not necessarily the most general categories. Instead, they are the categories that are most often used when thinking and in conversation. Answer: b Page Reference: 316 4) The Inuit have hundreds of words for different types of snow. a. True b. False Correct: This is a myth. The number of words for snow in Inuit is often exaggerated. Answer: b Page Reference: 322 5) An algorithm is a problem-solving strategy based on a series of rules. a. True b. False

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Correct: When we think logically, we rely on algorithms, which are problem-solving strategies based on a series of rules. As such, they are very logical and follow a set of steps, usually in a preset order. Answer: a Page Reference: 325 6) People tend to judge the probability of an event by how easy it is to think of examples of the event. a. True b. False Correct: This is called the availability heuristic. Answer: a Page Reference: 328 7) Maximizers tend to be more satisfied than satisficers with their purchases because maximizers spend additional time making sure they find the best product. a. True b. False Correct: Maximizers tend to be less satisfied with their choices. One theory is that this is because the extra effort when making the choice increases the nonmonetary cost of the purchase. Answer: b Page Reference: 332–333 8) All forms of communication can be considered types of language. a. True b. False Correct: Language is a special type of communication that has special properties. Most forms of communication do not meet the definition of language. Answer: b Page Reference: 337 9) Children's brains appear to be especially primed to acquire language in a way that adult brains are not. a. True b. False

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Correct: Most psychologists agree that there is a sensitive period for language—a time during childhood in which children's brains are primed to develop language skills. Children can absorb language almost effortlessly, but this ability seems to fade away starting around the seventh year. Answer: a Page Reference: 343 10) Research with chimpanzees has clearly demonstrated that nonhumans are capable of acquiring language. a. True b. False Correct: While chimpanzees and other nonhuman animals have been able to learn some elements of human language with extensive training, to date there is no clear evidence that animals can acquire and use language as humans do. Answer: b Page Reference: 346–347

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1) A _____________ is the mental representation of an object, event, or idea. a. mental set b. concept c. algorithm d. prototype Correct: This is the definition of concept used in the textbook. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 315 Topic: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

2) A group of interrelated concepts is a called a ____________. a. category b. superconcept c. mental set d. prototype Correct: Psychologists use the term categories to refer to these clusters of interrelated concepts. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 315 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

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d. category Correct: Psychologists use the term categories to refer to these clusters of interrelated concepts. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 315 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

4) Concepts and categories are important because they allow us to a. classify objects or ideas as belonging to one single group and no others. b. avoid using prototypes in most situations. c. develop mental sets which help us solve new problems. d. organize and manage tremendous amounts of information. Correct: Concepts and categories help us organize and manage information by grouping objects, events, and ideas together. Objects and ideas can belong to more than one concept, and related concepts can be grouped together into categories. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 315–317 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

5) The use of specific rules to categorize objects is an example of a. using a prototype. b. linguistic relativity. c. using a heuristic. d. classical categorization.

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Correct: In classical categorization, objects or events are categorized according to a certain set of rules or by a specific set of features. In contrast, categorization using a prototype is done by comparison, not explicit rules or definitions. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 315 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

6) Mandi shares her frozen dessert with her sister. "Wow!" says her sister, "What type of ice-cream is this?" Mandi explains that, because it does not contain any dairy, the dessert is a sorbet and not an ice-cream. Mandi's use of the technical definition for ice-cream to classify the dessert is an example of a. using a prototype. b. classical categorization. c. using a heuristic. d. linguistic relativity. Correct: In classical categorization, objects or events are categorized according to a certain set of rules or by a specific set of features. In contrast, categorization using a prototype is done by comparison, not explicit rules or definitions. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 315 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world.

7) One problem with the theory of classical categorization is that it does not allow for _____________. a. formal definitions b. concepts c. graded membership

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d. mental sets Correct: Because a concept either meets the definition for a category or it does not, one of the major problems with classical categorization is graded membership—the observation that some concepts appear to make better category members than others. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 315 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

8) For most people, a dog is a better fit than a tarantula for the category of pets. This is an example of ____________. a. linguistic relativity b. graded membership c. priming d. functional fixedness Correct: Graded membership is the observation that some concepts appear to make better category members than others. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 315 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

9) Classical categorization involves typically involves the use of ______________, while categorization using prototypes involves _____________. a. comparison; definitions b. definitions; comparison c. concepts; graded memberships d. graded memberships; concepts

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Correct: In classical categorization, objects or events are categorized according to a certain set of rules or definitions. In contrast, categorization using a prototype is done by comparison, not explicit rules. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 315–316 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world.

10) Many people categorize tomatoes as a vegetable, even though they technically meet the scientific definition for a fruit. A likely reason for this is that a. they are using classical categorization. b. tomatoes only belong in a category of their own. c. tomatoes are closer to most people's prototype for a vegetable than their prototype for a fruit. d. the tomato is a common prototype for fruit. Correct: People can use prototypes—mental representations of an average category member—to determine whether something belongs is a category or not. Because a tomato is much closer to the typical prototype for a vegetable than the prototype for a fruit, individuals are likely to categorize a tomato as a vegetable. In contrast, classical categorization involves classifying objects or ideas according to a certain set of rules or definitions. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 316 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify prototypical examples.

11) Which example would most people take longest to identify as a fruit (even though it technically is a fruit)? a. grape b. apple

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c. orange d. olive Correct: People can use prototypes—mental representations of an average category member—to determine whether something belongs is a category or not. Because an olive does not resemble most people's prototype for the concept of fruit, it will likely take the longest to identify it as belonging to the category. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 316 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify prototypical examples.

12) Most people take longer to identify a platypus as a mammal than it takes them to identify a cat as a mammal. This is likely because a cat is closer to most people's _______________ for the concept of mammal. a. mental set b. prototype c. basic concept d. algorithm Correct: People can use prototypes—mental representations of an average category member—to determine whether something belongs is a category or not. Because a cat is much closer than platypus to most people's prototype for the concept of mammal, it takes longer to identify a platypus as a mammal. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 316 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world.

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b. concepts c. algorithms d. prototypes Correct: Prototypes are mental representations of an average category member. To determine whether something belongs in a category, individuals can compare it to the prototype for the category. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 316 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world.

14) Research indicates that people categorize concepts by using a. classical categorization, not prototypes. b. prototypes, not classical categorization. c. both classical categorization and prototypes. d. neither classical categorization nor prototypes. Correct: Research indicates that people can use either classical categorization or prototypes to determine if a concept belongs to category—the choice really depends on how complicated a category or a specific example might be. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 316 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world.

15) In cognitive psychology, a__________________ is an interconnected set of nodes (or concepts) and the links that join them to form a category. a. semantic network b. mental set

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c. algorithm d. prototype Correct: This is the definition of a semantic network. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 316 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

16) In a semantic network, the ____________ represent concepts, and the _______________ represent the structure of a category as well as the relationships among different categories. a. nodes; links b. links; nodes c. graded memberships; prototypes d. prototypes; graded memberships Correct: A semantic network is an interconnected set of nodes (or concepts) and the links that join them to form a category. Nodes are circles that represent concepts, and links connect them together to represent the structure of a category as well as the relationships among different categories. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 316–317 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

17) One way to understand the relationship between various categories and concepts is to draw a diagram of a(n) ___________. a. algorithm b. mental set c. semantic network Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. prototype Correct: A semantic network is an interconnected set of nodes (or concepts) and the links that join them to form a category. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 316 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

18) Because semantic networks are arranged ________________, they show which categories are more basic than others. a. algorithmically b. in a hierarchy c. phonetically d. congruently Correct: This organization helps us understand how categories work in daily thought and language by identifying the basic level categories. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 316–317 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

19) Which of the following is most likely to be a basic-level category? a. 1967 Ford Mustang b. vehicle c. convertible d. car

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Correct: Basic level categories are the terms used most often in conversation, are the easiest to pronounce, are the level at which prototypes exist, and are the level at which most thinking occurs. In this example, car is the word that best fits this description. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 317 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

20) Which of the following is NOT true of basic level categories? a. They are always the most general category in a semantic network. b. They are the level at which most thinking occurs. c. They are the level at which prototypes exist. d. They are the terms used most often in conversation. Correct: Basic level categories are not always the most general term in a semantic network. For example, vehicle is a more general term than car, but few people would say "look at that vehicle" if a car drove by. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 317 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

21) Which of the following is most likely to be a basic-level category? a. animal b. calico c. cat d. Siamese Correct: Basic level categories are the terms used most often in conversation, are the easiest to pronounce, are the level at which prototypes exist, and are the level at which most thinking occurs. In this example, cat is the word that best fits this description. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 317 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

22) When tested in a laboratory study, Reese identified the statement, "Cows make milk" as true faster than she did the statement "Cows breathe air." What does this likely indicate about the relationship between categories in her semantic network? a. Cows and breathing air are closer together than milk and breathing air. b. Milk is a basic level category. c. Cows and milk are closer together than cows and breathing air. d. Animals that breathe is a basic level category. Correct: One way to research the relationships in a semantic network is to use the sentence-verification technique. Concepts and categories that are closer together on a semantic network should be easier to identify as being related, compared to those that are only indirectly related. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 316–317 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world.

23) On his way to work, Charlie sees a sign for an upcoming concert for the band Cake. Without even realizing it, the word cake has made Charlie think of baked sweets, which makes him think of getting a donut. This is an example of ______________. a. categorization b. priming c. linguistic relativity d. sentence verification

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Correct: Priming is the activation of individual concepts in long-term memory by exposure to a particular stimulus. Priming may cause you to become aware of a related concept, or may make you more sensitive to specific concepts without actually becoming aware of them. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 317 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

24) If someone walked up to you and said, "Milk," and then asked you to quickly name an animal, you would likely say, "cow." This illustrates the concept of ______________. a. priming b. categorization c. sentence verification d. linguistic relativity Correct: Priming is the activation of individual concepts in long-term memory by exposure to a particular stimulus. In this example, the word milk would cause you to think of a cow when asked to name an animal. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 317 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

25) Which of the following is true about priming effects? a. Priming is an affective form of behaviour control. b. Priming effects only occur in laboratory research. c. The chains of associations activated by a specific priming cue are the same for everyone. d. Priming can occur without conscious awareness.

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Correct: Priming may cause you to become aware of a related concept, or just make you more sensitive to specific concepts without actually becoming consciously aware of them. Priming should not be thought of as a form of mind control, however. The chain of associations activated by priming appears to be somewhat unique for each of us, and we can typically redirect our attention to something else. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 317 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories.

26) Which of the following would be the best example of culture affecting categorization? a. A five-year-old child calls a dolphin a "fish." b. A Japanese man takes off his shoes before entering a house. c. A woman from a traditional hunter-gather society categorizes plants as edible, inedible, or medicinal, instead of as flower, root, berry, etc. d. A farmer sees a picture of a chicken sandwich in a magazine and decides to make himself one for lunch. Correct: How we categorize individual objects is based—at least to some extent—on cultural learning. In this example, the woman who categorizes plants based upon their uses is clearly influenced by her culture's dependence upon plants for food and medicine. The other options do not involve situations where cultural factors influence how someone categorizes individual objects, or how they relate objects to each other. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 320 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how experience and culture can shape the way we organize our knowledge.

27) According to your textbook, in which way do Americans and the Japanese tend to differ?

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a. Americans tend to use basic level categories whereas the Japanese do not. b. Americans tend to focus on a single characteristic, whereas Japanese people tend to view objects in relation to their environment. c. Americans consider cows to be livestock whereas the Japanese do not. d. Americans tend to use classical categorization, whereas the Japanese use prototypes. Correct: Research with American and Japanese college students demonstrates crosscultural differences in perceiving how objects are related to their environments. Americans tend to focus on a single characteristic, whereas Japanese people tend to view objects in relation to their environment. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 320–321 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how experience and culture can shape the way we organize our knowledge.

28) What do we call the hypothesis that language influences what we think? a. the dynamic hypothesis b. the language reaction hypothesis c. the linguistic relativity hypothesis d. the cognitive linguistic hypothesis Correct: Linguistic relativity (or the Whorfian hypothesis) is the theory that the language we encounter and use determines how we understand the world. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 321 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the claim that the language we speak determines how we think.

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b. one's thinking and view of the world determines the structure of one's language. c. we decide which objects belong to a concept according to what is most probable or sensible, given the facts at hand. d. perception of surface structure precedes deep structure in understanding a sentence. Correct: Linguistic relativity (or the Whorfian hypothesis) is the theory that the language we encounter and use determines how we understand the world. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 321 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the claim that the language we speak determines how we think.

30) Consistent with the linguistic relativity hypothesis, which of the following would most likely be true? a. People from New England and England think very differently. b. People from New Mexico and New England think very differently. c. People from China and New England think very differently. d. People from China and New England think very similarly. Correct: Linguistic relativity (or the Whorfian hypothesis) is the theory that the language we encounter and use determines how we understand the world. It would predict that someone who speaks English would think differently about the world than someone who speaks Chinese. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 321 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the claim that the language we speak determines how we think.

31) Research on the Inuit has revealed that a. although the Inuit have different words for types of snow then are found in English, they appear to think about snow in the same way Americans and other non-Inuit do.

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b. the Inuit have hundreds of different words for snow. c. the specific language the Inuit use affects the way they think about snow. d. learning to speak English changes the way Inuits think about snow. Correct: The "fact" that the Inuit have many more words for snow than are found in other languages is generally an exaggeration. Furthermore, Inuits seem to categorize snow the same way a person from the United States does, indicating that any differences between English and the Inuit language do not affect the way they think about snow when compared to non-Inuits. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 332 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the claim that the language we speak determines how we think.

32) For cognitive psychologists, problem solving generally refers to a. the process of finding solutions to only well-defined problems, but not ill-defined problems. b. finding ways to cope with life stressors. c. accomplishing a goal when the solution or the path to the solution is not clear. d. the use of formal, rules-based strategies to find precise solutions. Correct: In psychological terminology, problem solving means accomplishing a goal when the solution or the path to the solution is not clear. This can include both welldefined and ill-defined problems. There are two general approaches to problem solving: algorithmic and heuristic. Algorithmic is more formal and rules based, while heuristic approaches are more intuitive. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 325 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the characteristics that problems have in common.

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a. semantic networks b. language c. categorization d. problems Correct: Problems have three main features. The initial state describes what the conditions are at the outset of a problem, the goal state describes what you need or desire as an outcome, and obstacles are things that slow or prevent progress toward the goal state. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 325 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the characteristics that problems have in common.

34) Kyle buys a new refrigerator, but when he gets home, he cannot fit it through the front door of his house. Which of the following would describe the initial state for Kyle's problem? a. The refrigerator is outside of the house. b. The refrigerator is inside the house. c. Kyle can make the refrigerator narrower by taking the doors off of it. d. The refrigerator does not fit through the front door. Correct: The initial state describes what the condition is at the outset of a problem. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 325 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

35) Kyle buys a new refrigerator, but when he gets home, he cannot fit it through the front door of his house. Which of the following would describe a strategy for Kyle's problem?

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a. The refrigerator is outside of the house. b. The refrigerator is inside the house. c. Kyle can make the refrigerator narrower by taking the doors off of it. d. The refrigerator does not fit through the front door. Correct: Thestrategies we use to reach the goal state are called algorithms and heuristics. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 325 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

36) Kyle buys a new refrigerator, but when he gets home, he cannot fit it through the front door of his house. Which of the following would describe the obstacle for Kyle's problem? a. The refrigerator is outside of the house. b. The refrigerator is inside the house. c. Kyle can make the refrigerator narrower by taking the doors off of it. d. The refrigerator does not fit through the front door. Correct: Obstacles are things that slow or prevent progress toward the goal state. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 325 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

37) A formula is an example of a(n) ______________. a. logarithm b. algorithm c. response set

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d. heuristic Correct: Algorithms are problem-solving strategies based on a series of rules. As such, they are very logical and follow a set of steps, usually in a preset order. For example, the formula A = πr2 describes a series of steps that will always allow a person to find the area of a circle if they know the radius. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 325–326 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether human thought is primarily logical or intuitive.

38) Talia is looking for her cat by methodically searching each room and then closing the door. She is using what type of problem solving strategy? a. an algorithm b. a heuristic c. anchoring d. a hunch Correct: Algorithms are problem-solving strategies based on a series of rules. As such, they are very logical and follow a set of steps, usually in a preset order. In this example, Talia systematic search is an example of an algorithmic approach. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 325–326 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether human thought is primarily logical or intuitive.

39) ______________ are problem-solving strategies based on a series of rules, while ______________are strategies that stem from prior experiences and provide an educated guess as to what is the most likely solution. a. Algorithms; heuristics b. Heuristics; algorithms

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c. Ill-defined operators; well-defined operators d. Well-defined operators; Ill-defined operators Correct: Algorithms are problem-solving strategies based on a series of rules. Heuristics are problem-solving strategies that stem from prior experiences and provide an educated guess as to what is the most likely solution. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 325–326 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether human thought is primarily logical or intuitive.

40) Computers are particularly suited for using ________________ to solve problems. a. functional fixedness b. heuristics c. prototypes d. algorithms Correct: Algorithms are problem-solving strategies based on a series of rules. Computers are very good at using algorithms because they can follow a preprogrammed set of steps and perform thousands of operations every second. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 325 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

41) Kendra has been a professional chef for 20 years. Instead of following recipes step by step, she uses her experience to guide her cooking, adding a pinch of salt here, or a little extra oil there. Kendra's approach to cooking is an example of a. functional fixedness. b. a heuristic. c. a mental set. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. an algorithm. Correct: Heuristics are problem-solving strategies that stem from prior experiences and provide an educated guess as to what is the most likely solution. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 325 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether human thought is primarily logical or intuitive.

42) Which of the following is a heuristic approach to determining how many brownies to make for a party? a. Make the same number as you did for your last party because you recall that number being about right. b. Multiply the number of people invited by the number of brownies you want each person to have. c. Determine the number of brownies in each batch and then determine which multiple of that number is closest the estimated number of brownies needed. d. Estimate the number of brownies each invitee will eat and then sum the estimates. Correct: Heuristics are problem-solving strategies that stem from prior experiences and provide an educated guess as to what is the most likely solution. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 325 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether human thought is primarily logical or intuitive.

43) Compared to a heuristic, an algorithm is more likely to a. involve specific rules. b. require following a step-by-step procedure. c. give you a precise answer to a problem. d. involve intuition about how to solve a problem. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Correct: Algorithms are problem-solving strategies based on a series of rules. As such, they are very logical and follow a set of steps, usually in a preset order. Heuristics are problem-solving strategies that rely on prior experiences and intuition to provide an educated guess as to what is the most likely solution. Because algorithms are generally more precise than heuristics, they are more likely to provide an exact solution to a problem. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 325 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether human thought is primarily logical or intuitive.

44) Which of the following is true regarding cognitive obstacles? a. Cognitive obstacles are often self-imposed. b. Cognitive obstacles can be overcome by using a mental set. c. Cognitive obstacles are always caused by the parameters of the problem itself. d. Cognitive obstacles can be overcome by using functional fixedness. Correct: Some of the simplest (and maybe most frustrating) forms of cognitive obstacles are not due to the nature of the problem, but are self-imposed. Mental sets and functional fixedness are types of cognitive obstacles, not ways of overcoming them. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 326–327 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how obstacles to problem solving are often self-imposed.

45) In the nine-dot problem discussed in your textbook, the rules do not specify that the lines cannot extend beyond the dots; however, most people try to find a solution that follows this non-existent rule anyway. This is an example of a. the anchoring effect. b. belief perseverance c. a goal state Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. a self-imposed cognitive obstacle. Correct: Some of the simplest (and maybe most frustrating) forms of cognitive obstacles are not due to the nature of the problem, but are self-imposed. This occurs in the nine-dot problem when most people impose limitations on where the lines can go, even though those limits are not a part of the rules. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 326 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how obstacles to problem solving are often self-imposed.

46) The tendency to solve problems using procedures or strategies that worked in the past on similar problems is called a. the availability heuristic. b. the anchoring effect. c. a mental set. d. the representativeness heuristic. Correct: A mental set is a cognitive obstacle that occurs when an individual attempts to apply a routine solution to what is actually a new type of problem. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 327 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

47) When Howie's old girlfriend used to get upset with him, he could smooth things over by buying flowers or chocolates for her. He keeps trying this strategy with his current girlfriend, but she gets angry with him each time. It appears that Howie has developed _______________, which is interfering with the development of a new relationship strategy. a. a mental set b. an anchoring effect Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. a prototype d. a goal state Correct: A mental set is a cognitive obstacle that occurs when an individual attempts to apply a routine solution to what is actually a new type of problem. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 327 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

48) Johannes has been a car mechanic for many years and is very good at diagnosing problems with cars. However, when an electric car comes into the garage, his approach to diagnosing the problem is unsuccessful. Johannes failure is likely the result of a. an operator. b. a prototype. c. an anchoring effect. d. a mental set. Correct: A mental set is a cognitive obstacle that occurs when an individual attempts to apply a routine solution to what is actually a new type of problem. Even if Johannes understands the workings of an electric car, he likely attempted to apply the same strategy he uses with a combustion engines to diagnosing the problem. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 327 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

49) When someone does not see that a tool can be used for something other than its intended purpose, then ________________ can be said to have occurred. a. the anchoring effect b. confirmation bias

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c. functional fixedness d. the representative heuristic Correct: Functional fixedness occurs when an individual identifies a potential operator, but can think of only its most obvious function. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 327 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

50) The television character MacGyver was famous for using everyday objects to get out of trouble. In one episode, for example, MacGyver used the aluminum foil wrapper from a stick of gum to replace a blown electrical fuse. The MacGyver character clearly did NOT suffer from what cognitive obstacle to problem solving? a. the anchoring effect b. confirmation bias c. functional fixedness d. the representative heuristic Correct: Functional fixedness occurs when an individual identifies a potential operator, but can think of only its most obvious function. This clearly is not a problem for MacGyver. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 327 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

51) A loose screw on the visor causes it to drop down while Ben drives; however, he keeps forgetting to take a screwdriver out to the car to fix it. When he notices the visor drop again, he reaches into his pocket for a dime he then uses to tighten the screw holding the visor. What problem-solving difficulty did Ben overcome? a. relative comparison Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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b. functional fixedness c. poor problem representation d. the representative heuristic Correct: Functional fixedness occurs when an individual identifies a potential operator, but can think of only its most obvious function. For example, a dime can be used to tighten a screw, but many people would not think of this because tightening screws is not the usual function assigned to dimes. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 327 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

52) Riley has figured out how to unlock his bedroom door with a paper clip. What has he most likely overcome in his new use of the paper clip? a. functional fixedness b. the representational problem c. the representative heuristic d. the confirmation bias Correct: Functional fixedness occurs when an individual identifies a potential operator, but can think of only its most obvious function. For example, a paper clip can be used to unlock a door, but many people would not think of this because the usual function of a paper clip is told pieces of paper together. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 327 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

53) The _______________ occurs when an individual believes the probability of finding a specific member in two overlapping categories is more likely than finding any member of one of the larger, general categories. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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a. anchoring effect b. representativeness error c. confirmation bias d. conjunction fallacy Correct: The conjunction fallacy is the mistaken belief that finding a specific member in two overlapping categories (i.e., a member of the conjunction of two categories) is more likely than finding any member of one of the larger, general categories. For example, individuals will estimate the probability that a given person is more likely to be a teacher who likes children, than that a given person is a teacher. This is a mathematical impossibility, because teachers who like children are a subset of teachers in general. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 328 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

54) In a research study, participants are told that Louis has lived in Boston his whole life. They are then asked which is more likely: A) Louis is a baseball fan, or B) Louis is a baseball fan who roots for the Boston Red Sox. Which of the following is true? a. Participants who answer 'A' are correct. b. Participants who answer 'A' have committed the conjunction fallacy. c. Participants who answer 'B' are demonstrating belief perseverance. d. Participants who answer 'B' have committed the conjunction fallacy. Correct: The conjunction fallacy is the mistaken belief that finding a specific member in two overlapping categories (i.e., a member of the conjunction of two categories) is more likely than finding any member of one of the larger, general categories. It is a mathematical impossibility that Louis is more likely to be a baseball fan who roots for the Red Sox; Red Sox baseball fans are a subset of baseball fans. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 328 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

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55) Suppose 40% of all of the books in a library are fiction and 2% of all of the books are on the Roman Empire. Wanda is a big fan of historical fiction novels. Which of the following is she LEAST likely to leave the library with? a. a fiction book b. a book that involves the Roman Empire c. a fictional book that takes place in the Roman Empire d. the answer cannot be determined from the information given Correct: The conjunction fallacy is the mistaken belief that finding a specific member in two overlapping categories (i.e., a member of the conjunction of two categories) is more likely than finding any member of one of the larger, general categories. Because a fictional book about the Roman Empire is a subset of both fiction books and books on Rome, it is a mathematical impossibility that Wanda will be more likely to choose a book that is the conjunction of the two categories than either of them alone. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 328 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

56) When people make the conjunction fallacy, it is most likely because a. they are using an algorithmic approach. b. their judgment is being affected by an anchor. c. they are using the representativeness heuristic. d. they are just guessing randomly. Correct: The conjunction fallacy demonstrates the use of the representativeness heuristic: making judgments of likelihood based on how well an example represents a specific category. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 328 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

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57) Which decision-making strategy involves making judgments of likelihood based on how well an example represents a specific category? a. an algorithm b. goal-state analysis c. the representativeness heuristic d. the availability heuristic Correct: This is the definition of the representativeness heuristic. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 328 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

58) Seventy percent of the students in a classroom are women and 30 percent are men. One student is described as ambitious, athletic, and assertive. Why are most people likely to think this description refers to a male student? a. The anchoring effect can lead to gender bias. b. They are using the representativeness heuristic. c. People seek only confirming information. d. People tend to make relative comparisons. Correct: The representativeness heuristic involves making judgments of likelihood based on how well an example represents a specific category. In this example, the student's traits are more often associated with males than females, so the student appears to be representative of male students. This is despite the fact that 70% of the class is female, and that some female students are almost certainly ambitious, athletic, and assertive. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 328 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

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59) Which of the following is true about the use of the representativeness heuristic to make judgments? a. Use of the representativeness heuristic almost always leads to incorrect judgments. b. Use of the representativeness heuristic almost always leads to correct judgments. c. In many cases the representativeness heuristic leads to correct judgments, but it can also lead to biased judgments in other situations. d. The representativeness heuristic is used for solving well-defined problems, but is not relevant for making judgments. Correct: Although the representativeness heuristic can cause individuals to make the conjunction fallacy in some circumstances, in everyday life it can be an effective tool for making judgments about situations. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 328 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

60) Frank mistakenly believes that there are more words that begin with the letter "k" than there are with the letter "k" in the third position due to __________________. a. the representativeness heuristic b. the availability heuristic c. anchoring effect d. confirmation bias Correct: This is a classic example of the availability heuristic, which entails estimating the frequency of an event based on how easily examples of it come to mind. Because it is easier to think of words which begin with 'k' than have 'k' as the third letter, most people conclude that there are more words that begin with 'k'. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 328–329 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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61) When using the availability heuristic, people tend to judge the probability of an event based on a. the need to be right, which makes it hard to listen to the available information with an open mind. b. statistical consideration of the frequency with which the event occurs in everyday life. c. the burden of doubt people feel about their abilities to determine probability from available information. d. how easy it is to think of examples or instances. Correct: The availability heuristic entails estimating the frequency of an event based on how easily examples of it come to mind. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 328–329 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

62) Because of the availability heuristic, Jayne and her husband are most likely to exaggerate the risk to their children of ____________. a. depression b. delinquency c. being kidnapped d. asthma Correct: The availability heuristic entails estimating the frequency of an event based on how easily examples of it come to mind. There are numerous real-world examples of the availability heuristic. Most of us can think of examples of police brutality, kidnapping, and terrorist attacks—these are events that easily come to mind. However, we are also likely to overestimate the risks of each of these events, in part because it is easier to think of examples of these events than to think of all of the times they did not occur. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 328–329

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Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

63) Nate thinks that Consevatives and the NDP almost never work together in Congress. The reason he believes this is that he finds it much easier to think of examples of politicians from the two parties not working together than to think of examples them working together. It is likely that the ______________ has caused Nate to underestimate how frequently Conservatives and the NDP work together. a. availability heuristic b. confirmation bias c. representativeness heuristic d. anchoring effect Correct: The availability heuristic entails estimating the frequency of an event based on how easily examples of it come to mind. In this example, because it is easier for Nate to think of examples of politicians from the two parties not working together than to think of examples them working together, Nate overestimates the frequency of the former and underestimates the frequency of the latter. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 328–329 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

64) When people attempt to solve a problem involving numbers, they may find themselves using another number called ____________ to keep their response within a limited range. a. an anchor b. an initial state c. a representativeness value d. an operator Correct: The anchoring effect occurs when an individual attempts to solve a problem involving numbers and uses previous knowledge to keep (i.e., anchor) the response within a limited range.

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Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 329 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

65) A(n) ____________ is a number an individual uses when attempting to solve a problem using numbers, to keep his or her response within a limited range. a. anchor b. initial state c. representativeness value d. operator Correct: The anchoring effect occurs when an individual attempts to solve a problem involving numbers and uses previous knowledge to keep (i.e., anchor) the response within a limited range. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 329 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

66) A real-estate agent is asked by her clients how much they should ask for their house. She just sold a house for $300 000, so she finds herself suggesting an amount within the same range. This is an example of _____________. a. belief perseverance b. confirmation bias c. the representativeness heuristic d. the anchoring effect Correct: The anchoring effect occurs when an individual attempts to solve a problem involving numbers and uses previous knowledge to keep (i.e., anchor) the response within a limited range.

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Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 329 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

67) Which of the following is an example of the a framing effect? a. a soldier running into gunfire to save a wounded friend b. a child not wanting to be separated from his parents c. an employee being much more upset about a $100 per month pay cut, then he would be excited about a $100 per month raise d. a women becoming upset because she cannot find her keys Correct: Loss aversion is a framing effect characterized as the tendency to place more value on money lost than on money gained. To put it another way: losing money is a much more negative experience than gaining money is a positive one. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 330 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

68) Which of the following best matches the view of your textbook's authors on the use of heuristic thinking? a. Heuristic thinking leads to cognitive biases and should be avoided. b. Heuristic thinking is superior to algorithmic thinking. c. Using heuristics helps to minimize the risk of cognitive biases. d. Heuristics help us make efficient decisions and can be beneficial; however they can also lead to errors. Correct: Heuristics used in making judgments and decisions can lead us astray from time to time. Nevertheless, heuristics are often beneficial and can help us make decisions as efficiently as possible.

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Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 325 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

69) The concept of belief perseverance assumes that we are most likely to believe a. the scientific method as true. b. information that agrees with our thinking. c. information that refutes our thinking. d. logical thinking. Correct: Belief perseverance occurs when an individual believes he or she has the solution to the problem or the correct answer for a question, and accepts only evidence that will confirm those beliefs. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 331 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

70) When reading information that challenges one's beliefs, one tends to minimize the strengths of such claims. __________ accounts for this barrier to reasoning rationally. a. Belief perseverance b. The availability heuristic c. The unfairness bias d. The representativeness heuristic Correct: Belief perseverance occurs when an individual believes he or she has the solution to the problem or the correct answer for a question, and accepts only evidence that will confirm those beliefs. Answer: a Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 331 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

71) What term do psychologists use to describe our tendency to search for evidence that supports our belief and to ignore evidence that might disprove it? a. confirmation bias b. convergent thinking c. availability heuristic d. representativeness heuristic Correct: Confirmation bias occurs when an individual searches for evidence that will confirm his or her beliefs instead of evidence that might disconfirm them. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 331 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

72) Agatha Harkness-Smythe is determined to ban guns in the United States. This is a controversial topic and social scientists have debated whether the ownership of guns by citizens increases or decreases crime. Agatha could go to the library and look up studies on the linkage between guns and crime rates. Instead, Agatha just reads the local newspaper and only cuts out articles about robberies in which the "bad guy" used a firearm. Agatha is demonstrating a. mental set. b. confirmation bias. c. stereotype threat. d. mindlessness. Correct: Confirmation bias occurs when an individual searches for evidence that will confirm his or her beliefs instead of evidence that might disconfirm them. Answer: b

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 331 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

73) ________________ is the search for evidence that only supports a preexisting belief, whereas ______________ involves accepting preexisting evidence only if it confirms a belief. a. Confirmation bias; belief perseverance b. Belief perseverance; confirmation bias c. The availability heuristic; the representativeness heuristic d. The representativeness heuristic; the availability heuristic Correct: Belief perseverance occurs when an individual believes he or she has the solution to the problem or the correct answer for a question, and accepts only evidence that will confirm those beliefs. Confirmation bias occurs when an individual searches for only evidence that will confirm his or her beliefs instead of evidence that might disconfirm them. This differs from belief perseverance in that confirmation bias is the search for a particular type of evidence, not a way of evaluating evidence that is already known. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 331 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

74) Satisficers are individuals who a. make judgments of likelihood based on how well an example represents a specific category. b. seek to make decisions that are "good enough." c. attempt to evaluate every option for every choice until they find the perfect fit. d. try to satisfy the expectations of others.

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Correct: Two types of consumers have emerged in our society. Satisficers are individuals who seek to make decisions that are, simply put, "good enough." In contrast, maximizers are individuals who attempt to evaluate every option for every choice until they find the perfect fit. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 8.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer.

75) Maximizers are individuals who a. make judgments of likelihood based on how well an example represents a specific category. b. seek to make decisions that are "good enough." c. attempt to evaluate every option for every choice until they find the perfect fit. d. try to use their time as efficiently as possible. Correct: Two types of consumers have emerged in our society. Satisficers are individuals who seek to make decisions that are, simply put, "good enough." In contrast, maximizers are individuals who attempt to evaluate every option for every choice until they find the perfect fit. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 8.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer.

76) Kyle is buying a new mattress for his bed. Instead of spending hours or days finding the perfect mattress, Kyle buys the first mattress that is in his price range, and feels "comfortable enough." Kyle's behaviour is typical of a(n) _______________. a. maximizer

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b. heuristic thinker c. algorithmic thinker d. satisficer Correct: Two types of consumers have emerged in our society. Satisficers are individuals who seek to make decisions that are, simply put, "good enough." In contrast, maximizers are individuals who attempt to evaluate every option for every choice until they find the perfect fit. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 8.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer.

77) Jenny is deciding on which invitations to use for her wedding. If Jenny is a maximizer, she is most likely to a. choose the least expensive invitation design. b. choose the most expensive invitation design. c. choose the first invitation design that she likes. d. spend a long time looking at different invitation designs until she finds the exact one she is looking for. Correct: Maximizers are individuals who attempt to evaluate every option for every choice until they find the perfect fit. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 8.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer.

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a. maximizers; satisficers b. satisficers; maximizers c. heuristic thinkers; algorithmic thinkers d. algorithmic thinkers; heuristic thinkers Correct: Somewhat surprisingly, satisficers are generally happier about their decisions than maximizers. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 8.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer.

79) Why is the relationship between satisficer/maximizer decision-making strategies and satisfaction surprising? a. Maximizers take more time to make the best possible choice and tend to be happier with the outcome than are satisficers. b. Satisficers take more time to make the best possible choice and tend to be happier with the outcome than are maximizers. c. Maximizers take more time to make the best possible choice and tend to be less happy with the outcome than are satisficers. d. Satisficers take more time to make the best possible choice and tend to be less happy with the outcome than are maximizers. Correct: Two types of consumers have emerged in our society. Satisficers are individuals who seek to make decisions that are, simply put, "good enough." In contrast, maximizers are individuals who attempt to evaluate every option for every choice until they find the perfect fit. Somewhat surprisingly, satisficers are generally happier about their decisions than maximizers. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 8.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer.

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80) What is the phenomenon known as the paradox of choice? a. The greater the number of options to choose from, the faster individuals typically make their decision. b. The more options individuals have to choose from, the less satisfied they tend to be with their final decision. c. There is no relationship between the number options to choose from and satisfaction with the final choice. d. Individuals prefer to have all of their choices made for them. Correct: More choices can lead to less satisfaction. This is known as the paradox of choice. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 8.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer.

81) Which of the following is a hypothesis discussed in your textbook to explain the relative satisfaction maximizers tend to get from their decisions compared to satisficers? a. Maximizers invest more in their decisions, so they expect more from the outcomes. b. Maximizers are natural optimists, so they always see the best in everything. c. Maximizers tend to display belief perseverance, and ignore evidence that conflicts with their expectations. d. Maximizers prefer to have fewer choices, which makes it unlikely that the final choice will be "just right." Correct: One hypothesis that seeks to explain the dissatisfaction of maximizers suggests that maximizers invest more in the decision, so they expect more from the outcome. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 8.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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82) Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between language and communication? a. All forms of communication are examples of language. b. Only animals with language can communicate. c. Language is a special form of communication. d. Any form of communication that involves emitted sound is considered language. Correct: Many animals use sounds, smells, and other signals to communicate. However, language is a special form of communication with unique properties that set it apart from other forms of communication. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 8.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

83) Which of the following is the best definition for language? a. a form of communication involving the use of spoken, written, or gestural symbols that are combined in a rule-based form b. any set of signals used to communicate information between members of a species c. a set of words with specific meanings and relationships d. a bidirectional mapping of sounds and vocalizations to specific objects, ideas, and actions Correct: Many animals use sounds, smells, and other signals to communicate. However, language is a form of communication that involves the use of spoken, written, or gestural symbols that are combined in a rule-based form. These properties make it distinct from other forms of communication. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 8.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

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84) Which of the following is a unique property of language that helps to distinguish it from animal communication? a. Words or symbols can be recombined to create entirely new meanings. b. Language uses sounds to communicate. c. Language can be used to pass information between individuals. d. Language is important for survival. Correct: One property that helps to distinguish language from other forms of communication is the ability to produce entirely new meanings. While the other options are generally true about language, these properties are also shared with other forms of animal communication, and are not unique to language. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: Module 8.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

85) Which of the following is a unique property of language that helps to distinguish it from animal communication? a. Language uses sounds to communicate. b. Language communicates information about the past and the future. c. Language can be used to pass information between individuals. d. Language is important for survival. Correct: One property that helps to distinguish language from other forms of communication is the ability to communicate information about the past and the future. While the other options are generally true about language, these properties are also shared with other forms of animal communication, and are not unique to language. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 337–338 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

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86) The ability to communicate information about the past, future, and other locations is a unique property of ___________. a. aphasia b. phonemes c. communication d. language Correct: One property that helps to distinguish language from other forms of communication is the ability to use it to communicate about objects and events that are not in the present time and place. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 337–338 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

87) The most basic of units of spoken language are called _________. a. morphemes b. phonemes c. semantics d. syntax Correct: Phonemes are the most basic of units of speech sounds. For example, the "mmm" sound at the end of Tom is a phoneme. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 339 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

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88) The sounds t, th, and sh are ___________. a. morphemes b. phonemes c. semantics d. sound bytes Correct: Phonemes are the most basic of units of speech sounds. For example, the "mmm" sound at the end of Tom is a phoneme. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 339 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to distinguish between units of language such as phonemes and morphemes.

89) Language is based on basic sound units called ___________, which typically have no meaning by themselves. a. phonemes b. morphemes c. semantics d. syntax Correct: Phonemes are the most basic of units of speech sounds. For example, the "mmm" sound at the end of Tom is a phoneme. Individual phonemes typically do not have any meaning by themselves. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 339 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how language is structured.

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90) What are the smallest units of meaning in a language? a. words b. syntax c. phonemes d. morphemes Correct: Morphemes are the smallest meaningful units of a language. While some morphemes are words, morphemes can also be prefixes or suffixes that modify the meaning of words. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 339 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how language is structured.

91) You are learning Russian in preparation for a trip next summer. You have gotten to the point where you can sound out the words written in the Cyrillic alphabet, but you do not understand what any of the words mean. What element of the Russian language will you need to start learning next? a. syntax b. phonemes c. morphemes d. pragmatics Correct: Morphemes are the smallest meaningful units of a language, such as words, prefixes, and suffixes. In this example, the phonemes (i.e., basic sounds) used in Russian have already been learned, but the meaning of words is not understood. Learning syntax is also important for learning a new language, but syntax is useless without knowing at least a few morphemes. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 339 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to distinguish between units of language such as phonemes and morphemes. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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92) Which of the following is both a single phoneme AND a morpheme? a. the "th" at the beginning of think b. the "s" at the end of cats c. the word mom d. the "psy" in psychology Correct: The "s" at the end of cats is a phoneme because it is a basic sound, but it is also a morpheme because it has meaning (i.e., there are more than one). Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 339 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to distinguish between units of language such as phonemes and morphemes.

93) Greta is an academic who studies how people come to understand meaning from words and how they are arranged. Greta area of study would be described as ___________. a. semantics b. aphasia c. language arts d. ESL Correct: Semantics is the study of how people come to understand meaning from words. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 339 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to distinguish between units of language such as phonemes and morphemes.

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94) The rules for combining words and morphemes into meaningful phrases and sentences are called _________. a. syntax b. aphasics c. pragmatics d. language Correct: The rules for combining words and morphemes into meaningful phrases and sentences are called syntax. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 340 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how language is structured.

95) The difference between a well-formed and an ill-formed sentence usually comes down to _____________. a. phonemes b. morphemes c. pragmatics d. syntax Correct: The rules for combining words and morphemes into meaningful phrases and sentences are called syntax. An ill-formed sentence (such as "Ball the dog has.") is the result of incorrect syntax. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 340 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how language is structured.

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96) Lex is in the second grade. As part of a homework assignment, he is asked to write a sentence to describe a picture of a dog playing fetch. Lex writes the sentence, "Ball the dog has." Lex is clearly having trouble with ___________. a. phonemes b. morphemes c. pragmatics d. syntax Correct: The rules for combining words and morphemes into meaningful phrases and sentences are called syntax. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 340 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to distinguish between units of language such as phonemes and morphemes.

97) One interesting property of ___________ is that we usually know when it is not being used correctly, but people often cannot explain exactly why. a. phonemes b. morphemes c. syntax d. pragmatics Correct: The rules for combining words and morphemes into meaningful phrases and sentences are called syntax. Most speakers cannot tell you what those rules are; syntax just seems to come naturally. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 340 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

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98) ______________ is the study of nonlinguistic elements of language use. a. Semantics b. Aphasia c. Syntax d. Pragmatics Correct: This is the definition of pragmatics. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 340 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

99) Young children sometimes literally interpret sentences like "Do you know where your mommy is?" by answering "Yes." They failed to understand the ________ of the question. a. pragmatics b. morphemes c. syntax d. semantics Correct: Pragmatics involves the nonlinguistic elements of language use, and places heavy emphasis on the speaker's behaviours and the social situation. Pragmatics reminds us that sometimes what is said is not as important as how it is said. In this example, the answer of "yes" is correct, but ignores the context of the question and the obvious reason for the questioner to ask it. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 340 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

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100) Miranda asks her teacher, "Can I go to the bathroom?" to which she replied, "I don't know, can you?" Miranda's teacher was purposely ignoring the ______________ of Miranda's question to make a point about grammar. a. pragmatics b. morphemes c. syntax d. semantics Correct: Pragmatics involves the nonlinguistic elements of language use, and places heavy emphasis on the speaker's behaviours and the social situation. In this example, the teacher is flouting an obvious rule of pragmatics given the context of the question. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 3403 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

101) For most people, brain regions specifically involved in language are located in the _____________. a. limbic system b. left hemisphere c. right hemisphere d. brainstem Correct: The most unique and complex aspects of language are based on the left hemisphere (for the vast majority of the human population), in regions of the brain known as Wernicke's area and Broca's area. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 342 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use.

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102) One way to investigate the way language is processed in the brain is to study patients with ________________, language disorders caused by damage to the brain structures that support using and understanding language. a. agnosias b. agnathia c. aphasias d. alopecias Correct: Aphasias are language disorders caused by damage to the brain structures that support using and understanding language. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 337 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

103) _________________ is involved in speech production, while ___________________ is associated with finding the meanings of words. a. The left hemisphere; the right hemisphere b. The right hemisphere; the left hemisphere c. Wernicke's area; Broca's area d. Broca's area; Wernicke's area Correct: Broca's area is a frontal lobe structure that controls our ability to articulate speech sounds that compose words. In contrast, Wernicke's area is the area of the brain most associated with finding the meaning of words. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 337 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use.

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104) Following a stroke, Rahul's grandfather lost the ability to understand when people would ask him questions. In addition, when his grandfather spoke, the words made sense, but the sentences did not. The stroke appears to have damaged which area of the brain? a. basil ganglia b. FOXP2 c. Wernicke's area d. Broca's area Correct: Wernicke's area is the area of the brain most associated with finding the meaning of words. Damage to this area results in Wernicke's aphasia, a language disorder in which a person has difficulty understanding the words he or she hears and speaking coherently. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 337 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use.

105) A person who damages his or her Broca's area is likely to have difficulty____________________, but should still be able to __________________ fairly well. a. speaking; understand the speech of others b. understanding the speech of others; speak normally c. learning a new language; speak normally in his or her native language d. using pragmatics; speak normally Correct: Although many people with damage to Broca's area can still speak, doing so is obviously very difficult for them. As a result, their speech is limited to a series of single words intertwined with filled pauses. Importantly, their ability to understand language is generally fairly good, although sentences with complicated syntax may be problematic. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 337–338 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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106) What is FOXP2? a. a computer program that is capable of understanding and producing natural human language b. a brain region involved in the comprehension of language c. a gene believed to be involved in language d. a brain region involved in the production of spoken language Correct: Studies of a family with a rare genetic mutation suggest that the physical and chemical processes that the gene FOXP2 codes for are related to language function. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 345 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use.

107) Some members of the KE family discussed in your textbook have trouble putting thoughts into words. This deficit is caused by a. a family tradition of ritualized abuse that causes brain trauma. b. a family tradition of raising children without language until the age of five. c. exposure to chemicals while still in the womb. d. inheriting the mutated copy of a specific gene. Correct: Many members of the KE family, whose name is abbreviated to maintain their confidentiality, have inherited a mutated version of a gene on chromosome 7, known as FOXP2. These individuals have specific trouble using language. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 345–346 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use.

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108) Which of the following conclusions is the most logical to draw from the fact that mice and songbirds have versions of the FOXP2 gene that is very similar to the form found in humans? a. Mice and songbirds can use language to communicate. b. The FOXP2 gene did not develop specifically as a result of language development during human evolution. c. The FOXP2 gene is not involved in language. d. The FOXP2 gene is solely responsible for the ability of humans to communicate. Correct: Evidence from studying members of the KE family suggests that the FOXP2 gene is involved in language. However, the fact that mice and songbirds have a version of the gene that is similar to that found in humans suggests that the gene was not created as a result of human evolution. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 345–346 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use.

109) Brenda is worried about having her six-year-old daughter learn Spanish, because she fears that learning a second language will interfere with her daughter's mastery of English. What advice should you give Brenda? a. Children should not try to learn languages from different families (e.g., English and Chinese), but because Spanish and English are similar, learning a second language should have little negative effect. b. Learning a second language during childhood is actually beneficial to the development of language skills. c. Children younger than four years old should not be exposed to a second language, but it should not affect a six-year-old. d. Waiting is a good strategy; children should not try to learn a second language until their preteens. Correct: Research indicates that learning two languages simultaneously during childhood is advantageous—not only for mastering the languages, but also in providing some cognitive advantages in other areas. Answer: b

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 343 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use.

110) Why do young children appear to acquire language more easily than adults? a. There is a sensitive period during childhood during which children's brains are primed to develop language. b. Adults are more distracted than children, who can devote more cognitive processing to learning a new language. c. Children are exposed to a greater variety of vocabulary words than adults typically are. d. This is a common myth; children do not have an easier time learning language than adults do. Correct: Most psychologists agree that there is a sensitive period for language—a time during childhood in which children's brains are primed to develop language skills. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 343 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use.

111) A child's ability to map words onto concepts or objects after only a single exposure to them is called ____________. a. hyper learning b. pragmatics c. imitation d. fast mapping Correct: This is the definition of fast mapping. Answer: d Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 342 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

112) A writer pitches a sitcom idea to a network executive called "Don't Tell Him He's Adopted!" about a chimpanzee raised from birth as a member of a suburban American family. In technical terms, the chimpanzee in the show's premise is being _______________, a technique that has been used to try teaching language to non-human animals. a. fast mapped b. cross-fostered c. rebonded d. zoadopted Correct: Cross-fostering involves being raised as a member of a family that is not of the same species. Attempts to use this technique to teach human language to animals have consistently failed. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 346 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

113) A chimpanzee named _______________ learned to use approximately 200 signs from American Sign Language. a. Washoe b. Viki c. Kanzi d. Cheetah Correct: One project that began in the mid-1960s involved teaching chimpanzees to use American Sign Language (ASL). The first chimpanzee involved in this project was named Washoe.

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Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 346–347 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether species other than humans are able to use language.

114) Which of the following interpretations is consistent with results of many studies to teach human language to animals? a. Animals cannot learn to associate particular words, signs, and symbols with specific meanings. b. Animals can learn human language, but prefer not to. c. Animals can learn to communicate with symbols and signs, but there is not clear evidence that they can combine these symbols into complex phrases. d. Animals raised with humans from birth can learn language just as easily as a human child. Correct: While chimpanzees and dolphins can learn to associate signs and symbols to communicate, and may even be capable of understanding some syntax, there is little evidence that they can create complex phrases. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 346–348 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether species other than humans are able to use language.

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1) Many non-biologists mistake salamanders, a type of amphibian, for lizards. This is likely because salamanders share many features with most people's prototype for the category lizard. Correct: Prototypes are mental representations of an average category member. To determine whether something belongs in a category, individuals can compare it to the prototype for the category. Although salamanders do not meet the formal definition for the category lizard, the general shape of their bodies is close enough to the prototype for lizard that many people incorrectly categorize them. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 316 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world. 2) According to the idea known as linguistic relativity, the vocabulary and grammar of the language you speak can affect the way you think about the world. Correct: Linguistic relativity (or the Whorfian hypothesis) is the theory that the language we encounter and use determines how we understand the world. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 321 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the claim that the language we speak determines how we think. 3) In technical terms, the techniques individuals use to reach to solve problems are referred to as strategies. Correct: In problem solving, the strategies used to reach the goal state are called operators. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 325 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the characteristics that problems have in common. 4) Dominica is trying to spoon soup from a big pot into a bowl, but does not have a ladle. Although a large coffee cup is sitting on the counter in front of her, she does not think of using it to transfer the soup from the pot to her bowl. It is likely that functional fixedness prevented her from seeing this solution to her problem.

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Correct: Functional fixedness occurs when an individual identifies a potential operator, but can think of only its most obvious function. In this example, because a cup’s primary function is to drink from, Dominica has difficulty thinking of using it as a ladle. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 327 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. 5) An extreme maximizer is an individual who attempts to evaluate every option for every choice until he finds the perfect fit. Correct: Two types of consumers have emerged in our society. Maximizers are individuals who attempt to evaluate every option for every choice until they find the perfect fit. In contrast, satisficers are individuals who seek to make decisions that are, simply put, “good enough.”

Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 332-333 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a max I m I z e r or a satisficer. 6) One of the most important parts of a language is its syntax, which provides the rules that allow words to be combined into almost infinite combinations to create entirely new meanings. Correct: Perhaps the most remarkable aspect of language is syntax, the rules for combining words and morphemes into meaningful phrases and sentences —the recipe for language. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 340 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how language is structured. 7) Damage to the region of the cortex known as Broca's area is most likely to produce difficulty speaking, but have relatively little effect on understanding speech. Correct: Broca’s area is a frontal lobe structure that controls our ability to articulate speech sounds that compose words. In contrast, WernIcke‘s area is the area of the brain most associated with finding the meaning of words. While damage to Broca’s area can have some effect on language comprehension, it primarily makes speaking difficult. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 345-346 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. 8) Children's brains appear to go through a sensitive period, during which their brains are primed to acquire language. Correct: Most psychologists agree that there is a sensitive period for language—a time during childhood in which children’s brains are primed to develop language skills. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 343 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. 9) Frida is a four-year-old child. One day her mother points to an object and explains that it is a statue. Despite the fact that this is the first and only time someone explains what a statue is to Frida, she now understands the meaning of the word. Frida is demonstrating fast mapping, a process believed to help children learn language. Correct: The rapid growth of vocabulary in children has been attributed to a process called fast mapping—the ability to map words onto concepts or objects after only a single exposure. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 342 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language.

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1) Cognition is a synonym for __________. a. perception b. learning c. thinking d. intelligence Answer: c Page Reference: 325 2) Problem-solving methods that guarantee solutions if appropriate and properly executed are called __________. a. prototypes b. algorithms c. heuristics d. noncompensatory models Answer: b Page Reference: 325 3) A formula is an example of a(n) __________. a. logarithm b. algorithm c. response set d. heuristic Answer: b Page Reference: 325 4) Rules of thumb that do not guarantee a solution but may help bring one within reach are called __________. a. functional sets b. heuristics c. algorithms d. problem states Answer: b Page Reference: 325

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5) An admissions director for a university decides to keep the existing admissions policy since 80 percent of the students admitted eventually graduate. Unknown to her, 90 percent of the rejected applicants would also have been successful graduates. Her decision-making process is hampered by __________. a. the availability heuristic b. creating subgoals c. hill-climbing d. the representativeness heuristic Answer: a Page Reference: 328 6) Ivan is a consultant who has been asked to solve a technical problem for an electronics firm. When he arrives at the firm, he finds that the problem is exactly like a problem he has solved before. The first time he solved the problem it took him 37 hours. This time it takes him 26 hours. The MOST likely reason for his faster solution this time is __________. a. means-end analysis b. hill-climbing c. mental set d. creating subgoals Answer: c Page Reference: 327 7) Laboratory experiments suggest that animals have __________. a. some cognitive capacities b. cognitive capacities better than most humans c. almost no cognitive capabilities d. cognitive capabilities similar to most humans Answer: a Page Reference: 346–348 8) Among animals, the most impressive cognitive abilities show up in __________. a. whales b. rhesus monkeys Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. dolphins d. chimpanzees Answer: d Page Reference: 346–348 9) A baby's language that consists of repetition of consonant-vowel combinations is called __________. a. cooing b. telegraphic speech c. holophrasing d. babbling Answer: d Page Reference: 343 10) When told to read aloud the non-word “dat” in a class game, Gerry fixated on the word for a long time before responding with the word “cat.” Which disorder is Gerry most likely exhibiting? a. agnosia b. Wernicke’s aphasia c. dyslexia Correct: Dyslexia is characterized by difficulty reading. d. Broca’s aphasia Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 339, Module 8.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language. 11) If Gemma first sees the word “rain,” which word would she most likely recognize next if that word were partly obscured? a. pain b. reign c. rein Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. storm Correct: This phenomenon is related to the concept of semantic priming Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 317, Module 8.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how experience and culture can shapethe way we organize our knowledge. 12) Five-year-old Jordyn says “I falled down.” Which term best characterizes Jordan’s error in verbalization? a. an inflection b. an overextension c. an overproduction d. an overgeneralization Correct: When children use a known word to label a new object that looks similar, it is an overgeneralization Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 342, Module 8.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology from the study of language. 13) Dean experienced a seizure, during which he was unable to recognize faces. Which term best characterizes Dean’s experience? a. aphasia b. agnosia c. anomia d. prosopagnosia Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: d Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 314, Module 8.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. 14) _____________ is to putting together a meal as ____________ is to menu items. a. Phonesthemes; phonemes b. Syntax; morphemes Correct: Syntax are the rules of language; morphemes are the units of meaning. c. Morphemes; phonemes d. Phonemes; syntax Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 338, Module 8.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to distinguish between concepts such as phonemes and morphemes. 15) Which scenario provides the strongest support for both the nature and nurture aspects of language acquisition? a. All babies have the innate capacity for language in the brain, but are dependent on the environment to be able to express and produce any speech sounds or words. b. Without attention and reinforcement from their parents, babies would fail to develop language past the point of non-specific babbling sounds. c. All babies initially share the same basic phoneme categories but only use phonemes specific to the language they have heard by about 10 months of age. Correct: Babies start out the same (nature) but adapt based on experience (nurture). d. Babies cannot process speech sounds and noise until approximately 5 months of age as their temporal lobes and auditory cortices are still forming and developing neural connections. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 341, Module 8.3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. 16) Jack is a 10-month old who smiles every time his mother says words such as Mommy, puppy, bottle, blankie, and teddy. He also has learned to point at the object that is associated with the words she speaks. However, he has not yet been able to say the words himself. What does this example tell us about language acquisition? a. Babbling precedes comprehension. b. Comprehension precedes production. Correct: Language development begins with understanding and then proceeds to production. c. Recognition precedes comprehension. d. Babbling precedes recognition. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 337, Module 8.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. 17) Which individual would most likely be able to learn a second language more easily than the others? a. 27-year-old Zeke speaks Italian and is trying to learn Spanish. b. 14-year-old Carlos is trying to learn English and has only spoken Spanish until now. c. 9-year-old Chantelle speaks French and needs to learn Japanese because her family is moving to Japan. d. 5-year-old Luca speaks English and is trying to learn German. Correct: Young children learn second languages more easily. Children learn similar languages more easily. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 344, Module 8.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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18) Which scenario challenges the Whorf hypothesis? a. Some non-western cultures have few basic colour terms yet can distinguish among many shades of colour. Correct: The Whorf hypothesis predicts that fewer colour names would mean worse colour perception. b. Bilingual Japanese immigrants recall events that happened in Japan more accurately when speaking their native language. c. Koreans have terms for “tight fit” versus “loose fit,” which allows them to better discriminate between the two. d. The Inuit have a greater number of words for snow, which allows them to perceive many more distinctions among types of snow. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 321, Module 8.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how experience and culture can shape the way we organize our knowledge. 19) Why do individuals from Mexico easily categorize avocadoes as a fruit whereas western Europeans do not? a. What is considered to be typical of a category depends on cultural and social experience. Correct: People in Mexico will see avocadoes growing on trees, indicating to them that avocados are a fruit. b. Categorizations are somewhat independent of previous knowledge and experience. c. Familiarity with an item increases use of cognitive schemas and mental shortcuts. d. Taxonomic hierarchies are dependent on basic features of a category and may result in miscategorization. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 320, Module 8.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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20) Julie is fairly quiet and shy. She enjoys reading in her spare time and loves researching the background information on many topics. She belongs to a social club that includes three librarians, nine business people, and eight social workers. A tendency to conclude that Julie must be one of the three librarians would illustrate the powerful influence of a. confirmation bias. b. the framing effect. c. the representativeness heuristic. Correct: The representativeness heuristic involves making judgments of likelihood based on how well an example represents a specific category. d. the belief perseverance phenomenon. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 327, Module 8.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. 21) By encouraging people to imagine their homes being destroyed by a fire, insurance salespeople are especially successful at selling large homeowners' policies. They are most clearly exploiting the influence of a. belief perseverance. b. the representativeness heuristic. c. overconfidence. d. the availability heuristic. Correct: The tendency for people to believe that things that they can remember more easily are also more probable characterizes the availability heuristic. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 328, Module 8.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making.

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1) One type of mental representation is the concept. How do concepts allow us to relate to the world around us in a manageable way? What are categories, and how do they relate to our use of concepts? Create an example to show what a person's experience in a novel situation might be like if humans didn't organize the world based on concepts and categories. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. Examples will vary. - Concepts simplify and summarize information about the world so that it is manageable. - Because of concepts, we can organize information in a meaningful way and identify new objects and ideas quickly. - Categories refer to clusters of interrelated concepts, and help us to understand the relationship between concepts. - Without concepts or categories, in a novel environment we would have to carefully examine every object to determine what it was and what purpose it served. - For example, every time we met a different type of dog, we would be unsure of what type of animal it is. Page Reference: 315-317 2) Is heuristic thinking good, bad, or somewhere in between? What advantages—if any— are associated with heuristic thinking? Are there disadvantages to using heuristics, and if so, what are they? Use the availability heuristic to provide examples to support your claims. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. Examples will vary. - Heuristic thinking is generally beneficial, but it can also lead to errors. - One reason heuristics are beneficial is that they are an efficient way to make decisions. - However, heuristics can lead to certain biases and mistakes. - For example, the availability heuristic entails estimating the frequency of an event based on how easily examples of it come to mind. - If you were asked whether there are more male or female members of Congress, the fact that it is easier to think of specific congressmen than congresswomen would help you quickly guess that there are more male members. - However, if you were asked to estimate the danger of being in a plane crash, many people would overestimate the danger because the emotional salience of plane crashes makes them very memorable. Page Reference: 325–327

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 8: Thought and Language

3) Identify three specific nonhuman primates discussed in your textbook that researchers attempted to teach to use language. In each example, briefly describe the research and the results. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Viki—a chimpanzee that was raised as a member of a human family (i.e., crossfostered). After many years of trying, Viki could only whisper about four words. - Washoe—a chimpanzee taught to use American Sign Language. Washoe learned approximately 200 signs and was able to generalize some of them to new situations. - Kanzi—a bonobo taught to use keys on a computerized board to communicate. His trainers argue that Kanzi was able to understand symbols and at least some syntax. Page Reference: 346–347

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 8: Thought and Language 1. According to classical categorization, people use _____ to decide if an object belongs to a specific category. a. prototypes b. semantic networks c. specific rules or features d. categorization by comparison Answer: C Module 8.1 2. The linguist relativity hypothesis suggests that a. the way we think about categories affects the language we use. b. there are many different ways to describe the same category. c. words are organized mentally based on their relationship to each other. d. the language that we use affects how we think about the world. Answer: D Module 8.1 3. When Kwan’s computer stopped working, he called the company’s technical support line. The technician followed a predetermined set of steps from a manual to diagnose and help Kwan fix his computer over the phone. The steps that the technician followed are an example of what type of problem-solving strategy? a. algorithmic b. anchoring c. functional fixedness d. heuristic Answer: A Module 8.2 4. People often overestimate the danger of shark attacks because it is fairly easy to think of news stories and reports of shark attacks. This is an example of how the _____ can sometimes lead to poor judgments. a. availability heuristic b. anchoring effect c. functional fixedness effect d. representativeness heuristic Answer: A Module 8.2 5. Han and Bert both bought the same new cell phone. Han spent several weeks reviewing the dozens of different phones and reading reviews online, trying to find the best phone possible for his needs. Bert simply bought the first phone that met his needs. Given the research on maximizers and satisficers, which is most likely to be the outcome? a. Han and Bert will end up equally satisfied about their purchases. b. Han will be more satisfied with his purchase than Bert. c. Bert will be more satisfied with his purchase than Han. d. Han will spend less time researching his purchase next time. Answer: C Module 8.2 6. The smallest units of language that convey meaning are known as: a. semantics. b. morphemes. c. phonemes. d. syntaxes. Answer: B Module 8.3

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 8: Thought and Language 7. Seth tells his friend that he got two tickets to a big concert next week, to which his friend replies, “Get out of town!” Because of the context, Seth knows his friend is expressing excitement and doesn’t really want him to leave town. This is an example of: a. pragmatics. b. linguistic relativity. c. semantics. d. syntax. Answer: A Module 8.3 8 Wernicke’s area is most closely associated with: a. speech production. b. muscle control. c. singing. d. understanding language. Answer: D Module 8.3 9. The “sensitive period” for language refers to: a. a period of time in our ancestral past when language first evolved. b. a period of time during gestation when the language areas of the brain develop. c. a time during young adulthood when accents can be reformed. d. a time during childhood when children are especially wired to learn language. Answer: D Module 8.3 10. Studies in which researchers have attempted to teach language to non-human animals have generally found that: a. chimpanzees and gorillas are the only animal species that can fully learn language. b. some animals are capable of learning elements of human language, but they have not convincingly demonstrated human-like language use. c. animals are incapable of learning even the most basic elements of human language. d. dolphins are the only animal species that can fully learn language. Answer: B Module 8.3

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

1) Most intelligence tests are normed so that the average (mean) IQ is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. Correct: Using a statistical technique, the scores for intelligence tests are typically adjusted so that the average and standard deviation are 100 and 15, respectively. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 355 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. 2) Marcus is only 8 years old. However, his score on the Stanford-Binet test is the same as the average 10-year -ld. Therefore, Marcus' mental age is 10. Correct: Binet and Simon used the concept of mental age, the average or typical test score for a specific chronological age, to measure achievement. A child with a mental age lower than his or her actual (chronological) age would be considered behind in his or her schooling. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 354 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. 3) Charles Spearman used the letter g as an abbreviation for general intelligence. Correct: Charles Spearman hypothesized the existence of a general intelligence (g), which could be represented by a single test score. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 365 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. 4) In healthy adults, crystallized intelligence does not decline very much in later adulthood, and may even increase. Correct: Crystallized intelligence (Gc) is a form of intelligence that relies on extensive experience and knowledge and, therefore, tends to be relatively stable and robust. Healthy, older adults generally do not show much decline in Gc; in fact, some evidence indicates that Gc may increase with age. Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

Type: FIB Page Reference: 369-371 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand why intelligence is divided into fluid and crystallized types. 5) Analytical, creative, and practical intelligence constitute Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence. Correct: Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory is a model of intelligence consisting of three domains: analytical intelligence, practical intelligence, and creative intelligence. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 371 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. 6) One way to determine how specific genes influence behaviour is to breed mice that have had the gene removed from their genome. A research project using this technique is referred to as a gene knockout study. Correct: Gene knockout (KO) studies involve removing a specific gene thought to be involved in a trait (such as intelligence) and testing the effects of removing the gene by comparing behaviour of animals without the gene with those that have it. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 380 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. 7) Children who hold a(n) entity theory of intelligence are more likely than other children to give up in the face of highly challenging problems. Correct: Dweck and her colleagues found that those students who held entity theories were more likely to give up in the face of highly challenging problems, and they were likely to withdraw from situations that resulted in failure. These individuals believe that successful people were born that way, so they do not see the point in continuing to work at difficult problems. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 360-362 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the concepts of entity theory and incremental theory to help kids stay in school. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

1) Which of these might be an example of a performance item on the Wechsler tests of intelligence? a. repeating a series of digits b. defining a word such as lunch c. using blocks to make a design like one shown in a picture d. adding a series of orally presented numbers Answer: c Page Reference: 356 2) The Binet scale was originally developed to __________. a. identify children who might have difficulty in school b. identify gifted children c. measure scholastic achievement d. measure the intelligence of normal children Answer: a Page Reference: 354 3) __________ percent of the population has IQ scores between 70 and 130. a. Sixty-five b. Seventy-five c. Eighty-five d. Ninety-five Answer: d Page Reference: 355 4) Which of these is one of Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences? a. poetic b. naturalist c. creative d. digital Answer: b Page Reference: 372 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

5) A committee has been set up to identify young people who are likely to become great Olympics skaters. In addition to physical skills, the committee believes that an understanding of one's emotions is a plus because it will help the skaters through training and competitions. Using Howard Gardner's types of intelligences, which two should be the focus of their search? a. bodily kinesthetic and intrapersonal b. logical/mathematical and visual/spatial c. visual/spatial and interpersonal d. verbal/linguistic and logical/mathematical Answer: a Page Reference: 372 6) Sal is being evaluated as a possible candidate for the space program. On which of Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences would we expect him to excel if he is a good candidate? a. spatial reasoning b. interpersonal c. naturalist d. intrapersonal Answer: a Page Reference: 372 7) The ability to produce work that is both novel and appropriate is called a. insight. b. heuristics. c. creativity. d. latent learning. Answer: c Page Reference: 371 8) Galton’s intelligence test items are to ________________ as Binet and Simon’s intelligence test items are to ________________. a. abstract thinking; concrete thinking b. general intelligence; specific intelligences Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

c. sensation; higher mental processes Correct: Galton’s tests focused on perceptual processing while Binet and Simon looked at cognitive abilities. d. crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 353-354, Module 9.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. 9) Dean is learning how to drive a car. What type of intelligence would Dean most likely be using? a. naturalistic b. practical c. fluid Correct: Fluid intelligence is dynamic and changing. d. crystallized Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 369, Module 9.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. 10) Sternberg is to Spearman as ______________ is to ______________. a. general (g) intelligence; practical intelligence b. analytical intelligence; general (g) intelligence Correct: Sternberg proposed the triarchic theory; Spearman proposed that we have a general intelligence he termedg. c. multiple intelligences; specific abilities d. creative intelligence; crystallized intelligence Answer: b Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 368, 371, Module 9.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. 11) Which individual is likely to have an IQ score that is most similar to Darrell’s? a. Darrell’s adopted brother Dave b. Darrell’s cousin Sarah c. Darrell’s sister Debra Correct: The closer the genetic relationship, the more likely the IQ scores will be similar. d. Darrell’s cousin Derreck Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 378, Module 9.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

1) Alfred Binet's insight regarding a method of measuring achievement had an international impact in the twentieth century. What was the original purpose of his test and how did he quantify (measure) achievement? What scoring system did later researchers base on Binet's method, and how was it originally calculated? Answer: The French government asked Alfred Binet to develop a test that would help identify school children who may need extra help. Binet thought that intelligence allows a person to think, understand, reason, and adapt to overcome obstacles and was the result of a complex interaction of processes including memory, attention, and comprehension. Binet and his colleague Theodore Simon developed thirty tasks of increasing difficulty that, when completed, would demonstrate the child’s current abilities. The researchers gave the tests to children of different ages creating a “standard score” for each age. When a child was administered the test, the score was compared to Binet’s standards to determine the child’s “mental age.” The mental age was divided by the child’s chronological age to create an “intelligence quotient” (or IQ). The notion of dividing a test score by a standard score was carried over to the United States in the form of a Stanford-Binet intelligence test; however, administrators of this test claimed it measured innate intelligence instead of current abilities (which was the premise of Binet’s tests). Page Reference: 354 2) Some researchers have used factor analysis to support the idea that there are multiple types of intelligences. Explain why evidence from head injuries, the existence of savants, and most people's everyday experiences with those around them also support the theory of multiple intelligences. Answer: There are many individuals who show extreme abilities in a specific domain, such as music, art, math, memory, or sports, but very limited abilities in other domains such as language, social skills, or the ability to care for oneself. The presence of the exceptional ability independent of exceptional ability in other areas garners support for Gardner’s notion of “multiple intelligences” and may suggest that when measuring a person’s intelligence we need to take into consideration more than just those types of questions found on a typical IQ test. The experience of everyday people also suggests multiple intelligences; not all of us are able to become great musicians but are nonetheless capable at school. In addition, most people agree with Sternberg’s observation that while a person may have a high IQ score and high “analytic” intelligence they may lack the common sense or creative ability of someone who has a lower IQ. When taken together, the results from savants and our experiences in everyday life suggest that humans possess the capacity for many highly variable aptitudes in addition to those scored on a typical IQ test. Page Reference: 367–372

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

3) One reason individuals from certain populations underperform on aptitude tests is stereotype threat. Explain what stereotype threat is and then describe three different ways it can lower test scores. Answer: Stereotype threat is the observation of lower test scores in a population that believes it lacks ability in the area being tested. A common example of stereotype threat is girls believing that they are worse at math than boys and consequently doing worse on math tests than boys. Stereotype threat can lower test scores in three ways. First, the group may avoid the subject and thus perform worse on tests. Second, the evaluators may be biased against one group (e.g. girls) and mark tests lower as a result. Third, the test taker may influence her own performance and do worse on a test simply because she does not believe she is capable of doing well. Page Reference: 359–360

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing 1. Which of the following is the best psychological definition of intelligence? a. How much a person knows b. The ability to think, understand, reason, and cognitively adapt to and overcome obstacles c. The score on an intelligence test d. The ability to quickly learn new material Answer: B Module 9.1 2. Using the original formula for the intelligence quotient, an 8-year-old child with a mental age of 10 would have an IQ that: a. is exactly 100. b. is greater than 100. c. is less than 100. d. cannot be determined without more information. Answer: B Module 9.1 3. Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between brain size and some aspects of intelligence? a. Brain size is moderately related to intelligence. b. There is no relationship between brain size and intelligence. c. Brain size is an almost perfect predictor of intelligence. d. The number and size of cerebral gyri, but not overall brain size, are related to intelligence. Answer: A Module 9.1 4. Whereas _____ intelligence tends to decrease in later life, _____ intelligence generally does not decline, and may even continue to increase. a. general; crystallized b. general; fluid c. crystallized; fluid d. fluid; crystallized Answer: D Module 9.2 5. Hussein is a small business owner. He was a C student in school and does not generally think of himself as very “smart.” Nonetheless, Hussein does an excellent job of running his business and dealing intelligently with real-world problems when they arise. According to the triarchic theory of intelligence, which type of intelligence is Hussein demonstrating? a. Creative b. Analytical c. Crystallized d. Practical Answer: D Module 9.2 6. What does the Flynn effect refer to? a. The increase in average IQ test scores over decades b. The decrease in average IQ test scores over decades c. The higher IQ test average scores for Asian Americans compared to European Americans d. The lower IQ test average scores for African Americans compared to European Americans Answer: A Module 9.2

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing 7. Which of the following statements supports the theory that intelligence is determined in part by genes? a. The correlation between IQ scores is stronger for fraternal twins than it is for identical twins. b. Diet and lifestyle factors influence intelligence. c. Offspring are more similar to their parents when they grow up with them as opposed to when children are raised apart from their parents. d. Identical twins separated by adoption still have highly correlated IQ scores. Answer: D Module 9.3 8. Differences between men and women on mental rotation and verbal fluency tests may reflect differences in _____ levels in the brain. a. testosterone b. estrogen c. serotonin d. dopamine Answer: A Module 9.3 9. Carla is asked to take a math test by a job placement company. As she sits down to take the test, Carla begins to think about how women are often viewed as being worse at math than men. These thoughts cause Carla to experience discomfort and anxiety during the test, which then have a negative impact on her test result. Carla’s dilemma is an example of what psychologists call _____. a. the Flynn effect b. covert discrimination c. stereotype threat d. confirmation bias Answer: C Module 9.3

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

1) Which of the following is the best psychological description for intelligence? a. how creative a person is b. how much a person knows c. how well a person can understand, reason, and cognitively adapt to obstacles d. how "street smart" a person is Correct: Intelligence is the ability to think, understand, reason, and cognitively adapt to and overcome obstacles. Thus, intelligence reflects not just how much you know, but how you recognize and solve problems. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 354 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

2) The average score on most IQ tests is a. 15. b. 100. c. 150. d. 500. Correct: For most intelligence tests, the norm or average score is 100. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 355 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

b. slightly below average. c. average. d. above average. Correct: For most intelligence tests, the norm or average score is 100. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 354–355 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

4) Misha receives a score of 115 on a standardized intelligence test. This indicates that Misha is _______ standard deviations __________ average. a. one; below b. one; above c. three; below. d. three; above. Correct: For most intelligence tests, the norm or average score is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. Therefore, a score of 115 is one standard deviation above the mean. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 355 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

5) Binet and Simon considered children behind in their schooling if their a. mental age equalled their chronological age. b. mental age were lower than their chronological age. c. mental age were higher than their chronological age. d. mental age did not equal their chronological age. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

Correct: Binet and Simon used the concept of mental age, the average or typical test score for a specific chronological age, to measure achievement. A child with a mental age lower than his or her actual (chronological) age would be considered behind in his or her schooling. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 354 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

6) Binet and Simon measured children using what new concept? a. divergent thinking b. mental set c. mental age d. creativity Correct: Binet and Simon used the concept of mental age, the average or typical test score for a specific chronological age, to measure academic achievement. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 354 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

7) Binet and Simon originally developed their famous test to a. identify children who might have difficulty in school. b. identify gifted children. c. measure the intelligence of adults. d. measure the intelligence of normal children.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

Correct: In 1904, the French government created the Commission on the Education of Retarded Children. As part of this commission, Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon developed a method of assessing children's academic achievement at school, which was then used to identify students who would need extra assistance. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 354 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

8) ________, a professor of psychology at Stanford University, revised Binet and Simon's test so it could be used with American school children. a. William Stern b. Lewis Terman c. Henri Simon d. David Wechsler Correct: Lewis Terman at Stanford University had the achievement test developed by Binet and Simon translated to English and extended the test beyond school ages to include very high-achieving adults. This modified test, published in 1916, was named the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 354 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

9) ________ devised a simple formula for calculating an index of intelligence, or intelligence quotient (IQ). a. Theo Simon b. Lewis Terman

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

c. Franz Gall d. Louis Thurstone Correct: Terman adopted William Stern’s concept of the intelligence quotient, or IQ , a label that has stuck to the present day. IQ is calculated by taking a person’s mental age, dividing it by his chronological age, and then multiplying by 100. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

10) The formula that uses chronological age (CA) and mental age (MA) to calculate the intelligence quotient is: a. (MA ÷ CA) × 100. b. CA ÷ MA × 100. c. (MA × CA) ÷ 100. d. 100 ÷ (MA + CA). Correct: Terman adopted William Stern’s concept of the intelligence quotient, or IQ , a label that has stuck to the present day. IQ is calculated by taking a person’s mental age, dividing it by his chronological age, and then multiplying by 100. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 354 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

11) Who has the highest IQ? a. Clarissa, with a mental age of 9 and a chronological age of 9. b. Matt, with a mental age of 9 and a chronological age of 10. c. Cecilee, with a mental age of 9 and a chronological age of 7.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

d. Morgan, with a mental age of 7 and a chronological age of 7. Correct: The original formula for calculating the intelligence quotient (IQ) was mental age ÷ chronological age × 100. Because Cecilee is the only one whose mental age is greater than her chronological age, she is the only one with an IQ greater than 100. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 354 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

12) Twelve-year-old Arnold received an IQ test score of 75. Using the original definition for IQ, what is his mental age? a. 9 b. 10 c. 5 d. 7 Correct: The original formula for calculating the intelligence quotient (IQ) was mental age ÷ chronological age × 100. Using this equation, a 12-year-old would have an IQ of 75 if his mental age were 9, (9 ÷ 12) = 0.75; 0.75 × 100 = 75. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 354 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

13) What is the IQ of a 10-year-old with a mental age of 8? a. 125 b. 80 c. 1.25

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

d. 0.8 Correct: The original formula for calculating the intelligence quotient (IQ) was mental age ÷ chronological age × 100. Using this equation, a 10-year-old with a mental age of 8 would have an IQ of 80, (8 ÷ 10) = 0.8; 0.8 × 100 = 80. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 354 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

14) Based on IQ score as calculated by Terman, a student with an IQ score of 120 is likely to answer IQ test questions like someone who is age _____, even though the student is _____. a. 10; 12 b. 12; 11 c. 10; 8 d. 12; 10 Correct: The original formula for calculating the intelligence quotient (IQ) was mental age ÷ chronological age × 100. Using this equation, a 10-year-old with a mental age of 12 would have an IQ of 120, (12 ÷ 10) = 1.2; 1.2 × 100 = 120. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 354 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

15) One of the odd twists in the history of psychology is that Binet and Simon's test started out as a way to measure____________, but was adapted by others into a measure of ________________. a. academic achievement; innate intelligence

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

b. innate intelligence; academic achievement c. chronological age; mental age d. mental age; chronological age Correct: Binet had viewed his original test as a measure of achievement, not as a measure of an innate capacity. Nonetheless, the Stanford-Binet test, an adapted version of the original test, quickly came to be used as a measure of innate intelligence. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 354 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

16) What is the most commonly used intelligence for testing adolescents and adults? a. Standford-Binet b. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) c. Binet-Simon d. Raven's Progressive Matrices Correct: The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is the most commonly used intelligence test used with adolescents and adults. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 355 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

17) The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale provides a Full Scale IQ measurement, but also breaks intelligence into which two indices? a. General Ability and Cognitive Proficiency b. Emotional Intelligence and Academic Intelligence Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

c. Visual and Auditory d. Achievement and Aptitude Correct: The WAIS provides a single IQ score for each test taker—the Full Scale IQ—but also breaks intelligence into a General Ability Index (GAI) and a Cognitive Proficiency Index (CPI). Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 355 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

18) Sam and Julie each scored 110 on the WAIS. Based on their scores, which is true? a. If Sam scored high in math, then Julie scored high in math. b. If Sam scored high in comprehension, then Julie scored high in comprehension. c. Two people with the same IQ score could have very different abilities. d. Two people with the same IQ score should have the same abilities. Correct: The Full Scale IQ score for the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is computed from several indexes, which each measure different aspects of intelligence. Therefore, it is entirely possible that two people with the same Full Scale IQ have different scores on the various indexes. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 355 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

19) Zoe wants to test the IQ of a group of ESL students who do not speak any English. What test might you recommend to her? a. Stanford-Binet b. Raven's Progressive Matrices Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

c. WAIS d. Binet-Simon Correct: Raven's Progressive Matrices is an intelligence test that emphasizes problems that are intended not to be bound to a particular language or culture. The other tests listed require knowledge of the test developer's language and culture to varying degrees. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 355–356 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

20) Which of the following kinds of items would most likely be found on a culture-free IQ test? a. visual pattern completion b. sentence completion c. vocabulary recognition d. general information Correct: Culture-free tests attempt to measure intelligence in a way that is independent of culture and language. Test items that involve visual patterns and pictures are commonly used in culture-free tests, such as Raven's Progressive Matrices. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 355–357 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

21) What is a dominant characteristic of culture-free IQ tests? a. Minimal verbal skills are required. b. They feature a large number of items pertaining to the test taker's culture.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

c. They offer a large percentage of math-based questions to reduce the strain on language. d. They are always administered orally. Correct: Culture-free tests attempt to measure intelligence in a way that is independent of culture and language. This means that culture-free tests tend to rely on minimal verbal skills. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 355–357 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

22) The cousin of Charles Darwin who suggested that the unusual eminence of his own family was due to genetic gifts was a. Alfred Binet. b. James Cattell. c. Henri Simon. d. Sir Francis Galton. Correct: Sir Francis Galton used heredity to explain the eminence of his family, which included notable scholars such as his cousin, Charles Darwin. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 357–358 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the reasoning behind the eugenics movements and its use of intelligence tests.

