Anatomy & Physiology 9e Kevin Patton (Test Bank All Chapters, 100% Original Verified, A+ Grade) Chapter 01: Organization of the Body Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following describes anatomy? a. Using devices to investigate parameters such as heart rate and blood pressure b. Investigating human structure via dissections and other methods c. Studying the unusual manner in which an organism responds to painful stimuli d. Examining the physiology of life ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy and Physiology
REF: p. 5
2. Systemic anatomy is a term that refers to: a. physiological investigation at a microscopic level. b. anatomical investigation that begins in the head and neck and concludes at the feet. c. anatomical investigation that uses an approach of studying the body by
systems—groups of organs having a common function. d. anatomical investigation at the molecular level. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy and Physiology
REF: p. 5
3. Physiology can be subdivided according to the _____ studied. a. type of organism b. organizational level c. systemic function d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D TOP: Physiology
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 5
4. Physiology: a. recognizes the unchanging (as opposed to the dynamic) nature of things. b. investigates the body’s structure. c. is concerned with organisms and does not deal with different levels of organization
such as cells and systems. d. is the science that examines the function of living organisms and their parts. ANS: D TOP: Physiology
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 5
5. Metabolism refers to: a. the chemical basis of life. b. the sum of all the physical and chemical reactions occurring in the body. c. an organization of similar cells specialized to perform a certain function. d. a subdivision of physiology. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 6
TOP: Characteristics of Life
6. From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are: a. organism, chemical, tissue, cellular, organ, system, organelle. b. chemical, microscopic, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism. c. organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, organelle, chemical. d. chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Organization
REF: p. 7
7. The smallest living units of structure and function in the body are: a. molecules. b. cells. c. organelles. d. atoms. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Organization
REF: p. 8
8. An organization of many similar cells that are specialized to perform a certain function is
called a(n): a. tissue. b. organism. c. system. d. organ. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue Level
REF: p. 8
9. An organ is one organizational step lower than a(n): a. system. b. cell. c. organelle. d. tissue. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ Level
REF: p. 8
10. The reproductive system includes all of the following except the: a. testes. b. ovaries. c. ureter. d. penis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Systems
REF: p. 9
11. The lungs are located in the: a. thoracic cavity. b. mediastinum. c. abdominal cavity. d. cranial cavity. ANS: A
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 10
TOP: Body Cavities 12. The mediastinum contains all of the following except the: a. trachea. b. venae cavae. c. right lung. d. esophagus. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Cavities
REF: p. 10
13. The gallbladder lies in the: a. abdominal cavity. b. pelvic cavity. c. dorsal cavity. d. mediastinum. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Cavities
REF: p. 11
14. The number of abdominal regions is: a. three. b. five. c. seven. d. nine. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Abdominal Regions
REF: p. 13
15. The abdominal region in which the urinary bladder is found is the: a. hypogastric. b. epigastric. c. right lumbar. d. left iliac. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Abdominal Regions
REF: p. 14
16. A surgeon removing a gallbladder should know to find it in the _____ region. a. right lumbar b. right hypochondriac c. hypogastric d. umbilical ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Abdominal Regions 17. The abdominal region in which the appendix is found is the: a. hypogastric. b. right iliac. c. right lumbar. d. right hypochondriac.
REF: p. 14
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Abdominal Regions
REF: p. 14
18. Popliteal refers to the: a. calf. b. ankle. c. cheek. d. area behind the knee. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Descriptive Terms for Body Regions
REF: p. 13
19. A plane through the body that divides the body into right and left sides is called: a. sagittal. b. frontal. c. coronal. d. transverse. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Planes and Sections
REF: p. 16
20. The abdominal quadrants are located with what structure as their midpoint? a. Umbilicus b. Pubic bone c. Xiphoid process d. Iliac crest ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Abdominopelvic Quadrants
REF: p. 14
21. Humans have similar right and left sides of the body, at least superficially. This is an example
of: a. b. c. d.
anatomical position. anterior symmetry. ipsilateral position. bilateral symmetry.
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical Position
REF: p. 9
22. Two major cavities of the human body are: a. ventral/dorsal. b. inferior/superior. c. visceral/parietal. d. axial/appendicular. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Cavities 23. The dorsal cavity contains all of the following except the: a. brain. b. spinal column. c. spinal cord.
REF: p. 10
d. thyroid gland. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Cavities
REF: p. 11
24. A plane through the body that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is: a. sagittal. b. median. c. coronal. d. transverse. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Planes and Sections
REF: p. 16
25. The plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts is the _____ plane. a. sagittal b. frontal c. transverse d. superficial ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Planes and Sections
REF: p. 16
26. A somatotype characterized by having a muscular physique is called a(n): a. endomorph. b. mesomorph. c. ectomorph. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 18
TOP: Body Type and Disease
27. A somatotype characterized by a thin, fragile physique is a(n): a. ectomorph. b. mesomorph. c. endomorph. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Type and Disease
REF: p. 18
28. The abdominopelvic cavity contains all of the following except the: a. kidneys. b. gallbladder. c. right lung. d. urinary bladder. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Cavities
REF: p. 11
29. Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of life? a. Digestion b. Balance c. Conductivity d. Circulation
e. Reproduction ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Life
REF: p. 6
30. An idea that is supported by repeated experiments and observation is called a: a. fact. b. theory. c. concept. d. hypothesis. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Science and Society
REF: p. 4
31. Molecules are: a. atoms combined to form larger chemical aggregates. b. electrons orbiting nuclei. c. a complex of electrons arranged in concentric shells. d. composed of cellular organelles. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Level: Basis for Life
REF: p. 7
32. Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum are examples of: a. molecules. b. cytoplasm. c. organelles. d. plasma membranes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Organization
REF: p. 8
33. When many similar cells specialize to perform a certain function, it is referred to as a(n): a. tissue. b. organelle. c. organ system complex. d. organism. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue Level
REF: p. 8
34. Several kinds of tissues working together are termed a(n): a. plasma membrane. b. organ. c. organism. d. organ system. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ Level 35. Blood production is a function of which system? a. Reproductive b. Respiratory
REF: p. 8
c. Skeletal d. Lymphatic ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Support and Movement
REF: p. 9
36. The dorsal body cavity contains the: a. brain and spinal cord. b. heart and lungs. c. reproductive organs. d. digestive organs. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Cavities
REF: p. 11
37. The ventral body cavity contains the: a. thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. b. heart and lungs only. c. digestive and reproductive organs. d. brain and spinal cord. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Cavities
REF: p. 10
38. The axial portion of the body consists of the: a. arms, neck, and legs. b. neck, torso, and arms. c. torso, arms, legs, and head. d. head, neck, and torso. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Regions
REF: p. 12
39. The abdominopelvic cavity contains all of the following except the: a. stomach. b. pancreas. c. heart. d. reproductive organs. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Cavities
REF: p. 11
40. Visceral peritoneum would cover which of the following organs? a. Heart b. Intestines c. Lungs d. Spinal cord ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Cavities 41. A sagittal section divides the body into _____ portions. a. upper and lower
REF: p. 11
b. right and left c. front and back d. proximal and distal ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Planes and Sections
REF: p. 16
42. A frontal section divides the body into _____ portions. a. upper and lower b. right and left c. front and back d. cortex and medullary ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Planes and Sections
REF: p. 16
43. Axilla is a term referring to which body region? a. Anterior elbow b. Armpit c. Posterior knee d. Groin ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Descriptive Terms for Body Regions
REF: p. 13
44. The _____ tissue is not a major tissue of the body. a. cutaneous b. epithelial c. connective d. nervous ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue Level
REF: p. 8
45. “Apple-shaped” and “pear-shaped” usually describe subtypes of what major body type? a. Mesomorph b. Ectomorph c. Endomorph d. Polymorph ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Type and Disease
REF: p. 18
46. An organ is one organizational step higher than a(n): a. system. b. cell. c. organelle. d. tissue. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ Level
REF: p. 8
47. Which of the following does not describe anatomical position?
a. b. c. d.
Head pointing forward Body standing erect Arms extended from the shoulders, palms up All of the above describe the body in the anatomical position.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical Position
REF: p. 9
48. Someone studying gross anatomy would not study which of the following? a. The location of the heart and chambers of the heart b. Muscles of the arms and legs c. The nucleus of the cell d. All of the above would be studied. ANS: C TOP: Anatomy
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 5
49. The parietal pleura covers the: a. lungs. b. heart. c. walls of the thoracic cavity. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Cavities
REF: p. 11
50. The hollow part of an organ or body structure is called the _____ of the organ. a. cortical part b. lumen c. medullary part d. apical part ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Related to Organs
REF: p. 15
51. The narrowest part of an organ or body structure is called the _____ of the organ. a. cortical part b. lumen c. medullary part d. apical part ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Related to Organs
REF: p. 15
52. Which of the following is not a directional term of the body? a. Apical b. Proximal c. Superficial d. Deep ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Related to Organs
REF: p. 15
53. What is the anatomical direction term that means nearer the surface? a. Deep b. Distal c. Proximal d. Superficial ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 15
TOP: Directional Terms
54. An x-ray technician has been asked to make x-ray films of the liver. Which of the
abdominopelvic regions must be included? a. Right hypochondriac, epigastric, and left hypochondriac b. Right hypochondriac, right lumbar, and right iliac c. Right iliac, hypogastric, and left iliac d. Right lumbar, umbilical, and left lumbar ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 13
TOP: Abdominal Regions
55. As a nurse, you are assisting a physician with the examination of a patient. The physician asks
you to tell the patient, who is lying on the examination table, to assume the anatomical position. How would you instruct the patient to assume this position? a. Have the patient stand up and place his arms at his sides, palms facing forward, with hands and feet facing forward. b. Have the patient stand up and place his arms at his sides, palms facing posteriorly, with hands and feet facing forward. c. Have the patient stand up and place his arms behind him, palms facing to the side, with feet facing forward. d. Have the patient stand up and place his arms at his sides, palms facing down, with feet facing forward. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 9
TOP: Anatomical Position
56. During a routine physical examination, a patient with an endomorphic somatotype with a
large waistline and overall “apple shape” should be advised that such a distribution of fat may lead to what conditions? a. Heart disease, stroke, high blood pressure, and colitis b. Heart disease, stroke, high blood pressure, and diabetes c. Heart disease, stroke, low blood pressure, and colitis d. Prostate cancer, low blood pressure, and diabetes ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 18
TOP: Body Type and Disease
57. If your reference point is “farthest from the trunk of the body” versus “nearest to the trunk of
the body,” where does the knee lie in relation to the ankle? a. Distal b. Proximal c. Superficial d. Superior ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 15
58. The study of microscopic anatomy might include: a. systemic anatomy.
TOP: Directional Terms
b. cytology. c. histology. d. both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy and Physiology
REF: p. 5
59. The structure that is called the “powerhouse” of the cell is the: a. cytoplasm. b. endoplasmic reticulum. c. mitochondria. d. Golgi apparatus. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Organization
REF: p. 8
60. How many main tissue types are found in the human body? a. 4 b. 8 c. 11 d. 6 ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Organization
REF: p. 8
61. The mediastinum is located in the _____ cavity. a. dorsal b. abdominal c. ventral d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 10
TOP: Body Cavities
62. Another term for posterior is: a. ventral. b. dorsal. c. inferior. d. proximal. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Directional Terms
REF: p. 14
63. The term most nearly opposite cortical would be: a. peripheral. b. apical. c. medullary. d. basal. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Related to Organs 64. Withdrawing from a painful stimulus is an example of: a. excretion.
REF: p. 15
b. growth. c. responsiveness. d. secretion. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 6
TOP: Characteristics of Life
MATCHING
Match each organ to its corresponding system. a. Respiratory b. Digestive c. Urinary d. Reproductive e. Endocrine f. Cardiovascular g. Integumentary h. Muscular i. Skeletal j. Nervous 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Tendons Pituitary gland Skin Capillaries Ligaments Spinal cord Bronchial tree Testes and ovaries Large and small intestines Ureters
1. ANS: H DIF: TOP: Body Systems 2. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Body Systems 3. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Body Systems 4. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Body Systems 5. ANS: I DIF: TOP: Body Systems 6. ANS: J DIF: TOP: Body Systems 7. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Body Systems 8. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Body Systems 9. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Body Systems 10. ANS: C DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 9
Memorization
REF: p. 9
Memorization
REF: p. 9
Memorization
REF: p. 9
Memorization
REF: p. 9
Memorization
REF: p. 9
Memorization
REF: p. 9
Memorization
REF: p. 9
Memorization
REF: p. 9
Memorization
REF: p. 9
TOP: Body Systems
Match each term to its associated region. a. Abdominal b. Brachial c. Cervical d. Coxal e. Cutaneous f. Digital g. Femoral h. Lumbar 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
Thigh Arm Anterior torso Lower back between ribs and pelvis Fingers and toes Hip Skin Neck
11. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Body Regions 12. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Body Regions 13. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Body Regions 14. ANS: H DIF: TOP: Body Regions 15. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Body Regions 16. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Body Regions 17. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Body Regions 18. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Body Regions
Memorization
REF: p. 13
Memorization
REF: p. 13
Memorization
REF: p. 13
Memorization
REF: p. 13
Memorization
REF: p. 13
Memorization
REF: p. 13
Memorization
REF: p. 13
Memorization
REF: p. 13
Match each term to its correct corresponding statement. a. Superior b. Inferior c. Anterior d. Posterior e. Medial f. Lateral g. Proximal h. Distal i. Superficial 19. The great toe is _____ to the little toe.
20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.
The skin is _____ to the muscles beneath it. The vertebrae are located on the _____ aspect of the body. The hand is _____ to the shoulder. The abdomen is _____ to the head. The lungs are _____ to the intestines. The nose is located on the _____ surface of the head. The knee is _____ to the ankle. The ear is on the _____ aspect of the head.
19. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Directional Terms 20. ANS: I DIF: TOP: Directional Terms 21. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Directional Terms 22. ANS: H DIF: TOP: Directional Terms 23. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Directional Terms 24. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Directional Terms 25. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Directional Terms 26. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Directional Terms 27. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Directional Terms
Memorization
REF: p. 15
Memorization
REF: p. 14
Memorization
REF: p. 15
Memorization
REF: p. 14
Memorization
REF: p. 14
Memorization
REF: p. 14
Memorization
REF: p. 14
Memorization
REF: p. 15
Memorization
REF: p. 14
Match each set of functions with its corresponding system or systems. a. Reproduction and development b. Processing, regulation, and maintenance c. Outer protection d. Support and movement e. Communication, control, and integration f. Transportation and defense 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33.
Nervous system Muscular system and skeletal system Circulatory system and lymphatic system Respiratory system, digestive system, and endocrine system Reproductive system Integumentary system
28. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Body Systems 29. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Body Systems 30. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Body Systems 31. ANS: B DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 9
Memorization
REF: p. 9
Memorization
REF: p. 9
Memorization
REF: p. 9
TOP: Body Systems 32. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Systems 33. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Systems
REF: p. 9 REF: p. 9
Match each characteristic of life with the correct descriptive phrase. a. Conductivity b. Excretion c. Growth d. Circulation e. Respiration f. Responsiveness g. Digestion h. Absorption i. Secretion j. Reproduction 34. Movement of digested nutrients through the wall of the digestive tract into body fluids for 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43.
transport to the cell Permits an organism to sense, monitor, and respond to changes in the external environment Production and release of specialized substances to support diverse body functions Responsiveness and this characteristic are highly developed in nerve cells Movement of body fluids and other substances from one part of the body to another Removal of waste produced by many body functions Comes about as a result of a normal increase in size or number of cells Exchange of gases between the organism and the environment Formation of new individuals Process by which complex food substances are broken down into simple substances that can be absorbed by the cells
34. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Life 35. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Life 36. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Life 37. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Life 38. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Life 39. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Life 40. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Life 41. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Life 42. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Life 43. ANS: G DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 6 REF: p. 6 REF: p. 6 REF: p. 6 REF: p. 6 REF: p. 6 REF: p. 6 REF: p. 6 REF: p. 6 REF: p. 6
TOP: Characteristics of Life
Match each term related to an organ to its definition or explanation. a. Medullary b. Basal c. Apical d. Cortical e. Lumen 44. 45. 46. 47. 48.
Base or widest part of the organ Outer region or layer of an organ Hollow part of an organ or tube of the body Inner region of an organ Narrow part or point of an organ
44. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Related to Organs 45. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Related to Organs 46. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Related to Organs 47. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Related to Organs 48. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Related to Organs
REF: p. 15 REF: p. 15 REF: p. 15 REF: p. 15 REF: p. 15
Match each level of organization with its description. a. Chemical b. Organelle c. Cellular d. Tissue e. Organ f. System g. Organism 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55.
Highest level of organization Includes mitochondria Composed of the smallest structure that possesses the basic characteristics of living matter Level at which the tissues work together to perform a specific function Composed of macromolecules Cells working together to perform a specific function Level at which a group of organs work together to perform specific complex functions
49. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Organization 50. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Organization 51. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Organization 52. ANS: E DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 9 REF: p. 8 REF: p. 7 REF: p. 8
TOP: Levels of Organization 53. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Organization 54. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Organization 55. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Organization
REF: p. 7 REF: p. 8 REF: p. 8
OTHER 1. In simple terms, what are the characteristics of life? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 6
TOP: Characteristics of Life
2. Discuss the principle of complementarity of structure and function. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 17
TOP: Interaction of Structure and Function
3. Explain one way in which culture has affected science. Explain one way in which science has
affected culture. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 4
TOP: Science and Society
4. Describe the levels of organization from chemical to system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 8
TOP: Levels of Organization
5. Describe anatomical position. Give examples of structures that are ipsilateral and contralateral
to each other. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 9
TOP: Anatomical Position
6. List the directional terms, and use them to describe the relationship between two structures in
the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 14
TOP: Directional Terms
Chapter 02: Homeostasis Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? a. Circulatory b. Endocrine c. Lymphatic d. Reproductive ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 25
TOP: System Level
2. Homeostasis can best be described as: a. a constant state maintained by living and nonliving organisms. b. a state of relative constancy. c. adaptation to the external environment. d. changes in body temperature. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 24
TOP: Homeostasis
3. Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? a. Effector mechanism b. Transmitter c. Sensor d. Integrating center ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Components of Control Mechanisms
REF: p. 26
4. The body’s thermostat is located in the: a. heart. b. cerebellum. c. pituitary. d. hypothalamus. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Components of Control Mechanisms
REF: p. 27
5. The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. a. negative b. positive c. inhibitory d. deviating ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Positive-Feedback Control Systems 6. Negative-feedback mechanisms: a. minimize changes in blood glucose levels. b. maintain homeostasis.
REF: p. 28
c. are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher
than body temperature. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Negative-Feedback Control Systems
REF: p. 27
7. Pathogenesis can be defined as: a. a specific disease. b. a group of diseases. c. the course of disease development. d. a subgroup of viruses. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease Terminology
REF: p. 32
8. Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and
sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: a. viruses. b. bacteria. c. fungi. d. protozoa. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 32
9. The term that literally means self-immunity is: a. autoimmunity. b. homoimmunity. c. passive immunity. d. active immunity. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 33
10. Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. a. occurrence b. distribution c. transmission d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease Terminology
REF: p. 25
11. Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? a. Environment b. Stress c. Lifestyle d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 34
12. Negative-feedback control systems: a. oppose a change. b. accelerate a change. c. have no effect on the deviation from set point. d. establish a new set point. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Negative-Feedback Control Systems
REF: p. 27
13. Positive-feedback control systems: a. have no effect on the deviation from set point. b. accelerate a change. c. ignore a change. d. do not exist in human systems. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Positive-Feedback Control Systems
REF: p. 28
14. Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: a. the body trying to maintain homeostasis. b. a positive-feedback mechanism. c. a negative-feedback mechanism. d. both A and C. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 27 TOP: Homeostasis/Negative-Feedback Control Systems 15. Eponyms are scientific terms that: a. sound alike but are spelled differently. b. can have more than one meaning. c. are based on a person’s name. d. are none of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: The Language of Science and Medicine
REF: p. 32
16. Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the
cause of mad cow disease? a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Prion d. Protozoan ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic Organisms
REF: p. 32
17. Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? a. Viruses b. Tapeworms c. Bacteria d. Protozoa ANS: B
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 33
TOP: Pathogenic Organisms 18. If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop,
what effect would it have on uterine contractions? a. Oxytocin would stimulate stronger uterine contractions. b. Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions. c. There would be no changes in the strength of the uterine contractions. d. Uterine contractions would initially be weak and then gain strength after the release of the hormone. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 28 TOP: Positive-Feedback Control Systems 19. Intrinsic control: a. usually involves the endocrine or nervous system. b. operates at the cellular level. c. is sometimes called autoregulation. d. operates at the system or organism level. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Control
REF: p. 30
MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding definition or explanation a. Prion b. Tumor c. Fungi d. Gene mutation e. Bacteria f. Virus g. Protozoa 1. An intracellular parasite that consists of an RNA or DNA core surrounded by a protein coat 2. A type of protein that converts normal protein in the nervous system into abnormal proteins 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
that cause loss of function A tiny, primitive cell that lacks a nucleus and can cause infection An abnormal growth or neoplasm Altered DNA that causes abnormal proteins to be made that do not perform their intended function A one-celled organism whose DNA is organized into a nucleus that can parasitize human tissue Simple organisms that are similar to plants but lack chlorophyll, which allows plants to make their own food; because these organisms cannot make their own food, they parasitize human tissue
1. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease 2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 32 REF: p. 32
3. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease 4. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease 5. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease 6. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease 7. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 32 REF: p. 32 REF: p. 32 REF: p. 33 REF: p. 32
SHORT ANSWER 1. Diagram a homeostatic control mechanism, including the three basic components. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 26
TOP: Homeostatic Control Mechanisms
2. How does childbirth demonstrate positive feedback? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 28
TOP: Positive-Feedback Control Systems
3. Give an example of how categories of risk factors or predisposing conditions could overlap. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 32
TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease
4. Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 30
TOP: Feed-Forward in Control Systems
ESSAY 1. Give an example of a system, either living or nonliving, that is designed to maintain a
relatively constant condition by using a negative-feedback mechanism. Explain briefly how the system works to accomplish this. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 27
TOP: Basic Components of Control Mechanisms
Chapter 03: Chemical Basis of Life Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following represents a trace element in the body? a. Sulfur b. Chlorine c. Iron d. Phosphorus ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Chemistry
REF: p. 40
2. The kind of element is determined by the number of: a. protons. b. neutrons. c. mesotrons. d. electrons. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Mass Number 3. Atomic weight is determined by the number of: a. protons and electrons. b. neutrons and electrons. c. neutrons, protons, and electrons. d. protons and neutrons. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Mass Number 4. Carbon has an atomic number of 6. The number of electrons found in the first shell is: a. two. b. four. c. six. d. eight. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 42
TOP: Energy Levels
5. The atomic number of carbon is 6. How many unpaired electrons are in its outer shell? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 42
TOP: Energy Levels
6. A negatively charged subatomic particle that moves around the nucleus is a(n): a. orbital. b. proton.
c. neutron. d. electron. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Atomic Structure
REF: p. 41
7. When atoms combine, they may gain, lose, or share: a. electrons. b. protons. c. neutrons. d. nuclei. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 43
TOP: Attraction Between Atoms
8. An ionic bond is formed by: a. two or more positive ions combining. b. two or more negative ions combining. c. a positive and a negative ion attracting each other. d. sharing of a pair of electrons. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 43
TOP: Ionic Bonds
REF: p. 39
TOP: Elements and Compounds
9. An example of an element would be: a. Ne. b. CO2. c. C6H12O6. d. H2O. ANS: A
DIF: Application
10. An isotope of an element contains different numbers of ____ from other atoms of the same
element. a. electrons b. protons c. neutrons d. both protons and neutrons ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 42
TOP: Isotopes
11. Which of the following elements is least likely to combine with another element? a. Hydrogen b. Helium c. Oxygen d. Carbon ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 43 TOP: Attraction Between Atoms—Chemical Bonds 12. The hydrogen isotope tritium consists of: a. one proton. b. one proton and one neutron. c. two protons and one neutron. d. one proton and two neutrons.
ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 42
TOP: Isotopes
13. Which of the following bonds are the weakest? a. Ionic b. Hydrogen c. Electrovalent d. Covalent ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
REF: p. 44
14. The type of reaction in which substances are combined to form more complex substances is
called a(n) _____ reaction. a. reversible b. exchange c. synthesis d. decomposition ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Reactions
REF: p. 45
15. The process of the digestion of food is an example of which type of reaction? a. Synthesis b. Decomposition c. Exchange d. Reversible ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 46
TOP: Chemical Reactions
16. Substances that accept hydrogen ions are called: a. acids. b. bases. c. buffers. d. salts. ANS: B TOP: Bases
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 49
17. Acids: a. are proton donors. b. taste sour. c. release hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution. d. All of the above are true of acids. ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 48
TOP: Acids
18. A solution that contains a greater concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) than hydrogen ions
(H+) is a(n) _____ solution. a. acidic b. alkaline (basic) c. neutral d. Not enough information is given to determine the character of the solution.
ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 48
TOP: Bases
19. In the presence of a base, red litmus paper will: a. stay red. b. turn blue. c. turn green. d. turn yellow. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids and Bases
REF: p. 48
20. The most abundant and important compound(s) in the body is(are): a. air. b. water. c. proteins. d. nucleic acids. ANS: B TOP: Water
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 47
21. Approximately what percentage of body weight is water? a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 70% ANS: D TOP: Water
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 47
22. AB + CD → AD + CB is an example of a(n) _____ reaction. a. synthesis b. exchange c. decomposition d. reversible ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 46
TOP: Chemical Reactions
23. Which of the following represents properties of water? a. High specific heat b. High heat of vaporization c. Strong polarity d. All of the above ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 48
TOP: Properties of Water
24. The approximate pH of gastric fluid is: a. 10. b. 8. c. 4. d. 2. ANS: D
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 49
TOP: The pH Scale 25. Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human
body? a. Proteins b. Salts c. Lipids d. Nucleic acids ANS: B
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 47
TOP: Organic Molecules
26. All of the following substances are organic except: a. lipids. b. electrolytes. c. carbohydrates. d. proteins. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 47
TOP: Organic Molecules
27. The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: a. hydrolysis. b. oxidation. c. decomposition. d. dehydration synthesis. ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 47
TOP: Anabolism
28. The study of metabolism includes examination of: a. catabolism. b. anabolism. c. ATP requirements. d. all of the above. ANS: D TOP: Metabolism
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 46
29. An example of a catabolic process is: a. hydrolysis. b. dehydration synthesis. c. formation of a peptide bond. d. both B and C. ANS: A TOP: Metabolism
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 46
30. Which of the following is not one of the major elements present in the human body? a. Oxygen b. Zinc c. Carbon d. Potassium ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 40
TOP: Basic Chemistry
31. Which of the following is not a subatomic particle? a. Proton b. Electron c. Radon d. Neutron ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Atomic Structure
REF: p. 41
32. The total number of electrons in a neutral atom equals the number of: a. neutrons orbiting the atom. b. protons plus the number of neutrons in its nucleus. c. protons in its nucleus. d. ions in its nucleus. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Energy Levels
REF: p. 41
33. An atom can be described as chemically inert if its outermost electron shell contains _____
electrons. a. eight b. nine c. two d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: A
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 42
TOP: Energy Levels
34. Ionic bonds are chemical bonds formed by the: a. sharing of electrons between molecules. b. donation of protons from one atom to another. c. transfer of electrons from one atom to another. d. acceptance of neutrons from one atom by another. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 43
TOP: Ionic Bonds
35. Chemical bonds formed by the sharing of electrons are called: a. ionic. b. covalent. c. hydrogen. d. isotopic. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Covalent Bonds
REF: p. 43
36. The type of chemical reaction most likely to require energy is a(n) _____ reaction. a. synthesis b. decomposition c. exchange d. All of the above reactions are equally likely to require energy. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Reactions
REF: p. 45
37. The elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen make up which percentage of the
human body? a. 50% b. 69% c. 78% d. 96% ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Elements and Compounds
REF: p. 40
38. Which subatomic particles carry a charge? a. Protons and neutrons b. Neutrons and electrons c. Protons and electrons d. Neutrons only ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Atomic Structure
REF: p. 41
39. The element oxygen has an atomic number of 8, which means it contains: a. four protons and four neutrons. b. eight protons. c. eight neutrons. d. four protons and four electrons. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Mass Number 40. For sodium to transform from a neutral atom to a positive ion, it must: a. gain an electron. b. gain a proton. c. lose an electron. d. lose a proton. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 43
TOP: Ionic Bonds
REF: p. 44
TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
41. A molecule that is polar: a. can form a hydrogen bond. b. must be ionic. c. has an unequal charge. d. is both A and C. ANS: D
DIF: Application
42. The reaction between hydrogen and oxygen needed to form water is an example of a: a. hydrogen bond. b. synthesis reaction. c. decomposition reaction. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: B 43. Electrolytes are:
DIF: Application
REF: p. 45
TOP: Chemical Reactions
a. b. c. d.
organic compounds. called cations if they have a negative charge. called cations if they have a positive charge. both A and B.
ANS: C TOP: Electrolytes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 48
44. A weak acid: a. dissociates very little in solution. b. dissociates almost completely in solution. c. will cause the pH of the solution to rise above 7. d. does both B and C. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 48
TOP: Acids and Bases
45. Salts: a. can form as the result of a chemical reaction between acids and bases. b. are electrolytes. c. will form crystals if the water is removed. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 50
TOP: Salts
46. Hydrolysis _____ a water molecule. a. joins compounds by removing b. breaks down compounds by removing c. joins compounds by adding d. breaks down compounds by adding ANS: C TOP: Catabolism
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 46
47. As the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) increases, the: a. solution becomes more basic. b. solution becomes more acidic. c. pH rises. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 48
TOP: Acids and Bases
48. As the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) increases, the: a. solution becomes more basic. b. solution becomes more acidic. c. pH rises. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 48
TOP: Acids and Bases
49. A magnesium atom has an atomic number of 12, an atomic mass of 25, and a +2 charge. This
atom would contain _____ protons, _____ neutrons, and _____ electrons. a. 12; 25; 2 b. 12; 13; 14
c. 12; 13; 10 d. Not enough information is given to answer the question. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 41
TOP: Atomic Structure
50. The octet rule refers to the: a. stability of the nucleus when the protons are in a multiple of eight. b. stability of the atom when there are eight electrons in the outermost energy level. c. stable configuration of the nucleus when there are eight more neutrons than
protons. d. principle that one atom can combine with a maximum of eight other atoms. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 42
TOP: Energy Levels
51. The type of reaction most likely to release energy is a(n) _____ reaction. a. synthesis b. decomposition c. exchange d. All of the above reactions are equally likely to release energy. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 46
TOP: Chemical Reactions
52. Which of the following is not true of all isotopes of oxygen? a. They can all react with two hydrogen atoms to form water. b. They have the same number of protons. c. They have the same atomic mass. d. All of the above are true of isotopes of oxygen. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 42
TOP: Isotopes
53. Hydrogen can form only when the hydrogen atom is covalently bonded to: a. an oxygen atom. b. a nitrogen atom. c. a fluorine. d. any of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
REF: p. 44
54. A strong acid: a. holds on strongly to its hydrogen atoms, releasing very few in solution. b. would cause a drop in the pH of a solution. c. would cause a rise in the pH of a solution. d. is both A and C. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 48
55. If the pH of a person’s blood is 7.4, it would be described as: a. strongly acidic. b. neutral. c. slightly acidic. d. slightly alkaline.
TOP: Acids
ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 49
TOP: Bases
56. When sodium (Na) gives up an electron to chlorine, the result is the formation of a sodium ion
(Na+) with a positive charge. This happens because there is then one more _____ than _____. a. proton; electron b. electron; proton c. proton; neutron d. electron; neutron ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 43
TOP: Ionic Bonds
57. If an atom with a total of nine electrons were to ionically bond with an atom with a total of
three electrons, what would occur? a. The atom with nine electrons would share one of its electrons with the other atom. b. The atom with nine electrons would lose one of its electrons, and the atom with three electrons would accept it. c. The atom with nine electrons would accept one of the electrons from the atom with three electrons. d. The atom with three electrons would share one of its electrons with the other atom. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 43
TOP: Ionic Bonds
58. The carbon-containing molecules formed by living things are often called: a. buffers. b. inorganic molecules. c. organic molecules. d. salts. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 47 TOP: Organic and Inorganic Compounds 59. The term that is used to describe all of the chemical reactions that occur in body cells is: a. catabolism. b. metabolism. c. synthesis. d. anabolism. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 46
TOP: Metabolism
60. When your body is building larger and more complex chemical molecules from smaller
subunits, what is occurring? a. Anabolic reactions that expend energy b. Anabolic reactions that require energy c. Catabolic reactions that expend energy d. Catabolic reactions that require energy ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 46
TOP: Metabolism
61. Which type of radiation consists of an electron that is released by the nucleus of an atom? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta
d. Gamma ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Radioactivity
REF: p. 43
62. Which type of radiation consists of electromagnetic radiation, a form of light energy? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta d. Gamma ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Radioactivity
REF: p. 43
63. Which type of radiation consists of two protons and two neutrons? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta d. Gamma ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Radioactivity
REF: p. 43
64. A + B AB is an example of a(n) _____ reaction. a. decomposition b. reversible c. exchange d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Reactions
REF: p. 46
65. The octet rule refers to the: a. stability of the nucleus when the protons are in a multiple of eight. b. stability of the atom when there are eight electrons in the outermost energy level. c. stable configuration of the nucleus when there are eight more neutrons than
protons. d. principle that one atom can combine with a maximum of eight other atoms. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 42
TOP: Energy Levels
TRUE/FALSE 1. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom determines its atomic mass. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Atomic Number and Atomic Mass
REF: p. 41
2. The positively charged electrons are found in clouds outside the nucleus of an atom. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Atomic Structure
REF: p. 41
3. Two shared pairs of electrons represent a single covalent bond. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 44
TOP: Covalent Bonds
4. The digestion of food is an example of a decomposition reaction. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 46
TOP: Chemical Reactions
5. The number and arrangement of electrons orbiting in an atom’s outer shell determine its
chemical activity. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 42
TOP: Energy Levels
6. An atom is chemically inert if its outermost shell has two pairs of electrons. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 42
TOP: Energy Levels
7. An isotope of an element contains the same number of neutrons but different numbers of
protons. ANS: F TOP: Isotopes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 42
8. Electrovalent and ionic bonds are the same. ANS: T TOP: Ionic Bonds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 43
9. Radiation results from the breaking apart of the nucleus of an atom. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Radioactivity
REF: p. 43
10. Radioactivity can cause an atom of one element to change to that of another element. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Radioactivity
REF: p. 43
11. Gamma radiation has less mass than alpha or beta radiation. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 43
TOP: Radioactivity
12. A substance that resists changes in pH when acids or bases are added is called a buffer. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 50
TOP: Buffers
13. The chemical reaction of an acid with a base will produce a salt and water. ANS: T
DIF: Application
14. Water acts as a very effective solvent.
REF: p. 50
TOP: Salts
ANS: T TOP: Water
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 47
15. Electrolytes include acids, bases, and salts. ANS: T TOP: Electrolytes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 48
16. By definition, inorganic compounds do not contain carbon. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organic and Inorganic Compounds
REF: p. 47
17. Electrolytes are characterized by having either a positive or a negative charge. ANS: T TOP: Electrolytes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 48
18. Acids are electrolytes that produce OH+ ions. ANS: F TOP: Acids
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 48
19. pH is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The pH Scale
REF: p. 49
20. Metabolism includes the processes of both anabolism and catabolism. ANS: T TOP: Metabolism
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 46
21. ATP is broken down in an anabolic reaction. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 47
TOP: Catabolism
22. Catabolism and anabolism are major types of metabolic activity. ANS: T TOP: Metabolism
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 46
23. Sodium chloride is an example of an ionic bond. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 43
TOP: Ionic Bonds
24. The digestion of food is an example of a synthesis reaction. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 46
TOP: Chemical Reactions
25. The pH scale indicates the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a solution.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids and Bases
REF: p. 49
26. Litmus paper will turn red in the presence of a base. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids and Bases
REF: p. 48
27. The atomic mass of an atom is equal to the number of protons plus the number of neutrons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Atomic Number and Atomic Mass
REF: p. 41
28. The mass of a proton is almost exactly equal to the mass of an electron. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Atomic Number and Atomic Mass
REF: p. 41
29. Hydrogen will react with other atoms to get eight electrons in its outer energy level. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 42
TOP: Energy Levels
30. A double covalent bond involves the sharing of two electrons. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 44
TOP: Covalent Bonds
31. Synthesis reactions release energy for use by the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Reactions
REF: p. 45
32. Electrolytes dissociate to form ions. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 48
TOP: Electrolytes
33. As the hydrogen ion concentration increases, the pH value increases. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 49
TOP: Acids and Bases
34. Chemistry can be defined as the science that deals with the structure, arrangement, and
composition of substances and the reactions they undergo. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 39
35. The nucleus of the atom will always have a positive charge. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 41
TOP: Atomic Structure
36. If an atom has an atomic number of 12 and an atomic mass of 25, it must have 13 neutrons. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 41
TOP: Atomic Number and Atomic Mass 37. Consider an atom that has an atomic mass of 18. For it to be electrically neutral, it must have
18 electrons. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Structure, Atomic Number, and Atomic Mass 38. Atoms become positively charged by gaining protons. ANS: F TOP: Ionic Bonds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 43
39. Inorganic compounds do not play an important role in living systems. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 47 TOP: Organic and Inorganic Compounds 40. Acids release protons in solution. ANS: T TOP: Acids
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 48
41. The “aliveness” of a living organism depends on the mixture of elements of which it is made. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Elements and Compounds
REF: p. 40
42. Four elements are considered to be the major elements in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Elements and Compounds
REF: p. 40
43. Dalton named the atom after the Greek word for invisible. ANS: F TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 40
44. A neutral atom that has 22 protons must have 22 electrons. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 41
TOP: Atoms
45. A neutral atom that has 22 protons must have 22 neutrons. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 41
TOP: Atoms
46. A neutral atom that has 22 protons could have 25 neutrons. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 41
TOP: Atoms
47. Oxygen has eight electrons, but only six of them are in its outermost energy level.
ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 42
TOP: Energy Levels
48. Hydrogen bonds between atoms do not form molecules or compounds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Attraction Between Molecules
REF: p. 44
49. According to the general formula, in synthesis reactions, the number of reactants is usually
greater than the number of products. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 45
TOP: Chemical Reactions
50. According to the general formula, in decomposition reactions, the number of reactants is
usually greater than the number of products. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 46
TOP: Chemical Reactions
51. According to the general formula, in exchange reactions, the number of reactants and the
number of products are usually equal. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 46
TOP: Chemical Reactions
52. A solution with a pH of 6 has 100 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 4. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 49
TOP: The pH Scale
53. A solution with a pH of 3 has 100 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 5. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 49
TOP: The pH Scale
54. Because oxygen has eight electrons, it has achieved its octet and will not react with other
elements. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 42
TOP: Energy Levels
55. Trace elements in the body make up about 1% of the body weight. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Elements and Compounds
REF: p. 40
56. The atomic number of an atom determines its identity. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Mass Number 57. An ionic bond forms crystals whereas a covalent bond forms molecules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Ionic Bonds and Covalent Bonds
REF: p. 43
58. Electrons surround the nucleus of an atom in areas of probability rather than in defined orbits.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Energy Levels
REF: p. 41
59. The idea that electrons are found in areas of probability distribution around the nucleus was
first proposed by Niels Bohr. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Energy Levels
REF: p. 41
60. The term atomic weight refers to the average mass number for a particular element based on
the typical proportions of different isotopes found in nature. ANS: T TOP: Isotopes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 42
61. A molecule can be an element or a compound. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 43 TOP: Attraction Between Atoms—Chemical Bonds 62. There cannot be an electrically neutral ion. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 43
TOP: Ionic Bonds
63. Ions gain or lose electrons to try to attain four pairs of electrons in their outermost energy
level. ANS: T TOP: Ionic Bonds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 43
64. Hydrogen bonds form as a result of the attraction between polar molecules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Hydrogen Bonds
REF: p. 44
65. In a formula for a chemical reaction, the substances on the right of the arrow are referred to as
products. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Reactions
REF: p. 45
66. A type of chemical reaction called hydrolysis is an example of an anabolic reaction. ANS: F TOP: Catabolism
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 46
67. During catabolic reactions, some of the energy is released as heat to help keep the body warm. ANS: T TOP: Catabolism
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 47
68. A type of chemical reaction called dehydration synthesis is an example of an anabolic
reaction. ANS: T TOP: Anabolism
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 47
69. A few inorganic compounds contain both C-C bonds but no inorganic compound has a C-H
bond. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organic and Inorganic Compounds
REF: p. 47
70. Fifty percent or more of a normal adult’s body weight is water. ANS: T TOP: Water
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 47
71. One of the functions of water in the body is that of helping to maintain a constant body
temperature. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Properties of Water
REF: p. 47
72. One function of carbon dioxide is to help maintain proper pH balance in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide
REF: p. 48
73. A substance that releases an OH– ion in solution is called a base. ANS: T TOP: Bases
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 48
74. A solution containing the same number of H+ ions and OH– ions would have a pH of zero. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 49
MATCHING
Match each term to its corresponding descriptive phrase. a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Isotopes e. Ionic bonds f. Covalent bonds g. Octet rule h. Atomic number i. Atomic mass j. Hydrogen bonds
TOP: The pH Scale
Number of protons an atom has Subatomic particle with no charge Bond formed between atoms when they share electrons Subatomic particle with a positive charge Atoms with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons Value determined by adding the number of protons and neutrons in an atom Bond that requires a polar molecule Subatomic particle that has a negative charge and is found in a “cloud” surrounding the nucleus of the atom 9. Bond that is formed by the transfer of an electron from one atom to another 10. Indicates an atom will react until it has eight electrons in its outermost energy level 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
1. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Atomic Number and Mass Number 2. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Atomic Structure 3. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Covalent Bonds 4. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Atomic Structure 5. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Isotopes 6. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Atomic Number and Mass Number 7. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Hydrogen Bonds 8. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Atomic Structure 9. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Ionic Bonds 10. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Energy Levels
REF: p. 41 REF: p. 41 REF: p. 43 REF: p. 41 REF: p. 42 REF: p. 41 REF: p. 44 REF: p. 41 REF: p. 43 REF: p. 41
OTHER 1. Describe the Bohr model of the atom. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 41
TOP: Energy Levels
2. Name and briefly describe the types of chemical bonds discussed in this chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 44 TOP: Covalent Bonds, Ionic or Electrovalent Bonds, and Hydrogen Bonds
3. Explain the types of chemical reactions discussed in this chapter, and give the formula for
each. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 46
TOP: Chemical Reactions
4. Name and describe the types of radiation discussed in the chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 43
TOP: Radiation
5. Explain why the properties of water are important in the functioning of the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 47
TOP: Properties of Water
6. Explain the role of buffers in maintaining the proper environment in which the body can
function. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 50
TOP: Buffers
7. Explain what is meant by anabolism and catabolism, and name a process that is an example of
each. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 46
TOP: Metabolism
8. Releases a hydrogen ion into a solution, which lowers the pH
a. Acid b. Base ANS:
A DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 48
9. Releases a hydroxide ion into solution, which raises the pH
a. Acid b. Base ANS:
TOP: Acids and Bases
B DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 48
TOP: Acids and Bases
REF: p. 48
TOP: Acids and Bases
REF: p. 48
TOP: Acids and Bases
10. Turns red litmus paper blue
a. Acid b. Base ANS:
B DIF: Memorization 11. Turns blue litmus paper red
a. Acid b. Base ANS:
A DIF: Memorization
12. Gastric fluid, approximately a 1.5 on the pH scale
a. Acid b. Base ANS:
A DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 49
TOP: Acids and Bases
13. Household ammonia, an 11 on the pH scale
a. Acid b. Base ANS:
B DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 49
TOP: Acids and Bases
REF: p. 48
TOP: Acids and Bases
14. Tastes sour
a. Acid b. Base ANS:
A DIF: Memorization 15. Tastes bitter
a. Acid
b. Base ANS:
B DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 48
TOP: Acids and Bases
Chapter 04: Biomolecules Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human
body? a. Proteins b. Salts c. Lipids d. Nucleic acids ANS: B
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 56
TOP: Organic Molecules
2. The amino group in an amino acid is: a. NH3+. b. COO–. c. symbolized by the letter R. d. SO2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Amino Acids
REF: p. 63
3. Peptide bonds join together molecules of: a. glycerol. b. glucose. c. amino acids. d. water. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 63
TOP: Amino Acids
REF: p. 60
TOP: Lipids and Carbohydrates
4. Which lipid is part of vitamin D? a. Glycerol b. Steroids c. Prostaglandins d. Fatty acids ANS: B
DIF: Application
5. The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is: a. carbon. b. hydrogen. c. oxygen. d. nitrogen. ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 61
TOP: Carbohydrates and Proteins
6. The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: a. hydrolysis. b. oxidation. c. decomposition.
d. dehydration synthesis. ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 64
TOP: Anabolism
7. Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included
in the diet, are called: a. enzymes. b. essential amino acids. c. structural proteins. d. peptide bonds. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 63
TOP: Amino Acids
8. The basic building blocks of fats are: a. monosaccharides. b. disaccharides. c. amino acids. d. fatty acids and glycerol. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Triglycerides or Fats
REF: p. 58
9. A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: a. triglyceride. b. phospholipid. c. steroid. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 58
TOP: Phospholipids and Steroids
10. DNA: a. is a single strand of nucleotides. b. contains the sugar ribose. c. is a double-helix strand of nucleotides. d. transports amino acids during protein synthesis. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 67 TOP: Nucleic Acids and Related Molecules 11. The study of metabolism includes examination of: a. catabolism. b. anabolism. c. ATP requirements. d. all of the above. ANS: D TOP: Metabolism
DIF: Memorization
12. An example of a catabolic process is: a. hydrolysis. b. dehydration synthesis. c. formation of a peptide bond. d. both B and C.
REF: p. 68
ANS: A TOP: Metabolism
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 68
13. The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic
changes in blood vessels is: a. HDL. b. LDL. c. VHDL. d. none of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Lipoproteins
REF: p. 61
14. The types of lipids found in sex hormones are: a. triglycerides. b. phosphoglycerides. c. steroids. d. prostaglandins. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 60
TOP: Steroids
15. Which of the following is not one of the three major ingredients of a DNA molecule? a. Sugar b. Nitrogenous bases c. Phosphate d. Lipid ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleic Acids and Related Molecules
REF: p. 67
16. Proteins are composed of ____ commonly occurring amino acids. a. 10 b. 18 c. 21 d. 22 ANS: C TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 63
17. Amino acids frequently become joined by: a. peptide bonds. b. catabolic reactions. c. atrophic reactions. d. all of the above. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 63
TOP: Amino Acids
18. Unsaturated fats: a. contain all the hydrogen atoms they can hold. b. contain only single bonds between carbon atoms. c. are usually solids at room temperature. d. will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms.
ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 59
TOP: Triglycerides or Fats
19. Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? a. Triglyceride b. Prostaglandin c. Steroid d. Phospholipid ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 60
20. A magnesium atom has an atomic number of 12, an atomic mass of 25, and a +2 charge. This
atom would contain _____ protons, _____ neutrons, and _____ electrons. a. 12; 25; 2 b. 12; 13; 14 c. 12; 13; 10 d. Not enough information is given to answer the question. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 61
TOP: Atomic Structure
21. The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Protein Structure
REF: p. 64
22. Which of the following is not true of RNA? a. It contains ribose sugar. b. It contains adenine. c. It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides. d. All of the above are true of RNA. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA and RNA
REF: p. 67
23. Which of the following is not a major function of protein? a. Provides structure for the body b. Acts as a catalyst for chemical reactions in the form of enzymes c. Provides energy for the body d. All of the above are functions of protein. ANS: C TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 66
24. Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Protein Structure
REF: p. 64
25. Which level of protein structure is one that contains several polypeptide chains? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Protein Structure
REF: p. 65
26. Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? a. They both contain glycerol. b. They both contain fatty acids. c. They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end. d. All of the above are true of both triglycerides and phospholipids. ANS: C DIF: Application TOP: Triglycerides and Phospholipids
REF: p. 59
27. Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? a. Both are found in the cell membrane. b. Both have a ring structure in their molecule. c. Both have a saturated fat in their structure. d. None of the above are shared characteristics. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 60
TOP: Steroids and Prostaglandins
28. Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? a. FAD b. Creatine phosphate c. NAD d. ATP ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleotides and Related Molecules
REF: p. 69
29. If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be: a. CTAGGCTG. b. GATCCGAC. c. CUAGGCUG. d. GAUCCGAC. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 67
TOP: DNA and RNA
30. The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of
_____, with _____ being the dominant component. a. a lipid and a protein; the lipid b. carbohydrate and protein; carbohydrate c. a lipid and a protein; the protein d. carbohydrate and protein; protein
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Combined Forms
REF: p. 69
31. Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? a. They include substances commonly called sugars. b. They are the body’s primary source of energy. c. They are a part of both DNA and RNA. d. All of the above are true of carbohydrates. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 56
32. When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? a. Sucrose b. Maltose c. Lactose d. Fructose ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 56
TRUE/FALSE 1. Proteins are the most abundant of the carbon-containing compounds in the body. ANS: T TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 61
2. Glycogen and starch are both examples of polysaccharides. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Disaccharides and Polysaccharides
REF: p. 58
3. There are a total of 21 essential amino acids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Amino Acids
REF: p. 63
4. Steroids are often called tissue hormones. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 60
TOP: Steroids
5. DNA molecules are the largest molecules in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleic Acids
REF: p. 67
6. Adenine and thymine are referred to as purine bases, which are important constituents of a
DNA molecule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleic Acids
REF: p. 67
7. The ability of proteins to perform their function depends on their shape. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 65
TOP: Levels of Protein Structure
8. Enzymes are proteins that function by the lock-and-key theory. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 64
TOP: Levels of Protein Structure
9. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is also called the “bad” cholesterol. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 61
TOP: Blood Lipoproteins
10. The nonessential amino acids cannot be produced from the other amino acids or from simple
organic molecules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Amino Acids
REF: p. 63
11. Sugars and starches are both considered to be carbohydrates. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 56
12. Glucose is a hexose, and ribose is a pentose. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 56
13. Nonessential amino acids are rarely used in the making of proteins in the human body. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 63
TOP: Amino Acids
14. Fats, steroids, and prostaglandins are all considered lipids. ANS: T TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 58
15. Fats are composed of three fatty acids joined to a molecule of glycerol. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Triglycerides or Fats
REF: p. 58
16. Saturated fats are more likely than unsaturated fats to be liquid at room temperature. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Triglycerides or Fats
REF: p. 58
17. Phospholipids have a fat-soluble end and a water-soluble end. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Phospholipids
REF: p. 59
18. Prostaglandins are associated with the prostate gland and therefore are not found in women. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 61
TOP: Prostaglandins
19. A denatured protein has lost its functional shape. ANS: T TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 65
20. RNA never exists in a double-stranded form. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA and RNA
REF: p. 67
21. Glycoproteins contain both a fat molecule and a protein molecule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Combined Forms
REF: p. 69
22. A sucrose molecule is formed by the synthesis reaction between glucose and fructose. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 58 TOP: Disaccharides and Polysaccharides 23. The quaternary structure of a protein contains more than one polypeptide chain. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 65
TOP: Levels of Protein Structure
24. Both phospholipids and steroids are found in cell membranes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Phospholipids and Steroids
REF: p. 60
25. Steroids are the only lipids that contain a ring structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 60
26. Nucleotides are used to make only RNA or DNA molecules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleotides and Related Molecules
REF: p. 68
27. Each helical chain in a DNA molecule has a nitrogen base backbone toward the outside, and
phosphate-sugars compose the inner, interlocking base pairs of the interior. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 67 TOP: Nucleic Acids and Related Molecules 28. When ATP is in short supply, muscles can use creatine phosphate for extra energy.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleotides and Related Molecules
REF: p. 69
29. Both triglycerides and prostaglandins can contain unsaturated fat. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Triglycerides and Prostaglandins
REF: p. 60
30. The three most common disaccharides—sucrose, lactose, and maltose—each contain at least
one molecule of glucose. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Disaccharides and Polysaccharides
REF: p. 57
31. A saturated fat is saturated with hydrogen atoms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Fatty Acids
REF: p. 58
32. A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Triglycerides
REF: p. 59
33. The body uses the steroid cholesterol to make hormones. ANS: T TOP: Steroids
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 60
34. Proteins can be divided into functional proteins and structural proteins. ANS: T TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 61
35. Amino acids get their name because they have an amino group (NH3+) and an acid group
(COO–).
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Amino Acids
REF: p. 63
36. When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H+ ion is released. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Amino Acids
REF: p. 63
37. The joining of amino acids in a peptide bond is an example of the process of hydrolysis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Amino Acids
REF: p. 64
38. Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct
functional shape.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of Protein Structure
REF: p. 65
39. RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA and RNA
REF: p. 67
40. The function of transfer RNA is to select and adhere to a specific amino acid and place it in
the correct sequence in the primary protein strand. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA and RNA
REF: p. 68
41. If one side of a DNA molecule is CCTAGGC, the opposite side of the molecule would be
CCTAGGC. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA and RNA
REF: p. 67
MATCHING
Match each term to its corresponding descriptive phrase. a. RNA b. DNA c. Carbohydrate d. Fat e. Steroid f. Protein g. Prostaglandins h. ATP 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Substance composed of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acid molecules Starch or sugar Lipid found in sex hormone that is made up of four rings Types of lipids that are called tissue hormones Molecule that is the body’s usual source of direct energy Nucleic acid that contains thymine and deoxyribose sugar Substance that is made up of a long chain of amino acids Nucleic acid that contains ribose sugar and uracil
1. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Triglycerides or Fats 2. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrates 3. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Steroids 4. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 58 REF: p. 56 REF: p. 60 REF: p. 60
5. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolism 6. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleic Acids and Related Molecules 7. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Proteins 8. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleic Acids and Related Molecules
REF: p. 69 REF: p. 67 REF: p. 61 REF: p. 67
SHORT ANSWER 1. List the types of lipids, and give a function for each type. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 58
TOP: Lipids
2. Explain the different functions performed by RNA in the cell. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 67
TOP: DNA and RNA
3. Name and describe the structural levels of protein. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 64
TOP: Levels of Protein Structure
4. Compare and contrast the structures of DNA and RNA. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 67
TOP: DNA and RNA
ESSAY 1. If one side of a DNA molecule is A-T-C-G-G-T-C-A-G, what would the bases be on the other
side of the molecule? On what do you base your answer? ANS:
T-A-G-C-C-A-G-T-C DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 67
TOP: Nucleic Acids
2. Enzymes that are exposed to high heat or low pH solutions lose their ability to function. What
causes this to happen? Be specific.
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 65
TOP: Proteins
Chapter 05: Cell Structure Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The fundamental unit of life is the: a. atom. b. cell. c. gene. d. DNA molecule. ANS: B TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 75
2. Which of the following recognize and destroy nonself cells? a. Gland cells b. Immune cells c. Nerve cells d. Red blood cells ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Examples of Cell Types
REF: p. 76
3. Main cell structures include all of the following except: a. organelles. b. plasma membrane. c. interstitial fluid. d. cytoplasm. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Structure
REF: p. 78
4. Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane? a. Self-identification b. Receptor site for messages c. Selective barrier d. Control center of the cell ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Some Major Cell Structures and Their Functions
REF: p. 78
5. The structure in cells that is associated with the enzymatic breakdown (digestion) of foreign
material is the: a. lysosome. b. Golgi apparatus. c. ribosome. d. centriole. ANS: A TOP: Lysosomes
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 78,85
6. The major function of ribosomes is to synthesize: a. proteins. b. carbohydrates. c. fats. d. cholesterol. ANS: A TOP: Ribosomes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 83
7. Which are the organelles that allow for the recycling of amino acids in the cell? a. Peroxisomes b. Mitochondria c. Ribosomes d. Lysosomes ANS: D TOP: Lysosomes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 85
8. Which organelle processes and packages material to be secreted? a. Nucleolus b. Ribosome c. Mitochondrion d. Golgi apparatus ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Golgi Apparatus
REF: pp. 78,83
9. Projections from the cell that move materials and mucus are called: a. cilia. b. flagella. c. microvilli. d. microtubules. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Extensions
REF: p. 91
10. Granules or threads within the nucleus are called: a. microfilaments. b. chromatin. c. nucleotides. d. microtubules. ANS: B TOP: Nucleus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 87
11. Skin cells (epithelial) are held tightly together by: a. gap junctions. b. desmosomes. c. tight junctions. d. adhesions. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Connections
REF: p. 92
12. The inner membrane of what double-membrane structure is contorted into folds called cristae? a. Golgi apparatus b. Mitochondrion c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Ribosome ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondria
REF: p. 86
13. The cell extension that assists epithelial cells in absorption is called: a. cilia. b. flagella. c. microvilli. d. desmosomes. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 90
TOP: Cell Extensions
14. A specialized cell structure that propels the sperm is the: a. flagellum. b. cilium. c. microvillus. d. microtubule. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Extensions
REF: p. 91
15. DNA is a major constituent of which cell organelle? a. Lysosome b. Ribosome c. Chromosome d. Nucleus ANS: D TOP: Nucleus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 87
16. An area of cytoplasm that coordinates the building and breaking of microtubules is called: a. cytoplasm A. b. mitochondria. c. centrosome. d. ribosomes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Centrosomes
REF: p. 88
17. The structure that separates the contents of a cell from the surrounding tissue is known as: a. Golgi apparatus. b. plasma membrane. c. cytoplasm. d. centrosome. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Membrane
REF: pp. 77, 78
18. Which organelles consist of vesicles that have pinched off from the Golgi apparatus? a. Mitochondria b. Cilia c. Peroxisomes d. Lysosomes ANS: D TOP: Lysosomes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 85
19. Tiny indentations of the plasma membrane that resemble caves are called: a. mitochondria. b. caveolae. c. cisternae. d. vesicles. ANS: B TOP: Caveolae
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 80
20. The ____ is often called the microtubule organizing center. a. centrosome b. cytoskeleton c. centriole d. ribosome ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Centrosomes
REF: p. 88
21. Each of the following is an example of the plasma membrane function except: a. boundary. b. self-identification. c. receptor sites. d. production of proteins. ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 78
TOP: Cell Membrane
22. Which of the following is a functional characteristic of ribosomes? a. Manufacture of mRNA b. Protein synthesis c. DNA replication d. Housing of DNA ANS: B TOP: Ribosomes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 83
23. ATP production occurs within which organelle? a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Golgi apparatus c. Flagellum d. Mitochondrion ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 86
TOP: Mitochondria
24. Which organelle consists of separate tiny sacs called cisternae? a. Golgi apparatus b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Rough endoplasmic reticulum d. Mitochondria ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 90
TOP: Golgi Apparatus
25. In nondividing cells, DNA appears as threads that are referred to as: a. chromatin. b. chromosomes. c. histones. d. none of the above. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 87
TOP: Nucleus
26. The nucleolus is composed chiefly of: a. mRNA. b. rRNA. c. tRNA. d. DNA. ANS: B TOP: Nucleus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 87
27. The largest human cell, measuring about 150 m, is a: a. white blood cell. b. female sex cell or ovum. c. liver cell. d. male sex cell or sperm. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functional Anatomy of Cells
REF: p. 76
28. In the cell membrane, the hydrophilic part of the phospholipid molecule: a. faces the exterior of the cell. b. faces the interior of the cell. c. is in the center of the phospholipid bilayer. d. both A and B. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 80
TOP: Cell Membrane
29. In the cell membrane, the hydrophobic part of the phospholipid molecule: a. faces the exterior of the cell. b. faces the interior of the cell. c. is in the center of the phospholipid bilayer. d. both A and B. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 80
TOP: Cell Membrane
30. The presence of which substance in the cell membrane keeps it from breaking too easily? a. Cholesterol b. Protein
c. Phospholipids d. Glycoproteins ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Membrane
REF: p. 80
31. The identification function of the cell membrane is carried out by the: a. cholesterol molecules. b. phospholipid molecules. c. glycoprotein molecules. d. channel proteins. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Membrane
REF: p. 81
32. Which of the following is not a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? a. Provides a site for ribosome attachment b. Supplies membrane for use throughout the cell c. Makes steroid hormones d. Makes glycoproteins ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 82-83
TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum
33. Which of the following is not true about ribosomes? a. Contain protein b. Composed of a large unit and a small unit c. Surrounded by a membrane structure d. Contain RNA ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 83
TOP: Ribosomes
34. The membranous structure containing substances that protect the cell from harm are: a. ribosomes. b. lysosomes. c. peroxisomes. d. both B and C. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 85
TOP: Lysosomes and Peroxisomes
35. Which of the following statements does not describe the nucleolus? a. It is found in the nucleus. b. It has a membrane similar to the nucleus. c. It is made of nucleic acids. d. All of the above are true about the nucleolus. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 87-88
36. A list of the cell fibers from largest to smallest would read: a. microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments. b. microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments. c. microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules. d. microfilaments, microtubules, intermediate filaments.
TOP: Nucleus
ANS: C TOP: Cell Fibers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 88
37. The cell extension that contains microfilaments is called: a. microvilli. b. flagella. c. cilia. d. All cell extensions contain microfilaments. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Extensions
REF: p. 91
38. Which of the following organelles is considered a membranous organelle? a. Lysosome b. Ribosome c. Nucleolus d. Both A and B ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Some Major Cell Structures and Their Functions
REF: p. 85
39. Which of the following organelles is considered a nonmembranous organelle? a. Golgi apparatus b. Ribosome c. Mitochondria d. Both A and B ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Some Major Cell Structures and Their Functions
REF: p. 82
40. The barrier function of the plasma membrane is accomplished by the: a. receptor proteins. b. glycoproteins. c. rafts in the cell membrane. d. phospholipid bilayer. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 78, 80
TOP: Cell Membrane
41. Which structures in the cell membrane are a stiff grouping of membrane molecules that are
rich in cholesterol? a. Glycoproteins b. Rafts c. Phospholipids d. Receptor proteins ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Membrane Structure
REF: p. 80
42. Which of the following is not true of the rough endoplasmic reticulum? a. It makes lipids and carbohydrates. b. It is made of broad, flattened sacs. c. It has many ribosomes attached to it. d. All of the above are true of rough endoplasmic reticulum.
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum
REF: pp. 82-83
43. The enzyme catalase is an important chemical in the functioning of the: a. mitochondria. b. proteasomes. c. peroxisomes. d. lysosomes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Peroxisomes
REF: pp. 85-86
44. Which of the following structures contains DNA? a. Nucleus b. Mitochondria c. Ribosome d. Both A and B ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 86, 87
TOP: Mitochondria and Nucleus
45. Damage to the centrosome and centrioles in a cell would have the greatest impact on which
cell function? a. Energy production b. Protein synthesis c. Cell division d. Synthesis of lipids and carbohydrates ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 88-89
TOP: Centrosomes
46. Which cell extension lacks a central pair of microtubules, is not found in blood cells, and
functions in the kidney to monitor urine flow? a. Microvilli b. Primary cilium c. Cilia d. Flagella ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Extensions
REF: p. 91
47. Which of the following is not a function of the integral membrane proteins? a. Acting as receptors b. Signal transduction c. Identification of “self” d. All of the above are functions of the integral membrane proteins. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Membrane
REF: p. 81
48. Which of the following does not describe a structure or function of the proteasome? a. Digests proteins down to individual amino acids so they can be recycled by the cell b. Looks like a hollow cylindrical drum made of protein subunits c. Requires the small protein called ubiquitin to pull proteins in
d. All of the above are structures or functions of proteasomes. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Proteasomes
REF: p. 85
49. Which cell fiber is called the engine of the cell? a. Centrosome b. Microfilament c. Microtubule d. Intermediate filament ANS: B TOP: Cell Fibers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 88
50. Which fiber is the smallest of the cell fibers? a. Centrosome b. Microfilament c. Microtubule d. Intermediate filament ANS: B TOP: Cell Fibers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 88
51. Which cell fiber is made of twisted strands of protein? a. Centrosomes b. Microfilament c. Microtubule d. Intermediate filament ANS: D TOP: Cell Fibers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 88
52. Which type of cell connection joins heart muscle cells? a. Tight junction b. Desmosome c. Macrofilament d. Gap junction ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Connections
REF: p. 92
53. Which type of cell connection acts like a “spot weld” to hold cells together? a. Tight junction b. Desmosome c. Macrofilament d. Gap junction ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Connections
REF: p. 92
TRUE/FALSE 1. The longest extension of a nerve cell can be almost a foot long.
ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 76
TOP: Functional Anatomy of Cells
2. An important function of the cell membrane is the maintenance of cell integrity. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 81
TOP: Cell Membrane
3. Peroxisomes contain enzymes that detoxify harmful substances. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Peroxisomes
REF: pp. 85-86
4. The outer portion of the cell membrane is hydrophobic, or water loving. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Membrane
REF: p. 80
5. Ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum are responsible for making proteins to be
exported out of the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum
REF: p. 82
6. The functions of the nucleus are regulated by RNA. ANS: F TOP: Nucleus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 87
7. The major direct cell connections are tight junctions, gap junctions, and desmosomes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Connections
REF: p. 92
8. Tight junctions do not allow molecules to spread through the cracks between cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Connections
REF: p. 92
9. Gap junctions are found in the small intestine. They allow molecules to flow between cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Connections
REF: p. 92
10. The number of mitochondria in a cell is basically related to its degree of cell activity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondria
REF: p. 86
11. The cell’s internal supporting framework is called the cytoskeleton. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cytoskeleton
REF: p. 88
12. The size of a cell’s nucleolus is indirectly related to the amount of protein the cell produces. ANS: T TOP: Nucleus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 88
13. Heart muscle cells are joined by gap junctions to facilitate the movement of electrical
impulses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Connections
REF: p. 92
14. Cell connections called desmosomes are like Velcro holding cells together. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Connections
REF: p. 92
15. Cilia are longer and more numerous than flagella. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Extensions
REF: pp. 78, 91
16. The nucleolus is made up of tightly coiled DNA. ANS: F TOP: Nucleus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 87
17. The thinnest cell fibers are tiny, hollow tubes called microtubules. ANS: F TOP: Cell Fibers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 88
18. The plasma membrane can be described as a double layer of phospholipid molecules. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 80
TOP: Cell Membrane
19. Generally, the more active a cell is, the fewer mitochondria it will contain. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 86
TOP: Mitochondria
20. Cell fibers that are composed of twisted protein strands are microtubules. ANS: F TOP: Cell Fibers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 88
21. The “typical” cell described in this chapter is very similar to most of the cells in the human
body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Typical Cell 22. The watery fluid in the cell is called cytosol.
REF: p. 77
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Structure
REF: pp. 77-78
23. Water-soluble substances easily pass through the cell membrane. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Membrane
REF: p. 80
24. Glycoproteins on the cell membrane identify the cell as “self.” ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 81
TOP: Cell Membrane
25. Rough endoplasmic reticulum looks rough because there are mitochondria attached to it. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum
REF: p. 83
26. Proteins in the cell membrane can control the movement of material through the cell
membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Membrane
REF: p. 79
27. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the organelle that supplies membrane material for use
throughout the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum
REF: pp. 82-83
28. Ribosomes are only found attached to endoplasmic reticulum. ANS: F TOP: Ribosomes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 83
29. The main function of the ribosome is to provide energy to the cell. ANS: F TOP: Ribosomes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 83
30. The Golgi apparatus helps to prepare material for export from the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Golgi Apparatus
REF: pp. 83, 85
31. The protein-processing units of the Golgi apparatus are called cisterna. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Golgi Apparatus
REF: p. 83
32. Lysosomes can be called the “garbage disposals” of the cell. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 85
TOP: Lysosomes 33. The catalase in the peroxisomes reacts to detoxify carbon dioxide. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Peroxisomes
REF: pp. 85-86
34. The inner folds of the mitochondria are called cisterna. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondria
REF: p. 86
35. It is likely that a muscle cell would have more mitochondria than a fat cell. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 86
TOP: Mitochondria
36. One of the main functions of the mitochondria is to supply the cell with ATP. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondria
REF: p. 86
37. The name nucleus comes from the Greek word for color. ANS: F TOP: Nucleus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 87
38. Chromosomes and chromatin are both forms of DNA. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 86
TOP: Nucleus
39. Microtubules are sometimes called the engines of the cell. ANS: T TOP: Cell Fibers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 88
40. The body of a female does not produce cells with flagella. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 91
TOP: Cell Extensions
41. Schleiden and Schwann were the first scientists to see cells. ANS: F TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 75
42. The largest human cell is the female ovum or egg cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functional Anatomy of Cells
REF: p. 76
43. Another term for cytosol is intracellular fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Structure
REF: p. 78
44. The fluid mosaic model describes the chromatin material found in the nucleus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Membrane
REF: pp. 79-80
45. One function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is to help maintain a low Ca++
concentration in the cell’s interior. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum
REF: p. 83
46. A major part of ribosomes is deoxyribonucleic acid. ANS: F TOP: Ribosomes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 83
47. The proteasomes contain enzymes that assist in protein synthesis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Proteasomes
REF: p. 85
48. Proteasomes only destroy abnormal or misfolded proteins in the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Proteasomes
REF: p. 85
49. Small proteins called ubiquitins assist the proteasomes in accomplishing their function. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Proteasomes
REF: p. 85
50. An organelle called a vault, composed of RNA and protein, functions to shuttle molecules to
and from the nucleus. ANS: T TOP: Vaults
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 87
51. An angstrom is larger than a nanometer. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Units of Size
REF: p. 76
52. Two types of lipids, phospholipids and cholesterol, are important molecules in the cell
membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Membrane
REF: p. 80
53. Rafts are stiff groupings of membrane molecules that are rich in cholesterol. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 80
TOP: Membrane Structure 54. Hormones attach to special cholesterol molecules in the cell membrane. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Membrane Function
REF: pp. 80, 81
55. Three ribosomal subunits must come together to form a functioning ribosome. ANS: F TOP: Ribosomes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 83
56. Many ribosomes can work on the same mRNA strand at the same time; when this occurs, the
structure is called a polyribosome. ANS: T TOP: Ribosomes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 83
57. A complete ribosome only exists when it is making a protein. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 83
TOP: Ribosomes
58. In order for the Golgi apparatus to function correctly, both the ribosomes and the rough
endoplasmic reticulum must be functioning also. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 93
TOP: Golgi Apparatus
59. Muscular dystrophy is a disease condition that can be linked to the malfunctioning of
proteasomes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Proteasomes
REF: p. 93
60. The nucleus is the only structure in the cell that contains DNA. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondria
REF: pp. 78, 86
61. Another name for the centrosome is the microtubule organizing center. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Centrosomes
REF: p. 88
62. The centriole is a single cylindrical structure at the boundary of the centrosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Centrosomes
REF: p. 88
63. Small protein structures called molecular motors pull loads from one part of the cell to
another along the cytoskeleton. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 89-90
TOP: Molecular Motors 64. All of the cell extensions—microvilli, cilia, and flagella—have basically the same structure.
They only differ in number per cell and length. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Extensions
REF: pp. 90-91
65. Primary cilia are unable to move because they lack the central pair of microtubules and motor
molecules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Extensions
REF: p. 91
66. Cytoplasm is another term for cytosol. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Structure
REF: p. 78
67. One important function of integral membrane proteins is signal transduction or carrying
messages across the cell membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Membrane Function
REF: p. 81
68. Integral membrane proteins play an important role in pinching off the cell membrane so two
new cells can form during cell division. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Membrane Function
REF: p. 80
69. Organelles can be divided into two groups, hydrophobic (water fearing) and hydrophilic
(water loving). ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cytoplasm and Organelles
REF: p. 80
70. The only structural difference between the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is
that the rough ER has ribosomes attached. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum
REF: p. 82
71. The ribosome is an example of a membranous organelle. ANS: F TOP: Ribosomes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 83
72. When vesicles from the Golgi apparatus reach the cell membrane, the contents are secreted to
outside the cell. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 83
TOP: Golgi Apparatus 73. The usual destination for vesicles released by the Golgi apparatus is the nucleus of the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Golgi Apparatus
REF: p. 85
74. Lysosomes are vesicles that have been pinched off from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. ANS: F TOP: Lysosomes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 85
75. Nuclear pore complexes regulate what can enter and leave the nucleus. ANS: T TOP: Nucleus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 87
76. Centrioles are made up of cylinders of nine bundles of microtubules with two tubules in each
bundle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Centrosomes
REF: pp. 88-89
77. Centrosomes play an important role in cell division. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Centrosomes
REF: p. 88
78. Primary cilia can act as sensory organelles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Extensions
REF: p. 91
79. One function of the microvilli is to increase the surface area of a membrane to provide for
more efficient absorption. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Extensions
REF: p. 90
MATCHING
Match each cell structure with its corresponding description or function. a. Plasma membrane b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi apparatus d. Nucleolus e. Nucleus f. Ribosome g. Lysosome h. Mitochondria i. Peroxisomes
j. Rough endoplasmic reticulum k. Proteasomes
Tubular network in the cell with no ribosomes that synthesize lipids and carbohydrates Outer boundary of the cell made up of phospholipids and proteins Functions in processing and packaging of protein molecules to be exported from the cell Protein factory made up of two subunits Structure in the cell nucleus that makes ribosomes Major source of ATP synthesis; the “powerhouse” of the cell Vesicles or sacs in the cell that can destroy large molecules or even the cell itself Vesicles that contain catalase that are important in metabolic reactions involving hydrogen peroxide 9. Structures that destroy improperly folded protein molecules that could possibly harm the cell 10. One of the largest structures in the cell; contains DNA 11. Broad, flattened sacs that extend from the nucleus and have ribosomes attached to them 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
1. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum 2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Membrane 3. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Golgi Apparatus 4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Ribosomes 5. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleus 6. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondria 7. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Lysosomes 8. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Peroxisomes 9. ANS: K DIF: Memorization TOP: Proteasomes 10. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleus 11. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum
Match each term to the phrase that describes it best. a. Microtubules b. Intermediate filaments c. Microfilaments d. Centrosomes e. Cilia f. Flagella g. Microvilli h. Desmosomes i. Tight junctions j. Gap junctions
REF: p. 82 REF: p. 79 REF: p. 83 REF: p. 83 REF: pp. 86-87 REF: p. 86 REF: p. 85 REF: pp. 85-86 REF: p. 85 REF: p. 87 REF: p. 82
k. Primary cilium l. Centrioles 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.
Cell fiber that can be found in muscle cells Cell extension that is found on the sperm cell Cell connections that are like small “spot welds” Cell extension that increases surface area for more efficient absorption Largest of the cell fibers; act like “engines” for the cell Microtubule organizing centers that also play a role in cell division Cell connections that form tunnels between cells and are found in heart muscles Cell fibers that are slightly thicker than microfilaments Cell extensions that are shorter than flagella and are found lining the respiratory tract Cell connection that forms a “collar” around groups of cells Tiny cylinders that can be found near the boundaries of the centrosomes Cell extensions that lack the center pair of microtubules and can function as sensory organelles; not found in blood cells, but most other cells have them
12. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Cell Fibers 13. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Cell Extensions 14. ANS: H DIF: TOP: Cell Connections 15. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Cell Extensions 16. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Cell Fibers 17. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Centrosomes 18. ANS: J DIF: TOP: Cell Connections 19. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Cell Fibers 20. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Cell Extensions 21. ANS: I DIF: TOP: Cell Connections 22. ANS: L DIF: TOP: Centrosomes 23. ANS: K DIF: TOP: Cell Extensions
Memorization
REF: p. 88
Memorization
REF: p. 90
Memorization
REF: p. 92
Memorization
REF: p. 90
Memorization
REF: p. 88
Memorization
REF: p. 88
Memorization
REF: p. 92
Memorization
REF: p. 88
Memorization
REF: p. 90
Memorization
REF: p. 92
Memorization
REF: p. 88
Memorization
REF: p. 90
OTHER 1. Describe the structure of the cell membrane, and explain what is meant by the fluid mosaic
model. ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Application
REF: p. 79
TOP: Cell Membrane
2. Explain the functions of the cell membrane. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 79
TOP: Cell Membrane
3. Explain what structure on the cell membrane makes it difficult to transplant an organ from one
person into another. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 79
TOP: Cell Membrane
4. Name and give the functions of the membranous organelles of the cell. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 76
TOP: Cell Structure
5. Name and give the functions of the nonmembranous organelles of the cell. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 76
TOP: Cell Structure
6. Name and explain the function of each of the three types of cell fibers in the cell. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 88
TOP: Cell Fibers
7. What is the function of the centrosome, and by what other name is it known? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 88
TOP: Centrosomes
8. What are molecular motors, and what is their function in the cell? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 89
TOP: Molecular Motors
9. Explain the structure and function of the microvilli. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 90
TOP: Cell Extensions
10. Explain the structure and function of cilia and flagella. What is the only type of human cell
that has a flagellum? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 90
TOP: Cell Extensions
11. Explain the structure and function of the primary cilium in the cell. Which cell type does not
have a primary cilium? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 90
TOP: Cell Extensions
12. Describe the structure and function of the nucleus. Include the structure and function of the
nucleolus. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 86
TOP: Nucleus
13. Name and describe the three types of cell connections. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 92
TOP: Cell Connections
ESSAY 1. Joanne, a 75-year-old patient, has an active peptic ulcer. Describe the cellular organelles
involved in synthesizing digestive enzymes for the stomach. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 82
TOP: Cytoplasm and Organelles
2. Rebecca received second-degree sunburn and was very uncomfortable for several days. Her
skin began to heal, and some of the epithelial tissue began to peel off in layers. Explain the cell connections that allow the skin cells to hold onto each other in a sheet.
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 92
TOP: Cell Connections
3. Explain the process by which a protein is processed in preparation for being released by the
cell, starting at the ribosome and ending at the cell membrane. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 83
TOP: Golgi Apparatus
Chapter 06: Cell Function Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: a. pinocytosis. b. osmosis. c. facilitated diffusion. d. dialysis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Facilitated Diffusion
REF: p. 103
2. Diffusion requires: a. a semipermeable membrane. b. a concentration gradient. c. ions. d. none of the above. ANS: B TOP: Diffusion
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 103
3. All of the following are examples of passive transport except: a. filtration. b. osmosis. c. endocytosis. d. dialysis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Passive Transport Processes
REF: p. 103
4. A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be: a. isotonic. b. hypotonic. c. hypertonic. d. hydrostatic. ANS: C TOP: Osmosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 102
5. Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through: a. facilitated diffusion. b. filtration. c. osmosis. d. active transport. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 105
6. Which of the following is not true of diffusion? a. Uses cellular energy
TOP: Active Transport Processes
b. Can occur in living and nonliving cells c. May occur both into and out of the cell d. Energy source is cellular ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 99
TOP: Diffusion
7. A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases
the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: a. endocytosis. b. the sodium and potassium pump. c. channel-mediated transport. d. carrier-mediated transport. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 103
TOP: Facilitated Diffusion
8. The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a
hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: a. dialysis. b. osmosis. c. diffusion. d. filtration. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 104
TOP: Filtration
9. Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump? a. It uses cellular energy. b. Sodium moves into the cell and potassium moves out of the cell. c. A carrier system is used. d. It can move substances against their concentration gradient. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Active Transport Processes
REF: p. 104
10. Which is true about the sodium and potassium pump? a. Two sodium ions are taken into the cell. b. Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell. c. Three potassium ions are taken into the cell. d. Two potassium ions are taken out of the cell. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Active Transport Processes
REF: p. 106
11. Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows
both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: a. no movement of water or glucose. b. movement of glucose but not water. c. movement of water but not glucose. d. an even exchange of material across the membrane. ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
12. Phagocytosis is an example of: a. exocytosis.
REF: pp. 99-100
TOP: Diffusion
b. endocytosis. c. passive transport. d. facilitated diffusion. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 106, 108
TOP: Transport by Vesicles
13. Water will move through the cell membrane by: a. dialysis. b. diffusion. c. facilitated diffusion. d. osmosis. ANS: B
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 101
TOP: Diffusion
14. NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? a. Both into and out of the cell b. Into the cell c. Out of the cell d. Neither into nor out of the cell ANS: A
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 103
TOP: Diffusion
15. The small water channels in the cell membrane are called: a. phospholipid molecules. b. transport pumps. c. aquaporins. d. transport vesicles. ANS: C TOP: Osmosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 103
16. If a cell were placed in a hypotonic solution: a. there would be a net gain of water into the cell. b. there would be a net loss of water out of the cell. c. no water would move into or out of the cell. d. water would move into and out of the cell in equal amounts. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 103
TOP: Osmosis
17. If a cell were placed in a hypertonic solution: a. there would be a net gain of water into the cell. b. there would be a net loss of water out of the cell. c. no water would move into or out of the cell. d. water would move into and out of the cell in equal amounts. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 103
TOP: Osmosis
18. Potential osmotic pressure can be measured by determining the: a. concentration on either side of a membrane. b. strength of the concentration gradient. c. permeability of the membrane. d. There is no direct means of measurement.
ANS: D TOP: Osmosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 102
19. Which of the following is not a passive transport process? a. Dialysis b. Osmosis c. Filtration d. Phagocytosis ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 99, 100
TOP: Passive Transport Processes
20. Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane in the presence of at least one
impermeable solute is referred to as: a. diffusion. b. osmosis. c. phagocytosis. d. pinocytosis. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 101
TOP: Osmosis
21. The engulfing of microbes by white blood cells is an example of: a. pinocytosis. b. exocytosis. c. phagocytosis. d. “cell drinking.” ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport by Vesicles
REF: p. 106
22. A hypertonic solution contains _____ concentration of solute _____ the cell. a. a greater; than b. the same; as c. a lesser; than d. None of the above is correct. ANS: A TOP: Osmosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 102-103
23. The force of a fluid pushing against a surface could be described as _____ pressure. a. facilitated. b. hydrostatic. c. hypostatic. d. diffused. ANS: B TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 104
24. If a 20% glucose solution were separated from a 10% glucose solution by a permeable
membrane: a. glucose would move from the 20% solution to the 10% solution. b. water would move from the 10% solution to the 20% solution. c. water would move from the 20% solution to the 10% solution.
d. both A and B would occur. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 99
TOP: Diffusion
25. The proteins in the cell membrane that can open and close are called: a. enzymes. b. gated channel proteins. c. glycoproteins. d. both A and B. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Channel-Mediated Passive Transport
REF: p. 103
26. Hydrostatic pressure in the blood is: a. generated by the contraction of the heart. b. generated by gravity. c. important to the functioning of the kidney. d. all of the above. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 104
TOP: Filtration
27. Gated channels in the cell membrane can be “opened” by: a. electrical changes or voltage. b. chemicals. c. light. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 103 TOP: Channel-Mediated Passive Transport 28. After phagocytosis occurs, enzymes from which organelle can digest what is in the vesicle? a. Lysosome b. Golgi apparatus c. Mitochondria d. Cytoskeleton ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport by Vesicles
REF: p. 106
29. The location at which the enzyme molecule binds to the substance it acts on is called the: a. substrate. b. coenzyme. c. active site. d. cofactor. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Enzymes
REF: p. 109
30. Which of the following is not true of glycolysis? a. It occurs in the cytoplasm. b. It does not require oxygen. c. The energy is transferred to NADH. d. It is able to get almost all of the energy out of a glucose molecule.
ANS: D TOP: Glycolysis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 112
31. In aerobic respiration, the function of oxygen is to combine with: a. pyruvic acid in glycolysis. b. NADH in the citric acid cycle. c. electrons and hydrogen at the end of the electron transport system. d. lactic acid in glycolysis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Electron Transport System
REF: p. 112
32. Which of the following is not true of enzymes? a. They increase the activation of a reaction. b. They are unchanged by the chemical reaction. c. They frequently require a cofactor or coenzyme to function. d. All of the above are true of enzymes. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Enzymes
REF: p. 109
33. A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing the enzyme’s shape is
called a(n): a. cofactor. b. coenzyme. c. allosteric effector. d. proenzyme. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: General Functions of Enzymes
REF: pp. 110-111
34. Which of the following is not true of the citric acid cycle? a. Occurs in the mitochondria b. Directly releases 36 ATPs of energy c. Has acetyl CoA as a starting product d. All of the above are true of the citric acid cycle. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 113
TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
35. Digestive enzymes belong to which group? a. Hydrases b. Phosphorylating enzymes c. Hydrolases d. Isomerases ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 36. Which enzymes rearrange atoms within a molecule? a. Hydrases b. Phosphorylating enzymes c. Oxidation-reduction enzymes
REF: p. 109
d. Isomerases ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes
REF: p. 110
37. Which factor can have an effect on the functioning of an enzyme? a. Temperature b. pH c. An increase in the amount of end product produced by a reaction d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: General Functions of Enzymes
REF: p. 111
38. Which of the following is not true of the exocytosis? a. The vesicles containing the protein were formed by the rough endoplasmic
reticulum. b. The vesicles are pulled to the cell membrane by the cytoskeleton. c. The vesicles add to the structure of the cell membrane. d. All of the above are true of exocytosis. ANS: A TOP: Exocytosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 108
39. Which of the following is true of catabolic pathways? a. They turn larger molecules into smaller ones. b. They turn smaller molecules into larger ones. c. They require energy from the cell. d. Both B and C are true. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Metabolism
REF: p. 109
40. Which of the following is true of anabolic pathways? a. They turn larger molecules into smaller ones. b. They turn smaller molecules into larger ones. c. They require energy from the cell. d. Both B and C are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Metabolism
REF: p. 109
TRUE/FALSE 1. Dialysis is a form of filtration that results in a separation of small and large solute particles. ANS: T TOP: Dialysis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 101
2. For osmosis to occur, a selectively permeable membrane must be present. ANS: T TOP: Osmosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 101
3. The physical movement of water and solutes through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure
gradient exists is called filtration. ANS: T TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 104
4. Active transport processes that use protein carrier molecules, or pumps, do not use cellular
energy but rely instead on concentration gradients. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Active Transport Processes
REF: p. 106
5. Most enzymes cannot catalyze a reaction in both directions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: General Functions of Enzymes
REF: p. 111
6. Glycolysis does not require oxygen and is therefore termed anaerobic. ANS: T TOP: Glycolysis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 112
7. The citric acid cycle and electron transport system are located in the Golgi apparatus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
REF: p. 113
8. Protein synthesis is an anabolic pathway for cells. ANS: T TOP: Anabolism
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 109
9. A semipermeable membrane is needed for diffusion to occur. ANS: F TOP: Diffusion
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 99
10. A 10% solution of NaCl has a higher concentration of water than a 10% solution of glucose. ANS: F TOP: Diffusion
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 99
11. A solution may be defined as various solutes dissolved in a solvent. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 101
TOP: Dialysis
12. Red blood cells placed in a hypertonic solution may be destroyed because the blood cells will
lyse. ANS: F TOP: Osmosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 103
13. A hypertonic solution has a higher amount of osmotic potential than any other type of
solution. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 102
TOP: Osmosis
14. For osmosis to occur there must be at least one impermeable solute present. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 102
TOP: Osmosis
15. One of the advantages of active transport is that it can move materials up, or against, its
concentration gradient. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 104
TOP: Active Transport Processes
16. The active transport process involving pumps requires both a carrier system and cellular
energy. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 105
TOP: Active Transport Processes
17. Endocytosis and pinocytosis are both active transport processes, because they require a carrier
system such as a pump. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 106
TOP: Transport by Vesicles
18. The process of pinocytosis may be viewed as the cell drinking. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 106
TOP: Transport by Vesicles
19. Facilitated diffusion is a metabolically inexpensive process. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 103
TOP: Facilitated Diffusion
20. The sodium-potassium pump is an example of a passive transport process. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Active Transport Processes
REF: p. 106
21. Cellular secretion can be achieved by endocytosis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport by Vesicles
REF: p. 108
22. Diffusion is a form of filtration that results in the separation of small and large solute
particles. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 101
TOP: Dialysis
23. The three processes that comprise cellular respiration are glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and
the proton transport system. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 112
TOP: Overview of Cellular Respiration 24. The “lock-and-key model” is used to describe how mRNA and tRNA base pairs align. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Chemical Structure of Enzymes
REF: p. 109
25. Protein anabolism is a rarely used cellular activity. ANS: F TOP: Anabolism
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 109
26. Diffusion is a characteristic of living things and will not occur in a nonliving system. ANS: F TOP: Osmosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 99
27. Because of the phospholipid cell membrane, water cannot diffuse into or out of the cell. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 100
TOP: Diffusion
28. The measurement of potential osmotic pressure is easier to determine than actual osmotic
pressure. ANS: F TOP: Osmosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 102
29. The size of the molecule is an important factor in both dialysis and filtration. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 104
TOP: Filtration
30. Facilitated diffusion and simple diffusion move substances in opposite directions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Facilitated Diffusion
REF: p. 103
31. Endocytosis can occur when molecules bind to membrane receptor proteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport by Vesicles
REF: p. 106
32. A side effect of exocytosis is the addition of new membrane material to the cell membrane. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 108
TOP: Transport by Vesicles
33. An inorganic substance, such as an ion, is called a coenzyme when it is part of an enzyme. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Structure of Enzymes
REF: p. 109
34. For an enzyme to function, the coenzyme must fit into the enzyme’s active site like a key fits
into a lock.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Structure of Enzymes
REF: p. 109
35. The hydrolyzing enzyme sucrase joins two sucrose molecules together. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes
REF: pp. 109-110
36. Lactic acid is the result of glycolysis and is the substance that enters the citric acid cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycolysis, Citric Acid Cycle
REF: p. 112
37. Most of the chemical energy released by the citric acid cycle is in the form of ATP. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
REF: p. 113
38. The electron transport system makes ATP by the movement of electrons through the inner
mitochondrial membrane. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 113-114
TOP: Electron Transport System
39. Both the citric acid cycle and the electron transport system occur in the mitochondria. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle, Electron Transport System
REF: pp. 113, 114
40. Anaerobic respiration is about 17 times more efficient in producing ATP than is aerobic
respiration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Electron Transport System
REF: pp. 113-114
41. One explanation of the action associated with isotonic solutions is that they all have the same
potential osmotic pressure. ANS: T TOP: Osmosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 102
42. Gated membrane channels can be opened and closed only by chemical stimuli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Channel-Mediated Passive Transport
REF: p. 103
43. Special membrane channels called aquaporins assist the diffusion of water across the cell
membrane. ANS: T TOP: Osmosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 102
44. An enzyme is a catalyst. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Enzymes
REF: p. 109
45. The “lock-and-key” model of enzyme function explains how the protein and substrate join. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Structure of Enzymes
REF: p. 109
46. All enzyme names end with the suffix “-ase.” ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes
REF: p. 109
47. Allosteric effectors activate or inactivate enzymes by changing the shape of the enzyme’s
active site. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: General Functions of Enzymes
REF: p. 111
48. Coenzymes join enzymes to form proenzymes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: General Functions of Enzymes
REF: p. 111
49. Proenzymes are unable to act as a catalyst in any type of chemical reaction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: General Functions of Enzymes
REF: p. 111
50. One possible end product of glycolysis is lactic acid. ANS: T TOP: Glycolysis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 112
51. Phagocytosis and exocytosis are opposite processes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport by Vesicles
REF: pp. 106, 108
52. An enzyme eliminates the activation energy needed for a reaction to occur. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Role of Enzymes
REF: p. 109
53. Digestive enzymes belong to a group of enzymes called hydrases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes
REF: p. 109
54. Both temperature and pH change can affect the allosteric site of an enzyme.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: General Functions of Enzymes
REF: p. 111
55. Oxygen is used in the citric acid cycle in cell respiration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Electron Transport System
REF: p. 113
56. Glycolysis produces very little ATP but produces several molecules of NADH and FADH2. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
REF: p. 113
57. The energy storage molecules NADH and FADH2 have their energy converted to ATP in the
electron transport system. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 113-114
TOP: Electron Transport System
58. Because a living cell membrane can limit the diffusion of some substances by opening and
closing channels, the membrane can be called selectively permeable. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Channel-Mediated Passive Transport
REF: p. 103
59. When molecules pass directly through the cell membrane, the process is called filtration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Simple Diffusion
REF: p. 104
60. If a blood cell was placed in a solution and the cell began to swell and take in water, the
solution would be called hypotonic to the cell. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 103
TOP: Osmosis
61. The sodium-potassium pump in the cell membrane moves potassium into the cell and sodium
out of the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport by Pumps
REF: p. 106
62. To maintain homeostasis, the sodium-potassium pump moves equal amounts of sodium and
potassium into and out of the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport by Pumps
REF: p. 106
63. Phagocytosis can be translated to “cell eating.” ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport by Vesicles
REF: p. 106
64. The vesicles used in exocytosis have broken off from the mitochondria and are pulled to the
cell membrane by the cytoskeleton. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport by Vesicles
REF: p. 108
65. Activation energy is the amount of energy gained by the cell as a result of a catabolic
pathway. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Role of Enzymes
REF: p. 109
66. The enzyme that catalyzes the formation of sucrose is probably specific to that reaction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: General Functions of Enzymes
REF: p. 109
67. The process of end-product inhibition in a metabolic pathway is an example of a
positive-feedback loop. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: General Functions of Enzymes
REF: p. 111
68. The process of glycolysis produces two molecules of pyruvic acid for every one molecule of
glucose. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 112
TOP: Glycolysis
69. The process of glycolysis does not occur in a specific organelle. ANS: T TOP: Glycolysis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 112
70. The most important end product in cellular respiration is oxygen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Electron Transport System
REF: p. 114
MATCHING
Match the name of each enzyme with its function or description. a. Hydrases b. Hydrolases c. Phosphorylating enzymes d. Mutases or isomerases e. Carboxylases or decarboxylases f. Oxidases and hydrogenases 1. Add or remove phosphate groups 2. Add water to a molecule without splitting it 3. Digestive enzymes
4. Involved in oxidation-reduction reactions 5. Add or remove carbon dioxide 6. Rearrange atoms within a molecule 1. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 5. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 6. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes
REF: p. 110 REF: p. 110 REF: p. 110 REF: p. 109 REF: p. 110 REF: p. 110
Match each term with its description. a. Cytosol b. Citric acid cycle c. Pyruvic acid d. Acetyl coenzyme A e. NAD f. Mitochondria g. Lactic acid h. Electron transport system i. Anaerobic j. Glycolysis 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
First step in cellular respiration Part of the cell in which glycolysis takes place Part of the cell in which citric acid cycles take place Converted from pyruvic acid if no oxygen is present Last step in cellular respiration Process also called the Krebs cycle Carries the end product of glycolysis to the citric acid cycle Describes a process that can take place without oxygen Compound that carries high energy electrons to the electron transport system End product of glycolysis
7. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Cellular Respiration 8. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycolysis 9. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 10. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycolysis 11. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Cellular Respiration
REF: p. 112 REF: p. 112 REF: p. 113 REF: p. 112 REF: p. 113
12. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 13. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 14. ANS: I DIF: TOP: Glycolysis 15. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 16. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Glycolysis
Memorization
REF: p. 113
Memorization
REF: p. 113
Memorization
REF: p. 112
Memorization
REF: p. 113
Memorization
REF: p. 112
OTHER 1. Compare and contrast the processes of diffusion and osmosis. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 99
TOP: Passive Transport Processes
2. Name the three types of vesicle-mediated transport and explain how they are different. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 106
TOP: Transport by Vesicles
3. Describe a hypertonic solution and a hypotonic solution. Explain what would happen to a cell
if it were put into each of these solutions. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 99
TOP: Osmosis
4. Briefly explain the process of glycolysis. What energy molecules are produced, and how
many of each are produced? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 112
TOP: Glycolysis
5. Briefly explain the citric acid cycle. Name the energy molecules produced, and explain how
many of each are produced. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 113
TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
6. Explain why the electron transport system is necessary to get all of the usable energy out of
the processes of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 113
TOP: Electron Transport System
7. Explain the classification system and naming system for enzymes. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 109 TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 8. Explain how the allosteric site on an enzyme allows the enzyme to function. Explain the types
of allosteric effectors. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 109
TOP: General Functions of Enzymes
ESSAY 1. A nurse was instructed to dissolve a pill in a small amount of liquid medication. As she
dropped the capsule into the liquid, she was interrupted by a telephone call. On her return to the medication cart, she found the medication had completely dissolved and apparently scattered evenly throughout the liquid. This phenomenon did not surprise her, because she was aware from her knowledge of cell transport that _____ had created this distribution. Explain this phenomenon. ANS:
Diffusion (Explanations will vary.) DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 99
TOP: Diffusion
2. Anne ran in the Boston marathon. During the race, she lost a large amount of hypotonic sweat.
Would you expect her cells to shrink, swell, or remain the same? Explain your answer. ANS:
Shrink (Explanations will vary.) DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 99
TOP: Osmosis
Chapter 07: Cell Growth and Development Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of
the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? a. TAGC b. CGAT c. GCTA d. ATCG ANS: A DIF: Application TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 121
2. Which of the following is not true of RNA? a. It is a single strand. b. It contains uracil rather than thymine. c. The obligatory base pairs are adenine and uracil, and guanine and cytosine. d. It contains deoxyribose sugar. ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 122, 123
TOP: Transcription
3. The correct order of the phases of mitosis is: a. anaphase, telophase, metaphase, prophase. b. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase. c. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase. d. anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase. ANS: B
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 129
TOP: Mitosis
4. When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is
characteristic of which phase of mitosis? a. Prophase b. Anaphase c. Metaphase d. Telophase ANS: C TOP: Mitosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 130
5. During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell? a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 129-130
6. Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to:
TOP: Mitosis
a. b. c. d.
atrophy. hypertrophy. undergo hyperplasia. undergo anaplasia.
ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 132 TOP: Changes in Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Survival 7. A DNA molecule is characterized by all of the following except: a. double helix shape. b. obligatory base pairing. c. ribose sugar. d. phosphate groups. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 121
8. All of the following occur as a result of meiosis except: a. chromosome number remains at 46. b. primitive sex cells become mature gametes. c. the cells become haploid. d. meiosis occurs in two steps. ANS: A TOP: Meiosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 131
9. A sequence of three bases forms a(n): a. codon. b. anticodon. c. amino acid. d. polypeptide bond. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: pp. 121-122
10. Transcription can be best described as the: a. degradation of tRNA. b. reading of mRNA codons by tRNA. c. replication of DNA. d. synthesis of mRNA. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 122
TOP: Transcription
11. Which of the following statements is true? a. Amino acid chains form DNA. b. The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in
the cytoplasm. c. Uracil is present in DNA in place of thymine. d. None of the above is true. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: pp. 122, 123
12. An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: a. chromosome. b. chromatid. c. genome. d. cytokinesis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA Replication
REF: p. 126
13. Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: a. haploid. b. diploid. c. myoid. d. dioid. ANS: A TOP: Meiosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 131
14. Which of the following terms is synonymous with tumor? a. Anaplasia b. Hyperplasia c. Neoplasm d. Benign ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 132 TOP: Changes in Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Survival 15. If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following
would be true about the nucleic acid? a. It contains deoxyribose sugar. b. It could be found only in the nucleus. c. It contains ribose sugar. d. Both A and B are true. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 122
TOP: Transcription
16. The G1 and G2 phases of cell growth are separated by: a. anaphase. b. the S phase. c. telophase. d. both A and C. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA Replication
REF: p. 127
17. DNA replication occurs during: a. prophase. b. telophase. c. metaphase. d. none of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA Replication
REF: p. 128
18. If a species of animal had 16 pairs of chromosomes in its normal body cells, its gametes
would contain _____ chromosomes. a. 16 b. 8 c. 32 d. None of the above is correct. ANS: B TOP: Meiosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 131
19. In protein synthesis, some segments of the RNA transcript represent noncoding parts of the
DNA. These are called: a. exons. b. codons. c. introns. d. spliceosomes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Editing the Transcript
REF: p. 123
20. The membranous organelle in the cytoplasm that is able to replicate itself is the: a. Golgi apparatus. b. mitochondrion. c. lysosome. d. ribosome. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Cytoplasm
REF: p. 127
21. Which of the following is not a phase of mitosis? a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Interphase ANS: D TOP: Mitosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 129
22. The end product of the process of transcription is a(n): a. mRNA molecule. b. tRNA molecule. c. protein. d. new DNA molecule. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 122
23. The end product of the process of translation is a(n): a. mRNA molecule. b. tRNA molecule. c. protein. d. new DNA molecule.
TOP: Transcription
ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 123
TOP: Translation
24. If the original DNA code was ACG, the mRNA that would be formed would be: a. UCG. b. AGC. c. UGC. d. Not enough information is given to answer the question. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 123
TOP: Translation
25. If the original DNA code was ACG, the tRNA that would transfer the correct amino acid
would have which sequence of nucleotides? a. UCG b. ACG c. UGC d. Not enough information is given to answer the question. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 123
TOP: Translation
26. Interphase does not include which of the following? a. M phase b. G1 phase c. G2 phase d. S phase ANS: A TOP: Mitosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 127
27. In the DNA molecule, obligatory base pairing always pairs: a. A-G. b. C-T. c. A-T. d. both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 128
28. In humans, one gene consists of about how many nucleotide pairs? a. 10,000 b. 1000 c. 100 d. 50 ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 131
29. Which is capable of properly refolding an improperly refolded protein molecule? a. Proteasome b. Proteome c. Chaperone d. Polyribosome ANS: C
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 126
TOP: Translation 30. Which is capable of destroying improperly folded proteins that could possibly harm the cell? a. Proteasome b. Proteome c. Chaperone d. Polyribosome ANS: A TOP: Translation
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 126
31. Which is the complete set of proteins that can be produced by the cell? a. Proteasome b. Proteome c. Chaperone d. Polyribosome ANS: B TOP: Translation
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 126
32. The structure that holds two newly replicated DNA strands together is the: a. centromere. b. telomere. c. spindle. d. chromatid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA Replication
REF: p. 128
TRUE/FALSE 1. The terms cytokinesis and mitosis mean the same thing. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Reproduction
REF: p. 129
2. A nucleotide of a DNA molecule consists of a ribose sugar, phosphoric acid, and a
nitrogenous base. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 128
3. The action of a gene is determined by the arrangement of the obligatory base pairs in the
nucleotides composing a DNA molecule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 128
4. A major function of DNA is to instruct the ribosome, through tRNA, concerning which
protein is to be synthesized. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 123
TOP: Translation 5. Protein synthesis begins with translation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transcription
REF: p. 122
6. The enzyme DNA polymerase coordinates the mechanism of obligatory base pairing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA Replication
REF: p. 128
7. In normal mitosis, the two daughter cells are identical genetically to the parent cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell Reproduction
REF: p. 129
8. Anaplasia is a state in which cells fail to differentiate into specialized cell types. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Survival
REF: p. 132
9. Genes determine polypeptide structure, which determines the structure of enzymes and
structural proteins, which determine the cell’s functions and structure. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 121
10. Chromosomes align across the equator of the spindle fibers during anaphase of mitosis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Major Events in Mitosis
REF: p. 129
11. One significant similarity between RNA and DNA is that they both are shaped as a
polypeptide chain. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 122
12. Gamete is the result of a somatic cell undergoing mitosis. ANS: F TOP: Meiosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 131
13. Normal meiosis results in daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell. ANS: F TOP: Meiosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 131
14. It is during meiosis phase I that the number of chromosomes is halved. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 131
TOP: Meiosis
15. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of DNA replication. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 133
16. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in cell size, whereas hyperplasia refers to an increase in cell
number. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Survival
REF: p. 132
17. In transcription, the DNA of the cell is edited and the introns are removed. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Editing the Transcript
REF: p. 123
18. The anticodon on a tRNA molecule has exactly the same nucleotide sequence as the DNA
code that formed that part of the mRNA molecule. ANS: F TOP: Translation
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 123-124
19. The anticodon on the tRNA molecule has exactly the same nucleotide sequence as the DNA
code that formed that part of the mRNA molecule except that uracil would replace thymine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transcription, Translation
REF: pp. 122, 123
20. The mitochondria are unique organelles because they are able to replicate themselves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Cytoplasm
REF: p. 127
21. The number of cyclin-dependent kinase enzymes varies greatly during the life of a cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulating the Cell Life Cycle
REF: p. 131
22. Introns carry the code for the making of a protein. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Editing the Transcript
REF: p. 123
23. A type of ribonucleic acid that can stimulate translation is called RNAi. ANS: F TOP: Translation
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 123-124
24. DNA synthesis occurs during prophase in mitosis. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 128
TOP: DNA Replication 25. The term neoplasm is another word for tumor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Survival
REF: p. 132
26. Atrophy and hypertrophy occur most often in fat cells as the body stores or uses fat. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Survival
REF: p. 132
27. Protein synthesis is the central building process for cell growth and maintenance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Synthesis
REF: p. 121
28. The “rungs” of the DNA ladder are made up of either deoxyribose sugar or phosphoric acid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 121
29. What differentiates one DNA nucleotide from another is whether it has a ribose or a
deoxyribose sugar. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 121
30. The distance between the two uprights in the DNA ladder is always equal to the total distance
of one purine and one pyrimidine nitrogen base. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 121
31. A DNA codon consists of three nucleotides. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 122
32. A human gene is a segment of the DNA molecule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 122
33. A human gene is made up of about 250 DNA nucleotides. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
REF: p. 122
34. Examples of noncoding RNA are messenger RNA and ribosomal RNA. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 122
TOP: Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) 35. Uracil must by a pyrimidine nitrogen base. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 122
TOP: Transcription
36. If the original DNA was ATCGGA, the messenger RNA formed from this DNA would be
TUGCCT. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 122
TOP: Transcription
37. Editing of the mRNA begins when a modified adenine base is added to one end of the RNA
strand. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Editing the Transcript
REF: p. 123
38. A polyribosome is making several copies of the same protein molecule. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 125
TOP: Translation
39. If the original DNA code was CAA, the transfer RNA for that strand of DNA would be CAA. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 123
TOP: Translation
40. Anticodons make up part of the messenger RNA, because they are opposite of the DNA
codon. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 123
TOP: Translation
41. Transfer RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome where they are added to the protein being
built. ANS: T TOP: Translation
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 123
42. The complete set of proteins that can be made by the cell is called its proteome. ANS: T TOP: Translation
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 126
43. If a protein is not folded properly, chaperone proteins can break it down and recycle the
individual amino acids. ANS: F TOP: Translation
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 126
44. The centromere holds two chromatids together. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA Replication
REF: p. 128
45. Telomeres are strands of nucleotides at the end of the chromosome that are expendable and
are not needed for formation of proteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA Replication
REF: p. 128
46. During prophase, chromosomes become chromatin, the nuclear membrane disappears, and
spindle fibers form. ANS: F TOP: Mitosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 129-130
47. Telophase is the last stage of mitosis, and if cytokinesis is going to occur it begins at this
stage. ANS: T TOP: Mitosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 130
48. If the haploid number of chromosomes for a cell is 24, there would be 12 chromosomes in the
gamete. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 131
TOP: Meiosis
MATCHING
Match each of the terms related to protein synthesis with its corresponding statement or definition. a. mRNA b. tRNA c. Transcription d. Translation e. RNAi 1. Process that occurs when the double strands of a DNA segment separate and RNA nucleotides 2. 3. 4. 5.
pair with DNA nucleotides Type of RNA that carries information in many groups of three nucleotides called codons, each of which codes for a specific amino acid Type of RNA that has an anticodon and binds to a specific amino acid Process that involves the movement of the mRNA with respect to the ribosome Can inhibit the process of protein synthesis
1. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Transcription, Translation 2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Transcription | Translation 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Transcription, Translation 4. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Transcription | Translation 5. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Transcription | Translation
REF: p. 122 REF: pp. 121, 122 REF: p. 122 REF: p. 125 REF: p. 123
Match each phase of mitosis with its corresponding description. a. Anaphase b. Metaphase c. Prophase d. Telophase 6. 7. 8. 9.
Phase in which chromosomes become visible Chromosomes align along the equator of spindle fibers Chromosomes move toward opposite poles of the cell Chromosomes elongate into chromatin form and spindle fibers disappear
6. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Major Events in Mitosis 7. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Major Events in Mitosis 8. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Major Events in Mitosis 9. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Major Events in Mitosis
REF: p. 129 REF: p. 130 REF: p. 130 REF: p. 130
Match each of the following terms with its definition or description. a. Adenine b. mRNA c. Intron d. RNAi e. Uracil f. Chaperone protein g. Transcription h. tRNA i. Thymine j. Exons k. Proteasomes l. Telomere m. Centromere n. Haploid o. Diploid p. Translation 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.
This nitrogen base is found only in RNA. This nitrogen base is found in both RNA and DNA. This nitrogen base is found only in DNA. This is the term used to describe the number of chromosomes in a gamete. This is the term used to describe the normal number of chromosomes in most body cells. These parts of the messenger RNA are removed and not sent to the ribosome. These parts of the edited messenger RNA are sent to the ribosome. This part of the chromosome is not replicated during DNA replication. This structure holds two newly formed chromosomes together. This can properly refold an improperly folded protein.
20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
This can destroy an improperly folded protein before it can harm the cell. This type of RNA carries information from the nucleus to the ribosome. This type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome. This type of RNA can prevent protein synthesis. This process copies the DNA code to RNA. This process results in a newly built protein.
10. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 11. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 12. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 13. ANS: N DIF: Memorization TOP: Meiosis 14. ANS: O DIF: Memorization TOP: Meiosis 15. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Editing the Transcript 16. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Editing the Transcript 17. ANS: L DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA Replication 18. ANS: M DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA Replication 19. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Translation 20. ANS: K DIF: Memorization TOP: Translation 21. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Transcription 22. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Translation 23. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Translation 24. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Transcription 25. ANS: P DIF: Memorization TOP: Translation
REF: p. 122 REF: p. 121 REF: p. 121 REF: p. 131 REF: p. 131 REF: p. 123 REF: p. 123 REF: p. 128 REF: pp. 129-130 REF: p. 126 REF: p. 126 REF: p. 126 REF: p. 123 REF: p. 125 REF: p. 122 REF: p. 123
OTHER 1. Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. What is the importance of the “triplet”? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 121
TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
2. Describe the process of transcription. What are introns and exons?
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 122
TOP: Transcription
3. Describe the process of translation. What is RNAi? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 123
TOP: Translation
4. Describe the process of DNA replication. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 128
TOP: DNA Replication
5. Explain the process of mitosis. Explain what occurs in each step. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 129
TOP: Cell Replication
6. Explain the difference in the cells formed by mitosis and meiosis. Why is this difference
important? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 131
TOP: Meiosis
Chapter 08: Introduction to Tissues Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The biology of tissues is called: a. anatomy. b. physiology. c. histology. d. cytology. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Introduction to Tissues
REF: p. 138
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue? a. Forms glands that secrete substances into and out of the body b. Is important in communication and control c. Covers and protects body surfaces d. Lines the interior of body cavities ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Principal Types of Tissues
REF: p. 138
3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of muscle tissue? a. Cells are specialized to contract b. Produces movement for the body c. Generates heat for the body d. Cells are separated by a large quantity of extracellular matrix ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Principal Types of Tissues
REF: p. 144
4. Which of the following is not a primary germ layer in the embryo? a. Hypoderm b. Ectoderm c. Mesoderm d. Endoderm ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Principal Types of Tissues
REF: p. 139
5. A tissue is: a. a membrane that lines body cavities. b. a group of similar cells that perform a common function. c. a thin sheet of cells embedded in a matrix. d. the most complex organizational unit of the body. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Introduction to Tissues
REF: p. 138
6. Which of the following can be found in the extracellular matrix?
a. b. c. d.
Water Proteoglycans Fibers All of the above
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular Matrix
REF: p. 140
7. The peritoneum is an example of a _____ membrane. a. cutaneous b. serous c. mucous d. cuboidal ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial Membranes
REF: p. 146
8. Connective tissue membranes differ from cutaneous and serous membranes in that they: a. contain fewer layers of cells. b. do not contain epithelial components. c. are not smooth and slick. d. do not secrete fluids. ANS: B
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 147
TOP: Epithelial Membranes
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of connective tissue? a. Typically holds its cells together tightly by means of desmosomes b. Protects the body from foreign invaders c. Supports the body d. Transports substances throughout the body ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Principal Types of Tissues
REF: p. 149
10. The most complex tissue in the body is: a. connective. b. epithelial. c. nervous. d. muscle. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Principal Types of Tissues
REF: p. 138
11. Reticular tissue does not form the framework for which of the following? a. Kidney b. Spleen c. Lymph nodes d. All of the above are composed of reticular tissue. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Reticular Tissue 12. The serous membrane covering the stomach is called the:
REF: p. 141
a. b. c. d.
visceral pleura. visceral peritoneum. parietal pleura. parietal peritoneum.
ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 146
TOP: Serous Membranes
13. The membrane lining the wall of the thoracic cavity is the: a. visceral pleura. b. parietal pleura. c. visceral peritoneum. d. parietal peritoneum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial Membranes
REF: p. 146
14. The membrane lining the wall of the abdominal cavity is the: a. visceral pleura. b. parietal pleura. c. visceral peritoneum. d. parietal peritoneum. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial Membranes
REF: p. 146
15. Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? a. Muscle b. Nervous c. Epithelial d. All of the above tissue have about equal ability to regenerate. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue Repair
REF: p. 144
16. Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? a. Muscle b. Nervous c. Epithelial d. Connective ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue Repair
REF: p. 145
TRUE/FALSE 1. Matrix may be defined as the living intracellular material surrounding the cells of a tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Introduction to Tissues
REF: p. 138
2. The study of how the primary germ layers differentiate into the different kinds of tissues is
called histogenesis.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Principal Types of Tissues
REF: p. 139
3. Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mucous Membranes
REF: p. 146
4. The primary germ layers that are formed in the embryo are epithelial, connective, muscular,
and nervous. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Principal Types of Tissues
REF: p. 139
5. All the cells that make up tissues are held together by intracellular structures called
desmosomes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular Matrix
REF: p. 144
6. In some tissues the cells are held together by desmosomes, and in other tissues they are held
together by nonliving matrix. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular Matrix
REF: p. 140
7. Cells in the embryo begin the process of cell differentiation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Principal Types of Tissues
REF: p. 139
8. Epithelial tissue can be classified by the shape of the cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification Based on Cell Shape
REF: p. 138
9. When epithelial tissue is badly injured, a thick scar, or keloid, may develop. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue Repair
REF: p. 145
10. Many of the sugars attached to the protein backbone of a proteoglycan molecule are
fibronectin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular Matrix
REF: p. 144
11. Connective tissue tends to have large quantities of extracellular matrix. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Principal Types of Tissues
REF: p. 145
12. The serous membrane covering the lungs is the visceral pleura. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial Membranes
REF: p. 146
13. A malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is generally called a sarcoma. ANS: F TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 149
14. A type of abnormal gene that seems to cause cancer is called an oncogene. ANS: T TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 150
15. A group of cells that performs a common function is called tissue. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 138
16. Simple cuboidal epithelium is one cell layer thick; stratified cuboidal epithelium is more than
one layer thick. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 146
TOP: Membranes of the Body
17. An example of a cutaneous membrane is the skin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cutaneous Membranes
REF: p. 145
18. Connective tissue membranes are made up of two kinds of tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Membranes
REF: p. 145
19. Fibers in the extracellular matrix can include collagen and elastin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular Matrix
REF: p. 140
20. Both fibronectin and laminin are examples of glycoproteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular Matrix
REF: p. 140
21. Epithelial and muscle tissue have the greatest ability to regenerate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue Repair
REF: p. 144
22. Serous membranes have an underlying connective tissue layer called the lamina propria.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mucous Membranes
REF: p. 146
OTHER 1. Give a brief description of tissue repair, including the varying capacities with which the
different types of tissues can accomplish this task. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 144
TOP: Tissue Repair
2. Name and differentiate the two types of stem cells. What are some possible uses for stem
cells? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 140, 145
TOP: Stem Cells
3. Briefly describe cutaneous membranes and mucous membranes, and give the location of each
in the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 145 TOP: Cutaneous Membranes and Mucous Membranes 4. Briefly describe serous membranes, and give their location in the body. Differentiate between
visceral and parietal membranes, and give an example of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 145
TOP: Serous Membranes
5. Briefly describe connective tissue membranes, and give their location in the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Membranes
REF: p. 145
6. Name and briefly describe the four principal types of tissue in the body. ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 138
TOP: Principal Types of Tissues
ESSAY 1. Diana is 5 feet, 4 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds. She appears very healthy and fit, yet her
doctor advised her that she is over-fat. What might be the explanation for this assessment? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 138
TOP: Sports and Fitness
2. During a heart attack, heart muscle is damaged. Explain why, even when a person is fully
“recovered,” the heart is not as good as new. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 144
TOP: Tissue Repair
Chapter 09: Tissue Types Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The most widespread and abundant tissue in the body is: a. epithelial. b. connective. c. muscle. d. nervous. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue
REF: p. 162
2. Blood is a member of which basic tissue type? a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nervous ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue
REF: p. 162
3. How can epithelial tissue be described? a. Forms glands b. Contains mostly extracellular matrix c. Forms membranes d. Both A and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 156
4. Which of the following epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? a. Protection b. Secretion c. Sensation d. Excretion ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 156
TOP: Epithelial Tissue
5. What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? a. Nucleus b. Basement membrane c. Lysosome d. Endoplasmic reticulum ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue 6. Which is not a function of epithelial tissue? a. Absorption
REF: p. 156
b. Secretion c. Assimilation d. Protection ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 156
TOP: Epithelial Tissue
7. Which of the following is not a function of adipose tissue? a. Insulates to conserve body heat b. Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances c. Supports and protects the kidneys d. Stores excess food ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 165
TOP: Adipose Tissue
8. Which is not a function of connective tissue? a. Transport b. Support c. Defense d. Communication ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Connective Tissue
REF: p. 162
9. Collagenous fibers can be found extensively in _____ tissue. a. epithelial b. connective c. muscle d. nervous ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Connective Tissue
REF: p. 162
10. The type of tissue referred to as loose ordinary connective tissue is: a. areolar. b. adipose. c. reticular. d. cartilage. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 163 TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue 11. The basic organizational or structural unit of bone is called the: a. canaliculi. b. lamellae. c. lacunae. d. haversian system. ANS: D TOP: Bone Tissue
DIF: Memorization
12. Cartilage is a form of _____ tissue. a. epithelial b. connective
REF: p. 168
c. muscle d. osseous ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue
REF: p. 169
13. The mature cells of bone are called: a. fibroblasts. b. osteoclasts. c. osteocytes. d. osteoblasts. ANS: C TOP: Bone Tissue
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 167
14. The most prevalent type of cartilage is: a. hyaline. b. fibrous. c. elastic. d. synovial. ANS: A TOP: Cartilage
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 169
15. Which of the following is not considered a formed element in the blood? a. Erythrocyte b. Thrombocyte c. Astrocyte d. Leukocyte ANS: C TOP: Blood
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 169
16. The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called: a. muscle. b. epithelial. c. connective. d. nervous. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 172
TOP: Nervous Tissue
17. Which of the following is another name for skeletal muscle? a. Striated voluntary b. Nonstriated involuntary c. Striated involuntary d. Pseudostriated involuntary ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Tissue
REF: p. 171
18. Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue. a. muscle b. connective
c. epithelial d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 156
19. Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? a. Macrophages b. Fibroblasts c. Mast cells d. Phagocytes ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Fibrous Connective Tissue
REF: p. 163
20. Cells found only in cartilage include: a. chondrocytes and fibroblasts. b. chondrocytes and macrophages. c. chondrocytes and mast cells. d. only chondrocytes. ANS: D TOP: Cartilage
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 169
21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscles? a. Having one nucleus per cell b. Being attached to bone c. Having striations d. Having voluntary or “willed” muscles ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 170
TOP: Muscle Tissue
22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? a. Having one nucleus per cell b. Having intercalated disks c. Composing the walls of the viscera d. Usually not being under voluntary control ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 171
TOP: Muscle Tissue
23. Which of the following is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue? a. Glucosamine b. Collagen c. Hyaluronic acid d. All of the above are proteoglycans. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Connective Tissue
REF: p. 162
24. Cancellous tissue is an example of which type of connective tissue? a. Cartilage b. Bone c. Dense connective
d. Loose connective ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cancellous (Spongy) Bone Tissue
REF: p. 168
25. An axon is an important part of which kind of tissue? a. Nervous b. Smooth muscle c. Cardiac muscle d. Glandular epithelium ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous Tissue
REF: p. 172
26. Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: a. mesenchyme. b. blastocyst. c. endoderm. d. ectoderm. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue
REF: p. 162
27. Which of the following is not a class of cartilage tissue? a. Hyaline b. Fibrocartilage c. Cancellous d. Elastic ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue
REF: p. 169
28. Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing
heat? a. Dense fibrous tissue b. Reticular tissue c. Brown fat d. White fat ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Adipose Tissue
REF: p. 165
29. Small spaces in the bone where osteocytes are located are called: a. lacunae. b. lamellae. c. canaliculi. d. marrow. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone Tissue 30. Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: a. heart.
REF: p. 168
b. lungs. c. bones. d. intestines. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Tissue
REF: p. 170
31. Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the
blood? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Neurons c. Astrocytes d. Microglia ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous Tissue
REF: p. 172
32. Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Schwann cells c. Astrocytes d. Both A and B ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous Tissue
REF: p. 172
33. Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Schwann cells c. Astrocytes d. Microglia ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous Tissue
REF: p. 172
34. Dense irregular fibrous tissue is not found in which of the following structures? a. Walls of arteries b. Capsule surrounding the spleen c. Fascia surrounding muscles d. All of the above contain dense irregular fibrous tissue. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Dense Fibrous Tissue
REF: p. 166
35. Dense regular fibrous tissue is not found in which of the following structures? a. Tendons b. Dermis of the skin c. Ligaments d. All of the above contain dense regular fibrous tissue. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Dense Fibrous Tissue
REF: p. 166
36. The cell that has the opposite function of the osteoblast is the: a. chondrocyte. b. osteocyte. c. osteoclast. d. fibroblast. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone Tissue
REF: p. 168
37. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cardiac muscle? a. Cells separated by intercalated disks b. Also called nonstriated involuntary muscles c. Found in the heart d. All of the above are characteristics of cardiac muscle. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Tissue
REF: p. 171
38. Epithelial cells can be classified according to shape. Which is not a characteristic shape of
epithelial cells? a. Rectangular b. Cubed c. Columns d. Flat ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 156 TOP: Classification Based on Cell Shape 39. Being able to readily diffuse material through itself, such as occurs in alveoli, is a
characteristic of which type of epithelial tissue? a. Stratified columnar b. Simple columnar c. Stratified squamous d. Simple squamous ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 157 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 40. Goblet cells, cilia, and microvilli are modifications of which type of epithelial tissue? a. Simple squamous b. Simple cuboidal c. Simple columnar d. Pseudostratified squamous ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 41. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is found in the: a. mouth. b. esophagus. c. epidermis. d. vagina.
REF: p. 158
ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 159 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 42. Glands that have no ducts but release their products directly into tissue fluid and blood are
called: a. endocrine. b. exocrine. c. holocrine. d. apocrine. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Glandular Epithelium
REF: p. 161
43. Oil-producing glands that self-destruct in order to function are referred to as: a. merocrine. b. apocrine. c. endocrine. d. holocrine. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands
REF: p. 162
44. How many layers make up pseudostratified epithelium? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Numerous ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 156 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 45. Which of the following would be identified as skin covering? a. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium b. Stratified squamous (keratinized) epithelium c. Pseudostratified squamous (keratinized) epithelium d. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 159 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 46. Which of the following exocrine glands constitutes the mammary glands? a. Merocrine b. Apocrine c. Holocrine d. All of the above ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands
REF: p. 162
47. Which of the following is the functional classification of salivary glands? a. Merocrine b. Endocrine c. Apocrine
d. Holocrine ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands
REF: p. 162
48. Which is not characteristic of reticular tissue? a. It is a major component of the body’s defense process. b. It is found in bone marrow. c. It makes reticular fibers. d. All of the above are characteristics of reticular tissue. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 165
TOP: Reticular Tissue
49. Which of the following is not true of simple squamous epithelium? a. It is one layer thick. b. It prevents the diffusion of material from one part of the body to another. c. It is composed of flat, scalelike cells. d. All of the above are true of simple squamous epithelium. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 157
TOP: Simple Epithelium
50. Which of the following is not true of simple cuboidal epithelium? a. It is one layer thick. b. It is composed of cuboidal cells. c. It is found in ducts or tubules of the kidney. d. All of the above are true of simple cuboidal epithelium. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 158
TOP: Simple Epithelium
51. Microvilli are found on which types of cells lining of the intestine? a. Pseudostratified epithelium b. Simple columnar epithelium c. Stratified cuboidal epithelium d. Simple cuboidal epithelium ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Simple Epithelium
REF: p. 158
52. Cilia are found on which type of cell in the lining of the respiratory tract? a. Pseudostratified epithelium b. Simple columnar epithelium c. Stratified cuboidal epithelium d. Simple cuboidal epithelium ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Simple Epithelium
REF: p. 158
53. Glandular epithelium is usually composed of _____ epithelium. a. stratified cuboidal b. stratified columnar c. pseudostratified columnar d. None of the above is correct.
