TEST BANK for BIOLOGY: Exploring the Diversity of Life, 4th Canadian Edition, By Russell, Hertz, McM by StudyGuide

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Chap 01_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Quorum sensing is now believed to be the basis for what are termed “milky seas.” a. True b. False 2. A person who is of African descent living in Norway cannot suffer from vitamin D deficiency. a. True b. False 3. We “see” not with our eyes but rather with our brain. a. True b. False 4. The Sun converts over 4 million tonnes of matter into energy every minute. a. True b. False 5. Bioluminescence has been reported in land plants or higher vertebrates. a. True b. False 6. A planarian orients itself such that an equal amount of light falls on its two ocelli so that the amount of light

enhances as the animal swims. a. True b. False 7. Each rhodopsin consists of a protein called opsin that binds to a single pigment molecule called retinol. a. True b. False 8. Although they are now blind, mole rats had ancestors with functional eyes. a. True b. False 9. Flower shape, colour, and smell make plants more attractive to specific groups of potential pollinators. a. True b. False 10. Phytochrome is present in the cytosol of all plant cells. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_4ce 11. For a chlorophyll molecule, the electron involved in photon capture can exist in many excited states. a. True b. False 12. Bacteriorhodopsin, as a pigment in Halobacterium, functions in photosynthesis. a. True b. False 13. Ultraviolet light does not harm DNA. a. True b. False 14. When the plant is exposed to wavelengths of red light, phytochrome becomes inactive and initiates a signal

transduction pathway. a. True b. False 15. The reason why many animals are able to attract other organisms is because they use colour. a. True b. False 16. Bioluminescence found in marine bacteria is used for communication. a. True b. False 17. A brightly coloured penguin is less healthy. a. True b. False 18. Bioluminescent organisms do NOT need to be exposed to light at all. a. True b. False 19. Birds that are brightly coloured have a good diet. a. True b. False 20. All animals see very well under dim light conditions. a. True b. False 21. Jet lag is a result of the disturbance of your biological clock. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_4ce 22. The “image-forming eyes” are found in both compound eyes and double-lens eyes. a. True b. False 23. Absorption of a photon of light causes the retinal pigment molecule to change shape. a. True b. False 24. “Milky seas” is a phenomenon resulting from bioluminescence of marine bacteria. a. True b. False 25. In many ways, the eyes of Planaria is much more advanced than the eyespot of Chlamydomonas. a. True b. False 26. Individual pigments do NOT differ in the wavelengths of light they can absorb. a. True b. False 27. If a plant has bright flowers, it is very likely that it is attracting animals. a. True b. False 28. A discrete particle of energy is called a photon. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 29. Which best describes photo-oxidative damage? a. low energy environments associated with pigment molecules and excited electrons b. high energy environments associated with pigment molecules and excited electrons c. high energy environments associated with pigment molecules and non-excited electrons d. low energy environments associated with pigment molecules and non-excited electrons 30. Why can shorter wavelengths NOT be used by pigments? a. They would oxidize the pigment. b. They would reduce the pigment. c. They would cause the excitation of electrons. d. They would cause electrons to gain insufficient energy.

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Chap 01_4ce 31. When does the electron become excited? a. when the energy of the photon is transferred to it b. when the light is not absorbed c. when the energy of the photon is taken away from it d. when the light does not exist 32. Which colour are hummingbirds attracted to? a. yellow b. blue c. red d. green 33. Which of the following must occur in order for a photon to excite an electron in a pigment molecule? a. The photon must match the energy difference between the ground state and one of the excited states. b. The photon must have lower energy than the electron at the ground state. c. The photon must have lower energy than the energy of the electron at the excited state. d. The photon must have higher energy than the electron at the ground state. 34. How do bioluminescent animals deal with light? a. They absorb light from the environment. b. They reflect light to the environment. c. They produce their own light. d. They transmit light form the environment. 35. Which of the following is characteristic of an object that is black in colour? a. It does not absorb any wavelength. b. It absorbs all wavelengths. c. It reflects some wavelengths, but not all. d. It reflects all wavelengths. 36. In what way are bacteriorhodopsin and chlorophyll similar? a. They are both found in archaea. b. They both capture photons of light. c. They are both found in protists. d. They are both found in plants.

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Chap 01_4ce 37. Which two things are sensed by a Chlamydomonas cell’s eyespot? a. light location and colour b. light location and intensity c. light energy and colour d. light energy and intensity 38. The UV light affects the nucleotide bases of DNA. What can UV light form, and how many neighbouring

bases of DNA become covalently linked in this situation? a. It can form a primer with two bases linked. b. It can form a dimer with one base linked. c. It can form a trimer with three bases linked. d. It can form a dimer with two bases linked. 39. What does the conjugated system arrangement in pigments result in? a. delocalization of protons b. localization of electrons c. delocalization of electrons d. localization of protons 40. What does phototaxis allow a cell to do? a. stay in the optimum light environment b. stay in the optimum magnetic environment c. stay in the optimum chemical environment d. stay in the optimum climate environment 41. In what way are insects, arthropods, and molluscs similar to each other? a. They have an endoskeleton. b. They have eyespots. c. They have wings. d. They have compound eyes. 42. When does the absorption of light occur in matter? a. when the energy of the photon is transferred to a proton within a molecule b. when the energy of the photon is transferred to an electron within a molecule c. when the energy of the photon is transferred to an atom within a molecule d. when the energy of the photon is transferred to another photon within a molecule

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Chap 01_4ce 43. Which light transmittance decreases when the increased opaqueness of the lens absorbs certain wavelengths

of light? a. green light b. red light c. blue light d. yellow light 44. What are opsins and what are they a part of? a. membrane lipids that form a complex with a retinal molecule at the centre b. membrane proteins that form a complex with a retinal molecule at the centre c. retinal molecules that form a complex with membrane proteins at the centre d. retinal molecules that form a complex with membrane lipids at the centre 45. Suppose Monet did NOT have a reduced ability to see over the years. What would his paintings have

looked like? a. They would have been less vibrant. b. They would have been less blue-green. c. They would not have had narrow brush strokes. d. They would not have consisted of bleeding colours. 46. Which of the following makes pollination important? a. It enables recognition of male and female flowers in plants. b. It enables the pollinator to feed. c. It enables fertilization and reproduction in plants, while the pollinator has no benefits. d. It enables fertilization and reproduction in plants, while the pollinator can feed. 47. Which of the following describes a red pigment? a. It can reflect the green wavelength. b. It cannot reflect the red wavelength. c. It cannot reflect the green wavelength. d. It can reflect the red wavelength.

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Chap 01_4ce 48. What is one difference between the energy produced from the light bulb and the energy produced during the

process of bioluminescent light production? a. Less than 5% of the energy converted is lost as chemical energy during the process of bioluminescent light production. b. Less than 5% of the energy converted is lost as heat energy during the process of bioluminescent light production. c. The conversion of heat energy produced during the process of bioluminescent light production is very inefficient. d. The conversion of chemical energy produced during the process of bioluminescent light production is very inefficient. 49. What is a conjugated system? a. a pigment region where hydrogen atoms are covalently bonded to each other with alternating single and

double bonds b. a pigment region where oxygen atoms are covalently bonded to each other with alternating single and double bonds c. a pigment region where carbon atoms are covalently bonded to each other with alternating single and double bonds d. a pigment region where nitrogen atoms are covalently bonded to each other with alternating single and double bonds 50. Which of the following allows energy to be used by living things? a. It cannot cause changes. b. It can be reflected. c. It has no mass. d. It can interact with matter. 51. Which pair is properly matched? a. chlorophyll a and photosynthesis b. chlorophyll a and vision c. indigo and photosynthesis d. indigo and vision

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Chap 01_4ce 52. Why is light a source of energy? a. It excites an electron within a pigment molecule, which then serves as a source of light energy that can

be used for work. b. It excites an electron within a pigment molecule, which then serves as a source of heat energy that can be used for work. c. It excites an electron within a pigment molecule, which then serves as a source of potential energy that can be used for work. d. It excites an electron within a pigment molecule, which then serves as a source of kinetic energy that can be used for work. 53. Which of the following characteristics of light is most commonly used for defining light as a portion of the

electromagnetic spectrum? a. the fact that all living organisms can detect it b. the fact that plants can detect it c. the fact that humans can detect it with their eyes d. the fact that non-human animals can detect it with their eyes 54. Which is a difference between eyes and the photosynthetic apparatus of plants and algae? a. The photosynthetic apparatus of plants and algae is particularly susceptible to photo-oxidative damage. b. The photosynthetic apparatus of plants and algae is not susceptible to photo-oxidative damage. c. Eyes are particularly susceptible to photo-oxidative damage. d. Eyes are not susceptible to photo-oxidative damage. 55. How is the eye of a tarsier similar to the eye of a giant squid? a. Both are compound. b. Both are simple. c. Both are blue. d. Both are blind. 56. Why is chlorophyll green in colour? a. It can reflect the green wavelength. b. It cannot reflect the red wavelength. c. It cannot reflect the green wavelength. d. It can reflect the red wavelength. 57. Which of the following must occur in order for light to be used by an organism? a. The light must be transmitted. b. The light must be absorbed. c. The light must be transferred. d. The light must be reflected. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_4ce 58. Which term refers to an electromagnetic radiation that is of the longest wavelength and lowest energy? a. radio waves b. gamma rays c. UV light d. X-rays 59. Suppose that you are studying the simplest eye. Which organism are you most likely using for your study? a. Euglena b. Chlorella c. Chlamydomonas d. Planaria 60. How did the eye that exists in humans and other animals appear? a. It did not appear suddenly. b. It possibly appeared suddenly. c. It definitely appeared suddenly. d. It is not known. 61. Why is chlorophyll green in colour? a. because it can absorb portions of blue light b. because it can absorb some red light c. because it can absorb green light d. because it cannot absorb green light 62. Which wavelengths are absorbed by the ozone layer high in the atmosphere? a. visible wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation b. longer wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation c. any wavelength of electromagnetic radiation d. shorter wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation 63. What distinguishes the eye from the eyespot? a. colour b. vision c. sensitivity d. adaptability

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Chap 01_4ce 64. Why is ultraviolet radiation damaging? a. Because it consists of wavelengths that are longer than visible light, the energy of the photons of

ultraviolet light is greater and more damaging to biological molecules. b. Because it consists of wavelengths that are shorter than visible light, the energy of the photons of ultraviolet light is greater and more damaging to biological molecules. c. Because it consists of wavelengths that are shorter than visible light, the energy of the photons of ultraviolet light is lesser and more damaging to biological molecules. d. Because it consists of wavelengths that are shorter than visible light, the energy of the photons of ultraviolet light is lesser and less damaging to biological molecules. 65. Which colours are bees attracted to? a. green and red b. green and blue c. yellow and red d. yellow and blue 66. Why do animals in deep ocean depths live in complete darkness? a. because 100% of the ocean is at a depth where no light penetrates b. because over 90% of the ocean is at a depth where no light penetrates c. because over 80% of the ocean is at a depth where no light penetrates d. because over 70% of the ocean is at a depth where no light penetrates 67. Which of the following are within the range of most radiation reaching the surface of Earth? a. near-infrared and infrared radiation b. infrared radiation and microwaves c. ultraviolet and near-infrared radiation d. ultraviolet radiation and X-rays 68. In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration related? a. They both store heat. b. They both release oxygen. c. They both store energy. d. They both use the waste material of the other. 69. The plant photoreceptor phytochrome is important for which of the following? a. photomorphogenesis b. photorespiration c. growth d. photosynthesis

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Chap 01_4ce 70. Which of the following best describes coevolution? a. A change in one species has no effect on the other species. b. A change in one species has an effect on the other species. c. Neither of the two species change. d. Both species change, but independently of each other. 71. What is the raw material for photosynthesis? a. sugar and water b. sugar and oxygen c. carbon dioxide and oxygen d. carbon dioxide and water 72. Suppose living things are hit with radiation of a shorter wavelength than light. What would happen to the

chemical bonds in living things? a. The bonds would be weakened. b. The bonds would remain intact. c. The bonds would be strengthened. d. The bonds would be destroyed. 73. In which form does energy enter the ecosystem? a. chemical energy b. heat c. light energy d. magnetic energy 74. Why do red and blue light drive photosynthesis more effectively than green light? a. because chlorophyll cannot absorb red and blue light b. because chlorophyll can absorb green light c. because chlorophyll can absorb red and blue light d. because chlorophyll cannot absorb green light 75. Suppose that dinoflagellates are NOT bioluminescent. Which of the following would most likely characterize

them? a. They will not be able to feed. b. They will not be able to reproduce. c. They will not be able to scare off potential predators. d. They will not be able to expel wastes.

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Chap 01_4ce 76. The light sensor in a Chlamydomonas cell allows it to sense both light direction and light intensity. What do

we call this light sensor? a. a vacuole b. an eye c. a spot d. an eyespot 77. Which term refers to an electromagnetic radiation that is of the shortest wavelength and highest energy? a. radio waves b. gamma rays c. UV light d. X-rays 78. Suppose that you observe an organism that moves by phototaxis. Which of the following is the organism most

likely doing? a. swimming toward or away from a heat source b. swimming toward or away from a magnetic source c. swimming toward or away from a light source d. swimming toward or away from a chemical source 79. Which wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum are the only ones used for photosynthesis? a. from about 300 to 600 nm b. from about 400 to 700 nm c. from about 500 to 800 nm d. from about 600 to 900 nm 80. Suppose that some marine bacteria that are normally bioluminescent are NOT any more. As a result, what

would the bacteria most likely be unable to do? a. They would be unable to scare off potential predators. b. They would be unable to feed. c. They would be unable to communicate. d. They would be unable to reproduce. 81. Light serves two important functions for life on Earth. What is light’s one source that sustains life, and what

information does it provide organisms with? a. energy; information about physical life b. chemicals; information about physical life c. chemicals; information about surrounding life d. energy; information about chemical life

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Chap 01_4ce 82. How are leaf-dropping in trees and colour change in the coat of the Artic fox related? a. They are examples found in dark-dependent organisms. b. They are examples of adaptation to climate. c. They are examples found in organisms that live in the same area. d. They are examples of photoperiod-dependent phenomena. 83. If there is life on another planet within our galaxy, why would we expect to learn that this life would probably

use the same narrow range of wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum as we do for a source of energy and information? a. because all life must use the same electromagnetic spectrum by definition b. because of the fundamental aspects of photon energy and light absorption c. because this is the same wavelength that hits Earth d. because there is no other wavelength available in nature 84. What does photosynthesis capture? a. chemical energy b. light energy c. heat d. magnetic energy 85. Which natural phenomenon is the most fundamental? a. warmth b. sensitivity c. sound d. light 86. If a photosystem II complex is under normal light conditions, how often might you expect that it needs to be

repaired? a. 10 minutes b. 20 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 60 minutes 87. What is the importance of the pigment melanin in humans? a. It prevents destruction of vitamin D caused by UV light. b. It allows formation of vitamin B caused by UV light. c. It prevents DNA damage by absorbing UV light. d. It prevents DNA damage by reflecting UV light.

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Chap 01_4ce 88. Which of the following processes loses less than 5% of the energy as heat? a. photosynthesis b. cellular respiration c. bioluminescent light production d. fermentation 89. What is the purpose of the functional photoreceptors in mole rats, even though the image-forming part of the

brain is dramatically reduced? a. It allows them to set their biological clock properly, which is necessary for reproduction. b. It allows them to hunt successfully. c. It allows them to see other individuals in their group properly. d. It allows them to set their biological clock properly, which is necessary for the proper regulation of circadian rhythm. 90. Suppose that the suprachiasmatic nucleus within the brain is damaged. Which of the following is the most

likely to occur? a. The organism would not be able to control its circadian rhythm. b. The organism would die. c. The organism would not experience any change. d. The organism would not be able to move. 91. What do tarsiers and giant squids have in common? a. They are both active during daytime as well as at night. b. They both live in water. c. They are both active during daytime. d. They are both nocturnal. 92. What is the light used for in Chlamydomonas? a. as a source of information about the external environment b. as a source of information about the internal environment c. as a source of energy and as a source of information about the external environment d. as a source of energy and as a source of information about the internal environment 93. In what way are eyes and eyespots similar to each other? a. They are both simple. b. They both sense light. c. They are both big. d. They both sense the absence of light.

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Chap 01_4ce 94. Which of the following is of particular concern for causing damage by light energy? a. higher-energy gamma radiation b. lower-energy gamma radiation c. higher-energy ultraviolet radiation d. lower-energy ultraviolet radiation 95. When phytochrome is activated to sense a change in the environment, what is most likely happening in a

seedling? a. the normal developmental process activated by seedlings when exposed to heat b. the normal developmental process activated by seedlings when exposed to light c. the normal developmental process activated by seedlings when exposed to cold d. the normal developmental process activated by seedlings when exposed to salinity 96. Suppose that you find a flower that is yellow in colour. Which of the following will most likely be its

pollinator? a. wind b. hummingbird c. possum d. bee 97. When does phytochrome become active in seedlings? a. when a seedling is exposed to wavelengths of blue light b. when a seedling is exposed to wavelengths of red light c. when a seedling is exposed to wavelengths of green light d. when a seedling is exposed to wavelengths of yellow light 98. Where is the central pacemaker that controls circadian rhythm found in many animals? a. in the suprachiasmatic nucleus b. in the eye c. in the skin d. in the optic nerve 99. Consider the range of electromagnetic spectrum. What is the relationship between the wavelength of light and

the energy of the photons it carries? a. the shorter the wavelength, the lower the energy of the photons it contains b. the longer the wavelength, the higher the energy of the photons it contains c. the longer the wavelength, the lower the energy of the photons it contains d. the more average the wavelength, the higher the energy of the photons it contains

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Chap 01_4ce 100. What controls circadian rhythms, and which environment sets this clock? a. an internal clock; an external environment b. an artificial clock; a natural environment c. an external clock; an internal environment d. a natural clock; an artificial environment 101. What is the free-running nature of circadian rhythm analogous to? a. a desktop computer b. a digital telephone c. an old-fashioned wrist watch d. a modern calculator 102. Which phrase best explains why some photosynthesis still occurs under green light? a. because chlorophyll absorbs red and blue light b. because many different pigments are involved in photosynthesis c. because chlorophyll absorbs green light d. because chlorophyll is green in colour 103. Which of the following is within the range of heat escaping from the surface of Earth? a. infrared radiation b. gamma rays c. UV radiation d. X-rays 104. Suppose there is life on another planet within our galaxy. Which range of wavelengths of the electromagnetic

spectrum would most likely be used by the planet’s organisms? a. 0–100 nm b. 100–200 nm c. 200–400 nm d. 400–700 nm 105. Where are ocelli single-lens eyes found? a. only in invertebrates, not in vertebrates b. in most vertebrates, including humans, but not in invertebrates c. in some invertebrates and most vertebrates, including humans d. in some vertebrates only, but not in humans

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Chap 01_4ce 106. Do we know why bioluminescence is absent in land plants? a. We do not know this yet. b. It is because they live on land. c. It is because they do not live in deep oceans. d. It is because they are plants. 107. In the model of a bacteriorhodopsin, which pigment is bound to the protein? a. rhodopsin b. retinal c. chlorophyll a d. indigo 108. What is the cause of blindness in mole rats? a. They live in dry areas that do not provide enough moisture. b. They live in a group and do not need to see. c. They live in the light and are blinded by it. d. They live in underground darkness. 109. In what way are animals that are normally active during the daytime different than animals that are normally

active at night? a. Animals that are normally active during the daytime display worse visual acuity under high-light conditions compared to animals that are normally active during the night. b. Animals that are normally active during the daytime display improved visual acuity under high-light conditions compared to animals that are active during the night. c. Animals that are normally active at night display worse visual acuity under low-light conditions compared to animals that are normally active during the daytime. d. Animals that are normally active at night display improved visual acuity under low-light conditions compared to animals that are normally active during the daytime. 110. What does light absorption trigger during phototaxis? a. rapid changes in the concentrations of ions, including potassium and oxygen b. rapid changes in the concentrations of ions, including sodium and oxygen c. rapid changes in the concentrations of ions, including sodium and calcium d. rapid changes in the concentrations of ions, including potassium and calcium

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Chap 01_4ce 111. Which aspect of pigments makes them efficient in capturing light? a. They all share a region where hydrogen atoms are covalently bonded to each other with single bonds. b. They all share a region where hydrogen atoms are covalently bonded to each other with alternating

single and double bonds. c. They all share a region where carbon atoms are covalently bonded to each other with alternating single and double bonds. d. They all share a region where carbon atoms are covalently bonded to each other with double bonds. 112. Which of these organisms use chemical energy to excite an electron in a molecule, so that it bounces back

and forth? a. bacteria, Archaea, and protists b. bacteria, squid, and fireflies c. squids, octopuses, and clams d. fireflies, butterflies, and dragonflies 113. Which of the following describes a red pigment? a. It can absorb the green wavelength. b. It cannot absorb the red wavelength. c. It cannot absorb the green wavelength. d. It can absorb the red wavelength. 114. What enables the pigments indigo and carmine to capture light? a. a single hydrogen bond b. a single bond of any element c. a conjugated system d. a double oxygen bond 115. What is the most common photoreceptor found in nature? a. chlorophyll b b. chlorophyll a c. rhodopsin d. carotene 116. When light hits a pigment, what happens to the energy from a photon? a. It is reflected from an electron of the pigment molecule. b. It is transferred to an electron of the pigment molecule. c. It is transmitted through an electron of the pigment molecule. d. It is transmitted and reflected from an electron of the pigment molecule.

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Chap 01_4ce 117. When light hits a pigment, how many electrons are excited by a single photon? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 118. Which phrase expresses what photons lack versus what they have a precise amount of? a. mass versus atoms b. atoms versus mass c. energy versus mass d. mass versus energy 119. Explain the role of light in behaviour and ecology. Provide two examples.

120. Explain how organisms use light to tell time.

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Chap 01_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. False 21. True 22. False 23. True 24. True 25. False 26. False

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Chap 01_4ce 27. True 28. True 29. b 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. a 34. c 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. b 43. c 44. b 45. d 46. d 47. d 48. b 49. c 50. d 51. a 52. c 53. c 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_4ce 55. a 56. a 57. b 58. a 59. d 60. a 61. d 62. d 63. b 64. b 65. d 66. b 67. c 68. d 69. a 70. b 71. d 72. d 73. c 74. c 75. c 76. d 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. c 81. a 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_4ce 83. b 84. b 85. d 86. b 87. c 88. c 89. d 90. a 91. d 92. c 93. b 94. c 95. b 96. d 97. b 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. c 102. b 103. a 104. d 105. c 106. a 107. b 108. d 109. d 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_4ce 111. c 112. b 113. b 114. c 115. c 116. b 117. a 118. d 119. Nature provides a great range of light environments, ranging from the total darkness of caves and the deep ocean to

the stark brightness of deserts and polar regions. Differences in the intensity and spectral composition of the light environment in influence how a population may adapt to a specific habitat and, in so doing, contribute to the huge diversity of organisms we find on Earth. Animals use colour to communicate, attract the mate, feed better and raise more offspring. Plants use colour to attract pollinators. 120. The daily cycling of some biological phenomena is due simply to an organism responding to changes in sunlight.

Organisms have biological clocks, and a key attribute of all biological clocks is that, while they are set by the external light environment, they can run for a long time independent of external conditions—a phenomenon called free-running.

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Chap 02_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What connects the cytoplasm of adjacent cells in plants? a. the plasma membrane b. plasmodesmata c. the primary cell wall d. the secondary cell wall 2. From which cellular component do cilia and flagella arise? a. the chromosome b. the centriole c. the nucleus d. the Golgi complex 3. Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes for the digestion of proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and

polysaccharides? a. the Golgi complex b. the rough endoplasmic reticulum c. the nucleus d. the lysosome 4. Which of the following is synthesized in the nucleoli? a. mRNAs b. ribosomal subunits c. chromatin d. proteins 5. What are desmosomes? a. a type of anchoring junction b. a type of gap junction c. a type of tight junction d. a type of cell adhesion molecule 6. Which cell structures store starch in plants? a. plastids b. mitochondria c. vacuoles d. nucleus

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Chap 02_4ce 7. What comprises cytoskeletal elements? a. proteins b. triglycerides c. phospholipids d. glycogen 8. If a cell moves through water by moving the fluid over its surface, what does the cell mostly likely possess? a. a capsule b. a cell wall c. cilia d. a flagellum 9. What are cell adhesion molecules in normal cells partially responsible for? a. the ability of cells to migrate to new locations in the body b. the ability of cells to do endocytosis c. the ability of cells to recognize other cells as “self” d. the ability of cells to do exocytosis 10. If a lysosome is analogous to the cell, which of the following is analogous to the animal body? a. a digestive system b. a muscle system c. a nervous system d. a reproductive system 11. If organs are analogous to the body, which of the following are organelles analogous to? a. an eukaryote b. a prokaryote c. a cell d. an animal 12. In which organelles are grana and thylakoids found as structural components? a. ribosomes b. mitochondria c. chloroplasts d. lysosomes

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Chap 02_4ce 13. What is the eukaryotic chromosome composed of? a. DNA and carbohydrate b. DNA only c. DNA and protein d. RNA only 14. What are the principal structural components of cilia and flagella? a. intermediate filaments b. myosin microfilaments c. actin microfilaments d. microtubules 15. Why do scientists believe that mitochondria may have evolved from ancient bacteria? a. because both have their own DNA and ribosomes b. because both have five chromosomes c. because both are surrounded by a double membrane d. because the shapes and size of both are exactly the same 16. Which of the following is a cell structure that distinguishes prokaryotic from eukaryotic cells? a. the ribosomes b. the nucleus c. the cell wall d. the plasma membrane 17. What is the function of gap junctions? a. to allow plant cells to communicate with each other b. to allow ions and small molecules to pass between cells c. to give the cell its shape d. to seal the spaces between cells 18. At one point in human development, tissue that connected the fingers and the hand appeared to be

“webbed.” Enzymes eventually destroy the cells of the webbing and the fingers separate. Where are these enzymes probably liberated from? a. from the nucleus b. from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. from the chromosomes d. from the lysosomes

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Chap 02_4ce 19. Which of the following groups belong to the domain of the prokaryotes? a. bacteria b. protists c. fungi d. animals 20. In what way are prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells different? a. A prokaryotic cell has a cell wall, but a eukaryotic cell does not. b. A prokaryotic cell does not have a cell wall, but a eukaryotic cell does. c. A prokaryotic cell has a capsule, but a eukaryotic cell does not. d. A prokaryotic cell does not have a capsule, but a eukaryotic cell does. 21. Which cellular component is capable of digestion? a. the rough endoplasmic reticulum b. the Golgi complex c. the ribosome d. the lysosome 22. Where does cellular respiration occur? a. in lysosomes b. in mitochondria c. in chloroplasts d. in peroxisomes 23. Plant cells permit ions and small molecules to move between adjacent cells by means of cytoplasmic channels

in their cell walls. What are these channels called? a. plasmodesmata b. cell junctions c. desmosomes d. gap junctions 24. Staining with dye is a technique typically used to enhance contrast and visualization of cellular structures.

Which microscope magnifies passing light directly through a specimen? a. a fluorescence microscope b. a bright field microscope c. a confocal laser scanning microscope d. a phase-contrast microscope

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Chap 02_4ce 25. What is the semi-liquid substance within the nucleus called? a. chromatin b. nuclear gel c. cytoplasm d. nucleoplasm 26. What do mitochondria and chloroplasts have in common? a. Both are found in the majority of animal cells. b. Both are engaged in cellular respiration. c. Both are transforming energy. d. Both are engaged in photosynthesis. 27. If a cell contains lysosomes, what type of cell must it be? a. a fungal cell b. a prokaryotic cell c. an animal cell d. a plant cell 28. If a cell is propelled through a medium in a whip-like motion, what does it most likely possess? a. a capsule b. cilia c. a cell wall d. a flagellum 29. What would a comparison of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells reveal? a. That they both have a cell wall. b. That they both have a nucleus. c. That they both have an endomembrane system. d. That they both have DNA. 30. If a cell contains chloroplasts, what type of cell is it most likely? a. a prokaryotic cell b. a fungal cell c. a plant cell d. an animal cell

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Chap 02_4ce 31. Over time, cancerous cells typically lose the cell adhesion molecules embedded in their plasma membrane.

Loss of these molecules is best associated with which of the following traits of cancer cells? a. production of new proteins b. angiogenesis c. increased rate of cell division d. migration to new locations in the body 32. Which tissue did the first observed cells come from? a. cork b. pollen c. leaf d. skin 33. What makes large quantities of proteins in the cells? a. numerous cilia b. numerous ribosomes c. numerous centrioles d. numerous chromosomes 34. Which scientist was first credited for observing the cell nucleus? a. Theodor Schwann b. Anton van Leeuwenhoek c. Matthias Schleiden d. Robert Brown 35. What is the function of the Golgi complex? a. It synthesizes lipids. b. It synthesizes proteins for export from the cell. c. It receives proteins made in the rough ER and chemically modifies them. d. It receives proteins made in the smooth ER and chemically modifies them. 36. Where are cell walls found? a. in plant and fungal cells b. in plant cells only c. in fungal cells only d. in animal cells only

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Chap 02_4ce 37. In the process of cellular respiration, what is converted to water and carbon dioxide during the formation of

energy? a. O2 and CO2 b. CO2 and glucose c. CO2 and fats d. O2 and glucose 38. Which organelle is involved in the synthesis of lipids? a. the ribosome b. the smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. the Golgi complex d. the rough endoplasmic reticulum 39. Which of the following is the component of plant cell wall? a. protein b. chitin c. cellulose d. nucleic acid 40. What does chromatin consist of? a. only RNA b. only DNA c. both DNA and RNA d. DNA and associated proteins 41. Which of the following processes occurs in chloroplasts? a. DNA synthesis b. photosynthesis c. protein synthesis d. cellular digestion 42. Which of the following is synonymous with cellulae? a. “small rooms” b. “small compartments” c. “small spaces” d. “small particles”

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Chap 02_4ce 43. Which early scientist proposed that cells arise only from pre-existing cells? a. Theodor Schwann b. Robert Brown c. Matthias Schleiden d. Rudolf Virchow 44. Which cell structure regulates the movement of molecules in and out of the cell? a. the nucleus b. the ribosome c. the plasma membrane d. the cytoplasm 45. If a plasma membrane is analogous to the cell, which of the following is analogous to the animal body? a. a reproductive system b. a muscle system c. the skin d. a digestive system 46. Which of the following may occupy more than 90% of a mature plant cell’s volume? a. chloroplasts b. the rough endoplasmic reticulum c. the central vacuole d. the nucleus 47. What greatly increases the interior surface area of mitochondria? a. centrioles b. microfilaments c. cristae d. the matrix 48. Who discovered and described bacteria? a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek b. Matthias Schleiden c. Theodor Schwann d. Rudolf Virchow

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Chap 02_4ce 49. Where is the cell’s hereditary information stored? a. in RNA b. in DNA c. in glucose d. in protein 50. Which organelles contain DNA? a. lysosomes and ribosomes b. lysosomes and mitochondria c. chloroplasts and mitochondria d. chloroplasts and ribosomes 51. What is the function of tight junctions? a. to seal the spaces between cells b. to give the cell its shape c. to allow ions and small molecules to pass between cells d. to allow cells to communicate with each other 52. When molecules are brought into the cell from the exterior, they need to be placed onto one of the following

organelles for further routing to other locations. Which of the following organelles serve(s) the purpose of further routing? a. the nucleus b. lysosomes c. mitochondria d. ribosomes 53. Which of the following radiate from the centre of the cell and anchor the ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes, and

secretory vesicles in place? a. microfilaments b. microtubules c. actins d. laminins 54. Who played the most influential role in discovering the importance of the nucleus? a. Matthias Schleiden b. Theodor Schwann c. Robert Hooke d. Rudolf Virchow

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Chap 02_4ce 55. In what way are prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells different? a. A prokaryotic cell does not have cytoplasm, but a eukaryotic cell does. b. A prokaryotic cell does not have a nucleus, but a eukaryotic cell does. c. A prokaryotic cell does not have genetic material, but a eukaryotic cell does. d. A prokaryotic cell does not have a flagellum, but a eukaryotic cell does. 56. If a cell contains intermediate filaments, to which organism must the cell then belong? a. to a unicellular organism b. to a multicellular organism c. to a protist d. to a bacterium 57. If a cell wall is analogous to the plant cell, which of the following is analogous to the animal cell? a. the cytoskeleton b. the capsule c. the plasma membrane d. the extracellular matrix 58. Which of the following extend as a bundle from the base to the tip of a flagellum or cilium? a. microfilaments b. intermediate filaments c. actins d. microtubules 59. Which statement most correctly describes living cells? a. They grow, reproduce, and respond to outside stimuli in an uncoordinated fashion. b. They grow and respond to outside stimuli in a coordinated fashion. c. They grow, reproduce, and respond to outside stimuli in a coordinated fashion. d. They reproduce and respond to outside stimuli in a coordinated fashion. 60. Which of the following shapes are most common among prokaryotes? a. rodlike, cylindrical, and spherical b. rodlike, spiral, and spherical c. rodlike, circular, and spherical d. rodlike, spiral, and cylindrical

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Chap 02_4ce 61. What do chloroplasts utilize light energy for? a. to make carbohydrates b. to make proteins c. to make nucleic acids d. to make fats 62. If a flagellum is analogous to the cell, which of the following is analogous to the animal body? a. a muscle system b. a nervous system c. a reproductive system d. a digestive system 63. What are the main components of the extracellular matrix? a. glycoproteins b. phospholipids c. cellulose d. glycolipids 64. In plant cells, what provides cellular support and protects cells from pathogens? a. the cell wall b. the cell membrane c. the cytoplasm d. the plasmodesmata 65. If a cell contains centrioles, which type of cell must it be? a. an animal cell b. a prokaryotic cell c. a plant cell d. a fungal cell 66. Which of the following allow communication between the cells of the heart muscle tissue, resulting in the

coordinated beating of the heart? a. tight junctions b. anchoring junctions c. desmosomes d. gap junctions

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Chap 02_4ce 67. If a lysosome is analogous to the animal cell, which of the following is analogous to the plant cell? a. a chloroplast b. a cell wall c. a tonoplast d. a vacuole 68. Cells that are more active in secreting enzymes would most likely exhibit which one of the following? a. exocytosis b. endocytosis c. diffusion d. osmosis 69. What are plant cell walls composed of? a. carbohydrates b. proteins c. phospholipids d. steroids 70. What comprises microfilaments? a. keratins b. tubulins c. actins d. myosins 71. Which network of protein filaments reinforce the inner surface of the nuclear envelope in animal cells? a. actins b. tubulins c. lamins d. chromatins 72. Which protein comprises microtubules? a. tubulins b. actins c. myosins d. keratins

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Chap 02_4ce 73. In what way are lysosomes and plant vacuoles similar to each other? a. They are both involved in cell movement. b. They are both involved in cell digestion. c. They are both involved in cell sensitivity. d. They are both involved in cell reproduction. 74. Who played the most influential role in discovering protists? a. Rudolf Virchow b. Anton van Leeuwenhoek c. Theodor Schwann d. Matthias Schleiden 75. In what way are cilia and flagella similar? a. They both propel a cell in the same way. b. They both occur in great numbers. c. They are identical in structure. d. They are both of the same length. 76. Which organelle is NOT a part of the endomembrane system? a. the endoplasmic reticulum b. the lysosome c. the nucleolus d. the Golgi complex 77. If a cell contains tonoplast, what type of cell must it be? a. an animal cell b. a fungal cell c. a prokaryotic cell d. a plant cell 78. What does the 9 + 2 system refer to? a. both the Golgi complex and the endoplasmic reticulum b. both the cilia and the nucleus c. both the flagella and the plasma membrane d. both the flagella and the cilia

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Chap 02_4ce 79. A human egg is approximately 100 µm in size. What is this equal to? a. 10.0 mm b. 0.10 mm c. 0.010 mm d. 0.0010 mm 80. Which of the following is synonymous with organelles? a. “little cells” b. “little organisms” c. “little organs” d. “little particles” 81. Which unit of measurement is most commonly used for expressing cell size? a. centimetre (cm) b. decimetre (dm) c. micrometre (µm) d. millimetre (mm) 82. Which pair is NOT matched correctly? a. plant cell wall; cellulose b. intermediate filaments; tubulin c. microfilaments; actin d. cell membrane; phospholipid bilayer 83. At which pH do lysosomes function best? a. 3.2 b. 5.0 c. 6.5 d. 7.4 84. Who played the most influential role in the discovery of the cell? a. Matthias Schleiden b. Theodor Schwann c. Rudolf Virchow d. Robert Hooke

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Chap 02_4ce 85. Why can the human eye NOT see cells? a. because cells are only about 0.1 mm in diameter b. because cells are only about 0.5 ìm in diameter c. because cells are only about 1.0 mm in diameter d. because cells are only about 5.0 ìm in diameter 86. What do mitochondria and chloroplasts have in common? a. Both contain chlorophyll. b. Proteins made on free ribosomes may pass into both of them. c. Both are members of the endomembrane system. d. Both are found in most animal cells. 87. With which organelle(s) do chloroplasts share many similarities? a. the lysosomes b. the rough endoplasmic reticulum c. the mitochondria d. the nucleus 88. What is another name for the membrane that surrounds the central vacuole? a. tonoplast b. ionoplast c. chloroplast d. chromoplast 89. Who proposed that all animals and plants consist of cells that contain a nucleus? a. Matthias Schleiden b. Rudolf Virchow c. Theodor Schwann d. Anton van Leeuwenhoek 90. Which of the following is the correct path in the endomembrane system for a protein synthesized on a

ribosome attached to the rough ER? a. rough ER smooth ER Golgi complex plasma membrane b. rough ER vesicle smooth ER plasma membrane c. rough ER vesicle lysosome plasma membrane d. rough ER Golgi complex vesicle plasma membrane

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Chap 02_4ce

In this drawing of a mitochondrion, identify the structures indicated.

91. cristae 92. outer mitochondrial membrane 93. intermembrane compartment 94. inner mitochondrial membrane 95. matrix

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Chap 02_4ce

In this drawing of a eukaryotic plant cell, identify the cellular structures indicated.

96. chloroplast 97. mitochondrion 98. plasma membrane 99. vesicle 100. free ribosomes 101. Golgi complex 102. microtubules 103. cell wall 104. central vacuole 105. nucleus 106. smooth ER

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Chap 02_4ce

Match each description of a cellular structure to the cell type it would be found in. A cell type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. found in all living cells b. found in prokaryotic cells only c. found in eukaryotic cells only d. found in plant cells only e. found in animal cells only 107. nucleus 108. chloroplast 109. ribosome 110. mitochondria 111. nucleoid 112. plasma membrane

For each descriptive phrase, choose the most appropriate structure of the cytoskeleton from the list of terms. A term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. microfilaments b. microtubules c. intermediate filaments 113. composed of the hollow cylinders of tubulin dimers 114. involved in the process of cytoplasmic streaming 115. involved in moving chromosomes during cell division 116. composed of two helically coiled actin polymers

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Chap 02_4ce

In this drawing of a eukaryotic animal cell, identify the cellular structures indicated.

117. cytosol 118. microtubules 119. lysosome 120. attached ribosomes 121. plasma membrane 122. Golgi complex 123. vesicle 124. pair of centrioles 125. free ribosome 126. rough ER 127. mitochondrion 128. nucleus

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Chap 02_4ce

In this drawing of a prokaryotic cell, identify the cellular structures indicated.

129. cell wall 130. cytoplasm 131. ribosomes 132. capsule 133. plasma membrane 134. nucleoid 135. pili

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Chap 02_4ce

Match each description with the cellular structure that best corresponds. a. contain enzymes for intracellular digestion b. location of genetic material c. synthesize subunits that will be used to assemble ribosomes d. site of protein synthesis e. composed of cellulose; provides support and protection f. synthesis of lipids g. conversion of fuel molecules into energy h. conversion of light energy into chemical energy i. storage site in plant cells j. synthesis of proteins for secretion k. chemically modifies proteins l. membrane-bound transport structure 136. smooth ER 137. mitochondria 138. ribosomes 139. chloroplast 140. nucleus 141. lysosomes 142. nucleoli 143. central vacuole 144. Golgi complex 145. cell wall 146. rough ER 147. vesicle

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Chap 02_4ce

Match each type of microscopy with the best description. a. utilizes a thin beam of electrons to examine structures within a cell b. utilizes lasers to scan a fluorescently stained specimen; a computer focuses the light to show a single plane through a cell c. utilizes differences in the way light is bent (refraction) in areas of various cellular density to visualize living cells d. requires light passing through the specimen; typically involves staining with dye to enhance contrast; usually “fixes” and kills the cell e. a beam of electrons scanned over a whole cell allows visualization of surface structures; gives a 3Dappearing image 148. phase-contrast microscopy 149. confocal laser scanning microscopy 150. bright field microscopy 151. transmission electron microscopy (TEM) 152. scanning electron microscopy (SEM) 153. In general, how are prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells different and how are they similar?

154. If prokaryotic cells do not have mitochondria, where do they produce their cellular energy?

155. Compare animal and plant cells. How are they different? How are they the same?

156. Explain what makes tendons work at the cellular level.

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Chap 02_4ce 157. Explain how a cell isolated from the pancreas would be the same as a muscle cell. How would the two cell

types be different?

158. Why are chloroplasts and mitochondria believed to have originated from ancient prokaryotes?

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Chap 02_4ce Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. c 10. a 11. c 12. c 13. c 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. d 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. c

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Chap 02_4ce 27. c 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. c 36. a 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. d 44. c 45. c 46. c 47. c 48. a 49. b 50. c 51. a 52. b 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_4ce 55. b 56. b 57. d 58. d 59. c 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. d 67. d 68. a 69. a 70. c 71. c 72. a 73. b 74. b 75. c 76. c 77. d 78. d 79. b 80. c 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_4ce 83. b 84. d 85. d 86. b 87. c 88. a 89. c 90. d 91. b 92. c 93. a 94. e 95. d 96. e 97. a 98. h 99. c 100. j 101. b 102. f 103. g 104. d 105. m 106. i 107. c 108. d 109. a 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_4ce 111. b 112. a 113. b 114. a 115. b 116. a 117. g 118. d 119. c 120. k 121. h 122. f 123. e 124. b 125. j 126. l 127. a 128. m 129. d 130. g 131. h 132. e 133. c 134. f 135. b 136. f 137. g

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Chap 02_4ce 138. d 139. h 140. b 141. a 142. c 143. i 144. k 145. e 146. j 147. l 148. c 149. b 150. d 151. a 152. e 153. Both mitochondria and chloroplasts contain DNA, RNA, and ribosomes that resemble those found in bacteria. In

prokaryotic cells, the genetic material is found in a central region called the nucleoid, while in eukaryotic cells, it is contained in the membrane-bound nucleus. Also, eukaryotic cells contain membrane systems that form organelles, while prokaryotic cells do not. A plasma membrane surrounds both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. 154. The plasma membrane contains most of the molecular systems needed to metabolize food molecules to ATP. 155. Both animal cells and plant cells have a plasma membrane, nucleus, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum,

ribosomes, and Golgi complex. Animal cells, however, do not have a cell wall, central vacuole, or chloroplasts. 156. The extracellular matrix supports and protects cells, and provides mechanical linkage between muscles and bones. 157. Both cell types would contain the same organelles; however, due to the very different functions of the two cells, the

proportion of certain organelles would be different. For example, the pancreatic cell, which is involved in the production of digestive enzymes, would have an extensive rough ER network, while a muscle cell would have a large proportion of mitochondria to make the large amount of energy necessary for muscle contraction. 158. Both mitochondria and chloroplasts contain DNA, RNA, and ribosomes that resemble those found in bacteria.

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Chap 03_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Enzyme activity is increased by falling temperatures. 2. All enzymes are proteins. 3. AMP is the primary energy and phosphate source in coupled reactions. 4. Activation energy is not required for nonspontaneous reactions. 5. Reactions that reach an equilibrium point are reversible. 6. Enzymes do not change the ΔG of a reaction. 7. Enzymes alter the equilibrium point of a reaction. 8. At equilibrium, the concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Figure 3-5

9. According to the graph in Figure 3-5, what is the optimal pH for enzyme 2? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9

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Chap 03_4ce

C03-Q27

10. Which letter on the graph indicates the activation energy when an enzyme is present? a. A b. B c. C d. D 11. Which of the following is Earth an example of? a. a system that exchanges matter or energy with its surroundings b. a system that does not exchange matter or energy with its surroundings c. a system that exchanges only matter with its surroundings d. a system that exchanges only energy with its surroundings 12. Which of the following can be said to occur during every energy transformation? a. A change occurs in the free energy of the universe. b. The entropy of the universe increases. c. A change occurs in the total energy of the universe. d. The entropy of the universe decreases. 13. Which of the following best describes why thinking of entropy as disorder is problematic? a. This idea can be applied scientifically in a precise way, and entropy is not governed by order. b. This idea can be applied scientifically in a precise way, and entropy is governed by order. c. This idea cannot be applied scientifically in a precise way, and entropy is governed by order. d. This idea cannot be applied scientifically in a precise way, and entropy is not governed by order.

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Chap 03_4ce 14. Which statement best describes the first law of thermodynamics? a. Matter can be created and destroyed. b. Matter only changes forms. c. Energy only changes forms. d. Energy can be created and destroyed. 15. Which of the following best describes why bricks from a truck fall all over during a traffic accident? a. The bricks have reached an equilibrium state. b. The bricks have reached a minimum entropy state. c. The bricks have reached a maximum free energy state. d. The bricks have reached a minimum free energy state.

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Chap 03_4ce

Figure 3-3

16. Refer to Figure 3-3. What does it mean when an enzyme has an allosteric activator? a. The product of the enzyme, or another downstream product, will bind to the enzyme at a site other than

the active site and inhibit enzyme activity. b. The product of the enzyme, or another downstream product, will bind to the enzyme at the active site and stimulate enzyme activity. c. The product of the enzyme, or another downstream product, will bind to the enzyme at a site other than the active site and stimulate enzyme activity. d. The product of the enzyme, or another downstream product, will bind to the enzyme at the active site and inhibit enzyme activity. 17. What is the difference between cofactors and coenzymes? a. Cofactors tend to be complex molecules, but coenzymes are generally ions. b. Cofactors are not necessary, but coenzymes are necessary. c. Cofactors can be inorganic or organic, but coenzymes are always inorganic. d. Cofactors can be inorganic or organic, but coenzymes are just another name for organic cofactors.

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Chap 03_4ce 18. Which of the following best describes a dead cell as a system? a. It is a closed system that exchanges energy with its surroundings. b. It is an open system that exchanges energy with its surroundings. c. It is an isolated system that does not exchange energy or matter with its surroundings. d. It is a closed system that does not exchange energy or matter with its surroundings.

C03-Q27

19. Which letter on the graph indicates the free energy of the products? a. B b. C c. D d. E 20. Which reaction is likely to have more products than reactants when the reaction reaches equilibrium? a. ΔG = –25 kcal/mol b. ΔG = –50 kcal/mol c. ΔG = –75 kcal/mol d. ΔG = –100 kcal/mol 21. Which of the following best explains why machines can never be 100% efficient? a. the tendency of energy not to spread out b. the tendency of energy to spread out c. the tendency of energy to be kept d. the tendency of energy to be lost

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Chap 03_4ce 22. Which of the following is NOT a form of energy? a. heat b. work c. light d. sound 23. What does it mean that cells are open systems? a. They take out energy and matter and maintain an ordered state. b. They bring in energy and matter and maintain a disordered state. c. They take out energy and matter and maintain an ordered state. d. They bring in energy and matter and maintain an ordered state. 24. Which of the following occurs when a reaction reaches equilibrium? a. The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal. b. The chemical reactions cease. c. Entropy is no longer in the system. d. The concentration of reactants equals the concentration of products. 25. Which of the following best describes an ocean as an open system? a. It does not exchange matter with its surroundings. b. It absorbs but not releases energy. c. It absorbs and releases energy. d. It exchanges energy but not matter with its surroundings. 26. Which of the following is an exergonic reaction? a. folding laundry b. synthesizing a protein c. burning wood for a campfire d. building a tower out of blocks 27. When ATP is split into ADP and Pi, what happens to the energy that gets released? a. The energy is transferred to the target molecule via the transfer of Pi. b. The energy is directly transferred to the target molecule by an unknown mechanism. c. The two remaining phosphates acquire the energy that was present in the linkage of three phosphates. d. The energy dissipates in the form of heat.

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Chap 03_4ce 28. Suppose you decide to alter the rate of a reaction. Which of the following would you do to reverse the

enzyme-catalyzed reaction? a. add more reactants b. add more enzyme c. mechanically stir the contents of a beaker of reactants d. add more product C03-Q27

29. Which letter on the graph indicates the free energy of the reactants? a. A b. B c. D d. E 30. Which of the following best describes how enzymes function? a. by slowing the rate of some reactions and increasing the rate of other reactions b. by increasing the rate of a reaction c. by adding additional reactants to the system d. by changing the ΔG of the reaction 31. Which of the following is a closed system? a. a single-celled organism b. a human c. a gas-powered automobile d. Earth

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Chap 03_4ce

C03-Q27

32. Which letter on the graph indicates the free energy of the reaction? a. A b. B c. C d. D 33. Why do reversible reactions in a cell rarely reach equilibrium? a. because the products are generally reactants in other reactions and are thus immediately used b. because most reactions in a cell are not reversible, thus allowing the cell to devote additional resources

to regulating the few reversible reactions that do occur c. because cells have no way of measuring the relative ratios of reactants and products d. because a cell at equilibrium is dead 34. What types of energy are utilized by a child swinging on a swing? a. chemical energy only, because it is the child’s metabolism that powers the muscles that make the swing

move b. kinetic, potential, and chemical energy: the child powers the swing with chemical energy in the muscle cells, and the swing moves like a pendulum with changing ratios of kinetic and potential energy c. kinetic and potential energy only, but in constantly changing ratios: when changing direction, the energy is pure potential energy, but at the bottom of the arc, the energy is pure kinetic energy d. kinetic energy only, because the child is in constant motion

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Chap 03_4ce

Figure 3-3

35. Refer to Figure 3-3. Which sentence best describes the process of noncompetitive feedback inhibition? a. The inhibitor binds to the active site and directly blocks the active site of the enzyme. b. The products of the reaction at the end of the pathway bind to a site other than the active site of an

enzyme at or near the beginning of the pathway, and block enzyme activity indirectly. c. The products of the reaction at the end of the pathway block the active site of the enzyme, inhibiting it directly. d. The substrate and cofactors compete for the active site of an enzyme and block enzyme activity directly. 36. Which of the following occurs when there are more reactants than products for a reaction? a. The reaction is pushed toward the reactants by the low concentration of products. b. The reaction is pulled toward generating more reactants. c. The greater concentration of reactants pushes the reaction forward, toward generating more products. d. The reaction is pulled in the forward direction by the high concentration of products.

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Chap 03_4ce 37. Which of the following is a correct pair based on their shared characteristics? a. the universe and a closed system b. the universe and an open system c. an ocean and an open system d. an ocean and a closed system

Figure 3-1

38. Refer to Figure 3-1. Suppose you conduct an experiment in the laboratory in which you add increasing

amounts of substrate to a solution containing an enzyme and a pH buffer. You incubate the container at the optimal temperature for the enzyme. Each time you add more substrate, you measure the rate of the reaction. Also suppose that you graph the results such that the x-axis shows the substrate concentration and the y-axis shows the resulting reaction rate. What will you find over time? a. The rate of the reaction will increase rapidly, taper off, and plateau. b. The resulting graph will be a perfect bell curve. c. The rate of the reaction will increase slowly, plateau, and then drop sharply back to zero. d. The rate of the reaction will proceed with a slope of 1 and continue in a linear fashion indefinitely or until you run out of reactants. 39. Suppose that an earthquake hits. Which of the following would be most likely to characterize your books

being scattered on the floor all over your room? a. The books now have less entropy. b. The books now have more entropy. c. The books have the same entropy. d. The books have no entropy.

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Chap 03_4ce 40. What does it mean when an enzyme is saturated? a. It means the enzymes need more reactants. b. It means the enzymes have sufficient reactants available for optimal activity. c. It means the enzymes cannot continue to catalyze the reaction. d. It means the reaction is at equilibrium. 41. Which of the following best illustrates the first law of thermodynamics by Niagara Falls? a. Water at the top of the falls has high kinetic energy; as the water moves over the waterfall, its kinetic

energy is converted into potential energy; when the water reaches the bottom of the waterfall, its potential energy is transformed into other types of energy: heat, sound, and mechanical energy. b. Water at the top of the falls has high potential energy; as the water moves over the waterfall, its potential energy is converted into kinetic energy; when the water reaches the bottom of the waterfall, its kinetic energy is transformed into other types of energy: heat, sound, and mechanical energy. c. Water at the top of the falls has high potential energy; as the water moves over the waterfall, its potential energy is converted into kinetic energy; when the water reaches the bottom of the waterfall, its kinetic energy is transformed into potential energy again. d. Water at the top of the falls has high potential energy; as the water moves over the waterfall, its potential energy is converted into kinetic energy; when the water reaches the bottom of the waterfall, its kinetic energy is lost. 42. Which type of metabolic pathway involves building biomass? a. catabolic b. parabolic c. irreversible d. anabolic 43. Which sentence best describes the situation that occurs when an enzyme and its substrate interact? a. Just after substrate binding, the enzyme changes its shape (conformation) so that the active site becomes

even more precise in its ability to bind the substrate. b. Just before substrate binding, the substrate changes its shape (conformation) so that the active site becomes even more precise in its ability to bind the enzyme. c. Just before substrate binding, the enzyme changes its shape (conformation) so that the active site becomes even more precise in its ability to bind the substrate. d. Just after substrate binding, the substrate changes its shape (conformation) so that the active site becomes even more precise in its ability to bind the enzyme.

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Chap 03_4ce 44. Which of the following describes the main mechanism of enzymes? a. removing reactants from a solution in a set ratio that enhances the chances of the remaining individual

reactants interacting with each other b. forcing the reactants into an altered environment, which in turn creates a change in the free energy of the reactants relative to the products c. increasing the probability that the reactants will come into close proximity to each other in the proper orientation for forming the transition state molecule d. altering the equilibrium point of a particular reaction to favour the formation of products Figure 3-6

45. Refer to Figure 3-6. In the graph, why does the curve sharply drop after approximately 45?0?C instead of

mirroring the slope of the line going from 0 to 40?0?C? a. The kinetic energy of the reactants is so great that it destabilizes the enzyme and diminishes the enzyme’s activity. b. This is true of all catalysts and is not due to any special features of enzymes. c. The kinetic energy of the reactants is lower than that of the products, thus forcing a change in enzyme activity. d. The enzyme begins to denature above a certain temperature, thus eliminating all catalytic activity of the protein.

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Chap 03_4ce 46. Which statement best describes the three types of systems? a. An isolated system does not exchange energy or matter with its surroundings; a closed system

exchanges only energy, but not matter with its surroundings; an open system exchanges both energy and matter with its surroundings. b. An isolated system does not exchange energy or matter with its surroundings; a closed system exchanges only matter, but not energy with its surroundings; an open system exchanges both energy and matter with its surroundings. c. An isolated system exchanges energy with its surroundings; a closed system exchanges only matter, but not energy with its surroundings; an open system exchanges both energy and matter with its surroundings. d. An isolated system exchanges energy with its surroundings; a closed system exchanges only energy, but not matter with its surroundings; an open system exchanges matter, but not energy with its surroundings. Figure 3-5

47. Suppose all three enzymes represented in Figure 3-5 catalyze the same reaction, but conditions require you to

use a pH of 7. Which is the best enzyme to use? a. enzyme 3 b. enzyme 2 c. either enzyme 1 or 2 d. enzyme 1

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Chap 03_4ce

Figure 3-4

48. In the diagram in Figure 3-4, suppose the enzyme catalyzing the intermediate B to intermediate C reaction is

inhibited. Which compound is most likely to accumulate? a. intermediate A b. intermediate B c. intermediate C d. intermediate D

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Figure 3-6

49. Refer to Figure 3-6. Which of the following hypotheses do you believe is best supported by the data in the

graph? a. The enzyme will completely denature at 38°C. b. The enzyme will probably be inactive at a pH below 4.5. c. The enzyme has a cofactor. d. The enzyme’s activity will drop at temperatures above 40°C, and activity will likely be eliminated by 55°C. Figure 3-5

50. According to the graph in Figure 3-5, what is the optimal pH for enzyme 1? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

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Chap 03_4ce

C03-Q27

51. Which letter on the graph indicates the activation energy when no enzyme is present? a. A b. B c. C d. D 52. Which of the following is a correct pair based on their shared characteristics? a. Earth and a closed system b. the universe and an open system c. an ocean and a closed system d. an ocean and an isolated system 53. Enzymes work with at least three mechanisms. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which enzymes

function? a. by putting reactants in close proximity to each other b. by altering the free energy (G) of the reaction c. by orienting the reactants so they are positioned to favour the transition state d. by altering the immediate environment of the reactants to promote reactant interactions

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Figure 3-2

54. Which sentence best describes the process of competitive inhibition? Refer to Figure 3-2. a. The inhibitor binds and directly blocks the active site of the enzyme. b. The products of the reaction block the active site of the enzyme. c. The substrate and cofactors compete for the active site. d. The inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site of the enzyme and blocks enzyme activity indirectly.

Figure 3-5

55. Refer to the graph in Figure 3-5. Which phrase best describes what the graph represents? a. enzyme activity as a function of pH in a fairly neutral environment b. enzyme activity as a function of pH in a strongly acidic environment c. enzyme activity as a function of temperature d. enzyme activity as a function of pH in a strongly basic environment

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Chap 03_4ce 56. Which statement best describes how and why endergonic reactions are coupled within a cell? a. They are coupled with endergonic reactions in order to produce ATP. b. They are coupled with exergonic reactions in order to produce ADP. c. They are coupled with exergonic reactions in order to obtain ATP. d. They are coupled with endergonic reactions in order to obtain ADP.

Match each definition with the corresponding term. a. primary coupling agent in cellular reactions b. addition of a phosphate group to a target molecule c. product of the reaction interacts with an enzyme in a noncompetitive way to inhibit or enhance enzyme activity d. linking of an exergonic reaction with an endergonic reaction that allows a cell to drive a nonspontaneous reaction to completion e. series of chemical reactions where the products of one reaction are the reactants for a subsequent reaction f. substance that facilitates a chemical reaction without itself being consumed by the reaction g. energy needed to start a reaction, be it endergonic or exergonic h. portion of the enzyme that binds to a reactant or reactants i. state in which the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction j. intermediate arrangement of unstable bonds between atoms that can proceed toward either the reactants or the products of a reaction k. reactant molecule that binds to an enzyme 57. equilibrium point 58. phosphorylation 59. ATP 60. coupled reaction 61. metabolic pathway 62. substrate 63. activation energy 64. transition state 65. active site 66. catalyst 67. allosteric regulation

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For each situation, choose the most appropriate term. a. endergonic b. exergonic c. equilibrium 68. a reaction where ΔG is negative 69. a beaker of water sitting on a bench 70. a dead cell 71. a reaction where ΔG = 0 72. protein synthesis 73. folding laundry 74. the rate of synthesis equals the rate of degradation 75. digestion of a candy bar 76. a reaction where ΔG is positive 77. a toddler dumping boxes of toys 78. Explain how temperature can affect enzyme activity.

79. Explain three ways in which other molecules regulate enzymes.

80. Explain how a cell can use catabolic reactions to drive anabolic reactions, despite energy loss in the form of

entropy and heat.

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Chap 03_4ce Answer Key 1. False - decreased 2. True 3. False - ATP 4. False - is required 5. True 6. True 7. False - activation energy 8. False - rate of formation; rate of formation 9. b 10. d 11. d 12. b 13. d 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. d 21. b 22. b 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. c

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Chap 03_4ce 27. a 28. d 29. a 30. b 31. d 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. c 37. c 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. b 42. d 43. c 44. c 45. d 46. a 47. b 48. b 49. d 50. a 51. c 52. a 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_4ce 55. a 56. c 57. i 58. b 59. a 60. d 61. e 62. k 63. g 64. j 65. h 66. f 67. c 68. b 69. c 70. c 71. c 72. a 73. a 74. c 75. b 76. a 77. b 78. Temperature affects kinetic energy as well as the three-dimensional structure of an enzyme. Above the optimal

temperature, a protein begins to denature and loses function. Below the optimal temperature, the kinetic energy keeps molecules from colliding with each other as rapidly, thus reducing the rate of the reaction.

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Chap 03_4ce 79. Enzymes can be inhibited by products of the reaction that bind to a site other than the active site. This is called

feedback inhibition or allosteric inhibition. Enzymes can be inhibited by molecules that compete for access to the active site and, when bound, block the substrate from entering the active site. This is called competitive inhibition. Enzymes can also be activated or stabilized by reaction products binding to a site other than the active site. This is called allosteric activation. 80. Cells use coupled reactions to harness the free energy released from a catabolic reaction. The free energy is

temporarily stored in the form of ATP. The energy in ATP is then transferred to reactants in the anabolic reaction. This energy powers the endergonic reaction using the energy that originally came from the exergonic catabolic reaction. Each time an energy transformation occurs, some of the energy is lost in the form of heat. This means that not all of the free energy released from the catabolic reaction will be invested into the anabolic reaction. One way organisms can compensate is to consume more energy sources so they have sufficient energy to drive the necessary endergonic reactions, despite entropy.

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Chap 04_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. A solution of 65% water, 35% solute is more concentrated with respect to solute than a solution of 70%

water, 30% solute. a. True b. False 2. A hypertonic environment would be ideal for a healthy plant. a. True b. False 3. Physiological saline is 0.9% NaCl. Red blood cells placed in such a solution will NOT gain or lose water;

therefore, one could state that the fluid in red blood cells is hypertonic. a. True b. False 4. An animal cell placed in a hypertonic solution will swell and perhaps burst. a. True b. False 5. A water concentration gradient is influenced by the number of solute molecules present on both sides of the

membrane. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6. An unknown cell contains cholesterol. What type of cell is it most likely to be? a. a bacterial cell b. a fungal cell c. a plant cell d. an animal cell 7. When referring to membrane glycolipids and glycoproteins, what does the prefix “glyco-” indicate? a. polar carbohydrate groups that are attached to the molecules b. nonpolar carbohydrate groups that are attached to the molecules c. the molecules that are attached to the membrane by ionic bonds d. the molecules that are attached to the membrane by covalent bonds

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Chap 04_4ce 8. When do cells undergo exocytosis? a. when secreting protein and wastes from the cell b. when replicating c. when ingesting nutrients d. when pumping protons down a concentration gradient 9. How do the charges inside and outside of the cell compare? a. There is negative charge inside and positive charge outside of the cell. b. There is positive charge inside and positive charge outside of the cell. c. There is positive charge inside and negative charge outside of the cell. d. There is negative charge inside and negative charge outside of the cell. 10. How do small polar and charged molecules typically cross the cell membrane? a. by facilitated diffusion b. by osmosis c. by active transport d. by filtration 11. Which molecules will pass most easily through a cell membrane by diffusion? a. large, hydrophilic molecules b. large, polar molecules c. small, hydrophobic molecules d. ionic molecules 12. How are exocytosis and endocytosis different? a. Endocytosis transports small molecules into cells, and exocytosis transports large molecules out of cells. b. Endocytosis transports large molecules into cells, and exocytosis transports large molecules out of cells. c. Endocytosis transports small molecules out of cells, and exocytosis transports small molecules into cells. d. Endocytosis transports large molecules into cells, and exocytosis transports small molecules out of cells. 13. Which environment is ideal for plant cells, and which is best for animal cells? a. isotonic for plant cells, and hypertonic for animal cells b. isotonic for plant cells, and hypotonic for animal cells c. hypotonic for plant cells, and isotonic for animal cells d. hypotonic for plant cells, and hypertonic for animal cells

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Chap 04_4ce 14. One component of the cell membrane functions as a selective barrier, and one component has specific

functions such as transport, recognizing other cells, and binding to other cells. Which pair of terms refers to these two components, respectively? a. carbohydrate and nucleic acid b. lipid and carbohydrate c. protein and carbohydrate d. lipid and protein 15. What does the “mosaic” part of the fluid mosaic model refer to? a. the membrane cholesterol b. the membrane functions c. the membrane proteins d. the membrane phospholipids 16. Which phrase describes the selective permeability of a membrane? a. the ability of only certain molecules to pass across a membrane b. the ability of a molecule to pass through a membrane c. the need for carrier proteins to transport certain molecules d. the movement of a molecule from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration 17. How are integral and peripheral proteins similar to each other? a. They both interact with the hydrophobic core of the membrane. b. They both function at the membrane. c. They both consist of a mixture of polar and nonpolar amino acids. d. They are both found on the membrane surface. 18. How are receptor-mediated endocytosis and pinocytosis different? a. Receptor-mediated endocytosis transports small molecules into cells, and pinocytosis transports large

molecules out of cells. b. Receptor-mediated endocytosis transports all molecules out of cells, and pinocytosis transports small molecules into cells. c. Receptor-mediated endocytosis transports large molecules into cells, and pinocytosis transports large molecules out of cells. d. Receptor-mediated endocytosis transports specific molecules into cells, and pinocytosis transports nonspecific molecules found in liquids into cells.

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Chap 04_4ce 19. How are simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion similar to each other? a. They both belong to passive transport. b. They both transport through the aid of a transport molecule. c. They both require energy. d. They both belong to active transport. 20. What does the cell wall do when a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution? a. It prevents diffusion. b. It prevents plasmolysis. c. It prevents the cell from bursting. d. It prevents active transport. 21. Which cell organelle helps pinocytosis and phagocytosis to occur? a. the endoplasmic reticulum b. the lysosome c. the plasma membrane d. the nucleus 22. Which of the following strongly suggests that the membrane is exposed to low temperature? a. Ions such as K+, Na+, and Ca+ begin to freely leak across the membrane. b. Molecular motion may increase. c. Molecular motion may decrease. d. The membrane may become too fluid. 23. In an aqueous environment, how are the phospholipids of a membrane arranged? a. in a single layer b. in a bilayer, with the fatty acid tails located at the surface c. in a bilayer, but the phospholipids have no specific orientation d. in a bilayer, with the polar heads of each layer located at the surface 24. Which type of lipid is most important in the structure of biological membranes? a. wax b. cholesterol c. phospholipid d. fat

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Chap 04_4ce 25. What type of channel opens in response to changes in ionic charge across a membrane? a. an electric-gated channel b. a charge-gated channel c. a ligand-gated channel d. a voltage-gated channel 26. Which of the following molecules could be secreted from a eukaryotic cell? a. ions b. metals c. water d. carbohydrates 27. Suppose water moves across a membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area of low water

concentration. What is this an example of? a. both diffusion and osmosis b. both osmosis and active transport c. both diffusion and endocytosis d. both endocytosis and active transport 28. What do we mean when we say that facilitated diffusion is specific? a. A protein will transport specific molecules. b. One specific integral protein per membrane is involved in facilitated diffusion. c. Only specific hydrophobic molecules can be transported. d. The energy molecule ATP is specifically required for transport. 29. How are receptor-mediated endocytosis and pinocytosis similar to each other? a. They both transport liquids into cells. b. They both transport particles into cells. c. They both transport particles out of cells. d. They both transport liquids out of cells. 30. Which of the following is a function of the sterols that are found in animal cell membranes? a. They maintain membrane fluidity. b. They facilitate ion transport. c. They store cellular energy. d. They increase the rate of diffusion.

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Chap 04_4ce 31. Which process leads to a net movement of uncharged molecules from a low concentration to a higher

concentration? a. active transport b. osmosis c. facilitated diffusion d. exocytosis 32. Which term refers to the movement of a substance from an area of low concentration to an area of high

concentration using energy obtained from ATP? a. passive transport b. facilitated transport c. active transport d. osmosis 33. Which statement applies to both simple diffusion and active transport? a. Transport proteins are not specific for the molecules being transported. b. A concentration gradient is not present. c. A concentration gradient is present. d. Transport proteins are specific for the molecules being transported. 34. Why do the cells die when the ambient temperature drops to freezing? a. because of the increased cellular signalling inside the cell b. because of the inhibition of cell division c. because of the inhibition of molecule transport across the cell membrane d. because of the increased metabolic reactions inside the cell 35. How are the membranes of animal cells in winter able to remain fluid when the weather becomes extremely

cold? a. The percentage of both unsaturated phospholipids and cholesterol increases. b. The percentage of saturated phospholipids in the membrane decreases. c. The percentage of unsaturated phospholipids in the membrane decreases. d. The percentage of cholesterol molecules in the membrane increases. 36. Suppose that you are comparing the outside and inside halves of a cell membrane’s phospholipid bilayer.

Which of the following describes the composition of the lipids on the two surfaces? a. asymmetrical composition b. symmetrical but not identical composition c. highly random and varied composition d. identical composition

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Chap 04_4ce 37. How do insects alter membrane fluidity? a. by adjusting the relative proportions of cholesterol and proteins b. by adjusting the relative proportions of cholesterol and fatty acids c. by adjusting the relative proportions of proteins and fatty acids d. by adjusting the relative proportions of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids 38. Which of the following will diffuse most rapidly across membranes? a. O2 b. glucose c. ions d. macromolecules 39. Which pair of activities are carrier molecules involved in? a. passive transport and osmosis b. active and passive transport c. active transport and osmosis d. osmosis and diffusion 40. How are peripheral and transmembrane proteins different? a. Transmembrane proteins are primarily nonpolar, while peripheral proteins are polar. b. Transmembrane proteins are primarily nonpolar, while peripheral proteins are a mixture of polar and

nonpolar amino acids. c. Transmembrane proteins are primarily polar, while peripheral proteins are nonpolar. d. Transmembrane proteins are a mixture of polar and nonpolar amino acids, while peripheral proteins are primarily nonpolar. 41. What is responsible for the selective permeability of a cell membrane? a. the position of cholesterol in the membrane bilayer b. the integral proteins of the membrane c. the hydrophobic core formed by the phospholipid tails d. the hydrophilic end facing the cell exterior 42. Which of the following is absolutely necessary for diffusion to occur? a. a phospholipid bilayer b. a living cell c. a selectively permeable membrane d. a concentration gradient

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Chap 04_4ce 43. How does the concentration inside of a cell compare to an isotonic solution outside of the cell? a. The concentration is less than that of the outside solution. b. The concentration is equal to that of the outside solution. c. The concentration is much greater than that of the outside solution. d. The concentration is slightly greater than that of the outside solution. 44. How are exocytosis and endocytosis similar to each other? a. They both transport large molecules. b. They both transport materials into cells. c. They both transport materials out of cells. d. They both transport small molecules. 45. Suppose an animal cell was placed in a beaker of solution. The cell immediately began to swell and ultimately

burst. Why did this happen? a. because the cell’s cytoplasm was hypotonic to the solution, which was isotonic b. because the cell’s cytoplasm was hypertonic to the solution, which was hypotonic c. because the cell’s cytoplasm was hypertonic to the solution, which was isotonic d. because the cell’s cytoplasm was hypotonic to the solution, which was hypertonic 46. Unsaturated fatty acids cause a membrane to be fluid at lower temperatures. What is a reasonable explanation

for this? a. Unsaturated fatty acids permit more water into the interior of the membrane. b. The double bonds form a kink in the fatty acid tail, forcing adjacent lipids to be spaced farther apart. c. The double bonds in the unsaturated fatty acids block interaction among the hydrophilic head groups of the lipids. d. Unsaturated fatty acids have a higher cholesterol content. 47. How are facilitated diffusion and active transport different from each other? a. Active transport requires a transport protein, while facilitated diffusion does not. b. Facilitated diffusion requires a transport protein, while active transport does not. c. Facilitated diffusion occurs against the gradient, while active transport does not. d. Active transport occurs against the gradient, while facilitated diffusion does not. 48. What two processes are involved when eukaryotic cells import and secrete large molecules? a. exocytosis when importing and diffusion when secreting b. exocytosis when importing and endocytosis when secreting c. endocytosis when importing and exocytosis when secreting d. diffusion when importing and exocytosis when secreting

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Chap 04_4ce 49. Suppose that you fuse a mouse cell and a human cell, and then treats the cell with specific antibodies

covalently linked to fluorescent dyes (antibodies linked to mouse proteins are green; antibodies linked to human proteins are red). What will the cell look like immediately after labelling? a. The red and green fluorescent labels will be uniformly distributed across the entire membrane of the cell. b. The cell will be half red and half green. c. The red and green labels will be distributed in the cell in intermingled patches. d. The red and green labels will flash in the cell intermittently. 50. Which of the following is responsible for maintaining the membrane potential? a. the Na+/K+ pump b. the diffusion gradient c. the Ca2+ pump d. the H+ pump 51. In the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, what does the “fluid” part of the model refer to? a. the constant movement of the hydrophilic tails in the interior of the membrane b. the phospholipid and protein molecules, which move and exchange places within the two layers of

phospholipids c. the free movement of cholesterol molecules within the membrane d. a thin layer of water found sandwiched between the two layers of phospholipids 52. What are aquaporins? a. spaces that transport water molecules b. pores made of water molecules c. protein channels for water transport d. pores found only in bacterial cells 53. Suppose a drop of food colouring is placed in a container of clear water. What happens to the coloured dye

molecules? a. They undergo osmosis at the top of the container. b. They diffuse to the top of the container. c. They undergo osmosis equally throughout the container. d. They diffuse equally throughout the container. 54. Cells must constantly bring in certain molecules and ions while keeping others out. What part of the cell

accomplishes this function? a. the plasma membrane b. the vesicles c. the nucleus d. the lysosomes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_4ce 55. Which of the following is created as ions diffuse across membranes? a. an electrical gradient b. a chemical gradient c. an electrochemical gradient d. a biochemical gradient 56. How do the various membranes of a cell differ? a. Only certain membranes are constructed of a selectively permeable membrane. b. Certain proteins are unique to each membrane. c. Phospholipids are found only in certain membranes. d. Only certain membranes are constructed from molecules with dual solubility. 57. Which term refers to the voltage across a membrane? a. membrane electrochemical gradient b. membrane chemical gradient c. membrane potential d. membrane turgor pressure 58. What should the tonicity of the distilled water be compared to body cells? a. It should be isotonic to the cells. b. It should be hypotonic to the cells. c. It should be protonic to the cells. d. It should be hypertonic to the cells. 59. Which statement applies to facilitated diffusion? a. It requires ATP. b. It can involve either carrier proteins or channel proteins. c. It is nonspecific with respect to the nature of the molecules being transported. d. It is not dependent on a concentration gradient. 60. Patients with cystic fibrosis are very susceptible to bacterial infections. Which of the following best describes

why this is the case? a. Water cannot be pumped into the cells from the mucus lining. b. Water cannot be pumped out of the cells and into the mucus lining. c. Transport protein cannot pump sodium ions out of the lung cells and into the mucus lining; the water then remains in the cells. d. Transport protein cannot pump chloride ions out of the lung cells and into the mucus lining; the water then remains in the cells.

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Chap 04_4ce 61. What is the sequence of signal transduction? a. transduction response reception b. reception

transduction response c. response reception transduction d. transduction reception response 62. Suppose that you fuse a mouse cell and a human cell, and then treat the cell with specific antibodies covalently

linked to fluorescent dyes (antibodies linked to mouse proteins are green; antibodies linked to human proteins are red). Forty minutes later, you look at the fused cell. Which of the following will you observe? a. The red and green labels will be distributed in intermingled patches. b. The red and green labels will flash intermittently. c. The red and green labels will be uniformly distributed across the entire membrane. d. The cell will be half red and half green. 63. Which of the following do carrier proteins often transport? a. proteins b. steroid hormones c. H2O d. glucose and amino acids 64. What are the major structural components of a cell membrane? a. glycolipids and cellulose b. glycolipids and proteins c. phospholipids and cellulose d. phospholipids and proteins 65. Why do transmembrane proteins have domains? a. because they have to interact with both foreign DNA and the hydrophobic core b. because they have to recognize cancer cells c. because the cell needs them in order to reproduce d. because they have to interact with both the aqueous environment and the hydrophobic core 66. What is the primary function of a cell membrane? a. recognizing other cells as being “like” b. controlling the transport of substances into and out of cells c. recognizing chemical signals from other cells d. cell–cell binding

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Chap 04_4ce 67. How are simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion different? a. Facilitated diffusion is passive transport, while simple diffusion is not. b. Facilitated diffusion requires a transport protein, while simple diffusion does not. c. Simple diffusion requires a transport protein, while facilitated diffusion does not. d. Simple diffusion is passive transport, while facilitated diffusion is not. 68. Which terms refer to the movement of water across a membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to

a region of higher solute concentration? a. both endocytosis and active transport b. both diffusion and endocytosis c. both active transport and osmosis d. both diffusion and osmosis Match each mechanism of cellular transport with its correct definition. a. movement of a molecule from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration b. cells internalize molecules into a cell by the inward budding of vesicles possessing receptors specific to the molecule being transported c. movement of water from a hypotonic solution into a hypertonic solution across a selectively permeable membrane d. large particles are enveloped by the cell membrane and internalized e. a process in which liquid droplets are ingested by living cells f. diffusion of molecules across the plasma membrane with the assistance of transport proteins 69. phagocytosis 70. receptor-mediated endocytosis 71. diffusion 72. osmosis 73. pinocytosis 74. facilitated diffusion

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Chap 04_4ce

Identify the structures indicated in this drawing of a typical plasma membrane.

75. carbohydrate groups 76. cholesterol 77. peripheral proteins 78. microfilament 79. integral proteins

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These micrographs of animal cells depict the effects of various aqueous environments on red blood cells placed in a hypotonic, hypertonic, or isotonic environment. Match each term to a micrograph.

©1976 The Rockefeller University Press. The Journal of Cell Biology, 1976, 70:193-203. doi: 10.1083/jcb.70.1.1 80. hypertonic 81. isotonic 82. hypotonic 83. Carrier proteins share several characteristics with enzymes used to catalyze metabolic reactions. In what ways

are carrier proteins and enzymes similar?

84. Explain why the transport of molecules across the cell membrane is considered to be both specific and

directional.

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Chap 04_4ce 85. Below is a random list of steps involved in primary active transport. Arrange the steps in the correct order by

writing the letter of the first step next to 1, and so on. A. transporter undergoes a folding change that exposes the binding site to the opposite side of the membrane B. transport protein hydrolyzes ATP to ADP + phosphate C. ion is released to the side of higher concentration D. attachment of free phosphate to the transport protein allows binding of ion E. protein reverts to its original shape 1 __________ 2 __________ 3 __________ 4 __________ 5 __________

86. Water is a strongly polar molecule, so how does it cross the plasma membrane?

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Chap 04_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. d 26. d

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Chap 04_4ce 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. a 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. d 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. d 48. c 49. b 50. a 51. b 52. c 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_4ce 55. c 56. b 57. c 58. b 59. b 60. d 61. b 62. c 63. d 64. d 65. d 66. b 67. b 68. d 69. d 70. b 71. a 72. c 73. e 74. f 75. b 76. d 77. e 78. c 79. a 80. b 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_4ce 83. Both carrier proteins and enzymes are specific; carrier proteins bind and transport only molecules that specifically fit

the binding site, while enzymes react only with molecules that snugly fit the enzyme active site. Both carrier proteins and enzymes can become saturated when there are more molecules than proteins to interact with. 84. Transport is considered directional because only certain ions and molecules can move into the cell, while others can

move only out of the cell. Transport is specific because only certain ions and molecules can actually move across the membrane. 85.

1B 2D 3A 4C 5E 86. Water molecules are small enough to slip through spaces transiently created between the hydrocarbon tails of

phospholipid molecules as they flex and rotate in the fluid bilayer. This type of water movement is relatively slow, however.

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Chap 05_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. During glycolysis, ATP is produced by oxidative phosphorylation. 2. Glycolysis takes place in the mitochondria of a cells. 3. Both plants and animals possess mitochondria, which are used for cellular respiration to make ATP. 4. Two mobile electron carriers that are important for the electron transport system are cytochrome c and

ubiquinone. 5. During the process of pyruvate oxidation, pyruvate is broken down and the remaining two carbons are

attached to coenzyme A. 6. Molecular oxygen gets into the body through breathing and leaves the body as carbon dioxide. 7. If, during a chemical reaction, a molecule loses hydrogens, it could be described as being oxidized. 8. The main purpose of fermentation is to regenerate NADH and FADH2. 9. During pyruvate oxidation, one molecule of ATP is produced. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10. Which of the following directly supply the electrons to the electron transport system? a. FADH2 and NADH b. pyruvate and acetate c. ATP and ADP d. complexes I to IV 11. Which of these statements best explains the energetic status of cellular respiration? a. It is an exergonic process with negative free energy. b. It is an endergonic process with negative free energy. c. It is an exergonic process with positive free energy. d. It is an endergonic process with positive free energy. 12. In the process of aerobic metabolism, carbon-containing molecules are broken down. What is the energy from

the electrons used for? a. to generate a proton gradient b. to heat the organism in a cold environment c. to alter enzyme structure d. to directly supply the energy needs of an organism

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Chap 05_4ce 13. How efficient is cellular respiration in extracting the energy stored in the bonds of glucose? a. close to 60% efficient b. close to 40% efficient c. close to 20% efficient d. close to 10% efficient 14. Which statement best describes the function of NADH and FADH2? a. Both produce ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation. b. Both transport acetyl-CoA to mitochondria. c. Both provide electrons to the electron transport system. d. Both release energy for glycolysis to proceed. 15. Where is ATP synthase located in eukaryotic cells? a. in the matrix of the mitochondria b. in the outer membrane of the cell c. in the nuclear envelope d. in the inner mitochondrial membrane 16. Why do cells go through fermentation in our body? a. to replenish NAD+ b. to replenish O2 c. to replenish FAD d. to replenish NADH 17. Which phrase describes the mechanism that facilitates the passage of electrons between protein complexes in

the mitochondrial inner membrane? a. The oxidized electron carrier protein passes on the electron to FADH and becomes reduced. b. The reduced electron carrier protein passes on the electron to the next protein and becomes oxidized. c. The reduced electron carrier protein passes on the electron to FADH and becomes oxidized. d.The oxidized electron carrier protein passes on the electron to the next protein and becomes reduced. 18. Which of these chemical reactions are common in cellular respiration? a. reduction/oxidation b. bimolecular/trimolecular c. exothermic/endothermic d. acid/base

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Chap 05_4ce 19. Which phrase best describes the chemical conditions inside the mitochondrial matrix? a. low pH and high pyruvate concentration b. high pH and high pyruvate concentration c. high pH and low pyruvate concentration d. low pH and low pyruvate concentration 20. Which part of the ATP synthase is responsible for catalyzing ATP formation? a. the basal unit b. the stalk c. the headpiece d. the lollipop-shaped complex 21. Suppose it is true that potato plants use uncoupling proteins in a way similar to how mammals use them. What

would a researcher expect to observe in these plants? a. increased amounts of ATP production b. decreased mitochondrial catabolism c. increased internal tissue temperature d. decreased sugar metabolism 22. Which chemical characteristic makes phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) unusual? a. PEP regulates the activity of phosphofructokinase. b. PEP can carry out redox reactions. c. PEP provides high-energy electrons to make ATP. d. PEP supplies a high-energy phosphate to phosphorylate ADP. 23. Ultimately, the carbon molecules in pyruvate become integrated into which of the following molecules? a. CoA b. ATP c. CO2 d. acetate 24. Which piece of the ATP synthase contains the channel for H+ to flow through? a. the stalk b. the basal unit c. the headpiece d. the lollipop-shaped complex

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Chap 05_4ce 25. Which molecules are responsible for delivering the high-energy electrons from the citric acid cycle to the

electron transfer system? a. Cyt C and Q b. NADH and Cyt C c. FADH2 and Q d. NADH and FADH2 26. What is the proton-motive force used for? a. only to drive rotation of flagella in eukaryotes b. only for ATP synthesis in bacteria c. ATP synthesis and driving rotation of flagella in bacteria d. ATP synthesis and driving rotation of flagella in eukaryotes 27. Which of these statements best explains why food is not energy? a. Energy is exhaustive, and food is not. b. Food is exhaustive, and energy is not. c. Food can make us fat, and energy cannot. d. Energy can make us fat, and food cannot. 28. Which phrase best describes what occurs during chemiosmosis? a. the synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase using energy from the proton gradient b. the buildup of acetate in the cytoplasm in the absence of oxygen c. the breakdown of oxygen as it enters the mitochondria d. the production of NADH and FADH2 in cellular respiration 29. Which of the following molecules is responsible for carrying the acetyl group from pyruvate into the citric acid

cycle? a. FADH2 b. ATP c. CoA d. NADH

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Chap 05_4ce 30. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of supply and demand in cells? a. Fatty acids can be used as a source of energy by being reduced to acetyl-CoA

can be removed from respiration and used to synthesize fatty acids. b. Fatty acids can be used as a source of energy by being oxidized to acetyl-CoA can be removed from respiration and used to synthesize fatty acids. c. Fatty acids can be used as a source of energy by being oxidized to acetyl-CoA can be removed from respiration and used to synthesize sugars. d. Fatty acids can be used as a source of energy by being reduced to acetyl-CoA can be removed from respiration and used to synthesize sugars.

excess acetyl-CoA excess acetyl-CoA excess acetyl-CoA excess acetyl-CoA

31. For every glucose molecule that goes through cellular respiration, how many times is a carbon molecule fully

oxidized to CO2 in the citric acid cycle? a. 4 times b. 3 times c. 2 times d. 1 time 32. Where do the electrons that ubiquinone accepts come from? a. complexes I and II b. complexes I and III c. complexes II and III d. complexes III and IV 33. Glycolysis can take place in the absence of which of the following small molecules? a. ATP b. oxygen c. NAD+ d. ADP 34. Suppose that the pH of the matrix was significantly lower than the inner mitochondrial space. How would ATP

synthase function differently? a. It would stop functioning. b. It would function with less efficiency. c. It would require an ion to stabilize it. d. It would hydrolyze ATP to form ADP.