23) Which of the following is representative of Sir Francis Galton's perspective on intelligence? a. Galton believed that intelligence was determined 50% by environment and 50% by genes.

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b. Galton placed a lot of stock in heredity and believed that genes significantly influenced intelligence. c. Galton was an environmentalist and believed that social factors significantly influenced intelligence. d. Galton believed that intelligence was a trait that changed significantly over time. Correct: Sir Francis Galton believed that intelligence was inherited, and was not determined by environmental factors. Because Galton believed that intelligence was not the result of factors such as practice and experience, he believed that it was a very stable trait. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 357–358 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the reasoning behind the eugenics movements and its use of intelligence tests.

24) Which researcher tried to measure intelligence by using perceptual tests? a. Alfred Binet b. Theodore Simon c. Sir Francis Galton d. Charles Spearman Correct: Sir Francis Galton became one of the first to try to scientifically measure intelligence through a program of research he called anthropometrics. Specifically, he presented a series of perceptual tests to hundreds of people. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 353 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

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25) According to your textbook, researchers have found a strong positive relationship between intelligence and ________________. a. working memory capacity b. visual acuity c. typing speed d. schizophrenia Correct: Greater working memory capacity and processing speed allow more cognitive resources to be devoted to reasoning and solving problems. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 355 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

26) Which of the following is true about the relationship between the brain and intelligence scores? a. Brain size, but not the degree of convolution, is correlated with intelligence scores. b. The degree of convolution, but not brain size, is correlated with intelligence scores. c. Both the size and degree of convolution of the cortex are correlated with intelligence scores. d. Neither the size, nor the degree of convolution of the cortex, are correlated with intelligence scores. Correct: The size of the cortex and increased convolutions (gyri) are associated with higher intelligence scores. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 381 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. 27) Which of the following was true about the brain of Albert Einstein?

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a. It was heavier than the average human brain. b. It was smaller and lighter than the average human brain. c. Its weight was average for a human brain. d. It was never studied. Correct: The average human brain is between 1300 and 1400 grams. Einstein's brain measured 1230 grams. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 377 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. 28) Which of the following best describes the relationship between a person's brain size, and his or her intelligence? a. There is no relationship between brain size and intelligence. b. Brain size is correlated with intelligence, but the relationship is complicated and poorly understood. c. Large brain size is a consistent predictor of high intellectual ability. d. Small brain size is a consistent predictor of high intellectual ability. Correct: While brain size is moderately correlated with intelligence, other factors may account for individual differences. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 381 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence.

29) Who was the inventor of the statistical technique called factor analysis, a method that compares results of different correlational measures to identify patterns, or "factors," among them? a. Alfred Binet

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b. Henri Simon c. Sir Francis Galton d. Charles Spearman Correct: Charles Spearman developed techniques to calculate correlations among multiple measures of mental abilities. One of these techniques, known as factor analysis, is a statistical technique that reveals similarities among a wide variety of items. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 365 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

30) Who would have supported the notion that intelligence resulted from a single ability and could be represented by a single test score? a. Gardner b. Spearman c. Sternberg d. Thurstone Correct: Charles Spearman hypothesized the existence of a general intelligence (g), which could be represented by a single test score. In contrast, many other researchers have suggested the existence of separate or multiple intelligences. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 365 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

31) According to Spearman, it is one's ________ intelligence that produces the positive correlations found between math, reading scores, and visual perception tests. a. general b. emotional Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. crystallized d. fluid Correct: Charles Spearman hypothesized the existence of a general intelligence (g). Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 365 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

32) Ms. Bouvier is a first grade teacher. She has just given Chelsea a reading test. Chelsea scored very high in word recognition, so Ms. Bouvier assumes she will score high on the rest of the test. It is clear that Ms. Bouvier believes in the ____________ factor of intelligence. a. g b. s c. a d. r Correct: Charles Spearman hypothesized the existence of a general intelligence (abbreviated as g)—a concept that intelligence is a basic cognitive trait comprising the ability to learn, reason, and solve problems regardless of their nature. According to this concept, a person who was good at reading, would also be good at a number of tasks, because they would all be determined by the same factor (i.e., g). Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 365 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

33) Terence is a skilled musician, writer, computer programmer, and problem solver. The fact that Terence is good at so many diverse activities supports the notion of _____________ intelligence. a. modal Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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b. transferable c. triarchic d. general Correct: Charles Spearman hypothesized the existence of a general intelligence (abbreviated as g)—a concept that intelligence is a basic cognitive trait comprising the ability to learn, reason, and solve problems regardless of their nature. According to this concept, a person who was good at one cognitive task, would also be good at a number of tasks, because they would all be determined by the same factor (i.e., g). Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 365 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

34) Because Ken's history professor was a college student during the 1970s, he has extraordinary insight and knowledge of facts concerning the Vietnam War era. This knowledge is associated with the term a. crystallized intelligence. b. fluid intelligence. c. general intelligence. d. multiple intelligence. Correct: Crystallized intelligence (Gc), is a form of intelligence that relies on extensive experience and knowledge and, therefore, tends to be relatively stable and robust. In this example, the history professor's knowledge and insight into the Vietnam War era is a form of Gc. In contrast, fluid intelligence (Gf), is a type of intelligence that is used to adapt to new situations and solve new problems without relying on previous knowledge. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 369 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand why intelligence is divided into fluid and crystallized types.

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35) Brandon can name all 50 U.S. states and capitals. Which type of intelligence is he relying most on? a. semantic b. fluid c. crystallized d. static Correct: Crystallized intelligence (Gc) is a form of intelligence that relies on extensive experience and knowledge and, therefore, tends to be relatively stable and robust. In contrast, fluid intelligence (Gf) is a type of intelligence that is used to adapt to new situations and solve new problems without relying on previous knowledge. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 369 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand why intelligence is divided into fluid and crystallized types.

36) Megan is very good at solving problems, even though she has had very little formal training. For example, Megan was able to solve the difficult Rubik's Cube puzzle the first time she tried. Megan clearly has a high degree of ____________ intelligence. a. semantic b. fluid c. crystallized d. static Correct: Fluid intelligence (Gf) is a type of intelligence that is used to adapt to new situations and solve new problems without relying on previous knowledge. In contrast, crystallized intelligence (Gc) is a form of intelligence that relies on extensive experience and knowledge and, therefore, tends to be relatively stable and robust. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 369 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand why intelligence is divided into fluid and crystallized types.

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37) ____________ intelligence allows people to solve problems that they have not previously experienced, while _____________ intelligence involves applying previous experience and knowledge to solving a problem. a. Crystallized; fluid b. Fluid; crystallized c. Analytical; practical d. Practical; analytical Correct: Fluid intelligence (Gf) is a type of intelligence that is used to adapt to new situations and solve new problems without relying on previous knowledge. In contrast, crystallized intelligence (Gc) is a form of intelligence that relies on extensive experience and knowledge and, therefore, tends to be relatively stable and robust. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 369 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand why intelligence is divided into fluid and crystallized types.

38) Vocabulary tests primarily measure ________________ intelligence. a. crystallized b. fluid c. creative d. existential Correct: Crystallized intelligence (Gc) is a form of intelligence that relies on extensive experience and knowledge and, therefore, tends to be relatively stable and robust. Vocabulary tests measure Gc because they test for prior knowledge (i.e., the meaning of words). Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 369 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand why intelligence is divided into fluid and crystallized types.

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39) It is generally the case that most great scientists have their ground-breaking ideas when they are in early to middle adulthood, but rarely when they are older. What might explain this fact? a. The brain shrinks with age. b. General intelligence declines steeply after middle adulthood. c. Fluid intelligence peaks in middle adulthood, and then declines in later life. d. Crystallized intelligence peaks in middle adulthood, and then declines in later life. Correct: Crystallized intelligence tends to increase throughout life, but fluid intelligence peaks around early to middle adulthood. Because making ground-breaking discoveries can require problem solving that requires new ways of thinking, not just acquired knowledge, this is likely the reason scientific breakthroughs decline with age. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 369–370 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand why intelligence is divided into fluid and crystallized types.

40) Which of the following typically happens to crystallized intelligence as healthy adults age? a. Crystallized intelligence peaks at middle age and then declines. b. Crystallized intelligence is slowly replaced by fluid intelligence. c. Crystallized intelligence remains stable or increases with experience. d. Crystallized intelligence steadily declines throughout the lifespan. Correct: Fluid intelligence peaks around early to middle adulthood and then declines. In contrast, crystallized intelligence tends not to decrease in healthy adults, and may even increase with experience. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 369–370 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand why intelligence is divided into fluid and crystallized types.

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41) Which of the following is a healthy older adult most likely to do as well—or even better than—a younger adult? a. pattern recognition b. a geometric puzzle c. a vocabulary test d. a timed problem-solving task Correct: Fluid intelligence peaks around early to middle adulthood and then declines. In contrast, crystallized intelligence tends not to decrease in healthy adults, and may even increase with experience. Vocabulary tests primarily measure crystallized intelligence, whereas the other options involve fluid intelligence. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 369–370 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand why intelligence is divided into fluid and crystallized types.

42) Which of the following is a younger adult most likely to do better than a healthy older adult? a. naming the capitals of provinces b. solving a geometric puzzle c. defining vocabulary words d. calculating the area of a circle from the length of the radius Correct: Fluid intelligence peaks around early to middle adulthood and then declines. In contrast, crystallized intelligence tends not to decrease in healthy adults, and may even increase with experience. Solving a geometric puzzle relies on fluid intelligence, whereas the other options rely primarily on crystallized intelligence. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 369–370 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand why intelligence is divided into fluid and crystallized types.

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43) Janet has an IQ score that is much lower than average and has been diagnosed as having a form of autism. Despite her disabilities, Janet can perform incredible feats of mental arithmetic, including finding the square root of five-digit numbers without a calculator or paper and pencil! Janet would be classified as a a. kinetic learner. b. crystallized thinker. c. fluid thinker. d. savant. Correct: Savants are individuals with low mental capacity in most domains but extraordinary abilities in other specific areas such as music, mathematics, or art. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 364 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

44) Which of the following does NOT support the idea of multiple intelligences? a. Head injury can lead to the loss of one ability but not others. b. People who score highly on intelligence tests often excel in a number of areas. c. Intelligent people vary a great deal in terms of physical, social, and artistic skills. d. Savants may have low mental capacities, but excel at specific abilities. Correct: The fact that high intelligence scores often predict a person will excel in a number of different areas supports the concept of general intelligence, not multiple intelligences. All of the other options support the existence of distinct intelligences. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 365–367 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

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45) What three types of intelligence constitute Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence? a. global, intuitive, and special b. general, global, and specific c. mathematical, reasoning, and verbal d. analytical, creative, and practical Correct: Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory is a model of intelligence consisting of three domains: analytical intelligence, practical intelligence, and creative intelligence. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 371 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

46) According to Robert Sternberg, ____________ is the ability to come up with new ways of solving problems. a. analytical intelligence b. creative intelligence c. practical intelligence d. general intelligence Correct: According to Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory, creative intelligence is the ability to create new ideas to solve problems. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 371 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify examples from the triarchic theory of intelligence.

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47) According to Robert Sternberg, _______________ is best described as the ability to use information to address real-world problems. a. analytical intelligence b. creative intelligence c. practical intelligence d. general intelligence Correct: According to Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory, practical intelligence is the ability to address real-world problems that are encountered in daily life, especially those that occur in an individual's specific work context and family life. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 371 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify examples from the triarchic theory of intelligence.

48) According to Sternberg's theory, which statement is true? a. Creative intelligence is similar to crystallized intelligence. b. Practical intelligence involves our ability to use original thinking to solve problems. c. Analytical intelligence is similar to Spearman's g factor of intelligence. d. Practical intelligence is similar to Gardner's naturalistic intelligence. Correct: Analytical intelligence is the verbal, mathematical problem-solving type of intelligence that probably comes to mind when we speak of intelligence. It is close to the concept of academic achievement and the notion of intelligence as measured by g. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 365, 371 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

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49) According to Sternberg, ________ intelligence is akin to what most people think of when they think of the term intelligence. a. analytical b. creative c. practical d. fluid Correct: Analytical intelligence is the verbal, mathematical problem-solving type of intelligence that probably comes to mind when we speak of intelligence. It is close to the concept of academic achievement and the notion of intelligence as measured by g. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 371 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

50) Frank doesn't necessarily have a high IQ as measured on standardized intelligence tests, but he is well aware of his strengths and weaknesses. He chooses jobs that suit his strengths and is particularly skilled at adapting to any changes in his environment. Frank likely has high ________ intelligence as defined in the triarchic theory. a. creative b. analytical c. experiential d. practical Correct: According to Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory, practical intelligence is the ability to address real-world problems that are encountered in daily life, especially those that occur in an individual's specific work context and family life. In this example, Frank's ability to choose jobs that suit his abilities and adapt to changes in his life indicates a high degree of practical intelligence. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 371 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify examples from the triarchic theory of intelligence. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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51) A theory of intelligence with eight components was postulated by a. Gardner. b. Spearman. c. Sternberg. d. Terman. Correct: Howard Gardner proposed the concept of multiple intelligences, a model claiming that eight different forms of intelligence exist, each independent from the others. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 371–372 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

52) Gardner and his associates are known for proposing a. the generalized theory of intelligence. b. the triarchic theory of intelligence. c. the theory of multiple intelligences. d. the theory of emotional intelligence. Correct: Howard Gardner proposed the concept of multiple intelligences, a model claiming that eight different forms of intelligence exist, each independent from the others. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 372 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

53) According to Gardner, there are ________ types of intelligence. a. two

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b. four c. six d. nine Correct: Howard Gardner proposed the concept of multiple intelligences, a model claiming that eight (now updated to nine) different forms of intelligence exist, each independent from the others. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 372 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

54) Whose theory suggests that Tiger Woods's ability to hit a golf ball might be considered a form of intelligence? a. Spearman b. Galton c. Binet d. Gardner Correct: Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences holds that many different human abilities could be considered forms of intelligence, including linguistic, interpersonal, and bodily-kinesthetic (as in Woods's case). Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 372 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

55) Which of these is one of Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences? a. poetic b. digital

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c. creative d. naturalist Correct: Naturalist intelligence—the ability to recognize and identify processes in the natural world—is one of Gardner's eight intelligences. The other options are not. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 372 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

56) Corrie is well liked by all her classmates. She has lots of friends and is always one of the first people chosen whenever there are group projects. According to Gardner, at which type of intelligence does Corrie likely excel? a. interpersonal b. intrapersonal c. naturalistic d. visuospatial Correct: Interpersonal intelligence is the ability to detect another person's emotional states, motives, and thoughts. In contrast, intrapersonal (self) intelligence involves selfawareness; the ability to accurately judge one's own abilities, and identify one's own emotions and motives. While both types of intelligences may contribute to the fact that Corrie is well liked, interpersonal intelligence is likely to be the most important. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 372 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

57) Marcos, a geology professor, has always been fascinated by the study of fossils, shells, and rock formations. According to Gardner, Marcos is strong in the area of ________ intelligence. a. kinesthetic Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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b. naturalist c. visuospatial d. logical Correct: According to Gardner's concept of multiple intelligences, naturalistiintelligence is the ability to recognize and identify processes in the natural world—plants, animals, and so on. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 372 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence.

58) Mrs. Evergreen is an elementary school teacher. She tries to match her teaching style to the way in which each student seems to learn best. For example, she believes some of her students learn best when she illustrates ideas on the board, while other students appear to learn best when they perform hands-on actives. Mrs. Evergreen likely agrees with the existence of a. general intelligence. b. triarchic intelligence. c. the Flynn effect. d. learning styles. Correct: Learning styles are hypothetical ways in which individuals are fundamentally different in how they best acquire information. The most common sets of learning styles include divisions such as visual, auditory, reading/writing, and kinesthetic/tactile. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 372 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether teachers should spend time tailoring lessons to each individual student's learning style.

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59) The hypothesis that individuals are fundamentally different in how they best acquire information is associated with the concept of a. learning styles. b. triarchic intelligence. c. the Flynn effect. d. general intelligence. Correct: Learning styles are hypothetical ways in which individuals are fundamentally different in how they best acquire information. The most common sets of learning styles include divisions such as visual, auditory, reading/writing, and kinesthetic/tactile. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 372 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether teachers should spend time tailoring lessons to each individual student's learning style.

60) Many studies have been done to investigate whether people learn better when the teaching method matches a specific learning style. What have these studies found? a. All individuals are either visual or kinesthetic learners. b. All individuals learn best when the teaching method is kinetic/tactile. c. The studies failed to find evidence that individuals have specific learning styles. d. The studies found evidence for at least four distinct learning styles. Correct: The idea that each individual has his or her own learning style might make intuitive sense, but finding evidence to support it has proved difficult. In fact, dozens of studies have failed to show any benefit for studying according to an individual's learning style; this is true even in large-scale reviews analyzing results of dozens of studies. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 372 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether teachers should spend time tailoring lessons to each individual student's learning style.

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61) According to your textbook, how should teachers tailor their instruction styles to maximize learning? a. Teachers should tailor their teaching to fit the material. b. Teachers should tailor their teaching to match each individual student's learning style. c. Teachers should tailor their teaching to match the modal (i.e., most frequent) learning style found in their classroom. d. Teachers should tailor their teaching primarily towards reading/writing learners. Correct: Dozens of studies have failed to show any benefit for studying according to an individual's learning style; this is true even in large-scale reviews analyzing results of dozens of studies. As a result, it would not make sense for teachers to tailor their instructional styles to fit individual students. Instead, teachers should teach in ways that help their students deeply process material rather than merely committing it to memory without much understanding. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 372 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether teachers should spend time tailoring lessons to each individual student's learning style.

62) The ”Flynn effect” refers to a. the finding that IQ scores have stayed over time. b. the finding that IQ scores have steadily increased over time. c. the finding that IQ scores have steadily decreased over time. d. the finding that IQ scores are negatively correlated with education levels. Correct: The Flynn effect refers to the steady population-level increases in intelligence test scores over time. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 385 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence.

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63) When researchers had the same individuals take an intelligence test that had been developed in 1978 and another test that had been developed in 1947, they found that a. they scored about 8 points higher on the newer test. b. they scored about 8 points higher on the older test. c. they scored about the same on both tests. d. some individuals scored higher on the old test, and some scored higher on the newer test. Correct: When participants took both the newer and older tests, they scored higher on the older test. Because each test was normed when it was developed so that a score of 100 was average, this suggests that average performance on intelligence tests increased over time. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 385 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence.

64) Henrietta's grandfather used to be a psychologist in the 1950s. While going through his old papers, Henrietta finds an old intelligence test that was tested and normed over fifty years earlier. Just for fun, Henrietta decides to take the test, which gives her an IQ of 110. Which of the following is true? a. She would probably receive a similar score from a more recent test. b. The score is probably too high, because the average score on the test when it was normed is lower than it would be today. c. The score is probably too low, because the average score on the test when it was normed was lower than it would be today. d. The score is probably too high, because the average score on the test when it was normed was higher than it would be today. Correct: When older intelligence tests are taken, individuals typically have higher IQs than they do on modern tests. This is because the average score on these tests was lower when they were normed. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 385 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. 65) According to the Flynn effect, for at least several generations, a. the IQ scores of the children are higher than those of their parents. b. the IQ scores of the children are lower than those of their parents. c. the IQ scores of both children and parents have remained about the same. d. there is no correlation between the IQ scores of children and their parents. Correct: The Flynn effect refers to the steady population level increases in intelligence test scores over time. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 385 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. 66) According to your textbook, which of the following is true regarding the populationlevel increases in intelligence test scores over time? a. The increase indicates that children today are actually smarter than their parents were. b. The increase is due to the fact that people are better test takers, not that they are smarter. c. The increase is an illusion created by the way intelligence tests are normed. d. The reasons for the increase are unclear, but may reflect the increased ability to process information quickly. Correct: It is unclear whether the Flynn effect is due to an actual increase in intelligence or simply an increase in test performance. One current theory suggests that exposure to technology has made recent generations better at processing information quickly. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 385 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence.

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67) Which of the following is true concerning ”twin study” research findings? a. Identical twins and fraternal twins share similarly high IQ correlations. b. Fraternal twins have more similar IQ scores than identical twins. c. Identical twins have more similar IQ scores than fraternal twins. d. Identical twins raised together have less similar scores than identical twins raised apart. Correct: Identical twins are more alike in intelligence than are fraternal twins. Specifically, identical twins' intelligence scores have a correlation of approximately .85 when they are raised together, and approximately .80 when raised apart. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 378–379 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence.

68) If intelligence is determined primarily by heredity, which pair should show the highest correlation between IQ scores? a. fraternal twins b. identical twins c. brothers and sisters d. parents and children Correct: Identical twins both inherit the same genetic material. Therefore, if intelligence is primarily determined by heredity, you would expect identical twins to have the highest correlation between IQ scores. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 378–379 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence.

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69) In general, studies examining the correlations between intelligence scores for different family members indicate that __________________ is the greatest determinant for shared intelligence. a. education b. shared experience c. biological relatedness d. shared environment Correct: While the contribution of environmental factors to intelligence is not insignificant, generally speaking, the closer the biological relationship between people, the more similar their intelligence scores. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 379 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence.

70) The study of how specific genes interact with the environment to influence behaviour is called a. behavioural genomics. b. anthropometrics. c. psychometrics. d. transgenics. Correct: Behavioural genomics is the study of how specific genes interact with the environment to influence behaviour. The focus of the behavioural genomic approach to intelligence is to identify genes that are related to increases or decreases in certain types of learning and problem solving. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 380 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence.

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71) Dr. Ming hypothesizes that a particular gene is involved in intelligence. He breeds a strain of mice that have had this particular gene removed to see if they show an impaired ability to solve problems compared to mice that have not had this gene removed. This is an example of a ______________ study. a. transgenic b. anthropometric c. psychometric d. gene knockout Correct: Gene knockout (KO) studies involve removing a specific gene thought to be involved in a trait (such as intelligence) and testing the effects of removing the gene by comparing behaviour of animals without the gene with those that have it. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 380 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence.

72) _________________ involves breeding mice that have had a specific gene removed from their genome. In contrast, _________________ involves inserting a new gene into an animal's genome. a. Transgenics; biomutation b. Gene knockout; transgenics c. Biomutation; transgenics d. X-inactivation; biomutation Correct: Gene knockout (KO) studies involve removing a specific gene thought to be involved in a trait (such as intelligence) and testing the effects of removing the gene by comparing behaviour of animals without the gene with those that have it. In contrast, transgenic animals have had a new gene inserted into their DNA. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 380

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence.

73) Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between nutrition and intelligence? a. There is no correlation between intelligence and nutrition. b. There is a relationship between intelligence and nutrition, but only when comparing children living in poverty and those in affluent households. c. Even when comparing children who come from affluent households, there is evidence for a relationship between healthy eating and intelligence. d. Intelligence is correlated with the number of calories consumed, but not the nutritional value of a child's diet. Correct: According to a Spanish study, even among high-socioeconomic grade-school children, there is a statistically significant relationship between nutrition and intelligence. This relationship holds even after influences of gender and income are removed from the analysis. As for children who may not consume balanced diets, there is even evidence that nutritional supplements can help overcome this factor. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 384 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence.

74) According to your textbook, a key factor in why growing up in a low-income family is associated with lower IQs is likely a. stress. b. genetics. c. a lack of interest in learning. d. season of birth. Correct: Low-income households face higher stress levels on a day-to-day basis, and this stress can distract children from school; in addition, the stress responses can negatively impact brain development. Answer: a

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 384 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence.

75) Able, Bob, and Chris are brothers. Able was born in 1985, Baker in 1988, and Chris in 1990. Statistically speaking, which sibling is slightly more likely to have the greatest IQ score? a. Able b. Bob c. Chris d. No one; they are all equally likely to have the greatest IQ score. Correct: Older siblings tend to score slightly higher on intelligence tests than younger siblings. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 383 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence.

76) What does the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend to parents about children watching television? a. Infants should only watch special educational videos that stimulate brain development prior to the age of 2. b. Children under the age of 2 should watch television for no more than 4 hours each day. c. Children under the age of 2 should not watch television at all. d. Children under the age of 10 should not watch television at all. Correct: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that children younger than age 2 years do not watch television at all. However, television is not all bad. Its effects may be neutral or even positive after age 3 or so, when children can understand more complex programs. Answer: c Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 386 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze claims that infant intelligence is increased by viewing educational television programming.

77) Some companies sell special educational programs designed to be watched by infants. Which of the following is true regarding these programs? a. They significantly stimulate brain development. b. They lower the age at which children first speak, but do not otherwise affect brain development. c. They do not stimulate cognitive development, but are otherwise harmless. d. They can actually slow down vocabulary and language development. Correct: The more time infants spend viewing educational television, the lower their verbal comprehension and performance scores achieved when tested at age 6 or 7 years. Shows based mostly on pantomime or simplified sing-along songs (rather than narrative) have also been negatively correlated with vocabulary development. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 386 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze claims that infant intelligence is increased by viewing educational television programming.

78) When researchers compare the distribution of IQ scores for males to the one for females, which of the following differences is most consistently found? a. The mean score for the male distribution is greater than the one for the females. b. The mean score for the female distribution is greater than the one for the males. c. The variability among males is greater than it is among females. d. The variability among females is greater than it is among males.

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Correct: There tends to be greater variability among male IQ scores than among the scores for females. This means that, although both distributions have very similar means, there are more males with extremely high and low scores. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 274 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand intelligence differences between males and females.

79) There is some evidence that women do better than average on tests of ______________, while men do better than women on tests of_______________. a. fluid intelligence; crystallized intelligence b. crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence c. visual-spatial manipulation; verbal fluency d. verbal fluency; visual-spatial manipulation Correct: Although it's important not to over-generalize, average scores on verbal fluency tasks often tip in the favour of females. Conversely, average scores on tests of visualspatial manipulation ability tend to favour males. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 375 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand intelligence differences between males and females.

80) People who hold an entity theory of intelligence believe a. that a person's intelligence is fixed and very difficult to change. b. that a person's intelligence is shaped by experience and effort. c. that there is only one type of intelligence. d. that there are multiple types of intelligences.

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Correct: Entity theory is the belief that intelligence is a fixed characteristic and relatively difficult (or impossible) to change. In contrast, incremental theory is the belief that intelligence can be shaped by experiences, practice, and effort. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 360–362 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the concepts of entity theory and incremental theory to help kids stay in school.

81) People who hold an incremental theory of intelligence believe a. that a person's intelligence is fixed and very difficult to change. b. that a person's intelligence is shaped by experience and effort. c. that there is only one type of intelligence. d. that there are multiple types of intelligences. Correct: Incremental theory is the belief that intelligence can be shaped by experiences, practice, and effort. In contrast, entity theory is the belief that intelligence is a fixed characteristic and relatively difficult (or impossible) to change. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 360–362 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the concepts of entity theory and incremental theory to help kids stay in school.

82) People who hold an incremental theory of intelligence tend to ______________ when faced with challenging academic problems. a. give up b. cheat c. feel hopeless d. be resilient

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Correct: People who hold entity theories are more likely to give up when confronted with a challenging academic problem, whereas those who hold an incremental view are more likely to be resilient and persevere. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 360–362 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the concepts of entity theory and incremental theory to help kids stay in school.

83) Tang believes that everyone is born with a certain amount of intelligence that cannot change. When he is confronted with a difficult problem in math class that he cannot solve right away, he is likely to a. give up. b. ask a "smart" student for guidance. c. ask the teacher for guidance. d. keep trying Correct: People who believe intelligence is fixed (entity theory) are more likely to give up when confronted with a challenging academic problem, whereas those who hold an incremental view are more likely to be resilient and persevere. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 360–362 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concepts of entity theory and incremental theory to help kids stay in school.

84) Which of the following is true about incremental theories? a. Children who hold incremental views tend to give up when confronted with difficult problems in school. b. Children who hold incremental theories view their intelligence as something that cannot be changed.

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c. Children who hold incremental theories tend to do poorly academically compared to those who hold entity theories. d. Children can be taught incremental views. Correct: Dweck and her colleagues found that junior high students could be taught incremental views. This resulted in higher grades compared to controls. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 360–362 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the concepts of entity theory and incremental theory to help kids stay in school.

85) When Dweck and her colleagues taught _____________ views to a group of junior high students, they found that the group's grades _____________. a. entity; improved b. entity; worsened c. incremental; improved d. incremental; worsened Correct: Dweck and her colleagues found that junior high students could be taught incremental views. This resulted in higher grades, whereas the control group's grades actually declined. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 360–361 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the concepts of entity theory and incremental theory to help kids stay in school.

86) Stereotype threat refers to a. poor performance on IQ tests by minorities. b. the fear that poor performance on an IQ test will confirm minority stereotypes.

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c. threats against minorities if they perform well on an IQ test. d. the stereotype that minorities are less intelligent than others. Correct: Stereotype threat occurs when people who are aware of stereotypes about their social group may fear being reduced to that stereotype. The anxiety and distraction from stereotype threat can often impair performance. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 359 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

87) Carmen is taking an advanced math test and she feels a burden of doubt because she knows the negative stereotypes about women's abilities in mathematics. This feeling has been labelled a. test anxiety. b. gender dissonance. c. gender bias. d. stereotype threat. Correct: Stereotype threat occurs when people who are aware of stereotypes about their social group may fear being reduced to that stereotype. The anxiety and distraction from stereotype threat can often impair performance. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 359–360 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

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88) Taylor is the only girl on her baseball team. Today she will be playing in the championship game and is worried that she will "choke" (not be able to play as well as she usually does) because she was told that girls always "choke" in the big games. What concept is being represented? a. between-group heritability b. confirmation bias c. stereotype threat d. test bias Correct: Stereotype threat occurs when people who are aware of stereotypes about their social group may fear being reduced to that stereotype. The anxiety and distraction from stereotype threat can often impair performance. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 359–360 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing.

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1) Alfred Binet designed his famous test to measure innate intelligence. a. True b. False Correct: Binet's intention was to design an academic achievement test, not a test of innate capacity. Answer: b Page Reference: 354 2) A 10-year-old child with a mental age of 9 would have an IQ of 90. a. True b. False Correct: Using the original formula, IQ equals the mental age of an individual divided by the person's chronological age and then multiplied by 100. In this example, 9/10 × 100 = 90. Answer: a Page Reference: 354 3) The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is the most commonly used intelligence test used on adolescents and adults. a. True b. False Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: a Page Reference: 355 4) Crystallized intelligence is used to solve problems without relying on previous knowledge. a. True b. False Correct: Crystallized intelligence (Gc) is a form of intelligence that relies on extensive experience and knowledge. Answer: b Page Reference: 369–371 5) Scientists agree that a general intelligence underlies the specific abilities and talents measured by intelligence tests. a. True Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 9: Intelligence Testing

b. False Correct: There is an ongoing debate about whether a general intelligence exists, or whether there are multiple types of intelligences. Answer: b Page Reference: 365 6) There is little scientific support for the idea that individuals have distinct learning styles. a. True b. False Correct: Dozens of studies have failed to show any benefit for studying according to an individual's learning style. Answer: a Page Reference: 372 7) The birth order effect on intelligence test scores is likely due to genetic factors. a. True b. False Correct: It is unlikely that the birth order effect is due to genetic factors, because the pattern holds true even if an elder sibling dies during infancy. Answer: b Page Reference: 383 8) Because there is a cultural stereotype in Canada that women are not good at math, most women do especially well on math tests in order to prove the stereotype wrong. a. True b. False Correct: Knowledge of stereotypes about a person's group often leads to stereotype threat, which in turn can impair test performance. Answer: b Page Reference: 359–360

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1) At birth, the newborn has an estimated 100 billion neurons. a. True b. False Correct: At birth, a newborn has an estimated 100 billion neurons and a brain that is approximately 25% the size and weight of an adult brain. 395 Answer: a Page Reference: 395 2) Maternal use of cigarettes during pregnancy causes damage to the placenta but not to the baby itself. a. True b. False Correct: Babies born to mothers who smoke are twice as likely to have low birth weight and have a 30% chance of premature birth. Babies exposed to smoke are also as much as three times more likely to die from sudden infant death syndrome. 397 Answer: b Page Reference: 397 3) There is no scientific evidence that vaccines can cause autism. a. True b. False Correct: The paper that first showed the MMR vaccine was linked to autism has been discredited. No other scientific study has found a link between autism and vaccines. 399 Answer: a Page Reference: 399 4) Habituation refers to the formation of new habits and reflexes. a. True b. False Correct: Habituation refers to a decrease in responding with repeated exposure to an event. 409 Answer: b Page Reference: 409

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5) Babies become attached to their mothers because their mothers provide them with food and warmth. a. True b. False Correct: Harlow's famous studies with monkeys suggest that contact, rather than food, is the basis for mother–infant bonding. 412–413 Answer: b Page Reference: 412–413 6) Recent research has confirmed Piaget's belief that children are egocentric through the entire preoperational stage. a. True b. False Correct: Modern research indicates that children take the perspective of others long before the preoperational phase is complete. 415 Answer: b Page Reference: 415 7) Adolescents are more likely to engage in risky behaviour when they are in the presence of other adolescents. a. True b. False Correct: Psychologists have found that in some situations, adolescents are no more likely to engage in risky behaviour than adults. When adolescents are with other adolescents, however, this propensity changes. 424–425 Answer: a Page Reference: 424–425 8) Older adults who exercise their brains with challenging activities have a better chance of preserving their cognitive ability than those who do not. a. True b. False Correct: Research indicates that frequent use of puzzles and brain teasers leads to better maintenance of cognitive and brain functioning. Conversely, disuses of the brain in older age allows decline to occur at a faster pace. 434–435 Answer: a Page Reference: 434–435

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9) For adults, positive emotions decline with age while negative emotions increase. a. True b. False Correct: Researchers who have examined emotions throughout the lifespan tend to find that negative emotions decline with age while positive emotions increase in frequency. 440 Answer: b Page Reference: 440

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 10: Lifespan Development 1. To study the effect of daycare programs on academic performance, a researcher follows the same 30 children who did or did not attend daycare programs as they go through kindergarten to sixth grade. Which type of design is the researcher using? a. cross-sectional b. cohort c. latitudinal d. longitudinal Answer: D Module 10.1 2. Which of the following is true about the connection between the MMR vaccine and autism? a. There is no scientific evidence that the MMR vaccine causes autism. b. The connection between MMR and autism remains unclear. c. There is strong scientific evidence that the MMR vaccine causes autism. d. The MMR vaccine causes autism if administered more than once. Answer: A Module 10.1 3. According to Piaget, the _____ stage of children’s development is characterized by the understanding of symbols and pretend play. a. concrete operational b. sensorimotor c. preoperational operational d. formal operational Answer: C Module 10.2 4. Harry Harlow’s research with infant monkeys demonstrated the importance of a. good nutrition for cognitive development. b. physical contact and the bond infants form with their mothers. c. punishment in shaping behaviour. d. self-esteem in socialization. Answer: B Module 10.2 5. The ongoing development of the _____ may explain why adolescents are known to make risky or poor decisions. a. hippocampus b. temporal lobe c. prefrontal cortex d. parietal lobe Answer: C Module 10.3 6. According to your text, which of the following statements is true regarding same-sex encounters? a. Most individuals who identify as heterosexual have never had a sexual encounter with a member of the same sex. b. If it does occur, sexual interest in members of the same sex is recognized during early adolescence. c. Most women who engage in same-sex encounters during adolescence have strictly heterosexual relationships during adulthood. d. The stigma of same-sex encounters prevents most adolescents from ever engaging in this behaviour. Answer: B Module 10.3 7. A healthy adult with no signs of dementia in his or her 80s is likely to have the most difficulty doing which of the following tasks? a. remembering how many feet are in a mile b. recalling the definition of the word “antepenultimate” Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 10: Lifespan Development c. knowing the names of his or her grandchildren d. solving a logic problem Answer: D Module 10.4 8. Healthy older adults are a. more likely to develop depression than younger people. b. less likely to develop depression than younger people. c. no more likely than younger people are to develop depression. d. more likely to develop depression than younger people in the United States, although the opposite is true in China. Answer: C Module 10.4

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 10: Lifespan Development

1) A group of psychologists studies how adults change and grow, both psychologically and physiologically, as they age. These psychologists are most like ___________. a. personality psychologists b. social psychologists c. organizational psychologists d. developmental psychologists Answer: d Page Reference: 393 2) The description and explanation of behavioural changes in the individual and the differences between individuals from conception to death is called _________. a. developmental psychology b. the whole life approach c. the lifespan development approach d. the longitudinal method Answer: c Page Reference: 393 3) A researcher who selects a sample of people of varying ages and studies them at one point in time is, by definition, using the __________ method. a. longitudinal b. correlational c. cross-sectional d. biographical study Answer: c Page Reference: 393 4) A researcher who studies a fixed group of people over a long period of time is, by definition, using the __________ method. a. longitudinal b. correlational c. cross-sectional d. biographical study

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Answer: a Page Reference: 393 5) A researcher who studies a fixed group of people over a long period of time is, by definition, using the __________. a. longitudinal method b. correlational method c. cross-sectional method d. case study method Answer: a Page Reference: 393 6) From the second week until the third month after conception, the developing organism is called a(n) __________. a. neonate b. fetus c. zygote d. embryo Answer: d Page Reference: 394–395 7) The __________ roughly resembles a human being. a. zygote b. fetus c. embryo d. placenta Answer: b Page Reference: 394–395 8) The drug most abused by pregnant women is __________. a. nicotine b. marijuana c. cocaine Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. alcohol Answer: d Page Reference: 396–397 9) The most obvious change ushering in adolescence is __________. a. voice change b. intellectual growth c. puberty d. emotional upheaval Answer: c Page Reference: 421 10) The emotional bond formed during the first year of life that makes human babies cling to their caretakers is called __________. a. attachment b. intimacy c. socialization d. imprinting Answer: a Page Reference: 411 11) Tracy is nine months. She is growing and changing so quickly it is difficult for her parents to keep up with all the things she is learning. Her parents have lately noticed that Tracy is spending more and more time and energy trying to do things for herself. This is a sign she is beginning to develop ___________________. a. self-recognition b. self-attention c. a sense of attachment d. a sense of self-awareness Answer: d Page Reference: 414

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12) The tendency for young children to seek closeness to certain people is called ________. a. caretaking b. affiliation c. social affinity d. attachment Answer: d Page Reference: 411 13) The strange situation procedure, in which researchers unobtrusively watch an infant in the presence or absence of several combinations of the child, caretaker, and stranger, is used to study _________. a. social smiling b. attachment c. identification d. dependence and independence Answer: b Page Reference: 413–414 14) In Harlow's studies with young monkeys, the monkeys were exposed to a wire mother with a bottle and a cloth mother without a bottle. The young monkeys spent their non-feeding time a. with the wire mother. b. with both mothers equally. c. with the cloth mother. d. away from both mothers. Answer: c Page Reference: 412–413 15) Harlow's studies with young monkeys showed a. that monkeys prefer soft mothers over food. b. that monkeys prefer the mother who provides food regardless of other factors. c. that monkeys prefer a wire mother in stressful situations. d. none of the above Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: a Page Reference: 412–413 16) According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development between two and seven years of age, in which the individual becomes able to use mental representations and language to describe, remember, and reason about the world, though only in an egocentric fashion, is the __________ stage. a. concrete operations b. preoperational c. sensorimotor d. formal operations Answer: b Page Reference: 407–408 17) The mother of a young child who didn't like to drink milk was trying to coax him to drink some. Taking the glass of milk, she poured it all into a smaller cup and said, ”There! Now you won't have to drink so much.” She would never have fooled the child if he had not been in the __________ stage. a. preconventional b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational Answer: b Page Reference: 407–408 18) According to Piaget, children learn to retrace their thoughts, correct themselves, see more than one dimension to a problem, but cannot yet handle abstract concepts during the __________ stage. a. preoperational b. formal operational c. concrete operational d. sensorimotor Answer: c Page Reference: 408 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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19) According to Piaget, children begin to develop concepts and the ability to think in terms of abstractions in the __________ stage. a. preoperational b. formal operational c. concrete operational d. sensorimotor Answer: b Page Reference: 408 20) Adjusting behaviour or thoughts to fit new environmental demands is called _______. a. schema b. accommodation c. assimilation d. structure Answer: b Page Reference: 406 21) _______ is most famous for his theory that all children go through a series of sequential intellectual stages. a. Ainsworth b. Bowlby c. Gesell d. Piaget Answer: d Page Reference: 406 22) The belief that one is the centre of the world is called by Piaget: a. animism. b. egocentrism. c. self-centring. d. centrismic thinking.

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Answer: b Page Reference: 414–415 23) Which of the following states has as a main theme the ability to consider many possible solutions to a problem and the ability to systematically test those possibilities? a. preoperational b. sensorimotor c. formal operations d. concrete operations Answer: c Page Reference: 408 24) Based on Piagetian theory, which of the following relationships is NOT correct? a. concrete operations—have attained conservation b. preoperational—animism c. formal operations—egocentrism d. sensorimotor—developing object permanence Answer: c Page Reference: 406–408 25) According to Piaget, what are the ages for the formal operational stage? a. birth to age two b. age two to seven c. age seven to eleven d. beyond age eleven or twelve Answer: d Page Reference: 408 26) What event marks the end of the Piagetian stage of sensorimotor development? a. the ability to do abstract thinking b. the ability to do reversible thinking c. the development of conservation d. the development of object permanence Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: d Page Reference: 407 27) Piaget attributed cognitive development to the interaction of what two processes? a. assimilation and accommodation b. assimilation and egocentric thinking c. egocentric thinking and conservation d. conservation and accommodation Answer: a Page Reference: 406 28) The adage ”Out of sight, out of mind” is most accurately applied to the early part of the _______ stage of development. a. formal operations b. concrete operations c. preoperational d. sensorimotor Answer: d Page Reference: 407 29) Suppose that you show a small boy two bars of fresh fudge that are equal on all dimensions (exactly the same size, shape, and weight). You ask him if the two bars are the same, and he says, ”Yes.” You then cut one of the bars into 10 chunks as he watches. You are surprised when he now asks if he can have the cut up fudge because it has more candy than the intact bar. This episode illustrates that the youngster a. probably is retarded. b. lacks the concept of object permanence. c. is in the preoperational stage. d. is in the concrete operational stage. Answer: c Page Reference: 407–408 30) In which stage of cognitive development does the conservation concept first appear? a. formal operations Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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b. concrete operations c. preoperational d. sensorimotor Answer: b Page Reference: 408 31) If a child can tell you what Y is equal to when you give her the equation X = Y + 10, then she is in the _______ stage of cognitive development. a. formal operations b. concrete operations c. preoperational d. sensorimotor Answer: a Page Reference: 408 32) Piaget's stage theory assumes that a. all children pass through certain stages at a specified age. b. all children pass through a series of 6 stages. c. all children pass through stages in the same order. d. children often skip some of the stages. Answer: c Page Reference: 406 33) A characteristic that first shows up in the concrete operations stage is _______. a. irreversibility b. abstract thinking c. egocentrism d. logical thinking Answer: d Page Reference: 408

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34) Most ten- and eleven-year-olds are at the level of thinking that Piaget described as __________. a. formal operational b. preoperational c. sensorimotor d. concrete operational Answer: d Page Reference: 408 35) The major turning point in most adults' lives is __________. a. getting their first job b. buying their first house c. dealing with aging parents d. having and raising children Answer: d Page Reference: 439 36) Which of the following theorists believe that people go through stages, each of which has a ”crisis” associated with it? a. Bandura b. Kohlberg c. Piaget d. Erikson Answer: d Page Reference: 435 37) Erik Erikson found that each stage in personality development has a particular _______. a. crisis b. conflict c. identity d. anxiety

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Answer: a Page Reference: 435 38) According to Erikson, the last stage of development involves the crisis of a. identity vs. role confusion b. generativity vs. stagnation c. autonomy vs. doubt d. ego-integrity vs. despair Answer: d Page Reference: 437 39) How did Erikson identify the conflict experienced in old age? a. industry vs. inferiority b. intimacy vs. isolation c. generativity vs. stagnation d. integrity vs. despair Answer: d Page Reference: 437 40) Jeff is 13 years old and he has recently noticed some remarkable changes in himself. Over the past few months his voice has started to change, growing deeper. He has begun to grow pubic hair, as well as the beginnings of a facial beard. He is also filling out, with his muscles developing rapidly. These changes in Jeff are probably due to the action of the _____________. a. gonads b. thyroid gland c. pineal gland d. adrenal gland Answer: a Page Reference: 421 41) Before puberty, males do not produce sperm, even though their genitals are physically equivalent to a man's. This illustrates which of the following? a. empiricism Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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b. behaviourism c. humanism d. maturation Answer: d Page Reference: 421 42) Lawrence Kohlberg is noted for his theories of __________ development. a. cognitive b. social c. moral d. emotional Answer: c Page Reference: 425–427 43) The period of life when a person is transformed from a child to an adult is __________. a. puberty b. menarche c. maturation d. adolescence Answer: d Page Reference: 421 44) Research indicates that onset of puberty _______________. a. has remained relatively unchanged for several centuries b. is occurring at later ages than ever before in developed countries c. is occurring at earlier ages than ever before in developed countries d. is less important to teenagers today than it has been historically Answer: c Page Reference: 421

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45) As children approach their teen years, contact with _______ becomes more important in their development. a. peers b. parents c. teachers d. adults Answer: a Page Reference: 427–429 46) According to Erikson, a sense of producing and contributing to the world is called _______. a. generativity b. self-actualization c. maturation d. worthiness Answer: a Page Reference: 437 47) The cessation of menstruation is called __________. a. menopause b. endometriosis c. menarche d. the climacteric Answer: a Page Reference: 432 48) Generativity or stagnation are two feelings that may dominate a person's life during a. middle adulthood. b. young adulthood. c. late adulthood. d. the period after he is told that he has a terminal illness. Answer: a Page Reference: 437

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49) A gradual and inevitable decline in the life processes begins in __________. a. adolescence b. young adulthood c. middle age d. old age Answer: c Page Reference: 437 50) Older people who were often labelled as ”senile” in the past were most likely suffering from __________. a. normal aging b. Parkinson's disease c. Huntington's disease d. Alzheimer's disease Answer: d Page Reference: 432–433 51) A developmental psychologist presents the conservation-of-liquid task to groups of three-, five-, and seven-year-olds to measure the children’s grasp of the concept of conservation. Which type of study is being described? a. cross-sectional Correct: When multiple ages are studied at the same time and compared, it is a crosssectional design. b. longitudinal c. case d. naturalistic Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 393, Module 10.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to developmental research methods and prenatal andinfant physical development.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 10: Lifespan Development

52) A developmental psychologist is interested in the trait of neuroticism and wants to study how the trait develops over a particular person’s lifespan. Which term best characterizes this type of study? a. longitudinal Correct: A study that tracks a person across her or his life is referred to as longitudinal. b. developmental c. cross-developmental d. cross-sectional Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393, Module 10.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to developmental research methods and prenatal andinfant physical development. 53) Linda adopted a 1-week-old baby named Ben. Over the course of a few years, Linda observed the following symptoms in Ben despite her attempts to provide him with a healthy environment: His physical growth was stunted, his eyes and mouth looked abnormal, and he had trouble keeping up intellectually with the other children in his kindergarten class. What substance was Ben likely exposed to in utero? a. nicotine b. cocaine c. alcohol Correct: Small eyes and intellectual disability are characteristic of fetal alcohol syndrome. d. tetracycline Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 396, Module 10.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus.

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54) Which of the following reflexes are related to feeding? a. rooting only b. sucking and swallowing only c. sucking and rooting only d. sucking, rooting, and swallowing Correct: A child must find the food (rooting), intake the food (sucking), and then ingest the food (swallow). Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 401, Module 10.1 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to developmental research methods and prenatal andinfant physical development. 55) A child learns that his father is called “Daddy.” The next day, he calls his uncle “Daddy.” Which term best captures this behaviour? a. assimilation Correct: Assimilation involves fitting a new concept into existing knowledge. b. accommodation c. equilibration d. egocentrism Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 406, Module 10.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. 56) A child and her mother are walking through an aquarium. The child knows there are such things as fish, but has never seen a starfish before. Upon seeing one, she says “See the fishie.”Which term best explains the child’s comment? a. assimilation Correct: Assimilation involves fitting a new concept into existing knowledge.

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b. accommodation c. egocentrism d. equilibration Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 406, Module 10.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. 57) When Angela plays the game “peekaboo!” with her infant, Michael, he cries every time, thinking his mom has disappeared. Which concept has Michael yet to develop? a. conservation b. object permanence Correct: A child has achieved object permanence when the child knows an object still exists even if she or he cannot see it. c. symbolic thought d. assimilation Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 407, Module 10.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. 58) A child thinks that the day turns to night just so that he can go to sleep at bedtime. Which term best characterizes this behaviour? a. egocentrism Correct: Egocentricism is a tendency to see events only from a personal perspective. b. conservation c. deferred imitation d. assimilation Answer: a Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 414, Module 10.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. 59) Three-year-old Nick agrees to trade his dime for a nickel because the nickel is bigger. Which stage of cognitive development is being characterized? a. concrete operational b. formal operational c. preoperational Correct: At the preoperational stage, children have not achieved conservation, which allows them to understand bigger does not always mean more. d. sensorimotor Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 407, Module 10.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. 60) A child talks to herself as she draws a picture. How would Vygotsky most likely interpret this behaviour? a. as a sign that she is an auditory learner b. as an indication that she has an imaginary friend c. as evidence of egocentrism d. as a sign of her cognitive developmental process Correct: Vygotsky argued that all aspects of children’s play and actions reflect their cognitive development Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 410, Module 10.2 Skill: Applied

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Objective: Apply the concept of scaffolding and the zone of proximal development to understandhow to best promote learning. 61) Which behaviour most clearly demonstrates the existence of emotional attachment? a. delayed crawling b. a mother feeding her child c. egocentrism d. stranger anxiety Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 413, Module 10.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. 62) A mother leaves her baby with a babysitter. When the mother returns one hour later, the baby crawls to the mother crying, but then pushes her away when the mother tries to offer comfort. Which type of attachment is being characterized? a. secure b. resistant Correct: Resistant attachment is characterized by dependence on the caregiver but resistance towards reunion after separation. c. avoidant d. disoriented Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 413, Module 10.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment.

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63) Which infant is most likely to have the fastest motor development? a. an infant born in Peru b. an infant born in Jamaica Correct: Jamaican mothers expect their infants to walk much earlier than mothers in other countries. c. an infant born in northern Canada to an Inuit family d. an infant born in England Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 402, Module 10.1 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development. 64) What does research on the achievement of motor milestones in infants suggest? a. Motor development is primarily biological and reflects innately programmed changes consistent across cultures. b. Motor development is dependent on physical maturation, which is guided by biological changes. c. Motor development is largely an environmental process that is occasionally limited by physiological constraints. d. Motor development is heavily influenced by parenting styles and culture. Correct: There are many cultural differences in the average ages of achieving various motor skills. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 402, Module 10.1 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

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65) Nathan is trying to build a castle out of building blocks. At his current stage of cognitive development, he is unable to successfully construct this himself, but is receptive to learning the skill with the assistance of others. Which term proposed by Vygotsky best captures Nathan’s developmental stage? a. scaffolding stage b. concrete operations c. formal operations d. zone of proximal development Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 410, Module 10.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the concept of scaffolding and the zone of proximal development to understand how to best promote learning. 66) In which way do most contemporary theories of cognitive development differ from Piagetian theory? a. Learning is constructivist in nature. b. Learning is gradual rather than stagelike. Correct: Vygotsky and others argued that skills were acquired gradually rather than in stages. c. Learning is based on general domains. d. Learning is a function of acquired knowledge. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 410, Module 10.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the concept of scaffolding and the zone of proximal development to understand how to best promote learning.

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67) Researchers are testing three groups of children aged 2½, 3½, and 4½ years of age. Which test should be administered to determine if these children have attained theory of mind? a. conservation b. object permanence c. self-concept d. false belief Correct: Children at these ages will respond to false belief tasks differently because of different theories of mind. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 415, Module 10.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. 68) What did Harlow’s research with rhesus monkeys in the 1950s demonstrate about attachment? a. It is associated with the sustenance supplied by mothers. b. It is not determined by nourishment or comfort as monkeys did not bond to either surrogate. c. It is dependent upon biological relations as the greatest bonding occurred in motherinfant pairs. d. It is associated with contact comfort rather than with nourishment. Correct: When given the choice, Harlow`s monkeys preferred a soft comforting surrogate mother to one that had food available but that provided no comfort. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 412, Module 10.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment.

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69) The first time that four-year-old Sarah saw her older brother play a flute, she thought it was simply a large whistle. Sarah's initial understanding of the flute best illustrates the process of a. assimilation. Correct: Assimilation occurs when a person classifies a new object as an object she or he is already familiar with. b. egocentrism. c. conservation. d. accommodation. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 406, Module 10.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. 70) Three-year-old Zara calls all four-legged animals "kitties." Her tendency to fit all four-legged animals into her existing conception of a kitten illustrates the process of a. conservation. b. assimilation. Correct: Assimilation occurs when a person classifies a new object as an object she or he is already familiar with. c. accommodation. d. egocentrism. e. attachment. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 406, Module 10.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

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71) Five-year-old Tammy mistakenly believes that her short, wide glass contains less soda than her brother's tall, narrow glass. Actually, both glasses contain the same amount of soda. This illustrates that Tammy lacks the concept of a. conservation. Correct: A person must understand the conservation of mass before she or he will understand that the same mass can take on many different shapes. b. egocentrism. c. assimilation. d. object permanence. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 407, Module 10.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. 72) Fred has no meaningful occupational goals and has switched college majors several times. Erikson would have suggested that Fred lacks a. identity. b. initiative. c. trust. d. competence. Correct: Erikson claims that emerging adults struggle with competence. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 432, Module 10.4 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the keys areas of growth experienced by emerging adults.

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1) Although newborn infants can be very difficult to study, researchers have learned a lot about how they perceive the world soon after birth. Describe some of what is known about newborns' ability to hear, see, and smell. Answer: Newborns recognize and show a preference for their mother’s voice soon after birth. In addition, recent research has shown that infants may internalize sounds from their native language and actually cry with an ‘accent’ as a result. The visual system is not as well equipped at birth as the auditory system; newborns can only really see clearly at distances of about 30 cm or less. Colour discrimination appears to develop at about two months of age, and shape discrimination develops at about 8 months of age. The sense of smell (olfaction) is well developed at birth. Newborns cringe at foul odours in much the same way as adults. It is possible that this acute sense of smell at birth helps ensure infants initiate nursing and get the nourishment they need. Page Reference: 399–400 2) Dr. Savory asks Annette, a 3-year-old child, whether one of these two rows of buttons has more:

When Annette says that the two rows have the same number of buttons, Dr. Savory spreads out one row:

Once again, he asks Annette whether one of the rows has more. Then Dr. Savory repeats this task with her older sister, Rosie, who is 8 years of age. Given your knowledge of Piaget’s theory, compare and contrast the likely responses of each child. Incorporate Piaget’s terms in your essay. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Annette will think that the second row contains more buttons. - Annette has not yet acquired the concept of conservation and does not understand that physical properties of objects do not change when their appearance changes. - Annette is in the preoperational stage, according to Piaget. - Conversely, Rosie will know that both rows of buttons have the same number. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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- Rosie is in the concrete operational stage and understands conservation. Page Reference: 407–408 3) Internet use by adolescents can have both positive and negative consequences. In what ways can internet use increase social connectedness? What are some of the potential dangers for adolescents? Answer: Some studies have shown that moderate use of the Internet leads to greater social involvement among adolescents. Other research has shown that Internet use may be linked to depression and loneliness. However, because these are correlations, these studies don’t indicate whether the Internet caused the loneliness and depression or whether people sought out the Internet because they were lonely and depressed, or whether a third factor is linked to both loneliness/depression and the Internet. One certain danger of the Internet for adolescents is that it can become a crutch that they use to deal with emotional problems (much like people use alcohol or drugs) and that adolescents can become ‘hooked’ on it. A second set of dangers are related to Internet bullying and public humiliation associated with ‘one bad act’ never going away and being forgotten because it was always somewhere ‘online.’ There have been several cases of teen suicide that have been linked to Internet bullying and humiliation. Page Reference: 420–421

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1) One disadvantage of cross-sectional studies is that the differences between ages may be due to cohort effects, and not developmental factors. Correct: One major issue to consider in cross-sectional designs is the potential for cohort effects, which are consequences of being born in a particular year or narrow range of years. 393 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 393 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the pros and cons to different research designs in developmental psychology. 2) A (n) zygote is first created when a sperm and an ovum fuse together. Correct: Fertilization results in a zygote—a cell formed by the fusion of a sperm and an ovum (egg cell). 394 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 394 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development. 3) According to Piaget, assimilation occurs when children add new information, but interpret it based on what they already know. Correct: According to Piaget, knowledge accumulates and is modified by two processes— assimilation and accommodation. In the case of assimilation, children add new information without having to modify the underlying system of knowledge and beliefs. 406 Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 406 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. 4) According to Lev Vygotsky, a child working with a teacher is considered in the zone of proximal development when they attempt a skill or activity that is beyond the child’s ability to do alone, but within the child’s ability to do when working with assistance. Correct: According to V y got sky, the zone of proximal development is ideal when a child attempts skills and activities that are just beyond what he or she can do alone, but the child has guidance from adults who are attentive to his or her progress. 410 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 410 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. 5) Sonya and her 12-month-old child are recruited to participate in a research study. During the first part of the study, Sonya is instructed to sit in a room while her child plays. During the second part of the study, Sonya is asked to leave her child in the room for several minutes and then return. The researchers in this study appear to be using the strange situation protocol. Correct: Studies of attachment by Mary Ainsworth involved a mother leaving her infant with a stranger and then returning a short time later. This is referred to as the "strange situation" protocol. 413–414 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 413-414 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. 6) The prefrontal cortex, which is involved in impulse control, regulates mood, and facilitates planning, organizing, and reasoning, is still developing during adolescence. Correct: In recent years, psychologists and neuroscientists have implicated ongoing changes in the prefrontal cortex as the basis of some of the behavioural issues that are especially likely to occur during adolescence. 424–425 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 424-425 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the relationship between brain development and adolescent judgment and risk taking. 7) Frederique's 5-year-old son believes that people shouldn't steal because, "They might get in trouble!" This is consistent with the pre conventional stage of moral reasoning. Correct: Pre conventional morality is characterized by self-interest in seeking reward or avoiding punishment. Pre conventional morality is considered a very basic and egocentric form of moral reasoning. 426 Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: FIB Page Reference: 426 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding of the categories of moral reasoning. 8) Alzheimer's is a neurodegenerative disease that is associated with the abnormal buildup of certain proteins inside and outside of neurons in the brain. Correct: The brain of a person with Alzheimer's disease typically has a large buildup of plaques of a protein called beta-amyloid, which kills nerve cells. Also, tau proteins maintain the structure of nerve cells in the normal brain; these proteins are often found to be defective in the Alzheimer's brain, resulting in neurofibrillary tangles. 432–433 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 432-433 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand age-related disorders such as Alzheimer's disease. 9) A healthy older adult is unlikely to forget how to ride a bike. This is because procedural memories do not decline with age the way some other types of memories do. Correct: Episodic and working memory tend to decline with age, while semantic and procedural memory remain fairly stable. Riding a bike is a motor skill, and therefore is a type of procedural memory. 434–435 Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 434-435 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how cognitive abilities change with age. 10) According to Bowlby, a child’s sense of security comes from the attachment bonds that they develop. Correct: Bowlby argues that the motivation for attachment is deeply rooted in our psychology and that a child gains a sense of security based on the quality of attachment bonds they develop with their caregivers.411–414 Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 411-414 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment.

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1) A friend of yours is pregnant and particularly afraid of her child dying from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) after he is born. What factor can you tell your friend puts her child at greater risk from dying from SIDS so she can make sure she avoids it? a. having pets in the house b. prescription medications c. vaccines d. cigarette smoke Correct: Smoking before and after birth is associated with higher SIDS rates. 397 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 397 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus.

2) Charmaine is interested in going to graduate school to gain expertise in the ways in which people experience physical, cognitive, social, and emotional changes over the course of their lives. The type of program that Charmaine should be applying to is __________ psychology. a. developmental b. child c. social d. ecological Correct: Developmental psychology is the study of change and stability of human physical, cognitive, social, and behavioural characteristics across the lifespan. 393 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

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3) Which of the following types of changes are of interest to a developmental psychologist? a. biological changes b. biological and cognitive changes c. cognitive and psychosocial changes d. biological, cognitive, and psychosocial changes Correct: Developmental psychology is the study of change and stability of human physical, cognitive, social, and behavioural characteristics across the lifespan. 393 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

4) __________ studies observe different individuals at different ages at a single point in time. a. Longitudinal b. Cross-longitudinal c. Sequential d. Cross-sectional Correct: Cross-sectional designs are used to measure and compare samples of people at different ages at a given point in time. In contrast, longitudinal design follows the development of the same set of individuals through time. 393 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your understanding to identify research designs.