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Glandular Epithelium
REF: p. 161
54. The functioning of which of the following glandular tissues does not injure the cell or cause a
loss of cytoplasm? a. Apocrine b. Endocrine c. Merocrine d. Holocrine ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Glandular Epithelium
REF: p. 162
55. Microvilli assist epithelial tissue in: a. protecting the underlying tissue. b. releasing substances from glands. c. absorbing nutrients. d. all of the above functions. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Simple Epithelium
REF: p. 158
56. Another term for a ductless gland is an _____ gland. a. exocrine b. endocrine c. alveolar d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Glandular Epithelium
REF: p. 161
57. The type of cell found in connective tissue that releases histamine is a(n): a. fibroblast. b. macrophage. c. mast cell. d. areolar cell. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Loose Connective Tissue
REF: p. 165
TRUE/FALSE 1. Epithelial tissue attaches to connective tissue by means of a basement membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 156
2. Epithelial tissue is moderately vascular, which results in very little blood loss when cuts
occur. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 156 TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue
3. Epithelial tissue is characterized by large amounts of intercellular matrix and few cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 156
4. Adipose tissue contains predominantly fat cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Adipose Tissue
REF: p. 165
5. Areolar tissue forms protective pads around the kidneys and other organs. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 165
TOP: Adipose Tissue
6. Loose connective tissue is also called areolar tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Fibrous Connective Tissue
REF: p. 163
7. Bone-destroying cells are called osteoblasts. ANS: F TOP: Bone Tissue
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 163
8. Elastic cartilage is the most prevalent type of cartilage. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 168
TOP: Cartilage
9. Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue
REF: p. 165
10. The osteon is the basic structural unit of compact bone. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 168
TOP: Bone Tissue
11. Osteoblasts are specialized cells that build bone tissue. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 168
TOP: Bone Tissue
12. About 40% of the bone matrix is made of inorganic material. ANS: F TOP: Bone Tissue
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 168
13. Striated muscle tissue can be controlled both voluntarily and involuntarily. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 171
14. Skeletal muscle tissue is striated and voluntary.
TOP: Muscle Tissue
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Tissue
REF: p. 171
15. Skeletal muscle cells are referred to as muscle fibers and are characterized by a high degree of
contractility. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 171
TOP: Muscle Tissue
16. Basic characteristics of the nervous system are excitation and conduction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous Tissue
REF: p. 172
17. Epithelial tissue performs different functions based on the different types of matrix that make
up the tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 156
18. Epithelial tissue produces the glycoprotein part of the basement membrane. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 156
19. Connective tissue makes up the glycoprotein part of the basement membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 156
20. Adhesive molecules called integrins help bind epithelial cells to the basement membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 156
21. Because connective tissue is avascular, food and oxygen must pass through the basement
membrane to reach the blood vessels in the epithelial tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 156
22. Both collagenous fibers and reticular fibers are made of collagen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Connective Tissue
REF: p. 162
23. Elastic fibers are made of the protein elastin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Connective Tissue
REF: p. 162
24. Proteoglycans are composed of glucosamine bound to a polysaccharide core.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Connective Tissue
REF: p. 162
25. Connective tissue can be classified based on the type of matrix it contains. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue
REF: p. 162
26. Hyaluronidase assists in the absorption of injected drugs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Loose Fibrous Connective Tissue
REF: p. 163
27. Canaliculi allow osteocytes to stay alive within the bone tissue. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 168
TOP: Bone Tissue
28. Osteocytes were once osteoclasts that became trapped in the hardening bone tissue. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 168
TOP: Bone Tissue
29. Osteoclasts are bone-destroying cells. ANS: T TOP: Bone Tissue
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 168
30. The lack of blood vessels in cartilage tissue hinders its ability to heal. ANS: T TOP: Cartilage
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 169
31. The matrix for blood tissue is plasma. ANS: T TOP: Blood
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 162
32. Because of the stripes visible under the microscope, smooth muscle is called striated muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Tissue
REF: p. 171
33. The most numerous type of cell found in areolar tissue is the macrophage. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Loose Fibrous Connective Tissue
REF: p. 163
34. Both neurons and neuroglia are found in nervous tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous Tissue 35. The concentric layers of bone matrix are called lacunae.
REF: p. 172
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone Tissue
REF: p. 168
36. In the process of endochondral ossification, the bone that is formed replaces cartilage. ANS: T TOP: Bone Tissue
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 168
37. Astrocytes form the blood-brain barrier that helps protect the brain from harmful substances. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous Tissue
REF: p. 172
38. Oligodendrocytes help destroy damaged tissue and pathogens in the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous Tissue
REF: p. 172
39. Important functions of connective tissue include protection, secretion, and absorption. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 162
40. Epithelial tissue is generally able to renew itself throughout life. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 156
41. The most abundant fat in the body is brown fat, which is able to generate heat and help
maintain body temperature. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Adipose Tissue
REF: p. 165
42. Connective tissue is the most widespread and diverse tissue in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue
REF: p. 162
43. Blood, bone, and cartilage are the only types of connective tissue that do not contain fibers in
their structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue
REF: p. 163
44. Fibroblasts in loose fibrous connective tissue are able to release substances such as histamine
and heparin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Loose Fibrous Connective Tissue
REF: p. 165
45. Another term for cancellous bone is spongy bone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cancellous (Spongy) Bone Tissue
REF: p. 168
46. The external ear and larynx are made of fibrocartilage tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Elastic Cartilage Tissue
REF: p. 169
47. Hematopoietic tissue is responsible for making blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Tissue
REF: p. 170
48. Smooth muscle fibers tend to be longer, but weaker, than striated muscle fibers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Tissue
REF: p. 171
49. In a neuron, axons carry impulses toward the cell body and dendrites carry impulses away
from the cell body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous Tissue
REF: p. 172
50. Transitional epithelium is unique in that it is composed of differing cell shapes in a stratified,
or layered, epithelial sheet. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells
REF: p. 157
51. Stratified columnar epithelium is the most common type of epithelium and is found in many
areas throughout the body. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 159 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 52. Stratified transitional epithelium, such as is found in the urinary bladder, allows for distention. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 159 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 53. Compound exocrine glands have one duct and secrete two or more products. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 161
TOP: Glandular Epithelium
54. Mammary glands are endocrine glands that produce milk. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 162
55. Salivary glands are an example of ductless exocrine glands.
TOP: Glandular Epithelium
ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 162
TOP: Glandular Epithelium
56. Oil-producing glands that self-destruct in order to function are referred to as holocrine glands. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 162
TOP: Glandular Epithelium
57. Epithelial tissue can be classified by the number of layers the tissue has. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells
REF: p. 157
58. The upper layer of stratified cuboidal epithelium can be keratinized for protection of the tissue
below it. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stratified Epithelium
REF: p. 159
59. When transitional epithelium stretches, the cell shape changes from cuboidal to squamous in
appearance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Stratified Epithelium
REF: p. 161
60. Hormones are released into ducts by exocrine glands. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 161
TOP: Glandular Epithelium
61. Hormones are released into the blood by endocrine glands. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 161
TOP: Glandular Epithelium
62. Endocrine glands can be classified by the shape and complexity of their ducts. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 161
TOP: Glandular Epithelium
63. Apocrine gland cells die as a result of their functioning. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glandular Epithelium
REF: pp. 161-162
64. Tendons have more elastic fibers than do ligaments. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Dense Fibrous Tissue
REF: p. 166
65. Epithelial tissue can be subdivided into two types: squamous and columnar. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types and Location of Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 156
66. The type of tissue that lines the vagina, mouth, and esophagus is called keratinized squamous
epithelium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stratified Epithelium
REF: p. 159
67. Because stratified squamous epithelium is found in the urinary system, it is sometimes called
urothelium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transitional Epithelium
REF: p. 159
68. The term squamous comes from the Latin word meaning scaly, which describes the flat,
platelike cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification Based on Cell Shape
REF: p. 156
69. Pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue is only two layers thick. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification Based on Cell Shape
REF: p. 156
70. Stratified epithelial tissue is named for the shape of the cell on only the top layer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells
REF: p. 157
71. Because of their function, some histologists classify endothelium and mesothelium as
connective tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Simple Squamous Epithelium
REF: p. 158
72. Only merocrine glands release their secretions with no harm to the cell or plasma membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Glandular Epithelium
REF: p. 162
73. Bone marrow is a type of reticular tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reticular Tissue
REF: p. 165
MATCHING
Match each category of epithelial cell with its corresponding definition. a. Simple squamous b. Simple cuboidal c. Simple columnar d. Pseudostratified columnar
e. Stratified squamous f. Transitional
Single layer of cube-shaped cells Multiple layers of cells with flat cells at the outer surface Single layer of cells; some are tall and thin and reach the free surface, and others do not Layers of cells that appear cubelike when the organ is relaxed and flattened when the organ is distended by fluid 5. Single layer of flat, scalelike cells 6. Single layer of tall, thin cells; modification may appear goblet shaped 1. 2. 3. 4.
1. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 2. ANS: E DIF: Application REF: TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 3. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 4. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 5. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 6. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Simple Epithelium
p. 158 p. 159 p. 156 pp. 159, 160 p. 157 REF: p. 158
Match each type of gland to its corresponding description. a. Endocrine b. Holocrine c. Merocrine d. Apocrine 7. Ductless glands that produce hormones, such as the thyroid gland 8. Glands that complete their function without incurring damage to or loss of cytoplasm, such as
salivary glands 9. Glands that pinch off their tips to release their products, such as milk-producing mammary glands 10. Glands that self-destruct to complete their function, such as glands that produce oil to lubricate the skin 7. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Glandular Epithelium 8. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Glandular Epithelium 9. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Glandular Epithelium 10. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Glandular Epithelium
Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Neuron b. Neuroglia c. Axon
REF: p. 161 REF: p. 162 REF: p. 161 REF: p. 162
d. Soma e. Dendrite 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
The cell body of the neuron Supportive cells of nervous tissue Cell process that transmits nerve impulses away from the cell body The conducting cells of the nervous system Cell process that carries nerve impulses toward the cell body
11. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Nervous Tissue 12. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Nervous Tissue 13. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Nervous Tissue 14. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Nervous Tissue 15. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Nervous Tissue
Memorization
REF: p. 172
Memorization
REF: p. 172
Memorization
REF: p. 172
Memorization
REF: p. 172
Memorization
REF: p. 172
Match each general tissue type with a corresponding specific tissue. a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nerve 16. 17. 18. 19.
Bone and adipose tissue Neurons and neuroglia Tissue in the heart and the biceps of the arm Tissue that lines the stomach and intestines
16. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue 17. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous Tissue 18. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Tissue 19. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial Tissue
REF: p. 163 REF: p. 172 REF: p. 170 REF: p. 156
OTHER 1. List and describe the five important functions performed by the various types of epithelial
tissues. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 156
TOP: Epithelial Tissue
2. Differentiate among simple, stratified, and transitional epithelia.
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 156
TOP: Classification of Epithelial Tissue
3. Differentiate among the three types of cartilage: hyaline, fibrous, and elastic. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 168
TOP: Cartilage
4. Why is blood considered to be the most unusual type of connective tissue? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 169
TOP: Blood
5. Describe the three types of muscle tissue, and give a location and function of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 170
TOP: Muscle Tissue
6. Describe the structure of bone and cartilage tissue. Explain how the difference in structure
affects the healing ability of both types of tissue. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone Tissue and Cartilage Tissue
REF: pp. 167, 168
7. Describe the three functional classifications of exocrine glands. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 156
TOP: Glandular Epithelium
ESSAY 1. Mr. Melbourne has emphysema and has been admitted to the cardiac care unit with oxygen
administered per nasal cannula. Emphysema destroys the tiny air sacs in the lungs, reducing the diffusion of oxygen into the blood. These tiny air sacs, alveoli, are formed by what type of tissue? What tissue type will form in place of the now damaged alveoli, and why will this impair the diffusion process?
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 156
TOP: Epithelial Tissue, Tissue Repair
2. Explain how simple squamous epithelium and the microvilli and cilia illustrate the
relationship between structure and function. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 172
TOP: Simple Epithelium
Chapter 10: Skin Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following vitamins is(are) absorbed through the skin? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin K d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Skin
REF: p. 190
2. Which of the following is not a function of the skin? a. Defense against disease organisms b. Synthesis of vitamin E c. Regulation of body temperature d. Excretion of water and salts ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 190
TOP: Functions of the Skin
3. The superficial outer layer of the epidermis is the stratum: a. basale. b. lucidum. c. corneum. d. granulosum. ANS: C TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 181
4. Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: a. basale. b. lucidum. c. corneum. d. granulosum. ANS: A TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
5. The area referred to as true skin is the: a. stratum corneum. b. subcutaneous layer. c. dermis. d. hypodermis. ANS: C TOP: Dermis
DIF: Memorization
6. The hypodermis: a. connects the dermis to underlying tissues.
REF: p. 186
b. is the layer of skin in which hair is produced. c. connects the dermis and the epidermis. d. is the layer of skin in which the nails are produced. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Skin
REF: p. 187
7. In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? a. Back of the hand b. Thigh c. Abdomen d. Sole of the foot ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 196
TOP: Thin and Thick Skin
8. The papillary layer of the dermis: a. is responsible for cleavage or tension lines in the skin. b. does not contain blood vessels. c. produces the ridges that make fingerprints. d. contains large deposits of fat. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Papillary Layer
REF: p. 186
9. Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract are the _____ muscles. a. papillary b. cuticle c. medullary d. arrector pili ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Reticular Layer
REF: p. 186
10. The most common type of skin cancer is: a. malignant melanoma. b. basal cell carcinoma. c. Kaposi sarcoma. d. All skin cancers occur in about equal frequency. ANS: B TOP: Skin Cancer
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 200
11. The type of cancer associated with immune deficiencies is: a. squamous cell carcinoma. b. Kaposi sarcoma. c. basal cell carcinoma. d. malignant melanoma. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 201
12. Prolonged exposure to the sun causes melanocytes to: a. increase in number. b. rupture and release their contents.
TOP: Skin Cancer
c. increase melanin production. d. decrease melanin production. ANS: C TOP: Skin Color
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 182
13. The hair follicle is found in the: a. epidermis. b. dermis. c. hypodermis. d. subcutaneous layer. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 186
TOP: Hair
14. Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the stratum: a. germinativum. b. granulosum. c. corneum. d. lucidum. ANS: A TOP: Nails
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 196
15. Apocrine sweat glands can be found in all of the following areas except the: a. soles of the feet. b. armpits. c. areolae of the breasts. d. pigmented skin areas around the anus. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 197
TOP: Sweat Glands
16. The type of gland associated with blackheads is: a. eccrine. b. apocrine. c. sebaceous. d. ceruminous. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Sebaceous Glands
REF: p. 198
17. Which is not part of a hair? a. Shaft b. Root c. Lanugo d. Medulla ANS: C
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 195
18. Hair: a. alternates between periods of growth and rest. b. consists of keratinized cells. c. is formed from cells of the germinal matrix. d. is all of the above.
TOP: Hair
ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 195
TOP: Hair
19. The hair papilla consists of _____ tissue. a. epidermal b. dermal c. hypodermal d. fibrous connective ANS: B
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 195
TOP: Hair
20. The most numerous, important, and widespread sweat glands in the body are: a. apocrine. b. eccrine. c. ceruminous. d. sebaceous. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Sweat Glands
REF: p. 197
21. Sebum: a. lubricates hair and skin. b. is produced by sweat glands. c. consists of dead cells from hair follicles. d. is responsible for body odor. ANS: A
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 198
TOP: Sebaceous Glands
22. The waxy secretion in the external ear canal is: a. eccrine. b. apocrine. c. sebaceous. d. ceruminous. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Ceruminous Glands
REF: p. 199
23. The surface film found on the skin has a variety of functions, including: a. lubrication. b. buffering of caustic irritants. c. antibacterial and antifungal activity. d. all of the above. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 199
TOP: Surface Film
24. Although body temperature normally changes very little during the course of a day, it is
generally the lowest during: a. the early morning. b. mid-afternoon. c. late afternoon. d. the evening. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 192
TOP: Homeostasis of Body Temperature 25. The conversion of water from a liquid state into a gaseous state happens with which form of
body heat loss? a. Convection b. Evaporation c. Radiation d. Conduction ANS: B
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 193
TOP: Evaporation
26. Which type of body heat loss is characterized by heat transfer from the surface of one object
to the surface of another object without actual contact? a. Convection b. Evaporation c. Radiation d. Conduction ANS: C TOP: Radiation
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 193
27. The body compensates for the increase in the core body temperature caused by exercise by: a. decreasing the blood flow to the skin. b. increasing the blood flow to the core. c. increasing the blood flow to the skin. d. vasoconstriction of the blood vessels in the skin. ANS: C TOP: Heat Loss
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 191
28. The same degree of environmental temperature seems hotter in humid climates than it does in
dry ones because: a. evaporation increases in humid climates. b. evaporation is retarded in humid climates. c. radiation is increased in humid climates. d. humid climates alter the temperature receptors in the hypothalamus by mechanisms unknown. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 193
TOP: Evaporation
29. A person leaning against a cold cement block wall would lose heat by the process of: a. convection. b. evaporation. c. radiation. d. conduction. ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 193
30. The body’s temperature control center is located in the: a. cerebrum. b. medulla. c. thalamus.
TOP: Conduction
d. hypothalamus. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss
REF: p. 194
31. A second-degree burn is characterized by: a. destruction of both the epidermis and the dermis. b. severe pain, generalized swelling, and edema. c. minor discomfort and some redness. d. involvement of muscles, fasciae, or bones. ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area
REF: p. 202
32. A major distinction between second- and third-degree burns is that third-degree burns: a. involve injury to only the deep epidermal layers. b. involve damage to only hair follicles. c. involve damage to only the sweat glands. d. are characterized by insensitivity to pain immediately after injury. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area
REF: p. 202
33. In the skin, the dermis: a. and epidermis are both epithelial tissue. b. and epidermis are both connective tissue. c. is connective tissue and the epidermis is epithelial tissue. d. is epithelial tissue and the epidermis is connective tissue. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Skin
REF: p. 186
34. The layer beneath the dermis is called the: a. hypodermis. b. subcutaneous layer. c. superficial fascia. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Skin
REF: p. 186
35. Which cells originate in the bone marrow and are important in the immune function? a. Dendritic cells b. Melanocytes c. Keratinocytes d. Fibroblasts ANS: A TOP: Cell Types
DIF: Memorization
36. Which skin layer is called the barrier area? a. Stratum lucidum b. Stratum basale
REF: p. 192
c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum corneum ANS: D TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 205
37. Which skin layer has cells that look prickly because of the desmosomes that join the cells
together? a. Stratum basale b. Stratum spinosum c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum corneum ANS: B TOP: Cell Layer
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
38. Which skin layer contains closely packed, clear cells that contain a gel-like substance called
eleidin? a. Stratum lucidum b. Stratum basale c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum corneum ANS: A TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
39. In which skin layer does the process of keratinization begin? a. Stratum basale b. Stratum corneum c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum spinosum ANS: C TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
40. Normally, which percentage of the cells in the stratum basale enter mitosis each day? a. 20% to 25% b. 10% to 12% c. 18% to 20% d. 35% to 40% ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 185
41. Which of the following is not true of the dermal-epidermal junction? a. It is important in blocking bacteria from passing through the skin. b. It is composed chiefly of basement membrane. c. Its function is to “glue” the two layers of skin together. d. All of the above are true. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermoepidermal Junction
REF: p. 185
42. Which of the following is not true of the dermis? a. It contains a papillary layer. b. It contains a reticular layer. c. In general, the dermis is thinner on the dorsal side of the body than on the ventral
side. d. It plays an important role in body temperature regulation. ANS: C TOP: Dermis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 186
43. “Burns” can be caused by: a. ultraviolet light. b. corrosive chemicals. c. electrical current. d. all of the above. ANS: D TOP: Burns
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 202
44. The area of the skin in an average-size adult is about _____ square feet. a. 12 b. 18 c. 24 d. 31 ANS: B TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 180
45. The term used to describe the skin and its appendages is: a. epidermis. b. dermis. c. integumentary system. d. integument. ANS: C TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 181
46. Which cells of the skin are filled with a tough, fibrous protein and account for most of the
epidermal cells of the skin? a. Dermatocytes b. Langerhans cells c. Keratinocytes d. Melanocytes ANS: C TOP: Cell Types
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 181
47. Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen-presenting cell in the skin? a. Dermatocytes b. Dendritic cells c. Keratinocytes d. Melanocytes
ANS: B TOP: Cell Types
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 182
48. The cell layers of skin from the most superficial to the deepest appear in what order? a. Stratum corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, and basale b. Stratum basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, and corneum c. Stratum basale, granulosum, lucidum, spinosum, and corneum d. Stratum corneum, granulosum, lucidum, spinosum, and basale ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 183
TOP: Cell Layers
49. The time required for the completion of mitosis, differentiation, and the movement of new
cells from the stratum basale to the surface of the skin is about: a. 35 hours. b. 17 days. c. 22 days. d. 35 days. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 185
50. To increase the efficiency of protein synthesis, cells in which epidermal layer are rich in
RNA? a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum lucidum c. Stratum spinosum d. Stratum granulosum ANS: C TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
51. Cells in which layer are filled with a protein called eleidin? a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum lucidum c. Stratum spinosum d. Stratum granulosum ANS: B TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
52. Cells in which layer have a high level of lysosomal enzymes in their cytoplasm? a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum lucidum c. Stratum spinosum d. Stratum granulosum ANS: D TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
53. The darkest of the skin pigments is: a. beta carotene. b. pheomelanin. c. eumelanin.
REF: p. 183
d. none of the above. ANS: C TOP: Skin Color
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 188
54. Which skin pigment is a light reddish color? a. Beta carotene b. Pheomelanin c. Eumelanin d. None of the above ANS: B TOP: Skin Color
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 188
55. When the skin looks cyanotic, it is because _____ can be seen through the skin. a. oxygen-poor blood b. oxygen-rich blood c. hemosiderin d. bile pigments ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 189
TOP: Other Pigments
56. What increase in body temperature would be caused by pyrogens? a. Heat exhaustion b. Heat stroke c. Fever d. Malignant hyperthermia ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature
REF: p. 201
57. What increase in body temperature can be caused by anesthetics or muscle relaxants? a. Heat exhaustion b. Heat stroke c. Fever d. Malignant hyperthermia ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature
REF: p. 201
58. Hair can become brittle and dry as a result of the: a. improper function of the sebaceous glands. b. malfunction of the tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. c. overproduction of keratin. d. underproduction of synovial fluid. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 202
TOP: Hair
59. Many liquid medicines, such as insulin, are administered using a subcutaneous injection. Why
is the subcutaneous layer an ideal site for the administration of such medication? a. The subcutaneous layer is rich in blood supply and nerve networks. b. The subcutaneous layer has a rich blood supply and loose spongy texture. c. The subcutaneous layer has a rich blood supply and firm texture.
d. The subcutaneous layer has a rich supply of nerves and loose spongy texture. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 187 TOP: Subcutaneous and Intradermal Injections 60. Onycholysis is usually caused by: a. a cuticle infection. b. malfunctioning of the tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. c. overproduction of the root of the fingernail. d. trauma to long fingernails. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 197
TOP: Nails
61. After several hours of landscaping the yard, Jennifer experienced a body temperature of 105°
F; a rapid heart rate; headache; and hot, dry skin. She was taken to a medical facility and treated for what condition? a. Heat exhaustion b. Heat stroke c. Hypothermia d. Malignant hyperthermia ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature
REF: p. 201
62. Matt is admitted to the hospital with burns to the deep epidermal layers and injury to the upper
layers of the dermis. The physician treats Matt’s condition as a _____ burn. a. first-degree b. hypothermia c. minor d. second-degree ANS: D DIF: Application TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area
REF: p. 202
63. The special network of nerves deep in the dermis that is capable of detecting pressure on the
skin surface is called: a. free nerve endings. b. Krause end bulbs. c. tactile corpuscle. d. somatic sensory receptors. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 206
TOP: Dermis
64. Which statement best explains the importance of the dendritic cells? a. They contribute color to the skin and serve to decrease the amount of ultraviolet
light that can penetrate into the deeper layers of the skin. b. They become filled with a tough, fibrous protein called keratin. c. They find markers on bacteria and other invaders and present them to other
immune system cells for recognition and destruction. d. They form the attachment of the hair follicle with the arrector pili muscles. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 206
TOP: Cell Types
65. How can the regeneration time required for completion of mitosis, differentiation, and
movement of new keratinocytes from the stratum basale to the surface of the epidermis be accelerated? a. By abrasion of the skin surface b. By the presence of eleidin c. By the epidermal proliferating unit d. By the presence of dermal-epidermal junctions ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 185
TOP: Cell Types
66. The fibers in which layer make it possible for skin to stretch and be elastic? a. Connective tissue b. Epidermal c. Muscle d. Reticular ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 186
TOP: Reticular Cells
67. After several months of extensive weight training, Nick has noticed pinkish, depressed
furrows with jagged edges in his axillary region. These markings are a result of: a. a decrease in dermal papillae. b. healing due to tiny tears in the dermis. c. malfunction of the microvilli. d. overproduction of the arrector pili muscles. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 186
TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair
68. If you were looking under the microscope at a slide that contains skin glands, what three kinds
of microscopic glands would be present? a. Sebaceous, eccrine, and ceruminous glands b. Sweat, eccrine, and ceruminous glands c. Sweat, eccrine, and sebaceous glands d. Sweat, sebaceous, and ceruminous glands ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 197
TOP: Sweat Glands
69. Yellowish discoloration of the skin and other tissues is a condition known as jaundice. This
results from the: a. gallbladder not being able to eliminate bile from the blood efficiently. b. liver not being able to eliminate bile from the blood efficiently. c. liver not being able to eliminate hemoglobin from the blood efficiently. d. red blood cells not being able to eliminate hemoglobin. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 189
TOP: Jaundice
70. Immunity is a function of the skin and occurs by: a. attacking and destroying pathogens. b. evaporation and radiation of pathogens. c. excretion of chemicals in sweat. d. receptors that can detect sensations. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 192
TOP: Immunity
71. The skin of an infant is more easily damaged by penetration or abrasion than that of an adult.
Which layer is probably thinner in an infant than in an adult? a. Stratum basale b. Stratum corneum c. Stratum lucidum d. Stratum spinosum ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 181
TOP: Cell Layers
72. A geneticist informs parents that their newborn infant does not have the enzyme tyrosinase.
The lack of this enzyme will result in: a. albinism. b. malignant hyperthermia. c. scleroderma. d. vitiligo. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 189
TOP: Skin Color
73. Which of the following is not true about thick or thin skin? a. Thin skin is hairless. b. Most of the body is covered in thin skin. c. Epidermal ridges are found in thick skin. d. All of the above are true. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Thin and Thick Skin
REF: p. 181
74. Which of the following is not true of dermal growth and repair? a. Just as the epidermis, the dermis is in a constant state of regeneration. b. In the healing of an injury, fibroblasts reproduce and begin to form new connective
tissue. c. Surgical incisions made parallel to cleavage lines are less likely to leave a scar. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair
REF: pp. 184, 185
75. Which of the following is not true of the hypodermis? a. It is also called the subcutaneous layer. b. It contains mostly loose connective tissue and adipose tissue. c. It is the deepest part of the skin. d. All of the above are true. ANS: C TOP: Hypodermis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 187
76. The excretory function of the skin includes all of the following except: a. influencing the fluid volume of the body. b. playing an important excretory role for the body. c. removing uric acid and urea from the body. d. The excretory function includes all of the above. ANS: B
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 192
TOP: Excretion 77. Which of the following is not true of the body’s ability to regulate heat loss? a. It is part of a negative-feedback mechanism. b. Sweat glands increase the production of sweat. c. The homeostatic regulation of body temperature is regulated by the thyroid gland. d. All of the above are true. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss
REF: p. 194
TRUE/FALSE 1. One of the important functions of the skin is the synthesis of vitamin D. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Skin
REF: p. 190
2. Keratin is an important skin pigment that protects against ultraviolet light. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 191
TOP: Cell Types
3. The hypodermis is a subcutaneous layer rich in adipose and loose fibrous connective tissue. ANS: T TOP: Hypodermis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 181
4. The subcutaneous layer is also referred to as the superficial fascia. ANS: T TOP: Hypodermis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 187
5. Melanocytes account for approximately 55% of the epidermal cells. ANS: F TOP: Cell Types
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 188
6. During the life of an individual, epidermal tissue is constantly being replaced. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 185
7. Turnover time for epidermal tissue can be accelerated by injury. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 185
8. Prolonged exposure to the sun causes decreased melanin production. ANS: F TOP: Skin Color
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 189
9. A primary function of the dermal-epidermal junction is to “glue” together the dermis and the
epidermis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermoepidermal Junction
REF: p. 185
10. The epidermis is referred to as the true skin. ANS: F TOP: Dermis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 186
11. Normally about 10% to 12% of all cells in the stratum basale enter mitosis each day. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 185
12. Both the epidermis and the dermis continually undergo shedding and regeneration. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 186
TOP: Cell Layers
13. Sensory receptors are found in the epidermis. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 186
TOP: Dermis
14. Goose pimples, elevation of the testes, and erection of the nipples result from the contraction
of muscles in the dermis. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 186
TOP: Reticular Layer
15. The dermis contains both voluntary and involuntary muscle fibers. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 186
TOP: Reticular Layer
16. Malignant melanoma has been steadily increasing in the United States for the past 20 years. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 202
TOP: Skin Cancer
17. The basic ingredient in the skin that determines skin color is melanin. ANS: T TOP: Skin Color
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 188
18. Vitiligo is an acquired condition that results in loss of pigment in certain areas of the skin. ANS: T TOP: Vitiligo
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
19. An increase in the enzyme tyrosinase will lead to the destruction of pigment and result in
albinism. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 188-189
TOP: Skin Color
20. Darkening of the skin may be caused by a decrease in the secretion of adrenocorticotropic
hormone. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 189
TOP: Skin Color
21. Lanugo is the technical term used for adult body hair. ANS: F TOP: Hair
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 195
22. Terminal hair is the coarse pubic and axillary hair that develops at puberty. ANS: T TOP: Hair
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 195
23. One way to stimulate hair growth is to cut it or shave it. ANS: F TOP: Hair
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 196
24. One of the factors associated with the common type of baldness is the presence of
testosterone. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 196
TOP: Hair
25. Growth of nails is the result of mitosis in the stratum basale. ANS: T TOP: Nails
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 196
26. The gland that produces the waxy secretion in the external ear canal is a sebaceous gland. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 199
TOP: Ceruminous Glands
27. An increase in sebum secretion in children may lead to increased susceptibility to ringworm. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 199
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
28. Apocrine sweat glands are the most numerous and widespread sweat glands in the body. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 197
TOP: Sweat Glands
29. There is a more than fivefold increase in the rate of sebum secretion between 10 and 19 years
of age. ANS: T TOP: Acne
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 198
30. A person with a body temperature of 38 C would need to be treated for hypothermia. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 202
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
31. When heat must be conserved to maintain a constant body temperature, the dermal blood
vessels increase their diameter. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 193
TOP: Heat Loss
32. Shivering is a good example of the body’s attempt to produce more heat. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 193
TOP: Heat Production
33. A person who is shivering would normally have dilated surface blood vessels in the skin. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 193
TOP: Heat Loss
34. Heat loss by the skin is controlled by a positive-feedback loop. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss
REF: p. 194
35. The body’s temperature control center is located in the hypothalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss
REF: p. 194
36. The normal body temperature set point is 37 C. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss
REF: p. 194
37. Besides changing the rates of metabolism, the primary means of controlling body temperature
is through changes in the size of blood vessels in the skin. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 194 TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss 38. Skin thermal receptors provide important information to the heat-regulating centers in the
brain, resulting in autonomic regulation of body temperature. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 194 TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss 39. Heat loss by the skin is controlled by a negative-feedback loop. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss
REF: p. 194
40. Blisters, severe pain, generalized swelling, and edema are characteristic of third-degree burns. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area
REF: p. 202
41. The rule of palms and the rule of tens are two methods used in estimating the extent of body
surface area burned.
ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area
REF: p. 202
42. Third-degree burns are less severe than first-degree burns and therefore are not as painful. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area
REF: p. 202
43. The thickest part of the skin is slightly more than 3 cm thick. ANS: F TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 180
44. Integument and integumentary system are interchangeable terms. ANS: F TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 181
45. Integumentary system and skin are interchangeable terms. ANS: F TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 181
46. A large amount of fat can be stored in the hypodermis. ANS: T TOP: Hypodermis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 181
47. Thick skin and thin skin refer to the dermis and the epidermis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Thin and Thick Skin
REF: p. 181
48. Hair is usually not found on thick skin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Thin and Thick Skin
REF: p. 181
49. In thin skin, some of the strata of the skin may be absent. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Thin and Thick Skin
REF: p. 181
50. The cells at the surface of the skin are dead. ANS: T TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
51. An abnormal thickening of the stratum corneum is called hyperkeratosis. ANS: T TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 184
52. The stratum lucidum and stratum basale are sometimes referred to as the stratum
germinativum. ANS: F TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
53. Blisters can be the result of damage to the desmosomes in a layer of skin. ANS: T TOP: Blisters
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 185
54. The average turnover time for skin cells to go from the stratum basale to the surface of the
epidermis is about 35 days. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 185
55. Continual abrasion to the skin surface tends to lengthen the turnover time of the skin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 185
56. A group of active basal cells, together with its vertical column of migrating keratinocytes, is
called a dermal proliferating unit, or DPU. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 185
57. The papillary layer of the dermis lies just below the dermal-epidermal junction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Papillary Layer
REF: p. 186
58. The reticular layer of the dermis serves as an attachment point for both smooth and skeletal
muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reticular Layer
REF: p. 186
59. Surgical incisions that are made perpendicular to cleavage lines tend to heal with less of a
scar. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 187
60. Light-skinned people have fewer melanocytes in their skin than do dark-skinned people. ANS: F TOP: Skin Color
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 190
61. The ability of melanocytes to darken the skin is dependent on the functioning of the enzyme
tyrosinase. ANS: T TOP: Skin Color
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 189
62. Convection is responsible for most of the heat loss of the body. ANS: F TOP: Convection
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 194
63. The protective function of the skin is limited to the protection of the underlying tissue from
abrasion and mechanical injury. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Skin
REF: p. 191
64. The shedding of epithelial elements from the skin surface is called desquamation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Skin
REF: p. 191
65. The surface film that aids in the protective function of the skin is remarkably consistent from
one part of the skin to another. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Surface Film
REF: p. 191
66. Because sweat can contain ammonia, urea, and other waste products, it plays a major role in
the excretion of body wastes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Skin
REF: p. 192
67. When the skin is exposed to sunlight, it has the ability to convert cholecalciferol to vitamin D. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Hormone (Vitamin D) Production
REF: p. 192
68. Because vitamin D is a compound that influences several important chemical reactions, it can
also be classified as an enzyme. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Hormone (Vitamin D) Production
REF: p. 192
69. Radiation can account for both heat loss and heat gain. ANS: T TOP: Radiation
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 193
70. Heat production occurs in two ways: metabolism of food and absorption of heat from the
environment.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Homeostasis of Body Temperature
REF: pp. 192-193
71. Sweat that drips off you does very little to cool your body. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 194
TOP: Evaporation
72. In a cool environment, conduction accounts for most of the heat loss of the body. ANS: F TOP: Conduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 193
73. In using the rule of nines to determine the area of the body involved, the body is divided into
nine areas of 11% each. ANS: F TOP: Burns
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 202
74. Lanugo is usually found on a fetus or newborn. ANS: T TOP: Hair
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 195
75. The cells of the germinal matrix are responsible for forming hair. ANS: T TOP: Hair
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 195
76. The hair itself is composed of three layers: the shaft, the cortex, and the cuticle. ANS: F TOP: Hair
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 195
77. Fingernails are composed of heavily keratinized epidermal cells. ANS: T TOP: Nails
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 196
78. Apocrine and eccrine glands are the two types of sebaceous glands. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sweat Glands
REF: p. 197
79. Eccrine glands are the more numerous of the sweat glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sweat Glands
REF: p. 197
80. Although the ducts of the eccrine sweat glands come through the epidermis, the actual
secretory portion is located in the dermis.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sweat Glands
REF: p. 197
81. Apocrine sweat glands begin functioning shortly after birth. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sweat Glands
REF: p. 198
82. Because sebaceous glands produce a substance rich in triglycerides and fatty acids, it provides
a good growth medium for fungi. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sweat Glands
REF: p. 198
83. Malignant hyperthermia occurs as a result of exposure to certain types of anesthetic agents or
muscle relaxants. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature
REF: p. 201
84. The skin surface area can be as large as 20 square feet in the average adult. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 180
85. The skin is a thin and relatively flat organ and is an example of a serous membrane. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Skin
REF: p. 181
86. Fingerprints are an example of the friction ridges of the skin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Thin and Thick Skin
REF: p. 181
87. The keratinocytes of the skin are examples of antigen-presenting cells. ANS: F TOP: Cell Types
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 182
88. The stratum lucidum is superficial to the stratum basale. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 183
TOP: Cell Layers
89. An abnormally thick region of the stratum basale is called a callus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 185
90. Cleavage lines and Langer lines refer to the same thing. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 187
TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair 91. Langer lines is the more correct name for stretch marks. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 187
92. Albinism is the inability of the body to form melanin. ANS: T TOP: Melanin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 189
93. Jaundice can occur because of a very high concentration of vitamin A in the skin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Other Pigments
REF: p. 189
94. A high level of melanin in the skin assists in the formation of vitamin D. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Hormone (Vitamin D) Production
REF: p. 192
95. Dendritic cells develop in the dermis of the skin but migrate to the epidermis of the skin to
function. ANS: F TOP: Cell Types
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 192
96. Cells in the stratum spinosum layer are rich in RNA to make protein synthesis more efficient. ANS: T TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
97. Keratohyalin is a protein in the stratum lucidum that will eventually be transformed into
keratin in the cells of the epidermis. ANS: F TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
98. Cells in the stratum lucidum do not have a high metabolic rate, because they usually do not
have a nucleus. ANS: T TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
99. High levels of lysosomal enzymes are found in the cells of the stratum granulosum layer. ANS: T TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
100. One end of the arrector pili muscle is attached to a hair follicle.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reticular Layer
REF: p. 186
101. A scar is a dense mass of keratinocytes that forms when a wound to the skin heals. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 186
102. People who have mostly pheomelanin in their skin tend to have darker skin than people who
have mostly eumelanin. ANS: F TOP: Skin Color
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 188
103. Melanosomes help prevent DNA mutations when the cell is exposed to ultraviolet radiation. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 188, 189
TOP: Skin Color
104. You turn red when you blush, because the color of blood is red. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 189
TOP: Other Pigments
105. The presence of hemosiderin and bile pigments in the skin can cause the skin to appear
cyanotic. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 190
TOP: Other Pigments
106. Both the root and the lunula of the nail are covered by the cuticle and therefore cannot be seen
externally. ANS: F TOP: Nails
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 196
107. If a person were in a totally bacteria-free environment, any sweat produced would have no
odor. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 198
TOP: Sweat Glands
108. Chemicals that cause the body to develop a fever are called pyrogens. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature
REF: p. 201
109. Fever is always detrimental to the body, so the body temperature should be reduced to normal
as soon as possible. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature
REF: p. 201
110. Malignant hyperthermia, heat exhaustion, and heat stroke are increasingly dangerous
consequences of exposure to high environmental temperatures.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature
REF: p. 201
111. The skin is the largest and thinnest organ. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 180
112. The hypodermis is the deepest layer of skin. ANS: F TOP: Hypodermis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 187
113. Most of the body is covered by protective thick skin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Thin and Thick Skin
REF: p. 181
114. Keratinocytes are sometimes called corneocytes. ANS: T TOP: Cell Types
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 182
115. Melanocytes are sometimes called Langerhans cells. ANS: F TOP: Cell Types
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 182
116. The stratum granulosum is sometimes called the barrier layer of the skin. ANS: F TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 184
117. In order for proper growth and repair of the skin to occur, both insulinlike growth factor and
vitamin D must be present in the correct amounts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 185
118. The main function of the dermoepidermal junction is to act as a barrier to harmful chemicals
and bacteria. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermoepidermal Junction
REF: pp. 185-186
119. Hair follicles and skin glands, made up of epithelial tissue, extend from the epidermis into the
reticular layer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reticular Layer
REF: p. 186
120. In the healing of a wound, fibroblasts in the dermis quickly reproduce and begin forming a
dense mass of new connective tissue fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair
REF: p. 186
121. The death of melanocytes in the hair follicle of older people causes the hair to turn gray. ANS: T TOP: Melanin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 189
122. Permanent tattoos are made by injecting pigments into the epidermis of the skin, and because
of the regeneration of the epidermis, they become less distinct with age. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Other Pigments
REF: p. 190
123. The germinal matrix is a small mound of dermis that supplies blood to the hair follicle. ANS: F TOP: Hair
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 195
124. The hair follicle serves as a primary location of adult stem cells for skin cells like
melanocytes. ANS: T TOP: Hair
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 195
125. Toenails and fingernails grow at the rate of about 0.5 mm a week, but they grow faster in the
winter than they do in the summer. ANS: F TOP: Nails
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 197
MATCHING
Match each layer of the epidermis with its corresponding characteristics. a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum lucidum c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum spinosum e. Stratum basale 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
A single layer of columnar cells that undergo mitosis Most superficial layer of the epidermis; composed of very thin squamous cells Layer in which the process of keratinization begins; the cells are filled with keratohyalin Contains cells rich in ribonucleic acid and has prominent intercellular bridges or desmosomes Layer that is absent in thin skin; cells are filled with a gel-like substance called eleidin
1. ANS: E TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 185
2. ANS: A TOP: Cell Layers 3. ANS: C TOP: Cell Layers 4. ANS: D TOP: Cell Layers 5. ANS: B TOP: Cell Layers
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 185
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 183
Match each term with its definition or description. a. Keratinocytes b. Hypodermis c. Papillary layer d. Pheomelanin e. Melanocytes f. Arrector pili muscles g. Eumelanin h. Dendritic cells i. Albinism j. Reticular layer 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Skin cells that play a role in immunity Make colored pigment for the skin Also called the superficial fascia Dermis layer made of dense white collagen fibers Darkest of the melanin pigments Structure attached to hair that can lift it and causes goose bumps A genetic condition that causes the inability to produce melanin Most important cell in the epidermis; makes up about 90% of it Dermis layer that forms fingerprints Pigment that produces a red-orange color
6. ANS: H DIF: TOP: Cell Types 7. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Cell Types 8. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Hypodermis 9. ANS: J DIF: TOP: Reticular Layer 10. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Melanin 11. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Reticular Layer 12. ANS: I DIF: TOP: Melanin 13. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Cell Types 14. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Papillary Layer
Memorization
REF: p. 182
Memorization
REF: p. 182
Memorization
REF: p. 187
Memorization
REF: p. 186
Memorization
REF: p. 188
Memorization
REF: p. 186
Memorization
REF: p. 189
Memorization
REF: p. 182
Memorization
REF: p. 186
15. ANS: D TOP: Melanin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 188
Match each term with its description or definition. a. Hair papilla b. Radiation c. Apocrine gland d. Lanugo e. Convection f. Germinal matrix g. Sebaceous gland h. Eccrine gland i. Conduction j. Ceruminous gland Transfer of heat between two surfaces without actual contact Most numerous gland of the skin; produces a transparent, watery liquid Soft, fine hair that covers the fetus Cup-shaped cluster of cells in the hair follicle Transfer of heat from one surface to another because of contact with each other Gland that secretes oil for hair and skin Small mound of dermis in the hair follicle Skin gland found in the armpits and the areola of the breast that produces a viscous and colored secretion 24. Movement of heat away from the body caused by air movement or dissipation of heated fluid particles 25. Gland that forms the brown waxy material used to protect the ear canal 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.
16. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Heat Loss 17. ANS: H DIF: TOP: Sweat Glands 18. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Hair 19. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Hair 20. ANS: I DIF: TOP: Heat Loss 21. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Sebaceous Glands 22. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Hair 23. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Sweat Glands 24. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Heat Loss 25. ANS: J DIF: TOP: Ceruminous Glands OTHER
Memorization
REF: p. 193
Memorization
REF: p. 197
Memorization
REF: p. 195
Memorization
REF: p. 195
Memorization
REF: p. 193
Memorization
REF: p. 198
Memorization
REF: p. 195
Memorization
REF: p. 198
Memorization
REF: p. 194
Memorization
REF: p. 199
1. Name and describe what occurs in the cells in each of the layers of the epidermis. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 181
TOP: Cell Layers
2. Explain how the involvement of desmosomes in a blister is a good example of the relationship
between structure and function at the chemical level of organization. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 185
TOP: Blisters
3. Name and describe the pigments in the skin. Which pigment is more protective against
ultraviolet radiation? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 188
TOP: Skin Color
4. Differentiate among first-, second-, and third-degree burns. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 202
TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area
5. Explain the role of the blood vessels in the skin in the homeostatic regulation of heat loss in
the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 194
TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss
6. Name and explain the methods of heat loss discussed in this chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 193
TOP: Heat Loss
7. Explain the protection function of the skin, and include the role of the surface film. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 190
TOP: Functions of the Skin
8. Describe the formation of hair, and describe the parts of a hair follicle. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 195
TOP: Development of Hair
9. Describe the structure of fingernails, and describe how they grow and their rate of growth. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 196
TOP: Nails
10. Name the two types of sweat glands. Explain the difference in their location in the body and
the substance they produce. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 197
TOP: Sweat Glands
11. Where are the sebaceous glands located? What do they produce, and what are the properties or
functions of the secretion? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 198
TOP: Sebaceous Glands
12. Explain the two ways in which body surface area can be estimated. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area
REF: p. 202
ESSAY 1. The process of digesting food requires work from the body. Why would you expect the body
temperature to rise slightly after eating a big meal? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 193
TOP: Heat Production
2. In hospitals, frequently a sensor is put over one fingernail to determine whether the patient’s
blood is properly oxygenated. Explain why this evaluation is possible.
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 196
TOP: Nails
Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A fracture in the shaft of a bone is a break in the: a. epiphysis. b. periosteum. c. diaphysis. d. articular cartilage. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 211
TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
2. Endosteum can be found: a. lining the medullary cavity. b. covering bones. c. at articular surfaces. d. lining the epiphysis. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
REF: p. 212
3. Muscle tendon fibers attach to bone by interlacing with: a. compact bone. b. ligaments. c. periosteum. d. endosteum. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
REF: p. 212
4. The organic matrix of bone consists of: a. collagenous fibers. b. protein. c. polysaccharides. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix
REF: pp. 213-214
5. In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the: a. osteoblasts. b. osteocytes. c. osteoclasts. d. chondrocytes. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 216
TOP: Types of Bone Cells
6. The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: a. osteocytes. b. osteoclasts.
c. osteoblasts. d. osteomorphytes. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bone Cells
REF: p. 216
7. Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bones? a. Mineral storage b. Protection c. Hormonal production d. Hematopoiesis ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Bone
REF: p. 210
8. The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: a. mitochondria and Golgi apparatus. b. ribosomes and Golgi apparatus. c. endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes. d. endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. ANS: D DIF: Application TOP: Intramembranous Ossification
REF: pp. 219-220
9. The osteon, or haversian, system: a. delivers nutrients to and removes waste products from bone cells. b. produces yellow marrow. c. resists stress. d. erodes bone. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone
REF: p. 214
10. In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: a. development of a core layer of spongy bone. b. development of compact bone in long bones. c. addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones. d. lengthening of long bone. ANS: C DIF: Application TOP: Intramembranous Ossification
REF: pp. 219-220
11. Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: a. osteoclasts. b. osteocytes. c. yellow bone marrow. d. red bone marrow. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Bone 12. The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: a. in the diaphysis.
REF: p. 210
b. in the epiphysis. c. in the medullary cavity. d. at the epiphyseal cartilage. ANS: A
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 211
TOP: Endochondral Ossification
13. The major purpose of the epiphyseal plate is: a. mending of fractures. b. enlarging of epiphyses. c. providing strength in long bones. d. lengthening long bones. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Endochondral Ossification
REF: p. 220
14. The first step in healing a fracture is: a. the formation of specialized callus. b. the formation of a fracture hematoma. c. proper alignment of the fracture. d. the formation of a collar of normal bone covering the broken ends. ANS: B
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 224
TOP: Repair of Bone Fractures
15. Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. a. 20 and 25 b. 25 and 30 c. 30 and 35 d. 35 and 40 ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone Remodeling
REF: p. 223
16. In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: a. osteoclasts. b. osteocytes. c. osteoblasts. d. chondrocytes. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone Remodeling
REF: p. 223
17. The most abundant type of cartilage is: a. hyaline. b. elastic. c. fibrocartilage. d. All of the above are present in approximately equal amounts. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Cartilage 18. The form of the external ear is composed of: a. fibrocartilage. b. elastic cartilage.
REF: p. 225
c. osseous tissue. d. hyaline cartilage. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Elastic Cartilage
REF: pp. 225-226
19. In young children, vitamin A and protein deficiency will: a. cause an increase in the thickness of epiphyseal plates in the growing long bones. b. cause a decrease in the thickness of epiphyseal plates in the growing long bones. c. produce the same alterations of the epiphyseal plate as does vitamin D deficiency. d. have no effect on the epiphyseal plate but will cause an increase in bone marrow
production. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilage and Nutritional Deficiencies
REF: p. 227
20. Which of the following substances is not part of the inorganic matrix of bone? a. Magnesium b. Collagen c. Sodium d. Fluoride ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix
REF: p. 213
21. As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: a. level of calcium in the blood increases. b. amount of calcium in bone increases. c. level of calcium in the blood decreases. d. Both B and C occur. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 218 TOP: Regulation of Blood Calcium Levels 22. As the activity of osteoclasts increases, the: a. level of calcium in the blood increases. b. amount of calcium in bone increases. c. level of calcium in the blood decreases. d. Both B and C occur. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 218 TOP: Regulation of Blood Calcium Levels 23. Sesamoid bones are classified as _____ bones. a. long b. short c. irregular d. flat ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones
REF: p. 211
24. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis?
a. b. c. d.
Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle Hollow Composed of compact bone All of the above are characteristics of the diaphysis.
ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 211
TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? a. Made of spongy bone b. Cylindrical in shape c. Contain red bone marrow d. All of the above are characteristics of the epiphyses. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 211-212
TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
26. Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood? a. Blood clotting b. Transmission of nerve impulses c. Contraction of cardiac muscle d. All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Blood Calcium Levels
REF: p. 218
27. The parathyroid hormone causes all of the following except: a. increase of the absorption of calcium by the kidney. b. stimulation of the activity of osteoblasts. c. stimulation of the activity of osteoclasts. d. stimulation of vitamin D synthesis. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
REF: p. 218
28. Which of the following is true of bone but not of cartilage? a. It is classified as a connective tissue. b. It has collagen fibers in its matrix. c. Canals link blood vessels and cells. d. Cells lie in lacunae. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 225
TOP: Types of Cartilage
29. Which of the following is not made of hyaline cartilage? a. External ear b. Cartilage rings in the trachea c. Cartilage connecting the ribs and sternum d. Cartilage in the tip of the nose ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 225
30. Which of the following is not made of elastic cartilage? a. External ear b. Tip of the nose c. Epiglottis
TOP: Hyaline Cartilage
d. Eustachian tubes ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 225-226
TOP: Elastic Cartilage
31. Which type of bone consists only of compact bone? a. Long b. Short c. Irregular d. All types of bones are composed of both compact and spongy bone. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones
REF: p. 214
32. Cancellous bone is another term for a(n) _____ bone. a. irregular b. spongy c. short d. compact ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones
REF: p. 214
33. The humerus is an example of a(n) _____ bone. a. long b. short c. flat d. irregular ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones
REF: p. 211
34. A vertebral bone is an example of a(n) _____ bone. a. long b. short c. flat d. irregular ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones
REF: p. 211
35. The tarsal bones are examples of _____ bones. a. long b. short c. flat d. irregular ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones 36. The scapula is an example of a(n) _____ bone. a. long b. short c. flat
REF: p. 211
d. irregular ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones
REF: p. 211
37. The matrix of bone consists of: a. mostly organic material with a lesser amount of inorganic salts. b. almost equal amounts of organic material and inorganic salts. c. mostly inorganic salts with a lesser amount of organic material. d. greatly varying proportions of organic and inorganic material depending on the
location and function of the bone. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix
REF: p. 213
38. Hydroxyapatite crystals constitute about how much of the total inorganic matrix? a. 65% b. 75% c. 85% d. 95% ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix
REF: p. 213
39. What condition results in vitamin D deficiency in children? a. Rickets b. Osteomalacia c. Osteoporosis d. Both A and B ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic Bone Disease
REF: p. 227
40. Lengthwise-running central canals are connected to each other by transverse-running: a. haversian canals. b. Volkmann canals. c. canaliculi. d. lacunae. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone
REF: p. 214
41. As the amount of calcitonin in the blood increases, the amount of calcium: a. in the blood increases. b. released from the bone increases. c. in the blood decreases. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 218
42. A person with a diet rich in calcium would probably have a: a. low level of calcitonin. b. low level of parathyroid hormone.
TOP: Calcitonin
c. high level of calcitonin. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 218 TOP: Mechanisms of Calcium Homeostasis 43. Which type of bone is found in a tendon? a. Irregular bone b. Long bone c. Sesamoid bone d. Short bone ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones
REF: p. 211
44. The concentric, cylinder-shaped layers of calcified bone matrix are called: a. lacunae. b. canaliculi. c. central canal. d. lamellae. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone
REF: p. 214
45. The small spaces in the matrix that contain the bone cells are called: a. lacunae. b. canaliculi. c. central canal. d. lamellae. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone
REF: p. 214
46. Diploë can be found: a. in the diaphysis of a compact bone. b. in the middle of spongy bone. c. in the epiphysis of compact bone. d. connecting parallel osteons in spongy bone. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cancellous Bone
REF: p. 214
47. In the epiphyseal plate, the proliferating zone is in the _____ layer. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Endochondral Ossification
REF: p. 221
48. In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the _____ layer. a. first
b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Endochondral Ossification
REF: p. 221
49. Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? a. Iron b. Calcium c. Phosphorus d. Both A and B ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Bone
REF: p. 210
50. The small tubes in the osteon that bring nutrients and oxygen to the osteocytes are called: a. canaliculi. b. lacunae. c. lamellae. d. diploë. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone
REF: p. 214
TRUE/FALSE 1. The epiphyses consist mostly of compact bone, usually with yellow marrow in the center. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
REF: pp. 211-212
2. Bone tissue is also called osseous tissue. ANS: T TOP: Bone Tissue
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 213
3. Bone tissue consists mostly of cells dispersed in a limited amount of matrix. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 213
TOP: Bone Tissue
4. The periosteum is a dense, white, fibrous membrane that covers bone except at joint surfaces. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
REF: p. 212
5. Flat bones differ from short bones in that flat bones have an inner portion of cancellous bone
covered on the outside with compact bone. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 212-213 TOP: Parts of a Flat Bone and Other Bones
6. Hydroxyapatite consists of highly specialized chemical crystals of calcium and phosphate. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 213
TOP: Bone Tissue
7. The tensile strength of bone is nearly equal to that of cast iron, but much lighter. ANS: T TOP: Bone Tissue
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 213
8. The hardness of bone is related to its two major mineral components—calcium and iron. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 213
TOP: Bone Tissue
9. Haversian systems are found only in compact bone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cancellous Bone
REF: p. 214
10. The strength of bone is increased by the arrangement of trabeculae. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 214
TOP: Cancellous Bone
11. Haversian systems are found only in cancellous bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cancellous Bone
REF: p. 214
12. Osteoclasts are nondividing osteoblasts that have become surrounded by matrix and lie within
lacunae. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 216
TOP: Types of Bone Cells
13. In an infant’s or child’s body, virtually all of the bones contain yellow marrow. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 217
TOP: Bone Marrow
14. Osteogenesis involves the combined action of osteoblasts and osteoclasts. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Development of Bone
REF: p. 219
15. The homeostasis of blood calcium is maintained by its moving into and out of bone tissue. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 218 TOP: Regulation of Blood Calcium Levels 16. Red marrow is found only in long bones. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 217
17. Most bones of the body are formed from cartilage models.
TOP: Bone Marrow
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Endochondral Ossification
REF: p. 219
18. During childhood and adolescence, ossification and bone resorption occur at equal rates. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone Remodeling
REF: p. 222
19. Variations in the amount of ossification and resorption of bone tissue are age dependent. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 222
TOP: Bone Remodeling
20. Throughout life, ossification and resorption continue to occur concurrently. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone Remodeling
REF: p. 222
21. Weight-bearing exercises will tend to increase the likelihood of osteoporosis in the elderly. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 224
TOP: Exercise and Bone Density
22. Callus tissue binds the broken ends of a fractured bone. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 224
TOP: Repair of Bone Fractures
23. Both cartilage and bone contain living cells and are vascular tissues. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 225
TOP: Types of Cartilage
24. A major difference between bone tissue and cartilage is the makeup of the matrix. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 225
TOP: Types of Cartilage
25. The type of cartilage growth most prevalent in childhood and early adolescence is interstitial
or endogenous growth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Growth of Cartilage
REF: p. 226
26. Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes in the deep layer of the
perichondrium begin to divide and secrete additional matrix. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Growth of Cartilage
REF: p. 226
27. The occurrence of osteoporosis seems to be related to age and gender. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 227
TOP: Metabolic Bone Disease
28. Osteoporosis occurs more often in elderly women than in males. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 227
TOP: Metabolic Bone Disease
29. Interstitial growth of cartilage most often occurs during adulthood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Growth of Cartilage
REF: p. 226
30. In young children, vitamin A and protein deficiency can cause a decrease in the thickness of
epiphyseal plates in the growing long bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilage and Nutritional Deficiencies
REF: p. 227
31. Myeloid tissue is another name for bone marrow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone Marrow
REF: p. 217
32. Bones are the organs of the skeletal system. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 210
33. Another name for compact bone is cancellous bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones
REF: p. 211
34. Because each bone has a specific function, it is made of either all compact or all spongy bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones
REF: p. 211
35. The bones of the skull and the ribs are examples of flat bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones
REF: p. 211
36. The region between the epiphyses and the diaphysis in a mature bone is called the metaphysis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
REF: p. 212
37. Articular cartilage can be defined as a layer of elastic cartilage that covers the joint surface. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
REF: p. 212
38. The endosteum usually surrounds yellow marrow in an adult. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 212
TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
39. The periosteum is a connective tissue membrane that lines the medullary cavity.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
REF: p. 212
40. Part of the bone matrix is made of inorganic substances. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix
REF: p. 213
41. An important part of the bone matrix is a mixture of protein and polysaccharide called ground
substance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix
REF: p. 213
42. Chondroitin sulfate is an important compound in ground substance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Organic Matrix
REF: p. 214
43. The components of the inorganic matrix maintain the smooth surface and springy consistency
of the bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organic Matrix
REF: p. 213
44. The terms haversian system and osteon are interchangeable. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone
REF: p. 214
45. Lamellae and lacunae are interchangeable terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone
REF: p. 214
46. Transverse canals are located in the center of the osteon. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone
REF: p. 214
47. Both compact and spongy, or cancellous, bone have canaliculi. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone, Cancellous Bone
REF: p. 214
48. The layer of cancellous bone between two layers of compact bone is called diploë. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cancellous Bone
REF: p. 214
49. Without the canaliculi, the bone cells in compact bone would die of starvation and lack of
oxygen. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 214
TOP: Compact Bone
50. Osteoblasts secrete the inorganic salts that make up the structure of bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bone Cells
REF: p. 216
51. Osteoclasts are large, multinucleate cells that erode bone minerals. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bone Cells
REF: p. 216
52. Canaliculi are small openings in the lamella where bone cells are found. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone
REF: p. 214
53. In an adult who is anemic or has been exposed to radiation or toxic chemicals, yellow bone
marrow can become red bone marrow again. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone Marrow
REF: p. 217
54. Parathyroid hormone is released when blood calcium levels are too high. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
REF: p. 218
55. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin are of equal importance in regulating the calcium level of
the blood. ANS: F TOP: Calcitonin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 218
56. Calcitonin is released when the blood calcium levels are too high. ANS: T TOP: Calcitonin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 218
57. Because of repeated wear and tear, athletes and dancers tend to have less dense bones than
people who exercise less often. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Development of Bone
REF: p. 219
58. Both membrane and endochondral bone grow by interior expansion. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Intramembranous Ossification
REF: p. 219
59. Initially, endochondral bone grows from the epiphyses toward the diaphysis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Endochondral Ossification
REF: p. 220
60. Because bone is connective tissue, a fractured bone will never heal and be as strong as before
the fracture. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Bone Fractures
REF: p. 224
61. Short bones are made up of only spongy bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Flat Bone and Other Bones
REF: pp. 212-213
62. The blood-making function of bone is carried out by yellow marrow or myeloid tissue in the
medullary cavity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Bone
REF: p. 210
63. The inorganic salts that make up the bone matrix are equally divided between hydroxyapatite
and calcium carbonate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix
REF: p. 213
64. Chondroitin is an amino sugar that is important in cartilage formation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Cartilage
REF: p. 225
65. The term woven bone is used to describe new bone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone Remodeling
REF: p. 222
66. Hyaline cartilage is the most common type of cartilage in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Cartilage
REF: p. 225
67. Sesamoid bones develop in tendons near a joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones
REF: p. 211
68. The patella or kneecap is the only sesamoid bone ever found in the human body. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 211
TOP: Types of Bones
69. The endosteum is necessary for bone healing and bone remodeling. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
REF: p. 212
70. Most of the matrix in bone is composed of inorganic rather than organic material. ANS: T TOP: Bone Tissue
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 213
71. There are more than 200 bones in the human body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones
REF: p. 210
72. The compact bone that is superficial to the diploë in the skull is called the external table. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 213
TOP: Parts of a Flat Bone
73. Internal table is the term used to describe the spongy bone on the interior of the skull. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Flat Bone
REF: p. 213
74. All the lamellae in compact bone are found to be part of the osteon. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone
REF: p. 214
75. The inner circumferential lamellae can be found directly under the periosteum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Compact Bone
REF: p. 214
76. The body contains more spongy bone than it does compact bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cancellous Bone
REF: p. 214
77. When cancellous bone is put under mechanical stress, it responds by remodeling its trabeculae
in a different direction and by increasing their diameter. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone Remodeling
REF: p. 222
78. When a compact bone is put under mechanical stress, it responds by forming wider osteons to
help better distribute the stress. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone Remodeling
REF: p. 222
79. One function of bone is to provide a place to make blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Bone
REF: p. 210
80. One function of bone is to store calcium and phosphorus for the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Bone
REF: p. 210
81. Parathyroid hormone affects not only bone cells but also cells of the kidney. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
REF: p. 218
82. Calcitonin is a protein hormone produced by the pituitary gland that helps regulate blood
calcium levels. ANS: F TOP: Calcitonin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 218
83. The epiphyseal plate is composed of three layers of cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Endochondral Ossification
REF: p. 220
84. After birth, the amount of cartilage in the body increases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Cartilage
REF: p. 225
85. The type of cartilage found in the symphysis pubis is fibrocartilage. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Cartilage
REF: p. 226
86. The cartilage rings in the trachea and the tip of the nose are elastic cartilage. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Cartilage
REF: p. 225
87. Although bones are the main organs of the skeletal system, the system also includes ligaments
and tendons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Bone
REF: p. 210
88. Because bone building and bone resorption must be balanced, there are usually an equal
number of osteoblasts and osteoclasts in a bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bone Cells
REF: p. 216
89. The thyroid gland produces the parathyroid hormone, which is the major regulator of blood
calcium homeostasis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
REF: p. 218
90. One effect of parathyroid hormone is stimulation of vitamin D activity to increase absorption
of calcium by the intestines. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
REF: p. 218
91. Parathyroid hormone stimulates the activity of osteoclasts in the bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
REF: p. 218
92. Both growth hormone and the neurotransmitter serotonin can stimulate bone growth. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Other Mechanisms
REF: p. 218
93. Osteoblasts themselves are able to monitor extracellular calcium levels. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Other Mechanisms
REF: p. 218
94. Due to continuous stress on the bone, athletes and dancers tend to have less dense bones than
do more sedentary people. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Development of Bone
REF: p. 219
95. The growth of intramembranous bone begins with the formation of a cluster of osteoblasts
called ossification centers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Intramembranous Ossification
REF: p. 219
96. In endochondral ossification, the primary ossification centers are found in the epiphyses and
the secondary ossification centers are found in the diaphysis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Endochondral Ossification
REF: p. 220
97. The fracture hematoma is the last stage in the healing of a bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Bone Fractures
REF: p. 224
98. One function of cartilage is to act as a shock-absorbing pad between bones.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Function of Cartilage
REF: p. 226
MATCHING
Match each bone structure with its corresponding description. a. Periosteum b. Endosteum c. Epiphyses d. Diaphysis e. Medullary cavity f. Articular cartilage 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Thin membrane that lines a large cavity in long bones Covers joint surfaces Part of long bone to which tendons attach Location of spongy bone in a long bone Tubelike hollow space in long bones Central shaft of long bones
1. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone 2. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone 3. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone 4. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone 5. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone 6. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
REF: p. 212 REF: p. 212 REF: p. 212 REF: pp. 211-212 REF: p. 212 REF: p. 211
Match each microscopic bone structure with its corresponding description. a. Lacunae b. Central canal c. Canaliculi d. Trabeculae e. Lamellae f. Transverse canal 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Little canals that connect areas of bone cells Concentric rings of compact bone Cavities in which bone cells are found Contains blood vessels in living bone Bone cells are found here in cancellous bone Canals that connect parallel central canals
7. ANS: C
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 214
8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
TOP: Compact Bone ANS: E DIF: TOP: Compact Bone ANS: A DIF: TOP: Compact Bone ANS: B DIF: TOP: Compact Bone ANS: D DIF: TOP: Cancellous Bone ANS: F DIF: TOP: Compact Bone
Memorization
REF: p. 214
Memorization
REF: p. 214
Memorization
REF: p. 214
Memorization
REF: p. 214
Memorization
REF: p. 214
Match each bone type with its corresponding description. a. Irregular bones b. Flat bones c. Sesamoid bones d. Short bones e. Long bones 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
Often described as cube-shaped or box-shaped Bones that are found in tendons; the patella is an example Often clustered in groups and come in various sizes and shapes; vertebrae are an example Easily identified by their extended longitudinal axis; the femur is an example Generally broad and thin with a flattened or curved surface; ribs are an example
13. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Types of Bones 14. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Types of Bones 15. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Types of Bones 16. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Types of Bones 17. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Types of Bones
Memorization
REF: p. 211
Memorization
REF: p. 211
Memorization
REF: p. 211
Memorization
REF: p. 211
Memorization
REF: p. 211
OTHER 1. List the six structures of long bones that are visible to the naked eye. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 211-212
TOP: Parts of a Long Bone
2. Describe the two chemical components of the extracellular bone matrix. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 213
TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix
3. Compare and contrast osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 216
TOP: Types of Bone Cells
4. Describe the varying degrees of bone formation (ossification) and bone destruction
(resorption) that occur from childhood to adulthood. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 222
TOP: Bone Remodeling
5. Name the types of bone found in the body, and give an example of each type. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 211
TOP: Types of Bones
6. Name and describe the parts of the osteon. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 214
TOP: Compact Bone
7. Name and describe the functions of bone. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 210
TOP: Functions of Bone
8. Explain all the ways parathyroid hormone helps to increase blood calcium levels. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 218
TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
9. Where is the epiphyseal plate located? What is the function of the epiphyseal plate? Describe
the layers that make up the epiphyseal plate. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 220
TOP: Endochondral Ossification
10. Explain the steps in the healing of a bone fracture. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 224
TOP: Repair of Bone Fractures
11. Name, describe, and give the location of the different types of cartilage found in the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 225
TOP: Types of Cartilage
ESSAY 1. Dr. Haney, an orthopedic surgeon, called the admissions office of a hospital and advised that
he would be admitting a patient with an epiphyseal fracture. Without any other information, the patient was assigned to the pediatric floor. What prompted this assignment? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 220
TOP: Endochondral Ossification
2. Emma, an elderly white woman, noticed that she was half an inch shorter than she was at her
last doctor’s visit. Her doctor suggested that she begin a regimen of dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D. What bone disease did the doctor suspect? What would the prescribed treatment do for this condition? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 227
TOP: Metabolic Bone Disease
3. Explain how the body regulates the calcium level in the blood. Discuss the activities of both
hormones involved and where each is made. What problems might occur in the body if the calcium level were too low? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 218
TOP: Mechanisms of Calcium Homeostasis
4. Growth hormone can be given to people to increase their height. This requires rapid bone
growth. If a young adult wants to be given growth hormone, x-ray films will be taken of his or her skeleton. What is the physician looking for, and how would it affect the decision to give or withhold growth hormone? ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 220
TOP: Endochondral Ossification
Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is not a part of the axial skeleton? a. Rib b. Vertebral column c. Mandible d. Clavicle ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
REF: p. 236
2. Which is not a part of the appendicular skeleton? a. Coxal bones b. Parietal bones c. Radius d. Clavicle ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
REF: p. 236
3. The axial skeleton consists of _____ bones. a. 60 b. 68 c. 74 d. 80 ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
REF: p. 236
4. The appendicular skeleton consists of _____ bones. a. 102 b. 118 c. 126 d. 137 ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
REF: p. 236
5. The term sinus, as it relates to bone markings, can be defined as a: a. raised area or projection. b. cavity within a bone. c. tubelike opening or channel. d. groove or elongated depression. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings 6. Which bone is a part of the axial skeleton?
REF: p. 236
a. b. c. d.
Rib Clavicle Radius Coxal bone
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
REF: p. 236
7. Which bone is a part of the appendicular skeleton? a. Scapula b. Vertebra c. Parietal d. Mandible ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
REF: p. 236
8. Which suture is between the occipital and parietal bones? a. Squamous b. Lambdoid c. Sagittal d. Coronal ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 248
9. Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a sinus within which bone(s)? a. Maxillae b. Frontal c. Sphenoid d. Temporal ANS: D TOP: Mastoiditis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 248
10. Which skull bone articulates with the first vertebra? a. Temporal b. Occipital c. Sphenoid d. Ethmoid ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 249
11. The upper parts of the nasal septum and the side walls of the nasal cavity are formed by which
bone(s)? a. Nasal b. Sphenoid c. Ethmoid d. Maxillae ANS: C
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 249
TOP: Cranial Bones
12. Which of the following is a true statement? a. The ethmoid is a flat bone that lies anterior to the sphenoid. b. The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies posterior to the sphenoid but anterior to
the nasal bones. c. The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies anterior to the sphenoid but posterior to
the nasal bones. d. The ethmoid is a short bone that lies anterior to the nasal bones. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 249
13. Which of the following bones does not articulate with the maxillae? a. Palatine b. Mandible c. Inferior concha d. Zygomatic ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
14. If the cribriform plate is damaged, there is a chance of: a. infectious materials passing from the ear to the brain. b. food passing from the mouth into the nose. c. difficulty chewing. d. infectious materials passing from the nose to the brain. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 250
TOP: Cribriform Plate
15. A fontanel can best be described as a(n): a. bone in the skull. b. unossified area in the infant’s skull. c. articulation between two skull bones. d. small opening. ANS: B TOP: Fetal Skull
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 252-253
16. The upper part of the sternum is called the: a. costal cartilage. b. xiphoid process. c. body. d. manubrium. ANS: D TOP: Sternum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 258
17. The skeletal framework of the neck consists of _____ vertebrae. a. lumbar b. thoracic c. sacral d. cervical ANS: D
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 255
TOP: Vertebral Column 18. The number of thoracic vertebrae is: a. 5. b. 7. c. 10. d. 12. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Vertebral Column
REF: p. 255
19. All vertebrae except the sacrum and coccyx have a central opening called the: a. spinous process. b. vertebral foramen. c. dens. d. transverse process. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Vertebral Column
REF: p. 255
20. The thoracic cage (the thorax) includes all of the following bones except: a. the scapula. b. 12 pairs of ribs. c. the vertebral column. d. the sternum. ANS: A
DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 258-259
TOP: Ribs
21. Which of the following bones is not a part of the face? a. Frontal b. Zygomatic c. Lacrimal d. Maxilla ANS: A TOP: Skull
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 250
22. Which of the following bones does not contain paranasal sinuses? a. Frontal b. Maxilla c. Zygomatic d. Sphenoid ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 249
23. The occipital bone forms how many joints with other bones? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 249
TOP: Cranial Bones
24. The largest of the paranasal sinuses is found in which bone? a. Sphenoid b. Maxilla c. Ethmoid d. Frontal ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
25. Another name for the zygomatic bone is the: a. malar. b. sphenoid. c. ethmoid. d. sesamoid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
26. Going from superior to inferior, the sequence of the vertebral column is: a. sacral, coccyx, thoracic, lumbar, and cervical. b. coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. c. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx. d. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 255
TOP: Vertebral Column
27. The structure that furnishes the axis for the rotation of the head from side to side is the: a. dens. b. spinous process. c. vertebral foramen. d. transverse process. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Vertebral Column
REF: p. 255
28. The adult skeleton is composed of _____ bones. a. 206 b. 126 c. 80 d. 260 ANS: A TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 233
29. The bones of the middle ear are: a. considered part of the appendicular skeleton. b. considered part of the axial skeleton. c. not included in either group. d. There are no bones in the middle ear; it is composed only of cartilage. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
REF: p. 234
30. The two bones of the face that are not paired are the: a. maxilla and mandible. b. maxilla and vomer. c. nasal and maxilla. d. mandible and vomer. ANS: D TOP: Skull
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 242
31. The palatine bone: a. makes up the side of the skull. b. completes the nasal septum. c. makes up part of the hard palate. d. makes up none of the above. ANS: C TOP: Eye Orbits
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 251
32. What is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with another bone? a. Vomer b. Palatine c. Ethmoid d. Hyoid ANS: D TOP: Hyoid Bone
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 253
33. The dens is part of the: a. sacrum. b. cervical vertebrae. c. lumbar vertebrae. d. thoracic vertebrae. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Vertebral Column
REF: p. 255
34. The number of true pairs of ribs in the body is: a. 7. b. 12. c. 5. d. 3. ANS: A TOP: Ribs
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 259-260
35. The sphenoid bone acts as the keystone for the cranium. Which bone acts as the keystone for
the face? a. Mandible b. Zygomatic c. Maxilla d. Nasal
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
36. Which of the following is not associated with the vertebral column? a. Spinous process b. Vertebral foramen c. Dens d. All of the above are associated with the vertebral column. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Vertebral Column
REF: p. 255
37. The blunt cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum is called the: a. body. b. xiphoid process. c. manubrium. d. costal cartilage. ANS: B TOP: Sternum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 258
38. The floating ribs articulate with the: a. vertebrae. b. sternum. c. costal cartilage. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 259-260
TOP: Ribs
39. Which bone marking can be defined as a depression in a bone and often receives an
articulating bone? a. Trochanter b. Fossa c. Foramen d. Ramus ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings
REF: p. 236
40. Which bone marking can be defined as a curved portion of the bone? a. Trochanter b. Fossa c. Foramen d. Ramus ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings
REF: p. 236
41. Which bone marking can be defined as a large bump for the attachment of muscles? a. Trochanter b. Fossa c. Foramen d. Ramus
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings
REF: p. 236
42. Which bone marking can be defined as a round hole in the bone through which vessels and
nerves can pass? a. Trochanter b. Fossa c. Foramen d. Ramus ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings
REF: p. 236
43. Which bone makes up the forehead and the anterior part of the calvaria? a. Occipital b. Frontal c. Parietal d. Temporal ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 248
44. The two bones that make up the bulging topside of the cranium are the: a. occipital bones. b. frontal bones. c. parietal bones. d. temporal bones. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 248
45. Which bones make up the lower side of the cranium, part of its floor? a. Occipital b. Frontal c. Parietal d. Temporal ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 248
46. The mandible forms the only movable joint in the skull with the: a. temporal bone. b. maxilla. c. frontal bone. d. zygomatic bone. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
47. The almost paper-thin bone that is shaped and sized similar to a fingernail and lies posterior
and lateral to each nasal bone is the _____ bone. a. zygomatic
b. lacrimal c. sphenoid d. ethmoid ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
48. Which of the following is not found in the eye orbit? a. The eye b. Muscle of the eye c. Lacrimal apparatus d. All of the above are found in the eye orbit. ANS: D TOP: Eye Orbits
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 250
49. Which of the following is not a true comparison of a fetal and adult skull? a. The face is a greater part of the skull in the adult. b. The skull is a larger proportion of the body in the adult. c. The skull of the fetus has fontanels, and the adult skull does not. d. All of the above are true. ANS: B TOP: Fetal Skull
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 252-253
50. Between the manubrium and the xiphoid process is the: a. body of a true rib. b. radius in the arm. c. body of the sternum. d. fibula of the leg. ANS: C TOP: Sternum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 258
TRUE/FALSE 1. The adult skeleton consists of about 206 separate bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal System Introduction
REF: p. 233
2. The term margin, as it relates to bone markings, means a tubelike opening or channel. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
REF: p. 236
3. Bones of the appendicular skeleton form the brain case and vertebral column. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 236
TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
4. The upper extremities and the lower extremities are subdivisions of the axial skeleton.
ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 234
TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
5. Mastoiditis, if untreated, may lead to inflammation of the brain or of its coverings. ANS: T TOP: Mastoiditis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 260
6. The two maxillae together serve as the keystone in the architecture of the face. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
7. The lacrimal bones contain openings for the tear ducts. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 250
TOP: Facial Bones
8. Just as the maxillae do, the mandible starts out as two separate bones. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 250
TOP: Facial Bones
9. Fontanels are immovable joints between skull bones. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 252-253
TOP: Fetal Skull
10. The hyoid is unique in that it is the only bone in the body that does not form a joint with any
other bone. ANS: T TOP: Hyoid Bone
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 253
11. The five sacral vertebrae remain separate until about 40 years of age; at that point they fuse to
form one wedge-shaped bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vertebral Column
REF: p. 255
12. Damage to the cribriform plate may also injure the olfactory nerves and cause a loss of the
sense of smell. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 250
TOP: Cribriform Plate
13. The maxilla and the temporal bone form the only movable joint within the structure of the
face. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
14. The lacrimal bone contains grooves for the paranasal sinuses. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 250
15. An immovable joint in the skull is called a fontanel.
TOP: Facial Bones
ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 248
TOP: Cranial Bones
16. The blunt, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum is called the xiphoid process. ANS: T TOP: Sternum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 258
17. There are five pairs of false ribs. ANS: T TOP: Ribs
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 260
18. The shoulder girdle consists of the sternum, the clavicle, and the scapula. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 236
TOP: Upper Extremity
19. Costal cartilage provides cushions between the bodies of vertebrae. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 258
TOP: Sternum
20. The tubercle of each rib articulates with the vertebra’s body. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 259
TOP: Ribs
21. There are 12 pairs of ribs. ANS: T TOP: Ribs
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 258
22. The floating ribs do not articulate with any other bones. ANS: F TOP: Ribs
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 260
23. The floating ribs do not articulate with any other bones. ANS: F TOP: Ribs
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 260
24. The number of bones in the skeleton is constant from person to person. ANS: F TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 233
25. There are more bones in the appendicular skeleton than in the axial skeleton. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
REF: p. 234
26. Infectious material can accumulate in the air space within the mastoid bone, because it does
not drain into the nose like other sinuses.
ANS: T TOP: Mastoiditis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 260
27. The skull contains more than 25 bones. ANS: T TOP: Skull
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 236
28. The face contains more bones than the cranium. ANS: T TOP: Skull
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 242
29. Most of the facial bones are single (unpaired) bones. ANS: F TOP: Skull
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 242
30. The joint connecting the two parietal bones and the frontal bone is called the coronal suture. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 248
31. The cribriform plate is part of the sphenoid bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cribriform Plate
REF: p. 250
32. The sagittal suture joins the right and left parietal bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 248
33. The dens is found on the first cervical vertebra, or atlas. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vertebral Column
REF: p. 255
34. The dens are found on the second cervical vertebra, or axis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vertebral Column
REF: p. 255
35. The number of thoracic vertebra is the same as the number of ribs. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 255, 260
TOP: Vertebral Column, Ribs
36. The xiphoid process and the manubrium are at opposite ends of the sternum. ANS: T TOP: Sternum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 258
37. The parietal bone is involved in three sutures—the lambdoidal, the squamous, and the
coronal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 248
38. The bones of the skull form only sutures (immovable joints), not movable joints. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
39. Although the mandible seems to be one bone, it is the result of a fusion of two bones in
infancy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
40. The palatine bones have horizontal portions that are part of the hard palate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
41. The vomer bone forms immovable joints with four other bones—the sphenoid, the palatine,
the ethmoid, and the frontal. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
42. False ribs attach only to the thoracic vertebrae. ANS: F TOP: Ribs
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 259-260
43. The frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones are all considered cranial bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 248
44. The maxilla is the largest and strongest bone of the face. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
45. The cheek is shaped by the zygomatic bone underlying it. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Bones
REF: p. 250
46. The skull is divided into two major divisions, the cranium and the brain case. ANS: F TOP: Skull
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 236
47. The top of the skull is also called the calvaria. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 248
48. The frontal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones all contain paranasal sinuses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones
REF: p. 248
49. If you were examining the skull, the sphenoid and occipital bones would be less visible than
the frontal and ethmoid bones. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 248
TOP: Cranial Bones
50. In a newborn, the face is a much smaller part of the skull than it is in an adult. ANS: T TOP: Fetal Skull
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 252
51. The extrinsic muscles of the tongue attach to the base of the mandible. ANS: F TOP: Hyoid Bone
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 253
52. All the bones of the vertebral column have a vertebral foramen except the bones that make up
the coccyx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vertebral Column MATCHING
Match each bone with its location. a. Frontal b. Hyoid c. Mandible d. Maxillae e. Occipital f. Palatine g. Sphenoid h. Temporal i. Zygomatic 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Neck bone Upper jaw Cheek bone Lower jaw Forehead Contains middle and inner ear structures
REF: p. 255
7. Lower, posterior skull bone 8. Bat-shaped skull bone 9. Posterior of hard palate 1. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Hyoid Bone 2. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Facial Bones 3. ANS: I DIF: TOP: Facial Bones 4. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Facial Bones 5. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Cranial Bones 6. ANS: H DIF: TOP: Cranial Bones 7. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Cranial Bones 8. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Cranial Bones 9. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Facial Bones
Memorization
REF: p. 253
Memorization
REF: p. 250
Memorization
REF: p. 250
Memorization
REF: p. 250
Memorization
REF: p. 248
Memorization
REF: p. 248
Memorization
REF: p. 248
Memorization
REF: p. 248
Memorization
REF: p. 250
Match each bone with its corresponding bone marking. a. Ribs b. Sternum c. Vertebrae 10. Xiphoid process 11. Transverse process 12. Costal cartilage 10. ANS: B TOP: Sternum 11. ANS: C 12. ANS: A
DIF: Memorization DIF: Application DIF: Application
REF: p. 258 REF: p. 255 REF: p. 255
TOP: Vertebral Column TOP: Vertebral Column
Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Body b. False ribs c. Floating ribs d. Manubrium e. True rib f. Xiphoid process g. Costal cartilage 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
First seven pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum Eleventh and twelfth ribs, which have no attachment to the sternum Middle part of the sternum Most superior part of the sternum The blunt, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum
18. The five pairs of ribs that do not attach directly to the sternum 19. The material that attaches the rib, directly or indirectly, to the sternum 13. ANS: E 14. ANS: C 15. ANS: A TOP: Sternum 16. ANS: D TOP: Sternum 17. ANS: F TOP: Sternum 18. ANS: B TOP: Ribs 19. ANS: G TOP: Sternum
DIF: Application REF: p. 258 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 258 DIF: Memorization
TOP: Ribs TOP: Ribs REF: p. 258
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 258
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 258
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 258
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 258
Match each bone marking term with its corresponding description. a. Condyle b. Trochanter c. Fossa d. Sinus e. Ramus f. Sulcus g. Foramen h. Fissure 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.
A curved portion of a bone Large bump for muscle attachment Rounded bump; usually fits into a fossa of another bone Long, cracklike hole for blood vessels and nerves Cavity within a bone Depression; often receives an articulating bone A groove or an elongated depression Round hole for blood vessels and nerves
20. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings 21. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings 22. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings 23. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings 24. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings 25. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings 26. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings 27. ANS: G DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 236 REF: p. 236 REF: p. 236 REF: p. 236 REF: p. 236 REF: p. 236 REF: p. 236 REF: p. 236
TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings OTHER 1. Identify the two main divisions of the human skeleton, and list the total number of bones
found in each division. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 234
TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
2. Describe the bones of the skull. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 242
TOP: Skull
3. What is mastoiditis? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 260
TOP: Mastoiditis
4. Explain the clinical significance of the cribriform plate. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 250
TOP: Cribriform Plate
5. Identify the special features of the skull. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 242
TOP: Skull
6. Describe the hyoid bone, including shape, location, and any unique features. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 253
TOP: Hyoid Bone
7. List all the major divisions of the vertebral column, including the number of individual
vertebrae found in each division. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 255
TOP: Vertebral Column
8. Differentiate among true ribs, false ribs, and floating ribs. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 258
TOP: Ribs
9. What is the clinical significance of palpable bony landmarks? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 274
TOP: Palpable Bone Landmarks
ESSAY 1. The text says that 28 bones are in the skull; 8 bones form the cranium, and 14 bones form the
face. That leaves 6 bones unaccounted for. What are these bones, and where are they found? ANS:
Bones of the middle ear, in the temporal bone DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 234
TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton
Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The layman’s name for the clavicle is the: a. collarbone. b. kneecap. c. shinbone. d. elbow. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity
REF: p. 265
2. The trochlea and capitulum can be described as: a. markings on the scapula. b. parts of the proximal end of the ulna. c. distal portions of the humerus. d. metacarpal bones. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 266
TOP: Upper Extremity
3. The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely
movable joint of the: a. elbow. b. shoulder. c. wrist. d. thumb. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 269-270
TOP: Upper Extremity
4. The ulna articulates proximally with the: a. carpal bones. b. humerus. c. scapula. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity
REF: p. 266
5. Metacarpal bones form the framework of the: a. wrist. b. hand. c. ankle. d. foot. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity 6. The pisiform bone can be found in the: a. wrist.
REF: p. 269
b. ankle. c. neck. d. skull. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity
REF: p. 269
7. The structure above the pelvic inlet, which is bordered by muscle in the front and bone along
the sides and back, is called the: a. pelvic brim. b. false pelvis. c. pelvic girdle. d. true pelvis. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Lower Extremity
REF: p. 270
8. The anterior of the pelvic girdle is formed by the: a. sacrum. b. ilium. c. ischium. d. pubis. ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 270
TOP: Lower Extremity
9. During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: a. pelvic outlet. b. symphysis pubis. c. pelvic brim. d. ilium. ANS: A
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 270
TOP: Lower Extremity
10. The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the: a. tibia. b. fibula. c. coxal. d. femur. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Lower Extremity
REF: p. 272
11. A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: a. elbow. b. knee. c. head. d. ankle. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 274
12. Which of the following is not a tarsal bone? a. Cuneiform b. Navicular
TOP: Lower Extremity
c. Scaphoid d. Talus ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 275
TOP: Lower Extremity
13. Which of the following is not true? a. The pubic arch in the male is less than a 90-degree angle. b. The pelvic cavity is narrower in the male than in the female. c. The coccyx is less flexible in the male. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 276 TOP: Skeletal Differences in Men and Women 14. Going from proximal to distal, the bones of the upper extremity are: a. metacarpals, carpals, ulna, and humerus. b. carpals, metacarpals, ulna, and humerus. c. humerus, radius, metacarpals, and carpals. d. humerus, radius, carpals, and metacarpals. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 265
TOP: Upper Extremity
15. Going from proximal to distal, the bones of the lower extremity are: a. femur, tibia, carpals, and metacarpals. b. metacarpals, tarsals, femur, and tibia. c. femur, tibia, tarsals, and metatarsals. d. tarsals, metatarsals, femur, and tibia. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 270
TOP: Lower Extremity
TRUE/FALSE 1. The shoulder girdle consists of only the scapula and the clavicle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity
REF: p. 265
2. The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity
REF: p. 266
3. Palpable bony landmarks are bones that can be touched and identified through the skin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Palpable Bone Landmarks
REF: p. 274
4. The only bone of the wrist that is evident from the outside is the lunate. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 269
5. Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens.
TOP: Upper Extremity
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lower Extremity
REF: p. 272
6. The largest of the bones making up the innominate bone is the ischium. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 270
TOP: Lower Extremity
7. The patella is the largest sesamoid bone in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lower Extremity
REF: p. 274
8. One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of
movement of both the thumb and the big toe. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 275
TOP: Lower Extremity
9. Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified
bone. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Cycle of Life: Skeletal System
REF: p. 278
10. The joint between the scapula and ribs is a fibrocartilage joint. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity
REF: p. 265
11. The olecranon and coronoid fossae are markings of the scapula. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity
REF: pp. 265, 266
12. Only the radius has a direct articulation with the bones of the wrist. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity
REF: p. 266
13. The wrist consists of six irregular carpal bones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity
REF: p. 269
14. The lesser trochanter is a marking of the tibia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lower Extremity
REF: p. 272
15. Both the tibia and fibula articulate with the femur. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 274
TOP: Lower Extremity 16. When the knee is flexed, the patella can be easily distinguished. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lower Extremity
REF: p. 274
17. There are two arches of the foot—one lengthwise and one crosswise. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lower Extremity
REF: p. 275
18. An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 279
19. The two bones of the lower arm are the ulna and radius, and the two bones of the lower leg are
the tibia and fibula. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity, Lower Extremity
REF: pp. 265, 270
20. The thumb has one fewer phalange than the other fingers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity
REF: p. 269
21. The subpubic angle is wider in the male than it is in the female. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal Differences in Men and Women
REF: p. 276
22. The main difference between the male and female skeleton has to do with childbearing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal Differences in Men and Women
REF: p. 276
23. The ulna bone is on the thumb side of the forearm. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper Extremity
REF: p. 266
24. In the lower leg, the tibia is larger than the fibula. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lower Extremity MATCHING
Match each bone with its corresponding bone marking. a. Femur
REF: p. 274
b. c. d. e. f. g. h. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Fibula Humerus Coxal Radius Scapula Tibia Ulna
Olecranon fossa Acetabulum Lateral malleolus Semilunar notch Medial malleolus Glenoid cavity Radial tuberosity Greater trochanter
1. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Upper Extremity 2. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Lower Extremity 3. ANS: B DIF: 4. ANS: H DIF: 5. ANS: G DIF: 6. ANS: F DIF: 7. ANS: E DIF: 8. ANS: A DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 267
Memorization
REF: p. 271
Application Application Application Application Application Application
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 272 p. 268 p. 272 p. 265 p. 268 p. 267
TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:
Lower Extremity Upper Extremity Lower Extremity Upper Extremity Upper Extremity Lower Extremity
OTHER 1. Beginning at the shoulder, name the bones in the upper extremity from proximal to distal. ANS:
Humerus, ulna, radius, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges DIF: Memorization TOP: Bones of the Upper Extremity
REF: p. 265
2. Beginning at the hip, name the bones of the lower extremity from proximal to distal. ANS:
Femur, patella, tibia, fibula, tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges DIF: Memorization TOP: Bones of the Lower Extremity ESSAY
REF: p. 270
1. A 10-year-old boy came into the emergency room with a painful knee joint. He had full range
of motion but was in pain. The attending physician suspected a fracture and ordered an x-ray examination. What was the purpose of the x-ray evaluation? (Do not forget the epiphyseal growth plate.) ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 274
TOP: Sports and Fitness: Chondromalacia Patellae
2. What are the differences between the male and female skeleton that have clinical importance?
Explain your answer. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 276
TOP: Skeletal Differences in Men and Women
Chapter 14: Articulations Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is a true statement? a. Joints can be classified into five major categories. b. The functional classification of joints centers around the type of connective tissue
that joins the bones together. c. The structural classification of joints centers around the type of connective tissue
that joins the bones together. d. The structural classification of joints involves the degree of movement the joint
permits. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Joints
REF: p. 284
2. Which of the following is not an example of a fibrous joint? a. Symphyses b. Sutures c. Syndesmoses d. Gomphoses ANS: A DIF: Application TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses)
REF: p. 284
3. What are the unique joints that occur between the root of a tooth and the alveolar process of
the mandible or maxilla? a. Symphyses b. Syndesmoses c. Gomphoses d. Synchondroses ANS: C TOP: Gomphoses
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 284
4. What are the most movable joints in the body? a. Symphyses b. Synovial c. Syndesmoses d. Synchondroses ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Synovial Joints (Diarthroses)
REF: p. 286
5. In terms of structure, which type of articulation has a joint capsule? a. Fibrous b. Cartilaginous c. Synovial d. Amphiarthrotic
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Synovial Joints (Diarthroses)
REF: p. 286
6. In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? a. Synarthrosis b. Amphiarthrosis c. Diarthrosis d. All joints are movable. ANS: A DIF: Application TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses)
REF: p. 284
7. A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. a. uniaxial b. biaxial c. multiaxial d. immovable ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 288
8. Which joint allows for the widest range of movement? a. Gliding b. Saddle c. Ball and socket d. Hinge ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 289
9. The pads of fibrocartilage located between the articulating ends of bones in some diarthroses
are called: a. ligaments. b. menisci. c. bursae. d. synovial membranes. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 287
10. Menisci are: a. cords of dense, white, fibrous tissue. b. extensions of the periosteum. c. hyaline cartilage cushions. d. fibrocartilage pads. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 11. An example of a hinge joint is(are) the: a. head of the radius articulating with the ulna. b. interphalangeal joints. c. first metacarpal articulating with the trapezium.
REF: p. 287
d. head of the humerus articulating with the scapula. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 287
TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
12. The knee joint is an example of a _____ joint. a. hinge b. ball and socket c. saddle d. gliding ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 287
TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
13. An example of a pivot joint is(are) the: a. head of the radius articulating with the ulna. b. first metacarpal articulating with the trapezium. c. humerus articulating with the scapula. d. interphalangeal joints. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 287
TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
14. The distal end of the radius articulating with the carpal bones is an example of a _____ joint. a. saddle b. gliding c. condyloid (ellipsoidal) d. pivot ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 288
TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
15. Which of the following is an example of a biaxial joint? a. Pivot b. Hinge c. Ball and socket d. Condyloid ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 288
16. A gliding joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. a. uniaxial b. biaxial c. multiaxial d. pivot ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
REF: pp. 288-289
17. Which joint allows for the most movement? a. Gliding b. Saddle c. Ball and socket d. Trochoid ANS: C
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 289
TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
18. Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called: a. adduction. b. abduction. c. flexion. d. extension. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Abduction and Adduction
REF: p. 299
19. Kicking a football is accomplished by: a. pronation. b. adduction. c. extension. d. flexion. ANS: C
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 299
TOP: Angular Movements
REF: p. 299
TOP: Special Movements
20. Moving a part of the body forward is: a. protraction. b. elevation. c. inversion. d. depression. ANS: A
DIF: Application
21. The type of movement that increases the angle between body parts is: a. flexion. b. extension. c. adduction. d. abduction. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 299
TOP: Angular Movements
22. Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: a. plantar flexion. b. dorsiflexion. c. hyperextension. d. abduction. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Plantar Flexion and Dorsiflexion
REF: p. 299
23. The type of movement that occurs when the head is dropped to the shoulder, then to the chest,
to the other shoulder, and toward the back is: a. rotation. b. flexion. c. extension. d. circumduction. ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 299
TOP: Circular Movements
24. Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the
leg, is called: a. dorsiflexion. b. plantar flexion. c. extension. d. pronation. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Angular Movements
REF: p. 299
25. The rotator cuff muscles and tendons form a cufflike arrangement around the _____ joint. a. shoulder b. hip c. knee d. ankle ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 290
TOP: Humeroscapular Joint
26. Vertebral bodies are connected together by the: a. ligamenta flava. b. ligamentum nuchae. c. posterior longitudinal ligament. d. intertransverse ligaments. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 298
TOP: Vertebral Joints
27. The largest and most frequently injured joint is the: a. hip. b. knee. c. shoulder. d. ankle. ANS: B TOP: Knee Joint
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 293
28. Deterioration of the nucleus pulposus results in: a. “housemaid’s knee.” b. total hip replacement. c. osteoporosis. d. a “slipped disk.” ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 298
TOP: Vertebral Joints
29. Rotator cuff surgery is performed quite commonly on professional baseball players, especially
pitchers. Evidently, the throwing motion places enormous stress on the: a. elbow. b. wrist. c. shoulder. d. hip. ANS: C
DIF: Application
30. The glenoid labrum is a:
REF: pp. 289-290
TOP: Humeroscapular Joint
a. b. c. d.
ligament that connects the humerus to the scapula. fibrocartilage that increases the depth of the glenoid cavity. hyaline cartilage cushion in the shoulder joint. bursa.
ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 289-290
TOP: Humeroscapular Joint
31. The condition of “housemaid’s knee” is an inflammation of the: a. menisci. b. cruciate ligaments. c. synovial membrane. d. prepatellar bursa. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 293
TOP: Knee Joint
32. All of the following are noninflammatory joint disorders except: a. dislocation. b. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. c. osteoarthritis. d. All of the above are noninflammatory joint disorders. ANS: B
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 306
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
33. Sutures can be found in the: a. skull and thorax. b. skull and hip bones. c. skull only. d. hip only. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses)
REF: p. 284
34. Gomphoses can be found in the: a. mandible. b. frontal bone. c. maxilla. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Application TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses)
REF: p. 284
35. Synchondroses: a. have hyaline cartilage between articulating bones in a joint. b. are immovable joints. c. are found only in the skull. d. is another term for symphysis. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses)
REF: p. 285
36. The occipital bone fitting into the atlas bone of the vertebrae is an example of a _____ joint. a. pivot b. condyloid
c. saddle d. gomphosis ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 288
37. Which ligament is not part of the hip joint? a. Iliofemoral b. Subacromial c. Ischiofemoral d. Pubofemoral ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Representative Synovial Joints
REF: p. 289
38. The ligamenta flava is located in the: a. shoulder. b. hip. c. knee. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Representative Synovial Joints
REF: p. 290
39. The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the: a. amount of synovial fluid in the joint. b. shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones. c. presence of bursae in the joint. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Types and Range of Movement at Synovial Joints
REF: p. 287
40. The opposite of dorsiflexion is: a. dorsiextension. b. abduction. c. plantar flexion. d. none of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Angular Movements
REF: p. 299
41. The opposite of eversion is: a. protraction. b. depression. c. retraction. d. none of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Special Movements 42. A sprain causes damage to: a. ligaments.
REF: p. 299
b. tendons. c. cartilage. d. all of the above. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 306
43. The joint between the distal ends of the radius and ulna is an example of a _____ joint. a. suture b. gomphosis c. syndesmosis d. synovial ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses)
REF: p. 284
44. The periodontal membrane is associated with which type of joint? a. Gomphosis b. Suture c. Syndesmosis d. Synovial ANS: A TOP: Gomphoses
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 284
45. Which type of joint joins the two pubic bones together? a. Suture b. Synovial c. Synchondrosis d. Symphysis ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses)
REF: p. 285
46. Which of the following structures does not characterize a synovial joint? a. Bursae b. Joint cavity c. Menisci d. All of the above structures characterize a synovial joint. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Synovial Joints (Diarthroses)
REF: p. 286
47. Which of the following structures does not characterize a synovial joint? a. Joint capsule b. Articular cartilage c. Tendon d. All of the above structures characterize a synovial joint. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Synovial Joints (Diarthroses) 48. Saddle joints in the body can be found between the:
REF: p. 286
a. b. c. d.
tibia and the femur. thumb metacarpal and the trapezium in the wrist. humerus and the glenoid fossa. atlas and the occipital bone.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Biaxial Joints
REF: p. 288
49. Which structure of a synovial joint is defined as a closed, pillowlike structure that consists of
a synovial membrane filled with synovial fluid? a. Bursae b. Ligament c. Menisci d. Joint capsule ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 287
50. Which structure of a synovial joint is defined as a sleevelike extension of the periosteum? a. Bursae b. Ligament c. Joint cavity d. Joint capsule ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 287
51. Which structure of a synovial joint is defined as a strong cord of dense, white, fibrous
connective tissue? a. Bursae b. Ligament c. Menisci d. Joint capsule ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 287
52. The olecranon bursa is associated with which joint? a. Hip b. Knee c. Elbow d. Shoulder ANS: C TOP: Elbow Joint
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 290
53. Which of the following ligaments do not support the vertebral joints? a. Anterior longitudinal ligaments b. Ligamenta flava c. Annular ligaments d. All of the above ligaments support the vertebral joints. ANS: C
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 298
TOP: Vertebral Joints 54. The epiphyseal plate between the epiphysis and diaphysis is an example of which type of
joint? a. Suture b. Syndesmosis c. Synchondrosis d. Gomphosis ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Synchondroses
REF: p. 285
55. Which joint allows for a unique movement called opposition? a. Saddle b. Pivot c. Hinge d. Condyloid ANS: A TOP: Saddle Joint
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 288
56. How many bursae are in the knee joint? a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 13 ANS: D TOP: Knee Joint
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 293
57. If a goniometer reads zero, it most likely indicates that the joint: a. is fully flexed. b. is in the anatomical position. c. has been injured and is somewhat dislocated. d. is hyperextended. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Measuring Range of Motion
REF: p. 298
TRUE/FALSE 1. An articulation is a point of contact between bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Articulations Introduction
REF: p. 284
2. Sutures are found only in the skull. ANS: T TOP: Sutures
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 284
3. A symphysis is a joint in which bones are connected by fibrous bands.
ANS: F TOP: Symphyses
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 286
4. Syndesmosis joints have hyaline cartilage at articular surfaces. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 284
TOP: Syndesmoses
5. Synchondrosis joints between the ribs and sternum allow for expansion of the chest cavity
during breathing. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 285
TOP: Synchondroses
6. All synovial joints have an enclosed cavity with a lubricating fluid. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 285
TOP: Synchondroses
7. Extensions of periosteum form a capsule around synovial joints. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 287
TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 287
TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
8. Menisci are found in all synovial joints. ANS: F
DIF: Application
9. Menisci are pillowlike structures formed of synovial membranes filled with synovial fluid. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 287
TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
10. Hinge joints permit adduction and abduction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 287
11. The joint between the metatarsals and the phalanges is a hinge-type joint. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 287
TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
12. A pivot joint is a form of uniaxial joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 287
13. Condyloid (ellipsoidal) joints are biaxial joints in which one bone fits into a depression on
another bone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 288
14. The fibrocartilage pads between the articulating ends of bones may be called menisci. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 287
TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
15. A gliding joint is a form of uniaxial joint. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 289
16. As a group, gliding joints are the least movable of the synovial joints. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 289
17. Circumduction consists of pivoting a bone on its own axis. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 299
TOP: Rotation and Circumduction
18. A goniometer is an instrument used to measure the range of motion of a joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Measuring Range of Motion
REF: p. 298
19. Total hip replacement is the most common orthopedic operation performed on older persons
in the United States. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Joint Replacement
REF: p. 307
20. Eversion turns the sole of the foot outward. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Inversion and Eversion
REF: p. 299
21. When a man sticks out his jaw, he has protracted it. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Protraction and Retraction
REF: p. 299
22. The acetabulum is a deep, cuplike socket, whereas the glenoid cavity is shallow and
saucer-shaped. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 293
TOP: Hip Joint
23. The hip joint permits flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, rotation, and circumduction. ANS: T TOP: Hip Joint
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 293
24. The medial and lateral menisci form cushions for the head of the femur as it articulates with
the acetabulum. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 294
TOP: Knee Joint
25. The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments add stability to the knee joint.
ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 294
TOP: Knee Joint
26. Compared with the knee joint, the hip joint is relatively unprotected by surrounding muscles. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 294
TOP: Knee Joint
27. The hip joint is the largest and most vulnerable joint. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 294
TOP: Knee Joint
28. A “slipped disk” is the result of deterioration of the nucleus pulposus. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 298
TOP: Vertebral Joints
29. The joints between carpal bones are synarthrotic. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 292 TOP: Synovial (Diarthrotic) and Two Cartilaginous (Amphiarthrotic) Joints 30. The type of arthritis associated with intemperate use of alcohol is rheumatoid arthritis. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 306
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
31. An arthroscopy is an examination of joints with x-ray studies. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 306
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
32. A joint must allow movement between two bones to be called a joint. ANS: F TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 284
33. All fibrous joints are completely fixed joints. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses)
REF: p. 284
34. Flexibility of the tendons allows for some movement of syndesmotic joints. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses)
REF: p. 284
35. Fontanels become sutures. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 305 TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses), Skull 36. During childbirth, the hyaline cartilage in the symphysis pubis allows for some slight
movement. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 284
TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses) 37. The “joints” between the epiphyses and diaphysis in a developing bone can be classified as
synchondrosis joints. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses)
REF: p. 284
38. Most symphyses are located in the midline of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses)
REF: p. 286
39. The vertebral column contains both cartilaginous joints and synovial joints. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses)
REF: p. 286
40. There are more synovial joints in the body than any other type of joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Synovial Joints (Diarthroses)
REF: p. 286
41. The gomphosis joint is the most complex joint in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Synovial Joints (Diarthroses)
REF: p. 286
42. The elbow and the dens of the axis are both part of a uniaxial joint. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 289
TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
43. The thumb contains the only saddle joint in the body—the joint between the metacarpal bone
and the proximal phalange. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 289
44. The shallowness of the glenoid cavity makes the shoulder a rather unstable joint. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Representative Synovial Joints
REF: p. 290
45. The depth of the acetabulum gives stability to the hip joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Representative Synovial Joints
REF: p. 290
46. Because of the instability of the glenoid cavity and humerus, one of the strongest ligaments in
the body is found surrounding the shoulder. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 290
TOP: Representative Synovial Joints 47. The iliofemoral ligament, which helps stabilize the hip, is one of the strongest ligaments in the
body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Representative Synovial Joints
REF: p. 290
48. When a joint is in anatomical position, a goniometer should read 0. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Measuring Range of Motion
REF: p. 298
49. If you are standing up and looking straight up toward the sky, your cervical spine will be
hyperextended. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 299
TOP: Angular Movements
50. Plantar flexion is a movement that applies only to the hands and feet. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Angular Movements
REF: p. 299
51. Arthroplasty is the total or partial replacement of a joint with a prosthesis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Joint Replacement
REF: p. 307
52. It is recommended that joint replacement surgery be done on younger people rather than older
people because they are better able to tolerate the procedure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Joint Replacement
REF: p. 307
53. Plantar flexion of the foot can also be described as extension of the leg. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Angular Movements
REF: p. 299
54. Rotation and circumduction are interchangeable terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Circular Movements
REF: p. 299
55. Twisting the forearm so that the thumb points medially is called supination. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 299
TOP: Circular Movements
56. The periodontal membrane is part of a fibrous joint. ANS: T TOP: Gomphoses
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 284
57. Although sutures are classified as immovable joints, the flexibility of the ligaments holding
the bone together do allow for some movement. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses)
REF: p. 284
58. Ligaments are associated only with synovial joints. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses)
REF: p. 284
59. Hyaline cartilage is associated only with synovial joints. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 284 TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses) 60. The only gomphosis joints in the body are found above the neck. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 284
TOP: Gomphoses
61. There is only one saddle joint in the body. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 288
TOP: Biaxial Joints
62. The humerus, the scapula, and the clavicle make up the joint usually referred to as the
shoulder joint. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Humeroscapular Joint
REF: pp. 289-290
63. An example of a structural classification of a joint would be a fibrous joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Joints
REF: p. 284
64. An example of a structural classification of a joint would be an amphiarthrotic joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Joints
REF: p. 284
65. The structural classification of a joint describes the type of movement the joint allows. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Joints
REF: p. 284
66. The periodontal membrane is associated with a gomphosis joint. ANS: T TOP: Gomphoses
DIF: Memorization
67. A spheroid joint is another name for a ball-and-socket joint.
REF: p. 284
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiaxial Joints
REF: p. 289
68. The glenoidal labrum is the part of the hip joint that reinforces the acetabulum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Humeroscapular Joint
REF: pp. 289-290
69. The annular ligament is the ligament that helps connect the ulna and radius. ANS: T TOP: Elbow Joint
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 290
70. The intercarpal joints occur at the points of articulation between the bones of the ankle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Intercarpal Joints
REF: p. 292
71. A sprained ankle is most often caused by a severe external rotation of the ankle joint. ANS: F TOP: Ankle Joint
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 295
72. When a person is standing on her toes, dorsiflexion of the foot has occurred. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Plantar Flexion and Dorsiflexion
REF: p. 299
73. A soldier standing at attention would have his arms fully adducted. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 299
TOP: Abduction and Adduction
74. Most of the symphysis joints in the body are in the appendicular skeleton. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 286
TOP: Symphyses
75. The ranking of joints from most movement to least movement would be synarthroses,
amphiarthroses, and diarthroses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Joints
REF: p. 284
76. There are no gomphosis joints in the appendicular skeleton. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 284
TOP: Gomphoses
77. The true ribs form cartilaginous joints with the sternum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Synchondroses
REF: p. 285
78. A projection of one bone that articulates with a ring in another bone describes a condyloid
joint. ANS: F TOP: Pivot Joints
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 287
79. Ball-and-socket joints are multiaxial joints. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiaxial Joints
REF: p. 289
80. The occipital bone’s joint with the atlas is an example of a condyloid joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Condyloid Joints
REF: p. 288
81. The joints between the radius and carpal bones are examples of gliding joints. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Condyloid Joints
REF: p. 288
82. Because hinge joints can be involved in both flexion and extension, they are considered
biaxial joints. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Uniaxial Joints
REF: p. 287
83. There are four bursae in the shoulder joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Humeroscapular Joint
REF: pp. 289-290
84. A “pulled elbow” is more common in older adults, because the disk-shaped head of the radius
begins to erode away. ANS: F TOP: Elbow Joint
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 290
85. There are six categories of synovial joints between the bones of the forearm, wrist, hand, and
fingers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Forearm, Wrist, Hand, and Finger Joints
REF: p. 291
86. Only the ulna articulates with the bones of the wrists. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Radiocarpal Joint
REF: p. 291
87. The intercarpal joints are arranged in two rows of four bones each. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 292
TOP: Intercarpal Joints 88. The saddle joint allows for a unique movement called opposition. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carpometacarpal Joints
REF: p. 292
89. The gliding movement is the simplest of all movements. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gliding Movements
REF: p. 299
90. The terms inversion and eversion apply to movements of the hand. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Inversion and Eversion
REF: p. 299
91. Closing one’s mouth would be an example of the movement of elevation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Elevation and Depression
REF: p. 299
MATCHING
Match each of the following terms with its main action. a. Abduction b. Adduction c. Extension d. Flexion e. Pronation f. Supination 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Turn the hand palm posteriorly Increase the angle of a joint Move the bone away from midline Decrease the angle of a joint Turn the palm anteriorly Move the part toward the midline
1. ANS: E DIF: Synthesis 2. ANS: C DIF: Application TOP: Extension and Hyperextension 3. ANS: A DIF: Application 4. ANS: D DIF: Application 5. ANS: F DIF: Application 6. ANS: B DIF: Application
REF: p. 299 REF: p. 299
TOP: Supination and Pronation
REF: REF: REF: REF:
TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:
p. 299 p. 299 p. 299 p. 299
Abduction and Adduction Flexion Supination and Pronation Abduction and Adduction
Match each synovial joint structure term with its corresponding description. a. Articular cartilage b. Synovial membrane
c. d. e. f. g. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
Joint cavity Menisci Joint capsule Ligaments Bursae
Thin layer of cartilage covering the articulating surfaces of the bones Closed, pillowlike structures formed from synovial membrane Small space between two articulating bones Secretes a lubricating fluid into the joint capsule Pads of fibrocartilage between articulating bones Strong cords of dense white connective tissue that help stabilize a joint Sleevelike extension of the periosteum of each of the articulating bones in a joint
7. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 8. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 9. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 10. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 11. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 12. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 13. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
REF: p. 287 REF: p. 287 REF: p. 287 REF: p. 287 REF: p. 287 REF: p. 287 REF: p. 287
OTHER 1. Briefly describe how joints are classified. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 284
TOP: Classification of Joints
2. Why is slight movement of the symphysis pubis necessary? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 286
TOP: Symphyses
3. List the structures that characterize synovial joints. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 287
TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
4. What purpose do ligaments serve? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 287
TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
5. What is the function of bursae? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 287
TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
6. Describe the anatomical structure of bursae. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 287
TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints
7. Give an example of a ball-and-socket joint. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 287
TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
8. Differentiate among uniaxial, biaxial, and multiaxial joints. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 287
TOP: Types of Synovial Joints
9. What are joint mice? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 306
TOP: Joint Mice
10. Describe the stability of the hip joint. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 293
TOP: Hip Joint
11. Name and describe the three types of fibrous joints, and give a location of each type.
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses)
REF: p. 284
12. Name and describe the types of cartilaginous joints, and give a location of each type. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 284 TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses) 13. Define flexion and extension, and give an example of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 299
TOP: Angular Movements
14. Define abduction and adduction, and give an example of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 299
TOP: Abduction and Adduction
15. Define rotation and circumduction, and give an example of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 299
TOP: Rotation and Circumduction
ESSAY 1. Ralph notices pain in his shoulder every time he reaches up high for things on a shelf. He
informs his doctor, and she tells him that the small, fluid-filled sacs in his shoulder are inflamed. What condition does Ralph have, and what would the treatment be? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 287, 289-290 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints, Humeroscapular Joint 2. Dislocation of the hip can cause major damage to the hip joint, sometimes requiring surgical
repair. Explain what the damage might be and why surgery might be required to repair the function of the joint.
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 293
TOP: Hip Joint
Chapter 15: Axial Muscles Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Skeletal muscles constitute approximately ____ of our body weight. a. 10% c. 50% b. 25% d. 75% ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the Muscular System Introduction
REF: p. 314
2. The connective tissue sheath that envelops bundles of muscle fibers is the: a. epimysium. c. periosteum. b. endomysium. d. perimysium. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
3. The covering of individual muscle fibers is the: a. epimysium. c. periosteum. b. endomysium. d. perimysium. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
4. Groups of skeletal muscle fibers are bound together by a connective tissue envelope called
the: a. endomysium. b. perimysium. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
c. epimysium. d. aponeurosis. REF: p. 314
5. An aponeurosis could be described as a: a. flat sheet of connective tissue connecting muscle to other structures. b. sheath that surrounds tendons. c. deep fascia that covers muscles. d. junction between a neuron and a muscle. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
6. Muscles that contract at the same time as the prime mover are called: a. synergists. c. antagonists. b. fixators. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Actions
REF: p. 318
7. Which of the following is not a component of a lever system? a. Fixator c. Joint
b. Bone ANS: A
d. Pull DIF: Application
REF: p. 318
TOP: Lever Systems
8. The type of lever arrangement in which the pull is exerted between the fulcrum and resistance
or weight to be moved is a _____-class lever. a. first c. third b. second d. fourth ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Third-Class Levers 9. Muscles may be named according to: a. function. b. direction of fibers. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 320
c. points of attachment. d. all of the above. REF: p. 321
TOP: How Muscles Are Named
10. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of a muscle named for its: a. function. c. size. b. number of attachments. d. points of attachment. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 321
TOP: How Muscles Are Named
11. A muscle that assists with mastication is the: a. orbicularis oris. c. platysma. b. buccinator. d. masseter. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 324, 325
TOP: Muscles of Mastication
12. The muscle that draws the eyebrows together, producing vertical wrinkles above the nose
(frowning), is called the: a. epicranius. b. corrugator supercilii. ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression
c. orbicularis oculi. d. orbicularis oris. REF: p. 324
13. Which of the following muscles has fibers on a transverse plane? a. Rectus abdominis c. Transverse abdominis b. External oblique d. Internal intercostals ANS: C
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 328
TOP: Trunk Muscles
14. Which of the following muscle(s) function(s) to protect the abdominal viscera? a. External oblique c. Transversus abdominis b. Internal oblique d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Application TOP: Muscles of the Abdominal Wall
REF: p. 329
15. Which muscle(s) form(s) most of the pelvic floor? a. Levator ani c. Ischiocavernosus b. Coccygeus d. Both A and B
ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 332
TOP: Muscles of the Pelvic Floor
16. Purposeful movement is determined by: a. the relationship of muscles to joints. b. how muscles are attached to the skeleton. c. the manner in which muscles are grouped. d. all of the above. ANS: D TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 314
17. Which fibrous connective tissue structures have a lining of synovial membrane? a. Tendon sheaths c. Fascicles b. Aponeuroses d. Both B and C ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
18. A muscle is attached to the femur and the tibia. When the muscle contracts, the knee bends.
That would mean that the: a. tibia attachment is the origin. b. femur attachment is the insertion. ANS: C
DIF: Application
c. tibia attachment is the insertion. d. Both A and B are correct. REF: p. 317
TOP: Attachment of Muscles
19. A muscle is attached to the femur and tibia. Its function or action is to bend the knee. When it
contracts, it is acting as the: a. antagonist. b. prime mover. ANS: B
DIF: Application
c. fixator. d. synergist. REF: p. 318
TOP: Muscle Actions
20. The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it
bends the knee. Which of the following is true? a. The knee is acting as a fulcrum. b. The movement is an example of a first-class lever. c. The movement is an example of a second-class lever. d. Both A and C are true. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 318
TOP: Lever Systems
21. The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it
bends the knee. Its fibers run parallel to the body. Which of the following terms might be part of its name? a. Extensor c. Flexor b. Abductor d. Adductor ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 321
TOP: How Muscles Are Named
22. The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it
bends the knee. Its fibers run parallel to the body. Which of the following terms might be part of its name?
a. Rectus b. Oblique ANS: D
c. Femoris d. Both A and C DIF: Application
REF: p. 321
TOP: How Muscles Are Named
23. There are more than ____ skeletal muscles in the body. a. 1200 c. 600 b. 900 d. 1000 ANS: C TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 314
24. Another name for a skeletal muscle cell is a(n): a. muscle fiber. c. aponeurosis. b. fascicle. d. fascia. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
25. The rectus abdominal muscle is an example of a _____ muscle. a. convergent c. fusiform b. parallel d. pennate ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
26. The brachioradialis muscle is an example of a _____ muscle. a. convergent c. fusiform b. parallel d. pennate ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
27. The pectoralis major muscle is an example of a _____ muscle. a. convergent c. fusiform b. parallel d. pennate ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
28. The soleus muscle is an example of a _____ muscle. a. convergent c. fusiform b. parallel d. pennate ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
29. Another name for a sphincter muscle is a _____ muscle. a. spiral c. fusiform b. circular d. convergent ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
30. The most common type of lever in the body is a _____-class lever. a. first c. third b. second d. fourth ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Lever Systems
REF: p. 318
31. Moving from superficial to deep, the connective tissue components would be: a. epimysium, perimysium, endomysium. c. perimysium, epimysium, endomysium. b. endomysium, perimysium, epimysium. d. perimysium, endomysium, epimysium. ANS: A DIF: Application TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
32. The latissimus dorsi muscle is an example of a _____ muscle. a. bipennate c. spiral b. convergent d. fusiform ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
33. Which of the following is not a group of pennate muscles? a. Bipennate b. Tripennate c. Multipennate d. All of the above are groups of pennate muscles. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
34. Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. The origin of the muscle is attached to the bone that does not move. b. The insertion of the muscle is attached to the bone that moves. c. When the muscle contracts, the insertion moves toward the origin. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Attachment of Muscles 35. The prime mover can also be called the: a. antagonist. b. agonist. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Actions
REF: p. 317
c. fixator. d. synergist. REF: p. 318
36. Which of the following statements about the muscles of the head is incorrect? a. They are paired muscles. b. They have different actions depending on whether one or both parts of the pair
contract. c. The splenius capitis muscle is sometimes called the prayer muscle because it
causes the head to bow. d. All of the above statements are correct.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Head
REF: p. 326
37. Which of the following statements about the muscles of the thorax is incorrect? a. When the diaphragm contracts, it decreases the volume of the thoracic cavity and
expels air from the lungs. b. The muscles of the thorax assist in respiration. c. The internal and external intercostal muscles have opposite effects on the ribs. d. All of the above statements are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Thorax
REF: p. 327
TRUE/FALSE 1. There are more than 600 muscles in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the Muscular System Introduction
REF: p. 314
2. When a muscle contracts, the bone moved is the bone of insertion. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 317
TOP: Attachment of Muscles
3. The insertion is that point of attachment that does not move when the muscle contracts. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 317
TOP: Attachment of Muscles
4. Tendons are continuous with the layer of connective tissue called the epimysium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
5. The direction of the fibers composing a muscle is not significant to its function. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 316 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 6. Tipping the head back on its atlas is an example of a third-class lever. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 319
TOP: Lever Systems
7. Convergent muscles are said to be “featherlike” in appearance. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
8. Muscles usually act singly as a prime mover. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 318
TOP: Muscle Actions
9. In a lever system, the fixed pivot around which the rod moves is called the fulcrum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lever Systems
REF: p. 318
10. A set of scales and a pair of scissors are both examples of second-class levers. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 319
TOP: Second-Class Levers
11. The gluteus muscles are examples of muscles that are named by location. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: How Muscles Are Named
REF: p. 321
12. In muscle terminology, the term rectus means straight. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: How Muscles Are Named
REF: p. 321
13. Muscles usually originate distal to the point of insertion. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 323 TOP: Hints on How to Deduce Muscle Actions 14. The muscles of facial expression are unique in that at least one of their points of attachment is
to the deep layers of skin over the face or neck. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression
REF: p. 324
15. Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles elevates the ribs. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 327
TOP: Muscles of the Thorax
16. Just as individual bones are the organs of the skeletal system, individual muscles are the
organs of the muscular system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal Muscle Structure
REF: p. 314
17. Muscle cells and muscle fibers are interchangeable terms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
18. Groups of muscle cells held together by the perimysium are called fascia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
19. Tendons and aponeuroses are both fibrous tissue extending from a muscle.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
20. Fascia is another term for epimysium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
21. Fascia is a general term for the fibrous connective tissue found under the skin and around
muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
22. The skeletal muscles are unique because they are the only organs made up of one kind of
tissue. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 316 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 23. Most muscles span a joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Attachment of Muscles
REF: p. 317
24. Muscle can have only one origin attachment and one insertion attachment. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Attachment of Muscles
REF: p. 317
25. That which is considered the origin and insertion of a muscle may change under certain
circumstances. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Attachment of Muscles
REF: p. 317
26. Agonists and prime movers are interchangeable terms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Actions
REF: p. 318
27. Antagonist muscles oppose the movement of the agonist muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Actions
REF: p. 318
28. First- and second-class levers are not as common in the body as third-class levers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lever Systems
REF: p. 320
29. The two parts of the epicranium are connected by an aponeurosis.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression
REF: p. 324
30. No muscles are both muscles of facial expression and muscles of mastication. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression, Muscles of Mastication
REF: pp. 324, 325
31. If one of the sternocleidomastoid muscles contracts, it causes a different movement than if
both of them contract. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles That Move the Head
REF: p. 326
32. The two muscle layers of the anterior and lateral abdominal wall have fibers running in
different directions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Abdominal Wall
REF: p. 328
33. Movement is one of the most distinctive and easily observed “characteristics of life.” ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 314
34. The fascia found on the surface of the muscle is called the superficial fascia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
35. Tendons anchor muscles to bone by attaching to the periosteum of the bone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
36. The difference between a tendon and an aponeurosis is that a tendon is composed of
connective tissue and an aponeurosis is composed of muscle tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
37. If a muscle causes the knee to bend, the insertion point is above the knee and the origin point
is below the knee. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 317
TOP: Attachment of Muscles
38. If a muscle causes the knee to bend, the origin point is above the knee and the insertion point
is below the knee. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 317
TOP: Attachment of Muscles
39. Fixator muscles would most likely be found at the origin points of muscles rather than at the
insertion points of muscles. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 317, 318 TOP: Attachment of Muscles, Muscle Actions 40. In a first-class lever, the fulcrum lies between the pull and the load. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lever Systems
REF: p. 319
41. In a second-class lever, the pull is exerted between the fulcrum and the load. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lever Systems
REF: p. 319
42. There are more than twice as many muscles as there are bones in the body. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 314
TOP: Introduction
43. Circular muscles are sometimes called sphincter muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
44. The rectus abdominis is an example of a bipennate muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
45. The deltoid muscle is an example of a multipennate muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
46. The latissimus dorsi muscle is an example of a fusiform muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
47. The epimysium is deep to the perimysium. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
48. A fixator muscle can be seen as another type of synergist muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Actions 49. The deltoid is an example of a muscle named by its shape.
REF: p. 318
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: How Muscles Are Named
REF: p. 322
50. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of a muscle named by the number of heads. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: How Muscles Are Named
REF: p. 322
51. Muscles make up about 30% to 40% of our body weight. ANS: F TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 314
52. A group of skeletal muscle fibers is called a fascicle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
53. Tendon sheaths that surround certain tendons have a lining of slick epithelial membrane that
reduces friction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314
54. The pectoralis major is an example of a convergent muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
55. The sartorius is an example of a unipennate muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
REF: p. 317
56. To stabilize a joint, the antagonist must contract while the prime mover contracts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Actions
REF: p. 318
57. A synergist muscle can be defined as a muscle that facilitates or complements the prime
mover. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Actions
REF: p. 318
58. When a muscle contracts, the part of the body that moves is directly under the belly of the
muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lever Systems
REF: p. 318
59. When a muscle contracts, the part of the body that moves is usually distal to the belly of the
muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lever Systems
REF: p. 318
60. Muscles are sometimes named to reflect their function. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: How Muscles Are Named
REF: p. 321
61. The occipitofrontalis muscle is actually three muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression
REF: p. 324
62. The orbicularis oris surrounds the eye and allows you to blink. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression
REF: p. 325
63. The masseter and temporalis muscle are muscles of mastication that have opposite functions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of Mastication
REF: p. 325
64. The muscles that move the head are paired muscles on opposite sides of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles That Move the Head
REF: p. 326
65. During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and flattens, which increases the size of the
thoracic cavity allowing air to enter the lungs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Thorax
REF: p. 327
66. The internal oblique muscle is the deepest muscle in the abdominal wall. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Abdominal Wall
REF: p. 328
67. The linea alba is a band of connective tissue that runs over the rectus abdominis from the
xiphoid process to the pubis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Abdominal Wall
REF: p. 329
68. Both the interspinales and the multifidus groups are muscles of the back. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Back
REF: p. 331
69. The two levator ani and coccygeus muscles form most of the pelvic floor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Pelvic Floor
REF: p. 332
70. Four muscles, the deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor, make up what is
called the rotator cuff around the shoulder. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Back
REF: p. 330
MATCHING
The following features are used in the naming of muscles. Match each feature with the muscles named by that feature. a. Location d. Direction of fibers b. Function e. Number of heads or divisions c. Shape f. Points of attachment 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Triceps Rectus Adductors Brachialis Deltoid Sternocleidomastoid
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
ANS: E ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: F
DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF:
Application Application Application Application Application Application
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 322 p. 322 p. 321 p. 322 p. 322 p. 322
TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:
How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named
Match each muscle with the corresponding description of its action. a. Buccinator d. Orbicularis oculi b. Corrugator supercilii e. Pterygoid c. Epicranius f. Sternocleidomastoid 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Draw(s) the eyebrows together, producing vertical wrinkles (frowning) Cause(s) sideways movement during mastication Create(s) smile expression Raise(s) the eyebrows (surprise) Flex(es) the head (prayer muscle) Close(s) the eye
7. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression 8. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of Mastication
REF: p. 324 REF: p. 324
9. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 324 TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression 10. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 324 TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression 11. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles that Move the Head 12. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression
REF: p. 326 REF: p. 325
Match each term with its corresponding description. a. Antagonists c. Prime movers b. Fixators d. Synergists 13. Muscles that directly oppose prime movers 14. Muscles that play the major role in accomplishing a particular movement 15. Muscles that contract at the same time as the prime mover, producing a more effective
movement 16. Muscles that help maintain posture or balance during contraction of muscles acting on joints in the arms and legs 13. ANS: A DIF: 14. ANS: C DIF: 15. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Muscle Actions 16. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Muscle Actions
Synthesis REF: p. 318 Synthesis REF: p. 318 Memorization
TOP: Muscle Actions TOP: Muscle Actions REF: p. 318
Memorization
REF: p. 318
Match each body location with its corresponding muscle. a. Neck f. Arm b. Back g. Forearm c. Chest h. Buttocks d. Abdominal wall i. Thigh e. Shoulder j. Leg 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.