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Chap 05_4ce 35. Which of the following is the best line of evidence for glycolysis being an ancient pathway? a. Glycolysis occurs in mitochondria. b. Glycolysis is universal. c. Glycolysis is highly regulated. d. Glycolysis is complicated. 36. What is the fate of CoA after it delivers an acetyl group into the citric acid cycle? a. It is used in protein synthesis. b. It remains in an inactive form until the cell dies. c. It is degraded and used for energy. d. It is recharged with another acetate. 37. What is the final product of glycolysis? a. 1 molecule of pyruvate b. 2 molecules of pyruvate c. 1 molecule of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate d. 2 molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate 38. Oxygen acts as a final electron acceptor in respiration. Which molecule is it ultimately converted into? a. water b. CO2 c. ATP d. glucose 39. For a molecule to be reduced, it can gain electrons from the environment. In what other way can a molecule

be reduced? a. by losing hydrogens b. by losing oxygen c. by gaining oxygen d. by gaining hydrogens 40. Glycolysis can take place in the absence of which of the following small molecules? a. FAD b. ATP c. NAD+ d. ADP

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Chap 05_4ce 41. Which of these processes actually produces a significant quantity of ATP during cellular respiration? a. pyruvate oxidation b. glycolysis c. oxidative phosphorylation d. the citric acid cycle 42. Which of the following directly powers the ATP synthase? a. carbohydrate metabolism b. NADH/FADH2 c. the proton gradient d. electron transfer 43. Which of the following is the ultimate source of electrons in photosynthesis? a. glucose b. water c. ATP d. CO2 44. If glycolysis is considered universal, which of the following illustrates that? a. Glycolysis occurs in Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya. b. Glycolysis occurs in Archaea and Eukarya. c. Glycolysis occurs in Bacteria and Eukarya. d. Glycolysis occurs in Archaea and Bacteria. 45. During which stage of cellular respiration is CO2 released? a. during the citric acid cycle b. during glycolysis c. during electron transport system d. during both pyruvate oxidation and the citric acid cycle 46. It has been thought that many human diseases are now associated with malfunctioning mitochondria. Why are

the mitochondria so important to all cells? a. They generate heat to keep the body warm. b. They produce energy in the form of ATP. c. They are extremely large. d. They are ancestral and were acquired by symbiosis.

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Chap 05_4ce 47. What are the functions of cytochrome c and ubiquinone? a. They shuttle electrons between the protein complexes. b. They synthesize water from molecular oxygen. c. They translocate protons from the matrix to the inner mitochondrial space. d. They produce ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation. 48. Which of these statements describes how NADH and FADH2 are related? a. They both carry high-energy phosphates. b. They both carry high-energy electrons. c. They are both used in glycolysis. d. They both directly produce ATP. 49. Suppose that the proton gradient was destroyed and ATP was no longer produced by oxidative

phosphorylation. Which statement describes what happens to these protons as they re-enter the mitochondrial matrix? a. They help in the production of CO2. b. They are attached to NAD+ and FAD. c. They synthesize ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation. d. They combine with oxygen to form water. 50. What is the purpose of the last stage of the citric acid cycle? a. to replenish the supplies of NAD+ and FAD b. to break down glucose into a three-carbon molecule c. to regenerate oxaloacetate to attach to another acetyl molecule d. to produce ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation 51. What molecule is a product of each of glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle? a. ATP b. FADH2 c. NADH d. H2O 52. The electrons that are present in NADH and FADH2 carry high energy, theoretically sufficient to produce ATP

alone. Why then have biological systems evolved a way that uses the various steps of cellular respiration to produce ATP? a. because steps in respiration allow for a controlled release of energy in small increments b. because all living organisms must use oxygen and therefore must carry out cellular respiration c. because it would be less efficient to produce ATP directly from NADH and FADH2 d. because the amount of ADP is insufficient to phosphorylate and make ATP Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_4ce 53. What is the final product of glycolysis? a. fructose b. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate c. pyruvate d. glucose 54. Which cellular respiration process is absolutely dependent upon a supply of NADH? a. glycolysis b. the electron transfer system c. pyruvate oxidation d. the citric acid cycle 55. When individuals have mitochondrial disorders, the skeletal and heart muscles and the brain are the parts of

the body that are most affected. Why are these the parts that are most affected? a. because they have the highest energy needs b. because they are generally very fragile c. because they are the most important organs d. because they have fewer mitochondria in the cell 56. Consider the contribution of NADH and FADH2. How many of the 32 total ATP molecules produced in

cellular respiration come from oxidative phosphorylation? a. 20 b. 22 c. 28 d. 30 57. Which of the following are directly responsible for pumping protons out of the matrix in the mitochondria? a. cytochrome c, ubiquinone, and protein complex II b. cytochrome c, and protein complexes I and III c. protein complexes I, III, and IV d. ubiquinone, and protein complexes I and IV 58. Which of these analogies best illustrates the following: Sugars contain energy, but we have to break them apart

to release the energy in order to make the high energy chemical called ATP. a. electrons of matter b. photons of light c. letters in a word d. books in a library

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Chap 05_4ce 59. Which phrase best describes the proton-motive force? a. the amount of energy required to protonate a glucose molecule b. the force needed to move protons into the inner mitochondrial space c. the free energy associated with the removal of hydrogen from NADH d. the combination of a proton and voltage gradient across the membrane Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 60. Arrange these steps of cellular respiration in their proper order. Write the letter of the first step next to 1, and

so on. a. pyruvate oxidation b. citric acid cycle c. electron transfer system d. transport of glucose into cell e. glycolysis 1 __________ 2__________ 3__________ 4__________ 5 __________

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Refer to the illustration of a mitochondrion. Match the labelled parts of the mitochondrion with the steps of cellular respiration. A labelled part may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

a. outer mitochondrial membrane b. intermembrane compartment c. cytosol d. inner mitochondrial membrane e. matrix 61. pyruvate oxidation 62. oxidative phosphorylation 63. citric acid cycle 64. glycolysis 65. ATP synthesis 66. electron transfer system

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Chap 05_4ce Answer Key 1. False - : substrate-level phosphorylation 2. False - ; cytosol 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False - : H2O 7. True 8. False - : NAD+ only 9. False - : CO2 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. b 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. c 21. c 22. d 23. c 24. b 25. d 26. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_4ce 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. b 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. a 41. c 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. d 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. d 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_4ce 55. a 56. c 57. d 58. d 59. d 60. 1 D

2E 3A 4B 5C 61. e 62. d 63. e 64. c 65. d 66. d

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Chap 06_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. The arrangement of photosystems I and II in the thylakoid membrane is exactly like that drawn in the Z-

pathway of most textbooks. 2. Glucose is the only sugar produced from photosynthesis. 3. Photosynthesis is a process by which chemical energy is converted into light energy. 4. Photorespiration is even more detrimental because photoautotrophs cannot use phosphoglycolate. 5. Not all plants can use the C4 pathway to avoid photorespiration. 6. Atmospheric O2 is actually a waste product of photosynthesis. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7. Which of these molecules is a major product of the Calvin cycle? a. ATP b. CO2 c. rubisco d. G3P 8. The Calvin cycle consumes CO2 and produces which of the following products? a. ATP b. G3P c. NADPH d. rubisco 9. Suppose that photosynthetic eukaryotic cells are provided with CO2 synthesized with heavy oxygen (18O).

Then suppose that the 18O label will be found in all but one compound. What is that compound? a. glucose b. O2 gas c. cellulose d. 3-phosphoglycerate 10. Which of the following is required for photons to be used as a source of energy? a. They must be particles. b. They must be energized. c. They must be absorbed by a molecule. d. They must be reflected by a molecule.

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Chap 06_4ce 11. Which thylakoid membrane component oxidizes when photosystem I absorbs light energy? a. NADP+ reductase b. P700 c. plastocyanin d. P680 12. Which of the following best explains why regulating opening and closing stomata is more difficult in dry and hot

environments? a. Photorespiration becomes a bigger problem as the climate becomes colder. b. Photorespiration becomes a bigger problem as the climate becomes warmer. c. Photorespiration becomes a lesser problem as the climate becomes warmer. d. Photorespiration becomes a lesser problem as the climate becomes colder. 13. Consider the chemical reaction for photosynthesis as a redox reaction. Which of the following is

reduced/oxidized? a. Carbon dioxide is reduced to glucose and water is oxidized to oxygen. b. Carbon dioxide is oxidized to glucose and water is reduced to oxygen. c. Carbon dioxide is reduced to oxygen and water is oxidized to glucose. d. Carbon dioxide is oxidized to oxygen and water is reduced to glucose. 14. Which of the following absorb the photons of light in photosynthesis? a. chlorophyll and carotenoids b. chlorophyll and thylakoid membrane c. carotenoids and stroma d. thylakoid membrane and stroma 15. What is the product of the addition of O2 to RuBP by rubisco? a. one molecule of G3P b. one molecule of 3PGA and one molecule of phosphoglycolate c. two molecules of phosphoglycolate d. three molecules of 3PGA 16. Suppose that you explored a new planet and found a photosynthetic organism unlike any on Earth. Also

suppose that you repeat Engelmann’s classic experiment using this new organism in place of Spirogyra and find that oxygen-dependent bacteria cluster near the green and yellow portions of the spectrum. Which statement summarizes what you have learned? a. This organism is green, just like plants on Earth. b. This organism utilizes the most energy-rich photons of the spectrum. c. The Sun of this new planet emits different wavelengths of light than those emitted by Earth’s Sun. d. This new organism is using yellow and green light to drive photosynthesis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_4ce 17. What is the purpose of the Calvin cycle? a. to recover electrons lost when water was split b. to counteract increasing atmospheric CO2 concentrations (global warming) c. to capture photons of light d. to produce sugars using CO2 as a carbon source 18. Where do the electrons from NADPH go in the Calvin cycle? a. They are added to oxygen, just like in cellular respiration. b. They are used to regenerate RuBP from G3P. c. They are transferred to rubisco. d. They are added to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate. 19. If chloroplasts are put in the dark, what must they be provided with in order to continue making sugar? a. CO2 and ATP b. NADPH and ATP c. NADPH, ATP, and CO2 d. NADPH, CO2, and ADP 20. To which thylakoid membrane does photosystem II first donate the electrons it acquires from water? a. photosystem I b. plastoquinone c. cytochrome complex d. ferredoxin 21. Which of the following are the most abundant of the chlorophylls? a. chlorophyll a and b b. chlorophyll a and c c. chlorophyll b and c d. chlorophyll a, b, and c 22. Which of the following best describes the antenna complex? a. energy-harvesting complex b. light-harvesting complex c. sound-harvesting complex d. colour-harvesting complex

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Chap 06_4ce 23. Which molecule associated with photorespiration is toxic to plant cells? a. phosphoglycolate b. 3PGA c. glycolate d. G3P 24. In hot climates, photorespiration can decrease carbon fixation efficiently by how much? a. by over 20% b. by over 30% c. by over 40% d. by over 50% 25. What is the purpose of the C4 pathway? a. It is more efficient than the Calvin cycle because less ATP is consumed in the process. b. It replaces the carbon fixation stage of the Calvin cycle. c. It supplements the activity of rubisco by providing a second source of 3PGA for the reduction stage of

the Calvin cycle. d. It ensures that CO2 is provided to rubisco and thus prevents photorespiration. 26. Where does photosynthesis occur in eukaryotes? a. in the mitochondria b. in the chloroplasts c. in the plasma membrane d. in the cytosol 27. Suppose that you found an organism that can photosynthesize. Based on your findings, which of the following

organisms could it most likely be? a. It could be only a eukaryote. b. It could be either an archaean, a bacterium, or a eukaryote. c. It could be either an archaean or a eukaryote. d. It could be either a bacterium or a eukaryote. 28. Which thylakoid membrane component does photosystem I draw its electrons from? a. NADP+ reductase b. plastocyanin c. photosystem II d. water

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Chap 06_4ce 29. Which of the following can be found in the reaction centre of a photosystem? a. a primary electron acceptor, a large number of proteins, and many chlorophyll a molecules b. a primary electron acceptor, a small number of proteins, and many chlorophyll a molecules c. a primary electron acceptor, a large number of proteins, and two chlorophyll a molecules d. a primary electron acceptor, a small number of proteins, and two chlorophyll a molecules 30. Which of the following are used to generate biofuels? a. single-celled algae b. crop plants c. multicellular algae d. any plants 31. Which Calvin cycle products are used in the light reactions? a. G3P, ATP, and NADPH b. electrons from CO2 c. ADP, Pi, and NADP+ d. O2, water, and ATP 32. Which products of the light reactions are used in the Calvin cycle? a. ATP and NADPH b. CO2 and RuBP c. water and O2 d. electrons and photons 33. Suppose that you are a botanist looking for new species of C4 plants. Where should you focus your search? a. in deserts b. in glaciers c. in rainforests d. in taigas 34. In Engelmann’s classic experiment, why were the oxygen-requiring bacteria clustered around the regions of

Spirogyra algae that were bathed in red, blue, and violet light? a. because photosynthesis is most active in those wavelengths of light and thus more oxygen is consumed by the algae in those regions b. because chlorophyll is green and thus reflects green light c. because photosynthesis is most active in those wavelengths of light and thus more oxygen is produced by the algae in those regions d. because the bacteria were immobile and that is where Engelmann happened to place them

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Chap 06_4ce 35. Which of the following describes the role of the photosynthetic pigments? a. to absorb photons of light and transfer the energy to neighbouring molecules b. to absorb energy and transfer photons of light to neighbouring molecules c. to absorb photons of light and energy d. to transfer photons of light and energy 36. Standard photosynthesis (C3) plants are more susceptible to photorespiration than either C4 or CAM plants.

Why do most plants lack the C4 pathway? a. because rubisco is more efficient in C3 plants when compared to rubisco in C4 and CAM plants b. because C4 and CAM pathways have an energetic cost that makes them advantageous in only very hot

and/or arid environments c. because photorespiration is not a serious problem for most plants d. because most plant species do not have vacuoles in their cells to store the malate generated from CO2 taken in during the night 37. What is the primary purpose of the light reactions? a. to transfer electrons to the primary electron acceptors b. to provide electrons and energy for the Calvin cycle c. to generate O2 d. to create a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane 38. Which sentence best describes fluorescence? a. A pigment molecule accepts a high-energy electron and releases a photon of energy. b. A high-energy electron leaves its nucleus and moves to a different molecule. c. A high-energy electron returns to its ground state by releasing energy in a photon. d. A low-energy electron moves to a high-energy state by absorbing heat. 39. Iron is required for primary production. Based on this, which of the following can be predicted? a. Iron fertilization of oceans can raise N2 in the atmosphere. b. Iron fertilization of oceans can lower O2 in the atmosphere. c. Iron fertilization of oceans can raise CO2 in the atmosphere. d. Iron fertilization of oceans can lower CO2 in the atmosphere. 40. Why is the molecule of chlorophyll a in photosystem I’s reaction centre known as P700? a. because 700 molecules of NADPH are generated per photon of light absorbed b. because it absorbs 700 photons per minute c. because exactly 700 accessory pigments are in the photosystem d. because it absorbs photons with a wavelength of 700 nm Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_4ce 41. Which of these pigments absorb light in photosynthesis? a. green pigments called chlorophylls and blue pigments called carotenoids b. green pigments called carotenoids and yellow-orange pigments called chlorophylls c. green pigments called chlorophylls and red-orange pigments called carotenoids d. green pigments called chlorophylls and yellow-orange pigments called carotenoids 42. Why do the light reactions have both cyclic and noncyclic electron pathways? a. to ensure that ATP and NAPDH are generated in a 1:1 molar ratio b. because only the combination of pathways can generate sufficient NADPH for the Calvin cycle c. to provide more electrons from water than would be released by the noncyclic pathway d. because the Calvin cycle requires ATP and NADPH in different amounts than are generated by

noncyclic electron flow 43. What is the reason we call “fossil fuels” as such? a. They are the remnants of fuels. b. They are the remnants of fossils. c. They are the remnants of ancient forests. d. They are the remnants of modern forests. 44. Imagine that you are studying two basic cellular reactions: cellular respiration and photosynthesis. You have no

other means to determine which one is going on but to isolate and identify two of the electron carriers involved: NAD+ and NADP+. How would these two carriers help you distinguish which cellular reaction is going on? a. Photosynthesis uses only NADP+. b. Photosynthesis uses only NAD+. c. Cellular respiration can use either NADP+ or NAD+. d. Cellular respiration uses only NADP+. 45. What are the reactants and products that link the light reactions to the Calvin cycle? a. CO2 and NADPH b. ATP and NADH c. ATP and NADPH d. FADH2 and CO2

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Chap 06_4ce 46. Why is photorespiration more likely to occur in warm weather? a. Plants require warm weather (at least 23°C) to drive photosynthesis. b. Plants are more likely to close their stomata in the daytime heat than at night when it is cool. c. Plants are more likely to dehydrate in warm weather, forcing them to close their stomata to conserve

water; this prevents CO2 from entering the leaf. d. The rubisco enzyme is very temperature-sensitive and becomes less selective in warmer temperatures,

allowing it to fix O2 instead of CO2. 47. Suppose that you found an unknown organism. You analyzed it and you found that it uses energy from light to convert CO2 into an organic form. Based on your findings, which of the following is this organism most likely? a. a photoautotroph b. an autotroph c. a heterotroph d. a decomposer 48. When does a C4 plant use rubisco to perform carbon fixation? a. in daylight only b. from noon to midnight c. from midnight to noon d. in darkness only 49. Where in a plant cell is ATP synthase found? a. in the thylakoid and inner mitochondrial membranes b. in the thylakoid membrane and the plasma membrane c. in the plasma membrane and in the inner mitochondrial membranes d. in the inner mitochondrial membranes only 50. Which of the following is the traditional source of most oils? a. single-celled algae b. crop plants c. multicellular algae d. any plants 51. Why is the molecule of chlorophyll a in photosystem II’s reaction centre known as P680? a. because it absorbs 680 photons per minute b. because it will generate 680 molecules of ATP per photon absorbed c. because it absorbs photons with a wavelength of 680 nm d. because exactly 680 accessory pigments are in the photosystem

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Chap 06_4ce 52. When does a CAM plant take in atmospheric CO2? a. from noon to midnight b. in darkness only c. in daylight only d. from midnight to noon 53. Where does the Calvin cycle occur? a. in the thylakoid membrane b. in the cytosol c. in the stromal lamellae d. in the stroma 54. Which of the following best describes what a spectrophotometer is used for? a. to precisely determine the wavelengths of light reflected by a pigment b. to precisely determine the rate of light absorbed by a pigment c. to approximately determine the wavelengths of light absorbed by a pigment d. to precisely determine the wavelengths of light absorbed by a pigment 55. What does a CAM plant do with the malate produced by its C4 pathway? a. distribute it to bundle sheath cells b. store it in the central vacuole c. use it immediately d. store it in the stroma 56. Suppose that you extract all of the proteins of a leaf and measure the percentage that is rubisco. What

percentage of the leaf proteins will the rubisco comprise? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 65%

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Match the name of the process to its description. a. noncyclic electron transport b. cyclic electron transport c. carbon fixation stage of the Calvin cycle d. carbon reduction stage of the Calvin cycle e. RuBP regeneration stage of the Calvin cycle 57. The process which directly produces G3P in the chloroplast. 58. The process which produces additional ATP for the Calvin cycle. 59. The process which uses enzyme rubisco to create simpler sugars. 60. The process which converts G3P into a molecule that can bind to CO2. 61. The process which produces both ATP and NADPH.

Match each term with its definition. a. the generation of ATP via a proton gradient created by light-energized electrons moving down an electron transport chain b. the site of the Calvin cycle in the chloroplast c. complexes of light-absorbing molecules clustered in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts d. the addition of O2 to RuBP by rubisco, resulting in a net loss of carbon from the Calvin cycle e. the molecule used to store carbon overnight in CAM plants f. organisms that use CO2 as their carbon source and light as their energy source 62. photosystems 63. photophosphorylation 64. malate 65. photoautotrophs 66. stroma 67. photorespiration

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Match the terms and descriptions with the correct labelled part in the fllowing illustration. A labelled part may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

68. place to find rubisco 69. place where photorespiration occurs 70. inner membrane 71. membrane most important in generating a proton gradient for ATP synthesis 72. place to find carotenoids 73. prevents the stroma from coming into contact with the outer membrane 74. membrane most likely to surround an acidic solution 75. outer membrane 76. site of the Calvin cycle 77. site of light reactions 78. thylakoid membrane 79. this membrane is in contact with the cytosol 80. thylakoid lumen 81. stroma 82. place to find chlorophyll

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Chap 06_4ce

If the Calvin cycle could proceed without light reactions, choose the most appropriate process for each of the two reactions. a. only light reactions b. only the Calvin cycle c. both light reactions and the Calvin cycle d. neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle 83. requires rubisco 84. requires G3P to continue 85. requires glucose 86. produces NADP+ 87. produces ATP 88. consumes O2 89. creates a proton gradient 90. produces O2 91. requires water 92. requires ATP 93. consumes NADPH 94. occurs only during the daytime 95. produces ADP 96. Explain why we say nearly all life on Earth ultimately depends on the Sun for energy.

97. Compare and contrast the role of O2 and H2O in photosynthesis and cellular respiration.

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Chap 06_4ce 98. Explain why it is important, from a global standpoint, to try to improve the efficiency of photosynthesis in

common crops. Specify which aspect(s) of photosynthesis we should target.

99. What are some of the problems that must be addressed when planting C3 plants in hot, arid climates for

ornamental purposes?

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Chap 06_4ce Answer Key 1. False - sequence of use 2. False - primary 3. False - light, chemical 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. d 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. d 25. d 26. b

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Chap 06_4ce 27. d 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. d 40. d 41. d 42. d 43. c 44. a 45. c 46. c 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. b 51. c 52. b 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_4ce 55. b 56. c 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. e 61. a 62. c 63. a 64. e 65. f 66. b 67. d 68. e 69. e 70. b 71. d 72. d 73. b 74. d 75. a 76. e 77. d 78. d 79. a 80. c 81. e 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_4ce 83. b 84. b 85. d 86. b 87. a 88. d 89. a 90. a 91. a 92. b 93. b 94. c 95. b 96. Photosynthetic organisms convert light energy into chemical energy. While the photosynthetic organisms use this

chemical energy to drive their own cellular processes, other organisms consume plants (or consume the herbivores that consumed the plants) to acquire chemical energy. Through this process, nearly all organisms on Earth can trace their energy back to the original photosynthetic process, which was dependent on sunlight. 97. The role of oxygen gas and water are almost the reverse in the two processes. In cellular respiration, electrons from

the electron transport chain are added to oxygen gas. This attracts protons and creates water. In photosynthesis, water is used as a source of electrons, releasing oxygen into the atmosphere while the protons are kept and used in production of a sugar. 98. The land available for agriculture is limited and the population of the planet continues to increase. By understanding

how plants can become more efficient in photosynthesis, the harvest of a set area of land could be increased. This would allow us to better utilize the land available. Photorespiration is the logical target of our research because photorespiration is known to decrease the efficiency of photosynthesis. If we can enable C3 plants to better avoid photorespiration, we can increase the productivity of crops. 99. C3 plants are prone to photorespiration, especially at high temperatures or in arid climates. In order to allow these

plants to survive, they must be provided with a reliable, adequate water supply. Protection from intense sunlight should be considered and can be accomplished by positioning plants in areas where they will get morning or evening light, but be in partial shade during the afternoon.

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Chap 07_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What would happen if you add mitosis-promoting factor (MPF) to germinal cells in the skin arrested in G2? a. Cell division would cease. b. The cells would enter prophase. c. The cells would undergo cytokinesis. d. Cell death would occur. 2. In which type of cell do duplicated centrioles move to opposite poles, and during which part of the cell cycle

does this occur? a. in a plant cell, during prophase b. in an animal cell, during prophase c. in a plant cell, during metaphase d. in an animal cell, during metaphase 3. Which statement characterizes cancer cells? a. They form tumours that remain encapsulated, growing in only one location. b. They form tumours that adhere strongly to surrounding tissues. c. They display uncontrolled cell division. d. They display strictly regulated mitosis. 4. What is the primary function of centrioles in animal cells? a. to provide a point of attachment for spindle fibres on chromosomes b. to connect the two sister chromatids c. spindle formation d. the generation of flagella and cilia 5. Where do we find centromeres? a. where the spindle microtubules attach b. where metaphase chromosomes align c. where chromosomes cluster during telophase d. where the mitotic spindle forms

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Chap 07_4ce

Figure 7-1

Photomicrograph by Dr. Conly L. Rieder, East Greenbush, New York 6. What do we call the stage of mitosis in photo C in Figure 7-1? a. metaphase b. prophase c. interphase d. anaphase 7. What is another term for an identifiable structure known as the microtubule organizing centre (MTOC) of an

animal cell? a. a cell plate b. a centrosome c. a kinetochore d. a centromere 8. Which of the following is the reason why blooms may be harmful? a. They attack fish. b. They are always all toxic. c. They often threaten drinking water supplies. d. They exhaust all food available to fish.

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Chap 07_4ce 9. Which of these statements assesses how binary fission and mitosis differ? a. Binary fission occurs in eukaryotes; mitosis occurs in prokaryotes. b. Mitosis helps any organism to grow; binary fission only helps it to repair. c. Mitosis occurs in many phases; binary fission has only one phase. d. Binary fission helps any organism to grow; mitosis only helps it to repair. 10. How are the two chromosomes separated and distributed to the two ends of the cell during prokaryotic cell

division? a. by an unknown mechanism b. by attachment to separating membrane regions c. by attachment to actin d. by the action of the mitotic spindle 11. Which of these series is the sequence of the cell cycle? a. anaphase interphase telophase prometaphase

prophase metaphase b. prophase metaphase interphase telophase anaphase c. prometaphase anaphase prophase telophase interphase metaphase d. interphase prophase prometaphase metaphase anaphase telophase

12. Which of the following is synonymous with cellular senescence? a. the loss of proliferative ability b. the gain of proliferative ability c. the gain of contact inhibition d. the loss of contact inhibition 13. Which of the following best compares animal and plant cell division? a. A cleavage furrow is initiated in animal cells, and a cell plate begins to form in plant cells during

telophase. b. The nuclear envelope disintegrates in prophase in animal cells, but remains intact in plant cells. c. Sister chromatids are identical in animal cells, but they differ from one another in plant cells. d. In animal cells, chromosomes do not become attached to the spindle until anaphase whereas in plant cells they become attached to the spindle at prophase. 14. Suppose that a somatic cell divides to form two genetically identical daughter cells during mitosis. Prior to

mitosis occurring, which of the following must occur? a. The cell must first be fertilized. b. Chromatids must be separated. c. The cell must replicate its DNA. d. The nucleus must divide.

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Chap 07_4ce 15. Suppose that, at the G1-to-S checkpoint, one of the cyclins has reached a concentration great enough to

complex with one of the CDKs to initiate DNA synthesis. Which cyclin and which CDK are the ones most likely involved? a. cyclin G1/S and CDK2 b. cyclin G1/S and CDK1 c. cyclin S and CDK2 d. cyclin S and CDK1 16. Which sentence best describes the difference between plant cell division and animal cell division? a. In animal cells, but not plant cells, cytokinesis is accomplished by formation of a cleavage furrow. b. In animal cells, replication of chromosomes occurs during interphase, while in plant cells replication

occurs when the nuclear envelope disintegrates. c. In plant cells, centrosomes have an important role in spindle formation, while in animal cells centrosomes do not function during cell division. d. In plant cells, but not animal cells, cytokinesis is accomplished by formation of a cleavage furrow. 17. What does each of the two daughter cells that result from normal mitotic division of the original parent cell

contain? a. the same number of identical chromosomes and genes as the parent cell b. one-half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell, but different genes c. one-half of the number of identical chromosomes and genes as the parent cell d. the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, but different genes 18. At what stage of the cell cycle is DNA found in its condensed form, which is known as a chromosome? a. throughout prophase only b. throughout prophase and metaphase c. throughout the cell cycle d. throughout mitosis until late telophase 19. The microtubules that make up the mitotic spindle attach themselves to special structures that are found in the

centromere region of the chromosome. What term refers to these specialized structures? a. nucleosomes b. chromatids c. kinetochores d. centrosomes

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Chap 07_4ce 20. Contact inhibition is an important mechanism for maintaining cell growth in developed organs and tissues.

Suppose that the organ and tissue cells remain in contact with each other. In order to prevent the cells from dividing, which phase of the cell cycle must they be in? a. in G1 b. in G0 c. in G2 d. in prophase 21. What are the two most likely reasons for cellular senescence (the loss of proliferative ability)? a. DNA damage and telomere lengthening b. DNA damage and telomere shortening c. DNA intactness and telomere shortening d. DNA intactness and telomere lengthening 22. Which statement best explains contact inhibition? a. Contact between neighbouring cells triggers reactions that lead to inhibition of mitosis. b. As cell number increases, the level of waste products increases, consequently slowing metabolism and

leading to mitosis. c. As cell number increases, the protein kinases they produce compete with neighbouring cells, thus inhibiting mitosis. d. As neighbouring cells become more tightly packed together, their size is restricted and cytokinesis can no longer occur. 23. Certain cell types in humans, such as skeletal muscle cells, have several nuclei per cell. Based on what we

know about mitosis, how could this happen? a. The cell undergoes repeated mitosis with associated cytokinesis. b. The cell undergoes repeated cytokinesis, but not mitosis. c. The cell undergoes anaphase twice before entering telophase. d. The cell undergoes repeated mitosis, but not cytokinesis. 24. Which of these series is the correct sequence of phases in the cell cycle? a. anaphase telophase interphase prophase metaphase b. interphase

prophase c. metaphase anaphase d. prophase metaphase

metaphase telophase anaphase

anaphase interphase telophase

telophase prophase interphase

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Chap 07_4ce 25. When does replication of DNA occur? a. during the S phase b. during the G1 phase c. during the prophase d. during the G0 phase

Figure 7-1

Photomicrograph by Dr. Conly L. Rieder, East Greenbush, New York 26. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in photo A in Figure 7-1? a. interphase b. metaphase c. prophase d. anaphase 27. What happens to each daughter cell at the end of mitosis? a. Each has DNA identical to the parent cell. b. Each has twice the cytoplasm and the same amount of DNA as the parent cell. c. Each has twice the amount of DNA and half the cytoplasm of the parent cell. d. Each has half the DNA and half the cytoplasm found in the parent cell.

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Chap 07_4ce 28. Which of the following occurs during metaphase of mitosis? a. Centrioles migrate to opposite poles of the cell. b. Chromatin condenses into chromosomes. c. The nuclear envelope disappears. d. Chromosomes decondense into chromatin. 29. Which of the following would be revealed by a comparison of a cancer cell and a normal cell? a. Regulation of mitosis is strictly regulated in cancer cells; mitosis is unregulated in normal cells. b. Cancer cells undergo contact inhibition; normal cells do not. c. Cancer cells do not undergo contact inhibition; normal cells do. d. Cancer cells cannot metastasize; normal cells can. 30. Which of the following regulates progression through the phases of the cell cycle? a. fluctuating concentrations of cyclin-dependent kinases b. fluctuating concentrations of microtubules c. fluctuating concentrations of cyclins d. fluctuating concentrations of actin 31. Which of these statements assesses how binary fission and mitosis differ? a. Binary fission is a division of cytoplasm, after mitosis is complete in any cell. b. Binary fission repairs cells; mitosis only replicates cells. c. Binary fission is a division of whole cells in prokaryotes, and mitosis is a division of the nucleus in

eukaryotes. d. Binary fission is a division of the nucleoid region in prokaryotes, and mitosis is a division of the nucleus in eukaryotes. 32. Which of the following are direct results of mitosis in your body? a. 4 haploid reproductive cells b. 4 haploid body cells c. 2 diploid reproductive cells d. 2 diploid body cells 33. How is cytokinesis different in plant and animal cells? a. It forms a cleavage furrow in animal cells, and a cell plate in plant cells. b. It helps create four daughter cells in animal cells, and two in plant cells. c. It forms a cleavage furrow in plant cells, and a cell plate in animal cells. d. It helps create two daughter cells in animal cells, and four in plant cells.

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Chap 07_4ce 34. Which of these phases of mitosis is used for karyotype analysis? a. prophase b. anaphase c. metaphase d. prometaphase 35. Which of the following terms is synonymous with restriction point? a. G2 checkpoint b. G1 checkpoint c. G0 checkpoint d. S checkpoint 36. At what point during the cell cycle do chromosomes decondense into chromatin? a. at the end of telophase b. at the beginning of metaphase c. at the beginning of interphase d. at the end of interphase 37. Early in mitosis, chromatin condenses into the compact, rodlike structures known as chromosomes. What

process takes place more easily as a result? a. the orderly distribution of DNA into the two new nuclei b. the disappearance of the nuclear envelope c. the formation of the mitotic spindle d. the replication of DNA 38. During which phase of the cell cycle is cyclin degraded, resulting in the transition to G1? a. during interphase b. during metaphase c. during prophase d. during anaphase 39. During which phases of the cell cycle does a chromosome consist of two identical chromatids? a. from the beginning of G2 phase in interphase, through the end of prophase in mitosis b. from the end of G2 phase in interphase, through the end of telophase in mitosis c. from the beginning of G1 phase in interphase, through the end of anaphase in mitosis d. from the end of S phase in interphase, through the end of metaphase in mitosis

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Chap 07_4ce 40. Embryonic development begins with a single egg being fertilized by a single sperm, thus forming a zygote; the

zygote then undergoes mitosis. How many cells would be present at the conclusion of four mitotic divisions? a. 16 b. 8 c. 4 d. 2 41. Suppose that, at the G2-to-M checkpoint, one of the cyclins has reached a concentration great enough to

complex with one of the CDKs to initiate DNA synthesis. Which cyclin and which CDK are most likely involved? a. cyclin M and CDK1 b. cyclin S and CDK1 c. cyclin M and CDK2 d. cyclin S and CDK2 42. Consider vinblastine, a chemotherapeutic drug used to treat breast and testicular cancers. This drug interferes

with the assembly of microtubules. How does this drug most likely work to inhibit growth in a cancer cell? a. It inhibits transition from G1 to S. b. It disrupts mitotic spindle formation, and consequently mitosis. c. It inhibits cytokinesis. d. It inhibits transition from S to mitosis. 43. Which of these activities is included in the stages of cytoplasmic division? a. cytokinesis b. condensation of DNA into chromosomes in the cytoplasm c. separation of sister chromatids in the cytoplasm d. alignment of chromosomes in the cytoplasm 44. Which of the following best compares prokaryotic cells with eukaryotic cells with respect to their

chromosomes? a. two circular chromosomes in prokaryotic cells versus numerous circular chromosomes, depending on the species, in eukaryotic cells b. a single circular chromosome in prokaryotic cells versus many linear chromosomes in eukaryotic cells c. one linear chromosome in prokaryotic cells versus many circular chromosomes in eukaryotic cells d. several circular chromosomes in prokaryotic cells versus many linear chromosomes in eukaryotic cells

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Chap 07_4ce 45. In both plant cells and animal cells, where do the microtubles of the mitotic spindle originate? a. in the centromere b. in the organizing centres c. in the chromatid d. in the centriole

Figure 7-1

Photomicrograph by Dr. Conly L. Rieder, East Greenbush, New York 46. Which stage of mitosis is shown in photo B in Figure 7-1? a. interphase b. metaphase c. prophase d. anaphase 47. Which of the following explains cohesins? a. Cohesins are lipids that help separate sister chromatids. b. Cohesins are lipids that hold sister chromatids together. c. Cohesins are proteins that help separate sister chromatids. d. Cohesins are proteins that hold sister chromatids together.

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Chap 07_4ce 48. During which phases of mitosis are chromosomes composed of two sister chromatids? a. in anaphase and telophase b. in prophase and metaphase c. in prophase and anaphase d. in prophase and telophase 49. Caspase is the main enzyme that controls apoptosis. Which family of enzymes does this enzyme most likely

belong to? a. lipases b. proteases c. endonucleases d. ligases Figure 7-1

Photomicrograph by Dr. Conly L. Rieder, East Greenbush, New York 50. Which stage of mitosis is shown in photo D in Figure 7-1? a. telophase b. anaphase c. prophase d. interphase

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Chap 07_4ce 51. Which term represents two identical copies of a chromosome? a. sister chromosomes b. sister chromatids c. brother chromosomes d. brother chromatids 52. When growing animal cells in a culture, what must be added to the culture medium for growth to occur? a. growth factors b. RNA c. growth hormone d. DNA 53. Signalling molecules, such as peptide hormones and growth factors, bind to receptors on the cell surface,

which subsequently trigger reactions in the cell. Which of the following is among the reactions? a. causing cells to enter the G0 state b. stopping cell division c. initiating cell division d. slowing the rate of cell division 54. Which of the following best compares animal and plant cell division? a. A cleavage furrow is found in plant cells, while cell plate is found in animal cells. b. A cleavage furrow is found in animal cells, while a cell plate is found in plant cells. c. A cleavage furrow is made possible by vesicles, while a cell plate is made possible by means of

microtubules. d. A cleavage furrow is made possible by vesicles, while a cell plate is made by means of the nucleus. 55. In general, microtubules disassemble and consequently pull the chromatids to the ends of the spindle. When

does this occur? a. during interphase b. during prophase c. during metaphase d. during anaphase 56. What is the name of the specific region where replication of a bacterial chromosome begins? a. the rep b. the ori c. the ter d. the beg

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Chap 07_4ce

Figure 7-1

Photomicrograph by Dr. Conly L. Rieder, East Greenbush, New York 57. Which stage of mitosis is shown in photo E in the figure? a. interphase b. metaphase c. prophase d. anaphase 58. Suppose that, at the beginning of interphase in G1, a cell has 36 chromosomes. How many chromosomes

would be found in that same cell in G2 of interphase? a. 72 b. 64 c. 36 d. 18 59. Suppose that a cell containing 84 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis produces two nuclei. How many

chromosomes does each nucleus contain in late telophase? a. 21 b. 42 c. 84 d. 168

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Chap 07_4ce 60. How genetically identical are cells produced by mitosis? a. completely genetically different b. two-thirds genetically identical c. half genetically identical d. completely genetically identical 61. What is the usual process by which organisms reproduce asexually? a. mitosis b. gametogenesis c. meiosis d. spore formation 62. What is the main structure of the mitotic spindle? a. actin filaments b. intermediate filaments c. keratin d. microtubules 63. Which term refers to the mechanism of prokaryotic growth, DNA replication, and cell division that results in

two identical daughter cells? a. meiosis b. binary fission c. budding d. mitosis 64. When does cytokinesis typically begin? a. after anaphase b. after prophase c. after telophase d. after metaphase 65. Which of the following events occurs during interphase? a. formation of the spindle b. alignment of chromosomes at the spindle midpoint c. disappearance of the nuclear envelope d. DNA synthesis

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Chap 07_4ce 66. What will happen in a cell if it becomes damaged by radiation or chemicals? a. It will not pass the G2 checkpoint. b. It will not enter S from G1. c. It will not synthesize cyclin-dependent kinases. d. It will not enter G1 from mitosis. 67. When does a cell commit to undergoing mitosis? a. once it transitions from S to G2 b. once it transitions from G1 to S c. once it transitions from G1 to G0 d. once it transitions from G2 to prophase 68. Which of the following is synonymous with apoptosis? a. programmed cell life b. the loss of contact inhibition c. programmed cell death d. the gain of contact inhibition 69. What are oncogenes? a. genes that control contact inhibition b. genes that control apoptosis c. mutated genes that promote uncontrolled growth d. non-mutated genes that promote controlled growth 70. What is the Hayflick factor responsible for? a. tissue senescence b. organ senescence c. organ system senescence d. cellular senescence 71. Which term refers to duplication of the complete set of chromosomes in an organism’s cell, followed by the

separation of the duplicated chromosomes into two new cells? a. zygote formation b. mitotic cell division c. binary fission d. meiotic cell division

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Chap 07_4ce 72. In which phase do human nerve cells remain once they become mature? a. in G2 b. in G1 c. in G0 d. in S 73. Which of the following best relates to dinoflagellates? a. Individual organisms are visible from space. b. Individual organisms are macroscopic. c. All species produce neurotoxins. d. Certain species produce neurotoxins. 74. Hereditary information is encoded in a single, circular DNA molecule in most prokaryotes. What is another

feature of the prokaryotic hereditary information? a. The bacterial chromosomes do not have genes that control binary fission. b. Bacterial cells cannot replicate their DNA very rapidly. c. Bacterial cells do not utilize a mitotic spindle to segregate their replicated DNA. d. The DNA of the bacterial chromosome is not replicated prior to segregation. 75. During which of the following phases of the cell cycle does centriole replication occur? a. S phase b. G1 phase c. prophase d. G2 phase 76. Suppose that, once activated, an enzyme activates other enzymes in a cascade of events leading to apoptosis.

Which of the following is this enzyme most likely? a. caspase b. cytokinin c. kinase d. roscovitine

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Chap 07_4ce

For each phrase, choose the most appropriate component of cell cycle regulation. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. CDK b. cyclins c. CDK/cyclin complex d. SPF 77. levels fluctuate throughout the cell cycle 78. levels remain constant throughout the cell cycle 79. turns CDK on or off 80. regulates cell division

Identify the stage of mitosis in which each activity occurs. a. prophase b. prometaphase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase 81. Sister chromatids are pulled to opposite spindle poles. 82. Nuclear envelope disappears. 83. Duplicated chromosomes condense into chromosomes. 84. Daughter chromosomes decondense and the nuclear envelope reforms. 85. Spindle fibre begins to form. 86. Mitotic spindle disassembles. 87. RNA synthesis shuts down. 88. Chromosomes align at the centre of the cell. 89. What is the purpose of cell division in living organisms?

90. Compare spindle formation in animal cells with plant cells. How is this process different?

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Chap 07_4ce 91. Why are cancer cell lines, rather than normal cells, frequently used to study biological processes?

92. How is cell cytokinesis in plant cells different than cytokinesis in animal cells? Explain both.

93. What is the difference between a chromosome and a chromatid?

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Chap 07_4ce Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. c 10. a 11. d 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. a 26. a

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Chap 07_4ce 27. a 28. a 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. b 36. a 37. a 38. d 39. d 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. b 46. d 47. d 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. b 52. a 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_4ce 55. d 56. b 57. b 58. a 59. b 60. d 61. a 62. d 63. b 64. c 65. d 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. c 70. d 71. b 72. c 73. d 74. c 75. a 76. a 77. b 78. a 79. b 80. c 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_4ce 83. a 84. e 85. a 86. e 87. a 88. c 89. Multicellular organisms use cell division mainly for growth and for cell replacement and repair. 90. Animal cells have a centrosome, a site near the nucleus from which microtubules radiate outward in all directions.

The centrosome is the main microtubule organizing centre (MTOC) of the cell, anchoring the microtubule cytoskeleton during interphase and positioning many of the cytoplasmic organelles. The centrosome contains a pair of centrioles, usually arranged at right angles to each other. The centrioles are important in the construction of the mitotic spindle. No centrosome or centrioles are present in plants. Instead, the spindle forms from microtubules that assemble in all directions from multiple MTOCs surrounding the entire nucleus 91. Scientific researchers frequently prefer to use cancer cell lines over normal cells for a number of reasons. Most

importantly, cancer cells are immortal; that is, they can continue to undergo cell division indefinitely provided the proper nutrients and environmental conditions are met. Normal or “primary” cell lines undergo a finite number of divisions, which limits the duration of their use. Other reasons include the fact that cancer cells have less strict nutrient requirements for growth and often have a faster division time. 92. In animals, the layer of microtubules that remains at the former spindle midpoint expands laterally until it stretches

entirely across the dividing cell. As the layer develops, a band of microfilaments forms just inside the plasma membrane, forming a belt that follows the inside boundary of the cell in the plane of the microtubule layer. Powered by motor proteins, the microfilaments slide together, tightening the band and constricting the cell. The constriction forms a groove, the furrow, in the plasma membrane. The furrow gradually deepens, much like the tightening of a drawstring, until the daughter cells are completely separated. The cytoplasmic division isolates the daughter nuclei in the two cells and, at the same time, distributes the organelles and other structures (which have also doubled) approximately equally. This process is termed furrowing. Since plant cells are walled, the plane of cell division is very important for the growth and morphology of the plant. In cell plate formation, a layer of microtubules that persists at the former spindle midpoint serves as an organizing site for vesicles produced by the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and Golgi complex. These vesicles contain polysaccharides, cellulose, and other components of the cell wall. As the vesicles fuse together, their contents assemble into a new cell wall, the cell plate, stretching completely across the former spindle midpoint. Vesicle membranes become the inner plasma membrane of the daughter cells. This junction separates the cytoplasm and its organelles into two parts and isolates the daughter nuclei in separate cells. This process is termed cell plate formation. 93. A chromosome is a linear DNA molecule. Once replicated, each chromosome is composed of two exact copies

called sister chromatids. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. During synapsis, recombination occurs and chromosomal segments are exchanged. 2. Spore is another name for gamete. 3. Haploid organisms growing via mitosis from spores are called gametophytes. 4. Prokaryotic cells can undergo meiosis. 5. Haploid cells have homologous chromosomes. 6. Crossing-over is limited to a single occurrence for a chromosome. 7. The mechanisms that control the number of crossover events in a cell have been well characterized. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 8. What is the purpose of the sex pilus? a. to form a gap junction and conjugate b. to allow transfer of gametes c. to facilitate DNA exchange d. to stabilize a network of bacterial cells 9. During conjugation, which cells are the recipients of the exogenous DNA? a. F– cells b. F2 cells c. F1 cells d. F+ cells 10. For some virulent phages, fragments of the host DNA may be included in the heads as the viral particles

assemble, thus providing the basis for transduction of bacterial genes during the next cycle of infection. What is the name of this mechanism? a. generalized transduction b. transformation c. transmutation d. specific transduction

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Chap 08_4ce 11. Suppose that an organism has the same life strategy as a maple tree. When will the synaptonemal complex be

observed? a. only in a unicellular haploid phase b. in each generation c. only in a multicellular haploid phase d. only in alternating generations 12. Which organisms undergo alternation between haploid and diploid generations? a. all land plants b. all animals c. all bacteria d. all fungi 13. What do bacterial cells do in transduction? a. They take up pieces of DNA through the use of a virus. b. They replicate DNA molecules. c. They make replicate copies of one another. d. They take up pieces of DNA that are released as other cells disintegrate. 14. Which term refers to a virus in the lysogenic cycle that is fully integrated into the host genome? a. virulent phage b. infectious phage c. tempered phage d. prophage 15. In what way is the process of fertilization random? a. in the type of gamete fertilized b. in the selection of which gametes fuse c. in the recombination of chromosomes d. in the number of chromosomes involved 16. Which sentence best describes what occurs during bacterial conjugation? a. Cells exchange their entire genome. b. Cells contact each other using a sex pilus to obtain new alleles. c. Cells contact each other to exchange proteins. d. Cells disrupt each other.

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Chap 08_4ce 17. In terms of meiosis, what is the essential difference between the life cycle of animals and the life cycle of

plants? a. Plants alternate between haploid and diploid generations. b. Animals do not have a haploid phase. c. Animals have a dominant haploid phase. d. Plants alternate between diploid and polyploid generations. 18. How can bacterial cells that cannot readily pick up DNA molecules from their surroundings be forced to do

so? a. by double crossing-over b. by crossing-over c. by artificial transformation d. by constriction 19. Which chromosomal arrangements are responsible for independent assortment of the alleles of two genes? a. random partitioning of daughter cell chromosomes b. random partitioning of paternal and maternal chromosomes c. random partitioning of maternal chromosomes only d. random partitioning of paternal chromosomes only 20. Hfr cells can integrate the F factor and some genes into the bacterial chromosome. How do Hfr cells

accomplish this? a. through crossing-over b. through mitosis c. through meiosis d. through prophase 21. By which molecular process do non-infective strains of bacteria acquire genes from infectious strains? a. by nuclear division b. by metaphase II c. by double crossovers d. by meiosis 22. When do homologous chromosomes undergo recombination? a. during anaphase b. during prophase c. during telophase d. during metaphase

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Chap 08_4ce 23. Suppose that a researcher is looking for met– strains of E. coli. She compares two plates. One plate has

colonies growing on complete media. The other plate has colonies growing on methionine-deficient media. How can the researcher determine which colonies are met– ? a. by replica plating the plate with minimal media onto one with complete media b. by streaking all individual colonies on minimal media c. by replica plating the plate with complete media onto one with minimal media d. by growing the bacteria in broth media that is complete 24. Which of the following best describes the sex chromosomes? a. They are non-homologous. b. They are completely homologous. c. They are heterozygous. d. They are partially homologous, but also have unique regions. 25. Which phrase describes how identical twins can result? a. from the fusion of two paternal gametes with a single maternal gamete that then divides b. from a lack of chromosomal separation during meiosis, resulting in gametes that are diploid and do not

need to be fertilized c. from the fusion of two sets of identical gametes d. from a division of a zygote into two separate cells that develop into two separate embryos 26. Suppose that two strains of E. coli - strain a (bio– met– leu+ thr+ thi+) and strain b (bio+ met+ leu– thr– thi– ) -

conjugate. If the two strains are grown on minimal medium, what is the most likely genotype of their offspring? a. bio+ met– leu– thr– thi+ b. bio+ met+ leu+ thr+ thi+ c. bio+ met+ leu– thr– thi+ d. bio– met– leu– thr– thi+ 27. Which stage of meiosis is characterized by DNA condensation into compact chromosomes? a. prophase I b. prophase II c. prometaphase I d. anaphase I 28. Which phrase best describes sister chromatids? a. two chromosomes having the same alleles of the same genes in a different order b. two chromosomes having different alleles of the same genes arranged in a different order c. two chromosomes having an identical DNA sequence d. two chromosomes having the same genes in the same order, but having different alleles Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_4ce 29. “Thr” refers to a gene that governs a cell’s ability to synthesize threonine from inorganic precursors. What does

the designation “thr+” indicate? a. that the bacterium is biologically inactive b. that the bacterium is biologically active c. that the allele is the mutant allele d. that the allele is normal (i.e., wild type) 30. Which sentence best describes what occurs during bacterial transformation? a. Bacteria take up pieces of DNA through infection of a virus. b. Bacteria replicate DNA molecules. c. Bacteria make replicate copies of one another. d. Bacteria take up pieces of DNA that are released as other cells disintegrate. 31. Suppose that a researcher exposes a non-infective form of the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae to heat-

killed cells of an infective strain. Which process of genetic exchange is most likely to occur between the strains? a. conjugation b. re-infection c. transduction d. transformation 32. Which of the following processes is used by plants to generate gametes from gametophytes? a. conjunction b. mitosis c. meiosis d. transduction 33. Which phrase best describes the result of meiosis? a. the generation of two diploid cells and two haploid cells b. the generation of four diploid cells c. the generation of four haploid cells d. the generation of two diploid cells 34. What would be the outcome, in genetic terms, of recombination between sister chromatids? a. Genetic diversity is unaffected. b. Genetic diversity is decreased. c. Genetic diversity is increased. d. Non-homologous chromatids are formed.

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Chap 08_4ce 35. What is the name of the small circles of DNA that occur in bacteria in addition to the main circular

chromosomal DNA molecule? a. transformants b. plastids c. plasmids d. domains 36. What sort of phage is bacteriophage lambda? a. a virulent phage b. a plant phage c. an animal phage d. a temperate phage 37. Suppose that an unknown organism from an alien planet is observed and found to have a diploid state only

following fertilization. Meiosis follows and the majority of this organism’s life is spent in a haploid state. Which multicellular organisms on Earth most closely resemble this type of life cycle strategy? a. ferns b. maple trees c. humpback whales d. some algae 38. When researchers cultured a heterogeneous mixture of bacterial strains on a master plate containing complete

medium and transferred them onto a replica plate containing minimal medium, what was the result? a. Some bacterial strains were missing. b. All bacterial strains were present. c. New bacterial strains grew. d. All bacterial strains were dead. 39. Which type of DNA is transferred as a result of conjugation involving an Hfr strain of E. coli? a. the F factor b. chromosomal genes c. eukaryotic DNA d. the sex pilus 40. “Bio” refers to a gene that governs a cell’s ability to synthesize biotin from inorganic precursors. What does the

designation “bio+” indicate? a. that the bacterium is biologically inactive b. that the allele is the mutant allele c. that the bacterium is biologically active d. that the allele is normal (i.e., wild type) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_4ce 41. “Leu” refers to a gene that governs a cell’s ability to synthesize leucine from inorganic precursors. What does

the designation “leu– ” indicate? a. that the bacterium is biologically inactive b. that the allele is the mutant allele c. that the bacterium is biologically active d. that the allele is normal (i.e., wild type) 42. Which pattern of diploid and haploid phases reflects the life cycle of plants? a. alternation between haploid and diploid generations b. one haploid generation followed by two diploid generations c. two haploid generations followed by a diploid generation d. a single generation that limits the haploid state to gametes, while the rest of the organism is diploid 43. Which pattern of diploid and haploid phases reflects the life cycles of some fungi and algae, but NOT the life

cycles of plants or animals? a. two haploid generations followed by a diploid generation b. one haploid generation followed by two diploid generations c. a life cycle that limits the diploid state to a single cell produced by fertilization d. alternation between haploid and diploid generations 44. What is identified through the technique of replica plating? a. auxotrophic bacteria b. a heterozygote c. prototrophic bacteria d. phototropic bacteria 45. Which of the following is an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction? a. Sexual reproduction mixes genetic information into a new combination in the next generation. b. Sexual reproduction ensures a greater number of progeny. c. Sexual reproduction keeps the number of chromosomes constant more effectively. d. Sexual reproduction requires an interaction between two individuals. 46. Which genetic factor confers upon bacteria the ability to undergo conjugation? a. the F factor b. the sex pilus c. the X factor d. the C factor

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Chap 08_4ce 47. Who discovered transformation? a. Gregor Mendel b. Fred Griffith c. Elie L. Wollman d. Joshua Lederberg 48. Which pattern of diploid and haploid phases reflects the life cycle of animals? a. alternation between haploid and diploid generations b. one haploid generation followed by two diploid generations c. two haploid generations followed by a diploid generation d. a single generation that limits the haploid state to gametes, while the rest of the organism is diploid 49. Which term refers to media that contain water, organic carbon sources, and salts, but no extra nutritional

components? a. nutritious media b. complete media c. minimal media d. agar media 50. “Met” refers to a gene that governs a cell’s ability to synthesize methionine from inorganic precursors. What

does the designation “met– ” indicate? a. that the allele is normal (i.e., wild type) b. that the bacterium is biologically active c. that the bacterium is biologically inactive d. that the allele is the mutant allele 51. Which of the following is among the results of nondisjunction? a. a change in the status of a daughter cell from diploid to haploid b. a failure of spindle fibres to separate a homologous pair of chromosomes c. one pole receiving neither member of a homologous pair of chromosomes d. a change in the status of a daughter cell from haploid to diploid 52. Which of the following outcomes is more likely to occur in an organism undergoing sexual reproduction than in

an organism undergoing asexual reproduction? a. a rapid increase in population size b. a decrease in genetic diversity c. an increase in genetic diversity d. a rapid colonization of new niches

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Chap 08_4ce 53. Suppose that an unknown organism from an alien planet is observed and found to have a diploid state in every

other generation and to result from fertilization. The haploid state is able to grow into a gametophyte-like structure. Which life cycle strategies does this alien organism closely mimic? a. those of all plants and some fungi b. those of fungi and algae c. those of algae and animals d. those of plants and animals 54. During bacterial conjugation, bacterial DNA with different alleles get together. What is the name of the long

tubular structure that bacteria use to obtain differing alleles? a. the flagellum b. the metabolic pilus c. the sex pilus d. the asexual pilus 55. Which of the following types of genetic material undergo recombination during meiosis? a. sister chromatids b. sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes c. all four chromatids d. homologous chromatids 56. What term refers to the series of events that begins with an infection of one cell and ends with the release of

progeny phages from broken or open cells? a. the lysogenic cycle b. the lytic cycle c. the citric acid cycle d. the Krebs cycle 57. Which phrase best describes a homologous chromosome pair? a. two chromosomes that have different genes in the same order, and possibly have different alleles of

some genes b. two chromosomes that have the same genes in the same order, but have different alleles c. two chromosomes that have the same alleles of the same genes in the same order d. two chromosomes that have different alleles of the same genes arranged in a different order 58. How many recombination events result from cutting and pasting four DNA backbones? a. four b. three c. two d. one Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_4ce 59. What type of genetic recombination results from the mating of two strains of bacteria F+ and F– ? a. transposition b. plasmid genetic recombination c. conjugation d. histone genetic recombination 60. Which of the following always results from recombination at the synaptonemal complex? a. a random number of changed chromatids versus unchanged chromatids b. four unchanged chromatids c. two changed chromatids and two unchanged chromatids d. four changed chromatids 61. Suppose that a species has 42 pairs of chromosomes. Which of the following values represents the number of

combinations of maternal and paternal chromosome combinations that will be sorted to the poles? a. 242 b. 221 c. 422 d. 212

Identify each numbered part of the following illustration.

62. centriole 63. chiasmata 64. metaphase plate 65. tetrad 66. nuclear envelope

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Chap 08_4ce

Match the events listed below to the following processes. A process may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. prophase I b. prometaphase I c. metaphase I d. anaphase I e. telophase I f. prophase II g. prometaphase II h. metaphase II i. anaphase II j. telophase II 67. Nuclear envelope reforms in all species. 68. Spindles are disassembled and replaced by new spindles. 69. Homologous chromosomes undergo recombination. 70. Tetrads align at the metaphase plate. 71. Sister chromatids are separated. 72. This stage is always characterized by the breakdown of the nuclear envelope. 73. In some species, the nuclear envelope may reform during this stage.

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Chap 08_4ce

Match each term with its correct definition. a. cell division that is modified to generate haploid cells b. haploid products of meiosis c. matching of homologous pairs of chromosomes during prophase I d. term used to describe cells having two sets of chromosomes e. diploid body cells that do not undergo meiosis f. term used to describe cells having a single set of chromosomes g. life strategy that involves fusion of haploid gametes from two source organisms to form a diploid cell h. another name for crossover sites i. variant of a particular gene having a slightly different DNA sequence than another variant of the same gene j. diploid product of gamete fusion k. process of gamete fusion 74. sexual reproduction 75. zygote 76. diploid 77. chiasmata 78. meiosis 79. synapsis 80. somatic cells 81. fertilization 82. haploid 83. gametes 84. allele 85. List and briefly explain the four ways in which genetic variability is increased during meiosis.

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Chap 08_4ce 86. Arrange the following in the order in which they occur. Write the letter of the first step next to 1, and so on.

a. anaphase I b. anaphase II c. interkinesis d. metaphase I e. metaphase II f. premeiotic interphase g. prometaphase I h. prometaphase II i. prophase I j. prophase II k. telophase I l. telophase II 1 __________ 2 __________ 3 __________ 4 __________ 5 __________ 6 __________ 7 __________ 8 __________ 9 __________ 10 __________ 11 __________ 12 __________

87. Explain the purpose of meiosis.

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Chap 08_4ce 88. Compare the functions of meiosis I and II in the overall generation of gametes.

89. Describe the two stages in meiosis where the most genetic recombination occurs.

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Chap 08_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False - is not 3. True 4. False - eukaryotic 5. False - diploid 6. False - occurs multiple times 7. False - have not been 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. d 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. c 22. b 23. c 24. d 25. d 26. b

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Chap 08_4ce 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. d 31. d 32. b 33. c 34. a 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. d 49. c 50. d 51. c 52. c 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_4ce 55. d 56. b 57. b 58. d 59. b 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. d 65. c 66. e 67. j 68. e 69. a 70. c 71. i 72. a 73. e 74. g 75. j 76. d 77. h 78. a 79. c 80. e 81. k 82. f Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_4ce 83. b 84. i 85. Meiosis increases genetic variability in four ways: by recombination, random segregation, random fertilization, and

alternative combinations at meiosis II. Recombination is where homologous chromosomes swap segments, creating a new combination of alleles on a single chromosome. Random segregation refers to the sorting of homologous chromosomes to the daughter cells. This results in gametes that have some paternal and maternal chromosomes in a haploid cell. Fertilization is random in the selection of individual alleles that fuse to form a zygote. Alternative combinations at meiosis II allow for chromosomes to align differently in metaphase II. 86.

1F 2I 3G 4D 5A 6K 7C 8J 9H 10 E 11 B 12 L 87. Meiosis is a process that reduces the chromosomal content of a cell to a haploid state so that a daughter can fuse

with another haploid cell from a different member of the same species. This increases genetic variation in the species. 88. Meiosis I is important in providing opportunities for genetic variability to be introduced. This is accomplished via

crossing-over in prophase I and via random assortment in anaphase I. The primary purpose of meiosis II is to create the haploid state after recombination and assortment have created genetic variability. 89. The two stages of meiosis that are the most significant in terms of recombination are prophase I and anaphase I. Of

the three events of sexual reproduction that contribute to genetic variability, two occur in meiosis itself. Prophase I is a significant stage due to crossing-over events in the tetrad. This generates genetic variability at the chromosomal level. Anaphase I increases genetic variation via the randomness of segregation. This creates a new combination of paternal and maternal chromosomes.

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Chap 09_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. There is no limit to the number of alleles that exist for a gene. 2. Mendel knew about and understood incomplete dominance. 3. Codominance occurs when the two alleles both have significant effects, making both alleles detectable in

heterozygotes. 4. A dihybrid testcross should always result in at least 50% of the progeny being recessive for both traits. 5. The environment can impact the phenotype encoded by polygenic inheritance. 6. An F1 organism is always homozygous. 7. Polygenic inheritance is proof of parental traits blending in the next generation according to the blending theory

of inheritance. 8. Cross-pollination occurs within a single plant while self-pollination occurs between two plants. 9. A testcross always uses a homozygous recessive organism as one parent. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10. Suppose that a pink snapdragon (CRCW ) is crossed with a white snapdragon (CW CW ). What percentage of

the progeny will be red? a. 75% b. 50% c. 25% d. 0% 11. Which of the following traits is subject to polygenic inheritance? a. flower colour in snapdragons b. height in humans c. eye colour in humans d. pea texture in pea plants 12. Suppose you have type O blood (genotype ii). To whom can you safely donate blood? a. to people with type O only b. to people with type A only c. to people with types A, B, and O d. to people with type B only

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Chap 09_4ce 13. According to the blending theory of inheritance that predominated before 1900, what colour of progeny would

result from the mating of a white flower and a red flower? a. white b. pink c. red d. some white, others red 14. Suppose your mother has albinism, which is a recessive trait. Suppose also that your father has cystic fibrosis,

which is also caused by a recessive trait. And, you learn that your father-in-law has albinism and cystic fibrosis. What are the odds that your first child will have both albinism and cystic fibrosis? a. 1 in 2 b. 1 in 4 c. 1 in 8 d. 1 in 16 15. Suppose that an F1 dihybrid cross results in a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:4. What does this tell you? a. The second locus is dominant over the first locus. b. Dominance is incomplete at the second locus. c. Epistasis is occurring. d. Codominance is at the second locus. 16. Suppose that your father is heterozygous for sickle cell disease. Suppose also that you know your mom has

two “good” alleles. What is the probability that you will have the disorder and/or carry the “bad” allele and be able to pass it on to your children? a. 0% for you, and you do not need to worry about passing the “bad” allele on to your children b. 0% for you, and a possibility of passing it on to your children c. 25% for you, and 25% for your children d. 50% for you, and 50% for your children 17. Who established the connection between genes, meiosis, and fertilization? a. Erich von Tschermak b. Walter Sutton c. Hugo de Vries d. Gregor Mendel

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Chap 09_4ce 18. Suppose that your mother and father are both healthy but carry the allele for cystic fibrosis, which is caused by

a recessive allele. What are the odds of you having at least one allele for the disorder? a. 1 in 4 b. 1 in 2 c. 3 in 4 d. 1 19. In snapdragons the red allele CR is incompletely dominant over the white allele CW . If you were to cross two

pink snapdragons, what percentage of the progeny will be pink? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100% 20. Suppose that mother has albinism, which is a recessive trait. Suppose also that your father has cystic fibrosis,

which is also caused by a recessive trait. And you learn that your father-in-law has albinism and cystic fibrosis. What is the probability that your first child will NOT have either albinism or cystic fibrosis? a. 1 in 16 b. 1 in 8 c. 3 in 8 d. 2 in 5 21. Mendel crossed true-breeding plants that had yellow peas with plants that had green peas. The resulting plants

all had yellow peas. An F1 cross resulted in three-quarters of the plants having yellow peas and one-quarter of the plants having green peas. What does this tell you about the alleles for colour? a. Green was the dominant colour. b. Yellow was the recessive colour. c. Yellow was the dominant colour. d. Yellow was usually the dominant colour, but sometimes green could be dominant. 22. What is the key difference between incomplete dominance and codominance? a. With incomplete dominance, the recessive allele cannot be detected; in codominance, the expression of

the recessive allele is apparent. b. With codominance, it is possible to detect the expression of a recessive allele; in incomplete dominance, both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype. c. With incomplete dominance, it is possible to detect the expression of the dominant allele; in codominance, both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype. d. With incomplete dominance, it is possible to detect the expression of a recessive allele; in codominance, both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype.

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Chap 09_4ce 23. Suppose that purple is dominant in pea plants. What will be the result of a cross between P generation purple

and white plants? a. all white flowers in the F1 generation b. all purple flowers in the F1 generation c. all purple flowers in the F1 generation, but a lighter purple than in the parents d. mostly purple flowers in the F1 generation, with an occasional white flower 24. Suppose the pigmentation of a Labrador retriever’s fur is subject to epistasis of the B alleles by the e alleles. B

(black) is dominant over b (chocolate brown). E is dominant over e. Homozygous e is epistatic to the black and chocolate genes. Given this information, what genotype would give a yellow (or “golden”) retriever? a. BBee b. BBEe c. BbEe d. bbEE 25. Which of the following shows an F1 monohybrid cross? a. Rr × Rr b. RRMM × rrmm c. rr × RR d. RrMM × Rrmm 26. Which of the following mathematical expressions represents the product rule, leading to the conclusion that

both event X and event Y are occurring? a. P = X2Y2 b. P = XY c. P = X + Y d. P = X2 + Y2 27. Suppose that your parents are both heterozygous for sickle cell disease. What is the probability that you will

have the disorder? a. 25%, whether or not you have siblings b. 50%, whether or not you have siblings c. 75%, whether or not you have siblings d. 100%, whether or not you have siblings

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Chap 09_4ce 28. Suppose that your blood type is B. Which of these alleles do you most likely carry in your body? a. only IB, or IB and i b. only i, or IB and i c. only IA , or IA and i d. only i, or IA and i 29. Mendel selected seven traits in pea plants to study. Why were his results relatively easy to interpret, even

though he was examining seven distinct traits? a. All seven traits were easy to characterize. b. The seven alleles segregated independently from each other. c. Peas are easy to raise and have short life cycles. d. He knew enough mathematics to apply rules of probability to his results. 30. Suppose that at least one of your parents has Huntington’s disease, which is caused by a dominant allele. What

are the odds of you inheriting the disorder? a. 100% b. 75% c. 50% d. 25% 31. Suppose the probability of X occurring is 1 in 4, and the probability of Y occurring is 1 in 5. What is the

probability of both occurring? a. (1/4) + (1/5) = (5/20) + (4/20) = 9/20 b. (1/4)2 + (1/5)2 = (1/16) + (1/25) = (25/400) + (16/400) = 41/400 c. (1/4) × (1/5) = 1/20 d. (1/4)2 × (1/5)2 = (1/16) × (1/25) = 1/400 32. Mendel performed a testcross with his plants and all the resulting progeny had the same colour. What

information did this testcross provide? a. The parent with the dominant trait is homozygous. b. The parent with the dominant trait is heterozygous. c. The parent with the recessive trait is heterozygous. d. The parent with the recessive trait is homozygous.

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Chap 09_4ce 33. Which of the following is one of Mendel’s three hypotheses for explaining his observations? a. Adult plants always have traits that are governed by a single pair of alleles, but the number of possible

alleles varies with each trait. b. The pairs of alleles remain together in the formation of gametes so that each gamete gets both alleles. c. Adult plants carry a trio of genes that will determine the inheritance of each allele. d. If an adult plant has two different alleles, the alleles blend. 34. Which of the following conditions is subject to epistasis? a. insulin resistance b. cystic fibrosis c. sickle cell disease d. albinism 35. Suppose that both of your parents have Huntington’s disease, which is caused by a dominant allele, and are

both heterozygous for the disease. What are the odds of you having the disorder? a. 100% b. 75% c. 50% d. 25% 36. Human blood types follow which of the following inheritance patterns? a. dominance and codominance b. dominance and incomplete dominance c. codominance d. incomplete dominance 37. Which of the following mathematical expressions represents the sum rule, which can be used to determine the

probability of either event X or event Y occurring if they CANNOT occur simultaneously? (In the equations below, Px means probability of event X; Py means probability of event Y.) a. = (Px)2 + (Py)2 b. = Px + Py c. = PxPy d. = (Px + Py)2

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Chap 09_4ce 38. Snapdragons have incomplete dominance of the red and white alleles. What will be the phenotypes and ratios

of the F2 generation? a. 100% pink b. 100% red c. 50% white, 50% red d. 25% white, 25% red, 50% pink 39. Suppose you have type A blood (genotype IA i). To whom can you safely donate blood? a. to people with type A only b. to people with type AB only c. to people with type O only d. to people with types A and AB 40. Which of the following best identifies the “White Bear” in Northern British Columbia? a. a giant raccoon b. a blonde version of the grizzly bear c. a blonde version of the black bear d. a polar bear 41. Suppose your mother has cystic fibrosis, which is caused by a recessive allele, but your father has a normal

phenotype. However, all of your father’s siblings have cystic fibrosis. What are the odds of you inheriting the disease? a. 0 b. 1 in 2 c. 3 in 4 d. 1 42. Suppose that your mother and father both have cystic fibrosis, which is caused by a recessive allele. What are

the odds of you having cystic fibrosis? a. 1 b. 3 in 4 c. 1 in 2 d. 1 in 4 43. Suppose that your father is heterozygous for a recessive disorder. Also suppose that you know your mom has

two “good” alleles. What is the probability that you will have the disorder? a. 75% b. 50% c. 25% d. 0% Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_4ce 44. Which sentence describes the principle of independent assortment? a. Genes on the same chromosome are always inherited together. b. Two alleles for a single trait are randomly sorted to individual gametes; chromosomes are not

mentioned. c. Alleles on different homologous chromosomes are not randomly sorted to individual gametes. d. Genes on the same chromosome are not randomly sorted to different gametes. 45. Suppose that your mother has albinism, which is a recessive trait. Also suppose your father has cystic fibrosis,

which is also caused by a recessive trait. And you learn that your father-in-law has albinism and cystic fibrosis. What are the odds that your first child will have either albinism or cystic fibrosis, but NOT both? a. 3 in 8 b. 1 in 4 c. 1 in 8 d. 1 in 16 46. Suppose that round is the dominant allele for a pea; the recessive allele produces a wrinkled pea. How can

true-breeding pea plants having round peas be obtained with the least amount of work? a. perform a testcross of the plants with wrinkled peas to determine which are true breeding b. perform a testcross on the plants with round peas to determine which are true breeding c. perform multiple crosses between plants with round peas until one emerges that seems true breeding d. perform multiple crosses between plants with wrinkled peas until one emerges that seems true breeding 47. Skin colour in humans is caused by polygenic inheritance. Which one of the following statements is implied by

this form of inheritance? a. The skin colour of children will always be identical to one parent or the other. b. The skin colour of children will always be intermediate to that of their parents. c. The skin colour of children will most often be identical to that of one of their parents, but sometimes not. d. The skin colour of children will most often be intermediate to that of their parents, but sometimes not. 48. Which of the following is a result of an incomplete dominance? a. orange carnations b. white carnations c. pink carnations d. red carnations

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Chap 09_4ce 49. Mendel studied what he called characters and traits. What terms do we use today that have the same

meaning? a. alleles and genes b. homozygous and heterozygous c. diploid and haploid d. genotype and phenotype 50. Gregor Mendel was trained in many academic disciplines. Which two were the most important to the

development of his genetic theories? a. religion and mathematics b. mathematics and botany c. religion and botany d. mathematics and zoology 51. Suppose that R is the dominant allele for a round pea, and r is the recessive allele for a wrinkled pea. Suppose

also that you cross plants having round peas with plants having wrinkled peas. Which of the following is the most likely result? a. The offspring will be neither round nor wrinkled. b. The offspring will be mostly wrinkled. c. The offspring will all be wrinkled. d. The offspring will all be round. 52. Which of the following is a dihybrid cross? a. RrMM × Rrmm b. RRMM × rrmm c. rrMM × RRmm d. RrMm × RrMm 53. Which of the following phenotypic ratios would be expected to result from a dihybrid cross? a. 3:1 b. 9:3:1 c. 9:3:3:1 d. 9:3:4 54. Suppose that your mother and father both have cystic fibrosis, which is caused by a recessive allele. What are

the odds of you having only one allele for the disorder? a. 1 b. 1 in 2 c. 1 in 4 d. 0 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_4ce 55. Suppose that your father has B blood and your mother has O blood. You learn that your blood is also type O.

What does this tell you? a. You were adopted and your parents did not tell you. b. You inherited one parent’s blood type but not the other parent’s blood type. c. Your father’s genotype is IBIB and your mother’s genotype is ii. d. Your father’s genotype is IBi and your mother’s genotype is ii. 56. Suppose that a parent has a genotype of RrYy. What is the probability of this parent producing a gamete with

the RY genotype? a. 3 in 4 b. 1 in 2 c. 1 in 4 d. 1 in 8 57. Which of the following represents a testcross? a. RrMm × RrMm b. RRMM × rrmm c. rrMM × RRmm d. RrMm × rrmm 58. Suppose that a patient presents the following symptoms: anemia, dilation of heart, lung damage and

pneumonia, rheumatism, abdominal pain, and kidney failure. After learning about the patient’s family history, which disorder did the doctor run a genetic test for? a. cystic fibrosis b. albinism c. sickle cell disease d. achondroplasia 59. Suppose that pigmentation of a Labrador retriever’s fur is subject to epistasis of the B alleles by the e alleles. B

(black) is dominant over b (chocolate brown). E is dominant over e. Homozygous e is epistatic to the black and chocolate-brown genes. Given this information, what will result from a F1 dihybrid cross between two dogs? a. 9/16 black, 6/16 brown, 1/16 yellow b. 9/16 black, 3/16 brown, 4/16 yellow c. 9/16 yellow, 6/16 brown, 1/16 black d. 9/16 yellow, 3/16 brown, 4/16 black Match each term with its correct definition. a. displayed traits are unchanged over multiple generations b. first generation of offspring from a parental cross Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_4ce c. true-breeding organisms used in the initial cross d. result of a cross between two first-generation organisms e. allele that is expressed no matter what other allele is present f. allele that is expressed only if two identical copies are present g. any organism with two identical copies of an allele h. any organism with two different forms of an allele i. F1 heterozygote (for a single trait) j. genetic makeup of an organism k. physical traits of an organism l. likelihood of something occurring if the occurrence is a matter of chance m. organism that is heterozygous for two different traits n. where an allele is found on a chromosome o. when one allele cannot completely mask the effects of another allele p. alleles at one locus mask the expression of alleles at a different locus q. several different genes contribute to a particular phenotype r. single allele has multiple phenotypic effects 60. monohybrid 61. dihybrid 62. phenotype 63. genotype 64. P generation 65. probability 66. dominant 67. F1 generation 68. true breeding 69. homozygous 70. pleiotropy 71. recessive 72. polygenic inheritance 73. F2 generation 74. epistasis 75. heterozygous 76. incomplete dominance 77. locus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_4ce

Match the examples listed below to the following five types of allele interactions. a. dominance b. incomplete dominance c. codominance d. epistasis e. polygenic inheritance 78. Labrador retrievers have three colours of fur due to this allele interaction. 79. Peas being wrinkled or round is an example of this. 80. Human height is an example of this. 81. Human blood type AB is an example of this allele interaction. 82. Snapdragons have two alleles and three colours due to this. 83. Explain why human height appears to be a mixture of parental phenotypes when in fact height is genetically

based.

84. Define epistasis and give an example.

85. Explain why Mendel’s work was so ground breaking.

86. Would meiosis, when it was discovered, have been understood without Mendel’s work? Explain why or why

not, using Mendel’s three key findings about inheritance.

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Chap 09_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False - complete dominance 3. True 4. False - 25% 5. True 6. False - heterozygous 7. False - is not 8. False - self; cross 9. True 10. d 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. c 19. c 20. d 21. c 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. b

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Chap 09_4ce 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. c 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. a 37. b 38. d 39. d 40. c 41. b 42. a 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. b 51. d 52. d 53. c 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_4ce 55. d 56. c 57. d 58. c 59. b 60. i 61. m 62. k 63. j 64. c 65. l 66. e 67. b 68. a 69. g 70. r 71. f 72. q 73. d 74. p 75. h 76. o 77. n 78. d 79. a 80. e 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_4ce 83. Human height is a result of polygenic inheritance where multiple genes contribute to this single phenotypic trait. When

genes are inherited from two parents of vastly different heights, this will result in a reduced number of alleles for tall height compared to the tall parent and an increased number of alleles for tall height compared to the shorter parent. 84. Epistasis is where one set of genes will affect the expression of a different set of genes. An example would be fur

colour in Labrador retrievers. In Labs, the genes for black and brown fur can be silenced by the expression of a homozygous recessive allele that blocks pigment production, thus producing a yellow, or golden, Lab. 85. Mendel applied both the scientific method and mathematics to understanding the patterns of inheritance in pea

plants. His work explained the rules of genetics even before chromosomes had been discovered; and while these rules have been refined, the fundamental rules of genetics that he established are still considered valid today. He was ahead of his time in his thinking, and his work was not well known or appreciated until long after his death. 86. No, meiosis would not have been understood without Mendel’s work to explain why the chromosome movements

and interactions were taking place. Mendel discovered the fundamental patterns of inheritance, such as an individual having two alleles for a single trait, each derived from a parent. This was followed by the patterns of dominance, which would explain why phenotypes could change over generations even though individuals were closely related to each other. And his principle of segregation explained why meiosis, and not mitosis, was necessary for the formation of gametes. The importance of Mendel’s work cannot be overstated because it is the foundation upon which all of modern genetics rests.

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Chap 10_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Suppose two genes a and b are 7.4 map units from each other, and that genes b and c are 5.7 map units from

each other. You do a cross to determine the map distance between a and c. Which result would indicate that c lies between a and b? a. 2.0 map units b. 10.1 map units c. 14.8 map units d. 15.0 map units 2. Consider the following genetic study involving two autosomal genes. One of these, eye colour, has the

dominant allele (R) for red eye colour and the recessive allele (r) for yellow eye colour. The other has the dominant allele (T) leading to paws with thumbs, while the recessive allele (t) codes for paws without thumbs. Presuming no linkage between the genes, what should be the phenotype ratio of the offspring produced by a testcross (RrTt × rrtt)? a. 1 red-eyed with thumbs : 1 yellow-eyed without thumbs b. 1 red-eyed with thumbs : 1 yellow-eyed with thumbs : 1 red-eyed without thumbs : 1 yellow-eyed without thumbs c. 3 red-eyed with thumbs : 1 yellow-eyed without thumbs d. 9 red-eyed with thumbs : 3 yellow-eyed with thumbs : 3 red-eyed without thumbs : 1 yellow-eyed without thumbs Figure 10-1

3. In Figure 10-1, what type of change in the chromosomes is depicted? a. an inversion b. a deletion c. a reciprocal translocation d. a duplication

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Chap 10_4ce 4. Suppose you are a genetic counsellor, and a man and woman come to you with concerns that if they have a

child together, it could have hemophilia. Also suppose that the man has an X-linked recessive form of hemophilia, but the woman does NOT, and that genetic tests reveal the woman is NOT a carrier for hemophilia. Which of the following is the best advice you could give them? a. Each child that they produce will have a 50% chance of having hemophilia. b. None of their offspring should have hemophilia, but each of their female offspring will be carriers for hemophilia. c. Each of their male offspring will have a 50% chance of having hemophilia; and while their female offspring should not have hemophilia, they will each have a 50% chance of being carriers. d. Each of their male offspring will have hemophilia, and each of their female offspring will have a 50% chance of having hemophilia. 5. What do genetic map units represent? a. relative positions of genes with respect to each other b. the chromosome on which a given gene is located c. the actual DNA sequence of a gene d. absolute physical distances between genes 6. Which of the following traits determines recombination frequency between two linked genes? a. the relative sizes of the two chromosomes that each have one of the two genes b. the overall size of the chromosome on which the genes are located c. the distance between the two chromosomes that each have one of the two genes d. the distance between the two genes on a single chromosome 7. Suppose that you examine a vial of 100 flies that are all offspring from a single genetic cross. Also suppose

that the only females you see present are red-eyed, but the males you see present are both red-eyed and white-eyed. The allele for red eye colour (Xw+) is dominant over the allele for white eye colour (Xw). Which of the following describes the genotypes of the parents? a. Xw+Xw; Xw+Y b. XwXw; Xw+Y c. Xw+Xw; XwY d. Xw+Xw+; Xw+Y 8. Which term refers to an individual with extra or missing copies of some of their chromosomes? a. haploid b. aneuploid c. polyploid d. euploid

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Chap 10_4ce 9. Which of the following occurs in cells of human individuals with three or more X chromosomes? a. Two X chromosomes remain active, and all others are inactivated. b. One X chromosome remains active, and the rest are inactivated. c. All of the X chromosomes remain active. d. Two X chromosomes remain active in females and one remains active in males; the rest are inactivated. 10. Most hospitals routinely test all newborns for an autosomal recessive disorder in which an enzyme in amino

acid metabolism is NOT produced. In this disorder, lack of the enzyme leads to a buildup of compounds that damage brain tissue, possibly leading to mental retardation, unless a restricted diet is followed. What is the name of this disorder? a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. achondroplasia c. sickle cell anemia d. phenylketonuria 11. About half of all flowering plant species, including many important crop plants, belong to which category of

chromosomes? a. euploids b. haploids c. aneuploids d. polyploids 12. From which studies did the discovery of sex-linked genes and the production of the first chromosome map

arise? a. from the studies of pea plants b. from the studies of humans c. from the studies of corn d. from the studies of fruit flies 13. Suppose that you examine a vial of 100 flies that are all offspring from a single genetic cross. Also suppose

that you find both red-eyed females and white-eyed females, as well as both red-eyed males and white-eyed males. The allele for red eye colour (Xw+) is dominant over the allele for white eye colour (Xw). Which of the following describes the genotypes of the parents? a. Xw+Xw+; XwY b. Xw+Xw; XwY c. Xw+Xw; Xw+Y d. XwXw; Xw+Y

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Chap 10_4ce 14. Suppose that crossing-over during meiosis occurs within a region where one of the homologous chromosomes

has an inversion with respect to the other homolog. Which chromosomal alteration would you expect to find in the gametes produced by this organism? a. balanced translocations b. translocations c. both duplications and deletions d. deletions only 15. A woman with which of the following human conditions would exhibit normal physical features? a. triple-X syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Down syndrome d. cri-du-chat 16. Which of the following is most likely to happen to a human polyploid? a. survival until the mid-30s age range b. death around the age of one year c. natural abortion d. survival until the early teenage years 17. In humans, which condition does sex determination generally depend upon? a. on the environment in the womb b. on the number of X chromosomes present c. on whether or not the Y chromosome is present d. on whether or not the X chromosome is present 18. Why do carriers for sickle cell anemia have a genetic advantage in some situations over those who are not

carriers? a. because carriers have the ability to carry more oxygen in their blood b. because carriers have increased resistance to malaria c. because carriers have hyperactive immune systems d. because carriers have lower blood pressure

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Chap 10_4ce

Figurer 10-3

19. In Figure 10-3, what type of change in the chromosomes is depicted? a. a deletion b. a reciprocal translocation c. an inversion d. a duplication

Figure 10-2

20. In Figure 10-2, what type of change in the chromosomes is depicted? a. a reciprocal translocation b. a duplication c. an inversion d. a deletion 21. Which sex chromosome combinations would you expect to find in a male calico cat? a. XX b. XXY c. XYY d. XY 22. Suppose you are a genetic counsellor, and a man and woman come to you with concerns that if they have a

child together, it could have cystic fibrosis. Also suppose that genetic tests reveal that the woman is a carrier for cystic fibrosis but the man is NOT. Which of the following is the best advice you could give them? a. Each child that they produce will have a 50% chance of having cystic fibrosis, and the other 50% will be carriers. b. They should not have any concerns, because no child that they produce should have cystic fibrosis. c. No child that they produce should have cystic fibrosis, but each of their children will have a 50% chance of being a carrier. d. Each of their offspring will have cystic fibrosis.