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5) Xiao is gathering research on the number of daily calories people typically consume at various ages. He gathers data about the number of calories eaten by 25 people at each of the following ages: 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, and 70 years. What type of research design is Xiao using? a. continuous b. cross-sectional c. sequential d. longitudinal Correct: Cross-sectional designs are used to measure and compare samples of people at different ages at a given point in time. In contrast, longitudinal design follows the development of the same set of individuals through time. 393 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding to identify research designs.

6) Daniel is interested in studying how children's behaviour changes when they grow up in high-risk environments. He enlists 500 children and their parents to take part in his research, and observes these children once a year for 20 years. Although this research is time-consuming and expensive, it gives very good information about how the children age over time. This type of research is an example of a __________ study. a. sequential b. cross-sectional c. longitudinal d. continuous Correct: A longitudinal study follows the development of the same set of individuals through time. Studying one group for a longitudinal study can cost a lot of money and time, but avoids the issue of cohort effects, which are associated with cross-sectional research. 393 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393

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Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding to identify research designs.

7) In a __________design, one group of participants is followed and assessed as the group ages. a. cohort b. longitudinal c. behaviour genetics d. cross-sectional Correct: A longitudinal study follows the development of the same set of individuals through time. 393 Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your understanding to identify research designs.

8) __________ studies collect data from the same individuals over a period of time to track age-related changes. a. Cross-sectional b. Continual c. Contiguous d. Longitudinal Correct: A longitudinal study follows the development of the same set of individuals through time. 393 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your understanding to identify research designs.

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9) In a cross-sectional study, subjects from the same generation are referred to as a. an age cohort. b. an experimental subject group. c. a control group. d. a clique. Correct: In a cross-sectional study, age cohort and generation refer to similar things. The point of these studies is to compare different age cohorts at a single point in time. 393 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

10) A(n) __________ refers to a group of people who lived during the same time period. a. cohort b. constituency c. peer group d. age cluster Correct: In a cross-sectional developmental study, "cohort" and "generation" refer to similar things. The point of these studies is to compare different age cohorts at a single point in time. 393 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

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11) Which of the following is true about longitudinal studies? a. The potential for cohort effects makes them difficult to interpret. b. They are generally cheaper than cross-sectional studies. c. They typically only take a few weeks to perform. d. They are more likely to suffer from attrition than cross-sectional studies. Correct: Because longitudinal studies can last for years or decades, they can be hampered by the issues of time, money, and attrition, which occurs when participants stop returning mail or phone calls, become ineligible, or otherwise quit participating. Unlike cross-sectional studies, however, longitudinal studies do not suffer from the issue of cohort effects. 393 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your understanding to identify research designs.

12) One advantage to using a longitudinal design over a cross-sectional design is that longitudinal designs a. are typically cheaper to perform. b. are less likely to be affected by attrition. c. avoid the problems associated with cohort effects. d. require less time to perform. Correct: Studying one group for a longitudinal study can cost a lot of money and time. This research design is also hampered by the issue of attrition. Despite these drawbacks, one clear advantage to using a longitudinal design over a cross-sectional design is that cross-sectional designs can be complicated by cohort effects, which are not an issue for longitudinal designs. 393 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the pros and cons of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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13) A researcher performs a cross-sectional study comparing the video-game playing ability of 20-year-olds to 60-year-olds. The results indicate that the 20-year-olds learned to play a new game much faster than the 60-year-olds. However, the researchers are uncertain whether this indicates that the 20-year-olds' ability will decrease over time, or whether the 60-year-olds had more difficulty because they grew up before there were video games. What issue is this an example of? a. cohort effects b. attrition c. sampling bias d. scaffolding effects Correct: One major issue to consider in cross-sectional designs is the potential for cohort effects, which are consequences of being born in a particular year or narrow range of years. In this example, the 60-year-old age cohort did not play video games when they were children, which might explain the difference between them and the 20-year-old age cohort. 393 Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze the pros and cons of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs.

14) Developmental changes during childhood tend to occur a. in cross-sections. b. in stages. c. gradually or continuously. d. longitudinally. Correct: Rapid developmental changes during childhood are referred to as stages. In contrast, adults tend to experience slower and continuous changes. 393 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how development proceeds in both stage-like and continuous fashion over the lifespan.

15) Psychologists refer to abrupt developmental changes as occurring ______________. In contrast, they refer to slower, more gradual changes as being _________________. a. continuously; in stages. b. in stages; continuous c. normal; abnormal d. abnormal; normal Correct: Rapid developmental changes during childhood are referred to as stages. In contrast, adults tend to experience slower and continuous changes. 393 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how development proceeds in both stage-like and continuous fashion over the lifespan.

16) A__________ period refers to the optimal time period when the normal development of a particular skill must take place. a. maturation b. initiation c. sensitive d. fast-mapping Correct: A sensitive period is a window of time during which exposure to a specific type of environmental stimulation is needed for normal development of a specific ability. Long-term deficits can emerge if the needed stimulation, such as language input, is missing during a sensitive period. 393–394 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 393–394 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

17) Times when certain internal and external influences have a major impact on development are called _______________. a. fetal periods b. sensitive periods c. germinal periods d. latency periods Correct: A sensitive period is a window of time during which exposure to a specific type of environmental stimulation is needed for normal development of a specific ability. Long-term deficits can emerge if the needed stimulation, such as language input, is missing during a sensitive period. 393–394 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 393–394 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

18) Suppose a child were raised by abusive parents who kept her locked in a basement, completely separated from human contact, for the first 7 years of her life. When she was finally rescued, case workers found that it was very difficult to teach her how to communicate. This would be because the child was not exposed to language during the _____________. a. sensitive period b. sensorimotor stage c. preconventional stage d. concrete operational stage Correct: A sensitive period is a window of time during which exposure to a specific type of environmental stimulation is needed for normal development of a specific ability.

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Long-term deficits can emerge if the needed stimulation, such as language input, is missing during a sensitive period. 393–394 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393–394 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

19) The germinal stage a. occurs during the first two weeks after fertilization. b. occurs from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization. c. occurs from approximately 8 weeks after fertilization to birth. d. occurs from 7 to 10 weeks after fertilization. Correct: The germinal stage is the first phase of prenatal development and spans from conception to two weeks. 394–395 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 394–395 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

20) Marisa is at a point in her pregnancy when the blastocyst is moving down to her uterus, and the placenta begins to form. Which stage of prenatal development is Marisa currently experiencing? a. fetal b. embryonic c. placental d. germinal

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Correct: The germinal stage is the first phase of prenatal development and spans from conception to two weeks. During this phase, the blastocyst moves along the fallopian tubes and becomes implanted in the lining of the uterus. Soon after implantation, the blastocyst divides into a group of cells that continues developing into an embryo, and another group that forms the placenta. 394–395 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 394–395 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

21) The placenta is a. the tube through which a developing baby receives nourishment. b. the technical name for the "belly button." c. a specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby. d. the name for the developing organism until it is 8 weeks old. Correct: The placenta is the structure that allows oxygen and nutrients to pass to the fetus and waste to leave the fetus. 394–395 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 394–395 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

22) Which of the following describes the embryonic period? a. the period during which the blastocyst moves down to the uterus and begins to implant in the lining b. the period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop c. the period during which the zygote is formed Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. the period during which the skeletal, organ, and nervous systems become more developed and specialized Correct: The embryonic stage spans weeks two through eight, during which time the embryo begins developing major physical structures such as the heart and nervous system, as well as the beginnings of arms, legs, hands, and feet. 394–395 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 394–395 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

23) The heart and nervous system begin to form when the developing child is categorized as a(n) ________. a. fetus b. zygote c. embryo d. blastocyst Correct: The embryonic stage spans weeks two through eight, during which time the embryo begins developing major physical structures such as the heart and nervous system, as well as the beginnings of arms, legs, hands, and feet. 394–395 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 394–395 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

24) Tameeka is at a point in her pregnancy during which the major organs and structures of her baby are first developing. Which period of prenatal development is Tameeka currently experiencing? a. fetal

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b. embryonic c. placental d. germinal Correct: The embryonic stage spans weeks two through eight, during which time the embryo begins developing major physical structures such as the heart and nervous system, as well as the beginnings of arms, legs, hands, and feet. 394–395 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 394–395 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

25) Which of the following is the correct order for the phases of prenatal development? a. germinal, embryonic, fetal b. germinal, fetal, embryonic c. fetal, germinal, embryonic d. fetal, embryonic, germinal Correct: The phases of prenatal development are germinal (0–2 weeks), embryonic (2–8 weeks), and fetal (8 weeks to birth). 394–395 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 394–395 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

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c. 37 d. 40 Correct: Even with modern medical care, a preterm infant born at 25 weeks has only slightly better than a 50% chance of surviving. Fetal development happens very quickly, so survival rates reach 95% at around 30 weeks of gestation, which is still well short of full-term delivery. 397–398 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 397–398 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the effects of preterm birth.

27) Which of the following is a key component to the Newborn Individualized Developmental Care and Assessment Program (NIDCAP) for preterm infants? a. exposing the infants to specific patterns of visual and auditory stimuli to promote brain development b. placing infants into a simulated womb, complete with placenta and amniotic fluid c. recreating the birthing experience at what would have been 37 weeks of gestation if the infant had been carried to full term d. minimizing exposure to light and sounds that can over-stimulate the developing brain Correct: Lights, stress, and other factors can interfere by over-stimulating an underdeveloped brain. NIDCAP calls for minimal lights, sound levels, stress, and painful experiences to promote healthy brain development in preterm infants. 397–398 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 397–398 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

28) According to your textbook, which of the following is true of children who survive a preterm birth before 29 weeks' gestational age?

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a. Over 95% experience severe cognitive impairments into adulthood. b. Over 95% experience some lasting impairment, but it is typically mild. c. Over 50% show no cognitive impairments at all. d. Preterm birth affects physical, but not cognitive development. Correct: People born preterm do experience slightly higher rates of cognitive impairment as teenagers, but more than half have no cognitive problems associated with premature birth at all. 397–398 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 397–398 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the effects of preterm birth.

29) One important advantage of the kangaroo care intervention for preterm infants is that it a. has a 95% success rate for infants born between 20 and 25 weeks. b. can easily be used in developing countries. c. limits physical contact with the infant. d. makes use of the most technologically advanced treatments available. Correct: A method called kangaroo care focuses on constant, ongoing physical contact between infants and their mothers, as well as breastfeeding. Because this intervention is very simple to implement, it can be used in developing countries where health-care services are minimal. 394–395 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 394–395 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the effects of preterm birth.

30) Which of the following terms is used to describe any substance, such as a drug, chemical, or virus, that can bring about a birth defect?

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a. teratogen b. critical period c. carcinogen d. biohazard Correct: A teratogen is a substance, such as a drug, that is capable of producing physical defects. These defects typically appear at birth or shortly after. 396–397 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 396–397 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

31) Which of the following is not a known symptom of fetal alcohol syndrome? a. facial malformations b. respiratory difficulties c. deficits in mental functioning d. growth problems Correct: Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) involves abnormalities in mental functioning, growth, and facial development in the offspring of women who use alcohol during pregnancy. Respiratory difficulties are not typically associated with FAS. 396–397 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 396–397 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus. 32) Greta's child has facial deformities, learning difficulties, and delayed growth. If these defects can be traced to a teratogen used by Greta when she was pregnant, which was she most likely abusing? a. nicotine Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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b. cocaine c. marijuana d. alcohol Correct: Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) involves abnormalities in mental functioning, growth, and facial development in the offspring of women who use alcohol during pregnancy. Respiratory difficulties are not typically associated with FAS. 396–397 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 396–397 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

33) What are some of the common consequences to a child whose mother smoked while pregnant? a. increased birth weight and lethargy b. lower birth weight and premature birth c. severe hearing loss and heart defects d. severely deformed limbs and muscle spasms Correct: Babies born to mothers who smoke are twice as likely to have low birth weight and have a 30% chance of premature birth—both factors that increase the newborn's risk of illness or death. 397 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 397 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

34) Which of the following is true of the original research that suggested a relationship between the MMR vaccine and the development of autism?

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a. It has been retracted by the journal that published it. b. It won Andrew Wake the 1999 Nobel Prize for Medicine. c. It has been successfully replicated several times. d. While the original study has problems, the scientific community still supports the connection between vaccines and autism. Correct: In 2010, the original 1998 paper showing a connection between the MMR vaccine and autism was retracted by The Lancet, the medical journal that published it. Also, a thorough investigation revealed numerous counts of misconduct by its author, Andrew Wakefield, and the UK revoked his medical licence. There is no scientific evidence that the MMR vaccine causes autism. 399 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 399 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

35) By seven to eight months of gestation, not only can infants hear, but they also seem to be actively listening. According to your textbook, which of the following is one of the ways researchers know this? a. Infants still in the womb kick their feet along with the beat of external music. b. Some young children report having been aware of conversations while they were still in the womb. c. Infants show a preference for stories read aloud to them prior to birth. d. Infants show knowledge of vocabulary words they heard while still in the womb. Correct: In one study, infants were able to play a tape recording of their mother reading stories by sucking on a pacifier. They showed a preference for the story that their mother read while still in the womb over a new story. 399 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 399 Skill: Factual

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Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

36) Which ability may take up to 2 months after birth to develop? a. discriminating odours b. seeing objects less than a foot away c. voluntary motor movements d. discriminating between different colours Correct: Colour vision also appears to take some time to develop, but by at least 2 months of age infants begin discriminating different colours. The other abilities listed are present at birth or soon thereafter. 400 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 400 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

37) The involuntary muscular reactions to specific types of stimulation seen in newborns are referred to as ___________. a. tremors b. reflexes c. ticks d. spasms Correct: In the last months of gestation and the first months of life, the muscles and nervous system become developed enough to demonstrate basic reflexes—involuntary muscular reactions to specific types of stimulation. 400–401 Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 400–401 Skill: Factual

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Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

38) The rooting reflex refers to a newborn's tendency to a. stand up and attempt to walk when placed on its knees. b. open the mouth to seek food when touched on the cheek. c. cry when approached by unfamiliar people. d. close the eyes when startled by loud noises. Correct: The rooting reflex is elicited by stimulation to the corners of the mouth, which causes infants to orient themselves toward the stimulation and make sucking motions. The rooting reflex helps the infant begin feeding immediately after birth. 401 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 401 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

39) Elizabeth is nursing her newborn daughter and holds the baby up to her breast. When she strokes her baby's cheek, the child turns her head toward the breast and finds her mother's nipple. This is a demonstration of the __________ reflex. a. rooting b. suckling c. Moro d. grasping Correct: The rooting reflex is elicited by stimulation to the corners of the mouth, which causes infants to orient themselves toward the stimulation and make sucking motions. The rooting reflex helps the infant begin feeding immediately after birth. 401 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 401

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Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

40) The Moro reflex is most likely to be produced when a. someone lightly stokes the baby's cheek. b. the baby loses support of his or her head. c. the baby smells his mother's breast milk. d. the baby's palm is pressed. Correct: The Moro reflex, also known as the "startle" reflex, occurs when infants lose support of their head. Infants grimace and reach their arms outward and then inward in a hugging motion. This may be a protective reflex that allows the infant to hold on to the mother when support is suddenly lost. 401 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 401 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology relating to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

41) In a study discussed in your textbook, researchers surveyed mothers from different cultures about when they expected their newborns to develop specific motor skills such as walking. In cultures where the mothers expected their children to reach these milestones earlier, a. their children actually matured slower than average. b. their children matured at the same rate as all of the children in the study. c. their children reached the milestones at an earlier age than the children from other cultures. d. the parents showed extreme anxiety if their child developed more slowly than they had expected. Correct: Researchers asked mothers of different nationalities when they expected their newborns to perform different actions. As compared to British or Indian mothers, Jamaican mothers gave earlier dates on average for sitting up and walking. Their

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expectations were confirmed, because the infants born to Jamaican mothers walked at a significantly earlier age. 401–402 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 401–402 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

42) Cross-cultural studies show that children raised in different environments mature at slightly different rates. According to your textbook, these differences are likely due to differences in a. when infants begin practising motor skills. b. the genes they inherited from their parents. c. educational systems. d. nutrition. Correct: In some cases, variation in when infants reach motor milestones may be attributable to the expectations that parents hold about when young people should be capable of certain tasks. Parents who expect their children to reach these milestones earlier may encourage them to practise these skills at an earlier age. 401–402 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 401–402 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

43) The loss of weak nerve cell connections in the brain is known as ____________. a. synaptogenesis b. neuronal loss c. conservation d. synaptic pruning

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Correct: Synaptic pruning, the loss of weak nerve cell connections, accelerates during brain development through infancy and childhood. 402 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 402 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

44) The creation of new synaptic connections between neurons is called ___________________, whereas the removal of weak connections is called _______________. a. myelination; conservation b. conservation; myelination c. synaptogenesis; synaptic pruning d. synaptic pruning; synaptogenesis Correct: The formation of billions of new synapses, a process called synaptogenesis, occurs at blinding speed through infancy and childhood, and continues through the lifespan. Along with synaptogenesis, the process of synaptic pruning, the loss of weak nerve cell connections, accelerates during brain development through infancy and childhood. 402 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 402 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to developmental research methods and prenatal and infant physical development.

45) Which of the following increases the ability of an infant's brain to function? a. the creation of new synaptic connections b. the removal of synaptic connections c. both the creation and the removal of synaptic connections Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. neither the creation nor removal of synaptic connections Correct: Both synaptogenesis and synaptic pruning serve to increase brain functionality by strengthening needed connections between nerve cells and weeding out unnecessary ones. 402 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 402 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

46) Jean Piaget is best known for his pioneering work in the area of ________ development. a. social b. cognitive c. psychosocial d. identity Correct: Jean Piaget is often credited with initiating the modern science of cognitive development—the study of changes in memory, thought, and reasoning processes that occur throughout the lifespan. 406 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 406 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

47) The study of changes in memory, thought, and reasoning processes that occur throughout the lifespan is called _____________. a. mind development b. biodevelopment c. child psychology d. cognitive development Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Correct: This is the textbook's definition of cognitive development. 406 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 406 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

48) In Piaget's theory, the process of absorbing new information into existing cognitive structures is called __________. a. operations b. assimilation c. conservation d. accommodation Correct: According to Piaget, knowledge accumulates and is modified by two processes— assimilation and accommodation. In the case of assimilation, children add new information, but interpret it based on what they already know. 406 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 406 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

49) In Piaget's theory, the process of modifying existing cognitive structures in response to experience and new information is called _______________. a. operations b. accommodation c. conservation d. assimilation Correct: According to Piaget, accommodation occurs when children modify their belief structures based on experience. In contrast, assimilation occurs when children add new information, but interpret it based on what they already know. 406 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 406 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. 50) According to Piaget, knowledge accumulates and is modified by which two processes? a. sensation and motion b. egocentrism and theory of mind c. conservation and object permanence d. assimilation and accommodation Correct: According to Piaget, knowledge accumulates and is modified by two processes— assimilation and accommodation. 406 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 406 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

51) Janis sees a bat flying over the lake and says, "Birdie"! Her mother says, "That flies like a bird, Janis, but that is a bat." Janis begins pointing saying, "Bat! Bat! Bat!" Piaget would say that this is an example of ____________. a. accommodation b. preoperational thought c. assimilation d. egocentric thinking Correct: According to Piaget, accommodation occurs when children modify their belief structures based on experience. In contrast, assimilation occurs when children add new information, but interpret it based on what they already know. Because Janis appears to think that all flying animals are birds, she must modify this belief in order to include the information about bats. 406

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Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 406 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

52) Kisha understands her world by grasping, sucking, and physically handling objects in her path. Kisha is in Piaget's ________ stage of development. a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational Correct: During the sensorimotor stage, infants' thinking and exploration of the world are based on immediate sensory (e.g., seeing, touching) and motor (e.g., grasping, mouthing) experiences. 407 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 407 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

53) The major developmental milestone of the _______________ stage is the achievement of object permanence. a. preoperational b. sensorimotor c. concrete operational d. formal operational Correct: According to Piaget, the development of object permanence is the significant developmental milestone of the sensorimotor stage. 407 Answer: b Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 407 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

54) If an expectant mother wants to avoid her child being born with cognitive deficits, what should she avoid during pregnancy? a. taking thalidomide b. flying in an airplane c. consuming alcohol d. red meat Correct: Alcohol is a powerful teratogen that can cause mental and physical problems for an unborn fetus. 396–397 Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 396–397 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus.

55) Object __________ is a cognitive skill that refers to the fact that an object continues to exist when it is no longer perceived (seen, heard, etc). a. solidity b. stability c. continuity d. permanence Correct: Object permanence is the ability to understand that objects exist even when they cannot be seen or touched. Piaget proposed that it is a major milestone of cognitive development. 407 Answer: d Diff: 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 407 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

56) When her older brother hides behind the sofa, Carmella looks behind the sofa to find him. Carmella has developed ______________. a. object permanence b. equilibration c. conservation d. assimilation Correct: Object permanence is the ability to understand that objects exist even when they cannot be seen or touched. Without object permanence, Carmella would not would not be able to comprehend the fact that her brother is still present, but hidden. 407 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 407 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

57) Which of the following is the correct order of stages in Piaget's theory of cognitive development? a. formal operational, concrete operational, preoperational, sensory motor b. preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor c. sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational d. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational Correct: Piaget's stages of cognitive development are sensorimotor (0–2 years), preoperational (2–7 years), concrete operational (7–11 years), and formal operational (11 years to adult). 406 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 406 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

58) Which stage of cognitive development is characterized by understanding of symbols, pretend play, and mastery of the concept of conservation? a. formal operational b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. sensorimotor Correct: The preoperational stage, which spans ages two through seven years, is characterized by understanding of symbols, pretend play, and mastery of the concept of conservation. During this stage, children can look at and think about physical objects, although they have not quite attained abstract thinking abilities. 407 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 407 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

59) Alice is sitting at the table with her son Nikko. She takes his tall glass of milk and pours exactly half of it into a shorter wider glass. Then she says, "Honey, which glass has more milk?" Nikko immediately points to the taller glass. Nikko has not yet mastered Piaget's skill of _____________. a. centration b. egocentrism c. object permanence d. conservation Correct: Conservation is the knowledge that the quantity or amount of an object is not related to the physical arrangement and appearance of that object. In this example, Nikko does not understand that pouring fluid into different containers does not change the actual amount of fluid. This is a classic example of conservation (or the lack thereof). 407

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Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 407 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

60) Miss Johnson gave Mark and Tia equal-sized lumps of clay. Tia immediately rolled hers into a long shape. Mark cried and complained that Tia had received more clay. Mark's behaviour represents a. an inability to accommodate. b. an inability to conserve. c. difficulty with formal operational tasks. d. an inability to assimilate. Correct: Conservation is the knowledge that the quantity or amount of an object is not related to the physical arrangement and appearance of that object. In this example, Mark does not understand that the total amount of clay is conserved as it is reshaped. 407–408 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 407–408 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

61) According to Piaget, a child in the _____________ stage of cognitive development should be able to understand many mathematical concepts such as transitivity, but is likely to have difficulty understanding the more abstract ideas found in algebra. a. formal operational b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. sensorimotor Correct: In the concrete operational stage (roughly spanning ages 7 to 11 years), children develop skills in using and manipulating numbers as well as logical thinking.

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However, Piaget believed that true abstract thinking does not develop until the formal operational stage. 408 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 408 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

62) During which of Piaget's stages does a child demonstrate the ability to reason about abstract ideas? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational Correct: The formal operational stage is characterized by the capacity for abstract and hypothetical thinking. 408 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 408 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

63) Asking students to predict how the course of history may have changed if the first U.S. president were a woman would likely motivate students in which of Piaget's stages to answer thoroughly? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational

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Correct: The formal operational stage is characterized by the capacity for abstract and hypothetical thinking. Because the first U.S. president was not a woman, this is an example of purely hypothetical reasoning. 408 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 408 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

64) In which stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development do people begin to think logically about abstract concepts? a. the sensorimotor stage b. the formal operational stage c. the concrete operational stage d. the preoperational stage Correct: The formal operational stage is characterized by the capacity for abstract and hypothetical thinking. 408 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 408 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

65) The core knowledge hypothesis suggests that a. infants have inborn abilities for understanding some key aspects of their environment. b. children do not develop true abstract thinking until after puberty. c. children must first develop an essential set of cognitive skills before they can develop abstract thinking. d. children learn through a process of accommodation and assimilation. Correct: The core knowledge hypothesis is a view on development proposing that infants have inborn abilities for understanding some key aspects of their environment, and Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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therefore, that newborns know something about the world before they have even experienced it. 409 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 409 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

66) The first time Greta showed a toy panda to her infant son, he appeared very interested and stared at it for a long time. Over time, however, Greta has noticed that her son has become less interested in the toy and only looks at it briefly. This is an example of ___________. a. conservation b. object permanence c. dishabituation d. habituation Correct: Habituation refers to a decrease in responding with repeated exposure to an event, something infants are well known for doing. For example, if an infant views the same stimulus or event over and over, she will stop looking at it. In this case, the habituated response is time spent looking at the event. 409 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 409 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

67) Although not all psychologists agree, research using habituation and dishabituation discussed in your textbook suggests that very young infants might a. understand the meaning of some simple words. b. demonstrate object permanence. c. recognize their parents.

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d. have a rudimentary appreciation for numbers. Correct: The infants in this study looked longer at shapes when the tone that accompanied them matched in number, compared to when they did not match. The researchers believe that this finding is evidence that even very young infants have a rudimentary appreciation for abstract numbers. 409–410 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 409–410 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

68) The zone of __________ development refers to the difference between what a child can do alone and what a child can do together with a more competent person. a. proximal b. assistive c. supplemented d. distal Correct: According to Lev Vygotsky, the zone of proximal development is ideal when a child attempts skills and activities that are just beyond what he or she can do alone, but the child has guidance from adults who are attentive to his or her progress. 410 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 410 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

69) Whereas Piaget saw cognitive development as a result of individual discovery and a child's interaction with objects, Vygotsky attributed cognitive development to a. biological changes in the brain. b. unconscious factors. c. completing activities in isolation.

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d. interaction between a child and skilled people. Correct: Unlike Piaget, Lev Vygotsky focused on the interaction between children and those that provide just the right amount of help to encourage cognitive development. He believed that development is ideal when a child attempts skills and activities that are just beyond what he or she can do alone, but the child has guidance from adults who are attentive to his or her progress. 410–411 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 410–411 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

70) The emotional bond that a newborn baby shares with his or her caregiver(s) is called ____________. a. maternal love b. temperament c. affective link d. attachment Correct: Attachment is an enduring emotional bond formed between individuals. For infants, attachment is extremely important for survival and psychological health. 411 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 411, Module 10.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. 71) What kind of animals did Harry Harlow and his colleagues use to discredit the most commonly accepted theory of attachment of the time? a. geese b. monkeys c. pigeons

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d. rats Correct: Early psychologists speculated that infants form attachments to whoever satisfies their hunger and thirst. Harlow famously showed that infant monkeys formed attachments with surrogate "mothers" that provided comfort, not the ones that provided food. 412–413 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 412–413 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment.

72) Harlow's study of infant rhesus monkeys showed that a. surrogate mothers who were cold to the touch but provided food and water produced the strongest attachment responses. b. surrogate mothers who were soft to the touch but did not provide food and water produced the strongest attachment responses. c. early imprinting led to the strongest attachments of monkeys to their surrogate mothers. d. surrogate mothers who were inconsistent in providing food and water produced the weakest attachment responses. Correct: Harlow famously showed that infant monkeys formed attachments with surrogate "mothers" covered in soft terrycloth, not the wireframe ones that provided food. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 412–413 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment.

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73) In Harlow's studies with young monkeys, the monkeys were exposed to a wire mother with a bottle and a cloth mother without a bottle. The young monkeys spent their non-feeding time a. with the wire mother. b. with both mothers equally. c. with the cloth mother. d. away from both mothers. Correct: Harlow famously showed that infant monkeys deprived of maternal care clung compulsively to a piece of terrycloth wrapped around a cylinder of wire mesh that loosely resembled the body shape of an adult monkey. Infant monkeys spent much less time with an identical wire object that lacked the terrycloth, even though the infant's food was attached to it. 412–413 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 412–413 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment.

74) Which of the following theories of attachment was effectively discredited by the work of Harry Harlow? a. Babies become attached to adults who are pleasant to touch. b. Babies become attached to adults who provide them with nourishment. c. Babies become attached to adults who smile at them. d. Babies become attached to adults who talk in quiet voices. Correct: Early psychologists speculated that infants form attachments to whoever satisfies their hunger and thirst. Harlow famously showed that infant monkeys formed attachments with surrogate "mothers" that provided comfort, not the ones that provided food. 412–413 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 412–413 Skill: Conceptual

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Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment.

75) Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the __________ test in order to assess the different types of attachment that might exist between a child and his or her primary caregiver. a. theory of mind b. separation c. strange situation d. attachment schema Correct: Studies of attachment by Mary Ainsworth involved a mother leaving her infant with a stranger. This "strange situation" protocol has been used to characterize the type of attachment infants have toward their mothers or caregivers. 413–414 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 413–414 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment.

76) Young Pemba is being observed as he plays in a room with his mother. Pemba frequently plays with the toys in the room, but occasionally looks back at his mother to make sure she is there. After a quick smile is exchanged between mother and child, Pemba goes back to playing with the toys. When Pemba's mother leaves the room, he becomes moderately upset, but is easily soothed when she returns. Which type of attachment does Pemba seem to have with his mother? a. loving b. secure c. interdependent d. developmental Correct: For children who have a secure style of attachment, their caregiver is a base that the child uses as he or she explores. In the strange situation, the child plays comfortably while the mother is in the room. The child may or may not cry when the mother leaves, and seeks contact with her upon returning. 413–414

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 413–414 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment.

77) Which of the following children is most likely to be upset when her father leaves the room? a. Ilsa, who has an insecure-resistant attachment to her father b. Nola, who has a secure attachment to her father c. Denia, who has a disorganized attachment to her father d. Lakesha, who has an insecure-avoidant attachment to her father Correct: Children with an insecure-resistant attachment style are upset when their caregiver leaves, but are angry when he or she returns. 413–414 Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 413–414 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment.

78) Some children who were observed in the strange situation scenario did not demonstrate one consistent attachment style, but instead seemed unable to decide how they should react to their mother and to new circumstances. Researchers have labeled this the insecure-__________ attachment style. a. secure b. disorganized c. resistant d. avoidant

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Correct: Disorganized is a subtype of insecure attachment. A child with insecuredisorganized attachment does not have a consistent pattern of behaviour either when the mother leaves or when she returns. The child might freeze for a moment, seemingly unsure of what to do next. 413–414 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 413–414 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment.

79) According to Piaget, egocentrism and a lack of conservation ability are both qualities that are seen in the ________ stage of development. a. preconventional b. preoperational c. concrete operations d. formal operations Correct: Piaget believed that children were egocentric and lacked conservation until the end of the preoperational stage. 414–415 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 414–415 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood.

80) According to Piaget, egocentrism involves a. the perception that others view the world as you do. b. the perception that others view the world differently than you do. c. the perception that you might be incorrect in your judgments. d. the perception that you are better than others.

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Correct: Piaget concluded that children were egocentric through the preoperational phase, meaning that they perceive and interpret the world in terms of the self. This does not imply that children are selfish or inconsiderate. Instead, it means that young children assume everyone else shares their perspective. 414–415 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 414–415 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. 81) What is meant by the term "egocentrism"? a. A child lacks the ability to consider perspectives other than his or her own. b. A child is extremely arrogant and feels that he or she is better than others. c. A child is very selfish and refuses to share his or her possessions with others. d. A child lacks the motivation do things for him- or herself and expects them to be done by others. Correct: Piaget concluded that children were egocentric through the preoperational phase, meaning that they perceive and interpret the world in terms of the self. This does not imply that children are selfish or inconsiderate. Instead, it means that young children assume everyone else shares their perspective. 414–415 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 414–415 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

82) Piaget mistakenly believed that a. children begin to grasp the concept of object permanence during the sensorimotor stage. b. during the stage of concrete operations, children understand conservation. c. an understanding of self-awareness does not appear until the formal operational stage. d. preoperational children cannot take another person's point of view.

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Correct: Piaget believed that children were egocentric until the end of the preoperational stage. Modern research indicates that children take the perspective of others long before the preoperational phase is complete. 415 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 415 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

83) A child's ability to understand that others' thoughts, beliefs, and expectations can differ from his or her own is called theory of ___________. a. schema b. disintegration c. mind d. egocentrism Correct: Theory of mind refers to the ability to recognize the thoughts, beliefs, and expectations of others, and to understand that these can be different from one's own. 415 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 415 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

84) At five years old, Sammy is better able to understand his friends' feelings as compared to when he was three years old. Sammy is acquiring a ___________. a. theory of mind b. self-concept c. sense of identity d. sense of self-reflection

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Correct: Theory of mind refers to the ability to recognize the thoughts, beliefs, and expectations of others, and to understand that these can be different from one's own. The development of a theory of mind indicates a shift away from egocentrism. 415 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 415 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood.

85) Theorist __________ believed that every stage of life has a conflict in need of resolution. a. Carl Jung b. Erik Erikson c. Lev Vygotsky d. Jean Piaget Correct: Erik Erikson believed that personality develops in eight separate stages, each of which involves a particular psychosocial crisis—that is, a struggle between two opposing beliefs about oneself. 435–437 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 435–437 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key areas of growth experienced by emerging adults.

86) ___________ marks the transition from childhood to adolescence. a. Marriage b. Entering the formal operational stage c. Puberty d. Becoming 13 years old Correct: Puberty marks the physical transition from childhood to adolescence.421

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 421 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development.

87) Which of the following is an example of a primary sex characteristic? a. changes in vocal tone b. growth of the breasts c. growth of the genitals d. growth of facial hair Correct: Primary sex traits refer to those sex traits directly associated with reproduction, including the genitals and gonads (testes or ovaries). In contrast, other sex traits are secondary to the reproductive process, including growth in breast size and the increased distribution of fat at the hips and buttocks in females, and growth of facial and body hair and a deepening of the voice in males. 421 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 421 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development.

88) The body's reproductive organs are an example of ____________. a. adrenal glands b. thyroid glands c. primary sex traits d. secondary sex traits Correct: Primary sex traits refer to those sex traits directly associated with reproduction, including the genitals and gonads (testes or ovaries). In contrast, other sex traits are secondary to the reproductive process, including growth in breast size and the increased

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distribution of fat at the hips and buttocks in females, and growth of facial and body hair and a deepening of the voice in males. 421 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 421 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development.

89) Which is an example of a secondary sex trait? a. genitals b. ovaries c. voice change d. sperm Correct: Primary sex traits refer to those sex traits directly associated with reproduction, including the genitals and gonads (testes or ovaries). In contrast, other sex traits are secondary to the reproductive process, including growth in breast size and the increased distribution of fat at the hips and buttocks in females, and growth of facial and body hair and a deepening of the voice in males. 421 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 421 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development.

90) Puberty is associated with the onset of __________. a. menopause b. menarche c. dementia d. generativity

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Correct: For girls, puberty is marked by menarche—the onset of menstruation—which typically occurs around age 12. Generativity versus stagnation is one of Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, but is not associated with puberty. 421 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 421 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development.

91) __________ is to girls as __________ is to boys. a. Menarche; spermarche b. Spermarche; menarche c. Puberty; adolescence d. Adolescence; puberty Correct: For girls, puberty is marked by the onset of menstruation, referred to as menarche. The corresponding developmental milestone for boys is spermarche, the first ejaculation of sperm. 421 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 421 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development.

92) During menarche, adolescents experience a. the onset of menstruation. b. the first ejaculation. c. voice changes. d. the end of menstruation. Correct: For girls, puberty is marked by the onset of menstruation, referred to as menarche. 421

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Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 421 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development.

93) Excessive risk taking during adolescence is caused, at least in part, by the fact that the _____________ is not fully developed. a. prefrontal cortex b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. medial temporal lobe Correct: In recent years, psychologists and neuroscientists have implicated ongoing changes in the prefrontal cortex as the basis of some of the behavioural issues that are especially likely to occur during adolescence. 424–425 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 424–425 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the relationship between brain development and adolescent judgment and risk taking.

94) According to Kohlberg, behaviour motivated by the avoidance of punishment represents ________ morality. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. formal conventional Correct: Preconventional morality is characterized by self-interest in seeking reward or avoiding punishment. Preconventional morality is considered a very basic and egocentric form of moral reasoning. 426

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Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 426 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the functions of moral emotions.

95) Karla can speed on a certain stretch of the interstate without being ticketed, yet she decides not to speed because it is unlawful. Karla's reasoning reflects ________ reasoning. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. formal conventional Correct: With conventional morality, social conventions and laws are used to determine whether a behaviour is right or wrong. People with a postconventional moral reasoning view laws as relative and determine right and wrong based on more abstract principles. Karla can speed without getting a ticket, so she appears not to be in the preconventional stage of moral development, which is characterized by avoiding punishment and seeking reward. 426 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 426 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding of the categories of moral reasoning.

96) The highest level of moral reasoning, called __________ morality, is based on internal principles that transcend society. a. conventional b. postconventional c. preconventional d. retroconventional

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Correct: Kohlberg considered postconventional morality the highest level of moral reasoning. People with this type of moral orientation consider rules and laws as relative and view right and wrong as determined by more abstract principles of justice and rights. 426 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 426 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the functions of moral emotions.

97) Young Jamal is asked whether it is right for a police officer to give a speeding ticket to a man who is driving his daughter to the hospital after a serious injury that left her with several broken bones. Which of the following answers would demonstrate the postconventional level of moral reasoning in Jamal? a. "He broke the rules. He should get a ticket, but should have to pay less than someone who was speeding for no good reason." b. "Everyone speeds and he has a good reason, so he shouldn't get a ticket." c. "Speeding is breaking the rules, and when you break the rules you deserve to be punished." d. "The man was trying to get his daughter to help, and he wasn't hurting anyone. As long as he doesn't normally speed, he should be let off with a warning." Correct: People with a postconventional moral orientation consider rules and laws as relative and view right and wrong as determined by more abstract principles of justice and rights. In this example, breaking a law is justified by the moral imperative to help someone who is injured and in urgent need of help. 426 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 426 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding of the categories of moral reasoning.

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98) Jonathan Haidt and his colleagues suggest that _______________ is a "moral emotion" that guides our moral reasoning. a. love b. righteousness c. altruism d. disgust Correct: Disgust is a very primal emotion that often guides our moral reasoning and decision making. Psychologists Jonathan Haidt and his colleagues conceive of disgust as a "moral emotion." 426–427 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 426–427 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development.

99) A major part of adolescence is the development of a self-image and a perception of one's unique and individual characteristics. This is referred to as one's ___________. a. popularity b. ego c. personality d. identity Correct: A major issue faced by adolescents is the formation of an identity, a self-image, and a perception of one's unique and individual characteristics. 428 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 428 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development.

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100) Audrey and Sam are having an argument and Audrey has decided to use ‘the silent treatment’ as a tactic for showing her anger. Which of the four unproductive approaches to conflict resolution discussed in your text is Audrey displaying? a. criticism b. contempt c. defensiveness d. stonewalling Correct: Stonewalling occurs when one person refuses to communicate during conflict resolution. 438–439 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 438–439 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply effective communication principles to the challenge of improving your own relationships.

101) You don’t like a supper your partner has prepared, but you decide to thank your partner for preparing it rather than stating your opinion. Which of the ”four horsemen of the relationship apocalypse” have you just avoided? a. criticism b. contempt c. defensiveness d. stonewalling Correct: By not criticizing the food your partner prepared, you are helping promote a healthier communication style. 438–439 Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 438–439 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply effective communication principles to the challenge of improving your own relationships.

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102) Your partner says he is hurt that you forgot your anniversary, and you reply, “Well, you forgot it last year!” Which one of the “four horseman of the relationship apocalypse” are you displaying?” a. criticism b. contempt c. defensiveness d. stonewalling Correct: Defensiveness is problematic. It is better to try problem solving. 438–439 Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 438–439 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply effective communication principles to the challenge of improving your own relationships.

103) According to your textbook, which of the following is true regarding adolescents and Internet use? a. While earlier studies indicated that Internet use was associated with becoming less socially connected, recent studies indicate it might be associated with feeling more socially connected. b. While earlier studies indicated that Internet use was associated with becoming more socially connected, recent studies indicate it might be associated with feeling less socially connected. c. Studies indicate that social connectedness is associated with cyberbullying. d. The majority of adolescents meet the criteria for pathological Internet use. Correct: Early studies showed that Internet use was associated with less social connectedness, while more recent studies have found the opposite effect. This may be because the increase in online social networking means that adolescents spend much of their time online interacting with their real-world friends. 420 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 420 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the importance of relationships in adolescence.

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104) Which of the following is true regarding same-sex sexual behaviour during adolescence? a. Females are more likely than males to describe adolescent same-sex experiences as just "experimentation." b. Sexual and emotional interest in members of the same sex generally appears during early childhood. c. A large percentage of adolescents who identify themselves as heterosexual have had at least one sexual experience with a same-sex person. d. The number of sexual experiences during adolescence with members of the same sex are probably over reported. Correct: As many as 60% of adolescents who identify themselves as being heterosexual have had at least one sexual encounter with a member of the same sex. Nearly half of all heterosexual adult males who reported same-sex activity during adolescence regarded the sex as a phase of experimentation. In contrast, most women who engaged in same-sex encounters during adolescence also did so during adulthood. 429 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 429 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development.

105) __________ adulthood is a period during a person's early 20s in which they still depend on their parents for financial and emotional support. a. Early b. Emerging c. Transitional d. Adolescent Correct: In the United States and other countries, many children appear to be dependent on their parents well into their 20s. This has led some psychologists to propose a new stage in social development called emerging adulthood. 432 Answer: b Diff: 3

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Type: MC Page Reference: 432 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key areas of growth experienced by emerging adults.

106) Which of the following marks the biological beginning of adulthood according to psychologists? a. the loss of virginity b. turning 18 c. puberty d. The start of adulthood is usually defined by sociocultural norms and does not have a biological marker. Correct: Unlike adolescence, the beginning of adulthood is not marked by a specific event, biological or otherwise. 432 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 432 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key areas of growth experienced by emerging adults.

107) The cessation of menstruation is called ___________. a. menopause b. endometriosis c. menarche d. the climacteric Correct: One major physical change affecting women at approximately age 50 is menopause, the termination of the menstrual cycle and reproductive ability. 432 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 432

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Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key areas of growth experienced by emerging adults.

108) Which of the following is true of dementia? a. Dementia is a specific disease. b. Dementia is almost always caused by Alzheimer's disease. c. Dementia is a normal part of aging. d. Dementia is a set of symptoms that often result from neurodegenerative disorders. Correct: Dementia refers to a set of symptoms including mild to severe disruption of mental functioning, memory loss, disorientation, poor judgment, and decision making. Dementia is associated with neurodegenerative disorders including, but not limited to, Alzheimer's disease. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 432–433 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand age-related disorders such as Alzheimer's disease.

109) A theory discussed in your textbook states that the deterioration of cognitive abilities associated with Alzheimer's disease is caused by a. the depletion of dopamine in the prefrontal cortex. b. the buildup of proteins inside and outside of neurons that disrupt normal functioning. c. the creation of inappropriate synaptic connections between neurons. d. the inactivation of glutamate receptors. Correct: According to one theory, Alzheimer's disease is possibly due to amyloid plaques, proteins that clump together in the spaces between neurons, interrupting their normal activity. In addition, another type of protein (tau) builds up and forms tangles within nerve cells, which severely disrupts their structural integrity and functioning. 433 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 433

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Skill: Factual Objective: Understand age-related disorders such as Alzheimer's disease.

110) One's accumulated knowledge gained over time is called _______________. a. crystallized intelligence b. fluid intelligence c. emotional intelligence d. formal intelligence Correct: Crystallized intelligence is a type of intelligence based on accumulated experiences and skills. In contrast, fluid intelligence involves processes such as problem solving and reasoning that do not rely on previous experience. 434 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 434 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how cognitive abilities change with age.

111) As people move into old age, the speed of cognitive processing a. slows down. b. increases, but only for those who take vitamins. c. declines along with crystallized intelligence. d. does not change at all. Correct: Fluid intelligence, which includes the speed at which cognitive processing occurs, decreases as adults age. 434 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 434 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how cognitive abilities change with age.

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112) In general, as older adults age, a. all cognitive abilities decline. b. no cognitive abilities decline in healthy adults. c. some cognitive abilities decline, while others are relatively stable. d. many cognitive abilities actually improve. Correct: Fluid intelligence reaches a peak during young adulthood and proceeds to decline, whereas crystallized intelligence is relatively stable in healthy adults. 434 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 434 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how cognitive abilities change with age.

113) Which of the following memories is an older adult most likely to have difficulty remembering? a. how to type on a keyboard without looking b. the name of the telephone's inventor c. how to change the oil on a car d. the specific events that occurred last Thanksgiving Correct: Episodic and working memory tend to decline with age, while semantic and procedural memories remain fairly stable. Remembering a specific event requires episodic memory, while the other options require semantic (factual) or procedural (motor skills) memory. 434 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 434 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how cognitive abilities change with age.

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114) In healthy adults, __________ memory tends to remain stable, while ___________ memory declines with age. a. semantic; working b. procedural; semantic c. episodic; working d. episodic; procedural. Correct: Episodic and working memory tend to decline with age, while semantic and procedural memories remain fairly stable. 434 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 434 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how cognitive abilities change with age.

115) Compared to unmarried people, people who are married a. are likely to have better mental health, but worse physical health. b. are likely to have better physical health, but worse mental health. c. are likely to have better mental and physical health. d. have similar mental and physical health. Correct: Overall, marriage appears to benefit physical and mental health. Married couples monitor their medical care more effectively, report greater sexual satisfaction and frequency, and are more financially secure than are unmarried people. 437 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 437 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key areas of growth experienced by emerging adults.

116) The best way to reduce the impact of cohort effects is to use which type of research design?

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a. a longitudinal design b. a cross-sectional design c. a between-subjects design d. a correlational design Correct: Cohort effects reflect differences in people born at different times. If you are comparing people born in the 1980s to people born in the 2000s, some of the differences might not be because of age, but because of the time period they were born in. A longitudinal study uses people from a single cohort and thus reduces cohort effects. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393, Module 10.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the pros and cons to different research designs in developmental psychology.

117) Dr. Allen wants to conduct research comparing 3-, 6-, and 9-year-olds that will be completed in the next twelve months. Which type of research design should Dr. Allen use? a. a longitudinal design b. a correlational design c. a within-subjects design d. a cross-sectional design Correct: The main benefit of a cross-sectional design is that it can compare children of different ages simultaneously. 393 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 393 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the pros and cons to different research designs in developmental psychology.

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118) Suzy has just learned how to sound out each written letter in the alphabet. Her teacher, Mrs. Etherington, wants to use scaffolded learning. What would be a good ‘next step’ to teach Suzy to read? a. teaching Suzy how to print the letters she can now sound out b. teaching Suzy how to sound out simple words such as ‘cat’ and ‘bat’ c. teaching Suzy the difference between consonants and vowels d. teaching Suzy how to read a consonant and a letter put together such as ‘ba’ or ‘da’ Correct: The zone of proximal development/scaffolded teaching involves having children learn new skills that are just slightly beyond the skills they have already learned. 410– 411 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 410–411 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the concept of scaffolding and the zone of proximal development to understand how to best promote learning.

119) Compared to younger people, healthy older adults in North America are more likely to a. suffer from depression. b. be physically active. c. be optimistic. d. be pessimistic. Correct: Older people are more likely than their younger counterparts to see the glass as half full; in other words, they are generally more optimistic than young adults and adolescents. Healthy older adults are no more likely to become depressed than are younger people. 440 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 440 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the stereotype that old age is a time of unhappiness.

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120) Emotional well-being tends to ___________ as adults age. a. decrease slightly b. increase c. decrease precipitously d. remain fairly constant Correct: Emotional well-being tends to increase as people get older. 439–440 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 439–440 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the stereotype that old age is a time of unhappiness.

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1) Sexual orientation is defined primarily by whether or not an individual engages in same-sex behaviour. a. True b. False Correct: Current definitions of sexual orientation focus on the psychological aspects of sexuality (e.g., desire, emotion, identification) rather than strictly behavioural criteria. Answer: b Page Reference: 459 2) Maslow hypothesized movement through a hierarchy of needs, beginning with survival needs for sleep, food, and water and reaching needs for self-actualization. a. True b. False Correct: Abraham Maslow (1943) conceived of this increasing complexity of motivational needs. At the base of the "hierarchy of needs" are physiological motives that must be satisfied before all others are considered. After these needs are addressed, an individual may turn to higher-level needs such as the need for love and belonging, self-esteem, and achievement. Answer: a Page Reference: 467 3) Loneliness is a risk factor for illnesses such as heart disease and cancer. a. True b. False Correct: Psychologists have found that social connectedness is a good predictor of overall health, whereas loneliness is a risk factor for illnesses such as heart disease and cancer. Answer: a Page Reference: 468 4) Children are most likely to succeed on a test when they have mastery motivation and an approach goal for studying. a. True b. False Correct: When students are genuinely interested in learning about a topic and expect to gain something by completing the project, it is much easier for them to avoid procrastination. Answer: a Page Reference: 472

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5) Children who are born both deaf and blind show the same facial expressions and emotions as people who see and hear. a. True b. False Correct: Statement of fact. This is one of many pieces of evidence that our emotions have a strong biological basis. Answer: a Page Reference: 478 6) The polygraph detects the physiological patterns of responses that are specific to lying. a. True b. False Correct: Controlled studies of polygraph recordings suggest that they provide evidence of arousal (that is what they are designed to do), but they are not valid indicators of lying. Answer: b Page Reference: 485 7) The facial feedback hypothesis and the James-Lange theory are conceptually very similar. a. True b. False Correct: Both concepts suggest that emotions are influenced by physical changes in the body. Answer: a Page Reference: 481 8) Display rules involve universal, biologically based emotional displays evoked by particular emotional situations. a. True b. False Correct: Display rules refer to the unwritten expectations we have regarding when it is appropriate to show a certain emotion. They can vary from culture to culture. Answer: b Page Reference: 487

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1) One factor in hunger seems to be the increase in insulin released from the pancreas, which causes blood sugar levels to eventually drop several hours after we eat. Correct: Insulin, a hormone secreted by the pancreas, helps cells store this circulating glucose for future use. As insulin levels rise in response to consumption of a meal, hunger decreases—but so do glucose levels, which eventually leads to hunger again a few hours later. Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 446 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. 2) Tina notices that she always eats two slices when her friends order pizza, despite the fact that the size of "a slice" varies greatly from restaurant to restaurant. This is an example of how the unit bias can affect how much food we consume in a meal. Correct: The unit bias is the tendency to assume that the unit of sale or portioning is an appropriate amount to consume. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 448 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. 3) For people with bulimia nervosa, binge eating is usually followed by purging, most commonly by inducing vomiting. Correct: Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that is characterized by periods of bingeeating followed by purging. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 404, Module 11.1 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the major eating and weight-control problems people face.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 11: Motivation and Emotion

4) The ability of women to have multiple orgasms in a row is due to the absence of the refractory period, which is seen in men. Correct: Men usually experience a single orgasm followed by a refractory period, a time period during which erection and orgasm are not physically possible. In contrast, some women experience multiple orgasms without a refractory period. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 411, Module 11.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. 5) According to the psychologist Abraham Maslow humans have a "hierarchy of needs," such that basic needs must be met before higher needs can be addressed. Correct: At the base of Maslow's "hierarchy of needs" are physiological motives that must be satisfied before all others are considered. After these needs are addressed, an individual may turn to higher-level needs. Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 467 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. 6) Mastery motives reflect a desire to understand or overcome a challenge for its own sake. Correct: Mastery motives are motives that reflect a desire to understand or overcome a challenge (e.g., a genuine desire to master a task). In contrast, performance motives are generally those motives that are geared toward gaining rewards or public recognition. Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 472 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. 7) A polygraph is a device that can measure physiological arousal such as heart rate and palm sweat. It is often referred to as a "lie detector." Correct: The polygraph, casually referred to as the "lie detector," measures respiration, blood pressure, and palm sweat—sympathetic nervous system responses that should increase when someone lies. Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 11: Motivation and Emotion

Type: FIB Page Reference: 485 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the nervous system responds to emotions. 8) According to the two-factor theory, cognitive appraisal of physical arousal comes before the experience of emotion. Correct: Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion holds that cognitive appraisal occurs in response to physical arousal and before the emotion is experienced. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 483 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how the nervous system responds to emotions.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 11: Motivation and Emotion

1) Hugh has such powerful sexual needs that he engages in dangerously promiscuous behaviour. In this case, Hugh's sexual needs are a(n) _______. a. emotion b. motive c. stimulus d. cue Answer: b Page Reference: 456 2) An example of intrinsic motivation is reading a textbook because a. you want to earn an A on a test. b. you want to avoid a D or F. c. you enjoy reading it. d. you are being paid to read it. Answer: c Page Reference: 472 3) A need that energizes and directs behaviour towards some goal is known as a _______. a. cue b. behaviour c. motive d. stimulus Answer: c Page Reference: 471–472 4) What is the lowest need in Maslow's hierarchy? a. physiological b. safety c. achievement d. self-actualization Answer: a Page Reference: 467 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 11: Motivation and Emotion

5) Maslow is associated with which of the following notions? a. that when the body temperature falls, we are motivated to eat b. that the motive to explore and manipulate is important for individual survival c. that our motives are organized into a hierarchy d. that some people are driven by the achievement motive Answer: c Page Reference: 467 6) For Maslow, the most highly evolved motive is _______. a. esteem b. physiological need c. intellectual need d. self-actualization Answer: d Page Reference: 467 7) The correct order of Maslow's hierarchy of motives from most primitive to the most complex and human is _______. a. safety, physiological, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization b. physiological, esteem, self-actualization, safety, belongingness c. physiological, esteem, safety, belongingness, self-actualization d. physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization Answer: d Page Reference: 467 8) ”Becoming what one ought to be” is one way to define _______. a. peak experience b. self-actualization c. achievement potential d. self concept Answer: b Page Reference: 467 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 11: Motivation and Emotion

9) With the polygraph, a. the voice stress analyzer is more valid than the polygraph. b. the polygraph is more valid than the voice stress analyzer. c. the voice stress analyzer and the polygraph used together result in valid lie detection. d. at present there is no perfect way to detect lying. Answer: d Page Reference: 485 10) Bob tells Jan that he is feeling fine, but Jan doesn't believe him. What should she focus on to have the BEST chance of identifying any emotions Bob might be hiding? a. his words b. his body posture c. his vocal intonations d. his facial expressions Answer: d Page Reference: 485–486 11) Schacter-Singer's famous emotion experiment showed that a. physiological arousal came after emotional arousal. b. a physiologically aroused person will label his arousal as greater when people are duped or misled. c. emotional arousal is greater when people are duped or misled. d. emotions start in the cortex and are sent to one's internal organs. Answer: b Page Reference: 483–485 12) Researchers have concluded that the ________ is/are the most important part of the body in nonverbal communication. a. hands b. face c. legs d. torso Answer: b Page Reference: 485–486 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 11: Motivation and Emotion

13) Which scenario best supports the theory that emotional expressions are by-products of innate motor programs? a. Babies show the same emotional expressions that are displayed within their culture. b. Babies who are blind from birth smile in response to playing and tickling. Correct: Blind babies showing expression indicates that emotions do not need to be seen to be expressed. c. Babies respond by mimicking emotional expressions in their caregivers. d. Babies respond well to operant conditioning and can be readily taught to laugh or frown. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 478, Module 11.4 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. 14) Dr. Newman lesioned the ventromedial hypothalamus in a group of rats. What behaviour should Dr. Newman expect to see? a. a reduction in the amount of food consumed b. a reduction in the desire to eat c. an increase in eating behaviour to the point of satiation d. an increase in eating behaviour beyond the point of satiation Correct: The ventromedial area controls eating behaviour. Lesioning this area will result in a loss of control. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 445, Module 11.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 11: Motivation and Emotion

1) The "bottomless bowl" study described in your textbook is one example of creative ways researchers have investigated the factors the influence how much we eat. Describe this studies, the results, and what each one tells us about why we eat and why we stop. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Bottomless bowl * Volunteers were asked to eat soup until they had enough. * In the experimental condition, a tube continued to fill the soup bowl from the bottom so that it could not be detected by the volunteers. * These individuals stopped eating after consuming, on average, over 70% more than those participants who knowingly refilled their bowls. * Despite eating more food, these participants did not feel any more satiated, nor did they believe they had eaten any more than the individuals in the control group. * This suggests that the perceived serving size is an important cue when determining how much we should eat. Page Reference: 448 2) Research into the sexual response cycle of men and women has revealed some surprising similarities and differences. Describe some of these similarities and differences. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Similarities * Both men and women experience the four basic stages of the cycle (excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution). * Men and women appear to experience orgasms in a very similar way. - Differences * The sexual response cycle is much more variable for women than men. * The duration and experiences during for each stage differ between men and women. * Men usually experience a single orgasm followed by a refractory period, a time period during which erection and orgasm are not physically possible. In contrast, some women experience multiple orgasms without a refractory period. Page Reference: 458

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3) Lie detectors are a common part of many television shows and movies. How does the traditional polygraph detector work? Do they appear to actually determine whether a person is lying or not? Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Polygraphs measure respiration, blood pressure, and palm sweat—autonomic nervous system responses that should increase when someone lies. - Most research indicates that, while polygraphs are good at measuring autonomic arousal, they are not a valid measure of lying. Page Reference: 485

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 11: Motivation and Emotion

1) Motivation is best described as a. the physiological triggers that tell us we may be deprived of something and cause us to seek out what is needed, such as food. b. the body's physiological processes that allow it to maintain consistent internal states in response to the outer environment. c. the stimuli we seek to reduce the drives such as social approval and companionship, food, water, and other needs. d. the physiological and psychological processes underlying the initiation of behaviours that direct organisms toward specific goals. Correct: This is the textbook's definition of motivation. The other options describe related concepts or elements of motivation, but are not the best description for motivation in general. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 444 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. 2) The psychology of motivation can be best summarized as the study of a. how decisions are made. b. the processes underlying goal-directed behaviour. c. the libido's effects on behaviour. d. how rewards and punishments affect behaviour. Correct: The study of motivation concerns the physiological and psychological processes underlying the initiation of behaviours that direct organisms toward specific goals. These initiating factors, or motives, include the thoughts, feelings, sensations, and bodily process that lead to goal-directed behaviour. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 444 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger.

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3) The tendency of the body to maintain a steady state of functioning is called a. stability. b. drive reduction. c. homeostasis. d. physiological balance. Correct: Homeostasis refers to the body's physiological processes that allow it to maintain consistent internal states in response to the outer environment. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 445 Skill: Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. 4) The chief function of homeostasis is to a. prevent balance. b. maintain a steady state. Correct: Homeostasis refers to the body's physiological processes that allow it to maintain consistent internal states in response to the outer environment. c. regulate emotions. d. control sexual urges. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 445 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. 5) Luisa is working out at a gym and her body temperature begins to rise. Tool cool itself down, her body begins to sweat. After showering however, her body temperature drops below ideal, so her body begins to shiver to warm itself up. This example illustrates the concept of a. libido. b. homeostasis. c. satiation.

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d. drives. Correct: Homeostasis refers to the body's physiological processes that allow it to maintain consistent internal states in response to the outer environment. In this example, the body uses various mechanisms to maintain its temperature. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 445 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. 6) Hunger and thirst are examples of a. libidos. b. approach goals. c. incentives. d. drives. Correct: Drives are the physiological triggers that tell us we may be deprived of something and cause us to seek out what is needed, such as food. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 445 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. 7) The goal of motivated behaviour is often to _____________ a drive. a. reduce b. maximize c. maintain d. create Correct: Drives are the physiological triggers that tell us we may be deprived of something and cause us to seek out what is needed, such as food. Therefore, the goal of behaviour occurs in response to a drive is to reduce the drive. For example, the response to hunger is to eat.

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Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 445 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. 8) In general, motivated behaviour occurs in response to which two factors? a. drives and incentives b. hunger and satiation c. reward and punishment d. food and sex Correct: In general, motivated behaviour occurs in response to drives and incentives. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 445 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. 9) Saying "I'm full" at the end of a meal is a common way to let others know that you have reached the point of a. homeostasis. b. satiation. c. maximum drive. d. social facilitation. Correct: Satiation is the point in a meal when we are no longer motivated to eat. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 446 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 11: Motivation and Emotion

10) Rested is to tired as satiation is to a. sleep. b. hungry. c. aroused. d. full. Correct: Satiation is the point in a meal when we are no longer motivated to eat. Satiation is the opposite of hungry (the drive to eat), just as rested is the opposite of tired (the drive to sleep). Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 446 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger.

11) Phyllis feels hungry even after she has eaten large meals and has been gaining weight. A doctor diagnoses her with a neurological disorder that affects a specific structure in the brain. Which of the following is most likely to be the affected brain region? a. thalamus b. basal ganglia c. hypothalamus d. locus coeruleus Correct: The on and off switches involved in hunger can be found in a few regions of the hypothalamus. The other brain structures listed are not related to hunger. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 446 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 11: Motivation and Emotion

12) The lateral hypothalamus may be involved in a. stoppage of eating. b. the onset of eating. c. processing low fats. d. food allergies. Correct: Researchers have found that electrically stimulating the lateral hypothalamus causes rats to begin to eat; thus this structure may serve as an "on" switch. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 445 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

13) The two areas of the hypothalamus that appear to be related to eating behaviour as a result of controlling the level of glucose in the body are called _________________ and _________________. a. ventromedial hypothalamus; lateral hypothalamus b. lateral hypothalamus; basal hypothalamus c. basal hypothalamus; ventrolateral hypothalamus d. none of the above Correct: Researchers have found that electrically stimulating the lateral hypothalamus causes rats begin to eat; thus this structure may serve as an "on" switch. In contrast, the ventromedial region of the hypothalamus appears to serve as the "off" switch. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 445 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

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14) The ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH) may be involved in a. increasing hunger. b. stopping the eating response. c. processing low fats. d. food allergies. Correct: The ventromedial region of the hypothalamus appears to serve as the "off" switch for eating. damage to this area leads to obesity in lab animals. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 445 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

15) Glucostats are a. cells that can detect glucose levels. b. drugs that block the absorption of glucose. c. hormones that help cells store glucose for future use. d. a category of sugars used by the brain and body for energy. Correct: Highly specialized neurons called glucostats can detect glucose levels in the fluid outside of the cell. When glucose levels drop, glucostats signal the hypothalamus that energy supplies are low, and hunger increases. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 446 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

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16) When specialized cells detect __________ levels of ____________, they trigger an increase in hunger. a. high; insulin b. high; glucose c. low; insulin d. low; glucose Correct: Highly specialized neurons called glucostats can detect glucose levels in the fluid outside of the cell. When glucose levels drop, glucostats signal the hypothalamus that energy supplies are low, and hunger increases. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 446 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

17) One factor in hunger seems to be the increase in __________, which causes blood sugar levels to eventually drop several hours after we eat. a. cholesterol b. lipoproteins c. insulin d. glucose Correct: Insulin, a hormone secreted by the pancreas, helps cells store this circulating glucose for future use. As insulin levels rise in response to consumption of a meal, hunger decreases—but so do glucose levels, which eventually leads to hunger again a few hours later. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 446 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

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18) Insulin is a hormone secreted by the pancreas. What role does it play in the body? a. Insulin converts fat stores into energy the body can use. b. Insulin stimulates stomach contractions and appetite. c. Insulin detects blood sugar levels. d. Insulin helps cells store circulating glucose for future use. Correct: Insulin, a hormone secreted by the pancreas, helps cells store this circulating glucose for future use. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 446 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

19) Which two hormones are released by the digestive system, and are involved in the regulation of hunger? a. CCK and ghrelin b. oxytocin and vasopressin c. oxytocin and CCK d. ghrelin and vasopressin Correct: Ghrelin is a hormone secreted in the stomach that stimulates stomach contractions and appetite. Another key chemical in regulating hunger is cholecystokinin (CCK). As the intestines expand, neurons release CCK, which communicates to the hypothalamus that it is time to stop eating. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 446, 448 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

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20) What do sugar and addictive drugs have in common? a. They create states of euphoria in high doses. b. They stimulate activity in the hypothalamus. c. They inhibit self-control by inhibiting the cingulate gyrus. d. They stimulate dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens. Correct: Sucrose can stimulate the release of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens, a brain region associated with the reinforcing effects of substances such as amphetamines and cocaine. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 448 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

21) Which of the following would NOT be considered a psychological factor that motivates eating? a. social setting b. low blood sugar c. flavor and texture d. portion size Correct: Eating is motivated by psychological factors that include physical qualities of food such as its flavour and texture, as well as the availability of food, the social setting, and cravings. Low blood sugar is a physiological, not a psychological motivation for eating. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 447–449 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

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22) Most people have a preference for foods with a high fat content (e.g., red meat, cheese, cream). From an evolutionary perspective, what does this suggest? a. Modern humans should eat a diet rich in high-fat food. b. All animals prefer a high-fat diet. c. At some point in our evolutionary history, seeking out high-fat foods was adaptive. d. Early humans were mostly vegetarians. Correct: The fact that humans have evolved a preference for high-fat foods suggests that these foods were important for survival at some point during our evolutionary history, perhaps during times when calories were scarce. However, long-term consumption of high-fat diets today is associated with health problems. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 450 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

23) Research using brain imaging technology indicates that tasting foods high in fat directly stimulates ____________ areas of the brain. a. disgust b. pleasure c. risk-taking d. attentional Correct: In a study where participants tasted a fatty solution, participants rated the fatty substance favourably, and the brain scans showed activation in regions of the brain associated with pleasure sensations when they tasted fat. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 447 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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24) Nila's younger brother does not like the meatloaf their mother made for dinner. When Nila is not looking, her brother secretly scoops some of his meatloaf onto her plate so that, although Nila is eating meatloaf, the amount on her plate remains about the same. Which of the following is most likely to happen? a. Nila will eat her normal amount and then stop when she feels full. b. Nila will eat less than she normally would. c. Nila will eat more than she normally would. d. Nila will develop a dislike for meatloaf. Correct: In experiments with "bottomless bowls" of soup, individuals stopped eating after consuming, on average, over 70% more than those participants who knowingly refilled their bowls. Furthermore individuals eating from bottomless bowls did not feel any more satiated, nor did they believe they had eaten any more than the individuals in the control group. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 448 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

25) In experiments where bowls of soup were secretly filled through a tube so that the soup never ran out, which of the following happened? a. Participants felt full at the same time as control participants, but continued to eat anyway. b. Participants ate significantly more than control participants, but did not feel more satiated. c. Participants felt full at the same time as control participants and stopped eating. d. Participants ate significantly less than control participants, but felt equally satiated. Correct: In experiments with "bottomless bowls" of soup, individuals stopped eating after consuming, on average, over 70% more than those participants who knowingly refilled their bowls. Furthermore individuals eating from bottomless bowls did not feel any more satiated, nor did they believe they had eaten any more than the individuals in the control group.

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 448 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

26) Which of the following is an example of the unit bias? a. buying a second bottle of soda because the store has a "buy one, get one free" sale b. adding more sugar to a cup of coffee because it is bitter c. asking for a second helping of pasta d. eating more chips in one sitting from a "jumbo" bag than a regular size bag Correct: The unit bias is the tendency to assume that the unit of sale or portioning is an appropriate amount to consume. In this example, a person is likely to eat more chips from a large bag than a small bag, because the large bag suggests that one serving of chips is larger. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 448 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

27) For years, Jenna ate one toaster pastry for breakfast. Then the company changed their packaging so that the toaster pastries were wrapped in sets of two. Ever since this change occurred, Jenna has had two pastries for breakfast. This is an example of a. social facilitation. b. modeling. c. impression management. d. the unit bias.

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Correct: The unit bias is the tendency to assume that the unit of sale or portioning is an appropriate amount to consume. In this example, Jenna changes the amount she eats to match the serving suggestion implied by the packaging. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 448 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

28) Wanda goes to the cafeteria with her coworkers. She is not hungry, but eats because everyone else in the group is. This is an example of a. social facilitation. b. the minimal eating norm. c. impression management. d. the unit bias. Correct: Social facilitation occurs when eating with others encourages a person to eat more. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 449 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

29) Petra is on a date. She really likes her food, but stops herself after eating only onethird because she doesn't want her date to think she is a glutton. Petra's behaviour is an example of a. social facilitation. b. modelling. c. impression management.

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d. the unit bias. Correct: Sometimes people eat less food than they otherwise would because they want others to see them in a certain way. This is called impression management. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 449 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

30) Samantha is currently in therapy for treatment of an eating disorder. She is dangerously thin but perceives herself as overweight. To control her weight she starves herself. Samantha is diagnosed with which of the following disorders? a. anorexia nervosa b. Adonis complex c. bulimia nervosa d. binge-eating disorder Correct: Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that involves (1) self-starvation, (2) intense fear of weight gain and a distorted perception of body image, and (3) a denial of the serious consequences of severely low weight. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 450–451 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the major eating and weight-control problems people face.

31) _______________ is an eating disorder characterized by a fear of being fat, a distorted body image, radically reduced consumption of food, and emaciation. a. Anorexia nervosa b. Body-image distortion c. Bulimia

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d. Leptin Correct: Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that involves (1) self-starvation, (2) intense fear of weight gain and a distorted perception of body image, and (3) a denial of the serious consequences of severely low weight. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 450–451 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the major eating and weight-control problems people face.

32) An eating disorder characterized by episodes of excessive eating followed by forced vomiting or the use of laxatives is called a. anorexia nervosa. b. Adonis complex. c. bulimia. d. self-starvation. Correct: Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that is characterized by periods of food deprivation, binge-eating, and purging. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 450–451 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the major eating and weight-control problems people face.

33) Zulma is currently in therapy for treatment of an eating disorder. Every day she eats a box of doighnuts and an entire bag of chips and then makes herself vomit. Zulma most likely has which of the following disorders? a. binge-eating disorder b. Adonis complex c. bulimia nervosa d. anorexia nervosa Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Correct: Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that is characterized by periods of food deprivation, binge-eating, and purging. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 450–451 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the major eating and weight-control problems people face.

34) Eating disorders and body-image distortions among boys and men often take a different form than is typically seen with women. For example, they are more likely to a. starve themselves and exercise compulsively to be more muscular. b. binge on foods high in fat and starches. c. use inactivity to try to reduce the size of their bodies. d. eat normally, but purge anyway. Correct: Males, although less prone to these problems than females, also develop eating disorders. Adolescents and young men may starve themselves during periods of high exercise to lose weight and achieve muscle mass. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 452 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the major eating and weight-control problems people face.

35) Another term for a person's sex drive or desire for sexual activity is his or her a. orgasmic motivation. b. sexual response cycle. c. sexual orientation. d. libido. Correct: Libido refers to a person's motivation for sexual activity and pleasure.