Gluteus maximus Biceps brachii Trapezius Pectoralis major Adductor magnus Pronator teres External oblique Deltoid Sternocleidomastoid Gastrocnemius
17. 18. 19. 20. 21.
ANS: H ANS: F ANS: B ANS: C ANS: I
DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF:
Application Application Application Application Application
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 321 p. 321 p. 321 p. 321 p. 321
TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:
How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named
22. 23. 24. 25. 26.
ANS: G ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A ANS: J
DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF:
Application Application Application Application Application
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 321 p. 321 p. 321 p. 321 p. 321
TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:
How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named How Muscles Are Named
Match each term with its corresponding description. a. Endomysium e. Fascia b. Tendon f. Perimysium c. Epimysium g. Tendon sheath d. Aponeurosis h. Fascicles 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34.
Tube-shaped structure of fibrous connective tissue Delicate connective tissue that covers muscle cells Connective tissue that bonds fascicles together Tough connective tissue cord connecting muscle to the periosteum of a bone Below the skin, it is called “superficial”; surrounding the muscle, it is called “deep” Broad, flat sheet of tendonlike connective tissue Coarse connective tissue that covers the entire muscle Groups of skeletal muscle fibers
27. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components 28. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components 29. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components 30. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components 31. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components 32. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components 33. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components 34. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue Components
REF: p. 314 REF: p. 314 REF: p. 314 REF: p. 314 REF: p. 314 REF: p. 314 REF: p. 314 REF: p. 314
OTHER 1. Differentiate among the endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 314
TOP: Connective Tissue Components
2. Define the terms insertion and origin, in relation to muscle movement. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 317
TOP: Attachment of Muscles
3. What is the “optimum angle of pull”? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 319
TOP: Assessing Muscle Strength
4. Name and describe three of the six muscle shapes discussed in this chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 316
TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement
5. Explain how muscles and the movement of the body help maintain stability or homeostasis. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 314
TOP: Introduction
6. Name and explain the three types of levers. Which type is the most common in the body? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 318
TOP: Lever Systems
7. Explain the way in which you could deduce the action of a muscle. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 323 TOP: Hints on How to Deduce Muscle Actions 8. Describe or explain the following terms describing muscle action: prime mover, antagonist,
synergist, and fixator. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 318
TOP: Muscle Actions
9. Name four features that are used in the naming of muscles. Give an example of each. ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Application
REF: p. 321
TOP: How Muscles Are Named
ESSAY 1. Imagine that a new, unnamed muscle has been discovered. It inserts into the posterior aspect
of the tibia and originates from two points in the center of the femur. Its fibers run parallel to the femur. Give a name to the muscle, and explain its function. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 321
TOP: How Muscles Are Named
Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following muscles does not move the upper arm? a. Pectoralis major b. Latissimus dorsi c. Deltoid d. Trapezius ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 339
TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm
2. All of the following muscles are part of the rotator cuff muscles except the: a. deltoid. b. infraspinatus. c. supraspinatus. d. teres minor. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 340
TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm
3. The teres major and teres minor muscles move the: a. forearm. b. arm. c. shoulder. d. wrist. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 340
TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm
4. The muscle that allows the thumb to be drawn across the palm to touch the tip of any finger is
the: a. b. c. d.
extensor digitorum. opponens pollicis. palmaris longus. flexor carpi radialis.
ANS: B DIF: Application REF: pp. 347-348 TOP: Muscles That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Fingers 5. The muscle that raises or lowers the shoulders or shrugs them is the: a. deltoid. b. latissimus dorsi. c. trapezius. d. pectoralis minor. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 338 TOP: Muscles Acting on the Shoulder Girdle 6. The muscle that extends and adducts the arm is the: a. deltoid. b. latissimus dorsi.
c. trapezius. d. pectoralis minor. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 340
TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm
7. The posterior arm muscle that extends the forearm is the: a. biceps brachii. b. triceps brachii. c. supinator. d. brachialis. ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Muscles That Move the Forearm
REF: p. 343
8. The muscle that flexes the semipronated or semisupinated forearm is the: a. biceps brachii. b. brachialis. c. brachioradialis. d. triceps brachii. ANS: C DIF: Application TOP: Muscles That Move the Forearm
REF: p. 343
9. Muscles that move the upper arm originate on the: a. ulna and humerus. b. clavicle and scapula. c. humerus. d. ulna and radius. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 338
TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm
10. In pushing (pressing) a weight from shoulder height to above the head, which of the following
muscles is least utilized? a. Triceps brachii b. Biceps brachii c. Deltoid ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 341, 342 TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm, Muscles That Move the Forearm 11. The muscle(s) assisting in rotating the arm outward is(are) the: a. teres minor. b. latissimus dorsi. c. supraspinatus. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 341
12. The action of the brachialis muscle is to _____ the forearm. a. flex b. extend c. pronate d. supinate
TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm
ANS: A DIF: Application TOP: Muscles That Move the Forearm
REF: p. 342
13. The flexor muscles that move the fingers are mostly located on the: a. anterior lateral surface of the forearm. b. anterior medial surface of the forearm. c. posterior surface of the forearm. d. posterior surface of the hand. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 345 TOP: Muscles That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Fingers 14. Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the thigh? a. Adductor longus b. Gracilis c. Iliopsoas d. Sacrospinalis ANS: D DIF: Synthesis TOP: Muscles That Move the Thigh
REF: p. 350
15. Which of the following is not a muscle of the quadriceps femoris group? a. Rectus femoris b. Biceps femoris c. Vastus medialis d. Vastus intermedius ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Muscles That Move the Thigh
REF: p. 354
16. When an athlete injures a muscle of the hamstring group, the injury is on the: a. upper arm. b. posterior lower leg. c. posterior thigh. d. anterior thigh. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis TOP: Muscles That Move the Thigh
REF: p. 355
17. Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the foot? a. Sartorius b. Peroneus longus c. Tibialis anterior d. Soleus ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 356 TOP: Muscles That Move the Ankle and Foot 18. Muscles located on the lower leg move the: a. thigh. b. hip. c. knee.
d. foot. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles That Move the Ankle and Foot
REF: p. 356
19. Which of the following body systems assists the muscles in maintaining posture? a. Digestive b. Endocrine c. Excretory d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: How Posture Is Maintained
REF: p. 358
20. Which of the following is not a posterior muscle that acts on the shoulder girdle? a. Trapezius b. Pectoralis minor c. Levator scapulae d. Rhomboideus ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles Acting on the Shoulder Girdle
REF: p. 339
TRUE/FALSE 1. The deltoid is an example of a multifunction muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm
REF: p. 341
2. Intrinsic foot muscles are responsible for movement of the ankle and foot. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 356 TOP: Muscles That Move the Ankle and Foot 3. The Achilles tendon is common to both the gastrocnemius and the soleus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles That Move the Ankle and Foot
REF: p. 356
4. The soleus muscle is responsible for plantar flexion. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 356 TOP: Muscles That Move the Ankle and Foot 5. The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles act as antagonists. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 356 TOP: Muscles That Move the Ankle and Foot 6. The maintenance of body posture depends only on skeletal muscles and bones.
ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 358
TOP: How Posture Is Maintained
7. Muscles maintain posture by the property of tonicity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: How Posture Is Maintained
REF: p. 358
8. The circulatory system is responsible for muscle tone. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 358
TOP: How Posture Is Maintained
9. Poor posture puts abnormal strain on bones and may eventually produce deformities. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: How Posture Is Maintained
REF: p. 358
10. With aging, connective tissue replaces some muscle fibers, causing decreased muscle
strength. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cycle of Life: Muscular System
REF: p. 358
11. The respiratory, digestive, circulatory, excretory, and endocrine systems all contribute to the
ability of muscles to maintain posture. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 358
TOP: How Posture Is Maintained
12. To give stability to the shoulder, both the clavicle and scapula have very limited movement. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles Acting on the Shoulder Girdle
REF: p. 339
13. Both the pectoralis minor and the serratus anterior help hold or “fix” the scapula in place. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles Acting on the Shoulder Girdle
REF: p. 339
14. Lumbrical muscles are examples of intrinsic muscles of the hand. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Fingers
REF: p. 347
15. Muscles that move the forearm are found proximal to the elbow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles That Move the Forearm
REF: p. 342
16. Extrinsic muscles of the hand originate in the wrist. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Fingers
REF: p. 345
17. Muscles that move the thigh and lower leg can be divided into two groups, muscles that come
from the hips and those that come from the gluteal muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles That Move the Thigh and Leg
REF: p. 349
OTHER 1. What is tenosynovitis, and how is it caused? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 347
TOP: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
2. Explain how, during sleep, the muscles of the throat relax and can allow the muscles to
partially close the airway, causing sleep apnea. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 358
TOP: How Posture Is Maintained
ESSAY 1. A nurse is preparing an injection for Amy. The amount of medication to be injected is 2 mL.
What area of Amy’s body will the nurse most likely select for this injection, and why? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 353
TOP: Intramuscular Injections
Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not one of the major functions of muscles? a. Movement b. Protection c. Heat production d. Posture ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: General Functions
REF: p. 362
2. The plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is called the: a. sarcolemma. b. myofibril. c. sarcoplasm. d. sarcomere. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
3. Bundles of fine fibers that extend lengthwise along muscle fibers are called: a. myofibrils. b. myofilaments. c. striae. d. sarcoplasmic reticulum. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 364
4. The smallest contractile unit of muscle is a: a. fiber. b. myofibril. c. sarcomere. d. myofilament. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 364
5. _____ muscle is also known as striated muscle. a. Smooth b. Skeletal c. Involuntary d. Visceral ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 364
6. The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called:
a. b. c. d.
irritability. contractility. extensibility. elasticity.
ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 362 TOP: Function of Skeletal Muscle Tissue 7. In the structure called a triad, the T-tubule is sandwiched between: a. actin filaments. b. myofibrils. c. sarcolemmas. d. sacs of sarcoplasmic reticulum. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 364
8. The chief function of the T-tubules is to: a. provide nutrients to the muscle fiber. b. allow for the fiber to contract. c. allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell. d. allow for the generation of new muscle fibers. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 364
9. Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contains the cross-bridges? a. Myosin b. Actin c. Tropomyosin d. Troponin ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments
REF: p. 366
10. The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is: a. actin. b. myosin. c. troponin. d. tropomyosin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments
REF: p. 366
11. Thick myofilaments extend the length of the: a. A-band. b. Z-line. c. I-band. d. None of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments
REF: p. 365
12. The neurotransmitter(s) secreted at the motor end plates of skeletal muscles is(are): a. dopamine. b. norepinephrine. c. acetylcholine. d. any of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma
REF: p. 368
13. The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: a. tropomyosin returns to its original position. b. myosin cross-bridges are prevented from binding to actin. c. the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs. d. acetylcholine is released. ANS: C TOP: Relaxation
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 370
14. The ion necessary for cross-bridging is: a. iron. b. sodium. c. potassium. d. calcium. ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 370
TOP: Relaxation
15. The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: a. carry oxygen. b. store calcium. c. replenish energy supply. d. rotate the cross-bridges. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 370
TOP: ATP
16. Aerobic respiration: a. allows the body to avoid the use of oxygen for a short time. b. results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule. c. results in the formation of lactic acid. d. produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Catabolic Pathways
REF: p. 371
17. Skeletal muscles are innervated by: a. somatic motor neurons. b. autonomic motor neurons. c. both somatic and autonomic motor neurons. d. internal stimulation. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 377
TOP: Motor Unit
18. A motor unit is most correctly described as a _____ and a motor neuron. a. sarcomere(s)
b. myofibril(s) c. muscle fiber(s) d. filament(s) ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 374
TOP: Motor Unit
19. White fibers are also called _____ fibers. a. fast b. slow c. elongated d. intermediate ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Muscle Fibers
REF: p. 371
20. Most body movements are _____ contractions. a. isotonic b. isometric c. a combination of isotonic and isometric d. single twitch ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Isotonic and Isometric Contractions
REF: p. 380
21. Endurance training is also known as: a. isometrics. b. hypertrophy. c. aerobic training. d. strength training. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of Exercise on Skeletal Muscles
REF: p. 378
22. During which phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium
ions into the sarcoplasm? a. Latent period b. Contraction phase c. Relaxation phase d. None of the above ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 375
TOP: The Twitch Contraction
23. Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: a. a relative lack of ATP. b. high levels of lactic acid. c. failure of the sodium-potassium pumps. d. all of the above. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 376
TOP: Muscle Fatigue
24. All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except: a. the muscle does not shorten. b. it can produce work by tightening to resist a force.
c. movement is produced. d. the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed
on the muscle. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 380 TOP: Isotonic and Isometric Contractions 25. A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes
is called a(n) _____ contraction. a. tonic b. isotonic c. isometric d. tetanic ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Isotonic and Isometric Contractions
REF: p. 380
26. Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle
contraction? a. Isotonic b. Flaccid c. Treppe d. Isometric ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 380 TOP: Isotonic and Isometric Contractions 27. The graded strength principle states that: a. muscle fibers either will contract with all the force possible under existing
conditions or will not contract at all. b. skeletal muscles contract with the same degree of strength at all times, but the force generated is graded. c. muscle size is indirectly proportional to muscle strength. d. skeletal muscles contract with varying degrees of strength at different times. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: The Graded Strength Principle
REF: p. 377
28. Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called: a. tetanic contractions. b. cramps. c. convulsions. d. fibrillations. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Abnormal Muscle Contractions 29. The strength of a muscle contraction is influenced by the: a. amount of load. b. initial length of muscle fibers. c. recruitment of motor units. d. All of the above are correct.
REF: p. 385
ANS: D DIF: Synthesis TOP: The Graded Strength Principle
REF: p. 377
30. Which of the following types of muscle tissue contains cells that have a single nucleus? a. Cardiac b. Smooth c. Skeletal d. Both A and B ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Smooth Muscle
REF: p. 382
31. All of the following are characteristics of smooth muscle except: a. there are no striations. b. there are no T-tubules. c. thin and thick filaments are aligned in sarcomeres like skeletal muscles. d. the sarcoplasmic reticula are loosely organized. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 382
TOP: Smooth Muscle
32. From smallest to largest, which of the following is the correct order of arrangement? a. Fiber, myofibril, myofilament b. Myofibril, myofilament, fiber c. Myofilament, myofibril, fiber d. Fiber, myofilament, myofibril ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
33. Sarcolemma is a: a. system of transverse tubules that extend at a right angle to the long axis of the cell. b. segment of the myofibril between two successive Z-lines. c. unique name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber. d. None of the above are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
34. Which of the following is not associated with the thin myofilament? a. Troponin b. Tropomyosin c. Actin d. Myosin ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments 35. Cross-bridges are also called: a. myosin heads. b. motor end plates. c. synapses. d. motor neurons.
REF: p. 366
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments
REF: p. 366
36. Treppe is also called: a. tetanus. b. electromyography. c. wave summation. d. staircase phenomenon. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon
REF: p. 375
37. Which of the following statements is incorrect about motor units? a. Some motor neurons stimulate only a few dozen muscle fibers. b. Some motor neurons stimulate a few thousand muscle fibers. c. The more muscle fibers stimulated by a motor neuron, the more precise the
movements of that muscle can be. d. All of the above statements are correct. ANS: C TOP: Motor Unit
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 374
38. A decrease in muscle size is termed: a. hyperplasia. b. atrophy. c. hypertrophy. d. treppe. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of Exercise on Skeletal Muscles
REF: pp. 378, 385
39. The characteristic of the muscle cell that directly causes movement is: a. excitability. b. irritability. c. contractility. d. extensibility. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue
REF: p. 362
40. A sarcomere is a segment of myofibril between two successive: a. Z-lines. b. A-bands. c. I-bands. d. H-bands. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 364
41. The striations seen in skeletal muscle cells under the microscope are what part of the
sarcomere? a. Z-lines b. A-bands
c. I-bands d. All of the above ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 365
42. The myofilament that can be described as a globular protein strung together like beads to form
two intertwined strands is: a. troponin. b. actin. c. myosin. d. tropomyosin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments
REF: p. 366
43. The myofilament that can be described as bundled golf clubs with their heads sticking out
from the bundle is: a. troponin. b. actin. c. myosin. d. tropomyosin. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments
REF: p. 366
44. After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which
protein? a. Troponin b. Actin c. Myosin d. Tropomyosin ANS: A TOP: Contraction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 367
45. Glucose can be stored in the muscle as: a. creatine phosphate. b. ATP. c. myoglobin. d. glycogen. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose and Oxygen
REF: p. 371
46. The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: a. hemoglobin. b. calcium. c. iron. d. ATP. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose and Oxygen
REF: p. 371
47. The lactic acid produced by anaerobic respiration is converted back to glucose in the: a. lungs. b. liver. c. mitochondria. d. sarcoplasmic reticulum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Catabolic Pathways
REF: p. 372
48. Which of the following is not a factor in why a warm muscle contracts more forcefully than a
cool muscle? a. ATP releases energy faster. b. Calcium diffuses through the sarcoplasm more quickly. c. Calcium tends to accumulate in the sarcoplasm. d. All of the above are factors. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon
REF: p. 375
49. Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? a. Eccentric contraction b. Static tension c. Concentric contraction d. Both A and C ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Isotonic and Isometric Contractions
REF: p. 380
50. A satellite cell in a muscle can become active: a. during isotonic contractions. b. during isometric contractions. c. after an injury to a muscle. d. when a muscle becomes fatigued. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
51. The myofibrils contain about how many sarcomeres? a. 150,000 b. 15,000 c. 1500 d. 150 ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments 52. The motor end plate makes up part of the: a. Z-line. b. T-tubules. c. sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. neuromuscular junction.
REF: p. 364
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Contraction
REF: p. 366
53. Which part of the sarcomere stays almost the same size during contraction? a. A-band b. I-band c. H-band d. None of the parts of the sarcomere stay the same size during contraction. ANS: A
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 364
TOP: Myofilaments
54. Muscles usually contract to about _____ of their length. a. 30% b. 40% c. 80% d. 90% ANS: C TOP: Contraction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 369
55. Muscle contractions will continue as long as: a. the calcium ions are attached to the troponin. b. there is dopamine in the neuromuscular junction. c. there is ADP in the muscle cell. d. T-tubules are transmitting impulses. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 370, 375
TOP: Contraction, Relaxation
56. Which of the following is not an end-product of the breakdown of ATP? a. An inorganic phosphate b. Energy that can be used in muscle contraction c. ADP d. All of the above are end-products of the breakdown of ATP. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 370 TOP: Energy Sources for Muscle Contraction 57. Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules? a. Smooth b. Cardiac c. Striated d. All muscles have T-tubules. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Muscle Tissue
REF: p. 362
58. Which structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions? a. T-tubules b. Sarcolemma c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum d. Myofilaments ANS: C
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 362
TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 59. Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis? a. Multiunit smooth b. Single-unit smooth c. Cardiac d. Striated ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Smooth Muscle
REF: p. 382
60. Which of the following is not a name for a muscle cell? a. Muscle fiber b. Sarcocyte c. Myocyte d. All of the above are names for muscle cells. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
61. Which of the following is not a part of the neuromuscular junction? a. T-tubules b. Motor neuron c. Motor end plate d. All of the structures are part of the neuromuscular junction. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma
REF: p. 368
62. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding heat production? a. The body temperature set point is established by the hypothalamus. b. Shivering will increase body temperature. c. Body temperature functions on a negative-feedback mechanism. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Heat Production
REF: p. 373
63. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding muscle tone? a. Tonic contractions is another name for muscle tone. b. Muscle tone is important in maintaining posture. c. Muscles with less than normal muscle tone are referred to as spastic. d. All of the above statements are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Tone
REF: p. 377
64. Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect? a. Cardiac muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract. b. Cardiac muscle is also called striated involuntary muscle. c. Cardiac muscle contains intercalated disks. d. All of the above statements are correct.
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Muscle
REF: p. 381
65. Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect? a. Cardiac muscle forms an electrically coupled mass called a syncytium. b. Much of the calcium necessary for contraction comes from outside the cell. c. In cardiac muscles, the T-tubules form dyads rather than the triads formed in
skeletal muscles. d. All of the above statements are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Muscle
REF: p. 381
TRUE/FALSE 1. Myofibrils contain several sarcomeres lined up end to end. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 364
TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
2. Another name for muscle cells is muscle fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
3. Muscle cells have one nucleus and one mitochondrion. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 362
TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
4. Muscle fibers of skeletal muscle contain several nuclei. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
5. A triad consists of a T-tubule sandwiched between sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 364
6. The following are characteristics that allow muscles to function as they do: excitability,
contractility, extensibility, and regulation. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 362 TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue 7. The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called the sarcoplasmic reticulum. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 362
TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
8. The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is called myosin. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 366
TOP: Myofilaments
9. A neuromuscular junction is a type of connection called a synapse. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma
REF: p. 368
10. The sliding-filament theory is the current model of muscle contraction. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 369
TOP: Contraction
11. Muscle fibers use creatine phosphate to restore their ATP population. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 370
TOP: ATP
12. ATP is made up of adenine, ribose sugar, and three phosphate groups. ANS: T TOP: ATP
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 370
13. Hemoglobin carries oxygen in red blood cells, and myoglobin stores oxygen in muscle fibers. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 371
TOP: Glucose and Oxygen
14. Anaerobic respiration is the first choice of the muscle cell for the production of ATP. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 370 TOP: Energy Sources for Muscle Contraction 15. T-tubules are perpendicular to muscle fibers. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 362
TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
16. Myosin filaments attach to the Z disk. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 365 TOP: A More Detailed Look at the Sarcomere 17. At rest, troponin covers the active sites on the actin molecules. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 366
TOP: Myofilaments
18. A compound that mimics the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction would
cause muscles to become flaccid. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma
REF: p. 368
19. Myosin filaments interact with actin filaments during muscle contraction. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 366
20. When sarcomeres shorten, myofibrils also shorten.
TOP: Myofilaments
ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 364
TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
21. For continued, efficient nutrient catabolism by muscle fibers, both glucose and oxygen are
required. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose and Oxygen
REF: p. 370
22. Slow fibers are also called white fibers, because they contain a low concentration of
myoglobin. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 371
TOP: Types of Muscle Fibers
23. A motor neuron plus the muscle fibers to which it attaches is called a motor unit. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 374
TOP: Motor Unit
24. The more precise the muscle movement, the greater the number of muscle fibers activated by
a motor neuron. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 374
TOP: Motor Unit
25. Muscles contract more forcefully after they have contracted a few times. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon
REF: p. 375
26. Smooth, sustained contractions are called treppe. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 375 TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon 27. In psychological muscle fatigue, an individual cannot contract his or her muscles. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 376
TOP: Muscle Fatigue
28. Muscles with less-than-normal tone are described as in tetanus. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 376
TOP: Muscle Tone
29. During an isotonic contraction, the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot
overcome the load placed on the muscle. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 379-380 TOP: Isotonic and Isometric Contractions 30. The degree of a muscle’s strength is influenced by many factors, including its metabolic
condition and number of motor units recruited. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Graded Strength Principle
REF: p. 377
31. A tetanic contraction is stimulated by a single stimulus. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 375
TOP: Tetanus
32. Skeletal muscle organs contract on the all-or-none principle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Graded Strength Principle
REF: p. 377
33. Treppe is a steep increase in the strength of contractions that can be seen in a series of twitch
contractions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon
REF: p. 375
34. The type of contraction exhibited by normal skeletal muscles most of the time is called
tetanus. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 375
TOP: Tetanus
35. The study of muscle activity is called myography. ANS: T TOP: Myography
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 374
36. The graded strength principle states that skeletal muscles contract with varying degrees of
strength at different times. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Graded Strength Principle
REF: p. 377
37. As resistance increases, the number of motor units needed to overcome that resistance has to
increase. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis TOP: The Graded Strength Principle
REF: p. 377
38. Endurance training usually results in muscle hypertrophy. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 378 TOP: Effects of Exercise on Skeletal Muscles 39. Convulsions are abnormal, uncoordinated tetanic contractions of varying groups of muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Abnormal Muscle Contractions
REF: p. 385
40. Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle in that both form strong, electrically coupled
junctions with other fibers. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 381
TOP: Cardiac Muscle
41. Fibrillation is a tetanic contraction of cardiac muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Abnormal Muscle Contractions
REF: p. 385
42. T-tubules are found in all types of muscle tissue. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Characteristics of Muscle Tissue
REF: p. 362
43. In visceral smooth muscle, gap junctions join individual smooth muscle fibers into large,
continuous sheets. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Smooth Muscle
REF: p. 382
44. A satellite cell can fuse with myocytes during strength training to make larger muscle fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
45. Myocyte is another term for a muscle cell. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 362
TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
46. Muscle pain may also be referred to as muscular dystrophy. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 384
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
47. Duchenne (pseudohypertrophic) muscular dystrophy is the most common type of muscular
dystrophy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 384
48. A motor neuron is considered part of the neuromuscular junction. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma
REF: p. 366
49. Cramps are painful, involuntary muscle spasms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Abnormal Muscle Contractions
REF: p. 385
50. The thin myofilament is myosin, whereas the thick myofilament is actin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments 51. Skeletal muscle has a great ability to stretch.
REF: p. 366
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue
REF: p. 362
52. Muscle cells produce heat by the process of catabolism. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: General Functions
REF: p. 362
53. Actin, troponin, and tropomyosin are present on the thick myofilament. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments
REF: p. 366
54. One I-band resides within two sarcomeres. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: A More Detailed Look at the Sarcomere
REF: p. 365
55. Rigor mortis occurs because of damage done to the sarcolemma after death. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Rigor Mortis
REF: p. 371
56. The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called the sarcolemma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
57. Oxygen molecules in the sarcoplasm are bound to the troponin molecule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose and Oxygen
REF: p. 371
58. Myoglobin gives red muscle fibers their red color. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose and Oxygen
REF: p. 371
59. Isometric contraction is a contraction in which the tone or tension within a muscle remains the
same, but the length of the muscle changes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Isotonic and Isometric Contractions
REF: p. 380
60. The shorter a muscle before contraction, the more tension it will be able to generate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Graded Strength Principle
REF: p. 377
61. Muscles with less tone than normal are described as flaccid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Tone
REF: p. 377
62. The anabolism of protein by muscle cells produces heat for the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue
REF: p. 362
63. Excitability and irritability are interchangeable terms in regard to muscle cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Function of Skeletal Muscle Tissue
REF: p. 362
64. The sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells is identical to the rough endoplasmic reticulum in
other cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
65. T-tubules are formed by an inward extension of the sarcolemma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
66. The sarcoplasmic reticulum continually pumps calcium ions out of the sarcoplasm and stores
them in sacs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
67. Myofibrils make up myofilaments. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments
REF: p. 366
68. The H-zone in a relaxed sarcomere is composed of only myosin. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 366
TOP: Myofilaments
69. The A-band in a relaxed sarcomere is composed of only actin. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 366
TOP: Myofilaments
70. The motor end plate is part of the neuromuscular junction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma
REF: p. 366
71. When the sarcomere contracts, the A-bands become smaller. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 365
72. When the sarcomere contracts, the I-bands become smaller.
TOP: Contraction
ANS: T TOP: Contraction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 365
73. When troponin and calcium combine, it causes actin to shift and allows the myosin to form
cross-bridges. ANS: F TOP: Contraction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 370
74. Because of the elasticity of the muscle fiber, as soon as the contraction stops, the sarcomere
goes back to its precontraction length. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 370
TOP: Relaxation
75. Myosin heads detach from the actin molecule when ATP attaches to it. ANS: T TOP: ATP
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 370
76. The difference between red and white fibers is the amount of glycogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose and Oxygen
REF: p. 371
77. An accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle is the result of an oxygen debt. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Catabolic Pathways
REF: p. 371
78. The release of calcium by the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins the contraction phase of a twitch
contraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Twitch Contraction
REF: p. 375
79. Tetanus will not occur in an individual with an up-to-date tetanus vaccination. ANS: F TOP: Tetanus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 376
80. Contraction of a small fraction of the total number of fibers in a muscle produces muscle tone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Tone
REF: p. 377
81. Maintaining muscle tone is one of the few examples of a positive-feedback mechanism in the
body. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 377
TOP: Muscle Tone
82. Recruitment is the term used to describe the addition of more motor units to allow a muscle to
increase its strength of contraction.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Graded Strength Principle
REF: p. 377
83. The longer the initial length of a muscle, the stronger the contraction of that muscle can be. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Graded Strength Principle
REF: p. 377
84. Cardiac fibers form a continuous electrically coupled mass called a syncytium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Muscle
REF: p. 381
85. Because the heart is in almost constant contraction, its muscle cells have larger sarcoplasmic
reticula that can hold higher concentrations of calcium ions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Muscle
REF: pp. 381-382
86. Smooth muscle can contract to shorter lengths than skeletal muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Smooth Muscle
REF: p. 382
87. When smooth muscles have rhythmic contractions called peristalsis, they are able to move
food through the digestive tract. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Smooth Muscle
REF: p. 382
88. Muscle cells are called fibers, because they are long and thin. They can be 40 mm long but
only about 10 mm in diameter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
89. T-tubules are unique to muscle cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
90. The liver has the ability to convert lactic acid back into glucose. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Catabolic Pathways
REF: p. 371
91. Cardiac muscles require a stimulus from a motor neuron to contract, just as striated muscles
do. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Muscle
REF: p. 381
92. In smooth muscle cells, the calcium needed for contraction comes from outside the cell rather
than from inside the cell as it does in striated muscle contraction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Smooth Muscle
REF: p. 382
93. In smooth muscle cells, the protein calmodulin takes the place of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
found in striated muscle cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Smooth Muscle
REF: p. 382
94. Skeletal muscles produce a major share of the heat generated by the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: General Functions
REF: p. 362
95. When a muscle contracts, the muscle always becomes shorter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue
REF: p. 362
96. Muscle fibers have many nuclei, because they are the result of several precursor cells joining
together to make a mature muscle fiber. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
REF: p. 362
97. Only striated and cardiac muscles have triads; smooth muscles do not contain T-tubules. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 362, 381 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells and Cardiac Muscle 98. The primary function of tropomyosin and troponin is to prevent a muscle from contracting. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 366
TOP: Myofilaments
99. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that stimulates muscle contraction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma
REF: p. 366
100. When the muscle looks “at rest,” the ATP has already transferred its energy to the actin fiber. ANS: F TOP: ATP
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 370
101. The aerobic catabolic pathway that can supply energy to muscle cells is called fermentation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Catabolic Pathways
REF: p. 371
102. A muscle using anaerobic respiration would lower the pH of the blood passing through the
muscle. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 371
TOP: Catabolic Pathways
103. There are two types of isometric contractions: concentric contractions and eccentric
contractions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Isotonic and Isometric Contractions
REF: p. 380
104. Eccentric muscle contractions actually result in the lengthening of the muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Isotonic and Isometric Contractions
REF: p. 380
105. The term striated involuntary muscle refers to cardiac muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Muscle
REF: p. 381
106. Single-unit smooth muscle is another term for visceral muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Smooth Muscle
REF: p. 382
107. Multiunit smooth muscle is more common in the body than single-unit smooth muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Smooth Muscle
REF: p. 382
108. There are three high-energy bonds in an ATP molecule. ANS: F TOP: ATP
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 370
109. In muscles, oxygen can be transferred to the calcium by myoglobin molecules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose and Oxygen
REF: p. 371
110. Muscle has the ability to store oxygen in myoglobin and store glucose as glycogen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose and Oxygen
REF: p. 371
111. Because the process of catabolism is less than 100% efficient, some of the energy is given off
as heat. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Heat Production
REF: p. 373
112. The pituitary gland is responsible for the homeostatic control of body temperature. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Heat Production
REF: p. 373
113. Shivering in response to a drop in body temperature is an example of a positive-feedback
mechanism in the body. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 373
TOP: Heat Production
114. Each motor neuron in the motor unit is able to stimulate as many as two dozen muscle fibers. ANS: F TOP: Motor Unit
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 374
115. The three phases of muscle contraction are contraction, relaxation, and recovery. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Twitch Contraction
REF: p. 375
116. During the latent period of muscle contraction, the impulse is transmitted from the
sarcolemma to the sarcomere. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Twitch Contraction
REF: p. 375
117. In the “warmed up” muscle, the calcium ions are able to be completely returned to the
sarcoplasmic reticulum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon
REF: p. 375
118. Tonic contractions give the muscle its muscle tone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Tone
REF: p. 377
119. Muscles with less than normal muscle tone are called spastic. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle Tone
REF: p. 377
120. The T-tubules in the heart form dyads rather than the triads found in skeletal muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Muscle
REF: p. 381
121. The result of endurance training is more blood vessels, not more muscle cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of Exercise on Skeletal Muscles
REF: p. 378
MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Actin b. Sarcolemma c. Contractility d. Tropomyosin e. Extensibility f. Myosin g. T-tubule h. Irritability i. Sarcomere j. Troponin k. Motor unit 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
Name given to the plasma membrane of a muscle cell Inward extensions of the sarcolemma that allow impulses to go deeper into the cell The ability of a muscle cell to be stimulated or excited A neuron and all the muscle fibers it stimulates Protein that blocks the receptor sites on the actin molecule The ability of a muscle cell to shorten Beadlike globular protein that makes up the thin myofilament Protein that joins with calcium ions to allow cross-bridges to form The ability of a muscle to stretch Protein that looks like “bundled golf clubs”; makes up the thick myofilament A segment of the myofilament between two Z-lines
1. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 2. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 3. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue 4. ANS: K DIF: Memorization TOP: Motor Unit 5. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments 6. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue 7. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments 8. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Contraction 9. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue 10. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Myofilaments 11. ANS: I DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 362 REF: p. 362 REF: p. 362 REF: p. 374 REF: p. 366 REF: p. 362 REF: p. 366 REF: p. 368 REF: p. 362 REF: p. 366 REF: p. 362
TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
Match each term with its corresponding description regarding the sliding-filament theory. a. Troponin b. Myosin c. Actin d. T-tubules e. ATP f. Calcium g. Cross-bridges h. Tropomyosin i. Acetylcholine 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Protein that has active sites for cross-bridge heads By energizing these structures, chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy The stimulus to contract the muscle is carried inside the muscle by this structure Protein that directly prevents the formation of cross-bridges in the sarcomere Chemical released by the motor neuron that initiates the stimulus for a muscle contraction Compound that supplies the energy for muscle contraction Ion that is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum Protein that has cross-bridge heads that pull on the thin fiber Protein that has receptor sites for an ion that causes it to change shape and pull another protein away from the receptor sites on the actin
12. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Contraction 13. ANS: G DIF: Application REF: p. 368 14. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Contraction 15. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Contraction 16. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma 17. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: ATP 18. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Contraction 19. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Contraction 20. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Contraction
REF: p. 368 TOP: Contraction REF: p. 368 REF: p. 368 REF: p. 366 REF: p. 370 REF: p. 368 REF: p. 368 REF: p. 368
OTHER 1. List and describe the three general functions of skeletal muscle tissue. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 362
TOP: General Functions
2. List three characteristics of muscles. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 362, 381, 382 TOP: General Functions, Functions of Cardiac and Smooth Muscle 3. Describe and/or diagram the sarcomere. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 362
TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells
4. Describe the physiological process of muscle contraction. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 366
TOP: Mechanism of Contraction
5. Define rigor mortis. Why does it occur? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 371
TOP: Rigor Mortis
6. Explain the role of ATP in muscle contraction. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 370
TOP: ATP
7. Explain how glycogen and myoglobin aid in muscle contraction. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 371
TOP: Glucose and Oxygen
8. Differentiate among slow, fast, and intermediate fibers. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 372
TOP: Types of Muscle Fibers
9. Explain how the treppe, or staircase, phenomenon applies to pre-exercise warm-up.
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 375, 378 TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon, Effects of Exercise on Skeletal Muscles 10. Explain what is meant by the graded strength principle of muscle contraction. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 377
TOP: The Graded Strength Principle
11. List three conditions that influence the strength of muscle contraction. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 377
TOP: The Graded Strength Principle
12. Explain the process of anaerobic respiration in the muscle. What is the oxygen debt, and how
is it “repaid”? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 371
TOP: Catabolic Pathways
13. Name and describe the myofilament fibers in the sarcomere. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 366
TOP: Myofilaments
14. Explain the role of the skeletal muscles in heat production for the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 373
TOP: Heat Production
15. Explain isometric muscle contractions and the two types of isotonic contractions. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 379 TOP: Isotonic and Isometric Contractions
16. Explain the similarities and differences between skeletal and cardiac muscle cells. How do
these differences reflect the functioning of the heart? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 381
TOP: Cardiac Muscle
17. Describe the structure of smooth muscle. Differentiate between single-unit and multiunit
muscle tissue. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 382
TOP: Smooth Muscle
ESSAY 1. Susie Swift, an avid jogger, is running down the beach when she comes upon Bobby
Beachbum, a serious weight lifter. Bobby flirts with Susie, who decides he has more muscle than brains. She continues her run down the beach, and Bobby begins to run after her. After about a half mile, Bobby tires and gives up. Explain why Susie was able to continue to run despite having less muscle mass than Bobby has. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 378
TOP: Effects of Exercise on Skeletal Muscles
2. Based on your knowledge of the structure and function of the muscle cells, explain why you
would expect to find multiple mitochondria and nuclei in them under microscopic examination. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 366, 371
TOP: Myofilaments, Glucose, and Oxygen
3. Both the skin, or integument, system and the muscle system are important in maintaining the
body temperature. The skin function is homeostatic in nature. Explain why the muscle function is not. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 373
TOP: Heat Production
Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The efferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system consist of the _____ nervous systems. a. peripheral and afferent b. sympathetic and parasympathetic c. sympathetic and efferent d. parasympathetic and somatic ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems
REF: p. 395
2. A neuron that transmits a nerve impulse toward the central nervous system is called a(n): a. motor neuron. b. sensory neuron. c. interneuron. d. bipolar neuron. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Afferent and Efferent Divisions
REF: p. 394
3. The largest and most numerous types of neuroglia are the: a. astrocytes. b. microglia. c. ependymal cells. d. oligodendrocytes. ANS: A TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
4. Which of the following is not a function of the central nervous system (CNS)? a. Integrating sensory information b. Evaluating the information c. Initiating an outgoing response d. All of the above are functions of the CNS. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems
REF: p. 393
5. The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscle is
the: a. b. c. d.
somatic nervous system. autonomic nervous system. central nervous system. afferent division.
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems
REF: p. 394
6. The myelin sheath is formed by: a. Nissl bodies. b. nodes of Ranvier. c. Schwann cells. d. neuron cell bodies. ANS: C TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 397
7. Which is not true of the myelin sheath? a. It is associated with white fibers in the brain. b. It is important for nerve impulse conduction. c. It covers cell bodies in the brain and spinal cord. d. It is destroyed in those with multiple sclerosis. ANS: C
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 404
TOP: Nerves and Tracts
8. Neurons in the CNS have less chance of regenerating for all of the following reasons except: a. there is no neurolemma in cells of the CNS. b. astrocytes fill in the path of regrowth. c. microglia lay down scar tissue. d. All of these lessen the chance of healing in the CNS. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
REF: p. 404
9. Along a neuron, the correct pathway for impulse conduction is: a. dendrite, axon, cell body, and receptor. b. dendrite, cell body, and axon. c. axon, cell body, and dendrite. d. receptor, axon, and cell body. ANS: B
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 400
TOP: Neurons
10. A neuron that has only one axon but several dendrites is classified as a _____ neuron. a. multipolar b. bipolar c. unipolar d. multidendritic ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Classification
REF: p. 401
11. Which is true of a reflex arc? a. It does not involve the brain. b. It always consists of an afferent neuron and an efferent neuron. c. It always consists of an afferent neuron, an efferent neuron, and an interneuron. d. It always consists of an afferent neuron, an efferent neuron, the brain, and the
spinal cord. ANS: B TOP: Reflex Arc
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 402
12. Multipolar neurons have: a. multiple axons and multiple dendrites. b. multiple axons and one dendrite. c. multiple dendrites and one axon. d. one dendrite and one axon. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Classification
REF: p. 401
13. Most unipolar neurons are usually: a. motor neurons. b. neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system. c. sensory neurons. d. neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Classification
REF: p. 401
14. Fascicles are held together by a connective tissue layer called the: a. endoneurium. b. perineurium. c. macroneurium. d. epineurium. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerves and Tracts
REF: p. 404
15. Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord consists primarily of: a. nerve fibers. b. neuroglia. c. axons. d. cell bodies. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerves and Tracts
REF: p. 404
16. The white matter of the nervous system is made up of: a. myelinated fibers. b. nuclei. c. unmyelinated fibers. d. ganglia. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerves and Tracts
REF: p. 404
17. Regeneration of nerve fibers will take place only if the cell body is intact and the fibers have: a. nodes of Ranvier. b. a neurilemma. c. a myelin sheath. d. neurofibrils. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 406
TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
18. Which of the following compounds cannot cross the blood-brain barrier? a. Water b. Carbon dioxide c. Glucose d. Dopamine ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: The Blood-Brain Barrier
REF: p. 397
19. A lack of which neurotransmitter is associated with Parkinson’s disease? a. Norepinephrine b. Endorphins c. Dopamine d. Enkephalin ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: The Blood-Brain Barrier
REF: p. 397
20. Dendrites conduct impulses _____ cell bodies. a. toward b. away from c. within d. None of the above is correct. ANS: A TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 399
21. Interneurons reside in the: a. CNS and peripheral nervous system (PNS). b. CNS only. c. PNS only. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functional Classification
REF: p. 402
22. Which of the following is the deepest connective tissue layer of a nerve? a. Endoneurium b. Perineurium c. Epineurium d. Fascicle ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerves and Tracts
REF: p. 404
23. Nerves that contain mostly afferent fibers are called _____ nerves. a. sensory b. motor c. mixed d. Schwann ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Functional Classification
REF: p. 404
24. Small distinct regions of gray matter in the CNS are called: a. nuclei. b. tracts. c. ganglia. d. axons. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerves and Tracts
REF: p. 404
25. The nervous system is organized to do which of the following? a. Detect changes in the external environment. b. Detect changes in the internal environment. c. Evaluate changes in the environment. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Nervous System
REF: p. 393
26. In the human nervous system: a. most of the cells are neurons. b. most of the cells are glia cells. c. there are almost equal numbers of glia cells and neurons. d. the ratio of cells is unknown because of the complexity of the nervous system. ANS: B TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
27. Astrocytes attach to: a. neurons. b. oligodendrocytes. c. blood vessels. d. both A and C. ANS: D TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
28. One of the components of the blood-brain barrier is: a. astrocytes. b. neurons. c. myelin. d. oligodendrocytes. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: The Blood-Brain Barrier
REF: p. 397
29. Which of the following statements does not apply to ependymal cells? a. They form the sheets of cells that line fluid-filled cavities in the brain. b. They make up part of the blood-brain barrier. c. They produce fluid that fills the cavities in the brain. d. They have cilia to move fluid in the brain. ANS: B
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 396-397
TOP: Glia 30. Schwann cells have a function in the PNS that is similar to that of which cells in the CNS? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Astrocytes c. Microglia d. Ependymal cells ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 397
TOP: Glia
31. The telodendria are: a. the receptor portion of the dendrite. b. where the dendrite attaches to the cell body. c. where the axon leaves the cell body. d. none of the above. ANS: D TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 400
32. Which of the following is not a factor in the velocity of nerve impulse conduction? a. Length b. Diameter c. Whether or not it is myelinated d. Neither B nor C ANS: A TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 400
33. In a three-neuron reflex arc, the afferent neurons synapse with the: a. interneuron. b. efferent neuron. c. contralateral neuron. d. ipsilateral neuron. ANS: A TOP: Reflex Arc
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 402
34. The nervous system can be divided: a. according to its structure. b. according to direction of information flow. c. by control of effectors. d. in all of the above ways. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Nervous System
REF: p. 393
35. The autonomic nervous system does not stimulate: a. skeletal muscles. b. smooth muscles. c. glands. d. cardiac muscle. ANS: A
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 36. The afferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system: a. stimulate the fight-or-flight response. b. maintain normal resting activity. c. carry feedback information to integrating centers in the brain. d. do both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems
REF: p. 395
37. The other term for cell body is: a. telodendria. b. perikaryon. c. Nissl body. d. axon hillock. ANS: B TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 400
38. Which of the following is not true of a three-neuron ipsilateral reflex? a. It contains an interneuron. b. The impulse leaves the CNS on the same side as the one on which it entered. c. The impulse leaves the CNS on the side opposite to the one from which it entered. d. It stimulates an action potential in a motor neuron. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 402
TOP: Reflex Arc
39. Which is the only glia cell that is found outside of the CNS? a. Schwann cell b. Oligodendrocyte c. Astrocyte d. Ependymal cell ANS: A TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 397
40. The parasympathetic nervous system is part of the _____ pathway of the _____ nervous
system. a. afferent; somatic b. afferent; autonomic c. efferent; somatic d. efferent; autonomic ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems
REF: p. 395
41. Preparing the body for “fight or flight” describes the function of the _____ nervous system. a. parasympathetic b. sympathetic c. somatic d. Both B and C are correct.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems
REF: p. 395
42. Which of the following structures is(are) not found on the axon? a. Axon hillock b. Telodendria c. Synaptic knob d. All of the above structures are found on the axon. ANS: A TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 400
43. What is the relationship between the afferent and efferent neurons of the reflex arc? a. The afferent neurons move signals to the CNS, and the efferent neurons move
signals away from the CNS. b. The afferent neurons move signals away from the CNS, and the efferent neurons move signals to the CNS. c. Afferent neurons are present in the brain, and efferent neurons are present at the sensory site. d. None. Efferent neurons are only present in gray matter of the brain and are needed for the reflex arc to work correctly. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 402
TOP: Reflex Arc
44. If there were lesions on a bundle of myelinated fibers, what would occur? a. Nerve conduction would be enhanced with an increase in motor coordination. b. There would be no side effects of these types of lesions. c. Nerve conduction would be impaired, and weakness, loss of coordination, and
visual impairment would occur. d. Nerve conduction would be impaired, and neuromas would develop. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 398
TOP: Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
45. Neurons have: a. complete regeneration capacity. b. no regeneration capacity. c. very limited capacity to repair themselves. d. none of the above. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 404
TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
46. After a stroke, there is usually some damage to brain tissue. What type of neuroglia would
you expect to find invading the affected area? a. Astrocytes b. Ependymal cells c. Microglia d. Oligodendrocytes ANS: C TRUE/FALSE
DIF: Application
REF: p. 396
TOP: Glia
1. The nervous system consists of the brain, spinal cord, and nerves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous System Cells Introduction
REF: p. 393
2. The afferent nervous system consists of all outgoing motor pathways. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Afferent and Efferent Divisions
REF: p. 394
3. Multiple sclerosis is the most common primary disease of the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
REF: p. 398
4. Ependymal cells engulf and destroy microbes and cellular debris in inflamed or degenerating
brain tissue. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 404
TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
5. Oligodendrocytes form myelin sheaths around nerve fibers in the CNS. ANS: T TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 397
6. Nerve fibers with many Schwann cells forming a thick myelin sheath are called myelinated
fibers, or gray fibers. ANS: F TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 398
7. Small, lipid-soluble molecules can diffuse easily across the blood-brain barrier. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Blood-Brain Barrier
REF: p. 396
8. Most of the neurons in the brain and spinal cord are unipolar. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Classification
REF: p. 401
9. In a contralateral reflex arc, the receptors and effectors are located on opposite sides of the
body. ANS: T TOP: Reflex Arc
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 403
10. In an ipsilateral arc, the effectors and receptors are on opposite sides of the body. ANS: F TOP: Reflex Arc
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 402
11. Groups of cell bodies located in the brain or spinal cord are referred to as ganglia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerves and Tracts
REF: p. 404
12. Most injuries to the brain and spinal cord cause permanent damage. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
REF: p. 406
13. In an adult, brain cells do not undergo mitosis, except to replace neurons that have been
damaged or destroyed. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
REF: p. 406
14. Regeneration of nerve fibers will occur only if the cell body is intact and the fibers have a
neurilemma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
REF: p. 406
15. If a motor neuron is damaged, it can cause the muscle it innervates to atrophy because of lack
of stimulation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
REF: p. 406
16. The nervous system is designed to detect stimuli from both the internal and external
environment. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 393
17. The nervous system can be divided according to structure, direction of information flow, and
speed of conduction. ANS: F TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 393
18. The efferent division of the nervous system consists of mostly sensory pathways. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems
REF: p. 394
19. Small, distinct regions of gray matter within the CNS are called nuclei. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerves and Tracts 20. Most nerves in the human nervous system are mixed.
REF: p. 404
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerves and Tracts
REF: p. 404
21. Neurons have, at best, a limited ability to repair themselves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
REF: p. 404
22. Regeneration of nerve fibers is impossible, even if the cell body is intact and the fibers have a
neurilemma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
REF: p. 404
23. There are differences between the central and peripheral nervous systems concerning the
repair of damaged fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
REF: p. 404
24. Bundles of unmyelinated fibers make up what is referred to as white matter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerves and Tracts
REF: p. 404
25. Rapid succession stimulation of a postsynaptic neuron by a synaptic knob is called an
ipsilateral reflex. ANS: F TOP: Reflex Arc
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 403
26. Cranial nerves are considered part of the CNS. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems
REF: p. 394
27. Spinal nerves are considered part of the PNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems
REF: p. 394
28. When “central” and “peripheral” are used as directional terms in the nervous system, a nerve
fiber may be called peripheral if it extends from the cell body toward the CNS. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems
REF: p. 393
29. When “central” and “peripheral” are used as directional terms in the nervous system, a nerve
fiber may be called peripheral if it extends from the cell body away from the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems
REF: p. 393
30. The CNS is composed of efferent nerves only. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Afferent and Efferent Divisions
REF: p. 394
31. The PNS includes both efferent and afferent nerves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Afferent and Efferent Divisions
REF: p. 394
32. Pathways from the autonomic nervous system that form the thoracic region of the spinal cord
would be sympathetic pathways. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 395 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 33. Pathways from the autonomic nervous system that leave the CNS from the brain would be
sympathetic pathways. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 394 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 34. The name for the astrocyte comes from its shape. ANS: T TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
35. Part of the function of the astrocyte is to help feed the neurons. ANS: T TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
36. Microglia are functionally and developmentally very close to neurons. ANS: F TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 396
37. The microglia engulf and destroy microorganisms and cellular debris. ANS: T TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 396
38. Oligodendrocytes are found only around dendrites of neurons of the CNS. ANS: F TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 397
39. Gray fibers have no association with Schwann cells. ANS: F TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 397
40. Gray fibers probably do not have nodes of Ranvier. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 398
TOP: Glia
41. Cell body and perikaryon are interchangeable terms. ANS: T TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 399
42. In neurons, microtubules are called neurofibrils. ANS: F TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 400
43. Unipolar neurons have no axons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Classification
REF: p. 401
44. Nerves are usually made up of a single large neuron. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerves and Tracts
REF: p. 403
45. Whether a group of nerve fibers is called a nerve or a tract depends on its location. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerves and Tracts
REF: p. 404
46. Astrocytes attempt to assist the neurons of the CNS in healing and regrowth. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
REF: p. 406
47. Like other cells of the nervous system, glia cells have lost their capacity for cell division. ANS: F TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
48. Astrocytes, the star-shaped glia cells, may be able to transmit information along “astrocyte
pathways.” ANS: T TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
49. The Greek word for tree correctly describes the shape of the axon. ANS: F TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 399
50. Microtubules and microfilaments provide a type of “railway” for the rapid transport of
organelles to and from the ends of the neuron. ANS: T TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 400
51. The words nerve and neuron mean the same thing. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerves and Tracts
REF: p. 404
52. Damage to a single neuron can have a “domino” effect causing the shutdown of an entire
nerve pathway. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
REF: p. 406
53. The afferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system stimulate muscles and do not have a
sensory component. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems
REF: p. 395
54. The nervous system and the endocrine system share a common function of communication. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 393
55. The function of the parasympathetic nervous system is commonly described as preparing the
body for “fight or flight.” ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems
REF: p. 395
56. If a person were in a high-stress, emergency situation, the sympathetic division of the
autonomic nervous system would be active. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 395 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 57. If a skeletal muscle moved, it would be responding to the somatic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems
REF: p. 394
58. Microglia are associated with the formation of the blood-brain barrier. ANS: F TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 396
59. The blood-brain barrier is so effective that only water molecules are able to cross it.
ANS: F TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 396
60. Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes share a common function, but in different parts of the
nervous system. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 397
TOP: Glia
61. Satellite cells are oligodendrocytes that surround the cell bodies of neurons in the CNS. ANS: F TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 397
62. Bipolar and multipolar are examples of the structural classification of neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Classification
REF: p. 401
63. All reflex arcs contain an interneuron. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 402
TOP: Reflex Arc
64. One distinction between ipsilateral and contralateral reflexes is that contralateral reflexes have
interneurons and ipsilateral reflexes do not. ANS: F TOP: Reflex Arc
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 403
65. Only astrocytes, microglia, and oligodendrocytes are found in the CNS; Schwann cells and
ependymal cells are found in the PNS. ANS: F TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
66. The endoneurium is deep to the epineurium. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 404
TOP: Nerves and Tracts
67. The epineurium is deep to the perineurium. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 404
TOP: Nerves and Tracts
68. It is now known that fresh new neurons are often added to existing networks of neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
REF: p. 404
69. The axon hillock is actually part of the cell body of the neuron. ANS: T TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 400
70. The nervous system contains two types of cells, neurons and glia cells, but only neurons
conduct nerve impulses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the Nervous System
REF: p. 399
71. The word glia means “support,” which accurately describes their function in the nervous
system. ANS: F TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
72. There are about 900 million glia cells in the nervous system. ANS: F TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
73. Ependymal cells act like epithelial cells in the CNS, forming thin sheets that line cavities. ANS: T TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 397
74. Only axons are covered in myelin. ANS: T TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 398
75. There are more glia cells in the brain than there are neurons. ANS: T TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 399
76. Some astrocytes have cilia that help keep the fluid in the nervous system moving. ANS: F TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
77. Dendrites carry impulses toward the cell body. ANS: T TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 399
78. Dendrites have many synaptic knobs so they can receive impulses from several other neurons
at the same time. ANS: F TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 399
79. Interneurons are found only in the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functional Classification
REF: p. 402
MATCHING
Match each of the following cell types with its corresponding description. a. Astrocyte b. Oligodendrocyte c. Microglia d. Schwann cell e. Ependymal cell 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Has the capability of phagocytosis Helps form the blood-brain barrier Type of neuroglia that forms neurilemma Resembles epithelial cells and lines fluid-filled cavities in the brain and spinal cord Produces the myelin sheath around nerve fibers in the CNS
1. ANS: C TOP: Glia 2. ANS: A TOP: Glia 3. ANS: D TOP: Glia 4. ANS: E TOP: Glia 5. ANS: B TOP: Glia
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 396
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 397
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 396-397
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 397
Match each part of the nervous system with its corresponding description. a. Afferent division b. Autonomic nervous system c. Central nervous system d. Efferent division e. Parasympathetic division f. PNS g. Somatic nervous system h. Sympathetic division Consists of the brain and spinal cord Consists of nerves that lie in the periphery of the nervous system PNS subdivision that transmits incoming information from the sensory organs to the CNS Produces the “fight-or-flight” response Subdivision that carries information from the CNS to skeletal muscle Subdivision of the efferent division that transmits information to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands 12. Consists of all the outgoing pathways 13. Sometimes called the “rest-and-repair” division 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
6. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems 7. ANS: F DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 393 REF: p. 394
8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Afferent and Efferent Divisions ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Afferent and Efferent Divisions ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems
REF: p. 394 REF: p. 395 REF: p. 394 REF: p. 395 REF: p. 394 REF: p. 395
Match each term with its definition or description. a. Cell body b. Axon c. Nodes of Ranvier d. Dendrite e. Myelin f. Neurofibrils 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.
Nerve fiber that is highly branched; the name comes from the Greek word for tree Fatty sheath around nerve fibers made by Schwann cells Distal tips of these nerve fibers end in branches called telodendria Microscopic gaps in the myelin sheath Contains the nucleus and various organelles for the neuron Bundles of intermediate filaments in the neuron
14. ANS: D TOP: Neurons 15. ANS: E TOP: Glia 16. ANS: B TOP: Neurons 17. ANS: C TOP: Glia 18. ANS: A TOP: Neurons 19. ANS: F TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 399
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 398
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 399
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 400
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 399
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 399
OTHER 1. What two systems perform the vital functions of communication and integration of body
processes? ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393 TOP: Nervous System Cells Introduction 2. What comprises the CNS? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393 TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems 3. What is the major function of neurons? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 394
TOP: Cells of the Nervous System
4. What type of neuron is always a sensory receptor? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 399
TOP: Neurons
5. Name two types of tissue that are effectors. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 402
TOP: Reflex Arc
6. What is the difference between nuclei and ganglia? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 403
TOP: Nerves and Tracts
7. Describe the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 394 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 8. Name and briefly describe the types of glia cells found in the nervous system. ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 395
TOP: Glia
9. Name and describe the three parts of the neuron. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 399
TOP: Neurons
10. Name the two ways in which neurons are classified. Name and describe the types of neurons
in each classification. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 400
TOP: Classification of Neurons
11. Explain the types of reflex arc. Differentiate between a contralateral reflex arc and an
ipsilateral reflex arc. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 402
TOP: Reflex Arc
12. Explain how a neuron can repair itself. What increases the likelihood of repair; what decreases
the likelihood of repair? If repair is not possible, what other options are possible to innervate the effector organ? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 404
TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
ESSAY 1. Sue was in a severe car accident. She had injuries to her arm and lower spinal column. Her
physician told her that she most likely would regain the use of her arm but her legs would be paralyzed. Why did he say that? Explain the differences in the neuron structures. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 404
TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers
Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? a. The cell membrane is permeable to Na+ but impermeable to K+ ions. b. The outer surface of the plasma membrane has a negative charge. c. The highest concentration of K+ is extracellular. d. The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane. ANS: D DIF: Application TOP: Resting Membrane potentials
REF: p. 413
2. The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is: a. the membrane potential moves immediately to a value of +30 mV. b. the potassium channels open. c. the sodium channels are inactivated. d. some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Action Potential
REF: p. 415
3. Which is true of an action potential? a. The plasma membrane is impermeable to Na+ and K+ ions. b. Na+ ions move extracellularly. c. The charges become equal on the outside and inside of the plasma membrane. d. The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is
positively charged. ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 415
TOP: Action Potential
4. The only ion(s) that can diffuse across a neuron’s membrane when the neuron is at rest is(are): a. sodium. b. potassium. c. proteins. d. phosphate. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials
REF: p. 413
5. A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma
membrane is called a _____ potential. a. membrane b. resting membrane c. local d. None of the above is correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Local Potentials
REF: p. 414
6. During a relative refractory period: a. the action potential cannot be initiated. b. a resting potential exists. c. the cell membrane is impermeable to Na+ and K+. d. the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Refractory Period
REF: p. 417
7. Within the nervous system, coding for the strength of a stimulus is accomplished through: a. changes in the magnitude of the action potential. b. changes in the length or duration of the action potential. c. the frequency of nerve impulses. d. an increase in the number of opening sodium channels. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Refractory Period
REF: p. 417
8. The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters
per second. a. 60 b. 85 c. 130 d. 190 ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential
REF: p. 418
9. A synapse consists of: a. a synaptic knob. b. a synaptic cleft. c. the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Synapses
REF: p. 419
10. A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): a. cell body. b. axon. c. dendrite. d. cell body, axon, or dendrite. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Synapses
REF: p. 420
11. When an impulse reaches a synapse: a. two nerve fibers come in direct contact. b. impulses will pass in either direction. c. an electrical spark will jump the gap. d. chemical transmitters are released. ANS: D
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 420
TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 12. Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to: a. increase the speed of impulse conduction. b. make the cell membrane impermeable. c. initiate an action potential. d. make the resting potential more negative. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 420 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 13. When current leaps across an insulating myelin sheath from node to node, the type of impulse
conduction is called: a. repolarization. b. refraction. c. saltatory conduction. d. diffusion. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential
REF: p. 418
14. For a neurotransmitter to produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential, which of the following
channels must open? a. Sodium and potassium channels b. Potassium and/or chloride channels c. Sodium and chloride channels d. Only the sodium channels ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission
REF: p. 422
15. Which of the following is true of spatial summation? a. Simultaneous stimulation of more than one postsynaptic neuron occurs. b. Impulses are fired in a rapid succession by the same neuron. c. Neurotransmitters released simultaneously from several presynaptic knobs
converge on one postsynaptic neuron. d. Speed of impulse transmission is increased when several neurotransmitters are
released. ANS: C TOP: Summation
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 422
16. Which of the following is not one of the main chemical classes of neurotransmitters? a. Triglycerides b. Amines c. Amino acids d. Neuropeptides ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Neurotransmitters 17. Serotonin is an example of a(n): a. amino acid neurotransmitter.
REF: p. 424
b. amine neurotransmitter. c. acetylcholine derivative. d. neuropeptide neurotransmitter. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Neurotransmitters
REF: p. 425
18. The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are): a. acetylcholine. b. enkephalins. c. dopamine. d. norepinephrine. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Neurotransmitters
REF: p. 429
19. Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to: a. presynaptic terminals. b. the synaptic cleft. c. the base of the axon. d. receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission
REF: p. 418
20. Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect? a. They are among the most common neurotransmitters in the central nervous system
(CNS). b. They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters. c. Glycine is a widely distributed inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord. d. All of the above statements are correct. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 428
TOP: Amino Acids
21. Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: a. acetylcholine. b. amines. c. amino acids. d. neuropeptides. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 428
TOP: Antidepressants
22. Which of the following is not used by the body as a neurotransmitter? a. Nitric oxide b. Peroxide c. Carbon monoxide d. All of the above are used by the body as neurotransmitters. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Other Small-Molecule Transmitters
REF: pp. 428-429
23. Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase
(MAO)?
a. b. c. d.
Phenelzine Imipramine Amitriptyline Cocaine
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Antidepressants
REF: p. 428
24. Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge. a. positive b. negative c. equal d. None of the above are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Membrane potentials
REF: p. 413
25. Acetylcholine is in the same class of neurotransmitters as: a. serotonin. b. histamine. c. dopamine. d. none of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Acetylcholine
REF: p. 425
26. Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: a. acetylcholine. b. neuropeptides. c. catecholamines. d. none of the above. ANS: C TOP: Amines
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 425
27. Stimulus-gated channels open in response to: a. sensory stimuli. b. the influx of potassium. c. hyperpolarization. d. both A and B. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Local Potentials
REF: p. 414
28. The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the
slowest fibers in the body? a. Almost 50 times faster b. Almost 100 times faster c. Almost 300 times faster d. Almost 500 times faster ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential
REF: p. 418
29. Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? a. A small-diameter neuron without myelin b. A large-diameter neuron without myelin c. A large-diameter neuron with myelin d. A small-diameter neuron with myelin ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 418 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 30. No impulse can be sent through a neuron: a. during the relative refractory period. b. when the charge of the neuron is –70. c. during the absolute refractory period. d. when the stimulus is too strong. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Refractory Period
REF: p. 417
31. A synapse can occur only between an axon and: a. a dendrite. b. a cell body. c. another axon. d. any of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Synapses
REF: p. 420
32. The difference between sodium and potassium in the generation of action potential is that: a. sodium causes repolarization of the cell membrane, and potassium causes
depolarization of the cell membrane. b. sodium causes unipolarization of the cell membrane, and potassium causes
repolarization of the cell membrane. c. sodium causes repolarization, and potassium is not required in the action potential
mechanism. d. sodium causes depolarization of the cell membrane, and potassium causes repolarization of the cell membrane. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 415
TOP: Action Potential
33. A neurologist is using a voltmeter to measure potential. The membrane potential of a neuron
was recorded at +30 mV. This is what type of membrane potential? a. Action b. Conduction c. Polarized d. Resting ANS: A DIF: Application TOP: Types of Membrane Potentials TRUE/FALSE
REF: p. 413
1. Neurons are the only living cells that maintain a difference in the concentration of ions across
their membranes. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 413
TOP: Membrane Potentials
2. When a neuron is resting, the inner surface of its plasma membrane is slightly positive
compared with its outer surface. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials
REF: p. 413
3. The sodium-potassium pump actively pumps three potassium ions out of the neuron and two
sodium ions into the neuron. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials
REF: p. 413
4. If the threshold potential is surpassed, the full peak of the action potential is always reached. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 415
TOP: Action Potentials
5. The magnitude of the action potential peaks when the sodium channels close. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 415
TOP: Action Potentials
6. The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a membrane is called the
membrane potential. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Membrane Potentials
REF: p. 413
7. In depolarization the membrane potential moves toward zero, whereas in hyperpolarization
the membrane potential moves away from zero. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Local Potentials
REF: p. 414
8. Whether an impulse is continued through the neuron depends on the magnitude of the voltage
in the axon hillock. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Action Potentials
REF: p. 415
9. In a myelinated fiber, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential
REF: p. 418
10. The speed of a nerve impulse depends on the neuron’s resting potential. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential
REF: p. 418
11. In a myelinated neuron, the impulse can travel under the myelin between nodes of Ranvier. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential
REF: p. 418
12. The action potential is called an all-or-none response, because if the threshold potential is
surpassed, the full peak of the action is always reached; if the threshold potential is not surpassed, no action potential will occur. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 418
TOP: Action Potentials
13. Myelinated fibers conduct impulses faster than unmyelinated fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential
REF: p. 418
14. Many anesthetics produce their effects by inhibiting the opening of the potassium channels,
blocking the repolarization of nerve impulses. ANS: F TOP: Anesthetics
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 419
15. The sensory fibers from the skin generally conduct impulses up to about 130 meters per
second. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential
REF: p. 418
16. The receptors embedded in the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron are protein
molecules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Synapse
REF: p. 420
17. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential is produced through the hyperpolarization of the
postsynaptic membrane. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 422 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 18. Spatial summation is the effect produced by a rapid succession of stimuli on a single
postsynaptic neuron. ANS: F TOP: Summation
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 422
19. Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to initiate an action potential. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 423 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission
20. A neurotransmitter can be excitatory or inhibitory, not both. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 424 TOP: Classification of Neurotransmitters 21. A neurotransmitter can be either excitatory or inhibitory depending on the postsynaptic
receptor. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 424 TOP: Classification of Neurotransmitters 22. The neurotransmitter acetylcholine always has an excitatory effect. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Acetylcholine
REF: p. 425
23. When epinephrine and norepinephrine are released into the bloodstream, they are called
hormones instead of neurotransmitters. ANS: T TOP: Amines
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 425
24. Enkephalins and endorphins are subclasses of amines that are pain relievers. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 429
TOP: Neuropeptides
25. When a neuropeptide is secreted with one or two other neurotransmitters, it is thought to serve
as a neuromodulator, regulating the effects of the other neurotransmitters. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Neuropeptides
REF: p. 429
26. A membrane that exhibits a membrane potential is said to be depolarized. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Membrane Potentials
REF: p. 413
27. Action potential and membrane potential are synonymous terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Action Potential
REF: p. 415
28. During the nerve impulse, the internal charge of the neuron becomes briefly positive. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Action Potential
REF: p. 415
29. Action potentials travel in only one direction along a nerve fiber. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential
REF: p. 415
30. Many biologists believe that amino acids are among the most common neurotransmitters in
the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Amino Acids
REF: p. 428
31. Cocaine produces a temporary feeling of well-being by blocking the release of dopamine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Antidepressants
REF: p. 428
32. Glutamate is the most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Amino Acids
REF: p. 428
33. If a membrane exhibits a membrane potential, it is said to be polarized. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Membrane Potentials
REF: p. 413
34. When a neuron is resting, its membrane potential is zero. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials
REF: p. 413
35. The resting potential of a neuron is maintained by having mostly negative ions on the inside
and mostly positive ions on the outside. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials
REF: p. 413
36. Action potential and nerve impulse are interchangeable terms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Action Potential
REF: p. 415
37. The opening of stimulus-gated channels is always followed by the opening of voltage-gated
channels. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 415
TOP: Action Potential
38. Myelinated axons without gaps in the myelin (nodes of Ranvier) conduct impulses more
efficiently than axons with nodes of Ranvier. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential
REF: p. 418
39. In a synapse, both the presynaptic cell and postsynaptic cell must be neurons. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 418
TOP: Structure of the Synapse
40. An electrical synapse occurs when a strong action potential is able to arc across a small
synaptic cleft. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synapses
REF: p. 418
41. In the mature nervous system, electrical synapses can occur only where there are gap
junctions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synapses
REF: p. 419
42. All neurotransmitters are organic molecules. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 428 TOP: Other Small-Molecule Transmitters 43. The neuron is able to maintain an internal negative charge by pumping out sodium (Na+) and
pumping in chloride (Cl–).
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials
REF: p. 413
44. There is a time when a neuron will not send a nerve impulse no matter how strong the
stimulus is. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Refractory Period
REF: p. 417
45. Electrical synapses can be found in muscle tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synapses
REF: p. 419
46. Chemical synapses involve neurotransmitters. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Synapses
REF: p. 420
47. Some neurotransmitters use cyclic adenosine monophosphate as a second messenger to cause
a response in the postsynaptic cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Neurotransmitters
REF: p. 424
48. Carbon monoxide is the only neurotransmitter that is a gas rather than a liquid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Neurotransmitters 49. Local potentials can also be called graded potentials.
REF: pp. 428-429
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Local Potentials
REF: p. 415
50. Local potentials usually occur in the dendrite or soma of the neuron. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Local Potentials
REF: p. 414
51. Action potentials usually occur in the axon of the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential
REF: p. 418
52. No impulse can be sent if a nerve cell is in the absolute refractory period. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Refractory Period
REF: p. 417
53. Absolute refractory periods occur in the axon of the cell; relative refractory periods occur in
the dendrite or soma of the cell. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 417
TOP: Refractory Period
54. The cell will send an impulse during the relative refractory period as long as the stimulus is
below threshold. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Refractory Period
REF: p. 417
55. How long a memory lasts is related to what occurs at a synapse. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Synapses and Memory
REF: p. 423
56. The basic tenet of the neuron doctrine is that neurons function as independent units connected
by chemical synapses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Role of Nervous System Cells
REF: p. 429
57. The presence of numerous electrical synapses in the nervous system supports the neuron
doctrine regarding the functioning of the nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Role of Nervous System Cells
REF: p. 429
58. A resting neuron has a positive internal charge. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials
REF: p. 413
59. The depolarization of a neuron is caused by the influx of the positively charged sodium ion
into the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Resting Membrane potentials
REF: p. 413
60. The relative refractory period can determine the strength of a stimulus even if the axon
functions on the “all-or-none” law. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Refractory Period
REF: p. 418
61. Synapses between axons are the most common synapses in the nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Synapses
REF: p. 420
62. Three structures make up a synapse: a synaptic knob, a synaptic cleft, and the plasma
membrane of the postsynaptic neuron. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Synapses
REF: p. 420
63. The influx of sodium ions causes the release of neurotransmitters from the synaptic knob. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission
REF: p. 420
64. Some neurotransmitters can be transported back to the synaptic knob and be reused by the
neuron. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission
REF: p. 420
65. Serotonin and histamine are both in the monoamine subclass of neurotransmitters. ANS: T TOP: Amines
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 425
66. The lack of dopamine is linked to the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. ANS: T TOP: Amines
DIF: Memorization
MATCHING
Match each term with its definition or description. a. Presynaptic cell b. Neurotransmitter c. Postsynaptic cell d. Synaptic knob
REF: p. 425
e. Electrical synapse f. Chemical synapse g. Synaptic cleft 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
Type of synapse that occurs when two cells are joined by a gap junction Space between the presynaptic and postsynaptic cells Tiny bulge at the end of the presynaptic cell Cell that releases the neurotransmitter Chemical that carries a nerve impulse across a synaptic cleft Type of cell that could be a neuron or a muscle cell Type of synapse in which the signal from the presynaptic to postsynaptic cell is carried by a neurotransmitter
1. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Types of Synapses 2. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Chemical Synapse 3. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Chemical Synapse 4. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Types of Synapses 5. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Chemical Synapse 6. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Types of Synapses 7. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Types of Synapses
Memorization
REF: p. 418
Memorization
REF: p. 420
Memorization
REF: p. 420
Memorization
REF: p. 419
Memorization
REF: p. 420
Memorization
REF: p. 418
Memorization
REF: p. 420
OTHER 1. Describe resting potential, including the position of potassium and sodium ions. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 413
TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials
2. Describe the process of impulse conduction across a synapse. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 420
TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission
3. Choose either IPSP or EPSP, and explain on a physiological basis how it will affect a
postsynaptic neuron. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 420
TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission
4. Define IPSP and EPSP. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 420
TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission
5. Explain the ways in which the activity of the neurotransmitter is stopped at the postsynaptic
receptor. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 420
TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission
6. Explain both temporal and spatial summation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 422
TOP: Summation
7. Name and briefly describe the different types of neurotransmitters used by the nervous
system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 424
TOP: Neurotransmitters
8. Other than their color, describe the differences between white matter and gray matter. Which
is able to conduct impulses more rapidly? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 403,415 TOP: Nerves and Tracts, and Conduction of the Action Potential 9. Explain the process of an action potential moving down a neuron. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 415
TOP: Action Potential
10. Explain the two types of refractory periods. Explain how the relative refractory period can
help determine the strength of the stimulus. ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Application
REF: p. 417
TOP: Refractory Period
11. Explain what characteristics of the neuron affect the speed at which action potentials are
conducted. What is the range of speed at which an impulse can be conducted? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 418 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 12. Explain the neuron doctrine and the reticular theory of the nervous system. Which is currently
held to be the most correct? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 399
TOP: Role of Nervous System Cells
ESSAY 1. Explain a way that the nerve cell is able to respond to stimuli of different strengths. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 417
TOP: Refractory Period
Chapter 20: Central Nervous System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The layer of the meninges that serves as the inner periosteum of the cranial bone is the: a. pia mater. b. arachnoid membrane. c. dura mater. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
2. The innermost layer of the meninges is the: a. pia mater. b. arachnoid membrane. c. dura mater. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
3. The main divisions of the central nervous system are the: a. brain, spinal cord, and autonomic nerves. b. brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. c. brain and spinal cord. d. sensory division and motor division. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Central Nervous System Introduction
REF: p. 436
4. Meningitis refers to inflammation of the: a. brain. b. meninges. c. spinal cord. d. cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: B TOP: Meningitis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 442
5. Cerebrospinal fluid is found in all of the following except the: a. subarachnoid space. b. central canal. c. third ventricle. d. subdural space. ANS: D
DIF: Application
6. There are _____ ventricles in the brain. a. two
REF: p. 439
TOP: Fluid Spaces
b. three c. four d. five ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid Spaces
REF: p. 439
7. Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: a. central canal. b. choroid plexuses. c. subarachnoid space. d. arachnoid villi. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 439
8. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricles, into the central canal and _____, and is
absorbed back into the blood. a. subarachnoid space b. choroid plexuses c. spinal cord d. intraventricular foramen ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 440
9. If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related
to that pathway. a. sensory perception b. willed movement c. only reflex activity d. both reflex activity and sensation ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 443
TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
10. If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____
related to that pathway. a. sensory perception b. willed movement c. only reflex activity d. both reflex activity and sensation ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 443
TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
11. Which of the following is not true of the lateral corticospinal tract fibers? a. Most decussate. b. Most inhibit the lower motor neuron. c. They are referred to as pyramidal pathways. d. They originate in the cerebral cortex. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 444 TOP: Somatic Motor Pathways in the Central Nervous System
12. Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement,
especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? a. Medial reticulospinal b. Lateral reticulospinal c. Ventral corticospinal d. Lateral corticospinal ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 444
13. The spinal tract that is located in the side of the cord, originates in the brain, and terminates in
the spinal cord is the _____ tract. a. lateral corticospinal b. ventral spinothalamic c. dorsal corticospinal d. lateral spinothalamic ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
14. Nerve fibers of the spinothalamic tract are: a. sensory. b. motor. c. descending. d. none of the above. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 444
15. Which of the following is not true? a. The spinal cord does not completely fill the spinal cavity. b. The spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to the first lumbar vertebra. c. One bundle of nerve fibers (nerve roots) projects from each side of the spinal cord. d. The spinal cord has anterior and posterior grooves that almost divide the cord into
symmetrical halves. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
16. The brain has _____ major divisions. a. three b. five c. six d. eight ANS: C TOP: Brain
DIF: Memorization
17. The brainstem does not include the: a. pons. b. medulla. c. midbrain.
REF: p. 445
d. cerebellum. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Brainstem
REF: p. 446
18. The pyramids are formed in the: a. pons. b. medulla. c. midbrain. d. cerebellum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Medulla Oblongata
REF: p. 446
19. Several “vital centers” are located in the: a. basal ganglia. b. cerebrum. c. cerebellum. d. medulla. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Vital Centers
REF: p. 449
20. The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: a. cerebrum. b. medulla. c. thalamus. d. cerebellum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Brainstem
REF: p. 449
21. The cerebellum acts with the _____ to produce skilled movement. a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. pons d. cerebrum ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 450
22. The part of the brain that assists in the maintenance of balance is the: a. medulla. b. pons. c. cerebellum. d. hypothalamus. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 450
TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum
23. Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. a. pons b. thalamus c. cerebellum
d. hypothalamus ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 453
TOP: Thalamus
24. The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the
pituitary is the: a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. medulla. d. midbrain. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 453
25. Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus? a. Production of hormones b. “Go between” of the psyche and the soma c. Appetite center d. Regulation of motor activity ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 453
26. Audition is a function of the _____ lobe. a. occipital b. temporal c. parietal d. frontal ANS: B DIF: Synthesis TOP: Functional Areas of the Cortex
REF: p. 461
27. The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except: a. coordinates control of muscle action. b. helps control posture. c. controls cardiac function. d. controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 450
28. Which part of the brain releases the hormone melatonin? a. Hypothalamus b. Thalamus c. Pineal gland d. Cerebellum ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Pineal Gland
REF: p. 454
29. Impulses from which system play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum? a. Reticular activating system b. Limbic system
c. Cerebral cortex d. Cerebellar cortex ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex
REF: p. 460
30. The areas specializing in language functions are found in the left cerebral hemisphere in: a. about 10% of the population. b. about 50% of the population. c. about 90% of the population. d. all people. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex
REF: p. 461
31. The part(s) of the cerebrum associated with anger, fear, and sorrow is(are) the: a. limbic system. b. corpus callosum. c. temporal lobes. d. caudate nucleus. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex
REF: p. 461
32. The type of brain wave associated with deep sleep is: a. beta. b. theta. c. zeta. d. delta. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: The Electroencephalogram (EEG)
REF: p. 459
33. A person who is awake, alert, and attentive would have a predominance of _____ brain
waves. a. beta b. theta c. zeta d. delta ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: The Electroencephalogram (EEG)
REF: p. 459
34. Which of the following is not a brain wave measurement? a. Theta b. Zeta c. Delta d. Beta ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: The Electroencephalogram (EEG) 35. A lesion in the cerebral cortex might result in:
REF: p. 459
a. b. c. d.
motor deficits. sensory deficits. intellectual impairment. any of the above.
ANS: D DIF: Synthesis TOP: Functional Areas of the Cortex
REF: p. 457
36. The falx cerebelli separates the: a. two hemispheres of the cerebrum. b. cerebellum from the cerebrum. c. two hemispheres of the cerebrum. d. dura mater from the arachnoid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
37. The fourth ventricle is located: a. in the left cerebral hemisphere. b. in the right cerebral hemisphere. c. below and medial to the lateral ventricles. d. where the cerebellum attaches to the brainstem. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid Spaces
REF: p. 439
38. The layer of the meninges that adheres to the outer surface of the brain is the: a. pia mater. b. arachnoid membrane. c. dura mater. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
39. Going from superior to inferior, the structures of the brainstem would be: a. pons, midbrain, medulla oblongata. b. midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata. c. midbrain, medulla oblongata, pons. d. medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Brainstem
REF: p. 446
40. The white matter of the cerebellum is called the: a. arbor vitae. b. vermis. c. peduncle. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 449
41. The body’s biological clock is controlled by the: a. pons. b. thalamus. c. cerebellum. d. pineal body. ANS: D TOP: Pineal Body
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 454
42. The part of the cerebrum integral to articulating words is: a. Broca’s area. b. the reticular activating system. c. the limbic system. d. the insula. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex
REF: p. 460
43. The corpus callosum connects the: a. cerebral hemispheres. b. hippocampus. c. mammillary body. d. central sulcus. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Basal Nuclei
REF: p. 456
44. Axons from the gray horns of the spinal cord terminate in: a. the cerebral cortex. b. sensory receptors. c. skeletal muscle. d. none of the above. ANS: C TOP: Spinal Cord
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 443
45. Which of the following is not an inward extension of the dura mater? a. Falx callosum b. Falx cerebri c. Falx cerebelli d. Tentorium cerebelli ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
46. Besides protection, the cerebrospinal fluid helps regulate: a. oxygen content of the body. b. carbon dioxide content of the body. c. pH of the body. d. both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 439
47. A way to distinguish between the anterior and posterior parts of the spinal cord is that the: a. dura mater is thickest on the posterior side. b. posterior fissure is deeper and wider than the anterior fissure. c. anterior fissure is deeper and wider than the posterior fissure. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
48. The foramen magnum is the structure that divides the: a. medulla oblongata from the pons. b. pons from the midbrain. c. medulla oblongata from the spinal cord. d. brainstem from the cerebellum. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 446
TOP: Medulla Oblongata
49. The central section of the cerebellum is called the: a. arbor vitae. b. vermis. c. central sulcus. d. longitudinal fissure. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 449
50. The corpus callosum is composed of _____ tracts. a. commissural b. projection c. association d. spinothalamic ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Cerebral Nuclei
REF: p. 456
51. Which of the following is not a somatic sense? a. Touch b. Pressure c. Proprioception d. All of the above are somatic senses. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Sensory Functions of the Cortex
REF: p. 459
52. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is not involved in language function? a. Frontal b. Occipital c. Temporal d. All of the above are involved in language function. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex
REF: p. 460
53. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is not important in memory function? a. Frontal b. Occipital c. Temporal d. Parietal ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex
REF: p. 460
54. The layer of meninges least likely to be involved in meningitis is the: a. dura mater. b. arachnoid layer. c. pia mater. d. All layers are equally likely to be involved. ANS: A TOP: Meningitis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 439
55. The nervous system is divided into two major divisions, the: a. brain and spinal cord. b. central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. c. cerebrum and cerebellum. d. afferent and efferent. ANS: B TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 436
56. As you move from the spinal cord up the central nervous system, the: a. structural complexity increases. b. functional complexity increases. c. structural complexity decreases but the functional complexity increases. d. Both A and B occur. ANS: D TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 436
57. The epidural space is: a. just below the dura mater. b. just below the arachnoid mater. c. found only in the area of the spinal cord. d. between the arachnoid mater and pia mater. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
58. The filum terminale is part of the: a. cerebellum. b. cerebrum. c. spinal cord. d. meninges. ANS: D
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 437
TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 59. If a person received a lumbar puncture that removed 15 mL of cerebrospinal fluid from the
spinal cord, that amount would be about what percent of the cerebrospinal fluid? a. 20% b. 10% c. 5% d. 25% ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 440 TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 60. Which of the following structures is not part of the spinal cord? a. Gray commissure b. Conus medullaris c. Cauda equina d. All of the above are part of the spinal cord. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
61. The corpora quadrigemina is a landmark of which part of the central nervous system? a. Midbrain b. Cerebellum c. Hypothalamus d. Cerebrum ANS: A TOP: Midbrain
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 447
62. The dentate nuclei are an important pair of nuclei in which part of the central nervous system? a. Midbrain b. Cerebrum c. Cerebellum d. Hypothalamus ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 450
63. Which of the following structures is not part of the diencephalon? a. Thalamus b. Arbor vitae c. Pineal gland d. All of the above structures are part of the diencephalon. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Diencephalon 64. What structure is the deepest groove in the cerebrum? a. Central sulcus b. Fissure of Rolando c. Fissure of Sylvius d. Longitudinal fissure
REF: p. 452
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Cerebrum
REF: p. 454
65. Which groove is between the frontal and parietal lobes? a. Central sulcus b. Lateral fissure c. Fissure of Sylvius d. Longitudinal fissure ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Cerebrum
REF: p. 454
66. What structure drains cerebrospinal fluid into the third ventricle? a. Cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) b. Interventricular foramen (of Monro) c. Lateral foramina (of Luschka) d. Cisterna magna ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 440
67. What structure drains cerebrospinal fluid into the fourth ventricle? a. Cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) b. Interventricular foramen (of Monro) c. Lateral foramina (of Luschka) d. Cisterna magna ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 440
68. The spinal cord ends at vertebra L1 in a narrowed area called the: a. cauda equina. b. filum terminale. c. conus medullaris. d. funiculi terminale. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
69. The olive is found in what part of the brain? a. Medulla oblongata b. Pons c. Midbrain d. Cerebellum ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Medulla Oblongata
REF: p. 446
70. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the midbrain? a. It contains the inferior colliculi where auditory centers are located. b. It contains the superior colliculi where visual centers are located. c. It contains the red nucleus and black matter that are involved in muscle control.
d. All of the above are correct statements about the midbrain. ANS: D TOP: Midbrain
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 447
71. Which of the following is not a true statement about the cerebellum? a. Its name means “little brain.” b. It has more neurons than any other part of the nervous system. c. Gray matter makes up the exterior cortex. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 454
72. What part of the brain can produce a hormone? a. Thalamus b. Pineal gland c. Hypothalamus d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Application TOP: Hypothalamus and Pineal Gland
REF: pp. 443, 454
73. What lobe of the cerebrum cannot be seen in an exterior view? a. Temporal b. Insula c. Parietal d. Occipital ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Cortex
REF: p. 454
74. Secondary sensory neurons conduct impulses from the spinal cord or brainstem to the: a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. cerebellum. d. parietal lobe of the cerebrum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 464 TOP: Somatic Sensory Pathways in the Central Nervous System 75. William was recently involved in a serious automobile accident. As a result, he has had
difficulty controlling his skeletal muscles and maintaining his balance. What part of the nervous system was most likely damaged? a. Cerebellum b. Cerebral cortex c. Myelin sheath of the peripheral neurons d. Pineal gland ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 450
TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum
76. Which statement explains how the lack of dopamine physiologically affects those individuals
suffering from Parkinson disease?
a. Without dopamine, the excitatory effects of acetylcholine are not restrained, thus
postural muscles are overstimulated. b. Without dopamine, the excitatory effects of acetylcholine are inhibited, thus
relaxing postural muscles. c. Without dopamine, the inhibitory effects of acetylcholine are not restrained, thus
postural muscles are overstimulated. d. Without dopamine, the inhibitory effects of acetylcholine are restrained, thus
relaxing postural muscles. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 457
TOP: Parkinson Disease
77. The distinction between the reticulospinal and rubrospinal tracts of the spinal cord is that the
rubrospinal tract coordinates: a. body movement and posture, and the reticulospinal tract maintains posture during movement. b. head and neck movement, and the reticulospinal tract maintains posture. c. pain and temperature response, and the reticulospinal tract handles crude touch and pressure. d. unconscious kinesthesia, and the reticulospinal tract maintains posture. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 443
TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord
78. Since her fall several weeks ago, Juanita has drifted into and out of consciousness. Her arousal
and/or alerting mechanisms apparently are not functioning properly. What specific area of the brain is most likely responsible for these factors? a. Cerebellum b. Corpora quadrigemina c. Reticular activating system d. Thalamus ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 452
TOP: Thalamus
79. When someone close to you dies, you feel a sense of sorrow among other emotions. Your
ability to experience emotions is the result of the: a. caudate nucleus. b. limbic system. c. pineal gland. d. reticular activating system. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 460 TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex 80. During your lifetime you are capable of remembering such things as telephone numbers,
social security numbers, and song lyrics from many years ago. Your ability to perform these long-term memory tasks is possible because: a. the right and left hemispheres specialize in cerebral functions such as short-term and long-term recognition. b. repeated impulse conduction over a given neuronal circuit produces synaptic changes, which facilitates impulse transmission at the synapse. c. the spinothalamic pathway provides discrimination of short-term and long-term memories.
d. extrapyramidal tracts consist of numerous relays of motor neurons that facilitate
impulse transmission at the synapse. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 462
TOP: Memory
81. The set of coordinated commands that control programmed muscle activity mediated by
extrapyramidal pathways is called the: a. extrapyramidal tract. b. motor program. c. motor tract. d. pyramidal tract. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 467
TOP: Extrapyramidal Tracts
82. Jeffery contracted bulbar poliomyelitis, and it has affected the medulla oblongata. The doctors
warned the family that his condition is grave and death may be imminent. What function of the medulla oblongata has warranted such a dire prognosis? a. The medulla oblongata contains the vital centers that control heart action, blood vessel diameter, and respiration. b. The medulla oblongata contains the neural connections of the reticular activating system. c. The medulla oblongata contains the pineal gland, which controls vital centers. d. The medulla oblongata contains the corpora quadrigemina, which controls neural transmission of impulses along the spinal cord. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 449
TOP: Vital Centers
83. The extension of the dura mater that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum is the: a. falx cerebella. b. falx cerebri. c. tentorium cerebella. d. falx centralis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
TRUE/FALSE 1. The central nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord, and autonomic nerves. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Central Nervous System Introduction
REF: p. 436
2. The central nervous system includes all of the nervous system except the peripheral nervous
system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Central Nervous System Introduction
REF: p. 436
3. The meninges are protective coverings, continuous around the brain and spinal cord. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 437
TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 4. Meningitis refers to inflammation of the brain. ANS: F TOP: Meningitis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 439
5. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates in the subarachnoid space of the meninges. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 440
6. Besides providing protection, the cerebrospinal fluid can influence the respiratory center. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 439
7. Dural sinuses function as reservoirs for cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
8. The spinal cord completely fills the spinal cavity in the vertebrae. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 442
9. A physician can use lumbar puncture to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid
space in the lumbar region of the spinal cord. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lumbar Puncture
REF: p. 442
10. The epidural space contains a layer of fat and other connective tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
11. Funiculi consist of tracts divided into smaller bundles called nerve fibers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 442
12. Spinal reflex centers are located in the gray matter of the spinal cord. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
13. Peripheral motor neuron cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 442
TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
14. For voluntary skeletal muscle activity, impulses originate in the cerebrum but coordination of
the activity is a function of the cerebellum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 450
15. The thalamus acts as a relay station for ascending sensory impulses. ANS: T TOP: Thalamus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 452
16. One of the major functions of the thalamus is its influence on the activity of the endocrine
system. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 452
TOP: Thalamus
17. The central sulcus divides the cerebrum into two hemispheres. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 454
TOP: Structure of the Cerebrum
18. Basal ganglia are islands of gray matter deep in the cerebellum. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 454
TOP: Cerebral Cortex
19. The secondary motor area is found in the gyrus just posterior to the primary motor area. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Motor Functions of the Cortex
REF: p. 460
20. The vomiting reflex is mediated by the cerebellum. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 449
TOP: Functions of the Brainstem
21. The shallow grooves of the cerebrum are called sulci. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Cortex
REF: p. 454
22. The parieto-occipital fissure divides the cerebrum into two hemispheres. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Cortex
REF: p. 454
23. The secondary motor area activates groups of muscles rather than individual muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Motor Functions of the Cortex
REF: p. 460
24. The primary motor area, located in the precentral gyrus, is thought to activate individual
muscles in the hands and feet. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 460
TOP: Motor Functions of the Cortex 25. A primary function of the reticular formation is to arouse or alert the cerebral cortex. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Consciousness
REF: p. 460
26. Under normal brain functioning, activation of the reticular formation produces consciousness. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Consciousness
REF: p. 460
27. Barbiturates and amphetamines are two drugs that can arouse the cerebral cortex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Consciousness
REF: p. 460
28. Cerebrospinal fluid is not found in the epidural space. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid Spaces
REF: p. 439
29. The fourth ventricle in the brain is an expansion of the central canal of the spinal cord. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid Spaces
REF: p. 439
30. The limbic system of the brain primarily functions in the production of speech. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 461
TOP: Emotion
31. To describe sensory pathways as “crossed” refers to the fact that each side of the brain
registers sensations from the opposite side of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 464 TOP: Somatic Sensory Pathways in the Central Nervous System 32. The medial lemniscal system involves crude touch sensations, whereas the spinothalamic
pathway involves more discriminating touch and pressure sensations. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 464 TOP: Somatic Sensory Pathways in the Central Nervous System 33. Extrapyramidal tracts can function either to inhibit or to facilitate lower motor neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Extrapyramidal Tracts
REF: p. 467
34. Pyramidal pathways are more often associated with smiles and frowns than are the
extrapyramidal pathways. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 467
TOP: Pyramidal Tracts
35. Ascending tracts carry only sensory information, whereas descending pathways carry only
motor information. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
36. Repetition of nerve impulses on the same neuron circuitry produces memory. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 462
TOP: Memory
37. There are about 23 mL of cerebrospinal fluid in the nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 440
38. Pyramidal tracts are motor pathways that form pyramids in the medulla. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pyramidal Tracts
REF: p. 467
39. Extrapyramidal pathways are more often associated with emotional expressions than are
pyramidal pathways. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Extrapyramidal Tracts
REF: p. 467
40. Formation of the cerebrospinal fluid occurs mainly in the choroid plexus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 440
41. The lateral ventricles are located within the cerebellum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid Spaces
REF: p. 439
42. Cerebrospinal fluid is absorbed into the venous blood via the choroid plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 440
43. Cerebrospinal fluid is not found in the subarachnoid space. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid Spaces
REF: p. 439
44. The four large, fluid-filled spaces within the brain are called ventricles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid Spaces
REF: p. 439
45. Disruption of cerebrospinal fluid circulation that causes the fluid to accumulate in the epidural
space is known as hydrocephalus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Hydrocephalus
REF: p. 440
46. Both the dorsal and ventral root ganglia in the spinal nerves contain cell bodies. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
47. The cerebrum is the second largest portion of the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Cortex
REF: p. 454
48. Functions of the brainstem include language, memory, and emotions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Brainstem
REF: p. 449
49. The vomiting reflex is mediated by the medulla. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Brainstem
REF: p. 449
50. The shallow grooves of the cerebrum are called gyri. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Cortex
REF: p. 454
51. The islands of gray matter inside the hemispheres of the cerebrum are known as the cerebral
cortex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Basal Nuclei
REF: p. 455
52. Poliomyelitis results in flaccid paralysis via destruction of posterior horn neurons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic Motor Pathways in the Central Nervous System
REF: p. 466
53. The dura mater is the periosteum of the cranial bones, and the pia mater attaches the brain
tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 439
54. The tentorium cerebelli is a sickle-shaped extension of the dura that separates the two
hemispheres of the cerebellum. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 437
TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 55. The deepest border of the subdural space is the arachnoid membrane. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 437 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 56. The most superficial border of the subarachnoid space is the dura mater. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 437 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 57. Filum terminale is the name given to the dura mater below the spinal cord. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 439
58. The spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to the fifth lumbar vertebra. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 442
59. The dorsal root ganglion consists of cell bodies of unipolar sensory neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
60. All spinal nerves are mixed nerves. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 443
TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
61. Each white column in the spinal cord consists of large numbers of cell bodies divided into
smaller bundles called tracts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
62. Based on the system of naming tracts in the spinal cord, the spinocerebellar tract would be an
ascending tract. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 443
TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord
63. Based on the system of naming tracts in the spinal cord, the corticospinal tract would be a
descending tract. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 443
TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord
64. Rapid mitosis stops at about age 9, but the brain grows in size until about age 18. ANS: F TOP: Brain
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 445
65. The two “colorful” structures in the brain, the red nucleus and the substantia nigra, are located
in the midbrain. ANS: T TOP: Midbrain
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 447
66. All of the functions of the cerebellum have to do with control of smooth muscle or glands. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 450
67. The diencephalon is part of the brain located between the cerebrum and the top of the
brainstem. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 452
TOP: Diencephalon
68. The infundibulum connects the hypothalamus and the pineal body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 453
69. Because there is a strong link between the thalamus and emotion, it can produce symptoms of
a psychosomatic disease. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 453
70. Most axons release neurotransmitters; however, some axons in the hypothalamus release
hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 453
71. A lesion or tumor in the hypothalamus may cause overeating and result in substantial weight
gain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 453
72. “Jet lag” occurs when the biological clock does not match up with the external clock. It is the
job of the pineal body to correct this. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 454
TOP: Pineal Gland
73. All of the lobes of the cerebrum are named after the bones that cover them. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Cortex
REF: p. 454
74. Association tracts connect parts of the same cerebral hemisphere. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 455
TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Cerebral Nuclei 75. Projection tracts pass through the corpus callosum from one hemisphere of the cerebrum to
the other. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Cerebral Nuclei
REF: p. 455
76. The fact that one part of the cerebrum can take on a new function in response to damage to
another part of the cerebrum is an example of cerebral plasticity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functional Areas of the Cortex
REF: p. 457
77. Consciousness may be defined as a state of awareness of one’s self, one’s environment, and
other humans. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Consciousness
REF: p. 460
78. The conus medullaris is located at about the first lumbar vertebrae. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
79. The tertiary sensory neurons are entirely in the cerebrum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 464 TOP: Somatic Sensory Pathways in the Central Nervous System 80. Decussation of sensory neurons usually occurs at the secondary neuron level before reaching
the thalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 464 TOP: Somatic Sensory Pathways in the Central Nervous System 81. Most of the motor tracts of the central nervous system do not decussate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic Motor Pathways in the Central Nervous System
REF: p. 466
82. The outermost protective covering of the brain is the dura mater. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
83. The epidural space is found only in the area of the spinal cord. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
84. Changes in the oxygen content of the cerebrospinal fluid cause a homeostatic response in the
respiratory control center. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 439
85. The pyramids are two bulges of white matter on the ventral surface of the pons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Brainstem
REF: p. 446
86. Both the inferior colliculi and superior colliculi are found in the midbrain. ANS: T TOP: Midbrain
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 447
87. The “tree of life” (arbor vitae) is found in the cerebellum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 449
88. The central nervous system directly or indirectly regulates or influences nearly every organ in
the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Central Nervous System and the Whole Body
REF: p. 469
89. The part of the dura that extends into the longitudinal fissure is the falx cerebri. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
90. The tentorium cerebelli separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
91. The pia mater has three important inward extensions: the falx cerebri, the falx cerebelli, and
the tentorium cerebelli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord
REF: p. 437
92. The ependymal cells are glia cells that assist in the production of cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 440
93. The interventricular foramen (the foramen of Monro) leads into the fourth ventricle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 440
94. The cerebrospinal fluid is absorbed into the venous blood by the median foramen of
Magendie. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
REF: p. 440
95. The dorsal nerve root carries motor impulses from the spinal cord to the skeletal muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
96. The deeper, wider groove on the spinal cord can be used to identify the ventral side of the
spinal cord. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 443
TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
97. The nerve roots that extend below the spinal cord are called the filum terminale. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
98. The structure in the brain called the olive is found in the midbrain of the brainstem. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Medulla Oblongata
REF: p. 446
99. The structure in the brain called the corpora quadrigemina is found in the midbrain. ANS: T TOP: Midbrain
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 447
100. The vermis lies between the two hemispheres of the cerebellum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 449
101. The cerebellum coordinates both incoming and outgoing motor information. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 450
102. The geniculate bodies are important nuclei in the hypothalamus. ANS: F TOP: Thalamus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 452
103. The hypothalamus is the only part of the brain able to release a hormone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypothalamus and Pineal Gland
REF: pp. 453, 454
104. The hypothalamus is able to influence the functioning of both the sympathetic and
parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 453
105. The corpus callosum is an example of a commissural tract of the cerebrum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Basal Nuclei
REF: p. 456
106. The gray commissure joins the spinal cord to the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
107. All spinal reflexes contain interneurons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord
REF: p. 443
108. After birth, the brain grows only in size, not in number of neurons. ANS: F TOP: Brain
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 445
109. Once a synapse is established in the brain, it remains for life. ANS: F TOP: Brain
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 445
110. The adult brain weighs about 3 pounds. ANS: T TOP: Brain
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 445
111. The brain contains about 200 billion cells. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 445
TOP: Brain
112. From superior to inferior, the brainstem is composed of the pons, midbrain, and medulla
oblongata. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Brainstem
REF: p. 446
113. Both the inferior and superior colliculi contain sensory centers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Brainstem
REF: p. 447
114. All of the 12 cranial nerves come from one of the three parts of the brainstem.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Brainstem
REF: p. 446
115. Both the pons and medulla oblongata have centers that help regulate respiration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Brainstem
REF: p. 449
116. The cerebrum has more neurons than any other part of the nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 449
117. The lateral fissure separates the cerebellum from the rest of the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 449
118. One source of the tracts entering the cerebellum and forming the inferior cerebellar peduncle
is the medulla. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 449
119. The tracts that make up the middle cerebellar peduncle come from the pons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 449
120. The cerebellum controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum
REF: p. 450
121. The diencephalon consists of the thalamus and the hypothalamus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Diencephalon
REF: p. 452
122. The thalamus is responsible for the associating sensory impulses with feelings of pleasantness
and unpleasantness. ANS: T TOP: Thalamus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 452
123. The hypothalamus plays an important role in maintaining proper body temperature. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 453
124. The hypothalamus plays a role in regulating water balance in the body.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 453
125. The hormone released by the hypothalamus, melatonin, helps regulate the biological clock. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pineal Gland
REF: p. 454
126. The location of the crossing of the left and right optic nerves is called the epithalamus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pineal Gland
REF: p. 454
127. The term used to describe all of the connections within the human cortex to the rest of the
brain is connectomes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Basal Nuclei
REF: p. 456
128. The somatic senses include vision, hearing, and olfaction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sensory Functions of the Cortex
REF: p. 459
129. Damage to Broca’s area of the brain causes a person to become unable to articulate words, but
the person is still able to make vocal sounds. ANS: T TOP: Language
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 461
MATCHING
Match each disorder with its corresponding definition. a. Alzheimer disease b. Cerebrovascular accident c. Epilepsy d. Huntington disease e. Spastic paralysis f. Hemiplegia g. Paraplegia h. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 1. Inherited form of dementia in which the symptoms first appear at between 30 and 40 years of 2. 3. 4. 5.
age Disease that is caused by a prion and results in reduced brain function Hemorrhage from or cessation of blood flow to the cerebral vessels, which destroys neurons; also called a stroke Type of paralysis that affects one entire side of the body Type of paralysis that affects both legs
6. Degenerative disease that affects memory; it generally develops during the middle to late
adult years, causing characteristic lesions in the cortex 7. Recurring or chronic seizure episodes involving sudden bursts of abnormal neuron activity 8. Type of paralysis that is experienced by many people with cerebral palsy; characterized by the
involuntary contraction of the affected muscles 1. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 2. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 5. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 6. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 7. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 8. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 470 REF: p. 470 REF: p. 469 REF: p. 469 REF: p. 469 REF: p. 469 REF: p. 470 REF: p. 469
Match each landmark of the brain with its description or location. a. Longitudinal fissure b. Lateral fissure c. Sulci d. Parieto-occipital sulcus e. Fissure f. Central sulcus g. Gyri 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Frontal lobe lies in front of this groove and the parietal lobe lies behind it Groove that separates the occipital and parietal lobes General term for a convolution or raised area on the cortex General term for a shallow groove in the cortex Divides the cerebrum into right and left hemispheres General term for a deep groove in the cortex The deep groove above the temporal lobe
9. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Cerebral Cortex 10. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Cerebral Cortex 11. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Cerebral Cortex 12. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Cerebral Cortex 13. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Cerebral Cortex
Memorization
REF: p. 454
Memorization
REF: p. 454
Memorization
REF: p. 454
Memorization
REF: p. 454
Memorization
REF: p. 454
14. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Cortex 15. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebral Cortex
REF: p. 454 REF: p. 454
OTHER 1. Describe the three distinct layers that compose the meninges. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 437 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 2. What is a lumbar puncture? Why is it done? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 442
TOP: Lumbar Puncture
3. List the major ascending and descending tracts of the spinal cord, and identify the major
function of each tract. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 443
TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord
4. Describe the structure and major functions of the brainstem. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 447, 449 TOP: Structure of the Brainstem, Functions of the Brainstem 5. How are the cerebral nuclei involved in Parkinson disease? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 457
TOP: Parkinson Disease
6. Briefly discuss one of the “integrative functions” of the cortex. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 457
TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex
7. Describe the four types of brain waves characterized by frequency and amplitude of the
waves. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 459
TOP: The Electroencephalogram (EEG)
8. Explain the functions, formation, and circulation of the cerebrospinal fluid. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 439 TOP: Fluid Spaces, Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 9. Explain the functions of the thalamus. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 452
TOP: Thalamus
10. Explain the functions of the hypothalamus. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 453
TOP: Hypothalamus
11. Name and describe the three important inward extensions of the dura mater. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 437 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 12. Name the three spaces between and around the meninges. What does each space contain? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 437 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 13. If an injury occurred that damaged the lateral corticospinal tract on the right side of the body,
what impact would this have on the voluntary movement of the body? ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Application
REF: p. 443
TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord
14. Name the three peduncles that enter or leave the cerebellum, and explain where they come
from or go to. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 449
TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum
15. Give the location of the pineal gland and its most likely function. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 454
TOP: Pineal Gland
16. Explain the location and function of primary, secondary, and tertiary sensory neurons. Which
of these neurons can decussate? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 464 TOP: Somatic Sensory Pathways in the Central Nervous System ESSAY 1. Kathryn suffered a cerebrovascular accident. It was determined that the left side of her
cerebrum was damaged. On which side of her body will she most likely notice paralysis? Explain why. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 469
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
2. Explain how the cerebrum and cerebellum are similar to a negative-feedback mechanism in
terms of controlling the movement of skeletal muscles. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 450
TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum
Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following cranial nerves have a functional classification of motor except: a. oculomotor. b. trochlear. c. vestibulocochlear. d. accessory. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Nerves
REF: p. 489
2. Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the _____ nerve. a. trigeminal b. vagus c. abducens d. olfactory ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Trigeminal Neuralgia
REF: p. 492
3. The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is the _____ cranial. a. ninth b. tenth c. eleventh d. twelfth ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Vagus Nerve (X)
REF: p. 494
4. Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movements of the tongue? a. Olfactory b. Trigeminal c. Trochlear d. Hypoglossal ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Nerves
REF: p. 494
5. All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except the: a. vagus. b. hypoglossal. c. accessory. d. abducens. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Nerves 6. Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves?
REF: p. 493
a. b. c. d.
Cervical Brachial Lumbar Thoracic
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve Plexuses
REF: p. 483
7. The cervical plexus: a. is found deep in the neck. b. is formed by the ventral rami of the first four cervical nerves and part of C5. c. includes the phrenic nerve. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cervical Plexus
REF: p. 483
8. Which plexus contains nerves that innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire arm? a. Brachial b. Cervical c. Lumbar d. Sacral ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Brachial Plexus
REF: p. 485
9. The sensory cranial nerves include only the: a. optic, vestibulocochlear, and vagus. b. olfactory, optic, and facial. c. olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear. d. optic, facial, and vestibulocochlear. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Nerves
REF: p. 489
10. The cranial nerve that arises from the spinal cord is the: a. abducens. b. accessory. c. glossopharyngeal. d. vagus. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Accessory Nerve (XI)
REF: p. 494
11. Nerve impulses over the _____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. a. olfactory b. trigeminal c. vagus d. hypoglossal ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Nerves
REF: p. 493
12. The spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord and consist of _____ pairs. a. 12 b. 21 c. 31 d. 41 ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 480
13. Spinal nerves are _____ fibers. a. only sensory b. only motor c. completely autonomic d. motor and sensory ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 482
14. A mixed nerve is one that: a. goes both to the skin surface and to the viscera. b. has its pathway mixed with other nerves. c. carries both sensory and motor fibers. d. carries large and small motor fibers. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 482
15. Damage to the _____ nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function. a. phrenic b. axillary c. radial d. medial cutaneous ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Phrenic Nerves
REF: p. 485
16. The phrenic nerve is found in the _____ plexus. a. cervical b. brachial c. lumbar d. sacral ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cervical Plexus
REF: p. 483
17. Which is(are) the neurotransmitter(s) in a somatic motor pathway? a. Acetylcholine b. Amines c. Amino acids d. Neuropeptides ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways
REF: p. 495
18. Nerves that innervate the floor of the pelvic cavity and some of the surrounding areas are
found in the _____ plexus. a. sacral b. cervical c. coccygeal d. lumbar ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus
REF: p. 486
19. The knee jerk can be classified as a segmental reflex because: a. the center of the reflex arc lies in the spinal cord gray matter. b. impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord. c. the impulses that mediate it come from and go to the same side of the body. d. of the kind of stimulation used to evoke it. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance
REF: p. 496
20. Which of the following is not true of the knee jerk reflex? a. It is a flexor reflex. b. It is an ipsilateral reflex. c. It is a spinal cord reflex. d. It does not have to involve the brain. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance
REF: p. 496
21. Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of _____ years. a. 1 b. 2 c. 2 d. 3 ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance
REF: p. 497
22. Which of the following is a correct statement? a. There are 7 cervical nerve pairs. b. There are 11 thoracic nerve pairs. c. There are 5 lumbar nerve pairs. d. All of the above are correct statements. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Spinal Nerves 23. The lumbar plexus gives rise to the _____ nerve. a. median b. phrenic c. femoral d. None of the above is correct.
REF: p. 480
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Lumbar Plexus
REF: p. 486
24. The peripheral nervous system includes: a. only spinal nerves. b. only spinal nerves and their branches. c. only cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches. d. cranial nerves, the spinal cord, spinal nerves, and their branches. ANS: C TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 480
25. The peripheral nervous system includes _____ nerves. a. autonomic b. sensory c. somatic d. all of the above ANS: D TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 480
26. Which part of the vertebral column has one more pair of nerves coming from it than it has
vertebrae? a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Both B and C ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 480
27. Which is not true of the ventral nerve root? a. It is also called the anterior root. b. It contains the spinal ganglion. c. It includes motor neurons. d. All of the above are true. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 481
28. Which is not true of the dorsal nerve root? a. It is also called the posterior root. b. It includes the spinal ganglion. c. It includes sensory fibers. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 481
29. Which is the only plexus that contains fibers from the thoracic region of the spinal cord? a. Cervical b. Brachial c. Lumbar
d. Sacral ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Nerve Plexuses, Brachial Plexus
REF: p. 483
30. Which of the following is not associated with the oculomotor nerve? a. Movement of external eye muscles b. Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex) c. Movement of intrinsic eye muscles d. Proprioception of eye muscles ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Oculomotor Nerve
REF: p. 491
31. Which of the following is not a branch of the trigeminal nerve? a. Zygomatic nerve b. Ophthalmic nerve c. Maxillary nerve d. Mandibular nerve ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Trigeminal Nerve
REF: p. 491
32. Which of the following cranial nerves is not associated with eye movement? a. Oculomotor b. Trochlear c. Trigeminal d. Abducens ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Trigeminal Nerve
REF: p. 491
33. Afferent nerves or fibers are found only in the _____ nervous system. a. sensory b. autonomic c. central d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 480
34. Efferent nerves or fibers are found only in the _____ system. a. central b. autonomic c. somatic d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
35. The cauda equine: a. is part of the cervical plexus. b. refers to the nerves below the ending of the spinal cord.
REF: p. 480
c. is part of the brachial plexus. d. is the term used to describe the groups of cranial nerves leaving the skull. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 481
36. Which segment of the vertebral column generates more spinal nerve pairs than any other
segment? a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Sacral ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 480
37. The spinal ganglion can be found on the _____ of the spinal nerve. a. dorsal nerve root b. dorsal ramus c. ventral nerve root d. ventral ramus ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 481
38. Small branches from the cervical plexus join which two cranial nerves? a. Vagus and hypoglossal b. Vagus and accessory c. Hypoglossal and accessory d. Glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cervical Plexus
REF: p. 485
39. By age 2 years in a normal infant, the stimulus that once caused the Babinski reflex now
causes: a. the knee jerk reflex. b. the ankle jerk reflex. c. the plantar reflex. d. no reaction at all. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Plantar Reflex
REF: p. 497
40. A gymnast is experiencing problems with balance and equilibrium. Which of the following
cranial nerves may be causing this condition? a. Accessory b. Glossopharyngeal c. Hypoglossal d. Vestibulocochlear ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 493
TOP: Cranial Nerves
41. If a person is having problems with tongue movement, what would you predict as a possible
cause and other potential problems? a. Hypoglossal nerve damage and a decrease in proprioception of the tongue b. Oculomotor nerve damage and a drooping eye c. Olfactory nerve damage and a decrease in the ability to smell d. Vagus nerve damage and a decrease in respiration ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 493
TOP: Cranial Nerves
42. Danielle has sustained an injury that has reduced her ability to complete simple tasks such as
lifting a pencil, manipulating eating utensils, and brushing her hair. The injury has affected the _____ motor pathways _____ the central nervous system (CNS). a. involuntary; outside b. involuntary; within c. voluntary; outside d. voluntary; within ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 495 TOP: Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways 43. In a healthy adult, a well-placed tap on the knee will result in a: a. contraction of the tendon and its muscles, the quadriceps femoris, and thereby
stimulation of the muscle spindles. b. stretch of the blood vessels and decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. c. stretch of the tendon, the quadriceps femoris, and thereby stimulation of the
muscle spindles. d. stretch of the tendon and its muscles, the rectus femoris, and thereby stimulation of
the muscle spindles. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 496
TOP: Knee Jerk Reflex
44. What is the difference between a somatic reflex and an autonomic reflex? a. A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of smooth or cardiac muscles, whereas
an autonomic reflex consists of skeletal muscle contraction. b. A somatic reflex is caused by the secretions of glands, whereas an autonomic
reflex consists of contraction of smooth and skeletal muscles. c. A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of skeletal muscles, whereas an
autonomic reflex consists of contraction of smooth or cardiac muscle or secretions of glands. d. A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of smooth or cardiac muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of the secretions of glands. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 495
TOP: Nature of a Reflex
45. What would the result be if the phrenic nerve received an impulse from the cervical plexus? a. The diaphragm would stop contracting. b. Sensation to the anterior abdominal wall would cease. c. Motor nerves to the thigh would not be able to receive impulses. d. Motor nerves to the back of the neck would not be able to receive impulses. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 485
TOP: Phrenic Nerves
46. How is herpes zoster (shingles) a result of the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus? a. Adrenergic receptors of the cranial nerve send impulses to the brain, indicating
pain at the nerve site. b. A cutaneous nerve is affected by the virus causing shingles, which remains
dormant in the dorsal root ganglion for years.
c. -receptors of the cranial nerve send impulses to the brain, indicating pain at the
nerve site. d. A cranial nerve is affected by the virus causing shingles, which remains dormant in
the dorsal root ganglion for years. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 488
TOP: Herpes Zoster
47. After radiation treatment, Jake experienced a painful eruption of red, swollen plaques that
ruptured and later crusted over. Soon after the eruption of the vesicles, Jake complained of burning and itching in the affected dermatome. These symptoms are most likely a result of what condition? a. Cranial nerve damage b. Herpes zoster c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Trigeminal neuralgia ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 488
TOP: Herpes Zoster
48. When responding to stimulation of the outer margin of the sole of the foot, a 1-year-old infant
extends her great toe without fanning of the other toes. This happens because: a. the corticospinal fibers have become fully myelinated and the Babinski reflex becomes suppressed. b. the corticospinal fibers have not yet become fully myelinated and the Babinski reflex is activated. c. the sensory fibers in the ophthalmic branch of the fifth cranial nerve are mediated by reflex arcs. d. a deep reflex is mediated by a two-neuron spinal arc. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 497
TOP: Plantar Reflex
49. Judy has sustained an injury that has damaged the vestibulocochlear nerve. This injury will
have an effect on her ability to: a. hear. b. move her jaw. c. open and close her eyes. d. maneuver her tongue. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 492
TOP: Vestibulocochlear Nerve
50. A patient complains of numbness in the skin of the buttocks and the posterior surface of the
thigh and leg. The spinal nerve or peripheral branch most likely involved with this condition is the _____ plexus. a. brachial b. cervical c. coccygeal d. thoracic
ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 484 TOP: Spinal Nerves and Peripheral Branches TRUE/FALSE 1. Each optic nerve contains fibers from both retinas. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 491
TOP: Optic Nerve (II)
2. Conduction by the sixth cranial nerve results in sensations of hearing. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 491
TOP: Abducens Nerve (VI)
3. The vagus nerve contains both sensory and motor fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Nerves
REF: p. 494
4. Injury to the sixth cranial nerve causes the eye to turn in because of paralysis of the abducting
muscle of the eye. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Nerve Damage
REF: p. 493
5. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves, all of which consist of both motor and sensory fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 480
6. A herpes zoster (shingles) outbreak usually affects more than one dermatome pattern on the
skin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Herpes Zoster
REF: p. 488
7. Trigeminal neuralgia, or tic douloureux, is characterized by stabbing pain radiating from the
eyes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Trigeminal Neuralgia
REF: p. 492
8. The ventral rami of all spinal nerves subdivide to form complex networks called plexuses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 482
9. Each spinal nerve attaches to the spinal cord by means of two short roots—a ventral root and a
dorsal root. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 481
10. The phrenic nerve exits from the brachial plexus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cervical Plexus
REF: p. 483
11. Any disease or injury that damages the spinal cord between the first and fifth cervical
segments also paralyzes the phrenic nerve and therefore the diaphragm. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Phrenic Nerves
REF: p. 485
12. A dermatome is the skin surface area supplied by a single spinal nerve. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes
REF: p. 487
13. Approximately 3% of the population will suffer from shingles at some time in their lives. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Herpes Zoster
REF: p. 488
14. Somatic reflexes are contractions of smooth muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nature of a Reflex
REF: p. 495
15. At all stages of development, a positive Babinski reflex always means destruction of
pyramidal tract fibers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance
REF: p. 497
16. Each spinal nerve branches into three rami: a ventral branch, a dorsal branch, and an
autonomic or visceral branch. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 482
17. The spinal root that possesses a swelling is the dorsal root. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 481
18. The dorsal root ganglion contains motor neuron cell bodies. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 481
19. The lower end of the spinal cord bears the name lumbosacral plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus
REF: p. 487
20. There are 62 spinal nerves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 480
21. Herpes zoster is a unique viral infection that almost always affects the skin of a single
dermatome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Herpes Zoster
REF: p. 488
22. Myotome is a term referring to a skeletal muscle group innervated by motor neuron axons
from a given spinal nerve. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes
REF: p. 489
23. The sacral plexus is found deep within the shoulder. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus
REF: p. 486
24. Skeletal muscles are somatic effectors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways
REF: p. 495
25. The Babinski reflex is evoked via stimulation of the outer sole of the foot and will cause a
normal infant to extend the great toe. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 497
TOP: Plantar Reflex
26. Amines are the neurotransmitters in a somatic motor pathway. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways
REF: p. 495
27. Sympathetic chain and sympathetic rami refer to the same structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 482
28. The peripheral nervous system includes cranial nerves. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 480
29. The peripheral nervous system consists of 43 pairs of nerves and their branches. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 480
TOP: Introduction
30. The peripheral nervous system contains only efferent nerves. ANS: F TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 480
31. Even though there are only seven cervical vertebrae, that region generates eight cranial
nerves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 480
32. The nerves emerging from the lower lumbar and sacral regions branch from a structure called
the cauda equina, not the spinal cord itself. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 481
33. The spinal ganglion is located only on the ventral nerve root. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 481
34. Branches of the dorsal ramus innervate the skin and muscles of the posterior surface of the
head, neck, and trunk. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 482
35. Nerve plexuses of the thoracic region innervate the abdominal organs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve Plexuses
REF: p. 484
36. The brachial plexus is the only plexus that contains a thoracic spinal nerve. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve Plexuses, Brachial Plexus
REF: p. 485
37. There is almost no overlap in the dermatomes of the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes
REF: p. 487
38. Based on the numbering system of the cranial nerves, cranial nerve XI would be more anterior
than cranial nerve III. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Nerves
REF: p. 489
39. Most “motor” cranial nerves carry proprioceptive sensory fibers. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 489
TOP: Cranial Nerves 40. The cochlear nerve is composed of axons that originate in the organ of Corti. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vestibulocochlear Nerve
REF: p. 492
41. The vestibulocochlear nerve is sometimes called the acoustic nerve. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vestibulocochlear Nerve
REF: p. 492
42. The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies fibers to the carotid sinus, which has a role in the control
of blood pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Glossopharyngeal Nerve
REF: p. 492
43. Because the vagus nerve sends many fibers to the abdominal organs, it was given the name
vagus, which means visceral. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vagus Nerve (X)
REF: p. 494
44. The accessory nerve is unique among the cranial nerves, because none of its fibers originate in
the brain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Accessory Nerve (XI)
REF: p. 494
45. Reflexes are always unconscious or involuntary. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nature of a Reflex
REF: p. 495
46. A reflex always includes a muscle contraction or a gland secretion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nature of a Reflex
REF: p. 495
47. The final efferent organ of the knee jerk reflex is the quadriceps femoris muscle. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 496 TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance 48. If a reflex causes cardiac muscle to contract, it can be either a somatic or an autonomic reflex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nature of a Reflex
REF: p. 495
49. The plantar reflex consists of a curling under of all the toes, plus a slight turning in and
flexion of the anterior part of the foot.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance
REF: p. 497
50. The plantar reflex and Babinski reflex are brought about by the same stimulus. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 497 TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance 51. The most common cause of peripheral neuropathy in the United States is diabetes mellitus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral Neuropathy
REF: p. 480
52. If you have never had chickenpox, it is unlikely that you will develop shingles. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 488
TOP: Herpes Zoster
53. There is one more thoracic spinal nerve than there are thoracic vertebrae. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 480
54. When referring to a spinal nerve, the terms dorsal root and dorsal ramus refer to the same
structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
REF: p. 482
55. The term plexus comes from the Latin word meaning braid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve Plexuses
REF: p. 483
56. Thoracic spinal nerves are the only segment of spinal nerves that do not participate in a
plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Brachial Plexus
REF: p. 485
57. The last spinal nerve is Cx 1 (from the coccyx), which joins with sacral spinal nerves to form
the coccygeal plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus
REF: p. 486
58. Only spinal nerves from the sacrum form the sacral plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus
REF: p. 486
59. Because the distribution of nerves to skeletal muscle is arranged into specific myotomes, a
skeletal muscle can be innervated by axons from only one spinal nerve. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes
REF: p. 489
60. It would be normal to find a functioning Babinski reflex in an infant as young as 4 months
old. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Plantar Reflex
REF: p. 497
61. The corneal reflex refers to the eye reducing the size of the pupil in response to bright light. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Corneal Reflex
REF: p. 497
62. Efferent neurons carry information away from the CNS; afferent neurons carry information
toward the CNS. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 480
63. The nerves from the cervical plexus innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire
arm. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Brachial Plexus
REF: p. 485
64. The largest nerve of the body, the sciatic nerve, has its source in the sacral plexus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus
REF: p. 486
65. The olfactory nerve, the optic nerve, and the oculomotor nerve are the only cranial nerves that
do not come from the brainstem. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Nerves
REF: p. 491
66. All reflexes have their interneurons in the spinal cord. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nature of a Reflex
REF: p. 496
67. The somatic motor pathway has two neurons between the CNS and the effector organs, just as
the autonomic system does. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways 68. The optic tract contains fibers from both retinas.