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Chap 10_4ce 23. Which phrase best describes chromosomal nondisjunction? a. failure of homologous pairs or sister chromatids to separate during meiosis b. failure of sister chromatids to pair during mitosis c. improper pairing of nonhomologous chromosomes during meiosis d. failure of homologous pairs to separate during meiosis 24. Under which condition would you expect the SRY gene to be switched on? a. if no X chromosome is present b. if an X chromosome is present c. if a Y chromosome is present d. if two X chromosomes are present

Figure 10-4

25. In Figure 10-4, what type of change in the chromosomes is depicted? a. an inversion b. a deletion c. a reciprocal translocation d. a duplication 26. Suppose that you are a genetic counsellor, and a couple comes to you with concerns that if they have a child

together, it could have hemophilia. Suppose also that neither one of them has hemophilia, but the woman’s biological father did have an X-linked recessive form of hemophilia. Which of the following is the best advice you could give them? a. Each of their male offspring will have hemophilia, and each of their female offspring will have a 50% chance of having hemophilia. b. None of their offspring should have hemophilia, but each of their female offspring will be carriers for hemophilia. c. Each child that they produce will have a 50% chance of having hemophilia. d. Each of their male offspring will have a 50% chance of having hemophilia, and while their female offspring should not have hemophilia, they will each have a 50% chance of being carriers.

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Chap 10_4ce 27. Which of these disorders has X-linked recessive inheritance? a. sickle cell anemia b. phenylketonuria c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy d. achondroplasia

Figure 10-5

28. Which genetic condition is revealed in the karyotype display in Figure 10-5? a. cri-du-chat b. triple-X syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Down syndrome 29. Suppose that you examine a vial of 100 flies that are all offspring from a single genetic cross. Suppose also that

you see that all the females present are red-eyed and all the males present are white-eyed. The allele for red eye colour (Xw+) is dominant over the allele for white eye colour (Xw). Which of the following describes the genotypes of the parents? a. Xw+Xw; XwY b. XwXw; Xw+Y c. Xw+Xw+; XwY d. Xw+Xw; Xw+Y 30. Which term refers to an expression of only one allele of a gene and the silencing of the other allele, all based on

which parent contributed each allele? a. genomic imprinting b. uniparental inheritance c. sex-linked inheritance d. cytoplasmic inheritance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_4ce 31. In Drosophila melanogaster the allele for long wings is dominant over the allele for vestigial wings, and the

allele for a grey body is dominant over the allele for a black body. A testcross was done to check for genetic linkage between the genes for these traits, with the following results for the offspring: 410 flies with long wings and a black body 105 flies with long wings and a grey body 390 flies with vestigial wings and a grey body 95 flies with vestigial wings and a black body Which of the following best represents the map distance between the genes for these two traits? a. 10.0 map units b. 20.0 map units c. 40.0 map units d. 100.0 map units 32. What is caused by the human genetic condition called Leber’s hereditary neuropathy? a. loss of muscular strength in the arms b. loss of reproductive ability c. loss of central vision d. loss of neural control in the legs 33. Which genes are subject to cytoplasmic inheritance? a. genes found in mitochondria and chloroplasts b. genes found in viruses c. genes found in bacteria d. genes found in sex chromosomes 34. Which autosomal dominant genetic trait associated with a gene on human chromosome 4 leads to a type of

dwarfing due to defective cartilage formation? a. achondroplasia b. sickle cell anemia c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy d. phenylketonuria

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Chap 10_4ce 35. Suppose that you examine a vial of 100 flies that are all offspring from a single genetic cross, and you find only

red-eyed females and red-eyed males present. You allow these flies to interbreed, and in the next generation you find all the females are red-eyed, but you find both red-eyed and white-eyed males. The allele for red eye colour (Xw+) is dominant over the allele for white eye colour (Xw). Which of the following best describes the genotypes of the original parents? a. Xw+Xw+; XwY b. Xw+Xw; Xw+Y c. Xw+Xw; XwY d. XwXw; Xw+Y 36. How is the distinctive fur pattern of a calico cat produced? a. by X-chromosome inactivation b. by hormones c. by Y-chromosome inactivation d. by epistasis 37. Which scientist was responsible for the characterization of linked genes? a. Gregor Mendel b. James Watson c. Thomas Morgan d. Alfred Sturtevant 38. Which of the following kinds of information can be revealed through a family pedigree analysis? a. the chromosomal location of disease-related allele b. sex linkage c. the DNA sequence of disease-related allele d. the source of the original mutation in the disease-related allele 39. About 4% of people of northern European descent are carriers for an autosomal recessive genetic disorder in

which a defective membrane transport protein leads to abnormal chloride levels in extracellular fluids. What is the name of this disorder? a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. cystic fibrosis c. achondroplasia d. sickle cell anemia

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Chap 10_4ce 40. If two genes are located on different chromosomes, what percentage of the offspring should have a

recombinant phenotype? a. about 75% b. about 50% c. about 25% d. about 10% 41. Suppose that in Drosophila melanogaster, the allele for red eyes is dominant over the allele for purple eyes,

and the allele for a grey body is dominant over the allele for a black body. Also suppose that a testcross was done to check for genetic linkage between the genes for these traits, with the following results for the offspring: 478 flies with red eyes and a black body 27 flies with red eyes and a grey body 462 flies with purple eyes and a grey body 33 flies with purple eyes and a black body Which of the following best represents the map distance between the genes for these two traits? a. 50.0 map units b. 30.0 map units c. 27.0 map units d. 6.0 map units 42. Which process is generally the cause for the production of recombinant offspring for two genes on the same

chromosome? a. movement of transposable elements b. exon shuffling c. gene duplication d. crossing-over between homologous chromosomes 43. Suppose you are a genetic counsellor, and a man and woman come to you with concerns that if they have a

child together, it could have hemophilia. Also suppose that the woman has an X-linked recessive form of hemophilia, but the man does NOT. Which of the following is the best advice you could give them? a. Each of their male offspring will have hemophilia, and each of their female offspring will have a 50% chance of having hemophilia. b. Each of their male offspring will have a 50% chance of having hemophilia; and while their female offspring should not have hemophilia, they will each have a 50% chance of being carriers. c. None of their offspring should have hemophilia, but each of their female offspring will be carriers for hemophilia. d. Each of their male offspring will have hemophilia; and while their female offspring should not have hemophilia, they will all be carriers. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_4ce 44. Which of the following most likely describes an individual who is a “carrier” of a genetically inherited disease? a. The individual has the disease, and any offspring will have the disease. b. The individual does not have the disease, but must have a parent with the disease. c. The individual does not have the disease, but may have offspring with the disease. d. The individual has the disease, and must have a parent with the disease. 45. Which of the following processes is most likely responsible for many mammals having multiple hemoglobin

genes? a. a reciprocal translocation b. a duplication c. an inversion d. a deletion 46. If two genes on the same chromosome are located 10 map units from each other, what percentage of the

offspring should have a recombinant phenotype? a. about 10% b. about 25% c. about 50% d. about 75% 47. Suppose that a woman with normal blood clotting mates with a man who has X-linked hemophilia. Given that

the woman is heterozygous for the trait, which statement best predicts the outcomes of their mating? a. All the children will have hemophilia. b. Half the boys and none of the girls will have hemophilia. c. Half the boys and half the girls will have hemophilia. d. None of the children should have hemophilia. 48. How does the age of the mother seem to correlate with the incidence of genetic birth defects? a. Defect incidence sometimes increases and sometimes decreases with increasing age. b. Defect incidence decreases with increasing age. c. Defect incidence increases with increasing age. d. Defect incidence has no correlation to age. 49. Suppose an individual is born with both an X and a Y chromosome, but the Y chromosome has a mutation that

eliminates the function of the SRY gene. How would this person appear phenotypically? a. hermaphrodite b. male c. male, but with some female features d. female

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Chap 10_4ce 50. Suppose that a man and woman have a son with a rare genetic disorder known to be X-linked. There is no

occurrence of the disorder on the woman’s side of the family, but the man’s brother has it, as does her father. What is the probability that the son’s defective allele came from the man? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100% 51. Which phrase best defines what is meant by gene linkage? a. genes that do not sort independently due to their being physically near each other on the same

chromosome b. genes that affect two different traits and that lead to a 9:3:3:1 phenotype ratio in a dihybrid cross c. different alleles of the same gene d. genes whose effects combine to affect a single characteristic 52. Which of the following is the molecular mechanism responsible for genomic imprinting? a. methylation b. ligation c. mutation d. deletion 53. A mutation in the human gene for a fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) is related to cartilage formation.

Which disorder does this mutation appear to be responsible for? a. phenylketonuria b. sickle cell anemia c. achondroplasia d. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 54. What is the name of the human disorder in which a deletion from chromosome 5 typically leads to severe

mental retardation and a malformed larynx? a. triple-X syndrome b. cri-du-chat c. Down syndrome d. Turner syndrome 55. What are the two major types of chromosomes in many eukaryotic organisms? a. sex and non-sex b. XY and ZZ c. sex and autosomes d. autosomes and ZZ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_4ce 56. About 10% to 15% of African Americans are carriers of an autosomal recessive genetic disorder in which a

defective version of hemoglobin is produced. What is the name of this disorder? a. phenylketonuria b. Duchenne muscular dystrophy c. sickle cell anemia d. achondroplasia 57. Prader–Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome are both caused by the same genetic deletion on human

chromosome 15, but they have very different phenotypes. Whether one or the other syndrome occurs depends upon which parent provided the chromosome with the deletion. What is this pattern of inheritance an example of? a. sex-linked inheritance b. cytoplasmic inheritance c. genomic imprinting d. uniparental inheritance 58. How are mitochondria inherited in most multicellular organisms? a. only from the father b. from the mother for females and from the father for males c. randomly from either the father or the mother d. only from the mother 59. Who developed the concept of mapping genes on chromosomes when he was an undergraduate student? a. Thomas Morgan b. Francis Crick c. James Watson d. Alfred Sturtevant 60. Suppose that a woman with normal blood clotting mates with a man who also has normal blood clotting, and

that their first child is a boy who has X-linked hemophilia. Which statement best predicts the outcomes of their mating? a. All the children will have hemophilia. b. None of the children should have hemophilia. c. All the boys and half the girls will have hemophilia. d. Half the boys and none of the girls will have hemophilia.

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Chap 10_4ce 61. Which of the following best describes sex-linked genes? a. They are located on the X chromosome. b. They are linked to the sex-determining gene. c. They are expressed differently based on the sex of an individual. d. They are determinants of the sex of an individual. 62. Suppose that you are a genetic counsellor, and a man and woman come to you with concerns that if they have

a child together, it could have sickle cell anemia. Also suppose that genetic tests reveal that the man and woman are both carriers for sickle cell anemia. Which of the following is the best advice you could give them? a. They should not have any concerns, because no child that they produce will have sickle cell anemia. b. Each child that they produce will have a 25% chance of having sickle cell anemia. c. No child that they produce should have sickle cell anemia, but each of their children’s offspring will have a 50% chance of being a carrier. d. Each child that they produce will have a 50% chance of having sickle cell anemia, and the other 50% will be carriers. 63. Which term refers to an individual with three or more copies of each of their chromosomes? a. aneuploid b. haploid c. euploid d. polyploid 64. Prenatal diagnosis techniques such as amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling involve the removal of cells

that were produced by an embryo. What are these cells then used for? a. to test for the presence of mutant alleles or chromosomal alterations b. to treat diseases c. for implantation to produce pregnancy d. to develop embryonic stem cells 65. Suppose that in studies of genes on the same chromosome, you find the following recombination frequencies: a

40% frequency for a and b, a 30% frequency for a and c, and a 10% frequency for b and c. Which phrase best describes the relationship between genes a, b, and c? a. alternative alleles that are not physically possible because the numbers do not add up b. linked genes that are not physically possible because the numbers do not add up c. linked genes d. different alleles of the same gene

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Chap 10_4ce 66. Consider the following genetic study involving two autosomal genes. One of these, eye colour, has the

dominant allele (R) for red eye colour and the recessive allele (r) for yellow eye colour. The other has the dominant allele (T) leading to paws with thumbs, while the recessive allele (t) codes for paws without thumbs. If these genes are not linked, what should be the phenotype ratio of the offspring produced by a testcross (RrTt × rrtt)? a. 1 red-eyed with thumbs : 1 yellow-eyed without thumbs b. 1 red-eyed with thumbs : 1 yellow-eyed with thumbs : 1 red-eyed without thumbs : 1 yellow-eyed without thumbs c. 3 red-eyed with thumbs : 1 yellow-eyed without thumbs d. 9 red-eyed with thumbs : 3 yellow-eyed with thumbs : 3 red-eyed without thumbs : 1 yellow-eyed without thumbs 67. What typically leads to cancers associated with mammalian insulin growth factor 2 (Igf2)? a. duplication b. translocation c. X-inactivation d. loss of imprinting

Match each of the following genetic conditions with its mode of inheritance. A mode of inheritance may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. autosomal recessive b. autosomal dominant c. X-linked recessive d. aneuploidy e. genomic imprinting 68. sickle cell anemia 69. cystic fibrosis 70. phenylketonuria 71. hemophilia 72. red-green colour blindness 73. achondroplasia 74. Down syndrome

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Chap 10_4ce 75. Suppose that you have discovered a new mutant in Drosophila melanogaster. What kinds of genetic crosses

should you do to determine if the allele causing the mutation is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait, an autosomal recessive trait, or a sex-linked trait?

76. Suppose that you are working in a research lab on the organism Drosophila melanogaster and you have

been given the job of determining the relative positions of three linked genes for your undergraduate research project. A graduate student in the lab tells you that gene a is 5.0 centimorgans from gene b, and that gene c is 2.7 centimorgans from gene b. What should you do to finish mapping these three genes? What results are likely to occur, and how would you interpret such results?

77. Suppose your cousin finds out that she is a carrier for phenylketonuria. Also suppose that her husband’s

biological mother has phenylketonuria. She asks you to explain what this could mean if she and her husband have children, and she asks you what, if anything, could be done to best protect any child that they have. What would you tell her?

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Chap 10_4ce Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. d 11. d 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. d 20. c 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. c 25. b 26. d

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Chap 10_4ce 27. c 28. d 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. c 33. a 34. a 35. a 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. d 43. d 44. c 45. b 46. a 47. c 48. c 49. d 50. a 51. a 52. a 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_4ce 55. c 56. c 57. c 58. d 59. d 60. d 61. a 62. b 63. d 64. a 65. c 66. b 67. d 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. c 72. c 73. b 74. d 75. You should do at least the following crosses:

i. male with the mutant phenotype X female with the mutant phenotype ii. male with the mutant phenotype X female without the mutant phenotype iii. male without the mutant phenotype X female with the mutant phenotype After examining the offspring of these crosses, you may need to do even more crosses to determine the inheritance pattern. Crosses within some of the offspring sets may be very useful in such cases.

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Chap 10_4ce 76. To complete this task, one should perform crosses that will allow determination of the recombination frequency

between gene a and gene c. The recombination frequency will give the map distance between genes a and c. Two outcomes are likely: an a–c map distance of about 2.3 centimorgans, and an a–c map distance of about 7.7 centimorgans. The results may not be exactly these values, but they should be close to one or the other of them. A result of close to 2.3 centimorgans would indicate that gene c is between genes a and b, while a result of close to 7.7 centimorgans would indicate that gene b is between genes a and c. 77. First, I would tell her that phenylketonuria is easily treated by dietary adjustments, and that with proper guidance and

behaviour, people with phenylketonuria are able to lead full, productive, and essentially normal lives. I would tell her that the way phenylketonuria is inherited guarantees that her husband is also a carrier, because his mother has it. He got a normal copy of the gene involved in phenylketonuria from his father, and he got the phenylketonuria form of the gene from his mother. The normal copy from his father prevents him from having phenylketonuria himself. I would tell her that, as a carrier, she is in the same situation—she has one normal copy of the gene and one abnormal copy, and the normal copy keeps her from having phenylketonuria. Because the odds of passing on any gene copy are essentially the same as flipping a coin, any child that she has will have a 50% chance of getting a normal copy of the gene from her and a 50% chance of getting an abnormal copy. The same will apply for her husband. Because having phenylketonuria requires having an abnormal gene copy from both parents, each child that they produce will have a 25% chance of having phenylketonuria. Then, I would tell her that nearly all hospitals in North America screen newborn infants for phenylketonuria, and that she should ensure that such a test is done for any child that she has. If the results of the test indicate that the child has phenylketonuria, she should follow the dietary instructions for the child closely to ensure that phenylketonuria does not affect the mental abilities of the child.

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Chap 11_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Suppose that a mistake made during DNA replication in a cell is not corrected, but instead the mutation

remains in the single strand where it occurred. Then suppose that after the cell divides, both daughter cells survive, and those cells then go on to have DNA replication, and ultimately cell division. Four cells now exist where there once was one cell. Assume that the mistake was never corrected and that no other mistakes occurred. How many of the four cells will have the mutation in their DNA? a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 0 Figure 11-2

2. In Figure 11-2, what does the structure labelled D represent? a. single-stranded binding protein b. DNA ligase c. primase d. helicase

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Chap 11_4ce 3. What is meant by the term antiparallel, when applied to DNA structure? a. The 5' end of one strand is directly paired with the 5' end of the other strand. b. The double helix twists; it is not perfectly parallel. c. The 5' end of one strand is directly paired with the 3' end of the other strand. d. One strand has a negative charge, and the other strand has a positive charge. 4. When RNA primers are added, what do they provide to DNA polymerase that is essential to its function? a. a free 3' OH b. partially double stranded DNA c. RNA d. a free 5' phosphate

Figure 11-2

5. In Figure 11-2, what does the structure labelled A represent? a. single-stranded binding protein b. helicase c. DNA polymerase d. DNA ligase

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Chap 11_4ce 6. If protein was the genetic material, where in the Hershey and Chase experiment would you expect to find

radioactivity when phage contained 35S-labelled protein? a. in the bacterial cell b. in the phage progeny c. in the phage spikes d. in the phage coat 7. Which of the following techniques did Wilkins and Franklin use to study the structure of DNA? a. electron microscopy b. X-ray diffraction c. molecular scale models of nucleotides d. computer-assisted graphics 8. During normal DNA replication, why is part of the DNA at the ends of linear chromosomes NOT copied into

the new DNA strands? a. because DNA ligase cannot join pieces at the end of a chromosome b. because RNA primers at the beginning of a new strand cannot be replaced with DNA c. because those ends are Okazaki fragments that are lost d. because cells do not need the DNA at the ends of chromosomes 9. Which process provides the energy needed for DNA replication? a. the breaking of the hydrogen bonds between base pairs b. the DNA polymerase c. the unwinding of the DNA double helix d. the hydrolysis of pyrophosphate 10. What is the ultimate source of variability in offspring? a. Okazaki fragments b. DNA repairs c. nucleosomes d. mutations

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Chap 11_4ce

Figure 11-2

11. In Figure 11-2, what does the structure labelled E represent? a. primase b. single-stranded binding protein c. DNA ligase d. helicase 12. Which of the following describes the direction in which nucleotides are added onto a growing DNA strand

during DNA replication in cells? a. in the 3' 5' direction for the leading strand, and the 5' 3' direction on the lagging strand b. in the 5' 3' direction only c. in the 5' 3' direction for the leading strand, and the 3' 5' direction on the lagging strand d. in either the 5' 3' direction or the 3' 5' direction on both strands, depending on where replication begins 13. How do DNA repair enzymes typically find mismatched base pairs? a. by scanning for Okazaki fragments b. by scanning for distortions in the newly synthesized chain c. by scanning for missing hydrogen bonds d. by scanning for unsealed nicks in the DNA strands Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_4ce

Figure 11-1

14. Figure 11-1 depicts the results of an experiment to determine how DNA replication occurs. What is the

apparent composition of each DNA molecule after replication? a. one old DNA strand and one new DNA strand b. entirely old DNA c. some DNA helix regions that are old DNA, alternating with some DNA regions that are new DNA d. entirely new DNA 15. What happens when living R strain Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria are mixed with heat-killed S strain

Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria? a. The S strain bacteria are transformed into R strain bacteria. b. The S strain bacteria come back to life. c. The R strain bacteria are killed, and the S strain bacteria remain dead. d. The R strain bacteria are transformed into S strain bacteria.

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Chap 11_4ce 16. Which type of molecule was the 32P used to label in the Hershey Chase experiment? a. a DNA molecule b. a protein molecule c. a RNA molecule d. a phospholipid molecule 17. Which enzymes perform proofreading during DNA replication? a. DNA ligase b. DNA polymerase c. primase d. telomerase 18. Which of the following acts to remove twisting and strain ahead of the replication fork during DNA replication? a. primase b. topoisomerase c. helicase d. DNA polymerase 19. Why do many antiviral drugs most likely resemble nucleotides? a. because they inhibit DNA ligase b. because they are easily obtained c. because they inhibit DNA polymerase d. because they are isolated from plants 20. Prior to 1940, which type of molecule did scientists consider to be the best candidate for the genetic material? a. a protein molecule b. a carbohydrate molecule c. a DNA molecule d. a lipid molecule 21. From his work with Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria, Griffith described the transforming principle.

What did this principle prove to be? a. a polysaccharide capsule b. a phospholipid c. protein d. DNA

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Chap 11_4ce 22. Suppose you take a cell from an adult cow and attempt to produce a clone of that cow. Also suppose that, for

some reason, telomerase is NOT functioning in that cell or in any cell that comes from it. What would you expect to happen with the clone? a. The lack of telomerase should have no effect on the clone. b. When the clone grows up, it will most likely have cancer. c. The cell will never be able to divide at all. d. The cell may divide, but after a certain number of divisions, cell division will stop. Figure 11-2

23. In Figure 11-2, what does the structure labelled C represent? a. helicase b. single-stranded binding protein c. primase d. DNA ligase

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Chap 11_4ce 24. Which of the following nucleotide sequences represents the complementary sequence that would bind to the

DNA strand 5'-GACGTT-3'? a. 3'-TCATGG-5' b. 3'-CTGCAA-5' c. 3'-AGTACC-5' d. 5'-TCATGG-3' 25. The complete genome has been sequenced from an old horse. How old is this genome? a. 500 000 years b. 700 000 years c. 800 000 years d. 900 000 years 26. Which of the following describes the composition of a nucleotide? a. a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and 1 of 4 amino acids b. a 5-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and 1 of 20 amino acids c. a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and 1 of 4 nitrogenous bases d. a 6-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and 1 of 20 amino acids 27. Which nitrogenous bases are considered purines? a. thymine and cytosine b. adenine and cytosine c. thymine and adenine d. adenine and guanine 28. Which of the following is correct about DNA replication? a. DNA on a chromosome is never replicated continuously along its entire length. b. DNA on a chromosome is replicated discontinuously at both ends of the replication fork. c. DNA on a chromosome is replicated continuously at both ends of the replication fork. d. DNA on a chromosome is replicated continuously at one fork but discontinuously at the other fork. 29. What adds individual nucleotides to the 3' end of an existing strand to build a new DNA strand during DNA

replication? a. topoisomerase b. primase c. helicase d. DNA polymerase

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Chap 11_4ce 30. Why is DNA replication said to be semiconservative? a. because half of the DNA in a cell comes from one parent and half comes from the other parent b. because the number of nucleotides within genes remains constant c. because each new DNA molecule is composed of one old strand and one new strand d. because the same process of DNA replication is used by all organisms 31. What catalyzes the unwinding of the DNA double helix during DNA replication? a. topoisomerase b. primase c. DNA polymerase d. helicase 32. Why does DNA replication proceed continuously on the leading strand and discontinuously on the lagging

strand? a. because DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in only one direction b. because DNA ligase operates in only one direction c. because DNA polymerase contains more than one subunit d. because DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in two directions 33. What would be the error rate in DNA replication if the proofreading ability of DNA polymerase were to be

removed? a. 1 error in 10 000 000 to 100 000 000 nucleotides b. 1 error in 100 000 to 1 000 000 nucleotides c. 1 error in 1000 to 10 000 nucleotides d. 1 error in 10 to 100 nucleotides 34. How are adjacent nucleotides on a strand of DNA connected to each other? a. by a hydrophobic interaction b. by a phosphodiester bond c. by a peptide bond d. by a hydrogen bond

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Chap 11_4ce 35. Suppose that you performed a version of the Hershey and Chase experiment, this time using 32P-labelled

viruses that insert their DNA into the DNA of the cells that they infect. Also suppose that the viral DNA is then treated as part of the cell’s own DNA, and is replicated during DNA replication and passed on to daughter cells when the cell divides. You infect a population of cells with the 32P-labelled viruses, and then let the infected cells go through two generations of cell divisions. In how many cells should you find 32P-labelled DNA? a. 0% b. about 25% c. about 50% d. about 75% 36. Where are telomeres located? a. within genes b. in the middle of chromosomes c. at the ends of a chromosome d. at replication origins 37. What closes nicks between DNA fragments, forming a covalent bond that ties or joins the fragments together? a. DNA ligase b. helicase c. topoisomerase d. primase 38. What is the function of telomerase in humans? a. to add telomere repeats in all human cells b. to add telomere repeats in some human cells c. to remove telomere repeats in all human cells d. to remove telomere repeats in some human cells 39. Suppose that DNA repair enzymes cut out part of a DNA strand that had an incorrect nucleotide. Which two

enzymes are needed to complete the repair? a. DNA polymerase and primase b. DNA polymerase and DNA ligase c. primase and sliding clamp d. primase and DNA ligase

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Chap 11_4ce 40. How are the two strands in DNA’s double helix held to each other? a. by hydrophobic interactions b. by hydrogen bonds c. by ionic bonds d. by phosphodiester bonds 41. In the Hershey and Chase experiment, why was the pellet radioactive after bacteria had been infected with 32P-labelled viruses and centrifuged?

a. The bacteria had incorporated radioactive proteins into their cell membranes. b. The virus particles had incorporated radioactive proteins from the bacterial DNA. c. The bacteria had incorporated radioactive DNA. d. The bacteria had incorporated radioactive proteins into their DNA.

Figure 11-2

42. In Figure 11-2, what does the structure labelled B represent? a. primase b. helicase c. DNA polymerase d. DNA ligase

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Chap 11_4ce 43. Which of the following molecules is a pyrimidine? a. guanine b. phosphate c. uracil d. adenine 44. Which sentence describes the width of a DNA double helix? a. The width is greater where purines are present than where pyrimidines are present. b. The width is narrower where adenine is present than where cytosine is present. c. The width is constant. d. The width varies randomly. 45. Which cells in a multicellular organism most likely contain inactive telomerases? a. somatic cells b. embryonic cells c. germ line cells d. immune cells 46. Which sentence best explains why, during DNA replication, DNA ligase is most active on the lagging strand? a. The lagging strand requires DNA ligase to couple the RNA primer to the Okazaki fragments. b. The lagging strand synthesizes DNA in the 3'

5' direction. c. The lagging strand is synthesized more slowly, and DNA ligase speeds up the DNA polymerase. d. The lagging strand contains more short DNA segments than the leading strand, and these short segments are joined together by DNA ligase. 47. Reiji Okazaki discovered that “Okazaki fragments” are produced during DNA replication. What are Okazaki

fragments? a. short lengths of new DNA on the leading strand b. RNA primers on both the lagging and leading strand c. RNA primers on the lagging strand d. short lengths of new DNA on the lagging strand 48. Suppose that the DNA of an organism is studied and found to contain 30% adenine. Based on this

information, what percentage of thymine would you predict that the DNA of this organism would also contain? a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50%

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Chap 11_4ce 49. Suppose that a cell has a genetic mutation such that the primase enzyme is unable to make RNA primers. Also,

assume that all of the other enzymes directly involved in DNA replication are still functional in these cells. How much of the process of DNA replication would you expect to see in these cells? a. None; no part of the DNA replication process could occur. b. Both the leading and lagging strand would be synthesized, but Okazaki fragments would not be joined together. c. The DNA helix would be unwound by helicase, but no new strands would be produced. d. The leading strand would be synthesized, but not the lagging strand. 50. Which nitrogenous bases are considered pyrimidines? a. adenine and guanine b. thymine and adenine c. adenine and cytosine d. thymine and cytosine 51. What were the T2 bacteriophages used in the Hershey and Chase experiment made of? a. RNA and protein b. DNA and protein c. protein, phospholipid, and DNA d. DNA 52. Suppose that the DNA of an organism is studied and found to contain 14% guanine. What percentage of

thymine would you expect to find? a. 14% b. 28% c. 36% d. 72% 53. Which of the following assembles a short RNA chain as the first nucleotides in a new DNA strand? a. DNA polymerase b. primase c. topoisomerase d. helicase 54. Why are fossils of woolly mammoths important for learning about genetic material? a. They provide useful data about permafrost. b. They provide useful data to understand extinction. c. They provide useful morphological data. d. They provide useful samples of ancient molecules.

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Chap 11_4ce

Match each researcher or set of researchers with the discovery or experiment each is associated with. a. Watson and Crick b. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty c. Frederick Griffith d. Hershey and Chase e. Meselson and Stahl 55. worked out the double helix model for DNA structure 56. showed that a transforming principle from heat-killed S strain Streptococcus pneumoniae could be used to

make the R strain virulent 57. showed that DNA is the transforming principle, from heat-killed S strain Streptococcus pneumoniae that can

make the R strain virulent 58. showed that the genetic material of bacteriophage T2 is DNA 59. showed that DNA replication in Escherichia coli is semiconservative 60. More than 90% of cancer cells have fully active telomerase enzymes. Explain how that might play a role in

enabling cancer cells to keep rapidly dividing.

61. What are replisomes? Explain their function.

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Chap 11_4ce Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. d 10. d 11. a 12. b 13. b 14. a 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. b 26. c

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Chap 11_4ce 27. d 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. d 32. a 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. b 52. c 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_4ce 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. d 59. e 60. Cancer cells are characterized by their ability to divide out of control and with no apparent limit to the number of

generations that they can produce. Active telomerase would appear to play a key role in allowing cancer cells to do just that. During each round of DNA replication, part of the ends of chromosomes cannot be replicated. Thus, with each cell generation, a cell loses some of its DNA. Active telomerase places new telomere repeats at the ends of chromosomes such that the DNA that is lost will be from telomere repeats. For most cells, telomerase is not active, and this places a natural limit on how many replications can be performed before the cell loses critical genetic information and is able to replicate and divide no more. Cancer cells with active telomerase are able to override this natural limit on cell replication. 61. Replication occurs at a rapid rate. At the same time, replication is an accurate process. Speed and accuracy are

achieved by assembling the key proteins and enzymes for replication into a DNA replication complex called a replication machine, or a replisome. That is, whereas we have presented drawings of the molecular steps of DNA replication with somewhat scattered enzymes and proteins moving along tracks of DNA, in actuality, a replisome sits stationary at the fork and DNA moves through the machine as replication proceeds. In the process, the activities of the proteins and enzymes are integrated tightly.

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Chap 12_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Figure 12-1

1. What does the structure in Figure 12-1 represent? a. a molecule of tRNA b. a molecule of snRNA c. a molecule of mRNA d. a molecule of pre-mRNA

2. During translation, where does the energy for translocation come from? a. from the breaking of bonds between tRNA and mRNA b. from hydrolysis of GTP c. from the breaking of bonds between mRNA and the ribosome d. from the removal of a tRNA from the E site

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Chap 12_4ce

Transcription Diagram

3. In the transcription diagram, what is the name of item E? a. DNA double helix b. template DNA strand c. RNA–DNA hybrid d. complementary DNA strand 4. Suppose that during transcription of a eukaryotic gene, the RNA polymerase does NOT encounter a

polyadenylation signal. What aspect of the transcription of this gene would be affected? a. The pre-mRNA would be truncated. b. The pre-mRNA would be elongated. c. There would be no effect; the gene is transcribed normally. d. The pre-mRNA would be exported prematurely.

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Chap 12_4ce 5. Which sentence describes the routing of proteins to their final destinations in eukaryotic cells? a. It is essentially random. b. It is based on transcription factors. c. It is directed by signals that are part of the proteins. d. It is controlled by the type of ribosome used. 6. Which of the following types of RNA is typically found as a strand that is about 75 to 90 bases long and folds

into a structure with four double-helical segments? a. tRNA b. snRNA c. pre-mRNA d. rRNA 7. Suppose that a DNA change results in the substitution of one codon for another, but the codon specifies the

same amino acid as it did originally. What type of mutation has occurred? a. a chromosomal mutation b. a frameshift mutation c. a silent mutation d. a missense mutation

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Chap 12_4ce

Transcription Diagram

8. In the transcription diagram, what is the name of item B? a. DNA double helix b. RNA–DNA hybrid c. complementary DNA strand d. RNA copy 9. Where does precursor-mRNA (pre-mRNA) typically exist? a. in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes b. only in prokaryotes c. only in the nucleus of eukaryotes d. only in the cytoplasm of eukaryotes

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Chap 12_4ce 10. How many letters are in the RNA “alphabet” of the genetic code? a. 4 b. 5 c. 20 d. 64 11. Which enzyme performs the DNA unwinding function during transcription elongation? a. DNA helicase b. DNA ligase c. topoisomerase d. RNA polymerase 12. Which of the following best defines what occurs during transcription? a. DNA is used to make a polypeptide. b. A polypeptide is used to make RNA. c. RNA is used to make a DNA strand. d. DNA is used to make a complementary RNA copy. 13. Which region in a tRNA bonds with mRNA during translation? a. the aminoacylation site b. the anticodon c. the cloverleaf d. the TATA box

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Chap 12_4ce

Genetic Code Table

14. In the genetic code table, the incorporation of which amino acid is directed by the start codon for translation? a. methionine b. phenylalanine c. lysine d. glycine 15. Which enzyme catalyzes the joining of amino acids during translation? a. peptidyl transferase b. reverse transcriptase c. polyadenylase d. RNA polymerase 16. How many proteins are specified in the genetic code? a. 4 b. 5 c. 20 d. 64

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Chap 12_4ce 17. Which process occurs in the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell? a. DNA replication b. translation c. transcription d. translocation 18. What is the function of the 5' cap in eukaryotic mRNA? a. It provides an intron splicing signal. b. It helps with nuclear export. c. It provides attachment site for ribosomes. d. It stabilizes pre-mRNA. 19. Which type of transcription are the proteins called transcription factors involved in? a. elongation b. initiation c. termination d. stabilization 20. Suppose that a mutant organism is unable to make the amino acid arginine. Knowing that the metabolic

pathway to the production of arginine is ornithine citrulline argininosuccinate arginine, you test the ability of the mutant to grow in the presence of each one of these compounds, providing just one of the compounds in each of your tests. Also suppose that you find that the mutant can grow in the presence of argininosuccinate or arginine, but NOT in the presence of citrulline or ornithine. From this information, which step in the metabolic pathway do you think is blocked? a. citrulline to argininosuccinate b. argininosuccinate to arginine c. ornithine to citrulline d. ornithine to argininosuccinate 21. What triggers the termination of transcription in prokaryotes? a. a stop codon b. an enzyme c. an RNA hairpin loop d. a poly-A sequence 22. How does the “Central Dogma” describe the flow of information of gene expression? a. RNA DNA protein b. protein

RNA DNA c. DNA RNA protein d. protein DNA RNA Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_4ce 23. The alpha-amanitin toxin exerts its toxic effects by blocking which of the following? a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase c. ligase d. topoisomerase 24. Which molecule becomes “charged” with an amino acid on its 3' end? a. snRNA b. tRNA c. mRNA d. pre-mRNA

Genetic Code Table

25. Suppose that an mRNA molecule is made complementary to the DNA sequence 3'-CTTACATGGCATCC-

5'. In the genetic code table, the incorporation of which amino acid in the polypeptide is directed by the third codon (counting the start codon as the first codon)? a. serine b. histidine c. threonine d. cysteine

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Chap 12_4ce 26. How is the formation of the peptide bond catalyzed during translation? a. by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases b. by snRNP c. by peptidyl transferase d. by RNA polymerase 27. How is the process of adding the correct amino acid onto a tRNA molecule catalyzed? a. by RNA polymerase b. by the tRNA itself c. by an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase d. by an mRNA 28. What is the function of the 3' poly-A sequence in eukaryotic mRNA? a. It provides an intron splicing signal. b. It provides protection from cytosolic enzymes. c. It helps with translation termination. d. It is the initial attachment site for ribosomes. 29. Which process involves small ribonucleoprotein particles (snRNPs)? a. initiation of translation b. mRNA splicing c. initiation of transcription d. aminoacylation of tRNA

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Chap 12_4ce

Transcription Diagram

30. In the transcription diagram, what is the name of item C? a. newly synthesized RNA b. template DNA strand c. complementary DNA strand d. RNA–DNA hybrid 31. Why do smooth muscle and skeletal muscle have distinct mRNA forms? a. due to aminoacylation b. due to degeneracy c. due to alternative splicing d. due to polyadenylation

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Chap 12_4ce 32. Relative to the mRNA, what move(s) during translocation? a. attached tRNAs and the polypeptide chain b. attached tRNAs and the ribosome c. the ribosome and the polypeptide chain d. the ribosome only 33. What is a ribosome made of? a. tRNA and rRNA b. tRNA, rRNA, and mRNA c. rRNA and proteins d. rRNA and mRNA 34. During translation, which molecule is used to bind tRNA to the codon in the A site? a. GTP b. ATP c. ADP d. GDP 35. Suppose that a DNA change results in the substitution of one codon for another, and the new codon specifies

a stop codon where it did NOT previously. What type of mutation has occurred? a. a nonsense mutation b. a missense mutation c. a chromosomal mutation d. a silent mutation 36. Studies of arginine biosynthesis in mutant stains of Neurospora provided evidence of a direct relationship

between genes and enzymes, including development of the one gene–one enzyme hypothesis. Who conducted these studies? a. Archibald Garrod b. Watson and Crick c. Beadle and Tatum d. Frederick Griffith 37. Where does the process of translation of nuclear protein-coding genes in eukaryotic cells occur? a. in the nucleolus b. in the nucleus c. in the Golgi apparatus d. in the cytoplasm

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Chap 12_4ce 38. Which type of molecule is a translation elongation factor? a. mRNA b. amino acid c. tRNA d. protein 39. Some tRNAs have the ability to pair with different codons due to imprecise base pairing with the third base in

the codon. How is this ability described? a. by degeneracy b. by exon shuffling c. by the wobble hypothesis d. by alternative splicing 40. Which of the following is included in the lariat structure? a. the intron b. the exon c. the snRNP d. the mRNA 41. Which site on a ribosome does the release factor bind to? a. site A b. site E c. site P d. site R 42. Suppose that the first part of a new polypeptide chain being produced in a eukaryotic cell has a signal

peptide. Where would this polypeptide be located within the cell as it is maturing? a. first in the rough ER, and then in the Golgi apparatus b. first in the cytoplasm, and then in the rough ER c. in the cytoplasm only d. in the Golgi apparatus only 43. How are protein-encoding genes in eukaryotes transcribed? a. by RNA polymerase III b. by RNA polymerase I c. by RNA polymerase II d. by DNA polymerase

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Chap 12_4ce 44. Which molecule is involved in transcription? a. tRNA b. DNA, 5'-3' strand c. DNA, 3'-5' strand d. DNA polymerase 45. The studies of alkaptonuria provided the first evidence of a connection between genes and metabolism. Who

conducted these studies? a. Archibald Garrod b. Watson and Crick c. Frederick Griffith d. Beadle and Tatum 46. Which of the following processes best explains the diversity of human á-tropomyosin proteins? a. the wobble hypothesis b. exon shuffling c. alternative splicing d. degeneracy 47. Which region of the ribosome accepts charged tRNA molecules during the elongation phase of translation? a. first the A site in the ribosome, and then the E site in the ribosome b. the P site in the ribosome c. first the A site in the ribosome, and then the P site in the ribosome d. the A site in the ribosome

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Chap 12_4ce

Genetic Code Table

48. Suppose that an mRNA molecule is made complementary to the DNA sequence 3'-CTTACATGGCATCC-

5'. In the genetic code table, the incorporation of which amino acid in the polypeptide is directed by the second codon (assuming the start codon is counted as the first codon)? a. alanine b. asparagine c. proline d. arginine 49. What does the degeneracy of the genetic code refer to? a. the fact that the code varies considerably between different organisms b. the fact that the code is commaless c. the fact that the code is universal d. the fact that the code has multiple codons for some amino acids 50. Which of the following best defines what occurs during translation? a. RNA is used to make a polypeptide. b. RNA is used to make a DNA strand. c. DNA is used to make a polypeptide. d. A polypeptide is used to make RNA.

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Chap 12_4ce 51. Where in the sequence of a eukaryotic gene would one find the TATA box? a. in the coding region b. at the transcription start point c. in the terminator d. in the promoter

Transcription Diagram

52. In the transcription diagram, what is the name of item A? a. reverse transcriptase b. spliceosome c. RNA polymerase d. primase

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Chap 12_4ce 53. Which codon/amino acid pairing represents the universal start codon in eukaryotes? a. UUU–phenylalanine b. UGA–proline c. ACG–threonine d. AUG–methionine 54. Suppose that a DNA change results in the substitution of one codon for another, and the new codon specifies

a different amino acid from the original. What type of mutation has occurred? a. a chromosomal mutation b. a missense mutation c. a frameshift mutation d. a silent mutation 55. Which region of the DNA does RNA polymerase interact with during transcription initiation? a. the promoter b. the initiator c. the intron d. the start codon 56. Which sentence best describes the role of the signal recognition particle (SRP)? a. It activates gene expression. b. It assists in polyadenylation of mRNA. c. It assists in mRNA splicing. d. It temporarily blocks translation. 57. What is the most likely fate of a molecule of eukaryotic mRNA that contains no 5' cap? a. It would be translated at a reduced level. b. It would be translated as usual. c. It would not be translated. d. It would be degraded. 58. What is implied by the concept that the genetic code is universal? a. It is a recent evolutionary development. b. It is different in every type of organism. c. It frequently changes. d. It was established early in evolution.

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Chap 12_4ce 59. At the start of translation, where is the initiator tRNA base paired with the start codon? a. at the A site in the ribosome b. first at the A site in the ribosome, and then the E site in the ribosome c. first at the A site in the ribosome, and then the P site in the ribosome d. at the P site in the ribosome 60. Suppose that two bases are inserted into the coding region of a gene just after the start codon of a gene.

What type of mutation has occurred? a. a missense mutation b. a chromosomal mutation c. a silent mutation d. a frameshift mutation 61. Which of the following are unique to prokaryotes? a. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases b. UTRs in mRNA c. introns d. polysomes connected to DNA 62. How is the reading frame established during translation? a. by pairing initiator tRNA with the start codon b. by the first base in the mRNA molecule c. by the first tRNA to bind a codon at the A site d. by removal of the cap from mRNA 63. In a messenger RNA, what region of the mRNA does the 3' UTR refer to? a. the coding region b. the region after the stop codon c. the region before the start codon d. the region before the site for initiation of transcription 64. Proteins are assembled from the instructions found in which molecule? a. mRNA b. ribosome c. tRNA d. DNA

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Chap 12_4ce 65. Which molecule consists entirely of protein? a. ribosomal large subunit b. peptidyl transferase c. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase d. ribosomal small subunit 66. Suppose that the first part of a new polypeptide chain being produced in a eukaryotic cell does NOT have a

signal peptide. Where would this polypeptide be located within the cell as it is maturing? a. in the Golgi apparatus only b. in the cytoplasm only c. first in the rough ER, and then in the Golgi apparatus d. first in the cytoplasm, and then in the rough ER 67. Individuals with the genetic condition sickle cell anemia have hemoglobin coded with the gene that codes for

valine instead of glutamic acid. What kind of mutation does this condition result from? a. a frameshift mutation b. a missense mutation c. a chromosomal mutation d. a silent mutation

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Chap 12_4ce

Transcription Diagram

68. In the transcription diagram, what is the name of item D? a. RNA–DNA hybrid b. template DNA strand c. DNA double helix d. complementary DNA strand 69. Which of the following describes a polysome? a. the combination of a large and a small ribosome subunit b. an mRNA with multiple ribosomes attached c. the assembly at a promoter at the start of transcription d. the complex where mRNA splicing occurs

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Chap 12_4ce 70. Which gene sequence elements are present in prokaryotes? a. codons b. capping signals c. poly(A) signals d. sorting signals on proteins 71. In which complex does the process of removing introns from mRNA and putting the remaining exons together

occur? a. in the anticodon b. in the polysome c. in the spliceosome d. in the ribosome 72. After processing of pre-mRNAs is complete, some regions are retained in finished mRNAs. What are these

regions called? a. exons b. snRNPs c. UTRs d. domains 73. In the expression of the gene for insulin, which is secreted outside certain mammalian cells, which of the

following steps will occur last? a. binding of signal recognition particle (SRP) b. removal of introns c. binding of transcription factors d. binding of a release factor 74. Which molecule provides the energy that the cell requires for protein translation? a. GTP b. TTP c. ATP d. ADP 75. Which of the following regions of the ribosome accept(s) charged tRNA molecules during the elongation

phase of translation? a. the P site b. the A site c. either the A site or the E site d. either the P site or the E site

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Chap 12_4ce 76. In which part of the ribosome is the growing polypeptide chain positioned during translation? a. in the P site b. in the small subunit c. in the A site d. in the E site

For each item or event, indicate the process it is associated with. a. processing of pre-mRNA b. translation c. sorting proteins in cells d. transcription 77. RNA-DNA double helix 78. snRNP 79. capping enzyme 80. intron 81. signal peptidase 82. spliceosome 83. SRP receptor 84. signal recognition particle 85. ribosome 86. release factor 87. peptidyl transferase 88. ER membrane 89. TATA box 90. RNA polymerase 91. promoter 92. tRNA

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Chap 12_4ce

Match each term with its definition. a. indicates the end for transcription b. first codon read in translation c. amino-acid coding sequence retained in finished mRNA d. indicates the end for translation e. control sequence ahead of a transcription unit 93. start codon 94. stop codon 95. terminator 96. exon 97. promoter

Match each type of RNA with its description. a. RNA transcribed from a protein-coding gene that is ready to be used in translation b. RNA that binds with proteins to make a particle that is involved in removal of introns and joining of exons c. RNA that forms part of the ribosome d. RNA with an anticodon and a linkage site for a specific amino acid e. RNA in eukaryotes that must be processed in the nucleus before it is ready to be translated 98. snRNA 99. pre-mRNA 100. tRNA 101. mRNA 102. rRNA 103. Briefly describe the places where tRNA would be found in a ribosome and what its function is at each place.

104. Describe how exon shuffling could lead to the formation of novel proteins.

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Chap 12_4ce 105. Describe the process of mRNA splicing.

106. Describe the process of transcription in prokaryotes.

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Chap 12_4ce Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. d 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. c 17. b 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. d 26. c

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Chap 12_4ce 27. c 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. c 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. c 49. d 50. a 51. d 52. c 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_4ce 55. a 56. d 57. c 58. d 59. d 60. d 61. d 62. a 63. b 64. d 65. c 66. b 67. b 68. b 69. b 70. d 71. c 72. a 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. a 77. d 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_4ce 83. c 84. c 85. b 86. b 87. b 88. c 89. d 90. d 91. d 92. b 93. b 94. d 95. a 96. c 97. e 98. b 99. e 100. d 101. a 102. c 103. A ribosome has three locations where tRNAs can be found: the E, P, and A sites. The E site is where an uncharged

tRNA will leave the ribosome. The P site is where a tRNA with an attached polypeptide chain is located after translocation and before peptide bond formation. The A site is where a new, charged tRNA will first bind to the translation assembly. 104. Exon–intron junctions often fall at points that divide major functional regions, or domains, in encoded proteins.

Genetic duplications and rearrangements can occasionally cut and paste parts of different genes together. When the cutting and pasting happens within introns, this brings together novel combinations of exons that will produce a new protein. The individual domains generally retain their specific functionality in the new protein. This mechanism can produce changes more quickly and more efficiently than random point mutations that affect only individual amino acids in a protein. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_4ce 105. First, snRNPs bind with sequences at the junctions of each intron and exon. These snRNPs at the borders of an

intron associate with each other and form a complex that loops out the intron. Other snRNPs are also recruited to the complex. The active spliceosome then cuts the beginning of the intron, and the intron bonds to itself. The spliceosome then cuts the intron at its end and joins together the exons that were on either side of the intron. The intron is released and later degraded. Meanwhile, the spliceosome disassembles as the snRNPs are released. When all introns are removed and all exons are joined together, the mRNA is finished and ready for translation. 106. First, RNA polymerase binds to the promoter, immediately upstream of where production of the mRNA will begin.

RNA polymerase unwinds the DNA and starts synthesis of a new RNA molecule just past the promoter region. Only one of the DNA strands is used as a template, and the RNA strand is synthesized in the 5'?3' direction, which is antiparallel to the template DNA strand. RNA polymerase progresses away from the promoter, growing the RNA strand. As the RNA strand elongates, it is displaced from the DNA immediately behind the RNA polymerase as the DNA strands reform the DNA double helix. Eventually the RNA polymerase reaches a region of specific DNA terminator sequence. A protein binds to the terminator, triggering the complete release of RNA polymerase and RNA from the DNA and each other. This ends transcription in prokaryotes.

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Chap 13_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Each steroid hormone can bind to its own steroid hormone response unit (SHRU) but NOT to the SHRU

associated with other steroid hormones. 2. An operator and transcription unit are called an operon. 3. Many eukaryotic operons are subject to numerous regulatory mechanisms. 4. Eukaryotic genes are organized into operons. 5. A benign tumour is usually NOT life-threatening. 6. Any gene could, theoretically, be specifically silenced by RNAi. 7. When DNA is imprinted, the methylation pattern is preserved. 8. RNAi is a key regulator of transcription. 9. The DNA that encodes siRNA is NOT normally found in the nucleus. 10. Eukaryotic genes consist of protein-coding sequences and adjacent regulatory sequences. 11. Acetylation is irreversible. 12. A direct correlation exists between the level of translation and the length of a poly(A) tail. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 13. How does methylation regulate transcription? a. via the addition of a methyl group to cysteine bases of DNA b. via the addition of a methyl group to cysteine residues on RNA polymerase II c. via the addition of a methyl group to cytosine residues on RNA polymerase II d. via the addition of a methyl group to cytosine bases of DNA 14. What is the essential difference in development of bees of different gender? a. females develop from unfertilized diploid eggs b. males develop from unfertilized diploid eggs c. females develop from unfertilized haploid eggs d. males develop from unfertilized haploid eggs

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Chap 13_4ce 15. Which of the following is a key difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic genomes? a. Physical separation of transcription and translation occurs in eukaryotes, but no separation occurs in

prokaryotes. b. Genes are arranged in order in eukaryotes, but the order is random in prokaryotes. c. Near simultaneous transcription and translation occurs in eukaryotes, but they are strictly sequential in prokaryotes. d. Gene expression is highly regulated in eukaryotes, but there is a lack of control of gene expression in prokaryotes. 16. Which type of RNA is produced from genes that come from outside the cell? a. mRNA b. miRNA c. tRNA d. siRNA 17. Which statement refers to genomic imprinting? a. An allele of a given gene is spliced during gametogenesis. b. An allele of a given gene is enhanced during gametogenesis. c. An allele of a given gene is activated during gametogenesis. d. An allele of a given gene is silenced during gametogenesis. 18. What is the role of a tumour suppressor protein in a cell? a. to promote cell division of abnormal cells b. to slow or halt cell division in abnormal cells c. to trigger DNA replication in preparation for cell division d. to promote cell division of healthy cells 19. Which types of proteins do proto-oncogenes tend to be? a. protein phosphorylases b. membrane-associated proteins c. extracellular receptors and protein kinases d. intracellular receptors 20. Which type of RNA is transcribed in the nucleus, folded, cleaved by Dicer protein, and is then bound to a

target molecule of mRNA? a. an mRNA that never received its poly(A) tail b. miRNA c. an mRNA that was not properly capped d. siRNA

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Chap 13_4ce 21. What is one function of the 5? UTR (untranslated region) of mRNA? a. to decrease the half-life of mRNA b. to extend the half-life of mRNA c. to stabilize the mRNA structure d. to control the half-life of mRNA 22. Which of the following components of an operon is a molecule of DNA? a. repressor b. lactose c. mRNA d. operator 23. Which of the following is a characteristic of normal cells relative to cancer cells? a. dedifferentiation b. differentiation c. uncontrolled growth d. lack of tumour suppressor proteins 24. Which term refers to a cluster of genes transcribed into a single mRNA unit in the operon model? a. alpha genes b. mRNA cluster c. gene group d. transcription unit 25. What does the presence of lactose allow in the E. coli lac operon? a. dissociation of the Lac repressor from the promoter b. dissociation of the Lac repressor from the operator c. binding of the Lac repressor to the operator d. binding of the Lac repressor to glucose 26. Which of the following best describes the general strategy of metabolic gene regulation in prokaryotes? a. Genes are always on for early steps in the pathway, but genes for later steps are generally off. b. Genes are turned on and off as conditions change. c. Genes are independently regulated. d. Genes are always on so the bacteria can respond rapidly to changing conditions.

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Chap 13_4ce 27. Genes in operons are transcribed in such a way as to share which of the following molecules? a. mRNA b. tRNA c. protein d. ribosome 28. Where does the first general transcription factor bind to? a. site where transcription starts b. TATA box c. activator d. enhancer 29. Why do prokaryotic organisms tend to undergo rapid and reversible alterations in their genes? a. They are not as advanced. b. They are small. c. They are simple. d. They grow quickly. 30. Where is the Trp repressor gene located? a. just upstream of the trp operon b. on a region of the chromosome quite distant from the trp operon c. just downstream of the trp operon d. adjacent to the Lac repressor gene

9 31. Which of the following best explains why E. coli shuts down the trp operon if tryptophan is available in the

environment? a. It does not shut down the trp operon, it only lowers the level of trp operon activity. b. The trp operon encodes genes that export tryptophan from the cell; if tryptophan already occurs in the environment, further export is not necessary. c. Synthesizing an amino acid takes energy, so it is a waste of energy to make something that is already available. d. Environmental tryptophan is of higher quality than what the E. coli can make itself. 32. Suppose the lacI repressor gene is permanently silenced by a mutation. What would be the impact on the

function of the lac operon? a. There would be no real impact on lac operon expression. b. The lac operon would be transcribed, but at a high level. c. The lac operon would be expressed only when lactose was present. d. The lac operon would be transcribed, but at a low level. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_4ce 33. Which of the following is the correct order in the regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes? a. transcriptional regulation posttranscriptional regulation translational regulation posttranslational

regulation b. translational regulation posttranslational regulation transcriptional regulation posttranscriptional regulation c. posttranscriptional regulation transcriptional regulation translational regulation posttranslational regulation d. posttranscriptional regulation transcriptional regulation posttranslational regulation and translational regulation 34. Suppose that you observe a mutant E. coli in which CAP is always inactive. In the presence of lactose and

low levels of glucose, what would you expect the gene expression from this mutant’s lac operon to be? a. inactive b. normal c. greatly reduced d. overactive 35. Which of the following determines the availability of finished proteins? a. translational regulation b. transcriptional regulation c. posttranscriptional regulation d. posttranslational regulation 36. What is the main function of drones in a beehive? a. to mate with queens b. to mate with workers c. to bring food d. to take care of young 37. What happens to a DNA promoter sequence when it is methylated? a. It is temporarily silenced because the methyl group can be removed. b. It is temporarily transcribed because the methyl group can be removed. c. It is perpetually transcribed because the methyl group can never be removed. d. It is permanently silenced because the methyl group can never be removed. 38. Which of the following is the function of a coactivator? a. It unwinds the promoter DNA, allowing transcription to begin. b. It recognizes and binds to the TATA box of a protein-coding gene’s promoter. c. It binds to the promoter proximal elements to stimulate transcription initiation. d. It forms a bridge between the activators at the enhancer and the proteins at the promoter. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_4ce 39. Which of the following are the regulatory proteins that play a role in a positive regulatory system that controls

the expression of one or more genes? a. introns b. exons c. activators d. enhancers 40. To which portion of the DNA does a steroid hormone receptor bind? a. a response element b. an enhancer c. a gene promoter d. an operator 41. Pepsin, a digestive enzyme that degrades proteins in the stomach, is synthesized as pepsinogen and converted

to active pepsin in the stomach by the removal of several amino acids. What is the activation of pepsin an example of? a. posttranslational regulation b. transcriptional regulation c. translational regulation d. posttranscriptional regulation 42. Suppose that a strain of E. coli containing a mutant lac operon is discovered. Also suppose that the mutant

operon is normal in terms of its regulation, but the lacY gene produces a defective protein. Which metabolic function will be impaired in this bacterium? a. transport of lactose into the cell b. transacetylase c. binding of the repressor to the operator d. conversion of lactose into monosaccharides 43. Suppose that you are asked to locate some mRNA masking proteins, and are given two rabbits—one male

and one female—to use as your cell sources. Also suppose that you decide to do some needle biopsies of one particular tissue, and to extract the masking proteins. Which tissues or organ samples should you collect for analysis? a. skin cells b. testes c. liver cells d. ovaries

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Chap 13_4ce 44. What is the default state of a repressible operon such as the trp operon? a. normal transcription b. no transcription c. low level transcription d. high level transcription 45. Which of the following genes encode proteins that generally stimulate cell division in normal cells? a. proto-suppressor genes b. proto-oncogenes c. oncogenes d. tumour suppressor genes 46. Which of the following determines which genes are transcribed? a. posttranscriptional regulation b. transcriptional regulation c. translational regulation d. posttranslational regulation 47. Which of the following describes the role of acetylation during the chromatin remodelling that accompanies

gene expression? a. It adds an acetyl group (CH3CH2-) to the DNA of a promoter sequence. b. It adds an acetyl group (CH3CO-) to the histone protecting the promoter region of a gene. c. It adds an acetyl group (CH3CO-) to the cytosine nucleotides of DNA. d. It adds an acetyl group (CH3CO-) to the histone protecting the transcription unit of a gene. 48. Suppose that an E. coli has a mutation in its lac operon such that the Lac repressor could NOT bind the

operator, even in the absence of lactose. What would be the result in terms of the function of the operon? a. The lac operon would be transcribed, but at a high level. b. The lac operon would be expressed only when lactose was present. c. There would be no real impact on lac operon expression. d. The lac operon would be transcribed, but at a low level. 49. Which of the following proteins binds to the operator in the operon model? a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase c. a regulatory protein d. lactose

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Chap 13_4ce 50. Which of the following is a key regulatory event for regulating transcription initiation? a. controlling the transition between the inactive and active states of chromatin in the region of H2B histone b. controlling the transition between the inactive and active states of chromatin in the region of introns c. controlling the transition between the inactive and active states of chromatin in the region of a promoter d. controlling the transition between the inactive and active states of chromatin in the region of exons 51. Which of the following is part of posttranslational modification? a. the chemical modification of proteins b. cleavage of poly(A) tails from mRNA c. chromatin remodelling d. the binding of miRNAs to mRNA 52. What form must an mRNA assume in order to be targeted by miRNAs for degradation? a. a double-stranded form b. a nuclear form c. a single-stranded form d. a stem-loop form 53. How are the vast majority of proteins expressed early in an animal’s development? a. They are translated from preexisting mRNAs present in the unfertilized egg. b. They are translated from preexisting mRNAs delivered by the sperm that fertilized an egg. c. They are transcribed and translated from the unfertilized egg’s DNA post-fertilization. d. They are translated from mRNAs that were transcribed from the zygote’s DNA in the first three rounds

of cell division. 54. Which of the following determines the rate at which proteins are made? a. translational regulation b. transcriptional regulation c. posttranslational regulation d. posttranscriptional regulation 55. Which element(s) does RNA polymerase II bind to? a. transcription factors bound to the promoter b. free-floating transcription factors c. TATA box d. promoter sequence

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Chap 13_4ce 56. What is the name of the process that displaces the acetylated nucleosomes in the promoter region from the

DNA, or moves them along the DNA away from the promoter? a. translation b. promoter remodelling c. transcriptional regulation d. chromatin remodelling 57. What happens to a protein when it is tagged with ubiquitin? a. The protein is sent to the nucleus. b. The ubiquitin enzyme degrades the protein. c. The protein is sent to the proteasome and is hydrolyzed to amino acids. d. The ubiquitin unfolds the protein. 58. What is the single most important stage when regulating eukaryotic gene expression? a. RNA interference b. translational regulation c. degradation of mRNA d. initiation of transcription 59. In catabolite repression, what is indicated by high levels of cAMP? a. low lactose b. low glucose c. high lactose d. high glucose 60. Which of the following determines the types of mRNA that are available to ribosomes? a. translational regulation b. posttranslational regulation c. transcriptional regulation d. posttranscriptional regulation 61. Where does RNA polymerase first bind to on the E. coli lac operon? a. to the transcription initiation site b. to the lacI repressor c. to the promoter d. to the operator

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Chap 13_4ce 62. Why can steroid hormones trigger gene expression in a select number of different cells? a. because only target cells allow the steroid hormone to cross the plasma membrane b. because only the target cells have the correct coactivator c. because only the target cells have a steroid hormone response element encoded in their DNA d. because only the target cells have a nucleus

Identify each labelled part on the illustration of the Lac operon.

63. transcription termination site 64. lacI 65. Lac repressor 66. regulatory gene 67. lacA 68. promoter 69. RNA polymerase 70. operator 71. lac operon 72. lacY 73. transcription initiation site 74. lacZ

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Chap 13_4ce

Identify each labelled part of this illustration of eukaryotic DNA.

75. enhancer 76. RNA polymerase 77. activators 78. coactivator multiprotein complex 79. proximal promoter region 80. transcription initiation site 81. promoter

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Chap 13_4ce

Match each term with its definition. a. regulatory protein that activates the expression of an operon’s genes b. interfering RNA molecules originally encoded by nuclear DNA c. process of controlling the expression of genes that takes place at the DNA level d. regulatory protein that prevents an operon’s genes from being expressed e. inhibition of transcription via DNA methylation f. interfering RNA molecules associated with some viral life cycles g. tumour comprising cells that invade and disrupt the surrounding tissues h. increases expression of an operon’s genes i. cluster of prokaryotic genes and their associated DNA regulatory sequences j. tumour comprising undifferentiated cells that stay together in a single mass k. spread of malignant cells through the blood or lymphatic system l. removes a nucleosome from DNA to expose a promoter 82. operon 83. transcriptional regulation 84. inducer 85. repressor 86. miRNA 87. activator 88. silencing 89. benign 90. metastasis 91. siRNA 92. chromatin remodelling 93. malignant 94. Compare and contrast DNA methylation to histone acetylation.

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Chap 13_4ce 95. Explain how combinatorial gene regulation allows eukaryotes to coordinate the expression of different genes

very efficiently.

96. When comparing gene regulation in prokaryotes to that in eukaryotes, which is better? Justify your answer.

97. The default state for the lac operon is off, while the default state for the trp operon is on. Explain this

contradiction and the mechanism of control via the repressor proteins.

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Chap 13_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False - prokaryotic operons 4. False - prokaryotic 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False - translation 9. True 10. True 11. False - reversible 12. True 13. d 14. d 15. a 16. d 17. d 18. b 19. c 20. b 21. d 22. d 23. b 24. d 25. b 26. b

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Chap 13_4ce 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. b 31. c 32. b 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. a 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. a 42. a 43. d 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. c 51. a 52. c 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_4ce 55. a 56. d 57. c 58. d 59. b 60. d 61. c 62. c 63. h 64. a 65. i 66. j 67. g 68. b 69. l 70. c 71. k 72. f 73. d 74. e 75. c 76. b 77. a 78. g 79. d 80. f 81. e 82. i Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_4ce 83. c 84. h 85. d 86. b 87. a 88. e 89. j 90. k 91. f 92. l 93. g 94. DNA methylation and histone acetylation are two types of transcriptional regulation. Histone acetylation is a highly

reversible way of granting transcription machinery access to a promoter. DNA methylation by itself is reversible, but can be permanent when paired with additional chromatin modifications. Unlike histone acetylation, DNA methylation can be preserved from one generation to the next. 95. Eukaryotes have a large number of genes, many of which are subject to regulation by transcription factors.

However, they will always have fewer regulatory proteins than genes that require regulation. Instead of making one regulator specifically for each gene (which would require vast quantities of DNA) or “regulating the regulators,” they make a small number of regulatory proteins that can act together in different combinations on different genes. In this way, they can regulate many genes with few regulator proteins, thus allowing a great deal of flexibility and efficiency. 96. Neither is superior to the other; instead, each reflects the nature of the organisms using that system. In prokaryotes,

the entire organism is a single cell; therefore, differentiation is not necessary or desirable. Rather, the genome is organized and regulated to maximize efficiency of a cell during what might be a very short lifespan. In contrast, multicellular organisms must have cell differentiation for efficiency. This requires a method of regulation that is not needed or possible in the prokaryotic cell. By regulating gene expression at multiple stages, the organism can coordinate cell division, differentiation, and body development. In summary, each type of gene regulation is tailored to the life strategy of the organism in which it is found.

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Chap 13_4ce 97. The lac operon’s function is to allow a cell to utilize lactose as an energy source. It would not make sense to express

these genes unless lactose was available in the environment. Because of this, the presence of lactose serves to block the repressor from binding to the operator. This results in the lac operon being active only when lactose is available. In contrast, the trp operon’s function is to allow the bacterial cell to synthesize tryptophan, which is an amino acid used as a building block in protein synthesis. The cell must make it unless it is available in the environment. For this reason, the trp operon is on unless excess tryptophan is available (as would be the case when it is in the environment) to bind to the Trp repressor, activate it, and cause the repressor to bind to the operator.

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Chap 14_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Different methodologies can often be used to obtain the same information about a DNA sequence. 2. When using embryonic germ-line cells to create transgenic mice, the offspring of the genetically modified

animal will have all transgenic cells in their bodies. 3. Some genetically modified tobacco plants can express the light-producing chemicals present in fireflies. 4. DNA fingerprinting is limited to human studies. 5. cDNA library is the partial collection of cloned cDNAs made from the mRNAs isolated from a cell. 6. Genetically modified crops have been banned in Canada. 7. Thousands of different restriction enzymes have been identified that can cut DNA at a specific restriction site. 8. Gene therapy has been successful in curing some individuals of autoimmune disorder and sickle cell disease. 9. Sticky ends are ends on DNA fragments that are complementary to the DNA ends on the open plasmid. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10. Why is Southern blotting used? a. to identify samples with specific DNA sequences b. to separate DNA based on size c. to amplify a genomic region of interest d. to transfer DNA samples to a special membrane or filter paper 11. Which approach would be most helpful in determining whether the gene for a particular protein is the same

length in frogs, humans, and trees? a. use cDNA library construction and agarose gel electrophoresis b. use genomic library construction and PCR c. use DNA cloning and DNA hybridization d. use PCR and agarose gel electrophoresis 12. Suppose that multiple fragments from a genome have been cloned into bacteria. How can researchers identify

the bacteria that contain the particular sequence they are interested in? a. by sequencing all the bacterial DNA b. by DNA hybridization, using a labelled probe c. by observing that the bacteria will produce white colonies on X-gal d. by isolating the DNA of interest before transformation

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Chap 14_4ce 13. Why is X-gal used in cloning medium? a. It distinguishes between bacteria that have been transformed with recombinant plasmids and

nonrecombinant plasmids by black–white screening. b. It distinguishes between bacteria that have been transformed with recombinant plasmids and nonrecombinant plasmids by blue–white screening. c. It distinguishes between plasmids that have been transformed and those that have not by blue–white screening. d. It distinguishes between plasmids that have been transformed and those that have not by black–white screening. Figure 14-1

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Chap 14_4ce 14. According to Figure 14-1, which of the following was used to digest a DNA fragment that results in the

following sequence? AATTC---------G G---------CTTAA a. EcoRI b. sticky end c. nick in the sugar-phosphate backbone d. recombinant plasmid 15. What do restriction endonucleases do? a. break glycosidic bonds b. break ester bonds c. break phosphodiester bonds d. break peptide bonds 16. In which stage is the foreign gene introduced into the developing embryo during the creation of transgenic

animals? a. at the blastocyst stage, via a transgenic cell b. in cell culture, prior to fertilization c. at the sperm stage, via direct microinjection of the new DNA d. at the egg stage, via direct microinjection of the new DNA 17. How are the sticky ends obtained? a. by using a different restriction enzyme to cut both DNA fragment and the plasmid b. by using the same restriction enzyme to cut both DNA fragment and the plasmid c. by using a restriction enzyme to cut DNA fragment d. by using a restriction enzyme to cut the plasmid 18. Suppose that you have cloned a genomic library and know that the bacteria have foreign DNA fragments

inserted into the cloning vector. Also suppose that you need to identify the specific bacteria that have the gene coding for protein X. How can these bacteria be located? a. by restriction endonuclease treatment of DNA from some of the bacterial colonies b. by DNA hybridization of the different colonies c. by agarose gel electrophoresis of DNA isolated from the bacterial colonies d. by PCR of the same bacterial mixture that was spread on agarose plates

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Chap 14_4ce 19. How many base pairs is the general length of the DNA sequence that is recognized by restriction

endonucleases? a. 1 to 2 b. 4 to 8 c. 10 to 15 d. 24 to 32 20. Why would researchers want to have both genomic libraries and cDNA libraries from a particular organism? a. because a cDNA library helps us understand how retroviruses work, but a genomic library does not b. because a genomic library is generally too big to be helpful, while a cDNA library, being smaller, is much

easier to study c. because a genomic library will be the same in every cell, while a cDNA library tells researchers which genes are being expressed in individual cell types d. because a cDNA library is a lot easier to clone than a genomic library 21. Where is cloned DNA in bacteria usually found? a. on a virus b. on the flagellum c. on a plasmid d. on the bacterial chromosome 22. What is a benefit of introducing new genes into a plant? a. The plant’s growth rate reduces. b. The plant’s genes mutate faster. c. The plant’s nutritional value to primary consumers improves. d. The plant’s reliance on photosynthesis reduces. 23. What has genetic engineering been used for? a. to create mice with altered genomes so we can model certain human diseases b. to create plants that are more resistant to certain pests or herbicides c. to produce a vaccine against hoof-and-mouth disease d. to induce bacteria to mass-produce human insulin 24. Which of the following is needed in order to amplify the DNA for gene X and NOT for gene Y? a. a heat-stable DNA polymerase b. restriction endonucleases that cut gene X and not gene Y c. plasmid vectors that have multiple antibiotic resistance genes d. some prior knowledge of the sequence of gene X such that appropriate primers can be designed

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Chap 14_4ce 25. Some restriction endonucleases cut the DNA in such a way that short, single-stranded regions are created.

What are these regions called? a. blunt ends b. tacky ends c. hydrogen-bonding ends d. sticky ends 26. Which of the following describes biotechnology? a. any technique applied to dead organisms to make or modify products or processes for a specific

purpose. b. any technique applied to biological systems or living organisms to make or modify products or processes for a specific purpose c. any technique applied to non-biological systems or dead organisms to make or modify products or processes for a specific purpose d. any technique applied to non-biological systems to make or modify products or processes for a specific purpose 27. How is the Ti plasmid used to create transgenic plants? a. The Ti plasmid inserts the foreign gene directly into the plant’s nuclear DNA. b. Once the Rhizobium radiobacter forms a tumour in the plant, the tumour cells can take up the foreign

DNA and incorporate it into their chromosomes. c. The Ti plasmid allows all of the plant cells to host the bacteria Rhizobium radiobacter and thus express the foreign gene that was inserted into the bacterial chromosome. d. The Ti plasmid inserts the foreign DNA into the DNA in the chloroplast. 28. What is the main difference between germ-line gene therapy and somatic gene therapy? a. Only germ-line gene therapy will have results limited to the current generation. b. Only somatic gene therapy can result in the modified genes being passed to the next generation. c. Only germ-line gene therapy results in altered gametes. d. Only the germ-line cells are altered in somatic gene therapy.

Figure 14-1

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Chap 14_4ce 29. According to Figure 14-1, which of the following is the difference between the original plasmid and the

recombinant plasmid? a. The original plasmid is not found in nature. b. The original plasmid has foreign DNA in it. c. Recombinant plasmid does not have foreign DNA in it. d. Recombinant plasmid has foreign DNA in it. 30. Suppose that you generate cDNA libraries for the same cell line under different conditions. Also suppose that

when you compare the libraries, you find that some cDNAs in one library are missing from the other library. What is the best explanation for this result? a. One of the cDNA libraries is really a genomic library. b. There was an error in generating one of the cDNA libraries, and some of the sequences were not cloned properly. c. Even the same cell type will change gene expression as conditions change. The difference in cDNAs tells which genes are expressed in each set of conditions. d. The probe used in the Southern blot of the libraries must have been poorly constructed. Figure 14-1

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Chap 14_4ce 31. According to Figure 14-1, what is the importance of the sticky ends? a. allowing recombination b. allowing digestion c. preventing digestion d. preventing recombination 32. Which of the following is like a set of clones that collectively contains a copy of every DNA sequence in a

genome? a. restriction enzyme library b. cloning vector c. genomic DNA library d. cDNA library 33. If you were to utilize “gene machine,” which of the following would you be using? a. a machine that can create DNA sequences of choice by automated chemical synthesis in the laboratory

using a RNA synthesizer responding to computer input b. a machine that can create DNA sequences of choice by automated chemical synthesis in the laboratory using a DNA synthesizer responding to computer input c. a machine that can create DNA sequences of choice by manual chemical synthesis in the laboratory using a DNA synthesizer responding to computer input d. a machine that can create RNA sequences of choice by automated chemical synthesis in the laboratory using a RNA synthesizer responding to computer input 34. What is the natural function of restriction endonucleases? a. regulating bacterial gene expression b. DNA recombination in vivo c. defending against viruses that infect bacteria d. DNA manipulation in vitro 35. What drawback have researchers noted in the cloning of domestic animals? a. The cloned animals often suffer from birth defects. b. The cloned animals do not resemble the parent. c. The cloned animals do not reach adulthood. d. The cloned animals are not viable.

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Chap 14_4ce 36. Which sequence presents the three stages of a PCR in the correct order? a. annealing extension denaturation b. extension

denaturation c. denaturation annealing d. denaturation extension

annealing extension annealing

37. Why is it important to have an antibiotic resistance gene in the cloning plasmid? a. It provides a way for researchers to sort the bacteria that have the cloning plasmid from the bacteria that

do not have the cloning plasmid. b. It provides a way to sort bacteria that have the gene of interest from the bacteria that have just an “empty” cloning plasmid. c. It makes the bacteria resistant to the antibiotic. d. It aids scientists in developing new antibiotic treatments. 38. Which of the following describes DNA ligase? a. the enzyme that seals together DNA fragments generated by restriction enzyme digestion to produce an

original DNA molecule b. the enzyme that seals together DNA fragments generated by restriction enzyme digestion to produce a recombinant DNA molecule c. the enzyme that seals together RNA fragments generated by restriction enzyme digestion to produce a recombinant DNA molecule d. the enzyme that seals together RNA fragments generated by restriction enzyme digestion to produce a recombinant RNA molecule 39. How many sources of DNA sequences are commonly used in biotechnology? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

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Chap 14_4ce 40. In what way are basic and applied research studies of a cloned gene different? a. In basic research, a researcher wants to study the gene’s function, including how its expression is

regulated, and the nature of the gene’s product, while in applied research, the interest is in using cloned genes for private application. b. In basic research, a researcher does not want to study the gene’s function, including how its expression is regulated, and the nature of the gene’s product, while in applied research, the interest is in using cloned genes for medical application. c. In basic research, a researcher does not learn about the gene’s structure, including its DNA sequence and sequences that regulate its expression, while in applied research, the interest is in the structure and function of a gene. d. In basic research, a researcher learns about the gene’s structure, including its DNA sequence and sequences that regulate its expression, while in applied research, the interest is not in the structure and function of a gene. 41. What are restriction fragment length polymorphisms used for? a. to prepare DNA for further sequence analysis b. to treat sickle cell anemia c. to test the effectiveness of different restriction enzymes on a sequence of DNA d. to compare DNA from two individuals 42. Which of the following can be determined by DNA fingerprinting? a. the sequence of human genome b. the genome of human fingers c. the species which a sample came from d. the difference between two individuals of the same species 43. What are the three essential pieces of DNA required for PCR? a. one primer and a template b. two primers and a template c. one primer and unknown DNA d. two primers and unknown DNA 44. Which of the following refer to nonrecombinant plasmids? a. resealed cloning vectors with no DNA fragment inserted b. plasmids with DNA fragments inserted into the cloning vector c. plasmids with no DNA fragment inserted d. resealed cloning vectors with DNA fragments inserted into the cloning vector

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Chap 14_4ce 45. What is the natural function of the T DNA contained within the Ti plasmid? a. to increase diversity b. to induce tumours c. to allow for recombination d. to transfer genes 46. Which of the following is characteristic of cDNA? a. a double stranded DNA copy of a single-stranded mRNA molecule b. a single stranded DNA copy of a single-stranded mRNA molecule c. a single stranded mRNA copy of a double-stranded mRNA molecule d. a single stranded mRNA copy of a single-stranded mRNA molecule 47. Which of the following distinguishes DNA cloning from gene cloning? a. DNA cloning is a method for producing a few copies of a piece of DNA. Gene cloning is DNA cloning

that involves a gene. b. DNA cloning is a method for producing a piece of DNA. Gene cloning is DNA cloning that involves a gene. c. Gene cloning is a method for producing many copies of a piece of DNA. DNA cloning is cloning that involves a gene. d. DNA cloning is a method for producing many copies of a piece of DNA. Gene cloning is DNA cloning that involves a gene. 48. Which of the following best describes the purpose of creating transgenic mice? a. to study genetic changes in context b. to produce proteins c. to clone mice d. to create antibiotic-resistant mice

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Match the names of the processes with the descriptions. a. DNA fingerprinting b. transgenics c. DNA cloning d. biotechnology e. proteomics 49. This methodology lets you study the complete set of protein that can be expressed by an organism’s genome. 50. This is the technique that would be used by a forensic scientist trying to determine if a suspect is the actual

rapist. 51. You use this technique to produce recombinant DNA. 52. This is the methodology that would be considered by a scientist who wants to generate mice that express a

fluorescent protein in every cell of their body. 53. This is any technique applied to living organisms that modifies or makes them for a specific purpose.

Match each term with its definition. a. uses DNA technologies to alter genes in a cell or organism b. branch of biology that tries to combine proteomics and genomics at an organismal level c. determination and analysis of the nucleotide sequences in the chromosomes in an organism d. products of a restriction endonuclease’s action e. collection of clones that together contain every DNA sequence in a genome, including noncoding sequences f. use of a short single stranded DNA sequence, labelled with some sort of tag, to bind to complementary DNA and thus identify it g. collection of clones that together contain a DNA version of every mRNA sequence expressed in a particular cell type h. procedure described as “a photocopy machine for specific DNA sequences” i. DNA from two different sources that have been joined together into a single molecule j. term used to describe organisms that have been subject to genetic engineering k. study of all of the proteins produced from an organism’s genome l. study of the functions of genes and noncoding portions of the genome, including their interactions with each other m. bacterial enzymes that recognize and cut specific DNA sequences n. method of hybridizing labelled DNA to DNA fragments that were previously subjected to gel electrophoresis o. technique used to separate DNA molecules based on their relative sizes p. method of identifying individuals based on their individual patterns of short tandem repeats located on certain loci of their genome Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_4ce 54. transgenic 55. restriction endonucleases 56. cDNA library 57. genetic engineering 58. structural genomics 59. systems biology 60. restriction fragments 61. functional genomics 62. DNA hybridization 63. DNA fingerprinting 64. genomic library 65. PCR 66. Southern blot 67. proteomics 68. agarose gel electrophoresis 69. recombinant DNA

Match the names of the processes to the descriptions. A process may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. DNA library b. restriction enzyme c. gene cloning d. Southern blotting e. PCR 70. You would use this method to determine the presence or absence of a particular 20 bp nucleotide pattern in a noncoding region of a genome. 71. You could use this technique to see if a DNA sequence is present in an individual’s genome without having to

use Sanger sequencing. 72. This technique will let you move a gene into a vector for expression in different cells. 73. You would use this method to mass-produce a gene in a bacterial cell that does not normally have this gene. 74. You would use this tool if you wanted to check if a particular gene was contained in an organism’s genome. 75. This technique is used to amplify specific sequences of DNA. 76. You would use this to cut DNA at a selected site.

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Match each term with the most appropriate macromolecule being studied or manipulated. a. DNA b. mRNA/cDNA c. protein 77. blotting 78. sequencing 79. PCR 80. agarose gel electrophoresis 81. cDNA library 82. proteomics 83. cloning 84. microarray 85. fingerprinting 86. transgenics 87. polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis 88. genomics 89. Explain the ethical concerns with germ-line gene therapy in humans.

90. Define the purpose of cloning a gene into a plasmid cloning vector.

91. Make an argument for which molecular biology technique discussed in this chapter is the single most important

technique for forensic scientists and justify your answer with the benefits of this method compared to the others that are available to you.