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Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 456 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

36) The first systematic surveys of sexual behaviour were conducted from 1938 to 1952 by a. Masters and Johnson. b. Meston and Buss. c. Alfred Kinsey. d. Sigmund Freud. Correct: One of the first scientists to tackle the topic of human sexual behaviour was Alfred Kinsey. Between 1938 and 1952, Kinsey and his colleagues at Indiana University interviewed thousands of people and published their results in a pair of books known informally as the Kinsey Reports. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 456 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

37) Kinsey believed that a. sexual orientation was an either/or situation. b. sexual orientation was on a continuum. c. sexual orientation was too sensitive to be studied. d. premarital sex was fundamentally destructive to society. Correct: Contrary to the conventional thinking of his time, Kinsey believed that heterosexuality and homosexuality fell on a continuous scale. Answer: b Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 456 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

38) Which is NOT one of the usual criticisms of Kinsey's methodologies? a. Most of the volunteers were homosexual. b. The sample was not broad enough to cover all types of people. c. Kinsey's methods were flawed and controversial. d. Kinsey tended to make sweeping generalizations based on small samples. Correct: Despite the fact that a surprisingly high number of men in Kinsey's study reported same-sex activity, the majority of people he interviewed were not homosexual. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 456 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

39) Masters and Johnson's original subjects in the study of human sexual response were a. prostitutes. b. church elders and parishioners. c. prisoners in the local jails. d. volunteers from introductory psychology classes. Correct: Starting in the 1950s, researchers William Masters and Virginia Johnson described the human sexual response cycle based on their observations of 27 male and 118 female prostitutes who agreed to masturbate or have intercourse while under observation. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 458

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Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

40) _______________ famously observed volunteers masturbating or having sex while specialized equipment monitored their physiological responses. a. Masters and Johnson b. Meston and Buss c. Alfred Kinsey d. Sigmund Freud Correct: Starting in the 1950s, researchers William Masters and Virginia Johnson described the human sexual response cycle based on their observations of people having sex. Participants were monitored with heart rate and blood pressure equipment, as well as to more peculiar devices such as the penile plethysmograph or vaginal photoplethysmograph, which are designed to measure blood flow to the genitalia in men and women, respectively. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 458 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

41) Equipment to measure physiological activity during sexual activity was used by a. Kinsey. b. Freud. c. Skinner. d. Masters and Johnson. Correct: William Masters and Virginia Johnson monitored volunteers having sex with heart rate and blood pressure equipment, as well as to more peculiar devices such as the penile plethysmograph or vaginal photoplethysmograph, which are designed to measure blood flow to the genitalia in men and women. Earlier research with prostitutes allowed them to refine these techniques. Answer: d Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 458 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

42) The four stages of sexual activity include excitement, plateau, orgasm and a. refraction. b. rest. c. reinforcement. d. resolution. Correct: The sexual response cycle describes the phases of physiological change during sexual activity, which comprises four primary stages: excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 458 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

43) The first phase of the sexual response is a. excitement. b. plateau. c. orgasm. d. resolution. Correct: In order, the four primary stages of the sexual response cycle are: excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 458 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

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44) The second phase of the sexual response is a. excitement. b. plateau. c. orgasm. d. resolution. Correct: In order, the four primary stages of the sexual response cycle are: excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 458 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

45) The final phase of the sexual response is a. excitement. b. plateau. c. orgasm. d. resolution. Correct: In order, the four primary stages of the sexual response cycle are: excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 458 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

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46) Rashid has just had an orgasm. However, his partner is still excited and wants Rashid to continue his sexual activity. Unfortunately, Rashid has lost his erection. Rashid is probably now in the a. refractory period. b. male menopause. c. disruptive period. d. plateau. Correct: Men usually experience a single orgasm followed by a refractory period, a time period during which erection and orgasm are not physically possible. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

47) Masters and Johnson reported that unlike men, women a. can only achieve 1 orgasm in a 12 hour period. b. do not have a refractory period and can achieve many orgasms during a sexual encounter. c. need more stimulation to achieve an orgasm with oral sex. d. have a longer refractory period than men. Correct: Men usually experience a single orgasm followed by a refractory period, a time period during which erection and orgasm are not physically possible. In contrast, some women experience multiple orgasms without a refractory period. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 458 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand similarities and differences in sexual responses in men and women.

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48) Which statement is consistent with Masters and Johnson's findings? a. Women respond more slowly but cannot stay aroused as long as men. b. Some women can have multiple orgasms. c. Women experience a refractory period prior to orgasm. d. Women admit that size matters. Correct: Men usually experience a single orgasm followed by a refractory period, a time period during which erection and orgasm are not physically possible. In contrast, some women experience multiple orgasms without a refractory period. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 458 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand similarities and differences in sexual responses in men and women.

49) Research indicates that, when it comes to orgasms, a. the capacity for sexual response of men surpasses that of women. b. the similarity between men and women depends on the source of stimulation (vaginal versus clitoral). c. men and women experience them quite differently. d. men and women are remarkably similar. Correct: Researchers asked college students to write detailed descriptions of their orgasm experiences and then removed clues to the sex of each writer by changing terms such as "penis" or "vagina" to "genitals." Readers were no better than chance at guessing the gender of the authors, suggesting that to some degree, males and females have similar subjective experiences during orgasm. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 459 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand similarities and differences in sexual responses in men and women.

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50) Blood levels of the hormone oxytocin surge in both men and women just after which phase of the sexual response cycle? a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution Correct: In women, blood levels of oxytocin surge just after orgasm and may remain elevated for at least five minutes. Oxytocin is released during orgasm in males as well. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 459 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand similarities and differences in sexual responses in men and women.

51) Which of the following is the best definition of sexual orientation? a. a person's sex as determined by his or her genes b. a categorization based on the gender of a person's sexual partners c. a consistent preference for sexual relations with members of the same sex, opposite sex, or both d. a categorization based on whether a person's behaviour matches their biological sex or not Correct: Sexual orientation is a consistent preference for sexual relations with members of the opposite sex (heterosexuality), same sex (homosexuality), or either sex (bisexuality). Current definitions of sexual orientation focus on the psychological aspects of sexuality (e.g., desire, emotion, identification) rather than strictly behavioural criteria. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 459 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

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52) Research supports the theory that homosexuality a. is the result of a "smothering mother." b. is the result of an "absent father." c. is caused by seduction by an older adult. d. has unknown and puzzling causes. Correct: Earlier theories of homosexuality—it is caused by a domineering mother and weak father figure, or by experiencing seduction from an older sibling or playmate—lack scientific evidence. Modern scientific explanations of homosexuality focus on interactions between biological and sociocultural factors, but the precise reasons for differences in orientation are unknown. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 459–461 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

53) Some research suggests that an area of the _____________ is on average smaller in brains of gay males than heterosexual males. a. hippocampus b. thalamus c. amygdala d. hypothalamus Correct: In the early 1990s, neuroscientist Simon LeVay found that an area of the hypothalamus was, on average, smaller in gay men compared to heterosexual men. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 460 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

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54) Which of the following is true of Simon LeVay's finding that a region of the brain is typically smaller in homosexual males than it is in heterosexual males? a. If true, this would be strong evidence that sexual orientation is genetically determined. b. A confounding variable in the study is that many of the gay men in the study died from HIV complications. c. LeVay's findings have been replicated many times. d. If true, this would be strong evidence that sexual orientation is environmentally determined. Correct: The purportedly homosexual men whom LeVay studied died of complications associated with HIV, which could have accounted for the differences in their brains. This, along, with the fact that others have had difficulty replicating the study's findings, have led some to be skeptical. Even if the results are true, the differences in the hypothalamus could have been due to environmental factors, not just genetic factors as many assume. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 460 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

55) According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy, which needs must be met first? a. esteem b. safety c. physiological d. belongingness and love Correct: At the base of Maslow's "hierarchy of needs" are physiological motives that must be satisfied before all others are considered. After these needs are addressed, an individual may turn to higher-level needs. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 467 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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56) Which of the following shows a focus on the lowest of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? a. Joan wants to live in a house with all the modern conveniences so that she may have more time to seek fulfillment from her career and family. b. Frank feels that he is a good salesman because he likes what he does and knows how to do it well. c. Barbara knows that as a teacher she is a good person because she realizes the importance of imparting knowledge to society. d. Mark works hard so he can afford to move out of his dangerous and crime-ridden neighborhood. Correct: Mark's desire to move out of his dangerous neighborhood reflects a safety need. All of the other options describe needs that are higher on Maslow's hierarchy of needs, such as the need for love and belonging, self-esteem, and achievement. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 467 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation.

57) Bill has felt isolated and like an "outsider" since coming to college for his freshman year. As a result, he decided to rush a fraternity and was very excited when he was selected to pledge. According to Maslow, Bill may be attempting to meet the need of a. freedom. b. belonging. c. transcendence. d. physiology. Correct: The need to belong (sometimes known as affiliation motivation) is the motivation to maintain relationships that involve pleasant feelings such as warmth, affection, appreciation, and mutual concern for each person's well-being. In addition, an individual must have the sense that these feelings are part of a permanent relationship, such as a friendship, kinship, or shared group membership. Answer: b Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 467 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how people experience a need to belong.

58) A key element to satisfying the need to belong is a. a sense of permanence to our relationships. b. having a positive relationship with many people. c. making new friends on a regular basis. d. a sense that we are the most well liked person in a group. Correct: Having only a few long lasting relationships can fulfill the need to belong better than many casual relationships. This is because a sense of permanence in relationships is an important part of belonging. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 468 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how people experience a need to belong.

59) How do many current psychologists view the need to belong differently than Maslow did? a. Maslow did not include belonging in his hierarchy. b. Maslow viewed the need for food and shelter as more important than belonging, while many psychologists today consider it just as important. c. Many psychologists today view the need for food and shelter as more important than belonging, while Maslow considered it just as important. d. Maslow viewed belonging in terms of group membership, while psychologists today view it in terms of relationships between two individuals. Correct: Today, psychologists hypothesize that close, permanent relationships are as important as food and water are for normal psychological functioning. In contrast, Maslow placed belongingness and love needs higher in his hierarchy than physiological and safety needs.

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 468 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze claims that a sense of belonging is something people need versus something they want.

60) According to your textbook, ______________ is a risk factor for illnesses such as heart disease and cancer, and elevates a person's risk for having hypertension, a weaker immune system, and high levels of stress hormones. a. resentment b. loneliness c. marriage d. being the youngest child Correct: Psychologists have found that social connectedness is a good predictor of overall health, whereas loneliness is a risk factor for illnesses such as heart disease and cancer (Cacioppo et al., 2003). Loneliness elevates a person's risk for having hypertension, a weaker immune system, and high levels of stress hormones. This relationship holds true even when lonely and nonlonely individuals have the same amount of social interaction—it is the sense of belonging that counts. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 468 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze claims that a sense of belonging is something people need versus something they want.

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Correct: This is the textbook's definition of achievement motivation. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 470 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation.

62) ____________motives are geared toward gaining rewards or public recognition. a. Mastery b. Performance c. Egocentric d. Approach Correct: Performance motives are generally those motives that are geared toward gaining rewards or public recognition. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 471 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation.

63) _______________ goals are positive experiences that you seek directly. a. Approach b. Performance c. Mastery d. Learning Correct: Approach goals are enjoyable and pleasant incentives that we are drawn toward, such as praise or financial reward. Avoidance goals are unpleasant outcomes such as shame, embarrassment, or emotional pain, which we try to avoid. Answer: a

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 470 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation.

64) _______________ goals involve the effort to avoid unpleasant experiences. a. Avoidance b. Performance c. Mastery d. Learning Correct: Avoidance goals are unpleasant outcomes such as shame, embarrassment, or emotional pain, which we try to avoid. In contrast, approach goals are enjoyable and pleasant incentives that we are drawn toward, such as praise or financial reward. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 470 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation.

65) Gerald is learning to play the guitar because he thinks girls will be more likely to go out with him if he plays in a band. This is an example of _______________ motivation and an __________________ goal. a. performance; avoidance. b. performance; approach c. mastery; approach d. mastery; avoidance Correct: Gerald has a performance motive because his goal is not to master the guitar, but to gain a perceived reward associated with guitar playing. This is also an approach goal because the incentive to learn the guitar is positive (more dates) and not to avoid something negative. Answer: b Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 470–471 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation.

66) Procrastination is least likely to occur with which combination of motivation and goal for completing the project? a. performance; avoidance. b. performance; approach c. mastery; approach d. mastery; avoidance Correct: Procrastination is least likely when mastery and approach goals are combined. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 471–472 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation.

67) Emotion is defined as a. the process by which the facial muscles send messages to the brain about bodily changes. b. a behaviour with the following three components: (a) a subjective thought and/or experience with (b) accompanying patterns of neural activity and physical arousal and (c) an observable behavioural expression (e.g., an emotional facial expression or changes in muscle tension).. c. an irrational aspect of our mammalian heritage that is distinct from our rational abilities of cognition. d. a set of social and cultural rules that regulate when, how, and where a person may express (or must suppress) behaviours. Correct: This is the definition used by the textbook's authors.

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 478 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with emotion.

68) The three major components that psychologists focus on when defining "emotion" are a. facial muscles, bodily changes, and stress. b. subjective thoughts and experiences, patterns of physical arousal, and behavioural expressions. c. mammalian heritage, rational abilities, and cognition. d. display rules, social rules, and relationship rules. Correct: Emotion is a psychological experience involving three components: (1) subjective thoughts and experiences with (2) accompanying patterns of physical arousal and (3) characteristic behavioural expressions. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 478 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with emotion.

69) Certain emotions are associated with certain patterns of _____________, which explains why our heart races and our palms sweat when we are nervous or fearful. a. autonomic nervous system activity b. visual and auditory stimulation c. activity in the occipital lobes d. hippocampal activity Correct: Many of our emotional reactions involve the autonomic nervous system, which maintains processes such as heart rate, respiration, sweat glands, and digestion. Answer: a Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 478–480 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with emotion.

70) The polygraph "lie detector" is based on the assumption that a person who is guilty and fearful will have a. increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system. b. increased activity of the Cannon-Bard pathway. c. increased activity of the autonomic nervous system. d. increased activity in the hippocampus. Correct: The polygraph, casually referred to as the "lie detector," measures respiration, blood pressure, and palm sweat—autonomic nervous system responses that should increase when someone lies. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 485 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how the nervous system responds to emotions.

71) Which of the following is true regarding lie detectors? a. Lie detectors are accepted as valid evidence in most U.S. courts, but not in other countries. b. Research suggests that traditional polygraphs are about 78% accurate as lie detectors. c. Polygraphs are able to detect arousal, but are not valid indicators of lying. d. Researchers have been unable to identify any potential lie detector replacements for the polygraph. Correct: Although many support its use, controlled studies of polygraph recordings suggest that they provide evidence of arousal (that is what they are designed to do), but they are not valid indicators of lying. Currently, most U.S. courts do not accept polygraph results as valid evidence.

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 485 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how the nervous system responds to emotions.

72) The _______________ quickly assesses danger or threat. a. prefrontal cortex b. amygdala c. right hemisphere d. sympathetic nervous system Correct: The amygdala is involved in assessing and interpreting situations to determine which types of emotions are appropriate. Then it seems to connect the perception or interpretation of these situations to brain regions that stimulate the physiological responses required for action. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 478 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with emotion.

73) Three-year-old Javier sees his dad dressed up as a gorilla and Javier screams in fear. What brain structure is probably involved in his reaction? a. olfactory bulb b. amygdala c. occipital lobe d. Wernicke's area Correct: The amygdala is involved in assessing and interpreting situations to determine which types of emotions are appropriate. Then it seems to connect the perception or interpretation of these situations to brain regions that stimulate the physiological responses required for action.

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 478 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with emotion.

74) Samantha jumps with fear as she feels a hand on her shoulder while walking on a deserted path across campus. What brain structure played a key role in Samantha's swift reaction? a. basal ganglia b. hippocampus c. cerebral cortex d. amygdala Correct: The amygdala is involved in assessing and interpreting situations to determine which types of emotions are appropriate. Then it seems to connect the perception or interpretation of these situations to brain regions that stimulate the physiological responses required for action. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 478 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with emotion.

75) The pathway that projects directly from the thalamus to the amygdala is called the ____________ pathway. a. slow b. James-Lange c. Cannon-Bard d. fast Correct: Sensory information first goes through the thalamus, and then may go directly to the amygdala, which immediately stimulates hormonal and autonomic responses. This

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route is sometimes called the fast pathway because the body is readied for action before the stimulus is even fully perceived and interpreted. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 480 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with emotion.

76) The so called "fast pathway" is an important circuit in the brain because a. it speeds up our brain's ability to send important sensory information to the cerebral cortex. b. it allows us to respond to a potentially dangerous stimulus before we even know exactly what it is. c. it allows us to process quickly moving stimuli in our environment. d. it is involved in the conscious recognition of a potentially dangerous stimulus. Correct: Sensory information first goes through the thalamus, and then may go directly to the amygdala, which immediately stimulates hormonal and autonomic responses. This route is sometimes called the fast pathway because the body is readied for action before the stimulus is even fully perceived and interpreted. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 480 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with emotion.

77) Which sequence of events in emotional responses is characteristic of the JamesLange theory of emotion? a. stimulus --> emotion --> physiological changes b. stimulus --> physiological changes --> emotion c. physiological changes --> stimulus --> emotion d. stimulus --> emotion AND physiological changes (simultaneous)

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Correct: According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, our physiological reactions to stimuli (the racing heart) precede and give rise to the emotional experience (the fear). Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 481 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples.

78) Which statement best reflects the James-Lange theory of emotion? a. Our hearts race, we see a monster, we feel fear. b. We see a monster, we feel fear, our hearts race. c. We see a monster, our hearts race, we feel fear. d. We feel fear, our hearts race, we see the monster. Correct: According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, our physiological reactions to stimuli (the racing heart) precede and give rise to the emotional experience (the fear). Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 481 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples.

79) Which theory of emotion states that your body reacts before you experience an emotion? a. James-Lange b. Cannon-Bard c. cognitive d. display rule Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 481 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply Your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples.

80) Which theory of emotion proposes that stimuli cause physiological changes in our bodies and emotions result directly from those physiological changes? a. Cannon-Bard b. James-Lange c. two-factor theory of emotion d. emotional dialect Correct: According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, our physiological reactions to stimuli (the racing heart) precede and give rise to the emotional experience (the fear). In the two-factor theory, physical arousal does proceed the subjective emotional experience, but the physiological response does not directly lead to the emotion. Instead, it must be first cognitively appraised. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 481 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples.

81) Which statement is most consistent with the James-Lange theory of emotion? a. "I run because I'm afraid." b. "I'm happy because I laugh." c. "I'm crying because I'm sad." d. "I'm anxious because I perspire." Correct: According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, our physiological reactions to stimuli (the racing heart) precede and give rise to the emotional experience (the fear). In this example, the physiological response of laughing causes the emotional experience of happiness. Answer: b Diff: 3

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Type: MC Page Reference: 481 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. 82) What is the correct sequence of events in emotional response according to the Cannon-Bard theory? a. stimulus --> emotion --> physiological changes b. stimulus --> physiological changes --> emotion c. physiological changes --> stimulus --> emotion d. stimulus --> emotion AND physiological changes (simultaneous) Correct: The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion states that emotions such as fear or happiness occur simultaneously with their physiological components. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 481 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. 83) You are walking in the forest and see a bear. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, what happens next? a. You experience physiological changes followed by fear. b. You feel fear, followed by physiological changes. c. You experience physiological changes and a feeling of fear simultaneously. d. You experience physiological changes and context appraisal followed by fear. Correct: The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion states that emotions such as fear or happiness occur simultaneously with their physiological components. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 481 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples.

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84) The ______ theory of emotion states that the experience of emotion occurs simultaneously with biological changes. a. Cannon-Bard theory b. James-Lange c. Schachter d. two factor Correct: The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion states that emotions such as fear or happiness occur simultaneously with their physiological components. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 481 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with emotion.

85) Which statement reflects the core idea of the facial feedback hypothesis? a. Men do not express emotion via the face. b. Facial features have no connection with emotion. c. Information from facial muscles intensifies emotional experiences. d. When one facial expression occurs, we quickly register its opposite on the face. Correct: The facial feedback hypothesis predicts that if emotional expressions influence subjective emotional experiences, then the act of forming a facial expression should elicit the specific, corresponding emotion. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 481–482 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your understanding of theories of emotions to new examples.

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86) Which is an example of facial feedback hypothesis? a. smiling in order to draw a smile from a friend b. avoiding eye contact in order to avoid talking to someone c. making yourself smile, then finding that your mood is more positive d. trying to make eye contact in order to flirt with someone Correct: The facial feedback hypothesis predicts that if emotional expressions influence subjective emotional experiences, then the act of forming a facial expression should elicit the specific, corresponding emotion. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 481–482 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples.

87) According to the facial feedback hypothesis, when Noah complies with instructions to smile and look happy, it is most likely that a. he will begin to feel annoyed. b. he will begin to feel angry. c. his positive feelings will increase. d. his reaction will depend on his age. Correct: The facial feedback hypothesis predicts that if emotional expressions influence subjective emotional experiences, then the act of forming a facial expression should elicit the specific, corresponding emotion. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 481–482 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples.

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88) According to the facial feedback hypothesis, when Jose complies with instructions to look angry, it is most likely that a. he will be amused to be simulating anger. b. he will be pleased that he does it so well. c. his positive feelings will decrease. d. his reaction will depend on his age. Correct: The facial feedback hypothesis predicts that if emotional expressions influence subjective emotional experiences, then the act of forming a facial expression should elicit the specific, corresponding emotion. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 481–482 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples.

89) The ___________ theory proposes that two things have to happen before emotion occurs: physical arousal and labeling. a. slow pathway b. James-Lange c. Cannon-Bard d. two-factor Correct: Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion holds that patterns of physical arousal and the cognitive labels we attach to them form the basis of our emotional experiences. Therefore, both the physiological response and the cognitive appraisal must occur before we experience an emotion. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 483–485 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with emotion.

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90) Erica saw her old boyfriend and her heart began to race. According to the two-factor theory, is she happy to see him or frightened of him? a. She is frightened because her emotional reaction came before her heart began to race. b. You cannot tell because she is not displaying a basic emotion. c. It depends on how she interprets her increased heart rate. d. She must be frightened because her heart began to race before she reacted emotionally. Correct: Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion holds that patterns of physical arousal and the cognitive labels we attach to them form the basis of our emotional experiences. Depending on how Erica labels or interprets her physiological change will determine which emotion she experiences. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 483–485 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples.

91) According to the two-factor theory of emotion, appraisal of the situation would come _______ the physical arousal and _______ the experience of emotion. a. before; after b. after; before c. before; before d. after; after Correct: Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion holds that cognitive appraisal occurs in response to physical arousal and before the emotion is experienced. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 483–485 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples.

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92) Schachter proposed that two things have to happen before emotion occurs: _____ and _____. a. physical arousal; fight or flight. b. cognition; behaviour c. physical arousal; labelling d. behaviour; physical arousal Correct: Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion holds that patterns of physical arousal and the cognitive labels we attach to them form the basis of our emotional experiences. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 483–485 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with emotion.

93) Physical arousal has to be interpreted cognitively before it is experienced as a specific emotion, according to the a. facial feedback hypothesis b. James-Lange theory c. Cannon-Bard theory d. two-factor theory Correct: Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion holds that patterns of physical arousal and the cognitive labels we attach to them form the basis of our emotional experiences. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 483–485 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with emotion.

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94) _______________ can vary from culture to culture and are socially acceptable ways of showing emotion in public settings. a. Phenomes b. Facial grids c. Display rules d. Expressional norms Correct: Display rules refer to the unwritten expectations we have regarding when it is appropriate to show a certain emotion. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 487 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand cultural similarities and differences in emotional expressions.

95) Display rules involve a. displaying an emotion that is not actually felt, often because of a role requirement. b. social/cultural guidelines that regulate when, how, and where a person may express emotion. c. emotions that are displayed, as a rule, only by certain cultures. d. universal, biologically-based emotional displays evoked by particular emotional situations. Correct: Display rules refer to the unwritten expectations we have regarding when it is appropriate to show a certain emotion. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 487 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand cultural similarities and differences in emotional expressions.

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96) Larry is an American businessman working with a Japanese company. He accidently offended one of his Japanese co-workers when he affectionately slapped him on the back. This misunderstanding was likely caused by Larry not understanding Japanese a. biases. b. cognitive appraisals. c. emotions. d. display rules. Correct: Display rules refer to the unwritten expectations we have regarding when it is appropriate to show a certain emotion. Culturally-based display rules and emotional dialects can also lead to misunderstandings when cultures clash. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 487 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand cultural similarities and differences in emotional expressions.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 11: Motivation and Emotion 1. In general, what effect does the presence of other people have on the amount of food an individual eats? a. The presence of others makes people eat less. b. The presence of others makes people eat more. c. The presence of others has no effect on the amount people typically eat. d. The presence of others can make people eat more or less than usual, depending on the situation. Answer: D Module 11.1 2. Alfred Kinsey is famous for being one of the first scientists to study _____. a. human sexuality b. obesity in children c. peer pressure d. facial expressions Answer: A Module 11.2 3. Which of the following factors increases an individual’s risk for illness, heart disease, and even cancer? a. Mortality salience b. Loneliness c. Performance motives d. Avoidance goals Answer: B Module 11.3 4. Louis practises shooting baskets after school because he doesn’t want his friends to make fun of him for being bad at basketball. Louis’s motivation to practice is most accurately described as driven by a(n) _____ goal. a. shame b. mastery c. avoidance d. approach Answer: C Module 11.3 5. Controlled studies of polygraph recordings indicate that they should be most accurately described as detecting _____. a. parasympathetic activity b. lies c. arousal d. negative emotions Answer: C Module 11.4 6. Gillian drinks a lot of coffee while studying all night. The caffeine in the coffee causes Gillian’s heart to start racing and her hands to begin shaking. Suddenly, Gillian begins to feel fear and anxiety for no apparent reason. Gillian’s experience is best explained by which theory of emotions? a. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs b. James-Lange theory of emotion c. Facial feedback d. Cannon-Bard theory Answer: B Module 11.4

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 11: Motivation and Emotion 7. Which of the following statements is true about how humans display emotions? a. While some basic emotions are universally recognized, different cultures have unique ways of displaying some emotions. b. All emotional displays are understood across all cultures. c. There are no emotional displays that are universally understood across all cultures. d. Emotional displays are determined by context, but not by culture. Answer: A Module 11.4

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

1) Research discussed in your textbook suggests that people misrepresent their true personalities on social networking sites such as Facebook. a. True b. False Correct: The participants in the study generally expressed who they really were on Facebook, rather than presenting idealized versions of themselves in their online profiles. 536 Answer: b Page Reference: 536 2) An infant's temperament is a useful predictor of his or her adult personality. a. True b. False Correct: Infant temperament predicts the adult personality traits of neuroticism, extraversion, and conscientiousness. 499 Answer: a Page Reference: 499 3) All researchers studying personality use the idiographic approach. a. True b. False Correct: Researchers may use the nomothetic approach or the idiographic approach. 493 Answer: b Page Reference: 493 4) Cross-cultural research has identified the Big Five personality traits in both WEIRD and non-WEIRD places. a. True b. False Correct: Research suggests that when it comes to the basic composition of personality, the WEIRD and the non-WEIRD are quite alike: We are united in having at least five of the same personality characteristics. 507 Answer: a Page Reference: 507

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

5) On average, the personalities of identical twins are no more alike than they are for fraternal twins. a. True b. False Correct: Identical twins are more alike than fraternal twins or nontwin siblings. 511–512 Answer: b Page Reference: 511–512 6) Research suggests that mammals—such as dogs, cats, and primates—are the only animals which demonstrate consistent personalities. a. True b. False Correct: Personality traits have been observed in non-mammals—including birds, ants, and even octopi. 514–515 Answer: b Page Reference: 514–515 7) While gender differences in personality exist, they are quite small and may be mostly explained by economic factors. a. True b. False Correct: Men and women tend to differ in some personality dimensions. However, these differences are small and often greatly exaggerated. Men and women in countries with fewer social and economic resources tend to be more similar in their self-reported personality scores. This phenomenon may occur because prosperity gives members of either gender greater flexibility to diverge and allows individual differences to flourish. 516 Answer: a Page Reference: 516 8) Freud believed that the influence of the superego is present at birth, whereas the id must develop with experience. a. True b. False Correct: Freud emphasized that the influence of the id is present at birth, whereas the superego must develop with experience. 524 Answer: b Page Reference: 524 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

9) While some mental health professionals still use the TAT and Rorschach test, their popularity appears to be declining. a. True b. False Correct: Statement of fact. 529–530 Answer: a Page Reference: 529–530 10) The founders of humanistic psychology had a much more optimistic view of human personality than Freud and many of his followers did. a. True b. False Correct: The humanistic perspective was developed in part as an alternative to the "dark" view of personality associated with Freud's psychodynamic approach. 533 Answer: a Page Reference: 533

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

1) _______________is a characteristic pattern of thinking, interacting, and reacting that is unique to each individual, and remains relatively consistent over time and situations. a. Personality b. Idiography c. A state d. A trait Correct: This is the textbook's definition of personality. 493 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 493 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

2) A psychologist who studies the unique personality characteristics of individuals is using __________________ approach to studying personality. a. a trait b. a factor analysis c. an idiographic d. a nomothetic Correct: Some psychologists study personality by using an idiographic approach, meaning that they focus on creating detailed descriptions of individuals and their unique personality characteristics. 493 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 493 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

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3) Which of the following best illustrates the idiographic approach to personality research? a. identifying personality characteristics that are shared by large groups of people b. designing tests that characterize abnormal personality types c. performing a detailed study of the world's most successful business person d. using factor analysis to identify personality traits Correct: Some psychologists study personality by using an idiographic approach, meaning that they focus on creating detailed descriptions of individuals and their unique personality characteristics. In contrast, the nomothetic approach is used to examine personality in large groups of people, with the aim of making generalizations about personality structure. 493 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 493 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

4) Dr. Mano is a personality researcher who is NOT interested in the particular idiosyncrasies that make individuals unique. Instead, her research involves studying large groups of people in order to make generalizations about the structure of personality. Dr. Mano's research is an example of a. the nomothetic approach. b. the MMPI approach. c. factor analysis. d. the idiographic approach. Correct: The nomothetic approach is used to examine personality in large groups of people, with the aim of making generalizations about personality structure. While, factor analysis can be used in nomothetic research, it is not necessarily a part of Dr. Mano's research. 493 Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 493

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Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. 5) Creative, fair-minded, and impulsive are examples of ____________. a. states b. the Big Five c. personality traits d. idiographs Correct: Personality traits are labels applied to specific attributes of personality, such as "shy," "cheerful," "outgoing," and "adventurous." The Big Five personality traits are openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. 493 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 493 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. 6) A central principle of the trait perspective to personality is that a. an individual's personality traits change from day to day. b. no two individuals share the same traits. c. individuals can be understood based on how well specific traits describe them. d. the idiographic approach is the only correct way to study personality. Correct: According to the trait approach, we can understand individuals—and what makes them alike or sets them apart—based on how well specific personality traits describe that person. 493 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 493 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

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7) A technique called _____________ is used to group items that people respond to similarly. a. idiography b. factor analysis c. MMPI-2 d. reciprocal determinism Correct: This is the textbook's definition of factor analysis. 494 Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 494 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

8) What technique do trait theorists use to identify groups or clusters of related personality traits? a. idiography b. factor analysis c. MMPI-2 d. reciprocal determinism Correct: Factor analysis reveals statistical similarities among a wide variety of items. For instance, when applied to personality descriptors, the terms friendly, warm, and kind have very similar meanings. These related traits can be grouped in a cluster, referred to as a factor. 494 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 494 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

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9) Raymond Cattell advanced the study of personality by a. developing case-study analysis. b. disproving Early Greek theories of personality. c. devising the Myers-Briggs inventory. d. using factor analysis. Correct: Using factor analysis, psychologist Raymond Cattell narrowed the list of key personality traits to 16, thereby simplifying and standardizing the number of dimensions psychologists needed to describe the composition of personality. 494 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 494 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

10) Which two researchers are associated with the Five Factor Model, also known as the Big Five? a. McCrae and Costa b. Cattell and Allport c. Jung and Horney d. Erikson and Rogers Correct: McCrae and Costa (1987), creators of the NEO Personality Inventory, found that personality could be reduced to five major dimensions called the Five Factor Model (or just the Big Five personality factors). 494 Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 494 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

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11) The _______________ dimension of the NEO Personality Inventory (NEO-PI-R) describes the extent to which people are outgoing or shy. a. agreeableness b. extraversion c. neuroticism d. openness Correct: Characteristics associated with a high extraversion score on the NEO are being talkative, optimistic, social, and affectionate. Lower scorers tend to be reserved, comfortable with being alone, and introverted. 495–496 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 495–496 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the Big Five personality traits to understand your own personality.

12) Walter prefers to stay home on a Friday night and read a good book to hanging out with other people. In fact, he tends to be fairly reclusive in general. If Walter took the NEO Personality Inventory (NEO-PI-R), he would likely have a low score on the ____________ dimension. a. extraversion b. conscientiousness c. neuroticism d. openness Correct: Characteristics associated with a low extraversion score on the NEO are being reserved, comfortable with being alone, and introverted. 495–496 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 495–496 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the Big Five personality traits to understand your own personality.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

13) Amir is constantly worrying about things, even though he really doesn't have anything to worry about. He is also very insecure and can become very upset when he thinks his friends are making a joke about him. If Walter took the NEO Personality Inventory (NEO-PI-R), he would likely have a ____________ score on the ____________ dimension. a. high; neuroticism b. high; conscientiousness c. low; neuroticism d. low; conscientiousness Correct: Characteristics associated with a high neuroticism score on the NEO are being worried, insecure, and anxiety-prone. 495–496 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 495–496 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the Big Five personality traits to understand your own personality.

14) Most of Candice's relationships with other people are hostile. She frequently gets in fights with strangers and even close friends. If Candice took the NEO Personality Inventory (NEO-PI-R), she would likely have a low score on the ____________ dimension. a. openness b. conscientiousness c. neuroticism d. agreeableness Correct: Characteristics associated with a low agreeableness score on the NEO are being rude, uncooperative, irritable, hostile, and competitive. 495–496 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 495–496 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the Big Five personality traits to understand your own personality. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

15) The _______________ dimension of the NEO Personality Inventory (NEO-PI-R) describes the extent to which people are imaginative and curious, or conventional and "down-to-earth." a. agreeableness b. extraversion c. conscientiousness d. openness Correct: Characteristics associated with a high openness score on the NEO are being creative, artistic, curious, imaginative, and nonconforming. Lower scorers tend to be conventional and “down-to-earth.” 494–495 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 494–495 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the Big Five personality traits to understand your own personality.

16) Marques loves to go to parties. While there, he can have a conversation with just about anyone, whether he knows them or not. Which of the following Five Factors would Marques probably rate highly on based on this information? a. neuroticism b. conscientiousness c. extraversion d. openness Correct: Extraverted people tend to be talkative, optimistic, social, and affectionate. 495– 496 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 495–496 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply the Big Five personality traits to understand your own personality.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

17) Which of these is an acronym that could help you remember the Big Five traits? a. START b. BEGIN c. DUNES d. OCEAN Correct: The "Big Five" personality traits are openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. The first letters of each word spell out OCEAN. 495 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 495 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the Big Five personality traits to understand your own personality.

18) Which of the following is NOT one of the dimensions of the Big Five? a. conscientiousness b. extraversion c. openness d. sociableness Correct: The "Big Five" personality traits are openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. 495 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 495 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the Big Five personality traits to understand your own personality.

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19) Research discussed in your textbook suggests that people on Facebook tend to present themselves a. accurately. b. as they wished they were, not as they really are. c. in extreme or exaggerated ways. d. as being more extraverted than they really are. Correct: In a study of the social networking site Facebook, participants expressed who they really were, rather than presenting idealized versions of themselves in their online profiles. This study mirrors a similar one showing that people accurately portray what they are like on their personal websites. 536 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 536 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the Big Five personality traits to understand your own personality.

20) While psychologists do not typically refer to infants as having "personalities," infants do display personality-like attributes called _____________. a. states b. moods c. quasi-personalities d. temperaments Correct: Newborn infants typically are not described with the same range of adjectives that we use for adults; adults may be thought of as talkative, ambitious, greedy, and arrogant, whereas infants probably are not. However, within their first few months of life, infants do show the beginnings of personality characteristics in the form of temperaments. 499 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 499 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

21) Nancy is a three month old infant. Compared to other infants her age, she is fussy and cries easily. Nancy's behaviours would most accurately be described as the result of her _____________. a. state b. neuroticism c. personality d. temperament Correct: Newborn infants typically are not described with the same range of adjectives that we use for adults; adults may be thought of as talkative, ambitious, greedy, and arrogant, whereas infants probably are not. However, within their first few months of life, infants do show the beginnings of personality characteristics in the form of temperaments. 499 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 499 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

22) Which of the following statements describes the relationship between temperament and personality? a. Temperament and personality are the exact same thing. b. Personality, which we are born with, is the basis upon which one's temperament is built. c. Temperament, which we are born with, is the basis upon which one's personality is built. d. Temperament refers to negative personal characteristics, while personality refers to positive personal characteristics. Correct: Infant temperament predicts the adult personality traits of neuroticism, extraversion, and conscientiousness. The temperament styles found in infancy seem to represent an innate, biological substrate upon which personality is built. 499 Answer: c Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 499 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

23) Which of the following best describes the personality of individuals as they age? a. Personality does not change; it is completely stable throughout the lifespan. b. Personalities are very stable in childhood and adolescence, but become less stable in later adulthood. c. The personalities of children and adolescents tend to change somewhat, but are very stable by middle age. d. Personality remains fluid and changes throughout the lifespan. Correct: The personality of children and adolescents can undergo changes, but by middle-age people show relatively little change in their personality traits over time. 500– 501 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 500–501 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

24) One criticism of the trait theories of personality is that they a. place too much emphasis on states and situational factors. b. do not describe how states and situational factors can influence our behaviour. c. are not supported by any empirical data. d. do not allow for comparisons between individuals. Correct: Even people who seem consistent in how they express traits such as neuroticism, agreeableness, or extraversion will not behave in the same way across all situations. This observation has led to some strong criticisms of trait theories of personality. 501–502 Answer: b

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 501–502 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the relative roles of personality traits and psychological and physical states in determining behaviour.

25) Research indicates that locations, associations, activities, and subjective states are four a. categories of personality traits. b. factors that influence the development of our personality traits. c. situational influences that interact with personality to determine our behaviour. d. changes in personality that occur over our lifespan. Correct: Locations, associations, activities, and subjective states are four general aspects of situations that are most likely to influence our behaviour. These situations interact with personality traits to determine our behaviour. 502 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 502 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the relative roles of personality traits and psychological and physical states in determining behaviour.

26) Which perspective on personality development is most concerned with how one's learning history influences one's future permanent, adult personality? a. behaviourist b. humanistic c. psychodynamic d. social-cognitive Correct: Behaviourists like B. F. Skinner believed that the behaviours that are associated with different personality traits are simply learned behaviours. 503 Answer: a Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 503 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the behaviourist and social-cognitive views of personality.

27) Allana is generally an outgoing person. A ____________ psychologist would be most likely to suggest that Allana's personality is the result of being reinforced for outgoing behaviour by her parents, teachers, or other people she interacted with in the past. a. behaviourist b. humanistic c. psychodynamic d. social-cognitive Correct: Behaviourists like B. F. Skinner believed that the behaviours that are associated with different personality traits are simply learned behaviours. For example, if particular behaviours are reinforced in a given situation, they are more likely to reoccur. 503 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 503 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the behaviourist and social-cognitive views of personality.

28) The behavioural theories of personality development tend to focus on ____________. a. unconscious desires b. learning c. genetics d. self-actualization Correct: Behaviourists like B. F. Skinner believed that the behaviours that are associated with different personality traits are simply learned behaviours. 503 Answer: b Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 503 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the behaviourist and social-cognitive views of personality.

29) The role of reciprocal determinism in personality development was highlighted by the _____________. a. behaviourists b. humanists c. social-cognitive theorists d. trait theorists Correct: According to Albert Bandura and other social-cognitive psychologists, personality is a product of dynamic interactions between behaviour, environment, and personal/cognitive factors—a concept known as reciprocal determinism. 503 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 503 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the behaviourist and social-cognitive views of personality.

30) What is Albert Bandura's term for the relationship among the three factors that influence personality? a. feedback loops b. learned responses c. reciprocal determinism d. external expectancies Correct: According to Albert Bandura and other social-cognitive psychologists, personality is a product of dynamic interactions between behaviour, environment, and personal/cognitive factors—a concept known as reciprocal determinism. 503 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 503 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

31) In the context of social psychology, the acronym WEIRD stands for a. Willful, Egocentric, Immature, Rigid, and Depressed b. Western, Educated, Industrialized, Rich, and Democratic c. Witness, Engage, Interact, React, and Depart d. Willpower, Ego, Id, Repression, and Denial Correct: WEIRD is an acronym for "Western, Educated, Industrialized, Rich, and Democratic." 507 Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 507 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. 32) A potential issue with the majority of the research on personality is that the results may only generalize to __________. a. WEIRD people b. non-WEIRD people c. women d. men Correct: WEIRD is an acronym for "Western, Educated, Industrialized, Rich, and Democratic." Because most psychological studies of personality are conducted on WEIRD people, the results may not always generalize to non-WEIRD people and cultures, such as those found in East Asia. 507 Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 507

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

33) Research suggests that the Big Five personality traits are a. only found in WEIRD societies. b. only found in non-WEIRD societies. c. fairly consistent across many cultures. d. different in every culture. Correct: When it comes to the basic composition of personality, the WEIRD and the nonWEIRD are quite alike: We are united in having the same Big Five personality characteristics. 507–508 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 507–508 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

34) Which of the following is true about cross-cultural differences in personality? a. There is no relationship between culture and personality. b. Most cultures do not have the same Big Five personality factors. c. Only individuals from Western cultures share the same Big Five personality factors. d. While most cultures share the same Big Five personality factors, the prevalence of each trait often differs. Correct: Most cultures are united in having at least five of the same personality characteristics. However, the traits of the Big Five also vary by degree—individuals from some cultures tend to be more open to experience, conscientious, and neurotic than others. 508–509 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 508–509 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

35) Which of the following is a potential issue associated with using standard tests for the Big Five in cross-cultural personality research? a. The Big Five are only found in Western cultures. b. Researchers in other countries would not understand what the "Big Five" refer to. c. The research may miss other personality factors, not found in Western cultures. d. Answering questions about personality violates social norms in most non-Western cultures. Correct: Although the five-factor structure has been found in other cultures, tests designed using Western populations could lead researchers to miss factors not found in WEIRD cultures. As it turns out, researchers in China have identified some different factors, including interpersonal relatedness—which is composed of harmony, tradition, and relationships with others— as well as a dependability factor. 508–509 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 508–509 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to understand personality differences between cultures.

36) A concern with personal goals and a self-focused orientation are most characteristic of those from ________ cultures. a. collectivistic b. individualistic c. narcissistic d. selfish Correct: Individualism refers to the view that personal identity, goals, and attributes are of greater value than group identity, goals, and attributes. People from cultures which emphasize individualism, such as Americans and other Westerners, tend to score high on measures of assertiveness, competitiveness, and other attributes that point to a selffocused orientation. 509–510

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 509–510 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to understand personality differences between cultures.

37) Joe works hard to avoid embarrassing himself or his family. Given what researchers have found about people from different cultures, he is most likely from _____________. a. Canada b. China c. Canada d. Great Britain Correct: Unlike most Western cultures, which emphasize individualism, East Asian societies teach children the importance of discovering how they are connected to others and to value group over personal accomplishment. This is especially the case among people from China. 509–510 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 509–510 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to understand personality differences between cultures.

38) Which of these research methods would a psychologist be likely to employ to study the influence of genetics on personality? a. examining correlations in personality between pairs of identical and fraternal twins b. interviewing people who have known others who were particularly odd or unique c. administering paper and pencil or computerized questionnaires to hundreds of people d. documenting the patterns of development and difficulties of psychiatric patients Correct: Because identical and fraternal twins differ primarily in the amount of DNA they share, comparing the correlation in personality between identical twins to fraternal twins can be used to estimate the heritability of personality. 511–512

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Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 511–512 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the genetic basis of personality.

39) The genetic correlation between identical twins raised in the same household is typically around ______ for all of the big five personality factors. a. .10 b. .50 c. .80 d. .99 Correct: The correlation for identical twins reared apart ranges from .39 to .58. The correlation for identical twins reared together is about .50. 511 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 511 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

40) Which research approach is probably the best for exploring the genetic contribution to personality? a. comparing identical twins who were reared apart b. comparing children adopted into another family with their siblings who remained with their birth parents c. comparing fraternal twins d. comparing identical twins who were raised in the same household Correct: Because identical twins raised in the same household share both genes and environment, studying twins reared apart is a more useful when trying to separate genetic and environmental contributions to personality. 512

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Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 512 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the genetic basis of personality.

41) Identical twins reared apart will often have a. no more in common than same sex fraternal twins reared apart. b. dissimilar personalities. c. similar personalities. d. no more in common than nontwins. Correct: Twin studies conducted on identical twins who were reared apart yield the same basic findings as studies of twins who were reared together—they are more alike than fraternal twins or nontwin siblings. 511 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 511 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

42) According to your textbook, one possible way genes might influence personality is by affecting ______________. a. cellular division b. life expectancy c. brain chemicals d. the probability of having twins Correct: While scientists have not identified a specific gene or genes involved in the expression of neuroticism, agreeableness, or any other trait, genes that code for specific brain chemicals that are related to personality have been identified. 512–513 Answer: c Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 512–513 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

43) According to research discussed in your textbook, inheriting short copies of the ______________ transporter gene predisposes people to anxiety, shyness, and negative emotional reactions in interpersonal situations. a. acetylcholine b. NMDA c. dopamine d. serotonin Correct: Two possible variations of the "serotonin transporter gene" have been identified: a short copy and a long copy. People who inherit short copies from one or both parents are predisposed to anxiety, shyness, and negative emotional reactions in interpersonal situations. 512–513 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 512–513 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

44) Which of the following is true about personality and nonhuman animals? a. Personality has only been observed in one species of bird, the Parus major. b. The Big Five personality traits have been found in many different species. c. Only primates have true personalities. d. Humans are the only animal with personalities. Correct: The Big Five personality traits have been found in a rich diversity of species— such as hedgehogs, ants, rhinos, and primates. 514–515

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 514–515 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how evolutionary theories explain personality.

45) Compared to men, women tend to report ___________ levels of extraversion, conscientiousness, agreeableness, and neuroticism. a. higher b. lower c. similar d. more variable Correct: There is strong evidence that men and women differ on their Big Five personality ratings. Women generally report higher levels of extraversion, conscientiousness, agreeableness, and neuroticism than men. This finding has been noted in comparisons made across dozens of cultures. 516 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 516 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze claims that males and females have fundamentally different personalities. 46) Your textbook argues that personality differences between men and women may be due to ___________ factors. a. genetic b. hormonal c. political d. economic Correct: Countries showing the largest gender differences in personality also have greater access to resources such as health care, education, and wealth. Men and women in countries with fewer social and economic resources tend to be more similar in their self-reported personality scores. This suggests that gender differences may be due to mostly economic factors. 516 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 516 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze claims that males and females have fundamentally different personalities.

47) Levi lives in a relatively wealthy country, where most people have access to health care and education. Which of the following is most likely true about personality gender differences in Levi's country compared to countries with fewer social and economic resources? a. Gender differences are more pronounced. b. Gender differences are less pronounced. c. Gender differences are about the same. d. Gender differences do not exist in either type of country. Correct: Countries showing the largest gender differences in personality also have greater access to resources such as health care, education, and wealth. Men and women in countries with fewer social and economic resources tend to be more similar in their self-reported personality scores. This suggests that gender differences may be due to mostly economic factors. 516 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 516 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to understand personality differences between cultures.

48) Which of the following is true about claims that women and men have different personalities? a. Gender differences in personality do not exist. b. Men and women have fundamentally different personalities. c. Gender differences in personality exist, but are small.

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d. Hormonal differences between men and women cause moderate differences in personality. Correct: While gender differences in personality exist, they are quite small and may be mostly explained by economic factors. 516 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 516 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze claims that males and females have fundamentally different personalities.

49) Kosuke believes that a woman should not be president of the United States because women are biologically predisposed to have "unpresidential" personalities. Which of the following should you tell him? a. Gender differences in personality do not exist. b. The female personality is actually much more presidential than the typical male personality. c. Gender differences in personality exist, but are quite small and not necessarily biological. d. You are correct; females are biologically predisposed to lack the traits that make for effective presidents. Correct: While gender differences in personality exist, they are quite small and may be mostly explained by economic factors. 516 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 516 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze claims that males and females have fundamentally different personalities.

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50) An Ancient Roman physician would be most likely to diagnosis a patient with a melancholy (depressed) personality as a. having experienced some psychological trauma as a child. b. an imbalance in the bodily fluids known as humors. c. caused by physical trauma to the head. d. having inherited the trait from his or her parents. Correct: Ancient medicine was guided by the theory of humorism. According to this theory, the body consisted of four humors—including blood, phlegm, black bile, and yellow bile. Physical illness and disorders of personality were attributed to imbalances among the four humors. 516 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 517 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

51) Blood, phlegm, black bile, and yellow bile were collectively known as the four ____________. a. mood fluids b. humors c. secretions d. life forces Correct: Ancient medicine was guided by the theory of humorism. According to this theory, the body consisted of four humors—including blood, phlegm, black bile, and yellow bile. Physical illness and disorders of personality were attributed to imbalances among the four humors. For example, too much black bile resulted in melancholy. 517 Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 517 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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52) Of the following, which is the oldest theory of personality? a. phrenology b. behaviourism c. the psychodynamic approach d. humorism Correct: Ancient medicine was guided by the theory of humorism. According to this theory, the body consisted of four humors—including blood, phlegm, black bile, and yellow bile. Physical illness and disorders of personality were attributed to imbalances among the four humors. The other theories listed are all more recent. 517 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 517 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

53) Which test or technique would a phrenologist use to access an individual's personality? a. the MMPI b. the Rorschach test c. examining the skull d. MRI brainscan Correct: In the late 1700s, the German doctor Franz Gall developed phrenology—the theory that personality characteristics corresponded to individual differences in brain structure that could be assessed by measuring the shape and contours of the skull surface. 517 Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 517 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

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54) According to Eysenck, who would have the LEAST reactive reticular activating system? a. Grace, who likes to read b. Tucker, who likes to fish c. Lily, who likes to talk d. Ben, who likes to surf Correct: Hans Eysenck proposed that arousal states of the brain are the basis of extraversion and that the reactivity of the limbic system (the emotional circuits), reticular activating system, and cortex are correlated with extraversion. People who have decreased reactivity in these brain regions are basically "underaroused." As a consequence, they seek out novel social and emotional stimulation. Introverts, by comparison, have higher reactivity within these brain regions and, therefore, seek less stimulation than do extraverts. 517 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 517 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

55) According to Eysenck, people who have decreased reactivity in the limbic system (the emotional circuits), reticular activating system, and cortex are more likely to be ______________. a. extraverts b. neurotic c. introverts d. conscientious Correct: Hans Eysenck proposed that arousal states of the brain are the basis of extraversion and that the reactivity of the limbic system (the emotional circuits), reticular activating system, and cortex are correlated with extraversion. 517 Answer: a Diff: 3

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Type: MC Page Reference: 517 Skill: Factual Objective: Know key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

56) According to Eysenck, the reason why some people seek out exciting new social and emotional experiences is that they a. require relatively high levels of stimulation to activate certain brain regions. b. have low baseline adrenaline levels. c. require relatively low levels of stimulation to activate certain brain regions. d. have high baseline adrenaline levels. Correct: Hans Eysenck proposed that arousal states of the brain are the basis of extraversion and that the reactivity of the limbic system (the emotional circuits), reticular activating system, and cortex are correlated with extraversion. People who have decreased reactivity in these brain regions are basically "underaroused." As a consequence, they seek out novel social and emotional stimulation. Introverts, by comparison, have higher reactivity within these brain regions and, therefore, seek less stimulation than do extraverts. 517 Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 517 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

57) As part of a research study, Imani has the activity in both her prefrontal cortices measured. After the study, the researchers tell her that her left prefrontal cortex is more active than her right prefrontal cortex. While this certainly is not enough information from which to draw any firm conclusions, it might suggest that Imani is more likely to experience _____________. a. anxiety b. seizures c. positive emotions

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d. depression Correct: Individuals differ in which side of the prefrontal cortex predominates—those with more active left hemispheres tend to experience more positive emotions, whereas people whose right hemispheres predominate tend to be more anxious. 518–519 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 518–519 Skill: Applied Objective: Know key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

58) In a research study discussed in your textbook, researchers found that ratings of the Big Five personality factors corresponded to the _____________ specific brain regions. a. electrical activity in b. neurotransmitters in c. size of d. location of Correct: In one study using magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), researchers took detailed measures of brain volume in more than 100 participants who also rated themselves on the Big Five inventory. Ratings on four of the Big Five traits—neuroticism, extraversion, agreeableness, and conscientiousness—corresponded to the size of predicted brain regions. 518–519 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 518–519 Skill: Factual Objective: Know key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

59) __________ is the personality theorist whose work is now reflected in the psychodynamic schools of thought. a. Gordon Allport

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b. Sigmund Freud c. Abraham Maslow d. B. F. Skinner Correct: The psychodynamic approach to personality began with Sigmund Freud in the late 1800s. The theories introduced by Freud have evolved considerably through time, but many of his basic ideas are still at the core of psychodynamic perspective. 522–523 Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 522–523 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

60) Which theory of personality is most concerned with understanding people's unconscious motivations? a. Behavioural b. Humanistic c. Psychodynamic d. Trait Correct: A key part of the psychodynamic perspective is the belief that unconscious thoughts, memories, and emotions operate simultaneously and are major influences on our behaviour. 523 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 523 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality.

61) Which aspect of the mind held the greatest fascination for Freud? a. the preconscious mind

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b. the conscious area c. suppressions d. the unconscious Correct: A key part of the psychodynamic perspective is the belief that unconscious thoughts, memories, and emotions operate simultaneously and are major influences on our behaviour. 523 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 523 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality.

62) Which of the following is NOT a key assumption shared by psychodynamic theories? a. Mental representations of the self and others shape how the individual acts. b. When basic needs for love are met, human beings seek to achieve their fullest potential. c. Unconscious thoughts, memories, and emotions operate simultaneously and are major influences on our behaviour. d. Personality takes shape in early childhood, and children learn to regulate their emotions during this period of development. Correct: Humanistic psychologists, not psychodynamic, believe that human's strive to reach their fullest potential. All the other options are key beliefs shared by psychodynamic theories. 523, 533 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 523, 533 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

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63) Which of the following is one of the three components of the Freudian personality structure? a. Alter ego b. Archetype c. Collective unconscious d. Superego Correct: Freud hypothesized that the human psyche consists of three hypothetical, interacting parts: the id, the ego, and the superego. Archetypes and the collective unconscious are ideas associated with Jung, not Freud. 523–524 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 523–524 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

64) The id is motivated by the desire for ____________. a. free will b. instant gratification c. moral perfection d. social acceptability Correct: The id operates according to the pleasure principle, attempting to maximize instant gratification with little regard for the appropriateness or longer term consequences of behaviour. 524 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 524 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

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65) Jamal has a very bad temper. He is notorious for lashing out at his friends when he doesn't get his way. According to Freud, what is dominating Jamal's actions? a. ego b. id c. superego d. conscious processes Correct: The id represents a collection of unconscious biological drives, including those directed toward sex and aggression. In this example, Jamal's behaviour appears to be driven by the id's desire to get what he wants. The superego would not condone this inappropriate behaviour. Likewise, the ego's job is to keep the impulses of the id in check. 524 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 524 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality.

66) Which motto would best fit the id? a. "I can't do that because it is against the rules." b. "I would like to do that, but I can wait for later." c. "If it feels good, then do it." d. "If she did it, I can too." Correct: The id operates according to the pleasure principle, attempting to maximize instant gratification with little regard for the appropriateness or longer term consequences of behaviour. 524 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 524 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

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67) Some authors relate Freud's personality structure to an iceberg, saying that the __________ is completely submerged in our unconscious. a. id b. ego c. superego d. defence mechanisms Correct: A popular depiction of how Freud viewed personality features an iceberg, with the unconscious mind residing below the surface and conscious awareness at only the tip of the iceberg. The id is completely submerged, whereas the ego and the superego operate at both unconscious and conscious levels. 523 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 523 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

68) According to Freud, the ego is the __________ of personality a. moral component b. realistic component c. primitive instinct d. collective impulse Correct: The ego is said to operate according to the "reality principle," meaning that it must find a way to reconcile the wants of the id with the morality of the superego in a way that is socially acceptable and acknowledges the realities of the situation. 524 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 524 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

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69) Justin passes a parked car that he likes. According to Freud's view of the psyche, which part of Justin's personality convinces him to save his money for a few months so he can buy the car? a. conscious b. superego c. id d. ego Correct: In this example, Justin's immediate desire to have the car would be driven by his id. However, instead of stealing the car, his ego would delay the gratification sought by the id until he could afford it. While the superego would certainly object to stealing the car, it would not be involved in finding a way to satisfy the needs of the id in a more socially acceptable way. 524 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 524 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality.

70) What structure serves as the moral component of one's personality? a. the actual self b. ego c. id d. superego Correct: According to Freud, the superego serves as an inner voice we hear when we shame ourselves for acting inappropriately or lavish praise on ourselves for doing something good. It acts as the moral component of our personality. 524 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 524 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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71) As you are preparing for your biology exam, you notice two of your classmates in the library. After going to talk with them, you discover they are planning to cheat during tomorrow's exam. What part of your personality would cause you to feel ashamed or guilty if you also cheated on the exam? a. the actual self b. the ego c. the id d. the superego Correct: According to Freud, the superego serves as an inner voice we hear when we shame ourselves for acting inappropriately or lavish praise on ourselves for doing something good. It acts as the moral component of our personality. 524 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 524 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality.

72) What is Freud's term for the unconscious efforts by the ego to deny or distort reality for the purpose of protecting itself when conflict becomes too intense? a. false cognitions b. coping techniques c. disordered thinking d. defence mechanisms Correct: Defence mechanisms are unconscious strategies the ego uses to reduce or avoid anxiety, guilt, and other unpleasant feelings. 525 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 525 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings.

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73) According to Freud, defence mechanisms are unconscious attempts to reduce our feelings of ___________. a. denial b. anxiety c. repression d. isolation Correct: Defence mechanisms are unconscious strategies the ego uses to reduce or avoid anxiety, guilt, and other unpleasant feelings. The other options are actually examples of specific defence mechanisms. 525 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 525 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings.

74) Eila is a 16-year-old girl. Her mom just got remarried to Brick, a strikingly handsome and very kind man. Recently, Eila has begun to taunt Brick about his physique and even tells her mom that she can't stand him. Which defence mechanism is she exhibiting? a. denial b. repression c. reaction formation d. isolation Correct: According to Freud, reaction formation is a defence mechanism where an unacceptable impulse is altered into its opposite. In this example, Freud might argue that Eila may be attracted to her new stepfather, so she exhibits the opposite reaction. 525– 526 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 525–526 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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75) Mahmoud was just told that his father has cancer. Mahmoud's first response is that there must be a mistake and he demands that the doctor repeat his tests. Which defence mechanism is at work here? a. reaction formation b. denial c. repression d. undoing Correct: According to Freud, denial is a defence mechanism where there is resistance to perceiving what is actually occurring. In this example, Mahmound does not want to acknowledge that his father has cancer, so he does not perceive the diagnosis as real. 525 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 525 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings.

76) When anxiety-provoking memories are prevented from reaching conscious awareness, such as not remembering lying to a parent, it is called ____________. a. denial b. isolation c. repression d. reaction-formation Correct: Actively drowning out thoughts, memories, or wishes is called repression, and is a defence mechanism described by Freud. 525 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 525 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings.

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77) During a grade school field trip, Ryan and his friends were running down a hill when he stepped on a snake. He was unharmed but shaken by the experience. When one of his friends mentioned the incident months later, Ryan could not remember running down the hill that day. Freud would say that this is an example of __________. a. sublimation b. displacement c. repression d. reaction formation Correct: Actively drowning out thoughts, memories, or wishes is called repression, and is a defence mechanism described by Freud. 525 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 525 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings.

78) Anna is a morally rigorous person who demands that her daughter remain a virgin until she is married. Anna cannot remember her own premarital sexual encounters. Which defence mechanism would likely account for this memory lapse? a. rationalization b. denial c. repression d. projection Correct: Actively drowning out thoughts, memories, or wishes is called repression, and is a defence mechanism described by Freud. 525 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 525 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings.

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79) If the frustration, conflict, and anxiety associated with a particular psychosexual stage are not properly resolved, Freud believed children may a. jump forward to the genital stage. b. remain fixated, or stuck, at that stage. c. regress back to the anal stage. d. fail to develop a superego. Correct: Freud believed that difficulty at any of the stages of psychosexual development could lead to fixation, in which an individual becomes preoccupied with obtaining the pleasure associated with a particular stage. 527 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 527 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality.

80) You notice your classmate Hannah chewing on her pencil as she takes her psychology final. Which psychosexual stage may not have been resolved? a. genital b. phallic c. oral d. anal Correct: According to Freud, adults who are orally fixated may be prone to excesses of eating, drinking, and smoking or, conversely, may try to avoid oral stimulation as much as possible. In this example, Hannah's chewing on her pencil would most likely be interpreted by Freud as evidence that she never fully resolved the oral stage. 527 Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 527 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality.

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81) A newborn baby is in what stage of psychosexual development? a. anal stage b. latency stage c. oral stage d. phallic stage Correct: The oral stage is the first stage of psychosexual development according to Freud. 527 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 527 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality.

82) According to Freud, habits such as fingernail biting or gum chewing could result from a fixation in the __________ stage. a. oral b. anal c. genital d. phallic Correct: According to Freud, adults who are orally fixated may be prone to excesses of eating, drinking, and smoking or, conversely, may try to avoid oral stimulation as much as possible. 527 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 527 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality.

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83) A Freudian psychotherapist would assert that an alcoholic or a chain-smoker is stuck in what stage of development? a. Anal b. Genital c. Latency d. Oral Correct: According to Freud, adults who are orally fixated may be prone to excesses of eating, drinking, and smoking or, conversely, may try to avoid oral stimulation as much as possible. 527 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 527 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality.

84) Which order is correct for Freud's psychosexual stages of development? a. oral, phallic, genital, latent, anal b. anal, oral, genital, latent, phallic c. genital, anal, oral, phallic, latent d. oral, anal, phallic, latent, genital Correct: This is the correct order according to Freud. 526 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 526 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality.

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85) The main conflict of the anal stage comes from a. the Oedipal complex. b. toilet training. c. sexual repression. d. weaning off the breast or bottle. Correct: During the anal stage, stimulation relating to bowel movements is the source of pleasure. Toilet training plays a central role in the passage through this stage. 527–528 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 527–528 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality.

86) Stewie has developed strong feelings for his mother and views his father as a rival for her attention. However, he is afraid that his father will find out and interfere with these plans. Stewie is clearly immersed in the __________ stage. a. anal b. genital c. oral d. phallic Correct: Freud believed that children in the phallic stage become sexually attracted to the opposite-sexed parent. The male child develops a sense of competition with his father and then begins to fear that his father will castrate him in the course of competing for the affection of the mother. This is known as the Oedipus complex). 528 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 528 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality.

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87) The Oedipus complex is most likely experienced in the __________ stage. a. genital b. oral c. phallic d. anal Correct: Freud believed that children in the phallic stage become sexually attracted to the opposite-sexed parent. The male child develops a sense of competition with his father and then begins to fear that his father will castrate him in the course of competing for the affection of the mother. This is known as the Oedipus complex). 528 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 528 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality.

88) The libido is dormant during the __________ stage. a. genital b. latent c. phallic d. anal Correct: During the latent stage, the libido is dormant. Relationships centre on building friendships with same-sex peers. 528 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 528 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality.

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89) According to Freud, appropriate sexual and romantic relationships are only possible when an individual has attained the ________ stage of psychosexual development. a. anal b. genital c. oral d. phallic Correct: The genital stage, which is marked by the onset of puberty, continues throughout adulthood. It is during this time that interest in mature, sexual relationships with others begins. Unresolved conflicts at earlier stages of psychosexual development may impede the development of mature sexual relationships at this stage and into adulthood. 528–529 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 528–529 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality.

90) A person's responses to a projective test are thought to reflect a. current events. b. daydreaming themes. c. maladaptive patterns of behaviour. d. unconscious thoughts and feelings. Correct: Projective tests are personality tests in which ambiguous images are presented to an individual to elicit responses that reflect unconscious desires or conflicts. 529 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 529 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality.

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91) When Anna looks at some modern artwork at the museum, she often thinks she sees human figures or faces and likes to make up stories about them. When she tells the stories to her friend, her friend says that the stories reflect Anna's unconscious thoughts. In psychological terms, what Anna does is most similar to _____________. a. classical conditioning b. a projective test c. a personality inventory d. the MMPI Correct: Projective tests are personality tests in which ambiguous images are presented to an individual to elicit responses that reflect unconscious desires or conflicts. 529 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 529 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality.

92) Tony has devised a test in which people look at clouds and talk about what they see. What type of test would psychologists call this? a. dynamic b. projective c. objective d. predictive Correct: Projective tests are personality tests in which ambiguous images are presented to an individual to elicit responses that reflect unconscious desires or conflicts. 529 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 529 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality.

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93) Which of the following is a projective test? a. MMPI-2 b. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale c. NEO Personality Inventory d. Rorschach Correct: Projective tests are personality tests in which ambiguous images are presented to an individual to elicit responses that reflect unconscious desires or conflicts. The Rorschach inkblot test is the only projective test listed. 529 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 529 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality.

94) Which personality test relies on the interpretation of inkblots to understand personality? a. MMPI b. 16PF c. TAT d. Rorschach Correct: For the Rorschach inkblot test, subjects are asked to describe what they see on the inkblot, and psychologists attempt to interpret what the subject projects onto the stimulus by using a standardized scoring and interpretation method. 529 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 529 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality.

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95) What is one criticism of projective tests? a. They are inappropriate for use with children. b. They are too simple in their administration and scoring. c. They have low validity and reliability. d. They fail to take into account differences in the testing environments. Correct: Research has indicated serious limitations regarding the reliability and validity of projective tests. 530 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 530 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality.

96) Which psychological test asks the subject to tell a story based on a picture of one or more people in which it is unclear what is going on? a. Rorschach test b. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) c. California Psychological Inventory (CPI) d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) Correct: The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) asks respondents to tell a story about a series of 31 pictures involving ambiguous interpersonal situations. 529–530 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 529–530 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality.

97) According to the authors, the key criteria for evaluating personality assessments are a. significance and reliability. b. significance and validity.

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c. reliability and significance. d. reliability and validity. Correct: Two particularly important concepts come into play when it comes to evaluating psychological testing: reliability and validity. 530 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 530 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality.

98) Many projective assessment tools are often lacking in ____________. a. popularity b. representativeness c. subjectivity d. validity Correct: Research has indicated serious limitations regarding the reliability and validity of projective tests. Despite this, many projective tests remain popular with some psychologists. 530 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 530 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality.

99) Who is not a psychodynamic personality theorist? a. Carl Rogers b. Alfred Adler c. Sigmund Freud d. Carl Jung

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Correct: Alfred Adler and Carl Jung both developed their own theories based of Freud's psychodynamic approach. In contrast, Carl Rogers was a humanistic psychologist who rejected the psychodynamic view. 533 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 533 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

100) Freud placed much more emphasis on __________ than either Adler or Horney. a. the unconscious b. sexuality c. anxiety d. childhood Correct: Alfred Adler and Karen Horney both placed far less emphasis on sexual conflict and personality development than did Freud. 532–533 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 532–533 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

101) Which psychodynamic theorist introduced the concept of the inferiority complex into discussions of psychological adjustment? a. Adler b. Fromm c. Horney d. Jung

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Correct: Adler viewed the social environment as critical to personality development. He believed that people develop an inferiority complex, an abnormal personality that results from struggling with feelings of inferiority in one's social environment. 532 Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 532 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

102) Jung believed that there were two levels to the unconscious mind, the personal and the __________. a. collective b. analytical c. heroic d. preconscious Correct: Jung believed that in addition to having a personal unconscious, humans also possess a collective unconscious—a collection of memories that can be traced to our ancestral past. 532 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 532 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

103) Jung's theory suggests that the __________ is a collection of archetypes that represent concepts or figures common to all cultures. a. conscious b. collective unconscious c. personal unconscious

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d. locus of control Correct: Jung believed that in addition to having a personal unconscious, humans also possess a collective unconscious—a collection of memories that can be traced to our ancestral past. These memories take the form of archetypes, which are images and symbols that are thought to have universal meaning among all humans. 532 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 532 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

104) Carl Jung suggested the existence of a collective unconscious that contains images shared by all people called ________. a. schemas b. archetypes c. prototypes d. instincts Correct: Jung believed that humans possess a shared collective unconscious—a collection of memories that can be traced to our ancestral past. These memories take the form of archetypes, which are images and symbols that are thought to have universal meaning among all humans. 532 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 532 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

105) Which theorist emphasized the importance of the collective unconscious in personality development? a. Adler

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b. Fromm c. Horney d. Jung Correct: Jung believed that humans possess a shared collective unconscious—a collection of memories that can be traced to our ancestral past. 532 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 532 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

106) What theorist strongly disagreed with Freud's ideas about women and their feelings of penis envy? a. Adler b. Horney c. Jung d. Rorschach Correct: Karen Horney took exception to the notion that females experience penis envy toward males. 532–533 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 532–533 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

107) A key critique of Freud's theory of personality is that a. Freud was a medical doctor, not a psychologist. b. It presents human beings in an unrealistically positive light.

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c. Much of it cannot be falsified. d. Freud did not base his theories on actual cases. Correct: Many of Freud's ideas are considered by many to be untestable, meaning that they do not generate hypotheses that can be confirmed or disconfirmed. In particular, there is no way to falsify (demonstrate as false) many aspects of the theory. While Freud was not a psychologist, this is not generally considered to be a weakness of his theories. Freud's theories are based on actual patients, and generally focus on the negative side of humanity. 522 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 522 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the strengths and weaknesses of psychodynamic perspectives.

108) Which of the following is a limitation of the psychodynamic perspective that stems from the fact that Freud based much of his original theory a handful of patients? a. His theories cannot be falsified. b. His observations may not apply to the wider population of healthy, ordinary people from a variety of backgrounds. c. His theories are confusing to psychologists. d. His theories cannot be used to treat mental illness. Correct: Freud has been criticized for developing an enormous, comprehensive theory about human personality based on his interactions with a relatively small, unrepresentative group of individuals. He provided little beyond anecdotal evidence that his explanations for pathological personality could be applied to normally developing people or to people from different cultural backgrounds. 522 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 522 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the strengths and weaknesses of psychodynamic perspectives.