REF: p. 495
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Optic Nerve (II)
REF: p. 491
69. The two optic nerves join at the optic chiasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Optic Nerve (II)
REF: p. 491
70. Most of the optic nerve fibers terminate in the cerebellum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Optic Nerve (II)
REF: p. 491
71. All of the cervical nerves contribute to the cervical plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cervical Plexus
REF: p. 483
72. Two cranial nerves, the hypoglossal and the vagus, receive branches from the cervical plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cervical Plexus
REF: p. 485
73. The first four lumbar nerves contribute to the lumbar plexus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lumbar Plexus
REF: p. 486
74. The femoral nerve, a major nerve in the lower extremity, exits from the lumbar plexus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lumbar Plexus
REF: p. 486
75. The olfactory nerve has dendrites in the inferior turbinates of the nose. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Olfactory Nerve
REF: p. 490
76. The axons of the olfactory nerve form about 20 small bundles that pierce the cribriform plate
to enter the brain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Olfactory Nerve
REF: p. 490
77. The oculomotor nerve contains fibers from the autonomic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Oculomotor Nerve
REF: p. 491
78. The trochlear nerve stimulates movement of the eye. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 491
TOP: Trochlear Nerve 79. The trigeminal nerve gives rise to the ophthalmic nerve, the maxillary nerve, and the
zygomatic nerve. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Trigeminal Nerve
REF: p. 491
80. The abducens nerve fibers originate in the medulla oblongata. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Abducens Nerve (VI)
REF: p. 491
81. The abducens nerve abducts the upper arm. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Abducens Nerve (VI)
REF: p. 491
82. The facial nerve contains efferent fibers to the tear glands and afferent fibers from the taste
buds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Facial Nerve
REF: p. 492
83. The glossopharyngeal nerve is the only cranial nerve that contains autonomic fibers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glossopharyngeal Nerve
REF: p. 494
84. The vagus nerve originates in the pons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vagus Nerve (X)
REF: p. 494
MATCHING
Match each cranial nerve with its function or description. a. Olfactory nerve b. Optic nerve c. Oculomotor nerve d. Trochlear nerve e. Trigeminal nerve f. Abducens nerve g. Vestibulocochlear nerve h. Glossopharyngeal nerve i. Vagus nerve j. Hypoglossal nerve 1. Connects to various external muscles of the eye 2. Involved in both hearing and equilibrium 3. Fibers are widely distributed in the body; name means “wanderer”
4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Dendrites and cell bodies are along the superior conchae Supplies muscles of the tongue; name means “under the tongue” Branches into three nerves: the ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular nerves Sends fibers to the carotid sinus, which helps regulate blood pressure Sends fibers to the occipital lobe and the superior colliculi Sends fibers to the superior oblique muscle of the eye Abducts the eye
1. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Oculomotor Nerve 2. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Vestibulocochlear Nerve 3. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Vagus Nerve (X) 4. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Olfactory Nerve 5. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypoglossal Nerve 6. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Trigeminal Nerve 7. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Glossopharyngeal Nerve 8. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Optic Nerve (II) 9. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Trochlear Nerve 10. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Abducens Nerve (VI)
REF: p. 491 REF: p. 492 REF: p. 494 REF: p. 490 REF: p. 495 REF: p. 491 REF: p. 492 REF: p. 491 REF: p. 491 REF: p. 491
Match each term with its description or definition. a. Cauda equina b. Ventral nerve root c. Dorsal nerve root d. Cervical plexus e. Brachial plexus f. Lumbar plexus g. Dermatome h. Myotome i. Somatic reflexes j. Autonomic reflexes 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
Plexus from which femoral nerve emerges Nerve root that carries motor nerves away from the spinal cord Skin surface area that is supplied by one spinal nerve Reflexes that involve cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands Nerve root that carries sensory neurons into the spinal cord Group or braid of nerves formed from spinal nerves C1 to C4 Group of skeletal muscles that receive axons from one spinal nerve Reflexes that involve skeletal muscles
19. Group of nerves that extend from the bottom of the spinal cord 20. Group or braid of nerves formed from spinal nerves C5 to T1 11. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lumbar Plexus 12. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 13. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes 14. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Nature of a Reflex 15. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 16. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cervical Plexus 17. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes 18. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Nature of a Reflex 19. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Spinal Nerves 20. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Brachial Plexus
REF: p. 486 REF: p. 481 REF: p. 487 REF: p. 495 REF: p. 481 REF: p. 483 REF: p. 488 REF: p. 495 REF: p. 481 REF: p. 485
OTHER 1. List the names, numbers, and functional classifications of the cranial nerves. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 489-490
TOP: Cranial Nerves
2. Briefly describe the structure of the spinal nerves. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 481-482
TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves
3. Why do the right and left phrenic nerves have considerable clinical interest? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 485
TOP: Phrenic Nerves
4. Outline the neural pathway involved in the patellar (knee jerk) reflex. ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 496-497
TOP: Knee Jerk Reflex
5. Identify the major nerve plexuses and which spinal nerves join to form each of them. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 482-487
TOP: Nerve Plexuses
6. What is a dermatome? What is a myotome? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 487-488
TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes
7. Explain the difference between the Babinski reflex and the plantar reflex. What does a
positive Babinski reflex in an adult indicate? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 497
TOP: Plantar Reflex
8. Explain how the nerve plexuses make the nervous system more efficient. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 482-483
TOP: Nerve Plexuses
9. Describe the basic principles of somatic motor pathways. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 495 TOP: Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways 10. Explain the difference between a spinal reflex and a cranial reflex. Explain the difference in
effector organs between somatic reflexes and visceral reflexes. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization ESSAY
REF: p. 495
TOP: Nature of a Reflex
1. A patient has a severe case of the hiccups. The physician injects an anesthetic solution into the
neck about an inch above the clavicle. What nerve was injected, and what is the result? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 485
TOP: Phrenic Nerves
Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which generalization concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true? a. All of its axons are afferent fibers. b. It operates without conscious control. c. It regulates visceral activities. d. All of its neurons are motor. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 505
2. Which of the following would not be a major effector of the autonomic nervous system? a. Skeletal muscles b. Blood vessels c. Sweat glands d. Iris of the eye ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 504
3. Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except: a. direction of information flow. b. location of peripheral fibers. c. number of neurons between central nervous system (CNS) and effector. d. acetylcholine. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Basic Plan of Autonomic Pathways
REF: p. 506
4. The autonomic nervous system functions chiefly in the: a. coordination of muscular activity. b. innervation of smooth muscle in the viscera. c. reception of sensory impulses. d. arousal of alerting mechanism. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 504 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 5. Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: a. synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. b. send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to
synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia. c. pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing. d. do all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 507
6. Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because: a. they reach visceral effectors faster than parasympathetic impulses. b. myoneural junctions contain a substance that inactivates acetylcholine. c. preganglionic fibers are short and postganglionic fibers are long. d. preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 507 TOP: Structure of the Sympathetic Pathways 7. Parasympathetic neuron cell bodies are located in: a. the white columns of the sacral segments of the spinal cord. b. the lateral gray columns of thoracic segments of the spinal cord. c. nuclei of the brainstem and the lateral gray columns of the sacral cord. d. collateral ganglia. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Parasympathetic Pathways
REF: p. 507
8. Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? a. Constriction of the bronchioles b. Decreased secretion of the pancreas c. Constriction of the urinary sphincters d. Dilation of skeletal muscle blood vessels ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 515 TOP: Summary of Sympathetic “Fight-or-Flight” Reaction 9. All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: a. contraction of the urinary bladder. b. relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract. c. increased salivation. d. increased heart rate. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 514
TOP: Autonomic Functions
10. “Fight-or-flight” physiological changes include all of the following except: a. increased conversion of glycogen into glucose. b. constriction of respiratory airways. c. increased sweating. d. dilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscles. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 515
11. All of the following are characteristics of sympathetic preganglionic neurons except: a. they secrete acetylcholine. b. they have long fibers from CNS to ganglion. c. dendrites and cell bodies are found in the lateral gray columns of thoracic and the
first four lumbar segments of the spinal cord. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 506 TOP: Structure of the Sympathetic Pathways
12. Norepinephrine is liberated at: a. the dendrite ending. b. parasympathetic preganglionic nerve endings. c. most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings. d. sympathetic preganglionic nerve endings. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 509 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 13. Beta receptors: a. are cholinergic. b. bind acetylcholine. c. bind norepinephrine. d. bind the toxin muscarine. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors
REF: p. 509
14. Propranolol is an example of a: a. beta blocker. b. drug used to treat irregular heartbeats. c. drug used to treat hypertension. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Beta Blockers
REF: p. 510
15. A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the
heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of: a. the parasympathetic nervous system. b. the sympathetic nervous system. c. both the parasympathetic and the sympathetic nervous systems. d. None of the above would account for the symptoms. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 515 TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division 16. Which of the following might occur from the stimulation of parasympathetic fibers? a. Goose pimples b. Dilation of blood vessels to skeletal muscles c. Increased blood sugar d. Increased peristalsis in the digestive tract ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Functions
REF: p. 514
17. Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on any of the following areas except: a. sweat glands. b. skin blood vessels. c. the liver. d. the urinary bladder.
ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 514
TOP: Autonomic Functions
18. Which of the following statements is not true? a. The parasympathetic division is the dominant controller of most autonomic
effectors most of the time. b. Under quiet, nonstressful conditions, more impulses reach autonomic effectors by
cholinergic parasympathetic fibers than by adrenergic sympathetic fibers. c. The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency” system. d. Parasympathetic stimulation causes an increase in the secretion of pancreatic juice and insulin. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 514 TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System 19. Alpha receptors bind with: a. acetylcholine. b. norepinephrine. c. the toxin muscarine. d. none of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors
REF: p. 509
20. Which is not true about sympathetic postganglionic neurons? a. They are usually longer than preganglionic neurons. b. They produce acetylcholine. c. They produce norepinephrine. d. They have acetylcholine receptors on their dendrites. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 509 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 21. Which is not true about parasympathetic postganglionic neurons? a. They are usually shorter than the preganglionic neurons. b. They produce acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter. c. They produce norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter. d. They have acetylcholine receptors on their dendrites. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 509 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 22. Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. a. alpha b. beta c. nicotinic d. both alpha and beta ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 23. Norepinephrine can stimulate _____ receptors. a. alpha
REF: p. 510
b. beta c. nicotinic d. both alpha and beta ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors
REF: p. 509
24. How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic
effector? a. A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division. b. A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the parasympathetic division. c. A dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. A singly innervated autonomic effector utilizes only acetylcholine. d. A dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. A singly innervated autonomic effector uses only norepinephrine. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 505 TOP: Divisions of the Autonomic Nervous System 25. Which of the following is a description of the principle of antagonism as it relates to the
autonomic nervous system? a. If sympathetic impulses tend to inhibit the effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to stimulate it. b. If sympathetic impulses inhibit autonomic centers, parasympathetic impulses tend to stimulate them. c. If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it. d. If sympathetic impulses initiate nerve conduction, parasympathetic impulses stop nerve conduction. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 512 TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System 26. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they: a. are hydrolyzed by the enzyme acetylcholine. b. continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectors. c. continually conduct impulses to the brain. d. have opposing effects. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 512 TOP: Overview of Autonomic Functions 27. If you were to damage some of the preganglionic fibers that enter the celiac ganglion, what
effect would this have on sympathetic stimulation? a. Hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla may reach the various sympathetic effectors, where they would enhance and prolong the effects of the sympathetic
stimulation. b. Hormones secreted by the pituitary gland may reach various sympathetic effectors, where they would enhance and prolong the effects of the sympathetic stimulation. c. Hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla may not reach the various sympathetic effectors, thus delaying the effects of sympathetic stimulation. d. Hormones secreted by the pituitary gland may not reach the various sympathetic effectors, thus delaying the effects of sympathetic stimulation. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 507 TOP: Structure of the Sympathetic Pathways TRUE/FALSE 1. Visceral effectors are innervated by sympathetic fibers. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 504 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 2. Effectors that have single innervation by the autonomic nervous system are innervated only by
the parasympathetic division. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 505
3. The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and
through summation of the impulses, the effect can be increased. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 505
4. Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and
parasympathetic neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 505
5. The autonomic nervous system includes only efferent neurons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 505
6. Sensory neurons can operate in autonomic reflex arcs. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 505 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System 7. Preganglionic neurons conduct impulses from the brain or spinal cord to an autonomic
ganglion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 505
8. Conduction to autonomic effectors requires only one efferent neuron. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 505
9. Sympathetic responses are usually widespread, involving many organ systems at once. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons
REF: p. 507
10. The parasympathetic division is also called the thoracolumbar division. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Sympathetic Pathways
REF: p. 506
11. The effect of a neurotransmitter on any postsynaptic cell is determined by the characteristics
of the receptor, not the neurotransmitter. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors
REF: p. 509
12. Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on sweat glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Functions
REF: p. 514
13. The sympathetic division is the dominant controller of the body at rest. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 512 TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System 14. Nicotinic receptors are located on the dendrites of all preganglionic neurons of both the
parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Acetylcholine and Its Receptors
REF: p. 510
15. All cell bodies of the autonomic nervous system are located within the CNS. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 505 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System 16. Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber will always synapse with
a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 507 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System 17. Some parasympathetic postganglionic neurons have their cell bodies in nuclei in the
brainstem. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 507
TOP: Parasympathetic Postganglionic Neurons 18. The neurotransmitter released by both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic
neurons is acetylcholine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors
REF: p. 511
19. Axon terminals that secrete acetylcholine are called cholinergic terminals. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors
REF: p. 509
20. Monoamine oxidase is an enzyme that enhances the action of norepinephrine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors
REF: p. 509
21. The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are
cholinergic. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors
REF: p. 509
22. Acetylcholine affects visceral effectors by first binding to alpha receptors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Acetylcholine and Its Receptors
REF: p. 511
23. Both the parasympathetic and the sympathetic divisions continually conduct impulses to
visceral effectors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 504
24. An effect of sympathetic stimulation on the eye is constriction of the pupil. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Functions
REF: p. 514
25. Blood vessels in both digestive organs and skeletal muscles are dilated by sympathetic
stimulation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Functions
REF: p. 514
26. The “fight-or-flight” reaction is a normal response in times of stress. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 515
27. Under normal, nonstressful conditions, the parasympathetic division is dominant.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Parasympathetic Division
REF: p. 516
28. Hormones released from the adrenal medulla produce effects similar to those of the
sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division
REF: p. 515
29. Biofeedback involves willful control of specific effectors normally controlled only
autonomically. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Biofeedback
REF: p. 514
30. The autonomic nervous system is a part of the CNS but operates autonomously. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 504 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 31. Autonomic effectors require two efferent neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 505
32. The parasympathetic division is the dominant controller of the body at rest. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Parasympathetic Division
REF: p. 516
33. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons begin within the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons
REF: p. 507
34. In most cases, the effects of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic
nervous system are antagonistic to each other. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 505
35. The somatic and autonomic nervous systems are similar in that they both have two efferent
neurons between the CNS and the effector organ. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 506
36. The gray ramus consists of postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 507 TOP: Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons
37. The autonomic nervous system functions independently of the cerebral cortex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 512
38. A new theory of autonomic neurotransmission says that most postganglionic fibers release
two substances to transmit an impulse. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: NANC Transmission
REF: p. 511
39. The postganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
produce acetylcholine as their neurotransmitter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors
REF: p. 509
40. A short postganglionic neuron is a characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons
REF: p. 507
41. A short postganglionic neuron is a characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Parasympathetic Postganglionic Neurons
REF: p. 509
42. If a nerve impulse is being sent to a gland, it will pass through two neurons. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 504 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 43. A sympathetic preganglionic neuron usually synapses with only one postganglionic neuron. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons
REF: p. 507
44. Norepinephrine can stimulate nicotinic or muscarinic receptors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors
REF: p. 510
45. Nicotinic receptors are stimulated by acetylcholine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors
REF: p. 510
46. Alpha receptors are stimulated by acetylcholine, whereas beta receptors are stimulated by
norepinephrine. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 509
TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 47. The autonomic nervous system regulates subconscious body functions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 504
48. Autonomic pathways do not connect with skeletal muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System
REF: p. 504
49. The gray rami of the spinal nerve are sympathetic fibers, and the white rami are
parasympathetic fibers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons
REF: p. 506
50. The sympathetic trunk runs from C8 to L4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons
REF: p. 507
51. When the sympathetic fiber enters the sympathetic trunk, it can send branches up or down the
trunk. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons
REF: p. 507
52. The splanchnic nerve is made up of preganglionic sympathetic fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons
REF: p. 507
53. Some modified postganglionic sympathetic fibers act as endocrine glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons
REF: p. 507
54. The parasympathetic nervous system is also called the craniosacral division. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Parasympathetic Preganglionic Neurons
REF: p. 507
55. All cranial nerves except nerves I and II contain parasympathetic fibers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parasympathetic Preganglionic Neurons
REF: p. 507
56. About half of the parasympathetic fibers travel in the vagus nerve. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 507
TOP: Parasympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 57. All postganglionic sympathetic fibers release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters
REF: p. 509
MATCHING
Match each term with its description or definition. a. Sympathetic nervous system b. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Alpha receptor d. Nicotinic receptor e. Sympathetic trunk f. Splanchnic nerve g. “Fight or flight” h. “Rest and repair” i. Acetylcholine j. Norepinephrine 1. Structure that lies on either side of the spinal cord and through which preganglionic 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
sympathetic neurons enter Neurotransmitter released by cholinergic fibers One type of receptor stimulated by acetylcholine Nervous system that is also called the thoracolumbar division Informal term used to describe the response of the body to sympathetic nervous system stimulation Structure through which preganglionic sympathetic neurons that did not synapse in the sympathetic chain ganglion continue Informal term used to describe the response of the body to parasympathetic nervous system stimulation Nervous system that is also called the craniosacral division Neurotransmitter released by adrenergic fibers One type of receptor stimulated by norepinephrine
1. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 2. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Acetylcholine and Its Receptors 4. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 5. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division 6. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 7. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Parasympathetic Division
REF: p. 506 REF: p. 509 REF: p. 510 REF: p. 506 REF: p. 515 REF: p. 507 REF: p. 516
8. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Parasympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 9. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 10. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors
REF: p. 507 REF: p. 516 REF: p. 509
SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain physiologically how summation influences effectors doubly innervated by the
autonomic nervous system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 512
TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System
2. Explain the function of monoamine oxidase as related to the autonomic nervous system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 509
TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors
3. What is the name of the enzyme that terminates the action of acetylcholine? ANS:
Acetylcholinesterase DIF: Memorization TOP: Acetylcholine and Its Receptors
REF: p. 511
4. Explain physiologically how a beta blocker affects heart muscle activity. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 509
TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors
5. What brain structure acts as a “connection” between the cerebrum and the autonomic nervous
system? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 506
TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System
6. List four ways the body adapts itself for maximum energy expenditure during stress
conditions. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 515
TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division
7. Contrast somatic motor pathways with autonomic pathways. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 505-507
TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System
8. What two enzymes terminate the activity of norepinephrine? How do they compare with the
enzymes that terminate the activity of acetylcholine? What effect does this difference have on the body? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 509
TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors
9. Explain the source and possible synapse points for the sympathetic preganglionic neurons. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 505-507 TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 10. Explain the ways in which sympathetic postganglionic neurons travel to their effector organs.
Compare the relative length between sympathetic pre- and postganglionic neurons. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 507 TOP: Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons 11. Explain the way parasympathetic neurons travel from the CNS to their effector organs.
Compare the relative length between the parasympathetic pre- and postganglionic neurons. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 507-509 TOP: Structure of the Parasympathetic Pathways 12. Explain the principle of autonomic antagonism and why it is important in maintaining
homeostasis. ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Application
REF: p. 512
TOP: Overview of Autonomic Functions
13. Explain in general, what the function of the sympathetic nervous system is. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 512-515 TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division 14. Explain in general, what the function of the parasympathetic nervous system is. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Functions of the Parasympathetic Division ESSAY 1. A small child runs in front of your car. You slam on the brakes, skid, and miss hitting the
child by inches. What effects did your autonomic nervous system have on your body as you reacted to this situation? Explain why it will take you a while to calm yourself after this incident. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 515
TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division
2. Mrs. Fearful has surgery in the morning. At her preoperative checkup, her blood pressure and
glucose level are elevated. What might be the cause of this temporary increase? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 512-515
TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division
3. Explain why the cells of the adrenal medulla can be considered sympathetic postganglionic
neurons with no specific effector organ. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 514-515
TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons
Chapter 23: General Senses Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The special senses: a. are widely distributed throughout the body. b. enable us to detect pain. c. are dense in the fingertips. d. are grouped in the tongue, nose, eyes, and ears. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Receptors
REF: p. 521
2. Pain that is perceived as being superficial but actually is caused by an underlying organ is
called _____ pain. a. phantom b. referred ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Referred Pain
c. chronic d. acute REF: p. 524
3. Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? a. Skin c. Internal organs b. Tendons d. Skeletal muscles ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
4. The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including: a. touch. c. pain. b. temperature. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Sense Organs Introduction
REF: p. 520
5. Intense stimuli of any type that results in tissue damage will activate: a. mechanoreceptors. c. nociceptors. b. thermoreceptors. d. photoreceptors. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected
REF: p. 522
6. Chemoreceptors are most likely to be activated by: a. cold temperatures. c. pain. b. noxious odors. d. a change of receptor position. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected
REF: p. 522
7. The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: a. Meissner corpuscles. c. Ruffini corpuscles.
b. Krause end bulbs.
d. free nerve endings.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Encapsulated Nerve Endings
REF: p. 527
8. Which of the following is true of proprioceptors? a. Function in relation to movement and position b. Are superficial receptors c. Are internal receptors d. Are receptors for general senses such as touch, pressure, heat, and cold ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
9. Free nerve endings respond to all of the following stimuli except: a. tickling. c. strength of muscle contractions. b. itching. d. pain. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Free Nerve Endings
REF: p. 523
10. Pacinian corpuscles are least numerous in the: a. palms of the hands. c. skin of the back. b. joints of the body. d. soles of the feet. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Encapsulated Nerve Endings
REF: p. 527
11. Which of the following receptors are found in most body tissues? a. Free nerve endings c. Krause end bulbs b. Meissner corpuscles d. Ruffini corpuscles ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Free Nerve Endings 12. Proprioceptors can be found in: a. the urinary bladder. b. major blood vessels of the body.
REF: p. 523
c. skeletal muscles. d. both A and C.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
13. The word “deform” describes the stimulus detected by: a. chemoreceptors. c. photoreceptors. b. mechanoreceptors. d. thermoreceptors. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 14. Which of the following is true about pain receptors? a. Alpha fibers respond to chronic pain. b. Alpha fibers are associated with dull, aching pain. c. Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain. d. Beta fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain.
REF: p. 522
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Free Nerve Endings
REF: p. 523
15. Which of the following is an anatomical variant of a Meissner corpuscle? a. Krause end bulb c. Ruffini corpuscle b. Pacinian corpuscle d. Both A and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Encapsulated Nerve Endings
REF: p. 527
16. The two general classes of sense organs are: a. auditory and visual. c. general and special. b. peripheral and central. d. chemoreceptors and
mechanoreceptors. ANS: C TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 520
17. Sensory impulses ending in what part of the central nervous system (CNS) may affect the
so-called “vital sign” reflexes? a. Thalamus b. Cerebellum ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
c. Brainstem d. Cerebral cortex REF: p. 521
18. Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation
awareness? a. Thalamus b. Cerebellum ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
c. Brainstem d. Cerebral cortex REF: p. 521
19. Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS give specific awareness of a specific type of
sensation, its exact location, and its level of intensity? a. Thalamus c. Brainstem b. Cerebellum d. Cerebral cortex ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
REF: p. 521
20. The two-point discrimination test can be used to measure: a. visual acuity. b. the ability to determine the location of a sound. c. the sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body. d. the ability to measure the relative temperature of two different objects. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Receptors
REF: p. 521
21. What types of receptors are important in stimulating the thirst center? a. Mechanoreceptors c. Chemoreceptors
b. Osmoreceptors
d. Thermoreceptors
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected
REF: p. 522
22. If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers. a. beta c. visceral b. alpha d. both beta and visceral ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 523
TOP: Pain Sensations
23. Which term is another name for a variant of a Meissner corpuscle called the bulboid
corpuscle? a. Krause end bulb b. Ruffini corpuscle ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Discriminative Touch
c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Root hair plexus REF: p. 526
24. Which term is another name for a variant of a Meissner corpuscle called the bulbous
corpuscle? a. Krause end bulb b. Ruffini corpuscle ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Discriminative Touch
c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Root hair plexus REF: p. 526
25. Which large mechanoreceptor, when sectioned, shows thick laminated connective tissue
capsules? a. Krause end bulb b. Ruffini corpuscle ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Discriminative Touch
c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Root hair plexus REF: p. 526
26. Which of the following defines or explains adaptation? a. The magnitude of a receptor response increases over time to a continuous stimulus. b. The magnitude of a receptor response decreases over time to a continuous
stimulus. c. The stimulus is sent to the thalamus and redirected to the brainstem. d. None of the above defines or explains adaptation. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
REF: p. 521
27. Which of the following statements is not true of exteroceptors? a. They send both tonic and phasic impulses to the CNS. b. They are also called cutaneous receptors. c. They are located on or near the surface of the body. d. All of the above statements are true of exteroceptors. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
28. Tactile meniscus is another name for the: a. Meissner corpuscle b. Pacinian corpuscle ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Free Nerve Endings
c. Golgi receptor d. Merkel disk REF: p. 523
29. Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential? a. It follows the all-or-none law. b. It is a graded response. c. It occurs when an adequate stimulus acts on a receptor. d. It can stimulate an action potential in the axon of a sensory neuron. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
REF: p. 521
30. Which of the following is considered a somatic sense? a. Smell c. Equilibrium b. Taste d. None of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Receptors
REF: p. 521
31. The two general classes of sense organs are: a. auditory and visual. c. general and special. b. peripheral and central. d. chemoreceptors and
mechanoreceptors. ANS: C TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 520
32. When referring to the sensory neurons, the term end organ refers to the _____ lobe of the
brain. a. occipital b. temporal ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
c. parietal d. None of the above is correct. REF: p. 521
33. Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential? a. It follows the all-or-none law. b. It is a graded response. c. It occurs when an adequate stimulus acts on a receptor. d. It can stimulate an action potential in the axon of a sensory neuron. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
REF: p. 521
34. Which of the following is considered a somatic sense? a. Smell c. Equilibrium b. Taste d. None of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Receptors
REF: p. 521
TRUE/FALSE 1. Sensory receptors make it possible for the body to respond to stimuli caused by changes
occurring in our external and internal environments. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sensory Receptors
REF: p. 521
2. Touch and pressure are examples of stimuli that activate mechanoreceptors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Encapsulated Nerve Endings
REF: p. 527
3. As we wear our sneakers, we lose the constant feeling of their presence; this is called
adaptation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
REF: p. 521
4. Somatic sense receptors are distributed evenly throughout the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Receptors
REF: p. 521
5. Taste buds are both exteroceptors and chemoreceptors. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 522
TOP: Classification by Location
6. Somatic sense receptors located in muscles and joints are called visceroceptors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
7. Muscle spindles are stimulated by excessive muscle contraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Encapsulated Nerve Endings
REF: p. 527
8. Proprioceptors are receptors for touch, pain, heat, and cold. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
9. You feel hungry because of a proprioceptor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
10. Proprioceptors are activated by a change in temperature. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 522
TOP: Classification by Location 11. Mechanoreceptors are the simplest, most common, and most widely distributed sensory
receptors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Structure
REF: p. 522
12. Somatic sense receptors located in muscles and joints are called proprioceptors. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 522
TOP: Classification by Location
13. Golgi tendon receptors are stimulated by touch. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Encapsulated Nerve Endings
REF: p. 527
14. Exteroceptors are often called somatic senses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
15. Olfactory receptors and taste buds are chemoreceptors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus
REF: p. 522
16. Special sense organs can respond to only one type of stimuli, whereas general sense organs
can respond to several different types of stimuli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
REF: p. 521
17. Adaptation by a receptor causes an increase in the rate of impulse but a decrease in its
intensity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
REF: p. 521
18. Proprioceptors in muscles and joints tend to adapt faster than other types of receptors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
REF: p. 521
19. Proprioceptors are specialized types of visceroceptors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
20. Proprioceptors respond to pressure in such organs as the intestine and the urinary bladder. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 522
TOP: Classification by Location 21. Referred pain may be caused by deep organ receptors and skin area receptors entering the
same segment of the spinal cord. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Referred Pain
REF: p. 524
22. In referring to proprioceptors, the terms tonic and phasic are interchangeable. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sensory Receptors
REF: p. 521
23. Nociceptors can respond to intense light. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Receptors
REF: p. 522
24. Nociceptors serve as the primary receptor for pain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Free Nerve Endings
REF: p. 523
25. Because of its importance to survival, the brain has a high concentration of pain receptors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Free Nerve Endings
REF: p. 523
26. Lamellar corpuscle and Ruffini corpuscle refer to the same structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Encapsulated Nerve Endings
REF: p. 527
27. Anatomically, each muscle spindle consists of a discrete grouping of about 5 to 10 modified
muscle fibers called intrafusal fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Stretch Receptors
REF: p. 527
28. The stretch reflex helps maintain posture. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Stretch Receptors
REF: p. 528
29. Golgi tendon receptors respond in a way similar to muscle spindles to maintain posture. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stretch Receptors
REF: p. 528
30. The terms sensation and perception mean the same thing. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 521
TOP: Receptor Response 31. Another term for a cutaneous receptor is an exteroceptor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
32. Another term for a visceroceptor is an interoceptor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
33. Tonic proprioceptors allow us to know the location of our body parts without having to look. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
34. Merkel disks and muscle spindles provide the body with information about muscle and the
strength of muscle contraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Discriminative Touch
REF: p. 526
35. Osmoreceptors measure the type of chemicals in the blood and stimulate the hypothalamus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus
REF: p. 522
36. Osmoreceptors detect changes in the concentration of electrolytes in body fluids and can
stimulate the hypothalamic thirst center. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus
REF: p. 522
37. Photoreceptors are found only in the eye. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus
REF: p. 522
38. Mechanoreceptors are activated by stimuli that in some way deform or change the position of
the receptor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus
REF: p. 522
39. Referred pain is psychosomatic pain brought on by intense stress. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Referred Pain
REF: p. 524
40. In referred pain, pain in a visceral organ is referred to skin sensors directly above it.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Referred Pain
REF: p. 524
41. Pain that develops quickly and can be localized easily is called visceral pain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pain Sensations
REF: p. 523
42. If you cut yourself on the finger, the fiber sending the message to your brain would be a type
A pain fiber. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 523
TOP: Pain Sensations
43. An itch is caused by a rapidly adapting free nerve ending called a root hair plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Tactile Sensation
REF: p. 525
44. The interpretation of the sensation of being tickled requires a complex interaction of many
parts of the brain. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 525
TOP: Tactile Sensation
45. The terms Merkel disk and tactile meniscus refer to the same structure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Discriminative Touch
REF: p. 526
46. The tactile receptor is made up of two cells: a tactile epithelial cell and a tactile disk. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Discriminative Touch
REF: p. 526
47. Tactile disks adapt rapidly to make sure current information is being sent to the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Discriminative Touch
REF: p. 526
48. The Ruffini corpuscle is an example of a bulboid corpuscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Touch and Pressure Receptors
REF: p. 527
49. The ability to sense the presence of your books when you have been holding them for a long
time depends on the functioning of the Krause end bulbs. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Touch and Pressure Receptors
REF: p. 527
50. A graded response is a response graded to the strength of a stimulus. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 533
TOP: Olfactory Receptors 51. Thermoreceptors are activated by changes in the concentration of electrolytes. ANS: F TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 535
52. The function of a receptor is to turn a stimulus into a nerve impulse. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
REF: p. 521
53. Receptors are often described as sensitive axons or end organs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Receptor Response
REF: p. 521
54. Special senses tend to be grouped into localized areas. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Receptors
REF: p. 521
55. Sensations produced by receptors of general senses are often called somatic senses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Receptors
REF: p. 521
56. Walking would stimulate tonic proprioceptors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Location
REF: p. 522
57. Osmoreceptors monitor the concentration of glucose in the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus
REF: p. 522
58. The primary mechanism of fibromyalgia seems to be an abnormal amplification of pain
information by the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Free Nerve Endings
REF: p. 523
59. The treatment of fibromyalgia requires an increase of calcium ions in the pain centers of the
spinal cord. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Free Nerve Endings
REF: p. 523
60. Muscle tissue responds to efferent gamma neurons and afferent alpha neurons. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 527
TOP: Encapsulated Nerve Endings 61. Encapsulated nerve endings are encapsulated by cuboidal epithelial tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Encapsulated Nerve Endings
REF: p. 527
MATCHING
Match each receptor type with its corresponding description. a. Chemoreceptors d. Photoreceptors b. Mechanoreceptors e. Thermoreceptors c. Nociceptors 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Activated by intense stimuli of any type that results in tissue damage Found only in the eye and responds to light Activated by stretch or pressure in muscle tissue Could be activated by a concentration of blood glucose Activated by heat or cold
1. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 2. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 4. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 5. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected
REF: p. 522 REF: p. 522 REF: p. 522 REF: p. 522 REF: p. 522
OTHER 1. Describe each of the receptor categories, based on the types of stimuli that activate them. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 522 TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 2. Identify the sensation or function of the following somatic sense receptors: free nerve endings,
Meissner corpuscles, Krause end bulbs, Ruffini corpuscles, Pacinian corpuscles, muscle spindles, and Golgi tendon receptors. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 522-523
TOP: Classification by Structure
3. Differentiate between exteroceptors, visceroceptors, and proprioceptors. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 522
TOP: Classification by Location
4. Differentiate between the pain receptors in the body—both fast and slow fibers and visceral
and somatic pain. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 523
TOP: Pain Sensations
5. Explain the different functions of the muscle spindles and the Golgi tendon receptors. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 527
TOP: Stretch Receptors
Chapter 24: Special Senses Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with: a. taste. c. smell. b. equilibrium. d. pain. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Sense of Smell
REF: p. 533
2. There are _____ openings into the middle ear. a. two c. four b. three d. five ANS: C TOP: Middle Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
3. Both olfactory receptors and taste buds are: a. thermoreceptors. c. nociceptors. b. chemoreceptors. d. mechanoreceptors. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected
REF: p. 535
4. The number of pure, or “primary,” tastes is about: a. 5. c. 30. b. 15. d. 100. ANS: A TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 535
5. All of the following are “primary” taste sensations except: a. sweet. c. spicy. b. sour. d. bitter. ANS: C TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
6. The auditory ossicles include the: a. malleus. b. incus. ANS: D TOP: Middle Ear
REF: p. 535
c. stapes. d. All of the above are correct.
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
7. Which of the following is not a part of the bony labyrinth? a. Semicircular canal c. Vestibule b. Malleus d. Cochlea ANS: B TOP: Inner Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 538
8. The organ of Corti is located in the: a. vestibule. b. semicircular canal.
c. scala vestibuli. d. cochlear duct.
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct
REF: p. 539
9. Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve
impulse condition. a. tectorial b. basilar
c. vestibular d. cochlear
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct
REF: p. 539
10. Which of the following structures is not a component of the external ear? a. Auricle c. Eustachian tube b. Cerumen-secreting glands d. External auditory meatus ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: External Ear
REF: p. 537
11. The tympanic membrane: a. leads from the auricle into the temporal bone. b. surrounds the cochlea and the semicircular canals. c. is continuous with the external auditory meatus. d. is also known as the inner ear. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: External Ear
REF: p. 537
12. Impulses are transmitted from the inner ear to the brainstem by way of the _____ nerve. a. vestibular c. tectorial b. cochlear d. oculomotor ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct
REF: p. 539
13. The sense organs responsible for static equilibrium are located in the: a. utricle. c. semicircular canals. b. saccule. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Sense of Balance
REF: p. 540
14. The semicircular canals are in _____ planes of the body. a. two c. four b. three d. five ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Vestibule and Semicircular Canals
REF: p. 540
15. The major function of the utricle and saccule in the vestibule is:
a. b. c. d.
transmitting sound waves through bones. changing sound waves into nerve impulses. detecting the position of the head. conducting sound waves through endolymph.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Sense of Balance
REF: p. 540
16. Blood vessels are found in which of the following parts of the eye? a. Cornea c. Choroid b. Lens d. Aqueous humor ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
REF: p. 545
17. The white of the eye is referred to as the: a. sclera. b. choroid.
c. retina. d. cornea.
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
REF: p. 544
18. The part of the eye containing nervous tissue is the: a. sclera. c. iris. b. choroid. d. retina. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 546
TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
19. Which of the following is a true statement? a. Cones are more numerous than rods. b. Cones are most densely concentrated in the fovea centralis. c. Rods are most densely concentrated in the macula lutea. d. Cones increase in density toward the periphery of the retina. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
REF: p. 546
20. To produce a clear image, the aqueous humor is involved in the process of: a. refraction. c. accommodation. b. constriction. d. convergence. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Retinal Image
REF: p. 548
21. The function of the lacrimal apparatus is to: a. secrete aqueous humor. c. drain aqueous humor. b. secrete vitreous humor. d. secrete tears. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: External Structures 22. Presbyopia is a condition resulting from: a. excessive aqueous humor. b. opacity of the lens.
REF: p. 543
c. loss of lens elasticity. d. irregular curvature of the cornea.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Retinal Image
REF: p. 549
23. Which of the following must happen for near vision to occur? a. Increased tension of the suspensory ligament b. Relaxation of the ciliary muscle c. Increased curvature of the lens d. Contraction of the superior rectus muscle ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 24. Strabismus is a problem related to: a. convergence. b. accommodation.
REF: p. 549
c. refraction. d. constriction.
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Retinal Image
REF: p. 550
25. Which of the following is a primary photopigment? a. Green c. White b. Orange d. Purple ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Photopigments
REF: p. 550
26. There are how many types of cones in the retina? a. One c. Three b. Two d. Four ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Photopigments
REF: p. 550
27. The inability to focus the lens properly as we age is called: a. myopia. c. presbyopia. b. hyperopia. d. astigmatism. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 28. Which is not true of nearsightedness? a. Light rays converge in front of the
REF: p. 549
c. Convex glasses are used for correction.
retina. b. The eyeball may be too long. ANS: C
DIF: Application
d. If uncorrected, the image is blurred. REF: p. 554
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
29. Irregular curvature of the cornea can produce: a. myopia. c. hyperopia. b. glaucoma. d. astigmatism. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 554
30. Which of the following is not a structure of the middle ear? a. Incus c. Auditory tube b. Stapes d. Vestibule ANS: D TOP: Middle Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
31. Which of the following structures is concerned with hearing? a. Utricle c. Semicircular canals b. Saccule d. Cochlear duct ANS: D TOP: Inner Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 538
32. The passageway leading to the tympanic membrane is the: a. external auditory meatus. c. eustachian tube. b. auditory tube. d. oval window. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: External Ear
REF: p. 537
33. The eyelids and anterior surface of the eye are lined by the: a. cornea. c. lens. b. iris. d. conjunctiva. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: External Structures
REF: p. 543
34. Tongue papillae are classified by which of the following? a. scent c. location b. structure d. function ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Sense of Taste 35. The word cochlea means: a. shell b. snail ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Process of Hearing 36. Taste buds can be found: a. in the lining of the mouth. b. on the soft palate. ANS: D TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 534
c. crest d. ocean REF: p. 538
c. on the tongue. d. in all of the above locations. REF: p. 534
37. Which of the following tongue papillae do not have taste buds? a. Fungiform c. Foliate b. Filiform d. All of the above contain taste buds.
ANS: B TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 534
38. Which structure is not inside the vestibule of the inner ear? a. Cochlear duct c. Saccule b. Utricle d. All of the above are in the vestibule. ANS: A TOP: Inner Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 538
39. Which of the following is not an accessory structure of the eye? a. Eyebrows b. Eyelashes c. The palpebrae d. All of the above are accessory structures. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: External Structures
REF: p. 543
40. Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as: a. control c. visual acuity b. peripheral sense d. visual balance ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Visual Acuity
REF: p. 548
41. How many subdivisions does the anterior cavity of the eyeball have? a. one c. four b. two d. none ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Eye
REF: p. 547
42. The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and
ending at the oval window is: a. malleus, incus, and stapes. b. malleus, stapes, and incus. ANS: A TOP: Middle Ear
DIF: Memorization
c. stapes, malleus, and incus. d. stapes, incus, and malleus. REF: p. 537
43. Which tongue papillae are huge dome-shaped bumps that form a transverse row near the back
of the tongue? a. Fungiform papillae b. Circumvallate papillae ANS: B TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
c. Foliate papillae d. Filiform papillae REF: p. 534
44. Which tongue papillae do not contain taste buds but allow us to experience food texture and
“feel”? a. Fungiform papillae b. Circumvallate papillae
c. Foliate papillae d. Filiform papillae
ANS: D TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 534
45. Which tongue papillae are large, mushroom-shaped bumps found in the anterior two-thirds of
the tongue surface? a. Fungiform papillae b. Circumvallate papillae ANS: A TOP: Taste Buds
c. Foliate papillae d. Filiform papillae
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 534
46. Of all the papillae on the tongue, which one contains the most taste buds? a. Fungiform papillae b. Circumvallate papillae c. Foliate papillae d. All papillae contain about the same number of taste buds. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 534
TOP: Taste Buds
47. Cones that are sensitive to light in the blue wavelength wave are referred to as _____ cones. a. B c. S b. L d. M ANS: C TOP: Cones
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 550
48. When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green
wavelength to the brain? a. G b. L ANS: D
DIF: Application
c. S d. M REF: p. 550
TOP: Cones
49. The photopigment melanopsin is found in: a. rods only. c. ganglion cells. b. cones only. d. both rods and cones. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Ganglion Cells
REF: p. 552
50. Which of the following statements is not true of the olfactory receptors? a. They are chemoreceptors. b. They are located in an area that is easily stimulated. c. The sense of smell in humans is less keen than in many other animals. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Olfactory Receptors
REF: p. 533
51. Which of the following statements is not true about the sense of hearing? a. The amplitude of the sound wave determines the volume. b. The frequency of the sound wave determines pitch. c. High-frequency sound waves cause the basilar membrane near the oval window to
vibrate. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Sense of Hearing
REF: p. 539
52. Which of the following statements is not true of the eye? a. The anterior cavity is filled with vitreous fluid. b. The anterior cavity is divided into anterior and posterior chambers. c. The posterior cavity is larger than the anterior cavity. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cavities and Humors
REF: p. 547
TRUE/FALSE 1. Olfaction requires the chemical response of a dissolved substance for a stimulus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sense of Smell
REF: p. 533
2. The olfactory receptor cells lie in an excellent position functionally to smell delicate odors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Olfactory Receptors
REF: p. 533
3. The transmission pathway for olfactory sensations is olfactory cilia, olfactory bulb, olfactory
tract, and cerebral cortex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Olfactory Pathway
REF: p. 534
4. The tip of the tongue reacts best to bitter taste. ANS: F TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 534
5. The tip of the tongue reacts best to a salty taste and, to a lesser extent, to a sweet taste. ANS: F TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 534
6. The eustachian tube connects the inner ear with the trachea. ANS: F TOP: Middle Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 538
7. High-frequency sound waves cause the narrow portion of the basilar membrane near the oval
window to vibrate. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 539
TOP: Sense of Hearing 8. The auditory ossicles include the malleus, incus, and stapes. ANS: T TOP: Middle Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
9. Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the cochlear membrane can stimulate
nerve impulse conduction. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 540
TOP: Neural Pathway of Hearing
10. The sense organs associated with the semicircular canals function in static equilibrium. ANS: F TOP: Inner Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 538
11. Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the crista ampullaris. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sense of Balance
REF: p. 540
12. The retina is the incomplete innermost coat of the eyeball, in that it has no anterior portion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
REF: p. 546
13. The posterior cavity of the eye contains aqueous humor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cavities and Humors
REF: p. 547
14. The eye is the only organ in the body in which both voluntary and involuntary muscles are
found. ANS: T TOP: Muscles
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 544
15. Glaucoma is a disease in which the lens becomes opaque. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cavities and Humors
REF: p. 547
16. Movement of the eyeball in any desired direction is accomplished by several intrinsic
muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Eye
REF: p. 544
17. All muscles of the eye are involuntary. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 544
TOP: Muscles of the Eye 18. Three processes focus light rays so that they form a clear image on the retina: refraction of the
light rays, constriction of the pupil, and convergence of the eye. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Retinal Image
REF: p. 548
19. Visual acuity is the clearness or sharpness of visual perception. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Visual Acuity
REF: p. 548
20. Aqueous humor is a gelatinous substance that fills the posterior cavity of the eyeball. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cavities and Humors
REF: p. 547
21. Refraction means the deflection, or bending, of light rays. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Retinal Image
REF: p. 548
22. Rhodopsin, the photopigment in rods, is less sensitive to light than cone pigments are. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Photopigments
REF: p. 550
23. Color blindness is caused by mistakes in producing three photopigments in the cones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Color Blindness
REF: p. 550
24. The photo pupil reflex is an accommodation process normally used to see objects that are
close. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Retinal Image
REF: p. 549
25. Usually the closer an object is, the greater the degree of convergence that is necessary to
maintain single vision. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Retinal Image
REF: p. 549
26. Both rods and cones function to produce color vision. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Photopigments
REF: p. 550
27. Rhodopsin is a photopigment present in rods that is used for night vision.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Photopigments
REF: p. 550
28. Strabismus is more of a problem with the internal ciliary muscle than with the external
muscles. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 550
TOP: Formation of Retinal Image
29. Because rhodopsin is less sensitive to light than the cone photopigments, brighter light is
necessary for its breakdown. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Photopigments
REF: p. 550
30. Convergence of impulses from cones is common. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Photopigments
REF: p. 550
31. Each optic nerve contains fibers from both retinas. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Neuronal Pathway of Vision
REF: p. 552
32. The number of pure, or “primary,” olfactory scents is about 15. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Olfactory Receptors
REF: p. 533
33. Spicy is one of the “primary” taste sensations. ANS: F TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 535
34. The tip of the tongue reacts best to sweet taste. ANS: F TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 534
35. The sense organs responsible for the sense of balance are located in the vestibule and cochlea. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vestibule and Semicircular Canals
REF: p. 540
36. The membranous labyrinth is filled with perilymph. ANS: F TOP: Inner Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 538
37. The correct order of the auditory ossicles deep to the tympanic membrane is malleus, incus,
and stapes.
ANS: T TOP: Middle Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
38. There are three semicircular canals. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vestibule and Semicircular Canals
REF: p. 540
39. From superficial to deep, the three layers of tissue that compose the eyeball are sclera,
choroid, and retina. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
REF: p. 544
40. The white of the eye is called the choroid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
REF: p. 544
41. The function of the lacrimal gland is to secrete tears. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: External Structures
REF: p. 544
42. Light from red colors causes the breakdown of rhodopsin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Photopigments
REF: p. 550
43. Farsightedness, which is often the inability to focus the lens properly as we age, is also called
presbyopia. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Retinal Image
REF: p. 549
44. The canal of Schlemm drains the aqueous humor from the anterior chamber. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cavities and Humors
REF: p. 547
45. Aqueous humor is formed by secretion of the ciliary body into the posterior chamber. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cavities and Humors
REF: p. 547
46. The correct order of the flow of tears is lacrimal gland, lacrimal duct, punctum, lacrimal sac,
lacrimal canal, and nasolacrimal duct. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: External Structures
REF: p. 544
47. The opening and separation of opsin and rhodopsin in the presence of light is called
bleaching. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Photopigments
REF: p. 550
48. The retina is the complete outermost coat of the eyeball. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
REF: p. 546
49. A person with 20/100 vision can see objects at 20 feet that a person with normal vision can
see at 100 feet. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Visual Acuity
REF: p. 548
50. The two-point discrimination test measures the visual acuity of the eye. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Receptors
REF: p. 521
51. Unlike other neurons, olfactory receptors are replaced on a regular basis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Olfactory Receptors
REF: p. 533
52. Germinative epithelial basal cells constantly replace olfactory receptor neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Olfactory Receptors
REF: p. 533
53. Taste buds are stimulated by chemicals called tastants. ANS: T TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 535
54. A new primary taste, called umami, found in protein foods has been proposed by researchers. ANS: T TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 535
55. Chemical structure of a food is the sole determinant of its flavor or taste. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Neural Pathway of Taste
REF: p. 536
56. The terms auricle and pinna refer to the same anatomical structure of the ear. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: External Ear
REF: p. 537
57. The stapes rests on the inner surface of the tympanic membrane, or eardrum. ANS: F TOP: Middle Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
58. The function of the eustachian tube is to equalize all pressure on either side of the oval
window. ANS: F TOP: Middle Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 538
59. The tectorial membrane is responsible for generating impulses to maintain static equilibrium. ANS: F TOP: Inner Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 538
60. As the frequency of a sound wave increases, it causes the basilar membrane to vibrate nearer
the oval window. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sense of Hearing
REF: p. 539
61. Otoliths are “ear stones” that are found in the matrix of the macula of the ear. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Static Equilibrium
REF: p. 540
62. The cell most likely to be found in the fovea centralis of the eye would be a rod cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
REF: p. 546
63. Both the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye are found in the anterior cavity of the eye. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cavities and Humors
REF: p. 547
64. Chemically, all photopigments in rods can be broken down into opsin and retinal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Photopigments
REF: p. 550
65. The vitamin A derivative opsin is an important component of photopigments in rods. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Role of Photopigments
REF: p. 550
66. The stapes fits into the round window in the middle ear. ANS: F TOP: Middle Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
67. The number of sound waves that occur during a specific timeframe is called its frequency. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sense of Hearing
REF: p. 539
68. The frequency of a sound determines its pitch. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sense of Hearing
REF: p. 539
69. Because rods only see in “black and white,” they are equally responsive to the entire range of
visible wavelengths. ANS: F TOP: Rods
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 550
70. Palpebrae is the scientific name for the eyelashes. ANS: F TOP: Eyelids
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 543
71. Recovering from the effects of rapidly traveling through many time zones (jet lag) requires
the functioning of the ganglion cells of the eye. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 552
TOP: Ganglion Cells
72. There are three structurally different taste buds: fungiform, circumvallate, and filiform. ANS: F TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 534
73. All taste buds are located on the tongue. ANS: F TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 534
74. Some ions are linked with a specific taste, such as H+ ions being sour and Na+ ions being
salty. ANS: T TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 535
75. The pinna and external acoustic meatus refer to the same structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: External Ear
REF: p. 537
76. The external ear ends at the eardrum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: External Ear
REF: p. 537
77. The two fluids of the middle ear are perilymph and endolymph. ANS: F TOP: Inner Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 538
78. Perilymph is similar to cerebrospinal fluid and surrounds the membranous labyrinth. ANS: T TOP: Inner Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 538
79. The section above the cochlear duct is called the scala vestibuli. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct
REF: p. 538
80. The section below the cochlear duct is called the scala vestibuli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct
REF: p. 538
81. The hearing sense organ is the organ of Corti. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct
REF: p. 539
82. The macula is involved in static equilibrium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sense of Balance
REF: p. 540
83. The iris is the colored part of the eye. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
REF: p. 544
84. The pupil is an opening in the middle of the iris. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
REF: p. 545
85. In order to produce the sharpest image, light is focused on the optic disk of the eye. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
REF: p. 546
86. The slow adaptation of the sense of smell is due to the adaptation inhibition of the granule
cells in the olfactory bulb. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Olfactory Receptors 87. Gustatory cells are responsible for the sense of taste.
REF: p. 533
ANS: T TOP: Taste Buds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 534
MATCHING
Place in proper sequence the structures through which sound waves are conducted, starting with the number 1 and ending with 9. a. 1 f. 6 b. 2 g. 7 c. 3 h. 8 d. 4 i. 9 e. 5 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
Perilymph Stapes Tympanic membrane Malleus External auditory canal Oval window Round window Incus Organ of Corti
1. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves 2. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves 4. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves 5. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves 6. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves 7. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves 8. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves 9. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves
REF: p. 540 REF: p. 540 REF: p. 540 REF: p. 540 REF: p. 540 REF: p. 540 REF: p. 540 REF: p. 540 REF: p. 540
Match each outer ear term with its corresponding description. a. Auricle c. External auditory meatus b. Cerumen d. Tympanic membrane 10. Fleshy part of external ear on the outside of head 11. Earwax 12. Passageway that leads to the tympanic membrane
13. Thin membrane that separates the inner ear and middle ear; vibrates in response to sound
waves 10. ANS: A TOP: External Ear 11. ANS: B TOP: External Ear 12. ANS: C TOP: External Ear 13. ANS: D TOP: External Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
Match each middle ear term with its corresponding description. a. Auditory ossicles d. Oval window b. Auditory tube e. Round window c. Mastoid air spaces 14. Membrane-covered opening between the middle ear and inner ear; the stapes attaches to the 15. 16. 17. 18.
membrane Membrane-covered opening between the middle ear and inner ear; nothing attaches to the membrane Spaces in the temporal bone that are connected to the middle ear Structure that enables air pressure to be equalized between the outside air and the middle ear; also known as the eustachian tube Ear bones that transmit and amplify vibrations of the tympanic membrane to the oval window; the malleus, incus, and stapes
14. ANS: D TOP: Middle Ear 15. ANS: E TOP: Middle Ear 16. ANS: C TOP: Middle Ear 17. ANS: B TOP: Middle Ear 18. ANS: A TOP: Middle Ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 538
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 537
Match each inner ear term with its corresponding description. a. Basilar membrane h. Perilymph b. Bony labyrinth i. Scala tympani c. Cochlea j. Scala vestibule d. Cochlear duct k. Semicircular canals e. Endolymph l. Tectorial membrane f. Membranous labyrinth m. Vestibular membrane g. Organ of Corti n. Vestibule 19. 20. 21. 22.
The organ of hearing; located in the cochlea and filled with endolymph Consists of vestibule, cochlea, and semicircular canals Membranes that are found within the bony labyrinth Fluid between the bony and membranous labyrinths
23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.
Fluid within the membranous labyrinth Part of the inner ear involved with hearing A part of the inner ear involved with equilibrium Cavity at the entrance of the semicircular canal Membrane that separates the scala vestibuli and the cochlear duct Membrane that separates the scala tympani and the cochlear duct Upper section of the cochlea Lower section of the cochlea Space that contains the organ of Corti Membrane to which hair cells of the organ of Corti extend
19. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct 20. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Inner Ear 21. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Inner Ear 22. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Inner Ear 23. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Inner Ear 24. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Inner Ear 25. ANS: K DIF: Memorization TOP: Inner Ear 26. ANS: N DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct 27. ANS: M DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct 28. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct 29. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct 30. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct 31. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct 32. ANS: L DIF: Memorization TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct
REF: p. 539 REF: p. 538 REF: p. 538 REF: p. 538 REF: p. 538 REF: p. 538 REF: p. 538 REF: p. 539 REF: p. 539 REF: p. 539 REF: p. 539 REF: p. 538 REF: p. 538 REF: p. 539
Match each structure of the eye with its corresponding description. a. Aqueous humor f. Iris b. Choroid g. Optic disk c. Cones h. Retina d. Cornea i. Rods e. Fovea centralis j. Vitreous humor 33. Humor found in the posterior chamber 34. Humor found in the anterior chamber 35. Layer that includes the iris
36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.
Transparent portion of the anterior of the eye Innermost layer of the eyeball Receptors for day vision Area of dense concentration of cones Receptor that is more concentrated in the peripheral area of the retina Referred to as the blind spot in the eye Changes in size or shape determine the size of the pupil
33. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Cavities and Humors 34. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cavities and Humors 35. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 36. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 37. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 38. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 550 39. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 40. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 41. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 42. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Eye
REF: p. 547 REF: p. 547 REF: p. 545 REF: p. 544 REF: p. 545 TOP: The Role of Photopigments REF: p. 546 REF: p. 546 REF: p. 546 REF: p. 544
OTHER 1. Describe the neuronal pathway for taste. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 536
TOP: Neuronal Pathway of Taste
2. What is the function of the eustachian tube? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 538
TOP: Middle Ear
3. Sound waves are transmitted through solids, liquids, and gases. Give a specific example of
each of these states as related to hearing and the ear. Solid: Liquid: Gas:
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 540
TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves
4. How does the ear differentiate between high- and low-frequency sound waves? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 539
TOP: Sense of Hearing
5. What is the difference between static and dynamic equilibrium? Where are the sense organs
for each located? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 540-541
TOP: Sense of Balance
6. Where is the blind spot located? Why can’t light rays striking this area be seen? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 546
TOP: Layers of the Eyeball
7. Explain the processes that allow for the focusing of light rays so that they form a clear image
on the retina. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 548
TOP: Formation of Retinal Image
8. Explain why watery eyes occur when a person gets a common cold. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 544
TOP: Lacrimal Apparatus
9. Describe how light is converted into action potentials that are transmitted to the brain and
interpreted as vision. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 548
TOP: The Process of Seeing
10. In a generalized manner, describe the dual sensory functions of the ear.
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 536-541
TOP: Sense of Hearing | Sense of Balance
11. Explain the olfactory pathway. Why is it possible to link odors so powerfully to memory? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 534
TOP: Olfactory Pathway
ESSAY 1. Although Donald’s vision was normal, he had begun experiencing headaches and pain in his
eyes. The ophthalmologist suggested a test to determine the pressure in the anterior cavity of Donald’s eyes. Why did the doctor recommend this test, and what disease state was he anticipating? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 554-555
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
2. Grandpa Joe notices that his vision is becoming cloudy. What is the likely cause of his
problem? Provide a brief description of the cause and how it may be remedied. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 554-555
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
3. Amanda repeatedly became ill with throat infections during her first few years of school.
Lately she has noticed that whenever she has a throat infection, her ears become very sore also. What might be the cause of this additional problem? Explain the connection between the two problems. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 537-538
TOP: Middle Ear
4. Explain why the smell of a newly painted room becomes less noticeable the longer you are in
it but seems very strong again if you leave for a while and then return to the room. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 533
TOP: Olfactory Receptors
5. Explain why the smell of a hospital or dentist’s office can bring about negative emotions and
why the smell of baking cookies or a baking turkey around Thanksgiving time can bring about positive emotions. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 534
TOP: Olfactory Pathway
Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Endocrine glands can be made up of: a. glandular epithelium. b. neurosecretory tissue. c. ducts leading to major arteries d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System
REF: p. 563
2. In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are: a. rapid to appear but short-lived. b. slow to appear but long-lasting. c. rapid to appear and long-lasting. d. slow to appear and short-lived. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System
REF: p. 563
3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? a. Chemical messenger travels a short distance. b. Effector tissues include virtually all tissues. c. Receptors are located on the plasma membrane or within the target cell. d. All of the above are characteristics of the endocrine system. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System
REF: p. 563
4. Which of the following endocrine glands is located in the neck? a. Pineal b. Pituitary c. Thymus d. Thyroid ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine System Introduction
REF: p. 563
5. Tropic hormones: a. target other endocrine glands and stimulate their growth and secretion. b. target reproductive tissues. c. stimulate anabolism in their target cells. d. do all of the above. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones 6. All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except:
REF: p. 564
a. b. c. d.
oxytocin. calcitonin. cortisol. glucagon.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Steroid Hormones
REF: p. 564
7. The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: a. joining with the G protein on the cell membrane. b. protein kinases activate other enzymes. c. adenyl cyclase is activated. d. cAMP is formed. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 568
8. Hormones can be: a. steroids. b. peptides. c. glycoproteins. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones
REF: p. 564
9. Steroids are able to pass easily through a target cell’s plasma membrane because they are: a. synthesized from amino acids. b. synthesized from carbohydrates. c. lipid-soluble. d. synthesized from nucleic acids. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Steroid Hormones
REF: p. 564
10. When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the
phenomenon is called: a. synergism. b. permissiveness. c. antagonism. d. augmentation. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
11. Which of the following nonsteroid hormones bind to receptors associated with a DNA
molecule within the nucleus of the target cell? a. Thyroxine b. Triiodothyronine c. Prolactin d. Both A and B ANS: D
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 569
TOP: The Nuclear Receptor Mechanism 12. The compound that is referred to as a tissue hormone is: a. growth hormone. b. prostaglandin. c. adrenocorticotropic hormone. d. thyroxine. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 574
13. All of the following are true statements except: a. there are at least 16 different prostaglandins. b. the first prostaglandin was identified in semen. c. aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis. d. PGFs have been used to induce labor and accelerate the delivery of a baby. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 573
14. The type(s) of prostaglandin that play(s) a role in the development of a fever is(are): a. PGA. b. PGE. c. PGF. d. PGA and PGE. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 573
15. Which of the following statements is false? a. Both the nervous system and endocrine system use chemicals to send messages. b. For the nervous and endocrine systems to function, the receiving cells must have
the correct type of receptors. c. Cells can have receptors for hormones or for neurotransmitters but not for both. d. The nervous and endocrine systems can be seen as one system—the
neuroendocrine system. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System
REF: p. 563
16. The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: a. anterior pituitary. b. posterior pituitary. c. thyroid gland. d. parathyroid gland. ANS: A DIF: Synthesis TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion
REF: p. 571
17. The many hormones secreted by endocrine tissues can be classified simply as _____
hormones. a. steroid or nonsteroid b. anabolic or catabolic
c. sex or nonsex d. tropic or hypotropic ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones
REF: p. 564
18. Which of the following is not true of steroid hormones? a. They are lipid-soluble. b. They are derived from a fatty acid molecule. c. They can pass through the cell membrane. d. All of the above are true about steroid hormones. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Steroid Hormones
REF: p. 564
19. Which of the following is not a description of hormone interaction explained in the text? a. Suppression b. Antagonism c. Synergism d. Permissiveness ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
20. The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the: a. formation of cAMP. b. increase of enzyme-controlled intracellular reactions. c. transcription of RNA. d. activation of adenyl cyclase. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
21. One of the later effects of steroid hormones on the cell could be the: a. transcription of RNA. b. making of enzymes. c. formation of cAMP. d. activation of kinases. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
22. Which of the following does not act as a second messenger for nonsteroid hormones? a. Inositol triphosphate b. Guanosine monophosphate c. Calcium-calmodulin complex d. All of the above act as second messengers. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 568
23. Which of the following is not a functional classification of hormones? a. Steroid
b. Tropic c. Anabolic d. Neither A nor B is a functional classification of hormones. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones
REF: p. 564
24. Which of the following is not a chemical classification of hormones? a. Steroid b. Anabolic c. Tropic d. Neither B nor C is a chemical classification of hormones. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones
REF: p. 564
25. The common molecule from which all steroid hormones are derived is: a. phospholipids. b. cholesterol. c. lecithin. d. triglycerols. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones
REF: p. 564
26. Which of the following is not a source of nonsteroid hormones? a. Cholesterol b. Protein c. Protein joined with a carbohydrate d. Individual amino acids ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones
REF: p. 564
27. When a hormone attaches to a target cell, which of the following can occur? a. It can initiate protein synthesis. b. It can open or close ion channels. c. It can activate certain enzymes in the cell. d. All of the above can occur. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
28. The term downregulation refers to the: a. decrease in hormone production as we age. b. negative-feedback system of hormone regulation. c. reduction of the number of hormone receptors in a cell. d. movement of regulating hormones from the hypothalamus down to the pituitary
gland. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Target Cell Sensitivity
REF: p. 571
29. Synergism in hormone activity can be defined as: a. one hormone causing the opposite effect of another hormone. b. two hormones working together to enhance each other’s impact on a target cell. c. a small amount of one hormone allowing another hormone to have its full effect. d. none of the above; hormones do not work synergistically. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
30. Hormones that regulate activity in the secreting cell itself are called: a. prostaglandins. b. paracrine hormones. c. autocrine hormones. d. leukotriene hormones. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Local Hormones
REF: p. 573
31. Which of the following is not a protein hormone? a. Oxytocin b. Insulin c. Parathyroid hormone d. All of the above are protein hormones. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones
REF: p. 564
32. Which of the following is not a peptide hormone? a. Oxytocin b. Insulin c. Antidiuretic hormone d. All of the above are peptide hormones. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones
REF: p. 564
33. Which of the following is not an amino acid derivative hormone? a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Thyroid hormones d. All of the above are amino acid derivative hormones. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones
REF: p. 564
34. Which of the following is not true of prostaglandins? a. Contain a 20-carbon unsaturated fatty acid chain b. Contain a 5-carbon ring c. Made from membrane phospholipid molecules d. All of the above are true of prostaglandins. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: pp. 573-574
TRUE/FALSE 1. Most hormones are highly specific in their action. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 567 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 2. Endocrine glands release their hormones into ducts that eventually empty into the circulatory
system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine System Introduction
REF: p. 563
3. The endocrine system can regulate most cells in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine System Introduction
REF: p. 563
4. Both the endocrine and nervous systems exhibit control via regulatory feedback loops. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine System Introduction
REF: p. 563
5. The general effect of hormones is to produce regulatory changes within the target cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
6. All nonsteroid hormones operate according to the second-messenger model. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 568
7. The “lock-and-key” mechanism allows hormones to bind only with target cells that have
receptors that “fit” them exactly. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
8. Input from the nervous system influences secretion of some hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion
REF: p. 571
9. Short feedback loops tend to minimize wide fluctuations in hormone secretion rates. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion
REF: p. 571
10. The chemical messengers of the endocrine system are neurotransmitters.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine System Introduction
REF: p. 563
11. In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are
rapidly apparent, but short-lived. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine System Introduction
REF: p. 563
12. The control of hormone secretion is usually a positive-feedback loop. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion
REF: p. 569
13. The endocrine system functions at a much greater speed than the nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine System Introduction
REF: p. 563
14. The most widely used method of hormone classification is by location in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones
REF: p. 564
15. The anterior pituitary gland can be either stimulated to release hormones or inhibited from
releasing hormones by secretions from the hypothalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion
REF: p. 571
16. Norepinephrine can be considered a neurotransmitter or a hormone, depending on what
releases it and how far it must travel to reach a receptor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System
REF: p. 563
17. Hormones can be classified based on their chemical structure or their function. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones
REF: p. 564
18. Chemically, steroid hormones are derived from the cholesterol molecule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Steroid Hormones
REF: p. 564
19. Protein hormones, glycoprotein hormones, and peptide hormones all contain amino acids. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 564
TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones
20. The amino acid tyrosine is used to produce epinephrine and the hormones made in the thymus
gland.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones
REF: p. 564
21. Hormones are synergistic if they have opposite effects on the target cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
22. Hormones that are antagonistic to each other are able to “fine-tune” the activity of the target
cell with great accuracy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
23. The endocrine system is considered a very efficient system, because virtually every hormone
molecule produced finds its target cell receptor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
24. Steroid hormones frequently travel in the bloodstream attached to soluble plasma proteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
25. The specific role of cAMP is to activate kinases. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 568
26. Both steroid and nonsteroid hormones produce their effects by increasing the number of
enzymes that catalyze cellular reactions. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 567, 568 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action, Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 27. Prostaglandins are lipid substances derived from cholesterol. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 573
28. Thromboxanes and leukotrienes can be called tissue hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 574
29. Upregulating and downregulating hormone receptor proteins on the membrane of a target cell
will change its sensitivity to a hormone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Target Cell Sensitivity
REF: p. 571
30. The target organs for tropic hormones are usually other endocrine glands. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 564
TOP: Classification of Hormones
31. In terms of affecting hormone action, synergism and permissiveness mean the same thing. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
32. Both synergism and permissiveness can increase the effect of a hormone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
33. The cAMP system, the inositol triphosphate (IP3) system, and the mobile-receptor system are
second-messenger systems used by nonsteroid hormones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 568
34. Cells make prostaglandins by breaking apart triglyceride molecules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 573
35. The name prostaglandin comes from the prostate gland. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 573
36. Aspirin and ibuprofen produce some of their effects by inhibiting PGA synthesis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 573
37. Two specific prostaglandins are thromboxanes and leukotrienes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 574
38. Protein hormones that contain lipid molecules can be classified as glycoprotein hormones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones
REF: p. 564
39. Most cells in the body can respond to many different types of hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
40. In areas of the body where circulation is poor, hormones are carried by small ducts called
hormone channels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
41. The nuclear-receptor model is used in describing the action of steroid hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
42. If the cellular response to a hormone caused an increase in RNA synthesis, the hormone most
likely was a steroid hormone. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 567 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 43. The fixed-membrane-receptor model is used in describing the action of nonsteroid hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 568
44. If a small amount of hormone produced a disproportionately great response in a cell, the
hormone was most likely a nonsteroid hormone. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 569 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 45. Autocrine hormones have to travel farther to reach their target cell than do paracrine
hormones. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 573
TOP: Local Hormones
46. Both the endocrine system and nervous system are important in regulation of body function. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 562
47. The target cell in the endocrine system is similar to the postganglionic neuron in the nervous
system, because they both have receptors that respond to the presence of a chemical. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System
REF: p. 563
48. The release of a hormone by a gland is called signal transduction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System
REF: p. 563
49. Cells either have receptors for neurotransmitters and respond to the nervous system or have
hormone receptors and respond to the endocrine system, but not both.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System
REF: p. 563
50. A hormone is able to stimulate more cells than a neurotransmitter. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System
REF: p. 563
51. Some cases of hormone deficiency can be traced to an obstruction in the duct through which
the hormone must pass. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 563 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 52. Some endocrine glands are actually made of nervous tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System
REF: p. 563
53. Many endocrine glands are made of epithelial tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System
REF: p. 563
54. Endocrine glands are located either in the head or the neck. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System
REF: p. 563
55. A hormone that stimulates the salivary glands (exocrine glands) would be a tropic hormone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones
REF: p. 564
56. Examples of steroid hormones are cortisol, aldosterone, and testosterone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Steroid Hormones
REF: p. 564
57. Examples of nonsteroid hormones are insulin, oxytocin, and epinephrine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones
REF: p. 564
58. A list of the nonsteroid hormones from largest to smallest would read protein hormones,
amino acid derivative hormones, and peptide hormones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones
REF: p. 564
59. One outcome of a nonsteroid hormone would be the synthesis of a specific enzyme.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
60. With a steroid hormone, the amount of hormone is directly related to the magnitude of the
response in the target cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 568
61. Steroid hormones tend to generate a rapid response in their target cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 567
62. Thyroid hormones are nonsteroid hormones but act more like steroid hormones when they
reach their target cells. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 568 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 63. In nonsteroid hormones, the hormone itself is the first messenger. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 568
64. Some nonsteroid hormones attach to cell membrane sodium channels, causing them to open
and allowing an influx of sodium into the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 568
65. Some nonsteroid hormones do not use a second messenger but are taken into the cell by
endocytosis and act directly on their target cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action
REF: p. 568
66. Responses that result from endocrine feedback loops are called endocrine reflexes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion
REF: p. 570
67. Parathyroid hormone reflexively increases secretion of parathyroid hormone in response to an
increase in blood calcium levels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion
REF: p. 570
68. The number of hormone receptors a cell has remains constant throughout the life of the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Hormone Sensitivity
REF: p. 571
69. Because most cells secrete prostaglandins, there is usually a fairly high concentration of
prostaglandins in the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 573
70. There are 16 structural classes of prostaglandins, classes A though P. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 573
MATCHING
Match each chemical classification with a corresponding hormone. a. Steroid b. Protein c. Glycoprotein d. Peptide e. Amine 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Cortisol Melatonin Insulin Somatostatin Luteinizing hormone
1. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones 2. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones 4. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones 5. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones
Match each term with its explanation or definition. a. Synergism b. Steroid hormone c. Second messenger d. Target cell e. Upregulation f. Antagonism g. Prostaglandin h. Tropic hormone i. Nonsteroid hormone j. Permissiveness 6. A cell with receptors for a specific hormone
REF: p. 564 REF: p. 564 REF: p. 564 REF: p. 564 REF: p. 564
7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
A small amount of hormone allows another hormone to have its full effect Usually requires a second messenger to function Uses the mobile-receptor model to function Sometimes called a tissue hormone One hormone has the opposite effect of another hormone cAMP is an example of this Increasing the number of receptors on a target cell Hormone that targets another endocrine gland The combination of hormones have a greater effect than the sum of the effects of the two hormones separately
6. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 7. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 8. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 9. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 10. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins 11. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 12. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 13. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Target Cell Sensitivity 14. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of Hormones 15. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
REF: p. 563 REF: p. 567 REF: p. 568 REF: p. 567 REF: p. 573 REF: p. 567 REF: p. 568 REF: p. 571 REF: p. 564 REF: p. 567
OTHER 1. Explain how a hormone can act specifically on one type of cell and not on others. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 567
TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action
2. Explain how cAMP acts as a second messenger for certain nonsteroid hormones. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 568
TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action
3. How do the actions of prostaglandins differ from the actions of hormones?
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 573
TOP: Prostaglandins
4. Compare and contrast how the endocrine and nervous systems function to maintain
homeostasis of the internal environment. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 563
TOP: Endocrine System Introduction
5. What are prostaglandins? From what substance are they made? Name two effects
prostaglandins have on the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 573
TOP: Prostaglandins
6. Explain the mechanism of steroid hormone action. What is the end product of a steroid
hormone? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 567 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 7. Explain how a cell can upregulate or downregulate its response to the presence of a hormone. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 571
TOP: Regulation of Target Cell Sensitivity
ESSAY 1. Compare and contrast steroid and nonsteroid hormones, and give an example of each. ANS:
Answers may vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 564
TOP: Hormones
Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The structure referred to historically as the master gland is the: a. pituitary. b. adrenals. c. hypothalamus. d. thyroid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland
REF: p. 580
2. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the basophils? a. Prolactin b. Luteinizing hormone (LH) c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) ANS: A TOP: Prolactin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 582
3. The hormone most likely to cause a shift from glucose catabolism to fat catabolism is: a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH). b. TSH. c. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). d. somatotropin. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Growth Hormones
REF: pp. 581-582
4. Gonadotrophs secrete: a. GH. b. LH and FSH. c. TSH. d. prolactin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Adenohypophysis (Anterior Lobe of Pituitary)
REF: p. 580
5. Growth of the ovarian follicle occurs because of: a. LH. b. estrogen. c. progesterone. d. FSH. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Tropic Hormones 6. Prolactin affects:
REF: p. 583
a. b. c. d.
the adrenal cortex. body growth. skin color. milk secretion.
ANS: D TOP: Prolactin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 582
7. The principal action of thyrotropin-releasing hormone is stimulating the: a. release of ACTH. b. secretion of growth hormone. c. release of TSH. d. release of FSH and LH. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis
REF: p. 584
8. The vascular link between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis is called the: a. circulatory system. b. hypophyseal portal system. c. vascular system. d. releasing-inhibiting connection. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis
REF: p. 583
9. Which hormones are produced by the hypothalamus to control the adenohypophysis? a. Tropic hormones b. Releasing hormones c. Melanocyte-stimulating hormones d. Basophils ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis
REF: p. 583
10. The hypothalamus produces: a. somatotropin. b. oxytocin. c. lactogenic hormone. d. melanocyte-stimulating hormone. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary)
REF: p. 585
11. The neurohypophysis serves as a storage and release site for: a. ADH. b. oxytocin. c. prolactin. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary)
REF: p. 585
12. The principal thyroid hormone is: a. tetraiodothyronine (T4 or thyroxine). b. triiodothyronine (T3). c. calcitonin. d. PTH. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Thyroid Hormones
REF: p. 588
13. Calcitonin: a. decreases calcium storage in bones. b. raises blood calcium levels. c. has the opposite effect of parathyroid hormone. d. reveals thyroid functioning in the protein-bound iodine (PBI) test. ANS: C TOP: Calcitonin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 589
14. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases calcium absorption in the intestines by activating: a. vitamin A. b. vitamin C. c. vitamin D. d. iron. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
REF: p. 590
15. Which of the following depends on maintaining normal levels of calcium in the blood? a. Blood clotting b. Cell membrane c. Neuromuscular excitability d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
REF: p. 590
16. The hormone that causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts is: a. prolactin. b. estrogen. c. oxytocin. d. progesterone. ANS: C TOP: Oxytocin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 586
17. An abnormally high metabolic rate could be associated with the functioning of the: a. thyroid gland. b. parathyroid gland. c. posterior pituitary. d. thymus. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 589
TOP: Thyroid Hormones
18. The first step in the renin-angiotensin mechanism is: a. angiotensin II circulates to the adrenal cortex, stimulating the secretion of
aldosterone. b. renin causes angiotensinogen to be converted to angiotensin I. c. the juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes renin into the blood in response to a fall in
the blood pressure within the kidney. d. aldosterone causes increased reabsorption of sodium, which causes increased water
retention. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mineralocorticoids
REF: p. 593
19. Which of the following is not true of glucocorticoids? a. Stress causes their release. b. They cause an increase in the body’s defense mechanisms. c. They stimulate gluconeogenesis. d. They are hyperglycemic. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucocorticoids
REF: p. 594
20. The mineralocorticoids of the adrenal cortex regulate or influence _____ balance. a. calcium and sodium b. sodium and chloride c. sodium, potassium, and hydrogen d. hydrogen and oxygen ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mineralocorticoids
REF: p. 593
21. Secretion of _____ is controlled mainly by the renin-angiotensin mechanism and blood
potassium concentration. a. aldosterone b. cortisol c. adrenal estrogens d. norepinephrine ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mineralocorticoids
REF: p. 593
22. The adrenal medulla secretes: a. ACTH. b. cortisol. c. epinephrine. d. glucagon. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal Medulla
REF: p. 595
23. The gland that serves in both an exocrine and an endocrine capacity is the: a. pituitary. b. pancreas.
c. adrenal. d. ovary. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pancreatic Islets
REF: p. 595
24. Which of the following is a function of glucagon? a. Promotes the entry of glucose into tissue cells b. Tends to decrease blood glucose concentrations c. Tends to increase blood glucose concentrations d. Converts glucose into glycogen ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Hormones
REF: p. 596
25. Insulin: a. tends to lower blood concentrations of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids. b. promotes metabolism of glucose by tissue cells. c. is produced by beta cells. d. All of the above are true of insulin. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Hormones
REF: p. 596
26. Insulin and glucagon affect the body’s use of: a. sodium. b. potassium. c. glucose. d. calcium. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Hormones
REF: p. 596
27. The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: a. progesterone. b. estrogen. c. LTH. d. chorionic gonadotropin. ANS: A TOP: Ovaries
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 598
28. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the: a. testes. b. ovaries. c. heart. d. placenta. ANS: D TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
29. Thymosin is a hormone that plays a role in: a. the rate of metabolism.
REF: p. 598
b. body growth. c. immunity. d. maintaining early pregnancy. ANS: C TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 598
30. Which of the following is true of T4? a. It contains three atoms of iodine. b. It binds more efficiently to target cell receptors than does T3. c. It is a prohormone for T3. d. All of the above are true of T4. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 588-589
TOP: Thyroid Hormones
31. Which is not part of the pituitary gland? a. Sella turcica b. Infundibulum c. Adenohypophysis d. Neurohypophysis ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland
REF: p. 580
32. The type of cells that secrete ACTH are: a. somatotrophs. b. lactotrophs. c. thyrotrophs. d. corticotrophs. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Adenohypophysis (Anterior Lobe of Pituitary)
REF: p. 580
33. High blood levels of ADH would be found in someone who has: a. just eaten a meal high in sugar or other carbohydrates. b. been working in high temperatures and is dehydrated. c. a high level of calcium in the blood. d. a low level of calcium in the blood. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 585-586
TOP: Antidiuretic Hormones
34. One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: a. ADH. b. calcitonin. c. oxytocin. d. insulin. ANS: C TOP: Oxytocin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 586
35. The structure in the body that provides the “mind-body” link is the: a. anterior pituitary gland. b. hypothalamus.
c. posterior pituitary gland. d. pineal gland. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 585 TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis 36. Release of PTH in the body would cause a(n): a. increase in blood calcium. b. decrease in blood phosphate. c. decrease in vitamin D production. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 589
TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
37. Mineralocorticoids are released from which part of the adrenal gland? a. Zona fasciculata b. Zona reticularis c. Zona glomerulosa d. Adrenal medulla ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal Cortex
REF: p. 592
38. High levels of hCG in the body would indicate: a. the production of thyroid hormone needs to be increased. b. there was too much calcium in the blood. c. a pregnancy. d. the glucose concentration of the blood was too low. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 598
TOP: Placenta
39. The target cells for ADH are found in the: a. kidney. b. muscles in the walls of arteries. c. osteoblasts in the bone. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Antidiuretic Hormones
REF: pp. 585-586
40. Which hormone stimulates uterine contractions? a. Oxytocin b. FSH c. LH d. Both B and C ANS: A TOP: Oxytocin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 586
41. Which of the following statements is not true of the pineal gland? a. It is located on the dorsal aspect of the diencephalon. b. Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight. c. It produces melatonin.
d. All of the above are true of the pineal gland. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Pineal Gland
REF: p. 587
42. Which of the following statements is not true of the thyroid gland? a. It usually consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. b. It is located in the mediastinum in the chest. c. It contains a protein-iodine complex called thyroglobulin. d. All of the above are true of the thyroid gland. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Thyroid Gland
REF: p. 587
43. Glucocorticoids are released by which part of the adrenal glands? a. Zona glomerulosa b. Zona fasciculata c. Zona reticularis d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal Glands
REF: pp. 592-593
44. Gonadocorticoids are released by which part of the adrenal gland? a. Zona glomerulosa b. Zona fasciculata c. Zona reticularis d. Adrenal medulla ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal Glands
REF: p. 592
45. Which is not true of the hormone somatostatin? a. It is produced by the delta cells of the pancreas. b. It inhibits the secretion of glucagon. c. It stimulates the secretion of insulin. d. Both B and C are not true of the hormone somatostatin. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Hormones
REF: pp. 596-597
46. Which is not true about the testes? a. They are composed mainly of sperm-producing seminiferous tubules. b. Interstitial cells produce testosterone. c. Testosterone is regulated mostly by LH. d. All of the above are true of the testes. ANS: D TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
TRUE/FALSE 1. Growth hormone indirectly increases glucose metabolism.
REF: p. 598
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Growth Hormones
REF: p. 581
2. Tropic hormones tend to have a generalized effect on the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Tropic Hormones
REF: pp. 582-583
3. Most hormones released by the hypothalamus enter the hypophyseal portal system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis
REF: p. 583
4. FSH and LH are called gonadotropins because they stimulate the growth and maintenance of
the gonads. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Tropic Hormones
REF: p. 583
5. Under stress conditions, the hypothalamus is a “go between,” linking the cerebrum and the
pituitary. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis
REF: pp. 584-585
6. Specific chemical-releasing factors made in the adenohypophysis are responsible for the
release of ADH and oxytocin into the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary)
REF: p. 585
7. The neurohypophysis is another name for the anterior pituitary. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary)
REF: p. 585
8. When the amount of ADH increases, the body tries to get rid of excess fluid and the volume
of urine increases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Antidiuretic Hormones
REF: pp. 585-586
9. The pineal gland functions to support the body’s biological clock. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pineal Gland
REF: p. 587
10. A major function of the pineal gland is the development of the lymphatic system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pineal Gland
REF: p. 587
11. The thyroid gland is the only endocrine organ that stores its hormones in another form for
later release. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Thyroid Hormones
REF: p. 588
12. Thyroid hormone stimulates growth and tissue differentiation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Thyroid Hormones
REF: p. 589
13. Calcitonin is a hypercalcemic hormone. ANS: F TOP: Calcitonin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 589
14. Calcitonin decreases calcium storage in bones, thereby raising blood calcium levels. ANS: F TOP: Calcitonin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 589
15. Unlike thyroid hormone, calcitonin is said to have a “general” target. ANS: F TOP: Calcitonin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 589
16. An excess of parathyroid hormone can cause increased ossification of bone tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
REF: pp. 589-590
17. The center of the adrenal gland is the cortex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Adrenal Glands
REF: p. 592
18. Parathyroid hormone causes the kidney to retain calcium and excrete phosphate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
REF: p. 590
19. Hypercalcemia may be a cause of muscle spasms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
REF: p. 591
20. Sex hormones are produced by the ovaries, testes, and adrenal glands. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Adrenal Glands | Gonads
REF: pp. 592-593, 598
21. Aldosterone influences the kidney tubules to retain sodium and potassium ions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mineralocorticoids
REF: p. 593
22. The major mineralocorticoid is aldosterone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mineralocorticoids
REF: p. 593
23. Some of the effects of aldosterone are water retention and increased blood pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mineralocorticoids
REF: p. 593
24. Aldosterone secretion is controlled mainly by the renin-angiotensin mechanism and by the
blood potassium concentration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mineralocorticoids
REF: p. 593
25. Glucocorticoids are essential for maintaining a normal blood pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucocorticoids
REF: p. 594
26. The renin-angiotensin mechanism is a negative-feedback mechanism that helps maintain
homeostasis of blood pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mineralocorticoids
REF: p. 594
27. Cortisone is the only glucocorticoid that is secreted in significant quantities. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucocorticoids
REF: p. 594
28. Both epinephrine and norepinephrine can bind to sympathetic effectors to prolong and
enhance the effects of the autonomic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal Medulla
REF: p. 595
29. Norepinephrine accounts for about 80% of adrenal medulla secretions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal Medulla
REF: p. 595
30. The tissue of the pancreas is made up of both endocrine and exocrine tissues. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pancreatic Islets
REF: p. 595
31. Insulin and glucagon exert antagonistic effects on blood levels of glucose. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Hormones
REF: pp. 596-597
32. Diabetics produce an excessive amount of insulin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Diabetes Mellitus
REF: p. 598
33. Glucagon is secreted by the beta cells in the pancreatic islets. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Hormones
REF: p. 596
34. Insulin lowers blood concentrations of glucose. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Hormones
REF: pp. 596-597
35. Glucagon, produced by alpha cells, tends to promote the movement of glucose, amino acids,
and fatty acids out of the blood and into tissue cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Hormones
REF: p. 596
36. Diabetes mellitus is one of the most common endocrine disorders. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Diabetes Mellitus
REF: p. 598
37. Female sex hormones are collectively referred to as androgens. ANS: F TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 598
38. Secretin plays a regulatory role in the digestive process. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gastric and Intestinal Mucosa
REF: p. 599
39. The pituitary is attached to the hypothalamus by a stalk termed the pars intermedia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland
REF: p. 580
40. The vascular link between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis is termed the hepatic
portal system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis
REF: p. 583
41. Hypersecretion of prolactin can cause impotence in men. ANS: T TOP: Prolactin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 582
42. Psychosomatic relationships between human body systems and the brain have been proven
not to exist. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis
REF: pp. 583-584
43. T3 is the thyroid hormone released in greatest quantity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Thyroid Hormones
REF: p. 587
44. The two lobes of the thyroid are connected by the infundibulum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Thyroid Gland
REF: p. 587
45. PTH increases calcium absorption in the intestines by activating vitamin D. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones
REF: p. 590
46. Calcitonin acts to increase blood calcium levels. ANS: T TOP: Calcitonin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 589
47. The parathyroid glands are located on the posterior surface of the thymus gland. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Parathyroid Glands
REF: p. 589
48. The thyroid functions to support the body’s biological clock. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pineal Gland
REF: p. 587
49. Epinephrine is secreted by the adrenal cortex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal Medulla
REF: p. 595
50. The renin-angiotensin mechanism is a negative-feedback mechanism that helps maintain
homeostasis of blood calcium levels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mineralocorticoids
REF: p. 594
51. Ghrelin functions to reduce appetite and prevent an increase in blood glucose level. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Hormones
REF: p. 597
52. Somatostatin has the primary role of inhibiting the secretion of adrenal hormones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Hormones
REF: pp. 596-597
53. The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is LH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Tropic Hormones
REF: p. 583
54. Testosterone is produced by the seminiferous tubules of the testes. ANS: F TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 598
55. The hormone that can be detected during the early part of a woman’s pregnancy with an
over-the-counter kit is hCG. ANS: T TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 598
56. The thymus gland is smallest in children and reaches its maximum functional size in late
adulthood. ANS: F TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 598
57. The pituitary gland fits in the pituitary fossa in a structure called the sella turcica. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland
REF: p. 580
58. The posterior pituitary gland is not composed of glandular tissue. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland
REF: p. 580
59. Cells of the adenohypophysis can be classified as to their reaction to certain types of stain or
their type of tissue (glandular or neurosecretory). ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland
REF: p. 580
60. Both functions of oxytocin are regulated by a positive-feedback loop. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 586
TOP: Oxytocin 61. One difference between T3 and T4 is the number of iodine atoms attached to the molecule. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 588
TOP: Thyroid Hormones
62. Calcitonin inhibits the functioning of osteoblasts. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 589
TOP: Calcitonin
63. Growth hormone and insulin are synergistic hormones. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 596
TOP: Growth Hormones
64. Growth hormone and insulin are antagonistic hormones. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 596
TOP: Growth Hormones
65. Because the target organs of FSH and LH are organs of the female reproductive system, males
do not produce them. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Tropic Hormones
REF: p. 583
66. The heart produces a hormone that promotes sodium loss. ANS: T TOP: Heart
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 600
67. The corticotrophic cells of the adenohypophysis secrete growth hormone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Adenohypophysis (Anterior Lobe of Pituitary)
REF: p. 580
68. LH is an example of a tropic hormone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Tropic Hormones
REF: p. 583
69. Because growth hormone is always needed in the body to maintain muscle mass, it is released
at a constant rate by the pituitary gland. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis
REF: pp. 583-584
70. Adipose tissue contributes to the functioning of the endocrine system by producing a hormone
called leptin, which plays a role in energy balance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Other Endocrine Glands and Hormones
REF: p. 600
71. The anterior pituitary develops from the upward projection of the pharynx.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland
REF: p. 580
72. The anterior pituitary develops from the downward projection of the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland
REF: p. 580
73. The adenohypophysis is divided into two parts, the pars anterior and the pars posterior. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland
REF: p. 580
74. Growth hormone is also called somatotropin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Growth Hormones
REF: p. 581
75. Growth hormone is also called insulin-like growth factor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Growth Hormones
REF: p. 581
76. Growth hormone increases protein anabolism in cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Growth Hormones
REF: p. 581
77. Growth hormone has a hyperglycemic effect. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Growth Hormones
REF: p. 582
78. Prolactin is produced by the acidophils in the pars anterior. ANS: T TOP: Prolactin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 582
79. The function of prolactin is to stimulate the secretion of milk. ANS: T TOP: Prolactin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 582
80. Tropic hormones are secreted by the acidophils of the pars anterior. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Tropic Hormones
REF: p. 582
81. ACTH stimulates the adrenal medulla to produce and secrete its hormones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Tropic Hormones
REF: p. 583
82. Cells in the neurohypophysis make two hormones: ADH and oxytocin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary)
REF: p. 585
83. The release of ADH and oxytocin is controlled by nervous stimulation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary)
REF: p. 585
84. Hormones of the neurohypophysis are actually made by cells of the supraoptic or sella turcica
nuclei. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary)
REF: p. 585
85. Besides the cells of the kidney, target cells of ADH include muscle cells of the walls of the
arteries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Antidiuretic Hormones
REF: p. 586
86. Oxytocin plays an important role in both birth and milk production. ANS: T TOP: Oxytocin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 586
87. Men do not produce oxytocin. ANS: F TOP: Oxytocin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 586
88. The pineal gland is part of two systems, the endocrine system and the nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pineal Gland
REF: p. 586
89. The thyroid hormone T3 is more potent than T4, but less of it is produced. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Thyroid Hormones
REF: pp. 587-588
90. Going from superficial to deep, the layers of the adrenal cortex are zona glomerulosa, zona
reticularis, and zona fasciculata. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal Cortex
REF: p. 592
91. Glucocorticoids stimulate the conversion of protein to sugar. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 594
TOP: Glucocorticoids 92. Glucocorticoids have a hypoglycemic effect on blood sugar. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucocorticoids
REF: p. 594
93. High concentrations of glucocorticoids cause an increase in white blood cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucocorticoids
REF: p. 594
94. The adrenal medulla functions as postganglionic sympathetic neurons. They are even
stimulated by preganglionic sympathetic neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal Medulla
REF: p. 595
95. The endocrine cells of the pancreas make up about 15% of the pancreas. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Pancreatic Islets
REF: p. 595
96. Most of the pancreatic islets cells are alpha cells that produce insulin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Pancreatic Islets
REF: p. 596
97. The two major female hormones produced by the ovaries are estrogen and progesterone. ANS: T TOP: Ovaries
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 598
98. The thymus plays an important role in the development of T cells. ANS: T TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
MATCHING
Match each hormone with its corresponding description. a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Luteinizing hormone e. Lactogenic hormone f. Progesterone g. Somatotropin h. Oxytocin 1. Secreted by the corpus luteum
REF: p. 598
2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Stimulates the release of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids Promotes growth Stimulates testosterone production in males Stimulates development of ovarian follicle Causes water retention Causes muscle contraction of the uterus Also known as prolactin
1. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Ovaries 2. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Tropic Hormones 3. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Growth Hormones 4. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Tropic Hormones 5. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Tropic Hormones 6. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Antidiuretic Hormones 7. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Oxytocin 8. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Prolactin
REF: p. 598 REF: p. 583 REF: p. 581 REF: p. 583 REF: p. 583 REF: p. 585 REF: p. 586 REF: p. 582
Match each hormone with its structure, function, or the gland that produces it. a. Thyroid hormone b. Insulin c. Human chorionic gonadotropin d. Aldosterone e. Calcitonin f. Glucagon g. Cortisol h. Parathyroid hormone 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
Calcium-regulating hormone that is made in the thyroid gland The only important mineralocorticoid hormone in humans Hormone that is produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas Hormone that regulates metabolism rate, processes of cell growth, and tissue differentiation Hormone that causes an increase in blood calcium levels Hormone that lowers the concentration of glucose in the blood Hormone that is made by a fetal tissue component of the placenta Hormone that is a chief glucocorticoid released by the adrenal gland
9. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Calcitonin 10. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mineralocorticoids 11. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Hormones
REF: p. 589 REF: p. 593 REF: p. 596
12. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Thyroid Hormones 13. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Parathyroid Hormones 14. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Hormones 15. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Placenta 16. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucocorticoids
REF: p. 589 REF: p. 589 REF: pp. 596-597 REF: p. 598 REF: p. 594
SHORT ANSWER 1. The anterior and posterior divisions of the pituitary develop from different embryonic
structures. Identify the embryonic part from which each is derived. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 580
TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland
2. Briefly summarize how growth hormone affects metabolism. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 581-582
TOP: Growth Hormones
3. Explain the negative-feedback principle for controlling anterior pituitary tropic hormone
production. Give an example in your explanation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 584-585
TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis
4. What role does the hypophyseal portal system play in the control of secretions in the
adenohypophysis? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 583-585
TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis
5. Identify the principal actions of the hormones of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 588-591
TOP: Thyroid Gland | Parathyroid Gland
6. Explain how the renin-angiotensin mechanism operates to maintain blood pressure. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 593-594
TOP: Mineralocorticoids
7. What is the effect of glucagon on blood sugar level? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 596
TOP: Pancreatic Hormones
8. Explain the negative-feedback loop of ADH that helps maintain water balance in the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 585-586
TOP: Antidiuretic Hormones
9. List and briefly describe the tropic hormones produced by the pituitary gland. What is a tropic
hormone? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 582-583
TOP: Tropic Hormones
10. Where is the pineal gland, and what hormone does it produce? What is the effect of this
hormone? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 586-587
TOP: Pineal Gland
11. What are the three regions of the adrenal cortex, and what types of hormones are produced by
each region? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 592-594
TOP: Adrenal Cortex
12. Explain why it is equally likely that males and females can produce hCG. ANS:
It is fetal tissue hormone; either sex can make it. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 598
TOP: Placenta
ESSAY 1. Nancy had an annual physical last week, and her urine indicated a high level of chorionic
gonadotropin. What does this mean for Nancy? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 601-602
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
2. Select a hormone that would cause a problem for the body if it were hyposecreted or
hypersecreted. Name and describe the conditions caused by both hyposecretion and hypersecretion of that hormone. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 598
TOP: Placenta
Chapter 27: Blood Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is(are) involved in determining a person’s total blood volume? a. Age b. Body type c. Sex d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Volume
REF: p. 612
2. Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with: a. skeletal volume. b. body fat. c. water weight. d. height. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Volume
REF: p. 612
3. A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of: a. leukocytosis. b. anemia. c. leukemia. d. polycythemia. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 613
TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
4. Which mature cell has no nucleus, mitochondria, or ribosomes? a. Erythrocyte b. Leukocyte c. Platelet d. Neutrophil ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
REF: p. 614
5. A normal adult red blood cell count ranges from _____ million/cubic mm. a. 4.2 to 6.2 b. 5.5 to 6.5 c. 6.5 to 7.5 d. 7.5 to 8.5 ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Blood 6. Which of the following cell types can carry oxygen? a. Leukocyte
REF: p. 614
b. Thrombocyte c. Platelet d. Erythrocyte ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Function of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 614
7. A hematocrit of 40% means that in every 100 ml of whole blood, there are: a. 40 red blood cells and the remainder is fluid plasma. b. 40 ml of fluid plasma and 60 ml of red blood cells. c. 40 ml of red blood cells and 60 ml of fluid plasma. d. 2 liters (40% of 5 liters total) of fluid plasma. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 612
TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
8. Under the microscope, erythrocytes appear as: a. biconcave disks without nuclei. b. circular disks with centrally located nuclei. c. circular disks with several nuclei. d. oval disks with multilobed nuclei. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
REF: p. 614
9. Erythropoiesis is the formation of: a. platelets. b. red blood cells. c. white blood cells. d. all of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
10. Many types of blood cells are produced in the: a. liver. b. red bone marrow. c. spleen. d. pancreas. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
11. In the formation of blood cells, the megakaryoblast ultimately develops into: a. lymphocytes. b. platelets. c. monocytes. d. both A and B. ANS: B TOP: Platelets
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 624
12. Erythropoietin is a hormone: a. released by the kidney to stimulate red blood cell formation.
b. released by the liver to stimulate red blood cell formation. c. released by the kidney to stimulate red and white blood cell formation. d. that causes the recycling of iron for production of red blood cells. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
13. Which of the following is not a leukocyte? a. Basophil b. Reticulocyte c. Neutrophil d. Monocyte ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes)
REF: p. 622
14. Carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate ions because of a chemical reaction catabolized
by the enzyme: a. albumin. b. fibrinogen. c. carbonic anhydrase. d. globulin. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Function of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 614
15. All blood cells are derived from: a. reticulocytes. b. proerythroblasts. c. basophilic erythroblasts. d. hemocytoblasts. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
16. Heme is broken down into what pigment, which is excreted in bile? a. Amino acids b. Iron c. Bilirubin d. Melanin ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Destruction of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 617
17. Which of the following cell types are classified as agranulocytes? a. Neutrophils and monocytes b. Basophils and lymphocytes c. Neutrophils and basophils d. Lymphocytes and monocytes ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes)
REF: p. 622
18. Which types of white blood cells are thought to play a role in the prevention of clotting? a. Eosinophils b. Monocytes c. Basophils d. Neutrophils ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Granulocytes
REF: p. 622
19. Which of the following is an example of a leukocyte? a. Monocyte b. Thrombocyte c. Platelet d. Erythrocyte ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes)
REF: p. 622
20. Which types of white blood cells play a major role in immunity to infectious diseases? a. Monocytes b. Eosinophils c. Lymphocytes d. Basophils ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Agranulocytes
REF: p. 622
21. Which of the following are the most proficient at phagocytosis in the tissues? a. Neutrophils and basophils b. Lymphocytes and eosinophils c. Basophils and monocytes d. Neutrophils and monocytes ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Granulocytes, Agranulocytes
REF: p. 622
22. Thrombocytes are involved with: a. blood clotting. b. body defense. c. transport of glucose. d. transport of oxygen. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Blood, Platelets
REF: p. 624
23. Which of the following Rh factor combinations could cause agglutination of an infant’s red
blood cells? a. Mother–, father+, infant+ b. Mother–, father–, infant– c. Mother+, father–, infant+ d. Mother+, father+, infant– ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 620
TOP: The Rh System
24. People with type AB blood are considered universal recipients because their blood: a. does not contain the Rh antigen. b. does not contain either anti-A or anti-B antibodies. c. is absent of both antigen A and antigen B in the red blood cells. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: The ABO System
REF: p. 618
25. Which type of protein constitutes more than half of the total proteins in blood plasma? a. Globulin b. Fibrinogen c. Albumin d. Heme ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: p. 613
26. Which factor in the clotting process is the antihemophiliac factor? a. IV b. VIII c. IX d. X ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation)
REF: p. 626
27. Which factor in the clotting process is the Christmas factor? a. IV b. VIII c. IX d. X ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation)
REF: p. 626
28. Calcium is used in the clotting process during: a. stage I. b. stage II. c. stages I and II. d. neither stage I nor stage II. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation)
REF: p. 625
29. In stage II of clot formation, prothrombin is converted to: a. fibrin. b. fibrinogen. c. thrombin. d. thromboplastin. ANS: C
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 625
TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 30. In the formation of a clot, the insoluble network of fine threads in which the cellular elements
of blood are trapped is called: a. fibrinogen. b. fibrin. c. thrombin. d. thromboplastin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation)
REF: p. 626
31. Which of the following is an anticoagulant? a. Calcium ions b. Vitamin K c. Thromboplastin d. Heparin ANS: D DIF: Application TOP: Conditions That Oppose Clotting
REF: p. 628
32. Which of the following statements is not true of plasma? a. It is about 90% water. b. It contains both electrolytes and nonelectrolytes. c. It contains both colloids and crystalloids. d. All of the above statements are true of plasma. ANS: D TOP: Plasma
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 613
33. Which plasma protein plays an important role in blood clotting? a. Fibrinogen b. Albumin c. Globulin d. Plasminogen ANS: A TOP: Plasma
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 614
34. The major ingredient in hemoglobin that allows oxygen to be transported is: a. sodium. b. zinc. c. iron. d. copper. ANS: C TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 615
35. Which plasma protein plays an important role in the immune system? a. Fibrinogen b. Albumin c. Globulin d. Plasminogen
ANS: C TOP: Plasma
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 614
36. Which of the following formed elements assist in coagulation? a. Leukocytes b. Erythrocytes c. Thrombocytes d. Monocytes ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Blood, Platelets
REF: pp. 611-624
37. Which of the following are not found in the buffy coat? a. Erythrocytes b. Leukocytes c. Thrombocytes d. All of the above are found in the buffy coat. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 613
38. A person with only antibody B in his or her plasma would have which blood type? a. A b. B c. AB d. O ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: The ABO System
REF: p. 618
39. Which of the following does not hasten clotting? a. Rough spot in the endothelium b. Abnormally slow blood flow c. Heparin d. All of the above hasten clotting. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Conditions That Hasten Clotting
REF: p. 628
40. The function of blood is to: a. carry food to the cells. b. remove waste from the cells. c. assist the body in temperature regulation. d. do all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Blood 41. A hematocrit value of 38 ml/100 ml of blood would be: a. the average for a man. b. in the low normal range for a woman. c. in the high normal range for a woman.
REF: p. 612
d. in the low normal range for a man. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 613
42. When whole blood is spun down in a centrifuge, the buffy coat can be found: a. between the plasma and red blood cells. b. at the very top of the test tube. c. at the very bottom of the test tube. d. in the plasma below the water but above the soluble proteins. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 613
43. One hemoglobin molecule contains: a. one molecule of heme. b. one molecule of globin. c. four iron atoms. d. all of the above. ANS: C TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 615
44. What part of the hemoglobin molecule combines with carbon dioxide? a. Globin b. Heme c. Iron atoms d. Hemoglobin does not combine with carbon dioxide. ANS: A TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 615
45. Which are the only cells in the differentiation process of red blood cells that can be found
circulating in the blood? a. Proerythrocytes b. Reticulocytes c. Basophilic erythrocytes d. Polychromic erythrocytes ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
46. Which is not an end product of the breakdown of hemoglobin? a. Amino acids b. Bilirubin c. Free oxygen d. Iron ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Destruction of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 617
47. Which of the following substances is not secreted by platelets? a. ATP
b. Thromboxane c. Arachidonic acid d. All of the above are secreted by platelets. ANS: A TOP: Platelets
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 624
48. Whole blood constitutes about what percent of total body weight? a. 0.8% b. 5.3% c. 8% d. Between 12% and 15%, depending on body type ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Blood
REF: p. 612
49. Which characteristic of blood makes it especially effective in temperature regulation? a. Low specific heat capacity b. High specific heat capacity c. High evaporative potential d. Both A and C ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Blood
REF: p. 612
50. If you give a “unit” of blood in a blood drive and you are an average-sized adult, you have
given about what percent of your blood? a. 1% b. 5% c. 10% d. 15% ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Volume
REF: p. 612
51. The approximate blood volume in a human can be determined by using: a. the direct method. b. the indirect method. c. a radioisotope. d. both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Volume
REF: p. 612
52. Which is not a formed element of the blood? a. Albumin b. Platelet c. Erythrocyte d. Neither A nor B are formed elements of the blood. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 611
53. The presence of spectrin in the red blood cell makes it: a. better able to carry oxygen. b. more flexible. c. better able to carry carbon dioxide. d. able to produce hemoglobin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
REF: p. 614
54. The sequence of developmental steps in the formation of red blood cells beginning with
hematopoietic stem cells is: a. proerythroblasts, polychromic erythroblasts, basophilic erythroblasts, and reticulocytes. b. proerythroblasts, reticulocytes, polychromic erythrocytes, and basophilic erythrocytes. c. proerythroblasts, basophilic erythroblasts, polychromic erythroblasts, and reticulocytes. d. polychromic erythroblasts, basophilic erythroblasts, proerythroblasts, and reticulocytes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
55. Which of the following is not an agranulocyte? a. Monocyte b. Lymphocyte c. Eosinophil d. All of the above are agranulocytes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Agranulocytes
REF: p. 622
56. Which of the following is not true of white blood cells? a. More brightly colored than red blood cells b. Larger than red blood cells c. Contain a nucleus d. All of the above are true of white blood cells. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes)
REF: p. 621
57. Some white blood cells are capable of diapedesis, which means they can: a. “eat” bacteria or damaged cells. b. migrate out of blood vessels into tissue spaces. c. engage in protein synthesis because they have a nucleus. d. change from one type of white blood cell to another. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Granulocytes
REF: p. 622
58. Which white blood cell helps protect against parasitic worms? a. Eosinophil
b. Neutrophil c. Basophil d. Monocyte ANS: A TOP: Eosinophils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 622
59. The most mature developing red blood cell that still contains a nucleus is a: a. reticulocyte. b. polychromic erythroblast. c. basophilic erythroblast. d. proerythroblast. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
60. Which white blood cell contains granules filled with histamine? a. Eosinophil b. Neutrophil c. Basophil d. Monocyte ANS: C TOP: Basophils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 622
61. A person with no antibodies in the blood plasma would have which blood type? a. A b. B c. AB d. O ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 618
TOP: The ABO System
62. A person with no antigens on the red blood cell would have which blood type? a. A b. B c. AB d. O ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 618
TOP: The ABO System
63. A person with an antigen on the red blood cell and a different antibody in the plasma would
have which blood type? a. A b. AB c. O d. Both A and C ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 618
TOP: The ABO System
64. What substance involved in the process of blood clot formation is not made by the liver? a. Fibrinogen b. Prothrombin
c. Vitamin K d. All of the above are made by the liver. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages 2 and 3
REF: p. 628
65. What substance does not assist in the formation of a blood clot? a. Fibrinogen b. Plasmin c. Vitamin K d. All of the above assist in the formation of a blood clot. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Clot Dissolution
REF: p. 629
66. A woman could have Rh antibodies in her blood if: a. Rh+ blood was given in a transfusion. b. an Rh+ fetus was developing within. c. RhoGAM was given. d. both A and B occurred. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 620
TOP: Rh System
67. Which of the following statements is not true of hemoglobin? a. Each red blood cell has between 200 million and 300 million molecules of
hemoglobin. b. The hemoglobin in a red blood cell makes up about 70% of the cell’s dry weight. c. It has four globin and four heme chains in each molecule. d. All of the above statements are true of hemoglobin. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 615
TOP: Hemoglobin
68. Which of the following statements is not true of platelets? a. They develop from megakaryoblasts. b. They release substances that cause vasoconstriction. c. They have a life span of about 7 days. d. All of the above statements are true of platelets. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 624
TOP: Platelets
69. After Martha’s baby was born, why did the physician apply a gauze dressing for a short time
on the umbilical cord and give the baby a dose of vitamin K? a. Newborns do not have any platelets for the first 3 months and will bleed freely unless actions are taken to prevent bleeding. b. Newborns often show elevated platelet counts at birth, and both of the actions taken by the physician will help the umbilical cord stop bleeding. c. The physician knew that the baby would need vitamin K to replace the red blood cells lost during delivery. d. Newborns often have a reduced number of platelets, which are needed to clot blood, and both of the actions taken by the physician will help the umbilical cord stop bleeding. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 628
TOP: Clinical Methods of Hastening Clotting 70. How does the body benefit from the breakdown of aged or damaged red blood cells? a. The by-products of bilirubin are excreted into the intestine and decrease the
digestive process. b. Globin is released as vitamin K and can be used for clotting. c. The breakdown increases erythropoiesis, which results in an increase in red blood
cells. d. Globin is converted to amino acids and used as an energy source or for protein
building. ANS: D DIF: Application TOP: Destruction of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
TRUE/FALSE 1. Another term for plasma is interstitial fluid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Blood
REF: p. 613
2. Direct measurements of total blood volume involve the “tagging” of red blood cells or plasma
components with radioisotopes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Volume
REF: p. 612
3. The less fat in the body, the more blood there is per unit of body weight. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Volume
REF: p. 612
4. In men red blood cell counts average about 4,800,000 per cubic millimeter of blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
REF: p. 614
5. The survival of red blood cells depends on their ability to change their shape. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
REF: p. 614
6. Blood constitutes about 4% of total body weight. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Blood
REF: p. 612
7. Diapedesis is a process of phagocytosis and release of cytotoxic chemicals. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Granulocytes
REF: p. 622
8. Eosinophils are the least numerous of the white blood cells, numbering only 0.5% to 1% of
the total leukocyte count. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Granulocytes
REF: p. 622
9. Monocytes are polymorphonuclear leukocytes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Granulocytes
REF: p. 622
10. Erythropoietinogen is released primarily by the kidneys. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
11. The average healthy young female has about 4 to 5 liters of blood in her body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Volume
REF: p. 612
12. Platelets are important for blood clotting and hemostasis. ANS: T TOP: Platelets
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 624
13. Under normal circumstances, there are no differences between the sexes in platelet count. ANS: T TOP: Platelets
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 624
14. Platelets are formed only in red bone marrow. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Life Span of Platelets
REF: p. 624
15. People with type O blood are considered universal donors and therefore crossmatching is not
needed before transfusing their blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The ABO System
REF: p. 619
16. People with type O blood are considered universal recipients. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The ABO System
REF: p. 619
17. Type O blood contains both antigen A and antigen B on the red blood cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The ABO System
REF: p. 618
18. If the recipient’s blood type is A, to avoid agglutination the donor’s blood type may be either
type O or type A. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The ABO System
REF: p. 618
19. The only people who can ever have anti-Rh antibodies in their plasma are Rh-positive men or
women who have been transfused with Rh-negative blood or Rh-positive women who have carried an Rh-negative fetus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Rh System
REF: p. 620
20. The volume of plasma is equal to the whole blood minus the formed elements. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: p. 613
21. Plasma is a straw-colored fluid that accounts for more than half of the blood volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: p. 611
22. The major component of plasma is protein. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: p. 613
23. The type of plasma protein that constitutes more than half of the total amount is fibrinogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: p. 614
24. The synthesis of plasma protein takes place in the liver. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: p. 614
25. Globulins constitute approximately 55% of the total plasma protein content. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: p. 614
26. Globulins play an important role in the body’s defense process. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: p. 614
27. Antithrombins are important in clot formation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Conditions That Oppose Clotting
REF: p. 628
28. Streptokinase is an enzyme that can be used to dissolve clots. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Clot Dissolution
REF: p. 629
29. Streptokinase, an enzyme from certain streptococci, can cause clot dissolution. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 629
TOP: Clot Dissolution
30. An extrinsic factor must be provided by the diet to prevent pernicious anemia. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 630
31. Hematocrit and serum are synonymous terms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 613
32. Oxygen deficiency increases leukocyte numbers by increasing the secretion of erythropoietin
by the kidneys. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
33. The life span of circulating red blood cells is about 1 year. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Destruction of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 617
34. Hemoglobin is broken down into iron and bilirubin. The iron is returned to the bone marrow
and the bilirubin is excreted by the kidneys. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Destruction of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 617
35. People with type O blood are considered universal donors because their blood has Rh antigen
on the red blood cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The ABO System
REF: p. 619
36. People with type AB blood are considered universal donors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The ABO System
REF: p. 619
37. Type AB blood contains both A and B antigens on its red blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The ABO System
REF: p. 618
38. Rh-positive blood contains Rh antigens on its red blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Rh System
REF: p. 620
39. Plasma is a dark red fluid that accounts for more than half of the blood volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: p. 613
40. Blood plasma contains colloids, crystalloids, electrolytes, and nonelectrolytes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: pp. 613-614
41. Another name for blood cells is formed elements. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Blood
REF: p. 611
42. If you donate a “unit” of blood at a blood bank, you have given about 5% of your total blood
volume. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 612
TOP: Blood Volume
43. Direct measurement of blood volume is usually not done on normal, healthy people. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Volume
REF: p. 612
44. In the indirect measurement of blood volume, it is assumed that the radioisotope is uniformly
distributed in the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Volume
REF: p. 612
45. The terms packed cell volume and hematocrit are interchangeable. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 613
46. Hematocrit includes red blood cells, white blood cells, and soluble proteins from the plasma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 613
47. The buffy coat is composed of all the formed elements except red blood cells. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 613
TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
48. The buffy coat composes about 5% of the total blood volume.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 613
49. The rate of protein synthesis in mature red blood cells is slightly higher than in most of the
cells in the body. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
REF: p. 617
50. The protein spectrin helps keep the red blood cells rigid so they are not deformed when
passing through a capillary. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
REF: p. 614
51. The bicarbonate ions formed in carbon dioxide transport move out to the plasma and help the
body adjust pH. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Function of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 614
52. The part of the hemoglobin molecule that combines with oxygen is the heme. ANS: T TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 615
53. Maturation causes an increase in the size of red blood cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
54. About 45% of whole blood is plasma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 613
55. A drop in blood oxygen levels stimulates an increase in red blood cell formation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
56. A drop in blood oxygen levels stimulates the liver to release erythropoietin. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
57. On average, women have a slightly higher hematocrit value than men. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 613
58. Conditions that result in decreased red blood cell numbers are called anemias. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 613
59. To maintain the homeostatic level of red blood cell production, the body must supply the bone
marrow with recycled iron, amino acids, and bilirubin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Destruction of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 617
60. The nuclei of red blood cells and white blood cells are almost identical in size. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 621 TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes), Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 61. The polymorphonuclear leukocytes are granulocytes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Granulocytes
REF: p. 622
62. Another name for eosinophils could be acidophils. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 622
TOP: Granulocytes
63. Both the largest and smallest of the leukocytes are agranulocytes. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 622
TOP: Agranulocytes
64. The platelet count in the average adult is 500,000/mm3. ANS: F TOP: Platelets
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 624
65. One of the ways platelets assist in blood homeostasis is to release chemicals that cause
vasoconstriction in the blood vessels. ANS: T TOP: Platelets
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 624
66. Blood agglutination and blood clotting are different names for the same process. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 618, 625 TOP: The ABO System, Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 67. A woman who is pregnant for the first time cannot possibly have anti-Rh antibodies in her
blood. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 620
TOP: The Rh System
68. A difference between a crystalloid and a colloid is the size of the particle.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: pp. 613-614
69. The difference between crystalloids and colloids is that crystalloids have a charge and colloids
do not. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: pp. 613-614
70. One reason that blood is effective in heat regulation is that it has a high specific heat. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Blood
REF: p. 612
71. The buffy coat does not contain formed elements of the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 613
72. The shape of a red blood cell increases its surface area. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
REF: p. 614
73. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase allows carbon dioxide to join with the heme portion of the
red blood cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Function of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 614
74. The total surface area of all of the red blood cells in the body is about the size of a tennis
court. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Function of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 614
75. One of the reasons that red blood cells are so efficient in carrying oxygen is that one
hemoglobin molecule can carry two oxygen atoms. ANS: F TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 615
76. One of the functions of basophils is to protect the body from parasitic worms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes)
REF: p. 622
77. In the red blood cell, oxygen combines with the heme portion of hemoglobin, whereas the
globin portion of the hemoglobin combines with carbon dioxide. ANS: T TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 615
78. In the formation of red blood cells, reticulocytes develop directly from basophilic
erythroblasts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
79. In the formation of red blood cells, polychromatic erythroblasts develop directly from
basophilic erythroblasts. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
80. Some white blood cells are named based on the types of substances that stain them for
microscopic study. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes)
REF: p. 621
81. Neutrophils contain powerful lysosomes that assist them in their ability to be phagocytic cells. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes)
REF: p. 622
82. Both myeloid tissue and lymphatic tissue are considered hematopoietic tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of White Blood Cells
REF: p. 623
83. Of the three proteins found in plasma, globulins are present in the smallest percentage. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Plasma
REF: p. 614
84. People who live and work in high altitudes often have elevated red blood cell numbers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
REF: p. 613
85. The difference in the number of red blood cells between the sexes is due to the stimulating
effect of estrogen on red blood cell formation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
REF: p. 614
86. One hemoglobin molecule can unite with a total of four molecules of oxygen. ANS: T TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 615
87. The heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule can carry oxygen to the cells and carbon
dioxide away from the cells.
ANS: F TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 615
88. In the development of the red blood cell, polychromic erythroblasts are more mature cells than
basophilic erythroblasts. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
89. In the development of the red blood cell, the reticulocyte is the most mature cell that still
contains a nucleus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
90. The mature red blood cell has no nucleus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
REF: p. 614
91. About half of the mature red blood cell is made up of hemoglobin. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
REF: p. 614
92. Neutrophils contain granules that are able to release the anticoagulant heparin. ANS: F TOP: Basophils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 622
93. Basophils contain granules that are able to release histamine. ANS: T TOP: Basophils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 622
94. A person with a parasitic worm infection might have an increase in the number of eosinophils
in the blood. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 622
TOP: Eosinophils
95. A mature megakaryocyte can release as many as 3000 platelets into the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Life Span of Platelets
REF: p. 624
96. A person without A or B antibodies in the blood must have blood type O. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 618
TOP: The ABO System
97. A person without A or B antigens on the red blood cells must have blood type O.
ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 618
TOP: The ABO System
98. A person with an antigen on the red blood cell and a different antigen in the blood plasma
could be either blood type A or blood type B. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 618
TOP: The ABO System
99. The end product of both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathway is fibrin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages 2 and 3
REF: pp. 625-626
100. Whereas most vitamin K is synthesized by the liver, some is produced by bacteria in the small
intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages 2 and 3
REF: p. 628
101. Only mature red blood cells are found in the circulatory system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
102. In order to maintain a constant level of red blood cells, about 2 billion red blood cells must be
made per day. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
103. Vitamin B12 is needed for the production of red blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Destruction of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 617
104. Vitamin B12 is also called the intrinsic factor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Destruction of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 617
105. Two conditions that hasten blood clotting are a rough spot on the endothelium and abnormally
slow–moving blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Conditions That Hasten Clotting
REF: p. 628
106. A person with a condition such as appendicitis would have an increase in both neutrophils and
in the total number of white blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: White Blood Cell Numbers
REF: p. 622
107. The general term for an overall decrease in white blood cells is leukocytosis.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: White Blood Cell Numbers
REF: p. 622
108. Most lymphocytes and monocytes come from hematopoietic adult stem cells in lymphatic
tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of White Blood Cells
REF: p. 623
109. Because they are formed in lymphatic tissue, there are no lymphocytes in bone marrow. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of White Blood Cells
REF: p. 623
110. If an Rh-negative mother carries a second Rh-positive fetus, a condition called
erythroblastosis fetalis could seriously jeopardize her health. ANS: F TOP: Rh System
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 620
111. A substance called RhoGam can stop a mother from developing anti-Rh antibodies and protect
a future Rh-positive fetus. ANS: T TOP: Rh System
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 620
112. The function of blood clotting is hemostasis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation)
REF: p. 625
113. Blood that clots too slowly and blood that clots too quickly are both problems for the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation)
REF: p. 628
114. Whether a blood clot event begins in or out of the circulatory system determines whether it is
intrinsic or extrinsic. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Extrinsic Pathway
REF: pp. 625-626
115. A naturally occurring substance called plasmin is used by the body to dissolve clots. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Clot Dissolution
REF: p. 629
MATCHING
Match each blood cell life span with the corresponding blood cell type. a. 105-120 days
b. c. d. e. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
10-12 days Months Days to years Hours to 3 days
Monocyte Erythrocyte Basophil Eosinophil Lymphocyte
1. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Blood Cells 2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Blood Cells 3. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Blood Cells 4. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Blood Cells 5. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Blood Cells
REF: p. 611 REF: p. 611 REF: p. 611 REF: p. 611 REF: p. 611
Match each term with its corresponding description. a. Agranulocytes b. Basophils c. Eosinophils d. Granulocytes e. Leukocytes f. Lymphocytes g. Megakaryoblasts h. Monocytes i. Neutrophils j. Platelets 6. Leukocytes containing large cytoplasmic granules that stain 7. Granulocytes that phagocytize microorganisms for cellular defense; most numerous 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
leukocytes Granulocytes that release heparin (to prevent clotting) and histamine (important in inflammatory response) Granulocytes that protect against infections caused by parasitic worms and allergic reactions Agranulocytes involved in immunity; produce antibodies Cells that enter tissues and are transformed into macrophages Small, colorless bodies that function in blood clotting and hemostasis Cells from which platelets are produced Leukocytes without cytoplasmic granules Group of nucleated cells that lack hemoglobin; also called white blood cells
6. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 622 TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes) 7. ANS: I DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 622
8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
TOP: Granulocytes ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Granulocytes ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Granulocytes ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Agranulocytes ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Blood Cells ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation and Life Span of Platelets ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes) ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes)
REF: p. 622 REF: p. 622 REF: p. 622 REF: p. 611 REF: p. 624 REF: p. 624 REF: p. 622 REF: p. 621
Match each substance involved in blood clot formation with its description or function. a. Tissue factor b. Calcium c. Fibrinogen d. Prothrombin activator e. Fibrin f. Prothrombin g. Vitamin K h. Thrombin i. Plasmin 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.
The soluble protein that is acted on to form the insoluble protein that actually forms the clot Substance that combines with calcium to convert fibrinogen to fibrin Ion that is necessary in two steps of the clotting process Material that is composed of lipoproteins and phospholipids released by damaged cells Substance needed by the liver to make prothrombin Substance that hydrolyzes fibrin strands and dissolves blood clots Substance that converts prothrombin to thrombin in the presence of calcium ions Insoluble protein that forms fine threads in the blood needed to make a clot Protein that is acted on to become thrombin
16. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 17. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 18. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 19. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 20. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 21. ANS: I DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 626 REF: p. 626 REF: p. 626 REF: p. 625 REF: p. 628 REF: p. 629
TOP: Clot Dissolution 22. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 23. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 24. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation)
REF: p. 625 REF: p. 626 REF: p. 625
OTHER 1. Define hematocrit. How is it determined? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 613
TOP: Formed Elements of Blood
2. Considering only the blood antigens A, B, AB, and O, which blood type is considered the
universal donor? Explain the physiological basis of its being referred to as the universal donor. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 618-620
TOP: The ABO System
3. Considering only the blood antigens A, B, AB, and O, which blood type is considered the
universal recipient? Explain the physiological basis of its being referred to as the universal recipient. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 619-620
TOP: The ABO System
4. What is the major ingredient constituting plasma? ANS:
Water. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 613-614
TOP: Blood Plasma
5. Diagram the three stages of blood coagulation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 625-628
TOP: Mechanisms of Blood Clotting (Coagulation)
6. Explain why a rough surface such as gauze, the application of heat, or gently squeezing the
tissue may be helpful in clot formation.