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Chap 14_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False - any organism can be analyzed with this technique, not just humans. 5. False - entire collection 6. False - approved 7. False - Hundreds 8. True 9. True 10. a 11. d 12. b 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. d 25. d 26. b

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Chap 14_4ce 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. c 31. a 32. c 33. b 34. c 35. a 36. c 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. d 41. d 42. d 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. a 47. d 48. a 49. e 50. a 51. c 52. b 53. d 54. j Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_4ce 55. m 56. g 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. d 61. l 62. f 63. p 64. e 65. h 66. n 67. k 68. o 69. i 70. d 71. d 72. c 73. c 74. a 75. e 76. b 77. a 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_4ce 83. a 84. b 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. If gene therapy were applied to germ-line cells in humans rather than being limited to somatic cells, we would be

doing an experiment on the next generation without their consent. We would also be creating changes to the human genome that would be passed to all future generations, and we do not know the consequences of those changes. For these reasons, we limit gene therapy in humans to somatic cells only. 90. By cloning a gene into a vector, you can generate hundreds of copies of the gene very easily. This allows the DNA to

be produced in amounts that are then usable in other applications, such as restriction enzyme analysis or Southern blotting. It also lets one mass-produce a protein if the sequence that is cloned is a protein-coding region. 91. In forensic science, sample sizes are very small and finite. For this reason, the most important tool is PCR. This

allows even a minute sample to be copied exponentially, generating relatively large amounts of DNA that are then usable in other assays using the techniques described. Many other research methods (including Southern blotting, fingerprinting, sequencing, microarray analysis) require a substantial sample size in order to do the assay. In the case of forensic science, the available materials are very limited in quantity, and thus PCR is the method of choice.

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Chap 15_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes? a. Eukaryotic protein-coding genes typically lack introns, so more sophisticated algorithms must be used to

identify such genes. b. Eukaryotic protein-coding genes typically have introns, so more sophisticated algorithms must be used to identify such genes. c. Because many genes have introns in prokaryotic genomes, searching for protein-coding ORFs is straightforward. d. Because many genes have introns in prokaryotic genomes, searching for protein-coding ORFs is very difficult. 2. Which of the following are NOT identified during annotation? a. protein-coding genes b. noncoding RNA genes c. origins of replication d. protein interactions 3. What is an open reading frame? a. the nucleotides between and including a start codon and an end codon in all chromosomes b. the nucleotides between and including a start codon and an end codon, minus the introns c. the nucleotides between and including a start codon and an end codon, minus the exons d. the nucleotides between a start codon and end codon only in prokaryotes 4. Which of these techniques would a company that analyzes personal genomes most likely use? a. DNA cloning b. gene cloning c. PCR d. fingerprinting 5. Which of the following is your “C-value”? a. RNA size b. genome size c. chromosome size d. DNA size

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Chap 15_4ce 6. Which of the following is the name of the study of the complete set of transcripts in a cell? a. genome b. transcriptome c. proteome d. interactome 7. Which of the following is included in functional analysis of protein-coding genes? a. determining the base-by-base sequence of an entire genome b. scanning of genomes for potential protein-producing sequences c. scanning of genomes for potential RNA-producing sequences d. determining what proteins they encode and how those proteins function in the organism’s metabolic

processes 8. During a sequencing reaction, the researcher adds all the required components to the reaction, but accidentally

adds only one of the four dideoxynucleotides, the ddC. What kinds of products will be observed after this reaction is complete? a. All fragments will end in A. b. All fragments will end in C. c. All fragments will end in G. d. All fragments will end in T. 9. Which of the following is NOT a way to determine the function of annotated genes? a. looking for similar gene sequences of known function b. examining the putative protein structure c. using gene knockout experiments d. finding a pseudogene for that gene 10. How can microarrays help us understand cellular functions? a. Microarrays let us study different cells under different conditions. b. Microarrays let us directly measure protein expression in individual cells. c. Microarrays, by hybridizing cDNAs to DNA sequences already present on a chip, let us identify which

portions of a genome are being expressed in a cell at a particular time. d. Microarrays let us identify which DNA sequences are present in a particular cell type under certain conditions. 11. Which of the following best summarizes what proteomics involves? a. determining protein structure and function b. determining protein structure and interactions c. determining protein structure, function, location, and interaction d. determining protein sequence and interactions Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_4ce 12. Which of the following values is your genome size? a. S-value b. G-value c. C-value d. D-value 13. Which of these statements best describes the human genome? a. There are about 12 000 genes that do not encode proteins. b. Each gene averages 30 regulatory sequences for expression. c. There are no pseudogenes. d. There are, on average, 10 exons per gene. 14. Which of these statements best describes pseudogenes? a. Most pseudogenes derived from protein-coding genes but are not recognized by their sequence

similarities to functional genes. b. Pseudogenes are short repetitive sequences. c. Pseudogenes are not similar to functional genes at DNA sequence level. d. Most pseudogenes are derived from protein-coding genes and are recognized by their sequence similarities to functional genes. 15. Which of the following is NOT a model organism whose genomes were sequenced as part of the original

Human Genome Project? a. Mus musculus (mouse) b. Escherichia coli (bacteria) c. Drosophila melanogaster (fruit fly) d. Danio rerio (zebrafish) 16. In the microarray shown in your textbook, the cDNAs were labelled with red and green fluorescent tags. How

then do you end up with spots on the microarray emitting yellow light? a. In light, red and green are two of the primary colours, and the combination of the two will produce yellow light. b. The yellow light comes from the laser, and a yellow spot indicates that neither cDNA hybridized to that spot on the microarray. c. The over expression of one cDNA relative to the other will skew the colour pattern of the spot on the microarray. This results in the yellow colour. d. The colour choice was an arbitrary decision by the artist and doesn’t reflect how the process actually works.

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Chap 15_4ce 17. During a microarray analysis, cDNAs made from normal cells are stained with a green fluorescent label and

cDNAs from abnormal cells are stained with a red fluorescent label. Which of the following statements best summarizes the results of this experiment? a. Red spots indicate genes that are underexpressed in abnormal cells. b. Red spots indicate genes that are not expressed in abnormal cells. c. Red spots indicate genes that are overexpressed in abnormal cells. d. Red spots indicate genes that are overexpressed in normal cells. 18. Which of the following is NOT added to a single-stranded DNA in order to perform a successful sequencing

reaction? a. a mixture of the four dideoxyribonucleotides, not labelled with a different fluorescent label b. a DNA primer c. a mixture of the four deoxyribonucleotides d. a DNA polymerase 19. In the whole-genome shotgun method, the genome is fragmented and individual fragments are sequenced.

How do we determine the order of the nucleotides in the intact chromosome? a. The fragmentation is done in a very systematic way such that the physical arrangement of fragments is readily apparent. b. The sequences of the ends of the fragments overlap with the ends of other fragments. c. We supplement our information with data from a different technique to determine the final chromosome arrangement. d. DNA hybridization assays are conducted to determine the physical arrangement of the genes on the chromosome. 20. Which of the following is NOT an example of a current use of bioinformatics? a. locating individual genes in a genomic sequence b. aligning sequences in databases to determine similarities between organisms c. predicting the structure and function of gene products d. determining the final protein structure of novel proteins based on just the nucleotide sequence 21. Which of the following is NOT considered a source of evolving genes? a. a gene duplication from unequal crossing-over b. a gene duplication from replicating transposable elements c. a gene duplication from crossing-over d. an exon shuffling

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Chap 15_4ce 22. Which of the following is the reason why the genes of living organisms tend to be similar to each other? a. All genes are old. b. All genes are new. c. They have evolved from ancestral genes in ancestral organisms. d. They have not evolved from ancestral genes in ancestral organisms. 23. Which of the following involves comparing gene expression under a defined experimental condition with

expression under a control condition? a. studies of gene activity using DNA microarrays b. studies of gene activity using RNA microarrays c. studies of gene activity using RNA analyses d. studies of gene activity using DNA analyses 24. Over half of your DNA sequence is comprised of transposable elements that were once mobile. Which of

these statements best identifies such sequences? a. They contain genes that encompass about 15% to 25% of your genome. b. They contain genes that are not coding for human proteins, and are called “junk DNA.” c. They contain genes that are coding for human proteins, but they are not expressed. d. They do not contain genes, and are called “junk DNA.” 25. Which of the following shows the approximate size of the human genome? a. 1 billion base pairs b. 3 billion base pairs c. 7 billion base pairs d. 10 billion base pairs

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Match the following techniques with the descriptions listed below. a. whole-genome shotgun sequencing b. Illumina/Solexa sequencing c. Sanger sequencing d. DNA microarray analysis e. gene knockout f. gene knockdown 26. used to replace a normal gene with a defective one to see the effect 27. used to determine the entire genome sequence of an organism by sequencing DNA fragments and then

assembling them using computer software 28. used to determine DNA sequence in an automated way 29. used to determine DNA sequence using dideoxynucleotides 30. used to compare the gene expression patterns of identical cells under different conditions 31. used to decrease a gene’s expression to see the effect

Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. all proteins that can be produced by a cell b. all transcripts that are produced by a cell c. the study of all of the proteins produced from an organism’s genome d. the study of genome sequences for several organisms e. the study of the whole genome of an organism f. the use of computer programs to extract biological information from sequence data g. the study of all transcripts produced from an organism’s genome 32. transcriptome 33. transcriptomics 34. genomics 35. proteome 36. comparative genomics 37. proteomics 38. bioinformatics

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For each of the following statements, choose the most appropriate macromolecule being studied or manipulated from the list below. a. DNA b. mRNA/cDNA c. protein 39. sequencing 40. microarray 41. genomics 42. cellular proteomics 43. shotgun sequencing 44. proteomics 45. Sanger method 46. How do gene duplication and exon shuffling lead to new genes?

47. What are the relationships among the following types of organisms with respect to genome size: viruses,

bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes?

48. What is the difference between a gene knockout and a gene knockdown?

49. What are the main differences among the studies of genomics, transcriptomics, and proteomics?

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Chap 15_4ce 50. List at least three differences in how the E. coli and human genomes are arranged.

51. Explain how proteomics is considered by some to be even more important than genome sequencing.

52. Comparative genomics is done to learn how genes and genomes have evolved. What are three different

concepts that we have learned from comparative genomics?

53. There are three types of sequencing described in the text: Sanger (dideoxy) sequencing, whole-genome

shotgun sequencing, and Illumina/Solexa sequencing. Which one(s) would be best to use for sequencing a single gene versus an entire genome and why?

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Chap 15_4ce Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. b 6. b 7. d 8. b 9. d 10. c 11. c 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. d 21. c 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. b 26. e

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Chap 15_4ce 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. f 32. b 33. g 34. e 35. a 36. d 37. c 38. f 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. a 46. Gene duplication results in a second copy of a gene on the same chromosome. At first, both copies will produce the

same protein. However, over time, mutations can arise that change the genes. If these mutations are not deleterious, the “new” gene will be able to ultimately produce a slightly different protein from the original gene that may function slightly differently. Exon shuffling is a mechanism whereby exons from existing genes are combined in new ways to produce new genes that may produce new functional proteins. 47. Viruses have the smallest genomes of these four types of organisms. Bacterial and archaean genomes are similar in

size to each other. Eukaryotes have the largest genome sizes of these four groups. There is overlap among the groups, however, in that viral genome sizes overlap with genomes from archaea/bacteria, and eukaryote genome sizes overlap with genomes from archaea/bacteria.

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Chap 15_4ce 48. A gene knockout is when researchers replace the normal gene with a defective one so that no functional protein

product can be made from that gene. A gene knockdown is when researchers decrease the amount of expression from a gene by using a technique such as RNA interference. Both are used to assess the phenotype of changing a gene’s function in the cell. 49. Genomics is the study of whole genomes at the DNA level. Transcriptomics analyzes the transcription of all genes

from a genome under a certain set of conditions. Proteomics focuses on the proteins, including determining their structure and function, their locations in or out of the cell, and their interactions with each other. 50. The E. coli genome consists of one circular chromosome, whereas the human genome is composed of many linear

chromosomes. The human genome contains many more nucleotides and protein-coding genes than the genome of E. coli. Despite that, only about 1.2% of the human genome is coding, whereas nearly 90% of the E. coli genome is coding. Finally, each human gene contains eight introns on average, but E. coli genes do not contain introns at all. 51. There are limits to what genome sequencing can tell us about an organism. It has been said by some that the genome

sequences are like a dictionary: the dictionary can tell you words, but it doesn’t tell you how a language is used. The proteomics field seeks to determine how all of the proteins expressed in a cell work together. This will help us understand how the cells actually function and tell us which genes are being expressed and for what purpose. If the genome is a dictionary, then the proteome is a novel. 52. By comparing genomes from different organisms, we have first learned that many present-day organisms share a

large number of genes, many of which are used for standard shared processes such as transcription and translation, metabolism, etc. Second, we have learned that there are genes that are restricted to certain groups (eukaryotes, archaea, and bacteria; or plants, animals, primates, humans, etc.). These differences are one way to determine how different organisms are related to each other and how life evolved at a molecular level. Third, comparative genomics has also been used to study human evolution. Although humans were the first mammal to have its genome sequenced, there are many more mammalian genomes sequenced since then, including many primates. The similarities and differences found among various mammalian genomes are useful in determining evolutionary relationships among those mammals. 53. Single genes can be sequenced using the Sanger method since this technique, although automated, can also be pared

down to focus on a single gene or DNA fragment. All three methods can be used for whole-genome sequencing. The Illumina/Solexa method is used to sequence whole genomes in an automated way, and would never be used to sequence a single gene or fragment. Whole-genome shotgun sequencing is not really a sequencing technique, per se, but rather an approach to combining the data from sequencing genomic fragments after using either the Sanger method or the Illumina/Solexa method to acquire the sequence data.

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Chap 16_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Darwin understood that a major aspect of evolutionary change must reside within a species. 2. Evolution by natural selection, as conceived by Darwin, is NOT based on Mendel’s experiments with peas. 3. Mendel did NOT influence Darwin’s writing of the book On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural

Selection. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 4. When did Darwin’s voyage take place? a. 1731 to 1736 b. 1831 to 1836 c. 1854 to 1859 d. 1931 to 1939 5. Which of the following have extended the achievements of the modern synthesis of evolution, and what is the

result? a. Molecular techniques have extended the achievements of the modern synthesis, allowing precise analysis of the genetic basis of evolutionary change. b. Molecular techniques have extended the achievements of the modern synthesis, allowing precise analysis of the genetic basis of evolutionary change and the genetic relatedness of living and extinct organisms. c. Molecular techniques have extended the achievements of the modern synthesis, allowing the genetic relatedness of living and extinct organisms. d. Genetic techniques have extended the achievements of the modern synthesis, allowing precise analysis of the genetic relatedness of living and extinct organisms. 6. Which of these observations did Darwin apply to organisms in nature? a. Malthus’s observation that England’s population was growing much faster than the country’s agricultural

capacity b. Malthus’s observation that simple organisms evolved into more complex ones, moving up the ladder of life c. Lamarck’s observation that simple organisms evolved into more complex ones, moving up the ladder of life d. Lamarck’s observation that England’s population was growing much faster than the country’s agricultural capacity

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Chap 16_4ce 7. What has Health Canada recognized as the top health issue in the past decade in Canada? a. HIV b. bacterial antibiotic resistance c. malaria d. influenza 8. Which of the following happened before Darwin? a. No one had yet conceived of biological evolution. b. Lamarck wrote about biological evolution, but had the mechanism wrong. c. Lamarck had the idea of natural selection, but was ignored. d. Malthus demonstrated the progression of fossils in rocks. 9. Which of these concepts is closely related to adaptation? a. selection b. survival c. fitness d. hierarchy 10. The ability of the bacterium E. coli to adapt to different growth temperatures is an excellent example of which

of the following? a. experimental evolution b. prokaryotic evolution c. adaptive transformation d. genetic transformation 11. If organisms have a huge capacity to reproduce, why aren’t populations of all organisms enormous? a. The overall number of populations constrains the size of any population. b. Genetics constrain the size of any population. c. Limited resources constrain the size of any population. d. Climate factors constrain the size of any population. 12. As a young child, you preferred to collect shells and insects, dig through the mud around a pond, and watch

birds rather than play video games. What did you have in common with Charles Darwin? a. an interest in geology b. an interest in history c. an interest in natural history d. an interest in biogeography

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Chap 16_4ce 13. What is the reason that a species still exists in its environment even after this environment changes? a. natural changes b. adjustment c. acclimatization d. adaptation 14. Which of the following is an example of biogeography? a. studies involving travelling around the world and observing life b. studies of the world distribution of humans c. studies of the world distribution of fungi and animals d. studies of the world distribution of plants and animals 15. Who proposed that species change through time? a. Charles Lyell, Jean Baptiste de Lamarck, and Alfred Russel Wallace b. James Hutton, Charles Darwin, and Alfred Russel Wallace c. Aristotle, Charles Darwin, and Jean Baptiste de Lamarck d. Charles Darwin, Jean Baptiste de Lamarck, and Alfred Russel Wallace 16. Which of these pairs does NOT match evolutionary evidence with biological disciplines? a. gill pouches in embryos of four-limbed vertebrates—comparative embryology b. forelimbs or all four-legged vertebrates are homologous—comparative morphology c. short tails of African and Asian monkeys—historical biogeography d. pesticide resistance—historical biogeography 17. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of comparative morphology? a. It compares the anatomical structures of organisms. b. It compares the similarities of organisms. c. It compares the differences of organisms. d. It compares the similarities and differences of organisms. 18. Which of the following is a correct interpretation of the wings of bats and the wings of birds? a. They are analogous because they have a similar internal bone structure inherited from a common

ancestor. b. They are homologous because they are adapted for the same function. c. They are homologous because they have a similar internal bone structure inherited from a common ancestor. d. They are analogous because the common ancestor of bats and birds had wings.

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Chap 16_4ce 19. Which of the following is extinction most likely an example of? a. Mendelian genetics b. natural selection c. macroevolutionary change d. microevolutionary change 20. While collecting a diverse group of finches, Darwin noticed great variability in the shapes of their bills.

However, he incorrectly assumed which of the following. a. that birds on the same island belonged to the same species b. that birds on the same island did not belong to the same species c. that birds on different islands did not belong to the same species d. that birds on different islands belonged to the same species 21. Which of the following statements best exemplifies the principle of selective pressures? a. the environmental pressures felt by selection b. the environmental pressures felt by populations c. the environmental pressures felt by species d. the environmental pressures felt by organisms 22. Suppose that each species of Galápagos tortoise has a distinctive shell and that variations in shell size make

some tortoises better adapted for defence. Imagine an island where many hunt these tortoises. Individuals with a larger shell would be more likely to survive and reproduce than would tortoises with smaller shells. These favoured individuals would pass on the genes that produce larger shells to their descendants, while those with smaller shells would not reproduce, leading to extinction. Which of the following would most likely drive this event? a. spontaneous selection b. hereditary selection c. natural selection d. artificial selection 23. Which of the following is an example of Scala Naturae? a. Darwin’s ladder-like understanding of nature from the most complex to simplest b. Darwin’s ladder-like understanding of nature from simplest to the most complex c. Aristotle’s ladder-like understanding of nature from the most complex to simplest d. Aristotle’s ladder-like understanding of nature from simplest to the most complex

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Chap 16_4ce 24. Which of the following best characterizes evolutionary divergence by Darwin’s observation? a. the great similarity of form of species b. the great variety of form of species c. differences in appearance of nutria and beaver d. differences in bill shape and food habits of finches 25. Who proposed the Scale of Nature? a. Aristotle b. Darwin c. Lamarck d. Lyell 26. Whose quote is this: “Nothing in biology makes sense except in the light of evolution”? a. Aristotle b. Jan Baptiste de Lamarck c. Theodosius Dobzhansky d. Charles Darwin 27. Which of the following best compares microevolution with macroevolution? a. Microevolution describes the small-scale evolutionary changes that populations undergo.

Macroevolution describes larger-scale genetic changes observed in species. b. Microevolution describes the large-scale genetic changes that populations undergo. Macroevolution describes small-scale evolutionary changes observed in species. c. Microevolution describes the small-scale genetic changes that populations undergo. Macroevolution describes larger-scale evolutionary changes observed in species. d. Microevolution describes the small-scale genetic changes that species undergo. Macroevolution describes larger-scale evolutionary changes observed in populations. 28. Which of the following characteristics distinguish Darwin’s theory from earlier explanations of biological

diversity and adaptive traits? a. Darwin provided purely spiritual, rather than physical, explanations for the origins of biological diversity. b. Darwin recognized that evolutionary change occurs in groups of organisms rather than in individuals: some members of a group survive and reproduce more successfully than others. c. Darwin described evolution as a single-stage process: variations arise within groups, natural selection eliminates unsuccessful variations, and the next generation inherits successful variations. d. Like Lamarck, Darwin understood that evolution does not occur because some organisms function worse than others in a particular environment.

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Chap 16_4ce 29. Which two scientists evidenced evolution via natural selection as an idea whose time had come? a. Darwin and Wallace b. Darwin and Lamarck c. Darwin and Malthus d. Lamarck and Wallace 30. Which of these statements represents what Darwin thought of natural selection? a. He reasoned that if characteristics that better enable organisms to adapt to specific environmental

pressures exist, then selective breeding could do the same. b. He reasoned that if a person could select different characteristics when breeding organisms, then nature could do so as well. c. Humans were selecting the characteristics they wanted in the offspring by choosing parents with those traits. d. Humans were selecting the characteristics they wanted in the offspring by eliminating individuals that did not show these characteristics. 31. Which of the following is the modern synthesis of evolution NOT based on? a. linking Darwinism with Mendelism b. linking population growth with variation to explain natural selection c. interpreting microevolution and macroevolution d. interpreting data from a wide variety of biological disciplines in an evolutionary framework 32. Which of these statements represents what Darwin thought of artificial selection? a. He reasoned that if characteristics that better enable organisms to adapt to specific environmental

pressures exist, then artificial selection will tend to increase those in succeeding generations. b. He reasoned that if a person could select different characteristics when breeding organisms, then nature could do so as well. c. Humans were selecting the characteristics they wanted in the offspring by choosing parents with those traits. d. Humans were selecting the characteristics they wanted in the offspring by eliminating individuals that did not show these characteristics. 33. Which of the following were integrated in a unified theory of evolution called the modern synthesis? a. biogeography, comparative morphology, comparative embryology, genetics, paleontology, and

taxonomy b. biogeography, comparative morphology, comparative embryology, genetics, and paleontology c. biogeography, comparative morphology, comparative embryology, and genetics d. biogeography, comparative morphology, and comparative embryology

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Chap 16_4ce 34. What was a basic truth of inheritance that had been known well before Darwin’s time? a. Offspring frequently resemble their parents, offspring inherit genes from their parents, and selective

breeding improves domesticated plants and animals. b. Offspring frequently resemble their parents and selective breeding improves domesticated plants and animals. c. Offspring inherit genes from their parents. d. Offspring frequently resemble their parents. 35. Which of the following is an example of an ancestor and its descendant? a. African ostrich and Australian emu b. glyptodont and armadillo c. a grandmother and her granddaughter d. a father and his son 36. Which of the following was the specific discipline that linked Mendel’s and Darwin’s work? a. modern synthesis b. biogeography c. population biology d. population genetics 37. Which of the following was NOT proposed by Lamarck’s theory of evolution? a. Changes in species are a result of natural selection. b. Organisms change in response to their environment. c. New characteristics are passed from one generation to the next. d. Species change through time. 38. Which of the following is the reason for existence of vestigial structures (useless parts of the body)? a. They must have functioned in the near past. b. They must have functioned in ancestral organisms. c. They must have functioned in other organisms. d. They must have functioned in similar organisms. 39. What are homologous traits? a. characteristics that are similar in two species because they inherited the genetic basis of the trait from

their common ancestor b. characteristics that are different in two species because they inherited the genetic basis of the trait from a different ancestor c. characteristics that are similar in two species because they are used for the same function d. characteristics that are similar in two species because two species look similar

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Chap 16_4ce 40. Which of the following probably influenced Darwin the most when he was developing his theory of evolution? a. catastrophism b. uniformitarianism c. Scala Naturae d. vestigial structures 41. Which of the following reflects genetic differences? a. phenotypic variation among organisms b. genotypic variation among organisms c. genotypic and phenotypic variation among organisms d. genotypic and phenotypic variation among populations 42. Extinct glyptodont and living nine-banded armadillo were related according to Darwin. In what way are they

related? a. They were/are both living. b. They are both animals. c. Glyptodont is an ancestor and armadillo is a descendant. d. Glyptodont is a descendant and armadillo is an ancestor, 43. Which of the following is characteristic of adaptive traits? a. artificially selected characteristics that make organisms more likely to survive and reproduce under a

given set of environmental conditions b. hereditary characteristics that make organisms more likely to survive and reproduce under a given set of environmental conditions. c. naturally selected characteristics that make organisms more likely to become extinct under a given set of environmental conditions d. hereditary characteristics that make organisms more likely to become extinct under a given set of environmental conditions 44. Which of the following was most important to lead to the science of molecular genetics? a. research since the discovery of the structure of RNA that has led to a more thorough understanding of

mutations b. research since the discovery of the structure of DNA that has led to a more thorough understanding of mutations c. research since the discovery of the structure of DNA that has led to a more thorough understanding of genetics d. research since the discovery of the structure of RNA that has led to a more thorough understanding of genetics

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Chap 16_4ce 45. What was the perceived fundamental conflict between Darwin’s and Mendel’s theories? a. Darwin was a scientist while Mendel was a monk. b. Mendel’s experiments were unbiased, while Darwin set out to prove evolution by natural selection. c. Mendel’s experiments were based on simple traits while Darwin’s evidence was based on complex

characteristics. d. Mendel’s theory was based on experimentation while Darwin’s was based on observation. 46. Which of these observations did NOT influence Darwin’s later thoughts about evolution? a. North American and South American species were more similar to each other than European and

African species. b. Species on islands differed from species on the mainland closest to the island. c. A great variety of species exist across the globe. d. Species on different islands were very different. 47. Which of the following studies provide compelling evidence of evolutionary change? a. studies of adaptation and historical biogeography b. studies of adaptation and the fossil record c. studies of adaptation, the fossil record, and historical biogeography d. studies of adaptation, the fossil record, historical biogeography, and comparative morphology 48. Which of the following is NOT an observation made by Darwin? a. If the next generation is subjected to the same process of selection, these favourable traits will become

less common. b. Individuals within populations vary in size, form, colour, behaviour, and other characteristics. c. Many of these variations are passed on from parent to offspring. d. Some of the inherited variations enable some individuals to survive and reproduce better than others. 49. What was the reason Darwin was sailing aboard the HMS Beagle? a. He was a naturalist. b. He was a geologist. c. He was the captain’s personal physician. d. He was the captain’s dining companion. 50. Which of the following is an example of Scala Naturae? a. Minerals rank below plants, plants below animals, animals below humans, and humans below the gods. b. Mosses rank below ferns, ferns below flowering plants, flowering plants below bushes, and bushes

below trees. c. Cars rank below buses, buses below trucks, trucks below cars, and buses below airplanes. d. Blood cells rank below blood liquid, blood liquid below lymph, lymph below connective tissue, and connective tissue below skin. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_4ce 51. Which of these disciplines have been profoundly influenced by the findings of evolutionary biology? a. genetics, molecular biology, developmental biology, systematics, and paleontology b. molecular biology, forensic science, systematics, paleontology, and mathematics c. forensic science, ecology, botany, astronomy, and physics d. developmental biology, ecology, forensic science, astronomy, and paleontology 52. What was the major stumbling block for the acceptance of natural selection as a mechanism for evolution

when proposed by Darwin? a. lack of a fossil record b. lack of observational and experimental data c. lack of a plausible theory of heredity d. lack of evidence for artificial selection 53. What was the importance of George-Louis Leclerc’s findings? a. Most animals have not changed since their creation, and they still look the same and function in the same

way as in their past. b. Most animals have not changed since their creation, but some have evolved vestigial structures as new components. c. Some animals must have changed since their creation, and their vestigial structures must have functioned in ancestral organisms. d. Some animals must have not changed since their creation, and all their structures must have functioned in ancestral organisms too. Match each person with their correct concept. a. vestigial structures b. evolution by natural selection c. inheritance of acquired characteristics d. uniformitarianism 54. Charles Darwin 55. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck 56. Alfred Russel Wallace 57. George-Louis de Buffon 58. Charles Lyell

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Chap 16_4ce

Match the descriptions listed below with their correct discipline. a. population genetics b. microevolution c. historical biogeography d. comparative morphology e. macroevolution f. the fossil records g. molecular techniques 59. Using fossil evidence is important in this discipline. 60. This describes the small-scale genetic changes in populations. 61. In this discipline, genetics and mathematics are combined to predict how selection and other processes such as

non-random reproduction, affect a population’s genetic changes through time. 62. A practitioner of this discipline might observe that species on oceanic islands often closely resemble species on

the nearest mainland. 63. If you observe that the arms of humans and wings of birds are constructed similarly, you would be practicing

this discipline. 64. This documents continuity in morphological characteristics. 65. This describes larger-scale evolutionary changes observed in species. 66. Ambiguous conclusions about phylogenetic relationship derived from comparative morphology can now

generally be clarified by this discipline. 67. This provides biologists with powerful tools for exploring all aspects of life. 68. Species on oceanic islands often closely resemble species on the nearest mainland, suggesting that the islands

and mainland species have a common ancestry. 69. What are the products of evolution?

70. Explain how observing artificial selection provides an inference for natural selection.

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Chap 16_4ce 71. Discuss the links between Darwin’s observations and inferences. Are some inferences more logical than

others? Is there evidence for all of the inferences?

72. You are a farmer that grows corn. You are offered a genetically modified variety of corn that is 100% resistant

to corn borers. You have to decide what proportion of your field you should plant in resistant corn versus a variety that is susceptible to corn borers. Explain why you might choose one of the following proportions of resistant to susceptible: 100:0, 90:10, 75:25, or 50:50.

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Chap 16_4ce Answer Key 1. False - population 2. True 3. True 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. c 12. c 13. d 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. c

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Chap 16_4ce 27. c 28. b 29. a 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. b 44. b 45. c 46. a 47. d 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_4ce 55. c 56. b 57. a 58. b 59. g 60. b 61. a 62. c 63. d 64. f 65. e 66. f 67. g 68. c 69. Genetic changes (and genetic variability) in populations that result in changes in phenotypes. 70. The mechanism of passing on genes selectively (i.e., non-random mating), if it occurs in nature, would mean both

types of selection share a common mechanism. 71. Based on observations made in nature, Darwin inferred their possible relationships, and made conclusions based on

those inferences. If any of the inferences seems more logical, then that one would be selected to base further conclusions on. In some instances, the evidence is yet to be discovered and confirmed, but in some, Darwin gained enough information based on his observations that he was able to make conclusions. (Figure 16.8 explains this.) 72. The ultimate answer depends on rates of selection pressure associated with the resistant variety of corn. The

question should be studied using methods of population genetics. Some variables to consider are: Is the yield of resistant and susceptible corn the same in the absence of corn borers, and in the presence of corn borers? What is the probability that the corn borer will evolve resistance to the new variety of corn, which in part depends on the population genetics of the system? In effect, if the corn borer population contains a lot of genetic variability (highly heterozygous), then planting at the higher proportions of resistance will reduce rates of evolution.

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Chap 17_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. A population bottleneck results in decreased genetic diversity and often the loss of rare alleles. 2. Genetic drift can eliminate alleles from a population more quickly than natural selection. 3. New traits arise from scratch through the formation of a new gene. 4. Small populations on islands can be said to have experienced a form of genetic drift called the founder effect. 5. Intermediate forms are often absent in characters showing qualitative variation. 6. Mutations are random and create genetic novelty. 7. Natural selection results in organisms perfectly adapted to their environments. 8. Natural selection quickly eliminates harmful alleles from the population. 9. Genetic drift is non-selective and therefore does not contribute to microevolution. 10. Genetic variation can originate both from the production of new alleles and from the arrangement of existing

alleles. 11. Phenotypic variation CANNOT be passed on from one generation to the next. 12. The reason why some specialty breeds of dogs are more prone to genetic disease is because of genetic drift. 13. In an unchanging environment, a well-adapted population is likely to experience no natural selection of any

kind. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 14. A baby is born with wrinkled, poorly-formed skin and blood vessels prone to rupturing. What can we say the

baby has inherited? a. a lethal mutation b. a deleterious mutation c. an advantageous mutation d. a partial mutation 15. If the frequency of the recessive allele (q) for a particular two-allele gene in a population is 0.20, what

percentage of the individuals in the population will be heterozygotes for that gene? a. 0.16 b. 0.20 c. 0.32 d. 0.80

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Chap 17_4ce 16. What is the stable presence of more than one allele for a particular gene in a population called? a. balanced polymorphism b. mixed gene pool c. mutation pressure d. genetic drift 17. For which of the following is the Hardy–Weinberg formula valuable? a. calculating changes in population size b. calculating changes in speciation c. calculating changes in allele frequencies d. calculating changes in mutation 18. What is any product of natural selection that increases the relative fitness of an organism in its environment

called? a. mutation b. adaptive trait c. adaptation d. variation 19. What is inbreeding primarily due to? a. migration b. non-random mating c. mutation d. adaptive radiation 20. Imagine that the only survivors of a colony on Venus are a man and a woman, who happen to be both

originally from southern Ukraine. Which of the following will their descendants show? a. genetic drift b. punctuated equilibrium c. excessive mutation d. heterozygote advantage 21. In a colony of 100 guinea pigs, 16 show the recessive trait of bristly hair. What is the frequency of the

recessive allele in the population? a. 0.400 b. 0.160 c. 0.040 d. 0.016

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Chap 17_4ce 22. Which of the following best describes the condition in which evolution could have taken place? a. when a population experiences a shift in allele frequencies b. when a mutation occurs in a population c. when a feature of an individual animal changes through use or disuse d. when a population has different forms of the same gene 23. What does a sudden reduction in population size generally result in? a. extinction b. mutation c. speciation d. genetic drift 24. Which of the following processes listed below will NOT disrupt Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium? a. non-random mating b. natural selection c. migration d. punctuated equilibrium 25. Which evolution-related events are in the correct cause-and-effect sequence? a. mutation variation natural selection adaptation speciation b. variation

adaptation mutation natural selection speciation c. speciation adaptation variation mutation natural selection d. mutation speciation adaptation variation natural selection 26. Which process below is NOT an agent of microevolutionary change? a. mutation b. genetic drift c. natural selection d. random mating 27. What is the production of random evolutionary changes in small breeding populations known as? a. gene flow b. genetic drift c. disruptive selection d. mutation

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Chap 17_4ce 28. What is the one measurement we have to make if we want to know the percentage of particular genotypes

within an actual population, assuming complete dominance and two alleles? a. the frequency of heterozygous phenotypes b. the frequency of heterozygous genotypes c. the frequency of dominant phenotypes d. the frequency of recessive phenotypes 29. What is the founder effect a type of? a. natural selection b. mutation c. genetic drift d. gene flow 30. Which of the following is a correct expression of the Hardy–Weinberg equation? a. p + q = 0 b. p2 + pq – q2 = 1 c. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 0 d. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 31. Which of the following best describes microevolution? a. the formation of a new species b. the occurrence of a new mutation c. a change in allele frequencies within a population d. the gradual change in the form of fossils over geological time 32. Which of the following best characterize mutations that confer no apparent selective advantage or

disadvantage in a particular environment? a. random mutations b. deleterious mutations c. neutral mutations d. stabilizing mutations 33. There are two alleles for a gene in a population, and the frequency of the dominant allele (p) is 0.50. What is

the frequency of the recessive allele (q)? a. 0.05 b. 0.25 c. 0.50 d. 0.75

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Chap 17_4ce 34. According to the modern synthetic theory of evolution, what does the accumulation of mutations over time

result in? a. microevolution b. adaptation c. an increase in genetic variation d. speciation 35. If individuals move from one population to another, it may cause a shift in allele frequencies. What causes this

shift? a. genetic drift b. directional selection c. mutation d. gene flow 36. Which of the following will disrupt Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium the least? a. directional selection b. stabilizing selection c. migration d. reduction to a small population size 37. What would a change of environmental conditions most likely cause in an existing species? a. disruptive selection b. mutation c. stabilizing selection d. directional selection 38. What is the contribution that an individual makes to the gene pool of the next generation in relation to the

contributions of other individuals called? a. competition b. genetic drift c. relative fitness d. gene flow 39. Which of the following is the source of new alleles in a population? a. natural selection b. mutation c. microevolution d. genetic drift

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Chap 17_4ce 40. What is the decline in the occurrence of sickle cell anemia in the American population most likely the result of? a. a lower mutation rate in the United States than in Africa b. the advantage of both homozygous forms over the heterozygous form c. the development of appropriate medical treatment for the sickle cell condition in the United States d. a decline in the occurrence of malaria in the United States 41. Which of the following processes results in microevolution without any form of natural selection? a. genetic drift b. mutation c. development of new characteristics during an individual’s lifetime d. genetic variation 42. All the population attributes listed below can be calculated with the Hardy–Weinberg equation EXCEPT which

one? a. the frequency of heterozygotes b. the frequency of a dominant allele c. the frequency of a recessive allele d. the frequency of mutation 43. Which of the following does directional selection favour? a. intermediate phenotypes b. phenotypes at one end of the distribution c. phenotypic extremes at both ends d. heterozygotes 44. Studies of chromosomal and mitochondrial DNA suggest that every locus exhibits some variability in its

nucleotide sequence. Which of the following does NOT apply in those studies? a. Every locus exhibits some variability in its nucleotide sequence among individuals from a single population. b. Every locus exhibits some variability in its nucleotide sequence between populations of the same species. c. Every locus exhibits some variability in its nucleotide sequence between related species. d. Every locus exhibits some variability in its nucleotide sequence within an individual.

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Chap 17_4ce 45. We are sending a small number of dogs to colonize a new planet. Through a random selection process, we end

up only with dachshunds and Chihuahuas. The subsequent colony is all small dogs with short legs. What is this an example of? a. adaptive radiation b. punctuated equilibrium c. genetic drift d. microevolution 46. In which of the following scenarios will genetic drift have a progressively larger impact on allele frequencies in a

population? a. when gene flow increases b. when population size decreases c. when mutation rate decreases d. when random mating increases 47. Because of fluctuations in the environment, such as depletion of food supply or an outbreak of disease, a

population may periodically experience a rapid and marked decrease in the number of individuals, leading to a form of genetic drift. What is this form of genetic drift called? a. a founder effect b. migration c. gene flow d. a genetic bottleneck 48. Which process below is NOT a component of natural selection? a. genetic drift b. overproduction of offspring c. limitations in vital resources d. genetic variation 49. In a colony of 100 guinea pigs, 16 show the recessive trait of bristly hair. What is the percentage of

heterozygotes in the population? a. 24% b. 36% c. 48% d. 52%

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Chap 17_4ce 50. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of microevolution? a. a heritable change in the genetics of a population over time b. natural selection leading to adaptation over time c. the occurrence of a series of mutations over time d. the origin of major new forms of life over time 51. What is the natural selection that shifts the adaptation of an entire population called? a. stabilizing selection b. directional selection c. disruptive selection d. artificial selection 52. The distribution of the genetic disorder called sickle cell anemia is correlated with the distribution of malaria in

tropical countries. What is this an example of? a. heterozygote advantage b. a genetic bottleneck c. genetic drift d. evolutionary convergence 53. What is the evolution of the humpback whale an example of? a. homology b. microevolution c. macroevolution d. analogy 54. What does “2pq” represent in the Hardy–Weinberg equation? a. homozygous recessive genotypes b. heterozygous genotypes c. homozygous dominant genotypes d. heterozygous phenotypes 55. What does natural selection result in? a. adaptation b. mutation c. a new species d. genetic drift

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Chap 17_4ce 56. What is balanced polymorphism in a population likely the result of? a. disruptive selection b. sexual selection c. directional selection d. stabilizing selection 57. Which of the following is NOT an agent of microevolutionary change? a. mutation b. gene flow c. random mating d. genetic drift 58. Which of the following is NOT a condition for genetic equilibrium? a. The population is not migratory to other populations. b. The population is closed to migration from other populations. c. The population is infinite in size. d. The population is small in size. 59. Which of the following is describing the situation when microevolution takes place? a. when a population experiences a shift in allele frequencies b. when a mutation occurs in a population c. when several mutations occur in a population d. when a population has different forms of the same gene 60. Which of the following is the least likely result of a genetic bottleneck? a. an increase in the frequency of the less common allele b. allele frequencies identical to the previous generation c. a decrease in the frequency of an uncommon allele d. a decrease in the frequency of the most common allele 61. In which of the following sexually reproducing populations does the Hardy–Weinberg principle of genetic

equilibrium tell us what to expect? a. in a population that is decreasing with each generation b. in a population that is increasing with each generation c. in a population that is evolving d. in a population that is not evolving

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Chap 17_4ce 62. Which of the following best explains variation that approximates a bell-shaped curve when plotted on a bar

graph? a. The variation is undergoing disruptive selection. b. The variation is undergoing stabilizing selection. c. The variation is quantitative. d. The variation is qualitative. 63. In an isolated population of fruit flies, 4% of the individuals have pink eyes, a homozygous recessive condition,

and 96% have the dominant black eye phenotype. What percentage of the population are heterozygotes? a. 4% b. 16% c. 32% d. 48% 64. Which of the following defines characters between individuals that exist in two or more discrete states? a. quantitative variation b. qualitative variation c. genetic variation d. punctuated equilibrium 65. People with the disease known as sickle cell anemia are often better able to survive malaria. What is the cause

of this? a. balanced polymorphism b. heterozygote advantage c. disruptive selection d. stabilizing selection 66. Under what circumstance might measuring the frequency of homozygous recessive genotypes lead to

erroneous predictions of allele frequencies in a population? a. The population is under Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium. b. The population is affected by heterozygote advantage. c. The population has undergone genetic drift in the past. d. The population is affected by homozygote advantage.

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Chap 17_4ce

Match the Hardy–Weinberg factor with the correct genetic designation. a. frequency of heterozygotes b. frequency of the dominant allele c. frequency of the recessive allele d. the total gene pool for a gene with two alleles e. frequency of homozygous recessive genotypes f. frequency of homozygous dominant genotypes 67. p 68. q 69. q2 70. p2 71. 2pq 72. p + q

Match each of the following definitions with the correct agent. a. gene flow b. non-random mating c. genetic drift d. mutation e. natural selection 73. a heritable change in DNA 74. change in allele frequencies as individuals join a population and reproduce 75. random changes in allele frequencies caused by chance events 76. differential survivorship or reproduction of individuals with different genotypes 77. choice of mates based on their phenotypes and genotypes 78. If you wanted to calculate the frequencies of the two different alleles for a particular gene in a population, what

data would you have to gather and how would you use it?

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Chap 17_4ce 79. How could parasitism by wasps and feeding by birds result in a higher percentage of galls (made by gall-

making flies) of medium size rather than small or large galls (or an even percentage of all sizes of galls)?

80. How does gene flow introduce novel genetic variants into populations?

81. Distinguish between quantitative and qualitative variation.

82. If you were planning the colonization of a distant planet, what would you do to ensure that the population

remained genetically healthy for a long time?

83. How can organisms with the same phenotype have different genotypes, and vice versa? What is the

significance of this?

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Chap 17_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False - through the modification of preexisting genes 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False - well-adapted, never perfect 8. False - may retain (especially if recessive) 9. False - but does contribute to microevolution by changing allele frequencies 10. True 11. False - is 12. True 13. False - stabilizing selection 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. d

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Chap 17_4ce 27. b 28. d 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. d 38. c 39. b 40. d 41. a 42. d 43. b 44. d 45. c 46. b 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. b 52. a 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_4ce 55. a 56. a 57. c 58. d 59. a 60. d 61. d 62. c 63. c 64. b 65. b 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. e 70. f 71. a 72. d 73. d 74. a 75. c 76. e 77. b 78. You would have to sample the population to determine the proportion of individuals displaying the homozygous

recessive phenotypes, which would be equivalent to q2. You would take the square root of that to determine the frequency of the recessive allele, q, and then subtract q from 1.0 to obtain the frequency of the dominant allele, p. 79. If wasps preferentially parasitize fly larvae in small galls and birds preferentially eat fly larvae in large galls, stabilizing

selection favours medium-sized galls. That is, the opposing forces of directional selection for small or large galls create selection for the gall-making fly to make a higher percentage of medium sized galls. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_4ce 80. When an individual or gamete from one population enters another population and introduces novel alleles, the allele

and genotypic frequencies may be shifted away from the values predicted by the Hardy–Weinberg model. That is, Hardy–Weinberg assumes populations are closed to migration, whereas gene flow introduces new alleles into a population. 81. Both types of variation describe phenotypic variation. Quantitative traits are those that vary in small, incremental

ways. Qualitative traits are those that exist in two or more discrete states. 82. To avoid genetic drift and the occurrence of genetic disease, you would want to begin with as large a population as

possible. You would also want that population to be as genetically diverse as possible, and so you would include as many different racial and ethnic groups as possible. You would, of course, also screen applicants for their genetic background to avoid the introduction of alleles concerned with genetic disease in the first place. You would encourage random mating among the colonists, urging them to avoid cliques of similar racial and genetic makeup. You might also monitor levels of cosmic and other radiation on the planet and take steps to shield the colonists from potential mutagenic or carcinogenic radiation. 83. Phenotypic variation can be caused by genetic differences between individuals, by the environmental differences that

individuals experience, or be the result an interaction between genetics and the environment. However, only genetically based variation is subject to evolutionary change. Therefore, phenotypic variation as a result of environmental variation is not passed on to offspring. As a result, one cannot assume a difference in phenotype is necessarily genetically based. Only by examining phenotypes in variable environments can we know if the phenotypic variation is genetically based.

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Chap 18_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Individuals from different subspecies usually interbreed where their geographic distributions meet. 2. Reinforcement enhances prezygotic isolation that had begun to develop while the populations were sympatric. 3. Sympatric speciation often occurs in animals through polyploidy. 4. Unreduced gametes are those that contain additional chromosome numbers. 5. If two organisms cannot mate due to physical differences, it is known as temporal isolation. 6. An example of a prezygotic isolating mechanism is behavioural isolation. 7. The apple maggot was used as an example of allopatric speciation. 8. The biological species concept cannot be used to distinguish between species that are extant. 9. Polyploid plants are often unhealthy as compared to other plants. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10. Which of the following combinations represent prezygotic mechanisms of isolation? a. hybrid breakdown and temporal isolation b. mechanical and temporal isolation c. hybrid sterility and temporal isolation d. hybrid breakdown and gametic isolation 11. How does gene flow between organisms of ring species occur? a. It occurs between any of the organisms if they are placed in the same environment. b. It occurs freely. c. It occurs only between intermediary populations. d. It occurs only under laboratory conditions. 12. What is the first event during allopatric speciation? a. a geographic separation of two populations b. a hybridization event c. a competitive exclusion d. a disruptive selection

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Chap 18_4ce 13. The habitats of birds of paradise are on the mountains in New Guinea. What separate the habitats? a. areas of unsuitable land b. fierce predators c. oceans d. rivers and lakes 14. What is the definition of a species cluster? a. a group of closely related species with a common ancestor b. a group of species that developed host races c. a group of species that exhibit polyploidy d. a group of totally unrelated species living in a common habitat 15. What may be a feature of the organisms in a clinal variation? a. They look identical. b. They do not have a normal lifespan. c. They vary in appearance due to adaptations to different environments. d. They vary in appearance due to human interference. 16. Which of the following would be an example of mechanical isolation? a. two organisms that are pollinated by different insects b. two organisms that have different habitats c. two organisms that have incompatible gametes d. two organisms that have different mating rituals 17. What is the definition of allopolyploidy? a. a genetic divergence that results in nonviable offspring b. an increase in chromosome number due to hybridization of different species c. a decrease in chromosome number within a single species d. a decrease in chromosome number due to hybridization of different species 18. When does autopolyploidy occur? a. when a somatic cell ends up with no chromosomes b. when gametes end up with no chromosomes c. when gametes receive the same number of chromosomes as a somatic cell d. when a somatic cell receives the same number of chromosomes as gametes

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Chap 18_4ce 19. A sterile hybrid plant can form a fertile new species if its chromosomes are doubled. What is this referred to

as? a. an allopatric speciation b. cladogenesis c. a hybrid zone d. sympatric speciation 20. What is an allopolyploid? a. a polyploid that arose from a hybrid individual b. an allopatrically arising species c. a polyploid arising from a single diploid individual d. any sympatrically arising species 21. Which type of isolation would crocuses that bloom in the early spring and marigolds that bloom in the summer

definitely experience? a. behaviour b. ecological c. temporal d. gametic 22. If one plant has a very small tubular type of flower and cannot be pollinated by a large honeybee, it may

develop which type of prezygotic isolation? a. behavioural isolation b. ecological isolation c. gametic isolation d. mechanical isolation 23. Which of the following produces a tetraploid zygote? a. division of one tetraploid adult organism b. fertilization of one tetraploid gamete by another c. fertilization of one diploid gamete by another. d. division of one quadruploid adult organism 24. What do birds living in a cold environment tend to have? a. long legs and larger bodies b. long legs and smaller bodies c. short legs and larger bodies d. short legs and smaller bodies

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Chap 18_4ce 25. The biological species concept specifies that two organisms are of the same species if they breed. What else

does this concept specify? a. that species are unsuccessful in producing offspring b. that species produce any offspring c. that species produce fertile offspring under normal circumstances d. that species produce fertile offspring under laboratory conditions only 26. What type of isolation is it if two species of lizards do not mate because their mating rituals differ greatly? a. behavioural isolation b. ecological isolation c. gametic isolation d. mechanical isolation 27. What does the phylogenetic species concept look at? a. both environmental adaptations and morphology b. both genetic data and environmental adaptations c. both morphology and environmental adaptations d. both morphology and genetic data 28. When do postzygotic isolating mechanisms occur? a. when the offspring survive to reproductive age b. when the offspring have vigorous health c. when the offspring inherit the same numbers of chromosomes from each parent d. when the offspring inherit different sets of instructions for development from each parent 29. What is the reason for reinforcement? a. Postzygotic mechanisms reinforce species isolation. b. Prezygotic mechanisms reinforce species isolation. c. Prezygotic mechanisms reinforce postzygotic barriers. d. Postzygotic mechanisms reinforce prezygotic barriers. 30. What is a ring species? a. It is one where a clinal variation occurs. b. It is one where all of the various populations can successfully mate in nature. c. It is one where an area’s climate interferes with speciation. d. It is one where only intermediary populations can mate successfully.

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Chap 18_4ce 31. Why do members of the same species primarily look alike according to the biological species concept? a. because they live in the same environment b. because they experience gene flow, which mixes their genetic material c. because they have a common ancestor d. because they have stopped evolving 32. Why do some Drosophila reject the sperm of another species? a. because of a gametic isolation b. because of a hybrid breakdown c. because of a hybrid inviability d. because of a mechanical isolation 33. What does the fact that eggs have the ability to recognize surface proteins on the sperm of their own species

illustrate? a. behavioural isolation b. gametic isolation c. hybrid breakdown d. hybrid inviability 34. In which organisms is polyploidy a common mechanism of sympatric speciation? a. in mammals in general b. in birds in general c. in rodents d. in plants 35. What did some of the work with Hawaiian fruit flies illustrate? a. the presence of a prezygotic isolating mechanism, which involved behavioural isolation b. the presence of a prezygotic isolating mechanism, which involved gametic isolation c. the presence of a postzygotic isolating mechanism, which involved behavioural isolation d. the presence of a postzygotic isolating mechanism, which involved gametic isolation 36. Two host races of apple maggots have appeared within the past 100 years. What does this suggest? a. They may be undergoing allopatric speciation. b. They may be undergoing sympatric speciation. c. They may be undergoing genetic drift. d. They may be undergoing development of a hybrid zone.

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Chap 18_4ce 37. What is a hybrid zone? a. an area where no hybrids exist b. an area where two populations may breed and produce inviable, fertile offspring c. an area where two populations may breed and produce inviable, infertile offspring d. an area where two populations may breed and produce viable, fertile offspring 38. What did hybridization and polyploidy lead to? a. the evolution of mallard ducks b. the evolution of common bread wheat c. the evolution of apple maggots d. the evolution of bent grass 39. When does a host race develop? a. when an organism’s genes for the host plant choice change b. when an organism’s genes for mating preferences change c. when an organism’s genes for the host plant choice change and genes for mating preferences change d. when an organism’s genes for mating preferences change and geographical barriers exist 40. Which of the following is NOT an example of a prezygotic isolating mechanism? a. An iris blooms at a different time of the year than a daffodil. b. A zebroid is sterile, and a zebra is not. c. A snail with a shell coiling in one direction cannot mate with a snail whose shell curls the other way. d. A peacock puts on a different mating display than a sparrow. 41. If a hybrid organism has a shorter lifespan, which situation may result? a. allopatric speciation b. hybrid zones c. parapatric speciation d. sympatric speciation 42. If the F2 generation illustrates a lack of fitness, what is this an example of? a. behavioural isolation b. gametic isolation c. hybrid breakdown d. hybrid sterility

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Chap 18_4ce 43. Which of the following best describes the situation in which two organisms do not mate due to the fact that

they mate at different times of the year? a. behavioural isolation b. temporal isolation c. mechanical isolation d. ecological isolation 44. What is formed when a gamete receives the same number of chromosomes as a somatic cell? a. A reduced gamete is formed and allopolyploidy is present. b. A reduced gamete is formed and autopolyploidy is present. c. An unreduced gamete is formed and autopolyploidy is present. d. An unreduced gamete is formed and allopolyploidy is present. 45. What does polyploidy refer to, and where does it most often occur? a. It refers to an individual getting one or more additional sets of chromosomes, and it most often occurs in

plants. b. It refers to an individual getting one or more additional sets of chromosomes, and it most often occurs in animals. c. It refers to an individual lacking one or more sets of chromosomes, and it most often occurs in plants. d. It refers to an individual lacking one or more sets of chromosomes, and it most often occurs in animals. 46. How did Ernst Mayr, the scientist from the New Guinea study on birds of paradise, know that the natives

understood speciation? a. because they have a museum with many catalogued specimens b. because they have individual names for many of the species c. because they have many biologists in New Guinea that studied the speciation d. because they helped to achieve the speciation 47. If a flood separated a large population into two populations, this would be an example of which process? a. allopatric speciation b. development of a host race c. parapatric speciation d. sympatric speciation 48. Which of the following best defines a triploid organism? a. an organism that is usually sterile because of improper chromosome segregation b. an organism that is usually sterile because of proper chromosome segregation c. an organism that is usually fertile because of improper chromosome segregation d. an organism that is usually fertile because of proper chromosome segregation

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Chap 18_4ce 49. How many mutations need to occur in snails in order for the direction of coiling to reverse and affect mating? a. one to encourage mating b. one to prohibit mating c. two to encourage mating d. two to prohibit mating 50. What does a smooth pattern of variation along a geographical gradient refer to? a. a ring species b. a hybrid zone c. a morphological species d. a cline 51. What is a mule an example of? a. hybrid breakdown b. hybrid inviability c. hybrid sterility d. mechanical isolation 52. Which ability of individuals within the species does the biological species concept primarily rely on? a. to adapt to the environment b. to have greater longevity c. to live in a variety of habitats d. to produce fertile offspring when mating with one another 53. The morphological approach to speciation is prone to misinterpretation. Which of the following is NOT a

misinterpretation? a. a Chihuahua and a Great Dane that do not look alike b. snails that resemble each other but cannot mate c. snails of quite varied appearance that can all interbreed d. snails of quite similar appearance that are shown to be different species via reproductive isolation 54. What do abrupt genetic changes that quickly lead to the reproductive isolation of a group of individuals likely

lead to? a. sympatric speciation b. allopatric speciation c. extinction d. mutation

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Chap 18_4ce 55. What are polyploid individuals that arise from chromosome duplications within a single species called? a. allopolyploids b. tetraploids c. triploids d. autopolyploids 56. What would be the most likely result if an organism with 64 chromosomes mates with a closely related

organism with 62 chromosomes? a. many unhealthy offspring due to hybrid breakdown b. many unhealthy offspring due to hybrid inviability c. sterile offspring due to hybrid inviability d. sterile offspring due to hybrid sterility 57. How would an example of the morphological species concept be achieved? a. by doing a genetic analysis on the two organisms b. by looking at the appearance of two organisms c. by mating the two organisms to see if viable offspring result d. by observing the mating rituals of the two organisms 58. Two species of flowering plants live together and flower at the same time. They do not hybridize because they

each have a unique pollinating insect. What is this an example of? a. a sympatric speciation b. a prezygotic barrier c. a postzygotic barrier d. a hybrid zone 59. What happens with the individuals when geographic variation occurs among the members of a species? a. They may be mistaken for separate species. b. They cannot mate successfully. c. They cannot produce offspring with intermediate characteristics. d. They may be from different subpopulations. 60. What mechanism seemed to separate the birds of paradise in New Guinea? a. chromosomal differences b. different mating rituals c. geographic isolation d. mechanical differences between species

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Chap 18_4ce 61. Which of the following is NOT a common polyploid? a. broccoli b. coffee c. oat d. potato 62. Which of the following concepts is used for examining speciation by reconstructing the evolutionary tree? a. biological species concept b. examination of ring species c. examination of clinal variation d. phylogenetic species concept 63. Which of the following would the morphological species concept relate to more? a. prezygotic isolation, if only animal species are concerned b. postzygotic isolation, if only plant species are concerned c. both prezygotic and postzygotic isolation d. depends on the species used for the study

Place the following steps of allopatric speciation in their correct order: a. A flood causes a physical barrier down the middle of a population. b. A population covers a large area. c. The two separate populations evolve differently and form new species. d. When the water recedes, the two new species do not mate. 64. first event 65. second event 66. third event 67. fourth event

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Chap 18_4ce

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 18.3 THE GEOGRAPHY OF SPECIATION MSC: Higher Order

Match the appropriate definitions below to the following scientific terms. a. allopolyploidy b. allopatric speciation c. autopolyploidy d. behavioural isolation e. biological species concept f. hybrid breakdown g. mechanical isolation h. morphological species concept i. hybrid sterility j. polyploidy k. species cluster l. sympatric speciation m. temporal isolation 68. reproductive isolation due to mating at different times of the year 69. determining different species by observing appearance 70. poor fitness in the second generation of mating 71. determining different species by checking to see if fertile offspring are produced 72. a group of closely relate species recently descended from a common ancestor 73. polyploid offspring due to hybridization by closely related species 74. polyploid offspring due to an error in mitosis or meiosis 75. an individual with extra copies of the haploid complement of chromosomes 76. speciation between subgroups of a single population 77. the parent species differ in the number or structure of their chromosomes 78. speciation due to a physical barrier dividing a population into separate areas 79. reproductive isolation due to different mating rituals 80. reproductive isolation due to a physical reason why the two organisms cannot mate

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Chap 18_4ce

Assign the following terms appropriately to the accompanying table by labelling with the appropriate letter.

81. behavioural isolation 82. ecological isolation 83. gametic isolation 84. hybrid breakdown 85. hybrid inviability 86. hybrid sterility 87. mechanical isolation 88. temporal isolation 89. Why is reproductive isolation central to the biological species concept?

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Chap 18_4ce 90. How do animals show clinal variation?

91. Define a species cluster and provide an example.

92. How did researchers establish the connection between chimpanzees and humans?

93. Based on the morphological species concept, why would you assume that there are many different species of

rat snakes?

94. How is it that prezygotic isolating mechanisms can often be bypassed in human controlled breeding

experiments? Provide examples.

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Chap 18_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False - allopatric 3. False - plants 4. True 5. False - mechanical 6. True 7. False - sympatric 8. False - extinct 9. False - robust or larger 10. b 11. c 12. a 13. a 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. d 20. a 21. c 22. d 23. c 24. c 25. c 26. a

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Chap 18_4ce 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. b 41. d 42. c 43. b 44. c 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. d 51. c 52. d 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_4ce 55. d 56. d 57. b 58. b 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. d 63. d 64. b 65. a 66. c 67. d 68. m 69. h 70. f 71. e 72. k 73. a 74. c 75. j 76. l 77. i 78. b 79. d 80. g 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_4ce 83. e 84. h 85. f 86. g 87. d 88. b 89. The biological species concept defines species in terms of population genetics and evolutionary theory based on

ability to interbreed. Two different reproductive isolating mechanisms are recognized: prezygotic and postzygotic, which are, respectively, premating and postmating mechanisms. Reproductive isolation prevents gene pools of two species from mixing. 90. Clinal variation results from gene flow between nearby populations when each population is adapting to slightly

different conditions. The house sparrows mentioned in the text developed changes in leg length and body size based on different environmental conditions. 91. A species cluster is a group of closely related species recently descended from a common ancestor. Species clusters

are often found in oceanic archipelagos because of multiple invasions on each island in an archipelago. Species of fruit flies on the Hawaiian Islands provides an example of a species cluster that evolved relatively rapidly. 92. Researchers examined the chromosomes of humans, apes, gorillas, and chimpanzees. They looked for similar

banding patterns among the species studied and established that those of chimpanzees were most closely related to the human chromosomes. 93. The rat snake is present in many diverse areas of the country. Individual snakes from these different locations have

different banding patterns and do not resemble each other. Based on a morphological approach, one would assume that they are different species. In reality, they are subspecies that could successfully mate if brought to a common location. 94. Prezygotic isolating mechanisms generally arise incidentally owing to species adapting to different environments or

environmental factors. They did not evolve specifically to isolate the species, and if forced, two species otherwise separated may produce perfectly fertile offspring. Temporal isolation, for example, might be overcome by coldstorage of sperm or pollen for artificial insemination or pollination later in the season. Mechanical isolation due to differences in genital structure might also be bypassed by artificial insemination. In orchids, species are isolated primarily by being adapted for pollination by specific species of insect, but humans can freely cross-pollinate species within, and in some cases, between genera, resulting in a vast array of hybrids.

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Chap 19_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. The reliability of molecular clocks depends on the constancy of evolutionary change in the DNA segment

analyzed. 2. Genetic distance method calculates the overall proportion of bases that differ between many species. 3. Nodes represent common ancestors that underwent cladogenesis and produced two descendant clades. 4. Primitive feathers in certain dinosaurs evolved in anticipation of flight in their descendants, the birds. 5. PhyloCode identifies and names organisms instead of pigeonholing them into traditional taxonomic categories. 6. HIV-1 is common in West Africa, and HIV-2 is also common in West Africa. 7. Each character can exist in two forms, described as character states. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 8. North American cactus is strikingly similar to African spurge. What is this an example of? a. same species b. shared common ancestor c. shared inheritance d. convergent evolution 9. What does the principle of parsimony state? a. The most complex plausible explanation of any phenomenon is the best. b. The simplest plausible explanation of any phenomenon is the best. c. The most practical approach to any phenomenon is the best. d. The simplest practical approach to any phenomenon is the best. 10. Which of the following best distinguishes derived and ancestral characters? a. Derived characters are new forms of traits, and ancestral characters are old forms of traits. b. Ancestral characters are new forms of traits, and derived characters are old forms of traits. c. Derived characters are used to determine relatedness among organisms, and ancestral characters are

not. d. Ancestral characters are used to determine relatedness among organisms, and derived characters are not.

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Chap 19_4ce 11. Suppose that you want to clarify whether the frogs Hyla versicolor and Hyla chrysoscelis are the same

species, since they look exactly the same. Which of the following would you most likely use as evidence? a. their sounds b. their genetics c. their physiology d. their behaviour 12. Why is the traditional taxon class Reptilia considered paraphyletic? a. It includes an ancestor and all its descendants. b. It includes an ancestor and some, but not all, of its descendants. c. It does not include an ancestor along with some of its descendants. d. It does not include an ancestor along with all its descendants. 13. Which of the following is an example of analogous characters? a. the tailbone of a human being and the tail of a monkey b. the arm of a human, the wing of a bird, and the leg of a dog c. the bones in the wings of bats, birds, and pterosaurs d. the sweet potato and potato as food storage 14. Suppose that you want to index the time at which two species diverged, if mutations accumulated in their DNA

segments. What would you use the differences in their DNA sequences for? a. molecular clock b. phylogenetic tree c. monophyletic grouping d. paraphyletic grouping 15. What did a phylogenetic tree for strains of simian immunodeficiency virus and human immunodeficiency virus

suggest? a. that the virus was transmitted to chimpanzees independently of humans and sooty mangabey monkeys b. that the virus was transmitted to humans independently of chimpanzees and other humans c. that the virus was transmitted to humans independently of chimpanzees and sooty mangabey monkeys d. that the virus was transmitted to humans independently of gorillas and chimpanzees 16. What do systematists compare in the maximum likelihood method? a. specific trees, with alternative models about the rates of evolutionary change in different regions of DNA b. alternative trees, with specific models about the rates of evolutionary change in different regions of RNA c. alternative trees, with specific models about the rates of evolutionary change in different regions of DNA d. alternative trees, with specific models about the rates of evolutionary change in different regions of

proteins

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Chap 19_4ce 17. Which of the following present characters that systematists use to develop phylogenies? a. morphology, behaviour, and sequence of nucleic acids b. morphology, behaviour, sequence of nucleic acids and proteins c. behaviour and sequence of nucleic acids and proteins d. morphology and sequence of nucleic acids and proteins 18. How many separate mosquito species have the name Anopheles maculipennis? a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 7 19. Whose researcher first reported variation in mosquitoes? a. French b. Dutch c. American d. British 20. A single seed lands on one of a group of isolated islands. Several million years later, its descendants have

evolved into a number of new species on the different islands, representing a variety of trees, shrubs, and vines. What is this an example of for that point in time? a. adaptive radiation b. punctuated equilibrium c. genetic drift d. microevolution 21. If we were to discover beings on a distant planet that looked very much like us, what would this probably be

cited as an example of? a. coincidence b. convergent evolution c. homology d. adaptive radiation 22. Which of the following applies to classification of the American black bear? a. Order Ursidae; Family Carnivora; Genus Ursus; Species Ursus americanus b. Order Carnivora; Family Ursidae; Genus Ursus americanus; Species Ursus c. Order Carnivora; Family Ursidae; Genus Ursus; Species Ursus americanus d. Order Ursidae; Family Carnivora; Genus Ursus americanus; Species Ursus

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Chap 19_4ce 23. What is convergent evolution? a. a tendency among organisms living under different conditions to develop different body forms b. a tendency among organisms living under the same conditions to develop different body forms c. a tendency among organisms living under the same conditions to develop similar body forms d. a tendency among organisms living under different conditions to develop similar body forms 24. Which of the following can be useful when understanding the potential relationship between animal species that

are not morphologically distinct? a. physiological characteristics b. evolutionary analysis c. genetics analysis d. behavioural characteristics 25. Which taxon includes the descendants only, and NOT the most common ancestor? a. monophyletic b. paraphyletic c. polyphyletic d. both monophyletic and polyphyletic 26. Suppose that you are studying a phylogenetic tree and you want to circle a polyphyletic taxon on it. What

would you most likely circle? a. only some of the descendants b. only an ancestor c. an ancestor and all its descendants d. an ancestor and some of its descendants 27. What depicts the relative age of clades on a phylogenetic tree? a. horizontal spacing between clades b. relative positions of the nodes from which they emerge c. the position of the clades d. the position of the branches 28. What is a node on a phylogenetic tree? a. a species b. an emerging twig c. an evolutionary lineage d. a branching point

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Chap 19_4ce 29. Which taxon includes an ancestor with some of its descendants? a. monophyletic b. paraphyletic c. polyphyletic d. both monophyletic and polyphyletic 30. Considering the phylogenetic tree for Anthropoidea, which of these pairs are more closely related? a. gibbons and humans b. gibbons and chimpanzees c. gibbons and gorillas d. gibbons and orangutans 31. Suppose that you want to use molecular sequencing as a source of phylogenetic data. Which of these

techniques would you most likely use? a. cloning b. RNA analyses c. replication of DNA d. PCR 32. What are the wing skeletons of birds and bats an example of? a. homologous structures b. heterologous structures c. convergent evolution d. same species 33. Australia and Eurasia each have a mouse-like mammal—one a marsupial, the other a placental. What is this an

example of? a. long-distance migration b. homology c. adaptive radiation d. convergent evolution 34. Which of the following did Linnaeus invent? a. genus b. specific epithet c. binomial nomenclature d. trinomial nomenclature

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Chap 19_4ce 35. What is adaptive radiation? a. the basis of radiometric dating b. development of similar body form in unrelated organisms c. formation of beneficial alleles through exposure to radiation d. origin of many species from a single common ancestor 36. Which of these statements best describes a paraphyletic taxon? a. includes species from different evolutionary lineages b. includes an ancestral species and all its descendants c. includes an ancestral species and only some of its descendants d. includes only the ancestral species 37. What must characters exhibit to be useful, systematic characters? a. genetic dependence, reflecting the same parts of organisms’ genomes b. genetic independence, reflecting the same parts of organisms’ genomes c. genetic dependence, reflecting different parts of organisms’ genomes d. genetic independence, reflecting different parts of organisms’ genomes 38. Which of these traits are ancestral character states found in mammals? a. vertebral column and four legs b. hair and mammary glands c. vertebral columns and reduced number of bones in lower jaw d. hair and reduced number of bones lower jaw 39. Suppose that you are studying a phylogenetic tree and you want to circle a paraphyletic taxon on it. What

would you most likely circle? a. only some of the descendants b. only an ancestor c. an ancestor and all its descendants d. an ancestor and some of its descendants 40. Suppose that you want to find a relationship between two similar organisms. Which of the following would you

most likely use? a. a phylogenetic tree b. fossil record c. morphological similarities d. physiological similarities

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Chap 19_4ce 41. What helped biologists to predict that nonavian dinosaurs probably incubated their eggs and cared for their

young? a. distribution of their morphology on a cladogram of archosaurs b. distribution of their parental care behaviour on a cladogram of archosaurs c. distribution of their physiology on a cladogram of archosaurs d. distribution of their egg laying behaviour on a cladogram of archosaurs 42. Which finding is the reason that cladistic classification better reflects the evolutionary history of tetrapods than

the traditional classification? a. Mammals share a more recent common ancestor with lizards. b. Mammals share a more recent common ancestor with turtles. c. Crocodilians share a more recent common ancestor with amphibians. d. Crocodilians share a more recent common ancestor with birds. 43. Suppose that you are studying a phylogenetic tree and you want to circle a monophyletic taxon on it. What

would you most likely circle? a. only the descendants b. only an ancestor c. an ancestor and all its descendants d. an ancestor and some of its descendants 44. What depicts relatedness on a phylogenetic tree? a. horizontal spacing between clades b. the position of the nodes c. the position of the clades d. the position of the branches 45. What did Linnaeus use to classify organisms? a. their evolutionary similarities b. their morphological similarities c. their physiological similarities d. their genetic similarities 46. What do systematists need to consider in order to complete phylogenetic trees or cladograms? a. similar organisms only b. extinct and extant organisms c. extinct organisms only d. extant organisms only

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Chap 19_4ce 47. Which taxon includes an ancestor and all its descendants? a. monophyletic b. paraphyletic c. polyphyletic d. both monophyletic and polyphyletic 48. Which of the following represent character states observed in the outgroup? a. adapted traits b. inherited traits c. derived traits d. ancestral traits 49. Whose scientists first identified two forms of the mosquito “species”? a. American b. French c. British d. Dutch 50. Which of the following best describes why crocodilians are classified with lizards, snakes, and turtles? a. They have a common ancestry and are reptiles. b. They have a common ancestry and lay eggs. c. They have a common ancestry and belong to vertebrates. d. They have a common ancestry and are covered with dry, scaly skin. 51. Which of these statements best describes a monophyletic taxon? a. includes species from different evolutionary lineages b. includes an ancestral species and all its descendants c. includes an ancestral species and only some of its descendants d. includes only the ancestral species 52. Which of these statements best distinguishes between parallel and convergent evolution? a. The term convergent evolution is used when referring to phylogenetically more closely related

organisms; parallel evolution is used when referring to phylogenetically more distantly related organisms. b. The term parallel evolution is used when referring to phylogenetically more closely related organisms; convergent evolution is used when referring to phylogenetically more distantly related organisms. c. The term parallel evolution is used when referring to phylogenetically parallel organisms; convergent evolution is used when referring to phylogenetically converted organisms. d. The term parallel evolution is used when referring to morphologically similar organisms; convergent evolution is used when referring to morphologically different organisms.

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Chap 19_4ce 53. What does molecular phylogenetic analysis help to pinpoint that is helpful to public health workers? a. the countries of infectious diseases’ origins b. the cure for infectious diseases c. the causes of infectious diseases d. the origins of infectious diseases 54. What depicts time on a phylogenetic tree? a. horizontal spacing between clades b. the position of the nodes c. the position of the clades d. the position of the branches 55. When converting a phylogenetic tree into a classification, what do evolutionary biologists try to identify? a. paraphyletic taxa only b. polyphyletic taxa only c. monophyletic taxa only d. monophyletic and polyphyletic taxa 56. Which of the following is an example of homologous characters? a. the wings of insects and birds used for flying b. the finlike structures in fish and penguins c. the bones in the wings of bats, birds, and pterosaurs d. the sweet potato and potato as food storage 57. Which of these statements best describes a polyphyletic taxon? a. includes species from different evolutionary lineages b. includes an ancestral species and all its descendants c. includes an ancestral species and only some of its descendants d. includes only the ancestral species

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Chap 19_4ce

Match each of the following terms with its definition or description. a. monophyletic taxon b. polyphyletic taxon c. paraphyletic taxon d. homology e. convergent evolution f. homoplasy g. phylogeny h. apomorphy i. synapomorphy j. outgroup 58. similarity that results from shared ancestry 59. a species related to the clade but not included within it 60. evolutionary history 61. the evolution of similar adaptations in distantly related organisms that live in similar environments 62. a derived character state 63. includes organisms from different clades, but not their ancestor 64. a derived character state found in two or more species 65. includes an ancestor and all its descendants 66. includes an ancestor and some, but not all, of its descendants 67. a product of convergent evolution 68. Explain the principle of parsimony applied to phylogenetic analyses.

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Chap 19_4ce 69. Put the following into correct order, from higher to lower hierarchy:

a. class b. domain c. order d. phylum e. family f. species g. kingdom h. genus

70. Explain what an outgroup is, and how systematists use outgroups.

71. Provide a short history of cladistics.

72. Draw a phylogenetic tree and circle on it one monophyletic taxon, one polyphyletic taxon, and one

paraphyletic taxon.

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Chap 19_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False - two 3. True 4. False - as adaptations for other factors 5. False - clades 6. False - central 7. True 8. d 9. b 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. c 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. d 25. c 26. a

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Chap 19_4ce 27. b 28. d 29. b 30. d 31. d 32. a 33. d 34. c 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. a 39. d 40. a 41. b 42. d 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. d 49. d 50. d 51. b 52. b 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 19_4ce 55. c 56. c 57. a 58. d 59. j 60. g 61. e 62. h 63. b 64. i 65. a 66. c 67. f 68. This principle states that the simplest plausible explanation of any phenomenon is the best. If we assume that any

complex evolutionary change is an unlikely event, then it is extremely unlikely that the same complex change evolved twice in one lineage. Thus, when the principle is applied to phylogenetic analyses, it suggests that the “best” phylogenetic tree is the one that hypothesizes the smallest number of evolutionary changes needed to account for the distribution of character states within a clade; in effect, this approach minimizes the number of homoplasies (i.e., the independent evolution of similar traits) in the tree. 69. b, g, d, a, c, e, h, f 70. In the absence of evidence from fossils, systematists frequently use a technique called outgroup comparison to

identify ancestral and derived character states. Using this approach, systematists compare characters in the ingroup, the clade under study, to those in an outgroup, one or a few species that are related to the clade but are not included within it. Character states observed in the outgroup are considered ancestral, and those observed only in the ingroup are considered derived. And because the outgroup and the ingroup are phylogenetically related, outgroup comparison allows researchers to hypothesize the root (i.e., the common ancestor shared by the outgroup and the ingroup) of the phylogenetic tree.

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Chap 19_4ce 71. In the 1950s and 1960s, some researchers criticized the traditional classifications based on two distinct phenomena,

branching evolution and morphological divergence, as inherently unclear. How can we tell why two groups are classified in the same higher taxon? They might have shared a recent common ancestor, as did lizards and snakes. Alternatively, they may have retained some ancestral characteristics after being separated on different branches of a phylogenetic tree, as is the case for lizards and crocodilians. To avoid such confusion, many systematists followed the philosophical and analytical lead of Willi Hennig, a German entomologist (i.e., a scientist who studies insects), who published the influential book Phylogenetic Systematics in 1950; its English translation appeared in 1966. Hennig and his followers argued that classifications should be based solely on evolutionary relationships. This approach, which is called cladistics, produces phylogenetic hypotheses and classifications that reflect only the branching pattern of evolution; it ignored morphological divergence altogether. 72. The trees and circles should resemble graphics in Figure 19.4 on page 458.

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Chap 20_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Compared to modern humans, Neanderthals would have been very different in social behaviour and in their

abilities to communicate. 2. Paleontological data clearly support both hypotheses about the dispersal of early humans. 3. Australopithecus and Paranthropus resembled apes. 4. Vital components of our immune system were acquired through the allele inherited from Denisovans in west

Asia. 5. Species in the genus Homo have two specializations associated with throwing ability. 6. Hominins are more closely related to modern humans than other ancestors. 7. Fossils from Dmanisi were identified as Homo dmanisi. 8. There was only one lineage of hominin living in the past. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 9. Who were the Hadza of Tanzania? a. a society of Neanderthals b. a historical group of first humans c. a society of humans who were vegetarians d. human hunter-gatherer societies 10. Suppose that one human and one Neandertal conceive a child together. Which of the following would be most

likely to characterize that offspring? a. It would be “physically sterile.” b. It would be “psychological sterile.” c. It would be “cognitively sterile.” d. It would be “emotionally sterile.” 11. What is another name for Homo habilis? a. “beautiful man” b. “upright man” c. “handy man” d. “smart man”

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Chap 20_4ce 12. Which features characteristic of humans are unlikely to fossilize? a. behavioural and hard tissue features b. behavioural and soft tissue features c. the jaws and dung d. the bones and dung 13. Paleontologists have inferred bipedalism in hominins from which of the following structures in humans as

compared to chimpanzees? a. Human leg bones are shorter than in chimpanzees, and chimpanzees have longer foreleg bones than humans do. b. Human leg bones are longer than in chimpanzees, while chimpanzees have longer foreleg bones than humans do. c. Human leg bones are longer than in chimpanzees, and chimpanzees have shorter foreleg bones than humans do. d. Human leg bones are shorter than in chimpanzees, while chimpanzees have shorter foreleg bones than humans do. 14. Which of the following would suggest that language is NOT unique to Homo sapiens? a. bees using waggle dance to show the position of flowers and its fellows observing b. bees using waggle dance to show the position of flowers and its fellows dancing as well c. velvet monkeys giving the “eagle” alarm call and its fellows look up to the sky d. velvet monkeys giving the “eagle” alarm call and its fellows look for food 15. In what way are Australopithecus anamensis and Australopithecus sediba different from each other? a. A. sediba has retained more ancestral characteristics than A. anamensis. b. A. anamensis has retained more ancestral characteristics than A. sediba. c. A. anamensis was fully bipedal while A. sediba was not. d. A. sediba was fully bipedal while A. anamensis was not 16. What does genomic analysis show about the ancestors of modern humans, Neandertals, and Denisovans? a. that the ancestors of modern humans interbred with Denisovans but not with Neandertals b. that Neandertals interbred with Denisovans c. that the ancestors of modern humans interbred with Neandertals but not with Denisovans d. that the ancestors of modern humans interbred with both Neandertals and Denisovans 17. What is the importance of fossil hominins from Dmanisi? a. that our lineage is highly variable b. that our lineage is highly non-variable c. that the ancestors of modern humans interbred with Neandertals but not with Denisovans d. that the ancestors of modern humans interbred with both Neandertals and Denisovans Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 20_4ce 18. Which of the following in Australopithecus indicates adaptations to bipedalism preceded the evolution of

species in the genus Homo? a. The anatomy of the pelvis and lower back of Australopithecus indicates that. b. The anatomy of the legs and lower back of Australopithecus indicates that. c. The anatomy of the pelvis and upper back of Australopithecus indicates that. d. The anatomy of the legs and upper back of Australopithecus indicates that. 19. Based on the research of Uddin and Scherer, how many genes are related to what makes humans uniquely

human? a. 1600 genes b. 1700 genes c. 5000 genes d. all the genes that humans have 20. Which of the following makes a human hand more suitable for precision and power grip compared to a

chimp’s hand? a. A human hand has a longer thumb, while the palm and fingers are the same. b. A human hand has a shorter thumb, while the palm and fingers are the same. c. A human hand has a shorter thumb, while the palm and fingers are longer. d. A human hand has a longer thumb, while the palm and fingers are shorter. 21. Which group of hominins does Lucy belong to? a. Australopithecus sediba b. Australopithecus afarensis c. Australopithecus anamensis d. Australopithecus africanus 22. What is another name for Homo erectus? a. “beautiful man” b. “upright man” c. “handy man” d. “smart man” 23. Where did Neandertals live on Earth? a. in much of Africa and eastern and central Asia b. in much of Europe and eastern and central Asia c. in much of Africa and western and central Asia d. in much of Europe and western and central Asia

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Chap 20_4ce 24. Which of the following research findings would strongly suggest that bipedalism arose in an arboreal setting? a. hand-assisted bipedalism and movement on tough branches b. hand-assisted bipedalism and movement on high branches c. hand-assisted bipedalism and movement on flexible branches d. hand-assisted bipedalism and movement on land 25. Suppose that you have a fossil record in front of you and you need to determine which Homo species it

belongs to. Its features include a much heavier build than yours, prominent brow ridges, and a slightly larger brain. Which of the following would it most likely be? a. Homo erectus b. Homo habilis c. Homo floresiensis d. Homo neanderthalensis 26. Paleontologists have inferred bipedalism in hominins from which of the following structures in humans as

compared to chimpanzees? a. Humans have both ends of the femur larger than chimps, and a smaller angle at the hip end of the femur than chimps. b. Humans have both ends of the femur smaller than chimps, and a smaller angle at the hip end of the femur than chimps. c. Humans have both ends of the femur larger than chimps, and a larger angle at the hip end of the femur than chimps. d. Humans have both ends of the femur the same chimps, but a smaller angle at the hip end of the femur than chimps. 27. Which of the following distinguish hominins from apes? a. feeding and parental care b. tool usage and physiology c. body hairiness and brain size d. upright posture and bipedal locomotion 28. Which group of hominins does the first australopith to be described belong to? a. Australopithecus sediba b. Australopithecus afarensis c. Australopithecus anamensis d. Australopithecus africanus

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Chap 20_4ce 29. When did Neandertals live on Earth? a. from about 500 thousand to 30 thousand years ago b. from about 400 thousand to 30 thousand years ago c. from about 300 thousand to 20 thousand years ago d. from about 200 thousand to 10 thousand years ago 30. Which group of hominins do the earliest fossil records from the genus Homo belong to? a. Homo erectus b. Homo habilis c. Homo floresiensis d. Homo neanderthalensis 31. Which of the following had a much larger brain than its ancestors? a. Homo erectus b. Homo habilis c. Homo floresiensis d. Homo neanderthalensis 32. The history of hominins clearly demonstrates challenges inherent in recognizing species and the boundaries

between them. Which of the following evidence is the example of that? a. archaeological and genomic evidence b. paleontological and genomic evidence c. paleontological, archaeological, and genomic evidence d. paleontological and archaeological evidence 33. Which of the following is one of the oldest known species in the genus Australopithecus? a. Australopithecus sediba b. Australopithecus afarensis c. Australopithecus anamensis d. Australopithecus africanus 34. How much of modern Europeans’ DNA is Neandertal? a. about 5% b. about 4% c. about 3% d. about 2%

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Chap 20_4ce 35. Which one of the following was taller than its ancestors? a. Homo erectus b. Homo habilis c. Homo floresiensis d. Homo neanderthalensis 36. When did humans arrive in the same area as Neandertals? a. about 60 thousand years ago b. about 50 thousand years ago c. about 40 thousand years ago d. about 30 thousand years ago 37. What is the importance of the Denisovans? a. Genetic analysis of the Denisovans indicates that they lived in Southeast Asia and interbred with the

ancestors of today’s Polynesians. b. Genetic analysis of the Denisovans indicates that they lived in Southeast Asia and interbred with the ancestors of today’s Melanesians. c. Genetic analysis of the Denisovans indicates that they lived in Southeast Asia and interbred with the ancestors of today’s Indonesians. d. Genetic analysis of the Denisovans indicates that they lived in Southeast Asia and interbred with the ancestors of today’s Micronesians. 38. Which of the following is a correct assumption based on scientific findings? a. Neandertal fathers and human mothers might have produced viable offspring. b. Neandertal mothers and human fathers might have produced viable offspring. c. mDNA could be passed only from human father to child. d. mDNA could be passed only from Neandertal father to child.