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109) One of the most well-known humanistic theorists was ____________. a. Sigmund Freud b. Carl Rogers c. Carl Jung d. Alfred Adler Correct: Carl Rogers was a famous humanistic theorist. The other options are all wellknown psychodynamic theorists. 533 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 533 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

110) According to Carl Rogers' ________________ perspective, people are basically good, and given the right environment their personality will develop fully and normally. a. person-centred b. psychodynamic c. analytical d. reciprocal Correct: Carl Roger's person-centred perspective views humans as basically good, and given the right environment their personality will develop fully and normally. Humans, he said, have the motivation and potential to expand their horizons, mature, and fulfill each of their capacities. 533 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 533 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

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111) Luisa believes that people are generally good at heart and that they usually do the right thing if you give them a chance. Which psychological perspective is most likely to appeal to her? a. psychodynamic b. evolutionary c. humanistic d. social cognitive Correct: During the mid 20th century, Maslow and others created a movement called humanistic psychology that emphasized the unique and positive qualities of human experience and potential. 533 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 533 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

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1) Explain the Five Factor Model and list the Big Five factors it is centred on. How were its creators, McCrae and Costa, able to identify only five key factors from the thousands of different traits that could be used to define personalities? Answer: The Five Factor model of personality suggests that people vary along five major variables: openness, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. Each person will fall somewhere along the continuum for each of these variables; taken together, a good, predictive picture of their personality will emerge. The Five Factor Model was derived by McCrae and Costa using factor analyses, a statistical technique that identifies items that people respond to similarly. They found that all terms used to describe personality could be categorized as one of five factors. Page Reference: 494 2) Describe two different techniques researchers use to investigate the relationship between genes and personality. Answer: To study genes and personality, one method is to compare responses on self-report questionnaires of people who have inherited different copies of a specific gene. Another method for studying genes and personality is to conduct experiments and compare the responses of people with different copies of a gene. It is important to keep in mind that, in most cases, there is no single gene causing a single outcome in a person. Most phenomena are understood to be caused by multiple genes interacting with the environment. Page Reference: 512–513

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

1) One of the Big Five personality factors, emotional stability, is also referred to by the opposite quality neuroticism. Correct: Emotional stability and neuroticism are alternative names for the same personality dimension. This dimension is one of the five major dimensions identified as the "Big Five." 495 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 495 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. 2) The idea that personality is the product of interactions between behaviour, the environment, and personal factors is known as reciprocal determinism, and is a key component to the social-cognitive approach to personality. Correct: According to Albert Ban du r a and other social-cognitive psychologists, personality is a product of dynamic interactions between behaviour, environment, and personal/cognitive factors—a concept known as reciprocal determinism. 503 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 503 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. 3) People from highly developed Western countries such as the United States and Australia are described by the acronym WEIRD. Correct: WEIRD is an acronym for "Western, Educated, Industrialized, Rich, and Democratic." 507 Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 507 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

4) Some cultures emphasize collectivism. Individuals in these cultures tend to define themselves in terms of group membership and goals. Correct: Individualism refers to the view that personal identity, goals, and attributes are of greater value than group identity, goals, and attributes. In contrast, collectivism is a view that places greater value on defining the self in terms of group membership and goals.509– 510 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 509-510 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to understand personality differences between cultures. 5) Freud believed the id was fueled by an energy called libido. Correct: Freud believed the id was fueled by an energy called libido. Although this term is more commonly used in reference to sexual energy, the libido also controls other biological urges such as hunger. 524 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 524 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. 6) Chad's psychoanalyst is a strict Freudian psychoanalyst. He tells Chad that his issues with his father are the result of Chad's unconscious sexual attraction to his own mother. This strange concept is known as the Oedipus complex. Correct: Freud believed that male children in the phallic stage become sexually attracted to their mothers. This is known as the Oedipus complex. 528 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 528 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. 7) The Rorschach inkblot test and the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) are both examples of projective tests, a controversial category of personality tests. Correct: Projective tests are personality tests in which ambiguous images are presented to an individual to elicit responses that reflect unconscious desires or conflicts. Many Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

psychologists feel that this type of test, including the Rorschach and TAT, should not be used because they lack both validity and reliability. 529–530 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 529-530 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality. 8) The existence of archetypes such as the Hero explains why unrelated cultures have similar stories with recognizable characters. Correct: Archetypes are images and symbols that are thought to have universal meaning among all humans. For example, according to Jung all people have an archetype called the Hero, which represents the universal human belief, often expressed as myth and folklore, in a special force or being that wins mighty battles against hated foes. 532 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 532 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. 9) Abraham Maslow is the psychologist whose theories are most closely associated with the concept of “self-actualization.” Correct: Maslow believed that all humans seek to fulfill a hierarchy of needs, which begins with satisfying basic motivations for food and physical safety, progresses toward more psychologically complex experiences such as feeling a sense of security and love for others and by others, and ultimately leads to self-actualization. 521–522 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 521-522 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality 1. Some psychologists use a(n) _____ approach to studying personality, which is a person-centred method in which researchers focus on individual people and their unique personalities. a. nomothetic b. factor-analysis c. idiographic d. reciprocal Answer: C Module 12.1 2. Which of the following statements is true about personality traits over the life span? a. The first signs of personality do not appear until a child is approximately 2 years of age. b. Early temperament is not a useful predictor of adult personality. c. Young adults tend to experience more negative emotions compared to adolescents. d. By middle age, adult personality traits show very little change over time. Answer: D Module 12.1 3. Unlike the strict behaviourists’ view, Bandura’s theory of reciprocal determinism a. emphasizes the importance of learning. b. acknowledges that people shape and determine their environments. c. emphasizes the importance of traits. d. assumes that traits are not stable over time. Answer: B Module 12.1 4. Kwan comes from an Asian country where the importance of family connections is emphasized and group success is generally considered more important than individual accomplishment. Kwan’s culture appears to emphasize which view? a. individualism b. collectivism c. martyrism d. conformism Answer: B Module 12.2 5. What do twin studies indicate about the role of genes in personality? a. Heredity plays an important role in personality. b. Dizygotic twins are more likely than monozygotic twins to share personality traits. c. Personality is almost entirely determined by parenting and other environmental factors. d. Personality appears to be related to two different copies of a serotonin transporter gene. Answer: A Module 12.2 6. Research into animal personalities suggests that a. unlike human personality traits, animal personality traits have no genetic basis. b. humans are the only animals who have true emotions. c. the Big Five personality traits can be observed only in primates. d. the Big Five personality traits occur in many different types of animals. Answer: D Module 12.2

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality 7. Ancient scholars believed in the theory of humorism, which postulated that personality was controlled by the a. date and time of a person’s birth. b. shape and contours of a person’s skull. c. balance of four fluid substances within the body. d. balance of the right and left hemispheres of the brain. Answer: C Module 12.2 8. In old cartoons, characters were sometimes shown with a devil on one shoulder telling them to do something selfish or immoral, such as stealing or lying. On the other shoulder, the animators would draw an angel, which would tell the character not to listen to the devil and to act morally instead. In Freudian terms, the angel represents which part of the character’s psyche? a. ego b. superego c. id d. a defence mechanism Answer: B Module 12.3 9. Daniel’s psychiatrist shows him a series of cards with abstract inkblots on them and asks Daniel to describe what he sees. When Daniel asks about the test, his psychiatrist explains that it is called the _____. a. Rorschach inkblot test b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) c. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) d. Figure-Drawing Test Answer: A Module 12.3 10. As a response to both behaviourism and psychodynamic theory, Abraham Maslow (among others) initiated a movement called _____, which emphasized the unique and positive qualities of human experience and potential. a. phrenology b. humanistic psychology c. analytical psychology d. self-actualization Answer: B Module 12.3

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

1) Jamie is a joiner. She is interested in other people and events going on around her in the world. In McCrae’s's view, she is an ___________________. a. archetype b. endomorph c. introvert d. extravert Correct: 494–496 Answer: d Page Reference: 494–496 2) Sally has a desire to eat a steak with a baked potato smothered in butter and sour cream. One component of her personality tells her that because she is overweight, she should fast instead of eating the meal and direct her efforts toward ending world hunger. Another component suggests that it would be better to eat a salad and a bran muffin, and then run two miles. The fasting suggestion most likely was made by which component of personality? a. id b. ego c. superego Correct: 524 d. oral Answer: c Page Reference: 524 3) According to Bill's psychoanalyst, he was traumatized during the anal stage of his psychosexual development, which accounts for Bill's tightwad habits. Which of the following would be Freud's term for Bill's behaviour? a. anal retentive Correct: 527–528 b. anal expulsive c. parsimonious d. serendipitous Answer: a Page Reference: 527–528 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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4) According to Jung's psychoanalytic theory, each of us has ________, which are inherited predispositions to respond to certain concepts. a. drive b. instincts c. archetypes Correct: 532 d. archegos Answer: c Page Reference: 532 5) According to Jung, our repressed thoughts, undeveloped ideas, and forgotten experiences are contained in the ____________________. a. persona b. archetype c. personal unconscious Correct: 532 d. collective unconscious Answer: c Page Reference: 532 6) Jane is an angry, hostile woman. At work and in her personal life, she is described as an energetic go-getter because she is a workaholic and does a great deal of volunteer work for abused children and women. Jane's behaviour may be an example of which defence mechanism? a. sublimation Correct: 525–526 b. displacement c. reaction formation d. projection Answer: a Page Reference: 525–526

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7) The view that personality results from struggles between opposites within each of us is an assumption of which of the following? a. Jung Correct: 524–525, 532 b. Adler c. Maslow d. Mischel Answer: a Page Reference: 524–525, 532 8) Which of the following gives the stages of development outlined by Freud in the order in which they occur? a. anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital b. anal, latency, oral, phallic, genital c. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital Correct: 526 d. oral, anal, latency, phallic, genital Answer: c Page Reference: 526 9) What did Freud call the part of the personality that had to be socialized by parents? a. id b. ego Correct: 524 c. authentic self d. superego Answer: b Page Reference: 524 10) What did Freud call the part of the personality that learns that we will be happier if we postpone gratification? a. id b. ego Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Correct: 524 c. authentic self d. superego Answer: b Page Reference: 524 11) What did Freud call the part of the personality that begins to develop in early childhood? a. id b. ego c. authentic self d. superego Correct: 524, 528 Answer: d Page Reference: 524, 528 12) ”I didn't get the job, even though I was the most qualified applicant, because the company has to hire a minority worker.” This statement probably illustrates which defence mechanism? a. rationalization Correct: 525 b. denial c. repression d. projection Answer: a Page Reference: 525 13) A university professor continually implies that his students are intellectually inferior. Which of the following defence mechanisms is this professor likely using? a. projection Correct: 525–526 b. denial c. reaction formation

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d. sublimation Answer: a Page Reference: 525–526 14) Behaving in ways that are the opposite of what one would unconsciously like to do defines _______. a. sublimation b. displacement c. reaction formation Correct: 525–526 d. projection Answer: c Page Reference: 525–526 15) Which structure of personality houses one's instincts, according to Freud? a. ego-ideal b. ego c. id Correct: 524 d. superego Answer: c Page Reference: 524 16) The part of personality, according to Freud, that seeks to avoid pain is the ________. a. id Correct: 524 b. ego c. superego d. ego-ideal Answer: a Page Reference: 524

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

17) Which statement about the id is most accurate? a. It is in close contact with bodily needs. Correct: 524 b. It follows the reality principle. c. It houses the conscience. d. It drives us to live up to our ideals. Answer: a Page Reference: 524 18) Which component of personality mediates between the forces of desire and reality on a moral basis? a. id b. ego c. superego Correct: 524 d. ego-ideal Answer: c Page Reference: 524 19) Pleasure principle is to _______ as reality principle is to _______. a. id; superego b. superego; id c. id; ego Correct: 524 d. ego; id Answer: c Page Reference: 524 20) Which of the following Freudian concepts motivates us to better ourselves and live up to our ideals? a. id b. ego c. reality principle Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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d. superego Correct: 524 Answer: d Page Reference: 524 21) Identifying with one's opposite-sex parent occurs in which psychosexual stage? a. oral b. anal c. phallic Correct: 528 d. genital Answer: c Page Reference: 528 22) According to Freud, an inadequate resolution of the Oedipus complex leads to a. child molestation. b. a high regard for women. c. a personality that is reckless and self-assured. Correct: 528 d. love of nature. Answer: c Page Reference: 528 23) Freud developed his theory of personality on the basis of a. carefully controlled experiments. b. systematic observations of children. c. cross-cultural investigations. d. case studies of patients. Correct: 522 Answer: d Page Reference: 522

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24) Joe seems to be constantly condemning himself for being bad and ”sinful” In psychoanalytic terms, we would say that Joe has an overdeveloped _______. a. libido b. id c. ego d. superego Correct: 524 Answer: d Page Reference: 524 25) The old adage ”Everyone is queer but me and thee” illustrates the defence mechanism of _______. a. displacement b. undoing c. projection Correct: 526 d. reaction formation Answer: c Page Reference: 526 26) Picasso's paintings often contained exaggerated sexual symbolism. This way of expressing a basic impulse in a socially praiseworthy fashion illustrates the use of _______. a. displacement b. sublimation Correct: 526 c. projection d. reaction formation Answer: b Page Reference: 526 27) Maria takes good notes in class. Whenever someone who has missed class due to illness asks her if he can copy her notes, she grips them tightly and says, ”No! They're

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mine, and I don't wish to share them.” A psychoanalytic theorist would probably contend that Maria has a(n) _______ fixation. a. oral b. anal Correct: 527–528 c. phallic d. genital Answer: b Page Reference: 527–528 Objective: 12.3 28) According to Freud, the _______ makes up the largest part of our personality. a. preconscious b. conscious c. unconscious Correct: 523 d. These three areas contribute equally to personality. Answer: c Page Reference: 523 29) Six-year-old Suzie sees her younger brother approaching with the new toy he received for his birthday. Suzie suddenly decides she wants the toy, so she pushes her brother to the ground, grabs his toy, and rushes into the next room to play with it. During this situation, the part of Suzie's personality which is most likely in control is her _______. a. conscious b. superego c. ego d. id Correct: 524 Answer: d Page Reference: 524

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

30) That part of the personality which operates on the reality principle is the _______. a. superego b. ego Correct: 524 c. id d. eros Answer: b Page Reference: 524 31) The superego is that part of the personality which represents the _______. a. pleasure principle b. reality principle c. thanatos d. conscience Correct: 524 Answer: d Page Reference: 524 32) An orally fixated person would most likely a. be an only child. b. dislike his or her father. c. be a sloppy dresser. d. eat and smoke a great deal. Correct: 527 Answer: d Page Reference: 527 33) The process of toilet training occurs during the _______ stage. a. phallic b. oral c. anal Correct: 527–528 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

d. genital Answer: c Page Reference: 527–528 34) The Oedipus complex occurs during the _______ stage. a. anal b. phallic Correct: 528 c. oral d. latency Answer: b Page Reference: 528 35) Four-year-old Kevin is in love with his mother and wants very much to get rid of his father so that he can have his mother all to himself. According to Freud, Kevin is undergoing a. a regression. b. the genital stage. c. an Oedipus complex. Correct: 528 d. all of the above. Answer: c Page Reference: 528 36) The stage of personality development which lasts from about age 6 until puberty is known as the _______ stage. a. phallic b. anal c. genital d. latency Correct: 528 Answer: d Page Reference: 528 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

37) Which type of standardized test presents ambiguous stimuli? a. MMPI b. CPI c. Rorschach Correct: 529 d. TAT Answer: c Page Reference: 529 38) Collective personality characteristics are to ______________ as individual personality characteristics are to _______________. a. an idiographic approach; a nomothetic approach b. a nomothetic approach; an idiographic approach Correct: The nomothetic approach looks at personality of large groups. The idiographic looks at individual personalities. c. Freudian theories; humanistic theories d. humanistic theories; Freudian theories Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 493, Module 12.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. 39) The Electra complex is to ____________ as the Oedipus complex is to ____________. a. phallic stage; latency stage b. latency stage; phallic stage c. boys; girls d. girls; boys Correct: Statement of fact.

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Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 528, Module 12.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. 40) In addition to genetic factors, what other construct would a behaviourist include when explaining the causes of personality differences? a. biological factors b. cognitive factors c. environmental factors Correct: Behaviourists view experience as key to shaping behaviour and personality. d. the collective unconscious Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 503, Module 12.1 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the behaviourist and social-cognitive views of personality. 41) Humanistic psychology is to ______________ as Jungian psychology is to _____________. a. inferiority complex; unconscious drives b. locus of control; psychosexual stages c. defence mechanisms; the Oedipus complex d. self-actualization; the collective unconscious Correct: Humanists argue that people are driven by the need for self-actualization. Jungians argue people are driven by the collective unconscious. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 532, Module 12.3 Skill: Conceptual Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 12: Personality

Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. 42) Which theorist and theory is correctly matched? a. Adler – object relations theory b. Rogers – humanistic model Correct: Statement of fact c. Jung – psychoanalytic theory d. Bandura – radical behaviourism Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 533, Module 12.3 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. 43) Which option best exemplifies the P.T. Barnum effect? a. inkblots b. horoscopes Correct: The Barnum effect occurs when all people feel that very general statements describe the unique aspects of their personality. c. graphology d. physiognomy Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 494, Module 12.1 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

1) Social norms are specific sets of behaviours that are associated with a position within a group. a. True b. False Correct: This is the definition of social roles, not norms. Answer: b Page Reference: 542, 551 2) Conformity is sometimes a conscious decision. a. True b. False Correct: Conformity can be—and often is—a conscious decision. Answer: a Page Reference: 545 3) In variations of Stanley Milgram's study on obedience, "teachers" were more likely to disobey and refuse to continue when the experimenter wore street clothes instead of a lab coat. a. True b. False Correct: When the authority of the experimenter was reduced by having him wear street clothes instead of a lab coat, obedience was reduced. Answer: a Page Reference: 555 4) A child asks her parents to buy her a pony. While the parents refuse, they do agree to buy her a new bike when she asks a short time later. This is an example of the door-inthe-face technique. a. True b. False Correct: The door-in-the-face technique begins with a large request that is likely to be turned down, followed by a smaller request that is likely to be accepted. Answer: a Page Reference: 579

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

5) Quick impressions of people we meet tend to change after we have been around them for a longer period of time. a. True b. False Correct: Using the thin-slices method, researchers found that participants who watched 30 seconds of a college lecture (without sound) gave instructor ratings that were remarkably similar to the end-of-semester ratings of that same class. Additional research has shown even higher levels of agreement when rating high school teachers and using even thinner slices. Answer: b Page Reference: 560 6) Unlike stereotypes based on negative characteristics, stereotypes based on positive characteristics are harmless. a. True b. False Correct: Benevolent or well-intentioned stereotyping based on positive characteristics can have adverse consequences. Answer: b Page Reference: 565 7) If an individual had a seizure in a public place, he would be more likely to get help if there were just one person around rather than five people. a. True b. False Correct: According to the bystander effect, people are less likely to help when they are part of a group. Answer: a Page Reference: 549

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

1) Not belching at the dinner table is an example of a(n) social norm, an unwritten rule about how to behave in a certain social context. Correct: Social norms are the (usually unwritten) guidelines for how to behave in social contexts. Norms include everything from the little nuances of public behaviour and the manners we use in polite company, to the topics that are appropriate for conversation and the types of clothing deemed appropriate. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 542 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence. 2) The chameleon effect occurs when we unconsciously mimic the behaviours and mannerisms of those around us for no apparent reason. Correct: The chameleon effect occurs when individuals mimic another’s behaviour without meaning to or knowing that they are doing it. Furthermore, the imitated behaviour usually does not have any apparent use; it is as if it “just happens.” Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 541 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence. 3) When group members believe that their effort will not significantly contribute to the group’s overall performance, they are more likely to engage in social loafing. Correct: Social loafing occurs when an individual working as part of a group or team reduces his or her effort. Loafing tends to occur when an individual believes he could do well but the group as a whole would do poorly, or perhaps that the group would do fine without him. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 542 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. 4) The peripheral route to persuasion is more likely to be persuasive with topics that are less important to an individual and when the decision is likely to be made quickly. Correct: There are two paths to persuasion: the central route, in which individuals take time, evaluate evidence, and use valid logic and arguments, and the peripheral route, in which quick judgments are made based on limited evidence, and emotions and vague impressions

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

are used more than logic. When topics are less important to an individual and decisions are likely to be made quickly, the peripheral route is usually more persuasive. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 6573 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your understanding of the central route to describe how a message should be designed. 5) External attribution is also known as situational attribution. Correct: External attribution (also known as a situational attribution), is when the observer explains the actor’s behaviour as the result of the social context. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 562 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. 6) Individuals who do not consider themselves to be prejudiced, may still be affected in subtle ways by implicit prejudice. Correct: Implicit prejudice includes forms of stereotyping and prejudice that are kept silent, either intentionally or because individuals are unaware of their own prejudices. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 566–568 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination. 7) The bystander effect occurs when an individual in a group is less likely to provide help than he or she would be if they were alone. Correct: The bystander effect occurs when an individual in a group does not provide help, either because the person believes someone else will help or because the other people in the group are not helping either. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 549 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

1) The Stanford Prison Study has been criticized on the basis of _____________. a. methodological weaknesses b. inability to replicate it c. lack of real-life application d. ethics Answer: d Page Reference: 553 2) In the famous Milgram experiment on obedience, who received a shock? a. the “learner” b. no one c. the confederate d. the subject Answer: b Page Reference: 554–555 3) Following orders is referred to as _______ by social psychologists. a. compliance b. conformity c. influence d. obedience Answer: d Page Reference: 553–556 4) What did Milgram study? a. the authoritarian personality b. bystander apathy c. the effects of watching violence on television d. obedience to authority Answer: d Page Reference: 553

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

5) What percent of subjects in Milgram's experiment on obedience actually completed the shock series? a. less than 1% b. between 5% and 10% c. about 65% d. about 90% Answer: c Page Reference: 554 6) Following the direct orders of someone in a position of higher authority is called: a. compliance. b. conformity. c. obedience. d. consent. Answer: c Page Reference: 553–556 7) _______ found that normal people in normal times will often follow orders to hurt innocent people. a. Solomon Asch b. Kurt Lewin c. Carolyn Sherif d. Stanley Milgram Answer: d Page Reference: 553–556 8) In the Milgram experiment on obedience, the _______ was a confederate of the experimenter. a. subject b. female subject c. learner d. normal person

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

Answer: c Page Reference: 553 9) In the Milgram experiment on obedience, the dependent variable was the: a. learner's incorrect responses. b. intensity of shock delivered. c. learner's screams of pain. d. number of mistakes made by the learner. Answer: b Page Reference: 553–556 10) A relatively stable organization of beliefs, feelings, and behaviour tendencies toward something or someone else is a(n) __________. a. affect b. cognition c. archetype d. attitude Answer: d Page Reference: 572 11) Learned, relatively enduring feelings about objects, events, or issues are called ___________. a. norms b. opinions c. attitudes d. emotions Answer: c Page Reference: 572 12) What theory was advanced by Festinger? a. balance b. cognitive heuristic c. cognitive dissonance

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

d. confirmation bias Answer: c Page Reference: 580 13) According to Festinger, the feeling of discomfort that results from the realization that our beliefs and our behaviours are discrepant is called: a. attribution. b. balance theory. c. cognitive dissonance. d. confirmation bias. Answer: c Page Reference: 580 14) Even though Jane thought it was wrong to take from others, she didn't want to be rejected by her peers, so she began shoplifting along with them. Jane probably experienced _______ when she stole. a. the fundamental attribution error b. reactance c. central route change d. cognitive dissonance Answer: d Page Reference: 580 15) Giving in to indirect pressure to change your behaviour and thoughts is called a. conformity. b. compliance. c. obedience. d. persuasion. Answer: a Page Reference: 542, 545 16) To conform is to yield to __________. a. social norms Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

b. cognitive dissonance c. secondary processes d. response cues Answer: a Page Reference: 545 17) Asch (1951) used __________ to study informational conformity. a. the “kinetic effect” b. the latency of response c. social loafing in a tug of war group d. line lengths Answer: d Page Reference: 545 18) Changing one's behaviour in response to real or perceived social pressures is referred to as _______ by social psychologists. a. compliance b. conformity c. influence d. obedience Answer: b Page Reference: 545 19) Which of the following is an example of conformity? a. A soldier shoots enemy women and children on orders from his commanding officer. b. A policeman beats a prisoner to force a confession on orders of his commanding officer. c. Passengers move to the back of the bus as soon as the driver tells them to. d. Stan has thrown away all of his old ties and bought new ones to ”be in style.” Answer: d Page Reference: 545

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

20) Even though he thought the Army Reserve's short hair regulation was silly, Ted really wanted the extra money Reserve duty provided to him, so he kept his hair short. This is an example of a. conformity. b. reactance. c. private acceptance. d. a role. Answer: a Page Reference: 545 21) The technique used for studying conformity was developed by a. Festinger. b. Asch. c. Lewin. d. Thorndike. Answer: b Page Reference: 545 22) A very cohesive group, insulated from outside opinion, with a respected leader, must make a decision quickly. As they deliberate, this group should be especially aware of the phenomenon called a. deindividuation. b. social facilitation. c. groupthink. d. group polarization. Answer: c Page Reference: 544 23) When a group exerts such strong pressure to conform that it prevents people from expressing critical ideas, the group is suffering from __________. a. groupthink b. polarization c. risky shift d. deindividuation Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

Answer: a Page Reference: 544 24) Failure to critically evaluate ideas when concern is for reaching agreement is called _________. a. group polarization b. social comparison c. groupthink d. deindividuation Answer: c Page Reference: 544 25) Which of the following conditions is conducive to creating a groupthink effect? a. the illusion of disagreement b. a weak leader c. failing to critically evaluate ideas d. members who do not like each other Answer: c Page Reference: 545 Objective: Module 13.1 26) Groupthink can be avoided by a. having a strong leader. b. inviting outsiders to give their opinions. c. striving for a consensus among members. d. having bright, well-informed members. Answer: b Page Reference: 547 27) What is the tendency to make internal attributions when we succeed and external attributions when we fail? a. self-attribution error b. fundamental attribution error Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

c. self-serving bias d. actor-observer bias Answer: c Page Reference: 562 28) Research has indicated that when we set the stage for the self-fulfilling prophecy, we are _____________ that behaviour. a. observing b. criticizing c. guiding d. evaluating Answer: c Page Reference: 561 29) The fundamental attribution error refers to a. people's tendencies to ignore situational causes of behaviour and favour internal explanations. b. people's tendencies to ignore internal causes of behaviour and favour external explanations. c. people's tendencies to deal with someone else's behaviour without trying to figure out what made them behave that way. d. people's tendencies to go along with the majority opinion in deciding what caused an event rather than reasoning it out for themselves. Answer: a Page Reference: 563 30) The tendency to give too much emphasis to personal factors when accounting for other people's actions is called _______. a. the primacy effect b. defensive attribution c. fundamental attribution error d. the just world hypothesis Answer: c Page Reference: 563 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

31) The fundamental attribution error is based on the a. confirmatory bias. b. need to believe that one can control one's fate. c. basic distrust that we have of other humans. d. need to accurately detect causes of behaviour. Answer: d Page Reference: 563 32) Over-simplified generalizations about the characteristics of a group are called a. prejudices. b. stereotypes. c. biases. d. discrimination. Answer: b Page Reference: 565 33) _______ puts people into categories with each category having its own set of characteristics. a. Stereotyping b. Prejudice c. Discrimination d. Bias Answer: a Page Reference: 565 Objective: Module 13.2 34) Stereotypes can easily become the basis for ________. a. primary drives b. negating the primacy effect c. self-fulfilling prophecies d. the development of unifying traits

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

Answer: c Page Reference: 561 35) Which of the following phenomena usually involves an excessively negative, overgeneralized assumption about a socially defined category of people? a. self-fulfilling prophecy b. confirmation bias c. attitude d. stereotype Answer: d Page Reference: 565 36) The notion that ”mental patients are dangerous” is an example of a(n) a. self-fulfilling prophecy. b. confirmation bias. c. attitude. d. stereotype. Answer: d Page Reference: 565 37) Which of the following is a negative, often aggressive behaviour aimed at the target of prejudice? a. stereotypes b. bias c. discrimination d. reactance Answer: c Page Reference: 565 38) According to research, prejudice is reduced when people must a. come into contact with one another. b. change their attitudes and behaviours. c. cooperate with one another to achieve a goal. d. live together. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

Answer: c Page Reference: 569 39) Prejudice differs from discrimination in that it is a. unjustified. b. a behaviour. c. an attitude. d. negative. Answer: c Page Reference: 565 40) Discrimination differs from prejudice in that it is a. unjustified. b. a behaviour. c. an attitude. d. negative. Answer: b Page Reference: 565 41) People won't help when there are many bystanders due to a. of diffusion of responsibility. b. people are egoistic. c. people like to see others hurt. d. people are not altruistic. Answer: a Page Reference: 551 42) According to research, the larger the group, the a. safer you are. b. more likely you are to receive help. c. more likely you are to give assistance. d. less likely you are to give or receive help. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

Answer: d Page Reference: 550–551 43) If a person sees a victim in dire need, but doesn't know how to help, that person will most likely a. stay with the victim. b. do nothing. c. go for help. d. attempt to offer first aid. Answer: b Page Reference: 549–551 44) Which scenario best demonstrates the fundamental attribution error? a. Dorothy thinks that a coworker is late because he overslept. Correct: The fundamental attribution error occurs when someone assumes that other people make mistakes because of personal, rather than situational, factors. b. Craig thinks that his classmate must have gotten a poor grade on an exam because the exam was too difficult. c. Blanche believes that the driver of the speeding vehicle must be responding to an emergency situation. d. Tom laughs at a friend who trips over a shoe because she falls in such a dramatic way. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 563, Module 13.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination. 45) In which scenario would an individual be most likely to conform by giving the same response as the confederates? a. 12 confederates give the same answer and one confederate provides the correct response. b. 8 confederates give the same answer and one provides a different but also incorrect response. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

c. 4 confederates give the same answer and all of the responses are the same. Correct: A larger number of confederates who agree is more likely to lead to conformity. d. 2 confederates give the same answer and one provides another answer that is incorrect. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 545, Module 13.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand why individuals conform to others’ behaviours. 46) In 1986, the space shuttle Challenger was launched despite warnings of danger from NASA engineers that parts might malfunction due to weather conditions. Which concept best characterizes the decision to go ahead with the launch? a. conformity b. groupthink Correct: Groupthink occurs when decisions are made while ignoring “outsider” opinions. c. obedience d. group polarization Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 544, Module 13.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand why individuals conform to others’ behaviours. 47) What did Milgram discover through his classic studies on obedience? a. Obedience decreases as the psychological distance between teacher and experimenter increases. Correct: Statement of fact. b. Obedience increases as the psychological distance between teacher and learner decreases. c. Obedience decreases as the psychological distance between the teacher and learner increases.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

d. Obedience increases as the psychological distance between teacher and experimenter increases. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 554, Module 13.1 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand why individuals conform to others’ behaviour. 48) As the number of people present during an emergency increases, what can be predicted about the likelihood that any one individual will help? a. It will increase substantially. b. It will increase minimally. c. It will decrease. Correct: This is the definition of the bystander effect. d. It will remain unchanged. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 551, Module 13.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of the bystander effect to ensure that you will be helped if you are in an emergency. 49) Stereotype is to _____________ as prejudice is to _____________ as discrimination is to _____________. a. attitude; belief; behaviour b. belief; behaviour; attitude c. attitude; behaviour; belief d. belief; attitude; behaviour Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

Page Reference: 565, Module 13.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination. 50) Freire did very poorly on his last arithmetic test. The tendency to make the fundamental attribution error might lead his sixth-grade teacher to conclude that Freire did poorly because a. he is unmotivated to do well in school. Correct: The teacher blaming Freire (the individual) instead of the situation is characteristic of the fundamental attribution error. b. the test covered material that had not been adequately covered in class. c. his parents had an argument that evening before the test. d. he was not given enough time to complete the test. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 563, Module 13.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. 51) Colin and Erin are waiting to meet with their caterer so that they can discuss the menu for their wedding. The caterer is thirty minutes late and still hasn’t arrived. Colin suggests the caterer is probably delayed because of traffic. Colin’s attribution can be characterized as a a. personal attribution. b. situational attribution. Correct: When a person feels situational factors are influencing events, that person is said to be making a situational attribution. c. counterfactual attribution. d. correspondent attribution. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 562, Module 13.2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. 52) Most people are likely to be surprised by the results of Milgram’s initial obedience experiment because a. the “learners” made so few learning errors under stressful circumstances. b. the “teachers” actually enjoyed shocking another person. c. the “teachers” were more obedient than most people would have predicted. Correct: In Milgram’s experiment, the teachers believed they were giving painful shocks (which did not really exist) to learners. The obedience of the teachers was surprising. d. the “learners” obediently accepted painful shocks without any protest. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 553, Module 13.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviour. 53) When 12-year-old Jack saw an old man lying on the sidewalk in apparent discomfort, he prepared to offer help. But when he noticed several adults walk past the man, he concluded that the man did not need any help. His reaction most clearly illustrates one of the dynamics involved in a. the mere exposure effect. b. the fundamental attribution error. c. social loafing. d. the bystander effect. Correct: When a person is in a crowd, he or she is less likely to help someone in need than when he or she is alone. This is known as the bystander effect. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 549, Module 13.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of the bystander effect to ensure that you will be helped if you are in an emer Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

54) During a Girl Scout picnic, Lavinia was randomly selected to be on one baseball team and Carla on the opposing team. Before the game started, both Lavinia and Carla were convinced that their own team was the better one. The girls' reactions best illustrate a. the fundamental attribution error. b. deindividuation. c. the reciprocity norm. d. ingroup bias. Correct: The ingroup bias is the tendency of a person to see the group they belong to as superior. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 563, Module 13.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. 55) When 68-year-old Mrs. Blake had a flat tire on a fairly isolated highway, she received help from a passerby in less than 10 minutes. One year later, she had a flat tire on a busy freeway and an hour elapsed before someone finally stopped to offer assistance. Mrs. Blake's experience best illustrates a. the fundamental attribution error. b. the mere exposure effect. c. group polarization. d. the bystander effect. Correct: When a person is in a crowd she or he is less likely to help someone in need than when she or he is alone. This is known as the bystander effect. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 549, Module 13.1 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of the bystander effect to ensure that you will be helped if you are in an emer

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

1) The obedience research conducted by Stanley Milgram is one of the most famous psychological studies ever conducted. Explain, in detail, the method that Milgram used in the basic version of his study. What were the results? Answer: Participants are told the study is about the effects of punishment on memory. They, and the other participant (who is actually a confederate, although the real participants don’t know that), a friendly middle-aged man, draw slips of paper in order to determine who will play the role of ‘teacher’ and who will be the ‘learner.’ The draw is rigged so that the real subjects are always the teacher (but again, they don’t know that). The teacher’s job is to read a series of word pairs to the learner, and then to test him on his memory of the word pairs. The learner will be in a separate room hooked up to an electric shock machine. Each time the learner gets an answer wrong, the teacher is to administer a shock, by flipping a switch on a panel in front of him, and increasing the voltage after each wrong answer. The switches go up by 15 volts until reaching a maximum of 450 volts, which is labeled “xxx”. This process is watched by an “experimenter” wearing a lab coat As the experiment progresses, the learner starts to make sounds of discomfort in the other room, grunting audibly as he is shocked. By 150 volts he is protesting loudly and saying that he no longer wants to continue in the study. If the subjects continue reading the word pairs and increasing the shock level, the learner gets to the point of screaming in pain, demanding and pleading, over and over again, to be let out, pleading that he can’t take it anymore, even that his heart condition is bothering him and his heart is acting up. And then, at 330 volts, the learner falls silent and gives no further responses. If subjects still continue at this point, they are informed by the experimenter that a non-response is to be considered “wrong,” and the punishing shock administered. If, at any point, subjects express concern for the learner, or say that they don’t want to continue, the experimenter simply says a few stock responses, such as “Please continue” or, “The experiment requires that you continue.” Milgram’s results were astounding… every single participant continued to administer ‘shocks’ after this point in the experiment. The command of the authority figure was so compelling they could not say no. Although Milgram was able to reduce the obedience rates by having the experimenter wear street clothes, doing the experiment in a warehouse, and having the orders delivered over the telephone, people still obeyed the experimenter even when they believed they were harming other people. Page Reference: 553–555

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

2) Explain the concept of implicit prejudice and how it differs from explicit prejudice. Then describe how Implicit Associations Test (IAT) is used by some researchers to measure implicit prejudice. What is a critique of the IAT? Answer: EXPLICIT PREJUDICE is a prejudicial feeling that a person is willing to state outright. IMPLICIT PREJUDICE are feelings that we may not be willing to admit we have but that nonetheless affect our behaviour. The implicit associations test (IAT) is an attempt to view implicit prejudice. In this test, individuals are asked to make speedy responses in different conditions. In one condition they may press the button on the right if they see a Caucasian face or a positive word (like “happy”) and press the left key when they see an African-American face or a negative word (such as “danger”). In other trials this is reversed. Researchers compare response times for the different types of trials and generally find that response times when a positive word and African-American face use the same key are SLOWER than when a negative word and an African-American face use the same key. This supposedly shows that people have trouble pairing African-American and positive views and demonstrates implicit prejudice. Although the data gathered with this instrument show reliable results, some psychologists have questioned the test’s validity: Is the IAT really a measure of prejudice? Or is it possible that the IAT is merely measuring the extent to which people have been exposed to negative stereotypes, but have not necessarily developed prejudices? After all, simply knowing about a stereotype does not mean an individual believes it. Page Reference: 566–568

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology 1. In Solomon Asch’s famous experiment in which participants were asked to visually judge the length of lines, why did many participants give the incorrect answer at least part of the time? a. The lines were too close in length to accurately judge their relative lengths. b. The participants conformed their answers to those offered by others in the room. c. The participants were hoping to stand out as unique. d. The participants were intentionally trying to sabotage the study. Answer: B Module 13.1 2. When making a difficult decision, group members sometimes strive for agreement so as to avoid arguments, a phenomenon known as _____. a. social loafing b. obedience c. social facilitation d. groupthink Answer: D Module 13.1 3. Approximately what percentage of participants delivered the maximum possible shock in Milgram’s obedience study? a. 0% b. 6% c. 15% d. 65% Answer: D Module 13.1 4. Kyle is an independent filmmaker who has always believed that big Hollywood movies are garbage. Recently, however, he agreed to work on a big-budget Hollywood movie because the pay was very good. Now he tells his friends, “Not all Hollywood movies are that bad.” Kyle’s change in attitude is likely the result of _____. a. cognitive dissonance b. conformity c. groupthink d. group polarization Answer: A Module 13.1 5. The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to attribute the actions of others to _____, while ignoring the role of _____. a. ingroup factors; outgroup factors b. outgroup factors; ingroup factors c. their disposition; the situation d. the situation; their disposition Answer: C Module 13.2 6. Conceptually, _____ is the opposite of the fundamental attribution error. a. cognitive dissonance b. the self-fulfilling prophecy c. outgroup bias d. self-serving bias Answer: D Module 13.2

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology 7. Which of the following is a criticism of the Implicit Associations Test (IAT)? a. The IAT may measure only familiarity with a stereotype, not actual prejudice. b. The IAT actually measures explicit prejudice, not implicit prejudice. c. The IAT is not reliable when subjects are retested. d. Subjects can change their responses to make themselves appear less prejudiced. Answer: A Module 13.2

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

1) The guidelines for how to behave in social contexts are called a. social cognitions. b. social roles. c. social norms. d. conformities. Correct: Social norms are the (usually unwritten) guidelines for how to behave in social contexts. Norms include everything from the little nuances of public behaviour and the manners we use in polite company, to the topics that are appropriate for conversation and the types of clothing deemed appropriate. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 542 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

2) Doni enters an elevator and stands in it facing the back instead of turning around to face the elevator door. Doni is violating a. her gender role. b. a social role. c. a social norm. d. a stereotype. Correct: Social norms are the (usually unwritten) guidelines for how to behave in social contexts. Norms include everything from the little nuances of public behaviour and the manners we use in polite company, to the topics that are appropriate for conversation and the types of clothing deemed appropriate. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 540 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

3) Some behaviours, such as cursing and wearing revealing clothing are acceptable in some social contexts, but are considered unacceptable in other situations, such as in a business office. Which of the following explains why this is the case? a. Social norms only apply to social contexts with written guidelines for behaviour, for example, the workplace. b. Many social norms are specific to a social context. c. Social norms vary from person to person and are not related to the social context. d. Social norms only exist for major societal issues, such as theft and murder; there are no social norms for trivial behaviours such as cursing or appropriate dress. Correct: Social norms are the (usually unwritten) guidelines for how to behave in social contexts. Norms include everything from the little nuances of public behaviour and the manners we use in polite company, to the topics that are appropriate for conversation and the types of clothing deemed appropriate. Many social norms are specific to certain contexts, such as the workplace, or even a particular university. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 540 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

4) Drill instructors in the military often yell at new recruits and try to humiliate them. In contrast, this behaviour would never be tolerated from a kindergarten teacher, who is expected to be patient and nurturing. The behaviour of both drill instructors and kindergarten teachers are examples of a. social roles. b. conformity. c. obedience. d. social norms. Correct: Social roles are specific sets of behaviours that are associated with a position within a group. In contrast, social norms are general rules that apply to situations, not specific positions or roles within a group. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 551 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

5) Daniel's friends would probably describe him as easy going and a bit of a jokester. However, after becoming a police officer, Daniel feels that he is expected to be serious and strict. Daniel is feeling pressure to conform his behaviour to the ______________ of police officer. a. norm b. prejudice c. groupthink d. social role Correct: Social roles are specific sets of behaviours that are associated with a position within a group. In contrast, social norms are general rules that apply to situations, not specific positions or roles within a group. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 551 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

6) While __________ are general rules that apply to members of a group, ___________ are guidelines that apply to specific positions within the group. a. conformity rules; obedience rules b. obedience rules; conformity rules c. social roles; social norms d. social norms; social roles Correct: Social roles are specific sets of behaviours that are associated with a position within a group. In contrast, social norms are general rules that apply to situations, not specific positions or roles within a group. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

Page Reference: 540, 551 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

7) In the Stanford Prison Study, male college students agreed to participate in a two-week experiment to discover what would happen when they took on the roles of prisoners and guards. The researchers found that a. within a short time the prisoners became distressed and panicky, developing emotional symptoms and stress-related illnesses. b. about five percent of the guards became tyrannical, giving the prisoners electric shocks when they were slow in obeying. c. 90 percent of the guards tried to be "tough but fair" and demanded that the tyrannical guards lighten up on the prisoners because it was only an experiment. d. the study was conducted in an unused wing of a real prison; therefore, the realistic atmosphere enhanced the role behaviour of prisoners and guards. Correct: In the Stanford Prison Study, student participants were randomly assigned to be either prisoners or guards. Despite their inherent similarities to the prisoners, the guards either became brutal and callous or simply stood by while others did the dirty work. At the same time, most prisoners acquiesced and passively accepted the brutal treatment. Many also exhibited stress-related symptoms including screaming, crying, and stressrelated illnesses. The experiment took place in the basement of the psychology building. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 551–553 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether guards who participate in abuse are inherently bad people, or if their behaviour is the product of social influences.

8) What does the Stanford prison study tell us about the relationship between social roles and behaviour? a. People who are naturally aggressive and authoritarian seek out social roles that allow them to behave in this way. b. "Good" people will refuse to behave according to the norms of a social role if they are required to be harsh or abusive to other people.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

c. When people are placed in social roles with a lot of power, their behaviour often changes to fit their new role. d. Inmates naturally take on different social roles in a prison, with some becoming aggressive and authoritarian, while others become passive and submissive. Correct: In the Stanford Prison Study, student participants were randomly assigned to be either prisoners or guards. Despite their inherent similarities to the prisoners, the guards either became brutal and callous or simply stood by while others did the dirty work. At the same time, most prisoners acquiesced and passively accepted the brutal treatment. This indicates that randomly placing individuals in a powerful social role can have a dramatic effect on their behaviour. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 551–553 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether guards who participate in abuse are inherently bad people, or if their behaviour is the product of social influences.

9) The Stanford Prison Study demonstrates how a person's _______________ affects behaviour. a. social role b. values c. beliefs d. past experience Correct: In the Stanford Prison experiment, student participants were randomly assigned to be either prisoners or guards. Despite their inherent similarities to the prisoners, the guards either became brutal and callous or simply stood by while others did the dirty work. At the same time, most prisoners acquiesced and passively accepted the brutal treatment. This indicates that randomly placing individuals in different social roles can have a dramatic effect on their behaviour. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 551–553 Skill: Conceptual

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

Objective: Analyze whether guards who participate in abuse are inherently bad people, or if their behaviour is the product of social influences.

10) What actual event could have been predicted based on the results of Zimbardo's classic prisoner study at Stanford University? a. the prison break at Attica prison in New York b. the events in Waco, Texas, in which followers of a cult were killed by government agents c. the events at Abu Gharib prison in Iraq d. the attacks on the World Trade Center on September 11, 2001 Correct: Many people have drawn a direct connection between the Stanford Prison experiment and the prisoner abuse scandal at Abu Ghraib. American soldiers were put in a prison and told to guard the prisoners. Without the appropriate supervision and instructions, even mild-mannered, good-natured people can do cruel and terrible things to others. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 553 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether guards who participate in abuse are inherently bad people, or if their behaviour is the product of social influences.

11) When individuals find themselves in new situations where they are uncertain of how to behave, they often copy the behaviours of others, a strategy known as a. mimicry. b. obedience. c. groupthink. d. parodying. Correct: Mimicry occurs when one person copies another's behaviour. It can be a very useful skill when an individual is unsure of how to behave, but others present do know how to behave. Answer: a Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 540 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

12) Wilhelm doesn't follow sports, but he agrees to go to a football game with a friend. Because he is unfamiliar with the rules, Wilhelm watches the other spectators around him carefully to see when they clap, stand, cheer, and boo and then copies their behaviour. Which strategy is Wilhelm using? a. groupthink. b. parodying. c. mimicry. d. obedience. Correct: Mimicry occurs when one person copies another's behaviour. It can be a very useful skill when an individual is unsure of how to behave, but others present do know how to behave. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 540 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

13) The chameleon effect occurs when individuals a. unconsciously copy the behaviour of those around them for no apparent reason. b. try to avoid social situations by disappearing into the background and avoiding being noticed. c. pretend to occupy a social role that is not their own. d. change the colour scheme of their clothing to match the clothing of those of the most popular people in their group. Correct: The chameleon effect occurs when individuals mimic another's behaviour without meaning to or knowing that they are doing it. Furthermore, the imitated behaviour usually does not have any apparent use; it is as if it "just happens."

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Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 541 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

14) Ginger's new roommate tends to wink a lot at the end of sentences to indicate that she is joking. After living together for a few weeks, Ginger unconsciously begins to wink when she makes a joke. This is an example of a. cognitive dissonance. b. the chameleon effect. c. social facilitation. d. groupthink. Correct: The chameleon effect occurs when individuals mimic another's behaviour without meaning to or knowing that they are doing it. Furthermore, the imitated behaviour usually does not have any apparent use; it is as if it "just happens." Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 541 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

15) According to your textbook, one of the situations that produces more mimicry than others is when an individual a. is hanging out with old friends. b. is not interested in how others perceive them. c. dislikes the person they are imitating. d. wants to make a good impression. Correct: We are more likely to mimic others when we need to make a good impression, want to be liked, or want to be part of an "ingroup." Answer: d Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 541 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

16) In general, when an individual mimics aspects of the behaviour of another, the imitator tends to be ___________by the imitated person. a. viewed unfavourably b. ignored c. viewed favourably d. asked to stop Correct: In general, the person who is being imitated usually ends up with a favourable view of the imitator. Some observers have even dubbed mimicry the "social glue" that binds groups together. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 541 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

17) Imitating the behaviour of one individual is called _____________, whereas changing your behaviour to fit in with a group is called _____________. a. mimicry; conformity b. conformity; mimicry c. obedience; conformity d. conformity; obedience Correct: Mimicry occurs when one person copies another's behaviour. The study of mimicry is all about how we are influenced by a single individual. In contrast, conformity refers to a change in behaviour to fit in with a group. Answer: a Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 540, 542 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

18) Which of the following is true about conformity? a. Conformity is often a conscious decision. b. Conformity is always caused by the desire to be liked by others. c. Conformity cannot be studied in the laboratory. d. People tend to be less likely to conform when responses are made publically. Correct: Conformity refers to a change in behaviour to fit in with a group. Conformity can be—and often is—a conscious decision. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 546 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand why individuals conform to others’ behaviours.

19) You get on an elevator. Everyone is facing to the right. You turn and also face to the right. This is an example of a. obedience. b. comparison. c. attribution. d. conformity. Correct: Conformity refers to a change in behaviour to fit in with a group. In contrast, obedience involves complying with instructions or orders from an individual who is in a position of authority. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 545

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Skill: Applied Objective: Understand why individuals conform to others’ behaviours.

20) In the experiments conducted by Solomon Asch, what was the main task that subjects had to perform? a. pretend they were prison guards b. selecting line sizes c. plunge their hands into buckets of water that were either ice cold or scalding hot d. deliver electric shocks to helpless victims Correct: One of the first scientific studies of conformity was performed by Solomon Asch. In it, participants were asked to identify which of several "comparison lines" was equal in length to a "standard line." Asch found that many participants would choose an obviously incorrect answer if they heard other people choosing that answer. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 545 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand why individuals conform to others’ behaviours.

21) Solomon Asch set up an experiment in which eight people were shown a 10-inch line and then had to choose the line that matched it in length from a choice of three other lines. Through this experiment, Asch was studying a. bystander apathy. b. social loafing. c. groupthink. d. conformity. Correct: One of the first scientific studies of conformity was performed by Solomon Asch. In it, participants were asked to identify which of several "comparison lines" was equal in length to a "standard line." Asch found that many participants would choose an obviously incorrect answer if they heard other people choosing that answer. Answer: d Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 545 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

22) If you're like ___ percent of participants in the original Asch study, you would conform to the incorrect norm on at least once during testing. a. 45 b. 55 c. 65 d. 75 Correct: In Asch's research, approximately 75% of these perfectly intelligent participants conformed to the group and gave the wrong answer at least once during the testing, and approximately 25% conformed regularly. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 545 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand why individuals conform to others’ behaviours.

23) When an individual, who is part of a larger group, puts forth less effort than other group members, ________ occurs. a. cognitive dissonance b. social loafing c. conformity d. the bystander effect Correct: Social loafing occurs when an individual working as part of a group or team reduces his or her effort. The individual may or may not be aware that he or she is loafing, but the behaviour affects the group process nonetheless. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 543 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

24) You and your group have had four weeks to complete a group project for your economics class. You are now four days away from the due date, and you and one other group member have been putting in all of the time and effort. The other two members come occasionally to group meetings and do the minimal work required. This unfortunate situation is known as a. social facilitation. b. groupthink. c. social loafing. d. social referencing. Correct: Social loafing occurs when an individual working as part of a group or team reduces his or her effort. The individual may or may not be aware that he or she is loafing, but the behaviour affects the group process nonetheless. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 543 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

25) A group member is more likely to engage in social loafing if he or she believes that a. the other group members are trying very hard. b. his or her performance will not make a difference to the group's performance. c. the group will receive a large reward for good performance. d. his or her effort is critical to the overall performance of the group. Correct: Social loafing occurs when an individual working as part of a group or team reduces his or her effort. Social loafing is more common when group members believe that 1) their effort will not help their performance, 2) their performance will not make a difference to the group's performance, 3) the group may get rewarded but it won't matter to them, and 4) no one else is trying very hard.

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Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 543 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

26) What is the term for an improvement in performance caused by the perception that others are watching? a. social loafing b. social idleness c. social facilitation d. social productivity Correct: Social facilitation occurs when an individual's performance is better in the presence of others than when alone. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 543 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

27) Marco has been running each afternoon trying to beat his college's record for the 400metre sprint. Despite all his practising, he hasn't been able to come in under his usual time. There's a big fan turnout for the track meet on Saturday against the rival school and Marco not only beats the old record, but far surpasses it. Marco's behaviour illustrates a. social facilitation. b. social compensation. c. social loafing. d. the bystander effect. Correct: Social facilitation occurs when an individual's performance is better in the presence of others than when alone. Answer: a Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 543 Skill: Applied Objective: UNDERSTAND how individuals and ggroups can influence behaviours.

28) Social facilitation is most likely to occur when individuals a. have had relatively little practice. b. are alone. c. are novices. d. have mastered the task they are performing. Correct: Social facilitation occurs when an individual's performance is better in the presence of others than when alone. As a general rule, the presence of others is most likely to lead to social facilitation when a person is prepared for a task. That is, when individuals have mastered a task, the audience helps, whereas for novices, having an audience can actually hurt performance. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 543–544 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

29) Which of the following is a decision-making problem in which group members avoid arguments and strive for agreement? a. deindividuation b. social loafing c. obedience d. groupthink Correct: This is the definition of groupthink. Answer: d Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 544 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

30) Which of the following statements is most likely to contribute to groupthink? a. ”Let's hear some differing opinions.” b. ”What do you think?” c. ”I'm sure we all agree on this.” d. ”We need to look at all of the evidence.” Correct: Laboratory research has shown that when groupthink occurs, there is almost always a strong or "directive" leader—specifically, an individual who suppresses dissenters and encourages the group to consider fewer alternative ideas. In this example, "I'm sure we all agree on this," suggests to group members that they should all be in agreement, even if they are not. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 544 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

31) ________ can occur when individuals who are part of a group focus on preserving group solidarity at the expense of considering all possible alternatives or even failing to use rational thought in the process. a. Social facilitation b. Groupthink c. Social loafing d. Group polarization Correct: Groupthink is a decision-making process in which group members avoid arguments and strive for agreement. Answer: b Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 544 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

32) A group of chemists, who have been working together on a new diet pill for the last four years, meet to discuss their new drug. Over the years, they have all come to respect each other and have formed a close bond. Upon discussing the effectiveness and safety of the diet pill, many members of the group found themselves agreeing with most of the comments that were made. Somewhere along the way, no one seemed to pay much attention to the fact that some of the subjects in the clinical trials of that drug became ill. It seemed that because nobody wanted to disrespect anyone else, the topic of ill subjects was dropped. What psychological phenomenon occurred here? a. social facilitation b. group polarization c. groupthink d. social loafing Correct: Groupthink is a decision-making problem in which group members avoid arguments and strive for agreement. Groupthink is more likely to occur in a highly cohesive group, such as in this example. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 544 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

33) Complying with instructions or orders from an individual who is in a position of authority is called a. mimicry. b. conformity. c. groupthink. d. obedience. Correct: This is the definition of obedience.

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Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 553–554 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

34) What did Milgram study? a. the authoritarian personality b. bystander apathy c. the effects of watching violence on television d. obedience to authority Correct: Psychologist Stanley Milgram conducted what is now known as a classic study on obedience. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 553 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

35) _______ found that normal people in normal times will often follow orders to hurt innocent people. a. Solomon Asch b. Kurt Lewin c. Carolyn Sherif d. Stanley Milgram Correct: Psychologist Stanley Milgram conducted what is now known as a classic study on obedience. He found that 65 percent of participants would deliver what they believed to be the maximum electric shock possible to another person if instructed to do so by the experimenter. Answer: d Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 554 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

36) Before Stanley Milgram conducted his study on obedience, he asked a number of psychiatrists and psychologists how many people would go all the way to the highest voltage under the instructions of the authority. Milgram found that a. The experts accurately predicted that about 45 percent of the participants would inflict what they thought were dangerous amounts of shock. b. The experts accurately predicted that about 25 percent of the participants would inflict what they thought were dangerous amounts of shock. c. The experts greatly underestimated how many participants would inflict what they thought were dangerous amounts of shock. d. The experts greatly overestimated how many participants would inflict what they thought were dangerous amounts of shock. Correct: Before the original experiments, a group of experts—psychiatrists and psychologists—estimated that only a small percentage of the population would obey the psychologist's instructions to continue with the experiment and administer the shocks. Despite this prediction, almost everyone in Milgram's study—more than 75% of the participants—continued administering the shocks past the points where the participant screamed and begged to leave the study. Sixty-five percent continued to increase the shocks until they reached 450 volts—the highest amount possible. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 554 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

37) About _______________ of all participants in Milgram's study administered the highest level of shock to the learner. a. 90% b. 25%

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c. 50% d. 65% Correct: Sixty-five percent of participants in Milgram's original study continued to increase the shocks until they reached 450 volts—the highest amount possible. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 554 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

38) When Milgram and his team set up several variations of his original study, they found that people were more likely to disobey when a. the experimenter wore a white lab coat instead of street clothes. b. a confederate acting as another teacher refused to comply. c. a second experimenter agreed the experiment should continue. d. the experimenter appeared to be an authority figure. Correct: Milgram tested several factors which increased or decreased obedience. Witnessing another teacher refuse to administer a shock decreased the likelihood that the participant would comply. In contrast, anything that strengthened the experimenter's authority, such as wearing a white lab coat, increased the rate of compliance. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 555 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

39) William is a police officer who is instructed by a superior officer to beat a subject in order to obtain a confession. According to research done on obedience, William is more likely to disobey this order if a. the superior officer is in the room with William and the suspect. b. another senior officer agrees that William should beat the subject.

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c. the suspect asks William to stop. d. William sees another police officer refuse to continue beating the subject. Correct: In Milgram's famous obedience studies, when the participant worked with a "coteacher" who refused to comply, he or she often gained the courage to disobey. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 555 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

40) A social psychologist has been invited to give a community lecture on the importance of Milgram's research. He asks a social psychology class for suggested titles. Which of the following titles might they suggest as the most appropriate? a. "Obedience and Aggression Are Inborn" b. "Do Not Underestimate the Power of Perceived Authority" c. "Training in Ethics Can Overcome the Pull of Obedience" d. "Make a Small Request First and the World Can Be Yours" Correct: Milgram found that the perceived authority of the experimenter in his famous studies was a key factor in why participants agreed to continue shocking the learner, even if they did not want to continue. When Milgram preformed manipulations to weaken the perceived authority of the experimenter, the rate of compliance decreased. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 553–556 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

41) Which statement best describes an important finding of Milgram's classic research? a. Individuals easily conform to group norms. b. The presence of other people makes aggression more likely. c. People will easily obey an authority figure and do harm to others. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 13: Social Psychology

d. Agreeing to a small request makes it more likely you will agree to a big request. Correct: Milgram found that participants would continue to deliver potentially dangerous electric shocks if instructed to do so by an experimenter, even if they did not wish to do so. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 554 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

42) _____________ occurs when members of a group discuss characteristic attitudes of their group and, as a result, their views become stronger. a. Social facilitation b. Ingroup bias c. Groupthink d. Social loafing Correct: Ingroup bias occurs when members of a group discuss characteristic attitudes of their group and, as a result, their views become stronger. When this happens in two competing groups, their opinions become polarized, meaning that the two groups become further apart in their opinions. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 563 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

43) The phenomenon of ________________ explains why meetings between proponents and opponents of an idea often ends with participants having more extreme opinions on the issue than they did before the meeting. a. social facilitation b. groupthink

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c. ingroup bias d. social loafing Correct: Ingroup bias occurs when members of a group discuss characteristic attitudes of their group and, as a result, their views become stronger. When this happens in two competing groups, their opinions become polarized, meaning that the two groups become further apart in their opinions. In contrast, groupthink is a phenomenon that leads to greater agreement within a group. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 563 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours.

44) When we experience an unpleasant state of tension between two or more conflicting thoughts, we are experiencing a. a self-fulfilling prophecy. b. obedience. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. cognitive dissonance. Correct: Cognitive dissonance occurs when an individual has two thoughts (cognitions) that are inconsistent with each other (dissonance) and, as a result, experiences motivation to reduce the discrepancy. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 580 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory.

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b. justification of effort c. cognitive dissonance d. self determinism Correct: Cognitive dissonance occurs when an individual has two thoughts (cognitions) that are inconsistent with each other (dissonance) and, as a result, experiences motivation to reduce the discrepancy. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 580 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory.

46) Cognitive dissonance is a. a state of tension that occurs when a person simultaneously holds two cognitions that are psychologically inconsistent. b. the tendency of members of a group to avoid taking responsibility for their actions because they assume that others will do so. c. the tendency for members of a close-knit group to think alike for the sake of harmony and to suppress disagreement. d. a belief that a statement is true just because the person has heard it repeated over and over again. Correct: Cognitive dissonance occurs when an individual has two thoughts (cognitions) that are inconsistent with each other (dissonance) and, as a result, experiences motivation to reduce the discrepancy. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 580 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory

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47) When an individual's attitudes do not match up with his/her behaviours, ________ is likely to occur. a. compliance b. discrimination c. cognitive dissonance d. prejudice Correct: Cognitive dissonance occurs when an individual has two thoughts (cognitions) that are inconsistent with each other (dissonance) and, as a result, experiences motivation to reduce the discrepancy. This can occur when an action or behaviour is in conflict with an attitude, such as a smoker believing that smoking is unhealthy. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 580 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory.

48) Even though Jane thought it was wrong to take from others, she didn't want to be rejected by her peers, so she began shoplifting along with them. Jane probably experienced ___________ when she stole. a. the fundamental attribution error b. reactance c. central route change d. cognitive dissonance Correct: Cognitive dissonance occurs when an individual has two thoughts (cognitions) that are inconsistent with each other (dissonance) and, as a result, experiences motivation to reduce the discrepancy. This can occur when an action or behaviour is in conflict with an attitude. In this example, Jane believes stealing is wrong, but shoplifts anyway. This would cause cognitive dissonance. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 580–583 Skill: Applied

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Objective: Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory.

49) Representative Jansen, a U.S. congresswoman, believes in the reproductive rights and welfare of women but voted to ban late-term abortions. Jansen feels very uneasy about the conflict between her beliefs and her behaviour. She is most likely experiencing a. fundamental attribution. b. cognitive resolution. c. cognitive dissonance. d. the fundamental attribution error. Correct: Cognitive dissonance occurs when an individual has two thoughts (cognitions) that are inconsistent with each other (dissonance) and, as a result, experiences motivation to reduce the discrepancy. This can occur when an action or behaviour is in conflict with an attitude. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 580–583 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory.

50) When she is not at the bar, Jayla preaches to everyone about the dangers of smoking. However, she does smoke an occasional cigarette when she is at the bar with her friends, although at those times she feels somewhat frustrated by her own smoking behaviour. Jayla is likely experiencing ________ when she smokes. a. groupthink b. cognitive dissonance c. social facilitation d. compliance Correct: Cognitive dissonance occurs when an individual has two thoughts (cognitions) that are inconsistent with each other (dissonance) and, as a result, experiences motivation to reduce the discrepancy. This can occur when an action or behaviour is in conflict with an attitude, such as a smoker believing that smoking is unhealthy.

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 580 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory.

51) In 1954, Marian Keech convinced her followers that aliens from planet Clarion had sent her a message that the world was coming to an end on December 21, but that they could be saved. When the world did not come to an end, Mrs. Keech and many of her followers reduced cognitive dissonance by a. deciding that the aliens had been pulling a practical joke on them. b. deciding that their efforts had been justified and had spared the planet. c. trying to bring about the end of the world on their own by encouraging the U.S. President to start World War III. d. using logical analysis to realize that they had been mistaken. Correct: When Ms. Keech's prediction failed, there was tension between the knowledge that they had invested so much in the prophecy and yet the prophecy was not correct. Ms. Keech and many of her followers reduced the cognitive dissonance through justification of effort, telling themselves that their efforts were justified because those efforts prevented the end of the world. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 580–581 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory.

52) Darnel believes very strongly that large corporations are evil and are destroying America. One day, however, a large corporation releases a new tablet computer that Darnel runs out to buy. When asked about his purchase of a product made by a large corporation, Darnel says, "Well, I suppose not all corporations are evil." Darnel's change in attitude is likely an attempt to a. reduce cognitive dissonance.

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b. avoid making the fundamental attribution error. c. avoid group polarization. d. use the door-in-face technique. Correct: Cognitive dissonance occurs when an individual has two thoughts (cognitions) that are inconsistent with each other (dissonance) and, as a result, experiences motivation to reduce the discrepancy. By changing his attitude about corporations, Darnell will likely reduce the conflict between his beliefs and his behaviour (i.e., buying the tablet). Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 580–583 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory.

53) Which one of the following activities will NOT reduce cognitive dissonance? a. changing the behaviour to match the attitude b. changing the thought to justify the behaviour c. developing new thoughts to justify the behaviour d. continuing the behaviour in spite of the conflicting thoughts Correct: Cognitive dissonance occurs when an individual has two thoughts (cognitions) that are inconsistent with each other (dissonance) and, as a result, experiences motivation to reduce the discrepancy. This can occur when an action or behaviour is in conflict with an attitude, such as a smoker believing that smoking is unhealthy. Individuals can reduce cognitive dissonance in a number of ways, including changing the behaviour or the attitude. However, continuing to hold conflicting beliefs, or to act in a way that conflicts with a belief, will not reduce the cognitive dissonance. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 580–583 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory.

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54) ________ involves making a small request before asking for a bigger one. a. The foot-in-the-door technique b. The door-in-the-face technique c. The low-ball technique d. The bait-and-switch technique Correct: The foot-in-the-door technique involves making a simple request followed by a more substantial request. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 579–580 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication.

55) A local charity sends you return mailing labels and asks you to contribute whatever you can. You go ahead and send $5. A month later, you receive another request, but this time for $10, along with numerous other charities to contribute to. While you feel good that you contributed, you may be experiencing the a. foot-in-the-mouth technique. b. foot-in-the-door technique. c. door-in-the-face technique. d. door-in-the-foot technique. Correct: The foot-in-the-door technique involves making a simple request followed by a more substantial request. In this example, asking people to make a very small donation first makes it more likely they will agree to make a larger donation in the future. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 579–580 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication.

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56) The ________ technique involves asking for an unreasonably large request before asking for the small request you are hoping to have granted. a. foot-in-the-door b. door-in-the-face c. low-ball d. bait-and-switch Correct: The door-in-the-face technique begins with a large request that is likely to be turned down, followed by a smaller request that is likely to be accepted. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 579 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication.

57) Miranda received a phone call from a telemarketer for a local charity. The telemarketer asked for a $1000 donation. When Miranda refused, the telemarketer then asked for $25, to which Miranda agreed. This is an example of the a. foot-in-the-door technique. b. door-in-the-face technique. c. low-ball technique. d. bait-and-switch technique. Correct: The door-in-the-face technique begins with a large request that is likely to be turned down, followed by a smaller request that is likely to be accepted. In contrast, the foot-in-the-door technique involves making a simple request followed by a more substantial request. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 579 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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58) Your friend asks you to borrow $50 from you. You tell him no. Then he asks for a mere $10, which you gladly give him. While you feel good to have helped him out, you may have just experienced the a. foot-in-the-mouth technique. b. foot-in-the-door technique. c. door-in-the-face technique. d. door-in-the-foot technique. Correct: The door-in-the-face technique begins with a large request that is likely to be turned down, followed by a smaller request that is likely to be accepted. In contrast, the foot-in-the-door technique involves making a simple request followed by a more substantial request. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 579 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. 59) There are two alternative pathways to persuading others. One leads us to evaluate the merits of the persuasive arguments carefully and thoughtfully. This is known as the a. central route. b. peripheral route. c. afferent route. d. efferent route. Correct: There are two paths to persuasion: the central route, in which individuals take time, evaluate evidence, and use valid logic and arguments, and the peripheral route, in which quick judgments are made based on limited evidence, and emotions and vague impressions are used more than logic. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 573 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication.

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60) There are two alternative pathways to persuading others. One leads us to respond to persuasive arguments on the basis of quick judgments. This is known as the a. central route. b. peripheral route. c. afferent route. d. efferent route. Correct: There are two paths to persuasion: the central route, in which individuals take time, evaluate evidence, and use valid logic and arguments, and the peripheral route, in which quick judgments are made based on limited evidence, and emotions and vague impressions are used more than logic. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 573 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication.

61) When Sam went looking for a new car, he met a beautiful saleswoman who described the beauty of the car and the flashiness, and how good Sam would look driving it. She did not mention the poor gas mileage, the exorbitant price, and the poor road performance. Sam made a snap decision to buy the car from the persuasive saleswoman. Sam was using which alternative pathway in making a decision? a. the central route b. the peripheral route c. the afferent route d. the efferent route Correct: There are two paths to persuasion: the central route, in which individuals take time, evaluate evidence, and use valid logic and arguments, and the peripheral route, in which quick judgments are made based on limited evidence, and emotions and vague impressions are used more than logic. In this example, Sam's quick decision based on emotional evidence indicates that he was persuaded via the peripheral path. Answer: b Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 578–580 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding of the central route to describe how a message should be designed.

62) In social psychology, the term person perception refers to a. a set of beliefs about a group of people. b. the emotional concern one individual has for another's well-being. c. the act of attributing an individual's behaviour to some intrinsic quality or personality trait. d. the processes by which individuals form judgments and categorize other people. Correct: This is the definition of person perception. Person perception begins immediately in our social encounters, and is guided by our past experiences with others. In contrast, a general set of beliefs about an entire group of people is a stereotype. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 560 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how we form first impressions and how these impressions influence us.

63) When we first meet a person, we usually rely on clusters of knowledge and expectations about individuals and groups called a. norms. b. deliberative thoughts. c. schemas. d. attributions. Correct: Upon first encountering someone, we have very little information on which to evaluate him or her. As a consequence, we rely on schemas—clusters of knowledge and expectations about individuals and groups. Answer: c

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 560 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how we form first impressions and how these impressions influence us.

64) Which of the following is a valid conclusion from the studies discussed in your textbook that used the thin-slice technique to investigate quick judgments about the personal qualities of others? a. Quick judgments are generally more accurate than judgments based on more information. b. Judgments based on a lot of information are generally more accurate than judgments based on "thin slices." c. Quick judgments and those made with more information are remarkably similar. d. Quick judgments tend to be more negative than judgments based on more information. Correct: Thin-slices of behaviour research shows that, in mere seconds, people form impressions that are surprisingly accurate. For example, you could get students to fi ll out course evaluations in university, evaluating the teaching capability of their professor, in the first minute of the first class, and they would be about the same as ratings taken after an entire semester of being taught by that professor. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 560 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how we form first impressions and how these impressions influence us.

65) Our impressions of people form a. within seconds of meeting them for the first time. b. after approximately 30 minutes of interaction. c. about 1 hour after the interaction has ended. d. very slowly over time.

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Correct: Thin-slices research demonstrates just how quickly impressions are formed, often within seconds of interaction. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 560 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how we form first impressions and how these impressions influence us.

66) Vince believes Gerald is a jerk, so Vince ignores Gerald and does not invite him to any of his parties. Gerald begins to be rude to Vince and talks about him behind his back. Assuming Gerald's behaviour is only a reaction to how Vince treated him in the first place, this is an example of a. external attribution. b. a self-fulfilling prophecy. c. stereotyping. d. scapegoating. Correct: An individual's impression of others can also lead to a self-fulfilling prophecy, which occurs when a first impression affects the observer's behaviour and, as a result, the first impression comes true. There is no evidence in this example that stereotyping or scapegoating played a role in anyone's behaviour. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 561 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how we form first impressions and how these impressions influence us.