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 628
TOP: Conditions That Hasten Clotting
7. Describe the factors that could result in a fetus contracting erythroblastosis fetalis. Be sure to
consider both maternal and fetal conditions. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 620
TOP: The Rh System
8. Explain the negative feedback mechanism for the correction of low blood oxygen
concentration. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 615
TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
9. Name and give the function of the three blood-formed elements. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 611, 614, 621-622, 624 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes), White Blood Cells (Leukocytes), Platelets 10. List the steps in the formation of a red blood cell. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 615
11. Describe the shape of the red blood cell. How does this structure assist the cell in
accomplishing its function? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 614
TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
12. Explain the process by which the red blood cell assists in the transport of carbon dioxide in
the blood. ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 614
TOP: Function of Red Blood Cells
13. Describe the molecular structure of hemoglobin. What is hemoglobin called when it is united
with oxygen? When it is united with carbon dioxide? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 615
TOP: Hemoglobin
14. What happens to the components of a red blood cell after it is broken down or fragments? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Destruction of Red Blood Cells
REF: p. 617
15. Name and give the functions of each type of granulocyte. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 622
TOP: Granulocytes
16. Name and give the functions of each type of agranulocyte. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 622
TOP: Agranulocytes
17. Describe the antigens and antibodies that would be found on the red blood cell and in the
plasma for all four of the ABO blood groups. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 618-620
TOP: The ABO System
18. In general terms, explain the difference between the process of agglutination, when
incompatible blood groups are mixed, and coagulation, the formation of a blood clot. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 619, 625-628 TOP: Blood Type (Blood Groups), Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 19. Explain the process by which a blood clot is dissolved. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 629
TOP: Clot Dissolution
ESSAY 1. Mrs. Washington’s blood type is O positive. Her husband’s type is O negative. Her newborn
baby’s blood type is O negative. Does this combination of blood types present any concerns related to future pregnancies Mrs. Washington may have? Explain your answer. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 620
TOP: The Rh System
2. After Martha’s baby was born, the physician applied a gauze dressing for a short time on the
umbilical cord. She also gave the baby a dose of vitamin K. Why did the physician perform these two procedures? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 627-628
TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation)
Chapter 28: Heart Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The saclike structure around the heart is the: a. epicardium. c. endocardium. b. myocardium. d. pericardium. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Heart
REF: p. 642
2. Which of the following is another name for the visceral layer of the pericardium? a. Endocardium c. Fibrous pericardium b. Epicardium d. Myocardium ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Heart
REF: p. 642
3. The thickest layer of tissue in the heart wall is the: a. epicardium. c. myocardium. b. pericardium. d. endocardium. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Heart
REF: p. 642
4. The muscular layer of the heart wall is the: a. epicardium. c. myocardium. b. pericardium. d. endocardium. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Heart
REF: p. 642
5. The internal layer of tissue in the heart is the: a. epicardium. c. myocardium. b. pericardium. d. endocardium. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Heart
REF: p. 643
6. The right atrioventricular valve is also called the: a. bicuspid. c. mitral. b. tricuspid. d. aortic. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 644
7. Which of the following is not an atrioventricular valve? a. Aortic c. Bicuspid b. Mitral d. Tricuspid ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 644
8. The cavity of the heart that normally has the thickest wall is the: a. right atrium. c. right ventricle. b. left atrium. d. left ventricle. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Chambers of the Heart
REF: p. 643
9. The valve that guards the left atrioventricular orifice is called the _____ valve. a. bicuspid c. tricuspid b. mitral d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 644
10. Which of the following is a semilunar valve? a. Aortic c. Tricuspid b. Mitral d. Bicuspid ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 645
11. All of the following are true statements except: a. the right coronary artery is dominant in about 50% of all hearts. b. both atria receive their blood supply from branches of the right and left coronary
arteries. c. the more abundant blood supply goes to the myocardium of the left ventricle rather than the right ventricle. d. only a few connections, or anastomoses, exist between the larger branches of the coronary arteries. ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Blood Supply of Heart Tissue
REF: p. 648
12. The structure referred to as the pacemaker of the heart is(are) the: a. AV node. c. cardiac plexuses. b. SA node. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart
REF: p. 649
13. The structural components of the circulatory system include the: a. heart and lungs. c. heart and blood vessels. b. heart and lymph nodes. d. heart, vessels, and lymph nodes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the Cardiovascular System Introduction
REF: p. 637
14. The correct order of the layers of the heart from deep to superficial is: a. myocardium, pericardium, and endocardium. b. epicardium, myocardium, and pericardium. c. epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. d. endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium.
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Heart
REF: p. 642
15. The pulmonary and aortic valves are also called _____ valves. a. cuspid c. aortic b. semilunar d. pulmonary ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 644
16. Respectively, the right and left atrioventricular valves are also known as: a. tricuspid, mitral. c. mitral, bicuspid. b. bicuspid, tricuspid. d. bicuspid, mitral. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 644
17. Atrioventricular valves prevent backflow of blood into the: a. atria. c. vena cava. b. lungs. d. ventricles. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 644
18. The ventricle of the heart that ejects blood toward the lungs is the: a. right atrium. c. left atrium. b. right ventricle. d. left ventricle. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Heart 19. Which of the following is a cuspid valve? a. Aortic b. Pulmonary
REF: p. 643
c. Mitral d. Both A and B
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 644
20. Chordae tendineae are associated with which structure? a. Aortic valve c. Tricuspid valve b. Mitral valve d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 644
21. The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the: a. lungs. c. right atrium. b. left atrium. d. None of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood through the Heart 22. The pulmonary arteries empty blood into the: a. right atrium. c. left atrium.
REF: p. 647
b. right ventricle.
d. left ventricle.
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart
REF: p. 647
23. Which of the following is not true of the myocardium? a. Cells are joined by intercalated disks. b. The muscle cells are autorhythmic. c. The muscle cells can quickly summate contractions to produce tetanus. d. It is made of electrically coupled functional units called syncytia. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the Heart
REF: p. 643
24. Which of the following is not true of the atria? a. They have thinner myocardial walls than do ventricles. b. They are the same structure as the auricle. c. They are called receiving chambers of the heart. d. All of the above are true of the atria. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Chambers of the Heart
REF: p. 643
25. Which of the following is not true of ventricles? a. They are the pumping chambers of the heart. b. The myocardium of the ventricles is thicker than that of the atria. c. The myocardium of the left ventricle is thicker than that of the right ventricle. d. All of the above are true of the ventricles. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Chambers of the Heart
REF: p. 643
26. If damaged, which valve could allow blood to leak back into the left ventricle? a. Bicuspid c. Aortic semilunar b. Tricuspid d. Pulmonary semilunar ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 645
27. If damaged, which valve could allow blood to leak back into the right atrium? a. Bicuspid c. Aortic semilunar b. Tricuspid d. Pulmonary semilunar ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 644
28. Which of the following statements is not true about the nerve supply to the heart? a. The heart is autorhythmic. b. The heart receives both sympathetic and parasympathetic impulses. c. The vagus nerve serves as an inhibitory nerve. d. All of the above are true about the nerve supply to the heart. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart
REF: p. 649
29. The heart begins beating in the fetus at about what stage of development? a. Fourth month c. After about 4 weeks b. Second month d. After about 2 weeks ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the Cardiovascular System Introduction
REF: p. 637
30. Which of the following statements is not true of the location of the heart? a. It lies in the mediastinum. b. It lies to the right of the midline of the body. c. It lies behind the body of the sternum. d. All of the above are true about the location of the heart. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Heart
REF: p. 638
31. Which of the following statements is not true of the heart? a. The heart of an adult is proportionally larger than the heart of an infant. b. The heart reaches its adult size between puberty and 25 years of age. c. The average weight of the heart is about 85 grams more in the male than in the
female. d. The heart tends to take on the shape of the chest of the individual. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Size and Shape of the Heart
REF: p. 638
32. Pericardial fluid can be found between the: a. myocardium and the epicardium. c. pericardium and the ribs. b. myocardium and the endocardium. d. epicardium and the pericardium. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Heart 33. Cuspid valves open into: a. the aorta. b. the pulmonary artery. ANS: C
DIF: Application
34. Semilunar valves open into: a. the aorta. b. the pulmonary artery. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 642
c. the ventricles of the heart. d. both A and B. REF: p. 644
TOP: Valves of the Heart
c. the ventricles of the heart. d. both A and B. REF: p. 645
TOP: Valves of the Heart
35. Blood from the superior vena cava enters which part of the heart? a. Right atrium c. Left atrium b. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart
REF: p. 647
36. If the chordae tendineae in the right side of the heart were damaged, it might cause blood to
leak into the: a. pulmonary artery during heart contraction. b. right ventricle during heart contraction. c. right atrium during heart contraction. d. right ventricle during heart relaxation. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 644
TOP: Atrioventricular Valves
37. What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled
to form a single functional syncytium? a. Because they form a syncytium, cardiac muscles can contract on their own. b. Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium. c. Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells cannot summate contraction to produce tetanus, and thus do not fatigue. d. Because they form a syncytium, cardiac muscle cells can pass an action potential by way of internodal bundles contracting both atrial chambers. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 643
TOP: Myocardium
38. The blood entering the aorta has just left which heart chamber? a. Right atrium c. Left atrium b. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart
REF: p. 647
39. What is the correct explanation for how cardiac tamponade can affect the heart? a. It causes a prolapsed mitral valve, one whose flaps extend back into the left atrium,
causing incompetence (leaking) of the valve. b. It causes blood to not only eject forward into the aorta but also regurgitate back
into the left ventricle because of a leaky aortic semilunar valve. c. It is a compression of the heart that impairs its pumping action and makes
immediate pericardial drainage necessary. d. It is a delayed inflammatory response to streptococcal infection that results in
stenosis or other deformities of the valves, chordae tendineae, or myocardium. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 656
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
40. If the AV node were forced to assume pacemaker activity, the resulting pulse rate would be
_____ beats per minutes. a. 10 to 30 b. 20 to 40 ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart,
c. 30 to 50 d. 40 to 60 REF: p. 650
41. The normal pattern of impulse conduction through the heart is: a. AV node, SA node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers. b. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, and bundle of His.
c. SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers, and bundle of His. d. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart, Chapter 28
REF: p. 650
42. Which of the following most accurately describes what is measured by an electrocardiogram? a. Electrical conductivity c. The speed and strength of contractions b. Number of contractions per minute d. Any abnormal functioning ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG), Chapter 28
REF: p. 651
43. Which of the following would not cause an ectopic beat? a. Bundle of His c. SA node b. Purkinje fibers d. AV node ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart, Chapter 28
REF: p. 650
44. The QRS complex represents: a. depolarization of the atria. b. repolarization of the atria and depolarization of the ventricles. c. depolarization of both the atria and ventricles. d. repolarization of the ventricles. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: ECG Waves, Chapter 28
REF: p. 653
45. Heart sounds are made by the _____ valves. a. closing of the AV c. movement of blood through the b. closing of the semilunar d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: A
DIF: Application
46. A cause of a heart murmur may be: a. incomplete closing of a valve. b. incomplete contraction of the atria. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart Sounds
REF: p. 656
TOP: Heart Sounds, Chapter 28
c. narrowing of a valve (stenosis). d. both A and C. REF: p. 656
47. Hypokalemia can cause an increase in the size of which of the following? a. P wave c. T wave b. QRS complex d. U wave ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
REF: p. 654
48. The first heart sound heard, or the “lub” sound, is caused by the _____ and the _____ valves
closing. a. ventricles contracting; AV b. atria contracting; SL
c. atria contracting; SA d. ventricles relaxing; AV
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart Sounds 49. On an ECG, the T wave represents: a. depolarization of the atria. b. repolarization of the atria. ANS: D TOP: ECG Waves
REF: p. 656
c. depolarization of the ventricles. d. repolarization of the ventricles.
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 653
50. Depolarization of the ventricles is: a. clearly depicted by the QRS complex. b. masked by the massive ventricular depolarization. c. masked by the massive ventricular repolarization. d. none of the above. ANS: A TOP: ECG Waves
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 653
51. Which part of the QRS complex represents the repolarization of the atria? a. Q wave c. S wave b. R wave d. None of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
REF: p. 653
52. Which of the following is true of the conduction system of the heart? a. It is made of cardiac muscle. b. It is made of nervous tissue. c. It continues its contractile roll even while conducting an impulse. d. Both A and C are true of the conduction system of the heart. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
53. Which part of the conduction system of the heart is referred to as the pacemaker? a. Purkinje fibers c. Atrioventricular node b. Sinoatrial node d. Atrioventricular bundles ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
54. The period between the closure of the semilunar valve and the opening of the atrioventricular
valves is called: a. atrial systole. b. isovolumetric ventricular contraction. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Cycle
c. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation. d. passive ventricular filling. REF: p. 655
55. The period between the filling of the ventricles and the opening of the semilunar valves is
called: a. atrial systole.
c. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation.
b. isovolumetric ventricular contraction. ANS: B
DIF: Application
d. passive ventricular filling.
REF: p. 655
TOP: Cardiac Cycle
56. The period during which blood is pumped out of the atria and into the ventricles is called: a. atrial systole. c. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation. b. isovolumetric ventricular contraction. d. passive ventricular filling. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Cycle 57. Atrial systole causes blood to: a. leave the heart. b. move through the semilunar valves. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 654
c. move through the cuspid valves. d. do both A and B. REF: p. 654-55
TOP: Atrial Systole
TRUE/FALSE 1. The internal layer of the tissue in the heart is the epicardium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the Heart
REF: p. 642
2. The heart of the developing human embryo begins to beat regularly early in the fourth week
after fertilization. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the Cardiovascular System Introduction
REF: p. 637
3. A major function of the pericardial sac is protection against friction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Heart
REF: p. 642
4. The mitral valve has three flaps. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 644
5. Anastomoses are important for providing collateral circulation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Supply of Heart Tissue
REF: p. 648
6. The value of an anastomosis is that it allows blood to bypass a blood vessel obstruction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Supply of Heart Tissue
REF: p. 648
7. Cardiac tamponade is a serious compression of the heart. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 656
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 8. The visceral pericardium adheres to the surface of the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings of the Heart
REF: p. 642
9. The pacemaker of the heart is the SA node. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart
REF: p. 649
10. The “receiving chambers” of the heart are the atria. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chambers of the Heart
REF: p. 643
11. COPD refers to death of ischemic heart muscle cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 657
12. The SA node resides primarily in the right atrial wall. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart
REF: p. 649
13. Angina pectoris and myocardial infarction are synonymous terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 657
14. If today is your twenty-third birthday, your heart has been beating for more than 23 years. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 637 TOP: Anatomy of the Cardiovascular System Introduction 15. The midline of the body divides the heart into equal right and left halves. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Heart
REF: p. 638
16. Because the heart is positioned between two bony structures, CPR can be an effective,
lifesaving procedure. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 638
TOP: Location of the Heart
17. The base of the heart is superior to the apex of the heart. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 638
TOP: Location of the Heart
18. As a person grows to adulthood, the heart increases in size and becomes a greater percentage
of the body weight. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Size and Shape of the Heart
REF: p. 638
19. The pericardium is able to stretch in response to the contraction and relaxation of the heart. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Heart Covering
REF: p. 642
20. Epicardium and fibrous pericardium are two names for the same structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Heart Covering
REF: p. 642
21. The bulk of the heart wall is myocardium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the Heart
REF: p. 642
22. The mitral valve has fewer flaps than the right atrioventricular valve. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 644
TOP: Valves of the Heart
23. The general function of both sets of valves in the heart is to prevent blood from flowing back
to the chamber it just left. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 643
TOP: Valves of the Heart
24. The veins in the heart are called cardiac, but the arteries in the heart are called coronary. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Supply of Heart Tissue
REF: p. 647
25. The heart is autorhythmic, which means it can generate its own action potential without
outside nerve stimulation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart
REF: p. 649
26. The cardiac plexus contains both parasympathetic fibers and sympathetic fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart
REF: p. 649
27. When fibers of the vagus nerve stimulate the heart, the heart rate increases. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 649
TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart
28. The left pump helps to move blood through the systemic circulation.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Heart as a Pump
REF: p. 649
29. The terms atria and auricle mean the same thing. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chambers of the Heart
REF: p. 643
30. Blood passing through a semilunar valve will enter an artery. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 645
TOP: Valves of the Heart
31. Blood passing through a semilunar valve will enter a heart chamber. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 645
TOP: Valves of the Heart
32. Chordae tendineae are cordlike structures that connect semilunar valves to papillary muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Valves of the Heart
REF: p. 644
33. One function of the skeleton of the heart is to assist in the conduction of an impulse from the
atria to the ventricles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeleton of the Heart
REF: p. 646
34. Atria receive blood from veins, and ventricles pump blood into arteries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chambers of the Heart
REF: p. 643
35. The right and left coronary arteries are about equally dominant in hearts: 50% of hearts are
right artery dominant and 50% of hearts are left artery dominant. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary Arteries
REF: p. 648
36. A drop in blood oxygen levels will stimulate an increase in the heart rate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart
REF: p. 649
37. As you might expect, most of the nerves leading to the heart end in the sinoatrial node. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart
REF: p. 649
38. The epicardium and the visceral layer of the serous pericardium are the same structure. ANS: T TOP: Epicardium
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 642
39. Because the muscle tissue of the heart forms a syncytium, electrical conduction through the
heart is more efficient. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Myocardium
REF: p. 643
40. To support maximum muscle contraction of the heart muscle, the blood flow to the heart is
highest during the strongest contractions. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 647
TOP: Coronary Arteries
41. Endothelial cells are the only structures found in all parts of the circulatory system. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 643
TOP: Endocardium
42. The cardiovascular system is sometimes called the circulatory system. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 637
43. The cardiovascular system consists of the heart and blood vessels. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 637
44. The base of the heart lies on the diaphragm. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Heart
REF: p. 638
45. The lower part of the heart forms a blunt point known as the base. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Heart
REF: p. 638
46. The skeleton of the heart is made of cartilage rather than bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeleton of the Heart
REF: p. 646
47. The trabeculae carneae are structures of the heart that help add force to the contraction of the
heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocardium
REF: p. 643
48. Ventricles are the pumping chambers of the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chambers of the Heart
REF: p. 643
49. The right ventricle has the thickest wall of any of the heart chambers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chambers of the Heart
REF: p. 643
50. Blood passing through the mitral valve has just left the right atrium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart
REF: p. 647
51. Blood passing through the aortic semilunar valves has just left the left ventricle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart
REF: p. 647
52. Blood leaving the right ventricle passes through the right atrioventricular valve. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart
REF: p. 647
53. Blood in the left atria has just come from the lungs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart
REF: p. 647
54. Blood in both atria must pass through a semilunar valve to get to the next structure in the
heart. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart
REF: p. 647
55. The most abundant blood supply in the heart goes to the left ventricle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary Arteries
REF: p. 648
56. Most of the blood vessels of the heart return to the heart via the coronary sinus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Veins
REF: p. 649
57. Premature contractions, or extra systoles, often occur with lack of sleep, too much caffeine or
nicotine, alcoholism, or heart damage. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Dysrhythmia
REF: p. 659
58. Diastasis is associated with the rapid filling of the ventricles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Passive Ventricular Filling
REF: p. 655
59. Valvular insufficiency can cause heart murmurs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart Sounds
REF: p. 656
60. Residual volume refers to the blood that remains in the ventricle after the ejection period. ANS: T TOP: Ejection
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 655
61. A heart murmur is one type of abnormal sound. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart Sounds
REF: p. 656
62. Tachycardia is normal during sleep and in conditioned athletes while they are awake (but at
rest). ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Dysrhythmia
REF: p. 659
63. The conduction system of the heart is composed of specialized motor neurons that are
embedded in the heart muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
64. The normal rhythm of the heart is set by the ectopic pacemaker. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
65. A larger than normal U wave could indicate a high level of potassium in the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
REF: p. 654
66. Because the ECG is not a direct measure of contraction, an ECG deflection could be recorded
without the actual contraction of the heart muscle occurring. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 653
TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
67. In electrocardiography, only the contraction of the cardiac muscle causes a deflection. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
REF: p. 653
68. A U wave on an ECG is an indication of damage to ventricular myocardial cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
REF: p. 653
69. The P wave is named as such because it measures a positive deflection in the ECG. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
REF: p. 653
70. In an ECG both the deflections themselves and the interval between deflections can provide
information about the electrical conduction through the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
REF: p. 653
71. During the normal cardiac cycle, there is never a time when both the atria and ventricles are
relaxed. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Cycle
REF: p. 654
72. Heart sounds are made by the closing of AV and semilunar valves. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 656
TOP: Heart Sounds
73. The AV node of the heart is known as the pacemaker. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
74. As the action potential enters the AV node by way of the internodal bundles, the speed of the
conduction increases to stimulate ventricular contraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
75. During a normal ECG, the tracing should never go below the zero mark of the graph. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 651
TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
76. The last wave in an ECG terminates the cardiac cycle; because of this, it is called the T wave. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
REF: p. 653
77. The repolarization of the atrium cannot be seen on the ECG because the size of the QRS
complex blocks it out. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
REF: p. 653
78. During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation, both the semilunar valves and the AV valves are
closed. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Isovolumetric Ventricular Relaxation
REF: p. 655
79. Passive ventricular filling occurs immediately after isovolumetric ventricular contraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Cycle
REF: p. 655
80. The Purkinje fibers actually stimulate the ventricles to contract. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
81. The interaterial bundles divide into right and left bundle branches. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
82. The sinoatrial node is in the right atrium, where the superior vena cava attaches. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
83. In both the atria and ventricles, the first cells to depolarize are also the first cells to repolarize. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
REF: p. 653
84. The contraction of the heart is referred to as systole. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Cycle
REF: p. 654
85. The cardiac cycle is one complete heartbeat. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Cycle
REF: p. 654
86. During atrial systole the AV valves are closed. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Cycle
REF: p. 655
87. During isovolumetric ventricular contraction, the semilunar valves are closed but the AV
valves are open. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Cycle
REF: p. 655
88. Diastasis is a term used to describe a longer period of slow ventricular filling as ventricular
diastole ends. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Cycle
REF: p. 655
89. Pacemaker cells in the heart possess intrinsic rhythm. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
90. Under resting conditions, the SA node fires at an intrinsic rhythmical rate of 80 to 85 beats per
minute. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
91. The terms AV bundles and Purkinje fibers refer to the same structures. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
92. The terms subendocardial fibers and Purkinje fibers refer to the same structures. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
93. The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle refers to diastole. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Cycle
REF: p. 654
94. Tachycardia refers to a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Dysrhythmia
REF: p. 659
95. The term ischemia refers to abnormal heart sounds. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart Sounds
REF: p. 657
96. Congestive heart failure causes fluid to accumulate in the lung due to the inability of the right
side of the heart to generate a forceful contraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart Failure
REF: p. 659-660
MATCHING
Match each term related to heart circulation with its corresponding location or description. a. Right ventricle g. Aortic semilunar valve b. Right atrium h. Pulmonary semilunar valve c. Left atrium i. Superior vena cava d. Left ventricle j. Aorta e. Right atrioventricular valve k. Pulmonary vein
f. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Left atrioventricular valve
l.
Pulmonary artery
Heart chamber that receives blood from the pulmonary vein Heart chamber that pushes blood through the right atrioventricular valve when it contracts Valve through which the left ventricle pumps blood Blood vessel that empties into the right atrium Blood vessel into which the right ventricle pumps blood through a semilunar valve Blood vessel that carries blood from the lungs to the heart Blood vessel into which the left ventricle pumps blood through a semilunar valve Valve that opens into the left ventricle Valve through which the right ventricle pumps blood Heart chamber that pumps blood through the aortic semilunar valve Valve that opens into the right ventricle Heart chamber that receives blood that has just passed through the right atrioventricular valve
1. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 2. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 3. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 4. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 5. ANS: L DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 6. ANS: K DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 7. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 8. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 9. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 10. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 11. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 12. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart
REF: p. 647 REF: p. 647 REF: p. 647 REF: p. 647 REF: p. 647 REF: p. 647 REF: p. 647 REF: p. 647 REF: p. 647 REF: p. 647 REF: p. 647 REF: p. 647
Match each part of the conduction system of the heart to the description of its location or function. a. Interatrial bundles d. Purkinje fibers b. Atrioventricular node e. Bundles of His c. Sinoatrial node f. Internodal bundles 13. 14. 15. 16.
Structure that is located below the atrial epicardium at its junction with the superior vena cava Branches that are at the terminal ends of the bundles of His Bundle that facilitates the rapid conduction to the left atrium Structure through which conduction moves most slowly
17. Bundles that carry impulses to the atrioventricular node 18. Bundles that come from the atrioventricular node 13. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 14. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 15. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 16. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 17. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 18. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650 REF: p. 650 REF: p. 650 REF: p. 650 REF: p. 650 REF: p. 650
Match each ECG wave or complex with the corresponding action in the cardiac cycle. a. QRS complex c. T wave b. P wave d. U wave 19. 20. 21. 22.
Late repolarization of the Purkinje fibers, larger with hypokalemia Ventricular depolarization Atrial depolarization Ventricular repolarization
19. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 20. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 21. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 22. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
REF: p. 653 REF: p. 653 REF: p. 653 REF: p. 653
OTHER 1. Describe the anatomic positioning of the heart. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 638
TOP: Location of the Heart
2. Which chamber of the heart normally has the thickest wall? Why is this thick wall helpful in
accomplishing its function? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 642-643
TOP: Structure of the Heart
3. Select one heart valve. Give its name, location, and function. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 643-644
TOP: Structure of the Heart
4. Trace a drop of blood from the right atrium to the aorta. List the specific chambers, valves,
blood vessels, and lungs in proper sequence. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 646-647
TOP: Systemic Circulation
5. Define cardiac tamponade and explain how it can affect the heart. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 656
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
6. Name, describe, and give the function of the heart coverings. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 642
TOP: Coverings of the Heart
7. Name and describe the three layers of the heart wall. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 642-643
TOP: Structure of the Heart Wall
8. What is the skeleton of the heart? What is its function and what is its impact on the
conduction of an electrical impulse through the heart? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 646
TOP: Skeleton of the Heart
9. Describe the passage of a normal impulse through the conduction systems of the heart. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
10. What part of the heart should serve as the normal pacemaker? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
REF: p. 650
11. As compared with the body’s own heart pacemaker, what is the major disadvantage of a
mechanical pacemaker? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Artificial Cardiac Pacemakers
REF: p. 650
12. Draw a normal ECG. Identify the physiological activity within the heart during each ECG
deflection and interval. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 651-652
TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
13. Explain why a transplanted heart would beat even if the nerves to the heart were not
reconnected. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 649-650
TOP: Conduction System of the Heart
14. Explain what occurs during atrial systole, isovolumetric ventricular contraction, and
isovolumetric ventricular relaxation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 654-655
TOP: Cardiac Cycle
ESSAY 1. Martha, a 63-year-old heavyset woman, was brought to the emergency room with chest pain
and severe anxiety. After running some blood work, medical personnel noted that her cardiac enzyme levels were elevated. Why would this test be useful in diagnosing Martha’s condition, and what is her condition? ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 643
TOP: Cardiac Marker Studies
Chapter 29: Blood Vessels Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following vessels do not have the ability to constrict and dilate? a. Arterioles b. Arteries c. Capillaries d. Veins ANS: C
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 669
TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels
2. Both the tunica media and the tunica adventitia are absent in: a. arteries. b. veins. c. capillaries. d. both B and C. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels
REF: p. 670
3. The tissue layers of blood vessels from exterior to interior are: a. tunica media, tunica intima, and tunica adventitia. b. tunica adventitia, tunica media, and tunica intima. c. tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica adventitia. d. tunica media, tunica adventitia, and tunica intima. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels
REF: p. 670
4. Smooth muscle in blood vessels is located in the tunica: a. adventitia. b. intima. c. media. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels
REF: p. 670
5. Which of the following act as blood reservoirs? a. Arteries b. Arterioles c. Capillaries d. Veins ANS: D TOP: Veins
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 669
6. The structural components of the circulatory system include the: a. heart and lungs.
b. heart and lymph nodes. c. heart and blood vessels. d. heart, vessels, and lymph nodes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the Cardiovascular System Introduction
REF: p. 666
7. In fetal circulation, the ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale: a. take blood from the fetus to the placenta. b. connect the pulmonary artery with the aorta. c. bypass the lungs. d. shunt blood from the right atrium into the left atrium. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Fetal Circulation
REF: p. 688
8. After birth the umbilical vessels remaining in the infant’s body: a. become fibrous cords that remain throughout life. b. are shed in about 6 weeks. c. shrink to eventually become capillaries. d. remain as possible shunts for use later in life. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Fetal Circulation
REF: p. 691
9. The order of blood flow through the vessels is: a. arterioles, venules, capillaries, arteries, and veins. b. arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. c. veins, venules, capillaries, arterioles, and arteries. d. arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, and venules. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Major Blood Vessels
REF: p. 666
10. Which of the following vessels carries blood from the lungs to the heart? a. Aorta b. Pulmonary artery c. Pulmonary vein d. Inferior vena cava ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Major Blood Vessels
REF: p. 669
11. All arteries of the systemic circulation branch from the: a. superior vena cava. b. pulmonary artery. c. innominate artery. d. aorta. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Circulation
REF: p. 670
12. As the external iliac artery enters the thigh, its name changes to the _____ artery.
a. b. c. d.
subclavian brachial femoral popliteal
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Arteries
REF: p. 688
13. A vein that returns blood from the head is the: a. carotid. b. innominate. c. azygos. d. jugular. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Veins
REF: p. 683
14. Which of the following is a superficial vein in the lower arm? a. Great saphenous b. Cephalic c. Brachial d. Axillary ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Veins
REF: p. 685
15. Blood from the stomach and intestines goes to the liver through the: a. hepatic portal vein. b. hepatic vein. c. renal vein. d. inferior vena cava. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Veins
REF: p. 685
16. Regarding fetal circulation, the small vessel connecting the pulmonary artery with the
descending thoracic aorta is called the: a. ductus arteriosus. b. foramen ovale. c. ductus venosus. d. umbilical artery. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Fetal Circulation
REF: p. 689
17. In fetal circulation, the ductus venosus: a. takes blood from the fetus to the placenta. b. connects the pulmonary artery with the aorta. c. bypasses the liver. d. shunts blood from the right atrium into the left atrium. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Fetal Circulation
REF: p. 688
18. Atherosclerosis is characterized by the deposition of lipids in the tunica: a. intima. b. adventitia. c. media. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 692
19. Which of the following is a stretching of the artery walls? a. Varicose veins b. Anastomosis c. Phlebitis d. Aneurysm ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 692
20. The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the: a. lungs. b. left atrium. c. right atrium. d. None of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulatory Routes
REF: p. 671
21. Which statement is true of arteries? a. They always carry oxygenated blood. b. They always carry blood away from the heart. c. They are the capacitance vessels of the body. d. Both A and B are true of arteries. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Blood Vessels
REF: p. 666
22. Which statement is true of veins? a. They always carry nonoxygenated blood. b. They can be either muscular or elastic. c. They always carry blood back to the heart. d. All of the above are true of veins. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Blood Vessels
REF: p. 667
23. The most important blood vessels in the cardiovascular system are the: a. capillaries. b. arteries. c. veins. d. arterioles. ANS: A
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 666
TOP: Capillaries 24. The blood vessel connecting the two capillary beds in the hepatic portal system is called a(n): a. artery, because it is carrying blood to a capillary bed. b. arteriole, because it has a precapillary sphincter muscle. c. vein, because it is draining blood from a capillary bed. d. portal vessel, because it is not easily classified as an artery or vein. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 681
TOP: Systemic Veins
25. Which of these blood vessels are called resistance vessels? a. Venules b. Muscular arteries c. Arterioles d. Metarterioles ANS: C TOP: Arteries
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 666
26. Which of these blood vessels contain precapillary sphincters? a. Venules b. Muscular arteries c. Arterioles d. Metarterioles ANS: D TOP: Arteries
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 666
27. After birth the ductus venosus closes and: a. allows blood to flow to the lungs. b. allows blood to flow to the liver. c. prevents blood from moving from the right to the left atrium. d. stops blood flow to the placenta. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 691
TOP: Fetal Circulation
28. Christopher, a 2-month-old infant, has a bluish tinge to his skin. Upon listening to the infant’s
chest, the physician became concerned about a leakage of blood between the right and left atria. What might have caused this problem and what is the treatment? a. The ductus venosus may not have closed at birth, and immediate surgical repair may be needed. b. The ductus arteriosus may not have closed at birth, and immediate surgical repair may be needed. c. The foramen ovale may not be closed, causing backflow of blood into the lungs. The physician will reexamine the infant frequently because the foramen ovale may take as long as 9 months to heal. d. The foramen ovale may be closed, causing backflow of blood into the lungs. The physician will reexamine the infant frequently because the foramen ovale may take as long as 9 months to open. ANS: C DIF: Application TOP: Changes in Circulation at Birth
REF: p. 691
29. How would relocating a vein for the purpose of bypassing a partial blockage in the coronary
arteries support a better functioning heart? a. It would reduce the infection near the heart. b. It would reduce the size of an enlarged heart by removing venous blood from the damaged area, thus making the heart a better pump. c. It would increase the cardiac contraction ability of the heart muscle by removing venous blood from the damaged area. d. It would construct detours around blocked coronary arteries and return oxygen-rich blood flow to the coronary arteries. ANS: D DIF: Application TOP: General Principles About Arteries
REF: p. 671
TRUE/FALSE 1. The tunica media is also called the tunica adventitia. ANS: F TOP: Outer Layer
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 670
2. Arteries always carry blood away from the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Blood Vessels
REF: p. 666
3. The tunica intima of arteries provides a smooth lining with valves to ensure one-way flow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels
REF: p. 670
4. Veins always carry deoxygenated blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Blood Vessels
REF: p. 667
5. As the external iliac artery enters the thigh, its name changes to the femoral artery. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Arteries
REF: p. 688
6. Precapillary sphincters increase the flow of blood through a tissue when they relax. ANS: T TOP: Arteries
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 666
7. Precapillary sphincters are located in venules. ANS: F TOP: Arteries
DIF: Memorization
8. Pulmonary circulation is blood flow through the liver.
REF: p. 666
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulatory Routes
REF: p. 671
9. Systemic circulation includes blood flow to all parts of the body except the lungs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulatory Routes
REF: p. 670
10. The pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulatory Routes
REF: p. 671
11. The circle of Willis is an example of an anastomosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Arteries
REF: p. 675
12. The ductus arteriosus allows fetal blood to bypass the nonfunctioning fetal liver. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fetal Circulation
REF: p. 688
13. Umbilical arteries carry blood from the placenta to the fetus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fetal Circulation
REF: p. 688
14. There are two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Fetal Circulation
REF: p. 688
15. A stenotic valve is a leaky valve. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 693
16. One function of elastic fibers is to help maintain blood pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Elastic Fibers
REF: p. 669
17. Arteriosclerosis means “chest pain.” ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 692
18. Blood flow from the pulmonary arteries leads to the lungs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulatory Routes
REF: p. 670
19. The descending aorta is composed of the thoracic and abdominal aortas. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Arteries
REF: p. 675
20. Smooth muscle is found in all parts of the vascular system except the capillaries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels
REF: p. 669
21. The tunica media in veins is thinner than the tunica media in arteries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels
REF: p. 669
22. Very large arteries are called sinuses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Blood Vessels
REF: p. 666
23. The blood vessels that supply other blood vessels with blood are called the vasa vasorum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels
REF: p. 670
24. Microcirculation includes only the blood flowing through the capillaries. ANS: F TOP: Capillaries
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 666
25. Capacitance is a characteristic of veins. ANS: T TOP: Veins
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 669
26. All blood returns to the heart by way of either the superior vena cava or the inferior vena cava. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 670
TOP: Circulatory Routes
27. The first part of the aorta is called the aortic arch. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Arteries
REF: p. 675
28. Veins tend to have more anastomoses than do arteries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Veins
REF: p. 681
29. A portal system sends blood through two sets of capillaries. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 671
TOP: Systemic Veins 30. It is easier for material to pass through a continuous capillary than through a fenestrated
capillary. ANS: F TOP: Capillaries
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 666
31. Continuous, fenestrated, and sinusoid are all terms that can describe a type of capillary. ANS: T TOP: Capillaries
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 666
32. The foramen ovale is a hole in the wall between the right and left ventricles in the fetus heart
that facilitates blood being shunted away to avoid the nonfunctioning lungs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fetal Circulation
REF: p. 689
33. Both the ductus venosus and ductus arteriosus are adaptations of the fetal circulatory system
designed to shunt blood away from the nonfunctioning lungs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fetal Circulation
REF: p. 688
34. Arteriovenous shunts can redirect blood through the skin to help regulate heat loss. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulatory Routes
REF: p. 671
35. The aorta is an example of a muscular artery. ANS: F TOP: Arteries
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 666
36. All veins carry blood back to the heart. ANS: T TOP: Veins
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 668
37. Collagen fibers function to keep the lumen of the blood vessel open. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Collagen Fibers MATCHING
Match each artery to its correct anatomical location. a. Axillary b. Carotid c. Coronary
REF: p. 669
d. e. f. g. h. i. j. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Femoral Gastric Hepatic Radial Renal Suprarenal Tibial
Upper leg Lower leg Kidney Liver Heart Forearm Stomach Upper arm Brain Adrenal gland
1. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Systemic Arteries 2. ANS: J DIF: TOP: Systemic Arteries 3. ANS: H DIF: TOP: Systemic Arteries 4. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Systemic Arteries 5. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Systemic Arteries 6. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Systemic Arteries 7. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Systemic Arteries 8. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Systemic Arteries 9. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Systemic Arteries 10. ANS: I DIF: TOP: Systemic Arteries
Memorization
REF: p. 672
Memorization
REF: p. 672
Memorization
REF: p. 672
Memorization
REF: p. 672
Memorization
REF: p. 672
Memorization
REF: p. 672
Memorization
REF: p. 672
Memorization
REF: p. 672
Memorization
REF: p. 672
Memorization
REF: p. 672
Match each term with its corresponding description. a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Pulmonary circulation d. Systemic circulation e. Tunica adventitia f. Tunica intima g. Tunica media h. Veins
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
Blood flow from the heart to the body (not the lungs) and back to the heart Vessels that carry blood away from the heart Vessel in which exchange occurs between the blood and tissue fluid Innermost layer of a blood vessel, consisting of endothelium Middle layer of blood vessel, containing smooth muscle Outer connective tissue layer of a blood vessel Vessels that carry blood toward the heart Blood flow from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart
11. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulatory Routes 12. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Blood Vessels 13. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Capillaries 14. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 15. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 16. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 17. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Blood Vessels 18. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulatory Routes
REF: p. 670 REF: p. 666 REF: p. 666 REF: p. 670 REF: p. 670 REF: p. 670 REF: p. 667 REF: p. 671
SHORT ANSWER 1. What function does the foramen ovale serve in fetal circulation? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 668
TOP: Fetal Circulation
2. Describe the anatomy of the circle of Willis. Why is this an advantageous anatomical
configuration? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 671
TOP: Systemic Arteries
3. Describe the fetal circulation. Also, describe the changes in circulation at birth. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 668
TOP: Fetal Circulation
4. Name and describe the types of arteries from largest to smallest. What is the function of each? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 666
TOP: Arteries
5. Describe the various types of capillaries and the differences in the structure of their walls.
Explain why capillaries are the most important of all the blood vessels. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 666
TOP: Capillaries
6. Describe the structure and function of a vein. Explain the term capacitance vessel. What is a
venous sinus? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 667
TOP: Veins
7. Name and describe the types of cells or fibers that make up the structure of a blood vessel. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 669
TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels
8. Name the three layers of tissue that make up a blood vessel. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 669
TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels
9. Name and explain the two exceptions to the typical “artery-capillary-vein” type of circulation
found in the circulatory system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 670
TOP: Circulatory Routes
ESSAY 1. Christopher, a 2-month-old infant, has a bluish tinge to his skin. After listening to the infant’s
chest, the physician becomes concerned about a leakage of blood between the right and left atria. What might have caused this problem, and what is the treatment?
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 668
TOP: Fetal Circulation
2. Explain the differences between fetal and postnatal circulation. How do these differences
make the circulation of the fetus more efficient? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 668
TOP: Fetal Circulation
3. Explain why the capillaries are the most important blood vessels in the circulatory system.
Explain how their structure assists them in accomplishing their functions. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 666
TOP: Function of the Capillaries
Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following will increase heart rate except: a. sympathetic stimulation. c. a decrease in carotid blood pressure. b. a decrease in aortic blood pressure. d. stimulation of cold receptors in the
skin. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate
REF: p. 705
2. Which of the following is not true of the baroreceptors? a. They are stretch receptors. b. They are sensitive to changes in the oxygen content of the blood. c. They send afferent nerve impulses to the cardiac control centers. d. They are located in the carotid sinus and the aorta. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate
REF: p. 704
3. Which of the following factors increases heart rate? a. Sudden, intense pain of visceral organs such as the intestines and the gallbladder b. Stimulation of skin receptors by cold c. Anxiety and fear d. Grief ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate
REF: p. 705
4. Peripheral resistance is affected primarily by: a. the length of myocardial fibers. b. blood viscosity and the diameter of arterioles. c. the capacity of the blood reservoirs. d. elasticity of the heart. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral Resistance
REF: p. 706
5. Which of the following is not a mechanism that increases blood volume and therefore venous
return of blood to the heart? a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Aldosterone ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume
c. Atrial natriuretic hormone d. Renin-angiotensin mechanism REF: p. 714
6. Which of the following is not a true statement about cardiac output? a. It can be calculated by dividing the stroke volume by the heart rate. b. It is the amount of blood that flows out of a ventricle per unit of time.
c. In can be computed by using Fick’s Formula. d. All of the above are true statements about cardiac output. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 701-702
TOP: Cardiac Output
7. The primary fluid flow principle of circulation is based on all of the following except a fluid: a. flows only when a pressure gradient is absent. b. does not flow when the pressure is the same in all parts of it. c. flows only when its pressure is higher in one area than in another. d. flows always from its higher-pressure area toward its lower-pressure area. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation
REF: pp. 700-701
8. An increase in heart rate tends to increase: a. cardiac output. c. blood pressure. b. arterial blood volume. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Output
REF: pp. 701-702
9. Cardiac output is determined by the: a. return of blood to the heart and the heart rate. b. strength of contraction of the left ventricle. c. stroke volume and heart rate. d. systolic discharge and stroke volume. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Output
REF: p. 702
10. Which of the following statements is true regarding local control of arterioles? a. Local vasodilation is also referred to as active hyperemia. b. Nitric oxide causes vasoconstriction. c. Endothelin causes vasodilation. d. All of the above statements are true regarding local control of arterioles. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 711
TOP: Local Control of Arterioles
11. The Fick formula is used for determining: a. cardiac output. c. mean pressure of the arteries. b. blood vessel resistance. d. cardiac cycle. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Output
REF: p. 702
12. The greatest resistance to blood flow occurs in the: a. arteries. c. venules. b. arterioles. d. capillaries. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral Resistance
REF: p. 706
13. Which of the following events would tend to cause a decrease in blood viscosity? a. An increase in red blood cell count
b. Marked anemia c. An increase in blood protein concentration d. Both A and C ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral Resistance
REF: p. 706
14. A decrease in total plasma volume results from the _____ mechanism. a. atrial natriuretic hormone c. renin-angiotensin b. antidiuretic hormone d. aldosterone ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume
REF: p. 714
15. Minute volume is equal to the: a. central venous pressure divided by the resistance. b. mean arterial pressure divided by the central venous pressure. c. pressure gradient divided by the resistance. d. difference between the mean arterial pressure and the resistance, divided by the
central venous pressure. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Minute Volume of Blood
REF: p. 718
16. Which artery in the arm is used for measuring blood pressure? a. Brachial c. Ulnar b. Radial d. Axillary ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Measuring Blood Pressure
REF: p. 715
17. When you take a blood pressure reading, the first sound that you hear (top reading) is the: a. systolic sound, indicating the relaxation of the ventricles. b. systolic sound, indicating the contraction of the ventricles. c. diastolic reading, indicating the contraction of the atria. d. diastolic sound, indicating the relaxation of the ventricles. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Measuring Blood Pressure
REF: pp. 715-716
18. Which of the following blood vessels has the largest total cross-sectional area? a. Capillary c. Vena cava b. Aorta d. Arteriole ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Velocity of Blood Flow
REF: p. 718
19. The best description of pulse pressure is the: a. pressure of blood against artery walls during ventricular systole. b. pressure of blood against artery walls during ventricular diastole. c. pressure of blood against artery walls during atrial systole. d. difference between the systolic and the diastolic blood pressures. ANS: D
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 716
TOP: Measuring Blood Pressure 20. The pulse in the neck is felt over which artery? a. Temporal c. Esophageal b. Common carotid d. Vertebral ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Where Pulse Can Be Felt
REF: p. 720
21. The pulse in the wrist is felt over which artery? a. Radial c. Ulnar b. Brachial d. Axillary ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Where Pulse Can Be Felt
REF: p. 720
22. Which of the following arteries is not one of the six major pressure points used to stop arterial
bleeding? a. Brachial b. Femoral
c. Subclavian d. Axillary
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Where Pulse Can Be Felt
REF: p. 720
23. Vasomotor control mechanisms influence: a. diameter of capillaries. c. cardiac output. b. stroke volume. d. diameter of arterioles. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism
REF: p. 706
24. A collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of the blood is the definition for: a. baroreceptors. c. minute volume. b. hemodynamics. d. the Fick law. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Hemodynamics
REF: p. 700
25. The blood in the subclavian vein of the chest had a P1 of 15 mm Hg. For the blood to flow
back to the heart, the P2 in the superior vena cava: a. would have to be greater than 25. c. would have to be less than 15. b. would have to be between 15 and 25. d. could be at any value. ANS: C DIF: Application TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation
REF: p. 701
26. Which of the following statements is true? a. Stimulation by the vagus nerve slows the heart rate. b. Stimulation by the cardiac nerve slows the heart rate. c. Parasympathetic stimulation occurs through the cardiac nerve. d. Both B and C are true. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate
REF: pp. 703-704
27. Peripheral resistance to blood flow comes about because of: a. friction between the blood cells and vessel walls. b. an increase in “arteriole runoff.” c. constriction of the veins at the end of the capillary bed. d. both A and C. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral Resistance
REF: p. 706
28. Which of the following is not part of the vasomotor control mechanism? a. The vasoconstrictor center in the medulla b. Sympathetic stimulation of smooth muscles surrounding the resistance vessels c. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart to increase cardiac output d. All of the above are part of the vasomotor control mechanism. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism
REF: p. 706
29. Blood in the veins of which organ is not considered part of the “blood reservoir” system? a. Skin c. Spleen b. Skeletal muscle d. Liver ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism
REF: p. 706
30. The chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies are particularly sensitive to: a. hypercapnia. b. hypoxia. c. a decrease in blood pH. d. an increase in the hydrogen ion concentration of the blood. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism
REF: p. 708
31. The effect of what substance is to increase the total blood volume? a. ADH c. Aldosterone b. ANH d. Both A and C ANS: D DIF: Application TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume
REF: pp. 713-714
32. Which of the following statements is not true of the cardiovascular system? a. For the body to survive, all parts of the body must be equally supplied with blood. b. The cardiovascular system contains much less blood than the system could hold. c. Blood must be directed to the cells that need it most. d. Blood must move constantly through the cardiovascular system. ANS: A TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 699-700
33. Which of the following tasks must the circulation control mechanism accomplish? a. Maintain circulation.
b. Vary the volume and distribution of the blood circulated. c. Make sure that all cells receive the same amount of blood to maintain nutrient and
oxygen levels. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Hemodynamics 34. The Latin word lamina means: a. pump b. heart
REF: p. 700
c. layer d. flow
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Focus on Turbulent Blood Flow
REF: p. 716
35. Which of the following is not a means by which venous blood is returned to the heart? a. The semilunar valves in the vein b. Respiration, which reduces pressure in the thorax and increases pressure in the
abdomen c. The contraction of skeletal muscles pushing blood through the veins d. All the above are means by which venous blood returns to the heart. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Venous Pumps
REF: pp. 711-712
36. Which of the following factors would cause fluid to leave the blood vessel at the arterial end
of the capillary? a. High hydrostatic pressure of the blood b. High hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid c. High colloid pressure of the plasma proteins d. All of the above ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 713
TOP: Total Blood Volume
37. Which of the following factors would cause fluid to be reabsorbed into the blood vessel at the
venous end of the capillary? a. High hydrostatic pressure of the blood b. High colloid pressure of the plasma proteins c. Hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Blood Volume
REF: p. 713
38. Circulatory shock caused by an acute allergic reaction is called _____ shock. a. cardiogenic c. anaphylactic b. hypovolemic d. septic ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulatory Shock
REF: p. 721
39. Circulatory shock caused by the effects of infectious agents is called _____ shock. a. cardiogenic c. anaphylactic
b. hypovolemic
d. septic
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulatory Shock
REF: p. 721
40. Circulatory shock caused by a drop in the amount of blood in the circulatory system is called
_____ shock. a. cardiogenic b. hypovolemic
c. anaphylactic d. septic
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulatory Shock
REF: p. 721
41. When trying to stop arterial bleeding by applying pressure, why is it necessary to apply
pressure between the bleeding part and the heart? a. Because blood flows from the heart through the arteries to the injured part, pressure placed between the heart and the bleeding point cuts off the source of blood flow to that point. b. Because blood pressure is greater in the arteries coming from the heart, pressure placed between the heart and bleeding point reduces pressure, thus cutting off the source of blood flow to that point. c. Because venous blood pressure changes by alternate contraction and relaxation of the atria, pressure placed between the heart and bleeding point cuts off the source of venous blood flow to that point. d. Because arterial blood pressure changes by alternate contraction and relaxation of the atria, pressure placed between the heart and bleeding point cuts off the source of arterial blood flow to that point. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 720
TOP: Where Pulse Can Be Felt
TRUE/FALSE 1. In order for all the cells of the body to survive, blood supplies to all cells must be equal. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Hemodynamics
REF: p. 700
2. Two important baroreceptors are located in the aorta and the carotid artery. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate
REF: p. 704
3. Emotional stress can influence heart rate by creating impulses that go from the cerebrum to
the cardiac centers via the hypothalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate
REF: p. 705
4. An increase in blood temperature tends to slow down heart rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate
REF: p. 705
5. Grief tends to make the heart beat faster. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate
REF: p. 705
6. Pulse is defined as the alternate expansion and recoil of an artery. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulse Mechanism
REF: p. 718
7. A fluid flows because a pressure gradient exists between different parts of its volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation
REF: p. 700
8. If the heart rate drops and the stroke volume increases, cardiac output will always show a
decrease. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Output
REF: pp. 702-703
9. Cardiac output and peripheral resistance are directly proportional to arterial blood volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: How Resistance Influences Blood Pressure
REF: p. 701
10. Because of the high concentration of protein in plasma, a decrease in the red blood cell count
will cause an increase in blood viscosity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral Resistance
REF: p. 706
11. The blood-pumping action of respirations and skeletal muscle contractions are both important
factors promoting the return of venous blood to the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Venous Pumps
REF: p. 711
12. Operation of the Starling law ensures that when the amount of blood returned to the heart is
increased, stroke volume automatically increases to pump it out. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Stroke Volume
REF: p. 703
13. The vasomotor control mechanism regulates changes in the diameter of arteries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism
REF: p. 706
14. Hypoxic conditions act as the major stimulant to chemoreceptors.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism
REF: p. 708
15. Diastolic pressure is the force of blood pushing against artery walls when the ventricles are
contracting. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Arterial Blood Pressure
REF: p. 702
16. The atrial natriuretic hormone mechanism promotes water retention, thus increasing total
plasma volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume
REF: p. 714
17. The volume of blood circulated per minute is equal to the difference between the mean arterial
pressure and the central venous pressure, divided by the resistance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Minute Volume of Blood
REF: p. 718
18. The pulse wave is associated with left ventricular diastole. ANS: F TOP: Pulse Wave
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 719
19. The velocity of blood flow slows in the capillaries in association with an increase in total
cross-sectional area. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Velocity of Blood Flow
REF: p. 718
20. The greater the cross-sectional area of a vessel, the greater the speed of the blood flow. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Velocity of Blood Flow
REF: p. 718
21. Venous pulse is just as significant clinically as arterial pulse. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Venous Pulse
REF: p. 720
22. To stop arterial bleeding, pressure must be applied between the damaged artery and the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Where Pulse Can Be Felt
REF: p. 720
23. The pressure gradient in the ventricles exceeds the pressure in the pulmonary artery and aorta. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Primary Principles of Circulation
REF: p. 701
24. Pumping load can also be referred to as preload ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Output
REF: p. 703
25. Ejection fraction has no relation to the stroke volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Output
REF: p. 703
26. Orthostasis means “standing upright.” ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Venous Return to the Heart
REF: p. 711
27. The popliteal pulse point is found on the anterior surface of the elbow. ANS: F TOP: Pulse
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 720
28. At rest most of the body’s blood supply resides in the pulmonary loop. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral Resistance
REF: p. 706
29. Cardiac output is determined by multiplying stroke volume and heart rate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Output
REF: p. 702
30. The resting cardiac output from the left ventricle is about 5 liters. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Output
REF: p. 701
31. Blood viscosity is highly variable in healthy individuals under resting conditions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral Resistance
REF: p. 706
32. Exercise has little effect on cardiac output. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Cardiovascular System and Exercise
REF: p. 709
33. The stress-relaxation effect occurs in all blood vessels but is most important in the arteries. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Venous Return to Heart
REF: p. 711
34. Velocity of blood is relatively constant as blood flows from the aorta toward the capillaries. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 718
TOP: Velocity of Blood Flow 35. In a healthy adult, blood pressure at the union of the vena cavae and right atrium is about 80
mm Hg. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Measuring Blood Pressure
REF: p. 715
36. Parasympathetic control of the heart depends on the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve
IX). ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate
REF: pp. 703-704
37. The difference between systolic and diastolic pressures is termed pulse pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Measuring Blood Pressure
REF: p. 716
38. The capillaries perform the transport function of the circulatory system. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 699
39. Blood vessels can hold much more blood than is present in the body. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 699-700
40. Stroke volume and systolic discharge mean the same thing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Output
REF: p. 702
41. If the stroke volume remains constant, parasympathetic stimulation of the heart will cause an
increase in cardiac output. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 702, 704 TOP: Cardiac Output, Factors That Affect Heart Rate 42. The Fick law of the heart says that, within limits, the longer the heart fibers are at the
beginning of a contraction, the stronger the contraction will be. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Stroke Volume
REF: p. 703
43. Anger and fear have opposite effects on the heart rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate
REF: p. 705
44. Because of their small diameter, capillaries account for almost all the resistance to blood flow
in the circulatory system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral Resistance
REF: p. 706
45. Blood viscosity is caused by both red blood cells and the protein concentration of the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral Resistance
REF: p. 706
46. An increase in arterial blood pressure causes an increase in parasympathetic impulses to the
heart and blood vessels. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism
REF: p. 708
47. As arterial blood pressure decreases, the number of impulses from the carotid baroreceptors to
the medulla decreases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism
REF: p. 708
48. Local vasodilation or reactive hyperemia can be caused by the release of endothelin by the
blood vessels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Local Control of Arterioles
REF: p. 711
49. The “pump” of the “respiratory pump” that moves blood to the central veins is the diaphragm. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 711
TOP: Venous Pumps
50. Venous valves would not be necessary in the jugular veins of the neck. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 712
TOP: Venous Pumps
51. Osmotic pressure tends to move plasma out of the capillary and into the tissues. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Capillary Exchange and Total Blood Volume
REF: p. 713
52. Hydrostatic pressure tends to decrease from the arterial end of the capillary to the venous end
of the capillary. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Capillary Exchange and Total Blood Volume
REF: p. 713
53. The first Korotkoff sound indicates the diastolic blood pressure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Arterial Blood Pressure
REF: p. 715
54. Bleeding that occurs at a relatively slow, steady rate would indicate that the damaged blood
vessel is most likely a vein. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Pressure and Bleeding
REF: p. 717
55. Because the circulatory system is a closed system filled with fluid, the pulse wave is felt at the
same time in any part of the body. ANS: F TOP: Pulse Wave
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 719
56. As the elasticity of the artery wall decreases, the magnitude of the pulse wave increases. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 719
TOP: Pulse Wave
57. If a pulse were taken at the popliteal and dorsalis pedis arteries at the same time, it would be
felt at the popliteal artery first. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 719-720 TOP: Pulse Wave, Where Pulse Can Be Felt 58. The arterial pulse is caused by the ventricles of the heart; the venous pulse is caused by the
atria of the heart. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 719-720
TOP: Pulse Wave, Venous Pulse
59. Hemodynamics is the term used to describe a collection of mechanisms that influence the
active and changing circulation of the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Hemodynamics
REF: p. 700
60. By the time the blood reaches the venous end of the capillaries, the pressure on the blood has
reached 0 mm Hg. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation
REF: p. 701
61. SV (stroke volume) HR (heart rate) = CO (cardiac output). ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac Output
REF: p. 702
62. Based on the Starling law of the heart, the greater the venous return, the stronger the heart
contraction. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 703 TOP: Factors That Affect Stroke Volume
63. When the amount of blood reaching the medulla drops, the medulla stimulates vasodilation to
increase the flow of blood to the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Medullary Ischemic Reflex
REF: p. 708
64. Blood osmotic pressure and blood hydrostatic pressure are opposing forces in terms of
moving fluid into and out of the circulatory system. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 713
TOP: Total Blood Volume
65. The drop in blood pressure is greater between the aorta and capillary bed than it is between
the capillaries and the venae cavae. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Primary Principles of Circulation
REF: p. 701
66. Deep, rapid breathing will increase the return of blood to the heart. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 712
TOP: Venous Pumps
67. If fluid were collecting at the venous end of a capillary, it could be caused by either a drop in
hydrostatic pressure or an increase in osmotic pressure. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 713 TOP: Capillary Exchange and Total Blood Volume 68. In order for Korotkoff sounds to be heard, the cuff pressure must stay above systolic pressure. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 715
TOP: Measuring Blood Pressure
69. If resistance in the blood vessels remains constant, the minute volume of blood is directly
related to the difference between arterial and venous pressure. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 718
TOP: Minute Volume of Blood
70. An increase in ADH in the blood would have a tendency to increase total blood volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume
REF: pp. 713-714
71. ANH and ADH work synergistically to increase total blood volume. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume
REF: p. 714
72. ADH is short for antidiuretic hormone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Venous Return to the Heart
REF: p. 713
73. The right atrium would have the lowest blood pressure in the systemic circulatory system.
ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation
REF: p. 701
74. Arterial blood pressure is inversely related to blood volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Arterial Blood Pressure
REF: p. 701
75. The cardiac output of the left ventricle is greater than the cardiac output of the right ventricle. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 701-702
TOP: Cardiac Output
76. In general, as stroke volume goes up, ejection fraction goes up. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Stroke Volume
REF: p. 703
77. In a typical healthy heart, ejection fraction is between 80% and 85%. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Stroke Volume
REF: p. 703
78. Acetylcholine can increase the strength of contractions and therefore increase ejection
fraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Stroke Volume
REF: p. 703
79. An increase in aldosterone would cause an increase in blood volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume
REF: pp. 713-714
OTHER 1. Explain the primary principle of circulation as related to Newton’s first and second laws of
motion. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 700-701
TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation
2. What are two functions that circulation control mechanisms must accomplish? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 700
3. Explain how the Starling law relates to cardiac output.
TOP: Hemodynamics
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 703
TOP: Cardiac Output
4. List two factors that affect peripheral resistance. Explain how these factors influence arterial
blood pressure. In normal blood flow, where is the major peripheral resistance encountered? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 706
TOP: Peripheral Resistance
5. List two major factors that promote the return of venous blood to the heart. Explain how each
facilitates venous return. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 711
TOP: Venous Return to Heart
6. Explain how the forces of osmotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure work to maintain a
balance of fluid moving into and out of the capillary. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 713
TOP: Capillary Exchange and Total Blood Volume
7. Explain how a drop in blood protein can cause edema (the collection of fluid) in the tissues. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 706
TOP: Total Blood Volume
8. Name and explain the reflexes that affect heart rate. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate
REF: pp. 704-706
9. Name and explain the vasomotor reflexes. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism
REF: pp. 706, 708
10. Explain the role of the lymphatic system in maintaining blood volume. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 713 TOP: Capillary Exchange and Total Blood Volume 11. Name and explain the relationship among the variables that impact the minute volume of
blood. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 717-718
TOP: Minute Volume of Blood
12. Name and give the location of five places in the body where a pulse can be felt. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 719-720
TOP: Where Pulse Can Be Felt
ESSAY 1. Nicole records her resting heart rate at sea level. She then climbs a mountain. After reaching
18,000 feet, she stops and records her resting heart rate again. Predict what change, if any, would be observed, and then explain the mechanisms involved. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 704
TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate
Chapter 31: Lymphatic System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The main difference between the composition of lymph and interstitial fluid and the
composition of plasma is the _____ percentage of _____ in lymph and interstitial fluid. a. lower; proteins b. higher; proteins c. lower; fats d. higher; fats ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid
REF: p. 730
2. Which of the following is a true statement? a. The wall of the lymphatic capillary consists of a multiple layer of flattened
endothelial cells. b. Lymphatic and blood capillary networks are dependent on each other. c. Lymph from the entire body, except the upper right quadrant, drains eventually
into the thoracic duct. d. The thoracic duct is approximately the same size as the large veins. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
3. Lymph capillaries called lacteals are located in the: a. spleen. b. liver. c. thymus. d. small intestine. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 732
4. Lymphatics resemble veins except that lymphatics: a. have thinner walls. b. contain more valves. c. contain lymph nodes located at certain intervals along their course. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
5. All of the following are functions of the lymphatic system except: a. transporting interstitial fluid back to the bloodstream. b. providing immunological defenses. c. transporting absorbed fats from the intestine to the blood. d. filtering metabolic wastes. ANS: D
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 731-732
TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels 6. Which of the following is not a lymph organ? a. Thymus b. Spleen c. Pancreas d. Tonsils ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
REF: p. 729
7. The thymus undergoes involution during: a. early childhood. b. puberty. c. old age. d. fetal development. ANS: C TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
8. Lymph ducts empty into the circulatory system, draining into the: a. jugular vein. b. subclavian veins. c. superior vena cava. d. inferior vena cava. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
9. The percentage of the total proteins that leak out of the capillaries into the tissue fluid on a
daily basis is: a. 40%. b. 50%. c. 60%. d. 70%. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of Lymph
REF: p. 732
10. The lymph pressure gradient is established by: a. breathing movements. b. skeletal muscle contractions. c. parasympathetic stimulation. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of Lymph 11. If lymphatic return is blocked: a. blood protein concentration soon falls below normal. b. blood osmotic pressure soon falls below normal. c. fluid imbalance and death will result. d. all of the above will occur.
REF: p. 733
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 732
12. Lymph flows through the thoracic duct and reenters the general circulation at the rate of about
_____ liter(s) per day. a. 1 b. 0.5 c. 3 d. 5 ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Pump
REF: p. 733
13. Lymph circulation is maintained by all of the following except: a. the heart. b. inspiration. c. skeletal muscle contractions. d. valves. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of Lymph
REF: p. 733
14. The size of lymph nodes varies from _____ mm to more than _____ mm in diameter. a. 1; 20 b. 10; 35 c. 20; 45 d. 30; 65 ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
15. Which of the following is a lymphokinetic factor? a. Arterial pulsations b. Postural changes c. Passive compression of the body soft tissues d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Pump
REF: p. 733
16. Which of the following is a function of lymph nodes? a. Hematopoiesis b. Filtration c. Phagocytosis d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Lymph Nodes
REF: pp. 735, 737
17. The lymph nodes located just above the bend of the elbow are called the _____ lymph nodes. a. inguinal b. axillary
c. superficial cervical d. supratrochlear ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 735
18. The lymph nodes located in the groin are called the: a. inguinal lymph nodes. b. axillary lymph nodes. c. submaxillary group. d. submental group. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 735
19. An infection in the thumb may result in enlargement of the _____ nodes. a. submental b. inguinal c. superficial cervical d. superficial cubital ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 735
20. The lymph nodes located in the neck along the sternocleidomastoid muscle are called the: a. submental and submaxillary groups. b. superficial cervical lymph nodes. c. supratrochlear lymph nodes. d. superficial cubital lymph nodes. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 735
21. The cluster of lymph nodes found in the underarm and upper chest regions is referred to as
_____ nodes. a. superficial cervical b. inguinal c. axillary d. superficial cubital ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 735
22. A type of blood cell produced by lymph nodes is called a(n): a. eosinophil. b. erythrocyte. c. neutrophil. d. monocyte. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 737
23. The breast—the mammary gland and surrounding tissue—is drained by the:
a. lymphatics that originate in and drain the skin over the breast with the exception of
the areola and nipple. b. lymphatics that originate in and drain the substance of the breast itself, as well as
the skin of the areola and nipple. c. inguinal lymph nodes. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Drainage of the Breast
REF: p. 738
24. _____ of the lymph from the breast enters the lymph nodes of the axillary region. a. Less than 50% b. Less than 25% c. More than 85% d. More than 95% ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes Associated with the Breast
REF: p. 739
25. The cutaneous lymphatic plexus drains lymph from the: a. forearm. b. facial areas. c. breast. d. leg. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Drainage of the Breast
REF: p. 738
26. In advanced old age, the thymus may be largely replaced by: a. fat. b. protein. c. scar tissue. d. cartilage. ANS: A TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
27. The thymus is located in the: a. right hypochondriac region. b. left hypochondriac region. c. mediastinum. d. neck. ANS: C TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
28. The size of the thymus is the largest at: a. birth. b. 2 years of age. c. puberty. d. approximately 25 years of age. ANS: C
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
TOP: Thymus 29. The tonsils located near the posterior opening of the nasal cavity are called the _____ tonsils. a. palatine b. pharyngeal c. lingual d. laryngeal ANS: B TOP: Tonsils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
30. The tonsils located near the base of the tongue are called the _____ tonsils. a. palatine b. pharyngeal c. lingual d. laryngeal ANS: C TOP: Tonsils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
31. Which of the following is not true of the thymus gland? a. Relative size is largest in early childhood. b. It is the primary central organ of the lymphatic system. c. It functions in the immune mechanism. d. It functions mostly in adult life. ANS: D TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 739-740
32. The spleen ____ during infectious diseases and ____ in old age. a. atrophies; hypertrophies b. hypertrophies; atrophies c. secretes hormones; stops functioning d. None of the above is correct. ANS: B TOP: Spleen
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 740
33. The spleen is located in the _____ region. a. right hypochondriac b. left hypochondriac c. epigastric d. left lumbar ANS: B TOP: Spleen
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 740
34. Which of the following is a function of the thymus? a. It serves as the final site of lymphocyte development before birth. b. Soon after birth, it begins to secrete a group of hormones that enable lymphocytes
to develop into mature T cells. c. Soon after birth, it begins to secrete a hormone that actively stimulates the
posterior pituitary to release oxytocin.
d. Both A and B are functions of the thymus. ANS: A TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 740
35. The part of the lymphatic system that secretes a hormone is the: a. spleen. b. thymus. c. lymph nodes. d. palatine tonsils. ANS: B TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 740
36. The pulp of the spleen and its venous sinuses allow it to store up to _____ ml of blood. a. 100 b. 150 c. 250 d. 350 ANS: D TOP: Spleen
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 742
37. Which of the following is not a function of the spleen? a. White blood cell destruction b. Platelet destruction c. Reservoir for blood d. Hematopoiesis ANS: A TOP: Spleen
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 742
38. The vast majority of the body’s lymph is drained by the _____ duct. a. right lymphatic b. left lymphatic c. thoracic d. abdominal ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
39. Adenitis is: a. an infected adenoid. b. an infected lymph node. c. tissue swelling. d. none of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Lymph Nodes 40. The lymph nodes perform which of the following functions? a. Control blood pressure b. Defense
REF: p. 737
c. Hematopoiesis d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes
REF: pp. 735, 737
41. Lymph enters a node via: a. afferent lymph vessels. b. efferent lymph vessels. c. sinuses. d. trabeculae. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
42. The thymus secretes: a. T3. b. T4. c. thymosin. d. both A and C. ANS: C TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 740
43. Relative to the rest of the body, the thymus is largest at _____ years of age. a. 2 b. 10 c. 20 d. 50 ANS: A TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
44. Peyer patches are isolated nodules of lymph tissue in the: a. intestinal wall. b. bronchial tree of the lungs. c. throat. d. bladder and urethra. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
REF: p. 729
45. The high concentration of protein in the thoracic duct results from the protein-rich lymph that
drains from the: a. skeletal muscle groups. b. bronchial tree of the lung. c. liver. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 46. The cisterna chyli:
REF: p. 730
a. b. c. d.
originates in the right lymphatic duct. originates in the thoracic duct. is the storage area for hormones made by the thymus gland. filters the chyle coming from the small intestine.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
47. Lacteals: a. drain into the right lymphatic duct. b. are the lymphatics in the villi of the small intestines. c. are able to absorb fat from the digestive system. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 730
48. Which of the following is not true of lymph nodes? a. They are oval or lima bean shaped. b. They have one afferent vessel. c. They act as a biological filter. d. They are divided by trabeculae. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
49. Which tonsils are known as adenoids when they become swollen? a. Lingual b. Sublingual c. Pharyngeal d. Palatine ANS: C TOP: Tonsils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
50. Hassall corpuscles are part of the: a. thymus. b. spleen. c. tonsils. d. thoracic duct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Thymus
REF: p. 740
51. Which of the following is not part of the lymphatic system? a. Thymus b. Spleen c. Thyroid d. Peyer patches ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
REF: p. 729
52. Which of the following is not part of the lymphatic system? a. Tonsils b. Bone marrow c. Liver d. All of the above are part of the lymphatic system. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
REF: p. 729
53. The lymph taken from what location has the highest concentration of protein? a. Thoracic duct b. Cisterna chyli c. Spleen d. Thymus ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid
REF: p. 730
54. About half of the lymph flowing through the thoracic duct comes from the: a. liver. b. small intestine. c. spleen. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid
REF: p. 730
55. What structure drains lymph from about three fourths of the body into the subclavian vein? a. Right lymphatic duct b. Thoracic duct c. Cisterna chyli d. Spleen ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
56. The tonsils found at the base of the eustachian tubes are called: a. palatine tonsils. b. tubal tonsils. c. lingual tonsils. d. adenoids. ANS: B TOP: Tonsils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
57. How are lymphatic capillaries related to the function of the lymphatic system? a. The wall of the lymphatic capillary consists of a multiple layer of flattened
endothelial cells that prevents drainage of blood into the lymphatic system. b. The lymphatic capillary network allows lymph to flow from the larger-walled
capillaries into the vessels with a thin wall diameter. c. The high degree of permeability of the lymphatic capillary wall permits very large
molecules and even particulate matter, which cannot be absorbed into the blood
capillary, to be removed from the interstitial space. d. The thoracic duct is approximately the same size as the large veins and forms an open circuit to drain fluid into the renal system. ANS: C DIF: Application TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: pp. 731-732
58. How do the reticuloendothelial cells compare to white blood cells as a defense against
infection? a. Only white blood cells play a role in the body’s defense against infection. b. There is no comparison between these two types of cells; reticuloendothelial cells are in the lymphatic system and the white blood cells are part of the circulatory system. c. Reticuloendothelial cells (macrophages) lining the spleen remove microorganisms from the blood and destroy them by phagocytosis in a fashion similar to that of white blood cells. d. Reticuloendothelial cells (macrophages) lining the spleen prevent microorganisms from entering the blood in a similar fashion as do white blood cells, thus preventing infection. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 742
TOP: Functions of the Spleen
59. Which would you predict would occur if a disease blocked the flow of lymph? a. Lymphokinesis would increase. b. Hematopoiesis would not occur. c. The liver might become enlarged or lymphedema may occur. d. The affected extremity would begin to shrink and become useless. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 743 TOP: Disorders Associated with Lymphatic Vessels 60. How would muscle contraction affect lymphokinetic action? a. There is no association between muscle contraction and lymphokinetic action. b. A decreased flow of lymph that occurs with increased physical activity helps
return fluid to the cardiovascular system. c. Contraction of the smooth muscle in the thoracic vessel walls prohibits lymphatic
vessels from pulsing rhythmically and, thus, helps to keep lymph from moving from one valved segment to the next. d. Increased external pressure from muscle contraction also increases lymphatic pressure, which results in keeping lymph moving in only one direction. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 733
TOP: Circulation of Lymph
61. Why is having an understanding of the lymphatic drainage of the breast important in
formulating the diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer? a. A single cell of a primary cancer tumor can spread to other areas of the body through the lymphatic system and cause metastasis. b. Removing the cancer can stop drainage of blood from the tumor and increase the flow of drainage of lymph from the breast area. c. The lymphatic drainage will start to clot and decrease further lymphatic drainage. d. The cancerous breast tissue will decrease lymphatic drainage, thus inhibiting the spreading of the tumor cells.
ANS: A DIF: Application TOP: Lymphatic Drainage of the Breast
REF: p. 737
62. A person with thymus malfunction would: a. produce fewer B cells, thus reducing the effectiveness of the immune system. b. experience an inhibition of thymosin, thus creating an increased number of
macrophages in the body. c. produce more T cells, thus reducing the effectiveness of the immune system. d. produce fewer T cells, thus reducing the effectiveness of the immune system. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 740
TOP: Functions of the Thymus
63. Which best describes the mechanism involved with the central movement, or flow, of lymph? a. Movement is caused by gravity. b. Lymph flow is caused by relaxation of the skeletal muscles. c. Lymph flow in the body is the result of contracting skeletal muscles. d. Lymph flow is caused by the contraction of blood vessels. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 733
TOP: Lymphatic Pump
64. Michael, a 43-year-old man, was in a serious car accident. He has a rigid and tender left
hypochondrium region. His blood pressure is dropping, and he is in pain. What organ might be involved in this injury? a. Kidney b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Spleen ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 740
TOP: Spleen
TRUE/FALSE 1. The two most important functions of the lymphatic system are immunity and the maintenance
of fluid balance in the internal environment. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 729
2. About 1.5 liters of lymph flows through the thoracic duct daily. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid
REF: p. 733
3. The lymphatic system, like the circulatory system, is a closed circuit. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
REF: pp. 729-730
4. Besides fluid balance and immunity, the lymphatic system plays an important role in the
absorption of lipids.
ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 729
5. The lymphatic system is actually a specialized component of the circulatory system because it
consists of a moving fluid derived from the blood and tissue fluid and a group of vessels that return the fluid to the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
REF: p. 729
6. Both lymph and interstitial fluid contain a higher percentage of proteins than does plasma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid
REF: p. 730
7. Lymph is derived from blood and tissue fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid
REF: p. 729
8. Lymphatics have thicker walls than do veins. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
9. Lymphatic vessels originate as microscopic, blind-end vessels called lymphatic capillaries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 730
10. Lymphatic vessels contain more valves than do veins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
11. Lymph from the entire body drains eventually into the thoracic duct. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
12. Lymph contains platelets, which allow clots to form in lymphatic vessels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Loss of Lymphatic Fluid
REF: p. 730
13. Lymphatic capillaries (called lacteals) in the small intestine are important in the absorption of
fats. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Vessels 14. The cisterna chyli drains into the right lymphatic duct.
REF: p. 732
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
15. Veins have more valves than do lymphatics. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
16. Protein substances that have left the bloodstream return by way of lymph fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 732
17. Chyle is milky lymph that is high in fat content. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 732
18. Damage to main lymphatic ducts may cause death from the loss of serum proteins. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 732
TOP: Lymphatic Vessels
19. Lymphatic capillaries and blood capillaries both play important roles in the absorption of
proteins from tissue spaces. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Vessels
REF: pp. 731-732
20. Activities that result in central movement, or flow, of lymph are called lymphokinetic actions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Pump
REF: p. 733
21. Lymphatic vessels run parallel to veins and form frequent anastomoses with them. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
22. The valves in the lymphatics are more numerous in the larger vessels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
23. Lymph nodes, or glands, are perfectly round structures. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
24. Lymph nodes may range from 1 mm to more than 20 mm in diameter. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
25. The passive compression of the body’s soft tissues may act as a lymphokinetic factor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of Lymph
REF: p. 733
26. When an infection is present, germinal centers form and the lymph node begins to release
lymphocytes; some become antibody-producing plasma cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
27. Lymph nodes contain reticuloendothelial cells that produce certain red blood cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
28. Germinal centers are areas of rapidly dividing lymphocytes within a cortical node. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
29. The supratrochlear lymph nodes are located in the neck along the sternocleidomastoid muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 735
30. The inguinal lymph nodes are located in the groin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 735
31. Even though some lymph nodes occur in clusters, most occur as single nodes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
32. The lymphatic tissue of lymph nodes serves as the site of the final stages of maturation for
some types of lymphocytes and monocytes that have migrated from the bone marrow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 737
33. The cutaneous lymphatic plexus drains lymph from the breast. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic in the Breast
REF: p. 738
34. Cancer of the breast is one of the most common forms of malignancy in women. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Drainage of the Breast
REF: p. 737
35. The majority of lymph from the breast enters the axillary lymph nodes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes Associated with the Breast
REF: p. 739
36. The breast—the mammary gland and the surrounding tissues—is drained by six sets of
lymphatic vessels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic in the Breast
REF: p. 738
37. Axillary node enlargement may be a sign that breast cancer cells have spread to the nodes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes Associated with the Breast
REF: p. 739
38. The palatine tonsils are located on each side of the throat. ANS: T TOP: Tonsils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
39. The thymus appears yellowish early in childhood because of the high concentration of fat. ANS: F TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
40. The fetal thymus forms immature lymphocytes, which then move to the bone marrow for the
final stages of lymphocyte development before birth. ANS: F TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 740
41. The thymus plays an important role in “seeding” other lymphatic tissue such as the spleen and
lymph nodes with lymphocytes. ANS: T TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 740
42. The size of the spleen is relatively constant in different individuals, regardless of sex or age. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spleen
REF: p. 740
43. The spleen removes imperfect platelets from the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Spleen
REF: p. 742
44. The spleen is not classified as a vital organ. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 742
TOP: Functions of the Spleen 45. Anastomoses are not characteristic of lymphatic vessels, and therefore a malignant tumor in
one breast cannot spread to the other breast. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Anastomoses and Breast Cancer
REF: p. 738
46. Thymosin enables lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells, which attack foreign or
abnormal cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Thymus
REF: p. 740
47. Lymphedema, a swelling of the tissues of the extremities, may be treated by diuretics, bed
rest, and elevation of the involved extremities. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 743
48. Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin are categories of lymphangitis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 744
49. Patients with immunodeficiencies such as AIDS often develop a malignancy of lymphoid
tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 745
50. Lymphatic capillaries that operate in the villi of the small intestine are called lacteals. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 730
51. The lymphatic system contributes to the circulatory system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
REF: p. 729
52. Peyer patches make up the structural framework of both the spleen and tonsils. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
REF: p. 729
53. Lymph does not have the ability to clot. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Loss of Lymphatic Fluid
REF: p. 730
54. The milky lymph found in lacteals after digestion is called chyle.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 732
55. Activities that result in the flow of lymph are breathing movements and skeletal muscle
contractions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Pump
REF: p. 733
56. The hilus is a small depression on a lymph node from which the efferent lymph vessel exists. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
57. Even though some lymph nodes occur as single nodes, most occur in clusters. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
58. Removal of the spleen will most likely render a patient ill for the rest of his or her life. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Spleen
REF: p. 742
59. More than 85% of the lymph from the breast enters lymph nodes at the lateral edge of the
sternum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes Associated with the Breast
REF: p. 739
60. After puberty, the thymus decreases in size; this process is called involution. ANS: T TOP: Thymus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
61. The spleen’s two functions are defense against foreign microorganisms and provision of a
blood reservoir. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Spleen
REF: pp. 742-743
62. Almost all of the interstitial fluid filtered out by the capillaries enters the lymphatic system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
REF: p. 729
63. A large amount of interstitial fluid that collects in the tissue and causes swelling is called
edema. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
REF: p. 729
64. When interstitial fluid enters a lymph vessel, it is called lymph. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 730 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 65. Interstitial fluid fills the spaces between the cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid
REF: p. 730
66. The cisterna chyli is in the thoracic cavity just inferior to the left subclavian vein. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
67. The tunica media of lymph vessels is similar to that of veins except the lymph vessels have no
smooth muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
68. The semilunar valves of the lymph vessels are formed from folds of the tunica intima. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
69. The “beaded” appearance of lymph vessels is caused by bands of smooth muscle tissue
surrounding the vessel. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
70. The high degree of permeability of lymphatic capillaries allows particulate matter to enter the
capillary. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: pp. 731-732
71. Blood in veins and lymph in lymph vessels are moved by the same kinds of “pumps.” ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 733
TOP: Lymphatic Pump
72. Even though the lymphatic system has no single muscular pump like the heart, lymph flows at
about the same speed as blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic Pump
REF: p. 733
73. The lymphatic system returns about 3 liters of lymph back to the blood each day by
consistently returning about 125 ml per hour.
ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 733
TOP: Lymphatic Pump
74. There are between 10 to 15 axillary lymph nodes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 735
75. One function of the lymph node is to slow down the flow of lymph so that microorganisms
and particulate matter can be phagocytized. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 735
76. The thymus gland is a primary organ of the lymphatic system with an epithelial framework
structure similar to that of the spleen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Thymus
REF: p. 740
77. The reason the red pulp of the spleen is red is that it contains a great deal of blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Spleen
REF: pp. 741-742
78. Peyer patches are isolated nodules of lymphatic tissue in the intestinal wall. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
REF: p. 729
79. The highest concentration of protein in the lymphatic system is found in the cisterna chyli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid
REF: p. 730
80. About half the lymph that passes through the thoracic duct comes from the liver and the small
intestine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid
REF: p. 731
81. The terms lacteal and Peyer patches refer to the same structures in the intestines. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: pp. 729-730
82. The larger lymph vessels are made up of three layers of tissue, just as the veins and arteries
are in the circulatory system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
83. Like most other structures in the body, lymph vessels have the capacity for repair or
regeneration when damaged. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
84. Lymph from the lips, nose, and teeth drains through the submental and submandibular lymph
nodes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
85. Lymph nodes provide both biological and mechanical filtration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 735
86. The lymph with the highest concentration of protein is found in the right lymphatic duct. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid
REF: p. 730
87. Most of the protein in lymph comes from the small intestine and the liver. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid
REF: p. 730
88. The right lymphatic duct originates as the cisterna chyli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
89. Small aggregates on lymphatic tissue are found throughout the body, especially in connective
and muscle tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 737
90. Palatine tonsils are called adenoids when they become swollen. ANS: F TOP: Tonsils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
91. The tubal tonsils are located near the base of the eustachian tubes. ANS: T TOP: Tonsils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
92. Although the thymus is at its largest size at puberty, its largest size relative to the rest of the
body occurs at age 2. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
TOP: Thymus 93. There can be as many as three vessels that carry lymph back to the right subclavian vein. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
94. Lymph containing chyle is equally likely to be found in either the thoracic duct or the right
lymphatic duct. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
95. Lymph nodes are made of lymphatic tissue while lymph glands are actually made of epithelial
glandular tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 734
96. Sentinel lymph nodes can be used to determine whether breast cancer has spread. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph Nodes Associated with the Breast
REF: p. 739
97. The sets of tonsils that surround the throat form what is called the laryngeal lymphoid ring. ANS: F TOP: Tonsils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
98. There are four sets of tonsils: the lingual, palatine, pharyngeal, and tubal. ANS: T TOP: Tonsils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
99. Tonsils are in deep recesses called tonsillar crypts. ANS: T TOP: Tonsils
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 739
100. Elderly people have only about 10% function in their thymus gland. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Thymus
REF: p. 740
101. The medullary tissue in the thymus is composed of large spherical structures called thymic
corpuscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Thymus
REF: p. 740
102. The spleen is located in the right hypochondrium just below the diaphragm and above the
kidney.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Spleen
REF: p. 740
MATCHING
Match each body location with the corresponding group of lymph nodes. a. In the neck along the sternocleidomastoid muscle b. In the floor of the mouth c. In the groin d. Just above the bend of the elbow e. Clustered deep within the underarm and upper chest regions 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Inguinal lymph nodes Submaxillary group Axillary lymph nodes Superficial cervical lymph nodes Superficial cubital lymph nodes
1. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 2. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 3. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 4. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 5. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes
REF: p. 735 REF: p. 734 REF: p. 735 REF: p. 735 REF: p. 735
Match each structure or organ of the lymphatic system with its corresponding function or description. a. Tonsils b. Spleen c. Lymph node d. Cisterna chyli e. Lymph f. Thoracic duct g. Thymus h. Right lymphatic duct i. Peyer patches j. Hassall corpuscles k. Interstitial fluid 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
Duct through which most of the lymph is returned to the blood Small, oval-shaped or bean-shaped structures that can be as small as 1 mm Isolated nodules of lymphatic tissue in the intestinal wall Fluid that is filtered before being returned to the blood Fluid that fills the spaces between cells Duct that carries only about one fourth of the lymph back to the blood
12. Structure that has functions that include hematopoiesis and destruction of red blood cells and 13. 14. 15. 16.
platelets Lymphoid tissue that forms a protective ring around the mouth and back of the throat Structure that goes through involution as we age Structure in the abdominal cavity that is the origin of the thoracic duct Part of the structure of the thymus gland
6. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 7. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymph Nodes 8. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 9. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 10. ANS: K DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 11. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 12. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Spleen 13. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Tonsils 14. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Location and Appearance of the Thymus 15. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 16. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Thymus
REF: p. 731 REF: p. 734 REF: p. 729 REF: p. 730 REF: p. 730 REF: p. 731 REF: p. 742 REF: p. 739 REF: p. 739 REF: p. 731 REF: p. 740
OTHER 1. Compare and contrast the compositions of the following:
Lymph Interstitial fluid Plasma ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 730
2. Compare and contrast the structures of veins and lymphatics. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: p. 731
TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid
3. Discuss the potential physiological effect that could result if blood proteins that escaped from
the capillaries remained in the interstitial fluids without being returned to the blood. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 729
TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
4. Compare and contrast mechanisms for the movement of lymph through lymphatic vessels
with the movement of blood through veins. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 733-734
TOP: Lymphatic Pump
5. Discuss the role lymphatic vessels and nodes can play in handling the healing process when
swelling and infection are present. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 729, 734
TOP: Lymphatic Vessels, Lymph Nodes
6. Why is having an understanding of the lymphatic drainage of the breast important in
formulating the diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 737
TOP: Lymphatic Drainage of the Breast
7. What is the clinical significance of the anastomoses that occur between superficial lymphatics
from both breasts across the middle line? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 738
TOP: Lymphatic Anastomoses and Breast Cancer
8. Describe the important functions performed by the thymus. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 740
TOP: Thymus
9. Identify each of the lymphatic organs, and give a generated function for each. ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 729-730
TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System
10. Describe the structure of a lymph node, and explain what happens when lymph passes through
it. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 734-735 TOP: Structure of Lymph Nodes | Functions of Lymph Nodes 11. Name and give the location of the major clusters of lymph nodes in the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 734-735
TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes
12. Name and describe the two main lymphatic ducts of the body. What area of the body is
drained by each? What is the cisterna chyli? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels
REF: pp. 730-731
ESSAY 1. Baby Ruth was born without a thymus gland. Immediate plans were made to perform a
transplant. In the meantime, Baby Ruth was placed in strict isolation. Even her parents were not allowed to touch her. Why was she placed in the isolation unit? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 740
TOP: Thymus
2. Michael, a 43-year-old man, was in a serious car accident. He has a rigid and tender left
hypochondriac region. His blood pressure is dropping, and he is in pain. What organ might be involved in this injury, and if it is involved, what treatment would be necessary? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 740
TOP: Spleen
Chapter 32: Innate Immunity Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following represent examples of nonspecific immunity except: a. species resistance. c. cell-mediated immunity. b. phagocytosis. d. mechanical and chemical barriers. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Immune System
REF: p. 751
2. The body’s first line(s) of defense is(are) the: a. skin. c. inflammatory response. b. mucous membranes. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers 3. Inflammation mediators include: a. histamine. b. kinins.
REF: p. 752
c. prostaglandins. d. all of the above.
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammation
REF: p. 753
4. The most numerous type of phagocyte is the: a. neutrophil. c. microglia. b. histocyte. d. Kupffer cell. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 756
5. The type of immune mechanism that provides a general defense by acting against anything
recognized as “not self” is called: a. nonspecific immunity. b. specific immunity. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Immune System
c. autoimmune. d. none of the above. REF: p. 751
6. All of the following are major types of interferon except _____ interferon. a. cartilage c. immune b. leukocyte d. fibroblast ANS: A TOP: Interferon
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 757
7. Which of the following does not describe phagocytosis? a. The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles b. Part of the inflammatory response c. A major component of the body’s third line of defense
d. A nonspecific defense ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis 8. Interferon inhibits the spread of: a. viruses. b. bacteria. ANS: A TOP: Interferon
REF: p. 754
c. cancer. d. yeast.
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 757
9. Which type of cells is not involved in nonspecific immunity? a. Monocytes c. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes d. Macrophages ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Immune System
REF: p. 751
10. Which of the following is not a chemical used as a chemical barrier to pathogens? a. Hydrochloric acid c. Complement b. Sebum d. Hydrolyzing enzymes ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers
REF: p. 752
11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of inflammation? a. Heat b. Redness c. Swelling d. All of the above are characteristics of inflammation. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: The Inflammatory Response
REF: p. 753
12. The ability of our immune system to attack abnormal or foreign cells but spare our own
normal cells is called: a. innate immunity. b. nonspecific immunity.
c. self-tolerance. d. adaptive immunity.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Immune System
REF: p. 750
13. Adaptive immunity is also called _____ immunity. a. innate c. nonspecific b. specific d. species ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Immune System
REF: p. 751
14. Which substance produced by the skin contains pathogen-inhibiting agents? a. Hydrochloric acid c. Enzymes b. Mucus d. Sebum
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers
REF: p. 752
15. Which substance can destroy pathogens by chemically hydrolyzing them? a. Hydrochloric acid c. Enzymes b. Mucus d. Sebum ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers
REF: p. 752
16. Which substance can destroy pathogens by lowering the pH to a level at which they cannot
function? a. Hydrochloric acid b. Mucus ANS: A DIF: Application TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers
c. Enzymes d. Sebum REF: p. 752
17. Which of the following is not part of the inflammation response? a. The release of chemicals that attract white blood cells b. The formation of antibodies c. The increase of blood flow to the inflamed area d. All of the above are part of the inflammation response. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: The Inflammatory Response
REF: p. 753
18. Which of the following is not part of the inflammation response? a. The release of histamine b. The increase in vascular permeability c. The stimulation of fibroblast growth d. All of the above are part of the inflammation response. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: The Inflammatory Response
REF: p. 753
19. Which is the best explanation of how a white blood cell ingests and destroys a
microorganism? a. The white blood cell engulfs the microorganism and then lysosomal enzymes destroy it. b. The white blood cell allows the microorganism to be absorbed by osmosis and then lysosomal enzymes destroy it. c. The white blood cell engulfs the microorganisms and chemotaxis destroys it. d. The white blood cell allows the microorganism to be absorbed by osmosis and then diapedesis destroys it. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 754
TOP: Phagocytosis
20. Which is the best explanation of how complement—a group of about 20 inactive enzymes in
the plasma and on cell surfaces—is activated and produces cytolysis? a. Complement is “turned on” by the presence of bacteria. b. Complement is activated by antibodies to “drill a hole” into foreign cells, thus causing cytolysis.
c. Complement causes vasoconstriction and inhibits phagocytosis. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 758-759
TOP: Complement
21. Two-year-old Jenny is undergoing treatment for leukemia and was exposed recently to
chickenpox. Her oncologist decided to give her a dose of interferon. What effect was the physician hoping for with this approach? a. It would stop the virus from traveling over the sensory nerve of a single dermatome. b. It would cause an increase in white blood cells. c. It would inhibit the chickenpox infection from developing. d. It would assist in the development of lymphocytes in the spleen. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 757
TOP: Interferon
TRUE/FALSE 1. Cytokines include leukotrienes, interferons, and histamine. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 751 TOP: Organization of the Immune System 2. Diapedesis is the process by which microbes are marked for destruction by phagocytic cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 759
3. Phagocytosis is a nonspecific defense mechanism. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 751
TOP: Innate Immunity
4. Many of the inflammation mediators act as chemotactic factors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Inflammatory Response
REF: p. 753
5. The inflammatory response is the body’s first line of defense. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Inflammatory Response
REF: p. 753
6. Neutrophils function in the immune system by producing immunoglobulins. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 756
7. Diapedesis is the process by which neutrophils migrate out of the bloodstream and around the
tissue cells to the injury site. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 756
8. Natural killer cells are a group of neutrophils that kill many types of tumor cells and cells
infected by different kinds of viruses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Natural Killer Cells
REF: p. 757
9. Interferon mainly interferes with the ability of bacteria to produce disease. ANS: F TOP: Interferon
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 757
10. Phagocytosis is the “first line of defense” in nonspecific immunity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 754
11. Natural killer cells are 15% of the total lymphocyte cell number. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Natural Killer Cells
REF: p. 757
12. The most numerous type of phagocyte is the macrophage. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 756
13. A macrophage can migrate out of the bloodstream. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 756
14. Macrophages are a group of lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected
by different kinds of viruses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Natural Killer Cells
REF: p. 757
15. The specific immune system has a more rapid response than the nonspecific immune system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Immune System
REF: p. 751
16. Tobacco mosaic virus can destroy tobacco plants. It has no effect on humans. This is an
example of species resistance. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 752
TOP: Species Resistance
17. One reason for species resistance is the difference in molecules on the cell membrane of
different species. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 752
TOP: Species Resistance
18. A chemotactic factor attracts antibodies to the site of infection. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Inflammatory Response
REF: p. 753
19. The characteristic signs of inflammation are the results of increased blood flow and increased
vascular permeability. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Inflammatory Response
REF: p. 753
20. In phagocytosis, a footlike projection, called a phagosome, extends toward a microorganism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 754
21. Digestive enzymes and hydrogen peroxide are added to a phagosome to digest the
phagocytized microorganism. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 754
22. Most of the pus surrounding an inflammation site consists of dead or damaged tissue cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 756
23. Natural killer cells are lymphocytes that are actually part of nonspecific immunity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Natural Killer Cells
REF: p. 757
24. A person’s natural killer cells usually kill cells of their own body. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 757
TOP: Natural Killer Cells
25. Complement can be activated only by the specific immune system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Complement
REF: pp. 758-759
26. The ability of our immune system to attack abnormal or foreign cells but spare our own
normal cells is called innate immunity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Immune System
REF: p. 750
27. Cytokines are chemicals released from cells to trigger or regulate both innate and adaptive
immune responses. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 751
TOP: Organization of the Immune System 28. There are almost 100 billion lymphocytes in the body’s immune system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Immune System
REF: p. 751
29. Species resistance refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a
species provide defense against certain pathogens. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Species Resistance
REF: p. 752
30. The role of fibroblasts in the inflammation response is to lay down a collagen web to try to
isolate the infecting organism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Inflammatory Response
REF: p. 753
31. When pseudopods form a phagocyte, completely surrounding an organism and forming a sac
around it, the structure formed is called a phagosome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 754
32. One function of phagocytes is to function as antigen-presenting cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 756
33. The body identifies normal body cells by way of the unique major histocompatibility complex
displayed by the cell as a surface protein. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Natural Killer Cells
REF: p. 757
34. The membrane attack complex is used by macrophages to mark bacteria for phagocytosis and
antibody attack. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Complement
REF: p. 759
35. An autoimmune disease would indicate a problem with development of self-tolerance in the
immune system. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 750 TOP: Organization of the Immune System 36. Parts of the first line of immune defense are in the integumentary system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers
REF: p. 752
37. Pyrogens are produced only by body cells that have been infected by a virus. ANS: F TOP: Fever
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 754
38. Fever is always detrimental to the body and should be lowered as soon as possible. ANS: F TOP: Fever
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 753-754
39. Aspirin is effective in lowering fever because it inhibits the growth of the disease-causing
organisms. ANS: F TOP: Fever
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 753-754
40. Toll-like receptors help facilitate the overall innate immune response. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Toll-Like Receptors
REF: p. 759
41. The toll-like receptors on the cell membrane can be seen as a midpoint between specific and
nonspecific immunity. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 759
TOP: Toll-Like Receptors
42. Mechanical and chemical barriers can be called the body’s first line of defense. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers
REF: p. 752
43. The epithelial barriers in the body are part of the innate, nonspecific defenses of the body and
do not play a role in the specific immune system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers
REF: p. 752
44. Heat, redness, swelling, and pain are characteristic signs of inflammation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Inflammatory Response
REF: p. 753
45. T lymphocytes release histamine, kinins, and prostaglandins at the site of an infection. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Inflammatory Response
REF: p. 753
46. A fever is a reset of the body’s thermostat. ANS: T TOP: Fever
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 754
47. One function of prostaglandins it to reduce fever caused by bacterial infection. ANS: F TOP: Fever
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 753
48. Pavementing is the attraction of neutrophils to the site of an infection. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 756
49. About 10% to 15% of all cells in any organ are phagocytes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: pp. 756-757
50. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death used by natural killer cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Natural Killer Cells
REF: p. 757
51. Interferon production is stimulated by the presence of double-stranded DNA in a cell. ANS: F TOP: Interferon
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 757
52. There are three types of interferon: leukocyte, fibroblast, and immune. ANS: T TOP: Interferon
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 757
53. Interferon can act like a paracrine hormone that allows infected cells to send an alarm to other
nearby cells. ANS: T TOP: Interferon
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 757
54. Complement is a group of about 8 different inactive enzymes circulating in the plasma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Complement
REF: p. 758
55. To prevent accidental harm to the body, complement can be activated only by antibodies. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Complement
REF: pp. 758-759
MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Phagocytosis c. Nonspecific immunity b. Macrophage d. Interferon
1. Ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles 2. Mechanisms that resist a variety of threatening agents or conditions 3. Protein produced by the immune system to interfere with the ability of viruses to cause
disease 4. Phagocytic monocyte (nongranular WBC) in the immune system 1. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis 2. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Immune System 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Interferon 4. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis
REF: p. 754 REF: pp. 750-751 REF: p. 757 REF: p. 756
OTHER 1. Explain how a white blood cell ingests and destroys a microorganism. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 754
TOP: Phagocytosis
2. Explain the inflammatory response; include the chemicals released and the characteristic
signs. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 753
TOP: The Inflammatory Response
3. Name and describe the mechanical and chemical barriers of the nonspecific immune system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers
REF: p. 752
4. What is a natural killer cell? Explain the functioning of a natural killer cell. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 757
TOP: Natural Killer Cells
5. Explain how fever develops. How do various medicines like aspirin treat fever? What possible
advantage does fever give the body?
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 753-754
TOP: Fever
6. Explain the role of toll-like receptors in the nonspecific immune system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 759
TOP: Toll-Like Receptors
7. The agent that causes tuberculosis is surrounded by a waxy layer that prevents water-soluble
proteins from penetrating it. It is known that cells in the immune system have a very difficult time killing these agents through phagocytosis. Explain why this is true. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 754, 756
TOP: Phagocytosis
ESSAY 1. Two-year-old Jenny was exposed to chickenpox. She was already undergoing treatment for
leukemia. Her oncologist decided to give her a dose of interferon. What effect was the physician hoping for with this approach? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 757
TOP: Interferon
Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. B cell mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. a. nonspecific b. antibody-mediated c. cell-mediated d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 763
2. Macromolecules that induce the immune system to make certain responses are called: a. antigens. b. plasma proteins. c. antibodies. d. prostaglandins. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 764
3. Memory cells: a. immediately secrete antibodies when they are formed. b. are supporting cells and are not related to antibody production. c. are a special type of T cell. d. become plasma cells when exposed to an antigen. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: B Cells and Antibody-Mediated Immunity
REF: p. 766
4. The constant region of the light chain in an antibody consists of _____ amino acids. a. 50 b. 77 c. 106 d. 168 ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins)
REF: p. 766
5. An immunoglobulin, or antibody molecule, consists of _____ heavy and _____ light
polypeptide chains. a. two; two b. four; two c. two; four d. four; four ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins)
REF: p. 766
6. The antibody normally constituting the highest percentage of antibodies in the blood is: a. IgE. b. IgG. c. IgM. d. IgA. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies
REF: p. 767
7. The antibody produced after initial contact with an antigen is: a. IgE. b. IgG. c. IgM. d. IgA. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies
REF: p. 767
8. The antibody commonly found in tears and saliva is: a. IgE. b. IgD. c. IgM. d. IgA. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies
REF: p. 767
9. The function of which antibody is basically unknown? a. IgE b. IgD c. IgM d. IgA ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies
REF: p. 767
10. The antibody associated with allergic reaction is: a. IgE. b. IgG. c. IgM. d. IgA. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies
REF: p. 767
11. The major class of antibody present in the mucous membranes of the body is: a. IgG. b. IgE. c. IgA. d. IgD. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies
REF: p. 767
12. The predominant antibody of a secondary response is: a. IgE. b. IgG. c. IgM. d. IgA. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies
REF: p. 767
13. The most abundant circulating antibody, the one that normally makes up about 75% of all the
antibodies in the blood, is: a. IgG. b. IgA. c. IgE. d. IgM. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies
REF: p. 767
14. Complement can best be described as a(n): a. enzyme in blood. b. lymphokine. c. antibody. d. hormone. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Antibodies
REF: p. 768
15. The complement system can be activated by: a. the binding of complement protein 1 to the complement-binding site on the
antibody molecule. b. the binding of complement protein 3 to bacteria or viruses in the presence of
properdin. c. nonspecific immune mechanisms. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Antibodies
REF: pp. 768-769
16. According to the clonal selection theory, antigens select lymphocyte clones by: a. the chemicals secreted by the lymphocytes. b. the proximity of the lymphocytes to the antigens. c. the shape of receptors on the lymphocyte’s plasma membrane. d. producing toxins. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Antibodies 17. Which of the following can activate complement? a. T cells b. Interferon
REF: p. 769
c. Properdin d. Lymphokine ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Antibodies
REF: pp. 768-769
18. Which of the following is true of lymphokines? a. They are produced by B cells. b. They inhibit macrophage activity. c. Lymphotoxin is an example of a lymphokine. d. They are produced by helper T cells. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells
REF: p. 772
19. Specific immunity is controlled by two classes of lymphocytes called: a. antigens and antibodies. b. T cells and B cells. c. red blood cells and white blood cells. d. agglutinogens and agglutinins. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 763
20. Which of the following can activate, or turn on, an inactive B cell? a. Binding to its specific antibody b. Binding to its specific antigen c. Helper T cell d. All B cells are activated when an infant is born. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 766
21. The part of the antibody that combines with the antigen is the: a. variable region. b. constant region. c. carbohydrate chain. d. complement-binding site. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins)
REF: p. 766
22. The chemical messengers that T cells release into inflamed tissues are called: a. pathogens. b. lymphokines. c. lymphotoxins. d. suppressor cells. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells
REF: p. 772
23. The type of immunity produced by vaccination would be _____ immunity. a. active natural
b. passive natural c. active artificial d. passive artificial ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 775
24. When a child develops measles and acquires immunity to a subsequent infection, this type of
immunity is called _____ immunity. a. acquired b. natural c. active d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 775
25. Examples of lymphocytes are: a. B cells. b. T cells. c. both A and B. d. none of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 763
26. Macrophages sensitize: a. T cells. b. B cells. c. T cells and B cells. d. none of the above. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells
REF: p. 773
27. Which antibody has 10 antigen-binding sites? a. IgM b. IgA c. IgD d. IgG ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 767
TOP: Classes of Antibodies
28. Which antibody has four antigen-binding sites? a. IgM b. IgA c. IgD d. IgG ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 767
29. Which antibody has two antigen-binding sites? a. IgM
TOP: Classes of Antibodies
b. IgA c. IgG d. Both A and B ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies
REF: p. 767
30. Which of the following is not caused by complement protein activity? a. Vasodilation b. Agglutination of antigens c. Cytolysis d. All of the above are caused by complement protein activity. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Antibodies
REF: pp. 768-769
31. When an antigen attaches to a naïve B cell, it becomes a(n) _____ cell. a. memory b. plasma c. effector B d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 766
32. In the first stage of their development, B cells are known by all the following terms except
_____ B cells. a. effector b. naïve c. inactive d. virgin ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: pp. 765-766
33. If a blood test indicated that a person had a high level of IgM antibodies in the blood, it could
be concluded that: a. the person’s body is responding to a reexposure to an antigen. b. the person’s body is responding to the initial exposure to an antigen. c. the person has an increasing likelihood that he will become allergic to an antigen. d. no conclusions could be made. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 767
TOP: Classes of Antibodies
34. Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of a(n): a. B cell–mediated condition. b. T cell–mediated condition. c. autoimmune condition that is caused by self-antigens being attacked. d. isoimmune condition that is caused by self-antigens being attacked. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 778
TOP: Autoimmunity
35. When a patient starts to have rejection problems with a transplanted organ, the problems are
usually caused by: a. a B cell–mediated condition. b. human leukocyte antigens (HALs). c. self-antigens. d. severe combined immune deficiency (SCID). ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 778
TOP: Isoimmunity
36. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) damages the immune system by _____ cells. a. invading memory b. invading T c. overproduction of B d. overproduction of plasma ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Acquired Immune Deficiency
REF: p. 780
37. Why is it difficult to predict the total number of acquired immune deficiency syndrome
(AIDS) cases that will result from known HIV-infected patients? a. After a person is infected, the signs of AIDS infection might not be apparent for years. b. The current treatment of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) alters the infected cells. c. Infected cells begin to change only after azidothymidine (AZT) treatment is started. d. So many people have received the vaccine that there is no way to count who actually has the infection. ANS: A DIF: Application TOP: Acquired Immune Deficiency
REF: p. 780
38. Which is the best explanation of how immune suppression can be helpful in preventing
transplant rejection? a. The immune system sometimes reacts against foreign antigens in the grafted tissue, causing what is often called a rejection syndrome. Immune suppression drugs reduce the immune system’s ability to attack the foreign antigens in the donated tissue. b. Because rejection is caused by an inappropriate and excessive response to self-antigens, giving immune suppression drugs would reduce this effect. c. Rejection involves antigen-antibody reactions, mainly IgE triggered by repeated exposure to an allergen, so immune-suppression drugs would reduce the reaction to the allergen, which in this case is the transplanted organ. d. Delayed allergic response occurs with transplanted organs, so immune-suppressive drugs would reduce the allergic response and decrease rejection. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 778-779
TOP: Isoimmunity
39. Chris has very bad allergies, especially in the springtime, and is seeking help to overcome her
allergic reactions. Why would an antihistamine help Chris be more comfortable? a. It would counter the effects of the self-antigen reaction. b. It would replace the allergen with a different chemical and thus reduce her
symptoms. c. It would reduce the antigen-antibody reactions caused by the allergen. d. It would reduce the amount of human leukocyte antigen in her system. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 778
TOP: Allergy
40. Steven had mumps as a child. Why did he not experience symptoms at the age of 41 after he
was again exposed to the mumps virus? a. He had an injection with weakened virus shortly before he was exposed. b. He had natural passive immunity to ward off the virus. c. He had artificial passive immunity that he received from his brother after he had the mumps. d. He developed active immunity as the result of having mumps as a child. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 775
TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity
TRUE/FALSE 1. T cell immune mechanisms are classified as antibody-mediated immunity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 763
2. To function independently in the immune process, both B cells and T cells must become
thymocytes during development. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 765-766, 771 TOP: B Cells and Antibody-Mediated Immunity, T Cells and Cell-Mediated Immunity 3. Antigens are macromolecules that induce the immune system to take certain actions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 764
4. Most antigens are large protein molecules foreign to the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 764
5. The combining site on an antibody determines the specificity of that antibody for an antigen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 764
6. All antigens have epitopes of the same shape. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 764
7. Another name for antigenic determinants is epitopes. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 764
TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity 8. Inactive B cells produce antibodies that insert on their plasma membranes to serve as antigen
receptors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 766
9. The second stage of B cell development usually takes place in the lymph nodes and spleen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 766
10. The heavy chains in an immunoglobulin molecule are about twice as long and weigh about
twice as much as light chains. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins)
REF: p. 766
11. The cloning of T cells produces both memory cells and plasma cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells
REF: p. 771
12. All of the cells in a clone of plasma cells produce identical antibodies. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 766
13. An antigen consists of two heavy and two light polypeptide chains. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins)
REF: p. 766
14. Each light chain in an antibody molecule contains a constant region that consists of 446 amino
acids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins)
REF: p. 766
15. An antibody has one antigen-binding site. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins)
REF: p. 766
16. The somatic recombination hypothesis is one possible explanation for the diversity of
antibodies. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Diversity of Antibodies 17. Humoral immunity occurs within the plasma.
REF: p. 767
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Antibodies
REF: p. 767
18. When antibodies cause antigens to agglutinate, it allows them to be disposed of by phagocytes
more easily. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Antibodies
REF: pp. 767-768
19. Haptens are sometimes called incomplete antigens. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Language of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 764
20. Contact points between immune cells are sometimes called immunological synapses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Immunological Synapses
REF: p. 772
21. T cells, by definition, are lymphocytes that have passed through the thyroid gland. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: T Cells and Cell-Mediated Immunity
REF: p. 771
22. The fetal liver may act as the site for the first stage of T cell development. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity
REF: pp. 765-766
23. Unlike B cells, T cells do not display antigen receptors on their surface membranes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells
REF: pp. 771-772
24. The surface membranes of cancer cells are thought to have abnormal antigens. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Immunity and Cancer
REF: p. 774
25. Suppressor T cells function by inhibiting T cell formation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells
REF: p. 774
26. Suppressor T cells help B cells differentiate into antibody-secreting plasma cells by secreting
cytokines such as interleukin-2 and interleukin-4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells
REF: p. 773
27. Inherited immunity and acquired immunity are forms of specific immunity.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 775
28. Passive immunity generally lasts longer than active immunity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 775
29. The immune mechanism that provides a defense by acting against cancer is termed
nonspecific immunity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Immunity and Cancer
REF: p. 774
30. Cell-mediated immunity involves T cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 763
31. CD4 and CD8 T cell subsets are clinically important in diagnosing AIDS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 763
32. An antibody consists of two heavy and one light polypeptide chains. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins)
REF: p. 766
33. T cells secrete antibodies. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 766
34. IgM is the most predominant class of immunoglobulins in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies
REF: p. 767
35. The chemical messengers that T cells release into inflamed tissues are called lymphotoxins. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells
REF: p. 772
36. Plasma cells can secrete as many as 2000 antibodies per minute. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 766
37. IgD is the most understood antibody. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 767
TOP: Classes of Antibodies 38. The first vaccination provided immunity against the chickenpox virus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Immunization
REF: p. 770
39. Both B and T lymphocytes develop from hematopoietic stem cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 763
40. Even though tumor cells are part of your body, your immune system treats them as “foreign”
and tries to destroy them. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells
REF: p. 764
41. In humans, bursa equivalent tissue is the site for B-cell development. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 765
42. Once released from the bone marrow, the B cells migrate to the bursa of Fabricius to complete
their development. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 765
43. Antigens activate B cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 766
44. Plasma cells must be in a constant state of protein synthesis to accomplish their function. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 766 TOP: B Cells and Antibody-Mediated Immunity, Development and Activation of B Cells 45. In an antibody the light chain makes up the variable region and the heavy chain makes up the
constant region. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Antibody Molecule
REF: p. 766
46. Because of the random nature of antibody protein synthesis, it is possible to have an
“anti-self” B cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Diversity of Antibodies 47. Interleukins are cytokinins.
REF: p. 767
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells
REF: p. 772
48. Passive immunity provides more rapid protection than does active immunity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 775
49. B cells are named after a structure in birds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 765
50. An activated B cell can give rise to both plasma cells and memory cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 766
51. T cells react mainly to antigens that are dissolved in plasma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells
REF: pp. 772-773
52. One of the antigen-specific sites on the antibody is used to activate the complement cascade in
the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of Antibodies, Complement
REF: pp. 767-768
53. Memory cells do not actually produce antibodies. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells
REF: p. 766
54. Antibody molecules can have as many as eight antigen-binding sites. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 767
TOP: Classes of Antibodies
55. An antibody molecule must have at least two antigen-binding sites. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 767
TOP: Classes of Antibodies
56. If a person had a severe shortage of antigen-presenting cells, it would have the greatest impact
on the humoral or antibody-forming specific immune system. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 772-773 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 57. A person with a nonfunctioning immune system could still benefit from both natural and
artificial passive immunity.
ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 775
TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity
58. A mother passing antibodies to the fetus is an example of natural passive immunity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 775
59. A person without a functioning immune system would not benefit from an injection of
antibodies developed by someone else. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 775
TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity
60. B cells play an important role in humoral immunity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 763
61. Adaptive immunity requires two signals: antigen and chemical. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 763
62. The letters “CD” following a T cell stand for “cellular diversity.” ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity
REF: p. 763
MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Specific immunity b. Antibody c. B cell d. Antigen e. T cell 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Lymphocyte that attacks pathogens directly Mechanisms that provide specific protection against types of bacteria or toxins Macromolecule that induces the immune system to produce antibodies Substance produced by the body that destroys or inactivates a specific antigen Lymphocyte that produces antibodies that attack pathogens or direct other cells to attack them
1. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity 4. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 5. ANS: C DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 763 REF: p. 776 REF: p. 764 REF: p. 763 REF: p. 763
TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity
Match each antibody class with its description, function, or location. a. IgG b. IgM c. IgD d. IgE e. IgA 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Antibody that is found in tears and saliva The predominant class of antibody produced after initial contact with an antigen Antibody that is associated with allergies Antibody whose precise function is not yet known Predominant class of antibody produced in the secondary response to an antigen
6. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies 7. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies 8. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies 9. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies 10. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Classes of Antibodies
REF: p. 767 REF: p. 767 REF: p. 767 REF: p. 767 REF: p. 767
Match each type of specific immunity with its description or example. a. Natural active immunity b. Natural passive immunity c. Artificial active immunity d. Artificial passive immunity 11. 12. 13. 14.
A person gets a flu shot to keep from getting the flu A person has had the mumps and is protected from getting them again A mother passes antibodies to her baby After exposure to hepatitis A, a person is given a gamma globulin (IgG) shot to keep him from getting hepatitis
11. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity 12. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity 13. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity 14. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity OTHER
REF: p. 775 REF: p. 775 REF: p. 775 REF: p. 775
1. Antibody molecules may agglutinate antigens that are on the surface of microorganisms.
Explain how agglutination can help promote the destruction of microorganisms such as bacteria. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 767-768
TOP: Functions of Antibodies
2. Explain how complement is activated and can produce cytolysis in the process of humoral
immunity. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 768-769
TOP: Functions of Antibodies
3. Explain the apparent basis for autoimmune diseases. Give two examples of such diseases. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 778
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
4. Explain how the AIDS virus seems to affect the immune system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 779-780
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
5. Why is it difficult to predict the total number of AIDS cases? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 780
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
6. Describe the structure of an antibody molecule. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 766-767 TOP: Structure of the Antibody Molecule 7. Name the classes of antibodies, and give the function of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 767
TOP: Classes of Antibodies
8. Describe the development and activation of B cells. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 765-766 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 9. Describe the development, activation, and functions of T cells. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 771-775 TOP: Development of T Cells Activation and Functions of T Cells 10. Compare and contrast the development of B cells and T cells. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 765-766, 771 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells, Development of T Cells 11. Name and explain the role of regulating cells in the immune system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 772-775 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 12. Explain the terms natural immunity, artificial immunity, active immunity, and passive
immunity. Give an example of natural passive immunity. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 775
TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity
13. If a person had a nonfunctioning immune system, what types of adaptive immunity (artificial,
natural, active, and passive) could be beneficial and which would not be beneficial or even harmful? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application ESSAY
REF: p. 775
TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity
1. Chris has very bad allergic reactions, especially in the springtime. He decided to seek medical
help to overcome these reactions. A physician explained that Chris needed an antihistamine to limit the allergic symptoms. Explain why an antihistamine will help Chris be more comfortable while he is experiencing spring hay fever. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 778
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
2. Steven had mumps as a child. At age 41 he was again exposed to the mumps virus; however,
he did not experience any symptoms of the mumps. Explain why. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 775
TOP: Immunization
Chapter 34: Stress Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not characteristic of the Selye stress syndrome? a. Adrenal atrophy b. Shrinkage of the thymus c. Bleeding gastrointestinal ulcers d. Shrinkage of lymphatic organs ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Development of the Stress Concept
REF: p. 786
2. Increased _____ is characteristic of the alarm stage of stress. a. lymphocytes b. glucocorticoids c. parasympathetic activity d. eosinophils ANS: B TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 788
3. Which of the following is the name for the second stage of the general adaptation syndrome? a. Reinforcement b. Transition c. Resistance d. Defense ANS: C TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 788
4. Which of the following is not characteristic of the exhaustion stage of stress? a. It occurs less frequently than the other stages. b. It may develop over a long period of stress. c. It decreases the body’s ability to adapt. d. The body’s resistance eventually produces adaptation. ANS: D TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 790
5. The level of glucocorticoids would be at their lowest during which stage of stress? a. Exhaustion b. Alarm c. Resistance d. Recovery ANS: A TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 790
6. The production of cortisol in response to stress can be initiated by which of the following
pathways? a. Cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, adrenal cortex b. Cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, posterior pituitary, adrenal cortex c. Cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, sympathetic nerve fibers, adrenal cortex d. Cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, sympathetic nerve fibers, adrenal medulla ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 791
7. All of the following are true statements except: a. stressors are extreme stimuli. b. stressors are always injurious, unpleasant, or painful. c. the emotions of fear, anxiety, and grief can act as stressors. d. stressors differ in different individuals. ANS: B TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 787-788
8. An effect of cortisol is: a. increased protein catabolism. b. decreased blood sugar. c. increased immune response. d. increased allergic reactions. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 791
9. Which of the following would not occur as a body response to stress? a. Increased systolic blood pressure b. Increased epinephrine in the urine c. Constriction of the pupils d. Increased adrenocorticoids in the urine ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Indicators of Stress
REF: p. 792
10. Which of the following would not be a useful measure for assessing stress? a. Total blood cholesterol b. Eosinophil count c. Lymphocyte count d. Adrenocorticoid levels ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Indicators of Stress
REF: pp. 792-793
11. Which of the following is dominant among the subjective reactions that occur with
psychological stress? a. Guilt b. Fear c. Depression d. Anxiety
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Psychological Stress
REF: p. 793
12. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) is released by the _____ in response to stress. a. adrenal medulla b. adrenal cortex c. anterior pituitary d. hypothalamus ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 791
13. In response to stress, the adrenal cortex secretes: a. norepinephrine. b. norepinephrine and cortisol. c. cortisol and aldosterone. d. norepinephrine and aldosterone. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 792
14. Severe stress may result in all of the following except: a. an overactive immune system. b. an increase in heart rate. c. a rise in adrenaline levels. d. changes in breathing patterns. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 785
TOP: Stress Introduction
15. Which of the following conditions may accompany stress? a. Depression b. Sleep disorders c. Low blood pressure d. Both A and B ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Introduction
REF: p. 786
16. All of the following are components of the “stress triad” observed by Hans Selye except: a. enlarged adrenals. b. hypertrophied skeletal muscles. c. shrunken lymphatic organs. d. bleeding gastrointestinal ulcers. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Development of the Stress Concept
REF: p. 786
17. Which of the following determine(s) which stimuli are stressors for each individual? a. Heredity b. Past experiences c. Either extreme of a continuum d. All of the above
ANS: D TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 788
18. The general adaptation syndrome includes all of the following stages except the: a. alarm reaction. b. immune response. c. stage of resistance or adaptation. d. stage of exhaustion. ANS: B TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 788
19. Alarm reaction responses resulting from the hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex include: a. hyperglycemia. b. decreased immunity. c. decreased allergic responses. d. all of the above. ANS: D TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 789
20. Alarm reaction responses resulting from increased sympathetic activity include all of the
following except: a. decreased digestion. b. decreased and prolonged sympathetic responses. c. hyperglycemia. d. increased systolic blood pressure. ANS: B TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 789
21. One characteristic of the stage of resistance of the general adaptation syndrome is: a. increased rate of secretion by the adrenal cortex. b. decreased allergic responses. c. hyperglycemia. d. normal rate of secretion by the adrenal medulla. ANS: D TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 789
22. Which of the following is(are) characteristic of the stage of exhaustion? a. Initially increased glucocorticoid secretion but eventually marked decreased
secretion b. Loss of resistance to stressor; may lead to death c. Stress triad d. All of the above ANS: D TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
23. Type A individuals have been found to be at greater risk for: a. elevated systolic blood pressure. b. coronary disease.
REF: p. 790
c. heart attacks. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Type A Behavior and Stress
REF: p. 795
24. According to the current concepts of the stress syndrome, stress may be defined as any factor
that stimulates the: a. posterior pituitary. b. anterior pituitary. c. hypothalamus to release CRH. d. hypothalamus to release ADH. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 791
25. According to the current concepts of the stress syndrome, an example(s) of stress that
stimulate(s) the hypothalamus indirectly would be: a. stress stimulating the limbic lobe first. b. stress stimulating other parts of the cerebral cortex first. c. hypoglycemia. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 791
26. Which of the following is not a true statement? a. Generally, psychological stress is independent of the physiological stress
responses. b. Physiological stress is almost always accompanied by some degree of
psychological stress. c. Identical psychological stressors do not always induce identical physiological
responses in different individuals. d. In any one individual, certain autonomic responses are better indicators of
psychological stress than others. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Psychological Stress
REF: p. 794
27. The stress triad refers to: a. alarm, exhaustion, and resistance. b. hypertrophied adrenals, atrophied thymus and lymph nodes, and bleeding ulcers. c. stressor, stress, and response. d. health, stress, and disease. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome
REF: p. 788
28. Which of the following is not an alarm reaction response resulting from hypertrophy of the
adrenal cortex? a. Hyperglycemia b. Decreased digestion
c. Decreased immunity d. Decreased allergic responses ANS: B TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 789
29. The anterior pituitary gland is stimulated by: a. CRH. b. ACTH. c. ADH. d. epinephrine. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 792
30. Which of the following is not an effect of cortisol? a. Increased protein catabolism b. Decreased allergic responses c. Fight-or-flight responses d. Decreased immune responses ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 791
31. The amount of stress a person is feeling can be directly measured by: a. an electrocardiogram. b. measuring the amount of adrenaline in the blood. c. measuring the systolic blood pressure. d. none of the above. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 788
TOP: Manifestations
32. A person with a high blood level of adrenaline would be in what stage of the general
adaptation response? a. Alarm b. Resistance c. Exhaustion d. Either A or C ANS: A TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 789-790
33. Which is not a response to the release of the hormone neuropeptide Y? a. Platelet aggregation b. Atrophy of the vascular smooth muscle c. Vasoconstriction d. All of the above are responses to neuropeptide Y. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 792
34. All of the following disciplines have added to our understanding of stress except: a. genetics.
b. endocrinology. c. sociology. d. All of the above disciplines have added to our understanding of stress. ANS: D TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
35. According to Selye, stress can be defined as a state or condition produced by: a. physical trauma. b. psychological trauma. c. diverse noxious agents. d. emotional trauma. ANS: C TOP: Definitions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
36. Release of corticotropin-releasing hormone directly causes: a. an increase in glucose, which corrects the hypoglycemia. b. the posterior pituitary gland to release ACTH. c. the release of cortisol. d. none of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 791
37. Hyperglycemia is a(n): a. indication that the alarm reaction response is finished and the body is moving on to
the resistance stage. b. result of sympathetic activity in the alarm reaction. c. result of hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex in the alarm reaction. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 789
TOP: Mechanism of Stress
38. Which of the following is an indication that a person is in the exhaustion stage? a. Dissipation of the “fight-or-flight” response b. An increase in glucocorticoid secretions from the adrenal gland c. Development of a bleeding ulcer in the stomach or duodenum d. Both B and C ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Stress
REF: p. 790
39. What is the relationship between stress and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH)? a. Stress stimulates the hypothalamus to release CRH, which acts as a trigger that
initiates many diverse changes in the body. b. Stress inhibits the release of CRH from the hypothalamus, which allows for the secretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. c. Stress stimulates the release of CRH from the hypothalamus, which then acts to simulate the sympathetic centers. d. Stress inhibits the release of CRH from the hypothalamus, which allows for the secretion of catecholamine in the blood.
ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 791
TOP: Stress Syndrome
40. Changes in stress related to aging include: a. decrease in potential for hypercoagulation. b. decrease in catecholamine and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). c. frequent decrease in coping skills, alteration of limbic lobe, and hypothalamus
excitability. d. increase in testosterone, estrogen, and thyroxine. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 794
TOP: The Stress-Age Syndrome
41. Because of the demands of his job, Frank has been under a great deal of stress. He was
experiencing an increase in the secretion of glucocorticoids, and the number of lymphocytes and eosinophils decreased markedly. However, recently these changes disappeared. What stage in Selye’s general adaptation syndrome is Frank now experiencing? a. Alarm reaction b. Stage of resistance or adaptation c. Stage of exhaustion d. Stress triad ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome
REF: pp. 789-790
42. Joanne was admitted to the hospital for gallbladder surgery. The nurse noted a rapid pulse rate
and elevated blood pressure while taking her vital signs. Joanne’s palms were sweating and her eyes were dilated. What mechanisms could be causing these conditions? a. A reaction to autoimmune response b. Antigen-antibody response c. Decrease in bile production d. Stress ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 792
TOP: Indicators of Stress
TRUE/FALSE 1. Severe stress generally causes adrenaline levels to fall. ANS: F TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 789
2. Selye proved in his research that regardless of the type of stressor, the stress syndrome is
always the same. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Selye’s Concept of Stress
REF: p. 786
3. As a result of applying various stressors to research animals, Selye was able to produce a triad
of body changes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Development of the Stress Concept
REF: p. 786
4. Every individual responds somewhat differently to stress. ANS: T TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
5. One of the components of the “stress triad” is hypertrophy of the lymphatic organs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Development of the Stress Concept
REF: p. 786
6. Stress, according to Selye, is a state or condition of the body produced by “diverse noxious
agents” and manifested by a syndrome of changes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Selye’s Concept of Stress
REF: p. 786
7. Stressors are always injurious, unpleasant, or painful stimuli. ANS: F TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 788
8. A stressor for one individual may not be a stressor for another. ANS: T TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
9. Stressors differ in different individuals and in one individual at different times. ANS: T TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 788
10. Because the body feels under attack when experiencing a stress response, the immune system
becomes more active and vigilant. ANS: F TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 785
11. The third stage of the stress syndrome rarely occurs in most individuals’ lifetimes. ANS: T TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 790
12. The classification of stimuli as stressors or nonstressors is very precise. ANS: F TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
13. One of the alarm reaction responses resulting from hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex is an
increase in allergic responses. ANS: F TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 789
14. Stress is considered a tangible phenomenon. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome
REF: p. 788
15. A triad of stress changes occurs in all three stages of the general adaptation syndrome. ANS: F TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 788-790
16. The second stage in the general adaptation syndrome is the alarm reaction. ANS: F TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 788
17. Both the stage of resistance and the alarm reaction show very similar responses. ANS: F TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 788-790
18. Blood sugar level tends to decrease as a general body response to stress. ANS: F TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 788
19. One of the alarm reaction responses resulting from increased sympathetic activity is decreased
digestion. ANS: T TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 789
20. The “fight-or-flight” syndrome of changes is characteristic of the exhaustion stage. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome, Stages
REF: pp. 790-791
21. During the alarm stage, the body exhibits lowered resistance to stressors. ANS: T TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 790
22. One characteristic of the stage of exhaustion in the general adaptation syndrome is increased
glucocorticoid secretion, but eventually secretion is markedly decreased. ANS: T TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 790
23. Normally, the second stage of the stress syndrome rarely occurs in most individuals’ lifetimes. ANS: F TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 789-790
24. In the Selye hypothesis about activation of the stress mechanism, the “alarm signals” act
directly on the hypothalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Stress
REF: p. 790
25. Type B individuals have been found to be at greater risk for elevated systolic blood pressure
and coronary disease. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Type A Behavior and Stress
REF: p. 795
26. Whether stress is good or bad for an individual is determined primarily by the severity of the
stressor. ANS: F TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
27. In response to stress, the adrenal cortex secretes cortisol and aldosterone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 791
28. A physiological stressor is anything an individual perceives as a threat. ANS: F TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
29. Individuals who are hard driving and competitive are said to have a type B personality. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Type A Behavior and Stress
REF: p. 795
30. Stress stimulating the limbic lobe is an example of indirect stimulation of the hypothalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 791
31. According to the current concepts of the stress syndrome, hypoglycemia is an example of
stress that indirectly stimulates the hypothalamus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 789
32. According to the current concepts of the stress syndrome, stress may be defined as any factor
that directly stimulates the posterior pituitary to secrete ADH. ANS: F TOP: Definitions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 792
33. The level of adrenocorticoids in the urine is often used to measure stress.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Indicators of Stress
REF: p. 792
34. Smoking has been shown to be a stressor that causes a marked rise in the plasma level of
hormones from the adrenal cortex. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Indicators of Stress
REF: p. 793
35. Water loss and a decrease in blood volume are common stress responses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 792
36. Psychological stressors produce a syndrome consisting only of objective
responses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Psychological Stress
REF: p. 793
37. Psychological stress is clearly unrelated to physiological stress. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Psychological Stress
REF: p. 793
38. Identical psychological stressors generally induce identical physiological responses in
different individuals. ANS: F TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 793
39. Some organ systems become less responsive to stress after they have been stimulated a
number of times. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Psychological Stress
REF: p. 793
40. Psychological stress can produce physiological stress, but not vice versa. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Psychological Stress
REF: p. 793
41. In any one individual, certain autonomic responses are better indicators of psychological
stress than are others. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Psychological Stress
REF: p. 794
42. The Selye stage of exhaustion immediately follows the alarm phase. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 788
TOP: Stages 43. High-stress, hard-driving, competitive individuals who may be at greater risk of coronary
heart disease are classified as type A. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Type A Behavior and Stress
REF: p. 795
44. The stage of exhaustion can be described as adaptation. ANS: F TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 789-790
45. Stressors are always bad stimuli. ANS: F TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 787-788
46. The stress response commonly referred to as “fight or flight” is evoked by increased
parasympathetic stimulation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 792
47. The current definition of stress is any stimulus that directly or indirectly stimulates neurons of
the hypothalamus to release cortisol. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Some Current Concepts About Stress
REF: p. 790
48. It is well accepted among physiologists that the higher the blood level of corticoids, the
greater an individual’s ability to resist stress. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Corticoids and Resistance to Stress
REF: p. 793
49. Physiological stress and psychological stress are similar phenomena. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Psychological Stress
REF: p. 793
50. The stress response affirms the importance of mind/body interaction in health and disease. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
51. One outcome of long-term stress is a disruption in the body’s ability to maintain some of its
homeostatic mechanisms. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
52. Recent research suggests that the study of stress requires a more general or holistic approach. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
53. According to Selye, anything that causes stress, either good or bad, is a stressor. ANS: T TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
54. Stressors tend to be extreme stimuli of either extreme abundance or extreme deficiency. ANS: T TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 787
55. Because stress requires an understanding of the possible threat, children younger than 1 year
do not experience stress. ANS: F TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 788
56. The terms stress triad and general adaptation syndrome are interchangeable. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Manifestations
REF: p. 788
57. In cases of prolonged stress, the exhaustion stage can end in the death of the individual. ANS: T TOP: Stages
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 790
58. Prolonged stress causes the secretion of a hormone called neuropeptide Y from the
sympathetic neurons and the adrenal glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 792
59. Because of the wealth of life experiences, elderly adults are better able to physically deal with
stress. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Stress-Age Syndrome
REF: p. 794
60. Lie detectors measure the physiological response to psychological stress. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 793
TOP: Psychological Stress
61. Lie detectors work because psychological stress causes a predictable, consistent physiological
response. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 793
TOP: Psychological Stress
62. Asthma and acne can have stress-related causes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Psychological Stress
REF: p. 794
63. The hypothalamus is sometimes referred to as the emotional brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 791
64. From the alarm reaction to the resistance stage, there is a decrease in glucocorticoid secretion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Three Stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome
REF: p. 790
65. In the article published in 1936, Selye coined the term stress as it is used today. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Development of the Stress Concept
REF: p. 786
66. Both social isolation and overcrowding can cause stress. ANS: T TOP: Stressors
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 787
67. The corticotropin-releasing hormone has a direct effect on the hypothalamus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stress Syndrome
REF: p. 791
68. A syndrome can be defined as a set of signs and symptoms that occur together and
characterize one particular disease. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Development of the Stress Concept
REF: p. 786
69. An indicator of stress is a drop in lymphocytes and an increase in eosinophils. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Indicators of Stress
REF: p. 792
70. Many experiments have supported the Selye hypothesis that higher levels of blood corticoids
are necessary to adapt to stress. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Corticoids and Resistance to Stress
REF: p. 793
71. A drop in blood lactate level is an objective measure of psychological stress. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Psychological Stress
REF: p. 793
72. Maternal malnutrition and smoking are two common stressors that influence the developing
fetus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects on Intrauterine Stress
REF: p. 795
73. The relationship between events that occur during fetal development and the appearance of
specific anatomical, physiological, or disease states that occur later in life is referred to as fetal programming. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects on Intrauterine Stress
REF: p. 795
74. Allostasis is the body’s final response to stress when normal homeostasis can no longer be
maintained. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Some Current Concepts About Stress, Definitions
REF: p. 790
75. Allostatic load can be described as the physiological load placed on the body by stress. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Some Current Concepts About Stress, Definitions
REF: pp. 790-791
MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Stage of resistance b. Stressors c. Adaptation d. Stress syndrome e. Alarm reaction f. Stage of exhaustion g. General adaptation syndrome h. Glucocorticoids 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Name given by Selye to the group of changes that manifest the presence of stress Agents that produce stress Changes in the body that help it respond to changes in the environment Third stage of the general adaptation syndrome Changes in the body initiated as a response to stress Initial stage of the general adaptation syndrome Hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to stress Second stage of the general adaptation syndrome
1. ANS: G TOP: Definitions 2. ANS: B TOP: Stressors 3. ANS: C
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 788
4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Definitions ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages
REF: p. 790 REF: p. 786 REF: pp. 788-789 REF: p. 788 REF: p. 788
OTHER 1. Differentiate between psychological stress and physiological stress. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 787-788, 793 TOP: Stressors, Psychological Stress 2. List the changes that constitute Selye’s stress triad. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome
REF: p. 788
3. Define stress. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Some Current Concepts About Stress 4. Define stressor. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 786
TOP: Stressors
5. Explain why the precise classification of stimuli as stressors or nonstressors is not possible. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 786-788
TOP: Stressors
6. Identify and briefly describe the three stages in the general adaptation syndrome. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 788-790
TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome
7. How is type A behavior related to stress, and what, if anything, may result? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 795
TOP: Type A Behavior and Stress
8. List the physical and psychological responses your body makes to stress. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 785-786
TOP: Introduction
9. What condition or behaviors by a mother can lead to increased stress on her fetus? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 795
TOP: Effects on Intrauterine Stress
REF: pp. 795
TOP: Effects on Intrauterine Stress
10. Define fetal programming. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
11. Explain the “biological tradeoffs” that a fetus may make in response to a stressful pregnancy. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 795
TOP: Effects on Intrauterine Stress
12. Explain the research that led to the development of Selye’s theory on stress. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 786 TOP: Development of the Stress Concept ESSAY
1. Joanne was admitted to the hospital for gallbladder surgery. A nurse came to examine her and
began with Joanne’s vital signs. The nurse noted a rapid pulse rate and elevated blood pressure. Joanne’s blood glucose level was slightly elevated also. What mechanisms could be causing these conditions? What is the stress in this situation, and how can she best deal with it? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 792-793
TOP: Indicators of Stress
Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following does not distribute air? a. Trachea b. Bronchus c. Alveolus d. Nose ANS: C TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 800
2. Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system? a. Assists with homeostasis of body pH b. Distributes oxygen to cells c. Filters air d. Warms air ANS: B TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 800
3. Which of the following is true of the cribriform plate? a. It separates the nasal and cranial cavities. b. It forms the lateral aspects of the nose. c. It separates the internal nose from the mouth. d. It forms a midline separation in the nasal cavity. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
4. The small openings in the cribriform plate function to: a. allow air to move between the nostrils. b. allow branches of the olfactory nerve to enter the cranial cavity and reach the
brain. c. provide a filtering system for the inspired air. d. do both A and B. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
5. The external openings to the nasal cavities can be referred to as: a. nostrils. b. anterior nares. c. external nares. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
6. The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following structures except the: a. larynx. b. trachea. c. oropharynx. d. nasopharynx. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Respiratory System
REF: p. 801
7. The hollow nasal cavity is separated by a midline partition called the: a. septum. b. conchae. c. cribriform plate. d. turbinates. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
8. Which of the following is not lined with a ciliated mucous membrane? a. Vestibule b. Posterior nares c. Trachea d. Primary bronchi ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
9. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of air as it passes through the nose into the
pharynx? a. Vestibule anterior nares inferior, middle, and superior meatus posterior nares b. Inferior, middle, and superior meatus nostrils vestibule posterior nares c. Anterior nares vestibule inferior, middle, and superior meatus posterior nares d. Anterior nares posterior nares vestibule inferior, middle, and superior meatus ANS: C TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 802
10. The largest of the paranasal sinuses is the: a. maxillary. b. frontal. c. ethmoid. d. sphenoid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 804
11. The respiratory portion of the nasal passage is lined with a mucous membrane made up of
_____ epithelium. a. stratified columnar b. pseudostratified columnar c. simple squamous d. simple columnar
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 803
12. Paranasal sinuses are normally filled with: a. bone marrow. b. a serous fluid. c. mucus. d. air. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 804
13. Which of the following is not a function of the pharynx? a. Aids in forming vowel sounds b. Provides pathway for food c. Determines the quality of the voice d. Provides pathway for air ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Pharynx
REF: p. 805
14. Olfactory epithelium is found: a. lining the nasopharynx. b. covering the superior turbinate. c. lining the paranasal sinuses. d. in all of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 803
15. The more common name for the pharynx is the: a. throat. b. windpipe. c. voice box. d. nasal cavity. ANS: A TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 804
16. The structures that deflect air as it passes through the nose are called: a. choanae. b. paranasal sinuses. c. conchae. d. vibrissae. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Nose
REF: p. 804
17. The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to: a. provide a large, mucus-covered surface area over which air must pass before
reaching the pharynx. b. provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the
system.
c. produce copious quantities of mucus. d. serve as resonating chambers for speech. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Nose
REF: p. 804
18. The anatomical division of the pharynx that is located behind the mouth from the soft palate
above to the level of the hyoid bone below is called the: a. nasopharynx. b. oropharynx. c. laryngopharynx. d. sphenopharynx. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pharynx
REF: p. 805
19. The lower border of the cavity of the larynx is formed by the: a. epiglottis. b. cricoid cartilage. c. glottis. d. thyroid cartilage. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Larynx
REF: pp. 805-806
20. The fauces, one of the seven openings found in the pharynx, opens into the: a. oropharynx. b. nasopharynx. c. esophagus. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pharynx
REF: p. 805
21. The structure in the neck known as the “Adam’s apple” is the: a. epiglottis. b. cricoid cartilage. c. glottis. d. thyroid cartilage. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx
REF: p. 807
22. The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the: a. trachea. b. nose. c. nasopharynx. d. oropharynx. ANS: C TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
23. The small, leaf-shaped cartilage behind the tongue and hyoid bone is the:
a. b. c. d.
cricoid cartilage. thyroid cartilage. corniculate cartilage. epiglottis.
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx
REF: p. 807
24. The approximate length of the trachea, or windpipe, is _____ cm. a. 5 b. 11 c. 17 d. 24 ANS: B TOP: Trachea
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 807
25. Which of the following is true of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx? a. Their origin is the hyoid bone. b. They move the larynx as a whole. c. They serve in voice production. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Larynx
REF: p. 807
26. The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are: a. primary bronchi. b. secondary bronchi. c. tertiary bronchi. d. bronchioles. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Bronchi
REF: p. 809
27. Which of the following is not a true statement? a. When the diaphragm relaxes, it returns to a domelike shape. b. When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the floor of the thoracic cavity downward. c. Changes in thorax size bring about inspiration and expiration. d. Raising the ribs decreases the depth and width of the thorax. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Thoracic Cavity
REF: p. 816
28. Gas exchange, the lungs’ main and vital function, takes place in the: a. bronchioles. b. secondary bronchi. c. primary bronchi. d. alveoli. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Lungs
REF: p. 815
29. The function of surfactant is to: a. transport oxygen from the air to the blood. b. transport carbon dioxide from the blood to the air. c. prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration. d. trap foreign particles as they enter the bronchial tree. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Alveoli
REF: p. 811
30. In the right lung, the superior and middle lobes are separated by the: a. horizontal fissure. b. oblique fissure. c. bronchopulmonary segments. d. hilum. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Lungs
REF: p. 812
31. The divisions of the thoracic cavity include all of the following except the: a. left pleural cavity. b. right pleural cavity. c. respiratory cavity. d. mediastinum. ANS: C TOP: Thorax
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 816
32. Which of the following is not a paranasal sinus? a. Frontal b. Maxillary c. Mandibular d. Sphenoid ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 804
33. Which of the following is not a subdivision of the thoracic cavity? a. Left pleural division b. Right pleural division c. Medial pleural division d. Mediastinum ANS: C TOP: Thorax
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 816
34. Which of the following statements is not true about the respiratory mucosa? a. The cilia can “taste” bitter toxins in the air. b. The cilia respond to toxins by moving more rapidly to remove the toxin. c. The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it. d. All of the above statements are true about the respiratory mucosa. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli
REF: p. 811
35. Which of the following is not an accessory structure of the respiratory system? a. Oral cavity b. Trachea c. Rib cage d. Diaphragm ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Respiratory System
REF: p. 802
36. Cellular respiration occurs: a. in the alveoli. b. on the red blood cell. c. in the mitochondria. d. in both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 802 TOP: Structural Plan of the Respiratory System 37. The vomeronasal organ: a. is the structure that joins the nasal cavity and the vomer bone. b. is vestigial with no known function in the adult. c. may be able to respond to complex chemicals called pheromones. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Vomeronasal Organ
REF: p. 804
38. Air inhaled through the mouth would be _____ than air inhaled through the nose. a. warmer b. dirtier c. moister d. All of the above are correct. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 804
TOP: Functions of the Nose
39. The length of the pharynx is about _____ cm. a. 3.5 b. 8.5 c. 12.5 d. 17.5 ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pharynx
REF: p. 805
40. Which of these is not an opening in the pharynx? a. Trachea b. Eustachian tube c. The fauces d. Esophagus ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pharynx
REF: p. 805
41. Which of these structures is not a part of the glottis? a. True vocal cords b. Rima glottidis c. False vocal cords d. Both B and C ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Larynx
REF: p. 806
42. Which of the following is a paired cartilage in the larynx? a. Thyroid b. Cuneiform c. Epiglottis d. None of the above ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx
REF: p. 807
43. Which of the following is not part of the respiratory membrane? a. Ciliated respiratory mucosa b. Alveolar epithelium c. Capillary epithelium d. All of the above are part of the respiratory membrane. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Alveoli
REF: p. 811
44. Ciliated cells lining the respiratory tract: a. help move air into and out of the lungs. b. trap and phagocytize microorganisms. c. help move the mucus blanket toward the pharynx. d. do both B and C. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli
REF: p. 811
45. The total number of lobes in both lungs is: a. 6. b. 5. c. 4. d. 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Lungs
REF: p. 812
46. Which of these structures is not part of the lower respiratory tract? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Lungs d. All of the above are part of the lower respiratory tract. ANS: A
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 801
TOP: Structural Plan of the Respiratory System 47. Which of the following are not part of the external portion of the nose? a. Nasal bones b. Palatine bones c. Alar cartilages d. All of the above are part of the external portion of the nose. ANS: B TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 802
48. The cribriform plate is part of the: a. nasal bone. b. palatine bone. c. ethmoid bone. d. nasal conchae. ANS: C TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 802
49. Which of these structures is not part of the nasal septum? a. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone b. Vomer bone c. Vomeronasal cartilage d. All of the above are part of the nasal septum. ANS: D TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 802
50. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the paranasal sinuses? a. They are air filled. b. They are named after the bones in which they are located. c. They drain or open into the oropharynx. d. All of the above are true of the paranasal sinuses. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Paranasal Sinuses
REF: p. 804
51. At the level of the hyoid bone, the: a. laryngopharynx becomes the esophagus. b. oropharynx becomes the laryngopharynx. c. nasopharynx becomes the oropharynx. d. nasopharynx becomes the laryngopharynx. ANS: B TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
52. Which is a pyramid-shaped cartilage that is an attachment point of the vocal cords? a. Arytenoid b. Thyroid c. Epiglottis d. Adam’s apple
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx
REF: p. 807
53. Which is the most proximal part of the air distribution system that no longer contains
cartilage? a. Primary bronchi b. Secondary bronchi c. Bronchioles d. Alveolar ducts ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 810
TOP: Structure of the Bronchi
54. For purposes of study, the respiratory system can be divided into what two parts? a. Air distribution and gas exchange b. Upper respiratory tract and lower respiratory tract c. Trachea and lungs d. Cranial and thoracic ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Respiratory System
REF: p. 801
55. The more correct name for a sore throat is: a. rhinitis. b. laryngitis. c. pharyngitis. d. tonsillitis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 817
56. Which of these is the only opening to the oropharynx? a. The fauces b. Eustachian tubes (auditory tubes) c. Posterior nares d. The esophagus ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pharynx
REF: p. 805
57. Which pair of tonsils is located in the oropharynx? a. Pharyngeal tonsils b. Palatine tonsils c. Lingual tonsils d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pharynx 58. Which pair of tonsils is located in the nasopharynx? a. Pharyngeal tonsils b. Palatine tonsils c. Lingual tonsils d. Both B and C
REF: p. 805
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pharynx
REF: p. 805
59. Gas exchange occurs across the: a. respiratory mucosa. b. respiratory membrane. c. visceral pleura. d. pulmonary membrane. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Alveoli
REF: p. 811
60. Which of these structures is not found in the left lung? a. Oblique fissure b. Secondary bronchi entering the superior lobe c. Secondary bronchi entering the inferior lobe d. Horizontal fissure ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Lungs
REF: p. 812
61. Which statement describes the function of the turbinates in the respiratory tract? a. Turbinates contain the vibrissae, which serve as an initial “filter” to screen
particulate matter from the air. b. Turbinates serve as baffles to provide a large, mucus-covered surface area over
which air must pass before reaching the pharynx. c. Turbinates lighten the bones of the skull and serve as resonating chambers for
speech. d. Turbinates are lined with a ciliated membrane and form two cartilaginous folds
that serve as the vestibular vocal cords. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 804
TOP: Functions of the Nose
62. Which describes the role of surfactant in the respiratory system? a. Surfactant helps increase surface tension within the alveoli, thus preventing each
alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration. b. Surfactant helps reduce surface tension within the alveoli, thus preventing each
alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration. c. Surfactant provides a layer of protective mucus that covers a large portion of the
membrane that lines the respiratory tree, thereby purifying the air during inhalation. d. Surfactant helps increase surface area, which increases the rate of gas exchange within the alveoli. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 811
TOP: Structure of the Alveoli
63. Anatomically, how does the right bronchus differ from the left bronchus, and what effect
might this have on the aspiration of objects? a. The right bronchus is the same size and shape as the left. Therefore, aspiration of foreign objects can occur equally often in either bronchus. b. The left bronchus is slightly larger and more vertical than the right. This
anatomical fact helps explain why aspirated foreign objects frequently lodge in the left bronchus. c. The right bronchus is slightly larger and more vertical than the left. This anatomical fact helps explain why aspirated foreign objects frequently lodge in the right bronchus. d. The right bronchus is slightly smaller and more vertical than the left. This anatomical fact helps explain why aspirated foreign objects frequently lodge in the left bronchus. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 812
TOP: Bronchi and Alveoli
64. What aspects of the structure of lung tissue make efficient gas exchange possible? a. The enormous surface area of the bronchus and trachea, where the very thin-walled
alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible extremely rapid diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood b. A small surface area and the respiratory membrane, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible lower diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood and help retain oxygen in the body c. The enormous surface area and the respiratory membrane, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible extremely rapid diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood d. A small surface area such as the pleura, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible extremely rapid diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 816
TOP: Lungs
65. Which statement differentiates between the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the larynx and
explains which one moves the larynx? a. Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion on the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin on some other structure; neither muscle moves nor displaces the larynx as a whole. b. Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion on the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin on some other structure; contraction of the extrinsic muscles actually moves or displaces the larynx as a whole. c. Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion on the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin on some other structure; contraction of the intrinsic muscles actually moves or displaces the larynx as a whole. d. Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion outside of the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin and insertions on the larynx and actually move or displace the larynx as a whole. ANS: A TRUE/FALSE
DIF: Application
REF: p. 807
TOP: Muscles of the Larynx
1. When the palatine bones fail to unite completely, the resulting condition is called cleft palate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
2. The hollow nasal cavity is separated by a midline partition, the conchae, dividing it into a
right cavity and a left cavity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
3. The external openings into the nasal cavities are called nares. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
4. The cribriform plate is perforated by many small holes through which branches of the
olfactory nerve pass, relaying smell to the brain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
5. The nose is surrounded by the frontal bone and the mandible. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 803
6. When air leaves the posterior nares, it next enters the trachea. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
7. The more common name for the pharynx is the voice box. ANS: F TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
8. The development of the paranasal sinuses is complete relatively early during fetal
development. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Development of the Paranasal Sinuses
REF: p. 804
9. There are eight paranasal sinuses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 804
10. The olfactory epithelium contains many nerve cells and a rich lymphatic supply. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 803
11. The first structure with which the air comes in contact as it moves from the nose into the
pharynx is the anterior nares. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
12. The vibrissae serve as baffles to provide a large, mucus-covered surface area over which air
must pass before reaching the pharynx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Nose
REF: p. 804
13. The trachea is more commonly called the throat. ANS: F TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
14. Another name for the larynx is the throat. ANS: F TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
15. The lingual tonsils are the tonsils most commonly removed by a tonsillectomy. ANS: F TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
16. The palatine tonsils are located at the base of the tongue. ANS: F TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
17. Bony structures constitute the framework of the larynx. ANS: F TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
18. The lower pair of folds in the mucous membrane of the larynx serve as the true vocal cords. ANS: T TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 806
19. The pharynx serves as a passageway for both food and air. ANS: T TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
20. The trachea collapses between respirations. ANS: F TOP: Trachea
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 807
21. The larynx filters, warms, and humidifies inspired air. ANS: T TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 807
22. The arytenoid cartilages are the most important of the paired laryngeal cartilages. ANS: T TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 807
23. The structure of the secondary and tertiary bronchi and bronchioles is nearly identical to the
structure of the primary bronchi. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi and Alveoli
REF: p. 810
24. Alveolar ducts consist of cartilage rings, smooth muscles, and endothelium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Bronchi
REF: pp. 807, 809
25. The parts of the thoracic cavity occupied by the lungs are called the pleural divisions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Thoracic Cavity
REF: p. 816
26. Air and blood are in direct contact in the alveoli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Alveoli
REF: pp. 810-811
27. Surfactant is a unique fluid that helps increase the surface tension within the alveoli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Alveoli
REF: p. 812
28. The main function of bronchioles is distribution. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli
REF: p. 811
29. Both the right lung and the left lung have an oblique fissure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Lungs
REF: p. 812
30. Both the right lung and the left lung are subdivided into three lobes each. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Lungs
REF: p. 812
31. The apex of each lung is lateral and inferior. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Lungs
REF: p. 812
32. The oblique fissure is present only in the right lung. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Lungs
REF: p. 812
33. Raising the ribs enlarges the depth and width of the thorax. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Thoracic Cavity
REF: p. 816
34. In the thoracic cavity, the trachea is located in the mediastinum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Thoracic Cavity
REF: p. 816
35. A pleural space containing a lubricating fluid separates two layers of pleura. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Thoracic Cavity
REF: p. 816
36. The parietal layer of the pleura lines the entire thoracic cavity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Thoracic Cavity
REF: p. 816
37. When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the ribs together and reduces the size of the thoracic
cavity and expels air. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Thoracic Cavity
REF: p. 816
38. The thoracic cavity is lined by visceral pleura. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Thoracic Cavity
REF: p. 816
39. The bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli all function as air distributors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli
REF: p. 811
40. Vocal cords and epiglottis are synonymous terms. ANS: F TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 806
41. Most of the structures in the bronchial tree are involved in air distribution rather than gas
exchange. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 800
42. The pharynx is a tubelike structure that opens only into the mouth and larynx. ANS: F TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
43. Enlarged pharyngeal tonsils are called sinusoids. ANS: F TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
44. The more common name for the thyroid cartilage is the “Adam’s apple.” ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx
REF: p. 807
45. The oropharynx moves up and down during swallowing to prevent food or liquids from
entering the trachea. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx
REF: p. 807
46. Aspirated objects tend to lodge in the right bronchus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Bronchi
REF: p. 807
47. Surfactant is a fluid coating the alveoli that reduces surface tension. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Alveoli
REF: p. 811
48. Tuberculosis is a highly contagious lower respiratory bacterial infection that can permanently
destroy lung tissue and cause death. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 819
49. The rings of cartilage that form the trachea are incomplete rings that prevent it from
collapsing and shutting off the vital airway. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Trachea
REF: p. 807
50. The bronchi divide into symmetrical trachea. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 807
TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 51. The right lung is divided into three lobes by horizontal and oblique fissures. ANS: T TOP: Lungs
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 812
52. The hilum of each lung is lateral and inferior. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Lungs
REF: p. 812
53. For gas exchange to occur at the cellular level, both the respiratory system and the circulatory
system must be functional. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 800
54. The respiratory system plays a crucial role in regulating the body’s pH. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 801
TOP: Introduction
55. The main characteristic shared by organs of the upper respiratory tract is that they are not in
the thorax. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Respiratory System
REF: p. 801
56. The nares are the flaring cartilaginous expansions forming and supporting the outer side of
each nostril opening. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
57. The palatine bone is both the roof of the mouth and the floor of the nose. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
58. A portion of the sphenoid bone called the cribriform plate forms the roof of the nose. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
59. Because of the rapid blood loss, nosebleeds are frequently a serious problem. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
60. The terms turbinates and conchae refer to the same structures. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 802
TOP: Structure of the Nose 61. All of the turbinates are processes of the ethmoid bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
62. The olfactory epithelium is a special part of the respiratory mucosa. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 803
63. The respiratory mucosa extends down to and lines the alveoli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 803
64. The paranasal sinuses are lined with respiratory mucosa. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 804
65. All of the paranasal sinuses drain into the nasal cavity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 804
66. The laryngopharynx ends at the esophagus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pharynx
REF: p. 805
67. There are nine openings in the pharynx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pharynx
REF: p. 805
68. All three sets of tonsils are located in the oropharynx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pharynx
REF: p. 805
69. The larynx lies ventral to the third, fourth, and fifth vertebrae and superior to the pharynx. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 805
TOP: Location of the Larynx
70. Both the thyroid gland and the carotid arteries touch the sides of the larynx. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Larynx 71. The false vocal cords are superior to the true vocal cords.
REF: p. 805
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Larynx
REF: p. 806
72. Besides being the name of a heart chamber, ventricle is the name of a part of the larynx. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Larynx
REF: p. 806
73. When the intrinsic muscles of the larynx contract, the larynx moves up in the throat. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Larynx
REF: p. 807
74. Both intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the larynx are used to put tension on the vocal cords. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Larynx
REF: p. 807
75. The trachea is slightly shorter than the pharynx. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pharynx, Structure of the Trachea
REF: pp. 805, 807
76. Unlike the trachea, parts of the primary bronchi have complete cartilage rings. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Bronchi
REF: pp. 807, 809
77. There are almost 30 million alveoli in the two lungs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Bronchi
REF: p. 810
78. The most important structure in the lower respiratory tract is the alveolus. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 810-811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli 79. The apex of the lung rests directly on the diaphragm. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Lungs
REF: p. 812
80. The respiratory tract does not include a left middle secondary bronchus. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 812, 814
TOP: Structure of the Lungs
81. The rib cage and the diaphragm are considered part of the accessory structures of the
respiratory system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Respiratory System
REF: p. 802
82. The olfactory epithelium can be distinguished from the rest of the respiratory mucosa in the
nose by its bright pink or red color. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nasal Mucosa
REF: p. 803
83. When the palatine tonsils become enlarged, they are called adenoids. ANS: F TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
84. The changing shape of the pharynx allows the production of different vowel sounds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Pharynx
REF: p. 805
85. All of the cartilages in the larynx are paired cartilages. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx
REF: pp. 806-807
86. The first part of the bronchial tree that does not contain cartilage as part of its structure is the
alveolar ducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Bronchi
REF: p. 809
87. The mucus blanket and the cilia that move it to the pharynx act as a purification mechanism
for the respiratory system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli
REF: p. 811
88. Because cigarette smoke contains so many irritants, the longer someone smokes the more it
acts as a stimulant for the cilia in the respiratory system to move more rapidly to clean out the bronchi. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli
REF: p. 811
89. The primary bronchi and the pulmonary blood vessels bound together by connective tissue
form what is called the root of the lung. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Lungs
REF: p. 812
90. Gas exchange in the lung is efficient because both the alveoli and capillaries have very thin
walls. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Function of the Lungs
REF: p. 815
91. Just as all of the circulatory system serves the capillaries, all of the respiratory system serves
the alveoli. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli
REF: p. 811
92. The movement of oxygen from the alveoli to the red blood cells is called cellular respiration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Respiratory System
REF: p. 802
93. Research suggests that the function of the vomeronasal organ is the detection of pheromones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vomeronasal Organ
REF: p. 804
94. The root of the lung and the hilum of the lung are the same structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Lungs
REF: p. 812
95. The nose is composed of two bones and two cartilages. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose
REF: p. 802
96. The paranasal sinuses have two functions: they lighten the bones of the skull and also drain
trapped particles into the nasopharynx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Nose
REF: p. 804
97. Both the origin and insertion of intrinsic muscles of the larynx are attached to the larynx itself. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscles of the Larynx
REF: p. 807
98. The tension of the vocal cords is the sole determinant of the sound of the voice. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Larynx
REF: p. 807
99. There are seven cartilages of the larynx, three of which are paired. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx
REF: pp. 806-807
100. The epiglottis is a small, leaf-shaped cartilage that projects upward behind the tongue and
hyoid bone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx
REF: p. 807
101. The laryngeal cavity above the vestibular folds is called the infraglottic cavity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Larynx
REF: p. 806
102. Each vocal cord is covered by simple squamous epithelium that is surrounded by a strong
vocal ligament. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Larynx
REF: p. 806
103. The narrowest part of the larynx is the slit between the right and left vocal folds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Larynx
REF: p. 806
104. The trachea provides part of an open passage from the outside to the lungs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Trachea
REF: p. 807
105. The diameter of the trachea is about 2.5 inches. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Trachea
REF: p. 807
106. There are 21 levels of branching in the bronchial tree. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Bronchi
REF: p. 809
107. Ciliated mucus lines both the trachea and bronchi. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Bronchi
REF: pp. 807, 809
108. The respiratory cilia can “taste” bitter toxins and beat more rapidly to remove the toxins from
the airway. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli
REF: p. 811
109. The respiratory escalator are a group of cilia that beat in unison to move air more effectively
to the alveoli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding definition.
REF: p. 811
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. l. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Larynx Pleura Turbinates Respiratory membrane Alveolus Trachea Pharynx Bronchial tree Respiratory mucosa Paranasal sinus Bronchiole Nares
Throat Bony projections that divide each nasal cavity into three passageways; nasal conchae Serous membrane in the thoracic cavity Primary site of gas exchange in the lungs Windpipe; extends from the larynx in the neck to the primary bronchi in the thorax Voice box; located just below the pharynx Small branch of a bronchus Specialized ciliated mucous membrane that lines the respiratory tract down to the bronchioles One of four pairs of air sinuses of the skull opening into the nose Double layer of cells where gases are exchanged between alveolar air and blood System of airways composed of the trachea and two primary bronchi and their many branches External openings into the nasal cavities or the nostrils
1. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Pharynx 2. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Thoracic Cavity 4. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Alveoli 5. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Trachea 6. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Larynx 7. ANS: K DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 8. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Nasal Mucosa 9. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Nose 10. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Alveoli 11. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 12. ANS: L DIF: Memorization TOP: Nose
REF: p. 805 REF: p. 802 REF: p. 816 REF: p. 810 REF: p. 807 REF: p. 805 REF: p. 807 REF: p. 803 REF: p. 804 REF: p. 810 REF: pp. 807, 809 REF: p. 802
Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Alveoli b. Primary bronchi c. Secondary bronchi d. Tertiary bronchi e. Trachea 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
Extends from the larynx in the neck to the primary bronchi; the windpipe Consists of the right and left bronchi, which branch off of the trachea Tubes that supply each lobe of the lung Primary gas exchange structures of the respiratory tract Tubes that supply the respiratory bronchioles
13. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Trachea 14. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 15. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Lungs 16. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Alveoli 17. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Bronchi
REF: p. 807 REF: p. 807 REF: p. 812 REF: p. 810 REF: p. 809
OTHER 1. What part of the respiratory system serves as resonating chambers for speech? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 804
TOP: Functions of the Nose
2. Name the three divisions of the pharynx, starting with the most superior. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 805
TOP: Pharynx
3. What structures are located at the superior and the inferior ends of the trachea? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 805, 807, 809 TOP: Larynx, Structure of the Bronchi 4. Anatomically, how does the right bronchus differ from the left bronchus? What effect might
this have on the aspiration of objects?
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 807
TOP: Bronchi and Alveoli
5. Explain why the bronchial tree is described as resembling an inverted tree trunk. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 807, 809
TOP: Structure of the Bronchi
6. Identify some factors about the structure of lung tissue that make efficient gas exchange
possible. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 815-816
TOP: Lungs
7. What structures enter each lung at the hilum? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 812
TOP: Structure of the Lungs
REF: p. 814
TOP: Structure of the Lungs
8. What are bronchopulmonary segments? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
9. List the functions of the respiratory system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 800-801
TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 804
TOP: Functions of the Nose
10. List the functions of the nose. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
11. Differentiate between the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the larynx, and give one function
of each.
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 807
TOP: Muscles of the Larynx
12. List two functions of the paranasal sinuses. ANS:
Answers will vary DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 804
TOP: Functions of the Nose
13. Explain the ways in which the volume of the thoracic cavity is increased. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 816
TOP: Functions of the Thoracic Cavity
14. Name the structures through which air passes from the beginning of the trachea to the alveoli. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Trachea, Bronchi and Alveoli
REF: pp. 807, 809-810
15. Explain how the respiratory membrane allows for an efficient exchange of gases in the lung. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 810-811, 815-816 TOP: Structure of the Alveoli, Functions of the Lungs 16. What is surfactant and what is its function? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 811
TOP: Structure of the Alveoli
17. What is the vomeronasal organ and what does research evidence suggest its function might
be? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 804
TOP: Vomeronasal Organ
18. How does the structure of the trachea help it accomplish its function?
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 807
TOP: Trachea
19. Explain the ways in which the bronchi assist in cleansing the air before it gets to the alveoli.
What can lessen the effectiveness of the bronchi’s ability to clean the air? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 811-812 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli ESSAY 1. Richard is a heavy smoker. Recently he has noticed that when he gets up in the morning, he
has a bothersome cough that brings up a large amount of mucus. The cough persists for several minutes and then stops until the next morning. What is an explanation for this condition? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 811-812
TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli
2. Donald was a smoker but quit 17 years ago. He has developed a raspy cough, has chest pain
with exertion, and is losing weight. X-ray examination reveals darkened shadows on his lungs. What is the primary diagnosis? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 819
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
3. Kelly is 5 years old and is a mouth breather. She has had repeated episodes of tonsillitis, and
her pediatrician suggests removal of her tonsils and adenoids. He further suggests that the surgery may cure her mouth-breathing problem. Why is this a possibility? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 805
TOP: Pharynx
Chapter 36: Ventilation Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the
respiratory system? a. Transport of gases b. Gas exchange in lungs and tissue c. Control of cell metabolism rate d. Pulmonary ventilation ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory Physiology
REF: p. 825
2. Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg. a. 650 b. 700 c. 760 d. 800 ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 825
3. Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies _____ with pressure at a _____ temperature. a. directly; constant b. inversely; constant c. directly; constantly changing d. inversely; constantly changing ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 826
4. Which muscles are used for forced expiration? a. Sternocleidomastoid and abdominal muscles b. Sternocleidomastoid and intercostals c. External intercostals and pectoralis muscles d. Abdominal muscles and internal intercostals ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 825
5. When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: a. inspiration occurs. b. expiration occurs. c. lung tissue has collapsed. d. the bronchioles are obstructed. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 825
6. The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the:
TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
a. b. c. d.
inspiratory capacity and the residual volume. inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume. tidal volume, residual volume, and expiratory reserve volume. inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and inspiratory capacity.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
7. The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and
expiration is: a. inspiratory and expiratory reserve volume. b. vital capacity. c. tidal volume. d. residual volume. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
8. During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes: a. cohesion of visceral and parietal pleura. b. a pressure gradient from alveoli to atmosphere. c. a decrease in alveolar pressure. d. an increase in intrathoracic pressure from about –6 to –4 mm Hg. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 825
9. Vital capacity is defined as the: a. maximum volume of air that can be moved into and out of the lungs during forced
respiration. b. volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal inspiration. c. volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled at the end of a normal expiration. d. total volume of air contained in the respiratory passages. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
10. Excessive fluid in the pleural cavity would be most likely to cause: a. increased residual volume. b. decreased vital capacity. c. increased functional reserve volume. d. decreased tidal volume. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 834
TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
11. Which of the following constitutes total lung volume? a. Residual volume and vital capacity b. Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume c. Residual volume and tidal volume d. Vital capacity and tidal volume ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
12. If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is
approximately _____ ml. a. 50 b. 100 c. 150 d. 200 ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 834
TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
13. A type of breathing characterized by gradually increasing tidal volume for several breaths
followed by several breaths with gradually decreasing tidal volume is: a. dyspnea. b. apnea. c. Biot breathing. d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Breathing
REF: p. 836
14. Normal, quiet breathing is known as: a. orthopnea. b. hyperpnea. c. dyspnea. d. eupnea. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Breathing
REF: p. 836
15. Which type of breathing is characterized by repeated sequences of deep gasps and apnea, and
is usually seen in people with increased intracranial pressure? a. Hyperpnea b. Dyspnea c. Biot’s breathing d. Eupnea ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Breathing
REF: p. 836
16. Labored or difficult breathing is known as: a. apnea. b. hyperpnea. c. dyspnea. d. eupnea. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Breathing
REF: p. 836
17. A sudden rise in arterial blood pressure will: a. cause a reflex increase in rate and depth of respirations. b. cause a reflex slowing of respirations. c. have no effect on respirations because of the control mechanisms in the cerebral
cortex. d. cause an immediate decrease in respirations followed by a prolonged period of rapid and shallow respirations. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing
REF: p. 841
18. Which of the following combinations in arterial blood could cause an increase in the
respiratory rate? a. Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2 b. Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, increased pH, decreased PO2 c. Decreased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, increased pH, increased PO2 d. Decreased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2 ANS: A DIF: Application TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing
REF: p. 841
19. Which muscle is not used in quiet inspiration? a. Serratus anterior b. External intercostal muscles c. Diaphragm d. Neither A nor B ANS: A TOP: Inspiration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 828
20. Which muscle is used in quiet expiration? a. Internal intercostals b. External intercostals c. Abdominal muscles d. None of the above ANS: D TOP: Expiration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 829
21. Which of the following will cause brief apnea? a. Sudden painful stimulus b. Increase in carbon dioxide in the blood c. Sudden cold stimulus applied to the skin d. Both A and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing
REF: p. 841
22. The tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to the preinspiration volume is called: a. compliance. b. elastic recoil. c. expiration. d. ventilation. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 825
23. Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution? a. Dalton b. Henry c. Boyle d. Charles ANS: B TOP: Gas Laws
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 826
24. Alveolar ventilation is inspired air minus: a. anatomical dead air space. b. tidal volume. c. reserve volume. d. residual volume. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Volumes, Pulmonary Capacities
REF: pp. 831, 834
25. The amount of air left in the lung after a normal expiration is called: a. anatomical dead air space. b. physiological dead air space. c. functional residual capacity. d. vital capacity. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Volumes, Pulmonary Capacities
REF: pp. 831, 834
26. If the tidal volume were 600 ml, the alveolar ventilation would be about _____ ml. a. 550 b. 400 c. 300 d. 250 ANS: B DIF: Application REF: pp. 831, 834 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes, Pulmonary Capacities 27. The inspiratory center is located in what part of the nervous system? a. Pons b. Medulla c. Cerebellum d. Cerebrum ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory Control Centers
REF: p. 838
28. The apneustic center is located in what part of the nervous system? a. Pons b. Medulla c. Cerebellum d. Cerebrum ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory Control Centers
REF: p. 838
29. Internal respiration can be defined as: a. the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung. b. pulmonary ventilation. c. the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissues cells. d. both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory Physiology
REF: p. 825
30. External respiration can be defined as: a. the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung. b. pulmonary ventilation. c. the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissue cells. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory Physiology
REF: p. 825
31. Which explains the relationship between the gas pressure gradient of the atmosphere and the
alveolar air that allows inhalation? a. When atmospheric pressure is less than the pressure within the lung, air flows down this gas pressure gradient. Then air moves from the atmosphere into the lungs. b. When atmospheric pressure is greater than the pressure within the lungs, air flows down this gas pressure gradient. Then air moves from the atmosphere into the lungs. c. When atmospheric pressure is greater than the pressure within the lung, air flows away from this gas pressure gradient. Then air moves from the lungs out into the atmosphere. d. When atmospheric pressure is less than the pressure within the lung, air flows up this gas pressure gradient. Then air moves from the atmosphere into the lungs. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 825
TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
32. Which of the following would you expect to happen to cellular respiration during exercise? a. Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma
PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause an increase in respiration rate. b. Decreased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause a decrease in respiration rate. c. Exercise causes a decrease in cellular respiration by shifting peripheral chemoreceptors in the heart to cause retention of oxygen. d. Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a decrease in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause a decrease in respiration rate. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 841
TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing 33. Why would a collapsed right lung, due to a pneumothorax, also collapse the left lung? a. The mediastinum is a mobile rather than a rigid partition between the two pleural
sacs, thereby allowing the increased pressure in the side of the chest that is open to push the heart and other mediastinal structures toward the intact side, where they can exert pressure on the left lung. b. Subatmospheric pressure increases from its normal level and thereby moves from high pressure area (right lung) to low pressure area (left lung). c. When intrathoracic pressure increases, the mediastinum softens and thereby allows the increased pressure in the side of the chest that is open to push the heart and mediastinal structures toward the intact side, where they can exert pressure on the left lung. d. Intrathoracic pressure increases from its subatmospheric level to an atmospheric level, thereby allowing the pressure within the chest to increase in proportion to the volume of the thorax. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 835
TOP: Pneumothorax
TRUE/FALSE 1. The major factor that determines the movement of air into or out of the lungs is a pressure
gradient. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 825
2. A primary function of the respiratory system is to supply tissue with adequate oxygen and to
remove carbon dioxide. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 824
3. For air to remain in the lungs, the pressure in the lungs must be equal to or less than
atmospheric pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 825
4. Standard atmospheric pressure is usually about 760 mm Hg. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 825
5. The tendency of the lungs and thorax to return to their preinspiration volume is a physical
phenomenon called elastic recoil. ANS: T TOP: Expiration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 829
6. The inspiratory capacity is equal to the sum of the tidal volume and the inspiratory reserve
volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
7. The amount of air that could be forcibly expired after normal expiration is called the
functional residual capacity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Volumes
REF: p. 831
8. Vital capacity is the sum of inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve
volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
9. Anatomical dead space approximates 10% of the tidal volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
10. With emphysema, the amount of dead space air increases. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
11. Anatomical dead space contains air that does not ventilate the alveoli. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
12. The anatomical dead space is approximately equal to the same number of milliliters as the
individual’s weight in pounds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
13. The residual volume is increased with a pneumothorax. ANS: F
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 835
TOP: Pneumothorax
14. Orthopnea can be relieved by assuming an erect posture. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Breathing
REF: p. 836
15. Hypoventilation is characterized by low levels of carbon dioxide. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Breathing
REF: p. 836
16. Dyspnea is often associated with hyperventilation. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 836
TOP: Types of Breathing
17. The pneumotaxic center operates mainly to prevent overinflation of lung tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory Control Centers
REF: p. 838
18. The diving reflex is related to the effects of hydrostatic pressure on the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Unusual Breathing Reflexes
REF: p. 839
19. Input from the apneustic center in the pons inhibits the inspiratory center, causing a decrease
in the length and depth of inspiration. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 838
TOP: Respiratory Control Centers
20. The Hering-Breuer reflexes are activated by stretch receptors in the lungs that send messages
to the inspiratory center. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing
REF: p. 841
21. Cerebral impulses are a more powerful regulator of respirations than the carbon dioxide
content of the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory Control Centers
REF: p. 838
22. Both sudden painful stimulation and sudden cold stimulation to the skin can produce reflex
apnea. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing
REF: p. 841
23. The pneumotaxic center normally inhibits the apneustic center and the inspiratory center to
permit a normal rhythm of breathing. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 838
TOP: Respiratory Control Centers
24. The Hering-Breuer reflex regulates tidal volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing
REF: p. 841
25. In both inspiration and expiration, air moves down a pressure gradient. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 825
26. The pressure between the visceral pleura and parietal pleura must always be positive to ensure
the lung can expand. ANS: F TOP: Expiration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 829
27. As lung compliance decreases, the efficiency of respiration increases. ANS: F TOP: Inspiration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 828
28. As the blood volume in the lung increases, the vital capacity increases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
29. Anatomical dead air space and physiological dead air space are interchangeable terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
30. A healthy respiratory system will still contain a certain amount of dead air space. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
31. A large amount of physiological dead air space would indicate an abnormal condition in the
respiratory system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
32. Contraction of the diaphragm alone can produce quiet respiration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 825
33. Charles law deals with the relationship between pressure and volume. ANS: F TOP: Gas Laws
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 826
34. Quiet expiration is normally a passive process. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 829
35. Because residual volume cannot be voluntarily exhaled, it is not included as part of vital
capacity. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 834
TOP: Pulmonary Volumes 36. A collapsed lung has no air in it and will sink if placed in water. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Volumes
REF: p. 834
37. When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the base of the ribs together, forcing air out of the
lungs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 828
38. The apneustic center is located in the medulla of the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory Control Centers
REF: p. 838
39. The expiratory center of the medulla seems to be inactive in normal, quiet breathing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory Control Centers
REF: p. 838
40. The pneumotaxic center is located in the pons of the brain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory Control Centers
REF: p. 838
41. The volume of inspired air that actually reaches the alveoli is called alveolar ventilation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
42. Pulmonary ventilation is a technical term for what most people call breathing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Ventilation
REF: p. 825
43. The gas laws are based on the concept of a standard gas whose molecules are so far apart that
they rarely collide. ANS: F TOP: Gas Laws
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 826
44. A rise in the carbon dioxide partial pressure is frequently linked to a rise in pH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing
REF: p. 831
45. A relatively small rise in arterial carbon dioxide partial pressure stimulates an increase in
breathing rate.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing
REF: p. 831
46. A relatively large increase in arterial oxygen partial pressure stimulates an increase in
breathing rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing
REF: p. 831
47. Compliance is the ability of the lungs and thorax to stretch. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 825
48. When the diaphragm relaxes, it increases the size of the chest cavity, causing air to move into
the lung. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
REF: p. 825
49. Residual volume and minimal volume make up about 5% of vital capacity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Volumes
REF: p. 831
50. An apparatus called a spirometer is used to measure the volume of air exchanged in breathing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Volumes, Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
51. A pulmonary volume is the sum of two or more pulmonary capacities. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Volumes, Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834
52. Normal tidal volume is about 500 ml. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Volumes
REF: p. 831
53. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a broad term used to describe conditions of
progressive obstruction of expiratory airflow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 842
54. Both external respiration and internal respiration take place in capillaries. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 825
TOP: Respiratory Physiology
55. At the time between inspiration and expiration, the air in the lungs must be at atmospheric
pressure.
ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 825
TOP: Pulmonary Ventilation
56. The contraction of the abdominal muscles and the sternocleidomastoid allow much more air to
leave the lungs than does the simple recoil of the lungs. ANS: F TOP: Expiration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 826
57. In normal breathing, the inspiratory reserve volume is greater than the expiratory reserve
volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Volumes
REF: p. 831
58. In maximum inspiration and expiration, the inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes would
change but the residual volume would remain constant. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Volumes
REF: p. 831
59. Physiological dead air space can never be less than anatomical dead air space. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 834
TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
60. If a person’s total minute volume is 7500 ml and the volume of air in one breathing cycle is
500 ml, the breathing rate must be 20 cycles per minute. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 835
TOP: Pulmonary Airflow
61. Although the respiratory system is responsible for ventilation, the circulatory system is
responsible for perfusion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Ventilation and Perfusion
REF: p. 837
62. Internal respiration and cellular respiration refer to the same thing. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory Physiology
REF: p. 825
63. Peak flow can be measured by a simple, handheld spirometer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Airflow
REF: p. 837
64. The volume forcefully expired during the first second, FEV1, is usually about 70% of the vital
capacity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Airflow
REF: p. 836
65. A person who is trapped underwater for a long enough time will drown, and this indicates that
the cerebral cortex does not have complete control of breathing. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing
REF: p. 838
66. Chemoreceptors can be found in both the carotid bodies and the aorta. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing
REF: p. 838
67. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is much more influenced by carbon dioxide in the blood
because there is no buffering system in the CSF as there is in the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors That Influence Breathing
REF: p. 838
68. A well-perfused but poorly ventilated part of the lung wastes blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Ventilation and Perfusion
REF: p. 837
69. A poorly perfused but well-ventilated part of the lung wastes blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Ventilation and Perfusion
REF: p. 837
MATCHING
Match each type of breathing with its corresponding definition. a. Dyspnea b. Cheyne-Stokes respiration c. Eupnea d. Hypoventilation e. Biot breathing f. Hyperventilation g. Hyperpnea h. Orthopnea i. Apneusis j. Apnea Temporary cessation of breathing at the end of a normal expiration An increase in pulmonary ventilation in excess of the need for oxygen Repeated sequences of deep gasps and apnea; indicates increased intracranial pressure Normal, quiet breathing Cycles of gradually increasing tidal volume for several breaths followed by several breaths with gradually decreasing tidal volume 6. Decrease in pulmonary ventilation that results in elevated blood levels of carbon dioxide 7. Cessation of breathing in the inspiratory position 8. Increased breathing that is regulated to meet an increased demand by the body for oxygen 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
9. Dyspnea while lying down 10. Labored or difficult breathing; often associated with hypoventilation 1. ANS: J DIF: TOP: Types of Breathing 2. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Types of Breathing 3. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Types of Breathing 4. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Types of Breathing 5. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Types of Breathing 6. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Types of Breathing 7. ANS: I DIF: TOP: Types of Breathing 8. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Types of Breathing 9. ANS: H DIF: TOP: Types of Breathing 10. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Types of Breathing
Memorization
REF: p. 836
Memorization
REF: p. 836
Memorization
REF: p. 836
Memorization
REF: p. 836
Memorization
REF: p. 836
Memorization
REF: p. 836
Memorization
REF: p. 836
Memorization
REF: p. 836
Memorization
REF: p. 836
Memorization
REF: p. 836
Match each pulmonary volume with its corresponding description or definition. a. Tidal volume b. Vital capacity c. Inspiratory reserve volume d. Expiratory reserve volume e. Residual volume f. Minimal air 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
Volume of air equal to IRV + ERV + TV Typical volume of air moved into and out of the lungs during normal, quiet breathing Amount of air that cannot be forcibly expired and is trapped in the lung Largest additional volume of air that can be expired after tidal volume The largest amount of air that can be inspired after tidal inspiration Air that would be trapped inside a collapsed lung
11. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 12. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 13. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 14. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 15. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 16. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
REF: p. 834 REF: p. 834 REF: p. 834 REF: p. 834 REF: p. 834 REF: p. 834
OTHER 1. Explain the mechanical process of breathing. Include in your discussion (1) any changes in
volumes and pressures and the resulting effects, (2) muscles used for inspiration, and (3) muscles used for expiration. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 825
TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation
2. Define pneumothorax, and discuss its potential effect on respiration. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 834
TOP: Pneumothorax
3. Explain the diving reflex. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 838
TOP: Unusual Breathing Reflexes
4. Identify and describe four nonrespiratory breathing reflexes. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 838
TOP: Unusual Breathing Reflexes
5. Name and explain the pulmonary volumes and capacities. Which of these increase and
decrease as a person moves from normal breathing to forceful inspiration and expiration? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 831
TOP: Pulmonary Volumes | Pulmonary Capacities
6. Explain the terms ventilation and perfusion. Explain how they must work together to allow
efficient gas exchange in the lung. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application ESSAY
REF: p. 837
TOP: Ventilation and Perfusion
1. Steve used a spirometer to analyze his respiratory capacities. He found the following results:
A. After normal inspiration, a normal expiration was 500 ml. B. After a normal expiration, he was able to expel an additional 1000 ml. C. Taking as deep a breath as possible, then forcefully exhaling all the air possible, he yielded an output of 4500 ml. Based on the outcome of these measurements, what is Steve’s inspiratory reserve? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 831, 834
TOP: Pulmonary Volumes, Pulmonary Capacities
2. George, a heavy smoker for 30 years, has developed a decreased expiratory reserve volume
and a large, barrel-shaped chest cavity. What is his probable diagnosis? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 831 TOP: Disorders Associated With the Respiratory Function 3. A man is at the bottom of a 20-foot tank filled with water and can breathe only through a rigid
15-foot tube. Using the concept of anatomical dead air space, explain why the man may soon begin to suffer from oxygen deprivation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 834
TOP: Pulmonary Capacities
Chapter 37: Gas Exchange & Transport Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____
mm Hg. a. 23 b. 160 c. 300 d. 590 ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Partial Pressure
REF: p. 849
2. If a person were skiing high up in the mountains, she might feel that she is having trouble
breathing (getting enough oxygen in her blood). This is because the: a. thoracic cavity has a difficult time lowering the internal pressure below the lower atmospheric pressure. b. lower atmospheric pressure lowers the PO2 and the diffusion gradient between the blood and the atmosphere is less. c. lower atmospheric pressure lowers the PO2 and the diffusion gradient between the blood and the atmosphere is greater. d. physiological dead air space increases and atmospheric pressure decreases. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 850
TOP: Partial Pressure
3. Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total
pressure of the mixture. a. inversely related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and b. directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and c. directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and inversely related d. inversely related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and directly related ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Partial Pressure
REF: p. 849
4. Which of the following helps determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood
each minute? a. The total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane b. Alveolar ventilation c. The oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood d. All of the above help determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs
REF: p. 850
5. By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the
blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? a. 55%
b. 63% c. 82% d. 97% ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Oxygen
REF: p. 853
6. One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of
oxygen? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Oxygen
REF: p. 853
7. Which of the following would have the greatest accelerating effect on the dissociation of
oxygen from hemoglobin? a. Increased PO2 b. Decreased PCO2 c. Decreased PO2 and decreased PCO2 d. Decreased PO2 and increased PCO2 ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Oxygen
REF: p. 853
8. The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is: a. in solution. b. as bicarbonate ions. c. as carbaminohemoglobin. d. none of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide
REF: p. 854
9. Which of the following is not a means of transporting oxygen in the blood? a. As oxyhemoglobin b. Combined with the bicarbonate ion (HCO3–) c. Dissolved in the plasma d. All of the above are used to transport oxygen in the blood. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Oxygen
REF: p. 853
10. Carbon dioxide is carried in three forms in the blood. Ranking them from greatest to least
amount carried, the sequence would be: a. dissolved in the plasma, carbaminohemoglobin, and bicarbonate ion. b. carbaminohemoglobin, bicarbonate ion, and dissolved in plasma. c. bicarbonate ion, dissolved in plasma, and carbaminohemoglobin. d. bicarbonate ion, carbaminohemoglobin, and dissolved in plasma. ANS: D
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 854
TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide 11. The symbol HbNCOOH– is used for: a. carbonic anhydrase. b. carbaminohemoglobin. c. the heme group. d. the bicarbonate ion. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide
REF: p. 854
12. The PCO2 in the atmosphere is: a. less than in the alveolar air. b. greater than in the alveolar air. c. equal to the alveolar air. d. greater than arterial blood. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Partial Pressure
REF: p. 849
13. The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. a. less than in the systemic venous b. greater than in the systemic venous c. equal to the systemic arterial d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Partial Pressure
REF: p. 849
14. A drop in the body’s production of carbonic anhydrase would hinder the formation of: a. carbonic acid. b. oxyhemoglobin. c. carbaminohemoglobin. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide
REF: p. 854
15. Each hemoglobin molecule can carry how many oxygen molecules? a. One b. Two c. Four d. Eight ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 852
TOP: Hemoglobin
16. Each hemoglobin molecule can carry how many carbon dioxide molecules? a. Two b. Four c. Eight d. Hemoglobin cannot carry carbon dioxide molecules. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 852
TOP: Hemoglobin
17. If anything decreases alveolar PO2, how does that affect the alveolar-blood oxygen pressure
gradient? a. Anything that decreases alveolar PO2 tends to increase the alveolar-blood oxygen pressure gradient and, therefore, tends to increase the amount of oxygen entering the blood. b. Anything that decreases alveolar PO2 tends to decrease the alveolar-blood oxygen pressure gradient and, therefore, tends to decrease the amount of oxygen entering the blood. c. Anything that decreases alveolar PO2 tends to increase the alveolar-blood diffusion rate and, therefore, tends to increase the amount of oxygen entering the blood. d. Anything that decreases PO2 tends to increase arterial-blood PO2 and, therefore, tends to decrease the amount of oxygen entering the blood. ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs
REF: p. 850
TRUE/FALSE 1. The partial pressure exerted by oxygen in a liquid is called oxygen tension. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Partial Pressure
REF: p. 849
2. The partial pressure of oxygen in an artery is always lower than the partial pressure of oxygen
in a vein. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs
REF: p. 850
3. Because of tissue layers between alveolar air and the blood supply, arterial blood PO2 is
always less than alveolar PO2. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Partial Pressure
REF: p. 849
4. Blood is distributed through the capillaries in a layer so thin that each red blood cell comes in
contact with the alveolar-capillary membrane. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs
REF: p. 850
5. Under usual conditions, the partial pressure of oxygen in systemic venous blood is
approximately 87 mm Hg. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Partial Pressure
REF: p. 849
6. The PO2 is higher in the femoral artery than in the femoral vein. ANS: T
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 849
TOP: Partial Pressure
7. Oxygenated blood contains equal amounts of both dissolved oxygen and oxygen combined
with hemoglobin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Oxygen
REF: p. 853
8. When cells increase the rate of oxygen usage, there is an increase in the delivery of oxygen to
the cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
REF: p. 856
9. If the PCO2 is greater in the cells than in the intercellular fluid, CO2 will remain in the cells. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 856
TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
10. Under usual conditions, the oxygen saturation of systemic venous blood is 75%. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
REF: p. 856
11. An increase in the plasma PCO2 and a decrease in PO2 cause an increase in the dissociation of
CO2 from hemoglobin. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 856
TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
12. The Bohr effect describes the effect of an increased PCO2 causing a decreased affinity
between hemoglobin and oxygen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
REF: p. 857
13. The terms oxygen partial pressure and oxygen tension are interchangeable. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Partial Pressure
REF: p. 849
14. Iron is important in hemoglobin because it carries oxygen to the cells and carbon dioxide
away from the cells. ANS: F TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 852
15. For cells to get oxygen, they must have an oxygen partial pressure lower than the arterial
blood serving them. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
REF: p. 856
16. On a percentage basis, there is more carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma than there is
oxygen dissolved in the plasma.
ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 853
TOP: Transport of Oxygen
17. About 20% of the carbon dioxide that is carried in the blood is carried on hemoglobin
attached to the acid group of an amino acid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide
REF: p. 854
18. One reason that carbon monoxide gas is so dangerous is that it attaches to hemoglobin more
readily than does oxygen gas. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
REF: p. 852
19. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar air is equal to the partial pressure of oxygen in
the systemic venous blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Partial Pressure
REF: p. 849
20. One factor that determines the amount of oxygen transferred from the lungs to the blood is the
total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs
REF: p. 850
21. In the lung oxygen moves down its pressure gradient, whereas carbon dioxide moves up its
pressure gradient. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs
REF: p. 850
22. In the lung as the partial pressure of oxygen of the blood goes up, the partial pressure of
oxygen in the alveolar air goes down proportionally. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs
REF: p. 850
23. There are six iron atoms in a single hemoglobin molecule. ANS: F TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 852
24. There is one iron atom in one heme group. ANS: T TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 852
25. The presence of hemoglobin in the blood approximately doubles the oxygen-carrying capacity
of plasma alone.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Oxygen
REF: p. 853
26. About 10% of the carbon dioxide carried in the blood is simply dissolved in the plasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide
REF: p. 854
27. The chloride shift is an important step of oxygen transport in the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide
REF: p. 854
28. The enzyme in blood plasma that helps form carbaminohemoglobin is carbonic anhydrase. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide
REF: p. 854
29. According to the rate laws of chemistry, the more carbon dioxide in the blood, the more
carbaminohemoglobin will be formed. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide
REF: p. 854
30. Although interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid oxygen partial pressure values are not
definitely established, they are known to stay within a very narrow range. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
REF: p. 856
31. White blood cells do not have a role in oxygen transport. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Oxygen
REF: p. 853
32. The formation of carbaminohemoglobin is a reversible reaction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbon Dioxide Transport
REF: p. 854
33. Carbonic acid forms when carbon dioxide reacts with water in the blood plasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbon Dioxide Transport
REF: p. 854
34. In a resting person, the oxygen saturation in the systemic venous blood is still about 50%. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
REF: p. 856
35. An increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide decreases the affinity between
hemoglobin and oxygen. This is called a right shift, or the Haldane effect.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
REF: p. 856
36. Hemoglobin is a quaternary protein consisting of four tertiary polypeptide chains. ANS: T TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 852
37. Hemoglobin is made up of four polypeptide chains: an alpha, a beta, a gamma, and a delta. ANS: F TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 852
38. To produce the highest possible oxygen concentration in the blood, gas exchange occurs in
only one direction at the respiratory membrane—from the lung to the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs
REF: p. 850
39. Hemoglobin can carry oxygen more efficiently than it can carry carbon dioxide because all
four polypeptide chains can carry oxygen, but only the beta chain can carry carbon dioxide. ANS: F TOP: Hemoglobin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 852
40. The transport of carbon dioxide will tend to lower blood pH. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbon Dioxide and pH
REF: p. 855
41. An increase in carbon dioxide would have the opposite effect on oxygen-hemoglobin
dissociation than would a drop in blood pH. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 856
TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
42. The Bohr effect explains what happens to oxygen, whereas the Haldane effect explains what
happens to carbon dioxide. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
REF: p. 856
43. In order for the cells to get the correct amount of oxygen, the oxygen level in the interstitial
fluid must be less than that of the cells. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 856
TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
44. Increased cellular activity would increase the oxygen gradient between the cells and the
arterial blood. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 856
TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
45. Increased cellular activity would decrease the carbon dioxide gradient between the cells and
the arterial blood. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 856
TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange
OTHER 1. Explain Dalton law as it relates to the movement of oxygen from the lungs into the circulatory
system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 849
TOP: Partial Pressure
2. Identify the major factors that help determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the
blood each minute. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs
REF: p. 850
3. Explain why less oxygen would enter the blood at a high altitude than would enter the blood
at sea level. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 850
TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs
4. The structural designs of alveoli and capillaries in lung tissue are such that they facilitate
oxygen diffusion. List examples that support the concept that structure determines function. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 850
TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs
5. Briefly describe and diagram the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 853
TOP: Transport of Oxygen
6. Explain the process by which oxygen is transported by the blood. ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 853
TOP: Transport of Oxygen
7. Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is transported by the blood. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 854
TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide
ESSAY 1. Assume the percent of oxygen in the air is constant (about 21%). What is the partial pressure
of oxygen in the mountains, where the atmospheric pressure is 725 mm Hg? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 849
TOP: Partial Pressure
Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The walls of the GI tract are composed of ____ layers of tissue. a. two b. three c. four d. five ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 861
2. All of the following are classified as accessory organs of the digestive system except the: a. tongue. b. mouth. c. liver. d. pancreas. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 861
3. Which of the following organs has a mucosa layer composed of stratified squamous
epithelium that resists abrasion? a. Esophagus b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Modifications of Layers of the Digestive Tract Wall
REF: p. 870
4. The flap of tissue suspended from the midpoint of the posterior border of the soft palate is the: a. fauces. b. frenulum. c. uvula. d. gingiva. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 864
5. The type of cell designed for absorption and secretion found throughout much of the GI tract
is _____ epithelium. a. simple columnar b. stratified squamous c. simple squamous d. pseudostratified ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 863
6. The hard palate consists of portions of: a. four bones: three maxillae and one palatine. b. two bones: one maxillae and one palatine. c. four bones: two maxillae and two palatines. d. two bones: two palatines. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 864
7. An incision into the wall of the GI tract would cut, in order, from superficial to deep: a. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and serosa. b. serosa, submucosa, muscularis, and mucosa. c. serosa, muscularis, submucosa, and mucosa. d. muscularis, submucosa, mucosa, and serosa. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 861 TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 8. Which of the following organs has a mucosal layer that is composed of columnar epithelium
with a brush border of microvilli to enhance absorption? a. Esophagus b. Large intestine c. Small intestine d. Stomach ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Modifications of Layers of the Digestive Tract Wall
REF: p. 870
9. The more common term for deglutition is: a. chewing. b. swallowing. c. mechanical digestion. d. vomiting. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 865
10. The extrinsic tongue muscles differ from the intrinsic tongue muscles in that the _____
outside the tongue. a. extrinsic muscles have both their insertion and origin b. intrinsic muscles have their origin inside the tongue but their insertion c. extrinsic muscles insert into the tongue but have their origin d. intrinsic muscles have both their insertion and origin ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 865
11. Approximately how much saliva do the three pairs of compound tubuloalveolar glands
(parotids, submandibulars, and sublinguals) secrete each day? a. 200 ml b. 500 ml
c. 750 ml d. 1 liter ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Salivary Glands
REF: p. 866
12. The numerous small elevations on the surface of the tongue that support taste buds are called: a. cilia. b. rugae. c. villi. d. papillae. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 864
13. Which of the following papillae of the tongue lack taste buds? a. Vallate b. Fungiform c. Filiform d. Lingual ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 864
14. The substance that forms the outer covering of the neck and root of a tooth is: a. enamel. b. dentin. c. cementum. d. pulp. ANS: C TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 867
15. Which of the following salivary glands produces only a mucus type of saliva? a. Sublinguals b. Parotids c. Submandibulars d. Both A and B ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Salivary Glands
REF: p. 866
16. The greatest proportion of the tooth shell consists of: a. enamel. b. dentin. c. gingivae. d. cementum. ANS: B TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
17. A permanent set of teeth normally consists of _____ teeth. a. 26
REF: p. 868
b. 30 c. 32 d. 36 ANS: C TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 868
18. Under normal conditions, how many deciduous teeth are there? a. 16 b. 20 c. 24 d. 32 ANS: B TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 868
19. The tooth type that is not part of a deciduous set of teeth is: a. incisors. b. canines (cuspids). c. second molars. d. premolars (bicuspids). ANS: D TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 868
20. Which of the following structures controls the opening of the stomach into the small intestine? a. Fundus b. Cardiac sphincter c. Pyloric sphincter d. Body ANS: C TOP: Stomach
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
21. In the stomach, hydrochloric acid is secreted by the: a. chief cells. b. parietal cells. c. lymph nodules. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: B TOP: Stomach
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
22. Hydrochloric acid is released from cells in the: a. stomach. b. pancreas. c. small intestine. d. large intestine. e. All of the above are correct. ANS: A TOP: Stomach
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
23. The chief cells in the stomach secrete: a. gastrin. b. mucus. c. intrinsic factor. d. digestive enzymes. ANS: D TOP: Stomach
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
24. Which of the following is not associated with the large intestine? a. Pyloric sphincter b. Cecum c. Appendix d. Transverse colon ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Sphincter Muscles
REF: p. 872
25. The contents of the stomach are emptied into the: a. duodenum. b. ileum. c. jejunum. d. cecum. ANS: A TOP: Stomach
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
26. Which of the following is not a duct leading from the salivary glands to the oral cavity? a. Wharton ducts b. Ranvier ducts c. Stensen ducts d. Rivinus duct ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Salivary Glands
REF: p. 866
27. Which of the following is not a function of the stomach? a. It serves as a reservoir for storage of food. b. It destroys pathogenic bacteria. c. It begins the absorption of proteins. d. All of the above are functions of the stomach. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Stomach
REF: p. 873
28. The lamina propria is found in which level of the GI wall? a. Mucosa b. Submucosa c. Muscularis d. Serosa ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 862
29. The myenteric plexus is found in which layer of the GI wall? a. Mucosa b. Submucosa c. Muscularis d. Serosa ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 862
30. Meissner plexus is found in which layer of the GI wall? a. Mucosa b. Submucosa c. Muscularis d. Serosa ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 862
31. Heartburn is often caused by acid reflux. Which of the following might aggravate the reflux? a. Smoking b. Obesity c. Spicy foods d. All of the above ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 874
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
32. Which of the following is not a division of the stomach? a. Rugae b. Body c. Pylorus d. Fundus ANS: A TOP: Stomach
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
33. Which of the following is not a function of the stomach? a. Secretes gastric juices b. Secretes intrinsic factor c. Produces the hormone gastrin d. Begins deglutition ANS: D TOP: Stomach
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
34. Which of the following is true about the main organs of the digestive system? a. They are involved in chemical digestion only, not mechanical digestion. b. They do not produce the enzymes used in digestion; enzymes are produced by
associate organs. c. They form a tube through the body called the alimentary canal. d. All of the above are true about the main organs of the digestion system. ANS: C
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 862
TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 35. Which of the following is not made up of nerves running through the walls of the digestive
system? a. Meissner plexus b. Auerbach plexus c. Intramural plexus d. All of the above are nerves running through the walls of the digestive system. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the Gastrointestinal Tract
REF: p. 862
36. The oral fissure divides the: a. upper lip from the lower lip. b. cheek muscle from the teeth. c. right and left sides of the palate. d. right side of the tongue from the left side of the tongue. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 864
37. Which structure helps anchor the tongue to the floor of the mouth? a. Philtrum b. Plica fimbriata c. Frenulum d. Fauces ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 864
38. Which of the following is not a main part of the tooth? a. Crown b. Enamel coat c. Root d. Neck ANS: B TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 867
39. Which part of the stomach actually lies above the entrance of the esophagus? a. Fundus b. Pylorus c. Body d. Lesser curvature ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Stomach 40. The fauces opens into the: a. larynx. b. laryngopharynx. c. oropharynx. d. nasopharynx.
REF: p. 872
ANS: C TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 869
41. Dentin comes in direct contact with what substance above the gum line? a. Enamel b. Cementum c. The periodontal membrane d. Both B and C ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Typical Tooth
REF: p. 867
42. Dentin comes into direct contact with what substance below the gum line? a. Enamel b. Cementum c. The periodontal membrane d. Both B and C ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Typical Tooth
REF: p. 867
TRUE/FALSE 1. The function of the digestive system is to alter the chemical and physical composition of food
so that it can be absorbed and used by body cells. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 860
2. The alimentary canal has two openings to the exterior of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 861
3. The lining of the digestive system consists of three layers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 862
4. The pancreas is an essential organ of the digestive system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 861
5. After food is digested, it enters the alimentary canal. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 861
6. The walls of the stomach and the small intestine have three layers of muscle tissue.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 862
7. The hard palate of the mouth consists of two maxillae and two palatine bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 864
8. The hard palate is fashioned of muscle arranged in the shape of an arch. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 864
9. During deglutition and speech, the only muscles of the tongue that contract are the intrinsic
muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 865
10. The intrinsic muscles of the tongue are important for swallowing and speech. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 865
11. Mumps is an acute viral disease characterized by swelling of the parotid salivary glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 874
12. The hardest, most stable tissue in the body is the enamel of the tooth. ANS: T TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 867
13. The tricuspids are the last of the permanent teeth to appear, usually erupting sometime after
17 years of age. ANS: F TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 868
14. There are normally 20 deciduous teeth, also known as baby teeth. ANS: T TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 868
15. Gingivitis is the general term for inflammation or infection of the gums. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 874
16. Periodontitis is a type of tooth decay involving the pulp of the tooth.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 874
17. The esophagus is prevented from collapsing by rings of cartilage. ANS: F TOP: Esophagus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 869
18. The esophagus is anterior to the trachea. ANS: F TOP: Esophagus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 869
19. The lesser curvature is located on the upper right border of the stomach. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Curves of the Stomach
REF: p. 872
20. Most of the stomach lies to the left of the midline, below the diaphragm, and in the abdominal
cavity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Size and Position of the Stomach
REF: p. 872
21. The esophagus is composed of striated and smooth muscles. ANS: T TOP: Esophagus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 870
22. The pyloric sphincter is located in the fundus portion of the stomach. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sphincter Muscles
REF: p. 872
23. The parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Stomach Wall
REF: p. 872
24. The chief cells, located in the stomach, secrete hydrochloric acid and are thought to produce
intrinsic factor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stomach Wall
REF: p. 872
25. The gastric glands in the small intestine secrete enzymes and hydrochloric acid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stomach Wall
REF: p. 872
26. Digestion must occur so food can pass through the wall of the alimentary canal.
ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 860
27. The alimentary canal and the gastrointestinal tract refer to the same structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 861
28. The group of blood vessels running through the submucosal layer is called the Meissner
plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the GI Tract
REF: p. 862
29. The term intramural plexus includes both the Meissner and the Auerbach plexus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the GI Tract
REF: p. 862
30. The uvula is a small, cone-shaped process that is suspended from the hard palate of the mouth. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 864
31. The foramen cecum is the opening of the small intestine into the large intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 864
32. Teeth are considered the organs of mastication. ANS: T TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 867
33. Most enamel is made up of inorganic materials. ANS: T TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 867
34. The muscle structure of the esophagus changes from the top of the esophagus to the bottom of
the esophagus. ANS: T TOP: Esophagus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 870
35. A hiatal hernia is caused by a weakening of the wall of the large intestine. ANS: F TOP: Esophagus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 870
36. An overly full stomach can push against the small intestine and obstruct the movement of
food.
ANS: F TOP: Stomach
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
37. One of the functions of the stomach is to kill pathogens that enter the body in food. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Stomach
REF: p. 873
38. Both the chemical composition and the physical state need modification so food can be
absorbed. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 860
39. The lumen of the gastrointestinal tract is considered to be outside the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 862
40. The mucosa is actually made up of two layers: the mucous epithelium and the lamina propria. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 862
41. The mucosa is made up of three layers: the mucous epithelium, the lamina propria, and the
muscularis mucosae. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 862
42. The submucosal plexus is a group of parasympathetic nerves found in the submucosa. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 862
43. The muscularis layer of the wall of the GI tract consists of a single layer of circular muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 862
44. The intramural plexus, which is also called the Auerbach plexus, is found in the muscularis
layer. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Organization of the Digestive System
REF: p. 862
45. The philtrum is a structure located at the rear of the soft palate. ANS: F TOP: Mouth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 864
46. When the lips are closed, the line of contact is called the oral fissure. ANS: T TOP: Mouth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 864
47. The tubercle is a slight prominence found on the lip. ANS: T TOP: Mouth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 864
48. The cheeks are formed in large part by the buccinator muscles. ANS: T TOP: Mouth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 864
49. A congenital condition in which the frenulum is too short to allow freedom of tongue
movement is called ankyloglossia. ANS: T TOP: Mouth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 864
50. Food enters the oropharynx by passing through the fauces. ANS: T TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 869
51. One of the functions of the intrinsic factor of the stomach is to protect vitamin A from
damage. ANS: F TOP: Stomach
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
52. The stomach wall is unique because it is made up of four layers of muscle rather than three. ANS: F TOP: Stomach
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
53. A hiatal hernia is a condition that permits movement of the stomach upward through a
weakened area of the diaphragm. ANS: T TOP: Esophagus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 870
54. Mastication is another word for chewing. ANS: T TOP: Mouth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 865
55. Dental caries is another name for tooth decay. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 874
56. Even though the structure of the GI tract changes from one section to another, the composition
and structure of the four layers remain the same. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Modifications of Layers
REF: p. 863
57. All the papillae on the tongue contain taste buds. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity
REF: p. 864
58. The only salivary gland that produces both mucus and enzymes is the parotid gland. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Salivary Glands
REF: p. 866
59. The neck is the exposed portion of the tooth. ANS: F TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 867
60. The pulp cavity of the tooth consists of connective tissue, blood and lymphatic vessels, and
nerves. ANS: T TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 868
61. The esophageal hiatus is the opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes. ANS: T TOP: Esophagus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 870
62. In the average adult, when full, the stomach can hold as much as 3.5 liters of food. ANS: F TOP: Stomach
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
63. Another name for the lower esophageal sphincter is the pyloric sphincter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sphincter Muscles
REF: p. 872
64. The parotid salivary gland drains into the mouth through the parotid (Stensen) ducts. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Parotid Glands
REF: p. 867
65. The sublingual salivary gland drains into the mouth through the Wharton ducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sublingual Glands
REF: p. 867
66. The greater curvature of the stomach is inferior to the lesser curvature of the stomach. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 872
TOP: Stomach
67. The serosa layer of the alimentary canal is actually the parietal peritoneum. ANS: F TOP: Serosa
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 862
68. In most of the alimentary canal, the epithelial layer is composed of stratified squamous
epithelial cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Modifications of Layers
REF: p. 863
69. The hard palate is composed of two maxillae: the ethmoid and sphenoid bone. ANS: F TOP: Mouth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 864
70. The soft palate forms an arch that leads into the nasopharynx and is called the fauces. ANS: F TOP: Mouth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 864
71. The intrinsic muscles of the tongue, by definition, have their origin and insertion in the
tongue. ANS: T TOP: Tongue
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 864
72. There are three pairs of major salivary glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Salivary Glands
REF: p. 866
73. The salivary glands produce about 500 ml of saliva a day. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Salivary Glands
REF: p. 866
74. The sublingual glands are the smallest of the major salivary glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Salivary Glands
REF: p. 866
75. The sublingual salivary glands can have as many as 20 ducts draining their secretions into the
mouth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Salivary Glands
REF: p. 866
76. There are 32 permanent teeth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Teeth
REF: p. 868
77. In addition to enamel, the outer shell of the tooth has two additional dental tissues: dentin and
gingivae. ANS: F TOP: Teeth
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 868
78. The upper esophageal sphincter is called the cardiac sphincter because it is just posterior to
the heart. ANS: F TOP: Esophagus
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 870
79. The stomach produces a hormone that increases appetite. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Stomach
REF: p. 873
80. The stomach has three major divisions: the fundus, the body, and the pylorus. ANS: T TOP: Stomach
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
MATCHING
Match each of the following structures with its corresponding location or description. a. Sublingual salivary gland b. Submucosa layer c. Dentin d. Muscularis layer e. Mucosa layer f. Parotid salivary gland g. Enamel h. Submandibular salivary gland i. Tongue j. Serosa layer 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Layer of the GI tract that contains Meissner plexus Largest of the salivary glands; produces enzymes but not mucus Layer of the GI tract that wraps around the submucosa and contains the myenteric plexus Hard inorganic substance that covers the crown of the tooth Mixed salivary gland that is drained by Wharton ducts Outermost GI tract layer that is actually the visceral peritoneum Smallest of the salivary glands Innermost layer of the GI tract; contains the lamina propria
9. Substance that makes up the greatest portion of the tooth shell 10. Structure whose intrinsic and extrinsic muscles help with mastication and deglutition 1. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Submucosa 2. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Parotid Glands 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscularis 4. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Typical Tooth 5. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Submandibular Glands 6. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Serosa 7. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Sublingual Glands 8. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Mucosa 9. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Typical Tooth 10. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Tongue
REF: p. 862 REF: p. 867 REF: p. 862 REF: p. 867 REF: p. 867 REF: p. 862 REF: p. 867 REF: p. 862 REF: p. 867 REF: p. 864
Match each of the following structures with its corresponding description or location. a. Pharynx b. Body of the stomach c. Esophagus d. Fundus of the stomach e. Pylorus of the stomach 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
central part of the stomach structure through which food passes after it exits the fauces collapsible muscular tube that carries food from the pharynx to the stomach the enlarged portion of the stomach that lies above the entrance of the esophagus lower part of the stomach that connects to the small intestine
11. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Stomach 12. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Pharynx 13. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Esophagus 14. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Stomach 15. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Stomach OTHER
REF: p. 872 REF: p. 869 REF: p. 869 REF: p. 872 REF: p. 872
1. List the tissue layers that make up the alimentary canal, beginning with the interior layer. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 861 TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 2. Explain why soluble drugs can be absorbed rapidly if placed under the tongue. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 863
TOP: Mouth
3. The pharynx functions in two systems. Name the systems and explain the function in each
system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 869
TOP: Pharynx
4. What two structures are joined by the cardiac sphincter? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
TOP: Sphincter Muscles
5. Give the complete definition of digestion. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 860
TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 874
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
6. Explain the cause of appendicitis. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
7. Describe the role of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue in the performing of its
function. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 863
TOP: Tongue
8. Name and give the location of the three major pairs of salivary glands. Describe the secretions
of each gland. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 866
TOP: Salivary Glands
9. Name the secretory cells of the stomach wall and describe the secretions from each. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 872
TOP: Gastric Mucosa
REF: p. 873
TOP: Functions of the Stomach
10. List the functions of the stomach. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization ESSAY 1. Briefly explain how the lining of the small intestine can be an example of fractal geometry. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 861, 863, 872
TOP: Small Intestine
Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. After leaving the stomach, food enters the: a. large intestine. b. small intestine. c. esophagus. d. rectum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
2. The longest portion of the small intestine is the: a. duodenum. b. ileum. c. jejunum. d. colon. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
3. Which of the following is not an anatomical part of the small intestine? a. Duodenum b. Cecum c. Ileum d. Jejunum ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
4. Which of the following structures is anatomically the longest? a. Esophagus b. Duodenum c. Jejunum d. Ileum ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
5. The part of the colon that lies in the vertical position, on the left side of the abdomen,
extending from a point below the stomach and spleen to the level of the iliac crest is the _____ colon. a. ascending b. transverse c. descending d. sigmoid ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Large Intestine
REF: p. 885
6. The proper anatomical order for the divisions of the colon is: a. descending, transverse, sigmoid, and ascending. b. ascending, transverse, sigmoid, and descending. c. sigmoid, ascending, transverse, and descending. d. ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Large Intestine
REF: p. 885
7. Microvilli can be found in the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. large intestine. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
8. The right angle between the transverse colon and the ascending colon is the: a. costal angle. b. hepatic flexure. c. left colonic bend. d. splenic flexure. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Large Intestine
REF: p. 885
9. A barium enema study is used to detect and locate: a. polyps. b. tumors. c. diverticula. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Large Intestine
REF: p. 885
10. The fan-shaped projection of peritoneum that connects the small intestine to the posterior
abdominal wall is the: a. visceral peritoneum. b. greater omentum. c. lesser omentum. d. mesentery. ANS: D TOP: Peritoneum
DIF: Memorization
11. Phagocytic cells lining liver sinusoids are called _____ cells. a. chief b. alpha c. Kupffer d. hepatic
REF: p. 888
ANS: C TOP: Liver
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 891
12. Bile salts aid in the absorption of: a. fats. b. proteins. c. carbohydrates. d. calcium, magnesium, and certain other minerals. ANS: A TOP: Liver
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 891
13. Surgical removal of the gallbladder is referred to as: a. cholelithiasis. b. cholecystitis. c. cholecystectomy. d. choledochorrhaphy. ANS: C TOP: Gallbladder
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 893
14. The most essential part of bile is: a. bile salts. b. bile pigments. c. cholesterol. d. bilirubin. ANS: A TOP: Liver
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 891
15. Bile is secreted by: a. parietal cells. b. crypts of Lieberkühn. c. Kupffer cells. d. hepatic cells. ANS: D TOP: Liver
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 891
16. Which of the following is not a lobe of the liver? a. Right lobe b. Medial lobe c. Left lobe d. Caudate lobe e. Quadrate lobe ANS: B TOP: Liver
DIF: Memorization
17. Which of the following is not a function of the liver? a. Detoxification b. Secretion of insulin c. Storage of iron and vitamins
REF: p. 888
d. Production of bile ANS: B TOP: Liver
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 891
18. Which of the following organs is classified as a dual gland (both exocrine and endocrine)? a. Gallbladder b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Both A and C ANS: C TOP: Pancreas
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 893
19. The hormone glucagon is produced by: a. acinar units. b. beta cells. c. alpha cells. d. Brunner glands. ANS: C TOP: Pancreas
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 893
20. The cells that produce insulin are known as: a. acinar units. b. beta cells. c. alpha cells. d. Brunner glands. ANS: B TOP: Pancreas
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 893
21. Which of the following is not a function of the pancreas? a. It produces digestive enzymes. b. It produces bile. c. It produces insulin. d. All of the above are functions of the pancreas. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Pancreas
REF: p. 893
22. The right angle formed by the transverse colon and the descending colon is called the: a. hepatic flexure. b. sigmoid colon. c. splenic flexure. d. secondary colonic flexure. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine
REF: p. 886
23. Which of the following statements is true? a. The cystic duct and the pancreatic duct join to form the common bile duct. b. The common bile duct is formed by the joining of the cystic duct from the liver
and the hepatic duct from the gallbladder. c. The pancreatic duct and the hepatic duct join to form the common bile duct. d. None of the above are true statements. ANS: D TOP: Bile Ducts
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 891
24. Which of the following statements is not true? a. The gallbladder can hold between 30 and 50 ml of bile. b. The gallbladder lies on the undersurface of the liver. c. The walls of the gallbladder have rugae similar to the ones found in the stomach
wall. d. The gallbladder empties bile into the stomach to assist in fat digestion. ANS: D TOP: Gallbladder
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 893
25. Which of the following is not a function of the liver? a. Stores vitamin A b. Carries on numerous steps in the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins c. Secretes bile d. Stores bile ANS: D TOP: Liver
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 891
26. Which of the following is true about bile? a. It is made in the gallbladder, stored in the gallbladder, and emptied into the
duodenum. b. It is made in the liver, stored in the gallbladder, and emptied into the stomach. c. It is made in the gallbladder, stored in the liver, and emptied into the jejunum. d. It is made in the liver, stored in the gallbladder, and emptied into the duodenum. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Liver | Gallbladder
REF: pp. 888, 893
27. Which statement explains what happens to toxic substances after detoxification by liver cells? a. They are used to increase pH for optimum amylase function. b. They are used to dilute food and other substances and facilitate mixing of foods in
the small intestine. c. Small amounts are carried by mucus and sodium bicarbonate to the small intestine
for use in digestion. d. They are changed into nontoxic compounds by a series of chemical reactions. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 891
TOP: Functions of the Liver
TRUE/FALSE 1. The large intestine has a diameter of about 2.5 inches and a length of about 5 to 6 feet. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Size of the Large Intestine
REF: p. 885
2. The brush border of the small intestine is formed by about 1700 ultra-fine microvilli per cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the Small Intestine
REF: p. 884
3. The small intestine is so named because it is shorter than the large intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Size of the Large Intestine
REF: p. 885
4. Intestinal digestive enzymes are produced in the brush border cells toward the top of the villi
of the small intestine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
5. The presence of villi and microvilli increases the surface area of the large intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
6. The vermiform appendix is a wormlike projection extending from the cecum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vermiform Appendix
REF: p. 887
7. The fan-shaped projection of peritoneum that connects the small intestine to the posterior
abdominal wall is the mesentery. ANS: T TOP: Peritoneum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 888
8. The hepatic flexure of the large intestine is located in the left hypochondriac region. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 886
TOP: Large Intestine
9. Hemorrhoids are enlargements of the smaller arteries in the anal canal. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 895
10. Hemorrhoids are enlargements of veins in the anal canal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 895
11. Bile is released from the gallbladder into the stomach to aid in the digestive process. ANS: F TOP: Gallbladder
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 893
12. Surgical removal of the gallbladder is called cholecystectomy. ANS: T TOP: Gallbladder
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 893
13. In the pancreas, alpha cells produce insulin and beta cells produce glucagon. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Pancreas
REF: p. 893
14. The vermiform appendix is attached to the sigmoid part of the large intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vermiform Appendix
REF: p. 887
15. The greater omentum is a fatty tissue covering the anterior surface of the intestines. ANS: T TOP: Peritoneum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 888
16. The hepatic lobules are the anatomical units of the liver and are tiny hexagonal or pentagonal
shaped structures. ANS: T TOP: Liver
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 891
17. The liver is the largest gland in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Location and Size of the Liver
REF: p. 893
18. Cholesterol is a component of bile. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Liver
REF: p. 891
19. Most of the pancreatic tissue is exocrine, producing the hormones glucagon and insulin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Pancreas
REF: p. 893
20. Glucagon and insulin assist the GI tract in the digestive process. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Pancreas
REF: p. 893
21. The point at which the small intestine changes from the jejunum to the ileum is marked by a
change in the diameter of the intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
22. Both the large and small intestine have microvilli. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the Large Intestine
REF: p. 887
23. The liver occupies most of the right hypochondrium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Location and Size of the Liver
REF: p. 893
24. Both the stomach and gallbladder contain folds called rugae. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Gallbladder
REF: p. 893
25. The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum each make up about one third of the length of the small
intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
26. There is no clear line of demarcation between the ileum and the jejunum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
27. Lymph vessels in the villi of the small intestine are called plicae. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
28. Goblet cells are mucus-secreting cells found in the crypts of the small intestine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Small Intestine
REF: p. 885
29. The average diameter of the large intestine increases toward the lower end of the tube. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Large Intestine
REF: p. 885
30. In the wall of the small intestine, the longitudinal muscles are grouped into tape-like strips
called haustra. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Large Intestine
REF: p. 887
31. In the wall of the large intestine, the longitudinal muscles are grouped into tape-like strips
called taeniae coli. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Large Intestine
REF: p. 887
32. In the wall of the small intestine, circular muscles are grouped into rings that produce
pouch-like haustra between them. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Large Intestine
REF: p. 887
33. Crohn disease is an inflammatory disease of the bowel. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 895
34. Anal fissures are a more serious condition than an anal fistula. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 895
35. The microbiome is a name for the normal community of bacteria that inhabit the colon. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vermiform Appendix
REF: p. 887
36. The formation of ulcers has been linked to the bacterium Streptococcus pylori. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 895
37. The duodenum of the small intestine was named based on its length. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
38. The peritoneum that covers the organs is called the visceral layer. ANS: T TOP: Peritoneum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 888
39. The peritoneum that lines the abdominal wall is called the parietal layer. ANS: T TOP: Peritoneum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 888
40. The word acinar refers to the grape-like shape of the structure in the pancreas. ANS: T TOP: Pancreas
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 893
41. The substances insulin and glucagon are both produced by the liver but have opposite effects
on carbohydrate metabolism. ANS: F TOP: Pancreas
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 893
42. The cecum is the first part of the large intestine; it consists of a blind pouch located in the
lower right quadrant of the abdomen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine
REF: p. 885
43. The sigmoid colon gets its name from its shape. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine
REF: p. 886
44. As material moves through the large intestine, it will pass the hepatic flexure before it passes
the splenic flexure. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine
REF: p. 886
45. The mesentery and the transverse mesocolon are both projections of the peritoneum. ANS: T TOP: Peritoneum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 888
46. Jaundice occurs when the pancreatic duct is blocked and the contents of the pancreas enter the
blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Gallbladder
REF: p. 893
47. Both cholecystectomy and ultrasound lithotripsy are methods of eliminating gallstones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Gallbladder
REF: p. 893
48. Villi in the small intestines contain arterioles, venules, and lacteals. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the Small Intestine
REF: p. 883
49. The falciform ligament in the liver divides it into equal right and left halves. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Liver Lobes and Lobules
REF: p. 888
50. The gallbladder has a maximum capacity of about 25 ml of bile. ANS: F TOP: Gallbladder
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 893
51. The diameter of the small intestine is about an inch and the length is about 12 feet. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 883
TOP: Small Intestine 52. The Paneth cells of the small intestine produce enzymes, but they are used for protection
rather than digestion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Small Intestine
REF: p. 885
53. The normal nonpathogenic bacteria in the intestine produce important molecules such as
vitamin K and biotin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vermiform Appendix
REF: p. 887
54. The kidneys and adrenal glands are unique because they are the only organs that are
retroperitoneal. ANS: F TOP: Peritoneum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 888
55. Kupffer cells in the liver produce enzymes that are able to detoxify toxins such as alcohol. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Liver Lobes and Lobules
REF: p. 888
56. One function of the gallbladder is to dilute the bile so it can more easily pass through the
ducts into the intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Gallbladder
REF: p. 893
57. The pancreas is located in the curve of the small intestine where the ileum joins the jejunum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Size and Location of the Pancreas
REF: p. 893
MATCHING
Match each of the following structures with its corresponding description or location. a. Liver b. Common bile duct c. Mesentery d. Ascending colon e. Jejunum f. Duodenum g. Cystic duct h. Ileum i. Gallbladder j. Descending colon k. Pancreas
1. Part of the small intestine through which food passes first 2. Duct that drains bile from the gallbladder 3. Part of the large intestine that lies in a vertical position on the right side of the abdomen and 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
ends at the hepatic flexure Duct that carries bile from both the liver and gallbladder to the small intestine Division of the small intestine through which food passes second A large, fan-shaped reflection of the peritoneum Organ that produces bile and helps detoxify the blood Organ that produces digestive enzymes, insulin, and glucagons Part of the large intestine that lies in a vertical position on the left side of the abdomen and begins at the splenic flexure Structure that stores and concentrates bile Last division of the small intestine; connects to the cecum
1. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine 2. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Bile Ducts 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Colon 4. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Bile Ducts 5. ANS: K DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine 6. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Peritoneum 7. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Liver 8. ANS: K DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreas 9. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Colon 10. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Gallbladder 11. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine
REF: p. 883 REF: p. 891 REF: p. 886 REF: p. 891 REF: p. 883 REF: p. 888 REF: p. 891 REF: p. 893 REF: p. 886 REF: p. 893 REF: p. 883
OTHER 1. Where in the GI tract are villi and microvilli located? What purpose do they serve? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 883
TOP: Wall of the Small Intestine
2. Ducts from two organs join to form the common bile duct. Name the organs and the ducts
from each organ. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 891
TOP: Bile Ducts
3. Liver cells detoxify substances. Explain what happens to the substances in the process of
detoxification. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 891
TOP: Functions of the Liver
4. What is the function of the gallbladder? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 893
TOP: Functions of the Gallbladder
5. What is an anatomical reason that aged individuals have a lower incidence of appendicitis
than do children and young adults? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 884, 895-896, 888
TOP: Appendicitis
6. Describe the structure of a typical tooth. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 867
TOP: Teeth
7. Describe the location, structure, and function of the pancreas. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 893
TOP: Pancreas
REF: p. 895
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
8. Explain the cause of appendicitis. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
9. Name and give the location of the four parts of the colon. ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 886
TOP: Colon
10. Name and describe the reflections of the peritoneum. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 888
TOP: Peritoneum
REF: p. 891
TOP: Functions of the Liver
11. List the functions of the liver. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization ESSAY 1. Briefly explain how the lining of the small intestine can be an example of fractal geometry. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 883
TOP: Small Intestine
Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves
from the pharynx into the esophagus? a. Oropharynx b. Nasopharynx c. Larynx d. Mouth ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
2. The process of swallowing is known as: a. mastication. b. deglutition. c. peristalsis. d. segmentation. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
3. Which of the following is a true statement? a. The oral stage of swallowing is involuntary and under the control of the cerebral
cortex. b. The pharyngeal stage of deglutition is voluntary. c. The esophageal stage of swallowing is involuntary. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
4. Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus? a. Deglutition b. Peristalsis c. Churning d. Both A and B ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: pp. 904, 905
5. The enterogastric reflex causes: a. secretion of digestive enzymes in the small intestine. b. secretion of digestive enzymes in the stomach. c. inhibition of gastric peristalsis. d. acceleration of gastric peristalsis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 907
6. Which of the following is not true of enzymes? a. They accelerate chemical reactions. b. They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction. c. They are vital to chemical reactions. d. Many contain vitamins in their structure. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
7. Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control? a. Oral stage b. Pharyngeal stage c. Esophageal stage d. Gastric phase ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
8. The purpose of peristalsis is to: a. break apart chunks of food and mix it in digestive juices. b. propel food forward along the GI tract. c. absorb food. d. enable swallowing. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
9. The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is
called: a. gastric inhibitory peptide. b. enterogastrone. c. chyme. d. cholecystokinin. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 906
10. Structurally, enzymes are: a. lipids. b. carbohydrates. c. proteins. d. inorganic compounds. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
11. When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are
referred to as _____ enzymes. a. oxidation-reduction b. hydrolyzing c. phosphorylating
d. hydrase ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
12. Hydrolysis refers to: a. breaking down a molecule of water to hydrogen and oxygen gas. b. using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones. c. using water to build larger compounds from smaller ones. d. none of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
13. Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: a. lipase. b. proteases. c. maltase. d. amylase. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 909
14. Which of the following is not a property of enzymes? a. Most enzymes catalyze a chemical reaction in only one direction. b. Enzymes function optimally at a specific pH. c. Many enzymes are synthesized as inactive proenzymes or zymogens. d. Enzyme action can be inhibited or inactivated by various physical and chemical
agents that change the shape of enzyme molecules. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
15. The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a: a. disaccharide. b. monosaccharide. c. polysaccharide. d. fatty acid. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 909
TOP: Chemical Digestion
16. Which of the following is a disaccharide? a. Glucose b. Starch c. Sucrose d. Glycogen ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 909
17. The major final product that results from the digestion of carbohydrates is: a. glucose. b. sucrose.
c. lactose. d. maltose. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
REF: p. 909
18. The process of fat emulsification consists of: a. chemically breaking down fat molecules. b. the secretion of digestive juices for fat digestion. c. absorption of fats. d. breaking fats into small droplets. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Fat Digestion
REF: p. 910
19. The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of: a. carbohydrates. b. protein. c. fat. d. nucleic acids. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Digestion
REF: p. 910
20. An end product of fat digestion is: a. glycerol. b. glucose. c. glycogen. d. galactose. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Fat Digestion
REF: p. 910
21. Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: a. carbohydrates. b. meat proteins. c. undigested fats. d. undigested connective tissue. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Residues of Digestion
REF: p. 912
22. The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is: a. enterogastrone. b. secretin. c. gastrin. d. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions
REF: p. 918
23. The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: a. enterogastrone.
b. insulin. c. gastrin. d. cholecystokinin. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions
REF: p. 918
24. Which phase(s) of gastric secretion is(are) stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food? a. Intestinal phase b. Cephalic phase c. Gastric phase d. All of the above ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions
REF: p. 918
25. The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. cecum. d. large intestine. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Process of Absorption
REF: p. 920
26. The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose
molecules _____ the GI lumen. a. passively out of b. passively into c. actively out of d. actively into ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 920
27. The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin: a. causes the pancreas to increase exocrine secretions high in enzyme content. b. opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. c. stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder. d. does all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions
REF: p. 918
28. Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to: a. neutralize hydrochloric acid. b. break down fats. c. activate secretin. d. activate pepsin. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Intestinal Secretions
REF: p. 920
29. The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the
intestinal mucosa is: a. vasoactive intestinal peptide. b. enterogastrone. c. secretin. d. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Intestinal Secretions
REF: p. 920
30. Chylomicrons are formed to facilitate the transport of: a. amino acids. b. fats. c. glucose. d. vitamins. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 921
31. Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of: a. diffusion. b. cotransport. c. facilitated diffusion. d. filtration. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 920
32. Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? a. Hepatic artery b. Hepatic vein c. Portal vein d. Renal artery ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 922
33. Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants? a. Constipation b. Diarrhea c. Cholera d. Pyloric stenosis ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Infant Diarrhea
REF: p. 923
34. The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: a. glycerol and fatty acids. b. glucose and glycerol. c. amino acids and fatty acids. d. glucose and amino acids. ANS: A
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 922
TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 35. Which of these is not an example of mechanical digestion? a. Moistening the food b. Changing food from large to small particles c. Propelling food through the digestive tract d. All of the above are examples of mechanical digestion. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
36. Which of the following does not cause a decrease in gastric peristalsis? a. The release of GIP b. Increased deglutition c. Acid in the duodenum d. Distention of the duodenum ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Motility
REF: p. 906
37. An end product of the action of the enzyme phospholipase is: a. colipase. b. a triglyceride. c. a free fatty acid. d. both B and C. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Fat Digestion
REF: p. 910
38. Which of the following is not a barrier to the absorption of glucose? a. Size of the molecule b. The molecule’s hydrophilia c. The molecule’s hydrophobia d. Cell membrane’s high concentration of lipids ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 920
39. Which of the following is not true of segmentation? a. It moves food back and forth in one segment of the GI tract. b. It moves food through the GI tract. c. It facilitates absorption. d. It mixes food with digestive juices. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion 40. The enzyme amylase functions best in a _____ pH. a. slightly acid b. slightly base c. neutral d. Both A and C are correct.
REF: pp. 904, 905-906
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 909
41. Contact digestion occurs in which location in the digestive system? a. Mouth b. Esophagus c. Stomach d. Small intestine ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: pp. 909-910
42. The disaccharide maltose is made up of which two saccharide units? a. Glucose and glucose b. Glucose and fructose c. Glucose and galactose d. None of the above ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 909
43. The disaccharide lactose is made up of which two saccharide units? a. Glucose and glucose b. Glucose and fructose c. Glucose and galactose d. None of the above ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 909
44. The disaccharide sucrose is made up of which two saccharide units? a. Glucose and glucose b. Glucose and fructose c. Glucose and galactose d. None of the above ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 909
45. The process of emulsification is important in the digestion of: a. proteins. b. fats. c. polysaccharides. d. disaccharides. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion 46. Saliva contains all of the following substances except: a. amylase. b. lipase. c. intrinsic factor. d. mucus.
REF: p. 910
ANS: C TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 914
47. Gastric juice contains all of the following substances except: a. intrinsic factor. b. enterokinase. c. hydrochloric acid. d. pepsin. ANS: B TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 914
48. Pancreatic juice contains all of the following substances except: a. amylase. b. trypsinogen. c. enterokinase. d. lipase. ANS: C TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 915
49. Bile contains all of the following substances except: a. bile salts. b. lecithin. c. amylase. d. bilirubin. ANS: C TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 916
50. Pancreatic juice contains all of the following substances except: a. chymotrypsin. b. nucleases. c. amylase. d. pepsinogen. ANS: D TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 915
51. Digestion uses the following methods in which order to accomplish its function? a. Ingestion, absorption, secretion b. Ingestion, secretion, absorption c. Absorption, secretion, ingestion d. Absorption, ingestion, secretion ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Overview of Digestive Functions
REF: p. 902
52. The most important function of the digestive system is: a. elimination. b. absorption. c. motility.
d. secretion. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Digestive Functions
REF: p. 902
53. The first phase of deglutition or swallowing occurs in the: a. pharynx. b. larynx. c. esophagus. d. None of the above are correct. ANS: D TOP: Deglutition
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 904
54. Which of the following structures is not used to block an opening during swallowing? a. Glottis b. Epiglottis c. Soft palate and uvula d. Tongue ANS: A TOP: Deglutition
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 904
55. Segmentation is different from peristalsis because: a. segmentation only occurs in the stomach. b. it is a type of mechanical digestion. c. it does not move food through the digestive tract. d. There is no difference between segmentation and peristalsis. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 904-906
TOP: Peristalsis | Segmentation
56. Which of the following works with gastric inhibitory peptide to inhibit gastric peristalsis? a. Retropulsion b. Cholecystokinin c. The enterogastric reflex d. Both B and C ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 906
TOP: Gastric Motility
57. Which monosaccharide is found in all three of the most common disaccharides? a. Fructose b. Glucose c. Galactose d. Levulose ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
REF: p. 909
58. Which of the following protein-digesting enzymes is made in the stomach? a. Trypsin b. Chymotrypsin c. Pepsin d. Peptidase
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Digestion
REF: p. 910
59. Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme for lipids? a. Bile b. Lipase c. Phospholipase d. All of the above are digestive enzymes for lipids. ANS: A
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 910
TOP: Fat Digestion
60. Which of the following is not a stage in deglutition? a. Gastric b. Oral c. Pharyngeal d. Esophageal ANS: A TOP: Deglutition
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 904
61. The enzyme amylase is produced by the: a. stomach. b. pancreas. c. salivary glands. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
REF: p. 909
62. The end product of amylase digestion is: a. glucose. b. maltose. c. fructose. d. sucrose. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 909
63. The end product of lipase digestion is: a. fatty acids. b. monoglycerides. c. glycerol. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 909
64. The parietal cells of the stomach do not produce which of the following? a. Pepsinogen b. Hydrochloric acid c. Intrinsic factor d. The parietal cell of the stomach produces all of the above.
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Gastric Juice
REF: p. 914
65. After the absorption of a large meal, high levels of glucose and amino acids would be found in
the: a. b. c. d.
lacteals of the villi. blood of the inferior vena cava. blood in the hepatic portal system. Both A and C are correct.
ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 922
TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
66. After the absorption of a large meal, high levels of chylomicrons would be found in the: a. lacteals of the villi. b. blood in the inferior vena cava. c. blood in the hepatic portal system. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 922
TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
67. Most enzymes catalyze a chemical reaction in both directions. Which is the best explanation
of this statement? a. Chemical reaction in both directions means the direction and rate of the reaction is being governed by gravity; for example, food in the lower digestive tract is moved by peristalsis, whereas food in the upper part of the digestive tract is moved by segmentation. b. Chemical reaction in both directions means that enzymes are both intracellular and extracellular, depending on whether they act within cells or outside them in the surrounding medium. c. Chemical reaction in both directions means the direction and rate of the reaction is being governed by the rate law or law of mass action; for example, slowing of digestion when absorption is interfered with and the products of digestion accumulate. d. Both B and C are accurate explanations. ANS: C DIF: Application TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes
REF: pp. 908-909
68. Which of the following best describes the enzymatic role in carbohydrate digestion?
a. Amylase, sucrase, lactase, and maltase catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates to glucose. b. Pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, and peptidase catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates to glucose. c. Amylase, peptidase, sucrase, and chymotrypsin catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates to glucose. d. Lecithin mixes with water to catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates to glucose. a. Amylase, sucrase, lactase, and maltase catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates to glucose. b. Pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, and peptidase catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates to glucose. c. Amylase, peptidase, sucrase, and chymotrypsin catalyze the breakdown of
carbohydrates to glucose. d. Lecithin mixes with water to catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates to glucose. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 909
TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
69. Why can it be said that absorption is the reason for digestion?
a. Even though digestion includes the processes of mechanical and chemical breakdown of ingested food, the optimum goal of digestion is to absorb nutrients. b. The absorption process facilitates the emulsification of fats by breaking large fat drops into small droplets. c. Absorption involves the grinding action of the teeth and the mechanical mixing of food as it passes through the gastrointestinal tract, thus allowing regulation of digestion. d. Fluid balance, maintenance of core body temperature, numerous circadian rhythms, and regulation of pH and metabolic rates are included as parts of the absorption process. a. Even though digestion includes the processes of mechanical and chemical breakdown of ingested food, the optimum goal of digestion is to absorb nutrients. b. The absorption process facilitates the emulsification of fats by breaking large fat drops into small droplets. c. Absorption involves the grinding action of the teeth and the mechanical mixing of food as it passes through the gastrointestinal tract, thus allowing regulation of digestion. d. Fluid balance, maintenance of core body temperature, numerous circadian rhythms, and regulation of pH and metabolic rates are included as parts of the absorption process. ANS: A DIF: Application TOP: Overview of Digestive Functions
REF: p. 902
70. Which statement best explains the process of absorption?
a. Absorption is the process of taking food into the mouth and starting it on its journey through the digestive tract. b. Absorption releases digestive juices (containing enzymes, acids, bases, mucus, bile, or other products that facilitate digestion). c. Absorption is the movement by the muscular components of the digestive tube, including processes of mechanical digestion; examples include peristalsis and segmentation. d. Absorption is the passage of substances (notably digested foods, water, salts, and vitamins) through the intestinal mucosa into the blood or lymph. a. Absorption is the process of taking food into the mouth and starting it on its journey through the digestive tract. b. Absorption releases digestive juices (containing enzymes, acids, bases, mucus, bile, or other products that facilitate digestion). c. Absorption is the movement by the muscular components of the digestive tube, including processes of mechanical digestion; examples include peristalsis and segmentation. d. Absorption is the passage of substances (notably digested foods, water, salts, and vitamins) through the intestinal mucosa into the blood or lymph. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 920
TOP: Absorption
TRUE/FALSE 1. The bolus of food is formed during the pharyngeal stage of deglutition. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
2. Respiration is inhibited for the 1 to 3 seconds required for food to clear the pharynx during
each swallowing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
3. To propel food from the pharynx into the esophagus, three openings must be blocked. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
4. Peristalsis is a back-and-forth action that breaks apart chunks of food and mixes in digestive
juices. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: pp. 905-906
5. The process of emptying the stomach takes about 12 hours after a meal. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Motility
REF: p. 906
6. After leaving the stomach, chyme normally takes about 5 hours to pass all the way through the
small intestine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Motility
REF: p. 906
7. Enzymes are unique in that they can function optimally within a wide range of pH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
8. Enzymes are usually defined as inorganic catalysts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
9. Chemical digestion can be defined as all of the changes in chemical composition that food
undergoes as it travels through the digestive tract. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
10. Amylases are found in saliva and in pancreatic juice. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
REF: p. 909
11. Sucrose is an example of a disaccharide. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
REF: p. 909
12. Most enzymes are able to work on more than one substance. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestive Enzymes
REF: p. 908
13. Drinking large amounts of water works best as a means of replacing fluids quickly during
exercise. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Exercise and Fluid Uptake
REF: p. 907
14. Amino acids are the end products of protein digestion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Digestion
REF: p. 910
15. Bile catalyzes the breakdown of fats. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fat Digestion
REF: p. 910
16. The main glucose-digesting enzyme is glucase. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
REF: p. 909
17. Large amounts of cool, dilute, or isotonic fluids are best for replacing fluids quickly during
exercise. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Exercise and Fluid Uptake
REF: p. 907
18. The main proteases found in gastric juice are pepsin and trypsin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Digestion
REF: p. 910
19. Glycogen and sucrose are examples of polysaccharides. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
REF: p. 909
20. The stimulation of gastric juice secretions occurs in five phases controlled by reflex and
chemical mechanisms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Digestive Gland Secretions
REF: p. 918
21. Sucrase hydrolyzes sucrose into glucose and fructose. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 909
TOP: Chemical Digestion
22. Secretin causes the production of pancreatic fluid high in enzyme content but low in
bicarbonate. ANS: F TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 918
23. The enterogastric reflex stimulates gastric motility as food enters the duodenum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Motility
REF: p. 906
24. Salivary glands are stimulated only by olfactory and visual stimuli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Digestive Gland Secretions
REF: p. 918
25. Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract for neutralizing hydrochloric acid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Juice
REF: p. 915
26. Vasoactive intestinal peptide inhibits the production of intestinal juice. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Intestinal Secretions
REF: p. 920
27. The only food that can be digested by gastric juice is protein. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions
REF: p. 918
28. One of the functions of cholecystokinin is to enhance the influence of gastrin on gastric
parietal cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions
REF: p. 918
29. Vasoactive intestinal peptide inhibits the production of intestinal juice. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Intestinal Secretions
REF: p. 920
30. The sodium cotransport, which carries both sodium ions and glucose molecules, is an active
transport mechanism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 920
31. Paracellular absorption is the absorption of nutrients between cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 922
32. Vitamins A, D, E, and K depend on bile salts for their absorption. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 922
33. Both simple sugars and amino acids are absorbed into the blood in the intestinal capillaries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 922
34. Diarrhea occurs when the contents of the lower colon and rectum move at a rate that is slower
than normal. ANS: F TOP: Elimination
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 923
35. The formation of feces is the primary function of the rectum. ANS: F TOP: Elimination
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 923
36. Nucleotidase digests nucleotides. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
37. The process of elimination is simply the expulsion of the residues of digestion from the
digestive tract. ANS: T TOP: Elimination
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 923
38. Diarrhea is one of the leading causes of infant mortality in developing countries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Infant Diarrhea
REF: p. 923
39. Oral rehydration therapy can be used to replace fluids lost by way of diarrhea. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Infant Diarrhea
REF: p. 923
40. Chewing and swallowing are both considered mechanical digestion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mastication | Deglutition
REF: p. 904
41. Peristalsis and segmentation both involve movement of the GI tract. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Peristalsis and Segmentation
REF: p. 904
42. An enzyme that is a hydrolase breaks water down into hydrogen and oxygen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestive Enzymes
REF: p. 908
43. Carbohydrates that are used for food are made up of one or more saccharide groups. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
REF: p. 909
44. The action of bile on fat would be an example of mechanical digestion. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 910
TOP: Fat Digestion
45. “Dietary fiber” is a carbohydrate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Residues of Digestion
REF: p. 912
46. The lipase found in saliva is unable to digest much fat because the fat has not been emulsified. ANS: T TOP: Saliva
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 914
47. Zymogenic cells secrete enzymes into the lumen of the small intestines. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gastric Juice
REF: p. 914
48. The blood surrounding the stomach would have a pH slightly higher than blood in other parts
of the body. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 914
TOP: Gastric Juice
49. The blood surrounding the pancreas would have a slightly higher pH than blood in other parts
of the body. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 915
TOP: Pancreatic Juice
50. The pancreatic duct, which connects the pancreas to the small intestines, does not carry the
enzyme trypsin.
ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 915
TOP: Pancreatic Juice
51. Bile is involved in both secretion and excretion. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 916
TOP: Bile
52. Chylomicrons are usually not found in the lumen of the small intestine. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 921
TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
53. The primary function of the digestive system is to bring essential nutrients into the internal
environment so that they are available to the cells of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Digestive Functions
REF: p. 902
54. Mastication is another word for chewing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
55. During deglutition, the mouth is closed off by the soft palate and the uvula. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
56. During deglutition, the tongue closes off the nasopharynx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
57. During deglutition, food is denied entry to the larynx by muscle action that causes the
epiglottis to block that opening. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
58. The involuntary part of swallowing is regulated by the deglutition center of the medulla. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
59. Segmentation is described as a wavelike muscle contraction in a hollow organ that moves
food through the digestive system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
60. The stomach releases gastric inhibitory peptide to slow down peristalsis in the duodenum. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 905
TOP: Mechanical Digestion 61. Intestinal motility includes both peristaltic contractions and segmentation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 906
62. Lipase can be called a hydrolase. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
63. Most enzymes in the body are intracellular. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
64. The specificity of enzyme function can be explained by the “key-in-a-lock” mode of action. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
65. Enzymes are pH sensitive because differences in the hydrogen ion concentration can affect the
shape of the protein molecule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
66. Because trypsin works in the small intestine, its optimal pH must be less than that of pepsin,
which works in the stomach. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
67. Because enzymes are not changed by the chemical reactions they catalyze, digestive enzymes
rarely need to be made. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 908
68. Substances that activate proenzymes are often called kinases. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 909
69. The digestion of triglycerides produces monoglycerides and phospholipids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fat Digestion
REF: p. 910
70. The hydrophilic portion of lecithin is attracted to the interior fat of the micelle.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 910
71. The hydrophilic portion of lecithin is attracted to the exterior water of the micelle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 910
72. The process of emulsification is important because it facilitates a greater contact area for the
digestion of fat. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 910
73. Lysophosphatide is a possible end product of fat digestion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 912
74. Colipase is a substance made by the small intestine, and it functions as a coenzyme in fat
digestion. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 912
75. When fat combines with magnesium, it becomes indigestible. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical Digestion
REF: p. 912
76. One important role of the salivary glands is the production of mucus, because they are the
only glands that produce it. ANS: F TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 914
77. Because acid would be harmful to enzymes, the salivary glands produce bicarbonate ions to
lower the pH of saliva. ANS: T TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 914
78. Hydrochloric acid converts pepsinogen into pepsin. ANS: T TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 914
79. Enterokinase converts trypsin into trypsinogen. ANS: F TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 915
80. Enterokinase is converted to trypsinogen by trypsin. ANS: F TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 915
81. Lecithin is secreted by the liver. ANS: T TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 916
82. Bilirubin is found in bile and assists in micelle formation, which assists in the digestion of
fats. ANS: F TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 916
83. In the pancreas, base is secreted into the GI lumen and acid is secreted into the blood. This is
the reverse of what happens in the stomach. ANS: T TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 916
84. Elimination of gray-colored feces is an indication of abnormal bile secretion. ANS: T TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 917
85. Gastric secretions are inhibited when chyme containing fats, carbohydrates, and a high pH is
present in the duodenum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Digestive Gland Secretions
REF: p. 918
86. The hormones GIP, secretin, and CCK are formed in the intestinal mucosa. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Digestive Gland Secretions
REF: p. 918
87. Micelles are formed in the GI lumen. ANS: T TOP: Absorption
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 920
88. Chylomicrons are formed in the epithelial cells lining the small intestine. ANS: T TOP: Absorption
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 921
89. Chylomicrons are absorbed by the blood vessels in the villi of the small intestine. ANS: F TOP: Absorption
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 921
90. The nutrients absorbed by the lacteals enter the blood by being dumped into the subclavian
veins. ANS: T TOP: Absorption
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 922
91. A small amount of ingested alcohol is absorbed by the stomach. ANS: T TOP: Absorption
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 922-923
92. The only voluntary activity of the GI tract is swallowing. ANS: F TOP: Elimination
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 923
93. Segmentation can be described simply as a mixing movement. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Peristalsis and Segmentation
REF: p. 905
94. Retropulsion forces the chime in the stomach to move backwards. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gastric Motility
REF: p. 906
95. Gastric inhibitory peptide and the enterogastric reflex have opposite effects on gastric
peristalsis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gastric Motility
REF: p. 906
96. All digestive enzymes are classified as extracellular hydrolases. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Overview of Digestive Enzymes
REF: p. 908
97. Most digestive enzymes are synthesized and secreted as inactive proenzymes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes
REF: p. 909
98. Although we eat six types of chemical substances (carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins,
mineral salts, and water), only carbohydrates, proteins, fats, and vitamins need to be digested. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes
REF: p. 909
99. Of the four types of protein-digesting enzymes made by the body, only one is made by the
small intestines.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Digestion
REF: p. 910
100. Chief cells and zymogenic cells are the same structures. They function to produce digestive
enzymes in the stomach. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gastric Juice
REF: p. 914
101. Secretions of the digestive glands are mostly water. ANS: T TOP: Secretions
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 914
102. Ingestion, digestion, secretion, and absorption are all necessary for the proper functioning of
the digestive system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Digestive Functions
REF: p. 902
103. The last stage of deglutition is the pharyngeal stage. ANS: F TOP: Deglutition
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 904
104. Although both peristalsis and segmentation require movement of the alimentary canal, only
peristalsis moves food through the alimentary canal. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 905
TOP: Peristalsis and Segmentation
105. To properly regulate the flow of food from the stomach to the small intestine, a balance is
maintained between gastric inhibitory peptide that inhibits gastric motility and the enterogastric reflex that stimulates gastric motility. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gastric Motility
REF: p. 906
106. The enzymes amylase and lipase are found in saliva and are equally effective in their
digestion of substrates. ANS: F TOP: Saliva
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 914
107. Chief cells produce pepsin. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 914
TOP: Gastric Juice
108. The drug omeprazole (Prilosec) works by stimulating the H-K pumps, thereby reducing the
amount of acid in the stomach. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gastric Juice
REF: p. 914
109. Some of the enzymes in pancreatic juice are inactive. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Juice
REF: p. 915
110. Peptidase is a digestive enzyme that can function as an intracellular enzyme. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Digestion
REF: p. 910
111. Gastrin, an enzyme that stimulates gastric secretions, is made by G-cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions
REF: p. 918
112. The hormone vasoactive intestinal peptide is released when hydrochloric acid and digested
food products are in the small intestine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Intestinal Secretions
REF: p. 920
113. Although the cotransport of sodium and glucose is a passive process, it would not be possible
without the active transport of sodium out of the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 920
114. Micelles contain mostly triglycerides. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 921
115. Chylomicrons contain almost all monoglycerides. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 921
116. The amount of fat being absorbed by the body can be determined by taking a blood sample
from the hepatic portal system. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 922
TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
117. Blood in the hepatic portal system is much more likely to reflect the amount of glucose and
amino acid absorbed than is the blood in the inferior vena cava. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 922
TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
118. Mechanical digestion pushes food against the wall of the small intestine so it can be absorbed. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
119. Mechanical digestion reduces the size of ingested food, which increases the surface area of the
food making chemical digestion more efficient. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanical Digestion
REF: p. 904
120. The three stages of deglutition are the oral stage, the laryngeal stage, and the esophageal stage. ANS: F TOP: Deglutition
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 904
121. To increase absorption time, the hormone cholecystokinin slows motility in the small
intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Intestinal Motility
REF: p. 907
122. Enzymes can be named based on the substance on which they act. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestive Enzymes
REF: p. 908
123. The names of enzymes are easy to identify because they all end in “ase.” ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestive Enzymes
REF: p. 908
124. Most enzymes are able to catalyze reactions in both directions, but that rarely occurs in
digestive enzymes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestive Enzymes
REF: p. 908
125. Lactose and maltose are examples of disaccharides. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
REF: p. 909
126. Intestinal amylase is attached to the brush borders of the villi and function in a process called
contact digestion. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
REF: p. 909
127. Contact digestion makes absorption more efficient because the end products are then
physically near the point of absorption, not floating around somewhere in the lumen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
REF: p. 909
128. Paracellular absorption requires the expenditure of cellular energy.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
REF: p. 922
MATCHING
Match each primary mechanism of the digestive system with its corresponding definition. a. Motility b. Ingestion c. Elimination d. Secretion e. Digestion f. Absorption 1. Release of digestive juices; release of endocrine hormones that regulate digestion or 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
metabolism of nutrients Excretion of the residues of the digestive process (feces) from the rectum, through the anus; defecation Movement by the muscular components of the digestive tube, including processes of mechanical digestion; examples include peristalsis and segmentation Movement of digested nutrients through the GI mucosa and into the internal environment A group of processes that breaks complex nutrients into simpler ones, thus facilitating their absorption (includes both mechanical and chemical processes) Process of taking food into the mouth, starting it on its journey through the digestive tract
1. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Secretions 2. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Elimination 3. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Peristalsis | Segmentation 4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Absorption 5. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestion 6. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestive Function
REF: p. 914 REF: p. 923 REF: pp. 904-905 REF: p. 920 REF: p. 902 REF: p. 902
Match each phase of gastric secretion with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Cephalic phase b. Gastric phase c. Intestinal phase 7. Phase that responds to taste, smell, thoughts of food, and sensations of chewing and
swallowing 8. Phase that is controlled by the entrance of acidic chyme into the duodenum 9. Phase that is initiated by the presence of food in the stomach 7. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions
REF: p. 918
8. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions 9. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions
REF: p. 918 REF: p. 918
Match each of the digestive juices and enzymes with its corresponding description. a. Amylase b. Bile c. Lactase d. Maltase e. Pepsin f. Peptidase g. Sucrase h. Trypsin i. Lipase 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
Enzyme that works on starch Converts maltose to glucose Major enzyme in stomach associated with protein breakdown Enzyme that works on milk sugars Enzyme that works on cane sugars Pancreatic enzyme that works on proteins Enzyme from lining of small intestine whose end products are amino acids Enzyme that chemically digests fat Substance that emulsifies fat
10. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Chemical Digestion 11. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Chemical Digestion 12. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Chemical Digestion 13. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Chemical Digestion 14. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Chemical Digestion 15. ANS: H DIF: TOP: Chemical Digestion 16. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Chemical Digestion 17. ANS: I DIF: TOP: Chemical Digestion 18. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Chemical Digestion
Memorization
REF: p. 909
Memorization
REF: p. 909
Memorization
REF: p. 909
Memorization
REF: p. 909
Memorization
REF: p. 909
Memorization
REF: p. 909
Memorization
REF: p. 910
Memorization
REF: p. 910
Memorization
REF: p. 916
Match each digestive hormone with its action. a. Secretin b. Cholecystokinin (CCK) c. Gastrin d. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
19. Stimulates secretion of gastric juice rich in pepsin and hydrochloric acid 20. Inhibits gastric secretion; stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice low in enzymes and high in
alkalinity; stimulates ejection of bile by the gallbladder 21. Stimulates ejection of bile from the gallbladder and secretion of pancreatic juice high in enzymes; opposes the action of gastrin, reducing the pH of gastric juice 22. Inhibits gastric secretion and motility 19. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Actions of Some Digestive Hormones 20. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Actions of Some Digestive Hormones 21. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Actions of Some Digestive Hormones 22. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Actions of Some Digestive Hormones
REF: p. 918 REF: p. 918 REF: p. 918 REF: p. 918
Match each structure with its function, description, or the enzyme it produces. a. Gallbladder b. Salivary gland c. Pancreas d. Stomach e. Small intestine f. Liver 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.