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Chap 20_4ce 39. Which of the following best compares two main theories about the dispersal of our ancestors from Africa? a. The African emergence hypothesis proposes that modern humans are descendants from a fairly recent

African ancestor, and the multiregional hypothesis proposes that modern humans are descendants of ancestors that never lived in Africa. b. The African emergence hypothesis proposes that modern humans are descendants from a fairly recent African ancestor, and the multiregional hypothesis proposes that modern humans are descendants of recent dispersals. c. The African emergence hypothesis proposes that modern humans are descendants from a fairly old African ancestor, and the multiregional hypothesis proposes that modern humans are descendants of earlier dispersals. d. The African emergence hypothesis proposes that modern humans are descendants from a fairly recent African ancestor, and the multiregional hypothesis proposes that modern humans are descendants of earlier dispersals. 40. Which of the following specifically includes organisms most similar to modern humans? a. hominoids b. hominoins c. hominids d. hominins 41. Which of the following is considered to be the “first man” in the evolution of humans? a. Orrorin tugenensis b. Ardipithecus ramidus c. Australopithecus anamensis d. Australopithecus africanus 42. Which of the following statements best summarizes human evolution? a. Humans and apes have nothing in common. b. Humans did not evolve from apes, and apes are not our closest living relatives. c. Humans did not evolve from apes, but apes are our closest living relatives. d. Humans evolved from apes, and apes are our closest living relatives.

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Chap 20_4ce

Match each of the following features with the correct ancestor. a. the “first man” b. an “early” version of Lucy c. the “upright man” d. the “handy man” e. most closely related to Homo erectus f. modern human g. having small canine teeth h. diverged from a common ancestor as modern humans i. the “big man” j. the first described australopith k. one of the oldest known species in its genus 43. Orrorin tugenensis 44. Ardipithecus ramidus 45. Australopithecus africanus 46. Australopithecus afarensis 47. Australopithecus anamensis 48. Australopithecus sediba 49. Homo habilis 50. Homo erectus 51. Homo floresiensis 52. Homo neanderthalensis 53. Homo sapiens 54. How is it possible that humans make friends and other organisms do not? Use evolutionary approach to

answer the question.

55. How does the brain capacity compare between various human ancestors?

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Chap 20_4ce 56. How does the evolution of hominins relate to the species concept?

57. What are the factors that make paleontologists infer the bipedalism from the structure of the human bones?

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Chap 20_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False - do not clearly support either 3. True 4. True 5. False - three 6. True 7. False - Homo georgicus 8. False - were several lineages 9. d 10. c 11. c 12. b 13. b 14. c 15. a 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. d 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. d 26. a

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Chap 20_4ce 27. d 28. d 29. a 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. c 34. d 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. d 41. a 42. c 43. a 44. g 45. j 46. i 47. k 48. b 49. d 50. c 51. e 52. h 53. f

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Chap 20_4ce 54. The feature of making friends is in connection with cooperative behaviour. This type of behaviour is well known from

human hunter-gathered societies, and a unique feature of human social networks to use the lad areas by different groups. 55. Brain capacity varies with the overall body size, so that large individuals have more brain capacity. The smallest brain

size (approximately the size of chimpanzees) is found in Orrorin tugenensis, to larger brain capacities in australopiths, and largest in homos. 56. The history of hominins demonstrates the species concept because it involves analysis of paleontological,

archaeological, and genomic evidence, which is applied in defining species in general. 57. Both ends of the femur, at the hip and knee joints, are larger in humans than in chimpanzees because more weight is

directed through the human joints. Humans have a smaller angle at the hip end of the femur because their upright stance. Also, human leg bones are longer than in chimpanzees, while chimps have longer foreleg bones than humans do. More recently, the metatarsals provided additional features for recognizing bipedalism in hominins.

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Chap 21_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. The evolution of multicellularity meant that cells no longer needed to be complex. 2. Fossils form in sedimentary rocks, where there is lots of oxygen present. 3. The first cells were probably aerobic heterotrophs. 4. The energy for the synthesis of organic molecules on primordial Earth came from lightning only. 5. The early atmosphere, as proposed by Aleksandr Oparin and John Haldane, was an oxidizing atmosphere. 6. Today’s atmosphere is an oxidizing atmosphere. The presence of oxygen allows complex molecules to be

formed because oxygen is a strong oxidizing molecule. 7. The Miller–Urey experiment was the first experiment to demonstrate the biotic formation of molecules critical

to life. 8. Ribozymes are biological catalysts that are proteins. 9. Earth is approximately 4.6 million years old. 10. Endosymbiosis means that eukaryotic cells evolved from ingested prokaryotic cells. 11. The energy for the synthesis of organic molecules on primordial Earth came from lightning and intense UV

radiation. 12. Important molecules that were present in the reducing atmosphere of primordial Earth were oxygen (O2),

hydrogen (H2), and methane (CH3). 13. Scientists believe that hydrothermal vents could have produced a lot more organic material than generated by

the Miller–Urey experiments. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 14. If a condenser is analogous to the Miller–Urey experiment, which of the following is analogous to primordial

Earth? a. a primeval sea b. water vapour c. cold temperature d. lightning 15. Which of the following describes the order of emergence of various organisms on Earth? a. land plants, first prokaryotes, animals, first eukaryotes, humans b. first prokaryotes, first eukaryotes, land plants, animals, humans c. animals, first prokaryotes, first eukaryotes, land plants, humans d. humans, animals, land plants, first eukaryotes, first prokaryotes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 21_4ce 16. Where did the oxygen that has accumulated in the atmosphere come from? a. hydrothermal vents b. as a by-product of oxygenic photosynthesis c. a farther atmosphere d. oceans 17. How old is Earth? a. about 4.6 million years old b. about 1 billion years old c. about 3.6 billion years old d. about 4.6 billion years old 18. What are protobionts? a. a group of abiotically produced organic molecules surrounded by a membranelike structure b. a group of biotically produced inorganic molecules surrounded by a membranelike structure c. a group of biotically produced organic molecules surrounded by a membranelike structure d. a group of abiotically produced inorganic molecules surrounded by a membranelike structure 19. Which of these statements does NOT describe prokaryotic cells? a. They are 10 times smaller than typical eukaryotic cells. b. They vastly outnumber all other types of organisms. c. They have much less internal membrane organization than eukaryotes. d. They are less versatile biochemically than eukaryotes. 20. What is the importance of the ALH84001 meteorite finding? a. It carried fossilized microorganisms. b. It fell from Mars. c. Its composition is similar to rocks on Earth. d. It was found in the Antarctic. 21. If an electrode is analogous to the Miller–Urey experiment, which of the following is analogous to primordial

Earth? a. water vapour b. a strongly reducing atmosphere c. lightning d. a primeval sea

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Chap 21_4ce 22. What does a cell of prokaryotic type lack that differentiates it from a cell of eukaryotic type? a. a plasma membrane b. a nucleus c. DNA d. chromosomes 23. Aleksandr Oparin and John Haldane postulated that the early atmosphere was a reducing atmosphere. Why

was this prediction an important one? a. because the molecules contain the maximum possible number of protons that can be easily donated in reactions that lead to synthesis of complex molecules b. because the molecules contain the minimum possible number of electrons that can be easily donated in reactions that lead to synthesis of complex molecules c. because the molecules contain the maximum possible number of protons that can be easily accepted in reactions that lead to synthesis of complex molecules d. because the molecules contain the maximum possible number of electrons that can be easily donated in reactions that lead to synthesis of complex molecules 24. What are the major membrane components in a eukaryotic cell? a. the nuclear envelope, the endoplasmic reticulum, and chloroplasts b. the nuclear envelope, the endoplasmic reticulum, and mitochondria c. the nuclear envelope, the endoplasmic reticulum, and the Golgi complex d. the nuclear envelope, mitochondria, and chloroplasts 25. What is the name of the process by which mitochondria and chloroplasts probably evolved? a. endocytosis b. endosymbiosis c. exocytosis d. exosymbiosis 26. Which of these statements best describes the fossil record? a. It helps us to understand soft-bodied organisms from the past. b. It has all been discovered by now. c. It is an invaluable resource to understand the past. d. It represents all organisms that once lived on Earth. 27. Which of the following would you take into account if you wanted to define viruses? a. Viruses are between the biotic and abiotic worlds. b. Viruses are able to live outside a host organism. c. Viruses are able to synthesize their own proteins. d. Viruses are able to remain unchanged. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 21_4ce 28. What is indicated by the fact that NOT all eukaryotic cells contain both mitochondria and chloroplasts? a. Endosymbiosis did not occur at all. b. Endosymbiosis occurred only in the evolution of mitochondria. c. Endosymbiosis did not occur in stages. d. Endosymbiosis occurred in stages. 29. In the 1920s, Aleksandr Oparin and John Haldane each made independent proposals about the formation of

life on Earth. What did they say about essential organic molecules? a. that these could not have been made in the absence of life in the conditions on primordial Earth b. that these could have been made in the presence of life in the conditions on primordial Earth c. that these could have been made in the absence of life in the conditions on primordial Earth d. that these could have been made in the absence of life in the conditions on modern Earth 30. What is the most surprising feature of the tree of life? a. It has a single branch. b. It has many branches. c. It has many starting points. d. It has a single starting point. 31. Which of the following is in the correct sequence? a. the origin of self-replicating molecules the abiotic synthesis of small molecules

the abiotic synthesis of polymers packaging of molecules into protobionts b. packaging of molecules into protobionts the abiotic synthesis of small molecules the abiotic synthesis of polymers the origin of self-replicating molecules c. the abiotic synthesis of polymers the abiotic synthesis of small molecules packaging of molecules into protobionts the origin of self-replicating molecules d. the abiotic synthesis of small molecules the abiotic synthesis of polymers packaging of molecules into protobionts the origin of self-replicating molecules

32. What is a key trait of a multicellular organism? a. A division of labour exists among the organism’s cells. b. All the organism’s cells have the same function. c. The organism has many cells. d. All the organism’s cells are similar in shape. 33. What is the flow of information that the central dogma refers to? a. DNA RNA protein b. DNA c. RNA d. RNA

protein RNA protein DNA DNA protein

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Chap 21_4ce 34. Why was ATP a primary molecule in connecting energy-releasing and energy-requiring reactions in early cells? a. because it was the only molecule available to transfer energy b. because of its versatility and efficiency in transferring energy c. because of its structure d. because of its attraction to energy 35. Which of these statements does NOT describe eukaryotic cells? a. Their cytoplasm consists of the cytosol and organelles. b. They possess a selectively permeable membrane. c. Their genetic material is localized in the cytoplasm. d. Their DNA is organized into chromosomes. 36. Which of the following contribute to evolutionary change over time? a. changes in RNA b. changes in DNA c. changes in proteins d. changes in cells 37. Which statement characterizes mitochondria and chloroplasts? a. Over 60% of the proteins required for mitochondrial or chloroplast function are encoded by genes that

are found in the nucleus. b. Both mitochondria and chloroplasts contain genetic material. c. Over 80% of the proteins required for mitochondrial or chloroplast function are encoded by genes that are found in the nucleus. d. Neither mitochondria nor chloroplasts contain genetic material. 38. What is the importance of the Miller–Urey experiment? a. It showed that molecules crucial to life could be produced biotically. b. It showed that molecules crucial to life could be produced abiotically. c. It showed that molecules not crucial to life could be produced biotically. d. It showed that molecules not crucial to life could be produced abiotically. 39. From which of the following processes did the first oxygen molecules come from? a. aerobic respiration b. anaerobic respiration c. the oxidization of water d. the reduction of water

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Chap 21_4ce 40. If a warmed flask of water is analogous to the Miller–Urey experiment, which of the following is analogous to

primordial Earth? a. a strongly reducing atmosphere b. lightning c. a primeval sea d. water vapour 41. Which of the following factors is the most important requirement in order for life to emerge? a. the presence of liquid water b. the presence of air c. the presence of soil d. the presence of sunlight 42. Which statement best describes the importance of banded iron formations? a. The rust layers in them serve as evidence for the presence of rocks on early Earth. b. The rust layers in them serve as evidence for the presence of iron on early Earth. c. The rust layers in them serve as evidence for the fall of atmospheric oxygen on early Earth. d. The rust layers in them serve as evidence for the rise of atmospheric oxygen on early Earth. 43. Which property of RNA makes some RNA molecules able to act as catalysts? a. They are single-stranded molecules that can fold into very specific shapes. b. They are single-stranded molecules that cannot fold into very specific shapes. c. They are double-stranded molecules. d. They are double-stranded molecules that can fold into very specific shapes. 44. Explain which properties of protobionts are associated with life.

45. If you were to prove that the RNA molecule was a component of the first cells, how would you do that?

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Chap 21_4ce 46. Explain the theory of endosymbiosis.

47. One of the seven emergent properties of life is that organisms exhibit homeostasis. Explain this emergent

property.

48. Describe and explain the Miller–Urey experiment.

49. Explain why DNA was favoured by selection as a much better way to store information than RNA.

50. What does the fact that seven attributes are shared by all life on Earth suggest?

51. What is oxygenic photosynthesis, and what is the importance of the development of oxygenic photosynthesis?

52. Explain this statement: “Proteins are much more diverse than ribozymes.”

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Chap 21_4ce 53. Explain how we can be confident that stromatolites were formed by microbial activity.

54. What was the importance of clay on early Earth?

55. What are stromatolites?

56. Briefly describe the conditions on primordial Earth and why these were important for the first life to be

created.

57. Explain two points that support the extraterrestrial origin of life on Earth.

58. Explain how the discovery of ribozymes revolutionized our thinking about the origin of life.

59. Explain the advantage of proteins acting as catalysts, and compare them with ribozymes.

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Chap 21_4ce 60. Compare contemporary cells and primitive cells with respect to oxidation–reduction reactions.

61. Explain the seven characteristics shared by all life-forms.

62. Explain why the characteristics of life are emergent.

63. What is the difference between a unicellular organism and a multicellular organism (other than the actual

number of cells)?

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Chap 21_4ce Answer Key 1. False - Simple 2. False - no oxygen 3. False - Anaerobic 4. False - the Sun, volcanoes, and the inner planet’s heat 5. False - Reducing 6. False - prevents complex molecules from being 7. False - Abiotic 8. False - Enzymes 9. False - Billion 10. True 11. True 12. False - ammonia 13. True 14. c 15. b 16. b 17. d 18. a 19. d 20. a 21. c 22. b 23. d 24. c 25. b 26. c

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Chap 21_4ce 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. d 31. d 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. a 42. d 43. a 44. Their lipid bilayer membrane is selectively permeable. They undergo osmotic swelling/shrinking when placed in

solutions of different solute concentrations. Some store energy as a membrane potential—a voltage across the surface—and some maintain simple reproduction. Furthermore, if enzymes are included in the solution from which the droplets self-assemble, some protobionts can carry out simple metabolism. 45. This could be based on the fact that RNA can catalyze a small number of reactions critical for survival. It is

hypothesized that a small population of RNA molecules then evolved that could catalyze the formation of very short proteins before the development of ribosomes. 46. The theory of endosymbiosis speculates that mitochondria and chloroplasts are descendants of free-living

prokaryotes. The prokaryotic ancestors of modern mitochondria and chloroplasts were engulfed by larger prokaryotic cells, forming a mutualistic relationship that over time became permanent. 47. Organisms are able to regulate their internal environment such that conditions remain relatively constant. This ability

enables organisms to be distinct from their environment.

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Chap 21_4ce 48. A warmed flask of water simulated the primeval sea. The strongly reducing atmosphere in the system consisted of

hydrogen, methane, ammonia, and water vapour (no free oxygen). Electrodes mimicked lightning. A condenser cooled the atmosphere, causing rain, which together with dissolved compounds formed a liquid Cooled water containing organic molecules was collected and sampled. A variety of organic molecules (amino acids and complex oily hydrocarbons) were found in the sample. 49. DNA was favoured by selection for three main reasons: (1) DNA strands are chemically more stable than RNA

strands, due to the sugar deoxyribose present in DNA; (2) one RNA base is uracil, which is replaced with thymine in DNA; by utilizing thymine in DNA, and any uracil is easily recognized as a damaged cytosine and can be repaired; and (3) DNA is double stranded, so in the case of a mutation, the complimentary strand can be used to repair the damaged strand. 50. It suggests that all present-day organisms descended from a common ancestor. 51. Oxygenic photosynthesis is the oxidation of water. It is important because, when it evolved about 3 billion years ago,

it resulted in an explosion of life and the cyanobacteria that first performed the oxygenic photosynthesis became a dominant life form. The development of oxygenic photosynthesis was also crucial for evolution and diversification of life because the rise in atmospheric O2 led to the evolution of prokaryotic cells and ultimately to the development of eukaryotic cells. 52. Proteins are composed of amino acids, and 20 different kinds of amino acids can be incorporated into a protein,

whereas as an RNA molecule—ribozyme—is composed of only four nucleotide bases. 53. Modern-day stromatolites exist in habitats characterized by warm shallow water, and they contain microbes. 54. Polymerization in the aqueous environment of the primordial Earth could not have been possible, because the

polymers would have been quickly broken down. However, clay is layered and as such readily absorbs ions and organic molecules, promoting interaction and assembly reactions. Clay also stores potential energy for reactions to occur. 55. Stromatolites are a type of layered rock that is formed when microorganisms bind particles of sediment together,

forming thin sheets. 56. The early Earth was bombarded by rocks from the still-forming solar system. On Earth itself, extensive volcanic and

seismic activities were present. The atmosphere on Earth was gaseous and dusty, with abundant water vapour as well as large quantities of hydrogen sulfide, carbon dioxide, ammonia, and methane. It is from these basic building blocks that the molecules essential to the formation of life are thought to have formed. 57. The first point is the fact that while life seems very complex, it arose relatively quickly after the formation of Earth.

The second point is the presence of extremophiles who can live in extreme conditions, as well as the presence of spores that can survive prolonged dormancy. 58. Instead of the contemporary system that requires all three molecules—DNA, RNA, and protein—early life may

have existed in an RNA world where a single type of molecule could serve both as a carrier of information and as a catalyst. Prior to the discovery of ribozymes, enzymes, which are proteins, were the only known biological catalysts. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 21_4ce 59. Proteins are far more versatile than ribozymes for two reasons: the catalytic power of even the slowest enzyme is far

greater than that of any known ribozyme, and proteins are much more diverse than ribozymes. 60. Oxidation–reduction reactions were probably among the first energy-releasing reactions of the primitive cells. In

contemporary cells that we have today, we oxidize food molecules and use some of the electrons to reduce other molecules. In primitive cells, the electrons removed in an oxidation would have been transferred directly to the substances being reduced, in a one-step process. This is not very efficient because lots of energy is lost. Over time, a multi-step process has evolved, and contemporary cells utilize this process. 61. These are (1) Display order (all forms of life are arranged in a highly ordered manner, with the cell being the

fundamental unit of life); (2) Harness and utilize energy (all forms of life acquire energy from the environment and use it to maintain their highly ordered state); (3) Reproduce (All organisms have the ability to make more of their own kind); (4) Respond to stimuli (Organisms can make adjustments to their structure, function, and behaviour, in response to changes to the external environment); (5) Exhibit homeostasis (Organisms are able to regulate their internal environment such that conditions remain relatively constant); (6) Grow and develop (All organisms increase their size by increasing the size and/or number of cells. Many organisms also change over time); (7) Evolve (Populations of living organisms change over the course of generations to become better adapted to their environment). 62. Each characteristic of life reflects a remarkable complexity resulting from a hierarchy of interactions that

begins with atoms and progresses through molecules to macromolecules and cells. Depending upon the organism, this hierarchy may continue upward in complexity and include organelles, tissues, and organs. The seven properties of life are a result of emergent properties because they come about, or emerged, from many simpler interactions that, in themselves, do not have the properties found at the higher levels. 63. Unicellular organisms have only one cell, which performs all functions of life. Multicellular organisms have major life

activities divided among varying numbers of specialized cells.

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Chap 22_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. All enveloped animal viruses have protein spikes. 2. Viral infections in plants are spread from cell to cell via plasmodesmata. 3. Viroids consist of only RNA molecules. 4. Viral genomes are difficult to sequence. 5. Viruses are too small to carry any enzymes of their own. 6. Evidence suggests that viruses evolved only after the evolution of cells. 7. Polio virus is often used in genetic research. 8. BSE is caused by an infections protein molecule. 9. Influenza is caused by a DNA virus. 10. Viral progeny are synthesized as small particles that grow to adult size. 11. Animal viruses without envelopes enter the host cell via fusion with the cell membrane. 12. Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD) is a fatal prion infection in humans. 13. Some viruses can cause cancer. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 14. What is the function of reverse transcriptase? a. to synthesize viral protease b. to make RNA from DNA c. to make DNA from RNA d. to assemble HIV protein spikes 15. What is the viral DNA that is integrated into a bacterial host chromosome called? a. a microphage b. a prophage c. an endospore d. a spike 16. Which prion disease affects sheep? a. kuru b. scrapie c. chronic wasting disease d. bovine spongiform encephalopathy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 22_4ce 17. Why are viruses considered non-living? a. because they lack a cell wall b. because they cannot reproduce outside a host cell c. because they lack a nucleus d. because they contain RNA as their genetic material

Figure 22-1

18. In Figure 22-1, which number identifies the sheath? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 19. In which major family of animal viruses is the virus that causes influenza found? a. Adenoviridae b. Papillomaviridae c. Flaviviridae d. Orthomyxoviridae 20. How are viruses different from bacteria? a. They have a single type of nucleic acid. b. They may be pathogenic to humans. c. They do not contain protein. d. They are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.

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Chap 22_4ce 21. Who is credited with the discovery of prions as a new biological principle of infection? a. Carl Louis b. Stanley Brenner c. Stanley Prusiner d. Carl Woese 22. What type of molecule are viroids composed of? a. protein b. RNA c. carbohydrate d. DNA 23. In which major family of animal viruses is the virus that causes AIDS found? a. Orthomyxoviridae b. Adenoviridae c. Flaviviridae d. Retroviridae 24. Which of these statements describes the latent phase of an animal virus? a. the time it takes to replicate the viral genome b. the equivalent of the lysogenic cycle of some bacteriophages c. the period from infection to host cell lysis d. the time it takes to assemble one viral particle

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Chap 22_4ce

Figure 22-1

25. In Figure 22-1, which number identifies the head? a. 5 b. 4 c. 2 d. 1 26. In Figure 22-1, which number identifies the coat? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 27. Why is hepatitis C a serious disease? a. It causes nausea. b. It is heritable. c. It causes cirrhosis and/or cancer. d. It causes yellow skin hue. 28. Which equation best describes the composition of the simplest type of viral particle? a. nucleic acid + capsid + protein spikes b. nucleic acid + capsid c. nucleic acid only d. nucleic acid + envelope

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Chap 22_4ce 29. In which types of viruses are envelopes most commonly found? a. viruses of animals b. viruses of bacteria c. viruses of plants d. viruses of archaea

Figure 22-1

30. In Figure 22-1, which virus is illustrated? a. human immunodeficiency virus b. tobacco mosaic virus c. herpesvirus d. bacteriophage 31. In which major family of animal viruses is the virus that causes polio found? a. Orthomyxoviridae b. Picornaviridae c. Rhabdoviridae d. Poxviridae

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Chap 22_4ce

Figure 22-1

32. In Figure 22-1, which number identifies the structure that binds to the host cell? a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 1 33. In Figure 22-1, which number identifies the viral genome? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 34. What adaptation helped the strain of influenza responsible for the pandemic of 1918 to be such an effective

infectious agent? a. resistance to antibiotics b. airborne mode of transmission c. mutations in polymerase genes d. unique protein spikes 35. Which of these viruses has a double-stranded DNA genome? a. Flavivirus b. retrovirus c. orthomyxovirus d. poxvirus

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Chap 22_4ce 36. What is the protein layer surrounding the viral genome called? a. cell membrane b. capsid c. envelope d. capsule 37. In which cycle does the virus kill the infected host cell? a. lytic cycle b. phagocytic cycle c. endocytic cycle d. lysogenic cycle 38. Which of these terms best describes the biological nature of a virus? a. lipid b. rapidly dividing tissue c. living cell d. infectious particle

Figure 22-1

39. Which of these terms best describes the shape of the virus in Figure 22-1? a. helical b. icosahedral c. enveloped d. complex

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Chap 22_4ce 40. In Figure 22-1, which number identifies the structure that enters the host cell? a. 5 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 41. Why are viral infections so much more difficult to treat than bacterial infections?

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Chap 22_4ce Answer Key 1. False - Only some 2. True 3. True 4. False - the easiest; due to their size and abundance 5. False - Many do. 6. False - Recent studies suggest the opposite. 7. False - Bacteriophage lambda 8. True 9. False - an RNA 10. False - viral particles assembled from full-sized components 11. False - endocytosis 12. True 13. True 14. c 15. b 16. a 17. b 18. d 19. d 20. a 21. c 22. b 23. d 24. b 25. d 26. c

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Chap 22_4ce 27. c 28. b 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. d 39. d 40. c 41. Viruses do not respond to the same treatments as bacteria. Antibiotics have no effect on them, because they are

categorically different kinds of organisms. A virus particle is an obligate intracellular parasite, and consequently its life cycle will be deeply interwoven with that of the host cell. The virus will use the host cell’s proteins, its enzymes, and in some cases even its nucleic acids. This integration of viral and cellular physiology makes it extremely difficult to design a treatment that will target the virus without harming the cell. In some cases, antivirals can be developed, but only when the virus has an obvious viral-specific target protein or process, such as reverse transcriptase in the case of HIV. In the overwhelming majority of cases, antiviral therapy focuses on the prevention of infection (through vaccination, sanitation, etc.) and the relief of patient symptoms.

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Chap 23_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Archaea have multiple types of RNA polymerase. 2. The strong support for Lokiarchaeota and Eukarya being sister groups has phylogenetic and taxonomic

implications. 3. Spirilli are Gram-negative bacteria that possess internal flagella, which cause the entire cell to twist in a

corkscrew pattern. 4. Gingivitis is caused by archaea. 5. Chlamydias are bacteria that possess cell walls, but lack peptidoglycan. 6. Organisms that live optimally in cold temperatures are called barophiles. 7. Extracellular polymer substance (EPS) is a slimy, gluelike substance produced by bacteria to facilitate the

formation of endospores. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Figure 23-2

8. In the phylogenetic tree in Figure 23-2, which branch identifies Archaea? a. branch A b. branch B c. branch D d. branch E

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Chap 23_4ce 9. What is the order of the cell layers, from most external to most internal? a. cell wall, cell membrane, capsule b. cell membrane, capsule, cell wall c. capsule, cell membrane, cell wall d. capsule, cell wall, cell membrane 10. Why is the process of nitrogen fixation by prokaryotes essential? a. It converts atmospheric nitrogen to a nontoxic form. b. It allows for the breakdown of complex macromolecules. c. It removes nitrogen from the soil. d. It provides nitrogen sources for plants and animals.

Figure 23-2

11. In the phylogenetic tree in Figure 23-2, which branch identifies the common ancestor of all modern organisms? a. branch A b. branch B c. branch C d. branch D 12. Which of these series best describes quorum sensing? a. three-dimensional shape signal attachment maturation b. attachment

signal c. maturation signal d. signal attachment

maturation attachment maturation

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Chap 23_4ce 13. Which category includes the cyanobacteria? a. chemoautotrophs b. photoheterotrophs c. photoautotrophs d. chemoheterotrophs 14. What is the composition of the genome of prokaryotes? a. a single, linear, DNA molecule b. a single, circular, DNA molecule c. many linear DNA molecules d. a single DNA molecule that may be circular or linear

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Chap 23_4ce

Figure 23-1

15. In the diagram of a bacterial cell in Figure 23-1, which number identifies a structure that aids in attachment? a. 8 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 16. What are the three domains of life? a. animals, plants, and microorganisms b. Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, and Eukaryota c. Prokaryota, Eukaryota, and Protoctista d. Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya

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Chap 23_4ce 17. Suppose you perform a Gram stain of a mixed culture of Gram-positive and Gram-negative cells, and

afterward you realize that you omitted the iodine step. What would you expect to see if you observed the slide under the microscope? a. pink Gram-positive and pink Gram-negative cells b. purple Gram-positive and pink Gram-negative cells c. colourless Gram-positive and pink Gram-negative cells d. colourless Gram-positive and colourless Gram-negative cells 18. What is the correct sequence of the reagents in the Gram stain technique? a. safranin, crystal violet, alcohol, iodine b. alcohol, iodine, crystal violet, safranin c. crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin d. iodine, alcohol, safranin, crystal violet 19. Which of the following characterizes Gram-positive bacteria? a. the presence of an outer membrane b. the absence of ribosomes c. the presence of a thick cell wall d. the absence of a cell wall 20. Which type of bacteria grows in either the presence or the absence of oxygen? a. obligate aerobes and obligate anaerobes b. facultative anaerobes only c. obligate anaerobes and facultative anaerobes d. obligate anaerobes only 21. What is the approximate number of distinct evolutionary branches in the domain Archaea, as revealed by

genome sequencing studies? a. 3 to 4 b. 9 to 10 c. at least 12 d. at least 20 22. What are lipopolysaccharides associated with? a. the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria b. the plasma membrane of Gram-positive bacteria c. the plasma membrane of both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria d. the plasma membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

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Chap 23_4ce 23. What was the basis on which prokaryotes were split into two domains? a. differences in cell membrane properties b. differences in cell wall composition c. differences in staining characteristics d. differences in rRNA sequences 24. Which process contributes to prokaryotic genetic variability? a. binary fission b. horizontal gene transfer c. nitrogen fixation d. mutation

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Chap 23_4ce

Figure 23-1

25. In the diagram of a bacterial cell in Figure 23-1, which number identifies the structure that carries out protein

synthesis? a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 9 26. In which major taxonomic group of Archaea are the methanogens found? a. Crenarchaeota b. Korarchaeota c. Nanoarchaeota d. Euryarchaeota

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Chap 23_4ce 27. Which category contains organisms that have mitochondria? a. Bacteria b. Eukarya c. Archaea 28. Which bacteria produce the botulism toxin? a. Clostridium b. Salmonella c. Escherichia d. Staphylococcus 29. Which type of cell contains a nuclear membrane? a. Eukarya b. Prokarya c. Bacteria d. Archaea

Figure 23-2

30. In the phylogenetic tree in Figure 23-2, which branch identifies a kingdom? a. branch B b. branch C c. branch D d. branch E

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Chap 23_4ce

Figure 23-1

31. In the diagram of a bacterial cell in Figure 23-1, which number identifies the structure that carries supplemental

genetic information? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5 32. Which organisms contain prokaryotic histonelike proteins? a. Archaea b. Eukarya c. Bacteria

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Chap 23_4ce 33. What is the major structural component of bacterial cell walls? a. cellulose b. arabinogalactan c. peptidoglycan d. proteoglycan 34. What are believed to be the evolutionary ancestors of mitochondria? a. ancient Archaea b. ancient proteobacteria c. ancient green bacteria d. ancient cyanobacteria 35. Which organisms obtain energy by oxidizing organic or inorganic substances? a. auxotrophs b. chemotrophs c. autotrophs d. phototrophs 36. Which category includes most of the bacteria that cause human disease? a. photoautotrophs b. photoheterotrophs c. chemoautotrophs d. chemoheterotrophs 37. Which of these statements best describes the type of bacteria found in your guts? a. They are less similar to that of your family than to people unrelated to you, and are not unique to you. b. They are less similar to that of your family than to people unrelated to you, but are still unique to you. c. They are more similar to that of your family than to people unrelated to you, and are not unique to you. d. They are more similar to that of your family than to people unrelated to you, but are still unique to you.

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Chap 23_4ce

Figure 23-2

38. In the phylogenetic tree in Figure 23-2, which branch identifies Bacteria? a. branch B b. branch C c. branch D d. branch E 39. Which phrase describes a bacterial flagellum? a. It is the same in composition as archaeal flagellum. b. It is made of rigid helical proteins, c. It enables bacteria to adhere to a surface. d. It enables bacteria to move along a surface.

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Chap 23_4ce

Figure 23-1

40. In the diagram of a bacterial cell in Figure 23-1, which number identifies a structure that is composed of

polysaccharides? a. 9 b. 6 c. 3 d. 1 41. Which organisms stain as either Gram-positive or Gram-negative? a. Bacteria b. Archaea c. Eukarya

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Chap 23_4ce 42. From what environment were Archaea first isolated? a. salt lakes b. Mars c. freshwater lakes d. a human patient 43. Which phrase describes proteobacteria? a. They are Gram-positive and include the purple bacteria. b. They are Gram-negative and include the green bacteria. c. They are Gram-negative and include the purple bacteria. d. They are Gram-positive and include the green bacteria. 44. Which organisms contain branched membrane lipids with ether linkages? a. Eukarya b. Archaea c. Bacteria 45. Which organisms obtain energy from sunlight? a. chemotrophs b. phototrophs c. autotrophs d. heterotrophs

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Chap 23_4ce

Figure 23-1

46. In the diagram of a bacterial cell in Figure 23-1, which number identifies the structure that facilitates

movement? a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 1 47. Which of the following is likely the oldest known lineage in the Archaea? a. Crenarchaeota b. Nanoarchaeota c. Korarchaeota d. Euryarchaeota

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Chap 23_4ce 48. Which of the following are among the Archaea that have been cultured in the laboratory? a. Crenarchaeota and Korarchaeota b. Crenarchaeota and Euryarchaeota c. Nanoarchaeota and Korarchaeota d. Euryarchaeota and Nanoarchaeota 49. Over 6000 species of prokaryotes have been identified. What percentage of the total number of prokaryotic

species on Earth does this represent? a. 1% b. 10% c. 30% d. 90%

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Chap 23_4ce

Figure 23-1

50. In the diagram of a bacterial cell in Figure 23-1, which type of cell is represented? a. a Gram-positive bacterium b. any prokaryotic cell c. an archaeal cell d. a Gram-negative bacterium 51. In what way is proteobacterial photosynthesis different from plant photosynthesis? a. Proteobacterial photosynthesis does not use a proton gradient. b. Proteobacterial photosynthesis does not consume CO2. c. Proteobacterial photosynthesis uses water as an electron donor. d. Proteobacterial photosynthesis uses a different type of chlorophyll.

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Chap 23_4ce 52. Which of the following contain prokaryotic organisms that are pathogenic to humans? a. Archaea b. Eukarya c. Bacteria d. Fungi 53. Which type of metabolism is unique to prokaryotes? a. chemoheterotroph b. photoheterotroph c. photolithotroph d. photoautotroph

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Chap 23_4ce

Figure 23-1

54. In the diagram of a bacterial cell in Figure 23-1, which numbers identify structures that are found in all

prokaryotes? a. 5 and 9 b. 3 and 4 c. 2 and 4 d. 1 and 5 55. Where is DNA found in prokaryotes? a. only in the nucleolus b. only in plasmids c. in the nucleolus and plasmids d. in the nucleoid and plasmids

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Chap 23_4ce 56. Which term refers to a bacterial protein that causes disease only after the cell has been disrupted? a. endospore b. heterocyst c. endotoxin d. exotoxin 57. Which of these terms refers to prokaryotes that are cylindrical? a. cocci b. spirilla c. vibrios d. bacilli 58. How long does it take for a biofilm to form? a. seconds to minutes b. minutes to hours c. days to months d. months to years

Figure 23-2

59. In the phylogenetic tree in Figure 23-2, which branch identifies Eukarya? a. branch A b. branch C c. branch D d. branch E Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_4ce 60. What is the function of bacteria found in human guts? a. to synthesize vitamin A b. to synthesize vitamin C c. to synthesize vitamin K d. to synthesize vitamin B 61. Which genus contains Gram-positive bacteria? a. Neisseria b. Staphylococcus c. Kokuria d. Salmonella 62. What mechanism of reproduction is most common in bacteria? a. sexual reproduction: binary fission b. asexual reproduction: binary fission c. asexual reproduction: budding d. sexual reproduction: meiosis 63. What do capsules protect bacteria from? a. osmotic lysis b. invaders c. radiation d. viruses 64. Which organisms obtain carbon from CO2? a. auxotrophs b. heterotrophs c. autotrophs d. chemotrophs 65. Which of the following contain cytoplasmic organelles? a. Archaea b. Eukarya c. Bacteria 66. Which of the following produce N-formylmethionine as their first amino acid in protein synthesis? a. Archaea b. Bacteria c. Eukarya

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Chap 23_4ce 67. Which of these types of bacteria has the smallest type of cell? a. mycoplasmas b. Lactobacillus c. Clostridium d. Staphylococcus

Match each prokaryotic genus with its correct description. a. causes anthrax b. fixes nitrogen c. causes syphilis d. loves very high temperatures e. causes endotoxin shock f. helps in the production of yogurt g. causes necrotizing fasciitis (flesh-eating disease) h. loves toxic H2S gas i. causes gonorrhea j. produces CH4 k. causes trachoma (a preventable form of blindness) 68. Salmonella 69. Lactobacillus 70. Rhizobium 71. Chlamydia 72. Neisseria 73. Bacillus 74. snottite bacteria 75. Streptococcus 76. Treponema 77. Pyrobolus 78. methanogen 79. List and discuss five structures in bacteria that allow them to cause disease.

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Chap 23_4ce 80. Discuss why Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria stain differently with the Gram stain. How is this

difference reflected in antibiotic sensitivity/resistance?

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Chap 23_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False - spirochetes 4. False - bacteria 5. True 6. False - psychrophiles 7. False - biofilms 8. c 9. d 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. c 14. d 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. b 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. d 25. c 26. d

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Chap 23_4ce 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. b 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. b 45. b 46. d 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. d 51. d 52. c 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_4ce 55. d 56. c 57. d 58. c 59. d 60. c 61. b 62. b 63. d 64. c 65. b 66. b 67. a 68. e 69. f 70. b 71. k 72. i 73. a 74. h 75. g 76. c 77. d 78. j

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Chap 23_4ce 79.

a. Capsules: Many bacteria are surrounded by a capsule, which is typically composed of polysaccharides. The capsule protects the bacterium from the host animal’s immune system. For example, Streptococcus pneumoniae strains that are encapsulated can cause pneumonia, while those without capsules are nonvirulent. b. Pili: Pili are short protein appendages found in a number of bacteria. These help bacteria to bind to animal cells. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which causes gonorrhea, has pili that allow it to attach to cells of the throat, eye, urogenital tract, or rectum in humans. c. Exotoxins: A number of bacterial lineages produce exotoxins. These are toxic proteins that are secreted from the bacterium and interfere with the biochemical processes of body cells in various ways. For example, the botulinum exotoxin causes muscle paralysis by interfering with the transmission of nerve impulses. d. Endotoxins: Gram-negative bacteria can cause disease through endotoxins, which are lipopolysaccharides released from the outer membrane when bacteria die and lyse. Endotoxins cause disease by overstimulating the host’s immune response, often triggering inflammation. e. Exotoxins: Some bacteria release exotoxins, which are catalytic proteins. These may break down cell membranes (causing cells to rupture), collagen (causing connective tissue disorders), and red and white blood cells (leading to anemias and weakening of the immune system). Bacteria that release exotoxins include Streptococcus and Clostridium. 80. Gram-positive bacteria are those that retain crystal violet, the primary dye of the Gram stain, and thus appear purple.

Gram-negative bacteria do not retain the crystal violet dye, and stain pink because of safranin, the second dye. The staining difference reflects differences in the cell wall structure. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer, which absorbs and retains the crystal violet pigment. On the other hand, Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer, and therefore lose the crystal violet pigment during the alcohol wash. This difference in cell walls has a bearing on how certain antibiotics affect these two bacterial types. Gram-positive bacteria are very susceptible to penicillin, which blocks new cell wall formation by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking. The weakened cell wall soon leads to the death of the bacterium. Penicillin is less effective against Gram-negative bacteria because their outer membrane inhibits entry of the antibiotic. Interestingly, this outer membrane makes Gram-negative bacteria much more sensitive than Gram-positive bacteria to antibiotics that disrupt the cell membrane (e.g., polymyxin).

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Chap 24_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Land plants evolved from charophytes. 2. Radiolarians have vacuoles that provide them with buoyancy in marine environments. 3. Slime moulds are classified as Amoebozoa. 4. Colonies are aggregates of potentially independent protist cells that show little or no differentiation. 5. Amoeba is a term used to describe unicellular protists that move by means of flagella. 6. The Chlorophyta are believed to be the ancestors of fungi and animals. 7. Most Euglena are autotrophs that carry out photosynthesis using different pigments than plants. 8. The pigments responsible for the colour of red algae are the prodigiosins. 9. The parasite that causes African sleeping sickness is transmitted through the bite of a mosquito. 10. The eyespot is a light-sensitive structure found in photosynthetic kinetoplastids. 11. The White Cliffs of Dover, England, are composed of shells of ancient diatoms. 12. Diatomaceous earth is the fine powder produced from grinding the fossilized shells of diatoms. 13. Some dinoflagellates exhibit bioluminescence with the help of the enzyme photolyase. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 14. Which type of cellular proteins support the axopods of radiolarians internally? a. microfilaments b. microtubules c. actin filaments d. lysosomal proteins 15. Until recently, protists have been classified according to observable traits such as modes of nutrition and

mechanisms of movement. What is the basis for modern protist classification? a. their evolutionary relatedness b. their similarity to plants c. their cell wall types d. their types of life cycles

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Chap 24_4ce 16. Which of these sentences best describes diatoms? a. They are unicellular and autotrophic. b. They are multicellular and heterotrophic. c. They are unicellular and heterotrophic. d. They are multicellular and parasitic. 17. Which of these characteristics is the most likely explanation for the loss of mitochondria in Excavates? a. their flagella b. their aquatic habitat c. their similarity to bacteria d. their parasitic lifestyle 18. How are heterokonts characterized? a. by having two types of nuclei b. by having two different flagella c. by having cell walls of silica d. by having cells walls of chitin 19. What types of algae get their colour from the pigment fucoxanthin? a. red algae and golden algae b. brown algae and golden algae c. brown algae and green algae d. red algae and green algae 20. On what basis can cellular slime moulds be distinguished from plasmodial slime moulds? a. reproductive structures b. spore formation c. food requirements d. nuclei per cell 21. Which of the following is an extension of a lobe of the cytoplasm, and is used by some protists for

movement? a. pilus b. cilium c. pseudopod d. gullet

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Chap 24_4ce 22. What do amoebas use pseudopodia for, other than movement? a. excretion b. feeding c. avoiding predation d. asexual reproduction 23. Which of these terms can be used to describe the majority of protists? a. aerobic b. photosynthetic c. anaerobic d. autotrophic 24. According to the latest research, which of the following is the best description of the first eukaryote? a. It lacked a nucleus, but contained a mitochondrion and a chloroplast. b. It contained a nucleus, a mitochondrion, and a chloroplast. c. It contained a nucleus and a chloroplast, but not a mitochondrion. d. It contained a nucleus and a mitochondrion, but not a chloroplast. 25. Why has the diverse group of protists traditionally been grouped together? a. They all have the same type of nutrition. b. They are not prokaryotes, fungi, plants, or animals. c. They all have very similar shapes. d. They all have very similar DNA sequences. 26. Which of these terms describes kinetoplastids? a. prokaryotic b. photosynthetic c. parasitic d. ciliated 27. Which of these groups belongs to the chromalveolates? a. diatoms b. apicomplexans c. chlorophytes d. rhodophytes

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Chap 24_4ce 28. Which of these terms refers to the mechanism by which a brown algae sporophyte produces spores? a. syngamy b. fertilization c. mitosis d. meiosis 29. Which sentence best describes the phylogenetic relationship between protists, fungi, plants, and animals? a. Fungi and animals share a common protist ancestor; plants arose from a different protist ancestor. b. Fungi and plants share a common protist ancestor; animals arose from a different protist ancestor. c. Plants, animals, and fungi each arose from different protist lineages. d. Animals and plants share a common protist ancestor; fungi arose from a different protist ancestor.

Figure 24-1

30. In Figure 24-1, what is the function of the structure labelled as number 2? a. waste elimination b. asexual reproduction c. digestion d. food intake 31. Which protist group includes human pathogens? a. parabasalids b. radiolarians c. chlorophytes d. forams

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Chap 24_4ce 32. Many algal species have life cycles consisting of alternating haploid and diploid generations. Which of these

sentences describes the organisms that comprise the most common life cycle in green algae? a. They are multicellular in the haploid stage and unicellular in the diploid stage. b. They are unicellular in the haploid stage and multicellular in the diploid stage. c. They are unicellular in both the haploid and the diploid stages. d. They are multicellular in both the haploid and the diploid stages. Figure 24-1

33. In Figure 24-1what are the structures labelled as number 5? a. the pellicles b. the pili c. the cilia d. the trichocysts

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-3

34. In Figure 24-3, under what condition is the structure labelled E formed? a. high competition b. favourable to mating c. high heat d. low food supply 35. How do water moulds differ from true fungi? a. Water moulds are haploid; fungi are diploid. b. Water moulds form hyphae; fungi form mycelia. c. Water moulds have a different genetic composition than fungi have. d. Water moulds have cell walls made up of chitin; fungi have cell walls made up of cellulose. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 24_4ce 36. Which of the following is the feature that choanoflagellates received their name after? a. eye spot b. cilium c. flagellum d. collar 37. Which of the following is the feature that the green algae received their name after? a. chloros b. photosynthesis c. leaflike form d. filamentous form 38. Under favourable conditions, in which form do plasmodial slime moulds exist primarily? a. as individual flagellated cells b. as spore-forming, fruiting bodies c. as a single, multinucleated, cellular blob d. as coordinated, multicellular blobs 39. Some protists have a pellicle. What is a pellicle used for? a. food storage b. defensive purposes c. structural support d. water absorption

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-3

40. In Figure 24-3, which organism’s life cycle is illustrated? a. cellular slime mould b. green alga c. water mould d. plasmodial slime mould

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Chap 24_4ce 41. What is the name of the dartlike protein threads that ciliates can eject from surface organelles when under

attack? a. gullets b. alveoli c. trichocysts d. vacuoles 42. Which of the following algal groups is the most diverse? a. red b. green c. golden d. blue-green 43. Which term refers collectively to small, photosynthetic protists found in aquatic habitats? a. phytoplankton b. chrysophyte c. zooplankton d. phagoplankton 44. Which of these protist lineages does NOT belong to the supergroup Excavata? a. kinetoplastids b. parabasalids c. diplomonads d. diatoms

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-2

45. In Figure 24-2, which step in the life cycle of the organism causes disease symptoms in a human host? a. step 1 b. step 4 c. step 5 d. step 6 46. What is the undulating membrane of parabasalids used for? a. defensive purposes b. food absorption c. movement d. structural support

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-2

47. In Figure 24-2, which organism’s life cycle is illustrated? a. Paramecium spp. b. Plasmodium spp. c. Euglena spp. d. Escherichia spp. 48. From which type of algae is algin extracted? a. golden algae b. red algae c. brown algae d. blue-green algae 49. A population boom in which type of organism will cause a red tide? a. ciliate b. brown alga c. diatom d. dinoflagellate

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-3

50. In Figure 24-3, which label identifies the diploid stage of this organism? a. label A b. label C c. label D d. label E

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Chap 24_4ce 51. Suppose you find a protist that has a single flagellum surrounded by a collar of microvilli. Which of the

following could be concluded about this organism? a. It is a choanoflagellate. b. It is a plasmodial slime mould. c. It is a cellular slime mould. d. It is not an opisthokont. 52. From which cell walls is agar extracted? a. those of red algae b. those of blue-green algae c. those of green algae d. those of golden algae

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-3

53. In Figure 24-3, which label identifies the structure that is the fruiting body? a. label A b. label B c. label C d. label E 54. To which category of protists does the genus Plasmodium belong? a. apicomplexans b. ciliates c. dinoflagellates d. euglenoids Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-1

55. In Figure 24-1, what are the labels on the structures that maintain water balance? a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 6 c. 6 and 9 d. 7 and 8 56. Many algal species have life cycles consisting of alternating haploid and diploid generations. Which of these

sentences describes the organisms that comprise the most common life cycle in brown algae? a. They are unicellular in both the haploid and diploid stages. b. They are colonial in both the haploid and diploid stages. c. They are multicellular in both the haploid and diploid stages. d. They are multicellular in the haploid stage and unicellular in the diploid stage.

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-2

57. In Figure 24-2, which type of cell serves as the host for the sporozoite? a. the nerve cell b. the skin cell c. the red blood cell d. the liver cell 58. Which of the following are the least mobile protists? a. heterokonts b. diatoms c. euglenoids d. apicomplexans

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-3

59. In Figure 24-3, which label identifies the structure that is the slug? a. label A b. label C c. label D d. label E

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-2

60. In Figure 24-2, what process is occurring in step 1? a. fusion b. mitosis c. meiosis d. fertilization 61. Which of these groups do diatoms belong to? a. Phaeophyta b. Chrysophyta c. Chromalveolata d. Rhodophyta

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-1

62. In Figure 24-1, what is the structure labelled as number 7? a. the gullet b. the mitochondrion c. the micronucleus d. the macronucleus 63. What is the apical complex of apicomplexans used for? a. food absorption b. attachment c. structural support d. asexual reproduction 64. How many different species of Plasmodium cause malaria? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 65. Which of the following is characteristic of all algae? a. They are unicellular. b. They are multicellular. c. They have life cycles with alternating generations. d. They have chlorophyll.

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-1

66. In Figure 24-1, what are the structures labelled as number 4? a. the pili b. the flagella c. the cilia d. the pellicles 67. What kind of algae are Rhodophyta? a. brown b. red c. blue-green d. golden

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Chap 24_4ce

Figure 24-2

68. In Figure 24-2, in which step is meiosis occurring? a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 69. Which modern type of algae most closely resembles the algal ancestor of green plants? a. Phaeophyta b. Chrysophyta c. Radiolaria d. Charophyta 70. Which of these terms refers to structures that are similar to roots and anchor brown algae to the substrate? a. holdfasts b. thalli c. blades d. stipes 71. Suppose you discover an organism that has a nucleus but no mitochondria. Which of the following could this

organism be? a. kinetoplastid b. diplomonad c. euglenoid d. ciliate Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 24_4ce 72. When does secondary endosymbiosis occur? a. when a non-photosynthetic eukaryote engulfs a photosynthetic eukaryote b. when a non-photosynthetic eukaryote engulfs a photosynthetic prokaryote c. when a photosynthetic eukaryote engulfs a photosynthetic prokaryote d. when a photosynthetic eukaryote engulfs a non-photosynthetic prokaryote 73. Which protists have both plant and animal features? a. Paramecium b. Euglena c. Trichomonas d. Trichonympha 74. Which of these protists is the cause of “beaver fever”? a. Physarum polycephalum b. Plasmodium falciparum c. Giardia lamblia d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 75. Which of these genera is included in the ciliates group? a. Entamoeba b. Paramecium c. Trichomonas d. Anopheles 76. Which of these sentences describes most golden algae? a. They are unicellular and autotrophic. b. They are colonial and autotrophic. c. They are multicellular and heterotrophic. d. They are colonial and heterotrophic. 77. Suppose that you find a protist that is unicellular, heterotrophic, and non-flagellated, and it has two nuclei of

different sizes. What could be concluded about this organism? a. It is an amoebozoan. b. It is a ciliate. c. It is a foraminiferan. d. It is a kinetoplastid.

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Chap 24_4ce 78. What do all protists possess? a. cell walls b. multiple, circular chromosomes c. chloroplasts d. microtubules and microfilaments

Figure 24-2

79. In Figure 24-2, what type of mosquito is illustrated? a. a male b. a larva c. a female d. an immature form 80. Which type of molecule reinforces the shells of forams? a. calcium carbonate b. hydrogen sulfide c. copper sulfate d. silica 81. Which of the following protists are NOT included in the Unikont supergroup? a. amoebas b. slime moulds c. Rhizaria d. plasmodial slime moulds

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Chap 24_4ce

Match each protistan genus with its description. a. causes African sleeping sickness b. unicellular photosynthetic protist c. multicellular photosynthetic protist d. causes amoebic dysentery e. causes a sexually transmitted disease f. plasmodial slime mould g. cellular slime mould h. the most common intestinal parasite in North America i. Excavate that is a human intestinal parasite j. why pregnant women should avoid cats 82. Giardia 83. Euglena 84. Dictyostelium 85. Physarum 86. Trichomonas 87. Giardia 88. Entamoeba 89. Toxoplasma 90. Trypanosoma 91. Ulva

Match each characteristic to a type of algae. Algae may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. blue-green algae b. green algae c. brown algae d. red algae e. golden algae 92. largest and most complex 93. grows at the deepest ocean levels 94. most diverse 95. fucoxanthin 96. ancestors of plants 97. source of nori, the sushi wrapper 98. source of carrageenan, a thickening agent Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 24_4ce 99. Discuss the ecological significance of the diplonemids.

100. Discuss how protists can be distinguished from each of the following: viruses, bacteria, fungi, plants, and

animals.

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Chap 24_4ce Answer Key 1. False - a common ancestor of charophytes 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False - pseudopodia 6. False - Choanoflagellata 7. False - the same 8. False - phycobilins 9. False - tsetse fly 10. False - euglenoids 11. False - foraminiferans/forams 12. True 13. False - luciferase 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. d 21. c 22. b 23. a 24. d 25. b 26. c

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Chap 24_4ce 27. b 28. d 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. d 34. d 35. c 36. d 37. a 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. c 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. c 51. a 52. a 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 24_4ce 55. c 56. c 57. d 58. d 59. d 60. c 61. c 62. d 63. b 64. c 65. d 66. c 67. b 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. b 72. a 73. b 74. c 75. b 76. b 77. b 78. d 79. c 80. a 81. c 82. h Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 24_4ce 83. b 84. g 85. f 86. e 87. i 88. d 89. j 90. a 91. c 92. c 93. d 94. b 95. e 96. b 97. d 98. d 99. More than 4000 species of diplonemids have been discovered so far. Most are unicellular organisms that are

autotrophic or heterotrophic (some species can actually carry out both types of nutrition). Diplonemids are abundant in marine phytoplankton, and as such are a major primary producer in ocean ecosystems. Some species live as symbionts in the tissues of other marine organisms, most notably corals. For example, dinoflagellates in corals use the coral’s carbon dioxide and nitrogenous waste, while supplying 90% of the coral’s nutrition. This symbiotic relationship allows tropical coral reefs to reach a massive size. Indeed, without the dinoflagellates, many coral species would die. At times, population explosions (blooms) of dinoflagellates may colour the sea red. Some red tide dinoflagellates produce a toxin that interferes with nerve function in animals that ingest these protists. Fish that feed on plankton may be killed in large numbers by the toxin. Diplonemids toxin does not noticeably affect clams, oysters, and other molluscs, although it becomes concentrated in their tissues. Eating the tainted molluscs can cause respiratory failure and death for humans and other animals.

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Chap 24_4ce 100. Protists can be distinguished from viruses because they have a cellular structure (cell membrane, cytoplasm,

ribosomes, etc.) and viruses do not. Protists differ from bacteria simply because they are eukaryotes, and bacteria are prokaryotes. Protists possess a nucleus and various organelles, all of which are lacking in bacteria. Protists have features in common with fungi, animals, and plants. Indeed, these three eukaryotic lineages arose from protist ancestors. However, protists have several distinctive characteristics. For example, many protists lack cell walls, and true fungi possess them. The cell walls that are found in protists typically contain different components than those found in fungi (cellulose versus chitin). In contrast to land plants, protists lack highly differentiated structures equivalent to true roots, stems, and leaves. They also lack the protective structures that encase developing embryos in plants. Finally, protists are distinguished from animals by their lack of highly differentiated structures such as limbs and a heart, and by the absence of features such as nerve cells, complex developmental stages, and an internal digestive tract. Protists also lack collagen, the characteristic extracellular support protein of animals.

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Chap 25_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What is the genetic makeup of fungal spores? a. They can be either diploid or dikaryotic. b. They are always diploid. c. They are always haploid. d. They can be either haploid or diploid. 2. What does the toxin á-amanitin inhibit in order to have its deadly effects on humans? a. peptide bond formation b. RNA polymerase c. muscle contraction d. active transport 3. Suppose you are a researcher who has discovered a mutant fungus that produces extra-thick septa which

allow for only minimal transfer of nutrients through them. Compared to the normal fungus, what would you expect the mutant to do? a. grow more slowly b. make more extensive use of cytoplasmic streaming c. divide more rapidly d. digest food more efficiently 4. Which of the following describes the offspring of asexually produced spores? a. They have a different mating type from the parent fungus. b. They are clones of the parent fungus. c. They are unable to reproduce. d. They have no mating type. 5. Where does karyogamy occur in a zygomycete? a. in the sporangia b. in the asci c. in the conidiophores d. in the zygospore 6. Which fungal phylum includes members that create a special, resistant zygospore during sexual reproduction? a. Zygomycota b. Ascomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Basidiomycota

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Chap 25_4ce 7. Which fungal phylum includes members that are the only ones to produce motile spores? a. Chytridiomycota b. Glomeromycota c. Basidiomycota d. Zygomycota 8. Which part of a basidiomycete is the basidiocarp? a. the haploid life cycle stage b. the feeding stage c. the infecting vessel d. the reproductive body 9. What is the general term for a state in which two organisms live together in close association? a. parasitism b. symbiosis c. mutualism d. commensalism 10. In a lichen that is in a mutually beneficial relationship, what does the photobiont usually receive? a. aid in sexual reproduction b. shelter from radiation and desiccation c. protection from herbivory d. enhanced dispersal of offspring 11. Which of the following is the best definition of mycelium? a. an association between a fungus and a plant root b. a mushroom c. a mass of hyphae d. a fungal cell 12. Which term refers to a mutualistic symbiosis where fungal hyphae penetrate plant root cells? a. an ectomycorrhiza b. an arbuscular c. a lichen d. a haustorium

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Chap 25_4ce 13. In eastern Oregon, the mycelium of a single individual Armillaria ostoyae covers an area of 8.9 km2. Which

fungal phylum does it belong to? a. Chytridiomycota b. Glomeromycota c. Ascomycota d. Basidiomycota 14. All known members of which fungal phylum form mutualistic associations with plant roots? a. Chytridiomycota b. Basidiomycota c. Ascomycota d. Glomeromycota 15. Where do fungi perform digestion of organic molecules? a. in special compartments called haustoria b. in special compartments called arbuscules c. in visible mushrooms d. outside their cells 16. What is the name of the multicellular fungi that grow as branching filaments? a. hyphae b. mycorrhizae c. basidia d. asci 17. Based on recent comparisons of DNA and RNA sequences, what type of organisms are fungi most closely

related to? a. animals b. bacteria c. algae d. plants 18. Which fungal phylum are the structures called arbuscules associated with? a. Glomeromycota b. Zygomycota c. Basidiomycota d. Chytridiomycota

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Chap 25_4ce 19. Which fungal phylum includes pathogenic members that are responsible for such things as ergotism, athlete’s

foot, aflatoxins, thrush, and vaginal yeast infections? a. Ascomycota b. Basidiomycota c. Glomeromycota d. Zygomycota 20. Where does reproduction take place in glomeromycetes? a. in the mycelium b. in sporangia c. at the tips of hyphae d. in the vegetative thallus 21. Based on molecular evidence, how long have fungi been present on land? a. at least 125 million years b. at least 250 million years c. at least 500 million years d. at least 760 million years 22. Which fungal phylum has the fewest known living species? a. Basidiomycota b. Ascomycota c. Glomeromycota d. Zygomycota 23. Suppose that you discover a fungus that makes mainly asexual spores, but which occasionally makes sexual

spores. When produced, the sexual spores come out of a thickened, hardened structure. Also suppose that a close examination of hyphae of this fungus reveals no septa. Into which group should you classify this fungus? a. Zygomycota b. Glomeromycota c. Basidiomycota d. Chytridiomycota 24. Which of the following are generally used to refer to mating types in fungi? a. male and female b. plus and minus c. sperm and egg d. á and â

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Chap 25_4ce 25. Which fungal phylum includes organisms that are of significant value to humans, such as the yeast

Saccharomyces cerevisiae, antibiotic-producing species of Penicillium, truffles, and morels? a. Ascomycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Glomeromycota 26. In terms of evolutionary history, which phylum contains fungi that were the first to diverge from the rest of the

fungi? a. Chytridiomycota b. Ascomycota c. Glomeromycota d. Zygomycota 27. Which fungal phylum includes members that are also called club fungi? a. Chytridiomycota b. Basidiomycota c. Glomeromycota d. Zygomycota 28. Where does production of asexual spores in ascomycetes often occur? a. on sporangia b. on zygospores c. on conidiophores d. on basidia 29. Which term correctly describes yeast? a. single-celled fungi b. single-celled protists c. multicellular plants d. multicellular fungi 30. What has the classification of fungi traditionally been based on? a. on body type b. on whether the fungus is a saprobe, a parasite, or in a mutual symbiosis c. on mode of feeding d. on structures that release sexual spores

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Chap 25_4ce 31. Which term applies to the chytrids? a. aquatic b. parasites of plants c. symbiotic partners of cattle and other herbivores d. saprobes in soil 32. Where does production of sexual spores in ascomycetes occur? a. in sporangia b. in zygospores c. in asci d. in conidiophores 33. What is the main benefit that a plant receives from a mycorrhizal association? a. removal of excess carbohydrates b. enhanced water uptake c. enhanced flow of carbohydrates to the roots d. enhanced mineral ion uptake 34. Suppose that you discover a fungus that makes both sexual and asexual spores. Suppose also that the sexual

spores are made in groups of eight within a structure that bursts open to release the spores. And the structures containing sexual spores are found within a multicellular structure that is about 13 cm tall. Into which group should you classify this fungus? a. Basidiomycota b. Zygomycota c. Glomeromycota d. Ascomycota 35. Which fungal phylum includes organisms traditionally called mushrooms, as well as shelf fungi, coral fungi,

bird’s nest fungi, stinkhorns, and puffballs? a. Chytridiomycota b. Basidiomycota c. Glomeromycota d. Ascomycota

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Chap 25_4ce 36. Suppose that you discover a fungus that is associated with plant roots, with hyphae that actually penetrate the

root cells, and it produces tree-like structures within the root cells. Into which group should you classify this fungus? a. Chytridiomycota b. Basidiomycota c. Zygomycota d. Glomeromycota 37. Molecular relationships and other studies have allowed for many conidial fungi to be reclassified into a fungal

phylum. Which fungal phylum are most of these reclassified conidial fungi now assigned to? a. Glomeromycota b. Chytridiomycota c. Basidiomycota d. Ascomycota 38. In a lichen that is in a mutually beneficial relationship, what does the mycobiont receive? a. aid in sexual reproduction b. enhanced dispersal of offspring c. nutrients d. protection from herbivory 39. Where does production of sexual spores in basidiomycetes occur? a. on asci b. on sporangia c. on basidia d. on zygospores 40. Based on gene sequencing data, when did the lineages leading to animals and fungi appear to diverge from

each other? a. about 10 million years ago b. about 125 million years ago c. about 500 million years ago d. about 1 billion years ago 41. In fungal reproduction, what is the name of the process in which fusion of nuclei takes place? a. cytoplasmic streaming b. symbiosis c. plasmogamy d. karyogamy

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Chap 25_4ce 42. Suppose that before examining a fungal cell under a microscope, you are told that it is a dikaryotic cell. What

should you expect the cell to have? a. two complete sets of chromosomes and two mycelia b. two complete sets of chromosomes and two hyphae c. two complete sets of chromosomes and two nuclei d. two nuclei and two hyphae 43. Which term refers to a mutualistic symbiosis where fungal hyphae grow between and around plant roots but do

NOT penetrate plant root cells? a. an arbuscule b. an endomycorrhiza c. a lichen d. an ectomycorrhiza 44. Which substance typically provides rigidity to fungal cell walls? a. starch b. chitin c. lignin d. cellulose 45. What term refers to the process in fungi that allows nutrients to flow from food-absorbing parts of the fungal

body to other non-absorptive parts? a. osmosis b. cytoplasmic streaming c. symbiosis d. plasmogamy 46. Which term refers to a cell cluster that contains both algal and hyphal cells and is used for asexual reproduction

in lichens? a. a haustorium b. a soredium c. an arbuscule d. a thallus 47. Which fungal phylum includes the black bread mould Rhizopus stolonifer and the dung-infesting fungi of the

genus Pilobolus? a. Basidiomycota b. Chytridiomycota c. Glomeromycota d. Zygomycota Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 25_4ce 48. Which of the following describes the dikaryotic stage of a fungal life cycle in genetic terms? a. 2n b. n + n c. n d. 2n + n 49. Which fungal phylum has members that are also called sac fungi? a. Glomeromycota b. Ascomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zygomycota 50. Which group includes the bread mould Rhizopus? a. Chytridiomycota b. Zygomycota c. Basidiomycota d. Ascomycota 51. In addition to decomposition and decay, what is another major ecological role of the fungi? a. assisting plants in mineral acquisition b. producing medicines for humans c. performing photosynthesis d. digesting ant species 52. Which fungal phylum includes the fly agaric mushroom (Amanita muscaria) and the death cap mushroom

(Amanita phalloides)? a. Zygomycota b. Glomeromycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Basidiomycota 53. Which fungal phylum has the most known living species? a. Chytridiomycota b. Ascomycota c. Zygomycota d. Glomeromycota

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Chap 25_4ce 54. Suppose you discover a fungus that makes only sexual spores (no asexual spores). The spores are made in

groups of four on the tips of club-shaped structures. Into which group should you classify this fungus? a. Zygomycota b. Basidiomycota c. Glomeromycota d. Chytridiomycota 55. Which fungal phylum has members that make up roughly half of the fungi in the soil and help land plants by

forming mycorrhizae with them? a. Basidiomycota b. Glomeromycota c. Ascomycota d. Zygomycota 56. According to the fossil record, which of the following were common among ancient land plants? a. fungal infections b. haustoria c. arbuscular mycorrhizae d. ectomycorrhizae 57. Where does karyogamy occur in ascomycetes? a. in zygospores b. in basidia c. in asci d. in conidiophores 58. Which term refers to the fusion of the cytoplasm of two genetically different cells? a. karyogamy b. osmosis c. plasmogamy d. symbiosis 59. Which fungi most often engage in mycorrhizae? a. zygomycetes b. ascomycetes c. chytrids d. glomeromycetes

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Chap 25_4ce 60. Suppose you discover an aquatic fungus that makes spores which use flagella to swim. Into which group

should you classify this fungus? a. Chytridiomycota b. Ascomycota c. Basidiomycota d. Glomeromycota 61. Which fungal phylum includes some species that use a trapping behaviour by which small worms are ensnared

and then digested? a. Basidiomycota b. Glomeromycota c. Ascomycota d. Zygomycota 62. Which of the following is an important difference between lichen and plant physiology? a. Lichens are photosynthetic. b. Lichens contain chlorophyll. c. Lichens grow slowly. d. Lichens do not control water loss. 63. Where does karyogamy occur in basidiomycetes? a. in sporangia b. in asci c. in zygospores d. in basidia 64. Which type of habitat lifestyle did the first fungi probably have? a. aquatic b. arboreal c. amphibious d. airborne 65. What is the name of the general mechanism of fungal reproduction? a. conidia b. spores c. asci d. fruiting bodies

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Chap 25_4ce 66. What has been a consequence of the disease caused by the chytrid Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis? a. the extinction of many species of frogs b. the killing of trees in temperate forests c. sexual transmission in humans d. the killing of millions of humans each year 67. Which term refers to the tough, pliable body of a lichen? a. thallus b. arbuscule c. haustorium d. soredium 68. Which term refers to a single vegetative body that contains both a fungus and a green alga? a. haustorium b. arbuscule c. lichen d. ectomycorrhiza 69. What is the distinctive characteristic of conidial fungi? a. They are unicellular. b. They have no known sexual phase. c. They have a haploid phase in their life cycle. d. They have a dikaryotic phase in their life cycle.

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Chap 25_4ce

Match each term with the most closely associated fungal phylum. Each phylum may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. Glomeromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zygomycota e. Ascomycota 70. arbuscular mycorrhizae 71. Rhizopus stolonifer 72. aseptate hyphae 73. ascocarp 74. basidiocarp 75. ectomycorrhizae 76. zygospore 77. motile spores 78. Saccharomyces cerevisiae 79. á-amanitin 80. Explain the difference between plasmogamy and karyogamy.

81. Describe the major roles of fungi that affect humans and their environment.

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Chap 25_4ce Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. c 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. a

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Chap 25_4ce 27. b 28. c 29. a 30. d 31. a 32. c 33. d 34. d 35. b 36. d 37. d 38. c 39. c 40. d 41. d 42. c 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. d 48. b 49. b 50. b 51. a 52. d 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 25_4ce 55. b 56. c 57. c 58. c 59. d 60. a 61. c 62. d 63. d 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. a 68. c 69. b 70. a 71. d 72. d 73. e 74. b 75. b 76. d 77. c 78. e 79. b 80. Plasmogamy is the fusion of two cells such that they share a common cytoplasm but keep the two original nuclei

separate. It results in a cell that has two distinct nuclei, also called a dikaryon, with ploidy of n + n. Karyogamy is the fusion of the two nuclei; when this occurs, the cell ceases being an n + n dikaryon and instead becomes a true 2n diploid cell. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 25_4ce 81. Fungi have many effects on humans and their environment. First, along with bacteria, the primary decomposers on

Earth are fungi. Decomposers provide vital recycling of carbon and other nutrients; without such recycling, the planet would quickly face a nutrient crisis as carbon and other nutrients became locked up in leaf litter and other cast-off organic matter. Second, fungi are the cause of many diseases. They are the greatest cause of plant diseases, and many diseases in animals (including humans) are caused by fungi. Third, fungi provide extremely important direct benefits to about 90% of plants via mycorrhizae. Fourth, fungi are part of lichens, which begin the process of making soils from bare rocks and are the primary producers in some harsh environments like the arctic tundra. Finally, fungi are used by humans for such things as baking, making cheeses, alcoholic beverages, and antibiotics, and as model organisms for studies of molecular biology and genetic engineering in eukaryotes.

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Chap 26_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following is a protective structure where egg cells are formed in bryophytes and some other

plants? a. stoma b. strobilus c. sporangium d. archegonium 2. Where do the megaspores develop in pine trees? a. within an ovule b. within a strobilus c. within a sporopollenin d. within a seed 3. Which phylum of vascular, seed-bearing plants includes pines, spruces, and firs? a. Gnetophyta b. Cycadophyta c. Ginkgophyta d. Coniferophyta 4. What plant structures comprise a sorus? a. rhizomes b. fronds c. strobili d. sporangia 5. Which sentence best describes the relationship between gametophyte and sporophyte in the angiosperm life

cycle? a. Both gametophytes and sporophytes are totally independent from each other and are equally dominant. b. Sporophytes originate within and are dependent upon gametophytes. c. Gametophytes originate within and are dependent upon sporophytes. d. Gametophytes are free living and photosynthetic, but are replaced by a dominant sporophyte generation. 6. Which term refers to seedless vascular plants that are represented by only one living genus, Equisetum? a. mosses b. ferns c. whisk ferns d. horsetails Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_4ce 7. Which term refers to the region of constantly dividing cells near the tips of shoots and roots? a. lignin b. xylem c. apical meristem d. cuticle 8. What is the name for the simple body that makes up the gametophyte generation for many liverworts? a. archegonium b. thallus c. gemma d. rhizoid 9. Which sentence describes the relationship between sporophyte and gametophyte in the fern life cycle? a. Gametophytes are photosynthetic and partially independent from the sporophytes. b. Gametophytes are free living and photosynthetic, but are replaced by a dominant sporophyte

generation. c. Sporophytes originate within and are dependent upon gametophytes. d. Both gametophytes and sporophytes are totally independent from each other and are equally dominant. 10. Which phylum of nonvascular plants includes the genus Marchantia? a. Hepatophyta b. Bryophyta c. Anthocerophyta d. Lycophyta 11. Which term refers to a young moss gametophyte? a. antheridium b. capsule c. protonema d. prothallus 12. Which term refers to a haploid organism that produces gametes? a. spore b. gametophyte c. gamete d. sporophyte

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Chap 26_4ce 13. When was the Carboniferous period? a. about 17 million years ago b. about 125 million years ago c. about 250 million years ago d. about 1.5 billion years ago 14. Which term best describes the relationship between angiosperms and animal pollinators? a. The plants coevolved with the animals. b. The plants competed with the animals. c. The plants have been driven to extinction by the animals. d. The plants had antagonistic relationships with the animals. 15. Which phylum contains the ferns? a. Anthocerophyta b. Bryophyta c. Pterophyta d. Hepatophyta 16. The world’s first photosynthetic organisms were also the first to adapt to intertidal zones. What is the name of

the group that includes these organisms? a. plants b. cyanobacteria c. algae d. fungi 17. What does the word gymnosperm mean? a. covered seed b. naked seed c. active sperm d. covered sperm 18. In bryophytes and some other plants, which of the following is a protective structure where sperm cells are

formed? a. archegonium b. strobilus c. stoma d. antheridium

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Chap 26_4ce 19. Which term refers to a structure with stems and leaves that arise from apical meristems? a. protonema b. rhizome c. shoot system d. vascular system 20. Which phylum of vascular, seed-bearing plants is limited to one living species that is a deciduous tree with fan-

shaped leaves? a. Gnetophyta b. Anthophyta c. Cycadophyta d. Ginkgophyta 21. From which generation does the pollen grain develop? a. from the female gametophyte b. from the female sporophyte c. from the male sporophyte d. from the male gametophyte 22. Much of the world’s coal reserves were formed from the buried remains of the dominant plants of the

Carboniferous period. What were the dominant plants of the period? a. gymnosperms and angiosperms b. angiosperms only c. gymnosperms only d. seedless vascular plants 23. In plants that can open and close, there are small passages through the cuticle that allow for some control of

water loss by evaporation, and these passages are the main route for uptake of carbon dioxide. What are the passages called? a. sporopollenins b. tracheophytes c. stomata d. thalli 24. Which of the following is a characteristic of Bryophytes? a. asexual reproduction with gemmae b. true leaves c. lignified tissue d. true roots

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Chap 26_4ce 25. When a plant is heterosporous, what does this mean? a. It has both sporophyte and gametophyte generations. b. It has male and female gametes. c. It has two spore types. d. It has separate male and female plants. 26. In which plants is the sporophyte generation clearly larger, more complex, and longer living than the

gametophyte generation? a. in seedless plants b. in seed plants c. in bryophytes d. in all vascular plants 27. Which phylum includes members that are considered by many researchers to be the living plants most closely

related to the first land plants, based on morphology and mitochondrial gene sequence data? a. Hepatophyta b. Bryophyta c. Pterophyta d. Anthocerophyta 28. This group is one of the two main angiosperm clades. This group has about 200 000 species, and most have

two cotyledons. What is the name of this plant group? a. eudicots b. monocots c. magnoliids d. orchids 29. Which phylum of vascular, seed-bearing plants has over 260 000 known living species, and is the dominant

group of land plants today? a. Cycadophyta b. Ginkgophyta c. Gnetophyta d. Anthophyta 30. Which were the dominant land plants during the Mesozoic era, from about 250 million years ago to 65 million

years ago? a. angiosperms b. lycophytes c. bryophytes d. gymnosperms Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_4ce 31. Which term refers to the process of transferring male gametophytes to female reproductive parts in seed

plants? a. fertilization b. pollination c. sporulation d. syngamy 32. This group is one of the two main angiosperm clades. This plant group has about 60 000 species that are

characterized by having a single cotyledon. What is the name of this plant group? a. eudicots b. orchids c. monocots d. water lilies 33. What are the most successful of all plants today? a. gymnosperms b. ferns c. angiosperms d. bryophytes 34. Which of the following describes the pine life cycle? a. Gametophytes are free living and photosynthetic, but are replaced by a dominant sporophyte

generation. b. Sporophytes originate within and are dependent upon gametophytes. c. Gametophytes originate within and are dependent upon sporophytes. d. Both gametophytes and sporophytes are totally independent from each other and are equally dominant. 35. Which term refers to a special capsule or chamber where a plant will make the first cells of the gametophyte

generation? a. sporangium b. rhizome c. vascular system d. shoot system 36. An embryo sporophyte is surrounded by nutritive tissue and then by a tough, protective outer coat that shelters

the embryo from drought, cold, and other adverse conditions. What is the name of the protective coat? a. seed b. strobilus c. ovule d. spore Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_4ce 37. What were the most direct ancestors of modern plants? a. cyanobacteria b. fungi c. green algae d. sponges 38. Ferns, whisk ferns, and horsetails belong to a phylum that has about 13 000 described living species. What is

the name of this phylum? a. Pterophyta b. Lycophyta c. Hepatophyta d. Anthocerophyta 39. What is the name of the lignified, tubelike structures that branch throughout the body of some plants,

conducting water and solutes? a. root systems b. rhizomes c. shoot systems d. vascular tissues 40. Which of the following are the likely pollinators of a red flower with very little odour? a. bats b. butterflies c. birds d. flies 41. Suppose you are a botanist and you discover a plant that has a dominant gametophyte, but no xylem or

phloem. Into which group should you classify this plant? a. angiosperms b. gymnosperms c. seedless vascular plants d. bryophytes 42. Which plants are often the dominant land plants in cool temperate zones, especially in areas with poor soils? a. gymnosperms b. ferns c. angiosperms d. bryophytes

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Chap 26_4ce 43. Suppose you are a botanist and you discover a plant that has a small free-living gametophyte that requires

external water for fertilization and a large free-living sporophyte. The free-living sporophyte eventually releases spores from sporangia on the margins of its leaves. Into which group should you classify this plant? a. gymnosperms b. angiosperms c. seedless vascular plants d. bryophytes 44. Which phylum includes club mosses and their close relatives? a. Lycophyta b. Pterophyta c. Anthocerophyta d. Bryophyta 45. What is the name of the specialized leaves on which club moss sporangia form, and which occur near stem

tips? a. sporophylls b. cladophylls c. antheridia d. archegonia 46. Which phylum of vascular, seed-bearing plants comprises about 80% of all living gymnosperms? a. Anthophyta b. Coniferophyta c. Cycadophyta d. Ginkgophyta 47. Which term refers to the slender, rootlike structures found in nonvascular plants? a. protonemata b. rhizomes c. rhizoids d. gametangia 48. What is the name for the phylum of seedless vascular plants that has about 1000 known living species,

including those in the genera Lycopodium and Selaginella? a. Bryophyta b. Lycophyta c. Pterophyta d. Anthocerophyta

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Chap 26_4ce 49. Consider a plant in which a multicellular generation is able to make both sperm and eggs. Which term

describes such a plant? a. bryophyte b. homosporous c. heterosporous d. lycophyte 50. What is the name of the phylum of nonvascular plants that produces hornlike sporophytes? a. Pterophyta b. Anthocerophyta c. Lycophyta d. Hepatophyta 51. Which of the following best explains why modern seedless vascular plants are confined largely to wet or humid

environments? a. They require soil. b. They require reflected sunlight. c. They require symbiotic bacteria in the water. d. They require external water for reproduction. 52. Which phylum of nonvascular plants has about 10 000 known living species, including those in the genus

Sphagnum? a. Pterophyta b. Hepatophyta c. Lycophyta d. Bryophyta 53. Which land plants are the only ones to make true flowers and fruits? a. angiosperms b. bryophytes c. gymnosperms d. seedless vascular plants 54. In the pine life cycle, when does fertilization often take place? a. a few days before pollination b. months to a year after pollination c. a few weeks after pollination d. at the same time as pollination

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Chap 26_4ce 55. Which feature is found in both nonvascular and vascular plants? a. xylem b. cuticle c. apical meristem d. lignin 56. Which of the following types of plants are NOT represented in the phylum Pterophyta? a. horsetails b. mosses c. whisk ferns d. ferns 57. Suppose you are a botanist and you discover a plant that has large blue flowers and a woody fruit. Into which

group should you classify this plant? a. seedless vascular plants b. bryophytes c. gymnosperms d. angiosperms 58. Which phylum of vascular, seed-bearing plants has only about 70 living species in three genera, including

Welwitschia and Ephedra? a. Anthophyta b. Ginkgophyta c. Gnetophyta d. Coniferophyta 59. Which sentence best describes the relationship between sporophyte and gametophyte in the moss life cycle? a. Gametophytes originate within and are dependent upon sporophytes. b. Gametophytes are photosynthetic and partially independent from the sporophytes. c. Both gametophytes and sporophytes are totally independent from each other and are equally dominant. d. Sporophytes originate within and are dependent upon gametophytes. 60. Suppose you are a botanist and you discover a plant that has xylem and phloem. Into which group should you

NOT classify this plant? a. ferns b. angiosperms c. gymnosperms d. bryophytes

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Chap 26_4ce 61. Which of the following are the likely pollinators of a yellow flower with a strong, sweet odour and with “nectar

guide” stripes that are best seen in ultraviolet light? a. birds b. flies c. bats d. bees 62. Which term refers to a horizontal stem modified to penetrate the substrate and anchor a plant? a. sporangium b. protonema c. shoot system d. rhizome 63. Which sentence best describes fertilization in the moss life cycle? a. Flagellated sperm swim in a film of water on the surface of the plant to reach an egg. b. Flagellated sperm swim through plant fluids to reach an egg. c. Flagellated sperm are blown by the wind to a location near an egg, then swim through plant fluids to

reach the egg. d. Pollen is blown by the wind to a female cone, where it forms a pollen tube that grows toward where the egg will form. 64. Which of the following plant traits represent an adaptation to terrestrial life? a. chloroplasts with chlorophyll b b. leaves c. stomata d. cell walls made of cellulose 65. Which phylum consists of vascular, seed-bearing plants and has about 185 known living species? a. Cycadophyta b. Gnetophyta c. Coniferophyta d. Anthophyta 66. Which term refers to the specialized male gametophyte of seed plants, such as gymnosperms? a. pollen grain b. strobilus c. sporopollenin d. ovule

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Chap 26_4ce 67. Which phrase refers to an advantage that angiosperms have in the form of a nutritive tissue produced during

fertilization? a. a unique triploid pollen sac b. a unique triploid endosperm c. a unique triploid ovary d. a unique triploid ovule Match each plant structure or stage of the plant life cycle with the term that best describes the cells in that structure or stage. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. haploid (n) b. diploid (2n) c. some haploid and some diploid cells d. triploid (3n) 68. gamete 69. pine seed 70. gametophyte 71. true leaf 72. angiosperm endosperm 73. protonema 74. spore 75. pollen grain 76. zygote 77. sporophyte 78. A seed is often described as “a baby plant in a box with its lunch.” Explain this statement using more proper

terms for baby plant, box, and lunch.

79. Describe the major differences between seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

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Chap 26_4ce 80. Describe the major differences between bryophytes and vascular plants.