67) When a teacher singles out individuals as "good" or "bad" students, ________________ can occur because the behaviour of the teacher towards these students can affect whether they succeed or not. a. the fundamental attribution error

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b. a self-fulfilling prophecy c. thin slicing d. scapegoating Correct: An individual's impression of others can also lead to a self-fulfilling prophecy, which occurs when a first impression affects the observer's behaviour and, as a result, the first impression comes true. When teachers have high expectations of a student, they behave differently toward that student: Teachers will tend to spend less time addressing behaviour, present more challenging work, and give more reinforcement and constructive criticism than they will for a student whom they perceive to have less promise. This difference in treatment can affect the performance of the students, "confirming" the teacher's original assessment. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 561 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how we form first impressions and how these impressions influence us.

68) When we attempt to explain the cause of someone's behaviour, we are utilizing a. impression management. b. attributions. c. the self-serving bias. d. behaviour assignment. Correct: Attributions are the explanations we make about the causes of behaviour. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 562 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition.

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69) When a person assigns causes to another individual's behaviour and assumes that the behaviour is due to that individual's personal characteristics, a(n) ________ is made. a. situational attribution b. internal attribution c. attribution error d. external attribution Correct: Internal attribution (also known as a dispositional attribution), occurs when the observer explains the actor's behaviour as due to some intrinsic quality of the actor. In contrast, an external attribution (also known as a situational attribution), occurs when the observer explains the actor's behaviour as the result of the social context. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 562 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition.

70) A(n) ________ attribution is made when we blame an individual's behaviour on the situation; a(n) ________ attribution is made when we blame the individual's behaviour on his or her personality or other personal characteristics. a. external; situational b. internal; external c. external; dispositional d. dispositional; situational Correct: Internal attribution (also known as a dispositional attribution), is when the observer explains the actor's behaviour as due to some intrinsic quality of the actor. In contrast, an external attribution (also known as a situational attribution), is when the observer explains the actor's behaviour as the result of the social context. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 562 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition.

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71) When driving down the highway, Caesar could not help but notice the young-looking teenager who seemed to be driving in a reckless manner. He immediately assumed that he was one of those defiant, careless, and irresponsible teens who really did not deserve a licence. Caesar just made a(n) a. situational attribution. b. impression attribution. c. personal attribution. d. internal attribution. Correct: Internal attribution (also known as a dispositional attribution), is when the observer explains the actor's behaviour as due to some intrinsic quality of the actor. In contrast, an external attribution (also known as a situational attribution), is when the observer explains the actor's behaviour as the result of the social context. In this example, Caesar clearly attributes the driver's behaviour to "who" he is (intrinsic), not the fact that he might be late for something important or some other situational reason. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 562 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination. 72) Gianna was coming home from work and could not help but notice the young woman who seemed to be driving in a reckless manner. She immediately wondered if the girl was in an emergency or if something important was going on to make her drive like that. Gianna just made a(n) a. internal attribution. b. dispositional attribution. c. external attribution. d. impression attribution. Correct: External attribution (also known as a situational attribution), occurs when the observer explains the actor's behaviour as the result of the social context. In contrast, internal attribution (also known as a dispositional attribution), occurs when the observer explains the actor's behaviour as due to some intrinsic quality of the actor. In this example, Gianna guesses about the cause of the reckless driving are based on situational, not dispositional causes.

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 562 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination.

73) Wendy is walking down the street when she suddenly falls down and lands squarely on her backside. A group of girls standing about 50 feet away start laughing hysterically, telling each other what a klutz Wendy is. The unsympathetic girls in this group are making a(n) __________ attribution to explain why Wendy fell down. a. situational b. negative c. positive d. dispositional Correct: Internal attribution (also known as a dispositional attribution), occurs when the observer explains the actor's behaviour as due to some intrinsic quality of the actor. In contrast, an external attribution (also known as a situational attribution), occurs when the observer explains the actor's behaviour as the result of the social context. In this example, the girls assume that Wendy fell because she is inherently clumsy (internal factor), as opposed to an external cause like having the heel on her shoe break suddenly. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 562 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination.

74) When half of his class earned Ds and Fs on the midterm exam, Professor Bush came back to the next class and delivered a stern lecture about their effort. He admonished the class for failing to meet their obligations, for being lazy, and for not taking their studies seriously. These attributions, which were all __________ attributions, did not really give any consideration to the fact that the students may have had other reasons for failing the exam that were beyond their immediate control. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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a. cooperative b. internal c. accusatory d. situational Correct: Internal attribution (also known as a dispositional attribution), occurs when the observer explains the actor's behaviour as due to some intrinsic quality of the actor. In contrast, an external attribution (also known as a situational attribution), occurs when the observer explains the actor's behaviour as the result of the social context. In this example, the professor assumes the students did poorly because of who they are, and not because of some external factor. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 562 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination.

75) The __________ attribution error is a phenomenon in which people make an attribution based on character, while simultaneously ignoring situational factors. a. dispositional b. negative c. presumptive d. fundamental Correct: The fundamental attribution error is a tendency to make internal attributions for others' behaviours while ignoring external (situational) influences. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 563 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination.

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76) The tendency to give too much emphasis to personal factors when accounting for other people's actions is called a. the primacy effect. b. defensive attribution. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. the just world hypothesis. Correct: The fundamental attribution error is a tendency to make internal (dispositional) attributions for others' behaviours while ignoring external (situational) influences. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 563 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination.

77) When people are trying to find reasons for someone else's behaviour, they tend to a. ignore dispositional attributions in favour of situational attributions. b. leap to the attribution that people's behaviours correspond to the context. c. explore the personality traits and the environmental constraints to derive an explanation. d. overestimate personality traits and underestimate the influence of the situation. Correct: The fundamental attribution error is a tendency to make internal (dispositional) attributions for others' behaviours while ignoring external (situational) influences. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 563 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination.

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78) Janis, an administrative assistant at a large firm, is trying to find reasons for her boss's hostile behaviour. She is likely to a. ignore her boss's dispositional attributions in favour of situational attributions. b. leap to the attribution that her boss's behaviour corresponds to work demands. c. explore her boss's personality traits and the environmental constraints to derive an explanation. d. overestimate her boss's personality traits and underestimate the influence of the situation. Correct: The fundamental attribution error is a tendency to make internal (dispositional) attributions for others' behaviours while ignoring external (situational) influences. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 563 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination

79) The fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency of people to a. overestimate the role of situational factors in the behaviour of others. b. overestimate the role of dispositional factors in the behaviour of others. c. overestimate the role of situational factors in their own behaviour. d. overestimate the role of dispositional factors in their own behaviour. Correct: The fundamental attribution error is a tendency to make internal (dispositional) attributions for others' behaviours while ignoring external (situational) influences. The fundamental attribution error does not occur when we access the causes of our own behaviours; instead, we tend to attribute good behaviour to our disposition and bad behaviour to situational factors. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 567, 563 13.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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80) Callie does poorly on an exam in one class but does very well on an exam in another class. She attributes her poor performance on the first exam to the fact that the professor is not a very good instructor. In contrast, she attributes her good performance on the second exam to the fact that she is a good student. This is most likely an example of a. the self-serving bias. b. stereotyping. c. deliberative thought. d. the fundamental attribution error. Correct: The self-serving bias occurs when we use internal attributions for ourselves when we do something well, but external attributions when we fail or commit errors. In contrast, the fundamental attribution error applies to situations when we attribute the behaviour or other individuals to external factors. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 562 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination.

81) According to the self-serving bias concept, we tend to use ______________ attributions for ourselves when we do something well, and_______________ attributions when we fail or commit errors. a. external; internal b. internal; external c. dispositional; internal d. external; situational Correct: The self-serving bias occurs when we use internal (dispositional) attributions for ourselves when we do something well, but external (situational) attributions when we fail or commit errors. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 562 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your understanding of social cognition to the problem of overcoming prejudice and discrimination.

82) A politician wants to be re-elected in his district. The politician knows that half the constituents favour a political platform that focuses on climate change but wants to influence the attitudes of the other half of the constituents. Which of the following campaign approaches would be most likely to influence those still undecided on climate change? a. emphasizing improvement that can be made in a few months or years b. emphasizing the ‘global environment’ c. creating a documentary of facts on climate change and airing it during prime-time viewing hours d. creating an ad campaign showing how climate change is already adversely affecting people halfway around the world Correct: Emphasizing the short term reduces the psychological distance of the concept of climate change and makes it seem more relevant to each individual. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 572–573 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the difficulties communicators face in trying to convince the public to take action on climate change.

83) A belief about the characteristics of members of a group that are applied generally to most members of the group is known as a(n) a. scapegoat. b. prejudice. c. stereotype. d. illusionary correlation. Correct: A stereotype is a set of beliefs about a group of people. Stereotypes can be based on negative or positive characteristics.

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 561 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition.

84) Cynthia has recently begun a career with a Jewish-based agency. Up until this point in her life, she had not had any interaction with anyone who was Jewish. Based on the individuals she works with, she has found them to be a very close knit group who care for their own in the community who may need assistance. Additionally, she has found them to be very educated and assertive. Cynthia now holds the view that all Jewish people are the same: educated, close knit within their own group, assertive, and caring toward other Jewish folks who need help. Cynthia's view represents a. the ingroup perspective. b. social facilitation. c. a stereotype. d. discrimination. Correct: A stereotype is a set of beliefs about a group of people. Stereotypes can be based on negative or positive characteristics. Her views are not from an ingroup perspective because she is not Jewish, and she is not acting in a discriminatory way. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 561–562 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are necessarily prejudiced.

85) The typically negative behaviours an individual displays toward others based on membership to a particular group is referred to as ________; the typically negative attitudes an individual has toward others based on membership to a particular group is referred to as ________. a. discrimination; aggression b. stereotypes; discrimination Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. prejudice; discrimination d. discrimination; prejudice Correct: Prejudice is an attitude based on stereotypes that includes emotions and value judgments as well. In contrast, discrimination is a behaviour based on prejudice. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 565 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition.

86) Aleta is looking at a stack of applications for the open position she has at her bakery. She called all of the applicants acting as if she was asking an important question about their application. Really, however, she wanted to know who had an accent so she could put those applications in the ”no” pile. Aleta just engaged in a. prejudice. b. the bystander effect. c. discrimination. d. social inhibition. Correct: Discrimination is a behaviour or action based on a prejudice. In contrast, a prejudice is only an attitude. Because Aleta was acting on her prejudice, discrimination is the best answer. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 565 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition.

87) Hank is a Toronto Maple Leafs fan. Although he doesn't realize it, Hank tends to assume other Leafs fans are generally good people. This is an example of a. the fundamental attribution error. b. scapegoating.

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c. discrimination. d. ingroup bias. Correct: The ingroup bias occurs when we attribute positive qualities to the social group we belong to. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 563 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition.

88) The collection of people that we perceive as "different" than us is known as the a. thin slice. b. scapegoat. c. schema. d. outgroup. Correct: The outgroup is a collection of people who are perceived as different. For example, you might consider anyone who goes to a different university of college than you do as a member of the outgroup. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 563 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition.

89) Which of the following is true about stereotypes? a. All stereotypes are well-intentioned to begin with. b. All stereotypes are based on negative characteristics. c. Well-intentioned stereotypes based on positive characteristics can still have undesirable consequences.

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d. The belief that women are more virtuous than men is a harmless stereotype, even if it is not true. Correct: Not all stereotypes are based on negative characteristics. A hidden danger of stereotypes is found in benevolent or "well-intentioned" stereotyping. For example, because women are considered "virtuous," they are held to different sexual standards than men, and they may be seen as dependent on men for money and protection. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 565 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are necessarily prejudiced.

90) Lucy is the hiring manager for a large company. She has never said anything negative about Hispanics, and honestly believes that everyone should be given an equal chance. Despite this, Lucy has hired very few Hispanics, despite having many qualified candidates. Lucy's behaviour could be explained by a. implicit prejudice. b. self-serving bias. c. explicit prejudice. d. scapegoating. Correct: Implicit prejudice includes forms of stereotyping and prejudice that are kept silent, either intentionally or because individuals are unaware of their own prejudices. In this example, Lucy is unaware that she has a prejudice, but unconsciously, her prejudice may be leading to discrimination. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 566–568 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition.

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91) According to some researchers, one way to measure implicit prejudice is to a. use the Implicit Associations Test. b. count the number of stereotypes they use when describing individuals. c. ask participants how they feel about different racial and ethnic groups. d. use the Open Demonstration of Hostility Measurement Scale. Correct: The Implicit Associations Test measures how fast people can respond to images or words flashed on a computer screen. If participants are slower to respond when positive words are associated with images of people from a particular group, some researchers believe that this is evidence of implicit prejudice for members of that group. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 566–568 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition.

92) Which of the following is a critique of the Implicit Associations Test (IAT) discussed in your textbook? a. The IAT measures explicit prejudice, not implicit prejudice. b. The IAT measures implicit discrimination, not implicit prejudice. c. The IAT may measure knowledge about stereotypes, rather than real attitudes or beliefs. d. The IAT does not produce reliable or consistent results. Correct: Although it produces reliable results, one critique of the IAT is that it may only measure knowledge of stereotypes, rather than what participants believe is true. Simply knowing about a stereotype does not mean an individual believes it, uses it to judge people (prejudice), or uses the stereotype to discriminate. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 566–568 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social cognition.

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93) An environmental activitist has to choose a campaign. Which approach will work best? a. Showing the benefits of the trade-off between the economy and the environment; you will spend more but you will have a nicer planet to live in, which is priceless. b. Demonstrating how the poor will be the most affected by climate change, appealing to people’s altruisim. c. Suggesting that using less electricity will save people money and help the environment. d. Showing what the world will look like in 300 years if we don’t take action to protect the environment. Correct: People are often left to choose the environment or the economy, such that they have to give something up to make a change, which people are hesitant to do. A better approach is to eliminate the trade-off and say that you can save money and the environment by turning off your lights. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 577 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze the difficulties communicators face in trying to convince the public to take action on climate change.

94) What is the term for the approach to climate change messages that emphasizes how specific groups will be negatively affected by climate change? a. the biospheric approach b. the social-altruisim approach c. the egoistic approach. d. the attitude-inoculation approach. Correct: Social altruisim involves doing things to help society rather than helping yourself personally. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 577 Skill: Factual

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Objective: Analyze the difficulties communicators face in trying to convince the public to take action on climate change.

95) The Kitty Genovese case depicts a. social loafing. b. group polarization. c. the bystander effect. d. obedience to authority. Correct: In 1964, a woman named Kitty Genovese died in New York City after a brutal attack, despite a number of witnesses who could have intervened or called for help. The thought of unresponsive witnesses stimulated a new line of research into the bystander effect, which occurs when an individual in a group does not provide help, either because the person believes someone else will help or because the other people in the group are not helping either. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 548–549 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

96) What term do psychologists use for the phenomenon that occurs when people are less likely to aid a person in trouble if there are other people around who are also potential helpers? a. bystander effect b. sole-witness effect c. subtle aggressive effect d. antisocial behaviour effect Correct: The bystander effect occurs when an individual in a group does not provide help, either because the person believes someone else will help or because the other people in the group are not helping either. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 549 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

97) A car crash woke John from his afternoon nap. When he looked out his apartment window, he saw several people milling around two smashed cars. He decided not to dial 911 because he assumed someone had already called. John's reaction is an example of a. the bystander effect. b. pluralistic compliance. c. obedience to authority. d. conformity to social norms. Correct: The bystander effect occurs when an individual in a group does not provide help, either because the person believes someone else will help or because the other people in the group are not helping either. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 549 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of the bystander effect to ensure that you will be helped if you are in an emergency.

98) At a crowded park, Kayla sees an old man clutching his heart and stumbling. If Kayla assumes that someone else will help the old man, she is experiencing the phenomenon known as a. social responsibility norm. b. social loafing. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. evaluation apprehension. Correct: Diffusion of responsibility occurs when individual bystanders do not feel the full effect of empathy because so many others are around. In contrast, social loafing refers to situations where members of a group work less than they would if they were working alone. This does not really apply to an emergency situation in a park.

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 551 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of the bystander effect to ensure that you will be helped if you are in an emergency.

99) Nabila was at a busy grocery store when she and many others saw a gentleman on the ground. She stopped to stare and thought to herself that surely someone had already called for help for this man. She decided that because so many people were present to see the gentleman, help was already on the way. Nabila's decision not to call for help can be best explained by a. groupthink. b. the diffusion of responsibility. c. social facilitation. d. the fundamental attribution error. Correct: Diffusion of responsibility occurs when individual bystanders do not feel the full effect of empathy because so many others are around. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 551 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of the bystander effect to ensure that you will be helped if you are in an emergency.

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1) _____________ psychologists study both positive and negative impacts that humans' behaviour and decisions have on their health, survival, and well-being. a. Physiological b. Developmental c. Health d. Medicinal Correct: Health psychologists study the numerous and complex connections between behaviour and health. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 587 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 2) Health psychologists are primarily interested in how an individual's ____________ affects his or her health. a. physiology b. genetics c. development d. behaviour Correct: Health psychologists study both positive and negative impacts that humans' behaviour and decisions have on their health, survival, and well-being. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 587 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 3) Unlike in the past, most premature deaths in Canada today can be attributed to ____________. a. lifestyle factors b. genetic disorders

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c. contagious diseases d. criminal activity Correct: Today, people are now much more likely to die from tobacco use, alcohol use, obesity, and inactivity than from contagious diseases. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 587 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 4) According to some research, the average smoker dies ____ years earlier than the average nonsmoker. a. 1 to 2 b. 4 to 6 c. 7 to 14 d. 15 to 20 Correct: The life expectancy of the average smoker is between 7 and 14 years shorter than that of a nonsmoker. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 587 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 5) _________ is the leading cause of preventable disease and death in Canada. a. Asbestos exposure b. Drug use c. Alcohol use d. Smoking Correct: Cigarette smoking is the leading preventable cause of death in Canada. Answer: d

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Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 587 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 6) Which of the following has been the MOST DIFFICULT for health psychologists to demonstrate through research? a. Smoking is correlated with watching movie stars smoke. b. Watching movie stars smoke causes adolescents to smoke. c. Adolescents who smoke identify with movie stars who smoke. d. Adolescents who smoke are exposed to more smoking in movies Correct: Researchers have found correlations between watching movie stars smoke and smoking, but demonstrating a clear cause and effect relationship is difficult because of research design limitations. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 588 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether associations with people who smoke affect smoking in adolescents. 7) Which of the following best describes the current research on whether smoking in movies contributes to adolescent smoking? a. The research clearly indicates that exposure to smoking in movies causes adolescents to smoke more. b. There is no significant connection between adolescent smoking and watching smoking in movies. c. Correlational research suggests that adolescent smoking and movies are related, but it has been difficult to establish the nature of this correlation. d. Smoking causes adolescents to prefer movies in which the protagonist smokes. Correct: Researchers have found correlations between watching movie stars smoke and smoking, but demonstrating a clear cause and effect relationship is difficult because of research design limitations. Answer: c Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 588 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether associations with people who smoke affect smoking in adolescents. 8) While most students have heard of the "freshman 15," in reality, students who gain weight when they enter college put on an average of _____ pounds. a. 1 b. 6 c. 20 d. 25 Correct: Those male and female students who gain weight during their early college career put on an average of 6 pounds. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 590 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 9) Which of the following is NOT listed in your textbook as a health consequence of being overweight? a. osteoporosis b. diabetes c. osteoarthritis d. cancer Correct: Obesity is associated with numerous detrimental health consequences, such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, osteoarthritis (degeneration of bone and cartilage material), and some forms of cancer. Osteoporosis is not associated with being overweight. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 591 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 10) Kendra goes to the doctor's office for a physical. After measuring Kendra's weight and height, the doctor enters the data into a mathematical formula and then tells Kendra that she is overweight. The doctor most likely used the formula to calculate Kendra's ________________. a. body mass index b. positive energy balance c. set point d. obesity rate Correct: The body mass index (BMI) is a statistic commonly used for estimating a healthy body weight that factors in an individual's height. In everyday usage, the BMI is used to screen people for weight categories that indicate whether they are considered normal weight, underweight, overweight, or obese. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 591 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 11) Which statistic is commonly used to screen people for weight categories that indicate whether they are considered normal weight, underweight, overweight, or obese? a. set point b. positive energy balance c. body mass index d. obesity rate Correct: The body mass index (BMI) is a statistic commonly used for estimating a healthy body weight that factors in an individual's height. In everyday usage, the BMI is used to screen people for weight categories that indicate whether they are considered normal weight, underweight, overweight, or obese. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 591 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 12) The body mass index allows people to a. calculate how many calories they should eat each day. b. calculate a healthy body weight for their height. c. determine whether they have a positive or negative energy balance. d. determine their set point. Correct: The body mass index (BMI) is a statistic commonly used for estimating a healthy body weight that factors in an individual's height. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 591 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 13) What do twin and adoption studies indicate about the role of genes in body weight? a. Genes account for between 50% and 90% of the variation in body weight. b. Genes account for a moderate 15–20% of the variation in body weight. c. Genes only account for 5–10% of the variation in body weight. d. Body weight is not influenced by genes. Correct: Twin, family, and adoption studies all suggest that genes account for between 50% and 90% of the variation in body weight. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 591 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. 14) Some researchers believe that the body has mechanisms to keep your body weight within a small range. For example, if you began eating more calories than usual, your

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body may increase its energy expenditure to keep your weight within the range. This range is referred to as the body's ___________. a. mass index b. set point c. energy balance d. resistance point Correct: The body's set point is a hypothesized mechanism that serves to maintain body weight around a physiologically programmed level. The set point is not an exact number of pounds, but rather a relatively small range encompassing 10% to 20% of one's weight. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 591 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. 15) Patrick decided to lose weight by dieting. He found that it was relatively easy to lose the first 18 pounds or so, but after that, he felt his body was fighting his effort to lose more weight. Patrick's experience is consistent with the concept of _______________. a. positive energy balance b. the general adaptation syndrome c. extinction d. a set point Correct: The set point is a hypothesized mechanism that serves to maintain body weight around a physiologically programmed level. In this example, Patrick's inability to lose weight is consistent with the idea that the body tries to keep bodyweight within a narrow range around a set point. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 591 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. 16) According to set point theory, the set point is initially set by _______________, but can be modified by ______________. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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a. genetic factors; environmental factors b. environmental factors; genetic factors c. exercise; caloric intake d. caloric intake; exercise. Correct: According to set point theory, your initial set point is controlled by genetic mechanisms, but your actual weight can be modified by environmental factors—namely, what and how much you eat. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 591 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. 17) According to set point theory, which of the following could cause a person's set point to change? a. exposure to food advertising b. stress c. deciding to lose weight d. gaining a large amount of weight Correct: According to set point theory, if an individual gains 10% of his body weight (e.g., increasing from 150 to 145 pounds) his set point would make a corresponding shift upward—the body acts as though its normal weight is now the larger 145 pounds. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 591 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. 18) According to your textbook, why do some researchers question the role of a physiological set point in making it difficult for people to lose excess weight? a. The body's metabolic rate is fixed and does not change. b. The difficulty in losing excess weight is greatly exaggerated.

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c. Lower activity levels associated with weight gain appears to explain the difficulty of weight loss better than set point theory. d. Set point theory assumes that a person's set point cannot change. Correct: The validity of set point theory has been challenged by research suggesting that weight gain and difficulty with weight loss are unrelated to a physiological set point. Rather, people who gain weight expend less energy in their normal day-to-day activities. Thus the difficulty with losing the weight may be related to lower activity levels, rather than any elevation of a set point. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 592 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. 19) Research discussed in your textbook indicates that television advertisements can have a significant impact on ____________. a. the choice to smoke b. snacking c. stress levels d. activity level Correct: Food advertisements trigger eating and can increase the amount of food children eat. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 592 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. 20) Jim likes to watch TV and Jim’s twin brother, John, likes to go on social networking sites online. What is likely to be true of the two brothers? a. They will weigh the same. b. John will weigh more than Jim, but they will both be overweight c. Jim is more likely to be obese than John..

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d. John is more likely to be obese than Jim. Incorrect: Research has shown that TV watching is correlated with obesity but online/computer use is not. A person like Jim who watches TV is more likely to be obese than a person like John who uses the computer. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 592 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. 21) The increase in the number of children living sedentary lifestyles is likely due in part to ___________. a. video games b. increased time spent in school c. stress d. television advertising Correct: Videogames contribute to a sedentary lifestyle and help indoctrinate children into this lifestyle from their early years. While spending more time in school might contribute to a more sedentary lifestyle, there is no evidence that the recent increase in sedentary lifestyles seen in children is related to an increase in school length. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 592 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. 22) For __________, lower income is associated with higher obesity rates, while the opposite is true for ___________. a. adults; children b. children; adults c. men; women d. women; men

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Correct: Men at high income levels are more likely to be obese than men at lower levels. Conversely, among women, obesity increases at lower income levels. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 594 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. 23) According to your textbook, people who __________ have less brain tissue and older-looking brains than is typical for their age. a. are obese b. smoke c. are lean d. play videogames Correct: Obesity can have a negative, long-term impact on the brain. Researchers have found that people who are obese have, on average, 8% less brain tissue than people who are lean. The average brain of an individual with obesity in his 70s looks approximately 14 years older than a lean person of the same age. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 594 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 24) In a study described in your textbook, psychologists studied students who lived in poorly designed and crowded dormitories. By comparing these students to others who had better accommodations, the psychologists determined that the stressful living conditions caused the students to a. become emotionally closer to the other students sharing the same space. b. focus their anger onto one or two "scapegoats." c. develop emotional coping strategies. d. lose their sense of control and feel helpless. Correct: The crowded, poorly designed accommodations caused students to lose their sense of control over whom they could interact with or avoid. The students living in the Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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less-than-ideal conditions seemed to feel helpless, which in turn affected how they interacted with others, including becoming less socially interactive with strangers. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 594–595 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 25) Stress, poor diet, and discrimination collectively place children growing up in ___________ at greater risk for developing health problems. a. single parent households b. poverty c. rural areas d. boarding schools Correct: People who are of low socioeconomic status are at increased risk for poor health. Numerous factors, including limited access to health care, stress, poor nutrition, and discrimination, collectively place children growing up in these communities at greater risk for developing health problems. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 595 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 26) High stress levels and poor nutrition put children who grow up in low socioeconomic status communities at a greater risk of developing ___________ as adults. a. schizophrenia b. heart disease c. post-traumatic growth d. social contagion Correct: Children who experience adverse socioeconomic circumstances are at greater risk for developing heart disease in adulthood. This relationship likely reflects the compound effects of stress, as well as the poorer diet that is often found among individuals residing in communities of low socioeconomic status. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 595 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 27) People with low socioeconomic status tend to have worse health than do those with high status. One reason for this is ________________. a. malingering (pretending to be ill) b. cultural reinforcers c. environmental stressors d. heredity Correct: People who are of low socioeconomic status are at increased risk for poor health. Numerous factors, including high stress and a lack of control contribute to this. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 595 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 28) Dr. Benno leaves his practice in a wealthy suburb and begins seeing patients at a clinic in a poor urban area. What can he expect will be the difference between his new patients and his former ones? a. The new patients will be generally in worse health. b. The new patients will have less stress because many are unemployed. c. The new patients will have more stress but lower mortality rates. d. The new patients will be less likely to suffer from diseases associated with highpressure lives, like heart disease. Correct: People who are of low socioeconomic status are at increased risk for poor health. Numerous factors, including limited access to health care, stress, poor nutrition, and discrimination, collectively place children growing up in these communities at greater risk for developing health problems. Answer: a Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 595 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 29) Which of the following is true about discrimination? a. Experiencing discrimination has short-, but not long-term effects on health. b. Discrimination has a long-term effect on mental health, but not physical health. c. Discrimination has a long-term effect on physical health, but not mental health. d. Discrimination has a long-term effect on both physical and mental health. Correct: Discrimination can compromise both physical and mental health. Being a target of prejudice and discrimination is linked to increased blood pressure, heart rate, and secretions of stress hormones, which, when experienced over long periods of time, compromise physical health. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 595 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 30) _____________ is as great a mortality risk as smoking, obesity, and high blood pressure. a. Poor job satisfaction b. Chronic social isolation c. Being married d. Experiencing an episode of discrimination Correct: Chronic social isolation is as great a mortality risk as smoking, obesity, and high blood pressure. While the other options are all stressors, they do not typically have as profound an effect on health, especially when not experienced chronically. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 595

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Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 31) Which of the following is true about health effects of marriage on men and women? a. Both men and women typically benefit equally from the marriage. b. While both men and women benefit from the marriage, men typically experience the greater health benefits. c. While both the men and women benefit from marriage, women typically experience the greater health benefits. d. Men are more likely to benefit, while women are more likely to have a small decrease in health as a result of marrying. Correct: Married people tend to live longer and have better mental and physical health than do nonmarried adults, however men enjoy greater health benefits from marriage than do women. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 595 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 32) Larry and Kim just got married. Although every marriage is different, how is their marriage most likely to affect their health? a. Larry's health will benefit from the marriage while Kim's health with suffer. b. Kim's health will benefit from the marriage while Larry's health with suffer. c. Both Larry and Kim will benefit, but Larry will benefit more. d. Both Larry and Kim will benefit, but Kim will benefit more. Correct: Married people tend to live longer and have better mental and physical health than do unmarried adults, however men enjoy greater health benefits from marriage than do women. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 595 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology.

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33) Which of the following may explain why the health benefit of heterosexual marriage is different for men versus women? a. Women tend to recognize and support the health of others more than men. b. Men tend to be more protective of their spouse than women. c. Women experience more stress in a marriage than men . d. Women are more likely to engage in risky behaviour if they are married. Correct: While both men and women benefit from marriage, men tend to benefit more than women. Several possible reasons for this have been suggested. One likely contributor is the greater role that women take in recognizing and supporting healthy behaviours in others. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 595 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 34) The unintentional spreading of a behaviour as a result of social interactions is referred to as _____________. a. meme propagation b. social contagion c. the HPA axis d. peer mimicking Correct: Social contagion is the often subtle, unintentional spreading of a behaviour as a result of social interactions. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 596 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 35) When Wally decided to quit smoking, several of his friends began smoking less. Overtime, most of Wally's friends eventually stopped smoking as well. This is an example of social _____________. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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a. contagion b. discrimination c. coercion d. desensitization Correct: Social contagion is the often subtle, unintentional spreading of a behaviour as a result of social interactions. In this example, quitting smoking spreads through the social group, similar to the way a virus would. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 596 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 36) Overtime, groups of people who interact regularly can become increasingly similar in terms of body weight, smoking habits, and even happiness. This increased similarity is likely due to ____________. a. genetic factors b. social contagion c. set point changes d. coincidence Correct: Social contagion is the often subtle, unintentional spreading of a behaviour as a result of social interactions. In one study, it turns out that the groups who showed similar patterns in their health statistics were also friends with one another. This can be explained by social contagion, with behaviours spreading in the same way a virus would. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 596 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 37) ________ occurs when the demands of a situation exceed our ability to cope effectively. a. Stress

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b. Anxiety c. Trauma d. Stimuli Correct: Stress is a psychological and physiological reaction that occurs when perceived demands exceed existing resources to meet those demands. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 599 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 38) Events which cause people to experience stress are called ___________. a. stress stimuli b. negative reinforcers c. traumas d. stressors Correct: Stressors are events or stimuli that trigger a stress response. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 599 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 39) Which of the following would most likely be an acute stressor? a. discrimination b. long-term unemployment c. having a fight d. having a relative with mental illness Correct: Having a fight is an acute stressor because, although intense, it is short lived. All of the other options are chronic stressors because they last for extended periods. Answer: c

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 601 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 40) According to Lazarus and Folkman, our first task when faced with a potential stressor is to determine whether it is a challenge or threat. This evaluation is referred to as _____________. a. primary appraisal b. secondary appraisal c. stress-related decision d. hassle-related decision Correct: Richard Lazarus and Susan Folkman developed a cognitive appraisal theory of stress. According to this theory, the individual first perceives a potential threat and begins the primary appraisal by asking herself, "Is this a threat?" Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 599 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 41) Miranda is questioning whether her upcoming business trip, where she must travel through an area with many mountains, will pose a danger for her. As such, this example illustrates _______________. a. a stress reaction b. coping c. primary appraisal d. secondary appraisal Correct: Richard Lazarus and Susan Folkman developed a cognitive appraisal theory of stress. According to this theory, the individual first perceives a potential threat and begins the primary appraisal by asking herself, "Is this a threat?" Answer: c Diff: 2

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Type: MC Page Reference: 599 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 42) Imagine that you have just flunked a class. You evaluate this situation and decide that flunking a class is stressful and important enough to be upset about. Next you decide to repeat the class in summer school. You have made _________________. a. a primary appraisal only b. both a primary and a secondary appraisal c. a stress-related decision d. a hassle-related decision Correct: Primary appraisal occurs when a person first determines whether a stressor is a threat or not. If the stressor is determined to be a threat, secondary appraisal is used to determine how to cope with this threat. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 599 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 43) After we have decided that a certain event is a stressor, we must decide how we will deal with it and what resources are available for coping. This process is called ______________. a. primary appraisal b. secondary appraisal c. tertiary appraisal d. distress-eustress dichotomy Correct: Primary appraisal occurs when a person first determines whether a stressor is a threat or not. If the stressor is determined to be a threat, secondary appraisal is used to determine how to cope with this threat. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 599 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 44) Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between stress and major life events? a. Research has shown that the stress caused by positive life events is nearly non-existent when compared to the stress caused by negative or bad life events. b. Major life events can cause significant stress, even if they are good or positive life events. c. Research has demonstrated that getting married, having a child, and losing a job are, in that order, the top three stressors reported by most adults. d. Major life events can be more easily described as daily hassles. Correct: Life changes are a major source of stress, whether they bring about positive or negative emotions. At least according to the Social Readjustment Rating Scale, the death of a spouse is ranked as the greatest stressor for most adults. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 599 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 45) According to its developers, a person who has a higher score on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale is more likely than people with lower scores to have ___________ in the near future. a. more frequent changes of job b. a divorce c. commission of a crime d. a higher chance of becoming ill Correct: According to Holmes and Rahe, who developed the Social Readjustment Rating Scale, as a person's score becomes higher, his or her risk for becoming ill increases. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 599 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness.

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46) The Social Readjustment Rating Scale was designed to measure change due to ________________. a. natural disasters b. major life events c. social difficulties d. negative life events Correct: The Social Readjustment Rating Scale ranks major life events—positive and negative—based on their potential to cause stress. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 599 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 47) The Social Readjustment Rating Scale measures stress related to _____________. a. positive and negative life events b. only negative life events c. only positive life events d. internal stressors Correct: The Social Readjustment Rating Scale ranks major life events—positive and negative—based on their potential to cause stress. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 599 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 48) ______________ measures the amount of stress in a person's life resulting from major life changes. a. Secondary appraisal b. Primary appraisal

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c. The Social Readjustment Rating Scale d. The Type A Personality Scale Correct: The Social Readjustment Rating Scale ranks major life events—positive and negative—based on their potential to cause stress. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 599 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 49) Which of the following is true about stress? a. Any amount of stress is detrimental and should be avoided. b. High levels of stress generally improve performance. c. Stress facilitates performing complex tasks more than it does simple tasks. d. Low levels of stress can be motivating. Correct: Without some stress, motivation to perform can decline. Conversely, too much stress taxes cognitive resources, resulting in poorer performance. In addition, higher levels of arousal facilitate solving relatively simple problems, while complex tasks are better performed under lower levels of arousal. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 599 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 50) Kenya is experiencing absolutely no stress while taking a test. What effect is this most likely to have on her performance, and why? a. It will improve her grade because she will experience less distraction. b. It will improve her grade because she will be able to recall information more easily. c. It will lower her grade because her arousal level will be low. d. It will lower her grade because suppressing stress taxes cognitive resources.

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Correct: Some level of stress can actually be helpful—without it, arousal and motivation to perform can decline. In general, small amounts of stress/arousal help task performance while too much impairs performance. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 601 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 51) Generally speaking, low levels of arousal facilitate ______________, while higher levels of arousal facilitate ______________. a. studying; test taking b. test taking; studying c. solving complex tasks; solving simple tasks d. solving simple tasks; solving complex tasks Correct: Generally speaking, higher levels of arousal facilitate solving relatively simple problems, while complex tasks are better performed under lower levels of arousal. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 601 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 52) The term "fight-or-flight response" was coined by American psychologist ______________. a. William James b. Walter Cannon c. Francis Sumner d. Mary Carver Correct: Walter Cannon, an early researcher into the phenomenon of stress, used the term ”fight-or-flight response” to describe a set of physiological changes that occur in response to psychological or physical threats.

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Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 601 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 53) According to Cannon, the "fight-or-flight response" is a. a general response to many different types of stressors. b. a response to physical stressors, but not other types of stressors such as social or cognitive stressors. c. an extreme form of the stress response that only occurs in life-threatening emergences. d. a coping strategy. Correct: Walter Cannon noted that the physical responses to stressors were somewhat general, despite the fact that stress can come from a variety of sources that may be biological, cognitive, or social in nature. Cannon described this general reaction as a the fight-or-flight response, a set of physiological changes that occur in response to psychological or physical threats. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 601 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 54) Which psychologist is credited with proposing the general adaptation syndrome? a. Selye b. Berkowitz c. Holmes and Rahe d. Lazarus Correct: Hans Selye identified a pattern of responding to stress, which he named the general adaptation syndrome. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 601 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 55) What is the correct sequence of stages in the general adaptation syndrome? a. resistance, alarm, exhaustion b. exhaustion, resistance, alarm c. alarm, exhaustion, resistance d. alarm, resistance, exhaustion Correct: General adaptation syndrome is a theory of stress responses involving the stages of alarm, resistance, and finally, exhaustion. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 601 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 56) Which major life event on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale has the highest number of "stress units"? a. Divorce b. Marriage c. Death of a spouse d. Damage to the home Correct: On the original Social Readjustment Rating Scale, the death of a spouse is ranked as the greatest stressor. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 600 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness.

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57) Adelaida hears a rattling sound as she hikes through the desert. Her muscles tense and her blood pressure rises. According to Hans Selye, she is in the _______________. a. chronic stress phase b. alarm phase c. exhaustion phase d. resistance phase Correct: According to Selye's concept of the general adaptation syndrome, a stressful event, such as a mild shock if you are a rat, or a pop quiz if you are a college student, first elicits an alarm reaction. Alarm consists of your recognition of the threat and the physiological reactions that accompany it. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 601 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 58) In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome has the body reached the limits of its ability to adapt to stress and may result in the development of stress-related diseases? a. alarm b. collapse c. exhaustion d. resistance Correct: According to Selye's concept of the general adaptation syndrome, the third and final stage is exhaustion, in which your physical resources and your physiological stress response declines, making it difficult to continue resisting the effects of stress. Collapse is not one of the stages identified by Selye. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 601 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress.

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59) Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome might explain why college students tend to experience a higher rate of absenteeism from class around midterm and final exam time each semester? a. resistance b. exhaustion c. alarm d. surrender Correct: The third and final stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is exhaustion, in which physical resources and the physiological stress response declines. According to this concept, students who are under high levels of stress for a prolonged period of time eventually enter the exhaustion stage, and can no longer cope with the physical and psychological effects stress. Surrender is not one of the stages of the GAS. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 601 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 60) For the past six months, Dahlia's job has been extremely stressful, but she doesn't feel that she can quit because she needs the money for tuition. Dahlia has been having chronic headaches and is behind in all of her classes. According to Hans Selye, Dahlia is in the ______ stage of the general adaptation syndrome. a. alarm b. collapse c. exhaustion d. resistance Correct: According to Selye's concept of the general adaptation syndrome, the third and final stage is exhaustion, in which your physical resources and your physiological stress response declines, making it difficult to continue resisting the effects of stress. Collapse is not one of the stages identified by Selye. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 601 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress.

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61) When you are under stress, the _______________ sends messages to the endocrine glands along two major pathways. a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. hypothalamus d. corpus callosum Correct: In response to stress, the hypothalamus stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, which then causes the adrenal glands to release epinephrine and norepinephrine. The hypothalamus also stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal glands via the HPA axis. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 602 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 62) When a person is under stress, the hypothalamus activates the __________ system, producing the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine into the body. a. somatic nervous b. reticular activating c. parasympathetic nervous d. sympathetic nervous Correct: In response to stress, the hypothalamus stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, which then causes the adrenal glands to release epinephrine and norepinephrine. The hypothalamus also stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal glands via the HPA axis. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 602 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress.

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63) Which of the following is a key stress hormone released by the adrenal glands? a. cortisol b. melatonin c. insulin d. substance P Correct: Cortisol is a hormone secreted by the cortex of the adrenal glands that prepares the body to respond to stressful circumstances. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 602 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 64) The HPA axis is a system activated to a. carry messages from special receptors in the skin to the brain. b. control the sensory and motor nerves. c. energize the body to respond to stressors. d. relax the body and help it conserve energy. Correct: Activation of the HPA axis causes cortisol to be released by the adrenal glands. Cortisol prepares the body to respond to stressful circumstances. For example, cortisol may stimulate increased access to energy stores or lead to decreased inflammation. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 602 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 65) The "HPA" axis is an abbreviation for: a. hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal. b. hormonal-pubertal-adrenal circuit. c. hippocampus-pituitary-amygdala circuit. d. heritable-peripheral-adrenal cortex.

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Correct: Activation of the HPA axis causes cortisol to be released by the adrenal glands. Cortisol prepares the body to respond to stressful circumstances. For example, cortisol may stimulate increased access to energy stores or lead to decreased inflammation. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 602 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 66) Jamie has worked for the Jones & Miller law firm for the past five years. The firm is in the process of downsizing and laying off employees. Jamie is afraid that she may lose her job. To help deal with this stressful situation, Jamie tends to rely on her social contacts for support, in addition to nurturing those around her. This is known as _____________ response. a. fight-or-flight b. tend-and-befriend c. reliance-and-coping d. friend-or-relationship Correct: Stress sometimes leads people to seek close contact and social support, a phenomenon known as the ”tend-and-befriendresponse.” Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 603 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 67) Which of the following individuals would be most likely to engage a "tend-andbefriend" approach to dealing with significant stress in their life? a. Dante, who is 75-years old, single, and retired from a long career in the Navy. b. Christopher, who is 42 years old, married, and works long hours to support his family. c. Chantel, who is a 37-year old single mother living with her son and two roommates. d. Tamal, who is a 14-year old first-generation Indian-American middle-school student living with his grandparents.

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Correct: Women seem to rely more on this particular response to cope with stress than men. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 603 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 68) The hormone oxytocin could be described as being involved in the ______________ response to stress. a. "tend-and-befriend" b. "fight-or-flight" c. "cry and ask 'why?'" d. "avoid-and-evade" Correct: This reaction may be promoted by the release of oxytocin, a stress-sensitive hormone that is typically associated with maternal bonding and social relationships. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 603 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 69) The field of __________ studies the relationship between immune and nervous system functioning. a. social psychology b. organic medicine c. psychoneuroimmunology d. interactive psychology Correct: Psychoneuroimmunology is the study of the relationship between immune system and nervous system functioning. Answer: c Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 604 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. 70) People living under stressful conditions tend to get sick more often than they would otherwise. How do researchers in psychoneuroimmunology explain this phenomenon? a. The stress response reduces immune system functioning, thus making us more vulnerable to diseases. b. The stress response in the long run leads to a lowering of the heart rate, which makes the heart inefficient. c. The stress response makes muscles stronger, which places a greater burden on the heart and respiratory systems. d. The body tends to adapt to the constant call for the stress response and, thus, future responses are not as strong as before. Correct: Analysis of blood samples shows reduced immune responses during high-stress periods. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 604 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses 71) The hormones vasopressin and oxytocin are associated with _______________ and might be related to ________. a. positive social relationships; good health b. positive social relationships; poor health c. childhood stress; good health d. childhood stress; poor health Correct: Higher oxytocin and vasopressin levels are associated with positive social interactions. Both of these hormones also interact with the immune system, and may contribute to better health. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 604–605 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. 72) Men who experience ongoing stress are at a much higher risk of developing coronary heart disease compared to other men. How is chronic stress believed to contribute directly to heart disease? a. Stress hormones slow down heart rate, decreasing circulation and allowing plaques to build up. b. Stress overstimulates heart tissue, which leads to damage. c. Stress hormones block the absorption of oxygen into the blood, leading to enlargement of the heart. d. Stress stimulates the immune system's inflammatory response, which leads to the development of plaques. Correct: Coronary heart disease begins when injury and infection damage the arteries of the heart and cause inflammation. Stress causes an increased release of those molecules that cause the inflammation that leads to heart complications. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 606 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. 73) Which of the following statements regarding ulcers is true? a. Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium that lives in stomach acid and causes stomach ulcers. b. Stress is the primary cause of ulcers. c. Spicy foods and an unhealthy diet are the primary causes of ulcers. d. Ulcers are uniquely genetic and stress has nothing to do with the symptoms of ulcers. Correct: Most ulcers are caused by a bacterium, Helicobacter pylori, which can cause inflammation of the lining of various regions of the digestive tract. Stress and diet can worsen the symptoms of ulcers, but are not the primary cause of them. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Page Reference: 606 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the claim that ulcers are caused by stress. 74) Julie has a serious disorder of the immune system that is life-threatening and incurable. This is a condition in which the human immunodeficiency virus attacks and damages the immune system. Julie has ______________. a. multiple sclerosis b. Alzheimer's disease c. acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) d. Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD) Correct: Acquired-immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a disease caused by infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). This disease saps the immune system's ability to fight off infections. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 607 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. 75) Which of the following is true about HIV/AIDS and stress? a. Stress can reduce the effectiveness of vaccination and antiretroviral treatments for HIV/AIDS. b. Surprisingly, moderate stress actually suppresses HIV in the body. c. Stress can affect those who have AIDS, but has little effect on people who have not developed AIDS but are HIV positive. d. Stress has little to no effect on HIV/AIDS. Correct: Studies have shown that those who experience serious emotional distress are less responsive to HIV treatments. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 607 Skill: Factual

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Objective: Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. 76) Research suggests that two ways in which cancer patients can potentially slow the disease's progressions are a. stimulating the body's fight-or-flight response and guided imagery b. strenuous exercise and stimulating the HPA axis c. allowing themselves to become angry about having cancer and accepting that they will probably die. d. learning anger management techniques and being optimistic. Correct: Autonomic nervous system (fight-or-flight) activity and stimulation of the HPA axis can compromise how well an individual can fight cancer. Individuals who have undergone assertiveness training and learn anger management techniques show reduced autonomic activity and hormonal activity associated with the HPA axis. Also, those who are optimistic, cope by using humour, and have a positive outlook on the disease (and thus less stress) show physiological benefits such as greater immune response. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 607 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. 77) John is the type of person who wants everything done perfectly the first time. When playing a game, he feels like he must win. He is easily provoked to anger, but he is also readily ambitious. Based on these traits, John must be a _____________. a. Type D personality b. Type A personality c. Type B personality d. Type T personality Correct: The Type A personality describes people who tend to be impatient and worry about time, and are easily angered, competitive, and highly motivated. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 608 Skill: Applied

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Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 78) Joanna has a Type A personality. Which of the following traits are descriptive of her personality? a. competitive and impatient b. negative and distressed c. relaxed and easygoing d. obsessive and neat Correct: The Type A personality describes people who tend to be impatient and worry about time, and are easily angered, competitive and highly motivated. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 608 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 79) Rosalie is a rather easy-going kind of woman. She works hard when she's at the office, but she refuses to do more than 40 hours of work per week. She knows that she could earn more money if she worked harder but she really values time at home with her husband and children. She likes to garden, listen to music, and sip wine while sitting on her deck during a sunset. Rosalie even turns off her cell phone during the weekends so that she won't be bothered. Rosalie has a __________ personality. a. Type A b. Type AB c. Type B d. Type C Correct: The Type B personality describes people who are more laid back and characterized by a patient, easygoing, and relaxed disposition. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 608 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness.

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80) Levon has a Type B personality. Which of the following is most likely? a. Levon is determined to achieve. b. Levon is competitive. c. Levon gets easily upset. d. Levon is slow to anger. Correct: The Type B personality describes people who are more laid back and characterized by a patient, easygoing, and relaxed disposition. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 608 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 81) The Type A behaviour pattern is a significant predictor of _____________. a. mental illness b. coronary heart disease c. cancer d. respiratory illnesses Correct: People with Type A personalities are at a higher risk of suffering from coronary disease, although the specific reasons for this correlation are likely complicated. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 608 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 82) Which Type A personality characteristic is the key trait that is linked to heart disease? a. hostility b. compulsiveness c. competitiveness

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d. chronic irritability Correct: Recent research has shown that people who are prone to hostility and anger are at greater risk for developing coronary heart disease. This may explain why people with Type A personalities are at an elevated risk for coronary heart disease. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 608 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 83) ____________refers to the processes used to manage demands, stress, and conflict. a. Reliance b. Coping c. Affectivity d. Post-traumatic growth Correct: This is the textbook's definition of coping. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 611 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. 84) A(n) ___________ coping strategy is more suited to situations with identifiable solutions. In contrast, a(n) ___________ coping strategy is more suited to situations without clear solutions. a. negative; positive b. positive; negative c. emotional; problem-solving d. problem-solving; emotional Correct: A problem-solving approach is a coping technique in which people define the problem and work towards a solution. However, emotional coping is probably better suited to dealing with an issue such as the loss of a loved one, where there is no clear solution, and the stress must be managed on an emotional level.

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Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 611 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand positive and negative styles of coping. 85) Which area of psychology specifically studies human strengths and potential? a. positive psychology b. optimistic psychology c. resilience psychology d. psychoimmunology Correct: Positive psychology uses scientific methods to study human strengths and potential. Research in this area has identified numerous adaptive and constructive ways in which people cope with problems. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 611 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. 86) When looking at a glass that is neither completely full nor completely empty, a(n) __________ might say "that glass is half full," while a(n) ____________ might say " no, that glass is half empty!" a. pessimist; optimist b. realist; pessimist c. optimist; realist d. optimist; pessimist Correct: People who are optimistic tend to have a positive outlook on life and, according to the common idiom, "view the glass as half-full.” Pessimists have a more negative perception of life and tend to see the glass as half-empty. Answer: d Diff: 1

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Type: MC Page Reference: 612 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. 87) Adena looks on the bright side of life. When a situation is not going well, she is able to bring to light something positive. This is known as ____________. a. optimism b. pessimism c. rumination d. self-enhancement Correct: People who are optimistic tend to have a positive outlook on life and have a constructive way of explaining the causes of everyday events. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 612 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand positive and negative styles of coping. 88) Optimism is linked with ______________. a. better physical health b. higher mortality rate c. genetic inheritance d. racial and ethnic background Correct: Optimism is correlated with better physical health than pessimism. For example, optimists have a lower incidence of coronary heart disease and optimism is associated with quicker recovery following surgery. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 612 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand positive and negative styles of coping.

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89) Petra has suffered several setbacks in the last year, including breaking up with her boyfriend and losing her job. Petra did not let these setbacks negatively affect her life for long and recovered from them quickly. Which trait does Petra best illustrate? a. learned helplessness b. resilience c. optimism d. negative affectivity Correct: Resilience is the ability to effectively recover from illness or adversity. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 613 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand positive and negative styles of coping. 90) Which of the following is associated with positive coping strategies? a. learned helplessness b. post-traumatic growth c. pessimistic explanatory style d. negative affectivity Correct: Post-traumatic growth is the capacity to grow and experience long-term positive effects in response to negative events. It is associated with positive coping and resilience. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 614 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand positive and negative styles of coping. 91) Derek sits in his therapist's office while attached to a heart rate monitor with a digital display. When Derek becomes anxious and his heart rate increases, his therapist instructs him to concentrate on lowering the rate displayed on the device. This is an example of using ________________ as part of anxiety therapy. a. integrated mind–body training

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b. concentrative meditation c. biofeedback d. mindfulness Correct: Biofeedback is a therapeutic technique involving the use of physiological recording instruments to provide feedback that increases awareness of bodily responses. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 614 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether activities such as relaxation techniques, meditation, and biofeedback actually help people cope with stress and problems. 92) According to your textbook, which of the following is true about the use of biofeedback for reducing stress? a. Biofeedback is not effective for reducing stress. b. Biofeedback is the most effective therapy for reducing stress. c. Simple relaxation techniques appear as effective as biofeedback. d. Biofeedback is effective for reducing stress, but is considered unethical by many therapists. Correct: After some very promising findings, the excitement over biofeedback decreased, in part because it was found that simple relaxation techniques were just as useful. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 614–615 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether activities such as relaxation techniques, meditation, and biofeedback actually help people cope with stress and problems. 93) Guadalupe has been having a lot of stress at work recently, and she has spoken to a therapist about how to better handle her anxiety. Her therapist suggests that she try _________ meditation, which involves focusing exclusively on a single object, internal sound, or her own breathing. a. concentrative b. meditative Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. expressive d. awareness Correct: During concentrative meditation, the individual focuses on a specific thought or sensation, such as an image or a repeated sound. In contrast, during mindfulness meditation, the individual attends to all thoughts, sensations, and feelings without attempting to judge or control them. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 615 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether activities such as relaxation techniques, meditation, and biofeedback actually help people cope with stress and problems. 94) ________ meditation involves narrowing one's focus to a single event, while _______ involves allowing attention to flow freely and focusing on whatever comes to mind. a. Mindfulness; concentrative b. Mindfulness; mind-body training c. Concentrative; mind-body training d. Concentrative; mindfulness Correct: During concentrative meditation the individual focuses on a specific thought or sensation, such as an image or a repeated sound. In contrast, during mindfulness meditation, the individual attends to all thoughts, sensations, and feelings without attempting to judge or control them. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 615 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether activities such as relaxation techniques, meditation, and biofeedback actually help people cope with stress and problems. 95) In a brain imaging study in which participants learned integrated mind–body training, increased activity in the anterior cingulate was associated with a. a feeling of floating.

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b. increased control over parasympathetic nervous system responses. c. the ability to stop the heart for up to 30 seconds. d. negative affectivity. Correct: In this study, activity within the anterior cingulate was associated with the participants' increased control over parasympathetic nervous system responses. The increased parasympathetic activity accounted for the heightened sense of relaxation experienced while meditating. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 615–616 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether activities such as relaxation techniques, meditation, and biofeedback actually help people cope with stress and problems. 96) According to studies, people who are involved in a religion and attend services regularly are more likely to a. live a shorter life than are those who do not have religious beliefs. b. lack a social support system. c. live longer than do those who do not have religious beliefs. d. feel alone with their struggles. Correct: Numerous studies have found that people who are very religious and are actively engaged with religious practices do, in fact, live a bit longer than do people who are less religious or nonreligious. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 616 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. 97) In comparison to nonreligious people, religious individuals have a. higher mortality rates and higher blood pressure. b. lower mortality rates and lower rates of alcohol use. c. higher mortality rates and lower blood pressure.

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d. lower mortality rates and higher rates of alcohol use. Correct: Numerous studies have found that people who are very religious and are actively engaged with religious practices do, in fact, live a bit longer than do people who are less religious or nonreligious. Younger and older people of Muslim, Jewish, or Christian faith are also more likely to engage in healthy behaviours, including wearing seatbelts, visiting the dentist, and avoiding consumption of alcohol and cigarette smoking, which probably contributes to their lower mortality rates. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 616 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. 98) Ada was just laid off from her job. If she has a pessimistic explanatory style, which of the following is she most likely to tell someone? a. "It was all my stupid boss's fault!" b. "I'm better off without that job." c. "It's all my fault and I won't be able to find another job." d. "I don't know why they would fire me." Correct: A pessimistic explanatory style is the tendency to interpret and explain negative events as internally based and as a constant, stable quality. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 612 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand positive and negative styles of coping. 99) When bad things happen to some people, they tend to blame it on themselves and fail to realize that things are likely to get better. This is known as ______________. a. a pessimistic explanatory style b. learned helplessness c. compensatory control d. resilience

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

Correct: A pessimistic explanatory style is the tendency to interpret and explain negative events as internally based and as a constant, stable quality. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 612 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand positive and negative styles of coping. 100) What is the relationship between perceived control and the experience of stress? a. Research has not revealed any relationship between stress and perceived control. b. Stress and control are directly related, meaning that the more control we perceive we have, the more stress we tend to experience. c. Experiencing stress in a given situation lowers our perception of the control we have over that stressor. d. The perception that one has control over a situation helps reduce the stress caused by that situation. Correct: A lack of control, either real or perceived, can have a negative impact on health and behaviour. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 618 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. 101) In a famous study, Seligman and his colleagues trained dogs that a tone predicated an inescapable shock. When the dogs were put into a situation where they could avoid the shock simply by moving to a "safe zone," they would simply lie down and receive the shock. This phenomenon is called ___________. a. masochism b. learned helplessness c. a pessimistic response pattern d. negative affectivity Correct: This finding was described as learned helplessness—an acquired suppression of avoidance or escape behaviour in response to unpleasant, uncontrollable circumstances. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 618 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. 102) When Franz was young his father would beat him. Franz is now stronger than his father and could stop the beatings; however, Franz simply curls up into a ball and lets his father beat him. This might be an example of ______________. a. masochism b. learned helplessness c. a pessimistic response pattern d. negative affectivity Correct: This finding was described as learned helplessness—an acquired suppression of avoidance or escape behaviour in response to unpleasant, uncontrollable circumstances. Franz's behaviour is similar to the dogs used in Seligman's famous experiment. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 618 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. 103) Some psychologists believe that learned helplessness explains aspects of _____________. a. depression b. religious faith c. sadomasochism d. dyslexia Correct: Learned helplessness has been offered as an explanation for how people with depression tend to view the world. People with depression are prone to hold beliefs that their actions have no influence on external events, and that their environment and circumstances dictate outcomes. Answer: a Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 618 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. 104) Many people cope with stressful life events through _______________, which refers to psychological strategies people use to preserve a sense of nonrandom order when personal control is compromised. a. compensatory control b. post-traumatic growth c. pessimistic explanatory styles d. negative affectivity Correct: Many people cope with stressful life events through compensatory control— psychological strategies people use to preserve a sense of nonrandom order when personal control is compromised. For example, people who are skeptical of any divine purpose in the world may change their view in the wake of personal or societal tragedy. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 619–620 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. 105) Nelson has recently begun to feel that he has no control over his life. Which of the following is he most likely to do as a result? a. denounce all religions as superstitions b. realize that feeling in control was actually stressful c. develop a negative affectivity d. develop superstitious explanations about why things happen Correct: When people feel their sense of control is undermined, they compensate by heightening their search for structure in the world, to the point of calling upon their imagination. This includes superstitious thinking. Answer: d Diff: 2

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

Type: MC Page Reference: 620 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. 106) ________________ is a protein in the nervous system that promotes survival, growth, and formation of new synapses. a. Flavonoid b. Omega-3 fatty acid c. Oxytocin d. Brain-derived neurotrophic factor Correct: This is the textbook's description of brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF). Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 617 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. 107) What is BDNF? a. a stress hormone b. a nutrient found in various plants c. a brain protein which increases following intense exercise d. a type of meditation Correct: Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)—a protein in the nervous system that promotes survival, growth, and formation of new synapses—has been found to increase following intense exercise. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 617 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

108) One way in which exercise is believed to improve cognitive functioning is by increasing levels of ____________ in the brain. a. cortisol b. brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) c. glucocorticoids d. flavonoids Correct: Levels of brain chemicals such as BDNF are boosted by exercise, which helps explain the changes in the brain that account for the cognitive benefits. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 617 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. 109) Which of the following is NOT associated with exercise? a. increased BDNF release b. the release of cortisol c. improved brain functioning and cognitive performance d. increased production of new neurons in the hippocampus Correct: Cortisol release is associated with stress, not exercise. All of the other options are associated with exercise. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 617 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. 110) In a study described in your textbook, researchers randomly assigned participants to sprint, jog, or do nothing and then memorize a vocabulary list. Which group was able to learn the most words on average? a. the group that sprinted b. the group that jogged

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

c. the group that did nothing d. none; there was no significant difference between the groups Correct: The students who sprinted were able to learn 20% more items on a vocabulary list than the students who jogged or were inactive. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 617 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. 111) Which of the following is true about the benefits of exercise? a. Exercise has long-term, but not short-term effects on cognition. b. Exercise has short-term, but not long-term effects on cognition. c. Exercising has physical effects on the body, but does not affect cognition. d. Exercising can slow the memory declines associated with Alzheimer's disease. Correct: Exercise has both short- and long-term effects on cognition and memory. Researchers have found that older people who are at genetic risk for developing Alzheimer's disease and who show cognitive impairments can slow the rate of memory decline by exercising. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 617 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

1) According to set point theory, a person’s initial weight is determined by: a. heredity. b. eating habits during adolescence and adulthood. c. diet during the first two years of life. d. the mother's diet before birth of the child. Answer: a Page Reference: 591 2) According to __________ theory, when a person add 10% to their weight their metabolism slows down to maintain this weight making weight loss difficult. a. drive b. caloric c. hypothalamic d. set point Answer: d Page Reference: 591 3) Type A behaviour is characterized by ____________. a. learned helplessness b. relaxed attitude c. anger and impatience d. lack of competitiveness Answer: c Page Reference: 608 4) Animals exposed to unavoidable, uncontrollable aversive stimulation exhibit _______ when later trained in an avoidance procedure. a. experimental neurosis b. better learning c. learned helplessness d. enhanced performance Answer: c Page Reference: 618 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

5) Darren lost his job last week. At first, he was very upset, but now he is doing his best to find a new job. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is Darren most likely experiencing? a. alarm b. resistance Correct: Resistance occurs when we respond to a stressor in a productive way. c. exhaustion d. fight or flight Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 601, Module 14.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 6) Dr. Ellis works in the emergency room (E.R) of Toronto East General Hospital. For years, Dr. Ellis has been able to cope with the daily stressors that come with working in the E.R., and has only ever been diagnosed with high blood pressure. One day, however, Dr. Ellis has a sudden heart attack. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is Dr. Ellis most likely experiencing? a. alarm b. resistance c. exhaustion Correct: Exhaustion occurs when the stress depletes our physical resources. d. fight or flight Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 601, Module 14.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 7) Without any warning, David’s wife told him she was divorcing him to be with another man. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is David most likely experiencing? a. alarm Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

Correct: Alarm is the phase where you recognize the threat and have a physiological response to it. b. resistance c. exhaustion d. fight or flight Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 601, Module 14.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 8) A student is very stressed because of her upcoming final exams. She does her best to study day and night, but near the end of the exam period, she begins to get sick with a runny nose, cough,and fever. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is this student most likely experiencing? a. alarm b. resistance c. exhaustion Correct: Exhaustion occurs when the stress depletes our physical resources. d. fight or flight Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 601, Module 14.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 9) Julie is described as having a Type A behaviour pattern while her friend Sarah is described as having a Type B behaviour pattern. According to Friedman and Rosenman (1959, 1974), who is more likely to develop coronary heart disease (CHD)? a. Julie Correct: Type A personalities are at higher risk for cardiac problems. b. Sarah c. Julie and Sarah are equally likely to develop CHD. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

d. Neither Julie nor Sarah. Individuals with Type C behaviour patterns are most likely to develop CHD. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 608, Module 14.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 10) Danielle was in a terrible car accident one week ago. Since the accident, her family has noticed that she has been acting very differently. She has withdrawn emotionally and socially from her family and friends, she often wakes up in tears because of dreams of the crash, and she has increased her alcohol intake. Which disorder is Danielle most likely experiencing? a. major depressive disorder b. panic disorder c. post-traumatic stress disorder Correct: PTSD occurs following traumatic life events and is characterized by nightmares and social withdrawal. d. anticipatory anxiety Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 633, Module 15.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to understand the symptoms, stereotypes, and stigma surrounding psychological disorders. 11) Which illness is most strongly associated with a depressed immune system? a. multiple sclerosis b. the common cold Correct: Statement of fact. c. cancer d. arthritis

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 604, Module 14.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. 12) Which statement concerning psychoneuroimmunology is accurate? a. Positive thinking can reverse serious illnesses such as cancer. b. Significant psychological stressors can be predictive of who develops a cold. Correct: Statement of fact. c. Psychotherapy appears to prolong the survival of people diagnosed with cancer. d. Negative thinking can stimulate the development of an illness. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 604, Module 14.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping 1. The prevalence of smoking in Canada _____ over the 1990s and early 2000s. a. increased steadily b. decreased steadily c. stayed relatively constant d. increased for men and decreased for women Answer: B Module 14.1 2. What effect does watching food commercials have on the eating habits of viewers? a. Food commercials generally have little to no effect on eating habits. b. People are more likely to eat the specific product being advertised in the commercial, but not other unrelated foods. c. Snacking in general is more likely after viewers watch a food commercial. d. The eating habits of adults are influenced more by food commercials than are the eating habits of children. Answer: C Module 14.1 3. High rates of heart disease in socioeconomically disadvantaged communities are likely due to a combination of poor diet and which other factor? a. stress b. drug use c. lead exposure d. education Answer: A Module 14.1 4. Sheleigh and Henry are two married adults. Statistically speaking, how is their marriage most likely to affect their health? a. Both are likely experience health benefits from being married, but Henry probably benefits more than Sheleigh. b. Both are likely experience health benefits from being married, but Sheleigh probably benefits more than Henry. c. Henry and Sheleigh are likely to experience equal health benefits from being married. d. Both Henry and Sheleigh are likely to have worse health outcomes because they are married. Answer: A Module 14.1 5. The HPA axis involves which three structures? a. Hippocampus, pituitary gland, adrenal glands b. Hypothalamus, pineal gland, adenoids c. Hippocampus, pineal gland, adrenal glands d. Hypothalamus, pituitary gland, adrenal glands Answer: D Module 14.2 6. The health benefits of close social relationships, such as marriage, appear to be due in part to a hormone called _____. a. HPA b. cortisol c. oxytocin d. Helicobacter pylori Answer: C Module 14.2 7. Which aspect of Type A personality is most closely correlated with increased risk for heart disease? a. competitiveness b. anger and hostility c. patience Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping d. worrying about time Answer: B Module 14.2 8. Biofeedback is a therapeutic technique that involves a. focusing on a specific thought or sensation, such as an image or a repeated sound. b. attending to all thoughts, sensations, and feelings without attempting to judge or control them. c. the use of physiological recording instruments to provide feedback that increases awareness of bodily responses. d. bodily interaction with thinking and emotion. Answer: C Module 14.3 9. Gretta is in an abusive relationship with her boyfriend. Although leaving her boyfriend is an obvious way to end the abuse, Gretta has been in this situation for so long that she no longer feels that she has any control over it. Gretta’s situation illustrates the concept of _____. a. compensatory control b. learned helplessness c. resilience d. post-traumatic growth Answer: B Module 14.3

10. What is the benefit of brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)? a. It increases longevity. b. It promotes the formation of new brain synapses. c. It severely increases the effects of stress on the body. d. It leads to moderate to severe cognitive impairment. Answer: B Module 14.3

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

1) Smoking is the leading cause of preventable disease and death in Canada. Correct: Cigarette smoking is the leading preventable cause of death in Canada. Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 587 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to health psychology. 2) It is believed that snacking is responsible for the fact that watching television is correlated with obesity in men, whereas spending more time on a computer is not. Correct: The number of hours watching TV is correlated with obesity but the number of hours on the computer is not; researchers think that the difference is the result of the fact that TV is a passive activity that people can do while snacking whereas while on the computer snacking is more difficult. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 592 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. 3) Events or stimuli which trigger a stress response are called stressors. Correct: Stress refers to both events (stressors) and experiences in response to these events (the stress response). Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 599 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 4) The alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome involves recognizing a threat and the immediate physiological reaction to that threat. Correct: The first stage of the GAS is the alarm phase, which is triggered by the occurrence of a stressor. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 601 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

5) The HPA axis is the neural and endocrine circuit that causes cortisol levels to increase when it is activated by stress. Correct: Activation of the HPA axis causes cortisol to be released by the adrenal glands. Cortisol prepares the body to respond to stressful circumstances. For example, cortisol may stimulate increased access to energy stores or lead to decreased inflammation. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 602 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. 6) The bacterium Helicobacter pyloriisnow known to be the cause of ulcers. Correct: Most ulcers are caused by thebacterium Helicobacter pylori,which can cause inflammation of the lining of various regions of the digestive tract. Stress and diet can worsen the symptoms of ulcers, but are not the primary cause of them. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 606 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the claim that ulcers are caused by stress. 7) Having a Type A personality is a risk factor for developing coronary heart disease. Correct: People with Type A personalities are at a higher risk of suffering from coronary disease. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 608 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. 8) Kyle had to relearn how to walk after suffering severe injuries in a car accident. Although the event was traumatic, Kyle has proven himself to be resilient, and actually feels a greater sense of inner strength than he did prior to the accident. The ability of people like Kyle to grow and actually benefit from negative events is known as post-traumatic growth. Correct: Post-traumatic growth is the capacity to grow and experience long-term positive effects in response to negative events. Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

Type: FIB Page Reference: 614 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand positive and negative styles of coping. 9) When an animal or person develops learned helplessness, they will endure pain even when it is possible to avoid or escape it. Correct: Learned helplessness is an acquired suppression of avoidance or escape behaviour in response to unpleasant, uncontrollable circumstances. Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 618 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. 10) Levels of dopamine, epinephrine, and brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) have all been shown to increase following intense exercise. Correct: In one study discussed in the textbook, researchers discovered that the students who engaged in intense exercising had increased levels of dopamine, epinephrine, and brainderived neurotrophic factor (BDNF). Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 617 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

1) The leading cause of preventable death in Canada today is obesity. a. True b. False Correct: Cigarette smoking is the leading cause of preventable death in Canada. Answer: b Page Reference: 587 2) According to set point theory, the body tries to maintain body weight within a relatively small range. a. True b. False Correct: The set point is a hypothesized mechanism that serves to maintain body weight around a physiologically programmed level. The set point is not an exact number of pounds, but rather a relatively small range encompassing 10% to 20% of one's weight. Answer: a Page Reference: 591 3) In terms of health, both spouses benefit equally from marriage. a. True b. False Correct: Statistically, men benefit more than women do from marriage. Answer: b Page Reference: 595 4) Some stress is actually beneficial for performance. a. True b. False Correct: Some level of stress can actually be helpful—without it, motivation to perform can decline. Answer: a Page Reference: 599

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

5) The hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine are released from the adrenal glands in response to stress and are associated with the fight-or-flight response. a. True b. False Correct: This is a statement of fact. Answer: a Page Reference: 602 6) Most ulcers are caused by stress. a. True b. False Correct: Most ulcers are caused by a bacterium, Helicobacter pylori, not stress. Answer: b Page Reference: 606 7) Optimists are better protected against coronary heart disease than are pessimists. a. True b. False Correct: This is a statement of fact. Answer: a Page Reference: 612 8) Circumstances in which people have little or no control are less stressful because they do not require decisions or choices. a. True b. False Correct: The most stressful circumstances are those that people have little or no control over. Answer: b Page Reference: 618 9) When people feel their sense of control is undermined, they compensate by heightening their search for structure in the world. a. True b. False Correct: In one study, participants who had a diminished sense of control were more likely to report seeing patterns within completely random images. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 14: Health, Stress, and Coping