Structure in which villi are located Location of lipase production that is ineffective because the ingested lipids are still too large Organ in which trypsinogen is made Organ in which pepsinogen is made Gland that makes and secretes bile Organ in which bile is concentrated and stored
23. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 24. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Saliva 25. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreatic Juice 26. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Gastric Juice 27. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Bile 28. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Bile OTHER 1. What are the functions of mechanical digestion? ANS:
Answers will vary.
REF: p. 909 REF: p. 914 REF: p. 915 REF: p. 914 REF: p. 916 REF: p. 916
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 904
TOP: Mechanical Digestion
2. Explain the physiological basis for diarrhea and constipation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 923
TOP: Elimination
3. What happens in the chemical process of hydrolysis? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 908
TOP: Chemical Digestion
4. The prefix “amyl” comes from the Latin word for “starch.” How does that explain the name
for an enzyme in carbohydrate digestion? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: pp. 908, 909
TOP: Digestive Enzymes | Carbohydrate Digestion
5. Most enzymes catalyze a chemical reaction in both directions. Explain what this means. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 908
TOP: Digestive Enzymes
6. List the kinds of chemical substances that we eat. Which of these need to be digested? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 908
TOP: Digestive Enzymes
7. Explain why salivary amylase is able to digest such a small amount of carbohydrate. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 914
TOP: Saliva
8. Explain the process of carbohydrate digestion. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 909
TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion
9. Explain the process of fat digestion. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 910
TOP: Fat Digestion
REF: p. 910
TOP: Protein Digestion
10. Explain the process of protein digestion. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
11. Explain the mechanism of absorption for water-soluble nutrients. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 920
TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
12. Explain the mechanism of absorption for lipids. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 920
TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
13. Explain the differences between peristalsis and segmentation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 904
TOP: Peristalsis | Segmentation
14. Explain ways in which gastric motility is regulated. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 906
TOP: Gastric Motility
15. The optimal pH for the functioning of pepsin is 3; the optimal pH for the functioning of
trypsin is 7. Explain why this difference would be expected. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 908, 910 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes | Protein Digestion
16. What is found in the secretions of the salivary glands? Why is the lipase found in saliva
ineffective as a digestive enzyme in the mouth? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 914
TOP: Saliva
17. What substances are found in pancreatic juice? How are the inactive substances in pancreatic
juice activated? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 915
TOP: Pancreatic Juice
18. Explain the difference between transcellular absorption and paracellular absorption. What can
be absorbed by means of paracellular absorption? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 920
TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
ESSAY 1. Jeff was a successful country music star, but he worked too hard and was under great stress.
His physician cautioned him that if he did not alter his lifestyle, he would be subject to hyperacidity. What could be the resulting condition of hyperacidity? Explain how the hyperacidity develops. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 923
TOP: Disorders of the GI Tract
2. Allen was an alcoholic. He had a condition known as alcoholic hepatitis. This condition
causes inflammation of the liver and results in reduced production and secretion of bile. What digestive complication does this produce? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 923
TOP: Disorders of the Liver | Disorder of the Pancreas
3. Donna has Crohn disease, which results in inflammation and ulceration of the small intestine.
Her physician recommended surgery to help in the management of this autoimmune disease. Could her entire small intestine be removed? Why or why not? ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Memorization REF: p. 924 TOP: The Big Picture: Digestion and the Whole Body 4. Explain how the hepatic portal system and liver help maintain the blood homeostasis. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 920
TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption
5. Explain why trypsin and pepsin need to be made in an inactive form. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 915
TOP: Pancreatic Juice
6. Some drugs cannot be taken orally even if they are well absorbed by the small intestine
because they are completely broken down by the liver. Explain why these drugs would never reach the general circulation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 920
TOP: Absorption
Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is true of metabolism? a. It involves both a physical and a chemical breakdown of foods. b. It occurs both inside and outside of cells. c. It involves synthesis and decomposition. d. Energy is released from the process of anabolism and catabolism. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
2. Which of the following is not true of ATP? a. It is a high-energy substance. b. It is formed by the synthesis of ADP and phosphate. c. It releases energy when split. d. It cannot be recycled after it is broken down. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
3. Catabolism is a _____ process involving the _____ of energy. a. synthesis; release b. decomposition; release c. synthesis; use d. decomposition; use ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
4. ADP is an abbreviation for: a. aniline diphosphate. b. adenine diphosphate. c. adenosine diphosphate. d. adenosine triphosphate. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
5. Which of the following is true of energy released by the breakdown of food substances? a. It is used to synthesize ATP. b. It is used to decompose ATP. c. It is changed to heat energy and used for cell functioning. d. It is used directly for cell functioning. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
6. In which of the following cells is glucose phosphorylation reversible?
a. b. c. d.
Heart Pancreas Kidney Muscle
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose Transport and Phosphorylation
REF: p. 933
7. The cycle in which an ATP high-energy bond is broken to yield a phosphate group, ADP, and
energy and then recombined to form ATP is called the: a. conversion of monosaccharides. b. ATP conversion. c. ATP/ADP system. d. metabolic pathway. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 932
8. The preferred energy fuel of the body is: a. fructose. b. glucose. c. amino acids. d. fatty acids. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism
REF: p. 933
9. The process of splitting glycogen is called: a. glycogenesis. b. glycogenolysis. c. gluconeogenesis. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycogenolysis
REF: p. 941
10. Glucose phosphorylation is catalyzed by which of the following enzymes? a. Amylase b. Glucokinase c. Phosphatase d. Phosphorylase ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose Transport and Phosphorylation
REF: p. 933
11. Which of the following is the correct order of the body’s energy fuel preference, starting with
the first choice and ending with the third choice? a. Carbohydrates, fats, proteins b. Carbohydrates, proteins, fats c. Fats, carbohydrates, proteins d. Proteins, carbohydrates, fats ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Energy Balance and Body Weight
REF: p. 955
12. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of all human cells. b. Glycolysis requires the use of oxygen. c. Glycolysis breaks the chemical bonds in glucose molecules and thereby releases
about 5% of the energy stored in them. d. Glycolysis is an essential process because it prepares glucose for the second step in
catabolism, namely, the citric acid cycle. ANS: B TOP: Glycolysis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 934
13. Which of the following is not true of glycolysis? a. It occurs in the mitochondria. b. Glucose is split into two pyruvic acid molecules. c. It is an anaerobic process. d. A specific enzyme catalyzes each step of the reaction. ANS: A TOP: Glycolysis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 934
14. The Krebs cycle takes place in the: a. ribosome. b. cytoplasm. c. mitochondria. d. Golgi apparatus. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
REF: p. 934
15. Which of the following names is not a term used for the aerobic breakdown of food
substances? a. Citric acid cycle b. Pyruvic acid cycle c. Krebs cycle d. Tricarboxylic acid cycle ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism
REF: p. 935
16. When the blood glucose level starts to decrease toward lower than normal: a. liver cells increase the rate at which they convert glycogen, amino acids, and fats
to glucose. b. there is an increase in glycogenolysis. c. there is an increase in gluconeogenesis. d. all of the above occur. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 17. Which of the following types of cells contains phosphatase? a. Heart
REF: p. 934
b. Brain c. Muscle d. Kidney ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose Transport and Phosphorylation
REF: p. 933
18. Which of the following is most indicative of a normal blood sugar level? a. 60 to 80 mg/100 ml b. 80 to 100 mg/100 ml c. 110 to 125 mg/100 ml d. 135 to 150 mg/100 ml ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycogenesis
REF: p. 940
19. An increased blood sugar level stimulates which of the following to occur? a. Glycogenolysis b. Glycogenesis c. Gluconeogenesis d. Glycolysis ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycogenesis
REF: p. 940
20. The action of phosphatase enzyme is to catalyze the: a. combination of phosphate with glucose. b. release of glucose from phosphate. c. movement of glucose through the cell membrane. d. formation of ATP. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycogenolysis
REF: p. 940
21. The process of gluconeogenesis occurs in the: a. liver. b. skeletal muscle. c. brain. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Gluconeogenesis
REF: p. 941
22. The conversion of proteins to glucose is an example of: a. glycogenesis. b. gluconeogenesis. c. glycogenolysis. d. glycolysis. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Gluconeogenesis
REF: p. 941
23. The process by which proteins are synthesized by the ribosomes in all cells is called protein:
a. b. c. d.
catabolism. anabolism. metabolism. transcription.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Metabolism
REF: p. 947
24. Deamination, the splitting off of an amino group from an amino acid molecule to form a
molecule of ammonia and one of keto acid, is the first step in protein: a. catabolism. b. anabolism. c. metabolism. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Catabolism
REF: p. 947
25. Protein, or nitrogen, balance means protein: a. anabolism equals protein catabolism. b. anabolism exceeds protein catabolism. c. catabolism exceeds protein anabolism. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Balance and Nitrogen Balance
REF: p. 947
26. Glucagon increases the activity of: a. phosphorylase. b. phosphatase. c. amylase. d. glucokinase. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism
REF: p. 941
27. The enzyme that catalyzes glucose phosphorylation is: a. phosphorylase. b. phosphatase. c. amylase. d. glucokinase. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism
REF: p. 942
28. A hormone that stimulates the conversion of proteins to glucose is: a. ACTH. b. growth hormone. c. thyroid hormone. d. TSH. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism 29. ACTH affects metabolism by stimulating the release of:
REF: p. 948
a. b. c. d.
epinephrine. thyroxine. glucagon. glucocorticoids.
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism
REF: p. 948
30. The hormone capable of causing both protein anabolism and catabolism is: a. thyroid hormone. b. growth hormone. c. insulin. d. ACTH. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism
REF: p. 948
31. The hormone that raises blood sugar level by causing a shift to fat catabolism is: a. ACTH. b. growth hormone. c. thyroid hormone. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Lipid Metabolism
REF: p. 946
32. Which of the following hormones is not hyperglycemic? a. Glucagon b. Glucocorticoids c. Insulin d. Epinephrine ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism
REF: p. 942
33. Diets high in saturated fats and cholesterol tend to increase the blood ____ concentration. a. HDL b. LDL c. VLDL ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Lipids
REF: p. 945
34. Excess glucose and amino acids are converted to: a. fatty acids. b. glycerol. c. triglycerides. d. phospholipids. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Anabolism 35. The hormone that has a tendency to inhibit fat catabolism is:
REF: p. 946
a. b. c. d.
ACTH. insulin. growth hormone. glucocorticoids.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Lipid Metabolism
REF: p. 946
36. The most common lipids in the diet are: a. phospholipids. b. cholesterol. c. triglycerides. d. prostaglandins. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids
REF: p. 944
37. All of the following hormones control lipid metabolism except: a. ACTH. b. glucocorticoids. c. epinephrine. d. insulin. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Lipid Metabolism
REF: p. 946
38. Catabolism of fatty acids, without any other food product availability, causes the production
of: a. b. c. d.
glucose. ketone bodies. cholesterol. ADP.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Catabolism
REF: p. 945
39. Which of the following stimulates protein synthesis? a. Testosterone b. Estrogen c. Glucagon d. ACTH ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism
REF: p. 948
40. Which of the following vitamins is not stored in significant amounts in the body and must be
continually supplied to the diet? a. D b. K c. C d. E ANS: C
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 948
TOP: Vitamins 41. A deficiency in which of the following minerals leads to thyroid enlargement and a decrease
in the metabolic rate? a. Potassium b. Iodine c. Calcium d. Phosphorus ANS: B TOP: Minerals
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 951
42. Metabolic rates are expressed as: a. normal or as a percentage above or below normal. b. the number of kilocalories of heat energy expended per hour or per day. c. kilocalories per pound of body weight. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic Rate
REF: p. 952
43. The basal metabolic rate is higher in all of the following situations except: a. youth compared with adult. b. male compared with female. c. hypothermia compared with fever. d. excess of thyroid hormone compared with the normal level. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors Influencing Basal Metabolic Rate
REF: p. 954
44. An increase of body temperature of 1 degree Celsius will necessitate an increase in
metabolism of approximately: a. 7%. b. 11%. c. 13%. d. 15%. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors Influencing Basal Metabolic Rate
REF: p. 954
45. The appetite center is located in the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. hypothalamus. d. cerebrum. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms for Regulating Food Intake
REF: p. 956
46. A person who consumes 6000 kilocalories per day and burns only 5000 kilocalories per day
would gain approximately ____ pounds over a 10-day period. a. 1 b. 3
c. 5 d. 7 ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Energy Balance and Body Weight
REF: p. 955
47. Malnutrition includes a deficiency or imbalance of: a. water. b. food. c. vitamins. d. both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
48. If four molecules of glucose were broken down by glycolysis, the cell would receive _____
molecules of ATP. a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16 ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 934
TOP: Glycolysis
49. Which of the following is not a result of insulin deficiency? a. Low glycogen storage b. Slow glycogenesis c. Increased glucose catabolism d. All of the above are results of insulin deficiency. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism
REF: p. 941
50. Which of the following substances is not transported as part of a chylomicron? a. Glucose b. Cholesterol c. Phospholipid d. All of the above are transported as part of a chylomicron. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Lipids
REF: p. 945
51. Which of the following vitamins can the body make? a. Vitamin D b. Vitamin K c. Biotin d. The body can make all of the above vitamins. ANS: A TOP: Vitamins
DIF: Memorization
52. All of the following are a result of lipid anabolism except: a. cholesterol.
REF: p. 948
b. ketone bodies. c. triglycerides. d. prostaglandins. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Metabolism
REF: p. 946
53. Which of the following minerals is important in blood cell production? a. Magnesium b. Iron c. Manganese d. Iodine ANS: B TOP: Minerals
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 951
54. Which of the following minerals is important in stomach acid production? a. Iron b. Calcium c. Chlorine d. Sodium ANS: C TOP: Minerals
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 951
55. Which of the following minerals is important in the production of ATP, RNA, and DNA? a. Phosphorus b. Iron c. Calcium d. Cobalt ANS: A TOP: Minerals
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 951
56. Which of the following minerals is important in bone formation, blood clotting, and nerve
function? a. Phosphorus b. Iron c. Calcium d. Cobalt ANS: C TOP: Minerals
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 951
57. Glucose cannot be secreted from what cells once glucose phosphorylation has occurred in
them? a. Muscle cells b. Kidney cells c. Liver cells d. Intestinal mucosa cells ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 933 TOP: Glucose Transport and Phosphorylation
58. Which of the following is not considered a macronutrient? a. Carbohydrates b. Calcium c. Iron d. Neither B nor C is considered a macronutrient. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
59. Which of the following is not considered a micronutrient? a. Zinc b. Iodine c. Sodium d. All of the above are considered micronutrients. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
60. A term for substances such as sodium, chloride, calcium, and potassium is: a. bulk nutrient. b. trace element. c. macromineral. d. both A and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
61. A term for substances such as iron, iodine, zinc, and manganese is: a. bulk nutrient. b. trace element. c. macromineral. d. both A and C. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
62. “Occurs when nutrient molecules enter the cell and undergo many chemical changes” is the
textbook definition of: a. metabolism. b. anabolism. c. assimilation. d. catabolism. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 932
63. Which of the following carbohydrates cannot be absorbed directly into the cells? a. Cellulose b. Polysaccharides c. Disaccharides d. None of the above carbohydrates can be absorbed directly into the cells.
ANS: D DIF: Application TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates
REF: p. 933
64. Carbohydrates must be converted to which molecule before entering the citric acid cycle? a. Citric acid b. An acetyl group c. Coenzyme A (CoA) d. Pyruvic acid ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
REF: p. 934
65. Which of the following is a characteristic of an unsaturated fat? a. It is a solid at room temperature. b. It contains all the hydrogen it can hold. c. It has at least one double bond. d. None of the above are characteristics of an unsaturated fat. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids
REF: p. 944
66. Which of the following is a characteristic of a saturated fat? a. It is a solid at room temperature. b. It contains all the hydrogen it can hold. c. It has at least one double bond. d. Both A and B are characteristics of a saturated fat. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids
REF: p. 944
67. Which of the following is a factor that reduces appetite? a. An increase in blood temperature reaching the hypothalamus b. A decrease in blood temperature reaching the hypothalamus c. A decrease in blood glucose d. None of the above factors has an effect on appetite. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms for Regulating Food Intake
REF: p. 956
68. Which of the following is not part of “basal conditions”? a. Awake but lying down and not moving a muscle b. In a preabsorptive state c. In a warm, comfortable environment d. All of the above are part of basal conditions. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate
REF: p. 952
69. What process has pyruvic acid and two gained ATPs as end products? a. Krebs cycle b. Anaerobic pathway c. Glycolysis d. Electron transport chain
ANS: C TOP: Glycolysis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 934
70. What process uses high-energy electrons and hydrogen carriers to release energy? a. Krebs cycle b. Anaerobic pathway c. Glycolysis d. Electron transport chain ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Electron Transport Chain
REF: p. 936
71. Which process produces lactic acid? (The Cori cycle helps repay the oxygen debt incurred by
this process.) a. Krebs cycle b. Anaerobic pathway c. Glycolysis d. Electron transport chain ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Anaerobic Pathway
REF: p. 936
72. Which process begins with acetyl CoA and produces high-energy electrons and hydrogen
carrier molecules? a. Krebs cycle b. Anaerobic pathway c. Glycolysis d. Electron transport chain ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
REF: p. 935
73. If 4 molecules of glucose were broken down by glycolysis, the cell would gain _____
molecules of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16 ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 934
TOP: Glycolysis
74. Which statement best explains how orexigenic factors affect appetite? a. Orexigenic factors are hormones, neurotransmitters, and other factors that affect
feeding centers in the hypothalamus that decrease appetite. b. Orexigenic factors are hormones, neurotransmitters, and other factors that affect
feeding centers in the hypothalamus that stimulate appetite. c. Orexigenic factors are neurons in the ventral medial nucleus of the hypothalamus
that function as a satiety center—meaning that impulses from these neurons decrease appetite so that we feel sated, or satisfied. d. Orexigenic factors are neurons in the ventral medial nucleus of the hypothalamus that function as a satiety center—meaning that impulses from these neurons
increase appetite. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 956 TOP: Mechanisms for Regulating Food Intake 75. Which statement best compares the processes of anabolism and catabolism? a. Both catabolism and anabolism take place outside of the cells in the GI tract. b. Catabolism breaks food molecules down into smaller molecular compounds and, in
so doing, releases energy from them. Anabolism does the opposite. c. Anabolism breaks food molecules down into smaller molecular compounds and, in
so doing, releases energy from them. Catabolism does the opposite. d. Anabolism occurs when nutrient molecules enter cells, undergo many chemical
changes, and release ATP for energy; catabolism doesn’t release ATP. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 932 TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism 76. Which statement explains how a diet that is low in carbohydrates would reduce the amount of
fat in the body? a. Carbohydrates act as a fat sparer; therefore, fat goes through anabolism to reduce body fat. b. Certain carbohydrates called peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors metabolize fat. c. Fewer carbohydrates would result in fats moving out of adipose tissue and being catabolized. d. Fat catabolism is inversely related to the rate of carbohydrate anabolism. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 946
TOP: Control of Lipid Metabolism
77. If a person’s total metabolic rate (TMR) were 2400 calories, would his or her basal metabolic
rate (BMR) be more or less than 2400 calories? a. Less because BMR is about 55% to 60% of the TMR. b. More because BMR is about 55% to 60% more than the TMR. c. Neither because BMR is equal to the TMR. d. Not enough information is given to determine the answer. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 952
TOP: Metabolic Rate
TRUE/FALSE 1. Metabolism requires the use of enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
2. Heat released in catabolism is used as an energy source for cell functions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism 3. All cells have basically the same metabolic rate.
REF: p. 932
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
4. Products derived from anabolism may differ from cell to cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 932
5. All types of complex carbohydrates are broken down in the body into simpler carbohydrates
before they are absorbed. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates
REF: p. 933
6. Intermediate products formed during the Krebs cycle are all acids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
REF: p. 935
7. Oxidative phosphorylation refers to the breakdown of ATP into ADP, phosphate, and energy
in the presence of oxygen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 935 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 8. Oxidative phosphorylation refers to the joining of a phosphate group to ADP to form ATP. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 935 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 9. At the end of the cytochrome electron transport process, oxygen accepts two electrons and
combines with two hydrogen ions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 935 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 10. Energy released and used for forming ATP comes from the ionization of oxygen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Anaerobic Pathway
REF: p. 938
11. All cells have the ability to digest glycogen and release glucose into the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycogenolysis
REF: p. 940
12. An evening meal is eaten at 6 PM. Nothing more is eaten until 8 AM. Glycogenolysis alone
can maintain a normal blood sugar level between the two meals. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycogenolysis
REF: p. 941
13. In the electron transport system, electrons moving down the carrier chain release bursts of
energy used to pump neutrons into the compartment between the inner and outer membranes of the mitochondrion. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 935 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 14. The conversion of proteins to glucose is an example of gluconeogenesis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gluconeogenesis
REF: p. 940
15. Whereas insulin tends to decrease the blood glucose level, glucagon tends to increase it. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism
REF: p. 942
16. Hormones that cause the blood level of glucose to rise are called hypoglycemic. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism
REF: p. 943
17. Glucagon accelerates glycogenolysis in liver cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism
REF: p. 942
18. Insulin comes from the beta cells of the pancreas. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism
REF: p. 942
19. Both epinephrine and glucagon accelerate liver and muscle glycogenolysis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism
REF: p. 942
20. Incretins are released by the pancreas into the small intestines in response to high glucose
concentration in the chyme. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism
REF: p. 944
21. A high level of HDLs is associated with a low incidence of heart disease. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Lipids
REF: p. 945
22. Both fatty acids and glycerol enter at the Krebs cycle to be catabolized. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Catabolism
REF: p. 945
23. Lipoproteins are produced primarily in the liver. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Lipids
REF: p. 945
24. Fats produce more than twice the amount of calories per gram than do carbohydrates. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Catabolism
REF: p. 945
25. Fatty acids are converted to ketone bodies in the liver. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Catabolism
REF: p. 945
26. Some essential acids are used in the formation of prostaglandins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Anabolism
REF: p. 946
27. Essential fatty acids are not synthesized by the body and thus must be obtained from the diet. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Anabolism
REF: p. 946
28. Lipids are transported in blood as chylomicrons, lipoproteins, and free fatty acids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Lipids
REF: p. 945
29. Some essential acids are used in the formation of phospholipids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Anabolism
REF: p. 946
30. High blood concentrations of LDLs are associated with atherosclerosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Lipids
REF: p. 945
31. Deamination, a process that occurs in the liver, is the first step in the catabolism of proteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Catabolism
REF: p. 947
32. Ammonia is a byproduct of the catabolism of fatty acids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Catabolism
REF: p. 947
33. Keto acids are formed in protein catabolism and can be oxidized in the citric acid cycle.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Catabolism
REF: p. 947
34. Proteins and fats are used primarily for catabolism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Metabolism
REF: p. 947
35. Growth hormone is considered an anabolic hormone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism
REF: p. 948
36. The metabolic rate refers to the amount of energy released by catabolism. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic Rate
REF: p. 952
37. Waiting until after a 12- to 18-hour postabsorptive period had past would be necessary to
obtain an accurate measure of the basal metabolic rate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate
REF: p. 952
38. Men and women who are the same age and the same body size usually oxidize food at the
same rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Factors Influencing Basal Metabolic Rate
REF: pp. 952, 954
39. When the metabolic rate decreases, the cells use less oxygen than normal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: How BMR Is Determined
REF: p. 953
40. The basal metabolic rate usually constitutes about 85% to 90% of the total metabolic rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Metabolic Rate
REF: p. 955
41. Carbohydrates and fats have a lower thermic effect than do proteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Metabolic Rate
REF: p. 955
42. To maintain a constant body weight, caloric intake must equal caloric output. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Energy Balance and Body Weight
REF: p. 955
43. Body weight increases when energy input is less than energy output.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Energy Balance and Body Weight
REF: p. 955
44. The liver cells make some proteins for export. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Anabolism
REF: p. 947
45. Protein catabolism occurs at the ribosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Anabolism
REF: p. 947
46. Protein-poor diets, starvation, and wasting illnesses produce a negative nitrogen balance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Protein Balance and Nitrogen Balance
REF: p. 947
47. Strong evidence supports the usefulness of vitamin supplements for athletic performance. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamin Supplements for Athletes
REF: p. 948
48. Minerals function in various chemical reactions such as nerve conduction and contraction in
muscle fibers. ANS: T TOP: Minerals
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 951
49. It is correct to say that ATP functions as the universal biological energy currency. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 932
50. Adenosine triphosphate has three high-energy phosphate bonds. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 932
51. Nutrition can be defined in part as the process by which the organism ingests, digests,
absorbs, transports, utilizes, and excretes food substances. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
52. Nutrition can be explained most simply by describing it as the way your body uses food. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism 53. Assimilation is an intracellular event.
REF: p. 931
ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 932 TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism 54. In the human body, anabolism would not be possible without catabolism. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 932 TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism 55. Monosaccharides do not need to be digested but can be absorbed directly into the internal
environment. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates
REF: p. 933
56. The cells add phosphate to glucose so it can pass through the cell membrane more easily. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose Transport and Phosphorylation
REF: p. 933
57. Pyruvic acid has twice the number of carbon atoms as does glucose. ANS: F TOP: Glycolysis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 934
58. When the cell has sufficient oxygen, glycolysis does not occur. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 934
TOP: Glycolysis
59. The citric acid cycle begins with a molecule of pyruvic acid joining with a molecule of citric
acid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
REF: p. 934
60. One of the roles of pyruvic acid in anaerobic respiration is to convert NADH back to NAD. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Anaerobic Pathway
REF: p. 934
61. In the electron transport system, the energy in one FAD molecule is used to form two ATP
molecules. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 935 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 62. The level of glucose in the blood has an impact on the appetite center. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms for Regulating Food Intake 63. Lipids can be broken down by glycolysis.
REF: p. 956
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Catabolism
REF: p. 945
64. Most vitamins are organic substances that act as coenzymes. ANS: T TOP: Vitamins
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 948
65. The basal metabolic rate is the smallest amount of energy needed to maintain life. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate
REF: p. 952
66. Adenosine diphosphate has only two high-energy phosphate bonds. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 932
67. Nutrient anabolism is required to rebuild ADP into ATP. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 932
68. Although cellulose has no nutrient value, it may be helpful in lowering the risk of some
cancers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates
REF: p. 933
69. Polysaccharides, disaccharides, and monosaccharides have to be digested before they can be
absorbed into the internal environment. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates
REF: p. 933
70. The monosaccharides fructose, glucose, and galactose are all equally useful to the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates
REF: p. 933
71. ATP is useful for the long-term storage of chemical energy derived from nutrients. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transferring Chemical Energy
REF: p. 932
72. The cell can use both NAD and FAD to transfer energy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transferring Chemical Energy 73. When NADH gains energy, it becomes NAD.
REF: p. 932
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transferring Chemical Energy
REF: p. 932
74. Carbohydrates are the body’s first choice of energy. As such, they are used exclusively for
catabolism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism
REF: p. 933
75. Oxygen is required for the last step of glycolysis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism
REF: p. 934
76. Glycolysis releases only about 25% of the energy stored in the bonds of a glucose molecule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism
REF: p. 934
77. The process of glycolysis produces four molecules of ATP, but the cell gains only two
molecules of ATP. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 934
TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism
78. The end product of glycolysis, pyruvic acid, is the starting substance for the citric acid cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism
REF: p. 934
79. The acetyl group is carried to the citric acid cycle by coenzyme A. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism
REF: p. 934
80. Most vegetables are an excellent source of essential amino acids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of Protein
REF: pp. 946-947
81. Oxidative phosphorylation provides about 90% of the cell’s ATP. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism
REF: p. 935
82. An end product of the anaerobic pathway of glucose is lactic acid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism
REF: p. 938
83. One function of lactic acid is to convert NADH back to NAD. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 938
TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 84. Glycogenesis is an example of carbohydrate anabolism. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism
REF: p. 940
85. Because red blood cells contain no mitochondria, they must get all of their energy through
oxidative phosphorylation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Anaerobic Body Cells
REF: p. 939
86. Muscle cells are able to break down glycogen and release the resulting glucose back into the
blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism
REF: p. 939
87. A saturated fat is saturated with hydrogen atoms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids
REF: p. 944
88. Saturated fats are usually liquids at room temperature. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids
REF: p. 944
89. Unsaturated fats are usually liquids at room temperature. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids
REF: p. 944
90. Unsaturated fats have double bonds in their fatty acid chains. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids
REF: p. 944
91. Cholesterol levels are particularly high in foods such as liver and egg yolk. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids
REF: p. 944
92. One benefit of exercise is that it tends to increase blood levels of LDL. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Lipids
REF: p. 945
93. The smell of acetone on the breath is a sign of ketosis. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 946
TOP: Ketosis 94. Fatty acids are broken down by a process of beta oxidation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Metabolism
REF: p. 946
95. The body has an almost equal ability to store fats and carbohydrates. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Metabolism
REF: p. 946
96. Just as there are essential amino acids, there are essential fatty acids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Metabolism
REF: p. 946
97. Fats have a “carbohydrate-sparing” effect, or more correctly, a “carbohydrate-storing” effect. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Metabolism
REF: p. 946
98. Of the 20 amino acids used by the body, the body can synthesize 18. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of Protein
REF: p. 946
99. Vitamin C has an antioxidant effect. ANS: T TOP: Vitamins
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 948
100. A larger individual has the same basal metabolic rate as a small person per square meter of
body surface. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate
REF: p. 952
101. Both the appetite and the satiety center are found in the hypothalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms for Regulating Food Intake
REF: p. 956
102. Caffeine can be used to lower the basal metabolic rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate
REF: p. 955
103. Both pregnancy and lactation can increase the basal metabolic rate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate
REF: p. 955
104. Thyroid hormone can promote protein anabolism or protein catabolism depending on the
circumstances. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism
REF: p. 948
105. Copper is an important mineral in the synthesis of thyroid hormone. ANS: F TOP: Minerals
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 951
106. Calcium can be called both a macronutrient and a macromineral. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
107. Iodine can be called a trace element and a micromineral. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 931
108. Both pyruvic acid and lactic acid can be produced from the breakdown of glucose. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Glycolysis | Anaerobic Pathway
REF: pp. 934, 936
109. In the anaerobic pathway, glucose can be converted to lactic acid without the use of oxygen.
The lactic acid can then enter the citric acid cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Anaerobic Pathway
REF: p. 936
110. There are lipids, carbohydrates, and amino acids that are needed by the body but cannot be
made by the body. Because of this, they are called “essential” and must be included in the diet. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Lipid Metabolism | Sources of Protein
REF: pp. 945, 946
111. ATP can be broken down and rebuilt in a process called the ATP/ADP cycle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 932
112. Glycolysis is unique in carbohydrate metabolism in that it is the only process that does not
occur in the mitochondrion. ANS: T TOP: Glycolysis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 934
113. The citric acid cycle, the tricarboxylic acid cycle, and the Krebs cycle all refer to the same
process.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
REF: p. 935
114. The Cori cycle is another term for the electron transport chain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Anaerobic Pathway
REF: p. 939
115. The Cori cycle rebuilds glucose from pyruvic acid to pay off the oxygen debt. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Anaerobic Pathway
REF: p. 939
116. The group of hormones called incretins act to increase the amount of insulin produced by the
pancreas, which would raise the blood level of glucose. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism
REF: p. 942
117. Both vitamins and minerals act as coenzymes for the body. ANS: F TOP: Vitamins
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 948
118. The hormone leptin is frequently given to people undergoing chemotherapy to stimulate their
appetite. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 946
TOP: Control of Lipid Metabolism
119. You would expect to find very little fructose in the general circulation even after a meal that
included fruit. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates
REF: p. 933
120. The citric acid cycle is important because it produces more ATP than any other process in
carbohydrate catabolism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
REF: p. 934
121. The conversion of NADH back to NAD so that if can function in anaerobic respiration is
called the Cori cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Anaerobic Pathway
REF: p. 939
122. Only muscles store glycogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycogenesis
REF: p. 940
123. The amount of glycogen being made must be regulated because too much glycogen can upset
the osmotic balance in the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycogenesis
REF: p. 940
124. When the blood glucose levels rise to 80 to 90 mg/dl, it stimulates the formation of glycogen
in cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycogenesis
REF: p. 940
125. Epinephrine stimulates glycogenesis in the cells as part of the “fight-or-flight” response. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycogenolysis
REF: p. 941
126. Foods coming from plants do not contain cholesterol. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids
REF: p. 944
127. Six or seven hours after eating, there would be very few chylomicrons in the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Lipids
REF: p. 945
128. Free fatty acids released into the blood from adipose tissue are not actually free at all; they are
attached to albumin in the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Lipids
REF: p. 945
129. The body has the ability to make two vitamins: vitamins D and K. ANS: F TOP: Vitamins
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 948
MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Citric acid cycle b. Glycogenesis c. LDL d. Glycolysis e. Leptin f. Electron transport system g. HDL h. Incretins i. Cori cycle
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
Lipoprotein that is associated with low incidence of heart disease when present in high levels A group of hormones that stimulates the pancreas to release insulin Process that begins with acetyl CoA and produces high-energy electrons and NADH Process that forms glycogen that can be stored by muscle and liver cells Lipoprotein that is associated with high incidence of coronary artery disease when present in high levels Process that rebuilds lactic acid formed under anaerobic conditions and transfers it back into glucose First process in carbohydrate metabolism; occurs in the cytoplasm Hormone, released by fat-storing cells, that seems to regulate satiety Process that moves high-energy electrons from cytochrome to cytochrome and produces ATP and forms water
1. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Lipids 2. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 3. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 4. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycogenesis 5. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Transport of Lipids 6. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Anaerobic Pathway 7. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Glycolysis 8. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Lipid Metabolism 9. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Electron Transport Chain
REF: p. 945 REF: p. 942 REF: p. 935 REF: p. 940 REF: p. 945 REF: p. 939 REF: p. 934 REF: p. 946 REF: p. 936
Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Anabolism b. Catabolism c. Metabolism d. Nutrition e. Assimilation 10. Energy-requiring process by which small molecules are joined to form larger molecules 11. Energy-releasing process by which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules 12. The use the body makes of foods after they have been digested, absorbed, and circulated to
cells 13. Evaluation of food and drink (nutrient) requirements for normal body functions 14. Occurs when nutrient molecules enter the cell and undergo many chemical changes 10. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism 11. ANS: B DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 932 REF: p. 932
TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism 12. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism 13. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism 14. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism
REF: p. 932 REF: p. 931 REF: p. 932
OTHER 1. Explain why the mitochondria are referred to as power plants. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 935 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 2. Explain what is meant by oxidative phosphorylation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 935 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 3. Explain how the lack of oxygen would inhibit the Krebs cycle. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 934
TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
4. Show in an equation form the end products of glucose catabolism. Use one molecule of
glucose and six molecules of oxygen to begin the equation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 935 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 5. Define the terms hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia. Identify various conditions in which each
may occur. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 943 TOP: Abnormal Blood Glucose Concentration
6. List and explain factors that can influence BMR. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 952 TOP: Factors Influencing Basal Metabolic Rate 7. Ed has a bet with Bob that he can lose 5 pounds in 2 weeks (14 days). He increases his
activity so he is burning 2500 calories a day. He has reduced his caloric intake to 1800 calories a day. How much weight will Ed lose in 14 days? Does he win the bet? ANS:
Weight loss is 2.8 pounds; he will lose the bet. DIF: Application
REF: p. 955
TOP: Energy Balance and Body Weight
8. Explain the difference between a macronutrient and a micronutrient. Give several examples of
each. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism 9. Explain the terms metabolism, anabolism, and catabolism. Give an example of an anabolic
process and a catabolic process. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism 10. What is ATP and why is it important to the functioning of the cell? Describe the ATP/ADP
cycle or system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Overview of Nutrition and Metabolism 11. What are the types of carbohydrates ingested as food? What are the sources of each type?
What role does cellulose play in the functioning of the digestive system? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates
REF: p. 933
12. Explain the process of glycolysis. What is the starting material and what are the end products
of the process of glycolysis? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 934
TOP: Glycolysis
13. Briefly explain the citric acid cycle. What is the starting material and what are the end
products? In what form is most of the energy produced? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 934
TOP: Citric Acid Cycle
14. Explain the electron transport system. How is ATP produced in the mitochondria? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 935 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 15. Explain what occurs in the anaerobic pathway. What is the Cori cycle? What is meant by the
oxygen debt? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 936
TOP: Anaerobic Pathway
16. What is glycogenesis? What cells in the body are able to store large amounts of glycogen? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 940
TOP: Glycogenesis
17. Name and explain the role of hormones in the regulation of glucose. What are incretins and
what are their effects in the body? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism
REF: p. 941
18. Distinguish between saturated and unsaturated fats. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 944
TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids
19. Name and describe the three types of lipoproteins found in the blood. What is the effect of
different types of lipoproteins on health? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 945
TOP: Transport of Lipids
20. What is the usual function of vitamins? Name three vitamins and explain their function. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 948
TOP: Vitamins
21. Explain three functions that minerals have in the body. Name three minerals and explain their
function. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 951
TOP: Minerals
22. Basal metabolic rate assumes three “basal” conditions; name and explain them. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 952
TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate
23. Name and explain three factors that influence the basal metabolic rate. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 952 TOP: Factors Influencing Basal Metabolic Rate ESSAY 1. Most of the illegal anabolic steroids used by athletes contain some form of testosterone. Why
are these steroids so effective in building muscle mass? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 948
TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism
Chapter 42: Urinary System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is (are) classified as an accessory organ of the urinary system? a. Ureters b. Urinary bladder c. Urethra d. All of the above ANS: D TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 967
2. The shape of the kidney could best be described as _____-shaped. a. bean b. pear c. pea d. potato ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 967
3. The calyces of the kidney join together to form a large collection reservoir called the: a. renal columns. b. renal pyramids. c. renal pelvis. d. hilum. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
4. There are how many openings in the urinary bladder? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Urinary Bladder
REF: p. 970
5. The function of the urinary bladder is to: a. serve as a reservoir for urine before it leaves the body. b. expel urine from the body, aided by the urethra. c. help concentrate the urine in periods of dehydration. d. do both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 970
6. One difference between the male urethra and the female urethra is the male urethra is:
a. b. c. d.
shorter. part of two different body systems. unique in that there are no additional ducts that merge with it. both B and C.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 971
7. At the beginning of the “plumbing system” of the urinary system, urine leaving the renal
papilla is collected in the cuplike structures called: a. renal columns. b. renal pyramids. c. calyces. d. ureters. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
8. Urine is conducted from the kidney to the urinary bladder through a tube called the: a. renal column. b. renal pelvis. c. urethra. d. ureter. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 969
9. Substances travel from the glomerulus into Bowman capsule by the process of: a. diffusion. b. active transport. c. filtration. d. osmosis. ANS: C TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 974
10. Of all the blood pumped per minute by the heart, approximately ____ goes through the
kidneys. a. 1/5 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 3/4 ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
11. Cells called podocytes make up the: a. parietal layer of Bowman capsule. b. visceral layer of Bowman capsule. c. glomerulus. d. proximal tubule. ANS: B
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 973
TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 12. The portion of the nephron that empties into a calyx is the: a. distal tubule. b. loop of Henle. c. collecting tubule. d. proximal tubule. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 976
13. Which of the following is not a part of the glomerular-capsular membrane? a. Parietal layer of Bowman capsule b. Visceral layer of Bowman capsule c. Glomerular endothelium d. Basement membrane ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 972
14. A portion of the nephron that can lie within the medulla is the: a. proximal tubule. b. Bowman capsule. c. distal tubule. d. loop of Henle. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 976
15. Approximately how much blood flows through the kidneys per minute? a. 500 ml b. 750 ml c. 1200 ml d. 3500 ml ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
16. In the kidney, blood flows from the interlobular artery into the: a. glomerulus. b. efferent arteriole. c. afferent arteriole. d. peritubular capillaries. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
17. Reabsorption, as performed in the kidney, may be defined as the: a. movement of molecules out of the tubule and into the peritubular blood. b. movement of molecules out of the peritubular blood and into the tubule for
excretion. c. movement of water and solutes from the plasma in the glomerulus, across the
glomerular-capsular membrane, and into the capsular space of Bowman capsule.
d. volume of plasma from which a substance is removed by the kidney per minute. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Kidney Function
REF: p. 978
18. Which of these statements is not true of the kidney? a. The kidney is usually located next to the vertebrae from T12 to L3. b. The kidney is retroperitoneal. c. The kidney is protected by a heavy layer of fat. d. All of the above are true of the kidney. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 967
19. Which of the following is not a normal function of the kidneys? a. Synthesize prostaglandins b. Regulate blood sugar c. Produce hormones d. Regulate blood electrolytes ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Kidney Function
REF: p. 967
20. The normal osmotic pressure of the capsular filtrate is _____ mm Hg. a. 60 b. 32 c. 18 d. 0 ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Kidney Function
REF: p. 978
21. A drop in systemic blood pressure would cause the filtration rate to: a. increase. b. decrease. c. stay the same. d. vary depending on the level of AHD in the blood. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Kidney Function
REF: p. 979
22. The ion most likely to be reabsorbed after the reabsorption of sodium ions is: a. potassium. b. chloride. c. phosphate. d. both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 980
23. Under normal conditions, most nutrients are reabsorbed in which portion of the nephron? a. Proximal tubule b. Ascending loop of Henle
c. Distal tubule d. Collecting tubule ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 980
24. Regarding reabsorption in the proximal tubules, which of the following statements is not true? a. Sodium is actively transported out of the tubule fluid and into the blood. b. Chloride ions are actively transported into the blood plasma. c. Glucose and amino acids are transported with sodium and passively move out of
the tubule fluid by means of the sodium cotransport mechanism. d. About half of the urea present in the tubule fluid passively moves out of the tubule,
leaving half the urea to move on to the loop of Henle. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 980
25. Which of the following is the approximate threshold level for the reabsorption of glucose? a. 100 mg/100 ml b. 300 mg/100 ml c. 200 mg/100 ml d. 250 mg/100 ml ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 981
26. The substance most often measured to determine normal kidney function is: a. creatinine. b. glucose. c. sodium. d. potassium. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Indicators of Renal Dysfunction
REF: p. 987
27. The portion of the nephron tubule that is essentially always impermeable to water is the: a. proximal tubule. b. distal tubule. c. collecting tubule. d. ascending loop of Henle. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 975
28. Filtrate in which part of the nephron tubule has the highest osmolality? a. Proximal tubule b. Ascending loop of Henle c. Descending loop of Henle d. Distal tubule ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 982
29. Urine formation involves all the following processes except: a. filtration. b. catabolism. c. reabsorption. d. secretion. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Kidney Function
REF: p. 971
30. Which of the following statements is not true of the ureter? a. The ureter is approximately 28 cm long. b. The ureter conducts urine inferiorly from the kidney to the bladder. c. The ureter is composed of two layers of tissue—an inner mucous layer and an
outer fibrous layer. d. All of the above are true of the ureter. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 969
31. When aldosterone is released, secretion of _____ occurs. a. ammonium b. hydrogen c. potassium d. sodium ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Tubular Secretions
REF: p. 984
32. In the ascending limb of Henle: a. sodium and chloride are reabsorbed from the tubule fluid. b. the tubule fluid becomes dilute (hypotonic). c. antidiuretic hormone causes the cells to become more permeable to water. d. both A and B occur. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 982
33. ADH has the greatest effect on the reabsorption of water in the: a. proximal tubule. b. ascending loop of Henle. c. descending loop of Henle. d. distal tubule. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 983
34. The movement of substances out of the _____ best describes secretion in the formation of
urine. a. blood into the tubule b. blood into Bowman capsule c. tubules into interstitial fluids d. glomerulus into the tubules
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Tubular Secretions
REF: p. 984
35. Which of the following ions is not normally secreted into the distal or collecting tubules? a. Potassium b. Hydrogen c. Ammonium d. Sodium ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Tubular Secretions
REF: p. 984
36. The movement of molecules out of the tubules and into the peritubular blood defines: a. glomerular filtration. b. secretion. c. micturition. d. reabsorption. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Kidney Function
REF: p. 978
37. In which parts of the nephron do all of the following functions occur: passive reabsorption,
active reabsorption, passive secretion, and active secretion? a. Proximal tubule and the renal corpuscle b. Collecting duct and the distal tubule c. Collecting duct and the ascending limb of Henle d. Collecting duct and the descending limb of Henle ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Summary of Nephron Function
REF: p. 985
38. Water will move by osmosis only in the presence of ADH in the: a. distal tubule. b. collecting duct. c. ascending limb of Henle. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 984
39. Which of the following is not a normal constituent of urine? a. Nitrogenous wastes b. Hormones c. Pigments d. Plasma proteins ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Urine Composition 40. The percentage of water in urine is approximately _____%. a. 55 b. 65 c. 80
REF: p. 978
d. 95 ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Urine Composition
REF: p. 987
41. Which of the following statements is not true? a. The right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney. b. The right kidney is often slightly larger than the left kidney. c. The kidneys extend above the level of the twelfth rib. d. The kidneys are retroperitoneal. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 967
42. Which of the following structures does not enter or leave through the hilum of the kidney? a. Calyx b. Renal artery c. Renal vein d. Ureter ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
43. Which of the following is not true of the proximal tubule? a. Highly convoluted b. Nearest to Bowman capsule c. Second part of the renal tubules d. Contains microvilli ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 975 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 44. If the Tmax for glucose in the nephron was 300 mg/100 ml and a person had blood glucose
level of 380 mg/100 ml, there would be: a. 300 mg/100 ml of glucose in the urine. b. 80 mg/100 ml of glucose in the urine. c. 80 mg/100 ml of glucose in the blood leaving the kidney. d. both A and C. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 981 TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule 45. The nitrogenous wastes in the urine are usually the result of protein catabolism. They include
all except: a. urea. b. ammonia. c. creatinine. d. amino acids. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Urine Composition 46. A good description of the urinary system function is that it:
REF: p. 987
a. b. c. d.
produces urine. balances blood plasma. maintains the dynamic consistency of the internal fluid environment. does all of the above.
ANS: D TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 967
47. What is the first branch of the segmental artery? a. Interlobar arteries b. Afferent arterioles c. Lobar arteries d. Arcuate arteries ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Vessels of the Kidneys
REF: p. 969
48. Which blood vessels empty into the glomerulus? a. Interlobar arteries b. Afferent arterioles c. Lobar arteries d. Arcuate arteries ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron
REF: p. 968
49. Which blood vessel drains the vasa recta? a. Lobar vein b. Arcuate vein c. Interlobular vein d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron
REF: p. 967
50. Fluid in the nephron would flow through these structures in which order? a. Proximal tubule, loop of Henle, bowman capsule, distal tubule, collecting duct b. Bowman capsule, loop of Henle, proximal tubule, distal tubule, collecting duct c. Bowman capsule, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule, collecting duct d. None of the above are in the correct order. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure
REF: p. 971
51. Which structure of the kidney narrows as it exits the kidney to become the ureter? a. Renal pyramids b. Renal pelvis c. Renal columns d. Hilum ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 969
52. In the average bladder, what amount of urine would cause a moderately distended sensation
and the desire to void? a. 250 ml b. 100 ml c. 600 ml d. 150 ml ANS: A TOP: Micturition
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 971
53. The mechanism for voiding begins with: a. the relaxation of the internal sphincter. b. the contraction of the muscles of the bladder. c. the relaxation of the external sphincter. d. a parasympathetic impulse sent to the bladder. ANS: A TOP: Micturition
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 971
54. Which nitrogenous waste is the most abundant found in urine? a. Uric acid b. Urea c. Ammonia d. Creatinine ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 977
TOP: Composition of Urine
55. Which hormone tends to increase the amount of urine produced? a. ANH b. Aldosterone c. ADH d. Both B and C ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 985
56. Which hormone tends to decrease the amount of urine produced? a. ANH b. Aldosterone c. ADH d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 985
57. As the amount of sodium reabsorbed by the distal convoluted tubule increases, the amount of
_____ increases. a. potassium ions absorbed also b. hydrogen ions absorbed also c. potassium ions secreted d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 984
TOP: Tubular Secretions
58. If the glomerular hydrostatic pressure is 67 mm Hg, the glomerular osmotic pressure is 28 mm
Hg, the capsular hydrostatic pressure is 17 mm Hg, and the capsular osmotic pressure is 0 mm Hg, the effective filtration pressure (EFP) would be _____ mm Hg. a. 22 b. 56 c. 78 d. There is not enough information to determine the EFP. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 979
TOP: Filtration
59. What effect do aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) have on urine volume? a. Because water reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules doesn’t require
ADH, the aldosterone mechanism must work separately from the ADH mechanism to maintain homeostasis of the fluid content in the body. b. Both aldosterone and ADH decrease distal and collecting tubule absorption of sodium, which in turn causes an osmotic imbalance that drives the reabsorption of water from the tubule. c. Because water reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules requires ADH, the aldosterone mechanism must work in concert with the ADH mechanism if homeostasis of the fluid content in the body is to be maintained. d. Both aldosterone and ADH increase distal and collecting tubule absorption of sodium, which in turn causes an osmotic imbalance that stops the reabsorption of water from the tubule. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 985
TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
60. What effect on the treatment of secondary hypertension would you expect from
angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor drugs? a. When secondary hypertension occurs, the cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus secrete renin, which in turn results in angiotensin production and increased blood pressure, so giving ACE inhibitors may reduce the production of angiotensin and lower the blood pressure. b. Secondary hypertension is caused by stenosis of the renal artery, so ACE inhibitors will relax the vessel, thus reducing blood pressure. c. Secondary hypertension is caused by stenosis of the renal artery, so ACE inhibitors will decrease atherosclerotic plaque and result in a lower blood pressure. d. ACE inhibitors will not have any effect on secondary hypertension. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 989
TOP: Secondary Hypertension
61. Why would the response of the kidney to arteriosclerosis actually compound the problem of
hypertension? a. When the kidney responds to narrowing of a renal artery due to this disease, it will not cause any changes in kidney function or status. b. When the kidney responds to widening of a renal artery due to this disease, it will cause an increase in blood pressure and an increase in kidney perfusion. c. When the kidney responds to narrowing of a renal artery due to this disease, it will cause a decrease in blood pressure and possibly even death. d. When the kidney responds to narrowing of a renal artery due to this disease, it will cause an increase in blood pressure and ischemia of kidney tissues.
ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 989
TOP: Hypertension
62. Which statement best explains the process of filtration in the nephron? a. Filtration occurs as a result of passive and active transport mechanisms from all
parts of the renal tubules; a major portion of reabsorption occurs in the proximal tubule. b. Filtration is the movement of molecules out of peritubular blood and into the tubule for excretion. c. Filtration is the movement of molecules out of the tubule and into peritubular blood. d. Filtration is the movement of water and protein-free solutes from plasma in the glomerulus into the capsular space of Bowman capsule. ANS: D DIF: Application TOP: Overview of Kidney Function
REF: p. 973
63. If a person becomes dehydrated, which hormone would you expect to find in high
concentration in the blood? a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH) c. Para-aminohippurate acid (PAH) d. Prolactin (PRL) ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 986
TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
64. Which statement best explains why the insertion of a urinary catheter would be an ineffective
treatment for renal suppression? a. Renal suppression occurs when effective filtration pressure falls to zero and the kidneys shut down, so a urinary catheter would not help this situation. b. Renal suppression occurs when effective filtration pressure is elevated and urine production is increased, thus allowing free-flowing urine. A urinary catheter isn’t needed in this situation. c. Renal suppression occurs when there is a disruption of nervous input to the bladder, resulting in loss of control of voiding. A urinary catheter would not be a treatment for the condition. d. Renal suppression is caused by a urinary tract infection, and a urinary catheter would not be effective in treating this condition. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 979
TOP: Filtration
65. Which statement identifies two blood indicators of renal dysfunction and best explains why
they can be as such? a. Increased urea and creatinine levels in the blood indicate the inability of the kidney to filter creatinine and urea. b. Glucose in urine and complete blood count elevations indicate the kidney’s inability to produce red blood cells. c. pH and specific gravity elevation indicate kidney dysfunction because an increase in solutes prevents the kidney from filtering correctly. d. Albumin and acetone decreases indicate that the kidney is unable to reabsorb these in the loop of Henle.
ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 987 TOP: Blood Indicators of Renal Dysfunction 66. Which best explains why a person who has uncontrolled diabetes mellitus voids a large
amount of urine? a. Excess glucose “spills over” into urine, thereby decreasing the solute concentration of urine (and decreasing the solute concentration of plasma), which in turn leads to diuresis. b. Excess glucose “spills over” into urine, thereby increasing the solute concentration of urine (and decreasing the solute concentration of plasma), which in turn leads to diuresis. c. Low levels of insulin stimulate the kidney to not reabsorb water in the tubules. d. Decreased glucose is caused by withdrawal of sugar from urine, causing an increase in urine production. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 988 TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule 67. Within the male urethra, how is urine prevented from mixing with semen during ejaculation? a. Conscious control of a sphincter muscle guarding the bladder opening b. Contraction of the detrusor muscle of the bladder c. By the urinary meatus d. Reflex closure of sphincter muscles guarding the bladder opening ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 971
TOP: Urethra
68. The microvilli on the luminal surface of each epithelial cell in the proximal tubule wall will: a. form a brush border that increases absorptive surface area of the entire inner
surface of the proximal tubule. b. form an electrical gradient that drives the diffusion of negative ions from the
filtrate into the interstitial fluid. c. participate in the countercurrent mechanism, which allows the contents to flow in
opposite directions. d. increase the secretory surface area of the entire inner surface of the proximal
tubule. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 980 TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule 69. Which of the following is not a primary function of the loop of Henle? a. The loop of Henle reabsorbs water from the tubule fluid in its descending limb. b. In addition to reabsorption, the loop of Henle secretes hydrogen ions. c. By reabsorbing salt from its ascending limb, it makes the tubule fluid hypotonic. d. Reabsorption of salt in the ascending limb also creates and maintains a high
osmotic pressure. ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Reabsorption in the Loop of Henle
REF: p. 981
70. Autoregulation of glomerular filtration by tubuloglomerular feedback helps protect the
kidney: a. from rapid systemic arterial pressure variations that would otherwise cause large
glomerular filtration rate changes. b. from rapid systemic venous pressure variations that would otherwise cause large glomerular filtration rate changes. c. by contracting the walls of the efferent arterioles, thus increasing systemic blood pressure. d. by relaxing the walls of the efferent arterioles, thus reducing systemic blood pressure. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 985
TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
71. Terry has lupus erythematosus and has been complaining of feelings of urgency, pain in
urination, and the appearance of blood in the urine. More than likely, Terry is suffering from: a. interstitial cystitis. b. renal calculi. c. renal ptosis. d. renal sarcoma. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 991
TOP: Glomerular Disorders
TRUE/FALSE 1. A cushion of fat normally encases a kidney and helps hold it in position. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
2. Generally, the right kidney is larger than the left kidney. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 967
3. Each renal papilla juts into a cuplike structure called the renal pyramid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
4. The outer portion of the kidney is referred to as the cortex. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
5. There are three openings in the floor of the urinary bladder—two from the ureters and one
into the urethra. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 970
6. The urinary meatus is the tube leading from the bladder to the exterior. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 970
7. In both males and females, the urethra serves urinary and reproductive functions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 971
8. The principle organs of the urinary system are the kidneys. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 967
9. A glomerulus is a group of capillaries located in a Bowman capsule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 972
10. The capsular space is a microscopic space between the glomerulus and the parietal layer of
Bowman capsule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 973
11. The renal corpuscle is another name for the nephron. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure
REF: p. 972
12. The kidney could best be described as pear-shaped. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 967
13. The kidneys are located in the right and left iliac regions of the abdomen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 967
14. The outer portion of the kidney is called the medulla. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
15. As the basic functional unit of the kidney, the nephron’s function is blood plasma processing
and urine formation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 971
16. Blood leaves the glomerulus through efferent arterioles and then moves into peritubular
capillaries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron
REF: p. 976
17. Blood leaves the glomerulus through efferent venules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron
REF: p. 976
18. Blood enters the glomerulus through afferent arterioles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron
REF: p. 976
19. The renal tubule is made up of simple squamous and simple cuboidal epithelium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure
REF: p. 975
20. The kidneys influence secretion of the hormone aldosterone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 985
21. A hydrostatic pressure gradient causes fluids to move from the glomerulus into Bowman
capsule. ANS: T TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 978
22. A hydrostatic pressure gradient drives the filtration of much of the plasma into the nephron. ANS: T TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 978
23. When compared with most other capillaries in the body, the capillaries in the glomerulus have
many more pores. ANS: T TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 979
24. Glomerular endothelium is similar to tissue capillary endothelium in that both have
approximately the same number of pores, or fenestrations. ANS: F TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 979
25. The reabsorption of electrolytes by the peritubular capillaries will cause obligatory water
reabsorption. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 980
26. When the mean arterial blood pressure doubles, so does glomerular filtration.
ANS: F TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 979
27. The kidney filters out only harmful and excess material. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Kidney Function
REF: p. 977
28. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure and filtration are directly related to systemic blood pressure. ANS: T TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 978
29. Filtrate in the descending limb of the Henle loop has the highest osmolality. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 982
30. Both ADH and aldosterone attempt to decrease normal urine output. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 985
31. Creatinine is often measured to determine normal kidney function. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Indicators of Renal Dysfunction
REF: p. 987
32. Urine consists of approximately 75% water. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Urinary Composition
REF: p. 987
33. Glycosuria refers to blood in the urine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose in the Urine
REF: p. 981
34. In the proximal tubule of the nephron, glucose and amino acids are transported with sodium
and actively move out of the tubule fluid by means of the sodium cotransport mechanism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 981
35. Both sodium and glucose are moved into the peritubular capillaries by the active transport
process. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption 36. With increased ADH, urine becomes hypotonic to blood.
REF: p. 976
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 983
37. An increase in ADH causes a decrease in the osmolarity of urine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 985
38. Aldosterone tends to increase urine volume, thereby promoting water loss. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 985
39. ADH and aldosterone both attempt to decrease urine output. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 985
40. An increase in solutes in the urine will cause an increase in the urine output. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 985
41. A person with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus will have a higher-than-normal solute
concentration in the urine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 985
42. The volume of urine is normally determined by the glomerular filtration rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 979
43. Freshly voided urine is generally acidic. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Characteristics of Urine
REF: p. 988
44. About 10% of the blood pumped by the heart per minute goes to the kidneys. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Vessels of the Kidneys
REF: p. 968
45. The urinary system can be seen as a urine producer and a blood plasma balancer. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 966
46. The connective tissue that anchors the kidney to the surrounding structures is called the renal
cortex.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
47. The renal pyramids are in the medulla of the kidney. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
48. The calyx surrounds the renal papilla. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
49. Kidney disease can be diagnosed by taking a tissue sample by means of a needle biopsy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Kidney Biopsy
REF: p. 968
50. In the blood vessels in the kidney, lobar arterioles divide to become segmental arterioles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
51. The kidney is similar to the hepatic portal system because it has a venule connecting two
capillary beds—the glomerulus and the peritubular capillaries. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
52. The renal artery branches directly from the abdominal aorta. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
53. Gravity moves urine from the kidney to the bladder through the ureter. ANS: F TOP: Ureter
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 969
54. The fibrous adventitia covers only the superior surface of the bladder; the rest is covered by
the parietal peritoneum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Urinary Bladder
REF: p. 970
55. The detrusor muscle is the name given to the smooth muscle that makes up the bladder. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Urinary Bladder
REF: p. 970
56. Contraction of the bladder and relaxation of the internal sphincter are controlled by the
sympathetic nervous system.
ANS: F TOP: Micturition
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 971
57. The proximal tubule is called “proximal” because it is nearest to Bowman capsule. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 975 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 58. One factor that influences the hydrostatic pressure of the glomerulus is the difference in
diameter between the efferent and afferent arterioles. ANS: T TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 978
59. The myogenic mechanism helps regulate GFR by regulating the diameter of the efferent
arterioles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 986
60. Nitrogen wastes are removed only by the urinary system. ANS: F TOP: Excretion
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 967
61. Electrolytes are excreted by both the urinary and integumentary systems. ANS: T TOP: Excretion
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 967
62. The respiratory system is the only system that removes carbon dioxide from the body. ANS: T TOP: Excretion
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 967
63. The kidneys are surrounded by fat and are enclosed by the parietal peritoneum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 967
64. The hilum is a concave notch on the lateral side of the kidney. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
65. Structures such as the ureter and blood vessels enter and leave the kidney through the hilum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
66. The blood vessel that surrounds the loop of Henle is called the vasa recta.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure
REF: p. 981
67. The urinary bladder is a collapsible bag located behind the symphysis pubis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 970
68. The folds in the bladder wall are called rugae. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 970
69. The bladder has two main functions: to serve as a reservoir for urine until it leaves the body
and, aided by the urethra, expels urine from the body ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Urinary Bladder
REF: p. 970
70. The transitional epithelium that lines the bladder wall is one factor that allows the bladder to
distend. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 969
71. The three openings on the bladder floor make up the trigone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 970
72. The prostatic urethra is found only in men. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 971
73. Micturition is the process of voiding urine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 971
74. The mechanism of voiding urine begins with the involuntary relaxation of the external
sphincter muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 971
75. The male urethra is about twice as long as the female urethra. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 971
76. The kidney and bladder are the principal organs of the urinary system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 967
77. When urine “backs up,” causing swelling in the renal pelvis and calyces, the condition is
called hydronephrosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 990
78. Proteinuria can indicate damage in the glomerular-capsular membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 991
79. The primary cilium of the epithelial cells lining the renal tubules act as mechanoreceptors to
regulate the flow of filtrate through the tube. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 975
80. The function of the slit diaphragm is to prevent the filtration slits from closing under pressure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 974
81. The fenestrations increase the porosity of the glomerulus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 974
82. The proximal tubule is the second part of the nephron but the first part of the renal tubules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 975
83. Just as in the lumen of the small intestine, the lumen of the proximal tubule has microvilli. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 975
84. In the loop of Henle, the descending limb is thicker than the ascending limb. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 975
85. Cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus release renin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 976
86. Renin is released in response to a rise in blood pressure in the afferent arteriole. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 976
87. The macula densa is considered a mechanoreceptor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 976
88. The macula densa is considered a chemoreceptor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 976
89. The renal fasciae anchor the kidney to surrounding structures. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968
90. Urea is a nitrogenous waste product excreted by the kidney. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Kidney Function
REF: p. 977
91. Intense exercise causes temporary proteinuria. This is caused by minor kidney damage from
the intense exercise. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in Glomerular Filtration Rate
REF: p. 979
92. Intense exercise causes temporary proteinuria. This is probably caused by an increase in
permeability of the nephron’s filtration membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in Glomerular Filtration Rate
REF: p. 979
93. Most reabsorption occurs in the loop of Henle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 980
94. The loop of Henle and the vasa recta have a countercurrent structure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 981
95. The ion pumps in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle can maintain an osmotic difference
of 400 mOsm across the wall of the tubule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 982
96. The descending limb of the loop of Henle is usually in osmotic equilibrium with the
interstitial fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 982
97. The fluid at the top of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is about 100 mOsm, which
makes it hypertonic to most other body fluids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 982
98. Just like the kidneys, the ureters are retroperitoneal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 969
99. The yellowish pigment in the urine is derived from the breakdown of old red blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Urinary Composition
REF: p. 987
100. The osmolality of the urine excreted by the body can be as high as the osmolality in the
medulla’s interstitial fluid. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 982
TOP: Reabsorption
101. A hormone that affects reabsorption in the kidney is made in the wall of the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 985
102. ANH reinforces and adds to the effect of aldosterone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 985
103. The urochrome pigments impart a yellowish color to the urine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Urinary Composition
REF: p. 987
104. In the average bladder, about 500 ml of urine causes moderate distention and a desire to void. ANS: F TOP: Micturition
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 971
105. Chronic kidney failure is a condition that progresses through four stages; the last one is called
uremic syndrome. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 993
TOP: Renal and Urinary Disorders 106. Mesangial cells may have the same role in the nephron as the glia cells do in the nervous
system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 974
107. Mesangial cells may have a role in regulating blood flow through the glomerular loop. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 974
108. The interlobular artery carries blood directly to the glomerulus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron
REF: p. 976
109. Voiding and micturition refer to the same process. ANS: T TOP: Micturition
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 971
110. Just as in the bladder, the ureter is lined with transitional epithelium, which allows it to stretch
without damage. ANS: T TOP: Ureter
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 969
111. About 85% of the nephrons are juxtamedullary nephron, which means that the Henle loop
extends into the medulla of the kidney. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 976
112. Podocytes on the parietal walls of Bowman capsule help support the slit diaphragms that
allow filtrate to leave the blood and enter Bowman capsule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Bowman Capsule
REF: p. 974
113. The juxtaglomerular apparatus has components in both the distal convoluted tubule and the
afferent arterioles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Distal Convoluted Tubule
REF: p. 976
114. The collecting duct receives filtrate from many different nephrons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Collecting Duct
REF: p. 976
115. One important function of the slit diaphragms is the prevention of large molecules such as
proteins from passing through. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Bowman Capsule
REF: p. 974
116. If the Tmax for glucose was 300 mg/100 ml and a person had a glucose of 325 mg/100 ml, that
person would have a glucose level of 25 mg/100 ml in the blood leaving the kidney and 300 mg/100 ml in the urine. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 980 TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule 117. Glomerular osmotic pressure and capsular osmotic pressure are equally important in
determining the GFR. ANS: F TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 979
118. Negative ions such as chloride and phosphate are pulled out of the filtrate by the positive
charge established by the sodium that was actively transported into the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule
REF: p. 980
119. Even though urea is a waste product, it is reabsorbed into the blood in the proximal
convoluted tubule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule
REF: p. 981
120. The parts of the nephron most effected by the hormone ADH are the proximal and distal
convoluted tubules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 984 TOP: Reabsorption in the Distal Convoluted Tubule and Collecting Ducts 121. Any material such as water or glucose that enters the collecting duct will be lost to the body in
the urine. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 983 TOP: Reabsorption in the Distal Convoluted Tubule and Collecting Ducts 122. As the amount of sodium increases in the blood around the distal convoluted tubule, the
amount of potassium or hydrogen ions in the filtrate increases. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 984
TOP: Tubular Secretions
123. The tubes of the nephron are about 3 cm long. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure
REF: p. 971
124. About 180 liters of filtrate is formed each day. ANS: T TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 978
125. The sum of glomerular hydrostatic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure is the total force
driving fluid from the glomerulus into Bowman capsule. ANS: F TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 979
126. About 99% of the fluid filtered into Bowman capsule is reabsorbed. ANS: T TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 979
127. Three processes are important in the formation of urine: filtration, tubular reabsorption, and
tubular secretion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of Kidney Function
REF: p. 976
128. Capsular osmotic pressure can be assumed to be zero. ANS: T TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 979
129. Glomerular filtration rate can never be zero. ANS: F TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 979
130. Osmosis in the kidney relies on the availability of and proper function of aquaporins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule
REF: p. 981
131. As the aldosterone concentration increases, the amount of potassium reabsorbed into the blood
increases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Tubular Secretions
REF: p. 984
132. Penicillin can be cleared from the blood by tubular secretion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Tubular Secretions
REF: p. 984
133. Nitrogenous wastes such as urea, uric acid, and ammonia are lost in the urine, and of these,
uric acid is the most abundant.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition of Urine
REF: p. 987
MATCHING
Place in correct anatomical order the structures of the pathway of urine leaving the distal tubule, beginning with the number 1. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
Renal papilla Calyx Renal pelvis Collecting duct Ureter Urethra Urinary bladder
1. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure 2. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure 4. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 5. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure 6. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure 7. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Gross Structure
REF: p. 968 REF: p. 968 REF: p. 968 REF: p. 972 REF: p. 968 REF: p. 970 REF: p. 970
Starting with the afferent arteriole, place the parts of the nephron in correct anatomical order, beginning with the number 1. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7 8. Distal tubule 9. Glomerulus
10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
Ascending limb of the loop of Henle Descending limb of the loop of Henle Proximal tubule Bowman capsule Collecting tubules
8. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 9. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 10. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 11. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 12. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 13. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 14. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 976 REF: p. 976 REF: p. 981 REF: p. 981 REF: p. 975 REF: p. 975 REF: p. 975
Match each of the structures of the nephron with its description, function, or location. a. Distal convoluted tubule b. Glomerulus c. Bowman capsule d. Loop of Henle e. Proximal convoluted tubule f. Collecting duct g. Peritubular capillary h. Vasa recta 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
Tube nearest to Bowman capsule Structure into which the proximal convoluted tubule empties Name given to the blood vessel surrounding the loop of Henle Name given to the blood vessel in Bowman capsule Blood vessel that surrounds the tubules of the nephron Structure other than the collecting duct in which adjustment of blood pH can occur Part of the nephron that establishes a countercurrent multiplier mechanism Cup-shaped structure surrounding the glomerulus
15. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 16. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Loop of Henle 17. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron 18. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 19. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron
REF: p. 975 REF: p. 975 REF: p. 976 REF: p. 976 REF: p. 976
20. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Summary of Nephron Function 21. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption 22. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
REF: p. 976 REF: p. 975 REF: p. 975
OTHER 1. List functions of the urinary bladder. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 967
TOP: Gross Structure
2. What structures make up the renal corpuscle? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 971 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 3. Outline the flow of blood through the kidney tissue. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 967
TOP: Gross Structure
4. Determine the filtration pressure based on the following values:
A. The glomerular hydrostatic pressure is 55 mm Hg. B. The glomerular osmotic pressure is 27 mm Hg. C. The capsular hydrostatic pressure is 18 mm Hg. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 978
TOP: Filtration
5. Explain why a person who has uncontrolled diabetes mellitus voids a large amount of urine. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 985
TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
6. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are a popular type of drug used to reduce
high blood pressure. They act by preventing the activation of angiotensin. Briefly explain how the drugs can lower blood pressure. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 971
TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron
7. Trace the movement of filtrate through the nephron from the afferent arteriole to the collecting
duct. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 971 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 8. Describe the internal structure of the kidney. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 967
TOP: Kidney
9. Explain how the loop of Henle establishes a solute concentration gradient from the top of the
loop to the bottom of the loop. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Reabsorption in the Loop of Henle
REF: p. 975
10. Explain how ADH regulates the amount of urine produced and explain how the loop of Henle
allows ADH to increase water absorption. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 975, 985 TOP: Reabsorption in the Loop of Henle | Regulation of Urine Volume 11. Explain how the active transport of sodium out of the nephron tubules acts as the driving force
for the passive transport of other materials. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 980
TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule
ESSAY 1. Corky was in a diving accident that resulted in her spinal cord being severed. She was
paralyzed from the waist down and, as a result, became incontinent. Her physician was concerned about the continuous residual urine buildup. What was the reason for this concern? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 989
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
2. While washing her picture window, Martha sustained a large, deep laceration to her leg when
the ladder accidentally crashed through the window as she attempted to reposition it. She experienced a large loss of blood before the paramedics arrived. Her blood pressure was very low, and her heart rate was rapid and thready. The paramedics treated her aggressively with intravenous fluids and pressure to stop any more blood loss. They were also concerned about Martha’s renal function. Why? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 989 TOP: The Big Picture: Urinary System and the Whole Body 3. It is true that women suffer from urinary bladder infections more often than men do. Why? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 989
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
4. Assume that the nephron is able to return 150 mg/100 ml of glucose back to the blood. If the
blood entering the glomerulus contains 192 mg/100 ml of glucose, what is the glucose concentration of the blood leaving the nephron and the concentration of the urine being formed? ANS:
Blood: 150 mg/100 ml of glucose Urine: 42 mg/100 ml of glucose DIF: Application
REF: p. 980
TOP: Reabsorption
5. A person had been working hard on a hot day and had been perspiring freely and drinking
very little water. If a blood sample were taken, would you expect ANH or ADH to have the greater concentration? Explain your answer. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 985
TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is true of total body water? a. Overweight people have lower water content per kilogram of body weight than
slender people. b. Women have higher water content than men. c. Elderly people have higher water content than younger people. d. Total body water ranges between 30% and 40% of the total body weight. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Body Water
REF: pp. 1000-1001
2. The total fluid or water content of the human body ranges from _____ of its total weight. a. 15% to 25% b. 25% to 45% c. 45% to 75% d. 75% to 85% ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Body Water
REF: p. 1000
3. When comparing the volume of the various body fluids, the correct order going from highest
to lowest in total volume would be: a. plasma, intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid. b. intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid, plasma. c. intracellular fluid, plasma, interstitial fluid. d. plasma, intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
REF: p. 1001
4. In young adults, the percentage of body weight composed of water will average about _____
for males and _____ for females. a. 40%; 50% b. 60%; 50% c. 70%; 60% d. 60%; 70% ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Body Water
REF: p. 1000
5. Cerebrospinal fluid is part of the _____ fluid. a. intracellular b. extracellular c. interstitial d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: B
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1001
TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 6. Which of the following body fluid compartments has the same volume (percentage of body
weight) in the infant, the adult male, and the adult female? a. Plasma b. Interstitial fluid c. Extracellular fluid d. Intracellular fluid ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Volumes of Body Fluid Compartments
REF: p. 1000
7. Ringer solution is often described as normal saline solution modified by the addition of: a. sodium and potassium. b. potassium and calcium. c. sodium and calcium. d. glucose. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy
REF: p. 1003
8. Which of the following is not one of the seven basic solutions used for parenteral therapy? a. Ammonium chloride b. Lactate solutions c. Carbohydrate in water d. Liquid protein ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy
REF: p. 1003
9. Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration? a. Intravenous b. Subcutaneous c. Intramuscular d. By mouth ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy
REF: p. 1003
10. Parenteral solutions are given to: a. meet current maintenance needs for nutrients, fluids, and electrolytes. b. replace past losses. c. replace concurrent losses (additional losses that are in excess of maintenance
needs). d. do all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy 11. Water normally leaves the body through _____ exits. a. two b. three c. four
REF: p. 1003
d. five ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Avenues by Which Water Enters and Leaves the Body
REF: p. 1003
12. The two factors that determine urine volume are: a. the amounts of ADH and aldosterone secretion. b. the amounts of ACTH and ADH secretion. c. fluid intake and ADH secretion. d. the glomerular filtration rate and the rate of water reabsorption by the renal
tubules. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 1005
13. Abnormal conditions that cause fluid and electrolyte output to exceed input include all the
following except: a. vomiting. b. drinking liquids too fast. c. hyperventilating. d. diarrhea. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1014 TOP: Factors That Alter Fluid Loss Under Abnormal Conditions 14. Which of the following substances is released by the juxtaglomerular cells? a. Cortisol b. Antidiuretic hormone c. Aldosterone d. Renin ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance
REF: pp. 1004, 1006
15. When the adrenal cortex is stimulated to increase its secretion of aldosterone, the first thing
that happens is a(n): a. decrease in the kidney tubule reabsorption of sodium. b. increase in the kidney tubule reabsorption of sodium. c. decrease in arterial blood pressure. d. increase in urine volume. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance
REF: p. 1005
16. Juxtaglomerular cells are located in the: a. kidney. b. adrenal cortex. c. liver. d. adrenal medulla. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance
REF: p. 1004
17. The thirst center, which contains specialized cells called osmoreceptors, is located in the: a. pons. b. anterior pituitary. c. posterior pituitary. d. hypothalamus. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
REF: p. 1005
18. Which of the following sites of fluid loss can be automatically adjusted according to fluid
intake volume? a. Lungs b. Skin c. Intestine d. Kidney ANS: D
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 1003
TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
19. Which of the following electrolytes is not a cation? a. Calcium b. Chloride c. Magnesium d. Potassium ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 20. The composition of sodium in the blood plasma is equal to _____ mEq/L. a. 2 b. 5 c. 102 d. 142 ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte Composition of Blood Plasma
REF: p. 1002
21. Which of the following pairs are almost identical when compared chemically? a. Plasma and intracellular fluid b. Plasma and interstitial fluid c. Interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid d. Extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids
REF: p. 1001
22. What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid? a. Sodium b. Chlorine c. Potassium d. Magnesium ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids
REF: p. 1002
23. What is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid? a. Sodium b. Chlorine c. Potassium d. Magnesium ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids
REF: p. 1002
24. The most important difference between blood plasma and interstitial fluid, when compared
chemically, is: a. blood contains appreciable amounts of protein anions. b. interstitial fluid contains appreciable amounts of protein anions. c. blood contains less sodium ions. d. interstitial fluid contains less chloride ions. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids
REF: p. 1002
25. What is the most abundant anion in the extracellular fluid? a. Bicarbonate b. Chloride c. Phosphate d. Protein ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids
REF: p. 1002
26. In accordance with the physical laws governing filtration and osmosis, which of the following
statements is true? a. Blood hydrostatic pressure tends to draw fluid into the capillaries from the interstitial fluid. b. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure tends to force fluid out of the capillaries and into the interstitial fluid. c. Blood colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid back into the capillaries. d. Interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid into the capillaries from the interstitial fluid. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 27. Which of the following is the formula representing the Starling law of capillaries? a. (BHP + BCOP) – (IFCOP + IFHP) = EFP b. (BHP + IFHP) – (IFCOP + BCOP) = EFP c. (BHP + IFCOP) – (IFHP + BCOP) = EFP d. None of the above ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF)
28. As related to the Starling law, which of the following is the greatest pressure at the arterial
end of the capillaries? a. Blood hydrostatic pressure b. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure c. Blood colloid osmotic pressure d. Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 29. Which of the following statements is (are) not true? a. Men have less body water than women do. b. Adults have less body water than infants do. c. Overweight people have less body water than slender people do. d. All of the above are true statements. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Body Water
REF: pp. 1000-1001
30. As related to the Starling law, which of the following has the greatest effect on water
reentering the capillaries? a. Blood hydrostatic pressure b. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure c. Blood colloid osmotic pressure d. Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 31. When the effective filtration pressure equals zero: a. fluid shifts out of the blood into the interstitial fluid. b. fluid shifts out of the interstitial fluid and into the blood. c. no net transfer of water occurs between blood and interstitial fluid. d. the extracellular fluid volume increases. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1007-1009 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 32. Edema is defined as abnormally large amounts of fluid in the: a. capillaries. b. cells. c. veins. d. intercellular spaces. ANS: D TOP: Edema
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1009
33. Which large molecules are retained by the selectively permeable cell membrane? a. Sodium ions b. Potassium ions c. Proteins ANS: C
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1011
TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Intracellular Fluid (ICF) 34. Movement of water and solutes between ECF and ICF spaces is influenced by all of the
following except: a. large protein molecules that cannot diffuse out of the cell. b. ion transport. c. positive charges attracting negatively charged ions. d. All of the above influence movement. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Intracellular Fluid (ICF) 35. Edema may occur when: a. sodium is retained in the extracellular fluid as a result of increased aldosterone
secretion or after serious renal disease such as acute glomerulonephritis. b. an increase in capillary blood pressure occurs. c. a decrease in the concentration of plasma proteins normally retained in the blood
occurs. d. all of the above occur. ANS: D TOP: Edema
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 1009-1010
36. Which body location is not one that is usually impacted by edema? a. Kidneys b. Lungs c. Dependent areas of the body d. All of the above body areas are impacted by edema. ANS: A TOP: Edema
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1009
37. When the posterior lobe of the pituitary is stimulated to increase its secretion of ADH, the first
event to occur is a(n): a. increase in urine volume. b. increase in the kidney tubule reabsorption of water. c. decrease in the kidney tubule reabsorption of water. d. decrease in ECF volume. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 38. The major organ that balances sodium and potassium in the body is the: a. kidney. b. skin. c. gastrointestinal tract. d. lungs. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 39. Aged individuals of either sex may have less total body water because of their: a. reduced kidney function.
b. decreased percentage of body fat. c. decreased muscle mass. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Body Water
REF: p. 1001
40. Which of the following is not considered a “transcellular fluid”? a. Lymph b. Cerebrospinal fluid c. The humors of the eye d. Joint fluid ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
REF: p. 1001
41. The body fluid that stays constant as a percentage of body weight throughout life is: a. intracellular fluid. b. plasma. c. interstitial fluid. d. extracellular fluid. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
REF: p. 1001
42. If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the negative
electrode would attract the: a. chloride ion. b. sodium ion. c. anion. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 43. If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the negative
electrode would attract: a. cations. b. anions. c. chloride ions. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 44. If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the positive
electrode would attract: a. cations. b. anions. c. chloride ions. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1001
TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 45. If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the positive
electrode would attract: a. cations. b. sodium ions. c. chloride ions. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 46. The ion with the least total concentration in body fluids is: a. chloride. b. potassium. c. calcium. d. bicarbonate. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 47. With an equal milligram percent in solution, calcium would have a(n) _____ milliequivalent
than potassium. a. greater b. lesser c. equal d. There is not enough information to determine the milliequivalent. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 48. Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the: a. kidney. b. liver. c. lung. d. intestine. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance
REF: p. 1004
49. Which of the following two forces tend to move fluid out of the blood vessel? a. Blood hydrostatic pressure and blood colloid osmotic pressure b. Blood colloid osmotic pressure and interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure c. Blood hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid colloid pressure ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 50. Which of the following two forces tend to move fluid into the blood vessel? a. Blood hydrostatic pressure and blood colloid osmotic pressure b. Blood colloid osmotic pressure and interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure c. Blood hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid colloid pressure d. Blood colloid pressure and interstitial fluid colloid pressure
ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 51. The mechanism of action for aldosterone and the mechanism of action for ADH differ because
ADH regulates water whereas aldosterone regulates: a. potassium. b. chloride. c. calcium. d. sodium. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 52. Which of the following is not a cause of hypervolemia? a. Renal failure b. Ascites c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Congestive heart failure ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 1014
53. An intravenous addition of sodium can be used to treat: a. hypokalemia. b. hypernatremia. c. hyponatremia. d. hyperkalemia. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 1014
54. Potassium-rich foods can be used to treat: a. hypokalemia. b. hypernatremia. c. hyponatremia. d. hyperkalemia. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 1014
55. Which of the following is not true of sodium chloride (NaCl)? a. It will dissociate in water. b. It will form ions. c. It has the same type of bonds as glucose. d. All of the above are true about sodium chloride. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Interrelationship of Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 56. Which of the following is not true of glucose? a. It will dissociate in water. b. It will form ions.
REF: p. 1000
c. It has the same type of bonds as sodium chloride. d. None of the above are true of glucose. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Interrelationship of Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
REF: p. 1000
57. Which type of tissue has the least amount of water? a. Muscle b. Adipose c. Bone d. Nervous ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Body Water
REF: p. 1000
58. Which of the following is not considered an extracellular fluid? a. Lymph b. Plasma c. The aqueous fluid of the eye d. All of the above are considered extracellular fluids. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
REF: p. 1001
59. The subfornical organ is located in what part of the central nervous system? a. Hypothalamus b. Parietal lobe of the brain c. Roof of the third ventricle of the brain d. Medulla ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
REF: p. 1005
60. Angiotensinogen is converted to angiotensin I in the: a. kidney. b. blood. c. lung. d. adrenal glands. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance
REF: p. 1004
61. Which of the following sites of fluid loss can be automatically adjusted according to fluid
intake volume? a. Intestine b. Kidney c. Lungs d. Skin ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1005
TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
62. Cerebrospinal fluid is part of the: a. extracellular fluid because it consists mainly of plasma found in blood vessels and
interstitial fluids. b. interstitial fluid because it flows inside of cells. c. intracellular fluid because it consists mostly of water. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1001
TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
63. In accordance with the physical laws governing filtration and osmosis, which of the following
statements is true? a. Blood hydrostatic pressure tends to draw fluid into the capillaries from the interstitial fluid. b. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure tends to force fluid out of the capillaries and into the interstitial fluid. c. Blood colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid back into the capillaries. d. Interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid into the capillaries from the interstitial fluid. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 64. Osmoreceptors assist in controlling homeostasis of body fluids by: a. causing the anterior pituitary gland to secrete increased amounts of ACTH, thus
decreasing more fluids. b. causing the posterior pituitary to stop releasing ADH. c. decreasing the function of the pons and reducing fluid losses. d. working in the hypothalamus to trigger a conscious sense of dry mouth and thirst. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1005
TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
65. In patients with severe burn injuries, what mechanism is responsible for the increased risk of
hypovolemic shock? a. An increase in capillary blood pressure b. An increase in capillary permeability with a resulting increase in flow of blood to the tissues c. An increase in interstitial fluid causing an increase in blood volume d. A loss of interstitial fluid causing a drain of blood plasma out of the vessels and into tissue spaces ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1014
TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
66. A solution of sodium (Na+, atomic weight = 23) and a solution of calcium (Ca2+, atomic
weight = 40) have equal mg%. The mEq/L of calcium would be about _____ that of sodium. a. the same as b. four times c. twice d. six times ANS: C DIF: Application TOP: Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity TRUE/FALSE
REF: p. 1003
1. Salt and glucose are examples of electrolytes found in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Interrelationship of Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
REF: p. 1000
2. Electrolytes are substances that dissociate in solution. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Interrelationship of Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
REF: p. 1000
3. In infants, total body water constitutes approximately 40% of body weight. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Body Water
REF: p. 1000
4. Plasma, synovial fluid, and cerebrospinal fluid are all examples of extracellular fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
REF: p. 1001
5. The volume of interstitial fluid is greater than the volume of plasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
REF: p. 1001
6. Intracellular fluids constitute about 50% of body weight. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
REF: p. 1001
7. In recent years, Ringer solution has frequently been used instead of normal saline. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy
REF: p. 1003
8. The tonicity of a solution is not important when it is administered subcutaneously. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy
REF: p. 1003
9. Ingested liquids are the major source of water for the body, followed by water formed from a
catabolism, with a smaller amount coming from water in foods. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1003 TOP: Typical Normal Values for Each Portal of Water Entry and Exit 10. The principle of fluid balance states that fluid intake normally equals fluid output. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance 11. Both ADH and aldosterone cause fluid retention.
REF: p. 1003
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 1005
12. The two major factors that determine urine volume are glomerular filtration rate and blood
volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 1006
13. The thirst center is located in the hypothalamus and SFO of the brain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
REF: p. 1005
14. Osmoreceptors associated with thirst are located in the gastrointestinal tract. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
REF: p. 1005
15. Osmoreceptors are cells able to detect an increase in solute concentration in extracellular fluid
caused by water loss. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
REF: p. 1005
16. The amounts of antidiuretic hormone and aldosterone secreted determine the amount of water
reabsorbed in the tubules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 1006
17. Because of unknown mechanisms, the secretion of saliva generally increases when there is a
decrease in the total volume of body water. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
REF: p. 1005
18. Positive ions of electrolytes are cations and are attracted to a cathode. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 19. Urine volume is regulated mainly by hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary
gland and by the adrenal cortex. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 1006
20. If a person takes nothing by mouth for several days, fluid output decreases to zero to
compensate and maintain homeostasis.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
REF: p. 1005
21. The body’s major fluid compartments are called the extracellular and intracellular fluid
compartments. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
REF: p. 1001
22. Water is added to the body only through the digestive tract. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Avenues by Which Water Enters and Leaves the Body
REF: p. 1003
23. Thirst is associated with any condition that decreases total volume of body water, such as
blood loss or hemorrhage. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance
REF: p. 1004
24. The most crucial mechanisms for maintaining fluid balance adjust output to intake, as in the
aldosterone mechanism and the renin-angiotensin mechanism. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance
REF: p. 1004
25. Mechanisms for controlling water movement between the fluid compartments of the body
constitute the slowest-acting fluid balance devices. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance
REF: p. 1004
26. A person who hyperventilates could lose excessive amounts of water and electrolytes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Factors That Alter Fluid Loss Under Abnormal Conditions 27. When compared chemically, interstitial fluid and intercellular fluid are almost identical. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids
REF: p. 1002
28. When compared chemically, intracellular fluid and plasma are almost identical. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids
REF: p. 1002
29. Vomiting or diarrhea each may cause fluid and electrolyte output to exceed intake. ANS: T TOP: Dehydration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1007
30. Chemical similarity predominates between the two extracellular fluids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids
REF: p. 1002
31. The only functionally important difference between blood plasma and interstitial fluid is the
presence of more protein anions in plasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids
REF: p. 1002
32. The reactivity or combining power of an electrolyte depends solely on the number of
molecular particles present. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity
REF: p. 1003
33. The milliequivalent is a measure of the weight of an electrolyte. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity
REF: p. 1003
34. Blood hydrostatic pressure tends to force fluid out of capillaries and into interstitial fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 35. Interstitial fluid contains an appreciable amount of protein anions, whereas blood contains
hardly any. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids
REF: p. 1002
36. Milliequivalents serve as an accurate measure of the physiological combining power, or
reactivity, of a particular electrolyte solution. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity
REF: p. 1003
37. Burns, infections, and shock may lead to an increase in plasma proteins, which then causes
fluid imbalance. ANS: F TOP: Edema
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1010
38. The most common cause of edema is generalized venous congestion as a result of heart
failure. ANS: T TOP: Edema
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1010
39. When the sum of the blood hydrostatic pressure and the interstitial fluid colloid osmotic
pressure is greater than the sum of the interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure and the blood colloid osmotic pressure, fluid shifts out of the interstitial fluid and into the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 40. The plasma membrane separates the intracellular and extracellular fluid compartments. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Intracellular Fluid (ICF) 41. An imbalance of electrolytes between the cells and intercellular areas will cause an imbalance
of fluids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Intracellular Fluid (ICF) 42. A decrease in interstitial fluid sodium concentration will cause an immediate increase in
interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Intracellular Fluid (ICF) 43. A 70-kg (154-lb) adult has a total body sodium pool of approximately 2800 to 3000 mEq. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 44. The release of ADH will cause an increase in the reabsorption of sodium and water by the
kidney. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 45. The release of aldosterone can cause an increase in the blood colloid osmotic pressure. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 46. The chief means of regulating body sodium levels is through sweat loss. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 47. Cell breakdown may lead to a potassium deficiency in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 48. Hypochloremia is frequently linked to cases of potassium loss.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 49. A person who is dehydrated will need replacement of water and electrolytes. ANS: T TOP: Dehydration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1008
50. A continuous movement of sodium occurs between a number of internal secretions, such as
saliva, gastric and intestinal secretions, bile, and pancreatic fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 51. Extracellular fluid depletion is the last line of defense against dehydration. ANS: F TOP: Dehydration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1008
52. If the volume of fluid and electrolyte levels inside and outside the cell remains relatively
constant, a condition of homeostasis exists. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1000
53. The total charge in a solution of dissolved electrolytes and a solution of dissolved
non-electrolytes would both be zero. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1000 TOP: Interrelationship of Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 54. A change in electrolyte balance will have little effect on fluid balance. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Interrelationship of Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
REF: p. 1000
55. The dissociated particles of an electrolyte are called ions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Interrelationship of Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
REF: p. 1000
56. Organic compounds are important sources of electrolytes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Interrelationship of Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
REF: p. 1000
57. Functionally, total body water can be subdivided into two fluid compartments—plasma and
interstitial. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
REF: p. 1001
58. In parenteral therapy, it is equally important that both intravenous and subcutaneous solutions
be isotonic to plasma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy
REF: p. 1003
59. A normal saline solution consists of a 9% solution of NaCl. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy
REF: p. 1003
60. Acidosis can be rapidly treated by the intravenous administration of lactate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy
REF: p. 1003
61. Acidosis can be treated rapidly by the intravenous administration of ammonium chloride. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy
REF: p. 1003
62. Intracellular fluid is the only fluid that usually contains protein. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 63. Whereas sodium is the predominant cation in blood plasma, potassium is the predominant
cation in intracellular fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 64. Proteins in body fluids are considered anions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 65. The total concentration of anions in blood plasma is slightly higher than the total
concentration of cations. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 66. Milligram percent is the most common unit used to measure electrolyte concentration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1003 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 67. Physiologically, the valence of an electrolyte is more important than the number of particles in
a solution. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1003
TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 68. The amount of water removed by the kidney as urine is greater than all the other sources of
water loss combined. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Avenues by Which Water Enters and Leaves the Body
REF: p. 1003
69. Angiotensin I and angiotensin II increase the secretion of aldosterone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance
REF: p. 1004
70. The skin is one of the areas of the body that contributes to obligatory water loss. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
REF: p. 1005
71. ANH assists in the regulation of urine volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 1006
72. Skin “tenting” is a sign of possible dehydration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Factors That Alter Fluid Loss Under Abnormal Conditions 73. When a 6% body weight loss occurs because of dehydration, it causes an increase in pulse
rate, body temperature, and respiration rate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Mechanisms That Maintain Homeostasis of Total Fluid Volume 74. A body weight loss of 7% due to dehydration is the most that can be tolerated and still sustain
life. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Mechanisms That Maintain Homeostasis of Total Fluid Volume 75. If the other three forces that determine fluid movement were unchanged, an increase in blood
hydrostatic pressure would cause edema. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 76. Edema can be defined as the presence of an abnormally large amount of intracellular fluid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF)
77. Fluid tends to be pushed out of the blood vessels at the venous end and reabsorbed at the
arterial end. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 78. Hydrostatic pressure serves as the chief regulator of water transfer between intracellular and
interstitial fluid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Intracellular Fluid (ICF) 79. Colloid pressure is the chief regulator of water transfer between intracellular and interstitial
fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Intracellular Fluid (ICF) 80. A decrease in solute concentration in the extracellular fluid will cause water to leave the cell
in an attempt to compensate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Intracellular Fluid (ICF) 81. Aldosterone and ADH both regulate body fluid by causing absorption of sodium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 82. When chloride is secreted in the urine, it is often linked with sodium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 83. The total body potassium content may be 1000 times greater than the serum potassium level. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 84. Potassium loss is rarely a problem because it is so well absorbed by the kidney. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 85. In severe and prolonged water loss, the initial fluid shift will be from plasma to interstitial
fluid. ANS: F TOP: Dehydration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1008
86. Strenuous physical activity on a hot day can generate as much as 5 L of sweat a day.
ANS: F TOP: Dehydration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1008
87. Extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid can each be reduced to 30% before death from
dehydration occurs. ANS: F TOP: Dehydration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1008
88. Diuretics, used cautiously, can be used to treat hypovolemia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 1014
89. Too much potassium can be more dangerous than too little potassium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 1015
90. Cells in the roof of the third ventricle of the brain affect the functioning of the thirst center. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
REF: p. 1005
91. The body tissue with the least amount of water is bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Body Water
REF: p. 1000
92. Lymph, joint fluid, and the fluid in joint capsules is considered transcellular fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
REF: p. 1001
93. Calcium has an atomic weight of 40, and a valance of +2. A 5 mg% solution would have a
milliequivalence of 1.25. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity
REF: p. 1003
94. Both a decrease in potassium ions and a decrease in blood pressure will stimulate the release
of aldosterone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance
REF: p. 1004
95. Impulses from the subfornical organ stimulates the release of ADH. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
REF: p. 1005
96. Starling law of the capillaries explains the balance between fluid lost from the capillaries and
fluid reabsorbed by the capillaries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 97. The nephron has the ability to produce almost sodium-free urine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 98. The most accurate measurement of the body’s store of potassium is an arterial blood sample. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1012 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 99. Normal values for total body water as a percentage of body weight will vary from 45% to
75%. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Body Water
REF: p. 1000
100. Because fat tissue contains the least amount of water of any tissue in the body, obese people
tend to have a lower percentage of body water. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Total Body Water
REF: p. 1001
101. Extracellular fluid has two main functions—providing a relatively constant internal
environment for the cells and transporting materials to and from them. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
REF: p. 1001
102. The lungs are a source of water loss for the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Avenues by Which Water Enters and Leaves the Body
REF: p. 1003
103. Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by the liver. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance
REF: p. 1004
104. Respiration contributes to the obligatory water loss of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
REF: p. 1005
105. Because the GFR is almost constant, the amount of hormone in the blood has the biggest
impact on urine volume.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
REF: p. 1005
MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Osmoreceptors b. Electrolyte c. Intracellular d. Parenteral e. Extracellular f. Milliequivalent g. Cation h. Anion i. Interstitial j. Blood hydrostatic pressure k. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure 1. Force that acts to move fluid out of the tissue space and back into the blood 2. Type of compound that dissociates into ions when dissolved in water 3. Specialized cells in the hypothalamus that detect increased solute concentration in 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
extracellular fluid caused by water loss Outside the cell Unit measuring the number of ionic charges or electrocovalent bonds in a solution; measure of reactivity of a particular electrolyte solution Force that acts to move fluid out of the blood and into the tissue space Substance that enters the body through injection and not through the alimentary canal Within the cell An ion with a negative charge An ion with a positive charge Surrounding the cell
1. ANS: K DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 2. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1000 TOP: Interrelationship of Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 3. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1005 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake 4. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 5. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1003 TOP: Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity 6. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 7. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1003 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy 8. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 9. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001
TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 10. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 11. ANS: I DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments
Match each term related to abnormal conditions with its corresponding definition or explanation. a. Dehydration b. Hypovolemia c. Hyponatremia d. Edema e. Hypervolemia f. Hyperkalemia g. Hypokalemia 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
A serum potassium level substantially above normal An expansion of fluid volume in the body; a fluid volume excess Condition when fluid output exceeds fluid intake and results in a decrease in total body water An abnormally large amount of fluid in the intercellular tissue spaces of the body Serum potassium levels substantially below normal; a potassium deficit A fluid volume deficit that can lead to a state of dehydration A condition of decreased serum sodium concentration below the normal range
12. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 13. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 14. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 15. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: TOP: Edema 16. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 17. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 18. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids
p. 1015 p. 1014 p. 1005 p. 1009 p. 1012 p. 1014 p. 1014
OTHER 1. Compare the volumes of the body fluid compartments in the infant, the adult male, and the
adult female. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1000 TOP: Volumes of Body Fluid Compartments
2. Describe the functioning thirst center. Where is it located? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1005
TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake
3. What are two means of obligatory water loss? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Factors That Alter Fluid Loss Under Abnormal Conditions 4. Compare the chemical compositions of plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids 5. List the four pressures associated with the Starling law of the capillaries. Explain what the
effects are of these pressures in terms of moving fluid into or out of the capillaries. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Plasma and Interstitial Fluid (ECF) 6. How does an electrolyte imbalance lead to fluid imbalances? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolyte Levels in Intracellular Fluid (ICF) 7. What are anions? What are cations? Give examples of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Chemical Content, Distribution, and Measurement of Electrolytes in Body Fluids 8. Explain how the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism works to help maintain fluid
balance. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1003 TOP: Some General Principles About Fluid Balance 9. Explain how various hormones impact the amount of urine produced. What are the sources of
these hormones? Why is water reabsorption more important than GFR in regulating urine volume? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1005
TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume
10. Explain the relationship between the sodium concentration in the interstitial fluid and the
chloride concentration. Between the potassium concentration and the chloride concentration. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids ESSAY 1. To be effective, a diuretic (drug that increases water loss through the kidneys) should not only
increase water loss but also increase sodium loss. Why? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1011 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium Levels in Body Fluids 2. If a solution of sodium (Na+, atomic weight = 23) and a solution of calcium (Ca2+, atomic
weight = 40) had equal mg%, what would be the mEq/L of each? ANS:
The mEq/L of calcium would be about twice that of sodium. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1003
TOP: Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity
Chapter 44: Acid-Base Balance Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The regulation of acid-base balance in the body fluids refers to the control of _____ ion
concentration. a. hydrogen b. bicarbonate c. potassium d. chloride ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Acid-Base Balance Introduction
REF: p. 1020
2. Which of the following would have the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions? a. pH 2 b. pH 6 c. pH 8 d. pH 10 ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
3. Which of the following would indicate a neutral solution? a. pH 7 b. pH 6 c. pH 8 d. pH 10 ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
4. The most acidic substance in the body is: a. stomach acid. b. saliva. c. blood. d. cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
5. A solution with pH of 7 would contain _____ times the number of hydrogen ions as a solution
with a pH of 8. a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10 ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
6. The pH of the blood is maintained at approximately: a. 7.1. b. 7.2. c. 7.3. d. 7.4. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
7. Ketone bodies are associated with cellular metabolism of: a. fats. b. carbohydrates. c. proteins. d. vitamins. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
8. Which of the following types of acids would be produced as a result of glucose catabolism? a. Acetoacetic b. Phosphoric c. Lactic d. Sulfuric ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
9. Which of the following is (are) classified as an acid-forming food? a. Meat b. Eggs c. Poultry d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
10. Hydrogen ions are continually entering the body fluids through: a. acidic ketone bodies. b. phosphoric acids. c. carbonic acids. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
11. An example of a physiological buffer system (with a delayed response time) would be the
_____ system. a. respiratory response b. protein buffer c. bicarbonate buffer d. phosphate buffer
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of pH Control Mechanisms
REF: p. 1021
12. If the pH of the blood were 7.23, it would be a. within the normal range. b. slightly more acidic than normal. c. slightly more basic than normal. d. much more basic than normal. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Effectiveness of pH Control Mechanisms | Range of pH
REF: p. 1022
13. Which of the following is considered a powerful physiological buffering system of the body? a. Skin b. Liver c. Kidney d. Intestine ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of pH Control Mechanisms
REF: p. 1022
14. In the body, nonvolatile acids, or fixed acids, are buffered mainly by: a. hemoglobin. b. sodium hydroxide. c. sodium bicarbonate. d. plasma proteins. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 15. Which of the following ratios of base bicarbonate to carbonic acid will maintain a normal pH? a. 3:1 b. 5:1 c. 10:1 d. 20:1 ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 16. Potassium salts of hemoglobin are important in buffering _____ acid. a. lactic b. carbonic c. sulfuric d. phosphoric ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 17. Which of the following is a true statement? a. Arterial blood has a higher hydrogen ion concentration than venous blood. b. Venous blood has a higher pH than arterial blood. c. Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41. d. Venous blood has a lower hydrogen ion concentration than arterial blood.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
18. An increase in respiratory rate would result in a decrease in all of the following except: a. carbon dioxide. b. acidity. c. pH. d. hydrogen ions. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Some Principles Relating Respiration and pH of Body Fluids 19. Prolonged hyperventilation tends to: a. produce alkalosis. b. decrease blood pH. c. produce acidosis. d. stimulate increased production of carbonic acid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1027 TOP: Some Principles Relating Respiration and pH of Body Fluids 20. In acidosis, the renal tubule excretion of hydrogen ions: a. decreases. b. increases. c. does not change. d. decreases only when potassium ion excretion increases. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1029
21. Which of the following is considered a direct acid-forming food? a. Citrus fruit b. Vinegar c. Cranberries d. All of the above are considered direct acid-forming foods ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
22. A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to: a. stimulate increased respirations. b. produce hypoventilation. c. stimulate a compensatory increase in blood hydrogen ion concentration through
the respiratory system. d. do both B and C. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1026 TOP: Some Principles Relating Respiration and pH of Body Fluids 23. If the blood pH decreases below normal, the kidney tubules secrete _____ urine. a. fewer hydrogen ions from blood to b. more hydrogen ions from blood to
c. more sodium ions into the d. Both A and C will occur. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1027
24. Hyperventilation can result in loss of consciousness because: a. oxygen levels become too high. b. oxygen levels become too low. c. carbon dioxide levels are elevated. d. of alkalosis. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1026 TOP: Some Principles Relating Respiration and pH of Body Fluids 25. When the kidney secretes hydrogen ions, it primarily reabsorbs _____ ions. a. potassium b. calcium c. chloride d. sodium ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles Concerning Urinary Mechanisms
REF: p. 1027
26. Hyperkalemia may have a major effect on which of the following? a. Gastrointestinal tract b. Heart c. Kidney d. Liver ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1029
27. When the renal tubules reabsorb sodium ions, they normally exchange (secrete) which of the
following? a. Potassium ions b. Chloride ions c. Hydrogen d. Either potassium or hydrogen ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1027
28. For the body to maintain an acid-base balance, which of the following is (are) necessary? a. Buffering b. Respirations c. Urine secretion d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of pH Control Mechanisms 29. The more hydrogen ions excreted by the renal tubules, the:
REF: p. 1022
a. b. c. d.
more alkaline the urine. more potassium ions excreted. fewer potassium ions excreted. lower the pH of the blood becomes.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1029
30. A decrease in blood pH: a. accelerates the renal tubule excretion of ammonia. b. causes a decrease in the renal tubule excretion of ammonia. c. produces an increase in the pH of the urine through the chloride shift. d. has no effect on the renal tubule excretion of ammonia (because of respiratory
compensations). ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1029
31. Which of the following would be important in treating metabolic alkalosis? a. Chloride ions b. Bicarbonate ions c. Sodium ions d. Potassium ions ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting
REF: p. 1024
32. Which of these is true about the metabolism of glucose? a. Aerobic metabolism produces lactic acid. b. Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid. c. Anaerobic metabolism produces carbonic acid. d. Both A and C are true about the metabolism of glucose. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements
REF: p. 1021
33. Which of these is not an acid-forming element? a. Chloride b. Potassium c. Sulfur d. Phosphorus ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements
REF: p. 1021
34. Which of the following is not a base-forming element? a. Chlorine b. Potassium c. Sodium d. Magnesium ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements
REF: p. 1021
35. A solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 10–1 per liter would have a pH of: a. 10. b. –1. c. 1. d. none of the above. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1020
TOP: Review of the pH Concept
36. A solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 10–4 per liter would be a(n): a. acid. b. base. c. neutral solution. d. There is not enough information to determine the type of solution it would be. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1020
TOP: Review of the pH Concept
37. A solution with a pH of 6 would have a hydrogen ion concentration of _____ per liter. a. 0.000006 b. 0.0000001 c. 0.000001 d. None of the above is correct. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1020
TOP: Review of the pH Concept
38. A solution with a pH of 6 would have _____ ions than a solution with a pH of 4. a. more hydrogen b. fewer hydrogen c. fewer hydroxide d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1020
TOP: Review of the pH Concept
39. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid results from the metabolism of: a. glucose. b. amino acids. c. fats. d. ribonucleotides. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1021 TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements 40. Carbonic acid results primarily from the metabolism of: a. glucose. b. amino acids. c. fats. d. ribonucleotides. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements 41. Sulfuric acid results from the metabolism of: a. glucose.
REF: p. 1021
b. amino acids. c. fats. d. ribonucleotides. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements
REF: p. 1021
42. Which of the following is not a weak acid? a. Hemoglobin b. Oxyhemoglobin c. Proteins d. Na2HPO4 ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Buffer Pairs Present in Body Fluids
REF: p. 1022
43. In the body, which of the following substances might be used to buffer a strong acid such as
HCl? a. H2CO3 b. Hemoglobin c. NaHCO3 d. None of the above ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 44. In the body, which of the following substances might be used to buffer a strong base such as
NaOH? a. H2CO3 b. KHCO3 c. Proteins d. None of the above ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 45. Which of the following is most basic? a. Oven cleaner b. Baking soda c. Household ammonia d. Great Salt Lake water ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
46. The respiratory center is stimulated if the: a. amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood increases. b. amount of carbon dioxide in venous blood increases. c. pH of the blood goes above 7.41. d. Any of the above will stimulate the respiratory center. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms of pH Control
REF: p. 1026
47. Which of the following statements is true? a. Hypoventilation can cause alkalosis. b. Hyperventilation can cause acidosis. c. Hyperventilation can cause a drop in pH. d. Hypoventilation can cause a drop in pH. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1027 TOP: Respiration Adjustments to Counter pH Imbalance of Arterial Blood 48. Respiratory acidosis is also: a. carbonic acid excess. b. carbonic acid deficit. c. bicarbonate excess. d. bicarbonate deficit. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 1031
49. An abnormal change in pH in the body could disrupt the functioning of: a. enzymes. b. cell membrane receptors. c. hemoglobin. d. all of the above. ANS: D TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1020
50. The functioning of the Na-K pump transport mechanism falls by 50% if the pH: a. falls by 1 unit. b. falls by 2 units. c. falls by 3 units. d. rises by 1 unit. ANS: A TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1020
51. The biological activity of phosphofructokinase (an important enzyme in anaerobic respiration)
falls by 90% if the pH: a. falls by 1 unit. b. falls by 0.5 units. c. falls by 0.1 units. d. rises by 1 unit. ANS: C TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
52. The numerical value of pH represents the: a. hydrogen ion concentration squared. b. negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration. c. logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration. d. square root of the hydrogen ion concentration.
REF: p. 1020
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
53. Phosphoric acid accumulates when what is broken down in the body? a. Fats b. Amino acids c. Ribonucleotides d. Carbohydrates ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements
REF: p. 1021
54. Toxic accumulation of acidic ketone bodies is a common complication of untreated: a. kidney disease. b. diabetes mellitus. c. respiratory distress syndrome. d. deficiency of carbonic anhydrase in the blood. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements
REF: p. 1021
55. The most rapidly acting buffer system in the body is the _____ buffering system. a. chemical b. respiratory c. kidney d. Both physiological buffering systems act with equal speed and are faster than the
chemical. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of pH Control Mechanisms
REF: p. 1021
56. If HCl were buffered by NaHCO3, the formation of _____ would not occur. a. NaCl b. water c. H-HCO3 d. All of the above would occur. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1023 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 57. If HCl were buffered by NaHCO3, what would occur? a. There would be a slight rise in pH. b. There would be a large drop in pH. c. There would be a slight drop in pH. d. There would be a large rise in pH. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 58. If NaOH were buffered by H-HCO3, what would not occur? a. Concentration of NaHCO3 would increase. b. Water would be formed. c. The number of hydroxide ions would greatly increase.
d. All of the above would occur. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1023 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 59. If NaOH were buffered by H-HCO3, what would occur? a. There would be a slight drop in pH. b. There would be a large drop in pH. c. There would be a slight rise in pH. d. There would be a large rise in pH. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1023 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 60. How is the renal tubule excretion of ammonia involved in maintaining the acid-base balance? a. An increase in blood pH accelerates tubule excretion of both hydrogen and
ammonia. A decrease in blood pH produces the opposite effects, thus maintaining pH balance. b. A decrease in blood pH accelerates tubule excretion of both hydrogen and ammonia. An increase in blood pH produces the opposite effects, thus maintaining pH balance. c. Renal tubule excretion of ammonia causes the combining of hydrogen to form ammonium ions that decrease the blood bicarbonate buffer pair ratio. d. Ammonia excreted by renal tubules has no effect on acid-base balance. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1029 TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH 61. A decrease in blood pH: a. accelerates the renal tubule ion exchange mechanisms. b. causes a decrease in the renal tubule excretion of ammonia. c. has no effect on the renal tubule excretion of ammonia (because of respiratory
compensations). d. produces an increase in the pH of the urine through the chloride shift. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1029 TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH 62. The respiratory center becomes stimulated if the: a. amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood increases, so more CO2 is exhaled, thus
lowering the blood pH. b. amount of carbon dioxide in venous blood increases to retain more CO2, thus
lowering the blood pH. c. pH of the blood goes above 7.41. d. All of the above occur if the respiratory center becomes stimulated. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1026 TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms of pH Control 63. If the blood pH decreases below normal, the kidney tubules secrete: a. fewer hydrogen ions from blood to urine. b. more hydrogen ions from blood to urine.
c. more sodium ions into the urine. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1029 TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH 64. Why does arterial blood have a lower hydrogen ion concentration than venous blood? a. More carbon dioxide remains in the arterial blood leaving the lung capillaries,
causing an increase in the amount of carbonic acid and the number of hydrogen ions. b. Because there are more red blood cells in arteries than veins, the arterial blood has a greater ability to carry fewer hydrogen ions. c. Less carbon dioxide remains in the arterial blood leaving the lung capillaries, causing a reduction in the amount of carbonic acid and the number of hydrogen ions. d. The carbon dioxide diffuses out of the venous blood as it moves through the lung capillaries. Therefore, more carbon dioxide remains in the arterial blood leaving the lung capillaries, causing a decrease in the number of hydrogen ions. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1025 TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms of pH Control 65. Some athletes engage in a technique called bicarbonate loading that is said to counteract the
lactic acid buildup. This practice raises concerns because excess bicarbonate intake: a. can trigger fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which may lead to metabolic acidosis. b. can trigger fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which may lead to metabolic alkalosis. c. may lead to uncompensated acidosis. d. may lead to “acid blood.” ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1025
TOP: Bicarbonate Loading
66. Susan has been experiencing prolonged hypoventilation. If not treated soon, Susan may
develop what condition? a. Prolonged hypoventilation may decrease blood pH enough to produce acidosis. b. Prolonged hypoventilation may increase blood pH enough to produce alkalosis. c. Prolonged hypoventilation may reduce the renal tubule ion exchange mechanisms. d. Prolonged hypoventilation may lead to hyperkalemia. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1027 TOP: Principles That Relate Respiration to pH Value 67. A rare but very serious complication of metformin therapy is: a. hyperkalemia. b. lactic acidosis. c. uncompensated acidosis. d. uncompensated alkalosis. ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Lactic Acidosis and Metformin
REF: p. 1025
68. Kidney tubule base bicarbonate reabsorption and hydrogen ion excretion both tend to:
a. acidify blood by creating alkaline urine. b. alkalinize blood by acidifying urine. c. increase blood pH, which accelerates tubule excretion of both hydrogen and
ammonia. d. decrease blood pH, which reduces tubule excretion of both hydrogen and
ammonia. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1029 TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH 69. Why are metabolic and respiratory acidosis treated by the intravenous infusion of solutions
containing sodium lactate? a. The infused lactate ions are metabolized by the liver cells and converted to sodium ions, which help replace the depleted sodium reserves required to restore acid-base balance. b. The infused lactate ions are metabolized by the liver cells and converted to potassium ions, which help restore the depleted potassium reserves required to restore acid-base balance. c. The infused lactate ions are metabolized by the liver cells and converted to carbonic acid, which helps restore the depleted bicarbonate reserves required to restore acid-base balance. d. The infused lactate ions are metabolized by the liver cells and converted to bicarbonate ions, which help restore the depleted bicarbonate reserves required to restore acid-base balance. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1030
TOP: Acid-Base Imbalance
70. A pregnant patient who has been experiencing repeated vomiting episodes is admitted to the
hospital by her obstetrician. After a series of tests determines that she is suffering from metabolic alkalosis, the physician orders intravenous administration of normal saline. How will this help the patient? a. It will reduce the vomiting episodes. b. The chloride ions of the solution will replace the acidic ions and relieve the acidic excess responsible for her condition. c. The chloride ions of the solution will replace bicarbonate ions and relieve the bicarbonate excess responsible for her condition. d. The sodium ions of the solution will introduce more bicarbonate ions and relieve the bicarbonate shortage responsible for her condition. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1024 TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting 71. A man was advised to acidify his urine to help reduce the development of kidney stones. To
accomplish that, he has been drinking a large glass of grapefruit juice every day. Which of the following explains why this is ineffective and gives a food choice that will make his urine acidic? a. Grapefruit juice is not acid forming when metabolized; cranberry juice is acid forming and will acidify his blood, resulting in a decreased urine pH. b. Grapefruit juice is not acid forming when metabolized; orange juice is acid forming and will acidify his blood, resulting in a decreased urine pH. c. Grapefruit juice will acidify both blood and urine, thereby balancing the urine pH;
beet juice will change the pH in the urine. d. Grapefruit juice is not acid forming when metabolized; a calcium carbonate tablet will acidify his blood resulting in a decreased urine pH. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1021 TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements 72. A minor bladder infection is often the result of urine not being acidic enough. Which of the
following actions could correct this problem? a. Drinking orange juice b. Eating large amounts of high-protein foods such as meat, fish, poultry, and eggs, which are acid forming c. Eating fruits and vegetables d. Eating foods rich in acids, such as cranberries and rhubarb ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1021 TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements 73. Which of the following would be important in treating metabolic alkalosis? a. Increasing bicarbonate ions b. Increasing chloride ions c. Decreasing potassium ions d. Decreasing sodium ions ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1024 TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting 74. How does the body respond if respiratory mechanisms are unable to stop a pH shift? a. A renal physiological buffer system involving the excretion of either an acid or
alkaline urine will be initiated within 24 hours. b. Bicarbonate buffers immediately combine with any added acid or alkali that enters the body fluids, thus preventing drastic changes in pH. c. Phosphate buffers immediately combine with any added acid or alkali that enters the body fluids, thus preventing drastic changes in pH. d. Protein buffers immediately combine with any added acid or alkali that enters the body fluids, thus preventing drastic changes in pH. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1022
TOP: Types of pH Mechanisms
75. Which of the following type(s) of acids would be produced as a result of glucose catabolism? a. Acetoacetic and lactic b. Lactic c. Phosphoric and sulfuric d. Sulfuric ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1021 TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements 76. Which statement best outlines the reason hyperventilation can result in loss of consciousness? a. Hyperventilation eliminates too little CO2, causes an increase in blood H2CO3 and
consequently in blood H+, and thereby may produce acidosis. b. Increases in oxygen ion concentration above a certain level depress the central
nervous system and, therefore, produce such symptoms as disorientation and coma. c. Decreases in hydrogen ion concentration above a certain level depress the central nervous system and, therefore, produce such symptoms as disorientation and coma. d. Increases in hydrogen ion concentration above a certain level depress the central nervous system and, therefore, produce such symptoms as disorientation and coma. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1030 TOP: Principles That Relate Respiration to pH Value TRUE/FALSE 1. The kidney gets rid of excess hydrogen ions by the process of filtration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles Concerning Urinary Mechanisms
REF: p. 1027
2. A blood pH of 7.1 indicates the body is more acidic than normal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
3. Stomach acid is the most alkaline substance in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
4. CO2 entering venous blood gives it a slightly lower pH than arterial blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
5. Saliva is normally acidic. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
6. Venous blood returning from the lungs would have a higher pH than blood returning from the
inferior vena cava. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Explanation of the Respiratory Mechanisms
REF: p. 1025
7. Arterial blood has a lower pH than venous blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
8. High-protein foods are referred to as acid forming. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
9. Mineral elements that are acidic include potassium, calcium, and sodium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
10. Citrus fruits are mainly acid forming when metabolized. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
11. A vegetarian diet would tend to produce an alkaline state in body fluids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
12. Direct acid-forming foods contain acids that cannot be metabolized. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
13. Potassium, calcium, sodium, and magnesium are all mineral elements that are acidic in
solution. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
14. The protein buffer system represents a chemical buffer system in the body with a delayed
response time. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of pH Control Mechanisms
REF: p. 1021
15. Most body fluid buffer pairs contain a strong base and a weak acid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Buffer Pairs Present in Body Fluids
REF: p. 1022
16. The physiological buffers serve as a secondary defense against harmful shifts in the pH of
body fluids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of pH Control Mechanisms
REF: p. 1022
17. The respiratory system is an important buffer system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of pH Control Mechanisms
REF: p. 1022
18. Normally the blood buffer system converts a strong acid to a weak acid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids
19. Blood buffers work primarily by preventing marked changes in blood pH. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Buffers Defined
REF: p. 1022
20. A chloride shift that occurs in the neutralization of carbonic acid involves the replacement of a
bicarbonate ion for chloride ions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 21. Ketone bodies are buffered mainly by plasma proteins. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 22. The type of acid formed when carbon dioxide and water unite is carbonic acid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 23. The chloride shift makes it possible for carbon dioxide to be buffered in the red blood cell and
then carried as bicarbonate in the plasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 24. Under normal body conditions, the chemical buffer system can maintain normal body pH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Evaluation of Role of Buffers in pH Control
REF: p. 1022
25. The process of exchanging a bicarbonate ion formed in the red blood cell with a chloride ion
from the plasma is called the chloride shift. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 26. An increase in the base bicarbonate/carbonic acid ratio causes uncompensated acidosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 27. An increase in the base bicarbonate/carbonic acid ratio causes a decrease in the pH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 28. Prolonged hypoventilation may increase blood pH enough to produce alkalosis. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1027
TOP: Some Principles Relating Respiration and pH of Body Fluids 29. An increase in blood pH above normal may result in hypoventilation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1027 TOP: Some Principles Relating Respiration and pH of Body Fluids 30. Overall, the kidney is less effective in controlling blood hydrogen ion concentration than is
the respiratory system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of pH Control Mechanisms
REF: p. 1022
31. The respiratory mechanism is a much more effective device for adjusting hydrogen output to
hydrogen input than is the urinary mechanism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles Concerning Urinary Mechanisms
REF: p. 1027
32. Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme necessary for the formation of carbonic acid in the kidney
tubules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1028
33. An elevated blood bicarbonate level may be an indication that the kidneys are excreting
hydrogen ions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1029
34. The compensatory mechanisms that respond to acidosis may lead to hyperkalemia and cause
heart blockage or death. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1030
35. The more hydrogen ions excreted by the renal tubules, the more potassium ions excreted. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1029
36. Ammonia excretion causes the body to retain sodium ions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1029
37. An increase in blood pH accelerates the renal tubule excretion of both hydrogen and
ammonia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1029
38. Cranberries are said to direct acid-forming foods. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
39. An increase in ammonium ion excretion occurs when there is an increase in blood pH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1029
40. Strong evidence shows that bicarbonate loading counteracts the effects of lactic acid buildup
in athletes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sports and Fitness
REF: p. 1025
41. A change in pH can make an important enzyme in the cell unable to function. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1020
42. The function of a number of proteins in the body requires that the normal hydrogen ion
concentration be maintained. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1020
43. Distilled water (pure water) contains equal amounts of hydrogen and hydroxide ions. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1022 TOP: Mechanisms That Control pH of Body Fluids 44. Because intracellular fluid is in equilibrium with interstitial fluid and blood plasma, it also has
a pH of 7.41. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control pH of Body Fluids
REF: p. 1020
45. In clinical medicine, acidosis can occur when the arterial blood is still basic. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1020 TOP: Mechanisms That Control pH of Body Fluids 46. Protein catabolism can produce both phosphoric and sulfuric acid. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1021 TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements 47. A buffer would prevent any lowering of pH if a strong acid were added to a solution. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1022
TOP: Buffers Defined 48. When NaOH is added to a buffered solution, one of the substances produced is water. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1023 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 49. One of the potential serious side effects of taking the drug Glucophage is lactic acidosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Lactic Acidosis and Glucophage
REF: p. 1025
50. The blood in the pulmonary artery has a lower pH than the blood in the aorta. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1026 TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms of pH Control 51. The control of acid and base levels is considered a homeostatic mechanism. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Acid-Base Balance Introduction
REF: p. 1020
52. pH is used to represent the logarithm of the concentration of hydrogen ions in a liter of
solution. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
53. On the pH scale, as the value moves from 1 toward 7, the concentration of hydrogen ions
increases. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1020
TOP: Review of the pH Concept
54. On the pH scale, as the value moves from 1 toward 7, the concentration of hydrogen ions
decreases. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1020
TOP: Review of the pH Concept
55. On the pH scale, as the value moves from 14 toward 7, the concentration of hydroxide ions
decreases. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1020
TOP: Review of the pH Concept
56. On the pH scale, as the value moves from 14 toward 7, the concentration of hydroxide ions
increases. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1020
TOP: Review of the pH Concept
57. A solution with a pH of 7 would have no hydrogen ions in solution. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Review of the pH Concept
REF: p. 1020
58. The metabolism of ribonucleotides increases the hydrogen ion concentration of extracellular
fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
59. The metabolism of ribonucleotides increases the hydrogen ion concentration of intracellular
fluid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
60. A diet that is very high in protein or very high in fruits and vegetables would tax the body’s
ability to maintain acid-base balance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
61. Rhubarb is said to be a direct base-forming food. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
62. Buffers are said to consist of a weak acid and its salt. When the ratio is written out, the salt
goes above the line and the weak acid goes below the line. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Buffer Pairs Present in Body Fluids
REF: p. 1022
63. Life-threatening vomiting can occur both in infants and in pregnant women. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting
REF: p. 1024
64. Vomiting results in acidosis because of the loss of chloride from the stomach. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting
REF: p. 1024
65. Vomiting results in alkalosis because of the loss of sodium from the stomach. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting
REF: p. 1024
66. The loss of chloride from the stomach will tend to lower the pH of the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting
REF: p. 1024
67. Because saline solutions have chloride in them, they can be used to treat metabolic alkalosis
caused by vomiting.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting
REF: p. 1024
68. The more an acid dissociates, the stronger the acid is said to be. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 69. Bicarbonate loading can lead to diarrhea and electrolyte imbalance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Bicarbonate Loading
REF: p. 1025
70. Bicarbonate loading can lead to metabolic acidosis and disastrous effects if used long-term. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Bicarbonate Loading
REF: p. 1025
71. In the bicarbonate buffer system, the weak acid carbonic acid is used to buffer a strong acid
such as HCl. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 72. In the bicarbonate buffer system, the weak acid carbonic acid is used to buffer a strong base
such as NaOH. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1023 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 73. In the bicarbonate buffer system, the weak base bicarbonate is used to buffer a strong base
such as NaOH. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1023 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 74. In the bicarbonate buffer system, the weak base bicarbonate is used to buffer a strong acid
such as HCl. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 75. The chloride shift occurs to correct an electrical imbalance, not an acid-base imbalance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 76. For the bicarbonate buffer system to function, both the absolute amount and the ratio of the
components must remain constant. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1024
TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 77. To function properly, the bicarbonate buffer system must have 20 times more H2CO3 than
NaHCO3. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1025 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 78. The kidney is able to secrete hydrogen ions, which causes an increase in urine pH but a
decrease in blood pH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: General Principles Concerning Urinary Mechanisms
REF: p. 1027
79. The proximal and distal tubules secrete hydrogen ions into the urine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1027
80. Both the distal tubule cells and the red blood cells use carbonic anhydrase to help combine
carbon dioxide and water. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1028
81. Kidney tubule base bicarbonate reabsorption and hydrogen ion excretion both tend to
alkalinize the blood by acidifying the urine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1029
82. Kidney tubule base bicarbonate reabsorption and hydrogen ion excretion tend to lower the
blood pH and raise the pH of the urine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1029
83. The linkage between the hydrogen and potassium ions in the kidney can cause a drop in blood
potassium when large amounts of hydrogen ion need to be excreted. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH
REF: p. 1029
84. A change in pH damages an enzyme’s ability to function because it changes the shape of the
enzyme. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1020
85. In a solution with a pH of 7, the number of H+ ions equals the number of OH– ions. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1020
TOP: Review of the pH Concept 86. Acetone, acetoacetic acid, and lactic acid accumulate during the incomplete breakdown of
fats. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
87. The breakdown of ribonucleotides produces phosphoric acid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Chemicals
REF: p. 1021
88. In the bicarbonate buffer pair, NaHCO3 acts as the weak acid. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Pairs Present in Body Fluids 89. In the phosphate buffer pair, Na2HPO4 acts as the basic phosphate. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Pairs Present in Body Fluids 90. If a strong acid were added to the phosphate buffer pair, the amount of Na2HPO4 in the
solution would increase. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids MATCHING
Match each term with it corresponding definition. a. Alkaline b. pH c. Buffer d. Acid e. Alkalosis f. Chloride shift g. Acidosis h. Metabolic alkalosis i. Metabolic acidosis j. Respiratory acidosis k. Respiratory alkalosis Arterial blood pH greater than 7.45 Symbol indicating hydrogen ion concentration Any substance that increases the hydrogen ion concentration of a solution Process that allows carbon dioxide to be buffered in the RBC and then carried as bicarbonate in the plasma 5. Arterial blood pH of less than 7.35 1. 2. 3. 4.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
Any substance that decreases the amount of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution Substance that prevents marked changes in the pH of a solution Carbonic acid excess caused by conditions such as pneumonia or emphysema Bicarbonate deficit that could be caused by untreated diabetes mellitus or starvation Bicarbonate excess caused by excessive antacid use or excessive vomiting Carbonic acid deficit that can be caused by hyperventilation from fever or hysteria
1. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 2. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 5. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 6. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 7. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffers Defined 8. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1030 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 9. ANS: I DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1030 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 10. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1030 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 11. ANS: K DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1031 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease OTHER 1. Explain the pH scale ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1020
TOP: Review of the pH Concept
2. Identify the main buffer pairs present in body fluids. How do these buffer pairs function to
limit large changes in pH? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Pairs Present in Body Fluids | Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids 3. Why does arterial blood have a lower hydrogen ion concentration than venous blood?