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Chap 26_4ce Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. d 4. d 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. d 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. d 23. c 24. a 25. c 26. d

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Chap 26_4ce 27. a 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. b 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. a 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. c 41. d 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. a 46. b 47. c 48. b 49. b 50. b 51. d 52. d 53. a 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_4ce 55. b 56. b 57. d 58. c 59. d 60. d 61. d 62. d 63. a 64. c 65. a 66. a 67. b 68. a 69. c 70. a 71. b 72. d 73. a 74. a 75. a 76. b 77. b 78. A seed has a “baby plant” called an embryo, which is the developing sporophyte. It is surrounded by its “lunch,” that

is, food supplies in the form of nutritive tissue such as endosperm. The embryo and the nutritive tissue are in a “box,” which is hardened tissue called a seed coat that protects the embryo from drying out.

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Chap 26_4ce 79. Gymnosperms and angiosperms (seed plants) both produce seeds, which are specialized structures for protecting

the developing sporophyte embryo from drying out and other dangers; this is something that seedless vascular plants do not have. Seed plants also produce gametophytes that develop within protective tissues in the sporophyte, which is something that does not happen in seedless vascular plants; instead, seedless vascular plants release gametophytes as single-celled spores that then must develop on their own. Seed plants also differ from seedless vascular plants in making pollen grains, which are specialized male gametophytes that are protected from drying out and that do not need external water to reach an egg. All of these adaptations allow seed plants to generally live in drier conditions than seedless vascular plants can handle. Within the seed plants, angiosperms differ significantly from gymnosperms in many ways. Angiosperms have enhanced xylem and phloem that provide more efficient transport of water and nutrients. Angiosperms have enhanced nutrition for embryos, with double fertilization that produces a unique triploid endosperm to nourish the embryo. They have flowers that often attract animal pollinators, thus providing more efficient means for pollination. Also, angiosperms have ovaries, which are tissues that shelter the ovule from desiccation and attack. Ovaries typically develop into fruits that can help protect seeds as well as aid in seed dispersal. 80. The major difference between bryophytes and vascular plants is that vascular plants have xylem and phloem, which

are specialized lignified tubes for conducting water and nutrients; bryophytes do not have these. Vascular plants also have apical meristems, which are constantly growing tips that bryophytes do not have. The presence of vascular tissue and apical meristems allows vascular plants to have root and shoot systems that develop true roots, stems, and leaves—which, again, are things not found in bryophytes. All of this allows vascular plants to typically grow larger and live in more arid environments than bryophytes. Finally, bryophytes have a dominant gametophyte generation, whereas vascular plants have a dominant sporophyte generation.

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Chap 27_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What is the name of the specialized stinging cells that jellyfishes have as part of their epidermis, and which

they use to paralyze small prey? a. tentacles b. flame cells c. choanocytes d. cnidocytes 2. Turtles are members of which lineage? a. Sphenodontia b. Squamata c. Testudinata d. Archosauromorpha 3. Which class is composed mostly of terrestrial earthworms? a. Monogenoidea b. Cestoda c. Oligochaeta d. Polychaeta 4. Consider the ringlike patterns on an earthworm and “six-pack abs” in humans. In an animal’s body plan, what

are they both evidence of? a. radial symmetry b. cleavage c. segmentation d. mesenteries 5. Which term refers to a small muscular bulb in the sea star’s foot that contracts and forces fluid into the tube

foot? a. ossicle b. radial canal c. ring canal d. ampulla

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Chap 27_4ce 6. Which class includes the fleshy-finned fishes, which have fins supported by muscles and an internal bony

skeleton? a. Sarcopterygii b. Petromyzontidae c. Myxinoidea d. Actinopterygii Figure 27-1

7. In Figure 27-1, what is the item labelled number 2? a. the yolk sac b. the amnion c. the albumin d. the allantois 8. Which phylum has a unique water vascular system that usually includes tube feet that can be used for

movement? a. Echinodermata b. Hemichordata c. Chordata d. Cnidaria 9. Based on our modern understanding of physiology, DNA sequences, and the fossil record, which of these

animals are most closely related to crocodiles? a. birds b. fleshy-finned fishes c. lizards d. snakes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_4ce 10. What are the tympanum and the stapes in tetrapods used for? a. smelling b. heat sensing c. tasting d. hearing 11. What was the deciding factor that helped researchers determine whether Riftia is an animal or a plant? a. It lives on a seafloor. b. It has a process analogous to photosynthesis. c. It lacks cell walls and chloroplasts. d. It is involved in symbiotic relationships. 12. Which lineage of Cnidarians exist primarily as cube-shaped medusae, are active swimmers, and produce one

of the deadliest toxins made by animals? a. Hydrozoa b. Trematoda c. Cubozoa d. Anthozoa 13. Which class includes slugs and snails? a. Cephalopoda b. Gastropoda c. Scaphopoda d. Bivalvia 14. Which subphylum includes members that are now all extinct, but that were once extremely numerous in

shallow Paleozoic seas? a. Crustacea b. Trilobita c. Hexapoda d. Myriapoda 15. Which lineage of echinoderms is made up of about 600 living species of sea lilies and feather stars? a. Asteroidea b. Crinoidea c. Holothuroidea d. Ophiuroidea

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Chap 27_4ce 16. Which lineage includes living members that are jawless vertebrates called hagfishes? a. Myxinoidea b. Urochordata c. Cephalochordata d. Petromyzontidae 17. What is the name of the main embryonic cell layer from which the muscles of the body wall are derived in

most metazoans? a. mesoderm b. endoderm c. ectoderm d. mesoglea 18. Which Ecdysozoa phylum includes many important decomposers, but also many damaging plant and animal

parasites? a. Arthropoda b. Annelida c. Nematoda d. Nemertea 19. Which mammalian lineage includes the opossum and the kangaroo among its living members? a. Marsupialia b. Haplorhini c. Rodentia d. Strepsirrhini 20. Which class includes octopuses, squids, and nautiluses? a. Polyplacophora b. Cephalopoda c. Bivalvia d. Gastropoda 21. Which mammalian lineage has two species of spiny anteaters (echidnas) and the duck-billed platypus as the

only known living members? a. Marsupialia b. Monotremata c. Strepsirrhini d. Rodentia

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Chap 27_4ce 22. For most animal embryos, what is the name of the initial opening between the developing gut and the outside

environment? a. mesoglea b. blastopore c. schizocoelom d. archenteron 23. Which of the following types of cell cleavage is found most often for deuterostomes? a. radial, indeterminate cleavage b. spiral, determinate cleavage c. radial, determinate cleavage d. spiral, indeterminate cleavage 24. Which lineage of echinoderms is made up of sea stars, each with a central disk surrounded by 5 to 20

“arms”? a. Ophiuroidea b. Asteroidea c. Crinoidea d. Echinoidea 25. Mammals are thought to be living descendants of which lineage? a. lepidosaurs b. anapsids c. archosaurs d. synapsids 26. Which term refers to a group that comprises the majority of mammal species living today—which are also

known as placental mammals—and includes such diverse species as rodents, bats, whales, and primates? a. metatherians b. anthropoids c. protherians d. eutherians 27. What do ribbon worms use to strike prey? a. clitellum b. septum c. parapodium d. proboscis

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Chap 27_4ce 28. Which lineage of echinoderms is made up of about 2000 species of brittle stars and basket stars, each with

elongated, slender, somewhat snakelike arms surrounding a well-defined central disk? a. Ophiuroidea b. Echinoidea c. Holothuroidea d. Crinoidea 29. Which of the following secrete spicules? a. sperm b. porocytes c. choanocytes d. amoeboid cells 30. Which phylum includes members with radial symmetry that use their two tentacles to capture prey? a. Cnidaria b. Ctenophora c. Rotifera d. Nematoda 31. What is the name of the mesoderm-derived, calcium-stiffened structures that comprise the internal skeleton of

echinoderms? a. ampullae b. ossicles c. madreporites d. radial canals 32. Which Lophotrochozoa phylum contains the most species, with about 100 000 described living species? a. Nemertea b. Mollusca c. Annelida d. Rotifera 33. Based on modern molecular phylogeny, which of the following is a derived characteristic within

Lophotrochozoa? a. multicellularity b. tissues c. U-shaped fold d. schizocoelom

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Chap 27_4ce 34. Which group includes the lineages Anura, Urodela, and Gymnophiona? a. Squamata b. Testudinata c. Archosauromorpha d. Amphibia 35. What is the name of the paired excretory organs found in most body segments of segmented worms? a. parapodia b. metanephridia c. setae d. clitella 36. Which animals are characterized by a four-chambered heart and hollow, light, limb bones? a. mammals b. lizards c. birds d. snakes 37. Which lineage includes members called lancelets? a. Cephalochordata b. Placodermi c. Myxinoidea d. Urochordata

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Chap 27_4ce

Figure 27-1

38. In Figure 27-1, what is the item labelled number 1? a. the albumin b. the chorion c. the allantois d. the amnion 39. Which lineage of echinoderms is made up of about 950 species of sea urchins and sand dollars, which have

their ossicles fused into solid tests that restrict flexibility but provide excellent protection? a. Holothuroidea b. Crinoidea c. Asteroidea d. Echinoidea 40. Which Ecdysozoa phylum contains the 65 species of velvet worms? a. Arthropoda b. Nematoda c. Onychophora d. Nemertea 41. Which lineage includes American alligators? a. Sphenodontia b. Squamata c. Amphibia d. Archosauria

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Chap 27_4ce 42. Birds are living representatives of which lineage? a. lepidosaurs b. anapsids c. archosaurs d. synapsids 43. For most metazoans, what is the name of the innermost tissue layer during development? a. mesoderm b. endoderm c. ectoderm 44. Which Ecdysozoa phylum contains three-quarters of the known animal species? a. Nemertea b. Annelida c. Arthropoda d. Nematoda 45. Turtles are thought to be living representatives of which lineage? a. anapsids b. archosaurs c. synapsids d. lepidosaurs 46. Which of the following types of cell cleavage is found most often for protostomes? a. spiral, indeterminate cleavage b. radial, indeterminate cleavage c. radial, determinate cleavage d. spiral, determinate cleavage 47. Suppose that you found an unsegmented worm in marine environment where you went diving. It may be the

longest worm you have ever seen. Which Lophotrochozoa phylum would it most likely belong to? a. Rotifera b. Nemertea c. Platyhelminthes d. Mollusca

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Chap 27_4ce 48. Which lineage of cnidarians includes adults that are predominately medusae and the true jellyfishes? a. Anthozoa b. Hydrozoa c. Scyphozoa d. Cubozoa 49. Which of the following describes spicules? a. They are complicated pore openings and passageways found in sponges. b. They are fibrous skeletal proteins found in sponges. c. They are needlelike skeletal structures made up of silica or calcium carbonate found in sponges. d. They are specialized digestive cells found in sponges. 50. Which lineage includes two species of coelacanths and six species of lungfish among its living members? a. Actinopterygii b. Myxinoidea c. Petromyzontidae d. Sarcopterygii 51. Which lineage of echinoderms is made up of sea cucumbers, which are elongated along their oral–aboral

axis? a. Crinoidea b. Holothuroidea c. Echinoidea d. Asteroidea 52. Members of which phylum are called acorn worms? a. Hemichordata b. Echinodermata c. Arthropoda d. Cnidaria 53. Which phylum has members that exhibit radial symmetry, with their body parts arranged regularly around a

central axis? a. Porifera b. Cnidaria c. Chordata d. Platyhelminthes

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Chap 27_4ce 54. Which lineage has the largest number of Hox genes when all Hox gene clusters are taken into account? a. the vertebrates b. the cephalochordates c. the arthropods d. the cnidarians 55. Which subphylum is composed mostly of insects? a. Trilobita b. Hexapoda c. Crustacea d. Chelicerata 56. What forms the skeleton of invertebrate chordates? a. the pharynx b. the oral hood c. the notochord d. the neural crest 57. Which term refers to an animal that is unable to undergo locomotion under its own power? a. sedentary b. prehensile c. motile d. sessile 58. Which subphylum includes centipedes and millipedes? a. Trilobita b. Chelicerata c. Myriapoda d. Hexapoda 59. Which phylum contains members that do NOT exhibit true segmentation? a. Chordata b. Nemertea c. Arthropoda d. Annelida 60. For most metazoans, what is the name of the outermost tissue layer during development? a. ectoderm b. endoderm c. mesoderm Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_4ce 61. Which animal taxon is named for the cuticle or external skeleton that its members secrete and periodically

moult? a. Reptilia b. Deuterostomia c. Protostomia d. Ecdysozoa 62. What is the name of a lineage of flatworms that are endoparasites of vertebrates? a. Cestoda b. Turbellaria c. Trematoda d. Hirudinea 63. Crocodiles are living representatives of which lineage? a. archosaurs b. lepidosaurs c. synapsids d. anapsids 64. Suppose that you found an animal that has a segmented body encased in a rigid exoskeleton made of chitin.

Which Ecdysozoa phylum does this animal most likely belong to? a. Annelida b. Nemertea c. Nematoda d. Arthropoda

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Chap 27_4ce

Figure 27-1

65. In Figure 27-1, what is the item labelled number 4? a. the amnion b. the albumin c. the allantois d. the chorion 66. Suppose that your friend ate pork and became sick afterward. Which parasite is it most likely that your

friend ingested along with the pork meat? a. flatworm b. leech c. earthworm d. tapeworm 67. What part of the chordate digestive system is positioned just posterior to the mouth? a. the pharynx b. the notochord c. the cranium d. the oral hood

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Chap 27_4ce

Figure 27-1

68. In Figure 27-1, what is the item labelled number 5? a. the allantois b. the chorion c. the yolk sac d. the amnion 69. Which of the following distinguish gnathostomes from other chordate lineages? a. operculums b. jaws c. claspers d. bony scales 70. Which lineage do salamanders belong to? a. Gymnophiona b. Aves c. Urodela d. Anura 71. Which Ecdysozoa phylum includes insects, spiders, crustaceans, millipedes, and centipedes? a. Onychophora b. Nematoda c. Arthropoda d. Nemertea

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Chap 27_4ce 72. Which phylum includes members that have, at some point during their development, a hollow dorsal nerve

cord? a. Hemichordata b. Arthropoda c. Cnidaria d. Chordata 73. Which of the following describes the nutritional strategy of animals? a. autotrophy, as either absorbing other life forms or by living in a parasitic association with them b. heterotrophy, as either absorbing other life forms or by living in a symbiotic association with them c. autotrophy, as either eating other life forms or by living in a symbiotic association with them d. heterotrophy, as either eating other life forms or by living in a parasitic association with them 74. What is the name of the main embryonic cell layer from which the nervous system is derived in most

metazoans? a. endoderm b. mesoglea c. mesoderm d. ectoderm 75. Which flatworms are free living and are found mostly in marine environments? a. Turbellaria b. Trematoda c. Polychaeta d. Cestoda 76. In some amniotes, which of the following is a waste product of nitrogen metabolism that is low enough in

toxicity that it can be excreted as a semisolid paste, thus reducing water loss? a. uric acid b. nitric oxide c. ammonium d. squalene 77. Which of the following surrounds and protects the brain in all vertebrates? a. the oral hood b. the notochord c. the cranium d. the pharynx

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Chap 27_4ce 78. Which term refers to animals that have a fluid-filled cavity that separates the gut from the muscles of the body

wall and which is completely lined by the peritoneum? a. coelomate b. pseudocoelomate c. indeterminate d. mesenteries 79. Which mammalian lineage includes organisms that lay eggs? a. Strepsirrhini b. Marsupialia c. Monotremata d. Rodentia 80. For most metazoans, what is the name of the middle tissue layer during development? a. mesoglea b. mesoderm c. ectoderm 81. Which of these structures is a covering for the gill chamber in ray-finned fishes? a. spiral valve b. lateral line system c. operculum d. swim bladder 82. Members of the order Hemiptera (true bugs) go through postembryonic development called incomplete

metamorphosis. What are the stages of this process? a. several instars of often wormlike larvae, followed by a stage where they are a sessile pupa, and then ending in an adult stage that is very different from the larval stages b. a series of nymph instars that lack functional wings, ending with an adult instar with functional wings c. a single, wingless nymph instar followed by several winged adult instars d. a series of young instars that become more and more like an adult, ending with a wingless adult instar 83. Which lineage is now extinct but appears in the fossil record from the Ordovician period through to the

Devonian period? a. conodonts b. acanthodians c. ostracoderms d. placoderms

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Chap 27_4ce 84. Which subphylum includes the sea squirts? a. Cephalochordata b. Urochordata c. Petromyzontidae d. Placodermi 85. Which lineage includes living members associated with adaptations such as squalene, spiral valve,

electroreceptors, lateral line system, and claspers? a. Actinopterygii b. Petromyzontidae c. Chondrichthyes d. Sarcopterygii 86. Which class includes living members that are the ray-finned fishes, with fins supported by thin and flexible

bony rays? a. Actinopterygii b. Sarcopterygii c. Petromyzontidae d. Chondrichthyes 87. According to the fossil record, which of these jawed fishes diversified in the Devonian and Carboniferous

periods, but left no direct descendants? a. placoderms b. ostracoderms c. osteolepiforms d. conodonts 88. Which of the following lineages of Cnidarians have both polyp and medusa stages in their life cycles—with

the polyp stage typically forming a colony—and includes species of Obelia? a. Anthozoa b. Trematoda c. Hydrozoa d. Cubozoa 89. What helps maintain a constant flow of water through sponges? a. the beating flagella of porocytes b. the beating flagella of amoeboid cells c. the beating flagella of choanocytes d. the beating flagella of pinacoderm

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Chap 27_4ce 90. Suppose that your friend travelled to Southeast Asia and ate fish meat there, becoming sick afterward. Which

parasite is it most likely that your friend ingested along with the fish? a. flatworm b. leech c. tapeworm d. fluke 91. Which kind of bird was dominant during the Mesozoic era? a. enantiornithines b. passerines c. neornithes d. ornithurines 92. Supposed that you found a few animals that all have their bodies divided into three regions, called the visceral

mass, head–foot, and mantle. Which phylum do they all most likely belong to? a. Rotifera b. Mollusca c. Nemertea d. Platyhelminthes 93. Which lineage includes living members that are sharks, skates, and rays? a. Sarcopterygii b. Actinopterygii c. Petromyzontidae d. Chondrichthyes 94. Suppose that you have found an animal enclosed within two shells hinged together with elastic ligament. What

class does this animal most likely belong to? a. Bivalvia b. Monoplacophora c. Polyplacophora d. Gastropoda 95. Which of the following describes the postembryonic development, called complete metamorphosis, in

members of the order Diptera (flies)? a. a single, wingless nymph instar followed by several winged adult instars b. a series of young instars that become more and more like an adult, ending with a wingless adult instar c. a series of nymph instars that lack functional wings, ending with an adult instar with functional wings d. several instars of often wormlike larvae, followed by a stage where they are a sessile pupa, and then ending in an adult stage that is very different from the larval instars Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_4ce 96. Lizards and snakes are living representatives of which lineage? a. lepidosaurs b. anapsids c. archosaurs d. synapsids 97. Which subphylum includes spiders, ticks, mites, scorpions, and horseshoe crabs? a. Chelicerata b. Myriapoda c. Hexapoda d. Crustacea 98. What is a Malpighian tubule? a. a filamentous projection of the mantle b. an abdominal appendage in some arthropods that secretes silk c. a muscular sac used for extending tube feet in echinoderms d. a specialized tube in some arthropods that is used for waste processing 99. Which subphylum includes members that have a three-part body plan that comprises a head, a thorax, and an

abdomen? a. Hexapoda b. Myriapoda c. Crustacea d. Trilobita 100. Which Ecdysozoan phylum contains animals called roundworms that are so plentiful in soil and other places

that they may be the most abundant animals on Earth? a. Nematoda b. Nemertea c. Annelida d. Arthropoda 101. Which phylum is a member of the Radiata? a. Porifera b. Nemertea c. Rotifera d. Ctenophora

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Chap 27_4ce 102. Which lineage includes lizards and snakes? a. Sphenodontia b. Squamata c. Testudinata d. Archosauromorpha 103. Which phylum includes the lineages Polyplacophora, Gastropoda, Bivalvia, and Cephalopoda? a. Platyhelminthes b. Rotifera c. Annelida d. Mollusca 104. Which term refers to animals that do NOT have a body cavity that separates the gut from the muscles of the

body wall? a. indeterminate b. acoelomate c. pseudocoelomate d. mesenteries 105. Which of the following represents an extinct lineage of jawed fishes that are also called spiny sharks? a. placoderms b. ostracoderms c. acanthodians d. conodonts 106. Which class includes members that have a pair of shells which are hinged together? a. Bivalvia b. Scaphopoda c. Cephalopoda d. Polyplacophora 107. Which embryonic cell layer develops into the lining of the gut in most metazoans? a. mesoglea b. ectoderm c. endoderm

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Chap 27_4ce 108. Which of the following most closely resemble the earliest ancestor of all animals? a. colonial, flagellated protists b. unicellular protozoa c. colonial algae d. gram-negative bacteria 109. Which structure is derived from an ancestral air-breathing lung in ray-finned fishes, and is used to increase

buoyancy? a. spiral valve b. operculum c. atrium d. swim bladder 110. Which phylum includes members that have bilaterally symmetrical larvae but exhibit secondary radial

symmetry as adults, usually organized around five rays, or “arms”? a. Chordata b. Arthropoda c. Echinodermata d. Cnidaria 111. Which lineage do legless caecilians belong to? a. Gymnophiona b. Squamata c. Anura d. Aves 112. What is the structure through which water enters the water vascular system of a sea star? a. ampulla b. radial canal c. madreporite d. ring canal 113. Which class is composed mostly of freshwater parasites called leeches? a. Hirudinea b. Oligochaeta c. Cestoda d. Polychaeta

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Chap 27_4ce 114. Which lineage includes living members that are jawless vertebrates called lampreys, which are mostly

parasitic as adults? a. Urochordata b. Cephalochordata c. Petromyzontidae d. Placodermi 115. Based on molecular analysis, which of the following appears to be least meaningful for inferring animal

phylogenic relationships? a. morphological patterns b. radial symmetry in the Radiata c. mitochondrial DNA sequences d. body cavity differences 116. What is the reason that cephalopods have a closed circulatory system? a. They live in groups. b. They are dormant and do not need a lot of oxygen. c. They are highly active and need a lot of oxygen. d. They are solitary. 117. Suppose that you found an animal that has a wheel-like, ciliated, food-gathering organ around its head called

a corona. Which animal is it most likely? a. Mollusca b. Rotifera c. Nemertea d. Platyhelminthes 118. Which flatworms are parasites of vertebrates and have a head modified into a scolex with hooks and suckers

for attaching to places such as the intestinal wall of hosts? a. Trematoda b. Cestoda c. Turbellaria d. Polychaeta 119. Suppose that you are dissecting an animal that has a highly segmented body with many repeating units that are

usually separated by transverse partitions called septa. Which animal are you most likely dissecting? a. an annelid b. a mollusc c. a platyhelminth d. a rotifer Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_4ce 120. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of turtles? a. a carapace b. jaws c. teeth d. a plastron 121. Which of the following is a typical source of nutrients and water for developing amniote embryos? a. collagen b. bone c. albumin d. squalene 122. Which lineage includes the tuatara as one of its only two living members? a. Squamata b. Testudinata c. Sphenodontia d. Amphibia 123. Which subphylum includes shrimp, lobsters, and crabs? a. Trilobita b. Crustacea c. Hexapoda d. Chelicerata 124. Which phylum is associated with all of these terms: asymmetry, choanocytes, filter feeding, osculum, and

spicules? a. Porifera b. Nematoda c. Ctenophora d. Nemertea 125. Suppose that you found an animal that has radial symmetry and nematocysts, and may have polyp or medusa

forms (or both) as an adult. What is it most likely? a. a rotifer b. a cnidarian c. a poriferan d. a nematode

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Chap 27_4ce 126. For most protostomes, what is the developmental origin of the body cavity between the gut and muscles of

the body wall? a. schizocoelom b. enterocoelom c. mesoglea d. blastopore 127. Based on modern molecular phylogeny, which animal taxon has members with radial symmetry? a. Ecdysozoa b. Deuterostomia c. Radiata d. Protostomia 128. Which lineage of Cnidarians exist only as polyps as adults, build calcium carbonate exoskeletons, and have a

mutualistic relationship with photosynthetic protists? a. Scyphozoa b. Anthozoa c. Cubozoa d. Hydrozoa 129. Which of the following describes the postembryonic development that members of the order Thysanura

(silverfish) have instead of metamorphosis? a. a single, wingless nymph instar followed by several winged adult instars b. a series of young instars that become more and more like an adult, ending with a wingless adult instar c. a series of nymph instars that lack functional wings, ending with an adult instar with functional wings d. several instars of often wormlike larvae, followed by a stage where they are a sessile pupa, and then ending in an adult stage that is very different from the larval stages 130. Which term refers to groups of cells that share a common structure and function? a. organ systems b. organs c. tissues d. colonies

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Chap 27_4ce

Figure 27-1

131. In Figure 27-1, what is the item labelled number 3? a. the albumin b. the yolk sac c. the amnion d. the chorion 132. Which lineage do frogs and toads belong to? a. Anura b. Gymnophiona c. Aves d. Squamata 133. Along with lipids, what is the skin of amniotes filled with to help prevent water loss? a. bone b. keratin c. collagen d. albumin 134. Which of the following is the developing gut for most animal embryos? a. mesoglea b. blastopore c. schizocoelom d. archenteron

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Chap 27_4ce 135. Which of the following is a unique, derived trait that is present in all birds? a. ability to fly b. feathers c. migration d. four-chambered heart 136. Which class is made up of members commonly called chitons? a. Cephalopoda b. Scaphopoda c. Polyplacophora d. Gastropoda 137. Which lineage shared several derived traits—such as the shapes and positions of bones in their appendages

—with early tetrapods, and apparently gave rise to the tetrapods? a. osteolepiforms b. acanthodians c. ostracoderms d. conodonts 138. Which jawless fishes are considered to be the earliest vertebrates with bonelike structures? a. osteolepiforms b. ostracoderms c. conodonts d. acanthodians 139. Suppose that you found an animal that is dorsoventrally flattened and lacking circulatory system? a. Mollusca b. Annelida c. Rotifera d. Platyhelminthes 140. What term refers to specialized cells that serve as a simple excretory system in flatworms? a. choanocytes b. cnidocytes c. tentacles d. flame cells

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Chap 27_4ce 141. Suppose that you swam in a lake and you encountered very small animals (less than 3 mm) that had cilia on

one side of the body and scales on another. Which animal is it most likely that encountered? a. ribbon worm b. snail c. hairy back d. leech Match each group of organisms with its lineage. Each lineage will be used only once. a. Petromyzontidae b. Amphibia c. Crinoidea d. Metatheria e. Chondrichthyes f. Actinopterygii g. Urochordata h. Aves i. Myxinoidea j. Holothuroidea k. Cephalochordata l. Eutheria m. Ophiuroidea n. Testudinata o. Squamata p. Asteroidea q. Prototheria r. Echinoidea s. Hemichordata 142. hagfishes 143. duck-billed platypuses 144. sea lilies and feather stars 145. kangaroos 146. humans 147. sea stars 148. turtles 149. brittle stars and basket stars 150. tunicates Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_4ce 151. birds 152. gars, bowfins, sturgeons, and paddlefish 153. sharks, skates, and rays 154. acorn worms 155. lancelets 156. sea cucumbers 157. frogs and salamanders 158. sea urchins and sand dollars 159. lizards and snakes 160. lampreys

Match each phylum with its corresponding organism. Each phylum is used only once. a. Annelida b. Arthropoda c. Cnidaria d. Ctenophora e. Mollusca f. Nematoda g. Nemertea h. Onychophora i. Platyhelminthes j. Porifera 161. sponges 162. jellyfishes, corals, and sea anemones 163. comb jellies 164. ribbon worms 165. bristle worms, earthworms, and leeches 166. flatworms 167. chitons, snails, slugs, and scallops 168. spiders, insects, shrimp, and crabs 169. roundworms 170. velvet worms

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Chap 27_4ce 171. Contrast the typical embryonic development of protostomes and deuterostomes.

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Chap 27_4ce Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. c 4. c 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. d 11. c 12. c 13. b 14. b 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. d

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Chap 27_4ce 27. d 28. a 29. d 30. a 31. b 32. b 33. c 34. d 35. b 36. c 37. a 38. d 39. d 40. c 41. d 42. c 43. b 44. c 45. a 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. b 52. a 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_4ce 55. b 56. c 57. d 58. c 59. b 60. a 61. d 62. c 63. a 64. d 65. d 66. d 67. a 68. c 69. b 70. c 71. c 72. d 73. d 74. d 75. a 76. a 77. c 78. a 79. c 80. b 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_4ce 83. c 84. b 85. c 86. a 87. a 88. c 89. c 90. d 91. a 92. b 93. d 94. a 95. d 96. a 97. a 98. d 99. a 100. a 101. d 102. b 103. d 104. b 105. c 106. a 107. c 108. a 109. d 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_4ce 111. a 112. c 113. a 114. c 115. d 116. c 117. b 118. b 119. a 120. c 121. c 122. c 123. b 124. a 125. b 126. a 127. c 128. b 129. b 130. c 131. a 132. a 133. b 134. d 135. b 136. c 137. a

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Chap 27_4ce 138. c 139. d 140. d 141. c 142. i 143. q 144. c 145. d 146. l 147. p 148. n 149. m 150. g 151. h 152. f 153. e 154. s 155. k 156. j 157. b 158. r 159. o 160. a 161. j 162. c 163. d 164. g 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_4ce 166. i 167. e 168. b 169. f 170. h 171. Protostome embryos typically have determinate, spiral cleavage as cells divide, while deuterostome embryos have

indeterminate, radial cleavage. Also, protostome mesoderm differentiates near the blastopore and forms a coelom (schizocoelom) within the mesoderm. Deuterostome mesoderm instead forms as outpocketings of the archenteron, forming the coelom (enterocoelom) from the space in the outpocketings. Finally, in protostomes the blastopore becomes the mouth and a second, later opening becomes the anus, while in deuterostomes the blastopore becomes the anus and the mouth instead forms from a later opening.

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Chap 28_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. In Canada, federal and provincial committees are charged with assessing the conservation status of species. 2. Special concern species may not become threatened or endangered, because they are given special concern. 3. House cats are not among the worst introductions people have made. 4. In Africa, the leopard was never protected under CITES. 5. Climate change cannot cause extinction. 6. Neonicotinoids are harmful to many species of vertebrate life. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7. What caused earthworm-eating planarian to live in the British Isles? a. It was introduced on some animals. b. It migrated on a ship. c. It always lived there. d. It was introduced in soil of plant pots. 8. What did the fossil record indicate before the Anthropocene? a. at least five mass extinctions on Earth b. a large increase in the size of the human population c. the appearance of at least 322 new species of terrestrial vertebrates d. the appearance of at least 505 of new ecosystems 9. Which country had the highest decline in the Human Development Index from 1970 to 2005? a. Brazil b. China c. Indonesia d. India 10. Suppose that you want to tell your friend which extinction was the most severe. Which one would you most

likely say? a. the Permian b. the Devonian c. the Triassic d. the Cretaceous

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Chap 28_4ce 11. What determines gender in jacky dragons? a. sunlight b. temperature c. genotype d. humidity 12. Which term refers to a species facing imminent extirpation? a. endangered b. extinct c. data deficient d. special concern 13. Which term refers to a species that no longer exists? a. endangered b. extinct c. extirpated d. special concern 14. Which country had an unchanged Human Development Index from 1970 to 2005? a. the United States b. Canada c. Portugal d. Norway 15. What were the reasons that the passenger pigeon was vulnerable before it became extinct? a. fires, drought, and heat b. lack of food, lack of nesting sites, and lack of migration c. human impact, small clutch size, and dramatic oscillations in population sizes d. flood, hurricanes, and cold temperatures 16. When was 2,4-D first identified? a. in 1940 b. in 1942 c. in 1944 d. in 1946

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Chap 28_4ce 17. At what levels is it best to protect biodiversity? a. species, populations, and habitats b. habitats, climate, and industrial expansions c. species, ecosystems, and harvesting d. habitats, harvesting, and climate 18. Which country had the highest Human Development Index from 1970 to 1975? a. Brazil b. Indonesia c. India d. China 19. What was the main reason for the extinction of the little brown myotis? a. a disease b. a fire c. a flood d. a cold 20. What was the reason that endemic species of sea birds disappeared from Easter Island? a. floods b. carnivores c. arrival of humans d. forest fires 21. Suppose that you volunteer in an organization that researches the success of harvesting. Which data would you

most likely be following? a. the human population, the reproduction, and the harvest rate b. climate change, the population of organisms, and the harvest rate c. climate change, the reproductive rate, and the harvest rate d. the rates of reproduction, the population of organisms, and the rates of harvest 22. According to the text, who was Martha? a. the first passenger pigeon b. the last passenger pigeon c. the researcher who discovered passenger pigeons d. the person who hunted passenger pigeons

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Chap 28_4ce 23. Which two countries had the lowest Human Development Index from 1970 to 1975? a. Canada and the United States b. the United States and Norway c. Canada and Norway d. the United States and Portugal 24. What can we do to change our approach to conservation? a. increase the effects of global warming b. change our lifestyle, including the food we eat and our use of energy c. hunt more species that are predators, to protect their prey d. kill more invasive plant species 25. Which term refers to a species of wildlife that no longer exists in one location but occurs elsewhere? a. endangered b. extinct c. extirpated d. not at risk 26. What most likely caused the Cretaceous mass extinction? a. a volcano b. a flood c. an earthquake d. an asteroid 27. Suppose that you want to study what makes invasive plants more competitive than native species. Which of

the following would you most likely measure? a. photosynthetic rates and light-use efficiency b. the presence of herbivores c. soil composition d. their pollinators 28. Why was a discovery of the species Ideonella sakaiensis 201-F6, described in 2016, important? a. It produces enzymes that can produce PET, and convert it to environmentally harmful monomers. b. It produces enzymes that can produce PET, and convert it to environmentally benign monomers. c. It produces enzymes that can hydrolyze PET, and convert it to environmentally harmful monomers. d. It produces enzymes that can hydrolyze PET, and convert it to environmentally benign monomers.

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Chap 28_4ce 29. When does the spread of diseases, such as bird flu, occur easily? a. when animals are raised without enough food b. when animals are raised without enough water c. when animals are raised in hot temperatures d. when animals are raised at very high densities 30. Which two countries had the lowest Human Development Index from 2000 to 2005? a. Canada and the United States b. India and China c. the United States and Portugal d. Canada and Portugal 31. What will be the predicted population of Afghanistan by 2050? a. two times as many people as Sri Lanka b. three times as many people as Sri Lanka c. four times as many people as Sri Lanka d. five times as many people as Sri Lanka 32. Which factor plays a part in accounting for the over 20 000 species of bees in the world? a. human activities b. bee–plant relationships c. favourable climate d. their exponential growth 33. Which term refers to a species likely to become threatened because of a combination of threats? a. endangered b. extinct c. extirpated d. special concern 34. What was the main reason for the extinction of the black rhino? a. fire b. lack of food c. poachers d. overpopulation

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Chap 28_4ce 35. Which of the following are two examples of things that have changed dramatically in a relatively short time? a. evolution of humans, and their communication b. eradication of chicken pox, and HIV c. abolition of slavery, and the emancipation of women d. the acceptance of tobacco and marihuana use 36. Suppose that you wanted to preserve populations of foxes. What would most likely be your preferred way? a. kill caribou b. kill eagles c. kill pigs d. kill wolves 37. How much agricultural land does the European Economic Community set aside as natural habitat? a. 2% b. 5% c. 10% d. 13% 38. What was the main reason for the extinction of American ginseng? a. fire b. harvesting c. flood d. herbivores 39. What was the main reason for the extinction of the Mauritian Calvaria tree? a. climate change b. lack of germination c. lack of blooms d. the earlier extinction of dodos 40. How are drylands posing a potential problem in Canada?

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Chap 28_4ce 41. List the United Nations Millennium Development Goals in 2000 to be achieved by 2015. How could these

goals be achieved?

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Chap 28_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False - may become 3. False - are 4. False - was protected 5. False - can 6. True 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. d 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. d

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Chap 28_4ce 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. d 31. c 32. b 33. c 34. c 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. d 40. They cover large expanses, and some 10% to 20% of the drylands are subject to some form of severe land

degradation, directly affecting the lives of at least 250 million people. Climate change, combined with increasing pressure on water resources for these people, their crops, and their animal, compounds the problem that confront them. Competition for limited resources, such as water, can generate local and international strife. 41. To end poverty and hunger; universal education; gender equality; child health; maternal health; combat

HIV/AIDS; environmental sustainability, and global partnerships. These goals can be achieved only if reproduction is controlled.

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Chap 29_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Logistic population growth describes growth without limitation. 2. Uniform dispersion usually results from individuals of a species attracting each other. 3. A cohort is a group of individuals of the same gender. 4. Egg yolk and seed endosperm are examples of passive parental care. 5. Clumped populations may reflect the distribution of essential resources. 6. An S-shaped curve is characteristic of logistic population growth. 7. Parasitism is a density-independent factor of population control. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 8. In the logistic model of population growth, what is expected to happen to r when N > K? a. r will approach rmax. b. r will be greater than 0. c. r will approach 1. d. r will be less than 0. 9. Which of the following is descriptive of a population experiencing exponential population growth? a. The graph of growth produces an S-shaped curve. b. ÄN/Ät is increasing. c. The population decreases at an increasing rate. d. The resources are limited. 10. Which trait is characteristic of a K-selected species? a. It is not adapted to rapidly changing environments. b. It usually has a single reproductive event. c. It provides substantial parental care to offspring. d. It has a small size of offspring. 11. Suppose a human population has an age structure diagram that is narrower at the base than at the top. What

would that population have? a. an r value > 0 b. (K – N)/K < 1 c. an r value < 0 d. an r value = 0

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Chap 29_4ce 12. Suppose that you are studying nests in colonies of colonial birds. What distribution type would you most likely

find? a. uniform b. random c. clumped d. dense 13. Which of the following regions will experience a huge increase in their population growth rates over the next 20

or 25 years? a. Russia b. Western Europe c. Australia d. Africa 14. Suppose that a population of 100 animals in logarithmic growth has rmax = 0.4 and K = 102. Also suppose

that r = rmax(K – N)/K. What is the value of r? a. 0.792 b. 0.580 c. 0.078 d. 0.0078 15. Number of offspring and the amount of care provided to each offspring by their parents evolved along with

which of the following characteristics? a. the number of reproductive episodes b. the chance of survival to adulthood c. type of parental care d. fecundity 16. In which ways has the human population avoided the effects of density-dependent regulating factors? a. expansion to new terrains; isolation as a species; and domestication of animals and plants b. expansion to new terrains; domestication of animals and plants; and advancement in public health c. expansion to new terrains; feeding on other species; and advancement in public health d. expansion to new terrains; isolation as a species; and advancement in public health 17. Which term refers to distributions that tend to occur in populations in which individuals repel each other

because resources are in short supply? a. clumped b. random c. uniform d. unpredictable Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 29_4ce 18. What would a human population living without medical care in Third World conditions probably have? a. an r value = 0 b. a pyramid-shaped age structure diagram c. a rectangle-shaped age structure diagram d. an r value < 0 19. Which factor is a density-dependent regulator of population size? a. drought b. flood c. hurricane d. disease

Figure 29-1

20. Which survivorship curve in in Figure 29-1 best fits humans who live in environments with good medical care? a. type I, shown in graph A b. type I, shown in graph C c. type III, shown in graph B d. type III, shown in graph A 21. Which of following factors is an intrinsic control to population growth? a. increased volcanic eruptions b. increased dispersal c. increased predation d. humans

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Chap 29_4ce

Figure 29-1

22. Sea turtles are likely to die when they are young, but if they reach a large size, they have a good chance of

surviving. Which survivorship curve in Figure 29-1 best fits sea turtles? a. type I, shown in graph C b. type II, shown in graph B c. type III, shown in graph A d. type III, shown in graph C 23. Suppose that you are studying generation time in a population. Which of the following are you most likely

studying? a. the average time between the birth of an organism and the birth of its offspring in the population b. the average duration of life of organisms in the population c. the average success in reproduction of organisms in the population d. the success of predation in the population 24. Why is controlling malaria an example of a Sisyphean problem? a. It is an easy problem. b. It is approached as a high risk. c. It is an eternal frustration. d. It is easily eradicated. 25. What does the allocation of resources for survival, growth, and maximal reproduction determine? a. the life history of a species b. the survivorship curve of a species c. the dispersion of a species d. the age-specific fecundity of a species

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Chap 29_4ce 26. What caused a little dip in the mid-fourteenth century in the human population growth? a. hunger b. the bubonic plague c. domestication of plants d. domestication of animals 27. Malaria is a disease that is spread by mosquito bites. What causes it? a. a worm b. a parasite c. a virus d. a decomposer 28. At which stage of a country’s demographic transition do birth rates generally reach their highest point? a. at the preindustrial stage b. at the transitional stage c. at the post-industrial stage d. at the industrial stage 29. Suppose that you want to monitor populations of endangered species. Which of these criteria would you use? a. Population density and habitat. b. Population size and geographical range. c. Population size and density. d. Population geographical range. 30. Suppose that your friend asked you to explain population size to them. Which of the following should you tell

them? a. It is the number of individuals making up the population at any time. b. It is the number of individuals making up the population at a specified time. c. It is the number of individuals per unit area of habitat. d. It is the number of individuals per unit volume of habitat.

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Chap 29_4ce Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 31. Write the letter of each region next to the correct number in order of the population each region is expected to

have by 2050. Start by placing the letter of the region expected to have the highest population by 2050 next to the number 1, and so forth. A. Europe B. Asia C. Latin America D. North America E. Africa __________ 1 __________ 2 __________ 3 __________ 4 __________ 5 Categorize each trait as belonging predominantly to an r-selected species or a K-selected species. a. r-selected b. K-selected 32. low mortality rate 33. one reproductive episode 34. short maturation time 35. little or no parental care 36. large offspring 37. long life span 38. small clutch or brood size 39. extensive parental care 40. fluctuating population size 41. early timing of first reproduction 42. good tolerance of environmental change

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Chap 29_4ce

Match each description to an equation. a. ÄN/Ät = B – D b. dN/dt = (b – d)N c. dN/dt = rmaxN d. d = (D/N) e. dN/dt = rmaxN(K – N)/K 43. exponential model of population growth 44. per capita death rate 45. population growth under ideal conditions 46. change in population size 47. logistic model of population growth

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Chap 29_4ce

Use the list of terms to identify each lettered part of the illustration.

48. zero growth 49. pre-reproductive 50. reproductive 51. post-reproductive 52. rapid growth 53. negative growth

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Chap 29_4ce

Match each statement with the most appropriate survivorship curve. a. type I b. type II c. type III 54. typical of Cleome droserifolia 55. typical of humans 56. high juvenile mortality followed by increased chance of survival as adult 57. constant rate of mortality in all age classes

Match each term with its definition. a. population increasing steadily by a constant ratio b. average number of offspring produced by females during each age interval c. population growth slowing as population approaches K d. number of individuals per unit area or unit volume e. movement out of a population 58. age-specific fecundity 59. logistic model 60. emigration 61. exponential population growth 62. population density 63. What characteristics are consistent with a K-selected species? Where do humans fall on the r through K

continuum?

64. What effect did golden eagles colonized on the Channel Islands have on the population of island foxes?

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Chap 29_4ce 65. “Humans have two options for limiting population growth: we can make a global effort to limit our own

population, or we can wait until the environment does it for us.” Briefly address each scenario. What methods would result in a successful global decline in birth rate? What environmental events are the alternatives?

66. What are some density-dependent factors that affect humans at higher population densities, and how have

these been addressed in industrial societies?

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Chap 29_4ce Answer Key 1. False - exponential 2. False - Repelling 3. False - age 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False - dependent 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. c 12. a 13. d 14. d 15. a 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. d 23. a 24. c 25. a 26. b

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Chap 29_4ce 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. b 31. B, E, C, A, D 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. a 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. b 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. e 48. a 49. f 50. e 51. d 52. c 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 29_4ce 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. c 60. e 61. a 62. d 63. K-selected species tend to have larger body size, longer generations, and a lower reproductive rate. More energy is

devoted to each offspring, providing individual offspring with a higher chance of survival than r-selected offspring. Humans are K-selected, especially when compared to r-selected organisms like houseflies or plants, which produce thousands of offspring and have short lifespans. 64. After golden eagles colonized the Channel Islands, their numbers increased, reflecting the abundant food supply, the

pigs. The population of golden eagles continued to increase and they began eating island foxes. The population of the foxes on one island (Santa Cruz) declined from 1500 to less than 100 in less than 10 years. A modelling study suggested that reducing the population of pigs would increase the pressure on the foxes unless the population of eagles also was decreased. As long as there were enough pigs, the eagles preyed mainly on them rather than the foxes. 65. Government-sponsored family planning programs have had great success both in reducing birth rates, and in

improving the health and status of women. Providing medical care in conjunction with such programs encourages families to have fewer children. In places with high child mortality rates, family sizes are high. Environmental events that will bring about an uncontrolled decline in population include war, famine, drought, and exposure to accumulating toxins. 66. Competition for all resources increases at high population densities. This leads to an increased mortality rate.

Disease, violence, and famine are some of the factors that worsen at high population densities. In industrial societies, sanitation has decreased death by disease. Poverty has been addressed less successfully in industrialized nations and can be viewed as an outcome of competition for resources. War, too, is almost invariably a result of competition for resources, although fighters are often recruited using religious or cultural propaganda.

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Chap 30_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Allopatric species live in the same places. 2. Most gradient analyses point toward the individualistic view of communities. 3. Caterpillars of monarch butterflies are immune to the cardiac glycosides in the dandelion leaves they eat. 4. In the 1960s, Robert Paine used removal experiments to evaluate the effects of predation by Pisaster. 5. The intermediate disturbance hypothesis says that species richness is least in a community that has moderate

disturbances. 6. A tropical rain forest would most likely include vegetation that includes a canopy. 7. In interference competition, two or more populations use the same limiting resource. 8. Mutualistic relationships between animal species are common. 9. Sympatric species live in different places. 10. Realized niches are larger than fundamental niches. 11. The relationship between the bull’s horn acacia tree and a species of small ants is a highly coevolved predation. 12. Mutualism is common between flowering plants and animal pollinators. 13. Endoparasites, such as tapeworms, live on their host. 14. Elephants and some other large carnivores are species with few predators. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 15. Which pair of organisms is a good example of commensalism? a. bacteria and legumes b. cattle egrets and cattle c. plants and pollinators d. tapeworms and pigs 16. Which of the following defines interference competition? a. two or more populations using different limiting resources b. two or more populations using the same limiting resource c. individuals of one species harming individuals of another species directly d. individuals of one species harming individuals of another species indirectly

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Chap 30_4ce 17. Suppose there are two forests. In the first forest, 39 of the 50 trees represent the dominant species. In the

second forest, there are 2 of each of the 10 different species. What conclusion can be drawn regarding these two forests? a. The second forest must have had some human interference. b. The second forest is more diverse than the second. c. The first forest must have had some human interference. d. The amount of animal species in each forest would be the same. 18. What is a cleanser wrasse in the mouth of a potato cod an example of? a. trophic interaction b. mutualism c. neutral interaction d. coevolution 19. Which relationship is most likely represented between oxpeckers eating ectoparasites causing no harm to the

host, and the host itself? a. herbivorism b. parasitism c. mutualism d. commensalism 20. Which of the following refers to a panda bear that consumes a diet primarily of eucalyptus leaves? a. It is a primary consumer and a herbivore. b. It is a primary consumer and a carnivore. c. It is a herbivore and a primary producer. d. It is a carnivore and a primary producer. 21. The Monarch butterfly has an undesirable taste, and the Viceroy butterfly has a selective advantage because it

looks like the Monarch. What process is this situation an example of? a. cryptic coloration b. Batesian mimicry c. aposematic coloration d. competitive exclusion principle 22. What conclusion can be drawn from Gause’s experiments on interspecific competition in Paramecium? a. When two populations of Paramecium use the same limiting resource, they cannot coexist long term. b. One population of Paramecium used the other as a food source. c. When two populations of Paramecium use the same limiting resource, they can coexist long term. d. Both populations of Paramecium expire due to a buildup of waste products.

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Chap 30_4ce 23. Which of the following population interactions is advantageous to both populations? a. mutualism b. commensalism c. predation d. competition 24. Which hypothesis states that new species are prevented from entering a community by the existing species? a. the facilitation hypothesis b. the inhibition hypothesis c. the tolerance hypothesis d. the equilibrium theory of island biogeography 25. In the experiment involving bluegill sunfish and their choice of diet, what did the sunfish prefer when equal

numbers of small, medium, and large Daphnia were present? a. medium Daphnia b. any size of Daphnia c. small Daphnia d. large Daphnia 26. What conclusion can be drawn regarding a community in which many species are involved in a food web? a. It is more stable because organisms have more than a single food source. b. It is more fragile because organisms have only a single food source. c. It is more fragile because organisms have more than a single food source. d. It is more stable because organisms have only a single food source. 27. How do pancake tortoises protect themselves from predators? a. They puff themselves up. b. They emit an undesirable scent. c. Their coloration serves as a disguise. d. They retreat into their shell. 28. Which of the following is classified as an endoparasite? a. a mosquito b. a leech c. a tapeworm d. an aphid

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Chap 30_4ce 29. Which trophic level would be best represented by a rabbit? a. secondary consumer b. decomposer c. detritivore d. primary consumer 30. What is an ecotone? a. the combination of species in an environment that is constant b. a zone between two communities c. an example of an individualistic hypothesis d. a parasite that is external to the body 31. Which type of interaction is advantageous for one species, but has no effect on the other? a. predation b. parasitism c. mutualism d. commensalism 32. Which sentence best summarizes the relationship between species richness and recovery from natural

disturbances? a. Communities with more diversity recover more rapidly from natural disturbances. b. Communities with more diversity recover less rapidly from natural disturbances. c. Communities with more diversity do not recover from natural disturbances. d. Communities with less diversity recover more rapidly from natural disturbances. 33. How is the grasshopper mouse able to consume the Eleodes longicollis beetle? a. It has cryptic coloration, so it is not noticed by the beetle. b. It is immune to the beetle’s toxins. c. It avoids the beetle’s undesirable secretions by burying the beetle’s abdomen. d. It poisons the beetle first. 34. What does the intermediate disturbance hypothesis suggest? a. Species richness is lowest in communities experiencing fairly frequent disturbances of moderate intensity. b. Species richness is greatest in communities experiencing very frequent disturbances of moderate

intensity. c. Species richness is greatest in communities experiencing fairly frequent disturbances of little intensity. d. Species richness is greatest in communities experiencing fairly frequent disturbances of moderate intensity.

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Chap 30_4ce 35. Which relationship is most likely represented between animal pollinators and their flowering plants? a. herbivorism b. parasitism c. mutualism d. commensalism 36. Which factor has the most effect on species’ richness on an island? a. mainland size b. the type of species on the mainland c. distance from the mainland d. the type of species on the island Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 37. Put the stages of primary succession in their proper order. Start by writing the letter of the first stage next to

number 1, and so on. A. bushes appear B. ferns and grasses become established C. glaciers retreat D. lichens erode rocks E. mosses appear F. soil is present G. trees are established first event _________ second event _________ third event _________ fourth event _________ fifth event _________ sixth event _________ seventh event _________

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Chap 30_4ce 38. Put the following stages of secondary succession in the proper order. Start by writing the letter of the first

stage next to the number 1, and so on. A. asters and broomsedges B. crabgrass C. hardwood trees D. horseweed E. pine seedlings F. ragweed G. shrubs first event _________ second event __________ third event __________ fourth event __________ fifth event __________ sixth event __________ seventh event __________ Match each lettered cell in the table with the description that belongs in that cell. a. carnivory b. herbivory c. competition d. commensalism e. mutualism f. parasitism 39. one population benefits while the other is unaffected 40. one population obtains energy from plants; plants are destroyed 41. one population obtains energy from animals; animals are killed 42. one population obtains energy; the other is damaged (usually not killed) 43. both populations benefit 44. both populations may be at a disadvantage

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Chap 30_4ce

Use the terms in the list to identify each lettered portion of the food web.

45. quaternary consumers 46. primary producers 47. primary consumers 48. top carnivore 49. tertiary consumers 50. secondary consumers

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Chap 30_4ce

Match each description to the appropriate term. a. aposematic coloration b. commensalism c. ecological niche d. exploitative competition e. interference competition f. mimicry g. mutualism h. parasitism i. resource partitioning 51. species closely resembling another species 52. two or more species use the same limiting resource 53. defined by the resources used by a species and the conditions it requires 54. one organism feeds off of another organism, causing harm 55. the use of resources in different ways 56. one species derives benefits and the other is unaffected 57. situation where both species benefit 58. the sporting of a brightly contrasting, dangerous-looking pattern 59. one species harms organisms of another species 60. All land-dwelling animals utilize oxygen for respiration, but does that make oxygen a limiting factor?

61. What is the difference between a food chain and a food web?

62. Compare fundamental and realized niche.

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Chap 30_4ce 63. What is the definition of the intermediate disturbance hypothesis?

64. Why are zebras striped?

65. Define the competitive exclusion principle.

66. Explain how it is possible that a porcupine can kill a leopard.

67. How do pitcher plants obtain nitrogen? Describe two examples.

68. What is the difference between a decomposer and a detritivore? Provide an example of each.

69. Explain the concept of ecological niche.

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Chap 30_4ce 70. Explain when and why resource partitioning occurs.

71. What does the tolerance hypothesis assert?

72. What is the best way to investigate the effects of factors that influence populations?

73. Compare interference competition with exploitative competition.

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Chap 30_4ce Answer Key 1. False - different places 2. True 3. False - milkweed 4. True 5. False - greatest 6. True 7. False - exploitative competition 8. True 9. False - the same places 10. False - smaller 11. False - mutualism 12. True 13. False - within 14. False - herbivores 15. b 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. a

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Chap 30_4ce 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. c 37. First event: C

Second event: D Third event: F Fourth event: E Fifth event: B Sixth event: A Seventh event: G 38. First event: B

Second event: D Third event: F Fourth event: A Fifth event: G Sixth event: E Seventh event: C 39. d 40. b 41. a 42. f 43. e 44. c 45. b 46. f Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 30_4ce 47. e 48. a 49. c 50. d 51. f 52. d 53. c 54. h 55. i 56. b 57. g 58. a 59. e 60. Even though all land-dwelling animals require oxygen, it is not considered a limiting factor because it is in abundant

supply. 61. A food chain is in a straight line to indicate which species eat which other species. Rarely in nature is any relationship

between organisms in a community that simple. A food web shows the interwoven relationships between species, because most organisms have more than one food source. 62. A fundamental niche is the niche that a population would occupy should there be no other competitors. A realized

niche is the niche that the population actually occupies in real life. 63. When disturbances of moderate intensity occur regularly, species richness is greatest. 64. Stripes make zebras conspicuous at close range, but at a distance, patterns break up the outline, rendering the

animals almost invisible. 65. Populations of two or more species cannot coexist indefinitely if they rely on the same limiting resources and exploit

them in the same way. One species inevitably harvests resources more efficiently, produces more offspring than the other, and negatively affects the other species. 66. Porcupines release hairs that are modified into sharp, barbed quills, which, when stuck into a predator, can cause

severe pain and swelling. The spines detach easily from the porcupine and damage the leopard’s mouth. This damage, combined with infection, can cause death.

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Chap 30_4ce 67. In Borneo, biologists have discovered two astonishing variations on the pitcher plant story. Specifically, one species,

Nepenthes lowii, provides pit toilets for tree shrews (Tupaia spp.). Nectaries around the pitcher attract the shrews and provide them with a snack as they deposit feces and urine in the pitcher. Another species, Nepenthes hemsleyana, has pitchers modified to accommodate roosting bats (Kerivoula hardwickii), which urinate and defecate into the pitcher. In both cases, isotopic analysis reveals that nitrogen from the tree shrews and the bats is used by the plants. 68. A decomposer is a small organism (e.g., a bacterium or a fungus) that digests dead or dying matter. A detritivore is

usually larger and digests dead matter and plant and animal wastes. Examples of detritivores and scavengers are turkey vultures and hyenas. 69. This is an array of resources that a population uses, and the environmental conditions it requires over its lifetime. 70. Resource partitioning occurs when several species living in the same place at the same time use different resources

or the same resources in different ways. 71. It asserts that succession proceeds because competitively superior species replace competitively inferior species. 72. The best way to determine the effects of specific changes on a population is to perform experiments in a controlled

environment. The researcher could then initiate a change in only one factor. By testing different factors in this controlled environment, it is possible to postulate how things would occur in nature. 73. In interference competition, individuals of one species directly harm individuals of another species, for example, lions

hunting on their prey. In exploitative competition, two or more populations use the same limiting resource, and the presence of one species reduces resource availability for another. Many birds and ants are seed-eaters, and each may deplete the food supply available to another without even encountering each other.

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Chap 31_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Large zooplankton decrease the ecosystem’s main productivity when they are abundant. 2. Energy is conserved between each trophic level. 3. Tropical rain forests, swamps, and marshes contribute similarly to mean net primary productivity. 4. Energy losses are multiplied in successive energy transfers in a food web. 5. A large percentage of energy passes on from one trophic level to the next. 6. Lake ecosystems have many trophic levels. 7. The most biomass in trees is leaves, which undergo photosynthesis. 8. Fossil fuels are the result of buried organisms where low oxygen levels existed. 9. Water can be a limiting factor when measuring productivity. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10. Which of these statements best describes the energy flow through the Silver Springs in Florida? a. It is bottom heavy. b. It is top heavy. c. It is a square. d. It is a circle. 11. What is the overall ecological efficiency of most organisms? a. between 50% and 75% b. between 10% and 50% c. between 5% and 20% d. between 2% and 5% 12. What is the main natural source of phosphorus? a. Earth’s crust b. fertilizer c. guano d. legumes

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Chap 31_4ce 13. How does the water move in the hydrologic cycle? a. from the land to the air by transpiration, and back to the land via precipitation and evaporation b. from the land to the air by transpiration and evaporation, and back to the land via precipitation c. from the land to the air by precipitation and transpiration, and back to the land via evaporation d. from the land to the air by precipitation, and back to the land via evaporation and transpiration 14. What was concluded from the energy flow study at Silver Springs in Florida? a. Trophic energy losses are not significant. b. Energy flows are difficult to measure. c. Only a little energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next. d. Most of the Sun’s energy is harvested. 15. What is the primary energetic input in caves? a. bats’ droppings b. bats’ saliva c. bats’ dead bodies d. bats’ babies 16. When you consider production, harvesting, and assimilation efficiencies, what are you in fact determining? a. harvesting efficiencies of consumers b. ecological efficiencies of consumers c. production and harvesting efficiencies of consumers d. water usage efficiencies of consumers 17. What is the main cause of carbon dioxide buildup in the atmosphere? a. droughts b. deforestation c. flooding d. burning fossil fuels 18. Which of the following make up the largest reservoir of carbon? a. rocks b. producers c. consumers d. nutrients in soil

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Chap 31_4ce 19. How many energy transfers away from the Sun are herbivores? a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 20. What is the shape of the trophic pyramids, typically? a. narrow at the base and wide at the top b. narrow at the base and narrow at the top c. wide at the base and wide at the top d. wide at the base and narrow at the top 21. What is the base of a food web inside pitcher plants? a. arthropods, such as ants and flies b. other plant body parts c. rain and other liquids d. larvae of midges 22. Suppose that you are studying the total dry mass of plants present at a given time. What exactly are you

studying? a. number of plant species present b. standing crop biomass c. amount of sunlight absorbed by the plants d. productivity of the plants 23. Which of these marine ecosystems have the highest mean net primary productivity? a. upwelling zones b. open oceans c. kelp beds and reefs d. continental shelves 24. Which of these carbon reservoirs contains abundant phosphorus? a. Lake Erie b. Pacific Ocean c. Atlantic Ocean d. Niagara River

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Chap 31_4ce 25. Which of these plants CANNOT participate in nitrogen fixation? a. beans b. clover c. wheat d. roses 26. In a marine environment, what governs the rate of primary productivity? a. available marine animals b. available marine plants c. available kelp d. the depth of water 27. What must a researcher do in order to develop an effective model for an ecosystem? a. estimate productivity of some populations b. identify minor species c. develop relevant equations d. eliminate food webs 28. What type of food webs do cave ecosystems have? a. extensive b. truncated c. incomplete d. complex 29. Nearly all ecosystems receive a constant input of energy from which outside source? a. bacteria b. the Sun c. biomass d. nutrients 30. Which of the following would help reduce the amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere? a. reducing water usage b. driving to work c. using electrical heat in homes d. reducing emissions from factories

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Chap 31_4ce 31. What are you studying when you consider connections among the diversity of species? a. ecosystems b. life c. environment d. species 32. What is an alternative to nitrogen fixation for plants living in nitrogen-poor soils? a. oxidation b. ammonification c. carnivory d. nitrification 33. Which of the following is among the disadvantages of a simulation model of an ecosystem? a. It does not take into account water availability. b. It does not take into account nutrient availability. c. It does not take into account interactions between organisms. d. It may not be accurate. 34. What is the process for converting atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium? a. nitrogen absorption b. nitrogen fixation c. nitrogen conversion d. nitrogen cycling 35. Which forms of nitrogen are readily usable by plants? a. NH4+ and NO2– b. NO3– and NO4– c. NH4+ and NO3– d. N2 and NH3 36. Which of the following is the pathway that carbon takes in its global cycle? a. sedimentation formation of fossil fuels uplifting over geological time

marine food webs b. formation of fossil fuels uplifting over geological time marine food webs sedimentation c. marine food webs sedimentation formation of fossil fuels uplifting over geological time d. uplifting over geological time marine food webs sedimentation formation of fossil fuels

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Chap 31_4ce 37. What does DDT provide a graphic example of? a. biological ecosystems b. biological reproduction c. biological survival d. biological magnification 38. What helps to put the nature of ecosystems in context? a. variations in the scale of connections b. variations in the scale of interactions c. stability in the scale of connections d. stability in the scale of interactions 39. Which ecosystem would have the lowest percentage of total net primary productivity? a. open ocean b. tundra c. swamp and march d. savanna 40. Compare the length of day with the intensity of sunlight near the equator. How do they differ? a. Sunlight is most intense and day length is most variable. b. Sunlight is most intense and day length is least variable. c. Sunlight is least intense and day length is most variable. d. Sunlight is least intense and day length is least variable. 41. Luis Bettencourt identified four simple assumptions in his 2013 model. What could they be helpful in

understanding? a. the dynamics of savannahs b. the dynamics of deserts c. the dynamics of cities d. the dynamics of caves

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Chap 31_4ce Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 42. Put the stages of the phosphorus cycle in the proper order. Start by writing the letter of the first stage next to

the number 1, and so on. A. Feces and urine are released from animals into soil. B. Phosphorus is plentiful in rocks and soil. C. Phosphorus goes from rivers into the ocean. D. Phosphorus goes from soil into rivers. E. Phosphorus goes to higher trophic levels. F. Following uplifting, plants take in phosphorus. G. The ocean floor experiences an uplifting and releases phosphorus. ______ first stage ______ second stage ______ third stage ______ fourth stage ______ fifth stage ______ sixth stage ______ seventh stage

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Chap 31_4ce

Match the term that corresponds to the appropriate lettered box in the image.

43. detritivores and decomposers 44. primary producers 45. primary consumers 46. tertiary consumers 47. secondary consumers

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Chap 31_4ce

Match each description with the appropriate scientific term. a. biogeochemical cycles b. ecological efficiency c. ecological pyramid d. generalized compartment model e. gross primary productivity f. limiting nutrient g. net primary productivity h. pyramid of biomass i. secondary productivity j. simulation modelling k. standing crop biomass l. trophic cascade 48. total dry weight of plants at a certain time 49. describes how nutrients accumulate in four compartments 50. ratio of net productivity at one trophic level to the productivity at the trophic level below it 51. gross primary productivity minus the energy used for cellular respiration 52. rate at which a plant converts the Sun’s energy into chemical energy 53. diagram showing the inefficient transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next 54. element in short supply 55. energy transfer from producers to consumers 56. relationship between a predator and prey that affects populations in two or more trophic levels 57. predicts what would happen if an ecosystem was changed 58. reduction of productivity at higher trophic levels 59. nutrients cycle between abiotic and living organisms

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Chap 31_4ce

Match the term that corresponds to the appropriate lettered box in the image.

60. soil water 61. terrestrial food webs 62. terrestrial rocks 63. coal, oil, peat 64. Where do plants obtain the necessary carbon for photosynthesis?

65. How would it change the ecological efficiency if all humans became vegetarians?

66. Why is the productivity poor in the deeper parts of the ocean?

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Chap 31_4ce 67. How would you calculate the net primary productivity of an ecosystem?

68. Why is nitrogen necessary in the human body?

69. In this chapter, what steps have we learned to help the environment?

70. How does crop rotation aid the farmer?

71. How do food webs relate to the idea of biological magnification of toxins?

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Chap 31_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False - lost 3. True 4. True 5. False - small 6. False - few 7. False - wood, which does not 8. True 9. True 10. a 11. c 12. a 13. b 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. d 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. a 25. c 26. d

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Chap 31_4ce 27. c 28. b 29. b 30. d 31. a 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. B, D, C, G, F, E, A 43. e 44. a 45. b 46. d 47. c 48. k 49. d 50. b 51. g 52. e 53. c 54. f Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 31_4ce 55. i 56. l 57. j 58. h 59. a 60. c 61. d 62. b 63. e 64. Plants obtain the majority of their carbon from carbon dioxide in the air and water. 65. Because energy is lost at each trophic level, we would conserve more energy by consuming plants directly. By

including another trophic level (a herbivore) or even two more trophic levels (a herbivore and a carnivore), more energy is lost and, thus, efficiency is compromised. 66. In the deeper parts of the ocean, sunlight influences only the activities happening near the surface because the

sunlight does not penetrate deep into the water. In addition, many nutrients sink to the bottom of the ocean. This impacts productivity greatly because both sunlight and nutrients are necessary to improve the productivity. 67. You would subtract the energy used for cellular respiration from the gross primary productivity. Gross primary

productivity is the rate at which plants convert solar energy into chemical energy. 68. Nitrogen is required in order for the body to produce proteins, nucleic acids, and other biological molecules. It is

one of the nutrients necessary for life. 69. We have learned that we should work hard not to disrupt the balance of nature. Eliminating the existence of a lower-

level species may not seem very significant, but it may have a huge impact on that particular ecosystem. Also, we must take steps to conserve water, and prevent fertilizers and other disruptive substances from becoming runoff into our water supplies. We should develop more efficient machines to reduce the amount of greenhouse gases produced. Globally, we should have zero population growth. In short, there is much we can do individually and as a species to safeguard our environment. 70. If a farmer plants a different type of crop each year in a particular field, he or she may help prevent nutrient depletion

in that field. For example, if one crop requires a great deal of phosphorus, that field will eventually be severely depleted of that nutrient. But, because different crops have varying nutrient demands, crop rotations may prevent nutrient depletions. 71. When toxins are present in the soil, water, etc., they are absorbed into organisms which are at the bottom of the

food chain. As you progress up the food chain, the amount of toxins present will increase. This is why researchers often study the effects of toxins on small, seemingly insignificant species. Determining the deleterious effects of these toxins on lower-level organisms may alert humans to the ultimate danger of these substances. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 31_4ce

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Chap 32_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Reciprocal altruism requires that animals remember which individuals have and have not shared. 2. Neurons in the higher vocal centre of a male finch’s brain are stimulated to proliferate by testosterone. 3. The ZENK gene in the finch brain is activated by tactile stimuli. 4. Females almost always have a lower parental investment than males. 5. Female blackbirds choose a mate primarily by the quality of his plumage. 6. Male lizards experimentally dosed with supplemental testosterone were more active, displayed more often,

and had a higher rate of death. 7. Laying eggs in another bird’s nest is a learned behaviour in honeyguides. 8. GnRH-producing cells in the brains of male cichlids are larger in territorial individuals. 9. Younger honeybees have higher levels of juvenile hormone. 10. Crickets have ears in their front legs. 11. Parent monarch butterflies migrate from Canada to Mexico each year. 12. Humans are more likely to abuse children that they know are NOT their own. 13. Many insects have a genetically determined preference for plants they eat during their larval stage. 14. The red spot on the beak of a herring gull is a sign stimulus. 15. Dominant male wild dogs have higher levels of cortisol and other stress-related hormones than submissive

wild dogs. 16. Bees surrounding a dancing bee produce a brief acoustical signal that stimulates the dancer to regurgitate a

sample of the new food. 17. Full siblings share 25% of their alleles. 18. A change in the rate or frequency of movements in response to environmental stimuli is called taxis.

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Chap 32_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Figure 32-2

19. In Figure 32-2, what does the bee do if the food source being communicated about is close to the hive? a. The bee performs the waggle dance, which is image A. b. The bee performs the round dance, which is image A. c. The bee performs the waggle dance, which is image B. d. The bee performs the round dance, which is image B.

20. What do young male white-crowned sparrows match their vocal output to when they first begin to sing? a. any birdsong they hear during their initial days of singing b. the memory of their species’ song heard months earlier c. the memory of whatever song they heard during an early critical period d. an instinctive blueprint of their species’ song

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Chap 32_4ce

Figure 32-1

21. In Figure 32-1, which graph represents the age span of worker bees primarily occupied by foraging? a. graph B b. graph C c. graph D d. graph E

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Chap 32_4ce 22. Which cue most likely functions as sign stimuli to trigger smiling in very young babies? a. the presence of two eyes b. a detailed likeness of any person’s face c. a detailed likeness of one of the baby’s caregivers d. the outline of the smiling mouth 23. Which of the following is an example of piloting? a. Female digger wasps use smell to find their nests. b. Indigo buntings use the position of stars to orient during migration. c. A hiker looks for familiar rock formations as she finds her way back to the trailhead. d. Grey whales use sea streams to feed.

Figure 32-3

24. What does Figure 32-3 illustrate? a. Habitat preference in both blue tits and coal tits is innate. b. Habitat preference in blue tits is learned but in coal tits it is innate. c. Habitat preference in both blue tits and coal tits is learned. d. Blue tits instinctively prefer pine trees while coal tits instinctively prefer oak trees.

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Chap 32_4ce 25. In an experiment on way-finding, Indigo Buntings were housed in outdoor cages with blotting paper walls and

inkpads on the floors. Which of the following facts demonstrated to researchers that the Indigo Bunting uses the positions of stars to orient its migration? a. On clear nights, the footprint patterns were predicted. b. In the spring, the inky footprints were mostly on the northern side of the cage. c. In the fall, the inky footprints were mostly on the south side of the cage. d. On cloudy nights, the footprint patterns were random. 26. Which of the following is the best example of purely instinctive behaviour? a. Coyotes in urban areas forage in trash cans near humans. b. Baby geese imprint on their mother and follow her. c. A flying cricket jerks up its right hind leg when it hears a bat coming from the left. d. The male White-crowned Sparrow sings. 27. Why do biologists categorize the cue that stimulates young herring gulls to peck as a sign stimulus? a. because the pecking behaviour is completely instinctive b. because the pecking behaviour requires learning to perfect c. because the pecking behaviour appears both in the presence and absence of the cue d. because the pecking behaviour is triggered by presentation of the cue 28. What is the primary trigger for pecking behaviour in young herring gulls? a. hunger b. a red spot on the bill of the parent c. the shape of the parent gull’s head d. the overall body silhouette of the parent bird 29. Why are honeyguides considered parasites? a. they feed on worms b. they feed on seeds c. they feed on other birds d. they lay their eggs in the nests of other birds 30. In 1938, Niko Tinbergen arranged pinecones around the nest of a female digger wasp. What happened when

he removed these pinecones when the wasp was gone? a. The wasp did not find the nest until the pinecones were replaced. b. The wasp found the nest immediately. c. The wasp took longer to find the nest. d. The wasp dug a new nest in the centre of the repositioned circle of pinecones.

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Chap 32_4ce 31. Which of the following is a sign stimulus? a. a cuckoo chick evicting the original chicks in the nest b. a mother rat picking up young rats and returning them to the nest c. the open mouth of a peeping baby bird d. an innate learning 32. How is classical conditioning different from operant conditioning? a. Classical conditioning associates a response with punishment, while operant conditioning links a

response with a reward. b. Classical conditioning associates a voluntary activity with a reward, while operant conditioning links two phenomena that are usually unrelated. c. Classical conditioning associates instinctive behaviours with punishments, while operant conditioning links learned behaviours with rewards. d. Classical conditioning associates two phenomena that are usually unrelated, while operant conditioning links a voluntary activity with a reward. 33. What would a fiddler crab be prompted to do if a moving object appeared below the midline of its eyes? a. become aggressive b. ignore the object c. prepare for mating d. perform evasive manoeuvres

Figure 32-2

34. In Figure 32-2, how will the other bees seek nectar if a honeybee performing the dance in image B moves

straight down the comb? a. by flying directly away from the Sun b. by flying due south c. by flying directly toward the Sun d. by flying at a 45° angle to the left of the Sun

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Chap 32_4ce 35. The brains of female zebra finches lack the hormonal influences that occur in the brains of males. What

changes are seen in the female brains as a result? a. Octopamine levels increase, which stimulates neural transmissions. b. Auditory processing centres are especially well developed in females. c. Transcription is boosted in genes whose products are involved in memory retention. d. The number of neurons in the higher vocal centre declines. 36. What happens to worker bees when extra juvenile hormone is experimentally administered to them? a. They develop impaired memories. b. They produce more octopamine. c. They begin laying eggs. d. They live longer. 37. Which term refers to instinctive behaviours that are performed in exactly the same way every time they are

triggered? a. habitual behaviours b. fixed action pattern behaviours c. release behaviours d. conditioned behaviours 38. How does a cricket respond when it hears the ultrasonic call of a bat coming from its right side? a. by releasing a noxious chemical from specialized epidermal glands b. by holding its hind legs close to the body c. by interrupting the movement of the right wing d. by interrupting the movement of the left wing 39. What is the ultimate cause of the ability of male zebra finches to discriminate between the songs of established

neighbours and those of strangers? a. Neurons cease to respond to the sound of an established neighbour. b. Zebra finches are capable of selective learning. c. Zebra finches are genetically programmed to tolerate territory-holding neighbours but to repel invaders. d. Male zebra finches produce more offspring by saving their energy for real battles. 40. How do black field crickets detect the ultrasound of predatory bats? a. through acoustic organs on the antennae b. through ears in their front legs c. through an acoustic organ on the right hind leg d. through ears on the sides of their heads

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Chap 32_4ce 41. How do female digger wasps find their nests, according to a study conducted by Niko Tinbergen in 1938? a. by the position of stars in the night sky b. by the position of the Sun c. by visual landmarks d. by olfactory cues 42. Which function would a worker bee that is about one day old most likely perform in the hive? a. feeding the nestmates b. feeding the brood c. cleaning the cells d. packing the pollen 43. Which trait is consistent with evolution by sexual selection? a. Males are smaller than females. b. Females actively choose superior males. c. Gametes are dispersed into the environment by wind or water. d. Males do not defend harems of females.

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Chap 32_4ce

Figure 32-4

44. In Figure 32-4, why do bees C and D differ from bees E and F? a. because bees C and D had a different mother than bees E and F b. because bees C and D inherited different alleles form their mother than did bees E and F c. because bees C and D inherited different alleles form their father than did bees E and F d. because bees C and D are haploid drones while bees E and F are diploid female workers 45. What is the difference between altruism and reciprocal altruism, respectively? a. Altruism is defined as low-risk behaviour that provides minor benefits to others, while reciprocal

altruism involves high-risk behaviour that provides major benefits to others. b. Altruism is defined as aid given to nonrelatives, while reciprocal altruism involves benefits given to close relatives only. c. Altruism is defined as the expectation of a future favour in return for present aid, while reciprocal altruism involves close relatives helping each other. d. Altruism is defined as the sacrifice of an individual’s reproductive success to help others, while the reciprocal altruism involves the expectation of a future favour in return for present aid.

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Chap 32_4ce

Figure 32-4

46. In Figure 32-4, what percentage of its total genome does bee A donate to its offspring? a. 100% b. 75% c. 25% d. 0% 47. What is a proximate cause of the noncombative behaviour of male African cichlids that do NOT hold

territories? a. Such behaviour allows the male to build his strength for a takeover attempt on a territory. b. Cichlids can detect and store information about aggressive encounters. c. GnRH production is high. d. The GnRH-producing neurons in the hypothalamus are small.

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Chap 32_4ce

Figure 32-1

48. In Figure 32-1, which graph represents the age span of worker bees primarily occupied by feeding the

brood? a. graph B b. graph C c. graph D d. graph E

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Chap 32_4ce 49. How is a taxis distinguished from a kinesis? a. A taxis is a group movement, while a kinesis is an individual movement. b. A taxis is slow movement, while a kinesis is fast movement. c. A taxis is an ordered movement, while a kinesis is a change in the rate of movement. d. A taxis is a random movement, while a kinesis is a directional movement. 50. What occurs when a territory-holding male zebra finch hears the song of the male zebra finch that has held the

neighbouring territory for a long time? a. The territory-holding male initiates a ritualized threat display that may culminate in an expansion of his territory into the neighbour’s land. b. Cells in the nucleus of the territory-holding male zebra finch’s forebrain fire frequently. c. Cells in the nucleus of the territory-holding male zebra finch’s forebrain do not respond to the song of the neighbouring male. d. The territory-holding male flies out to drive off the neighbouring male. 51. What is an animal using if it finds its way by the type of way-finding known as piloting? a. another animal to lead the way as it learns the route b. familiar landmarks to guide its journey c. the Earth’s magnetic field to orient itself d. both the Sun’s position and a mental map 52. Which sentence describes the form of natural selection known as kin selection? a. Shared alleles for altruism are perpetuated if the helper produces more offspring than the relatives that

it aids. b. Group members sacrifice their own reproductive success to help individuals that are not their direct descendants. c. Shared alleles for altruism are perpetuated if the assisted animals produce more offspring than the helper could have produced if it had not helped. d. Individuals help relatives only if the relatives are likely to return the favour in the future. 53. Suppose that a subordinate animal in a dominance hierarchy has limited access to food and mates. Why

would it remain in a social group in which it was dominated? a. It expects to become dominant in the future. b. It is exhibiting altruistic behaviour. c. It does not know that it would be an advantage to leave. d. Its chances of survival and reproduction are better in the group than alone.

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Chap 32_4ce 54. Which sentence describes the sounds of young male White-crowned Sparrows that were experimentally

raised without ever hearing the sound of their species? a. They produced only random vocalizations. b. They sang a recognizable version of the song of an ancestral sparrow species. c. They sang a poorly developed version of their species’ song. d. They never sang at all. 55. The presence of which hormone results in the production of more neurons in the higher vocal centre of the

brains of male zebra finches but NOT in the brains of female zebra finches? a. follicle-stimulating hormone b. estrogen c. epinephrine d. testosterone 56. Which of the following is correctly matched with its meaning? a. polygamy: one female and one male form a pair bond b. monogamy: one male has active pair bonds with more than one female c. polyandry: one female has active pair bonds with more than one male d. polygyny: one female has active pair bonds with just one male 57. Which of the following animals are migratory? a. monarch butterflies b. deer c. wood lice d. aphids 58. What did Wilson and Daly hypothesize about the behaviour of stepparents who care for their own children as

well as children not genetically related to them? a. The stepparents would never abuse any of the children. b. The stepparents are more likely to abuse their own children. c. The stepparents are more likely to abuse their stepchildren. d. The stepparents are as likely to abuse their own children as their stepchildren. 59. Which of the following species are known to engage in altruistic behaviour? a. lobsters b. elephants c. wolves d. deer

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Chap 32_4ce 60. When do animals establish and defend territories? a. only when territorial defence is not energetically costly b. only when some critical resource is in short supply c. only when females choose among displaying males d. only when the effort does not endanger the life of the individual 61. Most of a mole’s cerebral cortex is devoted to processing input from certain body parts. Which are the body

parts? a. both front feet and the tentacles closest to the mole’s mouth b. both front feet and both hind feet c. the tentacles farthest from the mole’s mouth d. the front feet 62. Which of the following are fundamental aspects of human societies? a. love and passion b. intrinsic honesty and a sense of fairness c. deception and lies d. violation and aggression 63. What does it mean when geese or ducks are imprinted? a. They learned the features of a suitable mate during a critical period. b. They have two non-functional copies of a particular gene. c. They will return to the place they were born to breed and raise their own young. d. They have been experimentally trained by operant conditioning. 64. What is the chance that a young child living with one parent and one stepparent would be criminally abused,

relative to the chance that children living with both biological parents would be criminally abused? a. 40 times higher b. 10 times higher c. 10 times lower d. 4 times lower 65. Which form of communication is likely to be intercepted by an attentive third party? a. chemical b. tactile c. electrical d. nonvisual

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Chap 32_4ce 66. Suppose that a raven finds a carcass. Under what circumstances will the raven call and attract other ravens? a. only if the carcass is being consumed by an animal of another species b. only if the carcass is found in a resident pair’s territory c. only if the carcass is found in his own territory d. only if the carcass is large and plentiful 67. Males and females often differ in their reproductive strategies. What is the male strategy compared to the

female strategy? a. Males mate with multiple females, while females mate with multiple males. b. Males drive off other males, while females defend a productive territory. c. Males defend a productive territory, while females enlist multiple males to aid in raising their offspring. d. Males mate with multiple females, while females mate with a high-quality male. 68. Why are instinctive behaviours distinguished from learned behaviours? a. because instinctive behaviours are incomplete the first few times they are displayed, while learned

behaviours are apparently a product of reason b. because instinctive behaviours are dependent upon experience, while learned behaviours are genetically programmed responses c. because instinctive behaviours are acquired from observation, while learned behaviours are acquired from practice d. because instinctive behaviours are genetically programmed responses, while learned behaviours are dependent upon experience Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 69. Place the genetic relationships in order, starting with the closest relationship, by writing a letter next to each

number. A. first cousins B. full siblings C. half siblings D. identical twins __________ 1 __________ 2 __________ 3 __________ 4

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Chap 32_4ce 70. Place the events of song development in male zebra finches in the correct order by writing the letter of the

first event next to the number 1, and so on. A. Structure and function of neurons are changed. B. Neurons anticipate key acoustical events. C. Territory owner habituates to the sound of his singing neighbour. D. Exposure of hatchling to its species’ song. E. Enzyme is produced. F. ZENK is activated. __________ 1 __________ 2 __________ 3 __________ 4 __________ 5 __________ 6 Classify each example as one of the three behaviours. The behaviours may be used more than once. a. kin selection b. reciprocal altruism c. altruism 71. You donate money anonymously to a charity and tell no one about it. 72. A young immigrant couple decides to limit their family size so they can send money to nieces and nephews in

their native land. 73. You skip class but borrow the notes from a friend, who skips class himself the next week, at which point you

lend him your notes. 74. During a blood drive, people wear stickers announcing, “I donated!” 75. A young woman delays marriage to help her mother raise her many younger brothers and sisters. 76. A man stops his car on a deserted road to aid a stranded motorist he does not know.

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Chap 32_4ce

Match each description of a mating system with the most appropriate term. a. promiscuity b. monogamy c. polygyny d. polyandry 77. Male northern fur seals aggressively guard harems of up to 40 females. 78. Prairie voles choose one mate and stay with that partner for life. 79. Female chimpanzees will mate with more than one male, eliciting protective behaviour for her offspring from

them all. 80. Corals release gametes into the open sea.

Categorize the following learning examples as either classical or operant conditioning. a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning 81. A trained dog sits on command and gets a treat. 82. A man becomes hungry when he hears the beep of the microwave oven. 83. Captive dolphins jump from the water on command and are rewarded with fish. 84. Dairy calves recognize the vehicle of their caregiver and vocalize excitedly. 85. A truck has a loud alarm that goes off if the key is in the ignition when the door is opened. Its owner avoids

the alarm by removing the key. 86. Horses hurry to their mangers when the barn door opens. 87. A student receives a merit scholarship for good grades and is motivated to work even harder. 88. A person who was shocked by an electric fence becomes reluctant to touch the wire even when informed

that the power to the fence is off.