Answer: a Page Reference: 619 10) Research indicates that while watching more television is correlated with obesity spending more time on the computer is not. a. True b. False Correct: Research has shown that TV watching is positively correlated with obesity while computer use is not. Researchers speculate that TV watchers are more likely to snack than computer users, thus explaining the difference. Answer: a Page Reference: 592

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

1) If a therapist thinks about psychological disorders in the same general way a physician thinks about diseases, the therapist is primarily applying the ______________ model to understand mental illness. a. diagnostic b. biopsychosocial c. maladaptive d. medical Correct: The medical model involves using our understanding of medical conditions to think about psychological conditions. For example, a psychological disorder, just like a medical condition, can be thought of in terms of its symptoms, causes, preventative measures, and treatments. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 625 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. 2) Jonah's therapist tells him that his depression is likely the result of several factors, including having a genetic predisposition to depression, a pessimistic personality, and a chaotic family life. This view of depression is an example of the _______________ model. a. many-factor b. biopsychosocial c. maladaptive d. medical Correct: The biopsychosocial model assumes that mental illnesses like depression have many different causes. In particular, the model suggests that mental health is the result of interactions between biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 625 Skill: Applied

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. 3) The psychological study of mental illness is most accurately referred to as a. abnormal psychology. b. biopsychosocial psychology. c. maladaptive psychology. d. medical psychology Correct: Abnormal psychology is the psychological study of mental illness. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 625 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. 4) Kendra is a 10-year-old musical prodigy. If she hears a piece of music once, she can play it perfectly on the piano from memory. Kendra's abilities would be accurately described using which of the following terms? a. abnormal b. unusual c. maladaptive d. stigmatized Correct: Kendra's ability is unusual because it is rare for a 10-year-old to be so musically talented. However, because her ability does not cause distress, impair her ability to function, or harm anyone, it would be incorrect to consider it abnormal or maladaptive. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 626 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

5) One sign of abnormality is when a person engages in behaviour that creates a great deal of a. distress. b. attention. c. distraction. d. disapproval. Correct: One of the three criteria for identifying maladaptive or "abnormal" behaviour is whether or not the behaviour causes distress to self or others. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 626 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. 6) Any pattern of behaviour that causes people significant distress, increases the risk of injury or death, and/or harms their ability to function in daily life is called a. maladaptive. c. stress syndrome. d. adaptive behaviour. Correct: The American Psychiatric Association provides three main criteria to identify maladaptive behaviour: 1) The behaviour causes distress to self or others; 2) The behaviour impairs the ability to function in day-to-day activities; 3) The behaviour increases the risk of injury, death, legal problems or punishment for breaking rules, or other detrimental consequences.b. humours. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 626 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

7) DSM stands for a. Diagrammatic and Statistical Manual. b. Deviance and Sadism Manual. c. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual. d. Developmental Sickness Model. Correct: To diagnose psychological disorders, psychologists and psychiatrists rely on the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-IV), the manual that establishes criteria for the diagnosis of mental disorders. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 627 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. 8) The primary purpose of the DSM-Vis to a. help psychologists assess only normal behaviour. b. keep the number of diagnostic categories of mental disorders to a minimum. c. help psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders. d. describe the causes of common physiological disorders. Correct: To diagnose psychological disorders, psychologists and psychiatrists rely on the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-V), the manual that establishes criteria for the diagnosis of mental disorders. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 627 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. 9) Dr. Nwoambi is an American psychologist who is currently evaluating a new client. Dr. Nwoambi would most likely refer to the _________ to assist her in diagnosing her client's psychological disorder.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

a. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders b. Physician's Desk Reference c. Textbook of Psychological Disorders d. Manual of Psychological and Behavioural Disorders Correct: To diagnose psychological disorders, psychologists and psychiatrists rely on the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-V), the manual that establishes criteria for the diagnosis of mental disorders. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 627 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. 10) The etiology of a psychological disorder refers to its a. formal classification. b. symptoms. c. origins or causes. Correct: Etiology refers to the origins or causes of symptoms. d. treatment. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 627 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. 11) The diagnostic criteria in the DSM-5 are based on a __________ approach. a. biological b. biopsychosocial c. psychological d. social and cultural

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Correct: The DSM-V addresses problems associated with the physical, mental, and social functioning of an individual. Its widespread use attests to how useful the biopsychosocial model is in understanding mental health. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 627 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. 12) The ________ rule is a test of legal insanity that came from an 1843 British trial. a. Irresistible Impulse b. Durham c. M'Naghten d. ALI Correct: The precedent for the insanity defense was set in Great Britain in 1843, when a jury found Daniel M'Naghten was not legally responsible for his actions. The test for determining whether a defendant is "not guilty by reason of insanity" is now known as the "M'Naghten rule." Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 632 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the differences between the concepts of psychological disorders and insanity. 13) Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the intersection of the mental health and legal industries? a. The insanity defense is raised in less than 1% of all criminal trials, and is only successful about 20% of the time. b. "Insanity" is a psychological/psychiatric term. c. The serial killer Jeffrey Dahmer was famously found not guilty by reason of insanity. d. The precedent for the insanity defense is a trial that occurred in the 1970s.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Correct: The insanity defense is a rare occurrence—it is advanced in fewer than 1% of U.S. federal cases—and it has a success rate of only 20% of the time when it is used. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 632 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the differences between the concepts of psychological disorders and insanity. 14) Stigmatization is often an unintended result of a. outpatient treatment for psychological disorders. b. using the dimensional view instead of the categorical view to diagnosis mental illness. c. applying the medical model. d. labeling individuals as suffering from a psychological disorder. Correct: Labeling a person as suffering from a psychological disorder may help treat the problem; however, these diagnostic labels can also have their drawbacks, the worst of which is stigmatization. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 631 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to understand the symptoms, stereotypes, and stigma surrounding psychological disorders. 15) Melissa was recently diagnosed as suffering from bipolar disorder. When her coworkers find out, they stop inviting her to get drinks after work, and her boss promotes several less qualified employees ahead of her. The most likely cause of Melissa's treatment is a. the M'Naghten effect. b. the stigma associated with mental illness. c. her coworkers confusing "unusual" behaviour for "abnormal" behaviour. d. her coworkers confusing bipolar and unipolar disorder.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Correct: Stigmas include negative stereotypes about what it means to have a psychological disorder, and stigmatization may lead to discrimination, unjustified fears, and alienation. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 631 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to understand the symptoms, stereotypes, and stigma surrounding psychological disorders. 16) In a famous study discussed in your textbook, eight normal individuals were committed to a psychiatric hospital after claiming that they were experiencing hallucinations. Which of the following happened next? a. The hospital staff continued to view them as abnormal, despite the fact that they had no symptoms. b. The hospital staff realized that they had been faking their original symptoms. c. Being in the psychiatric hospital caused them to develop real psychological symptoms after several days. d. They quickly quit the study because the conditions in the psychiatric hospital were so poor. Correct: After their admission, these so-called patients behaved normally, complaining of no psychiatric symptoms whatsoever. Nonetheless, they remained hospitalized for an average of 19 days until being released as "in remission." Apparently, the initial diagnosis led the hospital staff to misinterpret even normal behaviour as symptoms of an illness. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 630 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to understand the symptoms, stereotypes, and stigma surrounding psychological disorders. 17) Which of the following best describes the argument for the use of labels applied to psychological disorders? a. There are no recognized negative side effects associated with the use of labels for psychological disorders. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

b. Labels provide an alternative to the DSM system for diagnosing mental illness. c. Using labels reduces the stigma associated with mental illness. d. Labels are often necessary for identifying and treating specific psychological disorders. Correct: Many professionals agree that labels—such as those found in the DSM—are a necessary means of identifying and describing the problems they encounter. However, the use of labels can also lead to stigmatization of those diagnosed with a psychological disorder. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 629 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labeling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. 18) Research indicates that one way to reduce the stigma associated with mental illness is to a. remove individuals with mental illness from the general population. b. increase knowledge of biopsychosocial explanations of mental illness. c. reduce unnecessary concern by limiting the public's exposure to topics related to mental illness. d. require people diagnosed with mental illness to notify their employers. Correct: Research shows that personal contact and knowledge of biopsychosocial explanations of mental illness are associated with lower stigma. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 630 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to understand the symptoms, stereotypes, and stigma surrounding psychological disorders. 19) When comparing individuals from a variety of cultures who have been diagnosed with PTSD, researchers have found that a. individuals from Western and Eastern cultures experience the same physiological, cognitive, and emotional symptoms.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

b. individuals from Western cultures experience different physiological, cognitive, and emotional symptoms, compared to those from Eastern cultures. c. individuals from Western cultures experience the same physiological symptoms as those from Eastern cultures, but experience different cognitive and emotional symptoms. d. individuals from Western cultures experience the same cognitive and emotional symptoms as those from Eastern cultures, but experience different physiological symptoms. Correct: Several teams of researchers have studied PTSD in war-torn villages of Afghanistan, as well as in the aftermath of the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami that struck Sri Lanka. They found very clear evidence of the physiological symptoms of PTSD, but they were surprised at the difference in the cognitive and emotional symptoms experienced by members of Western and Eastern cultures. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 663 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to understand the symptoms, stereotypes, and stigma surrounding psychological disorders. 20) People with _________ disorders have an excessively rigid, maladaptive pattern of behaviour and ways of relating to others. a. personality b. mood c. affective d. schizophrenic Correct: Mental health professionals identify personality disorders as particularly unusual patterns of behaviour for one's culture that are maladaptive, distressing to oneself or others, and resistant to change. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 636 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

21) Antisocial, paranoid, and schizoid are all types of ________ disorders. a. mood b. dissociative c. personality d. anxiety Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 636 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 22) Which cluster of personality disorders contains paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders? a. the anxious and fearful cluster b. the odd and eccentric cluster c. the dramatic and emotional cluster d. the erratic and somatoform cluster Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 636 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 23) A person who has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder is most likely to exhibit a. a charming, self-centered, and manipulative interpersonal style. b. impulsivity and unpredictability in his or her interactions with others. c. intense discomfort in most social situations and odd thinking and behaviour patterns.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

d. a strong need to be the center of attention in all social situations. Correct: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by intense extremes between positive and negative emotions, an unstable sense of self, impulsivity, and difficult social relationships. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 637 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 24) Marty is moody, often switching from one extreme emotion to its opposite. He wants to have close relationships but is unable to do so because he is untrusting of others. Marty is most likely suffering from ______ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. avoidant c. dependent d. borderline Correct: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by intense extremes between positive and negative emotions, an unstable sense of self, impulsivity, and difficult social relationships. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 637 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 25) The tendency to think in "all-or-none" terms is characteristic of a. antisocial personality disorder. b. borderline personality disorder. c. paranoid schizophrenia. d. a dissociative fugue.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Correct: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by intense extremes between positive and negative emotions, an unstable sense of self, impulsivity, and difficult social relationships. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 637 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 26) Self-injury, such as the intentional cutting of one's self, is most closely associated with which personality disorder? a. antisocial b. avoidant c. dependent d. borderline Correct: One of the most distinguishing features of borderline personality disorder is the tendency toward self-injury, which may involve cutting or burning oneself. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 637 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 27) Cindy craves the attention of everyone around her. The few friends that she has admit that Cindy is "full of herself," and acts like she is better than everyone else. When Cindy had sex with her best friend's boyfriend, she felt no remorse. Which personality disorder would Cindy be most likely to be diagnosed with? a. borderline b. avoidant c. narcissistic d. dependent

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Correct: Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by an inflated sense of selfimportance and an intense need for attention and admiration, as well as intense selfdoubt and fear of abandonment. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 637 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 28) Which personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention seeking and dramatic behaviour, including being overly flirtatious? a. histrionic b. borderline c. narcissistic d. dependent Correct: Histrionic personality disorder (HPD) is characterized by excessive attention seeking and dramatic behaviour. People who have HPD are typically very successful at drawing people in with flirtatiousness, provocative sexuality, and flattery, but they are simply playing the roles they believe are necessary to be the center of attention. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 637 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 29) John has made a career of stealing older people's retirement money by taking advantage of their trust and selling them phony retirement investments. John explains that he has done nothing wrong—if these people were not so greedy, they would not be so eager to invest in his phony schemes. In his mind, his victims got exactly what they deserved. John's behaviour and attitude are typical of someone with ________ personality disorder. a. schizoid b. schizotypal

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

c. histrionic d. antisocial Correct: Antisocial personality disorder refers to a condition marked by a habitual pattern of willingly violating others' personal rights, with very little sign of empathy or remorse. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 637 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 30) People with which personality disorder are most likely to be arrested for violent or destructive crimes? a. antisocial b. borderline c. histrionic d. schizoid Correct: Antisocial personality disorder (APD) refers to a condition marked by a habitual pattern of willingly violating others' personal rights, with very little sign of empathy or remorse. People with APD tend to be physically and verbally abusive, destructive, and frequently find themselves in trouble with the law. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 37 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 31) A psychiatric patient repeatedly breaks the law, behaves impulsively, and generally demonstrates a disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others. It is most likely that this patient will be diagnosed with a. borderline personality disorder. b. antisocial personality disorder.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

c. bipolar disorder. d. schizophrenia. Correct: Antisocial personality disorder refers to a condition marked by a habitual pattern of willingly violating others' personal rights, with very little sign of empathy or remorse. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 637 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 32) When people diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder (APD) are exposed to stressful stimuli, such as loud noises or the sudden appearance of an angry face, they react _________________ people without APD. a. more than b. less than c. about the same as d. faster than Correct: Researchers have discovered that people with antisocial personality disorder are under-reactive to stress. For example, a flash of light, a loud sound, or the sudden appearance of an angry face will startle most people. In contrast, people with APD show very weak startle responses—such as blinking—when exposed to unpleasant stimuli. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 638 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the biopsychosocial model to understand the causes of personality disorders. 33) People with antisocial personality disorder do not respond physiologically in the same manner that other people do. For example, when compared to control participants, they a. are hyper-responsive to loud sounds and bright lights.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

b. have more parasympathetic activation. c. are over-reactive to stress. d. show very weak startle responses—such as blinking—when exposed to unpleasant stimuli. Correct: In one study, researchers recorded the electrical signals of the eyeblink muscles while presenting disturbing images to a group of people with APD and without APD. The group of people with APD had much weaker responses. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 638 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply the biopsychosocial model to understand the causes of personality disorders. 34) Which of the following is a sociocultural factor that might contribute to the development of psychopathy or antisocial personality disorder? a. having a genetic predisposition b. growing up in a violent neighbourhood c. unique activity in the limbic system d. having ADHD Correct: Children begin to develop social skills and emotional attachments at home and in their local neighbourhood. Not surprisingly, then, troubled homes and neighbourhoods can contribute to the development of psychopathy or antisocial personality disorder. The other options are not sociocultural explanations. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 640 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the biopsychosocial model to understand the causes of personality disorders. 35) Some psychologists believe that histrionic personality disorder occurs when an individual engages in attention seeking to avoid the negative feelings they associate with being unnoticed. This is an example of a ___________ explanation for personality disorders. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural d. comorbid Correct: Emotional and cognitive causes are examples of psychological factors that may contribute to personality disorders. In this example, histrionic behaviour is the result of a negative self-image. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 640 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply the biopsychosocial model to understand the causes of personality disorders. 36) What general category of psychological disorders is characterized by a disruption in one's complete and unified sense of conscious awareness, memory, and identity? a. anxiety disorders b. dissociative disorders c. personality disorders d. schizophrenia Correct: Dissociative disorder is a category of mental disorders characterized by a split between conscious awareness from feeling, cognition, memory, and identity. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 641 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 37) Ned seeks therapy after having recurrent episodes of feeling "detached from himself" for several months, but he has not lost his self-awareness or memory. He notes that he feels like a robot, disconnected from his movements and actions. He also says that sometimes he feels like he "is no longer real." He is most likely suffering from a. dissociative fugue. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

b. dissociative amnesia. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. depersonalization disorder. Correct: Depersonalization disorder involves a belief that one has changed in some fundamental way, possibly ceasing to be "real." Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 641 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 38) After being passed up for a promotion and then getting into a heated argument with his son, a man disappears. He shows up two weeks later in another town with no memory of who he is or how he got there. He appears to be suffering from a. schizophrenia. b. a personality disorder. c. a dissociative disorder. d. a mood disorder. Correct: One type of dissociative disorder is called dissociative fugue. This disorder is characterized by a period of profound autobiographical memory loss. People in fugue states take unplanned trips, and may go so far as to develop a new identity in a new location with no recollection of their past. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 641 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 39) A dissociative disorder characterized by a partial or complete loss of memory for personal information that is usually associated with a stressful or emotionally traumatic experience is known as a. dissociative identity disorder.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

b. depersonalization disorder. c. dissociative amnesia. d. dissociative fugue. Correct: Dissociative amnesia involves a severe loss of memory, usually for a specific stressful event, when no biological cause for amnesia is present. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 641 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 40) The presence of at least two distinct personalities is characteristic of a. antisocial personality disorder. b. dissociative amnesia. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. schizophrenia. Correct: Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is a controversial disorder in which a person claims that his or her identity has split into one or more distinct alter personalities. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 641 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 41) A disorder marked by the apparent appearance within one person of two or more personalities, each with its own name and distinctive traits, is called _____________ disorder. a. dissociative identity b. personality c. bipolar

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

d. schizophrenia Correct: Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is a controversial disorder in which a person claims that his or her identity has split into one or more distinct alter personalities. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 641 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 42) Which of the following disorders is the most controversial diagnosis? a. dissociative identity disorder b. histrionic personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizophrenia Correct: Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is a controversial disorder in which a person claims that his or her identity has split into one or more distinct alter personalities. Many psychologists question the validity of this diagnosis. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 641 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. 43) Which of the following is most likely to be cited by psychologists as a reason to be skeptical about dissociative identity disorder (DID)? a. PET scan studies of people diagnosed with DID b. a steep increase in DID rates from the 1970s to 1990s c. evidence for memory dissociation in those diagnosed with DID d. the association between DID and stressful events Correct: Skeptics of DID point to the steep rise in the number of cases of DID as evidence for social and cultural effects, such as the popularization of a film called Sybil". The

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

memory and PET scan studies discussed in the textbook actually provide limited support for DID. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 642 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. 44) Skeptics of dissociative identity disorder (DID) argue that a. DID should really be referred to as schizophrenia b. it should be easy to test objectively the validity of DID. c. DID is likely caused by traumatic experiences. d. some therapists actually provoke dissociative symptoms during therapy. Correct: Because 80% of patients diagnosed with DID were unaware of having the disorder before starting therapy, many skeptics believe that some therapists actually provoke dissociative symptoms in the context of therapy. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 642 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. 45) Jarrod fears leaving his apartment during daylight hours even for a short walk to get his mail. His diagnosis would most likely belong in the category of __________ disorders. a. mood b. personality c. anxiety d. impulse-control Correct: Anxiety disorders are a category of disorders involving fear or nervousness that is excessive, irrational, and maladaptive. Answer: c

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Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 647 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. 46) ______________ disorders are characterized by fear or nervousness that is excessive, irrational, and maladaptive. a. Anxiety b. Personality c. Mood d. Dissociative Correct: Anxiety disorders are a category of disorders involving fear or nervousness that is excessive, irrational, and maladaptive. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 646 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. 47) Dikeshia is giving a presentation in her abnormal psychology class on the prevalence of psychological disorders. If you were a student in that class, what general category of disorders would you expect her to mention as one of the most frequently diagnosed psychological disorders? a. anxiety disorders b. dissociative disorders c. personality disorders d. schizophrenia Correct: Anxiety disorders are among the most frequently diagnosed, affecting about 1 in 8 Canadians. Answer: a Diff: 3

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Type: MC Page Reference: 646 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. 48) Anxiety is associated with physiological responses such as a racing heart and increased respiration. Which of the following is true about these physiological changes? a. they are always a sign of mental illness b. they are always maladaptive c. they are an important part of the fight-or-flight response d. they are always adaptive Correct: Anxiety is based on a normal physiological and psychological response to stressful events known as the fight-or-flight response. These responses can be highly adaptive, but may become deregulated in anxiety disorders. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 646 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether maladaptive aspects of psychological disorders might arise from perfectly normal, healthy behaviours. 49) One explanation for _____________ disorders is that the body's flight-or-fight response is overactive. a. mood b. anxiety c. personality d. schizophrenic Correct: Anxiety is based on a normal physiological and psychological response to stressful events known as the fight-or-flight response. These responses can be highly adaptive, but may become deregulated in anxiety disorders. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 646 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether maladaptive aspects of psychological disorders might arise from perfectly normal, healthy behaviours. 50) Shelby is concerned that she is spending too much of her day worrying about things that are out of her control. She often feels tense, even in situations where there is nothing that is directly threatening her safety. If you were a clinical psychologist, you would be trying to determine if Shelby meets the criteria for a. agoraphobia. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. major depression. d. social phobia. Correct: Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) involves frequently elevated levels of anxiety that are not directed at or limited to any particular situation. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 647 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 51) Leo worries all of the time. He worries about his money, his children, and his dog. He cannot identify the specific source of his worry, but rather feels an overall sense of constant concern. Leo's symptoms sound most like a. panic disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. a dissociative disorder Correct: Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) involves frequently elevated levels of anxiety that are not directed at or limited to any particular situation. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 647 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

52) Darcy is sitting at her desk in her office one day when, without warning, her heart begins racing rapidly, she starts sweating profusely, and she is gripped with a terrifying fear that she is about to go crazy. Nothing she is doing seems to have caused such an episode. Her symptoms most resemble a. a phobic disorder. b. a panic attack. c. post-traumatic stress. d. a compulsion Correct: The key feature of panic disorder is panic attacks—brief moments of extreme anxiety that include a rush of physical activity paired with frightening thoughts. A panic attack escalates when the fear of death causes increased physical arousal, and the increased physical symptoms feed the frightening thoughts. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 647 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 53) While each panic attack is different, the symptoms of a panic attack often peak in less than a. 3 minutes. b. 10 minutes. c. 30 minutes. d. 45 minutes. Correct: The escalation of a panic attack rarely goes on for more than 10 minutes, after which the individual will eventually return to a more relaxed state. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 647 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

54) People who suffer from panic attacks often also experience a. obsessions. b. paranoia. c. agoraphobia. d. compulsions. Correct: People with panic disorder often develop an intense fear that the panic will strike again, which can lead to agoraphobia, an intense fear of having a panic attack or lower-level panic symptoms in public. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 647 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 55) Agoraphobia is an intense fear of a. clowns. b. having a panic attack in a public place. c. developing a mental illness. d. being responsible for the death of another. Correct: People with panic disorder often develop an intense fear that the panic will strike again, which can lead to agoraphobia, an intense fear of having a panic attack or lower-level panic symptoms in public. Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 647 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 56) Manny has such an intense fear of flying insects that he hardly ever goes outside his house during the summer months. He is probably suffering from a a. panic disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder.

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c. personality disorder. d. phobia. Correct: A phobia is a severe, irrational fear of a very specific object or situation. In contrast, panic disorder is characterized by panic attacks that generally do not occur in response to a single, identifiable trigger. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 647 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 57) Davis has such an intense, irrational fear of clowns that he cannot take his daughters to see the circus when it is in town. Davis would be most correctly diagnosed as suffering from a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. panic disorder. c. a phobia. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. Correct: A phobia is a severe, irrational fear of a very specific object or situation. In contrast, panic disorder is characterized by panic attacks that generally do not occur in response to a single, identifiable trigger. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 647 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 58) What is the main difference between generalized anxiety disorder and phobias? a. Phobias are linked to specific triggers while generalized anxiety disorder is not linked to a specific trigger. b. Generalized anxiety disorder is linked to a specific trigger while phobias are not linked to a specific trigger. c. Generalized anxiety disorder is an anxiety disorder, while phobias are considered mood disorders. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

d. Generalized anxiety disorder is an anxiety disorder, while phobias are considered dissociative disorders. Correct: In contrast to generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), where an individual's anxiety can be applied to just about any situation, a phobia is a severe, irrational fear of a very specific object or situation. Both are anxiety disorders. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 647 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 59) From an evolutionary perspective, humans would be most likely to develop a phobia to which of the following? a. atomic weapons b. guns c. snakes d. house cats Correct: According to the evolutionary perspective, humans are genetically predisposed to fear things that have represented a potential threat for thousands of years. Because snakes are potentially dangerous and have been part of the human experience for our entire evolutionary history, it is most likely we would be predisposed to develop snake phobias. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 648 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 60) People who have a(n) __________ are afraid of being evaluated in some negative way by others, so they tend to avoid situations that can be embarrassing. a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. social phobia c. specific phobia d. interactive phobia Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Correct: Social anxiety disorder is characterized by social phobias—irrational fears of being observed, evaluated, or embarrassed in public. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 649 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 61) A strong, intense fear of being in public or performing behaviours in public might be characteristic of a. antisocial personality disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. panic disorder. d. social anxiety disorder. Correct: Social anxiety disorder is characterized by social phobias—irrational fears of being observed, evaluated, or embarrassed in public. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 649 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 62) During the day, Barb suffers from frequent, unwanted thoughts that she has left her front door unlocked and recurrent images that all her belongings have been taken. These thoughts and images are what psychologists refer to as a a. compulsion. b. delusion. c. hallucination. d. obsession. Correct: Obsessions are unwanted, inappropriate, and persistent thoughts. In contrast, compulsions are repetitive stereotyped behaviours. Answer: d

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 650 Skill: Applied Objective: KNOW the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders 63) Sierra is constantly worried that everyone whom she comes in contact with is full of germs, so she is constantly rushing off to wash her hands. Sierra may suffer from which psychological disorder? a. clinical depression b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. social phobia d. paranoid schizophrenia Correct: Obsessive–compulsive disorder (OCD) is a disorder characterized by unwanted, inappropriate, and persistent thoughts (obsessions); repetitive stereotyped behaviours (compulsions); or a combination of the two. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 650 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 64) Mr. Carpenter is constantly afraid that he is going to oversleep and be late for work. As a result, he spends nearly an hour total each night making certain that his alarm clock is correctly set and saying ”It's set, it's set, it's set” each of the times he checks it. This repetitive action is what clinical psychologists refer to as a a. compulsion. b. delusion. c. hallucination. d. obsession. Correct: Compulsions are repetitive stereotyped behaviours such as repeated cleaning or checking. In this example, the action of checking the clock is a compulsion. In contrast, Mr. Carpenter's fear that the alarm is not set correctly would be an obsession. Answer: a Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 651 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. 65) Each day, while Sid is sitting at his desk at work, he continually thinks about germs. Each time this occurs, he washes his hands. Sid probably suffers from a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. panic disorder c. bipolar disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder Correct: Obsessive–compulsive disorder (OCD) is a disorder characterized by unwanted, inappropriate, and persistent thoughts (obsessions); repetitive stereotyped behaviours (compulsions); or a combination of the two. Fear of germs accompanied by repetitive hand washing is a common example of OCD. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 650 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 66) People with OCD often develop ____________ in response to ______________. a. agoraphobia; anxiety b. anxiety; agoraphobia c. an obsession; a specific compulsion d. a compulsion; a specific obsession Correct: Compulsive behaviours often arise from specific obsessions. For example, people who are obsessively worried about germs may compulsively wash their hands. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 650

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Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 67) Which of the following is an example of the "vicious cycle" of anxiety disorders? a. a child inherits a gene for anxiety from her parents b. a person with severe anxiety makes himself feel better by starting fights c. a man who was sexually abused as a child develops anxiety as an adult. d. a women with social phobia notices every little mistake she makes in front of others, which makes her more anxious Correct: The vicious cycle of anxiety disorders refers to the fact that they tend to be selfperpetuating. This means that being anxious can actually lead to more anxiety. In this example, the woman's social anxiety makes her hypersensitive to her own mistakes. This in turn causes more anxiety, continuing and perhaps worsening her symptoms. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 650 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how anxiety or mood disorders can be self-perpetuating. 68) Prolonged periods of sadness, feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, social withdrawal, and cognitive and physical sluggishness best describes which disorder? a. major depression b. OCD c. bipolar disorder d. DID Correct: Major depression is a disorder marked by prolonged periods of sadness, feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, social withdrawal, and cognitive and physical sluggishness. While these symptoms can also occur for periods in bipolar disorder, bipolar disorder also includes periods of mania. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 653 Skill: Factual

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders 69) Research into demographic differences in the rates of major depression, or clinical depression as it is often called, suggests that a. men and woman have similar rates of diagnosis in the United States. b. men are more likely than women to be diagnosed with the disorder in the United States. c. men are less likely than women to be diagnosed with the disorder in the United States. d. there are no age, gender, or racial differences in the prevalence of the disorder in the United States. Correct: Due to a combination of biological, cognitive, and sociocultural differences, rates of depression are twice as high among women as among men. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 653 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive-compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. 70) What mood disorder is characterized by alterations between periods of extremely high levels and extremely low levels of activity? a. bipolar disorder b. major depression c. OCD d. dissociative fugue Correct: Bipolar disorder is characterized by extreme highs and lows in mood, motivation, and energy. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 653 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

71) Kayla has experienced a decrease in the need for sleep for the past three nights, is extremely talkative and sexually charged, and has been very irresponsible with money during this time. Kayla is in the midst of a(n) a. dissociated amnesiac episode. b. major depressive episode. c. manic episode. d. obsessive episode. Correct: Mania may take several forms: Some individuals talk so fast that their thoughts cannot keep up; others run up credit card bills of thousands of dollars with the idea that somehow they can afford it. People experiencing mania may be sexually charged or ready to start a fight. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 653 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. 72) A person who suffers from bipolar disorder alternates between a. depression and mania. b. depression and schizophrenia. c. mania and schizophrenia. d. anxiety and mania. Correct: Bipolar disorder involves depression at one end and mania (an extremely energized, positive mood) at the other end. Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 653 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

73) __________ is a disorder in which a person experiences episodes of mania and depression. a. Generalized anxiety disorder b. Major depression c. Bipolar disorder d. Borderline personality disorder Correct: Bipolar disorder involves depression at one end and mania (an extremely energized, positive mood) at the other end. Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 653 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. 74) Which of the following is a mood disorder? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. multiple personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. bipolar disorder Correct: Bipolar disorder is one of two mood disorders discussed in the textbook. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is considered an anxiety disorder, and the remaining options are types of personality disorders. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 653 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. 75) The depressive explanatory style is characterized by which three elements? a. externalizing, unstabilizing, globalizing b. internalizing, stabilizing, globalizing Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

c. externalizing, stabilizing, localizing d. internalizing, unstabilizing, localizing Correct: The three elements of the depressive explanatory style are internalizing, stabilizing, and globalizing. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 654 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. 76) Sandra is suffering from major depression. She is convinced that she will always be unhappy and her life will never change. Which of the three elements of the depressive explanatory style does this illustrate? a. globalizing b. internalizing c. stabilizing d. unstabilizing Correct: The three elements of the depressive explanatory style are internalizing, stabilizing, and globalizing. Stabilizing refers to the tendency to explain life as unchanging. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 654 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. 77) One biological explanation for depression is that an overactive ______________ responds strongly to emotions and sends signals that lead to a decrease in ______________ activity. a. caudate; brainstem b. brainstem; caudate c. limbic system; frontal cortex Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

d. frontal cortex; limbic system Correct: The overactive limbic system responds strongly to emotions and sends signals that lead to a decrease in frontal lobe activity, and the decrease in frontal lobe functioning reduces the ability to concentrate and control what one thinks about. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 654 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. 78) Which neurotransmitters are most important in the development of mood disorders? a. GABA, endorphins, and serotonin b. acetylcholine, serotonin, and GABA c. dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine d. norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and serotonin Correct: Various neurotransmitters of the brain—especially serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine—appear to be involved in the development of depression. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 654 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. 79) According to your textbook, which of the following is true regarding sociocultural factors and the development of mood disorders, particularly depression? a. Depression is caused almost exclusively by sociocultural factors. b. Sociocultural factors do not appear to influence the development of depression. c. Sociocultural factors interact with biological and cognitive factors to influence depression. d. Researchers have not yet investigated the role of sociocultural factors in the development of depression.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Correct: In particular, socioeconomic and environmental factors leave some individuals more vulnerable to mood disorders. However, biological and cognitive factors explain why some individuals do not develop mood disorders when exposed to stressful environmental factors. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 655 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. 80) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding suicide? a. Suicide is far more likely among men than it is among women. b. Suicide is far more likely among children that it is among adults. c. Adolescents are at a greater risk of suicide than the elderly. d. Americans of Hispanic decent are at the highest risk for suicide. Correct: Suicide is four times more likely among males than among females, and two to three times more likely among Native Americans and European Americans than among individuals of other ethnicities. The elderly are actually at a higher risk for suicide than adolescents. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 655 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive-compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. 81) For young individuals, the risk for suicide is greatest when they are a. the victim of bullying. b. the perpetrator of bullying. c. not involved in bullying. d. both a victim and a perpetrator of bullying.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Correct: For younger individuals, being the victim of bullying and ostracism is a risk factor, but it is a greater concern when youth are both the victims and the perpetrators of bullying. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 655 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive-compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. 82) The rate of schizophrenia in the general population is around a. 1%. b. 5%. c. 10%. d. 20%. Correct: Approximately 7.6 out of 1000 adults (not quite 1% of the population) will experience schizophrenia at some point in their lives. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 549 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 83) A patient in a psychiatric hospital exhibits disordered thinking, bizarre behaviour, and hallucinations. This person is probably suffering from a. schizophrenia. b. bipolar disorder. c. a dissociative disorder. d. passive-aggressive personality. Correct: Schizophrenia refers to a collection of disorders characterized by chronic and significant breaks from reality, a lack of integration of thoughts and emotions, and serious problems with attention and memory. One obvious sign of breaking from reality is the experience of hallucinations, which are false perceptions of reality such as hearing internal voices. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 659 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 84) False beliefs held by a person who has no evidence to support such beliefs are known as a. delusions. b. hallucinations. c. obsessions. d. compulsions. Correct: Delusions are false beliefs about reality. In contrast, hallucinations are false perceptions of reality such as hearing internal voices. Both are common symptoms of schizophrenia. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 659 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 85) Gigi, who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia, believes that she was sent by God to one day rule the world. Her belief is an example of a(n) a. phobia. b. delusion. c. alogia. d. hallucination. Correct: Delusions are false beliefs about reality. In contrast, hallucinations are false perceptions of reality such as hearing internal voices. Both are common symptoms of schizophrenia. Answer: b Diff: 2

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Type: MC Page Reference: 659 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 86) False sensory perceptions that often take the form of hearing voices are called a. delusions. b. hallucinations. c. obsessions. d. compulsions. Correct: Hallucinations are false perceptions of reality such as hearing internal voices. In contrast, delusions are false beliefs about reality. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 659 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 87) Shreen is diagnosed with schizophrenia. She believes that she is a powerful person who can save the world. Shreen is experiencing a. delusions of persecution. b. delusions of grandeur. c. delusions of reference. d. delusions of influence. Correct: A person with schizophrenia may think they are Jesus, the Pope, the President, or other extremely important people. This symptom is known as a delusion of grandeur. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 659 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

88) Believing that the government or other people are out to get you is one way in which sufferers of schizophrenia experience their a. compulsions. b. delusions. c. hallucinations. d. obsessions. Correct: Delusions are false beliefs about reality. In contrast, hallucinations are false perceptions of reality such as hearing internal voices. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 659 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 89) The belief that one is Abraham Lincoln is an example of what schizophrenic symptom? a. delusion b. hallucination c. obsession d. disorganized thinking Correct: Delusions are false beliefs about reality. In contrast, hallucinations are false perceptions of reality such as hearing internal voices. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 659 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 90) Feeling insects crawling on your skin (when none are really there) or hearing voices (when no one is around or no one is talking to you) would be examples of what symptom of schizophrenia? a. compulsions b. delusions Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

c. hallucinations d. obsessions Correct: Hallucinations are false perceptions of reality such as hearing internal voices or feeling something that does not really exist. In contrast, delusions are false beliefs about reality. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 659 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 91) Experiencing extremes in motor behaviour is one symptom associated with a. catatonic schizophrenia. b. disorganized schizophrenia. c. paranoid schizophrenia. d. undifferentiated schizophrenia. Correct: Symptoms of catatonic schizophrenia include episodes in which a person remains mute and immobile—sometimes in bizarre positions—for extended periods. Individuals may also exhibit repetitive, purposeless movements. While some of these symptoms can occur with other types of schizophrenia, motor symptoms are most closely associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 660 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. 92) The primary feature of ______ schizophrenia is severe disturbance of motor behaviour. a. disorganized b. catatonic c. residual d. paranoid

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Correct: Symptoms of catatonic schizophrenia include episodes in which a person remains mute and immobile—sometimes in bizarre positions—for extended periods. Individuals may also exhibit repetitive, purposeless movements. While some of these symptoms can occur with other types of schizophrenia, motor symptoms are most closely associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 660 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. 93) While doing volunteer work at a mental hospital, Mary is put on a ward for adults with severe mental disorders. One patient remains in the same position for hours at a time and never talks. The doctors tell Mary this patient suffers from a. depersonalization disorder. b. catatonic schizophrenia. c. disorganized schizophrenia. d. paranoid schizophrenia Correct: Symptoms of catatonic schizophrenia include episodes in which a person remains mute and immobile—sometimes in bizarre positions—for extended periods. Individuals may also exhibit repetitive, purposeless movements. While some of these symptoms can occur with other types of schizophrenia, motor symptoms are most closely associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 60 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. 94) Laurie, a 30-year-old homemaker, has delusions and hallucinations, often acts silly, giggles loudly and inappropriately, makes odd gestures, and does not bathe or change her clothes regularly. Her symptoms indicate she is suffering from ______ schizophrenia. a. disorganized b. catatonic c. residual Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

d. paranoid Correct: Symptoms of disorganized schizophrenia include thoughts, speech, behaviour, and emotion that are poorly integrated and incoherent. People with disorganized schizophrenia may also show inappropriate, unpredictable mannerisms. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 660 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. 95) ______ schizophrenia is characterized by delusions that they are being watched, followed, or persecuted in some way. a. Disorganized b. Paranoid c. Residual d. Catatonic Correct: Symptoms of paranoid schizophrenia include delusional beliefs that one is being followed, watched, or persecuted, and may also include delusions of grandeur. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 660 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. 96) Dr. Knight is trying to diagnosis a patient suffering from what appears to be a form of schizophrenia. The patient appears to have symptoms from several different types of schizophrenia. Dr. Knight is most likely to conclude that the patient should be classified as suffering from _________________ schizophrenia. a. disorganized b. undifferentiated c. residual d. catatonic

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Correct: Undifferentiated schizophrenia is a category that includes individuals who show a combination of symptoms from more than one type of schizophrenia. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 660 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. 97) A hospital patient was diagnosed as suffering from schizophrenia because she was having both delusions and hallucinations. What type of symptoms are these? a. atypical b. positive c. negative d. a mix of positive and negative Correct: Positive symptoms refer to behaviours that should not occur, such as delusions and hallucinations. In contrast, negative symptoms involve the absence of adaptive behaviour. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 660 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 98) What is the best way to describe the positive symptoms of schizophrenia? a. behaviours that are maladaptive b. behaviours that are correlated with genius c. behaviours that should not normally occur d. the absence of adaptive behaviours Correct: Positive symptoms refer to behaviours that should not occur, such as delusions and hallucinations. In this context, positive does not denote "good," but instead refers to the addition of behaviours that are not normal. Answer: c

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 660 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 99) Which pair consists of negative symptoms of schizophrenia? a. flat emotions and low motivation b. flat emotions and delusions c. low motivation and hallucinations d. delusions and hallucinations Correct: Negative symptoms involve the absence of adaptive behaviour. Absent or flat emotional reactions and lack of speech and motivation are examples of negative symptoms. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 660 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 100) According to the authors of your textbook, schizophrenia is most often confused with which other psychological disorder? a. autism b. dissociative identity disorder c. bipolar disorder d. dementia Correct: Schizophrenia is a widely recognized term, but it may also be the most misunderstood label in psychology. Many people use schizophrenia to mean "split personality," but are actually referring to dissociative identity disorder. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 661 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

101) A neighbour of yours is upset that a community treatment center for mental illness is opening nearby. She is worried that the center will bring dangerous people with schizophrenia into the area. What should you tell her? a. People with schizophrenia are far more likely to be the victim of crimes than to commit them. b. People with schizophrenia never commit crimes. c. You are correct; a fair number of people with schizophrenia are dangerous. d. Undifferentiated schizophrenia is the only dangerous form of the disorder. Correct: Few individuals with schizophrenia commit violent crimes. In fact, people with mental illness are actually more likely to be victims of crime—approximately 10 times more likely than non-mentally ill people. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 661 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze claims that schizophrenia is related to genius or violent behaviour. 102) Janelle is a 23-year old woman who is living happily in Canada. She has a relative who recently developed the symptoms of schizophrenia. Janelle has the highest chance of developing the illness if that relative is a. Jameson, her 23-year old fraternal twin. b. Jamie, her 52-year old biological mother. c. Janette, her 23-year old identical twin. d. Jerivicious, her 75-year old grandmother. Correct: If one identical twin has schizophrenia, the other twin has a 25% to 50% chance of developing it. This rate is significantly higher than those for other types of familial relationships. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 662 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

103) According to family, twin, and adoption studies, a person is at greatest risk for developing schizophrenia if he or she has a(n) a. identical twin diagnosed with the disorder. b. nonidentical twin diagnosed with the disorder. c. adoptive parent diagnosed with the disorder. d. biological parent diagnosed with the disorder. Correct: If one identical twin has schizophrenia, the other twin has a 25% to 50% chance of developing it. This rate is significantly higher than those for other types of familial relationships. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 662 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. 104) One biological explanation for the symptoms of schizophrenia is the appearance of enlarged _________, which are fluid-filled structures that cushion and protect the brain. a. atria b. meninges c. vesicles d. ventricles Correct: One very noticeable neurological characteristic of people with schizophrenia is apparent in the size of the brain ventricles, the fluid-filled spaces occurring within the core of the brain. People with schizophrenia have ventricular spaces that are 20% to 30% larger than the corresponding spaces in people without schizophrenia Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 663 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

105) The ventricles, spaces in the brain that are filled with cerebrospinal fluid, are typically larger than normal in the brains of individuals suffering from a. schizophrenia. b. dissociative personality disorder. c. major depression. d. PTSD. Correct: One very noticeable neurological characteristic of people with schizophrenia is apparent in the size of the brain ventricles, the fluid-filled spaces occurring within the core of the brain. People with schizophrenia have ventricular spaces that are 20% to 30% larger than the corresponding spaces in people without schizophrenia Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 663 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 106) Researchers have discovered that the brain volume of individuals with schizophrenia is less than normal. This decrease in brain volume is accompanied a corresponding a. decrease in the size of the ventricles. b. increase in the size of the ventricles. c. decrease in the size of the skull. d. increase in the size of the skull. Correct: The volume of the entire brain is reduced by approximately 2% in those individuals with schizophrenia—a small but significant difference. This decrease in brain tissue corresponds with an increase in the size of the brain ventricles, the fluid-filled spaces occurring within the core of the brain. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 663 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

107) Research indicates that some people's schizophrenia may result from abnormalities in the brain's receptor sites for what neurotransmitter? a. acetylcholine b. dopamine c. GABA d. epinephrine Correct: Research suggests that individuals with schizophrenia have overactive receptors for the neurotransmitter dopamine. The excess dopamine may be involved in producing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, but not the negative symptoms such as flattened emotion and lack of speech. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 663 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how different neurotransmitters affect individuals with schizophrenia. 108) Some of the symptoms of schizophrenia appear to be caused by excess _______________ activity, and too little _____________ activity. a. dopamine; glutamate b. glutamate; dopamine c. GABA; epinephrine d. epinephrine; GABA Correct: Research suggests that individuals with schizophrenia have overactive receptors for the neurotransmitter dopamine. Another neurotransmitter, called glutamate, appears to be underactive in brain regions, including the hippocampus and the frontal cortex, of individuals with schizophrenia. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 663 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how different neurotransmitters affect individuals with schizophrenia.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

109) Excess dopamine activity in the brains' of individuals with schizophrenia is believed to produce ______________, but not ________________. a. positive symptoms; negative symptoms b. negative symptoms; positive symptoms c. delusions; hallucinations d. hallucinations; delusions Correct: The excess dopamine may be involved in producing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, but not the negative symptoms such as flattened emotion and lack of speech. Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 663 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how different neurotransmitters affect individuals with schizophrenia. 110) Twin studies suggest that schizophrenia a. is caused entirely by genetic factors. b. is caused entirely by environmental factors. c. is likely caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. d. is more likely to occur in twins than nontwins. Correct: Twin studies indicate that having certain genes may put individuals at risk to develop schizophrenia. However, they also indicate that schizophrenia is not strictly a genetic disorder, and they suggest that environmental factors might increase the risk that an individual will develop schizophrenia. Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 664 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

111) People diagnosed with schizophrenia are more likely to have been born during the winter months. One explanation for this phenomenon is that a. people born during these months are more likely to be exposed to the flu virus while still in the womb. b. cold temperatures slow down neuronal development. c. summer heat negatively affects the genetic maternal in sperm at the time of conception (9 months earlier). d. eggs released during the summer—9 months earlier—are more likely to contain genetic errors. Correct: People with schizophrenia are statistically more likely to have been born during winter months. One plausible explanation for this link is that the brain develops a great deal during the second trimester, which would coincide with the onset of flu season for wintertime births. Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 665 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. 112) Which of the following best describes the neurodevelopmental hypothesis of schizophrenia? a. the brain deteriorates to produce schizophrenia b. schizophrenia is the result of biological and environmental factors that interact during brain development c. schizophrenia is a reaction to psychologically traumatic events d. symptoms of schizophrenia will not occur until after the brain is fully developed Correct: The neurodevelopmental hypothesis states that irregular biological and environmental factors interact during infant and child development to produce schizophrenic symptoms. In other words, the brain grows into a schizophrenic state rather than degenerating into one. Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 665 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia.

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113) When psychologists viewed home movies of infants and children who subsequently developed schizophrenia, what did they find? a. nothing unusual b. all of the symptoms associated with schizophrenia c. evidence for a "splitting" of personality d. unusual motor patterns such as jerky, repeated, and unnecessary arm movements Correct: When psychologists viewed home movies of infants and children who subsequently developed schizophrenia, they noted that these children showed some unusual motor patterns, primarily on the left side of the body, such as jerky, repeated, and unnecessary arm movements. Siblings who did not have schizophrenia did not show these same motor patterns. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 665 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. 114) The schizophrenia prodrome refers to a. a traumatic events that can trigger a schizophrenic episode. b. a collection of mild symptoms that precede the later development of schizophrenia. c. a controversial treatment for the disorder. d. the disruption in cognitive ability associated with the disorder. Correct: In adolescence, psychologists can detect the schizophrenia prodrome, a collection of characteristics that resemble mild forms of schizophrenia symptoms. For example, a teenager might become increasingly socially withdrawn and have some difficulty with depression and anxiety. Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 666 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia.

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115) According to your textbook, attempts to prevent schizophrenia from developing in high-risk populations have a. been very successful. b. been somewhat successful, but only when the treatment begins before the start of adolescence. c. been shown to reduce the symptoms of schizophrenia, but do not prevent the disorder from developing. d. not been effective to date. Correct: In recent years, a number of attempts to prevent schizophrenia from developing in high-risk populations have been made, but they have not proved effective. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 666 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia.

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1) Any unusual behavior should be considered maladaptive. a. True b. False Correct: Just because a behavior is unusual does not make it maladaptive. A maladaptive behavior is a behavior that hinders a person's ability to function in work, school, relationships, or society. 626 Answer: b Page Reference: 626 2) Psychologists all agree that dissociative identity disorder is not a true disorder. a. True b. False Correct: There is considerable disagreement about whether dissociative identity disorder is an actual disorder or not. 642 Answer: b Page Reference: 642 3) Generalized anxiety disorder is an anxiety disorder marked by repeated episodes of sudden, very intense fear. a. True b. False Correct: This is a description of panic disorder, not GAD. 647 Answer: b Page Reference: 647 4) Major depression occurs twice as often among women as among men. a. True b. False Correct: Due to a combination of biological, cognitive, and sociocultural differences, rates of depression are twice as high among women as among men. 653 Answer: a Page Reference: 653

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

5) Suicide rates are higher among the elderly than they are for adolescents. a. True b. False Correct: The suicide rate for people 65 and older is nearly 60% higher than the rate for teens. 655 Answer: a Page Reference: 655 6) Any maladaptive symptom of schizophrenia is, by definition, a negative symptom. a. True b. False Correct: Negative symptoms are not necessarily more maladaptive than positive symptoms. Instead, negative symptoms refer to the absence of a behavior. 660 Answer: b Page Reference: 660 7) Children with one parent with schizophrenia have a lifetime risk of developing schizophrenia of about 80%. a. True b. False Correct: Even identical twins only have a 25% to 50% chance of developing schizophrenia if the other twin has it. The rate is considerably lower for people with one parent with schizophrenia. 662 Answer: b Page Reference: 662

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1) The latest version of the classification system used by psychologists is a. DSM-III. b. DSM-IV. c. DSM-IV-TR. d. DSM-V. Answer: d Page Reference: 627 2) The DSM-V includes a description of the ___________________ of each mental disorder. a. symptoms, duration, and severity b. symptoms, cause, and severity c. symptoms, cause, and progress d. symptom, cause, and treatment options Answer: c Page Reference: 627 3) Destruction of one's home or community is MOST likely to result in which of the following? a. PTSD b. a phobia c. a panic disorder d. an obsession Answer: a Page Reference: 633 4) Re-experiencing a traumatic event long after the event is associated with _______ disorder. a. generalized anxiety b. panic c. phobic d. PTSD Answer: d Page Reference: 633 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

5) An irrational fear of an object or event is called a/an a. phobia. b. compulsion. c. panic. d. obsession. Answer: a Page Reference: 647 6) Thoughts that repeatedly intrude into consciousness against one's will are called a. compulsions. b. loose associations. c. neologisms. d. obsessions. Answer: d Page Reference: 650 7) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of depression? a. hallucinations b. loss of appetite c. inability to sleep properly d. self-blame Answer: a Page Reference: 653 8) The most common psychological disorder is a. phobia. b. schizophrenia. c. depression. d. mania. Answer: c Page Reference: 653 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

9) An affective disorder that includes both depression and mania is known as ________ disorder. a. histrionic b. bipolar c. dual process d. obsessive-compulsive Answer: b Page Reference: 653 10) The medical model views abnormal behaviour as resulting from a. drug interactions. b. exposure to teratogens. c. poor nutritional habits. d. underlying organic causes. Answer: d Page Reference: 625 11) What do behaviour therapists see as the cause of maladaptive behaviours? a. learning b. distortions in thinking c. unconscious conflicts d. discrepancy between the real self and ideal self Answer: a Page Reference: 626 12) Martha vacuums the carpet in her living room 15 times a day. It is very likely that she is suffering from which of the following disorders? a. obsessive-compulsive b. conversion c. PTSD d. somatoform Answer: a Page Reference: 650 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

13) In an obsessive-compulsive reaction, the _______ is the thought and the _______ is the action carrying out the thought. a. compulsion; obsession b. obsession; compulsion c. compulsion; panic d. obsession, anxiety Answer: b Page Reference: 650 14) Ritualistic behaviour is associated with which of the following disorders? a. anxiety b. obsessive-compulsive c. somatoform d. conversion Answer: b Page Reference: 651 15) People who act impulsively, don't tolerate frustration, want their desires satisfied immediately, fail to develop emotional attachments, and show no remorse would be diagnosed with what personality disorder? a. narcissistic b. antisocial c. histrionic d. schizotypal Answer: b Page Reference: 637 16) Which of the following best describes the antisocial personality? a. low intelligence b. lack of remorse or guilt c. depression d. paranoid schizophrenic tendencies Answer: b Page Reference: 637 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

17) Which of the following statements about antisocial personality is TRUE? a. It is a relatively rare disorder. b. People with antisocial personalities seek professional help because their distress level is high. c. It is more common in women than in men. d. It is a relatively common disorder. Answer: d Page Reference: 637 18) What individual is most likely to come into conflict with the law because of his/her disregard for social rules and unwillingness to restrain his/her impulses? Incorrect: 637 b. multiple personality c. antisocial personality d. bipolar disorder Answer: c Page Reference: 637 19) Disorders in which part of a person's personality is separated from the rest and the person cannot reassemble the pieces are known as __________ disorders. a. schizophrenic b. dissociative c. affective d. somatoform Answer: b Page Reference: 641 20) The famous story of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde is an example of which disorder? a. depression b. dissociative c. phobic d. sexual dysfunction Answer: b Page Reference: 641 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

21) Multiple personality is an example of which disorder? a. schizophrenia b. dissociative c. personality d. depression Answer: b Page Reference: 641 22) The multiple-personality disorder was a. a form of psychosis. b. quite rare. c. a phenomenon unique to England. d. not a formal diagnostic label. Answer: b Page Reference: 642 23) Overall, research has indicated that __________ influences the amount of stress that people experience. a. the seriousness of life events b. degree of control people have over their lives c. intelligence d. physical health Answer: a Page Reference: 646 24) Your aunt prefers to stay in her home and avoid public places and social situations. She would be diagnosed with a. agoraphobia. b. ailurophobia. c. cynophobia. d. specific phobia. Answer: a Page Reference: 647 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

25) A person who is constantly ”on edge” and always apprehensive most likely suffers from a. phobic disorder. b. panic disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. generalized anxiety disorder. Answer: d Page Reference: 647 26) June often experiences episodes during which her heart rate accelerates by more than 50 beats per minute despite encountering no emergency. June suffers from a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. acrophobia. d. panic disorder. Answer: d Page Reference: 647 27) Someone with "stage fright" might have a(n) a. particular phobia. b. environmental phobia. c. specific phobia. d. social phobia. Answer: d Page Reference: 650 28) Phobias, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder are all types of __________ disorders. a. psychosomatic b. somatoform c. anxiety d. dissociative Answer: c Page Reference: 646 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

29) Harry has an intense, irrational fear of being in public places. He is probably suffering from a. conversion reaction. b. learned helplessness. c. paranoia. d. agoraphobia. Answer: d Page Reference: 647 30) Allen is in a constant state of dread. He has trouble sleeping, feels tense, and cannot concentrate. Allen will likely be diagnosed as which anxiety disorder? a. phobia b. generalized anxiety c. panic d. obsessive-compulsive Answer: b Page Reference: 647 31) A recurring irrational thought that cannot be controlled or banished from one's mind is called a/an a. phobia. b. obsession. c. hypnagogic image. d. compulsion. Answer: b Page Reference: 650 32) Sudden, paralyzing episodes of fear describe which type of anxiety disorder? a. phobia b. generalized anxiety c. panic d. obsessive-compulsive Answer: c Page Reference: 647 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

33) An overwhelming desire to set fires is called a/an a. obsession. b. phobia. c. compulsion. d. somatoform. Answer: a Page Reference: 650 34) Acts that ”must be done” are called a. compulsions. b. obsessions. c. motor impulses. d. preservative impulses. Answer: a Page Reference: 650 35) Obsessions and compulsions a. appear to be based on very different psychodynamics. b. always occur together. c. often occur together. d. rarely occur together. Answer: c Page Reference: 650 36) A compulsion is a. a recurring irrational thought which you cannot put out of your mind. b. a behaviour that you cannot control. c. an inability to express your emotions. d. all of the above. Answer: b Page Reference: 650

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

37) Arlene has an intense, irrational fear of flying in airplanes. She is probably suffering from a a. somatoform disorder. b. neurotic depression. c. phobic disorder. d. conversion reaction. Answer: c Page Reference: 647 38) Most psychoanalytic theorists believe that anxiety disorders are the result of a. unconscious conflict. b. learned helplessness. c. lack of reinforcement. d. primary drives. Answer: a Page Reference: 646 39) Last month Pam was giddy, impulsive, and talkative; this month she is sad, silent, and almost motionless. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? a. severe depression b. anxiety disorder c. somatoform disorder d. bipolar disorder Answer: d Page Reference: 653 40) A person who suffers from bipolar disorder alternates between a. depression and mania. b. depression and schizophrenia. c. mania and schizophrenia. d. anxiety and mania. Answer: a Page Reference: 653 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

41) Disorders characterized by disturbances in a person's prolonged emotional state are known as __________ disorders. a. mood b. dissociative c. somatoform d. conversion Answer: a Page Reference: 653 42) An episode of intense sadness that may last for several months is called a. bipolar disorder. b. hypomania. c. major depressive disorder. d. dysthymia. Answer: c Page Reference: 653 43) Abnormally high energy level, distractibility, increased sex drive, and positive selfimage are MOST associated with which of the following disorders? a. schizophrenia b. mania c. depression d. bipolar Answer: b Page Reference: 653 44) John's behaviour appears normal, then he becomes depressed and hyperactivity follows. He would likely be diagnosed as having which disorder? a. mania b. schizophrenia c. bipolar d. depressive Answer: c Page Reference: 653 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

45) Which of the following is a mood disorder? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. multiple personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. bipolar disorder Answer: d Page Reference: 653 46) Feeling fearful but not knowing why is characteristic of a. phobias. b. anxiety disorders. c. dissociative neurosis. d. amnesia. Answer: b Page Reference: 646 47) A patient in a mental hospital exhibits disordered thinking, perceptual abnormalities, unusual emotions, and suspiciousness. This person is probably suffering from a. schizophrenia. b. bipolar disorder. c. passive-aggressive personality. d. a dissociative disorder. Answer: a Page Reference: 659 48) The belief that you are a special agent for the Intergalactic Supernova is an example of a a. loose association. b. neologism. c. delusion. d. negative symptom. Answer: c Page Reference: 659 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

49) False sensory perceptions that often take the form of hearing voices are called a. hallucinations. b. obsessions. c. delusions. d. compulsions. Answer: a Page Reference: 659 50) The most common psychotic disorder is a. manic-depressive. b. bipolar. c. schizophrenia. d. multiple personality. Answer: c Page Reference: 659 51) Nancy smells smoke when there is no fire. This is an example of a. a delusion. b. a hallucination. c. paranoia. d. olfactory inhibition. Answer: b Page Reference: 659 52) Which of the following is considered the most severe psychological disorder? a. antisocial personality b. schizophrenia c. depression d. bipolar Answer: b Page Reference: 659

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

53) Of the following, which would provide the strongest evidence for a genetic component to schizophrenia? a. a higher concordance rate for fraternal twins than for other siblings b. a higher concordance rate for fraternal twins than for identical twins c. a high concordance rate among identical twins raised apart d. a high concordance rate among the general population Answer: c Page Reference: 662 54) Annette talks to her pet elephant, which no one else can see. Annette is having a a. hallucination. b. delusion. c. clang association. d. neologism. Answer: a Page Reference: 659 55) A schizophrenic characterized by alternating periods of mute immobility and excited motor activity is referred to as a(n) a. disorganized schizophrenic. b. undifferentiated schizophrenic. c. paranoid schizophrenic. d. catatonic schizophrenic. Answer: d Page Reference: 660 56) Nick was admitted to a mental institution because he heard voices talking to him that no one else could hear, and he saw demons attacking him, though no one else could see anything near him. Nick's symptoms are known as a. delusions b. obsessions c. hallucinations d. compulsions Answer: c Page Reference: 659 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

57) How do most antipsychotic drugs seem to work? a. reduce the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine b. cause more excitatory neurons to fire c. prevent serotonin and norepinephrine from being broken down d. block the activity of dopamine Answer: d Page Reference: 663 58) Sammy is a 5-year-old boy who has just begun kindergarten. His teacher notices that Sammy doesn’t pay attention to instructions in class, is often distracted by trivial things, and appears disconnected during group activities. He has a very hard time staying calmly seated at his table and does dangerous actions such as jumping off his desk. According to Sammy’s mother, Sammy has displayed this behaviour for years. What disorder is Sammy most likely exhibiting? a. autism spectrum disorder b. conduct disorder c. schizophrenia d. attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder Correct: Sammy meets the criteria for ADHD. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 628, Module 15.1 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. 59) Mary is a 40- year-old woman who works from home. One day, the phone rang right after her groceries were delivered to her front door. It was her younger sister calling to tell Mary that she would be getting married and would like Mary to come to the wedding in the summer. Although Mary was happy for her sister, she dreaded the thought of being at a big wedding and began sweating profusely and feeling nauseous. She told her sister she wishes the best for her, but that she would not be able to attend the wedding. What disorder is Mary most likely exhibiting? a. agoraphobia Correct: Agoraphobia is the fear of going out in public. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

b. generalized anxiety disorder c. avoidant personality disorder d. anti-social personality disorder Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 647, Module 15.3 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 60) Following a stressful event, a man cannot remember his past. He adopts a new identity, relocates, and starts a new family and career. Which diagnosis would be most appropriate? a. conversion disorder b. dissociative amnesia c. dissociative identity disorder d. dissociative fugue Correct: A dissociative fugue is memory loss resulting from emotional trauma. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 641, Module 15.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the phenomenon of dissociation and how a dissociative disorder might occur. 61) Nicole is an unmarried 45-year old woman. She has a difficult time meeting people and initiating relationships because she is fearful of being rejected. When she is in relationships, she often finds herself pushing her partner away out of fear that the individual may leave her first. Which personality disorder is Nicole most likely exhibiting? a. dependent b. narcissistic c. borderline d. avoidant Correct: Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a fear of rejection. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 636, Module 15.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders 62) Calvin tells everyone that he is Superman when he meets them. Which type of delusion is Calvin most likely experiencing? a. grandeur Correct: Delusions of grandeur involve falsely believing that an individual is famous or powerful. b. reference c. persecution d. control Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 660, Module 15.4 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. 63) Which behaviour was once considered a mental illness, and was used to support the view that mental illness is nothing more than conditions that society dislikes? a. pedophilia b. homosexuality Correct: Statement of fact. c. racism d. hypersexuality Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 628, Module 15.1 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to understand the symptoms, stereotypes, and stigma surrounding psychological disorders. 64) Which two classes of psychological disorders are often comorbid? a. mood disorders and dissociative disorders b. dissociative disorders and personality disorders c. anxiety disorders and schizophrenia d. personality disorders and substance abuse Correct: Statement of fact. Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 640, Module 15.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 65) Randy has a grandiose sense of himself, fantasizes about being successful, lacks empathy for others, and has a need for constant admiration from others. What type of personality disorder is Randy most likely exhibiting? a. narcissistic Correct: People with narcissistic personality disorder are self-obsessed and lack empathy. b. borderline c. antisocial d. obsessive-compulsive Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 637, Module 15.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

66) Which conclusion about personality and substance abuse is most accurate? a. Studies have found evidence of an “addictive personality” type that predisposes people to abuse alcohol or other drugs. b. Introverted individuals are more likely to engage in substance abuse than extraverted individuals. c. Impulsivity, sociability, and anxiety may be related to substance abuse but they may result from, rather than cause, misuse. d. Genetic factors are the strongest determinant of substance abuse disorders while personality alters how the abuse is manifested in behaviour. Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 640, Module 15.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 67) Elmer, the owner of an auto service station, suddenly began smashing the front fenders and hoods of two customers’ cars. When asked why, he excitedly and somewhat incoherently explained that he was transforming the cars into “real racing machines.” Elmer worked on the cars non-stop for two days without sleeping. When the owners of the cars complained about his “handiwork,” Elmer went into a tirade of curses. Elmer is exhibiting symptoms of a. a dysthymic disorder. b. catatonia. c. a panic attack. d. mania. Correct: Elmer’s excited mood, agitation, and reluctance to sleep are classic signs of mania. Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 653, Module 15.3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety,depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

1) What is the fight-or-flight response? How is it thought to be related to anxiety and anxiety disorders? Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Anxiety is based on a normal physiological and psychological response to stressful events known as the fight-or-flight response. - This response is an important emergency response that is very adaptive to threats such as predators. - If this response is extreme in duration, sensitivity, and/or severity, it can become maladaptive. Page Reference: 646 2) Explain the concept of a vicious cycle as it applies to anxiety disorders. Provide an example. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. Examples will vary. - Many anxiety disorders can be self-perpetuating. - Having an anxiety disorder can make an individual hypersensitive to stimuli or events that lead to more anxiety. - People with phobias avoid the things they are scared of, which prevent them from getting over their fear. - Example: A person who is anxious about having a panic attack begins to panic the second they feel their heart rate increase a little. Page Reference: 650 3) Why do many researchers consider schizophrenia a brain disorder? Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - The disease is associated with many abnormalities in the brain, including: * Enlarged ventricles and reduced brain volume * Lower level of activity in frontal lobes * Abnormalities in the neurotransmitters dopamine and glutamate * Smaller amygdala and hippocampal regions Page Reference: 663

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

1) A central idea behind the M'Naghten rule is that a defendant is not legally responsible for a crime if they could not differentiate between right and wrong when the crime was committed. Correct: The precedent for the insanity defense was set in Great Britain in 1843, when a jury found Daniel M'Naghten was not legally responsible for his actions. The test for determining whether a defendant is "not guilty by reason of insanity" is now known as the "M'Naghten rule." 632 Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 632 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the differences between the concepts of psychological disorders and insanity. 2) People with narcissistic personality disorder often act as if they are deserving of praise and admiration, but in reality they often suffer from intense self-doubt and feelings of inadequacy. Correct: Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by an inflated sense of selfimportance and an intense need for attention and admiration, as well as intense self-doubt and fear of abandonment. 637 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 637 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 3) Research indicates that people with antisocial personality disorder do not respond as strongly to startling stimuli, such as loud noises or disturbing images. Correct: Researchers have discovered that people with antisocial personality disorder are under-reactive to stress. For example, a flash of light, a loud sound, or the sudden appearance of an angry face will startle most people. In contrast, people with APD show very weak startle responses—such as blinking—when exposed to unpleasant stimuli. 637 Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 637 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 4) Megan's therapist has diagnosed her with both major depression and generalized anxiety disorder. This is an example of comorbidity, because Megan is suffering from both disorders at the same time.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

Correct: Comorbidity is the presence of two disorders simultaneously, or the presence of a second disorder that affects the one being treated. 640 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 640 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 5) Dissociative experiences are characterized by a sense of separation between you and your surroundings, for example while day dreaming. Correct: Dissociative experiences are characterized by a sense of separation between you and your surroundings. They occur normally, but in extreme cases, may occur as part of a psychological disorder. 641 Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 641 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. 6) Panic attacks are sudden, intense episodes of anxiety that rarely last for more than 10 minutes. Correct: Panic attacks are brief moments of extreme anxiety that include a rush of physical activity paired with frightening thoughts. A panic attack escalates when the fear of death causes increased physical arousal, and the increased physical symptoms feed the frightening thoughts. This escalation rarely goes on for more than 10 minutes however. 647 Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 647 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. 7) The disorder that was formally known as manic depression is more accurately referred to today as bipolar disorder. Correct: Bipolar disorder was formerly referred to as manic depression. 653 Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 653 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessivecompulsive disorders. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders

8) Miley is taking a pottery class. She tries to make a vase on the potter's wheel, but it keeps collapsing on her. "You see!" she says, "I can't do anything right! I'm a failure at everything!" This type of thinking is a good example of the globalizing explanatory style that is often seen with depression. Correct: The three elements of the depressive explanatory style are internalizing, stabilizing, and globalizing. Globalizing refers to the tendency to believe that any failure or problem applies to everything, not just the current situation. 654 Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 654 Skill: Applied Objective Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive-compulsive disorders. 9) A clearly mentally ill person claims that the FBI and the CIA are following him because he is the only person who knows the true location of the Holy Grail. This person is most likely suffering from paranoid schizophrenia. Correct: Symptoms of paranoid schizophrenia include delusional beliefs that one is being followed, watched, or persecuted, and may also include delusions of grandeur. 660 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 660 Skill: Applied Objective Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders 1. Psychologists and psychiatrists use the criteria laid out in the most recent edition of the _____ to diagnose psychological disorders. a. Dimensional and Categorical Atlas of Mental Health b. International Diagnostic Guidelines c. Guide to Psychopathology and Abnormal Behaviour d. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Mental Disorders Answer: D Module 15.1 2. Your textbook mentions that which of the following methods can be successful in reducing the stigma of mental illness? a. Educating the public about the biopsychosocial explanations of mental illness b. Limiting contact with individuals suffering from the most debilitating mental illnesses c. Encouraging the use of diagnostic labels d. Limiting the general public’s access to information about specific mental illnesses Answer: A Module 15.1 3. Megan’s few friends complain that she is often melodramatic and emotionally immature. Megan loves attention (especially from men) and is constantly flirting, often inappropriately. If Megan was diagnosed with a psychological disorder, which of the following would be the most likely candidate? a. Narcissistic personality disorder b. Borderline personality disorder c. Histrionic personality disorder d. Antisocial personality disorder Answer: C Module 15.2 4. Which of the following disorders do many psychologists believe is not a valid diagnosis? a. Dissociative identity disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Histrionic personality disorder d. Post-traumatic stress disorder Answer: A Module 15.2 5. In addition to suffering from panic attacks, people with panic disorder often develop an intense fear of a. having a panic attack when they are alone. b. public places. c. germs. d. leaving the stove on. Answer: B Module 15.3 6. Andrew washes his hands 100 or more times each day. The constant washing causes the skin on his hands to dry and crack, yet he continues to engage in this behaviour. Andrew’s behaviour is an example of a. an obsession. b. agoraphobia. c. a compulsion. d. a negative symptom. Answer: C Module 15.3

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders 7. All other things equal, a person living in a _____ neighborhood, who also inherited the _____ copy of the 5-HTT gene, would have the greatest risk of developing depression. a. middle-class; long b. poor; short c. middle-class; short d. poor; long Answer: B Module 15.3 8. _____ are false beliefs about reality, whereas _____ are false perceptions of reality, such as hearing internal voices. a. Positive symptoms; negative symptoms b. Negative symptoms; positive symptoms c. Hallucinations; delusions d. Delusions; hallucinations Answer: D Module 15.4 9. Suppose a friend described schizophrenia as having a “split personality.” How would you respond? a. “This is a common misconception caused by people confusing schizophrenia with dissociative identity disorder.” b. “Only disorganized schizophrenia is characterized by a splitting of personalities.” c. “That point is controversial; psychologists cannot agree on whether schizophrenia involves a splitting of personality.” d. “That is an accurate description of schizophrenia.” Answer: A Module 15.4 10. Which of the following statements is true about the average brain of individuals with schizophrenia when they are compared to the brains of persons who do not have the disorder? a. There are no known anatomical differences. b. The overall size of the brain is larger than normal in people with schizophrenia. c. Dopamine activity is lower than normal in people with schizophrenia. d. The fluid-filled spaces at the core of the brain are larger in people with schizophrenia. Answer: D Module 15.4