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1020
TOP: Review of the pH Concept
4. Describe the respiratory compensation for a change in blood pH. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1026 TOP: Respiration Adjustments to Counter pH Imbalance of Arterial Blood 5. Explain the methods the kidney uses to help control the pH of the blood. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1027 TOP: Mechanisms That Control Urine pH 6. Explain why a change in pH is so detrimental to the functioning of the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1020
TOP: Introduction
7. What substances or processes in the body might cause a change in the blood pH? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements 8. Name and explain the two types of pH control mechanisms used by the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of pH Control Mechanisms
REF: p. 1021
9. What is the chloride shift and what is its cause? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids
ESSAY 1. Edith is pregnant and experiencing repeated vomiting episodes. Her obstetrician becomes
concerned, admits her to the hospital, and begins intravenous administration of normal saline. How will this help Edith? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting 2. Vicki has a minor bladder infection. She has heard that this is often the result of urine not
being acidic enough and that she should drink cranberry juice to correct the problem. She does not have any cranberry juice, so she substitutes orange juice. What is wrong with this substitution? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1021 TOP: Acid-Forming and Base-Forming Potential of Foods 3. A patient was advised to acidify his urine to help reduce the development of kidney stones. He
has been drinking a large glass of grapefruit juice every day to accomplish this. Explain why this is ineffective. What food choices might he make to help him acidify his urine? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 1021, 1027 TOP: Sources of pH-Influencing Elements | Acid-Forming and Base-Forming Potential of Foods | Urinary Mechanisms of pH Control 4. Assume the strong base NaOH was added to a solution that contained the phosphate buffer
pair Na2HPO4/NaH2PO4. Write out the chemical equation that shows how this buffer pair would react to the NaOH. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Actions That Prevent Marked Changes in pH of Body Fluids
Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In the male reproductive system, the essential organs of reproduction are called: a. seminal vesicles. b. testes. c. vasa deferentia. d. Cowper glands. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
2. The accessory organs of the male reproductive system include all the following except: a. epididymis. b. vasa deferentia. c. urethra. d. gonads. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
3. Which of the following is not a supporting structure of the male reproductive system? a. Penis b. Scrotum c. Prostate d. Pair of spermatic cords ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
4. Which of the following is not a secreting gland in the male reproductive system? a. Seminal vesicle b. Bulbourethral gland c. Prostate gland d. All of the above are secreting glands in the male reproductive system ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
5. The supporting structures in the male reproductive system include: a. the penis. b. a pair of spermatic cords. c. the scrotum. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 6. Progesterone released by cells surrounding the ovum:
REF: p. 1039
a. b. c. d.
assist in capacitation of the sperm. supply additional nutrient for the sperm. increase motility and attract sperm to the ovum. has no measurable effect on the sperm.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1045
7. Which of the following is (are) not classified as an accessory organ(s) of the reproductive
system in the male? a. Testes b. Epididymides c. Urethra d. Seminal vesicles ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
8. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Each testis is 4 to 5 cm long. b. Each testis weighs about 10 to 15 grams. c. The right testis is usually lower than the left testis. d. All of the above are true. ANS: C TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1039
9. The efferent ductules: a. surround and protect each testis. b. are part of the tunica albuginea. c. drain the rete testis. d. do all of the above. ANS: C TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1040
10. Which of the following divides the testes into lobules? a. Seminiferous tubules b. Vas afferens c. Efferent ductules d. Tunica albuginea ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Structure and Location
REF: p. 1039
11. The dense, white, fibrous capsule that encases each testis is called the: a. rete testis. b. efferent ductule. c. tunica albuginea. d. scrotum. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Structure and Location
REF: p. 1039
12. Testosterone: a. inhibits the anterior pituitary secretion of FSH and LH. b. helps regulate metabolism and stimulates protein anabolism. c. promotes kidney tubule secretion of potassium. d. does all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Functions
REF: p. 1043
13. In the male, LH: a. stimulates the seminiferous tubules to produce sperm more rapidly. b. inhibits the secretion of FSH from the anterior pituitary. c. stimulates the interstitial cells to increase their secretion of testosterone. d. is referred to as “the anabolic hormone” because of its marked stimulating effect
on protein anabolism. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Functions
REF: p. 1043
14. Which of the following is not an effect of testosterone? a. Promotes excretion of potassium by kidneys b. Promotes anabolism of proteins c. Promotes growth of skeletal muscles d. Promotes lengthening of long bones ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Functions
REF: p. 1043
15. The tightly coiled tube of the epididymis measures _____ feet in length. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: D TOP: Epididymis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1045
16. Mechanical support and protection for developing germ cells in the testis are provided by: a. tunica albuginea. b. Sertoli cells. c. interstitial cells. d. rete testes. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 17. Which of the following is not a function of testosterone? a. Initiation of spermatogenesis b. Development of secondary male sex characteristics c. Regulation of metabolism d. Inhibition of secretion of gonadotropins
REF: p. 1040
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Functions
REF: p. 1043
18. To be capable of fertilizing an ovum, sperm must undergo a process called: a. epiphyseal closure. b. ejaculation. c. capacitation. d. gonadotropin secretion. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
19. Each of the following is a duct in the male reproductive system except: a. vas deferens. b. urethra. c. epididymis. d. inguinal canal. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
20. Normally, capacitation occurs in sperm: a. in the testes. b. in the vas deferens. c. in the urethra. d. after they have been introduced into the vagina of the female. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
21. In spermatozoa, a helical arrangement of mitochondria is located in the: a. acrosome. b. head. c. cylindrical middle piece. d. tail. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
22. As part of the maturation process, sperm will stay in the epididymis for: a. 1 to 3 days. b. 4 to 7 days. c. 1 to 3 weeks. d. 1 to 2 months. ANS: C TOP: Epididymis
DIF: Memorization
23. The duct of the vas deferens is an extension of the: a. tail of the epididymis. b. urethra. c. ejaculatory duct. d. seminal vesicles.
REF: p. 1045
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
REF: pp. 1045-1046
24. In the male, the urethra is: a. involved in the reproductive system. b. involved in the urinary system. c. classified as a genital duct. d. all of the above. ANS: D TOP: Urethra
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1047
25. The structure that connects the epididymis with the ejaculatory duct is the: a. urethra. b. vas deferens. c. seminal vesicle. d. scrotum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Ejaculatory Duct
REF: p. 1047
26. The temperature required for sperm production is about _____ normal body temperature. a. 10 degrees below b. 3 degrees below c. 10 degrees above d. 3 degrees above ANS: B TOP: Scrotum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1048
27. The opening of the urethra at the tip of the glans is called the: a. prepuce. b. external urinary meatus. c. corpora cavernosa. d. glans penis. ANS: B TOP: Penis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1049
28. The urethra runs through the center of the: a. seminal vesicle. b. Cowper gland. c. bulbourethral gland. d. prostate gland. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostate Gland
REF: p. 1047
29. The male gland that secretes a fructose sugar used as an energy source for sperm is the: a. prostate gland. b. bulbourethral gland. c. seminal vesicle.
d. Cowper gland. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Seminal Vesicles
REF: p. 1047
30. The gland that secretes an alkaline substance that constitutes about 30% of the seminal fluid is
the: a. b. c. d.
seminal vesicle. Cowper gland. bulbourethral gland. prostate gland.
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostate Gland
REF: p. 1047
31. Contraction of both the dartos and cremaster muscles, which pull the testes upward against the
perineum, is caused by: a. sexual arousal. b. cold temperatures. c. urination. d. both A and B. ANS: D TOP: Scrotum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1048
32. The foreskin in the male is also known as the: a. glans penis. b. urinary meatus. c. scrotum. d. prepuce. ANS: D TOP: Penis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1049
33. Which of the following is a part of the supporting structures of the male reproductive system? a. Scrotum b. Spermatic cord c. Prostate d. Seminal vesicle ANS: A TOP: Scrotum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1048
34. The main factor determining male fertility is the: a. size of the sperm. b. number of sperm ejaculated. c. shape of the sperm. d. motility of the sperm. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Fertility
REF: p. 1050
35. Which of the following is not enclosed in the spermatic cord?
a. b. c. d.
Vas deferens Ejaculatory ducts Blood vessels Nerves
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Spermatic Cords
REF: p. 1049
36. Which of the following glands is not a paired accessory gland of the male reproductive
system? a. Prostate b. Seminal vesicle c. Bulbourethral gland d. Cowper gland ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
37. Leydig cells is another name for: a. sustentacular cells. b. rete testis. c. interstitial cells. d. none of the above. ANS: C TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1040
38. Sertoli cells is another name for: a. interstitial cells. b. sustentacular cells. c. rete testis. d. tunica albuginea. ANS: B TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1040
39. Which of the following is true of the essential organ in the reproductive system? a. It produces gametes. b. It is called the testis in the male. c. It is called the gonad in both sexes. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
40. The number of spermatids formed by one primary spermatocyte is: a. 2. b. 4. c. 6. d. 8. ANS: B TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1043
41. Which of the following cells contain 46 chromosomes? a. Sperm cells b. Primary spermatocytes c. Secondary spermatocytes d. Spermatids ANS: B TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1043
42. Which of the following is not true of FSH? a. It is produced in the anterior pituitary gland. b. It increases the production of sperm. c. It stimulates the secretion of testosterone. d. Its secretion is inhibited by high testosterone levels. ANS: C TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1043
43. Which of the following statements is not true about the fluid produced by the seminal
vesicles? a. It contains prostaglandins. b. It is alkaline and viscous. c. It contains glucose as an energy source for sperm cells. d. All of the above are true about the fluid produced by the seminal vesicles. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Accessory Reproductive Glands
REF: p. 1047
44. Which of the following statements is not true about prostate cancer? a. It is the most common nonskin cancer in American men. b. The cancer can sometimes be detected by palpation. c. The PSA test is used to detect prostate cancer. d. All of the above are true about prostate cancer. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostate Cancer Screening
REF: p. 1048
45. Which of the following statements is not true of the bulbourethral gland? a. It joins the urethra at the prostate gland. b. It is also called the Cowper gland. c. It is a compound tubuloalveolar gland. d. It produces an alkaline secretion in semen. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Accessory Reproductive Glands 46. Which structure is not found in the scrotum? a. Testes b. Seminal vesicles c. Lower part of the spermatic cord d. Epididymis
REF: p. 1048
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Supporting Structures of the Male Reproductive System
REF: p. 1048
47. Functional sterility results when the sperm count per milliliter falls below _____ million. a. 10 b. 25 c. 100 d. 150 ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Fertility
REF: p. 1050
48. Which term means “hidden testis”? a. Oligospermia b. Phimosis c. Cryptorchidism d. Spermatogonia ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the Testes
REF: p. 1051
49. The male perineum extends from the pubis anteriorly to what structure posteriorly? a. Base of the scrotum b. Coccyx c. Anus d. Gluteal folds ANS: B TOP: Perineum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1039
50. The function of Reinke crystalloids in the Leydig cells is: a. to initiate the release of testosterone. b. to assist in the process of spermatogenesis. c. to communicate with Sertoli cells. d. uncertain at this time. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes
REF: p. 1040
51. Which of the following is not a function of the Sertoli cells? a. They produce testosterone. b. They produce androgen-binding protein. c. They form the blood-testis barrier. d. All of the above are functions of the Sertoli cells. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes
REF: p. 1041
52. Which of the following is not true of interstitial cells? a. They produce testosterone. b. They contain Reinke crystalloids that appear after puberty. c. They form the blood-testis barrier. d. All of the above are true of the interstitial cells.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes
REF: p. 1043
53. What reproductive duct is divided into the head, body, and tail? a. Vas deferens b. Ejaculatory duct c. Epididymis d. Seminal vesicle ANS: C TOP: Epididymis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1045
54. What reproductive duct has thick, muscular walls and can be palpated in the scrotal sac as a
smooth, movable cord? a. Vas deferens b. Ejaculatory duct c. Epididymis d. Seminal vesicle ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
REF: pp. 1045-1046
55. What reproductive duct is a short tube about 1 cm long that passes through the prostate gland
to terminate in the urethra? a. Vas deferens b. Ejaculatory duct c. Epididymis d. Seminal vesicle ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Ejaculatory Duct
REF: p. 1047
56. The main advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is: a. only one parent is needed. b. all the offspring are identical. c. there is greater diversity in the offspring. d. more offspring are produced. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Sexual Reproduction
REF: p. 1039
57. Which of the following ducts are not paired? a. Urethra b. Ejaculatory duct c. Vas deferens d. Both A and B ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
58. When the tight junctions of the sustentacular cells divide the seminiferous tubules into two
compartments:
a. b. c. d.
meiotically active cells are near the basement membrane. meiotically active cells are near the lumen. spermatogonia are near the lumen. both A and C are true.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes
REF: p. 1042
59. When a male baby was born, the pediatrician discovered that the baby’s left testicle had not
descended into the scrotum. If the situation is not corrected soon, might the baby be sterile? a. No, because the higher temperature inside the body cavity promotes spermatogenesis and will not impair fertility. b. No, because the lower temperature inside the body cavity promotes spermatogenesis and will not impair fertility. c. Yes, because the higher temperature inside the body cavity inhibits spermatogenesis, which could result in permanent sterility if untreated. d. Yes, because the higher temperature inside the body cavity inhibits the secretion of testosterone by interstitial or Leydig cells in the testes, which could result in permanent sterility if untreated. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1051
TOP: Disorders of the Testes
60. Which statement is the best explanation of “immune infertility”? a. The sperm contains hyaluronidase and other hydrolytic enzymes that destroy the
female ovum. b. Once the egg and the sperm join, an antigen-antibody reaction occurs, which kills
the sperm. c. An allergy to the female egg results in female infertility. d. Antigen-antibody reaction in males causes destruction of sperm, resulting in
infertility. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1050
TOP: Male Fertility
61. Why is it important for adult men to have a regular prostate screening test? a. Death from prostate cancer can be reduced if detected early enough for effective
treatment. b. Advanced cancerous growths in the gland cannot often be palpated through the
wall of the rectum, and the lab tests will show whether metastatic tumors have started to grow. c. The prostate-specific antigen, or PSA, test will show whether there is a decrease in testosterone, which leads to cancer growth. d. Testing will show that an excess level of citrate found in the prostate fluid is a sign of cancer. ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1048
TOP: Diagnostic Study
TRUE/FALSE 1. In both sexes, the essential organs of reproduction are the testes. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1039
TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 2. Seminal vesicles convey sperm to the outside of the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
3. The bulbourethral glands are a supporting structure of the male reproductive system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
4. The perineum in the male extends from the symphysis pubis anteriorly and to the coccyx
posteriorly. ANS: T TOP: Perineum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1039
5. The penis is classified as an accessory organ of reproduction in the male. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
6. The prostate and the testes are essential organs of reproduction in males. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
7. The major function of the reproductive system is propagation of the species. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1039
8. The sustentacular cells produce and secrete testosterone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
9. The left testis is generally located about 1 cm lower in the scrotal sac than the right. ANS: T TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1039
10. Cells of Leydig produce both sperm and testosterone. ANS: F TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1040
11. Testosterone has a marked inhibiting effect on protein anabolism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Functions
REF: p. 1043
12. A high blood concentration of testosterone stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete both
FSH and LH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Functions
REF: p. 1043
13. Testosterone is responsible for producing secondary sex characteristics. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Functions
REF: p. 1043
14. Androgenic hormones are masculinizing hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Functions
REF: p. 1043
15. The anatomical structure of an epididymis consists of a head, neck, body, and tail. ANS: F TOP: Epididymis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1045
16. The acrosomal cap of the sperm contains a hydrolytic enzyme necessary for penetrating the
egg. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
17. Sperm consist of a head, middle piece, and tail. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
18. In a spermatozoon, a highly compact package of genetic chromatin material is located in the
cylindrical middle piece. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
19. Capacitation of sperm occurs as they pass through the genital ducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
20. Each epididymis consists of a single, tightly coiled tube enclosed in a fibrous casing. ANS: T TOP: Epididymis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1045
21. A vasectomy involves severing the ejaculatory ducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
REF: p. 1047
22. One function of an epididymis is to serve as a maturation area for sperm. ANS: T TOP: Epididymis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1045
23. A vasectomy involves the severing of the epididymis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
REF: p. 1047
24. The muscular layers of the vas deferens help in propelling sperm through the duct system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
REF: p. 1046
25. The vas deferens acts as a storage area and a conduction pathway for sperm. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
REF: p. 1047
26. Sperm may remain in the vas deferens for over 3 weeks with no loss of fertility. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
REF: p. 1047
27. The acidity of the female vaginal tract can increase sperm motility. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 1047, 1048 TOP: Seminal Vesicles | Bulbourethral Glands 28. Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in American men. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostate Screening
REF: p. 1048
29. An enlargement of the prostate may cause urinary retention. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostate Gland
REF: p. 1047
30. The fructose found in the liquid secreted by the seminal vesicles serves as an energy source
for sperm motility after ejaculation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Seminal Vesicles
REF: p. 1047
31. The corpus spongiosum of the penis contains the male urethra. ANS: T TOP: Penis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1049
32. Filling of the erectile tissue in the penis is necessary for coitus to occur. ANS: T TOP: Penis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1049
33. The prostate gland is a supportive structure of the male reproductive system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
34. The seminal vesicle secretes about 35% of the semen volume. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 1047, 1048 TOP: Seminal Vesicles | Bulbourethral Glands 35. The dartos and cremaster muscles contract in response to both cold temperatures and sexual
arousal. ANS: T TOP: Scrotum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1048
36. The greatest percentage of seminal fluid volume is secreted in the seminal vesicles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition and Course of Seminal Fluid
REF: p. 1049
37. In a warm environment, the scrotum elevates and becomes heavily wrinkled, effectively
pulling the testes upward toward the body wall. ANS: F TOP: Scrotum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1048
38. Secretions from the seminal vesicles contribute about 60% of the seminal fluid volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition and Course of Seminal Fluid
REF: p. 1049
39. Erection is the result of a sympathetic reflex activity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Neural Control of the Male Sex Act
REF: p. 1050
40. Emission and ejaculation refer to the same physiological process. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Neural Control of the Male Sex Act
REF: p. 1050
41. Most cases of cryptorchidism can be successfully treated with the use of estrogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the Testes
REF: p. 1051
42. Millions of sperm are required for a man to be considered fertile. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Fertility
REF: p. 1050
43. Emission is always followed by ejaculation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Neural Control of the Male Sex Act
REF: p. 1050
44. Leydig cells and Sertoli cells are different names for the same structure. ANS: F TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1040
45. The tight junctions of the blood-testes barrier prevent the autoimmune reaction against sperm
cells. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1043
TOP: Testes
46. The anterior pituitary gland and the testes is one of the few positive feedback mechanisms in
the body. ANS: F TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1044
47. Sperm cells are functionally incomplete at the time of ejaculation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
48. Sperm carry DNA in a structure called the acrosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
49. The epididymis and seminiferous tubules are about the same length. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes | Epididymis
REF: pp. 1040 ,1045
50. After about 6 weeks, any unused sperm are broken down by the epididymis. ANS: F TOP: Epididymis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1045
51. The ampulla of the vas deferens joins with the duct from the seminal vesicle to form the
ejaculatory duct. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
REF: p. 1046
52. The prostate gland produces about 30% of the seminal fluid volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostate Gland
REF: p. 1047
53. The citrate found in prostatic fluid is a nutrient for sperm cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostate Gland
REF: p. 1047
54. The perineum is a supporting structure of the male reproductive system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
55. The perineum is an accessory organ of the male reproductive system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
56. The lateral boundaries of the perineum are the ischial tuberosities. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
57. A line drawn between the ischial tuberosities divides the perineum into the larger anal triangle
and the smaller urogenital triangle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
58. The urogenital triangle of the perineum contains the penis and scrotum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
59. The testicular blood vessels pass through the spermatic cord. ANS: T TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1039
60. Each testis is divided into 50 or 60 cone-shaped lobules. ANS: F TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1039
61. Testes are small ovoid glands that measure about 4 to 5 cm in length. ANS: T TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1039
62. Sertoli cells form tight junctions that divide the wall of the seminiferous tubule into four
compartments. ANS: F TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1042
63. The rete testis refers to a group of highly branched blood vessels that serve the interior of the
testes. ANS: F TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1040
64. The testes have two functions: spermatogenesis and the secretion of hormones. ANS: T TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 1041, 1042
65. Testosterone promotes bone growth and closure of the epiphyses. ANS: T TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1043
66. Testosterone plays a part in fluid and electrolyte balance. It stimulates the kidneys to excrete
sodium. ANS: F TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1043
67. A negative feedback mechanism exists between the testes and the hypothalamus in the
regulation of testosterone. ANS: F TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1044
68. The cylindrical middle piece of a sperm provides the sperm with energy for locomotion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
69. The cylindrical middle piece of a sperm contains mitochondria. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
70. The tail of a sperm appears to be a typical flagellum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
71. The epididymis is an extension of the tail of the vas deferens. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1045
TOP: Reproductive Ducts 72. The wall of the vas deferens has two layers of muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Reproductive Ducts
REF: p. 1046
73. The ampulla is a portion of the epididymis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Reproductive Ducts
REF: p. 1046
74. The ampulla is a portion of the vas deferens. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reproductive Ducts
REF: p. 1046
75. The ejaculatory ducts pass through the prostate and terminate in the ureter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Reproductive Ducts
REF: p. 1047
76. A vasectomy is usually performed by making a small incision at the base of the penis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
REF: p. 1047
77. A vasectomy is done to inhibit sperm production, which causes sterility. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
REF: p. 1047
78. The PSA test is used to detect testicular cancer before a lump can be felt. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostate Cancer Screening
REF: p. 1048
79. The PSA test is used in the detection of prostate cancer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostate Cancer Screening
REF: p. 1048
80. The penis is composed of four cylindrical masses of erectile tissue—two corpus cavernosa
and two corpus spongiosa. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Supporting Structures of the Male Reproductive System
REF: p. 1049
81. Functionally, the scrotum is necessary to ensure the testes can be maintained at a slightly
higher temperature than normal body temperature. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1048
TOP: Supporting Structures of the Male Reproductive System 82. The optimal temperature for the formation of sperm is about 3o C below normal body
temperature. ANS: T TOP: Scrotum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1048
83. The total contribution of the epididymis and bulbourethral gland to the production of semen is
less than 10%. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition and Course of Seminal Fluid
REF: p. 1049
84. Healthy males produce the hormone estrogen. ANS: T TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1044
85. Most of the estrogen found in males is made in the interstitial cells of the testes. ANS: F TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1044
86. Most of the estrogen found in males is probably made in the liver or other tissues. ANS: T TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1044
87. A high sperm count is necessary for fertilization because the outer layer of the ovum needs to
be digested and requires more than one sperm. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
88. One type of infertility occurs when a female makes an antibody against her partner’s sperm
cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Fertility
REF: p. 1050
89. The sperm surface antigen, FA-1, can trigger antibody production in the male, which results in
infertility. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Fertility
REF: p. 1050
90. The terms infertility and sterility have different functional meanings. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the Male Reproductive System
REF: p. 1052
91. The usual treatment for phimosis is circumcision. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the Male Reproductive System
REF: p. 1052
92. Impotence is caused by a reduction in the production of sperm cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the Male Reproductive System
REF: p. 1052
93. In a vasectomy, the vas afferens is cut so the sperm cannot reach the ejaculatory duct. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
REF: p. 1047
94. Most of the head of the sperm is made up of the sperm nucleus, which is released into the
ovum during fertilization. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
95. Each testis is encased by a white fibrous capsule called the tunica albuginea. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Structure and Location
REF: p. 1039
96. Interstitial cells are also called Sertoli cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes
REF: p. 1040
97. Reinke crystalloids are a unique cellular feature of Leydig cells that appear after puberty. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes
REF: p. 1040
98. Androgen-binding protein is a substance produced by the Sertoli cells that increases the
concentration of testosterone in the seminiferous tubules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes
REF: p. 1041
99. One function of testosterone is to stimulate the kidney tubules to excrete potassium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Functions
REF: p. 1043
100. In both males and females, the essential organs of reproduction are called gonads. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
101. One important difference between asexual and sexual reproduction is that in asexual
reproduction the offspring have more variation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sexual Reproduction
REF: p. 1039
102. One important difference between asexual and sexual reproduction is that in asexual
reproduction there is one parent and in sexual reproduction there are two parents. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sexual Reproduction
REF: p. 1039
103. The gonads of both males and females produce gametes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs
REF: p. 1039
104. The rete testis is drained by the efferent ductules into the vas deferens. ANS: F TOP: Testes
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1040
105. Nurse cells, Sertoli cells, and sustentacular cells are different names for the same cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes
REF: p. 1040
106. Sustentacular cells produce the hormone inhibin that inhibits FSH secretions, which reduces
sperm production. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes
REF: p. 1041
107. If the anabolic steroid testosterone is taken at a young age, the epiphyses of the bones will
continue to grow and the person will grow taller. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Functions
REF: p. 1043
108. One reason androgen-binding protein is needed to make testosterone more water soluble is
that testosterone is a lipid and is not very soluble in water. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 1040, 1043 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes | Testes Functions 109. The urethra passes through an opening in the prostate gland. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostate Gland 110. Another term for the Cowper glands is the seminal vesicle.
REF: p. 1047
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Bulbourethral Glands
REF: p. 1048
111. The tunica vaginalis is a serous membrane that surrounds the testes. ANS: T TOP: Scrotum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1048
112. Sexual maturity and the ability to reproduce occur at puberty. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sexual Reproduction
REF: p. 1039
113. When the nucleus of the sperm unites with the nucleus of the egg, the nucleus of a new
offspring cell is formed. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
114. Progesterone and other molecules released by cells surrounding the ovum suppress the
motility of sperm so that they stay in the area of the egg. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
REF: p. 1044
115. The bulbourethral glands are about the size and shape of a pea with a duct about 1 inch long
connecting them to the urethra. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Bulbourethral Glands
REF: p. 1048
116. The distal part of the corpus spongiosum overlaps the terminal end of the two corpora
cavernosa to form a slightly bulging structure called the prepuce. ANS: F TOP: Penis
DIF: Memorization
MATCHING
Match each of the terms with its corresponding definition. a. Semen b. Androgen c. Testes d. Prostate e. Gamete f. Testosterone g. Gonads h. Spermatogenesis i. Bulbourethral j. Spermatozoon k. Vas deferens
REF: p. 1049
l. Seminal vesicles m. Sustentacular cells n. Epididymis o. Penis p. Scrotum q. Genitalia r. Corpus cavernosum 1. Tightly coiled tube in which sperm mature and develop the ability to swim; lies along the top 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
and behind the testes Male sex hormone produced by interstitial cells in the testes Gland located below the bladder Elongated cells to which spermatids become attached Sex glands in which gametes are formed Another name for Cowper gland Male gonads Male organ of copulation General term for the masculinizing hormone Pouchlike sac containing the testes The male reproductive cell or gamete External reproductive organs Production of sperm cells Sex cell Male reproductive fluid Duct connecting the epididymis and the ejaculatory duct Paired glands that contribute a fluid rich in fructose to seminal fluid One of the masses of erectile tissue in the penis
1. ANS: N DIF: Memorization TOP: Epididymis 2. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Functions 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostate Gland 4. ANS: M DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 5. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 6. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Bulbourethral Glands 7. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 8. ANS: O DIF: Memorization TOP: Penis 9. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive System 10. ANS: P DIF: Memorization TOP: Scrotum 11. ANS: J DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1045 REF: p. 1043 REF: p. 1047 REF: p. 1043 REF: p. 1039 REF: p. 1048 REF: p. 1039 REF: p. 1049 REF: p. 1041 REF: p. 1048 REF: p. 1044
12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa ANS: Q DIF: Memorization TOP: Penis ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Functions ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Epididymis ANS: K DIF: Memorization TOP: Male Reproductive Organs ANS: L DIF: Memorization TOP: Seminal Vesicles ANS: R DIF: Memorization TOP: Penis
REF: p. 1049 REF: p. 1043 REF: p. 1039 REF: p. 1045 REF: p. 1039 REF: p. 1047 REF: p. 1049
OTHER 1. Describe the functions of the testes. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1043
TOP: Testes Functions
2. Explain the negative feedback mechanism that controls the anterior pituitary gland secretion
of LH and the interstitial cell secretion of testosterone. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1043
TOP: Testes Functions
3. Describe the structure of spermatozoa and give the function of each part. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1044
TOP: Structure of Spermatozoa
4. Define the term vasectomy. What does this procedure accomplish? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
REF: p. 1045
5. Describe methods used to detect prostate cancer. Why is it important for adult men to have
regular prostate examinations?
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1048
TOP: Prostate Cancer Screening
6. Explain structure and the function of the scrotum. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1048
TOP: Scrotum
7. Define the terms erection, emission, and ejaculation. Include in each definition the neural
control involved. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1050 TOP: Neural Control of the Male Sexual Response 8. Explain why millions of sperm must be released for fertilization to occur even though usually
only one sperm fertilizes an ovum. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1050
TOP: Male Fertility
9. Explain what is meant by “immune infertility.” ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1050
TOP: Male Fertility
10. What is cryptorchidism? Explain the potential effect of it when not corrected. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1051
TOP: Disorders of the Testes
11. Describe the macroscopic and microscopic structure and location of the testes. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes Structure and Location
REF: p. 1039
12. Describe the structure and function of the sustentacular cells.
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1040 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 13. List and describe the reproductive ducts of the male reproductive system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1045
TOP: Reproductive Ducts
14. Name and describe the accessory reproductive glands in the male reproductive system, and
explain what each secretes. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Accessory Reproductive Glands
REF: p. 1047
15. Explain the difference between sexual and asexual reproduction. What effect does this have
on the offspring and what advantage does sexual reproduction have in regard to survival of the offspring? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1039
TOP: Sexual Reproduction
16. Name and give the function of the hormones that regulate the male reproductive system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1043
TOP: Testes Functions
ESSAY 1. When baby Steven was born, the pediatrician discovered that Steven’s left testicle had not
descended into the scrotum. If the situation is not corrected soon, might the baby be sterile or impotent, and why or why not? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1051
TOP: Disorders of the Testes
2. Jack went to his physician to request a vasectomy. His physician asked him to consider this
decision very carefully and explained to Jack that this operation was very difficult to reverse. List the anatomical structures that form the pathway that sperm and seminal fluid follow from the seminal tubules to the external urethral orifice. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 1045
TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens)
Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not an accessory sex organ of the female reproductive system? a. Ovary c. Fallopian tube b. Vagina d. Mammary glands ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Female Reproductive System
REF: p. 1058
2. The tube connecting the ovaries to the uterus is called the: a. uterine tubes. c. fallopian tubes. b. oviducts. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Uterine Tubes
REF: p. 1059
3. Which of the following structures is not classified as internal genitals of the female
reproductive system? a. Ovaries b. Uterine tubes
c. Vagina d. Vulva
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Female Reproductive System 4. The fundus of the uterus is the: a. lower, narrow section. b. area above where the tubes enter. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1059
c. central portion. d. opening into the uterus. REF: p. 1062
5. The layer of the uterus from which tissue is sloughed during menstruation is the: a. endometrium. c. parietal peritoneum. b. myometrium. d. visceral peritoneum. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
6. The layer that is incomplete because it covers none of the cervix and only part of the body is
called the: a. parietal peritoneum. b. myometrium. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
c. endometrium. d. symphysis pubis. REF: p. 1063
7. Which of the following is not a division of the uterine tubes (fallopian tubes)? a. Isthmus c. Ampulla b. Fundus d. Infundibulum
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes 8. The process of egg formation is called: a. ovulation. b. oogenesis.
REF: p. 1064
c. fertilization. d. germination.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1062
9. The uterus is suspended between two folds of parietal peritoneum that form a partition across
the pelvic cavity. These ligaments are _____ ligaments. a. round c. anterior and posterior b. uterosacral d. broad ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Position of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
10. Which of the following uterine ligaments form a deep pouch known as the posterior
cul-de-sac of Douglas? a. Broad b. Uterosacral
c. Posterior d. Anterior
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Position of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
11. The region between the vaginal orifice and the anus is called the: a. mons pubic. c. labia minora. b. labia majora. d. perineum. ANS: D TOP: Perineum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1066
12. Which of the following is not true concerning the uterus? a. It produces estrogen. b. It sloughs compact and spongy layers of lining tissue. c. It is the site for embryo implantation. d. Uterine muscle contraction expels the infant. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Uterus
REF: p. 1064
13. The funnel-shaped, open-ended portion of the oviduct is called the: a. isthmus. c. infundibulum. b. ampulla. d. fimbriae. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes
REF: p. 1065
14. Fertilization of an ovum most often occurs in the: a. ovary. c. uterus. b. fallopian tube. d. vagina. ANS: B
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1065
TOP: Functions of the Uterine Tubes 15. Each of the following structures is a part of the vulva except the: a. mons pubis. c. perineum. b. labia majora. d. clitoris. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva
REF: p. 1066
16. The greater vestibular glands are also called _____ glands. a. Bartholin c. Skene b. Cowper d. Huntington ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva
REF: p. 1068
17. The urethral orifice is _____ to the vagina opening. a. posterior c. medial b. anterior d. lateral ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva 18. Salpingitis is inflammation of the: a. ovaries. b. fallopian tubes.
REF: p. 1068
c. uterus. d. vagina.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes
REF: p. 1081
19. The division of the uterine tube that has an outer margin that resembles a fringe is called the: a. isthmus. c. infundibulum. b. ampulla. d. oviduct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes
REF: p. 1065
20. The final stage in the process of ovarian follicle development is the: a. corpus hemorrhagicum. c. corpus albicans. b. corpus luteum. d. mature follicle. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1069
21. Which of the following is not true of the vagina? a. It can act as a receptacle for seminal fluid from the male. b. It serves as the lower part of the birth canal. c. It is a passageway for urine. d. It acts as an excretory duct for uterine secretions. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Vagina
REF: p. 1066
22. The part of the vulva that is composed of erectile tissue and is located just behind the junction
of the labia minora is called the: a. mons pubis. b. clitoris.
c. urinary meatus. d. labia majora.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva
REF: p. 1067
23. Which of the following hormones causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts, making it
accessible for the infant? a. Progesterone b. Oxytocin
c. Prolactin d. Estrogen
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Breasts
REF: p. 1076
24. The hormone that causes the alveoli of the mammary glands to secrete milk is: a. estrogen. c. prolactin. b. oxytocin. d. estrogen. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Breasts
REF: p. 1076
25. During a 28-day menstrual cycle, ovulation would be most likely to occur on day _____ of the
cycle. a. 3 b. 8
c. 14 d. 21
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1062
26. The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is the same as the: a. ovulatory phase. c. postmenstrual phase. b. menstrual period. d. postovulatory phase. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1069
27. The phase of the menstrual cycle that occurs between the expulsion of the ovum from the
ovary and the onset of menses is the _____ phase. a. proliferative c. luteal b. follicular d. estrogenic ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1070
28. The hormone that causes the follicle to rupture and the egg to be expelled is: a. luteinizing hormone (LH). c. estrogen. b. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). d. progesterone. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle
REF: p. 1070
29. The postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle is also called:
a. menses. b. the follicular phase.
c. the preovulatory phase. d. the luteal phase.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1072
30. Which of the following is not a synonym for the premenstrual phase? a. Postovulatory phase c. Secretory phase b. Luteal phase d. Estrogen phase ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1072
31. What is the name of the so-called ovulating hormone? a. Estrogen c. Luteinizing hormone b. Progesterone d. Follicle-stimulating hormone ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle
REF: p. 1071
32. Shortly before menstruation: a. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease. b. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase. c. blood levels of FSH stabilize. d. the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle
REF: p. 1072
33. The average age at which menopause occurs is _____ years. a. 40 c. 45 to 50 b. 60 to 65 d. 55 ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Menarche and Menopause
REF: p. 1075
34. A high blood concentration of estrogens: a. stimulates endometrial glands to secrete. b. stimulates epithelial cells of the endometrium to proliferate. c. stimulates FSH secretion by the anterior pituitary. d. causes development of the corpus luteum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle
REF: p. 1069
35. The increase in blood estrogens during the postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle
produces all of the following changes in the uterus except: a. growth of both the endometrial glands and the spiral arteries of the endometrium. b. decreased myometrial contractions. c. proliferation of endometrial cells producing a thickening of the endometrium. d. All of the above occur because of the increase in estrogen. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle
REF: p. 1069
36. During the postovulatory phase of the cycle, the greatest percentage of progesterone is
produced by the: a. corpus albicans. b. corpus luteum.
c. primary graafian follicle. d. uterus.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Endometrial or Menstrual Cycle
REF: p. 1070
37. The female reproductive system differs from the male reproductive system in that it: a. produces gametes. b. provides protection for the developing offspring. c. provides nutrition to the developing offspring. d. does both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Female Reproductive System
REF: p. 1079
38. Which of the following is not part of the primary egg follicle? a. Germinal epithelium b. Oocyte c. Follicular cells d. All of the above are part of the primary egg follicle. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1061
39. Which of the following does not contribute to the increase in the thickness of the
endometrium during the endometrial cycle? a. Growth of the endometrium b. Fluid retention in the endometrium c. Endometrial gland growth d. All of the above contribute to the increase in the thickness of the endometrium during the endometrial cycle. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1063
40. Which of the following organs is not considered part of the “duct system” of the female
reproductive system? a. Vagina b. Uterine tubes c. Uterus d. All of the above are considered part of the “duct system.” ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Female Reproductive System
REF: p. 1058
41. Which of the following structures is not in the urogenital triangle of the perineum? a. Anus c. Vaginal orifice b. Labia d. Urinary opening ANS: A
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1060
TOP: Perineum 42. Which of the following is not true of the ovaries? a. They are located on either side of the uterus. b. They are attached to the mesovarial ligament. c. They are attached to the uterine ducts. d. All of the above statements are true of the ovaries. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1060
43. Which of the following structures is not involved with the development of the ova in the
ovary? a. Corpus albicans b. Follicular cells c. Zona pellucida d. All of the above structures are involved in the development of the egg cell. ANS: A TOP: Ovaries
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1069
44. Which of the following functions is not usually associated with the uterus? a. Menstruation b. Fertilization c. Gestation d. All of the above functions are associated with the uterus. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Uterus
REF: p. 1064
45. Going from the ovary to the uterus, the sequence of the divisions of the uterine tubes is: a. isthmus, ampulla, fimbriae, and infundibulum. b. ampulla, isthmus, infundibulum, and fimbriae. c. fimbriae, infundibulum, ampulla and isthmus. d. fimbriae, ampulla, isthmus, and infundibulum. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes
REF: p. 1065
46. Which of the following glands is not part of the vulva? a. The greater vestibular glands b. Skene glands c. Bartholin glands d. All of the above glands are part of the vulva. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva
REF: p. 1066
47. Which of the following statements is not true about the mechanism controlling lactation? a. The anterior pituitary secretes prolactin. b. The posterior pituitary secretes oxytocin. c. Prolactin stimulates the ejection of milk into the ducts of the mammary glands. d. All of the above statements are true about the mechanism controlling lactation.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms Controlling Lactation
REF: p. 1068
48. Which of the following is the least predictable method of determining ovulation time? a. The measurement of LH in the urine b. The length of previous cycles c. The change in basal body temperature d. All of the above methods are equally accurate in determining ovulation time. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Fertility Signs Used in Predicting Ovulation
REF: p. 1070
49. An episiotomy is an incision made: a. through the body of the uterus. b. through the cervix of the uterus. c. in the perineum. d. None of the above correctly describes an episiotomy. ANS: C TOP: Perineum
DIF: Memorization
50. An ectopic pregnancy can occur in the: a. uterus. b. pelvic cavity.
REF: p. 1060
c. uterine tubes. d. Either B or C are correct.
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1061
51. Which of the following is not found in the medulla of the ovary? a. Lymphatics b. Ovarian follicles c. Blood vessels d. All of the above are found in the medulla of the ovary. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1061
52. Which of the following is not a function of the ovary? a. It produces estrogen. b. It produces ova. c. It produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). d. All of the above are functions of the ovary. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1062
53. Which of the following is not a layer of the endometrium of the uterus? a. Stratum myometrium c. Stratum spongiosum b. Stratum compactum d. Stratum basale ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Walls of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
54. The inner most layer of the wall of the uterus is the stratum: a. myometrium. c. spongiosum. b. compactum. d. basale. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Walls of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
55. Which part of the uterus opens into the vagina? a. Fundus c. External os b. Cervical canal d. Internal os ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cavities of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
56. Which of the following ligaments does not assist in holding the ovaries in place? a. Broad c. Ovarian b. Mesovarian d. Round ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Ovaries 57. The medulla of the ovary contains: a. theca cells b. granulosa cells
REF: p. 1060
c. blood vessels and lymphatics d. both A and B.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1061
58. Which of the following ligaments that support the uterus is a single ligament? a. Broad c. Round b. Posterior d. Uterosacral ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Position of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
59. At puberty, the reproductive hormones stimulate the organs of the reproductive tract. Which
statement best describes what happens to the ovaries at this time? a. The ovaries become functional and produce mature ova one at a time. b. The mature follicles will stop developing, and luteinizing hormone (LH) levels required to initiate ovulation do not occur. c. Supraovulation will occur to increase chances of pregnancy. d. The ovaries begin a process of involution that results in a decrease in size and position deep in the pelvis. ANS: A DIF: Application TOP: Female Reproductive System
REF: p. 1079
60. What are the factors that explain why a woman is fertile only a few days out of each monthly
cycle? a. (1) Sperm usually cannot survive in the female reproductive tract for more than a few days, (2) an ovum must unite with a sperm during the first 24 hours after ovulation, before it reaches the uterus, so it will be ready for implantation, and (3) the cyclical mechanisms of female reproductive function limit the release of ova.
b. (1) Sperm usually cannot survive in the female reproductive tract for more than 24
hours, (2) an ovum must unite with a sperm within the first 12 hours after ovulation, before it reaches the uterus, so it will be ready for implantation, and (3) the cyclical mechanisms of female reproductive function limit the release of ova. c. (1) Sperm usually cannot survive in the female reproductive tract for more than a few days, (2) an ovum must unite with a sperm within 12 hours after ovulation, before it reaches the uterus, so it will be ready for implantation, and (3) the cyclical mechanisms of female reproductive function limit the release of ova. d. (1) Sperm usually cannot survive in the female reproductive tract for more than 12 hours, (2) an ovum must unite with a sperm immediately after ovulation, before it reaches the uterus, so it will be ready for implantation, and (3) the cyclical mechanisms of female reproductive function limit the release of ova. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1079 TOP: Importance of Female Reproductive Cycles 61. Why might salpingitis cause infertility? a. The ovaries will not produce an ovum. b. It can cause obstruction of the lumen and marked dilation at the end of the uterine
tube, preventing the ovum from entering the uterine tube. c. The uterus is prevented from forming a protective sac for the ovum. d. It causes a decrease in lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), which is needed to release
the ovum from the ovaries. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1082
TOP: Wall of the Uterine Tubes
62. It is not uncommon for at least some fibers of the levator ani to become stretched or damaged
in women who have experienced vaginal delivery of a full-term infant. What are the possible results of this damage? a. Urinary or fecal incontinence, dysmenorrhea, or salpingitis b. Prolapse of the uterus into the vagina, rectal prolapse through the anus, or hydrosalpinx c. Prolapse of the uterus into the vagina, rectal prolapse through the anus, or salpingitis d. Urinary or fecal incontinence, prolapse of the uterus into the vagina, or rectal prolapse through the anus ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1066
TOP: Location of the Vagina
TRUE/FALSE 1. Mammary glands are considered accessory organs of the female reproductive system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Female Reproductive System
REF: p. 1059
2. The mammary glands are essential organs of reproduction in women. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Female Reproductive System
REF: p. 1076
3. Retroflexion, or backward flexion, is the normal position of the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Position of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
4. A prolapsed uterus results from weakening of the supporting ligaments of the uterus, which
permits retroflexion (backward tilt) and descent of the uterus into the vagina. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Position of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
5. The fringelike projections, called fimbriae, are located in the ampulla of the uterine tubes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes
REF: p. 1065
6. The wide upper portion of the uterus is called the cervix. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1062
7. The external os opens into the vagina. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
8. The posterior ligament forms a deep pouch known as the perineal body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Position of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
9. The uterine tubes are extensions of the uterus that communicate with the vagina and vulva. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Uterine Tubes
REF: p. 1064
10. The ovaries are also endocrine organs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1062
11. The vagina is a tubular organ situated anterior to the urethra and bladder and posterior to the
rectum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Vagina
REF: p. 1066
12. The ovaries are attached to the oviducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1064
13. Ova are produced in the germinal epithelial layer of the ovary. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1065
14. After the oocyte is released from the ovary, it is known as an ovum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1061
15. The “G spot” is synonymous with the clitoris in the female. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The “G Spot”
REF: p. 1066
16. The vagina is composed mainly of skeletal muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vagina
REF: p. 1066
17. The mons pubis is a skin-covered pad of fat over the symphysis pubis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva
REF: p. 1066
18. The greater vestibular glands in the female are homologous to the bulbourethral glands in the
male. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva
REF: p. 1067
19. Bartholin gland is homologous to the bulbourethral gland in the male. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva
REF: p. 1068
20. The clitoris is homologous to the corpora cavernosa and the glans of the penis in the male. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva
REF: p. 1068
21. In light-skinned women, the areola and nipple of the breasts change color from pale pink to
brown early in pregnancy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Breasts
REF: p. 1077
22. The mammary glands produce the hormones progesterone and prolactin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Breasts
REF: p. 1078
23. Human milk provides infants with immunity to all diseases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Breasts
REF: p. 1078
24. Breast size basically determines the functional ability of the breast. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Location and Size of the Breasts
REF: p. 1076
25. As part of the mechanisms that control lactation, estrogen acts on the progesterone-primed
breasts to promote completion of the development of the ducts and development of the alveoli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Breasts
REF: p. 1078
26. The main hormone produced by the growing primary follicle is progesterone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1069
27. During the postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle, the blood level of estrogen is high
because of the secretion from the developing follicle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1069
28. The corpus luteum secretes mostly estrogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle
REF: p. 1071
29. The postmenstrual phase is also called the proliferative phase. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1069
30. The anterior pituitary gland secretes estrogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle
REF: p. 1071
31. The placenta functions as the site of exchange of materials between mother and offspring. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Uterus
REF: p. 1078
32. A woman is fertile throughout her menstrual cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1069
33. Climacteric is another name for menarche. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Menarche and Menopause
REF: p. 1069
34. The ruptured primary follicle becomes the corpus luteum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1069
35. FSH stimulates the rupturing of the mature follicle and the expulsion of its ovum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle
REF: p. 1069
36. As part of the cyclical changes occurring in the uterus, both estrogen and progesterone cause
an increase in myometrial contractions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle
REF: p. 1069
37. Birth control pills prevent pregnancy by preventing implantation of the fertilized ovum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Methods of Contraception
REF: p. 1075
38. After menopause, the follicular cells are extremely sensitive to the increased gonadotropin
levels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Menarche and Menopause
REF: p. 1075
39. For reproduction to occur successfully, two systems involving two different individuals must
function properly. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1058
TOP: Introduction
40. The female reproductive system can provide nutrition for the offspring even after birth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1058 TOP: Functions of the Female Reproductive System | Functions of the Breasts 41. The ovaries resemble almonds in size and shape and are located behind the uterus and above
the uterine tubes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1059
42. The lack of attachment between the uterine tubes and the ovaries makes it possible for an
ectopic pregnancy to occur in the pelvic cavity.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1061
43. The antrum is the shell-like covering surrounding the developing oocyte. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1062
44. Ovulation is the event that ends the process of oogenesis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1062
45. The fundus of the uterus is part of the body of the uterus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1062
46. The uterine tubes enter the uterus at the top of the fundus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1064
47. The stratum compactum attaches the endometrium to the myometrium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1062
48. The endometrium is about 10 times thicker near the end of the endometrial cycle than just
after the menstrual flow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
49. The cervical canal is between the external os and the vagina. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
50. The uterus is held in the normal position by four pairs of uterine ligaments. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Position of the Uterus
REF: p. 1062
51. Womb is another name for the uterus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Uterus
REF: p. 1064
52. The time it takes for a fertilized egg to develop in the uterus is called gestation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Uterus
REF: p. 1064
53. Another name for the uterine tubes is the fallopian tubes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Uterine Tubes
REF: p. 1064
54. The uterine tubes have the same three tissue layers as the uterus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes
REF: p. 1064
55. Each breast has 5 to 10 lactiferous ducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Breasts
REF: p. 1077
56. Climacteric is another name for menopause. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1069
57. The meiotic division differs from the mitotic division in that in the mitotic division, the
number of chromosomes is reduced by half. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Ovarian Cycle
REF: p. 1069
58. Most of the increase in thickness of the endometrium after ovulation occurs as a result of fluid
retention. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1069
59. A function of the female reproductive system is to ensure the continued existence of the
genetic code. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Female Reproductive System
REF: p. 1079
60. Organs can be classified as essential or accessory reproductive organs depending on how
directly they are involved with producing offspring. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Female Reproductive System
REF: p. 1058
61. A line drawn between the two ischial tuberosities divides the perineum into a urogenital and
anal triangle. ANS: T TOP: Perineum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1060
62. The perineum has great clinical importance because of the danger of it being torn during
childbirth. ANS: T TOP: Perineum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1060
63. An episiotomy is routinely done to prevent damage to the perineum during childbirth. ANS: F TOP: Perineum
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1060
64. The development of the fetus in a location other than the uterus is called an ectopic
pregnancy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1061
65. The ovarian follicles are located in the layer of connective tissue in the ovaries called the
tunica albuginea. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1061
66. The ovaries are similar to the testes in that they produce both reproductive cells and
hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1062
67. The endometrium is attached to the myometrium by the stratum compactum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1062
68. The myometrium is thickest at the cervix and thinnest at the fundus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1062
69. The parietal peritoneum is incomplete because it covers the entire cervix but only part of the
body of the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
70. The internal os is formed by the opening of the uterine tubes into the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
71. The cervical canal is bordered by the internal os above and the external os below.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
72. “Uterine milk” is produced by the placenta while it is in the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
73. The sloughing of the myometrial layer of the uterus occurs about once every 28 days. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus | Functions of the Uterus
REF: p. 1064
74. Salpingitis may readily spread to become peritonitis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes
REF: p. 1064
75. Tubal ligation can be used to improve fertility. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Tubal Ligations
REF: p. 1065
76. The hymen is a fold of mucous membrane that forms a border around the opening of the
cervix. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vagina
REF: p. 1066
77. An imperforate hymen may prevent the escape of menstrual flow from the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vagina
REF: p. 1066
78. Although the clitoris is in some ways homologous to the penis, no structure in the vulva is
homologous to the scrotum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva
REF: p. 1068
79. Both estrogen and progesterone stimulate the growth of the ducts of the mammary glands. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Location and Size of the Breasts
REF: p. 1076
80. The process of lactation is an example of hormonal permissiveness because estrogen permits
progesterone to have its full effect. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Breasts 81. Milk production begins shortly after the beginning of labor.
REF: p. 1079
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Breasts
REF: p. 1079
82. In the female, meiotic division of the egg cell begins before birth and is not completed until
fertilization. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1079
83. The corpus albicans gradually diminishes until it becomes the corpus luteum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1079
84. After ovulation, the endometrium grows another 2 to 3 mm because of rapid cell proliferation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1069
85. The estrogenic phase follows ovulation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1069
86. The luteal phase follows ovulation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles
REF: p. 1069
87. The low body fat in some female athletes may cause amenorrhea. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Sports Triad in Elite Female Athletes
REF: p. 1080
88. Long-term amenorrhea may be linked to the development of osteoporosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Sports Triad in Elite Female Athletes
REF: p. 1080
89. The myometrium contracts mildly but frequently after ovulation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Myometrial Cycle
REF: p. 1070
90. One effect of estrogen is increase of myometrial contractions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle
REF: p. 1072
91. One effect of progesterone is increase of myometrial contractions. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1072
TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 92. Hormonal methods of contraception work by using the negative feedback system that controls
the female reproductive cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Methods of Contraception
REF: p. 1075
93. The hormones in the contraceptive pills and implants can have widespread side effects on
systems other than the reproductive system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Methods of Contraception
REF: p. 1075
94. The average age of both menarche and menopause has decreased in recent years. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Menarche and Menopause
REF: p. 1075
95. After menopause, the production of estrogen and gonadotropin drop off drastically. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Menarche and Menopause
REF: p. 1076
96. Like many other organs in the body, the ovaries consist of two major layers of tissue—the
cortex and the medulla. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1061
97. Another name for the primary follicle is the graafian follicle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1062
98. The granulose cells secrete the zona pellucida, which is a clear, gel-like shell that surrounds
the oocyte. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1062
99. The peristalsis of the muscle layer in the uterine tube moves the ovum from the ovary to the
uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Histology of the Uterine Tubes
REF: p. 1065
100. Besides the nutritional and immunity advantages of nursing, nursing may enhance the
emotional bond between mother and child. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Importance of Lactation
REF: p. 1079
101. Failure to conceive after 1 year of regular unprotected intercourse is the definition of sterility. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Infertility and Use of Fertility Drugs
REF: p. 1072
102. The ultimate effect of the fertility drug Clomid is to cause the pituitary to release FSH and
LH. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Infertility and Use of Fertility Drugs
REF: p. 1073
103. The gonads of the female are the ovaries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Female Reproductive System
REF: p. 1058
104. The accessory organs of the female reproductive system include the uterine tubes, uterus,
vagina, and vulva. The uterine tubes and uterus are considered the internal genitals and the vagina and vulva are considered the external genitals. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Female Reproductive System
REF: p. 1059
105. Ovaries are anchored by the mesovarian and ovarian ligaments. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1060
106. The outer layer of theca cells in the ovary produce an androgen that is converted to estrogen
by the granulosa cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1062
107. A clump of granulosa cells called cumulus cells attach the oocyte to the follicle when it is
surrounded by fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1062
108. After ovulation, the corpus luteum secretes inhibin, which inhibits uterine contraction so the
fertilized ovum has a better chance of successful implantation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1062
109. Going from closest to the myometrium to the cavity of the uterus, the layers of the
endometrium are stratum basale, stratum compactum, and stratum spongiosum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Walls of the Uterus
REF: p. 1063
110. Going from medial to lateral, the parts of the uterine tubes are isthmus, ampulla, and
infundibulum. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Divisions of the Uterine Tube
REF: p. 1065
111. As an oocyte matures, it moves to the medulla of the ovary to complete its development. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1069
TOP: Ovarian Cycle
112. The endometrium of the uterus increases in size until ovulation and then slowly decreases in
size until menstruation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Endometrial or Menstrual Cycle
REF: p. 1069
113. Ovulation always occurs on the 14th day of the menstrual cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Endometrial or Menstrual Cycle
REF: p. 1069
114. The spike in estrogen on about day 12 of the menstrual cycle stimulates the LH surge, which
triggers ovulation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Cyclical Changes in the Ovaries
REF: p. 1071
115. Changes in the uterus are influenced most by estrogen in the preovulatory phase and by
progesterone in the postovulatory phase. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Cyclical Changes in the Uterus
REF: p. 1071
116. The release of LH from the anterior pituitary is a rare example of a positive feedback loop in
the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of Cyclical Changes in Gonadotropin Secretions
REF: p. 1071
117. The medulla of the ovary contains the primary oocytes that will eventually develop into the
ova, the female gamete. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1061
118. Cumulus cells secrete progesterone, which helps attract sperm toward the ovum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries
REF: p. 1061
119. The uterine tubes are about 4 inches long and are located at the upper free margin of the broad
ligament. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Uterus
REF: p. 1062
120. Fertilization usually occurs in the infundibulum of the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Function of the Uterine Tubes
REF: p. 1065
121. Functions of the vagina include being a receptacle for semen and being the last part of the
birth canal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Vagina
REF: p. 1066
122. The clitoris contains erectile tissue that becomes filled with blood during the sexual response. ANS: T TOP: Vulva
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1068
123. Prolactin stimulates the myoepithelial cells in the breast to eject milk into the ducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms Controlling Lactation
REF: p. 1078
124. The main lactiferous ducts converge toward the nipple of the breast but empty into lactiferous
sinuses before reaching the nipple. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Breasts
REF: p. 1077
MATCHING
Match each of the terms with its corresponding definition. a. Uterus g. Vagina b. Estrogen h. Uterine tube c. Ovulation i. Lactation d. Vulva j. Progesterone e. Ovary k. Menopause f. Endometrium l. Menstruation 1. External reproductive organ in the female 2. Accessory organ of reproduction in the female; hollow, muscular organ in which a fertilized 3. 4. 5. 6.
egg implants and grows Monthly shedding of the outer layers of the endometrium Innermost lining of the uterus One of a pair of tubes that conduct ova from the ovary to the uterus; also called fallopian tube Female sex hormone secreted by the ovaries; highest levels in the postmenstrual phase of the reproductive cycle
7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Hormone secreted mainly by the corpus luteum Internal tube from the uterus to the vulva Essential organ of reproduction (gonad) in the female; produces ova The secretion of milk for the nourishment of newborn infants Release of ovum at the end of oogenesis Permanent termination of menstrual cycle activity
1. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Female Reproductive System 2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Overview of the Female Reproductive System 3. ANS: L DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles 4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Uterus 5. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Uterine Tubes 6. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Ovaries 7. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 8. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Location of the Vagina 9. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural Plan of the Female Reproductive System 10. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the Breasts 11. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles 12. ANS: K DIF: Memorization TOP: Menarche and Menopause
REF: p. 1059 REF: p. 1058 REF: p. 1069 REF: p. 1062 REF: p. 1064 REF: p. 1062 REF: p. 1071 REF: p. 1065 REF: p. 1058 REF: p. 1078 REF: p. 1069 REF: p. 1075
Match each of the following terms with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Clitoris d. Urinary meatus b. Labia majora e. Vestibule c. Mons pubis 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
The small opening of the urethra, located between the clitoris and the vaginal orifice Area between the labia minora Small organ of erectile tissue Skin-covered pad of fat over the symphysis pubis Homologous to the scrotum in the male
13. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva 14. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva 15. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva 16. ANS: C DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1066 REF: p. 1066 REF: p. 1067 REF: p. 1067
TOP: Structure of the Vulva 17. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the Vulva
REF: p. 1067
Match each of the following terms with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Estrogen d. LH b. FSH e. Progesterone c. GnRH 18. Hormone that causes sloughing of the endometrium when its secretion declines, which results 19. 20. 21. 22.
in menstruation Increased secretion of this hormone from developing follicles causes the endometrium to thicken during the proliferative phase Hormone that results in ovulation when released in a large quantity Hormone that at the time of ovulation acts on immature follicles and causes them to start developing; the follicles mature in the next menstrual cycle Hormone that stimulates the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary gland
18. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles 19. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Recurring Cycles 20. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 21. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 22. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle
REF: p. 1069 REF: p. 1069 REF: p. 1071 REF: p. 1071 REF: p. 1071
Match each phase of the menstrual cycle with its corresponding event. (Assume a normal 28-day cycle.) a. Menses c. Ovulation b. Postmenstrual phase d. Premenstrual phase 23. 24. 25. 26.
Phase during which proliferation of endometrial cells occurs Phase during which the corpus luteum secretes progesterone Phase that occurs frequently on cycle day 14 in a 28-day cycle Phase that occurs on days 1 to 5 of a new cycle
23. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Recurring Cycles 24. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Recurring Cycles 25. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Recurring Cycles 26. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Recurring Cycles OTHER
Memorization
REF: p. 1069
Memorization
REF: p. 1069
Memorization
REF: p. 1069
Memorization
REF: p. 1069
1. What are the main functions of the uterus? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1064
TOP: Functions of the Uterus
2. List and describe the various components of the vulva. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1066
TOP: Structure of the Vulva
3. Discuss the ideas behind predicting the time of ovulation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1062 TOP: Fertility Signs Used in Predicting Ovulation 4. Give an example of how the negative feedback process can influence the release of a
gonadotropin. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1072 TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 5. Explain the physiological basis of why a pill containing estrogen and progesterone can
prevent pregnancy. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1075
TOP: Methods of Contraception
REF: p. 1062
TOP: Structure of the Uterus
REF: p. 1077
TOP: Structure of the Breasts
6. Describe the structure of the uterus. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization 7. Describe the structure of the breasts. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
8. Explain how the process of lactation is regulated. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1078 TOP: Mechanisms Controlling Lactation 9. Explain the importance of lactation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1079
TOP: The Importance of Lactation
10. Describe and give the location of the ovaries. Name and describe the ligaments that hold the
ovaries in place. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1060
TOP: Location of the Ovaries
11. Describe the microscopic structure of the ovaries. Explain the roles of the granulose cells and
the theca cells in the functioning of the ovaries. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 12. Describe the location, structure, and function of the uterine tube. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1064
TOP: Uterine Tubes
13. Describe the endometrial or menstrual cycle. Name and describe the phases in this cycle. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Endometrial or Menstrual Cycle
REF: p. 1069
14. Describe how the cyclic changes in the ovaries are regulated. ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1070 TOP: Control of Cyclical Changes in the Ovaries 15. Describe how the cyclic changes in the uterus are regulated. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1072 TOP: Control of Cyclical Changes in the Uterus ESSAY 1. Describe one complete female reproductive cycle. Include the hormones, their source and
effect, and give an approximate time line for the cycle. Assume that fertilization did not occur. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Knowledge
REF: pp. 1069-76
TOP: Female Reproductive Cycles
Chapter 47: Growth and Development Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Regarding human developmental biology, which of the following statements is (are) true? a. The study of human developmental biology includes the prenatal period. b. The study of human developmental biology includes the postnatal period. c. Human developmental biology is the study of the many changes that occur during
the cycle of life from conception to death. d. All of the above are true regarding human developmental biology. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Introduction to Growth and Development
REF: p. 1091
2. The normal phenomenon of “crossing over” occurs: a. during meiosis I. b. during meiosis II. c. in both meiosis and mitosis. d. in both A and B. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
3. The process of spermatogenesis forms _____ spermatozoa, each with _____ chromosomes. a. two; 23 b. four; 23 c. two; 46 d. four; 46 ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
4. The main difference between oogenesis and spermatogenesis is that in oogenesis: a. the primary oocytes contain 46 chromosomes. b. the cytoplasm is equally divided among the daughter cells. c. meiosis I does not occur. d. only one ovum is produced from each primary oocyte, plus three polar bodies. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
5. After leaving the graafian follicle, the ovum lives approximately _____ day(s). a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: A TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
6. Fertilization takes place in the: a. vagina. b. uterus. c. uterine tube. d. ovary. ANS: C TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
7. Implantation occurs during the _____ stage. a. zygote b. morula c. blastocyst d. trophoblast ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1097
8. The inner cell mass of the blastocyst contains the: a. yolk sac. b. amniotic cavity. c. trophoblast. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1097
9. The solid mass of cells formed when the zygote begins to divide is called the: a. blastocyst. b. trophoblast. c. morula. d. embryo. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1097
10. The structure known as the “bag of waters” is the: a. placenta. b. amniotic cavity. c. yolk sac. d. chorion. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1097
11. Which of the following is not a function of the placenta? a. Excretory organ b. Respiratory organ c. Endocrine organ d. Barrier to alcohol ANS: D TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1098
12. The normal length of gestation for humans is approximately _____ weeks. a. 37 b. 39 c. 41 d. 43 ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Periods of Development
REF: p. 1102
13. The chorion, which develops from the trophoblast, becomes: a. an important fetal membrane in the placenta. b. the inner cell mass. c. the amniotic cavity. d. the yolk sac. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1098
14. The secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) by the placental tissue peaks about
_____ weeks after fertilization. a. 2 to 3 b. 3 to 4 c. 8 to 9 d. 13 to 14 ANS: C TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1099
15. The function of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is to: a. act as a gonadotropin. b. stimulate the corpus luteum. c. maintain high luteal estrogen and progesterone levels. d. do all of the above. ANS: D TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1099
16. All organ systems are formed and functioning by the _____ month of fetal development. a. second b. third c. fourth d. fifth ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Periods of Development
REF: p. 1102
17. In the developing human embryo, the heart begins to beat at about _____ weeks. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Periods of Development
REF: p. 1102
18. Which of the following is derived from mesoderm during embryonic development? a. Bones and muscles b. Epithelium of GI tract c. Nervous tissue and skin d. Nervous tissue and bones ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers
REF: p. 1103
19. The primary germ layer that forms many of the structures around the periphery of the body is
the: a. b. c. d.
endoderm. mesoderm. ectoderm. epiderm.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers
REF: p. 1103
20. Histogenesis may be defined as the process during which: a. implantation occurs. b. the tissues arrange themselves into organs. c. the primary germ layers develop into many different kinds of tissues. d. both B and C occur. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis
REF: p. 1106
21. The third stage of labor is the: a. period of uterine contractions until dilation of the cervix is complete. b. period of maximal cervical dilation. c. period when the baby exits the vagina. d. process of expulsion of the placenta through the vagina. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages of Labor
REF: p. 1108
22. In most cases, stage one of labor lasts from _____ hours. a. 2 to 4 b. 6 to 12 c. 6 to 24 d. 24 to 36 ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages of Labor
REF: p. 1109
23. Identical twins result from the: a. splitting of embryonic tissue from the same zygote early in development. b. inner cell mass dividing into two masses during the blastocyst stage of
development.
c. fertilization of two different ova by two different spermatozoa. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiple Births
REF: p. 1110
24. The second stage of labor is the: a. period from the onset of contractions until dilation of the cervix is complete. b. period from the time of maximal cervical dilation until the baby exits through the
vagina. c. point at which the amniotic sac ruptures. d. process of expulsion of the placenta through the vagina. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages of Labor
REF: p. 1109
25. As the body develops, the: a. head becomes proportionately smaller. b. face decreases from one half to one eighth of the skull surface. c. trunk becomes proportionately longer. d. thoracic and abdominal contours become more rounded. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Postnatal Period
REF: p. 1110
26. Birth weight generally doubles during the first _____ months and then _____. a. 3; triples by 1 year b. 4; triples by 1 year c. 6; doubles again by 1 year d. 6; triples by 18 months ANS: B TOP: Infancy
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1111
27. At what age do boys generally complete rapid growth stage? a. 12 b. 14 c. 16 d. 18 ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Adolescence and Adulthood
REF: p. 1112
28. At what age do girls generally begin to menstruate? a. 10 b. 12 to 13 c. 14 d. 15 to 16 ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Adolescence and Adulthood 29. Fraternal twins:
REF: p. 1112
a. b. c. d.
have only one placenta. have two placentas. must always have the same biological father. are genetically identical.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiple Births
REF: p. 1110
30. During infancy, the lumbar curvature appears between the _____ months. a. second and fourth b. fourth and sixth c. sixth and tenth d. twelfth and eighteenth ANS: D TOP: Infancy
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1111
31. An infant is able to follow a moving object with its eyes by the end of the _____ month. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: B TOP: Infancy
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1111
32. The deciduous teeth: a. begin to appear at about 6 months of age. b. are lost during childhood. c. start to erupt at about 6 years of age. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D TOP: Childhood
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1112
33. Between the ages of 30 and 75, the number of nephron units in the kidney decreases by
almost: a. 20%. b. 30%. c. 40%. d. 50%. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Urinary System
REF: p. 1116
34. The condition caused by buildup of fatty deposits in blood vessel walls is: a. arteriosclerosis. b. atherosclerosis. c. myocardial infarction. d. hypertension. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiovascular System
REF: p. 1116
35. Clouding of the lens of the eye is called: a. presbyopia. b. myopia. c. glaucoma. d. cataract. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Special Senses
REF: p. 1117
36. The most serious age-related eye disorder is: a. presbyopia. b. glaucoma. c. cataract. d. hyperopia. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Special Senses
REF: p. 1117
37. If a creature had 36 chromosomes in its normal body cells, its gametes would contain _____
chromosomes. a. 72 b. 36 c. 18 d. 9 ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1091
TOP: Meiosis
38. If a creature had 36 chromosomes in its normal body cells, the zygote of the creature would
contain _____ chromosomes. a. 72 b. 36 c. 18 d. an indeterminable number of ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1091
TOP: Meiosis
39. The most potent stem cells, those that can generate many types of human tissue, can be found
in the: a. red bone marrow. b. zygote c. blastocyst stage. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: B TOP: Stem Cells
DIF: Memorization
40. DNA replication occurs during: a. prophase I. b. prophase II. c. interphase before prophase I. d. both A and B.
REF: p. 1103
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
41. Crossing over occurs to: a. reduce the chromosome number in a gamete. b. assist in tetrad formation. c. allow chromatin to condense into chromosomes. d. transfer genes from one chromosome to another. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
42. After puberty, about how many primary oocytes resume meioses each month? a. 10 b. 100 c. 1000 d. 10,000 ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
43. At ovulation, the ovum is at which stage of meiosis? a. Telophase II b. Anaphase II c. Telophase I d. None of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
44. In the female reproductive system, which of the following does not assist the sperm in
reaching the egg? a. Cilia in the uterine tubes b. Polar bodies produced by the egg c. Mucus strands in the cervical canal d. All of the above assist the sperm in reaching the egg. ANS: B TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1093
45. Meiosis I produces what in oogenesis? a. Ovum b. Primary polar body c. Primary oocyte d. Both B and C ANS: B TOP: Oogenesis
DIF: Memorization
46. The sequence of early development of the fetus is: a. morula, zygote, and blastocyst. b. zygote, morula, and blastocyst. c. zygote, blastocyst, and morula.
REF: p. 1093
d. morula, blastocyst, and zygote. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1097
47. A nonfunctioning yolk sac could hinder the fetus in: a. receiving proper nutrition. b. producing blood cells. c. receiving enough oxygen. d. all of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1098
48. Which of the following hormones is not produced by the placenta? a. FSH b. hCG c. Estrogen d. All of the above hormones are produced by the placenta. ANS: A TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1110
49. Which of the following structures is not formed by the endoderm? a. Tonsils b. Kidneys c. Lining of the pancreatic duct d. Glandular epithelium of the thyroid gland ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers
REF: p. 1103
50. Which of the following structures is not formed by the mesoderm? a. Skeletal muscles b. Bones c. Kidneys d. All of the above structures are formed by the mesoderm. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers
REF: p. 1106
51. Which of the following structures is not formed by the ectoderm? a. Cornea of the eye b. Dermis of the skin c. Brain d. Enamel of the teeth ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers
REF: p. 1103
52. Which of the following conditions associated with the eye does not directly involve the lens? a. Glaucoma b. Presbyopia
c. Cataracts d. All of the above conditions directly involve the lens. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Special Senses
REF: p. 1117
53. A condition in which the placenta grows too close to the cervical opening is called: a. ectopic pregnancy. b. abruptio placentae. c. placenta previa. d. eclampsia. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 1119
54. A condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall is called: a. ectopic pregnancy. b. abruptio placentae. c. placenta previa. d. eclampsia. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 1119
55. In the human, the haploid number of chromosomes is: a. 23. b. 46. c. the result of meiosis. d. both A and C. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1091
TOP: Production of Sex Cells
56. In the human, the diploid number of chromosomes is: a. 23. b. 46. c. the result of meiosis. d. both B and C. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
57. A tetrad is: a. formed only in spermatogenesis. b. formed only in oogenesis. c. homologous pairs of chromosomes that are moved together. d. None of the above describe a tetrad. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
58. During human oogenesis, which structure contains 46 chromosomes? a. Ovum b. Secondary oocyte
c. First polar body d. Both B and C ANS: D TOP: Oogenesis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1093
59. Theca cells produce: a. an androgen that is converted to estrogen. b. the granulosa cells. c. the oogonia. d. none of the above. ANS: A TOP: Oogenesis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1093
60. Only about what percent of the sperm deposited in the female reproductive tract actually reach
the ovum? a. 10% b. 5% c. 1% d. Less than 0.1% ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1096
TOP: Fertilization
61. At fertilization, what part of the sperm cell enters the egg? a. Nucleus of the sperm b. RNA from the sperm c. Proteins from the sperm d. All of the above ANS: D TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
62. If the process of oogenesis goes to completion, how many polar bodies will be produced? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1093
TOP: Oogenesis
63. What layer of the ovum has receptors for sperm cells? a. Zona pellucida b. Corona radiata c. Theca cells d. Both A and B ANS: D TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
64. The term used for the fertilized ovum is: a. morula. b. zygote.
REF: p. 1096
c. fetus. d. blastocyst. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1097
65. Which of the following describe the development of the female reproductive system? a. Gonads attach to the mesonephrotic duct. b. Gonads attach to the paramesonephrotic duct. c. It develops along with the urethra in the reproductive system. d. Both A and C describe the development of the female reproductive system. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis
REF: p. 1106
66. The primary germ layers developed from stem cells are referred to as: a. omnipotent. b. pluripotent. c. totipotent. d. multipotent. ANS: B TOP: Stem Cells
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1102
67. Stem cells in adults are referred to as: a. totipotent. b. pluripotent. c. multipotent. d. Adults do not have stem cells. ANS: C TOP: Stem Cells
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1102
TRUE/FALSE 1. Mammary glands are considered accessory organs of the female reproductive system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Prenatal Period
REF: p. 1091
2. The mammary glands are essential organs of reproduction in women. ANS: F TOP: Meiosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1091
3. Retroflexion, or backward flexion, is the normal position of the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
4. A prolapsed uterus results from weakening of the supporting ligaments of the uterus, which
permits retroflexion (backward tilt) and descent of the uterus into the vagina.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
5. The fringelike projections, called fimbriae, are located in the ampulla of the uterine tubes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
6. The wide upper portion of the uterus is called the cervix. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
7. The external os opens into the vagina. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Postnatal Period
REF: p. 1091
8. The posterior ligament forms a deep pouch known as the perineal body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1092
9. The uterine tubes are extensions of the uterus that communicate with the vagina and vulva. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Ovulation and Insemination
REF: p. 1096
10. The ovaries are also endocrine organs. ANS: T TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1097
11. The vagina is a tubular organ situated anterior to the urethra and bladder and posterior to the
rectum. ANS: T TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1122
12. The ovaries are attached to the oviducts. ANS: F TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1122
13. Ova are produced in the germinal epithelial layer of the ovary. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1097
14. After the oocyte is released from the ovary, it is known as an ovum. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1097
TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 15. The “G spot” is synonymous with the clitoris in the female. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Spermatogenesis and Oogenesis
REF: p. 1098
16. The vagina is composed mainly of skeletal muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1098
17. The mons pubis is a skin-covered pad of fat over the symphysis pubis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1098
18. The greater vestibular glands in the female are homologous to the bulbourethral glands in the
male. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Developmental Biology
REF: p. 1100
19. Bartholin gland is homologous to the bulbourethral gland in the male. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1097
20. The clitoris is homologous to the corpora cavernosa and the glans of the penis in the male. ANS: T TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1099
21. In light-skinned women, the areola and nipple of the breasts change color from pale pink to
brown early in pregnancy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers
REF: p. 1103
22. The mammary glands produce the hormones progesterone and prolactin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Developmental Biology
REF: p. 1110
23. Human milk provides infants with immunity to all diseases. ANS: F TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1110
24. Breast size basically determines the functional ability of the breast. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1110
TOP: Placenta 25. As part of the mechanisms that control lactation, estrogen acts on the progesterone-primed
breasts to promote completion of the development of the ducts and development of the alveoli. ANS: F TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1110
26. The main hormone produced by the growing primary follicle is progesterone. ANS: F TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1110
27. During the postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle, the blood level of estrogen is high
because of the secretion from the developing follicle. ANS: T TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1110
28. The corpus luteum secretes mostly estrogen. ANS: F TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1110
29. The postmenstrual phase is also called the proliferative phase. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Periods of Development
REF: p. 1102
30. The anterior pituitary gland secretes estrogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Periods of Development
REF: p. 1102
31. The placenta functions as the site of exchange of materials between mother and offspring. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers
REF: p. 1103
32. A woman is fertile throughout her menstrual cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers
REF: p. 1103
33. Climacteric is another name for menarche. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis 34. The ruptured primary follicle becomes the corpus luteum.
REF: p. 1106
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis
REF: p. 1106
35. FSH stimulates the rupturing of the mature follicle and the expulsion of its ovum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages of Labor
REF: p. 1108
36. As part of the cyclical changes occurring in the uterus, both estrogen and progesterone cause
an increase in myometrial contractions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages of Labor
REF: p. 1108
37. Birth control pills prevent pregnancy by preventing implantation of the fertilized ovum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages of Labor
REF: p. 1108
38. After menopause, the follicular cells are extremely sensitive to the increased gonadotropin
levels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages of Labor
REF: p. 1108
39. For reproduction to occur successfully, two systems involving two different individuals must
function properly. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1110
TOP: Multiple Births
40. The female reproductive system can provide nutrition for the offspring even after birth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiple Births
REF: p. 1110
41. The ovaries resemble almonds in size and shape and are located behind the uterus and above
the uterine tubes. ANS: F TOP: Infancy
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1111
42. The lack of attachment between the uterine tubes and the ovaries makes it possible for an
ectopic pregnancy to occur in the pelvic cavity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Adolescence and Adulthood
REF: p. 1112
43. The antrum is the shell-like covering surrounding the developing oocyte. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiple Births
REF: p. 1110
44. Ovulation is the event that ends the process of oogenesis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiple Births
REF: p. 1110
45. The fundus of the uterus is part of the body of the uterus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Postnatal Period
REF: p. 1110
46. The uterine tubes enter the uterus at the top of the fundus. ANS: F TOP: Infancy
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1111
47. The stratum compactum attaches the endometrium to the myometrium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Adolescence and Adulthood
REF: p. 1112
48. The endometrium is about 10 times thicker near the end of the endometrial cycle than just
after the menstrual flow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal System
REF: p. 1115
49. The cervical canal is between the external os and the vagina. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiovascular System
REF: p. 1116
50. The uterus is held in the normal position by four pairs of uterine ligaments. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Reproductive System
REF: p. 1117
51. Womb is another name for the uterus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 1119
52. The time it takes for a fertilized egg to develop in the uterus is called gestation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiovascular System
REF: p. 1116
53. Another name for the uterine tubes is the fallopian tubes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reproductive System
REF: p. 1117
54. The uterine tubes have the same three tissue layers as the uterus.
ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1091
55. Each breast has 5 to 10 lactiferous ducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
56. Climacteric is another name for menopause. ANS: T TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
57. The meiotic division differs from the mitotic division in that in the mitotic division, the
number of chromosomes is reduced by half. ANS: F TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
58. Most of the increase in thickness of the endometrium after ovulation occurs as a result of fluid
retention. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1097
59. A function of the female reproductive system is to ensure the continued existence of the
genetic code. ANS: T TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1098
60. Organs can be classified as essential or accessory reproductive organs depending on how
directly they are involved with producing offspring. ANS: T TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1098
61. A line drawn between the two ischial tuberosities divides the perineum into a urogenital and
anal triangle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages of Labor
REF: p. 1108
62. The perineum has great clinical importance because of the danger of it being torn during
childbirth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiple Births
REF: p. 1110
63. An episiotomy is routinely done to prevent damage to the perineum during childbirth.
ANS: F TOP: Childhood
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1112
64. The development of the fetus in a location other than the uterus is called an ectopic
pregnancy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Adolescence and Adulthood
REF: p. 1113
65. The ovarian follicles are located in the layer of connective tissue in the ovaries called the
tunica albuginea. ANS: T TOP: Stem Cells
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1102
66. The ovaries are similar to the testes in that they produce both reproductive cells and
hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Older Adulthood and Senescence
REF: p. 1114
67. The endometrium is attached to the myometrium by the stratum compactum. ANS: F TOP: Stem Cells
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1102
68. The myometrium is thickest at the cervix and thinnest at the fundus. ANS: F TOP: Stem Cells
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1102
69. The parietal peritoneum is incomplete because it covers the entire cervix but only part of the
body of the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
70. The internal os is formed by the opening of the uterine tubes into the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
71. The cervical canal is bordered by the internal os above and the external os below. ANS: T TOP: Oogenesis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1093
72. “Uterine milk” is produced by the placenta while it is in the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
73. The sloughing of the myometrial layer of the uterus occurs about once every 28 days. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
74. Salpingitis may readily spread to become peritonitis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
75. Tubal ligation can be used to improve fertility. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
76. The hymen is a fold of mucous membrane that forms a border around the opening of the
cervix. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
77. An imperforate hymen may prevent the escape of menstrual flow from the body. ANS: T TOP: Oogenesis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1093
78. Although the clitoris is in some ways homologous to the penis, no structure in the vulva is
homologous to the scrotum. ANS: F TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
79. Both estrogen and progesterone stimulate the growth of the ducts of the mammary glands. ANS: F TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
80. The process of lactation is an example of hormonal permissiveness because estrogen permits
progesterone to have its full effect. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1098
81. Milk production begins shortly after the beginning of labor. ANS: F TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1098
82. In the female, meiotic division of the egg cell begins before birth and is not completed until
fertilization. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1102
TOP: Periods of Development 83. The corpus albicans gradually diminishes until it becomes the corpus luteum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Periods of Development
REF: p. 1102
84. After ovulation, the endometrium grows another 2 to 3 mm because of rapid cell proliferation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis
REF: p. 1107
85. The estrogenic phase follows ovulation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis
REF: p. 1106
86. The luteal phase follows ovulation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages of Labor
REF: p. 1109
87. The low body fat in some female athletes may cause amenorrhea. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiple Births
REF: p. 1110
88. Long-term amenorrhea may be linked to the development of osteoporosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiple Births
REF: p. 1110
89. The myometrium contracts mildly but frequently after ovulation. ANS: F TOP: Infancy
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1111
90. One effect of estrogen is increase of myometrial contractions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Older Adulthood and Senescence
REF: p. 1113
91. One effect of progesterone is increase of myometrial contractions. ANS: F TOP: Progeria
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1113
92. Hormonal methods of contraception work by using the negative feedback system that controls
the female reproductive cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal System
REF: p. 1115
93. The hormones in the contraceptive pills and implants can have widespread side effects on
systems other than the reproductive system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Integumentary System
REF: p. 1116
94. The average age of both menarche and menopause has decreased in recent years. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory System
REF: p. 1116
95. After menopause, the production of estrogen and gonadotropin drop off drastically. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Special Senses
REF: p. 1117
96. Like many other organs in the body, the ovaries consist of two major layers of tissue—the
cortex and the medulla. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Reproductive System
REF: p. 1117
97. Another name for the primary follicle is the graafian follicle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 1119
98. The granulose cells secrete the zona pellucida, which is a clear, gel-like shell that surrounds
the oocyte. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 1119
99. The peristalsis of the muscle layer in the uterine tube moves the ovum from the ovary to the
uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Disease
REF: p. 1119
100. Besides the nutritional and immunity advantages of nursing, nursing may enhance the
emotional bond between mother and child. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Production of Sex Cells
REF: p. 1091
101. Failure to conceive after 1 year of regular unprotected intercourse is the definition of sterility. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Spermatogenesis | Oogenesis
REF: p. 1093
102. The ultimate effect of the fertility drug Clomid is to cause the pituitary to release FSH and
LH.
ANS: T TOP: Oogenesis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1093
103. The gonads of the female are the ovaries. ANS: T TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
104. The accessory organs of the female reproductive system include the uterine tubes, uterus,
vagina, and vulv a. The uterine tubes and uterus are considered the internal genitals and the vagina and vulva are considered the external genitals. ANS: F TOP: Placenta
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1110
105. Ovaries are anchored by the mesovarian and ovarian ligaments. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Periods of Development
REF: p. 1102
106. The outer layer of theca cells in the ovary produce an androgen that is converted to estrogen
by the granulosa cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers
REF: p. 1114
107. A clump of granulosa cells called cumulus cells attach the oocyte to the follicle when it is
surrounded by fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis
REF: p. 1106
108. After ovulation, the corpus luteum secretes inhibin, which inhibits uterine contraction so the
fertilized ovum has a better chance of successful implantation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis
REF: p. 1106
109. Going from closest to the myometrium to the cavity of the uterus, the layers of the
endometrium are stratum basale, stratum compactum, and stratum spongiosum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiple Births
REF: p. 1110
110. Going from medial to lateral, the parts of the uterine tubes are isthmus, ampulla, and
infundibulum. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1091
TOP: Meiosis
111. As an oocyte matures, it moves to the medulla of the ovary to complete its development.
ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1093
TOP: Spermatogenesis
112. The endometrium of the uterus increases in size until ovulation and then slowly decreases in
size until menstruation. ANS: F TOP: Oogenesis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1093
113. Ovulation always occurs on the 14th day of the menstrual cycle. ANS: F TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
114. The spike in estrogen on about day 12 of the menstrual cycle stimulates the LH surge, which
triggers ovulation. ANS: T TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
115. Changes in the uterus are influenced most by estrogen in the preovulatory phase and by
progesterone in the postovulatory phase. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1097
116. The release of LH from the anterior pituitary is a rare example of a positive feedback loop in
the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
REF: p. 1097
117. The medulla of the ovary contains the primary oocytes that will eventually develop into the
ova, the female gamete. ANS: F TOP: Stem Cells
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1102
118. Cumulus cells secrete progesterone, which helps attract sperm toward the ovum. ANS: T TOP: Stem Cells
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1103
119. The uterine tubes are about 4 inches long and are located at the upper free margin of the broad
ligament. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers
REF: p. 1103
120. Fertilization usually occurs in the infundibulum of the uterus. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1106
TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis 121. Functions of the vagina include being a receptacle for semen and being the last part of the
birth canal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Birth or Parturition
REF: p. 1108
122. The clitoris contains erectile tissue that becomes filled with blood during the sexual response. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Older Adulthood and Senescence
REF: p. 1113
123. Prolactin stimulates the myoepithelial cells in the breast to eject milk into the ducts. ANS: F TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
124. The main lactiferous ducts converge toward the nipple of the breast but empty into lactiferous
sinuses before reaching the nipple. ANS: T TOP: Fertilization
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Parturition b. Chorion c. Neonate d. Zygote e. Organogenesis f. Blastocyst g. Gestation h. Morula i. Senescence j. Primary germ layers k. Histogenesis l. Embryology m. Implantation n. Fertilization 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Three layers of specialized cells that give rise to definite structures as the embryo develops Length of pregnancy; approximately 39 weeks in humans Fertilized ovum Study of prenatal development; study of the development of an individual before birth Formation of organs from tissue derived from the primary germ layers of the embryo Post-morula stage of developing embryo; hollow ball of cells Aging; older adulthood Infant during its first 4 weeks of life
9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
When a fertilized ovum attaches to the uterus Develops into an important fetal membrane in the placenta Formation of tissues from the primary germ layers of the embryo Solid mass of cells formed after several divisions of a fertilized egg Moment at which the ovum and sperm unite Giving birth
1. ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Fertilization 2. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Placenta 4. ANS: L DIF: Memorization TOP: Periods of Development 5. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Periods of Development 6. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Birth or Parturition 7. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Multiple Births 8. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1111 9. ANS: M DIF: Memorization TOP: Childhood 10. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 11. ANS: K DIF: Memorization TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis 12. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 13. ANS: N DIF: Memorization TOP: Fertilization 14. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Birth or Parturition
REF: p. 1103 REF: p. 1102 REF: p. 1102 REF: p. 1097 REF: p. 1106 REF: p. 1097 REF: p. 1113 TOP: Postnatal Period REF: p. 1097 REF: p. 1098 REF: p. 1106 REF: p. 1097 REF: p. 1096 REF: p. 1108
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Atherosclerosis b. Arteriosclerosis c. Stroke d. Osteoarthritis e. “Barrel chest” f. Lipping g. Cataract h. Hypertension i. Glaucoma j. Presbyopia 15. “Old eye” 16. Degenerative joint disease 17. Condition in which fatty deposits build up on the walls of blood vessels
18. Disease characterized by an increase in the pressure inside the eyeball; can cause blindness 19. Process by which older bones develop bone margins that become indistinct and 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.
shaggy-appearing Condition that results from clouding of the lens, which causes a loss of transparency that impairs vision “Hardening of the arteries”; occurs when the fatty deposits calcify Results when the costal cartilage connecting the ribs and sternum hardens and the ribs become fixed High blood pressure Results from a ruptured blood vessel in the brain
15. ANS: J DIF: TOP: Special Senses 16. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Skeletal System 17. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Circulatory System 18. ANS: I DIF: TOP: Special Senses 19. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Skeletal System 20. ANS: G DIF: TOP: Special Senses 21. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Circulatory System 22. ANS: E DIF: TOP: Respiratory System 23. ANS: H DIF: TOP: Circulatory System 24. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Circulatory System
Memorization
REF: p. 1117
Memorization
REF: p. 1115
Memorization
REF: p. 1116
Memorization
REF: p. 1117
Memorization
REF: p. 1115
Memorization
REF: p. 1117
Memorization
REF: p. 1116
Memorization
REF: p. 1116
Memorization
REF: p. 1116
Memorization
REF: p. 1116
OTHER 1. Compare and contrast spermatogenesis and oogenesis. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 1091
TOP: Production of Sex Cells
2. Describe (or diagram) the hormone levels during pregnancy. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization 3. Briefly discuss the three stages of labor.
REF: p. 1098
TOP: Placenta
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1108
TOP: Stages of Labor
4. Compare and contrast the two different processes that can result in twinning. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1110
TOP: Multiple Births
5. Discuss the major developmental changes that occur during infancy, childhood, adolescence,
and adulthood. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 1110
TOP: Postnatal Period
6. What is the function of polar bodies in oogenesis? ANS:
Reduction of the chromosome number. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1093
TOP: Oogenesis
7. Some home pregnancy tests measure the amount of hCG in a woman’s urine. Why is this
substance an accurate sign of pregnancy? What structure produces hCG? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1098
TOP: Placenta
8. Explain what occurs in the phases of meiosis. How does this process differ from mitosis? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1091
TOP: Meiosis
9. Explain the process of fertilization. How does the female reproductive system assist the sperm
in reaching the ovum? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1096
TOP: Fertilization
10. Explain the development of the fertilized ovum from the time of fertilization to implantation
in the wall of the uterus.
ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1097
TOP: Cleavage and Implantation
11. What are stem cells? Differentiate between totipotent, pluripotent, and multipotent stem cells.
Which types of stem cells are found in adults? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1102
TOP: Stem Cells
12. Name the three primary germ layers and name several structures or systems that develop from
each. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1103 TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers 13. Select four systems and explain the effects of aging on each system. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1115
TOP: Effects of Aging
14. Explain the theories of aging discussed in this chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Older Adulthood and Senescence
REF: p. 1113
ESSAY 1. Bob has a condition that may require a kidney transplant. He is not concerned because he has
a twin sister and he knows that twins are genetically the same. Is Bob correct in his thinking? Explain why or why not. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1110
TOP: Multiple Births
2. Tommy’s mother told the pediatrician during Tommy’s 1-year visit that he had tripled his
birth weight, was crawling actively, and could stand alone. Is Tommy’s development normal, retarded, or advanced? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1111
TOP: Infancy
3. Polly is 70 years old. She has always enjoyed food and has had a hearty appetite. Lately,
however, she has complained that “food just doesn’t taste as good anymore.” What is a possible explanation? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1117
TOP: Special Senses
4. Stan and Dan are twins. Stan suffers from kidney disease. The physicians said Stan can
receive Dan’s kidney with very little chance of rejection. Explain why. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1110
TOP: Multiple Birth
Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Gregor Mendel began the scientific study of genetics in the: a. 1760s. b. 1800s. c. 1860s. d. 1920s. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: The Science of Genetics
REF: p. 1127
2. Each DNA molecule may be called a: a. chromatin strand. b. chromosome. c. gene. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Gene Function
REF: p. 1127
3. Which of the following is not a true statement? a. The gametes contain only 23 chromosomes. b. A zygote has a haploid number of chromosomes. c. The pair of sex chromosomes may not match. d. The 22 pairs of autosomes always appear to be nearly identical to each other. ANS: B TOP: Meiosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1130
4. The principle of independent assortment states that: a. each offspring from a single set of parents is very likely to be genetically unique. b. genetic variation is likely to occur during reproduction. c. after meiosis, each gamete produced is likely to have a different set of 23
chromosomes. d. all of the above are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Chromosomes to Offspring
REF: p. 1130
5. Crossing over is the process during which: a. similar gametes fuse together. b. dissimilar gametes fuse together. c. meiosis stops after meiosis I. d. pairs of matching chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell and exchange
genes with one another. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Distribution of Chromosomes to Offspring
REF: p. 1130
6. If “A” stands for the dominant gene that prevents albinism and “a” stands for the recessive
albinism trait, then an individual with the genotype of “aa” will express: a. albinism and will be a carrier. b. albinism and will not be a carrier. c. normal pigmentation and will be a carrier. d. normal pigmentation and will not be a carrier. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Hereditary Traits
REF: p. 1131
7. A DNA molecule is a: a. gene. b. chromosome. c. genome. d. gamete. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanism of Gene Function
REF: p. 1127
8. An individual possessing the sex chromosome combination “XY” is genetically: a. a male. b. a female. c. both. d. neither. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
REF: p. 1133
9. Assume that “A1” is the gene for light hair and that “A2” is the gene for dark hair. Also
assume that these genes demonstrate codominance. Then, the heterozygous genotype “A1A2” will exhibit the phenotype of: a. light hair. b. dark hair. c. hair color somewhere between light and dark. d. red hair, because of the phenomenon of crossing over. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Codominance
REF: p. 1132
10. The sickle cell/malaria relationship demonstrates the concept in medical genetics that
“disease” genes: a. are always codominant. b. are never dominant. c. often provide some biological advantage for a human population in certain circumstances. d. never provide a biological advantage for human populations. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Codominance
REF: p. 1132
11. If an individual has only an X chromosome (“XO”), then that person is genetically:
a. b. c. d.
male. female. neither male nor female. The condition of “XO” can never occur.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomal Diseases
REF: p. 1139
12. Red-green color blindness shows X-linked recessive inheritance. Assume “X” is normal, “X1”
is recessive for the trait, and “Y” is normal. Then, an individual with the genotype “XX1” will be a: a. normal female and a carrier. b. color-blind male. c. normal female and not a carrier. d. normal male. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
REF: p. 1133
13. A female can inherit an X-linked recessive trait if her father: a. is dominant and her mother is heterozygous for the trait. b. is dominant and her mother is homozygous for the trait. c. exhibits the trait and her mother is homozygous for the trait. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
REF: p. 1133
14. Which of the following statements is not true of mitochondrial DNA? a. The DNA is in the form of a circle. b. The usual “stop” code in nuclear DNA codes for an amino acid in mitochondrial
DNA. c. The mitochondrial DNA in the zygote comes only from the mother. d. All of the above statements are true of mitochondrial DNA. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance
REF: p. 1137
15. The condition called trisomy results from a(n): a. mistake in mitosis called nondisjunction. b. mistake in meiosis called nondisjunction. c. abnormality in a single gene. d. genetic predisposition. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Nuclear Inheritance
REF: p. 1136
16. Mitochondrial DNA (mDNA): a. is inherited as a result of both the sperm and the ovum. b. has the potential for carrying mutations that produce disease. c. is present only in lower forms of life. d. Both A and B are correct.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance
REF: p. 1137
17. Cystic fibrosis, caused by recessive genes in chromosome pair 7, results in the impairment of
the: a. b. c. d.
chloride ion transport across cell membranes. sodium-potassium pump. calcium-storing capacity of the body. oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
REF: p. 1137
18. All of the following diseases demonstrate single-gene inheritance and are autosomal recessive
except: a. Tay-Sachs disease. b. total albinism. c. Huntington disease. d. severe combined immune deficiency (SCID). ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions
REF: p. 1138
19. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding Tay-Sachs disease? a. Tay-Sachs disease results in the failure to make an essential lipid-processing
enzyme. b. This disease is most prevalent in Jewish populations. c. This disease results in severe retardation and death by age 4. d. All of the above are true regarding Tay-Sachs disease. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
REF: p. 1137
20. A group of symptoms called Down syndrome results from trisomy: a. 15. b. 19. c. 21. d. 23. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomal Diseases
REF: p. 1139
21. The syndrome that results from the genotype “XXY” is: a. Turner. b. Klinefelter. c. Down. d. Parkinson. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomal Diseases
REF: p. 1139
22. Phenylketonuria (PKU), caused by recessive genes in chromosome pair 12, is a condition
characterized by:
a. b. c. d.
impairment of chloride ion transport across all membranes. failure to produce an enzyme needed to generate the amino acid tyrosine. impairment of the blood’s capacity to store oxygen. impairment of the body’s capacity to store calcium.
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
REF: p. 1137
23. A chart that illustrates genetic relationships in a family over several generations is called a: a. Punnett square. b. pedigree. c. genetic grid. d. karyotype. ANS: B TOP: Pedigree
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1141
24. The hypothesis regarding tumor suppressor genes states that these genes: a. can transform a cell into a cancer cell only when certain environmental conditions
occur. b. regulate cell division so that it proceeds normally. c. govern the cell’s ability to repair damaged DNA. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Basis of Cancer
REF: p. 1141
25. An ordered arrangement of photographs of chromosomes from a single cell is called a: a. genome. b. karyotype. c. Punnett square. d. pedigree. ANS: B TOP: Karyotype
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1142
26. In the therapy called gene augmentation: a. genes that specify production of abnormal, disease-causing proteins are replaced
by normal, or “therapeutic,” genes. b. hormones are used to treat the genetic disease. c. diet is used to alleviate the symptoms of the genetic disease. d. genetically altered cells are added to the body. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases
REF: p. 1143
27. About which percentage of the cell’s DNA carry functional genes? a. 1% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50% ANS: A
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1128
TOP: The Human Genome 28. The shorter segment of a chromosome is called the: a. centromere. b. s-arm. c. p-arm. d. q-arm. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
29. “A” is the dominant allele for normal skin color; “a” is recessive for albinism. If a couple
were “AA” and “Aa,” which of the following statements is not true? a. Both parents have the same phenotype. b. Both parents have the same genotype. c. They could not have a child with albinism. d. All of the above are true statements. ANS: B DIF: Application TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits
REF: p. 1131
30. Which of the following is (are) not (a) mutagen(s)? a. Radiation b. Viruses c. Chemicals d. All of the above are mutagens. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Mutations
REF: p. 1135
31. When one or more DNA nucleotides are missing in a gene, it can be called a(n): a. deletion. b. insertion. c. mutation. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Mutations
REF: p. 1135
32. Carriers of cystic fibrosis are thought to be protected from: a. malaria. b. tuberculosis. c. cholera. d. the toxic effects of mold growing on grain. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 33. Carriers of Tay-Sachs disease have a higher resistance to: a. malaria. b. tuberculosis. c. cholera. d. the toxic effects of mold growing on grain.
REF: p. 1137
ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
REF: p. 1139
34. Which of the following conditions does not occur as a result of nondisjunction? a. Tay-Sachs disease b. Down syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomal Diseases
REF: p. 1139
35. A karyotype would not be helpful in determining: a. whether an individual has Down syndrome. b. whether an individual has Turner syndrome. c. whether an individual has PKU. d. the sex of the offspring. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1142
TOP: Karyotype
36. Genes determine the structure and function of the body by regulating the body’s production
of: a. b. c. d.
carbohydrates. lipids. enzymes. all of the above.
ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
REF: p. 1128
37. Which of the following processes does not aid in increasing the genetic variability of
offspring? a. Independent assortment b. Gene linkage c. Crossing over d. All of the above aid in increasing the genetic variation of offspring. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1130 TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment 38. Assume that “A” is dominant for normal skin color and “a” is recessive for albinism. The
parents with which of the following genotypes could have a child with albinism? a. AA x AA b. Aa x AA c. AA x aa d. Aa x Aa ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1132
TOP: Gene Expression
39. The parents with which of the following genotypes could not have a child with albinism? a. AA x aa b. Aa x Aa
c. Aa x aa d. Both B and C ANS: A
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1132
TOP: Gene Expression
40. In human blood type, types A and B are codominant, producing type AB. They are both
dominant to the recessive O type. Which of the following parental genotypes could produce a child with type O blood? a. AB x AO b. AO x BO c. AO x BB d. None of the above genotypes can produce a type O offspring. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1132
TOP: Gene Expression
41. In human blood type, A and B are codominant, producing type AB. They are both dominant to
the recessive O type. If parents had genotypes AO and BO, a child with which blood type could be theirs? a. A child with type A blood b. A child with type B blood c. A child with type O blood d. All of the above children could be theirs. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1132
TOP: Gene Expression
42. Color blindness is a sex-linked trait. Which of the following parental genotypes could produce
a color-blind female? (X’ indicates the color-blind trait.) a. X’X x XY b. XX x X’Y c. X’X x X’Y d. X’X’ x XY ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1134
TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
43. If a man had Leber hereditary optic neuropathy, a mitochondrial DNA-carried disease, what is
the probability of him passing the trait on to his offspring? a. 100% b. 75% c. 0% d. There is not enough information to determine the probability. ANS: C
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1137
TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance
44. Diet soda containing NutraSweet should not be given to people with: a. Tay-Sachs disease. b. phenylketonuria. c. osteogenesis imperfecta. d. Diet soda would have no effect on any of the above conditions. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1137
TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
45. Which of the following diseases is not a single-gene dominant trait? a. Huntington disease
b. Cystic fibrosis c. Osteogenesis imperfecta d. All of the above are single-gene dominant traits. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
REF: p. 1137
46. Which of the following diseases is not a single-gene recessive trait? a. Huntington disease b. Tay-Sachs disease c. PKU d. All of the above are single-gene recessive traits. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions
REF: p. 1139
47. Which of the following diseases is carried by mitochondrial DNA? a. Retinitis pigmentosa b. Severe combined immune deficiency c. Ocular albinism d. None of the above diseases is carried by mitochondrial DNA. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions
REF: p. 1138
48. The genetic code is transmitted to offspring in discrete, independent units that are called: a. chromosomes. b. genes. c. gametes. d. nucleosomes. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
REF: p. 1127
49. The subunits of chromatin wound around a histone protein is called a: a. gene. b. chromosome. c. nucleosome. d. nucleotide. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
REF: p. 1127
50. Which of the following is not a type of RNA? a. Mitochondrial RNA b. Ribosomal RNA c. Transfer RNA d. All of the above are types of RNA. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
REF: p. 1127
51. The entire collection of genetic material in each typical cell of the human body is called:
a. b. c. d.
diploid. haploid. nucleosomes. genome.
ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
52. The human genome contains about _____ genes. a. 200,000 to 300,000 b. 150,000 to 250,000 c. 75,000 to 100,000 d. 20,000 to 25,000 ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
53. Chromosome 1 contains the most number of genes, nearly: a. 3000. b. 2000. c. 1000. d. 5000. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
54. Coding portions of DNA tend to lie in clusters rich in which two nucleotides? a. Thymine and cytosine b. Cytosine and guanine c. Cytosine and adenine d. Thymine and adenine ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
55. Which is a simple cartoon of a chromosome used to show the overall physical structure of a
chromosome? a. Genome b. Transcriptome c. Ideogram d. Karyotype ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
56. The chromosome that has the fewest genes contains only 200 genes and is called: a. chromosome 1. b. chromosome 7. c. Y chromosome. d. X chromosome. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
57. The products of meiosis are: a. gametes. b. haploid cells. c. made only of autosomes. d. both A and B. ANS: D
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1130
TOP: Meiosis
58. In a pedigree, a half-shaded circle indicates a: a. female that is a carrier for a trait. b. male that is a carrier for a trait. c. female with the trait. d. male with the trait. ANS: A TOP: Pedigree
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1142
59. If a pedigree tracing the albinism trait showed a square that was filled in, it would indicate a: a. female had albinism. b. male had albinism. c. female had normal skin color. d. male was a carrier for albinism. ANS: B
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1142
TOP: Pedigree
60. If a karyotype found an X chromosome, a Y chromosome, and three 21st chromosomes, it
would indicate a _____ syndrome. a. female with Down b. female with Turner c. male with Klinefelter d. male with Down ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1140 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases and Karyotype TRUE/FALSE 1. Gregor Mendel proved that “independent units” are responsible for the inheritance of
biological traits. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Science of Genetics
REF: p. 1127
2. Exons are removed from transcribed RNA to form the functional mRNA strand. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Gene Function
REF: p. 1129
3. Every cell in the human body, both male and female, contains 46 chromosomes. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1130
TOP: Meiosis 4. In the human, the 22 pairs of autosomes always appear to be nearly identical to each other. ANS: T TOP: Meiosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1130
5. The principle of independent assortment states that each gamete formed is likely to have the
same set of 23 chromosomes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment
REF: p. 1130
6. Crossing over is a unique phenomenon that prevents genetic variation among offspring of a
single set of parents. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment
REF: p. 1130
7. DNA molecules are segments of a gene. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Gene Function
REF: p. 1127
8. Each offspring from a single set of parents is likely to be genetically unique. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment
REF: p. 1130
9. Gene linkage decreases the likelihood of genetic variation among the offspring of a single set
of parents. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment
REF: p. 1130
10. A person who is heterozygous for albinism will have the abnormal phenotype for the
condition. ANS: F TOP: Dominance
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1132
11. Both males and females have an X chromosome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
REF: p. 1134
12. The X chromosome and the Y chromosome are the same size. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 13. Genetic mutations are always harmful.
REF: p. 1133
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Mutations
REF: p. 1135
14. The manner in which the genotype is expressed is called the phenotype. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Hereditary Traits
REF: p. 1131
15. Sickle cell inheritance is a good example of how codominance works. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Codominance
REF: p. 1132
16. Disease genes never provide biological advantages for human populations, regardless of the
circumstances. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Codominance
REF: p. 1132
17. Theoretically, the best chance for producing a girl infant would be for insemination to occur
on the day of ovulation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Timing and Sex Determination
REF: p. 1133
18. A sperm containing a Y chromosome swims faster than a sperm containing an X
chromosome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Timing and Sex Determination
REF: p. 1133
19. The Y chromosome is larger than the X chromosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
REF: p. 1133
20. The X chromosome contains few genes other than those that determine female sexual
characteristics. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
REF: p. 1133
21. Red-green color blindness, which involves a deficiency of photopigments in the retina, is an
example of a recessive X-linked condition. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
REF: p. 1133
22. A genetic carrier is someone who has the gene but does not express the trait. An example
would be someone who is heterozygous for a dominant/recessive trait.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits
REF: p. 1131
23. Some disease conditions, such as trisomy, always require the combined effects of inheritance
and environmental factors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nuclear Inheritance
REF: p. 1136
24. Mitochondrial inheritance is known to transmit genes for several degenerative nerve and
muscle disorders. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance
REF: p. 1137
25. Phenylketonuria is caused by dominant genes that fail to produce the enzyme phenylalanine
hydroxylase. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
REF: p. 1137
26. Thalassemia is an example of a chromosomal abnormality involving trisomy of the 23rd
chromosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions
REF: p. 1138
27. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a dominant genetic disorder of connective tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions
REF: p. 1138
28. Nondisjunction results in gametes that produce either trisomy or monosomy in the cells of
offspring. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nuclear Inheritance
REF: p. 1136
29. All congenital disorders are inherited disorders. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Congenital Disorders
REF: p. 1136
30. Genetic diseases may be caused by abnormality in a single gene or by a chromosomal defect. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nuclear Inheritance
REF: p. 1136
31. Cystic fibrosis commonly occurs among all ethnic groups. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
REF: p. 1137
32. Tay-Sachs disease is a dominant condition involving failure to make a lipid-producing
enzyme. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
REF: p. 1137
33. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a recessive disorder of connective tissues. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
REF: p. 1137
34. Nondisjunction results in gametes that produce trisomy but not monosomy in the cells of
offspring. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Nuclear Inheritance
REF: p. 1136
35. Chorionic villus sampling is a newer procedure than amniocentesis. ANS: T TOP: Karyotype
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1142
36. After age 35, a mother’s chances of producing a trisomic child increase dramatically. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomal Diseases
REF: p. 1140
37. The genotype XXY results in Turner syndrome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomal Diseases
REF: p. 1140
38. Fortunately, individuals with Klinefelter syndrome generally are not sterile. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomal Diseases
REF: p. 1140
39. One hypothesis regarding cancer involves the presence of oncogenes that, under normal
conditions, regulate cell division so that it proceeds normally. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Basis of Cancer
REF: p. 1141
40. A pedigree is a chart that illustrates genetic relationships in a family over several generations. ANS: T TOP: Pedigree
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1141
41. A karyotype is a grid used to determine the mathematical probability of inheriting genetic
traits.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Punnett Square
REF: p. 1142
42. Fetal tissue can be collected by amniocentesis, a procedure in which fetal cells floating in the
amniotic fluid are collected with a syringe. ANS: T TOP: Karyotype
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1142
43. People who inherit the gene for hemophilia have an increased risk factor for a blood clotting
disease that will express itself in the correct environmental conditions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Science of Genetics
REF: p. 1127
44. Many of the polypeptides formed by encoded genes are enzymes that control and regulate
chemical reactions in the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Gene Function
REF: p. 1127
45. If PKU victims avoid large amounts of phenylalanine in their diets, especially during critical
stages of development, severe complications can be avoided. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases
REF: p. 1143
46. Gene replacement therapy attempts to add genetically altered cells to the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases
REF: p. 1143
47. The ultimate goal behind gene augmentation is to change existing body cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases
REF: p. 1143
48. Because there have been tragic setbacks is some gene therapy clinical trials, there are
presently no approved gene therapies available. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases
REF: p. 1143
49. The inheritance of a genetic risk factor is not sufficient to cause a disease. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1127
TOP: The Science of Genetics
50. The Genome Project discovered that the human genome contains about 30,000 genes, about
three times the number that was expected. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Gene Function
REF: p. 1128
51. Because of our greater complexity, the human genome carries about eight times as many
genes as the fruit fly does. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of Gene Function
REF: p. 1128
52. Genomics is the science of the analysis of the genome’s code. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
53. The proteome is to proteins in the cell what the genome is to the DNA in the cell. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1128
TOP: The Human Genome
54. An ideogram and a pedigree show almost the same information. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
55. The process of mitosis in humans produces gametes that contain only 23 chromosomes. ANS: F TOP: Meiosis
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1130
56. A color-blind woman must have had a color-blind father. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1134
TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
57. Crossing over increases genetic variation by forming new linkage patterns. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1130 TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment 58. People with sickle-cell trait must be heterozygous. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1132 TOP: Codominant Traits | Dominant and Recessive Traits 59. The sickle-cell gene produces an abnormal protein chain in the hemoglobin molecule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Codominance
REF: p. 1132
60. All female gametes carry the X chromosome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
REF: p. 1134
61. A female who is red-green color blind must be heterozygous for the condition.
ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1134
TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
62. A person with heterozygous sex chromosomes is a female. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1134
TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
63. The term mutation simply means “change.” ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Mutations
REF: p. 1135
64. A disease carried on mDNA must be received from the mother. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance
REF: p. 1137
65. For an individual to have Down syndrome, one of the gametes had to have contained 24
chromosomes. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1140
TOP: Chromosomal Diseases
66. A Punnett square or a pedigree can only predict the probability or possibility of passing on a
trait to an offspring. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Pedigree | Punnett Square
REF: p. 1142
67. A Punnett square can be used to detect Down syndrome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Punnett Square | Karyotype
REF: p. 1142
68. Pseudogenes are gene fragments that can be reassembled to form a variety of polypeptides. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
69. A person who received a human-engineered chromosome as a form of gene therapy would
have 47 chromosomes in that cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases
REF: p. 1143
70. One form of gene therapy uses bacteria-like DNA plasmids to carry therapeutic genes to a
cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases
REF: p. 1143
71. A strand of DNA wound around a histone is called a nucleosome. ANS: T
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1127
TOP: Chromosomes and Genes 72. The function of DNA is to transcribe the genetic code to tRNA. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
REF: p. 1127
73. Genes are segments of DNA molecules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
REF: p. 1127
74. Chromatin and chromosomes are both forms of DNA. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
REF: p. 1127
75. The term pedigree refers to the entire collection of genetic material in each typical cell of the
human body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
REF: p. 1141
76. There are 44 autosomes in most human cells. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1130
TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
77. Autosomes not only carry the same genes but also are carried in the same location on the
chromosome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
REF: p. 1130
78. In a dominant/recessive trait, the heterozygous person would look like the homozygous
person. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits
REF: p. 1131
79. Homozygous refers to a trait that is determined by a single gene pair. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits
REF: p. 1131
80. Polygenic traits have more than one gene pair that contributes to their expression. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits
REF: p. 1131
81. The beta chain in hemoglobin remains normal in a person with sickle cell anemia. ANS: F
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1133
TOP: Codominance 82. There are no normal alpha hemoglobin chains in a person with sickle cell anemia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Codominance
REF: p. 1132
83. A person with sickle cell trait has some normal beta hemoglobin chains in his or her blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Codominance
REF: p. 1132
84. The father determines the sex of the offspring. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1133
TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
85. There is no such thing as a heterozygous color-blind female. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1133
TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
86. There is no such thing as a homozygous color-blind female. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1133
TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
87. Statistical evidence supports a link between time of insemination and the sex of the offspring. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Timing and Sex Determination
REF: p. 1133
88. Because the Y chromosome is smaller than the X chromosome, geneticists have found that
only about 25% of the clinically significant sex-linked traits are found on the Y chromosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
REF: p. 1133
89. A mutagen causes a change in the genetic code. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Mutations
REF: p. 1135
90. The terms genetic disorder and congenital disorder are interchangeable. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Congenital Disorders
REF: p. 1136
91. Fetal alcohol syndrome can be classified as both a congenital and genetic disorder. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Congenital Disorders
REF: p. 1136
92. Cleft palate can be classified as both a congenital and genetic disorder.
ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Congenital Disorders
REF: p. 1136
93. Fatal mutations are the least harmful to the population as a whole. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Mutations
REF: p. 1135
94. A genetic disease or condition that requires a specific environmental condition for expression
is called a predisposition. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nuclear Inheritance
REF: p. 1136
95. Trisomy conditions that involve about 75% of the autosomes are fatal to the offspring. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Nuclear Inheritance
REF: p. 1136
96. The sperm cytoplasm rather than the sperm nucleus is responsible for transmission of
mitochondrial DNA. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1137
TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance
97. The egg cytoplasm rather than the egg nucleus is responsible for transmission of
mitochondrial DNA. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance
REF: p. 1137
98. The effect on the body of uncontrolled PKU is damage to the liver and kidneys. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
REF: p. 1137
99. By restricting fat intake, persons with Tay-Sachs disease can successfully manage the disease. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
REF: p. 1138
100. The symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta frequently disappear after puberty. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
REF: p. 1138
101. Transcriptomics is the analysis of all the mRNA codes actually transcribed from the human
genome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1129
102. Klinefelter syndrome can be treated with reproductive and growth hormones.
ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomal Diseases
REF: p. 1140
103. It may be that women of any age have an equal likelihood of nondisjunction, but in younger
women, the fetuses would spontaneously abort. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomal Diseases
REF: p. 1140
104. Oncogenes are altered forms of normal genes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Basis of Cancer
REF: p. 1141
105. Xeroderma pigmentosum is a genetic disease that affects the ability to form pigments in the
eye, leading to color blindness. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Basis of Cancer
REF: p. 1141
106. People with xeroderma pigmentosum have a high risk of developing skin cancer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Basis of Cancer
REF: p. 1141
107. In a pedigree, a partially shaded circle would indicate a female carrier for the trait. ANS: T TOP: Pedigree
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1141
108. In a pedigree, a completely empty square would indicate a male that had the trait. ANS: F TOP: Pedigree
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1141
109. A karyotype is effective only in identifying chromosomal abnormalities. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1142
TOP: Karyotype
110. For a karyotype to be an effective predictor of genetic problems, it must be able to go back
several generations. ANS: F TOP: Karyotype
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1142
111. One specific transcribed mRNA strand will always produce the same polypeptide. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
REF: p. 1127
112. The chromosome with the fewest number of genes is carried by about only half the
population. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
113. Several human genes seem to have originated in bacteria. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1128
TOP: The Human Genome
114. You would expect the p-arm of a chromosome to carry more genes than the q-arm of the
chromosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
115. Only about half of the human population has 23 pairs of chromosomes in their cells. ANS: T
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1130
TOP: Meiosis
116. If a child is albino, at least one of the parents must be albino. ANS: F DIF: Application TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits
REF: p. 1131
117. In determining blood type, type A and type B are codominant to the recessive O type. If one
parent had type A blood and one parent had type B blood, they could not have a child with type O blood. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1131
TOP: Codominant Traits
118. A mutation caused by the loss of nucleotide bases in DNA sequence is called a deletion
mutation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Mutations
REF: p. 1135
119. All mutations are caused by some external force such as radiation or certain viruses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic Mutations
REF: p. 1135
120. The scientific study of inheritance is called genetics. ANS: T TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1127
121. When DNA is in its chromosomal form, it is non-functional. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
REF: p. 1127
122. The human genome contains about 200,000 genes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
123. Most of the coding sections of DNA contain T-A–rich sections. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Human Genome
REF: p. 1128
124. In order for reproduction to be successful, all gametes must be haploid cells. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1130 TOP: Distribution of Chromosomes to Offspring 125. Gene linkage and crossing over have opposite effects on genetic variation. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1130 TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment 126. If a mother is homozygous for normal skin color and the father is albino, none of their
offspring will be albino. ANS: T DIF: Application TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits
REF: p. 1131
127. About 1% of the sperm and 10% of the oocytes have extra, missing, or broken chromosomes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomal Diseases
REF: p. 1140
128. RNA interference, or iRNA, is being studied as a way to treat genetic disorders. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases
REF: p. 1143
129. An adult who is homozygous for Tay-Sachs disease is more resistant to TB. ANS: F
DIF: Application
REF: p. 1135
TOP: Single-Gene Diseases
130. A missing part of the q-arm of the Y chromosome may cause an inherited problem with
spermatogenesis and possible infertility. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Sex-Linked Traits MATCHING
Match each of the terms with its corresponding definition. a. Recessive b. Codominance c. Monosomy
REF: p. 1130
d. Autosome e. Karyotype f. Sex-linked trait g. Dominant h. Trisomy i. Punnett square j. Genome k. Sex chromosome l. Heterozygous m. Homozygous n. Genetics 1. Ordered arrangement of photographs of chromosomes from a single cell; used in genetic
counseling to identify chromosomal disorders 2. Genes that have effects that do not appear in the offspring when they are masked by a 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
dominant gene Type of dominance in which two dominant versions of a trait are both expressed in the same person Triplet of autosomes resulting from a mistake in meiosis One of 44 chromosomes in the human genome besides the two sex chromosomes Grid used in genetic counseling to determine probability of inheriting genetic traits Nonsexual trait carried on sex chromosomes Genotype with two different genes for one trait Genes that have effects that always appears in the offspring Pair of chromosomes in the human genome that determine sex Genotype with two identical genes for a single trait Presence of only one autosome of a pair Entire set of chromosomes in a cell The scientific study of inheritance
1. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Karyotype 2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Codominance 4. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Nuclear Inheritance 5. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Meiosis 6. ANS: I DIF: Memorization TOP: Punnett Square 7. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 8. ANS: L DIF: Memorization TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits 9. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits 10. ANS: K DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1133 REF: p. 1131 REF: p. 1132 REF: p. 1136 REF: p. 1130 REF: p. 1142 REF: p. 1133 REF: p. 1131 REF: p. 1131 REF: p. 1133
11. 12. 13. 14.
TOP: Sex-Linked Traits ANS: M DIF: Memorization TOP: Dominance ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Nuclear Inheritance ANS: J DIF: Memorization TOP: Mapping the Human Genome ANS: N DIF: Memorization TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 1132 REF: p. 1136 REF: p. 1128 REF: p. 1127
Match each condition with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Down syndrome b. Huntington disease c. Klinefelter syndrome deficiency d. Multiple neurofibromatosis e. Parkinson disease f. Retinitis pigmentosa g. Severe combined immune deficiency h. Tay-Sachs disease Caused by the presence of two or more X chromosomes in a male Lymphocytes fail to develop properly Nervous disorder characterized by involuntary trembling and muscle rigidity Condition characterized by mental retardation and multiple defects, caused by trisomy 21 Condition in which abnormal lipids accumulate in the brain and cause tissue damage leading to death by age 4 20. Degenerative brain disorder characterized by chorea, progressing to severe dementia and death generally by age 55 21. Condition that causes blindness; characterized by lumps of melanin in the retina of eyes 22. Disorder characterized by multiple tumors of the Schwann cells that surround nerve fibers 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.
15. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 16. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions 17. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions 18. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 19. ANS: H DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 20. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions 21. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions 22. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions
REF: p. 1140 REF: p. 1138 REF: p. 1138 REF: p. 1140 REF: p. 1137 REF: p. 1138 REF: p. 1138 REF: p. 1138
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Proteome
b. c. d. e. f. g. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29.
Ideogram Genome Genomics P-arm Proteomics Q-arm
Long arm of the chromosome Entire group of proteins encoded by the DNA of a cell Simple cartoon of a chromosome Analysis of proteins encoded by the genome Short arm of the chromosome The entire collection of genetic material in a typical cell Analysis of the genome code
23. ANS: G DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome 24. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome 25. ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome 26. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome 27. ANS: E DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome 28. ANS: C DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome 29. ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: The Human Genome
REF: p. 1130 REF: p. 1130 REF: p. 1130 REF: p. 1130 REF: p. 1130 REF: p. 1130 REF: p. 1130
OTHER 1. When did the scientific study of genetics begin? Give a brief summary of what happened. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1127
TOP: The Science of Genetics
2. Explain the principle of independent assortment. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1130 TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment 3. What is codominance? Give an example of this phenomenon in your explanation. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1132
TOP: Codominance
4. What is meant when a trait is classified as sex-linked? Give an example of such a trait. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1133
TOP: Sex-Linked Traits
5. Define the term congenital disorder. Are these disorders always inherited? Explain. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1136
TOP: Congenital Disorders
6. Give a brief description of one genetic disorder that is the result of nondisjunction during
formation of the gametes. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1136
TOP: Nuclear Inheritance
7. Describe three possible hypotheses for the genetic basis of cancer. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1141
TOP: Genetic Basis of Cancer
8. Discuss genetic counseling. Include in your discussion an explanation of a pedigree, the
Punnett square, and a karyotype. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1141
TOP: Genetic Counseling
9. Why must DNA transcription stop during mitosis? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1127
TOP: Mechanism of Gene Function
10. Explain the structure of the chromosome. What is the difference between a chromosome and
chromatin? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1127
TOP: Chromosomes and Genes
11. What is a genetic mutation? What types of genetic mutations are there and what are some
causes of mutation? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 1135
TOP: Genetic Mutations
12. What is mitochondrial inheritance? Why does it only involve the mother and what type of
diseases or deficiencies are caused by mitochondrial genes? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1137
TOP: Mitochondrial DNA
13. The use of a karyotype would be helpful in determining the possibility of what type of genetic
condition? The use of a pedigree would be helpful in determining the possibility of what type of genetic condition? ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1141
TOP: Pedigree and Karyotype
14. Describe three types of gene therapy that may be used to treat a genetic disorder. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization TOP: Introduction to Gene Therapy
REF: p. 1143
ESSAY 1. Explain how the regulation of enzyme production can regulate cell activity. ANS:
Answers will vary. DIF: Application
REF: p. 1127
TOP: Mechanism of Gene Function
2. A man with type B blood and normal skin pigment married a woman with type A blood and
normal skin pigment. They had a child with type O blood who was albino. Give the genotypes for blood type and skin pigment for each parent. ANS:
AO Aa BO Aa DIF: Application REF: p. 1131 TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits, Codominant Traits