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Chap 32_4ce

Use the illustration below to answer the following questions.

89. Which label on the graph represents the sensory nerve terminals on the Eimer’s organ of the star-nosed

mole? 90. Which label on the graph represents the dermis on the Eimer’s organ of the star-nosed mole? 91. Which label on the graph represents the epidermis on the Eimer’s organ of the star-nosed mole?

The following passages contain novel information describing real animal and human behaviours. Use the choices to classify the type of learning exemplified by each passage. A learning type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. imprinting b. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning d. insight learning e. habituation 92. A teacher gives candy only to the children in her class who finish the assignment on time. The other children receive no reward. The next day, a larger proportion of children finish the work on time. 93. Jane Goodall accustomed wild chimps to her presence so that her company ceased to alter their behaviour. 94. Without training, an octopus lifts the lid off its aquarium tank, climbs out, and enters a nearby tank. It eats a

fish there and climbs out, replacing the tank lid. It then returns to its own tank, closing its own aquarium lid after itself. 95. A group of ducklings were experimentally isolated in a room containing only a large cardboard box that

researchers rigged to be movable by remote control. The ducklings soon became attached to the box, following it around the enclosure. 96. Wild ravens note the passage of a garbage collection truck and fly off to raid trash cans before the truck

arrives to empty them. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Match each term with its definition. a. site that provides food, shelter, nesting materials, and interacting organisms b. unusual pattern of sex determination c. resource-rich site defended by its occupants d. natural selection for mating success e. use of familiar landmarks to guide a journey f. travel from the birth site to another destination and back g. grounds where males display for females h. volatile chemicals that influence the behaviour of members of the same species i. ordered movement j. ritualized behaviours engaged in to attract the attention of the opposite sex k. social systems in which individuals are ranked 97. piloting 98. migration 99. sexual selection 100. haplodiploidy 101. taxis 102. dominance hierarchies 103. habitat 104. leks 105. territory 106. courtship displays 107. pheromones

Match each physiological response to the hormone that causes the response. A hormone may be selected more than once. a. GnRH b. estrogen c. juvenile hormone 108. changes production based on outcomes of conflicts 109. induces the testes to produce testosterone 110. stimulates genes in brain cells to produce certain proteins that affect nervous system function 111. stimulates the production of additional neurons in the higher vocal centre

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Match each term with its definition. a. association between two phenomena that are usually unrelated b. association between a voluntary activity and a favourable consequence c. stereotyped behaviours triggered by a specific cue d. behaviour dependent on having a particular kind of experience e. process in which experiences change behavioural responses f. simple cues that trigger specific behaviours g. genetically programmed response h. learned loss of responsiveness 112. learning 113. habituation 114. fixed action patterns 115. sign stimuli 116. learned behaviour 117. instinctive behaviour 118. classical conditioning 119. operant conditioning 120. What is haplodiploidy, and how is it related to altruism in honeybees?

121. Under what circumstances does the gene called ZENK become active in zebra finches, and what is its effect?

122. Why do peahens choose peacocks with the longest, showiest tails, when a long tail might be easily grabbed

by a predator?

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Chap 32_4ce 123. Briefly explain some of the advantages and disadvantages of living in social groups.

124. otters diving and bringing their food to the surface

4. otters opening cans and selecting food5. chimpanzees hunting bushbabies with spears6. scrub jays caching food in preparation for the next day’s breakfast PTS: 3 DIF: Moderate REF: CHAPTER 32: ANIMAL BEHAVIOUR MSC: Higher Order 3. What is diagnostic of eusocial animals? Describe the model of Jason Olejarz and his colleagues. Why is it important?

125. From an evolutionary perspective, why would humans sometimes act charitably toward strangers?

126. It will someday become possible to screen people for genes that can influence their behaviour. As scientists,

we must consider the ethical implications of our work. What ethical issues may arise as a result of such screening?

127. Sociologists have noted that women in different environments seem to find different types of men attractive.

For example, a physically weak but professionally successful man may be admired by women in New York City; while in rural Wyoming, the rugged cowboys are most popular. Explain this phenomenon from the perspective of an evolutionary view of human social behaviour.

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Chap 32_4ce 128. Describe three examples of different animal behaviours.

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Chap 32_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False - estrogen 3. False - acoustical 4. False - higher 5. False - territory 6. True 7. False - instinctive 8. True 9. False - lower 10. True 11. False - Offspring of 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. False - 50% 18. False - kinesis 19. b 20. b 21. d 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. d 26. c

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Chap 32_4ce 27. d 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. d 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. c 43. b 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. c 51. b 52. c 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 32_4ce 55. b 56. c 57. a 58. c 59. c 60. b 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. b 67. d 68. d 69. D, B, C, A 70. D, F, E, A, B, C 71. c 72. a 73. b 74. b 75. a 76. c 77. c 78. b 79. d 80. a 81. b 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 32_4ce 83. b 84. a 85. b 86. a 87. b 88. b 89. a 90. c 91. b 92. c 93. e 94. d 95. a 96. b 97. e 98. f 99. d 100. b 101. i 102. k 103. a 104. g 105. c 106. j 107. h 108. a 109. a 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 32_4ce 111. b 112. e 113. h 114. c 115. f 116. d 117. g 118. a 119. b 120. Drones (male bees) are haploid, while queen bees are diploid. Worker bees are either 50% or 100% related to

each other, depending on whether they share the same alleles from their mother. Non-reproducing workers help to pass alleles they share into the next generation by caring for their siblings. 121. Transcription of the ZENK gene is stimulated when the zebra finch hears its species’ song. ZENK produces an

enzyme that changes the structure and function of neurons. The outcome is an auditory sensitization to slight variations in the song. 122. Studies have shown the ability to survive despite the long tail is predictive of the survival and health of offspring.

The long tail is a handicap, so males that can thrive in spite of that handicap apparently have excellent genetics. 123. Social animals face more competition for food, nesting sites, and other resources. They also tend to contract

diseases and parasites more easily due to frequent contact between individuals. The advantages of social behaviour include safety in numbers for prey animals. Predators can take on larger prey when working together. In higher animals, learning may take place more effectively in social groups. 124. The presence of non-reproductive workers is diagnostic of eusocial animals. Such individuals readily arise in

situations where the “queen” has mated with several males. The rate at which the colony reproduces and the fractions of non-reproductive workers in a colony emerged as key factors in their model. Their observations may provide a clue about the evolution of eusociality among animals. 125. Most acts of charity are publicized in some way, if only by the giver mentioning the act to a friend. This would be

classified as reciprocal altruism. From an evolutionary perspective, the giver is aided by the favourable impression others in society have of him. Presumably such a generous individual would be likely to receive help if ever it were needed. People who aid others in secret may also be reciprocal altruists if they hold religious or spiritual beliefs that they will benefit either currently or in an afterlife for their generosity.

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Chap 32_4ce 126. The presence of a gene can correlate with the tendency for a behaviour, but it does not guarantee the behaviour will

exist. For example, if a gene was discovered that increased aggression in humans, it would not be fair to assume all the carriers of this gene are potential criminals. Aggression can be channelled in both positive and negative ways. Conversely, a person could be born with normal genetics but become emotionally unstable due to trauma or abuse. Genetic screening of such a person would not reveal his or her instability. Widespread use of such screening could lead to ethical misconduct. 127. From an evolutionary perspective, females try to choose a male with good genes and the ability to provide for her

offspring. An urban area is a different habitat from a rural one. Perhaps the genes that are best adapted for one environment are not best adapted for another. Women may instinctively evaluate their environments and choose the males that seem best adapted to that habitat. 128. Any of the following:1. a bat flying through a mine with open mouth and producing echolocation2. tigers during the

war eating wounded soldiers

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Chap 33_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which type of plant tissue is considered primarily photosynthetic? a. vascular tissue b. dermal tissue c. ground tissue d. root tissue 2. Which term refers to plants that complete their life cycle in one growing season? a. eudicots b. monocots c. perennials d. annuals 3. Which term refers to hairlike projections, such as root hairs, that are specialized outgrowths of the plant

epidermis? a. bark b. protoplasts c. trichomes d. cuticles 4. For a stem that has a vascular cylinder, which sequence of structures is in the correct order, from outside to

inside? a. stele epidermis pith cortex b. epidermis cortex stele pith c. stele cortex epidermis pith d. cortex stele pith epidermis 5. Which term refers to the external form of a plant? a. anatomy b. morphology c. physiology d. ecology 6. Which cells are connected to companion cells via plasmodesmata? a. guard cells b. trichomes c. sieve tube members d. tracheids

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Chap 33_4ce 7. What makes up the primary meristem in the root? a. ground meristem, endodermis, and epidermis b. xylem, phloem, and epidermis c. endodermis, pericycle, and cortex d. protoderm, ground meristem, and procambium 8. Which cells make up the ground tissue that provides rigid support via the thick, typically lignified, cell walls that

remain after the cells die? a. vessel members cells b. sclerenchyma cells c. tracheids cells d. collenchyma cells 9. Which of the following best describes the overall scheme of typical plant development? a. Growing tips and zones are present throughout a plant’s life, and final plant form is not influenced by the

environment. b. Growing tips and zones are present throughout a plant’s life, and plant bodies do not have a fixed final size. c. Plant bodies do not have a fixed final size, and final plant form is not influenced by the environment. d. Plant bodies have a fixed final size, and final plant form is not influenced by the environment. 10. Which type of anatomical feature is a plant stem considered to be? a. an organ b. a meristem c. a shoot system d. a tissue 11. Which of the following is typically a main function of stems? a. movement b. absorption of minerals c. storage of water and food d. energy capture 12. What is the middle section of the root called? a. the zone of maturation b. the zone of elongation c. the root apical meristem d. the zone of cell division

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Chap 33_4ce 13. What is a strawberry an example of? a. bulb b. tuber c. rhizome d. stolon 14. What is the top section of the root called? a. the zone of elongation b. the root cap c. the zone of maturation d. the zone of cell division 15. Which term refers to a coating that is secreted by epidermal cells and which protects the plant from water loss

and attacks by microbes? a. protoplast b. trichome c. cuticle d. stoma 16. Xylem and phloem are examples of what type of plant tissue? a. vascular tissue b. ground tissue c. protoderm d. meristem 17. What is ginger an example of? a. bulb b. tuber c. rhizome d. stolon 18. What is a crocus an example of? a. bulb b. tuber c. rhizome d. corm

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Chap 33_4ce 19. Which cells form flexible support strands such as the “strings” in celery? a. sclerenchyma cells b. tracheids cells c. collenchyma cells d. parenchyma cells 20. Which plant organs are often connected to a petiole, may be either simple or compound, and are typically the

main organs of photosynthesis and gas exchange? a. trichomes b. flowers c. stems d. leaves 21. Which cells are used to create a type of vascular tissue with long, tapered, overlapping ends that ultimately

forms a water-conducting tube? a. sclerenchyma cells b. parenchyma cells c. tracheids cells d. vessel members cells 22. Which term refers to the mechanisms by which the body of a plant functions in its environment? a. anatomy b. ecology c. distribution d. physiology 23. What tissue in vascular plants would be used to move sugars from the roots to the stems and leaves? a. phloem b. sclerenchyma c. xylem d. parenchyma 24. Which of the following is typically found in secondary, but NOT primary, cell walls? a. hemicellulose b. pectin c. cellulose d. lignin

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Chap 33_4ce 25. As the shoot apical meristem divides, it produces a series of bumps on its sides, which give rise to leaves.

What is their name? a. leaf primordia b. leaf petioles c. leaf embryos d. leaf meristems 26. Which cells make up the bulk of the soft primary growth of roots, stems, leaves, flowers, and fruits? a. parenchyma cells b. sclerenchyma cells c. collenchyma cells d. vessel members cells 27. Which term refers to the structure and arrangement of the internal parts of a plant? a. anatomy b. ecology c. morphology d. physiology 28. When an apical meristem cell divides, one daughter cell is called the initial and the other is called the derivative.

What are the fates of these cells? a. Both the initial and the derivative are used to form primary meristems. b. The initial remains part of the apical meristem, and the derivative is used to form primary meristems. c. Both the initial and the derivative remain part of the apical meristem. d. The initial is used to form primary meristems, and the derivative remains part of the apical meristem. 29. Which term refers to growth from apical meristems that generally results in an increase in the length of a plant? a. typical growth b. secondary growth c. primary growth d. longitudinal growth 30. Which cells form the protective coat around seeds? a. vessel members cells b. collenchyma cells c. parenchyma cells d. sclerenchyma cells

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Chap 33_4ce 31. Which term refers to the selectively permeable barrier that is present in the innermost layer of the root cortex? a. pericycle b. root hairs c. endodermis d. quiescent centre 32. Which of the following covers and protects plant surfaces? a. dermal tissue b. vascular tissue c. ground tissue d. meristem 33. Which term refers to the place on a stem where one or more leaves are attached? a. node b. internode c. lateral bud d. axil 34. Which of the following most directly gives rise to primary vascular tissues? a. ground meristem b. procambium c. vascular cambium d. apical meristem 35. Which term refers to plants that complete their life cycle in two growing seasons? a. eudicots b. perennials c. biennials d. monocots 36. Which term refers to plants that typically grow for many years? a. perennials b. monocots c. biennials d. annuals

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Chap 33_4ce 37. What is the bottom section of the root called? a. the zone of maturation b. the zone of cell division c. the root apical meristem d. the zone of elongation 38. What are rhizomes, tubers, corms, and stolons examples of? a. modified leaves b. modified stems c. modified bulbs d. modified flowers 39. What is the tip of the root called? a. the root cap b. the zone of elongation c. the zone of cell division d. the root apical meristem 40. Which type of plant tissue is specialized for conducting fluids? a. dermal tissue b. meristem c. protoderm d. vascular tissue 41. What is the term for a single main root that is adapted for storage and which typically grows downward and

fairly deep? a. a taproot b. a tuber c. a rhizome d. a fibrous root 42. Which structure surrounds and protects the root apical meristem? a. the pericycle b. the root cap c. the root hairs d. the endodermis

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Chap 33_4ce 43. Which part of a vascular plant performs most of the photosynthesis that is conducted by the plant? a. the ground tissue b. the protoderm c. the dermal tissue d. the vascular tissue 44. Which cells form a type of vascular tissue by joining end to end in tubelike columns, develop thick, lignified cell

walls, and die at maturity, thus leaving an open-ended, water-conducting tube? a. tracheids b. vessel members c. parenchyma cells d. collenchyma cells 45. Which of the following is associated with the terms cuticle, guard cells, stomata, and trichomes? a. ground tissue b. meristem c. vascular tissue d. dermal tissue 46. Which term refers to primary and secondary xylem that can no longer transport water and solutes, but which

instead is strengthened dry tissue where some defensive compounds are stored? a. sapwood b. bark c. vascular cambium d. heartwood 47. What part of a plant consists of self-perpetuating embryonic tissue that is typically found at the tips of shoots

and roots? a. the protoderm b. the meristem c. the dermal tissue d. the ground tissue 48. From which of the following structures do lateral roots arise? a. the root hairs b. the endodermis c. the pericycle d. the root cap

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Chap 33_4ce 49. Which of the following processes maintain apical dominance? a. hormones released by the lateral buds b. sugars produced in the lateral buds c. water transported from the roots d. hormones released by the terminal bud 50. What tissue in vascular plants would be used to move water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the stems

and leaves? a. sclerenchyma b. xylem c. parenchyma d. collenchyma 51. Imagine that you have found a mutant oak plant that CANNOT produce vascular cambium. What would be

the most direct result of this mutation? a. The plant would not be able to perform photosynthesis. b. The plant would not be able to transport sugar to the roots. c. The plant would not be able to make secondary xylem and phloem. d. The plant would not be able to make leaves. 52. What is the site of new primary growth at the apex of a shoot? a. the internode b. the lateral bud c. the node d. the terminal bud 53. Which term refers to the upper angle between a stem and attached leaf? a. axillary bud b. internode c. node d. lateral bud 54. What is a potato an example of? a. bulb b. tuber c. rhizome d. stolon

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Chap 33_4ce 55. Which sequence places the tissues in the stem of a young tree in the correct order, starting from the exterior of

the plant with the outermost layer of stem tissue, and moving toward the centre? a. secondary phloem primary xylem secondary xylem primary phloem b. primary phloem secondary xylem secondary phloem primary xylem c. primary phloem secondary phloem secondary xylem primary xylem d. primary xylem secondary xylem secondary phloem primary phloem 56. Which of the following most directly gives rise to secondary xylem and phloem? a. apical meristem b. procambium c. vascular cambium d. protoderm 57. Which of the following can waterproof cell walls, thus allowing the plant to form structures such as watertight

conduction channels? a. cellulose b. lignin c. hemicellulose d. pectin 58. Which plant body part includes the sieve tube members? a. ground tissue b. dermal tissue c. meristem d. phloem 59. Where does the primary uptake of water and mineral ions from the soil occur? a. in the root hairs b. in the pericycle c. in the endodermis d. in the quiescent centre

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Chap 33_4ce

Match each description of a plant characteristic to the letter that represents the plant group that typically has that characteristic. Each letter may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. eudicots b. monocots c. both eudicots and monocots d. neither eudicots nor monocots 60. two cotyledons 61. branching fibrous root system 62. floral parts in fours or fives (or multiples of four or five) 63. leaf veins in a netlike array 64. floral parts in threes (or multiples of three) 65. reproduction using seeds 66. vascular tissues 67. one cotyledon 68. lack of meristems 69. parallel leaf veins 70. vascular bundles organized in a ring in ground tissue 71. Explain the difference between primary and secondary growth.

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Chap 33_4ce Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. d 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. c 12. b 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. d 21. c 22. d 23. a 24. d 25. a 26. a

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Chap 33_4ce 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. d 41. a 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. d 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. b 51. c 52. d 53. a 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 33_4ce 55. c 56. c 57. b 58. d 59. a 60. a 61. b 62. a 63. a 64. b 65. c 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. b 70. a 71. Primary growth, which is found in all vascular plants, comes from apical meristems and results mainly in elongation of

the plant in both the root and shoot systems. Secondary growth occurs in some plants, and when it does occur, it primarily increases the girth of the plant through growth that comes from the vascular cambium and the cork cambium. Woody tissues are a hallmark of secondary growth.

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Chap 34_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which Greek letter is typically used to represent water potential? a. Greek letter î b. Greek letter è c. Greek letter ö d. Greek letter ø 2. Suppose you discover a mutant plant that CANNOT actively transport solutes across the tonoplast. How will

this plant differ from a wild-type plant? a. The plant will generally be like a normal plant. b. The plant will wilt easily. c. The plant will not have roots. d. The plant will not have leaves. 3. Suppose two living plant cells are in contact with each other such that water, but NOT solutes, can pass between them. Also suppose that the cells have the same water potential, and that one cell has Yp =0.3 MPa

and Ys = –0.5 MPa, while the other cell has Ys = –0.3 MPa. What is the Yp of the second cell? a. Yp = –0.8 MPa b. Yp = 0.1 MPa c. Yp = 0.5 MPa d. Yp = 0.8 MPa 4. What generally causes stomata to close? a. nightlight b. daylight c. high moisture d. high K+ content 5. Many plants wind up with a Na+ concentration that is considerably lower than that of the surrounding soil.

What plays a key role in allowing for such a difference to exist? a. endodermis b. tonoplast c. aquaporin d. water potential

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Chap 34_4ce 6. Which term best describes the movement of NH4+ ions into a cell down an electrochemical gradient? a. a symport b. passive diffusion c. facilitated diffusion d. active transport 7. Which ion is pumped into guard cells in order to make them more flaccid? a. Na+ b. Ca2+ c. K+ d. H+ 8. How would water flow if the ø of surrounding soil is higher than that in living root epidermal cells? a. Water would leave the root cells, making them flaccid. b. Water would leave the root cells, making them turgid. c. Water would enter the root cells, making them flaccid. d. Water would enter the root cells, making them turgid. 9. According to the cohesion–tension mechanism of water transport, why does cohesion occur? a. because water molecules tend to form hydrogen bonds with each other b. because water is pushed into the xylem by bulk flow c. because waxy coatings on the insides of xylem keep water molecules together in the xylem d. because evaporation removes water from the leaves 10. What is the principal driving force for movement of water into and through the plant shoot? a. upward pressure as sugar is forced into the roots b. pumping by the xylem cells c. passive transport d. transpirational pull 11. What is the general term for long-distance transport of substances in plants? a. osmosis b. translocation c. pressure flow d. cohesion–tension

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Chap 34_4ce 12. What is the most widely accepted and supported model for explaining the movement of phloem sap in

flowering plants? a. the translocation mechanism b. the pressure-flow mechanism c. the transpiration mechanism d. the cohesion–tension mechanism 13. Which of the following has a major effect on the rate of transpiration? a. soil minerals b. growth rate c. air temperature d. predation 14. How do companion cells load most of the carbohydrates into sieve tube members? a. by symport b. through carrier proteins c. through plasmodesmata d. by antiport 15. Theoretically, based on the cohesion–tension mechanism, what should be the maximum height for the tallest

trees? a. about 3 m b. about 50 m c. about 75 m d. about 130 m 16. Which ion plays the most prominent role in the opening and closing of stomata? a. Cl– b. K+ c. Na+ d. Ca2+ 17. Which of the following best describes the mechanism(s) by which water can move inside a root? a. apoplastic, transmembrane, and symplastic pathways b. transmembrane and symplastic pathways c. transmembrane pathway d. apoplastic pathway

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Chap 34_4ce 18. What does water potential refer to? a. a relative value that is defined in reference to distilled water at atmospheric pressure of 10 MPa b. a relative value that is defined in reference to pure water at atmospheric pressure of 10 MPa c. a relative value that is defined in reference to pure water at atmospheric pressure of 0 MPa d. a relative value that is defined in reference to distilled water at atmospheric pressure of 0 MPa 19. What is the evaporation of water from plant tissues called? a. guttation b. root pressure c. transpiration d. cohesion–tension 20. Which phrase best describes “honeydew”? a. phloem sap leaving the anus of an aphid b. phloem sap harvested as syrup c. xylem sap separated from syrup d. xylem sap forced out of the margins of leaves 21. Under which conditions would essentially no transpiration be expected to occur? a. near freezing air temperature b. hot air temperature and no winds c. brisk winds d. 100% relative humidity 22. What is the fate of the majority of the water in xylem sap? a. It evaporates into the air. b. It is used to make sugars. c. It is used in capturing light energy. d. It becomes part of new plant cells. 23. What is the water potential of phloem relative to the water potential of the surrounding xylem? a. lower b. higher c. about the same d. exactly the same

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Chap 34_4ce 24. What is the main form in which sugars are transported in the phloem sap? a. starch b. fructose c. lactose d. sucrose 25. Which ion is pumped out of guard cells in order to increase their turgidity? a. H+ b. Ca2+ c. Na+ d. K+ 26. Suppose a living plant cell has Yp = 0.4 MPa and Ys = –0.5 MPa. Suppose also that the plant cell is placed

into a beaker filled with a solution for which Y=Ys=–0.9 MPa. What will the cell then do? a. It will take up water until within the cell Yp = –Ys. b. It will lose water until its Ys = its Yp. c. It will lose water until its Y= Y of the solution. d. It will take up water until it bursts. 27. Suppose a living plant cell has Y=Ys = –0.5 MPa. Also suppose that the plant cell is placed into a beaker

filled with a solution for which Y= 0. What will the cell then do? a. It will lose water until its Ys = itsYp. b. It will take up water until within the cellYp = –Ys. c. It will take up water until itsYs =Ys of the solution. d. It will take up water until it bursts. 28. What generally causes stomata to open? a. the release of abscisic acid by the roots b. a drop in CO2 concentration in leaf air spaces c. an exposure to red light d. a drop in O2 concentration in leaf air spaces 29. What route is being followed by water that moves through non-living regions of a root, such as air spaces in

root tissue? a. the apoplastic, transmembrane, and epidermal pathways b. the symplastic, transmembrane, and transepidermal pathways c. the transmembrane, epidermal, and transepidermal pathways d. the apoplastic, transmembrane, and symplastic pathways Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 34_4ce 30. What does tonoplast refer to? a. the plant nuclear envelope b. the cell wall c. a chloroplast d. the vacuolar membrane 31. Which phrase best describes the exodermis? a. the outer layer of roots, including root hairs b. the above-ground continuation of the endodermis c. the substitute for the endodermis in gymnosperms d. found in the roots of most flowering plants 32. What is the pressure potential (øp ) of a living plant cell in a living leaf that is not wilted relative to that in the

fluids surrounding the cell? a. typically about the same b. varies widely from higher to lower c. typically higher d. typically lower 33. What is the solute potential (øs ) of a living plant cell in a living leaf that is not wilted relative to the fluids

surrounding the cell? a. typically lower b. typically higher c. varies widely from higher to lower d. typically about the same 34. Which term best describes the process by which sucrose is moved into a cell against its concentration gradient

while at the same time, protons are moved into a cell with their concentration gradient? a. facilitated diffusion b. a symport c. an antiport d. active transport 35. Which is the most widely accepted and supported model for explaining the movement of xylem sap? a. the transpiration mechanism b. the osmosis mechanism c. the pressure flow mechanism d. the cohesion–tension mechanism

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Chap 34_4ce 36. What route is being followed by water that moves through living cells in a root? a. the symplastic and epidermal pathways b. the transmembrane and apoplastic pathways c. the transmembrane and symplastic pathways d. the apoplastic and epidermal pathways 37. Which of the following best describes the process by which individual plant cells typically gain or lose water? a. symport b. guttation c. osmosis d. facilitated diffusion 38. Where is phloem sap moved to? a. to the root system b. to sinks c. to the shoot system d. to sources 39. What drives the process of transpiration? a. upward pressure as sugar is forced into the roots b. evaporation c. pumping by the xylem cells d. passive transport 40. How would an air temperature rise of 10?0?C typically affect evaporation from leaves? a. It would mostly eliminate evaporation. b. It would double the rate of evaporation. c. It would triple the rate of evaporation. d. It would quadruple the rate of evaporation. 41. Which of the following are found on either side of a plant stoma? a. guard cells b. trichomes c. leaves d. root hairs

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Chap 34_4ce 42. What is the waxy substance suberin typically associated with? a. root hairs b. tonoplasts c. endodermis d. pericycle 43. How far are most leaf cells from a xylem vein? a. 2.0 centimetres b. 1.0 centimetre c. 0.5 millimetres d. 50 micrometres 44. What needs to happen to the K+ concentration in guard cells for the stomata to open? a. It needs to fluctuate. b. It needs to remain unchanged. c. It needs to decrease. d. It needs to increase. 45. Which term best describes the movement of ions and large molecules across membranes via transport proteins

against their concentration gradient? a. passive diffusion b. a symport c. facilitated diffusion d. active transport 46. What is the principal driving force for guttation? a. pumping by the xylem cells b. sunlight c. passive transport d. root pressure 47. Which route of water absorption is inhibited by the Casparian strip? a. the apoplastic pathway b. the transplastic pathway c. the symplastic pathway d. the transmembrane pathway

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Chap 34_4ce 48. Which of the following were used in studies to test and support the hypothesis that high pressure forces

phloem sap to flow? a. radiolabelled sugars b. radiolabelled hormones c. aphids d. vacuum chambers 49. Which of the following characterizes the apoplastic pathways in the root? a. the water moves through living regions but in the endodermis it must pass through the cell wall b. the water moves through non-living regions but in the endodermis it must pass through the cell wall c. the water moves through living regions but in the endodermis it must pass through the cytoplasm d. the water moves through non-living regions but in the endodermis it must pass through the cytoplasm 50. Xylem sap is moved from the root system into what other structure in the plant body? a. the tonoplast system b. the shoot system c. the taproots d. the trichomes 51. Which plant organelle stores solutes and plays a major role in maintaining turgor pressure? a. chloroplast b. mitochondrion c. vacuole d. cell wall 52. Which sentence best describes how mineral ions are absorbed by plants? a. They are moved into the symplast via facilitated diffusion. b. They are moved into the apoplast via bulk flow. c. They are moved into the symplast via active transport. d. They are moved into the apoplast via facilitated diffusion. 53. What is the state of stomata in CAM plants, such as cacti? a. They are nearly always open. b. They are open during the day and are closed during the night. c. They are almost never open. d. They are open during the night and are closed during the day.

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Chap 34_4ce 54. How does loading of most carbohydrates into companion cells at a source occur? a. by diffusion of water from the xylem b. by osmosis c. by active transport d. by proton pumping 55. When solutes are unloaded from phloem, what happens to water? a. It is pumped out of the phloem by active transport. b. It is pumped into the phloem by active transport. c. It leaves the xylem by osmosis. d. It leaves the phloem by osmosis. 56. What are the primary aspects of the process used by a tall tree to move water to the leaves at the top of the

tree? a. positive pressure from roots and cohesion b. cohesion and evaporation c. capillary action and pumps d. capillary action and positive pressure from roots 57. What is the Yp of a living plant cell that has Y= –0.2 MPa and Ys = –0.4 MPa? a. Yp = –0.6 MPa b. Yp = 0.08 MPa c. Yp = 0.2 MPa d. Yp = 0.5 MPa 58. What is the major cost to plants for having cuticle-covered epidermis in the shoot system to reduce water

loss? a. reduced oxygen uptake b. reduced nitrogen uptake c. reduced carbon dioxide uptake d. reduced potassium uptake 59. Which term best describes the structure that is necessary for facilitated diffusion? a. a receptor protein b. a pore c. a signal protein d. a carrier protein

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Chap 34_4ce 60. Which of the following describes the state of stomata in most plants? a. They open during the night and close during the day. b. They are nearly always open. c. They are almost never open. d. They open during the day and close during the night. 61. Which of the following characterizes the symplastic pathways in the root? a. the water moves into and through living cells and is moving through the cytoplasm b. the water moves into and through living cells and is moving through the cell wall c. the water moves into and through non-living cells and is moving through the cytoplasm d. the water moves into and through non-living cells and is moving through the cell wall 62. Consider a living plant cell in a living leaf that has higher water potential than the fluids surrounding the cell.

What would happen to the water? a. There would be no net flow of water into or out of the cell. b. There would be a gain of water by the cell only if the cell’s pressure potential is low enough. c. There would be a net flow of water out of the cell. d. There would be a gain of water by the cell only if the cell’s pressure potential is high enough. 63. Suppose that a living plant cell is placed in a beaker with a solution that has a ø value lower than the ø value of

the plant cell. What will happen to the plant cell? a. It will lose water until its øs = its øp . b. It will take up water until within the cell øp = –øs . c. It will take up water until its ø = øs of the solution. d. It will lose water until its ø = ø of the solution. 64. Which term best describes the typical movement of xylem sap from roots to shoot parts? a. facilitated diffusion b. symport c. osmosis d. bulk flow 65. What has the strongest effect on whether stomata are open or closed? a. O2 concentration b. CO2 concentration c. light d. ion concentrations in the xylem

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Chap 34_4ce 66. Which of the following should you expect to find in a living plant cell in a living plant? a. a cytoplasm that is much more positively charged than the fluid outside the cell b. a cytoplasm that is much more negatively charged than the fluid outside the cell c. a cytoplasm that is slightly more negatively charged than the fluid outside the cell d. a cytoplasm that is slightly more positively charged than the fluid outside the cell 67. Which of the following best describes aquaporins? a. They are channel proteins for water. b. They are carrier proteins for water. c. They are channel proteins for solutes. d. They are carrier proteins for water and solutes. 68. Suppose that a living plant cell is placed in a beaker with pure water. How long will it take up water? a. until it is flaccid b. until it is turgid c. until it is shrunken d. until it is plasmolyzed

Match each term or phrase with the letter of the associated plant tissue. Each letter may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. xylem b. phloem c. both xylem and phloem d. neither xylem nor phloem 69. primary transport of water from roots 70. dead cells throughout conducting portions 71. stomata 72. transport of hormones from growing shoot tips 73. trichomes 74. companion cells 75. transport of sugars 76. bulk flow 77. cohesion–tension mechanism 78. primary transport of ions from leaves

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Chap 34_4ce 79. Explain the processes of phloem loading and unloading in a flowering plant.

80. Explain the process that occurs when a stoma goes from closed to open.

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Chap 34_4ce Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. d 9. a 10. d 11. b 12. b 13. c 14. c 15. d 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. a 23. a 24. d 25. a 26. c

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Chap 34_4ce 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. d 31. d 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. c 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. c 44. d 45. d 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. d 50. b 51. c 52. c 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 34_4ce 55. d 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. d 60. d 61. a 62. c 63. d 64. d 65. c 66. c 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. a 71. d 72. b 73. d 74. b 75. b 76. c 77. a 78. b

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Chap 34_4ce 79. At a source, such as a photosynthesizing leaf, an excess of solutes such as sucrose will generally be available. The

phloem is loaded with solutes by active transport mechanisms. This mostly occurs through companion cells, which take up solutes by active transport. Solutes then pass into sieve tube members mainly through plasmodesmata. As the sieve tube members fill with solute, their water potential is lowered compared to surrounding tissues; thus, water then enters them via osmosis. The entry of water creates pressure potential, which then pushes solutes and water away from the source by bulk flow. Pressure gradually decreases away from the source at a sink(s), such that the bulk flow is toward the sink(s). Sinks include locations such as growing shoot tips or roots. At a sink, solutes are unloaded into nearby cells. This unloading of solutes causes water to flow out by osmosis, further lowering the pressure potential at the sink. 80. When triggered by items such as blue light or a decrease in carbon dioxide concentration, guard cells will undergo

activity changes that will change them from flaccid to turgid. Turgid guard cells bend away from each other, thus opening the space between them (the stoma). The process that leads guard cells to become turgid is as follows. First, protons are pumped out of the guard cells by active transport. Then, protons flow back into the cells, providing energy for active transport of K+ into the cells. This increases the solute concentration inside the cells, such that water then follows into the cells by osmosis. The movement of water into the cells causes turgor pressure to build until the guard cells become turgid, thus opening the stoma.

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Chap 35_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What kinds of cells are produced by meiosis in flowering plants? a. diploid sporophytes b. haploid sporophytes c. haploid gametophytes d. diploid gametophytes 2. Which of the following provides a powerful importance of the plant Arabidopsis? a. its entire genome that has been sequenced b. its reproductive cycle c. its ability to be cloned d. its alternation of generations 3. In flowering plants, how many sperm cells are typically produced from each microspore mother cell? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 4. Where is an anther typically found in a flower? a. at the tip of a filament b. at the tip of a carpel c. at the tip of an ovule d. at the tip of a calyx 5. What is the term for the process of asexual reproduction in which a diploid embryo develops from an

unfertilized egg or from diploid cells in ovule tissue? a. grafting b. somaclonal section c. apomixis d. fragmentation 6. For a typical flowering plant, how is the first cell of the triploid (3n) endosperm formed from? a. from one sperm fused with two antipodal cells b. from two sperm fused with a synergid c. from two sperm fused with the egg d. from one sperm fused with the central cell

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Chap 35_4ce 7. Which structures make up the male reproductive whorl of a flower? a. the sepals b. the carpels c. the stamens d. the receptacles 8. Which are the male gametophytes in flowering plants? a. sperm b. anthers c. pollen grains d. stamens 9. During double fertilization, what do the sperm fertilize? a. the egg and its nucleus b. the egg and the nucleus of the synergid c. the egg and the nucleus of the antipodal cell d. the egg and the nucleus of the central cell 10. Where does the male gametophyte form in flowering plants? a. in a stamen b. in a carpel c. in a receptacle d. in a calyx 11. Which term refers to the embryonic root? a. radicle b. epicotyl c. cotyledon d. hypocotyl

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Chap 35_4ce

Figure 35-1

12. In Figure 35-1, what is item number 5? a. an ovule b. a stigma c. a receptacle d. an anther 13. Some fully differentiated plant cells are totipotent. What does this mean? a. They will grow roots if they touch the ground. b. They have the potential to form a whole, fully functional plant. c. They can fertilize an egg. d. They can undergo meiosis. 14. What would you expect to find in the part of an embryo sac farthest away from the micropyle? a. the synergids b. the seed c. the antipodal cells d. the pollen tube 15. In a flowering plant, which structure includes the ovary? a. the stamen b. the ovule c. the calyx d. the carpel

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Chap 35_4ce 16. What is the term for the end of a reproductive shoot where a flower develops? a. ovule b. receptacle c. calyx d. filament 17. Which sentence best describes the relationship between gametophyte and sporophyte in flowering plants? a. The gametophytes are smaller than the sporophytes, and are retained inside sporophyte for all or part of

their lives. b. The gametophytes are smaller than the sporophytes, and do not nourish themselves. c. The gametophytes and sporophytes are roughly equal in size, and both nourish themselves. d. The gametophytes are usually larger than the sporophytes, but both gametophytes and sporophytes nourish themselves. 18. Which term refers to the landing platform for pollen in flowering plants? a. the stigma b. the filament c. the style d. the anther 19. Which term refers to a fruit that develops from several ovaries in a single flower? a. accessory fruit b. aggregate fruit c. simple fruit d. multiple fruit 20. Which term refers to a fruit that develops from a single ovary in a single flower? a. simple fruit b. accessory fruit c. multiple fruit d. aggregate fruit 21. Which parts of a flower are most likely to have distinctive colours, patterning, and shapes for attracting

pollinators? a. the petals b. the receptacles c. the sepals d. the stamens

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Chap 35_4ce

Figure 35-1

22. In Figure 35-1, what is item number 8? a. a sepal b. an anther c. a style d. an ovule 23. What happens when self pollen grain lands on the stigma? a. It fertilizes the central cell. b. It forms pollen tube. c. It fertilizes the egg. d. It is rejected. 24. Which of the following is the female gametophyte in flowering plants? a. the seed b. the embryo sac c. the megasporocyte d. the ovule 25. When is the root–shoot axis established in the flowering plant Arabidopsis? a. within hours after the seed germinates b. shortly after the eight-cell embryo stage c. during the torpedo stage of embryonic development d. by the first cell division of the embryo

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Chap 35_4ce 26. What is the purpose of self-incompatibility in flowers? a. It prevents both self-fertilization and self-pollination. b. It prevents self-pollination but not self-fertilization. c. It prevents self-fertilization but not self-pollination. d. It prevents self-fertilization and occasionally prevents self-pollination. 27. How many cells are in the female gametophyte of a flowering plant? a. 4 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 28. Which of the following is carpel composed of? a. stigma, anther, and filament b. stigma, style, and ovary c. anther, filament, and ovary d. style, stigma, and filament 29. Which sequence represents the most typical order of events in seed germination? a. shoot cells divide and elongate root cells divide and elongate seed coat splits b. seed coat splits c. water imbibition d. water imbibition

water imbibition root cells divide and elongate seed coat splits root cells divide and elongate root cells divide and elongate seed coat splits

water imbibition shoot cells divide and elongate shoot cells divide and elongate shoot cells divide and elongate

30. Which term refers to growing useful mutants that develop from callus culture? a. grafting b. protoplast fusion c. fragmentation d. somatic embryogenesis

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Chap 35_4ce

Figure 35-1

31. In Figure 35-1, what is item number 2? a. a sepal b. an anther c. a petal d. an ovule 32. Which of the following is usually the female gametophyte in flowering plants? a. a single ovary b. the complete pistil c. the shoot parts bearing female flowers d. the seven cells embedded in floral tissues 33. What is it most likely that most seeds are packed with? a. either water or starch b. either starch or lipids c. either starch or proteins d. either lipids or proteins 34. Which structures make up the innermost whorl of a flower? a. the receptacles b. the carpels c. the sepals d. the stamens

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Chap 35_4ce 35. What makes up the female reproductive whorl of a flower? a. the carpels b. the receptacles c. the stamens d. the petals 36. What must be present in a flower in order for it to make seeds? a. sepals b. carpels c. stamens and sepals d. stamens and carpels

Figure 35-1

37. In Figure 35-1, what is item number 1? a. the sepal b. the ovule c. the style d. the receptacle 38. Which term refers to a flower that lacks either stamens or carpels? a. perfect b. imperfect c. incomplete d. complete

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Chap 35_4ce 39. Which of the following is the best analogy for a seed? a. painting kit b. lunch box c. tool box d. beauty case 40. Which term refers to a fruit that develops from several ovaries in multiple flowers? a. simple fruit b. multiple fruit c. aggregate fruit d. accessory fruit 41. Which term refers to a fruit that develops from tissues of the receptacle as well as from the ovary? a. aggregate fruit b. accessory fruit c. multiple fruit d. simple fruit 42. Which parts of a flower are typically the most leaflike? a. the receptacles b. the carpels c. the sepals d. the petals 43. Which of the following give a flower its colour? a. petals b. sepals c. anthers d. stigma 44. Where in a flowering plant would meiosis be expected to occur? a. in trichomes b. in leaves c. in roots d. in flowers

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Chap 35_4ce

Figure 35-1

45. In Figure 35-1, what is item number 7? a. a filament b. a style c. a stigma d. an ovule 46. Which structure is formed as a result of double fertilization? a. the hypocotyl b. the endosperm c. the cotyledon d. the seed coat 47. Which phrase best describes the micropyle? a. a passageway through the style for sperm b. the inner seed coat c. the mature male gametophyte d. a small opening at one end of an ovule 48. What governs the course of the vegetative growth throughout the life of a plant? a. Genes that govern plant development switch on in response only to a changing internal environment. b. Genes that govern plant development switch on in response only to a changing external environment. c. Genes that govern plant development switch on and off in response to a changing external environment. d. Genes that govern plant development switch on and off in response to a changing internal environment.

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Chap 35_4ce

Figure 35-1

49. In Figure 35-1, what is item number 6? a. a petal b. a sepal c. a receptacle d. a style 50. Which term refers to a seed leaf? a. hypocotyl b. cotyledon c. suspensor d. endosperm 51. Where does the female gametophyte form in flowering plants? a. in a stamen b. in a carpel c. in a corolla d. in a receptacle 52. What happens when pollen from one species lands on the stigma of a flower from another species? a. The pollen tube typically forms and grows to the ovary, but then stops. b. The pollen tube typically forms, but the sperm are killed. c. The pollen tube typically forms, but the sperm cannot penetrate the egg. d. The pollen tube typically does not develop.

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Chap 35_4ce 53. Which structures make up the outermost whorl of a flower? a. the receptacles b. the carpels c. the petals d. the sepals 54. Which type of reproduction involves the growth of a new plant on the margin of a leaf that eventually falls to

the ground and grows independently? a. grafting b. fragmentation c. apomixes d. somaclonal section Figure 35-1

55. In Figure 35-1, what is item number 3? a. a filament b. a stigma c. an anther d. a receptacle 56. Which phrase describes the events that occur in the production of a pollen grain from a microspore mother

cell? a. Only meiosis occurs. b. First mitosis occurs, and then meiosis, followed by mitosis. c. First meiosis occurs, and then mitosis. d. First mitosis occurs, and then meiosis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 35_4ce 57. Why does a pollen tube need to elongate? a. One sperm can be recognized as self or nonself. b. One sperm can travel inside to reach the egg. c. Two sperm can travel inside to reach the egg. d. Two sperm can reside inside until it is time for fertilization. 58. Which of the following best describes an embryo in a seed after it has been fertilized? a. It begins as a sporophyte and ends up as a gametophyte before germination. b. It is usually a gametophyte but can be a sporophyte. c. It is always a sporophyte. d. It is always a gametophyte. 59. What does the fruit wall, or pericarp, develop from? a. the ovary wall b. the endosperm c. the petals d. the receptacle 60. Along with the egg, what would you expect to find in the part of an embryo sac next to the micropyle? a. the seed b. the central cell c. the synergids d. the antipodal cells 61. What is the main mechanism by which fleshy fruits aid seed dispersal? a. by being buried by animals b. by falling directly under the parent plant c. by being eaten by animals d. by floating away from the parent plant 62. In flowering plants, how many egg cells are typically produced from each megaspore mother cell? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

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Chap 35_4ce

Figure 35-1

63. In Figure 35-1, what is item number 4? a. an anther b. a sepal c. a receptacle d. an ovule 64. What is a plant species in which the plant can make either only male or only female flowers called, and what

flowers does it always have? a. monoecious; imperfect b. dioecious; perfect c. dioecious; imperfect d. monoecious; perfect Match each flower part with its description. a. parts that enclose and protect all other flower parts before the flower opens b. male reproductive parts c. female reproductive parts d. often showy parts that function in attracting bees or other animal pollinators 65. carpels 66. sepals 67. stamens 68. petals

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Chap 35_4ce 69. Describe the process of double fertilization in flowering plants.

70. Describe several ways that fruits can aid seed dispersal.

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Chap 35_4ce Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. b 14. c 15. d 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. b 25. d 26. c

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Chap 35_4ce 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. b 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. b 51. b 52. d 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 35_4ce 55. a 56. c 57. c 58. c 59. a 60. c 61. c 62. a 63. a 64. c 65. c 66. a 67. b 68. d 69. In flowering plants, fertilization is typically a double event. In one event, a single sperm joins with a single egg,

creating a diploid cell that will become the embryo. In the other event, a single sperm joins with the central cell of the embryo sac; the central cells begin with two nuclei, therefore this joining produces a triploid cell. This triploid cell gives rise to endosperm, a tissue that provides nourishment for the developing embryo. 70. Fruits may aid seed dispersal in many ways. Some fruits split open and release seeds when seeds are ready to be

dispersed. Some have winglike extensions that help the wind to transport seeds away from the parent plant. Others have barblike projections or sticky surfaces that easily adhere to feathers, fur, or clothing so that animals will transport them. Still other fruits rely on being eaten, with the seeds adapted for surviving in the digestive tract of the animal and then being dispersed in the animal’s feces.

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Chap 36_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Dodders develop haustorial leaves that penetrate deep into the host plant and tap into its vascular tissues. 2. In temperate forests, many mosses and lichens are epiphytes. 3. The snow plant lacks chlorophyll and does not have haustorial leaves. 4. Mycorrhizae are crucial symbiotic associations between a fungus and the stems of a plant. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 5. Which of the following elements is considered an essential macronutrient for plants? a. manganese b. nickel c. nitrogen d. copper 6. Which of the following plants both parasitizes other plants and performs photosynthesis? a. lady-of-the-night orchid b. mistletoe c. cobra lily d. dodder 7. Imagine that you are a farmer who chose not to rotate your crops with soybeans even though the local

extension agent recommended that you do so. Which deficiency symptom in your crops should indicate to you that the extension agent's advice was correct? a. chlorosis and mottled or bronzed leaves b. chlorosis in older leaves and stunted growth c. pale green, rolled, or cupped leaves d. burned leaf edges and curled, mottled, or spotted older leaves 8. A soil that tends to dry quickly compared to other soil types contains which of the following? a. sand b. humus c. clay d. silt

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Chap 36_4ce 9. Studies of a soybean plant (Glycine max) and the bacterium Bradyrhizobium japonicum have shown that

after the bacteria enter the root, cells of the root cortex begin to divide. What is this a response to? a. to a flavonoid released by soybean roots b. to nod gene products produced by soybean roots c. to nod gene products produced by the bacterium d. to nitrogen fixation by the bacterium 10. What are species of Rhizobium and Bradyrhizobium bacteria most directly associated with? a. nitrification b. nitrogen fixation c. nitrogen cycling d. ammonification 11. Compare soils in the areas that receive heavy rainfalls with areas that are arid. What kind of soil is found in

each? a. acidic in wet; alkaline in arid b. pH-neutral in wet; acidic in arid c. alkaline in wet; acidic in arid d. pH-neutral in wet; alkaline in arid 12. Which of the following is mostly performed by bacteria living within the roots of plants in the legume family? a. nitrification b. ammonification c. nitrogen cycling d. nitrogen fixation 13. Which soil region is the most fertile soil layer where the roots of most herbaceous plants are located? a. A horizon b. B horizon c. C horizon d. O horizon 14. When tropical forests are cut for agriculture, they often do not produce highly productive crop growth. What is

probably limiting the growth of a crop in the tropical forest? a. sunlight b. rainfall c. soil nutrients d. carbon dioxide

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Chap 36_4ce 15. What will a mutant soybean plant that is unable to produce leghemoglobin most likely suffer from? a. deficiency in magnesium b. deficiency in potassium c. deficiency in oxygen d. deficiency in nitrogen 16. Which of the following best described the surfaces of clay particles in soil? a. They often bear positively charged ions. b. They release water to plants easily. c. They often bear negatively charged ions. d. They are generally hydrophobic. 17. Which of the following nutrient deficiencies does NOT result in leaf chlorosis? a. boron b. iron c. zinc d. magnesium 18. Which of the following would you expect to happen if nitrifying bacteria were not present in a soil? a. Plants would take up nitrogen for their use mainly as NH4+. b. Plants would not survive because they could not get useful nitrogen. c. Plants would take up nitrogen for their use mainly as N2. d. Plants would take up nitrogen for their use mainly as NH3. 19. What is the process of adding hydrogen to N2, creating NH3 and eventually NH4+, with a substantial input of

ATP called? a. nitrogen fixation b. ammonification c. nitrogen cycling d. nitrification 20. Which of the following is converted inside root cells into its product, which is then rapidly used to synthesize

organic molecules? a. NH4+ is converted to NO3 . b. N2 is converted to NO3 . c. NO3 is converted toNH4+. d. NH is converted to NH4+.

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Chap 36_4ce 21. Studies of a soybean plant (Glycine max) and the bacterium Bradyrhizobium japonicum have shown that

the tip of a root hair curls toward the bacteria as a response to which of the following? a. a flavonoid released by soybean roots b. nod gene products produced by soybean roots c. nod gene products produced by the bacterium d. nitrogen fixation by the bacterium 22. Which of the following in excess irreversibly inhibits the enzyme nitrogenase? a. O2 b. NO3 c. N2 d. CO2 23. What are root nodules? a. connecting points between branching roots b. localized swellings in plant roots filled with nitrogen-fixing bacteria c. specialized root hairs d. symbiotic associations between a fungus and plant roots 24. What is the process in which NH4+ is oxidized to NO3- called? a. nitrification b. ammonification c. nitrogen cycling d. nitrogen fixation 25. In which of its forms do plants generally take up nitrogen for their use? a. mainly as NH4+ b. mainly as NO3 c. mainly as NH3 d. mainly as N2 26. What is a soil with roughly equal amounts of humus, silt, clay, and sand called? a. a topsoil b. a loam c. a subsoil d. a compost

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Chap 36_4ce 27. Which of these statements describes bacteroids? a. specialized nitrifying bacteria b. small buds from ammonifying bacteria c. specialized bacteria that help some plant roots absorb phosphorus d. enlarged and immobilized nitrogen-fixing bacteria 28. Which soil region extends to the underlying bedrock, and consists of mineral particles and rock fragments but

generally no organic material? a. A horizon b. B horizon c. C horizon d. O horizon 29. Which of the following is most important for retaining water in soil for use by plants? a. sand b. humus c. clay d. silt 30. Which of the following elements is considered an essential micronutrient for plants? a. phosphorus b. silver c. molybdenum d. carbon 31. Research in Colorado’s San Juan Mountains compared stands of lodgepole pine and Engelmann spruce with

stands of trembling aspen. Compared to the other two, the aspen soil had all the following EXCEPT which? a. higher temperatures b. more nitrate c. different arrays of organisms d. more phosphorus 32. Which of the following disease symptoms would you expect to see in legumes grown in soil deficient of iron? a. purplish veins and a lack of chlorophyll b. chlorosis of plant tissues and mottled leaves c. chlorosis of plant tissues and a lack of chlorophyll d. purplish veins and mottled leaves

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Chap 36_4ce 33. What are animals trapped and digested by “carnivorous” plants such as the cobra lily used as? a. primarily as an energy supplement during winter months b. primarily as a carbon source for the plant c. primarily as a nutrient supplement in nutrient-deficient environments d. primarily as food for bacteria and fungi that grow symbiotically with the plant roots 34. In which process is the enzyme nitrogenase most directly involved? a. nitrogen fixation b. ammonification c. nitrogen cycling d. nitrification 35. Farmers often grow legumes such as soybeans every few years and plow much of the plant parts into the soil.

What does this practice mainly serve? a. to replenish the soil with useful forms of carbon b. to replenish the soil with useful forms of nitrogen c. to replenish the soil with useful forms of phosphorus d. to replenish the soil with useful forms of oxygen 36. Which of the following comprise(s) more than 90% of the weight of plant tissues? a. carbohydrates b. water c. carbon d. nitrogen 37. Which of the following elements is considered an essential macronutrient for plants? a. oxygen b. boron c. lithium d. molybdenum 38. Which of the following elements is considered an essential micronutrient for plants? a. gold b. carbon c. nitrogen d. copper

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Chap 36_4ce 39. Which of the following elements is considered an essential micronutrient for plants? a. zinc b. potassium c. hydrogen d. platinum 40. Which of the following do mycorrhizae, present for most plant species, generally NOT help roots with the

uptake of? a. carbon b. nitrogen c. phosphate d. water 41. Which of the following elements is considered an essential micronutrient for plants? a. calcium b. lithium c. sulfur d. nickel 42. What are mycorrhizae? a. connecting points between branching roots b. symbiotic associations between a fungus and plant roots c. specialized root hairs d. localized swellings in plant roots filled with nitrogen-fixing bacteria 43. Which of the following elements is considered an essential macronutrient for plants? a. zinc b. iron c. nickel d. carbon 44. A common consequence of nutrient deficiencies in plants is chlorosis. What is chlorosis? a. It is death of the growing tips. b. It is premature loss of leaves. c. It is bursting of cells from excess water uptake due to an inability to clear chlorine from them. d. It is yellowing of plant tissues due to a lack of chlorophyll.

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Chap 36_4ce 45. In which form(s) can plants generally absorb nitrogen and make use of it? a. nitrate only b. both nitrate and ammonium ion c. ammonium ion only d. nitrogen molecule only 46. The most common limit to plant growth is the lack of which nutrient? a. carbon b. hydrogen c. oxygen d. nitrogen 47. What is the process of producing NH4+ from decaying organic material called? a. nitrification b. ammonification c. nitrogen cycling d. nitrogen fixation 48. Which of the following does NOT improve a plant’s access to particular nutrients? a. releasing amino acids into the soil b. releasing carbohydrates into the soil c. releasing enzymes into the soil d. releasing carbon dioxide into the soil 49. Which of the following macronutrients is rarely deficient? a. carbon b. hydrogen c. oxygen d. zinc 50. Roots obtain cations through cation exchange. Which of the following do roots use to exchange for other

cations from the soil? a. Cl– b. K+ c. H+ d. H2O

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Chap 36_4ce 51. Which of the following situations would be best for growing most plants? a. a soil with very small air spaces b. a soil with relatively large air spaces c. a soil with air spaces filled almost entirely with water d. a soil with various sizes of air spaces 52. What kind of process is called hydroponic culture? a. growing plants in pure water mixed with carefully measured amounts of specific minerals b. irrigating dry areas to improve mineral absorption by plants c. growing plants in ponds and lakes to improve their access to water, allowing the plants to place more

resources into the shoot system d. irrigating dry areas to prevent crop plants from wilting 53. What do the haustorial roots of dodders and other non-photosynthetic, parasitic plants rob the host plant of? a. sugars and water b. water and minerals c. sugars and minerals d. sugars, minerals, and water 54. Which of the following statements does NOT describe an essential element? a. An element with only one role in plant metabolism may still be essential. b. An essential element is necessary for normal growth and reproduction. c. Plant seeds in some cases contain enough of an essential element to sustain the adult plant. d. An essential element may occasionally be functionally replaced by another element. 55. Which soil region is the top layer of surface litter, such as twigs and leaves? a. A horizon b. B horizon c. C horizon d. O horizon 56. Which of the following does NOT describe tropical rainforests? a. Tropical rainforests are biologically diverse ecosystems. b. Tropical rainforest soils have high acidity. c. Minerals such as calcium and phosphorus are subject to leaching from the upper tropical rainforest soil

level. d. Tropical rainforest soils are extremely rich in nutrients.

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Chap 36_4ce 57. Which soil region tends to accumulate mineral ions but relatively little organic matter, and is generally

penetrated by mature tree roots? a. A horizon b. B horizon c. C horizon d. O horizon 58. What are soil particles that are decomposing organic matter called? a. sand b. humus c. silt d. clay 59. What are soil mineral particles that are less than 0.002 mm in diameter called? a. sand b. humus c. clay d. silt 60. Which of the following elements is NOT considered an essential micronutrient for plants in general, but is

required by horsetails and perhaps some grasses such as wheat? a. gold b. boron c. silicon d. zinc 61. What are soil mineral particles that range from 2.0 0.02 mm in diameter called? a. sand b. humus c. clay d. silt 62. What is leghemoglobin, which contains an iron-containing heme group, used for? a. to remove O2 from roots b. to produce H2O from O2 c. to deliver O2 to bacteroids d. to transport O2 in the xylem

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Chap 36_4ce 63. Experiments have shown that even if it is supplied by no other means, plants near the ocean can get enough of

one of the following essential micronutrients from the air, and also from sweat from a person’s hands. Which of the following is that macronutrient? a. manganese b. chlorine c. magnesium d. sodium 64. You might infer from packages of commercial fertilizer that three of the following nutrients are most limiting to

plant growth. What are those three? a. carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus b. nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium c. hydrogen, phosphorus, and magnesium d. iron, magnesium, and nitrogen 65. What kind of plants are epiphytes? a. Plants that are not parasites but that do grow on other plants instead of the soil. b. Plants that trap animals and digest them. c. Plants that deal with nutrient-deficient soil by growing a large, netlike mesh of roots through several

layers of the soil. d. Parasitic plants that use haustoria roots to obtain nutrients and food directly from other plants. 66. In which soils do most plants do best? a. sandy soils b. soils made mostly of humus c. clay soils d. loams 67. What are soil mineral particles that range from 0.02 – 0.002 mm in diameter called? a. sand b. humus c. clay d. silt

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Chap 36_4ce

Choose the appropriate category of general plant nutritional requirement for each element given below. a. nonmineral macronutrient b. mineral macronutrient c. micronutrient d. not generally considered an essential nutrient 68. manganese 69. gold 70. oxygen 71. nickel 72. boron 73. sulfur 74. magnesium 75. carbon 76. arsenic 77. calcium 78. iron 79. chlorine 80. lithium 81. zinc 82. potassium 83. molybdenum 84. silver 85. hydrogen 86. phosphorus 87. copper 88. nitrogen 89. What is cation exchange in plant roots?

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Chap 36_4ce 90. Why might a soil that has a sufficient concentration of a mineral element, such as calcium, not have sufficient

availability of the element to maximize plant growth rates?

91. Describe how losing leaves in the autumn can affect plant nutrient requirements, and how plants handle this

issue.

92. Explain why few plants can grow well in clay soils, even when water content is high.

93. What is the potential significance of root exudates?

94. Trace the route of most mineral ions from entering a plant to being used for the plant’s metabolic reactions.

95. What are the most common deficiency symptoms and what process is most affected?

96. Why are hydroponics used in mineral nutrition experiments examining essential elements?

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Chap 36_4ce 97. Explain hydroponics and its importance in studies of plant nutrition.

98. Nutrients clearly limit the growth of plants. Explain four ways that plants have adapted to increase access to

nutrients and what limits the association from becoming more common.

99. There are many potential ways to reduce the amount of inorganic fertilizer that is applied to cropland. If you

were to make recommendations on the application of an inorganic fertilizer to a crop, what are some of the variables and processes you would consider?

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Chap 36_4ce Answer Key 1. False - roots 2. True 3. False - roots 4. False - roots 5. c 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. b 26. b

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Chap 36_4ce 27. d 28. c 29. b 30. c 31. d 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. a 41. d 42. b 43. d 44. d 45. b 46. d 47. b 48. d 49. a 50. c 51. d 52. a 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 36_4ce 55. d 56. d 57. b 58. b 59. c 60. c 61. a 62. c 63. b 64. b 65. a 66. d 67. d 68. c 69. d 70. a 71. c 72. c 73. b 74. b 75. a 76. d 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. d 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 36_4ce 83. c 84. d 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. b 89. This is the mechanism in which one cation, usually hydrogen, replaces a soil cation. 90. Chemical reactions in soils are dependent on soil pH. If the pH is too high or too low, the nutrient element can be in

a form that is unavailable to the roots. Therefore, pH can have a major impact on whether plant roots take up various mineral cations, independent of the concentration on the mineral element in the soil. 91. Much of the nutrients that a plant takes up from the soil ends up in the leaves. If those nutrients are lost when a plant

sheds its leaves, then the plant will need to replace those nutrients during the next growing season. Plants reduce this cost by moving significant amounts of nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium out of leaves and into twigs and branches before the leaves fall from the tree. This preserves those nutrients for use during the next growing season. 92. Soils rich in clay are often high in water content, but the closely positioned particles in clay allow few air spaces, and

existing spaces tend to hold on to the water that enters them. Such air spaces also limit the supply of oxygen to the roots. 93. Root exudates are organic compounds such as carbohydrates, enzymes, and other proteins that are released into the

soil by roots. These root exudates may improve a plant’s access to particular nutrients. Root exudates may also promote the growth of soil organisms that convert nitrogen into a chemical form plant roots can absorb. 94. Most mineral ions enter plants through roots, passively dissolved in water. Some mineral ions enter root cells

immediately, whereas others travel in solution between cells until they meet the endodermis sheathing the root’s stele. Here, the ions are actively transported into the endodermal cells and then into the xylem for transport throughout the plant. Inside cells, most mineral ions enter vacuoles or cell cytoplasm, where they become available for metabolic reactions. 95. Leaf chlorosis is a symptom found in 5 of the 17 essential plant nutrients. Other common symptoms are also related

to leaf colorization, for example, yellowing of leaves. It would be logical that plant photosynthetic rates, and therefore plant growth, would be adversely affected. 96. Soil is a mix of complex mineral particles, so using soils collected in the field would not work because you could not

be sure of systematically omitting specific essential elements and the processes related to soil nutrients, including the activity of bacteria and fungi. Even if you had sterile soil and could keep it sterile, soil characteristics affect the availability of nutrient elements independent of concentration; for example, cation exchange.

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Chap 36_4ce 97. Originally, hydroponics was an experimental technique for identifying minerals absorbed into plant tissues that were

essential for growth. Today, a modern hydroponic apparatus uses refreshed nutrient solutions in water, and air is bubbled into it to supply oxygen to the roots. 98. Mycorrhizal associations are very common in plants. This plant root–fungal association promotes the uptake of

water and some essential ions, especially phosphate. Presumably, even though there is a carbon cost to the plant to maintain the association, its commonness suggests that the benefits are great. Nitrogen-fixing plants are plants that form a bacterial mutualistic association with the roots of plants in the legume family. While the legume family contains many species, this association is relatively rare. Presumably, this association is not more common, that is, found in many species in many families, because it is costly to the plant. Some plants supplement their mineral nutritional requirements by digesting animals. Presumably, this adaptation is evolutionarily restricted to very nutrientpoor environments. Other plants have evolved mechanisms to parasitize other plant species to obtain nutrients, including in some cases, sugars. There are many species of epiphytes, which grow on other plants and trap falling debris or water, where the roots absorb nutrients from it as the litter decomposes. Finally, some plant species have been found to take up organic nutrients in the form of amino acids. Like carnivorous plants, this adaptation appears to be very restricted to nutrient-poor environments, although this phenomenon has just started to be examined. 99. One of the first considerations is the particular nutrient needs that maximize a particular species growth. Fertilizers

have various amounts of nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium as well as other macro- and micronutrients. Matching fertilizer to plant growth is obviously important. Different soil types maximize growth of different species. Knowing the relative proportions of different soil components and the farming practices that maintain those proportions would aid in reducing the amount of additional fertilizer a soil requires as well as the amount of irrigation required. Growing crops in regions where soil characteristics already match plant requirements is key to reducing the need for inorganic fertilizers. Practices that promote mycorrhizal associations, as well as manipulating both plant and fungal genes to increase transport and uptake of ions, have lots of potential. Likewise, research in promoting nodule formation in N-fixing crops such as soybean reduces fertilizer loads.

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Chap 37_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. The most widely accepted hypothesis for how plants detect gravity posits that plants detect gravity the same

why animals detect gravity. 2. Some signalling chemicals, such as oligosaccharins, are only synthesized when a tissue is damaged. 3. Tropisms explain how plants can move from place to place. 4. When a plant becomes infected by pathogenic bacteria or fungi, it may respond by way of a fight or flight

response—a defence that cordons off an infection site surrounding it with dead cells. 5. Charles Darwin was the first person to discover the hormone auxin. 6. External cues such as increasing day length or warming after a cold snap stimulate gibberellin synthesis, which

results in bolting in plants such as cabbages. 7. A plant hormone has the same effect in different plant tissues. 8. Plant cell walls grow faster in a neutral environment—that is, when the pH is close to 7. 9. Specific cells in developing seeds and maturing fruits have receptors for ethylene, but cells in stems generally

do not. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10. Which of the following types of plant hormones is apparently synthesized from carotenoid pigments inside

plastids? a. salicylic acid b. cytokinins c. abscisic acid d. jasmonate 11. What is required in tobacco tissue culture to get both roots and shoots to develop? a. an intermediate auxin-to-cytokinin ratio b. a higher concentration of cytokinin than auxin c. an auxin-to-cytokinin ratio of slightly greater than 10:1 d. an auxin-to-cytokinin ratio of 10:1 12. Which plant hormones are structurally similar to adenine? a. brassinosteroids b. abscisic acids c. ethylenes d. cytokinins

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Chap 37_4ce 13. Synthetic compounds similar to which plant hormones are used to prolong the shelf life of vegetables such as

lettuces and mushrooms and to keep cut flowers fresh? a. cytokinins b. abscisic acids c. gibberellins d. jasmonates 14. Which of the following should prevent a grass seedling shoot from bending toward light? a. either removing the shoot tip or placing an opaque cap on the shoot tip b. placing an opaque cap on the shoot tip c. either removing the shoot tip or placing a translucent cap on the shoot tip d. placing a translucent cap on the shoot tip 15. Which of the following serves as a switching mechanism in the photoperiodic response in plants? a. phytochrome b. auxin c. cryptochrome d. calmodulin 16. Which type of plant hormone is primarily responsible for the bending of a plant shoot toward light? a. auxin b. ethylene

c. systemin c. brassinosteroid 17. What are chitinases examples of? a. systemins b. phytoalexins c. PR proteins d. R genes 18. Which of the following statements best describes the movement of IAA in a shoot tip? a. IAA initially moves laterally from the shoot tip via polar transport. b. IAA initially moves laterally from the shaded to illuminated side of the shoot tip. c. IAA initially moves laterally from the illuminated to shaded side of the shoot tip. d. IAA initially moves laterally from the shoot tip via nonpolar transport.

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Chap 37_4ce 19. Which plant hormones were first discovered in experiments to define the nutrient media required for plant

tissue culture? a. gibberellins b. cytokinins c. salicylic acids d. auxins 20. Which plant hormones were first isolated from the pollen of Brassica napus? a. auxins b. jasmonates c. gibberellins d. brassinosteroids 21. Work by Charles Darwin and Francis Darwin was instrumental in the discovery of which plant hormones? a. auxins b. brassinosteroids c. cytokinins d. gibberellins 22. What are statoliths (particles that move in the direction gravity pulls them) typically in plants? a. amyloplasts b. calcium carbonate crystals c. nuclei d. vacuoles 23. What are secondary metabolites that function to protect plants from viral, fungal, and bacterial pathogens? a. systemins b. phytoalexins c. PR proteins d. R genes 24. What do we call plant responses to the relative lengths of light and dark periods in their environment during

each 24-hour period? a. gravitropisms b. photoperiodisms c. thigmotropisms d. phototropisms

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Chap 37_4ce 25. Where are abscisic acid receptors located in plant cells? a. in the cell wall b. in the cytoplasm c. in the endoplasmic reticulum d. in the plasma membrane 26. Imagine that you want all of the orange trees in your orchard to uniformly flower and set fruit. Which type of

plant hormone should you spray on your plants? a. brassinosteroid b. auxins c. ethylene d. salicylic acid 27. Which plant hormones are primarily responsible for promoting the formation of lateral roots? a. jasmonates b. gibberellins c. auxins d. systemin 28. What is thigmotropism a growth response to? a. light b. day length c. contact with a solid object d. circadian rhythms 29. Where is the growth-promoting substance that promotes stem elongation and bending toward light primarily

produced? a. in root tips, travelling to the stem in the xylem b. in the centre of the stem region where elongation or bending occurs c. in flowers and flower buds d. in the shoot tip 30. After a plant has survived a microbial invasion, the rest of the plant is often less vulnerable to future infections.

What is this called? a. systemic acquired resistance b. wound defence c. gene-for-gene recognition d. hypersensitive response

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Chap 37_4ce 31. Which of the following is the most important natural auxin? a. abscisic acid b. gibberellic acid c. jasmonic acid d. indoleacetic acid 32. Which type of plant hormone is generally responsible for long-term inhibition of plant growth such as in buds

and seeds? a. gibberellin b. oligosaccharin c. brassinosteroid d. abscisic acid 33. Why are secondary metabolites termed “secondary”? a. because they are synthesized as part of basic metabolism b. because they are only synthesized in plant leaves c. because they are synthesized as precursors to primary metabolism d. because they are not synthesized in all plant cells as part of basic metabolism 34. Which type of plant hormone retards leaf aging? a. salicylic acid b. abscisic acid c. cytokinin d. ethylene 35. Which synthesis is triggered when cells bind systemin? a. gibberellin b. auxin c. jasmonate d. cytokinin 36. What does Pr primarily absorb during daylight hours? a. Pr absorbs red light and is converted to Pfr. b. Pr absorbs far-red light and is converted to Pfr. c. Pfr absorbs red light and is converted to Pr. d. Pfr absorbs far-red light and is converted to Pr.

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Chap 37_4ce 37. What happens with Pr and Pfr at night (assuming no artificial lights)? a. Pr absorbs far-red light and is converted to Pfr. b. Pfr absorbs red light and is converted to Pr. c. Pfr is converted to Pr. d. Pfr absorbs far-red light and is converted to Pr. 38. Which of the following correctly describes the patterns of flowering in bearded irises and chrysanthemums? a. Bearded irises flower when the night is shorter than a critical length, and chrysanthemums also flower

when the night is shorter than a critical value. b. Bearded irises flower when the night is longer than a critical length, and chrysanthemums also flower when the night is longer than a critical value. c. Bearded irises flower when the night is longer than a critical length, whereas chrysanthemums flower when the night is shorter than a critical value. d. Bearded irises flower when the night is shorter than a critical length, whereas chrysanthemums flower when the night is longer than a critical value. 39. What are sunflowers well known for? a. chemotropism b. heliotropism c. gravitropism d. phototropism 40. In systemic acquired resistance, the regulatory protein NPR-1 moves from the cytoplasm to the cell nucleus.

What is this a consequence of? a. a buildup of brassinosteroids in the cytoplasm b. a buildup of oligosaccharins in the cytoplasm c. a buildup of jasmonates in the cytoplasm d. a buildup of salicylic acid in the cytoplasm 41. What are the usual concentrations of plant hormones that are effective, and what kind of effects do they have

on different plant tissues? a. They are effective only in extremely large concentrations, and they have the same effect on different plant tissues. b. They are effective at low concentrations, and they have different effects on different plant tissues. c. They are effective at low concentrations, and they have the same effect on different plant tissues. d. They are effective only in extremely large concentrations, and they have different effects on different plant tissues.

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Chap 37_4ce 42. Which plant hormones are primarily responsible for helping break the dormancy of seeds and buds? a. gibberellins b. cytokinins c. ethylenes d. auxins 43. Where is the auxin receptor ABP1 located in plant cells? a. in the plasma membrane b. in the cytoplasm c. in the endoplasmic reticulum d. in the cell wall 44. Which type of plant signalling molecule is similar in structure to aspirin? a. abscisic acid b. ethylene c. salicylic acid d. jasmonate 45. Which of the following are chaperone-type proteins that stabilize other proteins in response to environmental

stresses such as salinity, drought, heat, and cold? a. phytoalexins b. PR proteins c. heat-shock proteins d. R genes 46. An agar block filled with auxin is placed on top of a shoot that has had the shoot tip removed. The agar block

is placed so that it covers only one side of the top of the shoot. Which of the following should occur? a. The shoot will stop growing. b. The shoot will grow faster on the side with the agar block. c. The shoot will grow straight up. d. The shoot will grow faster on the side away from the agar block. 47. Which type of plant hormone governs senescence in plants, such as the loss of leaves in autumn by some

plants? a. abscisic acid b. gibberellin c. brassinosteroid d. ethylene

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Chap 37_4ce 48. Which plant hormones cause chloroplasts to mature? a. cytokinins b. salicylic acids c. abscisic acids d. ethylenes 49. You observe a sunflower that moves its leaves so that it tracks the sun across the sky throughout the day, and

a sensitive plant that reversibly folds up its leaflets when you touch it. What are both of these examples of? a. phototropism b. thigmotropism c. circadian rhythms d. nastic movements 50. Placing a ripe apple with other apples that are not ripe will cause the other apples to ripen sooner. Which type

of plant hormone is responsible for this effect? a. brassinosteroid b. ethylene c. auxin d. oligosaccharin 51. Which type of plant hormone promotes fruit ripening? a. ethylene b. jasmonate c. gibberellin d. brassinosteroid 52. Which plant hormones are synthesized mainly in root tips and are apparently transported through the plant in

xylem sap? a. gibberellins b. auxins c. ethylenes d. cytokinins 53. Light of which wavelengths is the main stimulus for phototropism? a. red b. green c. yellow d. blue

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Chap 37_4ce 54. Chrysanthemums are short-day plants, requiring a night length of longer than 12 hours to flower. Under which

of the following conditions should chrysanthemums flower? a. night length 14 hours, day length 10 hours b. night length 10 hours, day length 14 hours c. night length 14 hours, day length 10 hours; night interrupted in the middle by an intense red flash d. night length 10 hours, day length 14 hours; day interrupted in the middle by half an hour of darkness 55. Which plant hormones can be produced by boiling DNA? a. salicylic acids b. auxins c. cytokinins d. abscisic acids 56. A pea plant that is not able to make GA1 will do which of the following? a. grow away from light b. not be able to make flowers c. become a dwarf d. not be able to make fruits 57. Which plant signalling compounds are produced from structural elements of the cell wall? a. salicylic acids b. oligosaccharins c. abscisic acids d. auxins 58. What did Darwin’s experiments on phototropism illustrate? a. that signals from plant roots control phototropism b. that a translucent cap placed over a shoot tip will cause a plant to both grow and bend toward light c. that a translucent cap placed over a shoot tip will cause a plant to bend toward light, but will inhibit

growth d. that an opaque cap placed over a shoot tip will cause a plant to bend toward light, but will inhibit growth 59. Which of the following was the first peptide hormone discovered in plants that functions in wound response in

the tomato? a. cytokinin b. systemin c. gibberellin d. salicylic acid

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Chap 37_4ce 60. Which plant hormone is primarily responsible for inhibiting leaf abscission? a. ethylene b. jasmonate c. abscisic acid d. auxin 61. Suppose you are culturing tobacco in a petri dish at a 10:1 ratio of auxin to cytokinin. What would you do in

order to promote only shoot development? a. increase the cytokinin ratio b. increase the auxin ratio c. reduce the auxin level significantly and increase the cytokinin level slightly d. grow the tobacco in the dark 62. Which of the following terms describes plant activities that follow a biological clock so that they are based on

cycles of about 24 hours? a. circadian rhythms b. photoperiodisms c. thigmotropisms d. gravitropisms 63. Which plant hormones are primarily responsible for the growth of a floral stalk in rosette plants such as

cabbages? a. salicylic acids b. cytokinins c. ethylenes d. gibberellins 64. Which type of plant hormone is primarily responsible for inhibiting growth of lateral meristems on shoots and

restricting the formation of branches? a. abscisic acid b. cytokinin c. auxins d. salicylic acid 65. Which type of plant hormone is a gas at normal temperature and pressure? a. abscisic acid b. ethylene c. auxin d. salicylic acid

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Chap 37_4ce 66. How does the application of gibberellin affect monoecious species of plants (plants that have separate “male”

and “female” flowers both on the same plant)? a. It causes all flowers formed to be “female.” b. It encourages proportionately more “male” flowers to develop. c. It causes all flowers formed to actually be both “male” and “female.” d. It causes all flowers formed to be “male.” 67. Which type of plant hormone stimulates stomata to close during a drought? a. salicylic acid b. gibberellin c. abscisic acid d. auxin 68. Which hormone’s reduction in its amount causes a bush to become more bushy (have more lateral growth)

after trimming a shrub? a. auxin b. ethylene c. abscisic acid d. gibberellin 69. According to the acid-growth hypothesis, auxin causes increased acidity in cell walls and disrupts bonds

between cellulose microfibrils, allowing cell expansion. Which of the following does auxin activate for this to occur? a. a membrane potential b. AUX1 transporters c. proteins called expansins d. K+ ions 70. Which plant hormones appear to regulate the expression of genes associated with a plant’s growth responses

to light? a. salicylic acids b. brassinosteroids c. gibberellins d. jasmonates 71. Which of the following triggers stomatal closure by involving the second messenger inositol triphosphate (IP3)? a. auxin b. abscisic acid c. oligosaccharin d. salicylic acid Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 37_4ce 72. Which type of plant hormone appears to play a major role in gravitropism in roots and shoots? a. salicylic acid b. auxin c. abscisic acid d. gibberellin 73. What is the exposure of plants to low temperatures (in order to stimulate flowering) called? a. cryptotropism b. thigmotropism c. vernalization d. florigen 74. Which of the following would probably NOT promote dormancy in at least some plants? a. nitrogen deficiency b. long nights c. cold nights d. warm nights 75. What is the most widely used herbicide in the world, 2,4-D, a synthetic form of? a. ethylene b. salicylic acid c. gibberellin d. auxin 76. Which of the following is NOT known to be influenced by plant hormones? a. plant extinction rate b. plant gene expression c. plant growth response to light d. plant cell metabolism 77. Which plant hormones would be used by commercial grape growers to get larger grapes by lengthening the

stem on which fruits develop? a. abscisic acids b. ethylenes c. auxins d. gibberellins

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Chap 37_4ce 78. When a plant has a hypersensitive response, which production triggers effects such as the expression of PR

proteins? a. the production of oligosaccharins b. the production of salicylic acid c. the production of ethylene d. the production of cytokinin 79. Imagine that you own a nursery and you want to reduce the chance that plants you ship will suffer from

shipping damage. Which type of plant hormone should you apply to the plants before shipping? a. cytokinin b. abscisic acid c. oligosaccharin d. gibberellin 80. Which type of plant hormone has been shown to both promote pollen tube elongation and inhibit root

elongation? a. jasmonate b. ethylene c. brassinosteroid d. salicylic acid 81. Which of the following types of plant hormones trigger(s) plant responses to environmental stresses such as

cold snaps, high salinity, and drought? a. abscisic acid b. cytokinins c. oligosaccharins d. jasmonates

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Chap 37_4ce

Choose the type of plant chemical or its action most closely associated with the consequence listed below. Each chemical or action may be used more than once. a. jasmonates b. salicylic acid c. phytoalexins d. “antifreeze proteins” e. oligosaccharins f. PR proteins g. systemin 82. acting as antibiotic 83. triggering synthesis of phytoalexins 84. synthesizing protease inhibitors 85. synthesizing defensive chemicals 86. inducing the synthesis of pathogenesis-related proteins 87. degrading cell walls of pathogens 88. triggering jasmonate response 89. operating in systemic acquired resistance 90. acting as an enzyme 91. stabilizing cell proteins under freezing conditions 92. If you were to start growing roses commercially, where would you probably want to set up your business?

93. Describe the various effects of auxins in plants.

94. Explain the hypersensitive response.

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Chap 37_4ce 95. How might a plant communicate to another plant that it has been attacked by a herbivore?

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Chap 37_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False - alter the orientation of their body parts 4. False - hypersensitive 5. False - Frits Went 6. True 7. False - a different 8. False - an acidic; less than 7 9. True 10. c 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. d 21. a 22. a 23. b 24. b 25. d 26. b

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Chap 37_4ce 27. c 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. d 32. d 33. d 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. c 38. d 39. b 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. d 48. a 49. d 50. b 51. a 52. c 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 37_4ce 55. c 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. d 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. c 65. b 66. b 67. c 68. a 69. c 70. b 71. b 72. b 73. c 74. d 75. d 76. a 77. d 78. b 79. b 80. c 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 37_4ce 83. e 84. a 85. a 86. b 87. f 88. g 89. b 90. f 91. d 92. Roses are day-neutral plants. They flower whenever they become mature enough to do so. Therefore, it is how fast

they grow to maturity rather than day length that determines when they flower. Presumably, you would grow them in a greenhouse if the climate is cold or seasonal. Or, you would only grow them seasonally when temperatures are suitable. Or, grow them year round in areas where temperatures are relatively constant throughout the year. 93. Auxins are involved in a variety of plant growth responses. The elongation of stems is promoted by auxins, as is the

growth of stems so that they bend toward light. Auxins also promote fruit development and inhibit leaf abscission. Auxins also promote dormancy in lateral buds. In the roots, auxins promote lateral growth. Auxins are also involved in orientation of growth with respect to gravity in both shoots and roots. 94. When a plant becomes infected by bacteria or fungi, it may be able to defend against the attack by surrounding the

infected cells with dead cells. The process begins when a highly reactive oxygen-containing compound breaks down nucleic acids, inactivate enzymes, or compounds that have other toxic effects on cells. This initiates the killing of cells. 95. In some plants, such as creosote bush, the secondary compound that protects the plant from herbivore damage is a

volatile compound. For example, terpenes are volatile and easily diffuse out the plant into the surrounding air. Such release of a volatile might elicit responses in neighbouring plants or attract insects to the plant that prey on the herbivore.

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Chap 38_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Besides neurons, what cells are found in nervous tissue? a. glial cells b. mucous cells c. squamous cells d. secreting cells 2. Which major tissue type can transmit electrical impulses from one part of an organism to another? a. connective tissue b. epithelial tissue c. nervous tissue d. muscle tissue 3. Suppose you are presented with a tissue sample that contains long rows of cells surrounded by parallel

bundles of collagen and elastin fibres. What is that tissue most likely to be? a. cartilage b. blood c. fibrous connective tissue d. adipose tissue 4. Which type of connective tissue forms tendons and ligaments? a. fibrous connective tissue b. blood c. cartilage d. loose connective tissue 5. Which connective tissue is best at withstanding compression due the elasticity of its matrix? a. bone tissue b. cartilage c. fibrous connective tissue d. loose connective tissue 6. Which organ system is responsible for eliminating metabolic wastes from the body? a. the respiratory system b. the muscular system c. the excretory system d. the nervous system

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Chap 38_4ce 7. Which term refers to a group of specialized cells of similar structure and function? a. tissue b. organ c. cell cluster d. organ system 8. Which major tissue category has cells that can contract? a. muscle tissue b. connective tissue c. epithelium d. nervous tissue 9. Which term refers to a response to change in the internal/external environment that adds to the change? a. physiological feedback b. anatomical feedback c. negative feedback d. positive feedback 10. Which organ system includes the pituitary, thyroid, and adrenal glands? a. the reproductive system b. the lymphatic system c. the respiratory system d. the endocrine system 11. Which of the following is an example of a neural function? a. secretion of products b. contraction when stimulated c. protection from invasion by bacteria d. facilitation of diffusion

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Chap 38_4ce

Figure 38-2

12. In Figure 38-2, how would you identify negative feedback component B? a. as an effector b. as a stimulus c. as a response d. as a sensor

Figure 38-1

13. In the diagram of a neuron in Figure 38-1, what is part D? a. the dendrites b. the glial cell c. the axon d. the axon terminals Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 38_4ce 14. Suppose you are examining the processes of muscle contraction in fishes. What type of study is this an

example of? a. an ecological study b. an anatomical study c. a taxonomic study d. a physiological study 15. Which tissue has contractile cells that are joined by intercalated disks, allowing it to contract as a unit? a. cardiac muscle b. cartilage c. smooth muscle d. skeletal muscle 16. Which human tissue cells can be over 1 metre in length? a. adipocytes b. skeletal muscle cells c. neurons d. columnar epithelial cells 17. Suppose you are sweating in response to elevated temperature. What is this an example of? a. a stimulus of negative feedback b. an integrator of negative feedback c. an effector of negative feedback d. a response of negative feedback 18. Suppose you observe a tissue with one free surface and with several layers of cells attached to a basal lamina.