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies 1. Which of the following is believed to be the key reason why men in Canada often go without psychological treatment? a. Psychotherapy is less effective for men than it is for women. b. Psychological problems tend to be less severe for men than for women. c. Men often believe that seeking treatment conflicts with masculinity. d. Psychological problems are more likely to resolve on their own for men than for women. Answer: C Module 16.1 2. Rita is a mental health professional who has a master’s degree. She generally works with people who are having difficulty dealing with mild depression or anxiety, or are generally having trouble with stress or coping; she does not work with individuals who have more severe mental disorders such as schizophrenia or major depression. Rita is most likely a a. counseling psychologist. b. psychiatrist. c. clinical psychologist. d. forensic psychologist. Answer: A Module 16.1 3. According to the text, the rigorous testing of specific psychotherapies is difficult, in part because a. clients do not want to receive experimental treatments. b. most people prefer self-help treatments. c. therapists cannot be blind to the type of therapy they are administering. d. few therapists are willing to participate in such studies. Answer: C Module 16.1 4. The psychologist Carl Rogers developed a type of therapy called _____, which focuses on individuals’ abilities to solve their own problems and reach their full potential with the encouragement of the therapist. a. object relations therapy b. psychoanalysis c. insight therapy d. person/client-centered therapy Answer: D Module 16.2 5. To treat his fear of spiders, Nate’s therapist has him lie still for 30 minutes while several tarantulas crawl on him. This extreme therapy is an example of a. aversive conditioning. b. flooding. c. systematic desensitization. d. virtual reality exposure. Answer: B Module 16.2 6. Family therapists take a _____ approach, an orientation toward family therapy that involves identifying and understanding what each individual family member contributes to the entire family dynamic. a. client-centered b. psychoanalytic c. systems d. systematic desensitization Answer: C Module 16.2

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies 7. In general, antidepressant drugs are believed to work by a. decreasing monoamine activity in the brain. b. increasing monoamine activity in the brain. c. increasing GABA activity in the brain. d. decreasing GABA activity in the brain. Answer: B Module 16.3 8. Research into the effectiveness of antidepressants indicates that the most effective treatment for many people is a. taking antidepressant drugs alone. b. psychotherapy without any pharmaceutical therapy. c. taking antidepressants combined with antipsychotic drugs. d. combining antidepressant drugs with psychotherapy. Answer: D Module 16.3 9. In the middle of the 20th century, Walter Freeman and others infamously treated thousands of patients with a procedure known as a. shock therapy. b. frontal lobotomy. c. deep brain stimulation. d. anterior cingulotomy. Answer: B Module 16.3 10. Which of the following statements is true about electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? a. ECT can be an effective treatment for severe cases of depression. b. ECT is no longer considered a valid or ethical form of treatment. c. ECT is still performed in the same way it was delivered in the 1930s and 1940s. d. ECT triggers a controlled stroke. Answer: A Module 16.3

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

1) Physicians who are trained to treat psychological disorders are called a. clinicians. b. counsellors. c. psychiatrists. d. psychiatric psychologists. Answer: c Objective: 674 2) John dreamed that he was in a train that entered a tunnel. If a psychologist believed that the dream expressed John's unconscious sexual desires, the psychologist would likely be a a. humanist b. learning theorist c. personologist d. psychoanalyst Answer: d Objective: 682 3) After a brief early commitment to hypnosis as a method of uncovering unconscious material, Freud later developed his psychoanalytic method of a. factor analysis. b. situational determinism. c. empathy. d. free association. Answer: d Objective: 682 4) According to Rogers, all people have a need for a. superiority. b. sex and aggression. c. positive regard. d. anxiety reduction. Answer: c Objective: 684 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

5) According to Rogers, people brought up with conditional positive regard a. tend to be vain and narcissistic b. tend to act as if they were orally fixated c. feel valued regardless of their attitudes and behaviours d. live lives directed toward what others want and value Answer: c Objective: 684 6) Which of the following, according to Rogers, is MOST likely to become a fully functioning person? a. someone with a strongly developed superego b. someone with an extroverted personality c. someone brought up with conditional positive regard d. someone brought up with unconditional positive regard Answer: d Objective: 684 7) Unconditional positive regard is most important to a. Freud. b. Jung. c. Maslow. d. Rogers. Answer: d Objective: 684 8) What is the process by which a patient projects feelings about other individuals onto the psychoanalyst? a. resistance b. reactance c. countertransference d. transference Answer: d Objective: 683 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

9) The term ”free association” is associated with which of the following therapeutic endeavors? a. applied behaviour analysis b. analytical analysis c. specific therapies d. psychoanalysis Answer: d Objective: 682 10) Insight therapies include all but which one of the following? a. psychoanalysis b. humanistic therapy c. behaviour modification d. Gestalt therapies Answer: c Objective: 682-684 11) In the psychoanalytic technique of _______, the patient is encouraged to say whatever thoughts come to mind, regardless of their order or appropriateness. a. abreaction b. cathexis c. free association d. transference Answer: c Objective: 682 12) A student finds himself hating a professor because the latter reminds him of his abusive father. In psychoanalytic terms, the student is exhibiting a. abreaction. b. transference. c. resistance. d. cathexis. Answer: b Objective: 683 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

13) An essential element of client-centred therapy is a. a nonthreatening atmosphere b. free-association c. detailed exploration of the client's childhood d. properly timed and worded interpretations Answer: a Objective: 684 14) For client-centered therapy to be effective, the client must perceive the therapist as showing a. unconditional positive regard. b. empathy. c. genuineness. d. all of the above. Answer: a Objective: 684 15) Maureen is in therapy because she is very frightened of her father and feels tonguetied around him. After a few months she begins to feel frightened of her therapist also. According to Freud, this is an example of a. latency. b. interpretation. c. transference. d. sublimination. Answer: c Objective: 683 16) Which method of treating phobias involves progressive relaxation and exposure to the feared object (either actual or imagined)? a. extinction b. systematic desensitization c. punishment d. token economy Answer: b Objective: 686 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

17) Psychotherapies that emphasize changing clients' perceptions of their life situation as a way of modifying their behaviour are called a. behaviour therapy. b. client-centred therapy. c. cognitive therapy. d. Gestalt therapy. Answer: c Objective: 689 18) Arranging anxiety-provoking situations in a hierarchy would be characteristic of a. behavioural contracting. b. operant conditioning. Incorrect: 686 d. systematic desensitization. Answer: d Objective: 686 19) Beck's cognitive therapy is particularly effective in the treatment of a. somatoform disorders. b. anxiety disorders. c. depression. d. schizophrenia. Answer: c Objective: 688 20) Making someone who is afraid of snakes handle dozens of snakes in an effort to get him to overcome his fear is called a. systematic desensitization. b. aversive conditioning. c. flooding. d. paradoxical intent. Answer: c Objective: 686 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

21) Systematic desensitization is especially useful as a treatment for a. panic disorders. b. schizophrenia. c. depression. d. phobias. Answer: d Objective: 686 22) _______ therapy assumes that problem behaviours are learned and, as such, can be unlearned. a. Behaviour b. Group c. Gestalt d. Person-centered Answer: a Objective: 686 23) A technique which assumes it is impossible to be relaxed and anxious at the same time is a. systematic desensitization. b. overgeneralization. c. conditioning. Incorrect: 686 Answer: a Objective: 686 24) Cognitive models of therapy tend to focus on a. corrective emotional experiences. b. changing thinking processes. c. removing symptoms. d. fulfilling one's potential. Answer: b Objective: 689 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

25) Sally's therapist wants her to bring her parents and siblings to counseling sessions with her. Sally is going through a. social skills training. b. family therapy. c. assertiveness training. d. client-centered therapy. Answer: b Objective: 691 26) When problems exist between parents and children, their problems are usually BEST handled by a. psychoanalysis. b. family therapy. c. operant conditioning. d. individual therapy. Answer: b Objective: 691 27) Prefrontal lobotomy is one form of a. shock treatment. b. EST. c. drug therapy. d. psychosurgery. Answer: d Objective: 701 28) Lithium is a naturally occurring a. drug. b. enzyme. c. salt. d. plant. Answer: c Objective: 697 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

29) Which of the following has been fairly effective in treating bipolar disorders? a. cingulotomy b. valium c. lithium d. ECT Answer: c Objective: 697 30) Thorazine is used to calm and relieve a. delusions of schizophrenia. b. generalized anxiety. c. the manic phase of bipolar disorder. d. the symptoms of hypochondriasis. Answer: a Objective: 698 31) Which of the following is NOT used in biomedical therapy? a. electric shock b. language c. drugs d. surgery Answer: b Objective: 701-703 32) Which of the following is NOT a biomedical therapy? a. ECT b. psychosurgery c. tertiary prevention d. chemotherapy Answer: c Objective: 701-703

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

33) Electroconfulsive therapy is mainly effective in treating a. depression. b. schizophrenia. c. anxiety disorders. d. all of the above. Answer: a Objective: 703 34) The procedure known as _______ is one type of psychosurgery. a. gastroplasty b. transaxial tomography c. audiography d. prefrontal lobotomy Answer: d Objective: 701 35) Dr. Lee believes that all psychological disorders can be treated in much the same way as physical disorders. He was most likely trained under the _______ model. a. psychoanalytic b. rational emotive c. Freudian d. medical Answer: d Objective: 695 36) A procedure which severs the connections from parts of the brain that control emotions is a. limbic curettage. b. trephining. c. ECT. d. prefrontal lobotomy. Answer: d Objective: 701 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

37) Which treatment is MOST likely to be used today? a. drug therapy b. prefrontal lobotomy c. ECT d. in vitro therapy Answer: a Objective: 695 38) Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of a. barbiturate use b. psychosurgery c. ECT d. antipsychotic drugs Answer: d Objective: 698 39) Lily is seeing Dr. Smythe to deal with her dependency issues,which stem from when her father abandoned her as a child. During one of the therapy sessions, Dr. Smythe tells Lilythat he will have to cancel next week’s appointment because he is going on vacation. Lily feels resentful, jealous, and angry towardDr. Smythe, and screams at him for not being there for her when she needs him. Which term best describes Lily’s behaviour? a. transference Correct: Transference occurs as part of the client-therapist relationship in psychoanalysis. b. countertransference c. resistance d. reactive Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 683, Module 16.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identifymajor therapeutic techniques. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

40) A young boy has been told by his dentist to stop eating candy because the sugar is ruining his teeth. The boy still cannot help himself. Whenever he finds candy in his house, he quickly devours everything. To help stop the boy from eating the candy, his mother allows him to “find” several candy pieces that she has dipped in hot chili sauce. Which type of treatment approach is the mother using? a. aversion therapy Correct: Aversion therapy involving changing behaviour by associating the behaviour with a negative outcome. b. implosion therapy c. client-centred therapy d. systematic desensitization Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 888, Module 16.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 41) Stephanie has been displaying a range of new neurotic behaviours over the past few months. Her therapist, who is a supporter of the psychodynamic perspective, suspects that these odd behaviours are due to repressed traumatic memories from Stephanie’s childhood. What approachto treatment would the therapist most likely take? a. analyze Stephanie’s dreams Correct: Dream analysis is a key component of psychoanalysis. b. administer the MMPI c. nurture unconditional positive regard d. recommend psychotherapeutic medications Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 682, Module 16.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

42) What treatment approach for schizophrenia is most questionable from a scientific standpoint? a. cognitive-behavioural therapy b. biological therapy c. psychodynamic therapy Correct: Statement of fact. d. humanistic therapy Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 685, Module 16.2 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the pros and cons of the major types of psychological therapy. 43) What type of therapy provides outcomes that are easily measured and verified? a. psychodynamic b. behavioural Correct: Changes in overt behaviours can be measured over time. c. experiential d. humanistic Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 685, Module 16.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 44) Billie is using an anxiety hierarchy to help eliminate her fear of cats. What type of treatment approach is Billie most likely implementing? a. systematic desensitization Correct: Systematic desensitization begins with establishing an anxiety hierarchy. b. dismantling c. experiential therapy d. aversion therapy Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 686, Module 16.2 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 45) Which of the following techniques would behaviour therapists most likely use to help people overcome a fear of flying? a. aversive conditioning b. eclectic therapy c. systematic desensitization Correct: Systematic desensitization is used by behavioural therapists to treat phobias. d. transference Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 686, Module 16.2 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 46) A therapist believes that Chet is chronically depressed because he takes too little credit for his many achievements and assumes too much responsibility for his few failures. The therapist's interpretation reflects a ________ perspective. a. psychoanalytic b. social-cognitive c. trait d. humanistic Correct: Humanistic approaches focus on individual strengths. Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 684, Module 16.2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

1) How and where people with serious mental illnesses are treated has changed a great deal since the 1800s. Describe how these changes occurred. Then describe the current approach to treating people with severe mental illness, including those who require serious long-term care. Answer: From the 14th century to the 19th century, people with mental disorders were institutionalized; they would live in hospital-like settings with very little treatment. The goal of these ‘asylums’ was to protect the public, not to treat the ill. In the 1960s, perhaps as a result of the humanist movement and the development of medications to treat many mental afflictions, many began to argue for deinstitutionalization of the mentally ill. At present, people with mental illness who are not a threat to themselves or others live in private homes or group homes; most are treated with medications and/or talk therapies. The small fraction of individuals who cannot care for themselves or who are a threat to themselves or others because they are in an acute stage of illness or refuse to take their medication live in psychiatric wings of hospitals; there are relatively few free standing clinics for mental health (although there are still a few dozen left in Canada). Those who require long-term care are either housed in a psychiatric hospital or in a group home with supervision. The current approach is to give the person with the mental illness as much personal freedom as possible while ensuring that they receive the treatment they need to live safely. Page Reference: 675 2) Many behavioural therapists view phobias and other anxiety disorders as the result of learning. Using the language of classical conditioning, describe a specific example of how this might occur. Answer: To help people learn to handle fear-inducing situations, therapists may choose the behavioural technique known as systematic desensitization, in which gradual exposure to a feared stimulus or situation is coupled with relaxation training. This involves counter conditioning, pairing the feared stimulus (the CS) with a pleasant unconditioned stimulus (such as relaxation) that yields the unconditioned response of happiness. This will eventually cause the CS to elicit the unconditioned response (UR) as a conditioned response (CR). For example, a person who fears snakes may be taught to meditate (unconditioned stimulus (US) causing the UR of happiness) and then presented with snake pictures (a CS) and asked to meditate (the US) to a point where they are relaxed (UR). Once the snake picture elicits the CR of happiness from being paired with meditation, they can move to the next step which may involve using a model snake as the CS and pairing it with meditation until the CR of happiness is elicited. Successive approximations to a real snake will be made at levels that can reasonably be handled by the individual. At the end, the CS of a snake should not elicit the CR of fear but rather a CR of happiness. Page Reference: 686

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

1) A(n) counselling psychologist is a type of mental health professional who typically has a PhD or PsyD degree. They usually work with people experiencing minor problems, but not those suffering from major disorders. Correct: Counselling psychologists are mental health professionals who typically work with people needing help with common problems such as stress, coping, and mild forms of anxiety and depression. Unlike clinical psychologists and psychiatrists, they do not treat people with severe psychological disorders. 674 Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 3 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the steps of the scientific method. 2) As a result of the deinstitutionalization movement, very few people with mental illness are kept in psychiatric hospitals for extended periods anymore. Correct: By the 1950s, a grass-roots campaign called deinstitutionalization had formed in response to the problems associated with the treatment in mental institutions. This movement successfully pushed for returning people from mental institutions to their communities and families and enabling them to receive treatment on an outpatient basis. 675 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 675 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 3) In contrast to the pessimistic view of human behaviour associated with the psychoanalytic approach to therapy, humanistic therapies emphasize the potential for growth within people. Correct: In the 1950s, humanistic psychologists broke from psychoanalytic approaches. Perhaps the biggest difference between psychoanalysis and humanistic therapies is the shifted focus from long-lasting, unconscious conflicts to the individual’s strengths and potential for growth. 684 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 684 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychotherapy.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

4) The most extreme form of exposure therapy is called flooding, which requires the client to experience a great amount of fear all at once. Correct: Flooding involves the client going straight to the most challenging part of exposure therapy, exposing him or herself to the scenario that causes the most anxiety and panic. 686 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 686 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 5) By combining exposure therapy with a technology called virtual reality, psychologists have had some success treating soldiers suffering from PTSD. Correct: Virtual reality exposure (VRE) is a treatment that uses graphical displays to create an experience in which the client seems to be immersed in an actual environment. Some research suggests that VRE may be an effective way to treat PTSD related to combat experiences. 686 Diff: 1 Type: FIB Page Reference: 686 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 6) Family therapists take a(n) systems approach to therapy, meaning that they try to understand how each family member contributes to the overall family dynamic. Correct: Family therapists take a systems approach, an orientation toward family therapy that involves identifying and understanding what each individual family member contributes to the entire family dynamic. 691 Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 691 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychotherapy. 7) SSRIs have been shown to increase neurogenesis, the growth of brand-new neurons, in the hippocampus. Correct: SSRIs have been shown to lead to neurogenesis—the growth of brand-new neurons— in the hippocampus. Researchers have hypothesized that once the drugs accomplish this renewal—a process that may take weeks—cognition and emotion resume normal functioning. 696 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 696 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of drug therapies to different psychological conditions. 8) Because some theories suggest that schizophrenia is caused, in part, by an excess of dopamine activity in the brain, it is not surprising that many antipsychotic drugs reduce the activity of this neurotransmitter. Correct: Many antipsychotics reduce the activity of dopamine in the brain, a neurotransmitter linked to schizophrenia. 698 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 698 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. 9) Although a popular over-the-counter treatment for depression, it is unclear whether the herb St. John’s wort is more effective than placebos. Correct: Despite its widespread use as a mood enhancer, there is mixed evidence supporting the effectiveness of St. John’s wort. 697 Diff: 2 Type: FIB Page Reference: 697 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether St. John's wort, a popular herbal remedy for depression, works. 10) Because it can be used to stimulate specific brain regions without surgery or anesthesia, transcranial magnetic stimulation may prove to be a valuable technological tool for treating depression, and potentially, other psychological disorders. Correct: Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is a therapeutic technique in which a focal area of the brain is exposed to a powerful but safe magnetic field. Unlike ECT, TMS does not involve anesthesia or induce a seizure. 703 Diff: 3 Type: FIB Page Reference: 703 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how various medical therapies that do not involve drugs work.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

1) According to your textbook, two of the major barriers to mental health treatment are a. time and money. b. a lack of therapists and racism. c. rigid diagnostic criteria for mental illness and insurance companies. d. pharmaceutical companies and medical lobbyists. Correct: Two of the main barriers to mental health treatment are time and expense. Psychotherapy can be expensive, often costing more than $100 per hour, making it difficult or impossible to afford for people without health insurance. Because therapy may require weekly sessions spanning several months, even middle-class families would have to sacrifice to cover the typical cost of therapy. 672 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 672 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the major barriers to seeking help for psychological disorders. 2) Which of the following is true about the stigma associated with psychological disorders? a. While a mental illness stigma exists, it is not a major barrier to seeking treatment. b. The stigma around psychological disorders is justified, given the danger and unpredictable nature of the mentally ill. c. There is no real stigma associated with psychological disorders. d. While the stigma around mental illness is not justified, seeking treatment for mental illness can lead to discrimination. Correct: The stigma associated with mental illness is irrational. However, stigma against people with mental disorders can result in job and housing discrimination, as well as avoidance by family, peers, and co-workers. 672 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 672 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the major barriers to seeking help for psychological disorders.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

3) Perceived gender roles often result in a. men seeking help for mental illness less frequently than women. b. women seeking help for mental illness less frequently than men. c. men experiencing more severe symptoms of mental illness than women. d. women experiencing more severe symptoms of mental illness than men. Correct: Masculine gender roles emphasize emotional strength—which is in conflict with acknowledging and talking through emotions and interpersonal problems. These gender roles also emphasize independence, so even if a problem is acknowledged, males would be more likely to believe they should just "get over it." 672 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 672 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the major barriers to seeking help for psychological disorders. 4) Which of the following is most likely to result in a person being required to receive court-ordered treatment? a. driving under the influence of alcohol b. 6 months of major depression c. believing you were abducted by aliens d. a desire to undergo sex reassignment surgery Correct: The majority of involuntary treatment stems from erratic or disturbing behaviour resulting in legal trouble. Other reasons for involuntary treatment include driving while intoxicated and domestic violence. Behaviours that may seem odd, but do not pose a danger or involve criminal behaviour, are unlikely to lead to court-ordered treatment. 673 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 673 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

5) Which of the following is true regarding court-ordered treatments? a. Middleclass Americans are most likely to receive involuntary treatment. b. Individuals who are lower in socioeconomic status are more likely to receive involuntary treatment. c. Individuals who are higher in socioeconomic status are more likely to receive involuntary treatment. d. The rates of involuntary treatment are unrelated to economic, racial, and ethnic factors. Correct: A survey of records indicated that individuals who are lower in socioeconomic status and from African American or Latino backgrounds are significantly more likely to receive court-ordered treatment. 673 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 673 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 6) Which of the following mental health professionals is most likely to have either a PhD or a PsyD and diagnose and treat mental health problems ranging from the everyday to the chronic and severe? a. clinical psychologist b. research psychologist c. psychiatrist d. counseling psychologist Correct: Clinical psychologists are mental health professionals with doctoral degrees (PhD or PsyD), who diagnose and treat mental health problems ranging from the everyday to the chronic and severe. In contrast, psychiatrists have medical degrees (MD), and counseling psychologists typically work with people needing help with common problems such as stress, coping, and mild forms of anxiety and depression, rather than severe mental disorders. 674 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 674 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

7) Dr. Snider has a PsyD degree and works in a hospital, where she diagnoses and treats patients with severe psychological disorders, such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Dr. Snider is a a. psychiatrist. b. research psychologist. c. clinical psychologist. d. counseling psychologist. Correct: Clinical psychologists are mental health professionals with doctoral degrees (PhD or PsyD), who diagnose and treat mental health problems ranging from the everyday to the chronic and severe. In contrast, psychiatrists have medical degrees (MD), and counseling psychologists typically work with people needing help with common problems such as stress, coping, and mild forms of anxiety and depression, rather than severe mental disorders. 674 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 674 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 8) Which of the following is a key difference between clinical psychologists and counseling psychologists? a. Clinical psychologists have a PhD and counseling psychologists have a PsyD. b. Clinical psychologists have a PsyD and counseling psychologists have a PhD. c. Clinical psychologists treat a range of psychological problems from minor to severe, whereas counseling psychologists do not typically treat people with severe disorders. d. There is no difference between the two types of psychologists. Correct: Clinical psychologists are mental health professionals with doctoral degrees (PhD or PsyD), who diagnose and treat mental health problems ranging from the everyday to the chronic and severe. In contrast, counseling psychologists typically work with people needing help with common problems such as stress, coping, and mild forms of anxiety and depression, rather than severe mental disorders. 674 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 674

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 9) If you or a family member were suffering from a severe mental illness, you would be most likely to be treated by a(n) _____________ psychologist. a. research b. counseling c. academic d. clinical Correct: Clinical psychologists are mental health professionals with doctoral degrees (PhD or PsyD), who diagnose and treat mental health problems ranging from the everyday to the chronic and severe. In contrast, counseling psychologists typically work with people needing help with common problems such as stress, coping, and mild forms of anxiety and depression, rather than severe mental disorders. 674 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 674 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 10) In some provinces, __________________ can be certified to practice if they hold a master's degree. a. psychiatrists b. counseling psychologists c. medical doctors d. clinical psychologists Correct: Some provinces will certify counselors who hold a master's degree. Clinical psychologists and psychiatrists are required to hold doctoral degrees. 674 Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 674 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment.

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11) Physicians who specialize in mental health and diagnose and treat mental disorders primarily through prescribing medications that influence brain chemistry are called a. psychiatrists. b. clinical psychologists. c. medical psychologists. d. biopsychologists. Correct: Psychiatrists are physicians who specialize in mental health, and who diagnose and treat mental disorders primarily through prescribing medications that influence brain chemistry. 674 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 674 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 12) Rihanna goes to a mental health professional for help with her depression. While waiting for the therapist, she notices the medical degree hanging on the wall in the office. At the end of the session, the therapist writes Rihanna a prescription for an antidepressant drug. Rihanna's therapist is a a. clinical social worker. b. psychiatrist. c. clinical psychologist. d. counseling psychologist. Correct: Psychiatrists are physicians (medical doctors) who specialize in mental health, and who diagnose and treat mental disorders primarily through prescribing medications that influence brain chemistry. 674 Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 674 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

13) Which of the following professionals is trained as a physician and may be found working in either private practice or in a hospital setting? a. clinical psychologist b. clinical social worker c. mental health counselor d. psychiatrist Correct: Psychiatrists are physicians who specialize in mental health, and who diagnose and treat mental disorders primarily through prescribing medications that influence brain chemistry. They are the only type of mental health professional listed that is trained as a physician (i.e., a medical doctor). 674 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 674 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 14) Thanks to the _________________ movement, the vast majority of mental institutions in the Canada have been closed. a. deinstitutionalization b. in-patient c. empirically supported treatment d. therapeutic alliance Correct: By the 1950s, a grass-roots campaign called deinstitutionalization had formed in response to the problems associated with the treatment in mental institutions. This movement successfully pushed for returning people from mental institutions to their communities and families and enabled them to receive treatment on an outpatient basis. 674-675 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 674-675 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment.

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15) The movement which returned people from mental institutions to their communities and families and enabled them to receive treatment on an outpatient basis is referred to as a. deinstitutionalization. b. in-patient. c. empirically supported treatment. d. therapeutic alliance. Correct: This is the definition used in the textbook. 674 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 674 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 16) Today, people in need of serious, long-term care often live in _________________ centers, which are a humane alternative to the asylums of the past. a. deinstitutionalization b. residential treatment c. insight d. therapeutic alliance Correct: Rather than spend their lives in an asylum, many individuals in need of longterm care live in residential treatment centers, which tend to resemble a dormitory or motel more than an asylum. 675 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 675 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 17) A major goal of modern inpatient psychiatric treatment is a. keeping people with mental illness out of the community for as long as possible. b. permanently curing mental illness. c. quickly returning patients to society.

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d. punishing the criminally insane. Correct: Inpatient treatment for mental illness is now geared more toward protecting the individual patient from harm, and providing as quick a return to society as possible. 675 Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 675 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 18) Which of the following has been a side effect of moving the treatment of mental illness from inpatient to outpatient care? a. Psychiatric hospitals have become more inhumane. b. Crime rates have increased greatly. c. Homelessness has become a major problem for the mentally ill. d. There have not been any negative side effects from moving to outpatient treatment. Correct: One unintended consequence of deinstitutionalization has been that homelessness and substance abuse has become a major problem for the severely mentally ill. 675 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 675 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 19) Which area of psychology focuses on identifying how an individual's mental health is influenced by factors such as the neighborhood, economics, and social groups? a. local psychology b. holistic psychology c. clinical psychology d. community psychology Correct: This is the textbook's definition for community psychology. 675 Answer: d Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 675 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 20) Which of the following is true about the regulation of psychological therapy? a. Psychotherapies must be proven safe before they can be used. b. Psychotherapies must be proven effective before they can be used. c. Psychotherapies must be empirically supported before they can be used. d. There is relatively little oversight over which non-biological therapies can be used. Correct: There is relatively little regulation over which techniques can be used by therapists. This has led many psychologists to push for the use of empirically supported treatments. 677 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 677 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. 21) Empirically supported treatments refer to a. treatments for which only anecdotal evidence of effectiveness are available. b. treatments that are effective for all psychological disorders and this effectiveness has been established through rigorous scientific testing. c. treatments that are effective for specific disorders and this effectiveness has been established through the use of sound research designs. d. treatments which have been shown to be effective for 100% of people receiving therapy. Correct: Empirically supported treatments (also called evidence-based therapies) are treatments that have been tested and evaluated using sound research designs and have been found to be effective for the treatment of one or more mental health issues. 676 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 676 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment 22) Treatments that have been tested using sound research designs and have been found to be both safe and effective are called a. bibliotherapies. b. empirically supported treatments. c. psychotherapies. d. insight therapies. Correct: Empirically supported treatments (also called evidence-based therapies) are treatments that have been tested and evaluated using sound research designs, and have been found to be effective for the treatment of one or more mental health issues. 676 Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 676 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment 23) Therapeutic alliance refers to a. the combined effectiveness of psychotherapy and pharmaceuticals. b. a professional organization of clinical psychologists, counseling psychologists, and social workers. c. the relationship that emerges between patient and therapist during therapy. d. an organization founded to empirically test the efficacy and safety of various psychotherapies. Correct: Part of the effectiveness of therapy comes from the therapeutic alliance—the relationship that emerges in therapy. 677 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 677 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

24) Critiques of the empirically supported treatment approach are most likely to state that a. all psychotherapies are equally effective. b. the effectiveness of different psychotherapies cannot be tested in the same way drugs are. c. therapeutic effectiveness can be tested using randomized, double-blind experiments. d. the therapeutic process is generally simple and straightforward. Correct: Some psychologists believe that evaluating psychotherapy in the same way we test drugs—ideally with randomized, double-blind experiments—ignores some of the nuances and complexity that exist in the process of therapy. 677 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 677 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment 25) Lindsay has been experiencing a great deal of stress during her first year of college. She checks out a book from the library which promises to help people find strategies for reducing stress. Lindsay plans to engage in a. bibliotherapy. b. aversive conditioning. c. person-centered therapy. d. psychoanalysis. Correct: Bibliotherapy is the use of self-help books and other reading materials as a form of therapy. 677 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 677 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether self-help options, such as popular books, are a useful therapy option. 26) A _____________ is a statistical method that helps researchers to combine the findings from several research studies. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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a. meta-analysis b. beta-analysis c. correlation d. standard deviation Correct: Meta-analysis is a technique that combines numerous studies testing a similar hypothesis. 678 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 678 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether self-help options, such as popular books, are a useful therapy option. 27) According to your textbook, analysis of several studies investigating the effectiveness of the self-help book Feeling Good suggests that self-help books probably have a. no effect. b. a negative (detrimental) effect. c. a large positive effect. d. a positive effect, but the effect seems small. Correct: The researchers found that over four weeks, those who read a self-help book had reduced depression compared to those who did not. Thus, there may be reason to believe that, at least among people who are not experiencing major depression, self-help books can be helpful. Even so, psychologists caution that the effects of using self-help books tend to be very minor. 678 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 678 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether self-help options, such as popular books, are a useful therapy option. 28) Starting in the 1970s, a program called Scared Straight exposed at-risk youth to the harsh reality of prison life. According to your textbook, which of the following is true about this program?

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a. It reduced crime rates among troubled youth by 65%. b. The program did not reduce the risk of incarceration and may have been harmful. c. Many participants actually came to believe that prison life was preferable to life at home. d. The program worked, but the effect was small. Correct: The Scared Straightprogram may have succeeded in scaring and shocking adolescents, but the youths who attended these sessions did not necessarily go down a straight path. Many were later convicted of crimes and incarcerated. According to some analyses, participation in the program is actually associated with an increased chance that adolescents would commit crimes. 681 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 681 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 29) The major goal of insight therapies is to give people a. feedback from their biologically controlled responses. b. help in understanding perceptual processes. c. basic training in observational learning and practice. d. clearer understanding of their feelings, motivations, and actions. Correct: Insight therapy is a general term referring to psychotherapy that involves dialogue between client and therapist for the purposes of gaining awareness and understanding of psychological problems and conflicts. 682 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 682 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 30) What category of therapy is most concerned with improving a client's awareness of the underlying causes of his or her difficulties?

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a. behavioural b. biological c. cognitive d. insight Correct: Insight therapies is a general term referring to psychotherapy that involves dialogue between client and therapist for the purposes of gaining awareness and understanding of psychological problems and conflicts. 682 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 682 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 31) In what brand of psychotherapy would a clinical psychologist attempt to uncover the underlying unconscious conflicts and impulses that are the cause of one's psychological difficulties? a. behavioural b. cognitive-behavioural c. humanistic d. psychoanalytic/psychodynamic Correct: Psychodynamic therapies emphasize the need to discover and resolve unconscious conflicts. Modern psychodynamic theories are based on Freud's original psychoanalytic approach. 682-683 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 682-683 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 32) Carlita has just come from her first therapy session. To better understand Carlita's generalized anxiety, the therapist asked her to talk about her childhood experiences and

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interactions with her parents and has asked her to keep a dream journal for the next several weeks. With which orientation is this approach most consistent? a. behavioural b. eclectic c. humanistic d. psychoanalytic/psychodynamic Correct: Psychodynamic therapies emphasize the need to discover and resolve unconscious conflicts. Modern psychodynamic theories are based on Freud's original psychoanalytic approach, which used techniques such as dream analysis and free association to identify unconscious memories and conflicts. 682 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 682 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 33) Freud believed that patients could not identify their psychological conflicts without the help of a therapist. This was primarily because Freud believed that a. non-psychiatrists do not have the training to understand their own psychology. b. people are not aware of their psychological conflicts because they are located in the unconscious mind. c. most people are too busy to think about their internal motivations and conflicts. d. people are too biased to objectively assess their mental state on their own. Correct: According to Freud, psychological problems are caused by unconscious conflicts. Patients cannot tell you much about these conflicts, because, by definition, unconscious means that the patient is not aware of them. Freud and his associates came up with several methods and concepts they believed would help them access the unconscious realm so as to cure unhealthy minds. 682 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 682 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

34) Laura has had many different jobs, but she always does something to get herself fired. After about fifteen therapy sessions, during which she explores her earliest memories, she has an insight. She comes to believe that sabotaging her jobs is her way of expressing anger toward her father, who had always put his job before his family. What method of therapy is Laura most likely engaged in? a. psychoanalysis b. behaviour therapy c. cognitive therapy d. humanist therapy Correct: As an insight therapy, the primary goal of psychoanalysis is to help the client understand the past experiences, relationships, and personal conflicts that are unconsciously influencing how they think and behave. 682 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 682 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 35) Bart is asked by his psychotherapist to close his eyes. After a few minutes of relaxing, the therapist asks Bart to discuss whatever comes to mind and to continue without censoring any of the ideas or thoughts he experiences. Bart is experiencing the therapeutic technique of a. active confrontation. b. transference. c. free association. d. systematic desensitization. Correct: Free association is a technique used by psychoanalysts, where the patient is instructed to reveal any thoughts that arise, no matter how odd or meaningless they may seem. 682 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 682 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques.

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36) Free association is a technique used in ___________ therapy. a. psychodynamic b. family c. person-centered d. cognitive-behavioural Correct: Free association is a technique used in psychoanalysis and other psychodynamic therapies. During free association, the patient is instructed to reveal any thoughts that arise, no matter how odd or meaningless they may seem. 683 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 683 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 37) Sigmund Freud would agree that _______________ may be useful in treating a psychological disorder. a. systematic desensitization b. dream analysis c. flooding d. exposure treatment Correct: Freud believed that the unconscious could be studied by interpreting the symbolic (i.e., latent) content of dreams. The other options are techniques used in behavioural therapy, and are not associated with Freud. 682 Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 682 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 38) Julio tells his therapist that he dreamt of a large blue monster that was about to eat him. His therapist interpreted this dream as representing Julio's abusive father. According to dream analysis, the manifest content is a. Julio.

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b. Julio's father. c. the therapist. d. the large blue monster. Correct: In dream analysis, the obvious content of the dream is referred to as the manifest content. In contrast, the latent content refers to the unconscious elements that motivated the dream. In this example, the manifest content was the blue monster because that was what Julio actually dreamt about. His therapist interpreted this manifest content as disguising the latent content of the dream—Julio's fear of his father. 682 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 682 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 39) According to Sigmund Freud, when you awaken in the morning and remember a dream, you recall the dream's a. latent content. b. deep meaning. c. surface meaning. d. manifest content. Correct: In dream analysis, the obvious content of the dream is referred to as the manifest content. In contrast, the latent content refers to the unconscious elements that motivated the dream. 682 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 682 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 40) In interpreting a dream, a psychoanalyst would attempt to discover the dream's _________ content. a. latent b. manifest

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c. conscious d. resistant Correct: In dream analysis, the latent content refers to the unconscious elements that motivated the dream. Psychoanalysts attempt to understand unconscious thoughts by interpreting the manifest content (what happens in the dream) to discover the latent content. 682 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 682 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 41) According to Freud, the ___________ of the dream refers to the hidden, symbolic meaning of the dream, which, if correctly interpreted, reveals the unconscious conflicts that created the nervous disorder. a. manifest content b. free association c. latent content d. resistance Correct: In dream analysis, the latent content refers to the unconscious elements that motivated the dream. Psychoanalysts attempt to understand unconscious thoughts by interpreting the manifest content (what happens in the dream) to discover the latent content. 682 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 682 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 42) After many sessions of psychodynamic therapy, Dan at some point experiences reluctance to cooperate with his therapist and tends to forget to do what his therapist had suggested to him. Dan is experiencing a. resistance. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Krause, Corts, Dolderman, Smith, Psychological Science, Canadian Edition, Chapter 16: Therapies

b. desensitization. c. transference d. free association. Correct: According to Freud, psychoanalysis patients engage in what he called resistance—a tendency to avoid directly answering crucial questions posed by the therapist. Patients may get angry at the analyst, or even become cynical about the whole process. While transference can play a role in this behaviour as well, there is nothing in the description of Dan's behaviour that indicates transference has occurred. 683 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 683 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 43) Kelly has been in therapy with Dr. Williams for 2 months when she suddenly starts skipping appointments because she got angry at some of her therapist's questions. Even when in session, she tends to blankly stare at the therapist. This is best explained by a. free association. b. resistance. c. transference. d. working through. Correct: According to Freud, psychoanalysis patients engage in what he called resistance—a tendency to avoid directly answering crucial questions posed by the therapist. Patients may get angry at the analyst, or even become cynical about the whole process. While transference can play a role in this behaviour as well, there is nothing in the description of Kelly's behaviour that indicates transference has occurred. 683 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 683 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 44) George begins to project his anxieties and unresolved feelings about his mother onto his therapist. This is what Sigmund Freud would have called

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a. free association. b. resistance. c. transference. d. working through. Correct: Transference is a psychoanalytic process that involves patients directing the emotional experiences that they are reliving toward the therapist. 683 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 683 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 45) Maureen is in therapy because she is very frightened of her father and feels tonguetied around him. After a few months she begins to feel frightened of her therapist also. According to Freud, this is an example of a. latency. b. interpretation. c. transference. d. sublimation. Correct: Transference is a psychoanalytic process that involves patients directing the emotional experiences that they are reliving toward the therapist. 683 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 683 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 46) What is the process by which a patient projects feelings about other individuals onto the psychoanalyst? a. resistance b. reactance c. countertransference

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d. transference Correct: Transference is a psychoanalytic process that involves patients directing the emotional experiences that they are reliving toward the therapist. 683 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 683 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 47) Not all psychodynamic theories focus on repressed sexual and aggressive conflicts. For example, ____________ is a type of psychodynamic therapy that focuses primarily on how early childhood experiences and emotional attachments influence later psychological functioning. a. object relations therapy b. psychoanalysis c. family therapy d. client-centered therapy Correct: In contrast to psychoanalysis, object relations therapy does not center on repressed sexual and aggressive conflicts. Family therapy and client-centered therapy are not types of psychodynamic therapies. 683 Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 683 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 48) An object relations therapist would be least likely to emphasize the importance of unconscious ________ impulses and needs in a therapeutic setting. a. dependence b. sexual c. social d. status

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Correct: In contrast to psychoanalysis, object relations therapy does not center on repressed sexual and aggressive conflicts. 683 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 683 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 49) Which of the following does humanistic therapy emphasize? a. the unconscious b. personal growth c. errant thought processes d. dream interpretation Correct: Humanistic psychologists broke from the psychoanalytic approach, perhaps most importantly by shifting from focusing on unconscious conflicts to the individual's strengths and potential for growth. 683-684 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 683-684 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 50) The ultimate goal of humanistic psychotherapy is for people to a. change their maladaptive behaviours and reactions to challenging situations. b. change their maladaptive thoughts about themselves and their life circumstances. c. gain insight and move forward in their seeking of their ultimate potential. d. uncover the hidden motivations that impact their conscious thoughts and behaviours. Correct: Person/client-centered therapy—a type of humanistic psychology—focuses on individuals' abilities to solve their own problems and reach their full potential with the encouragement of the therapist. This is characteristic of the humanistic approach in general. 684

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Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 684 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 51) Client-centered therapy is a type of ______ therapy. a. insight b. behaviour c. cognitive d. reality Correct: Humanistic therapies—including person/client-centered therapy—are a form of insight therapy. 684 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 684 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 52) ________ client-centered therapy centers on the patient's goals and ways of solving problems. a. Rogers' b. Freud's c. Beck d. Ellis Correct: Client-centered therapy was developed by the American psychologist Carl Rogers. 685 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 685 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 53) Andre's mother acts as if she will be very disappointed in him if he does not become a doctor or a lawyer. Carl Rogers would refer to this as a. resistance. b. a condition of worth. c. unconditional positive regard. d. transference. Correct: Carl Rogers believed that people experience psychological problems when others impose "conditions of worth", meaning that they appear to judge or lose affection for a person who does not live up to expectations. 685 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 685 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 54) Which of the following is a key component of Rogers's client-centered therapy? a. cognition b. resistance c. dream interpretation d. unconditional positive regard Correct: In client-centered therapy, the therapist must show "unconditional positive regard" through genuine, empathetic, and nonjudgmental attention. 685 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 685 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques.

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55) In client-centered therapy, this nonjudgmental acceptance of all feelings the patient expresses is known as a. unconditional bipositive regard. b. unconditional negative regard. c. unconditional positive regard. d. unconditional neutral regard. Correct: In client-centered therapy, the therapist must show "unconditional positive regard" through genuine, empathetic, and nonjudgmental attention. 685 Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 685 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 56) Carl Rogers asserts that an effective psychotherapist will a. actively confront and challenge his or her client's erroneous beliefs. b. interpret important transference and resistance behaviours for his or her client. c. provide unconditional positive regard toward his or her client. d. seek to identify how negative reinforcement is promoting maladaptive behaviours, feelings, and/or thoughts for an individual. Correct: In Carl Rogers' client-centered therapy, the therapist must show "unconditional positive regard" through genuine, empathetic, and nonjudgmental attention. According to Rogers, this was a critical part of the therapeutic process. 685 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 685 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 57) Carl Rogers believed that _____________ was the cause of psychological health issues, and therefore ____________ was the key to helping clients get over them. a. unconditional positive regard; conditions of worth

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b. conditions of worth; unconditional positive regard c. resistance; transference d. transference; resistance Correct: Carl Rogers believed that people experience psychological problems when others impose "conditions of worth," meaning that they appear to judge or lose affection for a person who does not live up to expectations. In order to remove all conditions of worth, Rogers taught that therapists must show unconditional positive regard through genuine, empathetic, and nonjudgmental attention. 685 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 685 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 58) According to your textbook, which of the following is true regarding the effectiveness of psychodynamic therapies? a. Psychodynamic therapies are ineffective in treating psychological disorders. b. Psychodynamic therapies are extremely effective in treating almost all psychological disorders. c. The effectiveness of psychodynamic therapies has never been scientifically tested. d. Psychodynamic therapies may be effective for less serious disorders, but does not work well for people with severe mental illness. Correct: Psychodynamic therapy has not been effective in treating severe depression or schizophrenia, but it has shown promise for treating panic disorder, dependence on opiate drugs (e.g., heroin), and borderline personality disorder. Psychodynamic therapy may also help with major depression if combined with drug treatment. 683 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 683 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the pros and cons of the major types of psychological therapy. 59) The work of _________________ influenced the contemporary model of interpersonal therapy.

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a. Jung and Adler b. Freud and Horney c. Sullivan and Klerman d. Beck and Ellis Correct: Interpersonal therapy is a style of psychodynamic therapy that was developed by psychologists Henry Stack Sullivan and Gerald Klerman to treat depression. Sullivan and Klerman believed that emotional reactions and depression are rooted in interpersonal relationships. 683 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 683 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 60) Interpersonal therapy has demonstrated success in all but which of the following conditions? a. anxiety b. bulimia c. depression d. schizophrenia Correct: Although interpersonal therapy was developed to treat depression, interpersonal therapy has also been successfully applied to clients seeking help with diverse conditions such as anxiety, bulimia nervosa, and borderline personality disorder. However, insight therapies, like interpersonal therapy, may be unsuitable for individuals who are not prone to self-reflection, including those with severe disorders such as schizophrenia. 683 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 683 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the pros and cons of the major types of psychological therapy. 61) Who of the following is LEAST likely to benefit from insight therapy? a. a middle-aged mother of two

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b. a 20-something mailroom clerk c. a man who has been experiencing panic attacks d. a 6-year-old with intellectual disabilities Correct: Insight therapy is likely to be unsuitable for individuals who are not prone to self-reflection. A child with intellectual disabilities is unlikely to have the cognitive abilities required by insight therapies. 682 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 682 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the pros and cons of the major types of psychological therapy. 62) Psychologists who practice behavioural therapy focus on the client's a. unconscious anxieties. b. relationships with parents. c. potential for growth. d. current behaviour and attitudes. Correct: Behavioural therapies address problem behaviours and thoughts, and the environmental factors that trigger them, as directly as possible. 686 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 686 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 63) Which type of therapy is based on using learning principles, such as classical conditioning? a. behavioural b. insight c. psychoanalysis d. client-centered

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Correct: Behavioural therapies use the principles of learning to reduce or modify behaviour, and to account for how the behaviours were originally acquired. 686 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 686 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 64) In behaviour therapy, distressing symptoms are seen as a. the result of learning. b. the result of your unconscious impulses. c. a chemical imbalance. d. an indicator of neurophysiological abnormalities. Correct: At the heart of behavioural therapies is the belief that patterns of behaviour are the result of conditioning and learning, including maladaptive behaviours that lead people to require therapy. 686 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 686 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 65) Jenny was been bitten by several dogs when she was younger. As an adult, Jenny has an extreme phobia for dogs, and begins to shake if she even sees a dog. Using the language of classical conditioning, dogs have become a a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Correct: In classical conditioning, the conditioned stimulus is a once neutral stimulus that, through conditioning, becomes capable of eliciting a response. In this example, Jenny was conditioned to associate dogs with fear during her childhood. According to Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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this view, her shaking and fear is a conditioned response to the seeing the conditioned stimulus (a dog). 686 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 686 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 66) Systematic desensitization is specifically designed to help a person to deal with his or her a. depression. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. phobia. d. psychopathic personality. Correct: Systematic desensitization is a technique in which gradual exposure to a feared stimulus or situation is blended with relaxation training. Like all exposure treatments, it is used primarily to treat phobias. 686 Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 686 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 67) Cherise finds out that she is being transferred to an office located on the tenth floor of a building. The problem is that she fears heights so much that she never goes above the third floor in any building. Her therapist teaches her how to relax deeply while imagining looking out over a balcony. As her therapy progresses, Cherise imagines herself on higher and higher floors. This technique is called a. systematic desensitization. b. aversive conditioning. c. flooding. d. transference.

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Correct: Systematic desensitization is a technique in which gradual exposure to a feared stimulus or situation is blended with relaxation training. This would not be an example of flooding, because flooding involves going straight to the most challenging part of the exposure process. For example, if Cherise was undergoing flooding, her therapist might take her to the top of a skyscraper. 686 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 686 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 68) Trina attempts to overcome her fear of clowns by learning how to shift from a feeling of tension to one of calm and relaxation. Next, she is asked to imagine different situations, each more anxiety-provoking than the previous. She only proceeds to the next situation if she can maintain her feeling of relaxation. Trina's therapist is using ________ to remove her fear. a. exposure therapy b. modeling c. client-centered therapy d. systematic desensitization Correct: Systematic desensitization is a technique in which gradual exposure to a feared stimulus or situation is blended with relaxation training. 686 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 686 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 69) Which method of treating phobias involves relaxation and exposure to the feared object? a. aversive conditioning b. punishment c. flooding d. systematic desensitization

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Correct: Systematic desensitization is a technique in which gradual exposure to a feared stimulus or situation is blended with relaxation training. Like all exposure treatments, it is used primarily to treat phobias. In contrast, flooding involves the client going straight to the most challenging part of the hierarchy, exposing himself to the scenario that causes the most anxiety and panic. 686 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 686 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 70) For which of these problems would systematic desensitization most likely be used? a. Joe has been depressed for two years. b. Ken is sexually attracted to young children. c. As a result of schizophrenia, David does not interact with members of his family. d. A fear of heights restricts Alice's enrollment to classes that meet on the first floor. Correct: Systematic desensitization is a technique in which gradual exposure to a feared stimulus or situation is blended with relaxation training. Like all exposure treatments, it is used primarily to treat phobias. 686 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 686 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 71) Rhona's therapist is attempting to treat her agoraphobia by riding the subway with her during rush hour on the first day of treatment. The therapist is most likely doing this as part of a treatment known as a. systematic desensitization. b. aversive conditioning. c. flooding. d. transference Correct: Flooding involves the client going straight to the most challenging part of exposure therapy, exposing herself to the scenario that causes the most anxiety and Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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panic. In this example, Rhona is put into one of the most fearful situations a person with agoraphobia can imagine. This is not an example of systematic desensitization because Rhona's therapist did not start out with less fearful scenarios and then workup to the subway. It is also not an example of aversive conditioning, because aversive conditioning is a technique used to stop or reduce an unwanted behaviour, and is not used to treat phobias. 686 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 686 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 72) Estella is afraid of cats. To help her overcome her fear, her mother calmly pets and strokes a cat while Estella is watching. Her mother encourages her to imitate her behaviour. Estella's mother is using a. systematic desensitization. b. aversive conditioning. c. flooding. d. modelling. Correct: One technique used in exposure therapy is observational learning or "modelling." With this method, the client observes another person engage with the feared object or situation. 686 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 686 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 73) Juan is so afraid of germs that he wears gloves when opening doors. He is encouraged by his therapist to imitate a person in a video who demonstrates opening a door, step–by-step, without wearing gloves. Which technique is his therapist using? a. flooding b. modelling c. systematic desensitization

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d. aversive conditioning Correct: One technique used in exposure therapy is observational learning or "modelling." With this method, the client observes another person engage with the feared object or situation. 686 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 686 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 74) ________ allows psychotherapists to place persons in situations to confront and eliminate their fears that would either be infeasible or difficult to do in real life. a. Exposure therapy b. Flooding c. Aversive conditioning d. Virtual reality exposure therapy Correct: Virtual reality exposure is a treatment that uses graphical displays to create an experience in which the client seems to be immersed in an actual environment. 687 Answer: d Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 687 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 75) Thanks to new computer technology, virtual reality devices permit behaviour therapists to conduct _______________ in their offices. a. free association b. transference c. exposure therapy d. unconditional positive regard Correct: Virtual reality exposure is a treatment that uses graphical displays to create an experience in which the client seems to be immersed in an actual environment. 687

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Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 687 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 76) Research discussed in your textbook suggests that virtual reality exposure therapy might help a. suicidal adolescents. b. girls and young women with negative body-image issues. c. people with substance abuse problems. d. soldiers returning from combat with PTSD. Correct: Combat veterans diagnosed with PTSD have participated in virtual reality therapies involving simulated exposure to traumatic events. Although not conclusive, there is some evidence that the treatments are effective in reducing symptoms. 687 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 687 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 77) Miranda is in treatment for alcoholism, and her doctor has prescribed Antabuse, which will make her vomit after drinking alcohol. Why might this not be an effective treatment for Miranda? a. Miranda quit drinking months ago. b. Miranda has to want to stop drinking. c. Miranda has other problems beyond alcoholism. d. Miranda will simply not take the Antabuse. Correct: Antabuse works for some individuals, but if the client cheats and skips the drug some days, then the treatment will not have much chance of working. 688 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC

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Page Reference: 688 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 78) Which therapeutic technique uses punishment and other strategies to create a negative response to a stimulus? a. flooding b. aversive conditioning c. systematic desensitization d. electroconvulsive therapy Correct: Aversive conditioning is a behavioural technique that involves replacing a positive response to a stimulus with a negative response, typically by using punishment. 688 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 688 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 79) Cognitive-behavioural therapists would argue that anxiety and mood disorders are largely the result of a. conditional positive regard. b. negative cognitions. c. maladaptive behaviours. d. unresolved childhood issues. Correct: As Ellis, Beck, and other psychotherapy researchers learned more about the thought patterns of people with depression, it became apparent that therapies should be directed at reducing and changing negative cognition into more realistic and rational thought patterns. Over time, they formalized procedures for carrying out this new approach known as cognitive-behavioural therapy. 689 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 689

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 80) Exposure, cognitive restructuring, and stress inoculation training are techniques associated with a. cognitive-behavioural therapy. b. client-centered therapy. c. family therapy. d. psychoanalysis. Correct: Cognitive-behavioural therapy is a form of therapy that consists of procedures such as exposure, cognitive restructuring, and stress inoculation training. 688-689 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 688-689 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 81) _________________ involves helping clients identify and change irrational and overly emotional ways of thinking. a. Exposure b. The systems approach c. Cognitive restructuring d. Stress inoculation training Correct: In cognitive-behavioural therapy, cognitive restructuring occurs as the client's beliefs and interpretations about events are shifted or restructured so they can be viewed from a more rational, and less emotional, perspective. 689 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 689 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy.

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82) Franco feels like he fails at everything he tries. His cognitive-behavioural therapist helps Franco change this overly pessimistic view of himself and helps Franco to focus on more productive and rational thoughts. This part of cognitive-behavioural therapy is called a. cognitive restructuring. b. stress inoculation training. c. transference. d. exposure. Correct: In cognitive-behavioural therapy, cognitive restructuring occurs as the client's beliefs and interpretations about events are shifted or restructured so that they can be viewed from a more rational, and less emotional, perspective. 689 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 689 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. 83) One element to cognitive-behavioural therapy is helping clients with negative ways of thinking about the world and themselves shift to more productive and rational way of thinking. This process is called a. transference. b. stress inoculation training. c. cognitive restructuring. d. exposure. Correct: In cognitive-behavioural therapy, cognitive restructuring occurs as the client's beliefs and interpretations about events are shifted or restructured so that they can be viewed from a more rational, and less emotional, perspective. 689 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 689 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques.

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84) Which of the following is true of group therapy? a. It is unethical to conduct group therapy unless the group members are all close friends or relatives. b. Group therapy is ineffective. c. An advantage to group therapy is that it is usually less expensive than individual therapy. d. Group therapists take a fundamentally different approach to therapy compared to other therapists. Correct: In some situations, clients may benefit greatly by participating in group therapy sessions, either with family members or strangers. One advantage with this approach is that group therapy tends to be less costly than individual sessions. Group techniques are typically adapted from the major types of therapies used in individual therapy. 691 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 691 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 85) John and his wife are having trouble communicating and getting along with one another. Which type of therapy is most likely to help them with their problems? a. family b. individual c. psychopharmacotherapy d. systematic desensitization Correct: Family therapy involves focusing on the dynamic between family members, including spouses and children. 691 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 691 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques.

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86) Instead of focusing just on individual family members, family therapists usually try to understand how each family member interacts with, and contributes to, the overall family dynamic. This is referred to as a. therapeutic alliance. b. the systems approach. c. insight therapy d. object relations therapy Correct: Family therapists take a systems approach, an orientation toward family therapy that involves identifying and understanding what each individual family member contributes to the entire family dynamic. 691 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 691 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. 87) Cognitive-behavioural therapies have been found to be especially helpful in the treatment of a. dissociative disorders. b. depression. c. borderline personality disorder d. substance dependence Correct: Cognitive-behavioural therapy has been particularly effective in treating depression, which is not too surprising given that this method of therapy was specifically developed to treat this type of mental disorder. 691 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 691 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the pros and cons of the major types of psychological therapy.

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88) Which of the following disorders is LEAST likely to be successfully treated by cognitive-behavioural therapy? a. schizophrenia b. depression c. require less effort from the client d. obsessive-compulsive disorder Correct: While cognitive-behavioural therapies have been successful in treating such conditions as OCD, obesity, and eating disorders, and depression. Cognitive and behavioural therapies alone may not alter the numerous problem behaviours associated with a major disorder. For example, behavioural therapy may be used to help individuals with schizophrenia cope with auditory hallucinations, but it does not eliminate them. 698691 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 698-691 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the pros and cons of the major types of psychological therapy. 89) Compared to psychoanalysis, cognitive-behavioural therapies tend to a. be less effective. b. be more expensive. c. require less effort from the client. d. take much less time. Correct: The time course of cognitive therapy is also typically much shorter than psychoanalysis, which is helpful to people who have limited insurance coverage for mental health issues. 691 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 691 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the pros and cons of the major types of psychological therapy.

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90) Which form of biological therapy would a psychiatrist be most likely to suggest for a client? a. electroconvulsive therapy b. psychopharmacotherapy c. psychosurgery d. deep brain stimulation Correct: Psychopharmacotherapy is by far the most frequently used biomedical option, but it is often employed in conjunction with psychotherapy. Surgery or electrically stimulating the brain are options, although they are typically used only in situations where no other available treatments have succeeded. 695 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 695 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with biological treatments 91) Medications which affect psychological function are collectively referred to as ______________ drugs. a. psychotropic b. tricyclic c. psychedelic d. antipsychotic Correct: Psychotropic drugs are medications designed to alter psychological functioning. All of the other options are specific types or examples of psychotropic drugs. 695 Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 695 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with biological treatments 92) In order to have an effect, drugs used to treat psychological disorders must be able to a. reduce neurotransmitter activity in the brain. b. increase neurotransmitter activity in the brain. Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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c. cross from one side of a synapse to the other. d. cross the blood-brain barrier. Correct: All psychotropic drugs are designed to cross the blood–brain barrier, a network of tightly packed cells that only allow specific types of substances to move from the bloodstream to the brain. Once in the brain, the drugs have their effect by either increasing or decreasing neurotransmitter activity. 695 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 695 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with biological treatments 93) Antidepressant drugs typically affect which type of neurotransmitters? a. amino acids b. monoamines c. peptides d. endorphins Correct: In general, antidepressant drugs target areas of the brain that, when functioning normally, are rich in monoamine neurotransmitters—serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine. 696 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 696 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. 94) A drug that elevates the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain by inhibiting an enzyme that metabolizes these neurotransmitters would most likely be used to treat a. psychosis b. dissociative identity disorder c. bipolar disorder d. depression

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Correct: This is how MAOIs, a type of antidepressant, work. 696 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 696 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of drug therapies to different psychological conditions. 95) Which of the following is true about MAOIs and tricyclics? a. They are used to treat schizophrenia. b. They are not effective c. They are not widely used because of the potential for dangerous side effects. d. They work by affecting the activity of GABA. Correct: MAOIs and tricyclics are used less frequently than other antidepressants, in part because they can have dangerous side effects. 696 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 696 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. 96) A frequently prescribed drug therapy for managing one's depression is a. Adderall. b. Lithium. c. Prozac. d. Thorazine. Correct: Prozac (fluoxetine) is an antidepressant that appeared on the market in 1987 and since has been among the most commonly used. The other drugs listed are not used to treat depression. 696 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 696 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of drug therapies to different psychological conditions. 97) Who would benefit most from taking lithium? a. Zara, who is near death from starving herself b. Jonathan, who swings from mania to thoughts of suicide c. Joshua who has hallucinations and delusions d. Barbara, who experiences excessive worry and anxiety Correct: Mood stabilizers are drugs used to prevent or reduce the manic side of bipolar disorder. Lithium was one of the first mood stabilizers to be prescribed regularly in psychiatry. 697 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 697 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of drug therapies to different psychological conditions. 98) Which of the following is true about antidepressants? a. They make non-depressed people feel happier. b. Increased euphoria usually occurs within 30 minutes of taking them. c. They are non-addictive. d. They have no side effects. Correct: SSRIs and other major antidepressants do not induce other characteristic effects of addictive drugs, including withdrawal, tolerance, and compulsive use; however, they can have side effects. Antidepressant drugs can alleviate depression, but they do not make people happier than they were before becoming depressed. They also do not create a feeling of euphoria, even in high doses. 696 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 696 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning.

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99) Ativan, Valium, and Xanax are _______________ drugs. a. antipsychotic b. antidepressant c. antianxiety d. mood stabilizing Correct: Xanax (alprazolam), Valium (diazepam), and Ativan (lorazepam) are all antianxiety drugs, which are prescribed to alleviate nervousness and tension, and to prevent and reduce panic attacks. 698 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 698 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of drug therapies to different psychological conditions. 100) A new drug that increases the activity of the neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is likely to a. be calming and reduce anxiety. b. reduce psychotic episodes. c. reduce feelings of sadness and improve mood. d. reduce manic behaviours. Correct: Antianxiety drugs typically affect the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), an inhibitory neurotransmitter that reduces neural activity. They appear to temporarily alter the structure of GABA receptors, allowing more GABA molecules to inhibit neural activity. 698 Answer: a Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 698 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. 101) How are atypical antipsychotics different from traditional antipsychotic medications? a. Atypical antipsychotics are older.

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b. Atypical antipsychotics work by increasing GABA activity in the brain. c. Atypical antipsychotics only treat the negative symptoms. d. Atypical antipsychotics are less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia. Correct: Second-generation antipsychotics, also called atypical antipsychotics, have the advantage of carrying a low risk for tardive dyskinesia as compared to older drugs such as Thorazine. The various atypical antipsychotics on the market vary in their exact effects, but generally speaking they primarily seem to reduce dopamine and serotonin activity. 698 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 698 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. 102) In general, typical antipsychotic drugs work by a. inhibiting the reuptake process of serotonin. b. increasing the amount of acetylcholine in the brain. c. blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. d. inhibiting the function of the hypothalamus. Correct: The first generation of antipsychotic medications (e.g., Thorazine, Halodol) was designed to block dopamine receptors. 698 Answer: c Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 698 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. 103) Gary takes antipsychotic drugs to control the symptoms of schizophrenia. After taking the drug for some time, he begins exhibiting repetitive, involuntary jerks and movements of his face, lips, and legs. Gary is showing signs of a. negative schizophrenia symptoms. b. tardive dyskinesia. c. a clozapine overdose.

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d. positive schizophrenia symptoms. Correct: Taking antipsychotic medication for long periods of time can result in a syndrome called tardive dyskinesia, a neurological condition marked by involuntary movements and facial tics. 698 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 698 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. 104) Your patient is presenting with the classic signs and symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic that you will prescribe? a. Ativan b. Zyprexa c. Lithium d. Zoloft Correct: Zyprexa is an atypical antipsychotic medication. The other drugs listed are not antipsychotics. 699 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 699 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of drug therapies to different psychological conditions. 105) Many people believe that the herb called St. John's wort can be used to treat depression. Researchers studying the effectiveness of this treatment have found a. that St. John's wort is not an effective treatment for depression. b. that St. John's wort is a very effective treatment for depression. c. that St. John's wort is effective, but not as effective as SSRIs. d. mixed results, with some studies finding an effect while others do not. Correct: Despite its widespread use as a mood enhancer, there is mixed evidence supporting the effectiveness of St. John's wort. 697

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Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 697 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether St. John's wort, a popular herbal remedy for depression, works. 106) Which of the following is true of the herbal remedy St. John's wort? a. St. John's wort should never be taken to treat even mild depression. b. St. John's wort is regulated by the FDA as a drug. c. St. John's wort can produce unfavourable reactions with other medications. d. St. John's wort is a more effective mood enhancer than SSRIs. Correct: Although the FDA does not regulate herbal remedies as drugs, the agency does warn that St. John's wort can produce unfavourable reactions with medications used to treat heart disease, seizures, and some cancers. All in all, the effectiveness of St. John's wort is still not well understood. 697-698 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 697-698 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether St. John's wort, a popular herbal remedy for depression, works. 107) Suppose a friend asks you about the general effectiveness of psychopharmacotherapy. Which of the following would be the most accurate response? a. "Drug treatments are typically more effective when combined with psychotherapy." b. "Drug treatments are more effective than traditional psychotherapy." c. "Drug treatments are typically a waste of money and have almost no effect." d. "There are almost no well-controlled studies on the effectiveness of drug therapies." Correct: Research generally shows that drugs are more effective when combined with other types of therapy. For example, psychotherapy alone may not be sufficient for treating severe disorders such as schizophrenia. 695 Answer: a Diff: 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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Type: MC Page Reference: 695 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with biological treatments. 108) According to your textbook, ______________ might be nearly as effective in treating mild or moderate depression as antidepressant drugs. a. exercise b. a vegetarian diet c. acupuncture d. listening to classical music while sleeping Correct: Numerous studies have shown that exercise is more effective than placebo at relieving depressive symptoms, and it is almost as effective as standard SSRI medications. 700 Answer: a Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 700 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. 109) In the 1950s, Terence had a procedure done to him where the doctor used an instrument to cut the nerve fibers connecting his prefrontal cortex to the rest of the brain. This procedure, called _____________, left him withdrawn and unable to care for himself. a. ECT b. deep brain surgery c. a lobotomy d. transcranial stimulation Correct: This description fits the frontal lobotomy procedure developed by Walter Freeman. 701 Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 701

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Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. 110) Originally developed by the Portuguese surgeon Antonio Moniz, the lobotomy procedure was "perfected" and popularized in the United States by a. Albert Ellis. b. Walter Freeman. c. Henry Stack Sullivan. d. Aaron Beck. Correct: The frontal lobotomy was imported to the United States by Walter Freeman, a surgeon who modified Moniz's technique in a way he considered simpler but equally effective. 701 Answer: b Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 701 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. 111) Which treatment is LEAST likely to be used today? a. drug therapy b. frontal lobotomy c. ECT d. behaviour therapy Correct: By the 1970s, the frontal lobotomy was all but eliminated in the United States. 702 Answer: b Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 702 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy.

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112) Which brain region are neurosurgeons most likely to lesion to treat severe cases of depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder? a. prefrontal cortex b. hippocampus c. cerebellum d. anterior cingulate cortex Correct: Some people with depression, obsessive–compulsive disorder, and other anxiety disorders have undergone lesion surgery directed at a cluster of cells located in the anterior cingulate cortex, which is overactive in people with these disorders. This procedure is called an anterior cingulotomy. 702 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 702 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. 113) Electroconvulsive (ECT) therapy is used today primarily to alleviate a. anxiety. b. problem behaviours. c. epilepsy. d. severe depression. Correct: ECT has gone from being viewed as a torturous "shock treatment" to a relatively normal and safe procedure, although it is still reserved for the most severe cases of disorders such as depression and schizophrenia. 702 Answer: d Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Reference: 702 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy.

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114) Balthazar's depression is being treated through a procedure in which electrodes are placed on both sides of his head and a brief current is turned on. The current triggers a seizure that lasts about a minute, causing his body to convulse. His treatment is known as a. TMS. b. DBS. c. ECT. d. PET. Correct: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a psychiatric treatment in which an electrical current is passed through the brain to induce a temporary seizure. 702 Answer: c Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Reference: 702 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. 115) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) has changed significantly from how it was originally performed. For example, today a. an alternating current is used instead of a direct current. b. patients are given sedatives and muscle relaxers to reduce discomfort and prevent injury. c. the electrodes are placed over the "target" brain region. d. only people suffering from severe anxiety disorders are given ECT. Correct: Over the years, procedures for delivering ECT have improved dramatically. For example, patients are now given sedatives and muscle relaxers to reduce the discomfort they may experience during the therapy and to prevent injury related to the convulsions. 703 Answer: b Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 703 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy.

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116) One of the side effects of electroconvulsive therapy is a. short-term amnesia. b. tardive dyskinesia. c. temporary blindness. d. depression. Correct: The side effects of electroconvulsive therapy are relatively mild, typically consisting of some amnesia, but only for events occurring around the time of the treatment. 703 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 703 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. 117) Imani is trying a relatively new treatment for her major depression. When she visits the doctor, he puts a machine against her head which stimulates specific regions in her brain. Happily for Imani, the treatment is painless and does not cause seizures. Imani's treatment is called a. psychosurgery. b. deep brain stimulation. c. electroconvulsive therapy. d. transcranial magnetic stimulation. Correct: Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is a therapeutic technique in which a focal area of the brain is exposed to a powerful but safe magnetic field. Unlike ECT, TMS does not involve anesthesia or induce a seizure. 703 Answer: d Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 703 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy.

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118) ______________ requires surgery to implant electrodes into the brain and an embedded power supply under the skin. a. Deep brain stimulation b. Electroconvulsive therapy c. A frontal lobotomy d. Transcranial magnetic stimulation Correct: Deep brain stimulation (DBS) is a technique that involves electrically stimulating highly specific regions of the brain. Thin electrode-tipped wires are routed to the region of the brain needing stimulation. A small battery connected to the wires is then inserted just beneath the skin surface. 703 Answer: a Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 703 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. 119) What is the primary reason why surgical treatments for psychological disorders are only used for the most severe psychological disorders that do not respond to other forms of treatment? a. Surgery is too expensive for most people to afford. b. Surgical techniques are generally ineffective in treating psychological disorders. c. Performing surgery has health risks and can potentially have unintended consequences. d. Modern psychosurgery usually results in intellectual impairment. Correct: While psychosurgery can be effective and is much safer than it was 50 years ago, it still has risks and can have permanent side effects. 703-704 Answer: c Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Reference: 703-704 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy.

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1) Men are less likely than women to seek treatment for psychological issues. a. True b. False Correct: Men often go without treatment due to a conflict between stereotypes of psychological treatments and gender roles. 671 Answer: a Page Reference: 671 2) Psychiatrists typically have a PhD in psychology or a PsyD. a. True b. False Correct: Psychiatrists are physicians, therefore they have medical degrees. 674 Answer: b Page Reference: 674 3) Almost all psychologists agree with the empirically supported treatment approach. a. True b. False Correct: Some psychologists believe that evaluating psychotherapy in the same way we test drugs ignores some of the nuances and complexity that exist in the process of therapy. 677 Answer: b Page Reference: 677 4) Freud believed that with insight and better understanding of past experiences, his patients' symptoms would improve. a. True b. False Correct: As an insight therapy, the primary goal of Freud's psychoanalysis was to help the client understand past experiences, relationships, and personal conflicts, and then apply that understanding to improve mental and emotional functioning. 682 Answer: a Page Reference: 682 5) A psychodynamic therapist would terminate therapy if a client reported that she had fallen in love with him. a. True Copyright © 2015 Pearson Canada Inc.

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b. False Correct: During transference, a patient transfers their emotions onto the analyst. A traditional psychoanalyst is likely to view his or her patient falling in love as a breakthrough, not a problem. 683 Answer: b Page Reference: 683 6) In client-centered therapy, the therapist provides empathy and unconditional positive regard to the client. a. True b. False Correct: The critical aspect of client-centered therapy lies within the dialogue that unfolds between therapist and client. The therapist must show unconditional positive regard through genuine, empathetic, and nonjudgmental attention. 684 Answer: a Page Reference: 684 7) A key part of cognitive-behavioural therapy is identifying and changing irrational, unproductive ways of thinking. a. True b. False Correct: In cognitive-behavioural therapy, cognitive restructuring occurs as the client's beliefs and interpretations about events are shifted or restructured so that they can be viewed from a more rational, and less emotional, perspective. 689 Answer: a Page Reference: 689 8) MAOIs are among the most commonly prescribed type of antidepressants. a. True b. False Correct: MAOIs are used less frequently than other antidepressants, in part because they can have dangerous interactions with fermented foods and other medications. 696 Answer: b Page Reference: 696

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9) Although it is an over-the-counter herbal remedy, St. John's wort can have unfavourable interactions with other medications. a. True b. False Correct: St. John's wort can produce unfavourable reactions with medications used to treat heart disease, seizures, and some cancers. 697 Answer: a Page Reference: 697 10) In response to the widespread use of lobotomies, psychosurgery was banned in the North America in the 1970s. a. True b. False Correct: While frontal lobotomies are no longer preformed, safer types of psychosurgery are still used today to treat severe psychological disorders. 701-702 Answer: b Page Reference: 701-702

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