What type of tissue is this an example of? a. epithelial tissue b. muscle tissue c. connective tissue d. nervous tissue 19. Which organ system is utilizing positive feedback within an organism? a. the reproductive system b. the excretory system c. the endocrine system d. the lymphatic system

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Chap 38_4ce 20. Which tissue is best described as a sparse distribution of cells surrounded by an open network of collagen and

elastin fibres? a. fibrous connective tissue b. adipose tissue c. loose connective tissue d. bone tissue 21. Which term refers to two or more different tissues arranged to carry out a specific function? a. organ system b. tissue c. organism d. organ 22. Which organ system includes the spleen and thymus? a. the digestive system b. the nervous system c. the circulatory system d. the lymphatic system 23. Which of the following is a component of bone? a. plasma b. platelets c. osteocytes d. leukocytes 24. Which of the following is a result of a positive feedback? a. childbirth b. heart rate increase during exercise c. body water regulation d. sweating when you get hot 25. What is the function of glial cells? a. to release secretions onto a free surface b. to secrete collagen fibres into the extracellular matrix c. to support and nourish neurons d. to conduct electrical impulses

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Chap 38_4ce 26. What component of a negative feedback mechanism does the brain or spinal cord represent? a. an integrator b. a response c. a stimulus d. an effector 27. Which tissue acts to transport nutrients and wastes throughout the body? a. adipose tissue b. loose connective tissue c. fibrous connective tissue d. blood 28. Which parts of the bone are expected to be extremely active in a growing child? a. fibroblasts b. osteoblasts c. osteoclasts d. chondrocytes 29. What are the two most important organ systems for the maintenance of homeostasis? a. the lymphatic and circulatory systems b. the nervous and endocrine systems c. the endocrine and circulatory systems d. the lymphatic and circulatory systems

Figure 38-1

30. In the diagram of a neuron in Figure 38-1, what is part B? a. the axon terminal b. the cell body c. the glial cell d. the axon

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Chap 38_4ce 31. Which of the following structures is an example of a tissue? a. the heart b. a blood vessel c. the brain d. cartilage 32. Which part of a neuron conducts an electrical signal toward other neurons? a. the dendrites b. the nucleus c. the cell body d. the axon 33. Suppose you are examining the arrangement of bones in the hand. What type of study is this an example of? a. a physiological study b. an anatomical study c. a taxonomic study d. an ecological study 34. Which tissue is composed of spindle-shaped contractile cells that are commonly found in the walls of tubular

organs? a. smooth muscle b. squamous epithelium c. skeletal muscle d. cardiac muscle

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Chap 38_4ce

Figure 38-2

35. In Figure 38-2, how would you identify negative feedback component D? a. as an integrator b. as an effector c. as a stimulus d. as a response 36. Which component of a negative feedback mechanism is responsible for producing the result that counteracts

the original environmental change away from homeostasis? a. an integrator b. a sensor c. an effector d. a stimulus 37. Which of the following is a result of a positive feedback? a. childbirth b. temperature regulation c. blood pH regulation d. blood oxygen regulation

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Chap 38_4ce 38. Which of the following terms refers to the maintenance of the body’s internal environment at relatively constant

levels? a. feedback b. homeostasis c. natural selection d. physiology 39. Which term refers to the process in which an environmental stimulus triggers a response that compensates for

changes in the internal/external environment? a. physiological feedback b. positive feedback c. negative feedback d. anatomical feedback 40. Which tissue is striated and can rapidly contract, producing voluntary movements? a. bone tissue b. cardiac muscle c. skeletal muscle d. smooth muscle 41. Which levels of organization are correctly arranged from smallest to largest? a. organ system, tissue, organ b. tissue, organ system, organ c. tissue, organ, organ system d. organ system, organ, tissue 42. Suppose that a person takes a medication that blocks the neurons’ ability to be stimulated by a specific

chemical signal. What part of the neuron is most likely being affected by the medication? a. the axon b. the cell body c. the axon terminal d. the dendrites 43. Which major tissue category often has more extracellular matrix material than cellular material? a. connective tissue b. epithelial tissue c. nervous tissue d. muscle tissue

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Chap 38_4ce 44. In which tissues is the presence of cilia a common feature? a. in some muscle tissues b. in some epithelial tissues c. in some nervous tissues d. in some connective tissues

Match each organ system with its description. a. exchanges gases with the environment b. coordinates body activities through the conduction of electrical impulses c. helps regulate internal water balance and pH d. provides leverage for body movements e. moves body parts f. converts ingested matter into molecules and ions that can be absorbed into the body g. covers external body surfaces and protects against injury and infection h. returns excess fluid to the body and protects it against pathogens i. passes on genes to the next generation j. coordinates body activities though secretion of hormones k. distributes water and nutrients throughout the body 45. excretory system 46. skeletal system 47. integumentary system 48. nervous system 49. endocrine system 50. digestive system 51. muscular system 52. reproductive system 53. respiratory system 54. circulatory system 55. lymphatic system

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Chap 38_4ce

Match each tissue with its description. a. wraps around internal organs, providing a lubricated surface b. cushions organs and stores surplus energy c. transports respiratory gases throughout the body d. flattened cells that are optimal for diffusion e. withstands tension produced by muscles that are attached f. composed of chondrocytes and collagen embedded in an elastic matrix g. controls body systems by conducting electrical impulses h. found exclusively in the heart i. lines the gut and respiratory tract j. produces involuntary movements associated with tubular organs 56. cardiac muscle 57. squamous epithelium 58. loose connective tissue 59. fibrous connective tissue 60. smooth muscle 61. adipose tissue 62. blood 63. cartilage 64. nervous tissue 65. columnar epithelium

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Chap 38_4ce Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. d 11. b 12. d 13. d 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. a 20. c 21. d 22. d 23. c 24. a 25. c 26. a

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Chap 38_4ce 27. d 28. b 29. b 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. c 42. d 43. a 44. b 45. c 46. d 47. g 48. b 49. j 50. f 51. e 52. i 53. a 54. k Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 38_4ce 55. h 56. h 57. d 58. a 59. e 60. j 61. b 62. c 63. f 64. g 65. i

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Chap 39_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Mechanical breakdown often involves grinding, sometimes with teeth and sometimes in a muscular stomach. 2. In the human diet, linoleic acid and linolenic acid are the only essential fatty acids. 3. The mucosa of the digestive tract may have villi as an adaptation. 4. Humans require 13 known vitamins in their diet. 5. The “small” in the small intestine refers to its length. 6. The rabbit cecum houses beneficial microorganisms that help in digestion. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7. Which statement describes an earthworm’s digestive opening? a. It has two digestive openings and no typhlosoles. b. It has two digestive openings and typhlosoles. c. It has a single digestive opening and no typhlosoles. d. It has a single digestive opening and typhlosoles. 8. What function is served by the presence of alkaline components in pancreatic juice? a. It creates an optimum environment for digestion in the large intestine. b. It stimulates peristalsis in the large intestine. c. It neutralizes the acidity of stomach contents. d. It stimulates peristalsis in the small intestine. 9. Which of the following acts as an emulsifier? a. lipase b. amylase c. bile d. trypsin 10. What is the primary function of the large intestine? a. to absorb water b. to complete the digestion of fats c. to complete the digestion of protein d. to absorb nutrients

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Chap 39_4ce 11. Which sequence presents the digestive structures of an annelid in the proper order? a. mouth, esophagus, crop, gizzard, intestine, anus b. mouth, esophagus, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus c. mouth, esophagus, intestine, gizzard, crop, anus d. mouth, esophagus, crop, intestine, gizzard, anus 12. Which of the following is the function of the liver? a. It detoxifies toxic substances. b. It produces amylase. c. It synthesizes insulin. d. It makes food using energy. 13. Which condition can be a result of a deficiency of vitamin C? a. rickets b. scurvy c. beriberi d. night blindness 14. Which pair of structures, found in different organisms, both serve to increase the absorptive surfaces of the

intestines? a. choanocytes and gastric ceca b. proventriculus and villi c. choanocytes and proventriculus d. typhlosoles and villi 15. Suppose that a person is on a diet of primarily grains. Which two amino acids would such a diet likely be

deficient in? a. valine and lysine b. methionine and lysine c. isoleucine and lysine d. methionine and tryptophan 16. What is the usual pH of stomach acids? a. 2 b. 7 c. 10 d. 12

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Chap 39_4ce 17. Which vitamin can humans synthesize? a. vitamin D b. vitamin C c. vitamin B d. vitamin A 18. What is the dual function of the gastrovascular cavity in a sea anemone? a. circulatory and respiratory b. respiratory and reproductive c. digestive and respiratory d. digestive and circulatory 19. Where is the pancreas located? a. between the liver and the small intestine b. between the stomach and the small intestine c. between the stomach and the liver d. between the gallbladder and the liver 20. Which of the following is a purpose for the presence of hydrochloric acid in the stomach? a. It folds proteins. b. It activates amylase. c. It emulsifies fats. d. It kills bacteria. 21. Where does the digestion of proteins begin in humans? a. in the stomach b. in the small intestines c. in the pancreas d. in the large intestine 22. Which sequence lists the layers of a mammalian gut in order, from the outside to the inside (toward the

lumen)? a. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa b. muscularis, mucosa, submucosa, serosa c. serosa, mucosa, submucosa, muscularis d. serosa, muscularis, submucosa, mucosa

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Chap 39_4ce 23. Which layer of the mammalian gut performs peristalsis? a. the lamina b. the mucosa c. the muscularis d. the submucosa 24. What is the main function of the small intestine? a. to absorb water b. to digest fats c. to absorb nutrients d. to kill bacteria 25. Which enzyme is contained in human saliva? a. chymotrypsin b. pepsin c. trypsin d. amylase 26. How many of the 13 essential vitamins are water soluble and how many are fat soluble? a. 9 are water soluble, and 4 are fat soluble b. 8 are water soluble, and 5 are fat soluble c. 5 are water soluble, and 8 are fat soluble d. 4 are water soluble, and 9 are fat soluble 27. Where are choanocytes found? a. in humans b. in birds c. in earthworms d. in sponges 28. In which organ is food called chyme? a. the small intestine b. the stomach c. the large intestine d. the liver

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Chap 39_4ce 29. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin? a. vitamin A b. vitamin C c. vitamin D d. vitamin K 30. Which of these animals has a double digestive opening? a. coral b. a flatworm c. an earthworm d. a hydra 31. Which structure regulates the movement of food into the stomach, and which regulates the passage of food

into the small intestine? a. pyloric sphincter; anal sphincter b. gastroesophageal sphincter; pyloric sphincter c. epiglottis; pyloric sphincter d. epiglottis; gastroesophageal sphincter 32. Which layer of the mammalian digestive tract directly contacts the lumen? a. the mucosa b. the submucosa c. the muscularis d. the serosa 33. Which of the following is an unusual characteristic of some herbivorous nudibranchs? a. They feed on plants. b. They perform photosynthesis. c. They are carnivorous. d. They eat by absorption. 34. Which digestive structure stores concentrated bile? a. the gallbladder b. the stomach c. the pancreas d. the duodenum

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Chap 39_4ce 35. Which structure in the human body regulates hunger and a sense of fullness? a. the pancreas b. the hypothalamus c. the small intestine d. the stomach 36. Which digestive structure in humans is active in both the digestion of food and the absorption of nutrients? a. the small intestine b. the mouth c. the liver d. the pancreas 37. In which digestive structure is food called bolus? a. in the liver b. in the small intestine c. in the large intestine d. in the mouth 38. Which organ in the human digestive system contains an oblique layer of muscle as a part of its muscularis? a. the large intestine b. the esophagus c. the stomach d. the small intestine 39. What is the purpose of the watery fluid secreted by the serosa of the human digestive tract? a. It kills bacteria. b. It initiates peristalsis. c. It reduces friction between nearby organs. d. It emulsifies fats. 40. Which structure produces a hormone that activates secretion of enzymes within it? a. the stomach b. the mouth c. the small intestine d. the liver

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Chap 39_4ce 41. Which process in the human digestive system best illustrates mechanical digestion? a. absorption b. chewing c. pepsin activity d. amylase activity 42. What is a lysosome’s role in intracellular digestion? a. enzymatic digestion b. absorption c. mechanical digestion d. energy production 43. Which of the following causes heartburn? a. the pyloric sphincter remaining too tightly closed b. the gastroesophageal sphincter remaining a little open c. the pyloric sphincter remaining a little open d. the gastroesophageal sphincter remaining too tightly closed 44. Which statement describes the large intestine in the human digestive tract? a. The large intestine does not contain villi, and is smaller in diameter and longer in length than the small

intestine. b. The large intestine does not contain villi, and is larger in diameter and smaller in length than the small intestine. c. The large intestine contains villi, and is smaller in diameter and longer in length than the small intestine. d. The large intestine does not contain villi, and is larger in diameter and longer in length than the small intestine. 45. Which cells produce pepsinogen in the stomach? a. chief cells b. choanocytes c. villi d. parietal cells 46. In which structure of the digestive tract does digestion of starches begin? a. in the esophagus b. in the large intestine c. in the mouth d. in the small intestine

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Chap 39_4ce 47. What is the cause of most peptic ulcers? a. lactose intolerance b. heartburn c. bacteria d. malnutrition 48. Which structure in the bird’s digestive tract is utilized for food storage? a. the esophagus b. the crop c. the mouth d. the gizzard 49. Which two structures of the human digestive tract can be classified as endocrine glands because they produce

hormones? a. the liver and small intestine b. the pancreas and small intestine c. the pancreas and stomach d. the liver and pancreas 50. The appendix is a vestigial structure. Which structure does it extend from? a. the rectum b. the cecum c. the stomach d. the colon 51. Where are sphincters located? a. in the mouth b. between major regions of the digestive tract c. in the stomach d. between different stomachs of herbivorous animals 52. Which of these groups consume animals? a. herbivores only b. omnivores and herbivores c. carnivores and omnivores d. carnivores only

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Chap 39_4ce 53. Which of the following is an example of a suspension feeder? a. a whale b. a mosquito c. a snake d. a lamprey 54. Which digestive structures in humans secrete amylase? a. the pancreas, the liver, and the salivary glands b. the liver and the pancreas c. the pancreas and the salivary glands d. the liver and the gallbladder 55. Which statement best describes extracellular digestion? a. Extracellular digestion is seen in sponges. b. Extracellular digestion occurs in most animals. c. Extracellular digestion must involve choanocytes. d. Extracellular digestion may take place in a tube contained inside the body. 56. Where does digestion of lipids in humans begin? a. in the small intestine b. in the stomach c. in the pancreas d. in the mouth 57. Which of the following may result in anemia? a. a deficiency of iron b. a deficiency of iodine c. a deficiency of chlorine d. a deficiency of calcium 58. Which veins join together to form the hepatic portal vein? a. those in the large intestine b. those in the liver c. those in the stomach d. those in the small intestine

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Chap 39_4ce 59. Which mineral is deficient in a person who has a goiter? a. magnesium b. iodine c. zinc d. manganese 60. Which enzyme is produced by the stomach? a. amylase b. pepsin c. trypsin d. lipase 61. What are the two proteases in the small intestine that complete protein digestion? a. aminopeptidase and dipeptidase b. aminopeptidase and disaccharidase c. nucleotidase and nucleosidase d. dipeptidase and phosphatase 62. Where does most absorption in the human body take place? a. in the liver b. in the stomach c. in the small intestine d. in the large intestine 63. Which statement describes suspension feeders? a. They may inject anticoagulants into a host to inhibit blood from clotting. b. They may have long tongues to effectively extract nectar from plants. c. They may have comblike plates called baleen. d. They may have piercing mouth parts to obtain blood from a host. 64. Which of the following do some nudibranchs have in their body? a. tonoplasts b. teeth c. chloroplasts d. chromoplasts

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Chap 39_4ce 65. Which vitamin deficiency is correctly paired with the condition it causes? a. vitamin D deficiency: bone hardening b. vitamin K deficiency: decreased blood clotting time c. vitamin D deficiency: anemia d. vitamin K deficiency: increased blood clotting time 66. Which of the following may result in muscular weakness? a. deficiencies in phosphorus and calcium b. deficiencies in iodine and iron c. deficiencies in iron and manganese d. deficiencies in phosphorus and potassium 67. Suppose that your diet does NOT contain any dark green vegetables, whole grains, yeast, or lean meats.

Which vitamin might you be deficient in? a. vitamin B1 b. folic acid c. vitamin B6 d. niacin 68. Which condition is caused by a deficiency of a fat-soluble vitamin? a. pellagra b. beriberi c. scurvy d. rickets 69. Which structure of the human digestive tract produces bile? a. the liver b. the stomach c. the gallbladder d. the small intestine 70. Which vitamin can humans produce? a. vitamin C b. vitamin D c. vitamin K d. vitamin A

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Chap 39_4ce 71. Which sequence presents the five steps of digestion in an upper-level animal in the proper order? a. mechanical processing, secretion of enzymes, absorption, enzymatic hydrolysis, elimination b. mechanical processing, absorption, secretion of enzymes, enzymatic hydrolysis, elimination c. mechanical processing, secretion of enzymes, enzymatic hydrolysis, absorption, elimination d. absorption, enzymatic hydrolysis, mechanical processing, secretion of enzymes, elimination 72. Which pair includes animals that are both classified as suspension feeders? a. lampreys and rabbits b. whales and clams c. clams and aphids d. aphids and whales 73. Which enzyme is matched correctly with the substance it digests? a. pancreatic amylase: fats b. pepsin: proteins c. salivary amylase: fats d. trypsin: fats 74. Which part of a bird’s digestive system contains sand and rocks to aid in mechanical digestion? a. the pharynx b. the crop c. the proventriculus d. the gizzard 75. What type of feeders are humans? a. bulk feeders b. suspension feeders c. fluid feeders d. deposit feeders 76. When fat enters the duodenum, which hormone is stimulated to be released? a. amylase b. secretin c. gastrin d. cholecystokinin

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Chap 39_4ce

Use the list of terms to identify each lettered item in the diagram of the digestive system.

77. rectum 78. small intestines 79. stomach 80. pancreas 81. salivary glands 82. gallbladder 83. pharynx 84. anus 85. liver 86. mouth 87. esophagus 88. large intestines

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Chap 39_4ce

Match each digestive substance to the structure that produces it. A structure may be used more than once. a. liver b. pancreas c. small intestine d. stomach 89. pepsin 90. bile 91. trypsin 92. carboxypeptidase 93. secretin 94. How are the gastric glands in the stomach protected from digestion by the enzyme they produce?

95. What purpose do villi and microvilli serve in the small intestine?

96. Why is a digestive system with a single digestive opening inefficient?

97. Accessory structures in humans contribute to digestion, but food does not actually pass through them. Name

all of the accessory structures and the major digestive substances that they produce.

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Chap 39_4ce 98. How does undernutrition impact the human body?

99. How does the fact that the mosquito is often a vector of disease relate directly to its method of obtaining

food?

100. Describe the enzymatic digestion that takes place in each structure of the digestive tract.

101. The pyloric sphincter—the circular muscle that controls the entrance of food from the stomach to the small

intestine—usually opens only slightly. What is the purpose of this?

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Chap 39_4ce Answer Key 1. False - gizzard 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False - diameter 6. True 7. b 8. c 9. c 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. d 19. b 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. c 24. c 25. d 26. a

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Chap 39_4ce 27. d 28. b 29. b 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. b 45. a 46. c 47. c 48. b 49. c 50. b 51. b 52. c 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 39_4ce 55. d 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. b 60. b 61. a 62. c 63. c 64. c 65. d 66. d 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. b 71. c 72. b 73. b 74. d 75. a 76. d 77. g 78. e 79. d 80. l 81. i 82. k Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 39_4ce 83. b 84. h 85. j 86. a 87. c 88. f 89. d 90. a 91. b 92. c 93. d 94. The chief cells in the gastric glands produce the inactive form of the enzyme called pepsinogen. The pepsinogen does

not become active, in the form of pepsin, until it encounters hydrochloric acid in the stomach. At this stage, the mucus lining of the stomach protects it from enzymatic action. 95. The mucosa of the small intestine has villi and microvilli as adaptations to greatly increase surface area for

absorption. 96. Because nutrients enter and wastes exit through the same opening, wastes may be taken into the animal’s body only

to be expelled again. 97. salivary glands—salivary amylase; pancreas—pancreatic amylase, trypsin, lipase; liver—bile; gallbladder—bile (does

not produce bile, but stores and releases bile that was produced in the liver) 98. Once nutrient stores in the body are fully utilized, components of the body are broken down as energy sources. This

process leads to the destruction of muscles and organs, and can eventually lead to death. 99. The mosquito is classified as a fluid feeder because the female obtains the blood of other animals as one of its food

sources. It is this practice of obtaining blood from various animals that has the capability of spreading blood-borne pathogens from one animal to another. 100. Enzymatic digestion in humans starts in the mouth. Amylase from the salivary glands begins the digestion of

starches. This digestion takes place only while the food is in the mouth and during the quick trip down the esophagus. When the amylase contacts strong stomach acids, it is denatured. In the stomach, however, pepsin begins the digestion of proteins. Once the food reaches the small intestine, digestion is completed, primarily due to the action of the enzymes produced by accessory structures. The liver secretes bile that serves to emulsify fats, which makes it easier for the lipase (secreted by the pancreas) to digest the fats. Pancreatic juice also contains trypsin to complete the digestion of proteins, and amylase to complete the digestion of starches. At this point, the nutrients are in a simplified, usable form and ready to be absorbed by the small intestine. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 39_4ce 101. Because the small intestine is small in diameter (approximately 4 cm), it cannot accommodate all the food from the

stomach at once. Because the pyloric sphincter is only slightly open, small amounts of the watery chyme can enter the small intestine as the stomach churns. These small aliquots of chyme will not overly distend the small intestine.

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Chap 40_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Blood O2 levels have the greatest influence on mammalian breathing rate. 2. Birds utilize crosscurrent mechanisms to optimize diffusion of O2 across their respiratory surfaces. 3. Alveoli are the respiratory surfaces of birds. 4. When the diaphragm contracts, it moves up into the thoracic cavity, thereby decreasing its volume. 5. A larynx is found at the beginning of each insect trachea. 6. Each molecule of hemoglobin can bind to six molecules of oxygen. 7. Humans ventilate their lungs by negative pressure breathing. 8. CO2 and H2O are converted to HCO3– and H+ in the blood of the lungs. 9. Alveoli are surrounded by pulmonary capillaries. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10. Which of the following is an example of local control over breathing? a. the interneuron groups of the pons refining the contractions involved with inhalation and exhalation b. the aortic bodies signalling an increase in breathing rate when blood pH is acidic c. the carotid bodies signalling an increase in breathing rate when O2 levels are low d. automated lung ventilation and lung perfusion adjustments maximizing O2 and CO2 exchange 11. Which of the following encourages the movement of water over gills? a. beating cilia b. a fish swimming with its mouth closed c. the diaphragm contracting d. a muscular tail contracting 12. Which organ’s smooth muscles need to contract in order to reduce air movement to the mammalian respiratory

surfaces? a. those of the epiglottis b. those of the large bronchi c. those of the bronchioles d. those of the trachea

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Chap 40_4ce 13. Among air-breathing animals, why do birds have the most effective mechanism of extracting oxygen from air? a. because their air sacs provide additional respiratory surfaces b. because birds utilize crosscurrent exchange c. because bird lungs are the largest among vertebrates d. because bird lungs have more surface area 14. Which of the following air-filled respiratory system structures are common in insects? a. tracheal tubes b. lungs c. gills d. integumentary surfaces 15. Which respiratory surface property enhances the diffusion of respiratory gases? a. cool temperatures b. a large surface area c. a thick epithelial layer d. the presence of active transport pumps 16. How much of O2 from water flowing over gills is extracted by countercurrent exchange? a. 50% to 60% b. 60% to 70% c. 80% to 90% d. 90% to 100% 17. Which airway structure acts as the “windpipe”? a. the bronchus b. the bronchiole c. the larynx d. the trachea 18. Which animals use positive pressure breathing to ventilate their lungs? a. reptiles b. birds c. dogs d. frogs

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Chap 40_4ce 19. Through what process is O2 transported into the blood from air in the lungs? a. active transport b. osmosis c. facilitated diffusion d. simple diffusion 20. What would you predict would happen in an area of the body where blood is relatively acidic (low pH)? a. CO2 would bind more readily to hemoglobin. b. O2 would release from hemoglobin. c. CO2 would release from hemoglobin. d. O2 would bind more readily to hemoglobin. 21. Why does countercurrent exchange optimize gas exchange across some gills? a. It sustains an optimal thermal environment for gas exchange. b. It optimizes perfusion to the respiratory surface. c. It sustains an optimal respiratory gas concentration gradient. d. It optimizes delivery of the respiratory medium to the respiratory surface. 22. Which sequence presents the insect tracheal system structures in the correct order, from most external to most

internal? a. tracheoles, tracheae, tracheal branches, spiracles b. tracheoles, tracheal branches, tracheae, spiracles c. spiracles, tracheae, tracheal branches, tracheoles d. spiracles, tracheoles, tracheae, tracheal branches 23. Which term refers to the respiratory surfaces of mammalian lungs? a. bronchioles b. air sacs c. bronchi d. alveoli 24. Which of the following occurs during human inhalation? a. The diaphragm relaxes and the external intercostal muscles relax. b. The diaphragm relaxes and the external intercostal muscles contract. c. The diaphragm contracts and the external intercostal muscles relax. d. The diaphragm contracts and the external intercostal muscles contract.

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Chap 40_4ce 25. Which term refers to the initial branches of the trachea that lead into each lung? a. bronchioles b. alveoli c. pleura d. bronchi 26. Which of the following is involved in both cellular respiration and physiological respiration in humans? a. the respiratory surface b. the circulatory system c. mitochondria d. the respiratory medium 27. Which of the following respiratory surfaces lack physical protection from the external environment? a. internal gills b. lungs c. tracheal system tubes d. external gills 28. Which of the following is responsible for closing off the airway during swallowing? a. the larynx b. the epiglottis c. the pharynx d. the intercostal muscles 29. How is most O2 transported in the blood? a. bound to hemoglobin b. as gas c. dissolved in the plasma d. as bicarbonate ions 30. Which animals use air sacs to ventilate their lungs? a. reptiles b. horses c. birds d. frogs

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Chap 40_4ce 31. What is a disadvantage of air as a respiratory medium? a. Air evaporates water from the respiratory surface. b. Air requires less energy to ventilate over the respiratory surface. c. Air is 1000 times less dense than water. d. Air contains 30 times as much O2 as water. 32. Which chemical has the least influence on the regulation of breathing rate? a. chemical O2 b. chemical N2 c. chemical H d. chemical CO2 33. What happens to the chest cavity and air pressure in the lungs during exhalation? a. The chest cavity increases, and air pressure decreases. b. The chest cavity increases, and air pressure also increases. c. The chest cavity decreases, and air pressure increases. d. The chest cavity decreases, and air pressure also decreases. 34. Which event occurs in lung blood? a. Plasma HCO3– enters erythrocytes. b. In erythrocytes, carbonic anhydrase converts CO2 and H2O into HCO3– and H+. c. Free H+ binds to hemoglobin. d. CO2 binds to hemoglobin. 35. What is the name of the primary muscle involved in human breathing? a. the diaphragm b. the internal intercostals c. the external intercostals d. the abdominal wall muscles 36. If N2 gas comprises 79% of atmospheric air at sea level, what is the partial pressure of N2? a. about 300 mm Hg b. about 500 mm Hg c. about 600 mm Hg d. about 700 mm Hg

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Chap 40_4ce 37. Which of the following is an example of a respiratory surface? a. fish fins b. human nose c. reptilian skin d. human lungs 38. What is the function of carbonic anhydrase? a. to speed up the rate at which CO2 binds to hemoglobin b. to speed up the rate at which CO2 binds to O2 c. to speed up the conversion of CO2 and H2O into HCO3– and H+ d. to speed up the conversion of HCO3– and O– into CO2 and H2O 39. Which lung volume keeps the lungs from completely deflating, even after a maximal exhalation? a. vital capacity b. total capacity c. residual volume d. tidal volume 40. Where in an insect tracheal system does gas exchange occur between the air and a cell? a. in the tracheoles b. in the tracheal branches c. in the trachea d. in the gill filaments 41. Why is proper ventilation important for a respiring animal? a. It directly increases gas exchange between the blood and cells. b. It maintains blood circulation within the body of an animal. c. It maintains proper O2 and CO2 levels on the internal side of the respiratory surface so that diffusion

across it can be maintained. d. It maintains proper O2 and CO2 levels on the external side of the respiratory surface so that diffusion across it can be maintained. 42. Which respiratory control centres are most sensitive to changes in CO2? a. the receptors of the cortex b. the aortic bodies c. the carotid bodies d. the receptors of the medulla

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Chap 40_4ce 43. In which animal would perfusion be least efficient during gas exchange? a. a fish b. a bird c. a flatworm d. a human 44. Which of the following animals have the highest O2 consumption per gram ever recorded for animals? a. aquatic animals b. insects at rest c. insects at flight d. birds at flight 45. Which animal uses positive pressure breathing to ventilate its lungs? a. a bird b. a salamander c. a lizard d. a human 46. What is the gas transport cascade? a. a synonym for gas diffusion b. steps in oxygen and carbon dioxide transport between the environment and mitochondria c. steps in oxygen transport only, between the environment and mitochondria d. steps in carbon dioxide transport only, between the environment and mitochondria 47. What would you predict to happen in an area of the body where blood is relatively cool? a. CO2 would bind more readily to hemoglobin. b. O2 would bind more readily to hemoglobin. c. CO2 would release from hemoglobin. d. O2 would release from hemoglobin. 48. Which event occurs in body tissue blood? a. In the plasma, HCO3– and H+ convert into CO2 and H2O. b. Erythrocyte HCO3– enters the plasma. c. Free H+ releases from hemoglobin. d. CO2 binds to hemoglobin. Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 49. Use the list of terms to identify each lettered structure in the diagram of the human respiratory system. Write

your answers in the spaces provided. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 40_4ce

Identify structure A: Identify structure B: Identify structure C: Identify structure D: Identify structure E: Identify structure F: Identify structure G: Identify structure H: Identify structure I: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 40_4ce

Identify structure J: Identify structure K: Identify structure L: Match each term with its description. a. flow of blood (or body fluids) on the internal side of the respiratory surface b. gas exchange between the blood and body tissue cells c. general term used to describe an animal’s exchange of gases with the respiratory medium d. specifically describes the release of air from the lungs to the atmosphere e. flow of the respiratory medium over the external side of the respiratory surface f. occurs due to the expansion of the lungs and thoracic cavity g. exchange of gases between the respiratory medium and the blood (or internal body fluids) 50. cellular respiration 51. inhalation 52. breathing 53. exhalation 54. perfusion 55. physiological respiration 56. ventilation

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Chap 40_4ce 57. Llamas, which are customarily known as mountain dwellers, have hemoglobin with a higher O2 binding affinity

than that of humans. That being said, how would you predict the llama hemoglobin-O2 dissociation curve would differ from that of a human? (See diagram below.)

58. Describe three adaptations that enhance the function of a respiratory surface.

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Chap 40_4ce Answer Key 1. False - CO2 2. True 3. False - Bronchi 4. False - relaxes 5. False - spiracle 6. False - four 7. True 8. False - body tissues 9. True 10. d 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. c 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. b 21. c 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. d 26. b

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Chap 40_4ce 27. d 28. b 29. a 30. c 31. a 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. d 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. b 48. d

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Chap 40_4ce 49. A) nasal passages

B) pharynx C) epiglottis D) trachea E) lung F) bronchi G) bronchiole H) alveoli I) pleura J) intercostal muscles K) diaphragm L) pulmonary capillaries 50. b 51. f 52. c 53. d 54. a 55. g 56. e 57. The slope of the llama hemoglobin–O2 dissociation curve would be steeper, effectively shifting the curve to the left.

Thus, the llama hemoglobin is shown to bind to O2 at lower partial pressures than those of a human. 58. Gas diffusion can be enhanced across a respiratory membrane by (1) increasing its surface area so that more gases

diffuse, (2) making the respiratory surface thin so that gas diffusion is more rapid, and (3) making the respiratory surface moist so that gases diffuse across cells more readily.

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Chap 41_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Lymph capillaries are smaller in diameter than blood capillaries. 2. When you are experiencing stress, the sympathetic nervous system decreases your blood pressure. 3. The primary function of erythrocytes is to participate in immune reactions. 4. The systolic blood pressure is the time when the blood pressure is the highest in the arteries. 5. Cardiac output is defined as the pressure and amount of blood pumped by the ventricles. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6. Where is the sinoatrial node located? a. in the pulmonary artery b. in the right atrium c. in the left atrium d. in the left ventricle 7. Which statement describes an open circulatory system? a. It allows blood to be contained in blood vessels. b. It contains two circulatory systems. c. It is more efficient than a closed system. d. It allows hemolymph and interstitial fluids to be mixed together. 8. Which type of leukocytes are the most prevalent in a normal individual? a. eosinophils b. neutrophils c. basophils d. lymphocytes 9. Who consumes more oxygen per minute? a. hummingbird over human b. shrew over hummingbird c. hummingbird over shrew d. human over hummingbird

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Chap 41_4ce 10. Which of the following is characteristic of sponges and hydras? a. lack of an actual circulatory system b. lack of a reproductive system c. lack of a digestive system d. lack of a muscle system 11. What help move lymph throughout the lymph vessels? a. constriction of blood vessels b. skeletal muscle and breathing movements c. conscious actions d. dilation of blood vessels 12. Where is erythropoietin produced? a. in the liver b. in the heart c. in the lymph nodes d. in the kidneys 13. Where are blood cells produced in humans? a. in the heart b. in the lymph nodes c. in the bone marrow d. in the kidneys 14. Which of the following is similar between erythrocytes and lymphocytes? a. component of plasma b. has a role in immune response c. produced from stem cells d. carries hemoglobin 15. What is the function of valves in the heart? a. to prevent backflow of blood b. to prevent clot formation c. to form blood cells d. to push blood ahead

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Chap 41_4ce 16. Which structures could be considered blood reservoirs? a. veins b. arterioles c. capillaries d. arteries 17. Which vessels allow an actual gas exchange? a. the capillaries b. the venules c. the arterioles d. the veins 18. Which blood components are the smallest in size? a. leukocytes b. lymphocytes c. erythrocytes d. platelets 19. Which of the following would be the most likely reason for the high resistance of capillaries to blood flow? a. the diameter of capillaries being so small that the white blood cells must squeeze b. the diameter of capillaries being so small that that the red blood cells must squeeze c. the diameter of capillaries being so large that the red blood cells must fill it all up d. the diameter of capillaries being so large that the white blood cells must fill it all up 20. What percentage of plasma is water? a. about 92% b. about 77% c. about 55% d. about 10% 21. What is the main force that moves blood throughout the system of blood vessels? a. valve action b. venous blood pressure c. smooth muscle action d. arterial blood pressure

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Chap 41_4ce 22. Which chamber of the heart does the blood first enter when it returns from the pulmonary circuit? a. the left ventricle b. the right ventricle c. the right atrium d. the left atrium 23. What happens to your blood pressure when you run? a. Only your diastolic blood pressure elevates. b. Both your diastolic and systolic blood pressures elevate. c. Both your diastolic and systolic blood pressure stay the same. d. Only your systolic blood pressure elevates. 24. How many times per minute does the average human heart beat? a. 120 b. 72 c. 53 d. 10 25. What is the purpose of the pulmonary circuit in a closed circulatory system? a. to collect and distribute blood only to the heart b. to take blood to and from all parts of the body c. to take blood to and from the lungs d. to take blood to and from kidneys 26. In which blood vessels is pressure the greatest? a. in the veins b. in the capillaries c. in the arteries d. in the venules 27. Which component of plasma constitutes antibodies? a. dissolved gas b. albumin c. fibrinogen d. immunoglobulin

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Chap 41_4ce 28. Where are baroreceptors located? a. in the brainstem b. in the walls of blood vessels c. in the adrenal glands d. in the heart 29. Which set of terms refers to the control of cardiac output? a. baroreceptors, brainstem, heart b. heart, baroreceptors, brainstem c. brainstem, heart, baroreceptors d. brainstem, baroreceptors, heart 30. Which two components of blood are involved in the formation of clots? a. albumin and fibrinogen b. platelets and albumin c. fibrinogen and erythrocytes d. fibrinogen and platelets 31. Which sequence places the components of the electrical activity of the heart in the proper order? a. AV node, Purkinje fibres, SA node b. Purkinje fibres, AV node, SA node c. SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibres d. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibres 32. Which of these vessels carries oxygenated blood? a. the pulmonary vein b. the inferior vena cava c. the pulmonary artery d. the superior vena cava 33. What is the function of erythrocytes? a. to fight off infections b. to carry oxygen c. to secrete erythropoietin d. to form clots

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Chap 41_4ce 34. Which of the following would be too big to pass easily through capillary walls? a. water b. carbon dioxide c. erythrocytes d. glucose 35. Which set of terms refers to structures that all contain valves? a. arteries, veins, heart b. lymph capillaries, arteries, heart c. lymph capillaries, veins, heart d. arteries, capillaries, heart 36. Where is an atrioventricular valve located? a. where blood enters the aorta b. between the right atrium and the right ventricle c. between both atria and ventricles d. between the left atrium and the left ventricle 37. What percentage of the total blood volume is made up of plasma? a. about 75% b. about 50% c. about 25% d. about 10% 38. How much fluid does the lymphatic system return to the bloodstream each day? a. 10 to 13 litres b. 6 to 7 litres c. 3 to 4 litres d. 1 to 2 litres 39. Which organ system participates in the body’s defences against diseases? a. respiratory system b. nervous system c. circulatory system d. lymphatic system

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Chap 41_4ce 40. Which two ions are the most abundant in plasma? a. HCO3– and Cl– b. Na+ and K+ c. HCO3– and Ca2+ d. Na+ and Cl– Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 41. Place the structures in the correct order that deoxygenated blood (blood lacking oxygen) will encounter after it

enters the heart. A. aorta B. left atrium C. left ventricle D. lungs E. pulmonary arteries F. pulmonary veins G. right atrium H. right ventricle first structure second structure third structure fourth structure fifth structure sixth structure seventh structure eighth structure

___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________

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Chap 41_4ce 42. For the systemic circulation in humans, place the blood vessels in the correct order that the blood encounters

as it leaves the heart. A. arteries B. arterioles C. capillaries D. veins E. venules first vessel category second vessel category third vessel category fourth vessel category fifth vessel category

________ ________ ________ ________ ________

Match each type of animal to the description of its circulatory system. a. a heart that has two chambers and one circuit b. a heart that has three chambers and two circuits c. a heart that has three chambers (and a partially formed septum in the ventricle) and two circuits d. a heart that has four chambers and two circuits 43. fish 44. mammals 45. amphibians 46. snakes

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Chap 41_4ce

Identify the following structures on the picture.

47. left atrium 48. septum 49. right pulmonary veins 50. left pulmonary veins 51. valve (two valves are labelled) 52. aorta 53. right ventricle 54. superior vena cava 55. inferior vena cava 56. pulmonary arteries 57. left ventricle

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Chap 41_4ce

Identify the following structures on the picture.

58. tonsils 59. thoracic duct 60. spleen 61. thymus 62. right lymphatic duct 63. lymph nodes 64. lymph vessels 65. Why do veins have less elastic components than arteries?

66. What three factors regulate blood pressure?

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Chap 41_4ce 67. Why would an iron deficiency result in anemia?

68. Why are the albumins the most abundant proteins of the plasma?

69. What is meant by the term “blood–brain barrier”?

70. How do lymph nodes aid in a cancer diagnosis?

71. Why is the movement of blood in veins sometimes described as “milking a vein”?

72. Describe several reasons to explain why blood flows more slowly in capillaries than in arteries.

73. Why must an animal such as an amphibian remain moist?

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Chap 41_4ce Answer Key 1. False - larger 2. False - increases 3. False - leukocytes 4. True 5. True 6. b 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. d 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. d 19. b 20. a 21. d 22. d 23. d 24. b 25. c 26. c

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Chap 41_4ce 27. d 28. b 29. a 30. d 31. c 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. d 41. First: G

Second: H Third: E Fourth: D Fifth: F Sixth: B Seventh: C Eighth: A 42. First: A

Second: B Third: C Fourth: E Fifth: D 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. c 47. i Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 41_4ce 48. l 49. b 50. h 51. c 52. f 53. d 54. a 55. e 56. g 57. k 58. a 59. d 60. e 61. c 62. b 63. g 64. f 65. When blood enters the arteries, it is travelling quickly and with a great deal of pressure. The arteries must have a lot

of elasticity so that they can swell and recoil as a response to the pressure exerted by the blood flow. By the time blood enters the veins, the pressure is greatly dissipated and not as much elasticity is required. 66. They are cardiac output, the constriction of blood vessels, and the total blood volume. 67. A hemoglobin molecule has an iron atom at its centre. Therefore, if inadequate amounts of iron are present,

hemoglobin cannot be produced at an adequate rate. Hemoglobin is the oxygen-carrying substance in an erythrocyte; therefore, a deficiency of hemoglobin results in anemia. 68. The albumins are the most abundant because they are important for osmotic balance and pH buffering, and for the

transport of wide variety of substances through the circulatory system, including hormones and metabolic wastes. 69. The capillary walls in the brain are more restrictive than those in other areas of the body. This limits the substances

that can pass from the bloodstream into brain tissue.

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Chap 41_4ce 70. The lymphatic system filters extracellular fluids. Therefore, if cancerous cells have metastasized (spread from the

initial location), it is likely that some cancerous cells may be located in the lymph nodes. The examination of numerous lymph nodes surrounding the primary site of the cancer may enable the physician to determine if localized treatment will be effective or if a broader spectrum approach is necessary. 71. When the contraction of skeletal muscles in conjunction with valve action pushes in on the walls of veins, the blood is

forced upward. This action is somewhat similar to squeezing the teat of a cow to release the milk. 72. When blood first leaves the heart, it enters large arteries and is travelling very quickly. By the time it reaches the

capillary level, it is like traffic that goes from a large superhighway down to many small one-way roads. In addition, the blood must travel more slowly in capillaries to allow for adequate gas exchange to occur. If blood entered the capillary network at the same speed and force that it travels in arteries, the individual capillaries would burst. 73. Even though an amphibian may contain lungs and or gills, those structures do not entirely meet the respiration needs

of the animal. In addition, respiration through the skin occurs, and a moist environment is necessary for gas exchange to take place effectively through the skin.

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Chap 42_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In humans, what is brown adipose tissue used for? a. for controlling blood pressure b. for digesting fats c. for nonshivering thermogenesis d. for cooling the body when it is exposed 2. Which term refers to the movement of some molecules and ions out of the excretory system tubules and back

into body fluids? a. reabsorption b. release c. filtration d. secretion 3. What is the main form of nitrogenous waste released by mammals to their environment? a. amino acids b. urea c. ammonia d. nitrate 4. Which organisms obtain heat primarily from the external environment? a. endotherms b. ectotherms c. exotherms d. isotherms 5. Suppose sugar is taken out of an excretory system tubule and put back into the blood. What would this

process be an example of? a. secretion b. release c. filtration d. reabsorption 6. In mammals, which structure does the urine drain out of before entering a collecting duct? a. the distal convoluted tubule b. the descending segment of the loop of Henle c. the proximal convoluted tubule d. the ascending segment of the loop of Henle

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Chap 42_4ce 7. Which term refers to the selective movement of specific small molecules and ions into excretory system

tubules? a. release b. secretion c. reabsorption d. filtration 8. In mammals, essentially all of the glucose and amino acids from the filtrate get reabsorbed in one of the

excretory tubule segments. In which segment does this occur? a. in the proximal convoluted tubule b. in the descending segment of the loop of Henle c. in the ascending segment of the loop of Henle d. in the Bowman’s capsule 9. Which of the following organisms is an endotherm? a. a turtle b. a salamander c. a mouse d. a frog 10. In mammals, which reaction to cold, limits the amount of heat an animal loses to its surroundings? a. shivering b. pressing hair shafts close to the body c. reducing blood flow to the skin d. going off to lie alone so that others do not take their heat 11. Which term refers to the state in which the body temperature increases a few degrees above normal for a

prolonged period? a. thermal acclimatization b. estivation c. hypothermia d. hyperthermia 12. What is the name of the tube through which urine leaves the urinary bladder? a. renal vein b. collecting duct c. urethra d. renal pelvis

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Chap 42_4ce 13. Which segment of the mammalian nephron receives the filtrate first? a. the ascending segment of the loop of Henle b. the distal convoluted tubule c. the descending segment of the loop of Henle d. the Bowman’s capsule 14. In mammals, about 65% of the water from the filtrate gets reabsorbed. In which segment of the excretory

tubule does this occur? a. in the ascending segment of the loop of Henle b. in the Bowman’s capsule c. in the proximal convoluted tubule d. in the distal convoluted tubule 15. Which term refers to an extended period of torpor that an animal enters during the winter when the

environment is too cold and food is too scarce? a. hypothermia b. thermal acclimatization c. hibernation d. estivation 16. Which term refers to the nonselective movement of water and a number of solutes into the excretory system

tubules? a. filtration b. release c. secretion d. reabsorption 17. What is the osmolarity of fresh water? a. about 5 mOsm/L b. about 225 mOsm/L c. about 300 mOsm/L d. about 1500 mOsm/L 18. Which structures are characterized by its smallest branches ending with a large flame cell? a. hepatic tubules b. nephrons c. Malpighian tubules d. protonephridia

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Chap 42_4ce 19. What is the name of the tubules that make up the excretory systems used by most annelids and adult molluscs? a. hepatic tubules b. nephrons c. metanephridia d. Malpighian tubules 20. Which of the following are typically osmoconformers? a. marine teleost fishes b. freshwater invertebrates c. freshwater teleost fishes d. sharks 21. Compared to uric acid, how much energy and water are required if urea is the main form of nitrogenous

waste? a. less energy and more water b. more energy and less water c. the same amount of energy and water d. less energy and water 22. What is the human temperature set point, typically? a. It stays around 37.0°C. b. It ranges from about 37.5°C in the morning to about 37.7°C in the evening. c. It ranges from about 37.7°C in the morning to about 37.5°C in the evening. d. It ranges from about 37.3°C in the morning to about 34.7°C in the evening. 23. What is typical osmolarity of body fluids in most marine invertebrates? a. about 1500 mOsm/L b. about 1000 mOsm/L c. about 225 mOsm/L d. about 5 mOsm/L 24. Which salt concentration is found in the body fluids of Atlantic salmon? a. 0.1% b. 1% c. 3.5% d. 4%

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Chap 42_4ce 25. In which group are protonephridia found? a. in mammals b. in annelids c. in insects d. in flatworms 26. Which of the following help(s) maintain the pressure driving fluid into Bowman’s capsule? a. the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system b. the antidiuretic hormone c. the diameters of the afferent and the efferent arterioles d. the diameters of the proximal and distal tubules 27. What is the name of the tubules that make up the relatively simple excretory system used by flatworms? a. Malpighian tubules b. nephrons c. metanephridia d. protonephridia 28. Suppose that a cell has a membrane that is permeable to water but NOT to Na+ or Cl– or any other solute.

More NaCl exists outside the cell than inside the cell, and the osmolarity of the cell is higher than that of the solution surrounding the cell. Which of the following should occur? a. Overall, the cell should lose water and take up Na+ and Cl– . b. Overall, the cell should take up water, Na+, and Cl– . c. Overall, the cell should take up water and lose Na+ and Cl– . d. Overall, the cell should take up water. 29. In mammals, which excretory tubule segment allows water to exit but does NOT allow ions or urea to exit? a. the ascending segment of the loop of Henle b. the distal convoluted tubule c. the proximal convoluted tubule d. the descending segment of the loop of Henle 30. Into which area does the descending segment of the loop of Henle extend? a. into the renal pelvis b. into the renal medulla c. into the Bowman’s capsule d. into the collecting ducts

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Chap 42_4ce 31. In mammals, which of the following excretory tubule segments consumes the most ATP? a. the Bowman’s capsule b. the proximal convoluted tubule c. the distal convoluted tubule d. the ascending segment of the loop of Henle 32. Suppose that you examine an animal and find it has excretory structures that have a closed proximal end

immersed in hemolymph and a distal end that empties into the gut. Which term should you use to describe these structures? a. hepatic tubules b. Malpighian tubules c. nephrons d. metanephridia 33. Which sentence describes how the metabolic rate of an endotherm compares with the metabolic rate of an

ectotherm as the environment gets colder? a. The metabolic rate in an endotherm goes down, while the metabolic rate of an ectotherm goes up. b. The metabolic rate in an endotherm goes down, as well as the metabolic rate of an ectotherm. c. The metabolic rate of an endotherm goes up, as well as the metabolic rate of an ectotherm. d. The metabolic rate in an endotherm goes up, while the metabolic rate of an ectotherm goes down. 34. Where does the kangaroo rat get the bulk of its water from? a. from re-uptake of water from urine b. from oxidative reactions in its cells c. from absorption through its skin d. from ingestion of food 35. What is the typical osmolarity of seawater? a. about 5 mOsm/L b. about 225 mOsm/L c. about 1000 mOsm/L d. about 1500 mOsm/L 36. Which organisms obtain heat primarily from internal physiological sources? a. allotherms b. ectotherms c. exotherms d. endotherms

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Chap 42_4ce 37. Many birds, such as seagulls, rarely drink fresh water. What is the main way that such birds deal with the

osmotic stress of taking in large quantities of salt in their food? a. by excreting excess salt through the actions of specialized salt glands in their heads b. by active transport of ions into the body through their feet c. by excreting nitrogenous wastes through their kidneys as urea d. by maintaining high levels of urea and trimethylamine oxide in body fluids 38. What is the main form of nitrogenous waste released by aquatic invertebrates to their environment? a. urea b. ammonia c. nitrate d. uric acid 39. Where are metanephridia found? a. in mammals b. in flatworms c. in insects d. in annelids 40. What is typical osmolarity of body fluids in most freshwater invertebrates? a. about 225 mOsm/L b. about 300 mOsm/L c. about 1000 mOsm/L d. about 1500 mOsm/L 41. Which pathway do Atlantic salmon take? a. swimming downstream in the river pausing at the estuary

entering the sea

swimming back to

the river b. swimming upstream in the river pausing at the estuary entering the sea swimming back to the river c. swimming in the sea pausing at the estuary entering the river swimming back to the sea d. swimming upstream in the river entering the sea pausing at the estuary swimming back to the river 42. In mammals, where is the glomerulus located? a. within the distal convoluted tubule b. within the ascending segment of the loop of Henle c. within the Bowman’s capsule d. within the descending segment of the loop of Henle

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Chap 42_4ce 43. What is the main form of nitrogenous waste that is excreted from Malpighian tubules? a. urea b. uric acid c. ammonia d. nitrate 44. Which of these animals have nephrons? a. mammals b. insects c. flatworms d. annelids 45. In a typical adult human about 180 L of fluid leaves the blood as filtrate each day. How much is reabsorbed? a. about 50% b. about 65% c. about 90% d. more than 99% 46. Which of the following organisms is an ectotherm? a. an owl b. an elephant c. a lizard d. a bat 47. What is the tonicity of the urine of marine mammals compared with another fluid? a. hyperosmotic, compared with seawater b. hypoosmotic, compared with seawater c. isoosmotic, compared with their body fluids d. hypoosmotic, compared with their body fluids 48. Which of the following is/are used for osmoregulation and excretion in all but the simplest animals? a. modifications of the respiratory and digestive systems b. the lining of the digestive tract c. the transport epithelium d. specialized blood vessels

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Chap 42_4ce 49. What is the main form of nitrogenous waste released by birds to their environment? a. urea b. nitrate c. ammonia d. uric acid 50. At what location does the filtrate leave the blood? a. peritubular capillaries b. afferent arteriole c. efferent arteriole d. glomerulus 51. How is osmolarity measured? a. total solute plus solvent concentration in a solution b. total solute concentration in a solution c. ratio of solvent to solute in a solution d. total solvent concentration in a solution 52. What is the main way that sharks and rays deal with the osmotic stress of living in seawater? a. by active transport of ions out of the body by chloride cells b. by maintaining high levels of urea and trimethylamine oxide in body fluids c. by active transport of ions into the body through the gills d. by excreting nitrogenous wastes through their kidneys as urea 53. In which part of the mammalian urinary system does filtrate undergo a dramatic decrease in osmolarity? a. the descending segment of the loop of Henle b. the distal convoluted tubule c. the ascending segment of the loop of Henle d. the proximal convoluted tubule 54. In mammals, where in the kidney should you expect to find cells with the highest concentration of compounds

affecting osmosis? a. Bowman’s capsule b. renal cortex c. renal medulla d. renal pelvis

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Chap 42_4ce 55. Which structure generally traps water because it does NOT have aquaporins? a. the proximal convoluted tubule b. the ascending segment of the loop of Henle c. the distal convoluted tubule d. the Bowman’s capsule 56. Which process involves the transfer of heat from the surface of a body to a fluid that passes over the body’s

surface? a. convection b. evaporation c. radiation d. conduction 57. Which process involves the flow of heat between two matters that are in direct contact? a. conduction b. evaporation c. convection d. radiation 58. What is the name of the tubules in true kidneys? a. metanephridia b. protonephridia c. hepatic tubules d. nephrons 59. What is the typical osmolarity of most body fluids in humans and other mammals? a. about 225 mOsm/L b. about 300 mOsm/L c. about 1000 mOsm/L d. about 1500 mOsm/L 60. What are aquaporins? a. the exit channels for urine leaving a nephron b. transport channels for water c. the entry points of filtrate into a nephron d. cells that are specialized for water transport

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Chap 42_4ce 61. Where are Malpighian tubules found? a. in mammals b. in annelids c. in flatworms d. in insects 62. Which term refers to physiological changes in ectotherms, known to occur when they get used to temperature

rising in the summer? a. estivation b. thermal acclimatization c. hypothermia d. hyperthermia 63. What is the main way that marine teleost fishes deal with the osmotic stress of living in seawater? a. by active transport of ions out of the body by chloride cells b. by excreting nitrogenous wastes through their kidneys as urea c. by excreting excess salt through the actions of specialized salt glands in their heads d. by active transport of ions into the body through the gills 64. At what location do the molecules and ions that are reabsorbed from the nephron re-enter the blood? a. at the renal artery b. at the afferent arteriole c. at the efferent arteriole d. at the peritubular capillaries 65. Which term refers to an extended period of torpor that an animal enters during the summer when the

environment is too hot and water is too scarce? a. hyperthermia b. thermal acclimatization c. hibernation d. estivation

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Chap 42_4ce

Match each description to a nephron tubule portion. Nephron tubule portions can be used more than once. a. ascending segment of the loop of Henle b. proximal convoluted tubule c. Bowman’s capsule d. descending segment of the loop of Henle e. distal convoluted tubule 66. site where water and small substances are first passed into the nephron 67. empties into a collecting duct 68. Na+ and Cl– actively transported out here, but water and urea are not moved across the membrane 69. may start in the cortex and end in the medulla 70. tubule segment that usually has the largest increase in osmolarity 71. may start in the medulla and end in the cortex 72. site of reabsorption of nearly all glucose 73. site of over half of the water reabsorption from the filtrate 74. surrounds the glomerulus 75. tubule segment that usually has the largest decrease in osmolarity

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Chap 42_4ce Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. c 11. d 12. c 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. d 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. d 26. c

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Chap 42_4ce 27. d 28. d 29. d 30. b 31. d 32. b 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. d 40. a 41. a 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. d 46. c 47. a 48. c 49. d 50. d 51. b 52. b 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 42_4ce 55. b 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. b 60. b 61. d 62. b 63. a 64. d 65. d 66. c 67. e 68. a 69. d 70. d 71. a 72. b 73. b 74. c 75. a

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Chap 43_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary only in females. 2. Small quantities of hormones can typically produce profound effects in cells and body functions due to

magnification. 3. Under regulatory control by the hypothalamus, the posterior pituitary secretes eight hormones. 4. Insulin is produced and released from the exocrine pancreas. 5. In endocrine regulation, a cell releases signalling molecules that diffuse through the extracellular fluid and act

on nearby cells. 6. Increases in MSH could result in increased pigmentation. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7. Which hormone, produced by which endocrine gland, influences biological rhythms and the onset of sleep? a. cortisol by the pineal gland b. melatonin by the pineal gland c. melatonin by the pituitary gland d. cortisol by the pituitary gland 8. Suppose that the anterior pituitary secretes more ACTH, leading to more glucocorticoids in plasma, which

causes the anterior pituitary to then secrete less ACTH. What is this type of hormonal control an example of? a. amplification b. positive feedback c. cascading feedback d. negative feedback 9. Oxytocin is a hormone that is involved with increasing contractions during childbirth. The action is binding to

membrane receptors and the result is increasing sodium and calcium. What is oxytocin most likely to be in structure? a. a fatty acid derivative b. a steroid c. a peptide or protein d. a carbohydrate

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Chap 43_4ce 10. Which hormone is correctly paired with its target tissue? a. MSH: thyroid b. prolactin: testes c. growth hormone: bone d. ACTH: adrenal medulla 11. What does the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland secrete? a. TSH b. ACTH c. endorphin d. oxytocin 12. Which term refers to a cell or tissue that has a receptor for a hormone? a. an endocrine gland b. a neuroendocrine tissue c. a paracrine tissue d. a target cell 13. What would be expected to occur if the melanocyte-stimulating hormone were increased? a. changes in kidney function for retention of water b. an increase in pigmentation in the skin c. an decrease in milk production in females d. an increase in reproductive or estrus cycles 14. During stressful situations, which of the following actions is initiated by norepinephrine? a. dilation of blood vessels in the muscles b. decrease in blood pressure c. decrease in heart rate d. dilation of blood vessels in the skin 15. What type of regulation occurs when a cell releases chemical signals into the extracellular fluid to affect cells? a. systemic regulation b. autocrine regulation c. paracrine regulation d. exocrine regulation

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Chap 43_4ce 16. Which of the following hormones affects cells in the collecting duct of the kidney to help regulate water

secretion? a. insulin-like growth factor b. ADH c. prolactin d. growth hormone 17. Which gland mediates the regulation of milk release, water balance, and uterine contractions during childbirth? a. posterior thyroid b. posterior pituitary c. pineal d. parathyroid 18. Which organ system controls activities that involve slower, longer-acting responses of multiple tissues or

organs? a. excretory system b. reproductive system c. endocrine system d. nervous system 19. How many hormone systems act in coordination during periods of eating and fasting? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5 20. Which hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland? a. estrogen b. follicle-stimulating hormone c. progesterone d. testosterone 21. Why do target tissues for steroid hormones and thyroid hormones NOT have membrane receptors for these

hormones? a. because they can easily pass through the plasma membrane due to their chemical composition b. because they are small enough to diffuse directly into the cell c. because they stimulate the cell by changes in electrical activity d. because they enter the cell by ion channels

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Chap 43_4ce 22. Suppose that your job is to determine if a steroid hormone is having an effect on its target tissue. What would

be an indication of activation of the target tissue by the hormone in question? a. increased calcium level in the cytoplasm b. activation of G proteins c. increased cyclic AMP levels d. increased levels of mRNA 23. What causes gigantism? a. hypersecretion of growth hormone during childhood b. hypersecretion of growth hormone during adulthood c. hyposecretion of growth hormone during childhood d. hyposecretion of growth hormone during adulthood 24. Which hormone of the anterior pituitary gland has a generalized effect, and has receptors on almost every cell

in the body? a. ADH b. prolactin c. growth hormone d. ACTH 25. Which gland has a neurosecretory component as well as a component that is NOT under direct neural

control? a. the pineal gland b. the hypothalamus c. the parathyroid gland d. the pituitary gland 26. What is an important functional role of the endocrine system? a. allowing for mechanisms to control gene action b. inhibiting nervous system action on muscles and glands c. maintaining a constant, yet dynamic internal fluid environment d. providing mechanisms for rapid responses to changes in the body 27. Which hormones does the hypothalamus produce, and which specific pituitary gland is affected? a. releasing hormones, which affect anterior pituitary b. activating hormones, which affect posterior pituitary c. releasing hormones, which affect posterior pituitary d. amplification hormones, which affect anterior pituitary

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Chap 43_4ce 28. Suppose that you are studying the hormonal control of metamorphosis in amphibians. Also suppose that the

anterior pituitary is prevented from releasing TSH. What would you predict to be the effect on tadpoles? a. Conversion to frogs would be increased fivefold. b. Metamorphosis would be extremely fast. c. Metabolism in tadpoles would stop. d. Metabolism in tadpoles would be greatly decreased. 29. Hormone action is associated with small quantities of hormones producing profound responses in target

tissues. What is this type of response? a. an amplification b. a second messenger response c. a gene activation response d. a growth factor response 30. A hormone is hydrophobic and binds to membrane receptors. What type of molecule is this hormone most

likely to be? a. a lipid b. a carbohydrate c. a fatty acid d. a protein 31. Which of the following are independent from the negative feedback loops to the hypothalamus and the

pituitary? a. levels of insulin b. levels of thyroid hormones c. levels of cortisol d. levels of testosterone 32. What triggers the transition to mating behaviour in bull elks? a. shortening days of late summer and fall b. lengthening days of late spring and summer c. cold temperatures of the fall days d. warm temperatures of the spring days

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Chap 43_4ce 33. Suppose that hormone A binds to intracellular receptors in its target tissue. Also suppose that as a result of

hormone A, the target tissue is now sensitive to or responsive to hormone B. What was the action of hormone A? a. to decrease mRNA for hormone A receptors b. to increase cyclic AMP levels which activated receptors for hormone B c. to increase receptor sites for hormone B d. to increase receptor sits for hormone A 34. Which sequence presents hormone action in the correct order? a. transduction, reception, response b. transduction, response, reception c. reception, transduction, response d. reception, response, transduction 35. Which of the following affects the pituitary gland most directly? a. adrenal gland b. thyroid gland c. pineal gland d. hypothalamus 36. Which pair is correctly matched? a. pineal gland: melatonin b. thyroid gland: PTH c. posterior pituitary: TSH d. pancreas: calcitonin 37. Which types of hormones enter cells and have primary action to either increase or decrease mRNA

production? a. steroid and phospholipid hormones b. peptide and phospholipid hormones c. steroid and thyroid hormones d. thyroid and peptide hormones 38. Which endocrine gland contains highly modified neurosecretory neurons that have lost their axons and

dendrites? a. adrenal medulla b. thyroid c. adrenal cortex d. pancreas

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Chap 43_4ce 39. Which chemical(s) can associate with any type of hormone? a. fatty acid derivatives b. an inorganic compound c. polysaccharides d. water 40. Target tissues often have receptors for multiple hormones. What does the response of the target tissue depend

on? a. the blood levels of the hormones that affect it, but not the effects of other signalling molecules b. the blood levels of other hormones that affect it and the effects of other signalling molecules c. the interactions between hormones that affect it and the effects of other signalling molecules d. the blood levels of and interactions between the hormones that affect it and the effects of other signalling molecules 41. Which of the following is the primary mineralocorticoid? a. growth hormone b. aldosterone c. ADH d. ACTH 42. Which hormones primarily control calcium levels? a. the parathyroid hormone and calcitonin b. calcitonin and thyroxine c. progesterone and ADH d. the parathyroid hormone and thyroxine 43. Which of the following occurs when the moult-inhibiting hormone is prevented from being secreted? a. Moulting is inhibited. b. Ecdysone levels increase. c. Moulting is stimulated. d. Ecdysone levels decrease. 44. Which of the following affects blood glucose levels? a. FSH b. glucagon c. parathyroid hormone d. prolactin

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Chap 43_4ce 45. What do the products of endocrine glands do? a. always stimulate the target tissue b. provide feedback by paracrine action c. affect only their own tissue d. reach their target tissues’ circulation 46. Why do some individual hormones have multiple effects on different target tissues? a. Second messengers trigger cascade or amplification effects. b. Many different cells in different tissues have specific receptors for the hormone. c. Only a small amount of the hormone is required for its effect. d. Gene transcription is altered. 47. What term refers to the joint actions of insulin and glucagon? a. antagonistic b. cooperative c. permissive d. synergistic 48. Which symptom most likely applies to an adult who is suffering from hyperthyroidism? a. often hungry b. always tired c. shows lack of emotions d. sleeps a significant amount of the time 49. Stress can have a significant effect on the body. What is chronic stress most likely to cause? a. increased blood flow to the brain, especially the hippocampus b. elevated levels of epinephrine from the adrenal cortex c. elevated levels of cortisol from the adrenal cortex d. excessive stimulation of neurons

Select a term or phrase from the numbered list to correspond to each labelled endocrine gland in the illustration. The terms and phrases in the numbered list may be used more than once.

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Chap 43_4ce

50. production site of the hormone that promotes growth in bones and muscles 51. production site of hormone involved in water balance by increasing nephron permeability to water 52. a portion is neuroendocrine and a portion is under hormonal control of the hypothalamus 53. a portion of this gland reinforces the sympathetic nervous system in responding to stress 54. production and release of insulin 55. hormones from these glands stimulate other glands to produce hormones (two answers are correct) 56. gland that controls biological rhythms 57. production site of androgens 58. hormones from this gland play an important role in metamorphosis in amphibians 59. the hormone produced by this gland works in a synergistic fashion with vitamin D 60. site of release of oxytocin 61. production site of hormone involved in milk production 62. gland that produces progesterone that is under the control of GnRH 63. production and release of calcitonin 64. primary calcium regulation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 43_4ce 65. ADH production

Match each concept with the most appropriate description. a. contains four iodine atoms b. corpus allatum c. opposite effect of moult-inhibiting hormone d. hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that regulates sodium and potassium levels e. insulin deficiency f. typically steroids; affect gene activation g. hormones that either stimulate or inhibit another cell or tissue h. pituitary dwarfism i. small activation; cascading response j. target tissue of melatonin k. signal molecule released by a cell into the extracellular fluid and having a localized response l. paracrine or autocrine regulation 66. ecdysone 67. tropic hormones 68. juvenile hormone 69. type 1 diabetes 70. prostaglandins 71. hyposecretion of growth hormone 72. aldosterone 73. thyroxine 74. paracrine regulation 75. hydrophobic hormone 76. suprachiasmatic nucleus 77. amplification 78. Compare and contrast receptor recognition between hydrophobic and hydrophilic hormones.

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Chap 43_4ce 79. Describe amplification of hormone action.

80. Explain negative feedback control using thyroid hormones as an example.

81. A patient is having blood glucose problems. Plasma glucose levels are very low, which is a condition called

hypoglycemia. The problem is NOT associated with insulin, but with the secretion of glucocorticoids. How would you evaluate the patient to determine where in the feedback system the problem is located?

82. If a hormone caused an increase in protein kinase activity, predict the type of hormone responsible and the

intracellular signalling mechanism of its action.

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Chap 43_4ce Answer Key 1. False - in both males and females 2. False - amplification 3. False - anterior 4. False - endocrine 5. False - paracrine 6. True 7. b 8. d 9. c 10. c 11. d 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. c 19. d 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. c 25. d 26. c

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Chap 43_4ce 27. a 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. a 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. d 36. a 37. c 38. a 39. a 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. b 45. d 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. c 50. b 51. b 52. b 53. c 54. i Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 43_4ce 55. a 56. f 57. e 58. g 59. h 60. b 61. b 62. d 63. g 64. h 65. a 66. c 67. g 68. b 69. e 70. l 71. h 72. d 73. a 74. k 75. f 76. j 77. i 78. Hydrophobic hormones are typically lipid soluble hormones—steroids or fatty acid derivatives. These will diffuse

into the cell and bind to intracellular receptors. Typical action of these hormones is to affect gene activity. Hydrophilic hormones are non-lipid soluble and thus cannot easily enter the cell. Receptors are typically membrane bound. The binding of the hormone to the receptor results in activation of a type of second messenger, which then causes a variety of effects from permeability changes to changes in enzyme activity.

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Chap 43_4ce 79. A hormone receptor complex is the reception component of hormone action. This complex can activate multiple

copies of transduction molecules or events, such as cyclic AMP as a second messenger. Each of the second messenger molecules can activate multiple copies of the next component of the mechanism (such as multiple copies of protein kinase). One hormone receptor complex can result in multiple levels of response, because each component of the mechanism produces a cascading or amplifying response. 80. Thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) are produced by the thyroid gland. Levels are maintained within a physiological

range. When the T3 and T4 levels drop due to metabolism, the hypothalamus produces thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH), which acts on the anterior pituitary to produce thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH stimulates the thyroid to produce and release T3 and T4. As the levels of T3 and T4 increase, the hypothalamus decreases the production of TRH, and thus TSH from the anterior pituitary also decreases. 81. The adrenal cortex secretes glucocorticoids under the control of ACTH from the anterior pituitary. The anterior

pituitary is under the control of corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus. The patient could be given an injection of ACTH and then monitored for blood glucose levels. Next, the patient could be given an injection of CRH and then evaluated for blood glucose levels. Another way to address the problem would be to measure the levels of ACTH and CRH in the patient. If the CRH were elevated, then the problem would be ACTH production from the pituitary. 82. The hormone is most likely a peptide or protein—or other hydrophobic or non-lipid soluble molecule. The receptor

is a membrane-bound receptor, and a type of second messenger mechanism is involved. The second messenger could either be cyclic AMP or G proteins. In either case, the hormone-receptor complex would either activate adenylyl cyclase or G proteins. As a result, protein kinase would be activated by the second messenger products.

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Chap 44_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. The female sexual response has a refractory period. 2. An egg’s polarity determines the orientation of body axes. 3. The cnidarian Hydra reproduces asexually by fragmentation. 4. Cleavage in a frog embryo takes place more quickly in the vegetal half. 5. The nervous system structures are derived from ectoderm. 6. After ovulation, the remaining follicle cells develop into the corpus luteum. 7. The thin flap of tissue that partially covers the opening of the vagina is called the hymen. 8. The material in the grey crescent of a frog embryo is necessary for normal development. 9. Cells that undergo apoptosis are essential to the organism throughout its life. 10. Progesterone is produced in the pituitary and acts directly on the uterus. 11. After fertilization, the sperm that enters the egg releases nitric oxide, which stimulates the release of stored

calcium ions in the egg. 12. Menstruation begins immediately after the follicular phase. 13. Chorionic villi eventually become the placenta. 14. The symmetrical pattern of yolk distribution in a sea urchin represents the beginnings of radial symmetry. 15. In human males, the conversion of a spermatogonium into a sperm takes about 9 to 10 weeks. 16. The egg is fertilized at the secondary oocyte stage. 17. All mammals except the metatherians are viviparous. 18. The uterine cycle is also called the ovarian cycle. 19. In terrestrial animals, such as birds, the embryo is exposed to a dry environment while in the egg. 20. The slow block to polyspermy occurs when polar bodies discharge their contents, thereby altering the egg

coats.

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Chap 44_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21. Which of these statements applies to the fast block to polyspermy? a. more pronounced in invertebrates than in vertebrates b. occurs within hours after fertilization c. mediated by Ca2+ ions d. does not involve a wave of electrical depolarization that spreads over the egg surface 22. Which of the following is an accessory gland in males? a. vestibular gland b. bulbourethral gland c. pineal gland d. pituitary gland 23. How many mature sperm does one secondary spermatocyte ultimately produce? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 24. Which of these phases are included in the ovarian cycle? a. follicular and proliferative b. proliferative and secretory c. follicular and luteal d. luteal and secretory 25. Which of the following determine the development of male or female sex organs in the human embryo? a. genes on the X chromosome b. genes on the Y chromosome c. environmental factors d. genes on the somatic chromosomes 26. On which day of a 28-day ovarian cycle does ovulation typically occur? a. day 1 b. day 7 c. day 14 d. day 28

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Chap 44_4ce 27. Which of these processes is one of sexual reproduction? a. fission b. fertilization c. budding d. fragmentation 28. If the number of chromosomes in an animal’s gametes is 20, then how many chromosomes would a somatic

cell from that animal contain? a. 10 b. 20 c. 40 d. 80 29. What do somites in mammals become? a. digestive system components b. skeletal muscle cells c. extra-embryonic membranes d. neurons 30. Which mechanism involves the separation of the parent into two or more offspring of approximately the same

size? a. fertilization b. budding c. fragmentation d. fission 31. In mammalian females, which of the following is a structure essential for reproduction? a. the urethra b. the anus c. the uterus d. the stomach

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-2

32. In Figure 44-2, what structure is indicated by number 2? a. the third polar body b. the first polar body c. the expelled body d. the Barr body

Figure 44-1

33. In Figure 44-1, which number refers to the urinary bladder? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 44_4ce 34. Which statement describes the starting point for the ovarian cycle? a. A secondary oocyte is arrested in meiosis II. b. A secondary oocyte is arrested in meiosis I. c. A primary oocyte is arrested in meiosis I. d. A primary oocyte is arrested in meiosis II. 35. Which of the following serves as a temporary endocrine gland in females, and what does it secrete? a. the corpus luteum; estrogen and progesterone b. the uterus; luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone c. the endometrium; estrogen and follicle-stimulating hormone d. the ovaries; estrogen and luteinizing hormone

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-3

36. In Figure 44-3, which number indicates a cell that is a result of meiosis II? a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2

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Chap 44_4ce 37. In Figure 44-3, in a human male, how many total chromatids are present in the cell that is numbered 4? a. 2 b. 23 c. 46 d. 92

Figure 44-2

38. In Figure 44-2, what structure is indicated by number 1? a. the vitelline coat b. the acrosome c. a mature follicle d. the zona pellucida

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-3

39. In Figure 44-3, which number indicates the cell that is the primary spermatocyte? a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

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Chap 44_4ce 40. Which hormones are responsible for the production of milk in the postpartum female? a. Oxytocin stimulates the production of milk, and prolactin stimulates the secretion of milk. b. Prolactin stimulates the production of milk, and oxytocin stimulates the secretion of milk. c. Estrogen and progesterone are directly responsible for the production and secretion of milk. d. Prolactin and estrogen stimulate the production and secretion of milk. 41. In which tissue layer do muscles originate? a. mesoderm b. ectoderm and mesoderm c. ectoderm and endoderm d. endoderm 42. Which of the following is apoptosis responsible for? a. the ability of newly born kittens to open their eyelids b. the ability of newly born kittens to walk c. generation of body axes d. generation of body symmetry

Figure 44-2

43. In Figure 44-2, what structure is indicated by number 3? a. the secondary oocyte b. the primary oocyte c. the ootid d. the oogonium

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Chap 44_4ce 44. Sperm pass through several stages during their development. What is the earliest stage in which the cell

becomes haploid? a. sperm b. secondary spermatocyte c. spermatogonium d. spermatid Figure 44-1

45. In Figure 44-1, which number refers to the site of fertilization? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-3

46. In Figure 44-3, what number indicates the cell that is the spermatogonium? a. 6 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2

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Chap 44_4ce 47. Which of these statements best describes the gametes of most animals? a. A sperm is large and motile; an egg is small and nonmotile. b. A sperm is small and motile; an egg is large and nonmotile. c. A sperm is large and nonmotile; an egg is small and motile. d. A sperm is small and nonmotile; an egg is large and motile. 48. What do enzymes in the mammalian acrosome do? a. digest the zona pellucida b. inhibit premature ejaculation c. digest the endometrium d. stimulate ovulation 49. Which of these animals do NOT lay eggs? a. monotremes b. marsupials c. reptiles d. birds 50. Which of the following is contained in the semen? a. a substance that raises the pH in the female reproductive tract b. a substance that triggers contraction of muscles in the female reproductive tract c. a fast-acting enzyme that breaks down the semen clot d. a slow-acting, clotting enzyme 51. The eggs of which of these organisms contain the lowest percentage of yolk? a. birds b. insects c. humans d. reptiles 52. In humans, how does spermatogenesis differ from oogenesis? a. Spermatogenesis involves meiosis; oogenesis involves mitosis. b. Spermatogenesis produces fewer numbers of gametes. c. Spermatogenesis begins at birth; oogenesis begins at puberty. d. Spermatogenesis continues throughout life; oogenesis ends at menopause.

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Chap 44_4ce 53. Where are sperm produced? a. in the seminiferous tubules b. in the prostate gland c. in the penis d. in the epididymis 54. Which of the following is an advantage that internal fertilization has over external fertilization? a. protection of gametes from drying b. protection of gametes from relatives c. production of more offspring d. production of more eggs 55. Approximately how long is gestation in humans? a. 266 days b. 231 days c. 206 days d. 178 days 56. Which of these animals’ eggs contain very little yolk? a. reptiles b. placental mammals c. birds d. insects

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-3

57. In Figure 44-3, what does the orange area that surrounds cells 3, 4, 5, and 6 indicate? a. the Sertoli cell b. the Leydig cell c. the spermatogonium d. the primordial germ cell

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Chap 44_4ce 58. In Figure 44-3, what number indicates a cell that is a secondary spermatocyte? a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3 59. Which hormone, when present in a human female’s urine, indicates a pregnancy? a. estrogen b. luteinizing hormone c. human chorionic gonadotropin d. progesterone

Figure 44-2

60. In Figure 44-2, which number refers to a structure whose secretions cause the uterine endometrial tissue to

thicken in preparation for pregnancy? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6 61. Which of the following is one function of the developing follicle? a. to secrete gonadotropin-releasing hormone b. to stimulate ovulation c. to secrete progesterone d. to secrete estrogens Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-2

62. In Figure 44-2, which structures can still undergo meiosis at the time of fertilization? a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 5 63. In humans, which of the following happens when the SRY gene of the Y chromosome becomes active at

about week 7 of embryo development? a. Both the Müllerian and the Wolffian ducts develop into female reproductive structures. b. The Müllerian ducts develop into male reproductive structures, and the Wolffian ducts disappear. c. The Müllerian ducts disappear, and the Wolffian ducts develop into male reproductive structures. d. Both the Müllerian and the Wolffian ducts develop into male reproductive structures. 64. Which of these terms refers to the unequal distribution of yolk in an egg? a. neurulation b. cleavage c. polarity d. involution 65. What is/are provided by the mitochondria present in the sperm? a. energy for the movement of the flagellum b. energy for the acrosome to penetrate the egg c. nutrients for the developing embryo d. nutrients for the sperm Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 44_4ce 66. In some species of sharks, babies hatch from shells within their mother’s body. What is this behaviour an

example of? a. oviparity b. viviparity c. ovoviviparity d. budding Figure 44-1

67. In Figure 44-1, which number refers to the structure that is covered with cilia? a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 68. Which of these terms refers to an extra-embryonic membrane that secretes fluid around the developing

embryo? a. shell b. yolk sac c. amnion d. allantois 69. Which of these terms is another name for the birth canal? a. oviduct b. vulva c. uterus d. vagina

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Chap 44_4ce 70. Which of these statements applies to the distribution of yolk in an egg? a. The vegetal pole does not form internal structures. b. The vegetal pole does not form the posterior end of the animal. c. Polarity does not relate to development of body axes. d. The animal pole does not form the animal’s gut. 71. Which of the following refers to the discharge that results from menstrual flow? a. the follicle b. the lining of the endometrium c. the blood from vessels on the outside of the uterus d. the corpus luteum 72. Which of these statements describes how the amount of yolk relates to the nourishment of the organism? a. An egg lacking yolk contains all the nutrients necessary for the embryo’s development. b. An egg with a large amount of yolk contains all the nutrients necessary for the embryo’s development. c. An egg with a small amount of yolk contains all the nutrients necessary for the embryo’s development. d. The amount of yolk does not affect the embryo’s development.

Figure 44-2

73. In Figure 44-2, what process is indicated by number 4? a. menstruation b. ovulation c. fertilization d. implantation

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Chap 44_4ce 74. Which of the following is/are required for the secretion of testosterone? a. Sertoli cells b. FSH c. Leydig cells d. GnRH 75. In which of these animals is external fertilization most common? a. those living on mountains b. those living in oceans c. those living in forests d. those living on prairies 76. In which of these animals’ development does the rotation of the grey crescent play a major role? a. bird b. sea urchin c. grasshopper d. frog 77. What cycle does a female dog undergo, and what does the cycle lack compared to a female human? a. an estrous cycle, which lacks ovulation b. an estrous cycle, which lacks menstruation c. a menstrual cycle, which lacks ovulation d. a menstrual cycle, which lacks implantation 78. Which sequence presents the cells in oogenesis in the correct order? a. primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, oogonium b. primary oocyte, oogonium, secondary oocyte c. oogonium, secondary oocyte, primary oocyte d. oogonium, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte 79. Which of the following directs the stages of animal development before the genes of a zygote become active? a. the cytoplasmic determinants of the egg b. the environment c. the nucleus d. the cytoplasmic determinants of the sperm

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-1

80. In Figure 44-1, which numbers refer to the structures included in the vulva? a. 5 and 6 only b. 5 and 8 only c. 6 and 7 only d. 7 and 8 only 81. Which of these structures is derived from neural crest cells? a. nail b. muscle c. hair d. tooth 82. At what point in development is a human embryo considered to be a fetus? a. 10 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 4 weeks d. 2 weeks

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-1

83. In Figure 44-1, which number refers to the site of implantation? a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 1 84. Which body axis exists? a. dorsal–anterior axis b. ventral–posterior axis c. anterior–posterior axis d. anterior–dorsal axis 85. Which of these sequences places the structures in the correct order of development? a. gastrula, blastula, morula b. organs, morula, gastrula c. morula, organs, gastrula d. morula, blastula, gastrula 86. When is the endometrium thickest in the female reproductive cycle? a. during the secretory phase b. shortly before ovulation c. during ovulation d. during the proliferative phase

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Chap 44_4ce 87. Which eye structure is matched appropriately with its developmental material? a. cornea: ectoderm b. lens: optic cup c. retina: crystallin d. retina: ectoderm 88. Which sequence places the mechanisms of embryonic development in the correct order? a. cleavage, gastrulation, organogenesis b. gastrulation, cleavage, organogenesis c. cleavage, organogenesis, gastrulation d. organogenesis, cleavage, gastrulation 89. When is meiosis II completed in a human female? a. before birth b. when an egg is ovulated each month c. only when the egg is fertilized d. at the time of birth

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-3

90. In Figure 44-3, which number indicates a cell that is a spermatid? a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6

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Chap 44_4ce 91. Which of these organisms has a pattern of gastrulation that is the most similar to humans? a. bird b. zebra fish c. sea urchin d. amphibian

Figure 44-2

92. In Figure 44-2, what structure is indicated by number 6? a. a primordial follicle b. a mature follicle c. a mature germ cell d. a primordial germ cell 93. What needs to happen for menstruation to begin? a. Estrogen levels must rise. b. FSH and LH levels must rise. c. GnRH levels must fall. d. Progesterone levels must fall.

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-1

94. In Figure 44-1, which number refers to the cervix? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 95. Which of the following is an advantage of sexual reproduction? a. Individual organisms do not have to seek mates. b. It promotes genetic diversity. c. In stable environments, the offspring are as well-adapted as the parents. d. It is less energetically costly than asexual reproduction. 96. What are the primary tissue layers from which the chorion is produced? a. allantois and allantoic membrane b. ectoderm and mesoderm c. ectoderm and endoderm d. endoderm and mesoderm 97. In a human female, which of the following would be inhibited by an inhibition of LH? a. maturation of follicles b. secretion of estrogen c. secretion of FSH d. secretion of GnRH

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-1

98. In Figure 44-1, which number refers to the structure that is responsible for producing hormones? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 99. Which sequence places the three primary cell layers of an embryo in order from superficial to deep? a. endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm b. mesoderm, ectoderm, endoderm c. ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm d. ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-3

100. In Figure 44-3, what structure is indicated by the number 1? a. the penis b. the lumen of the seminiferous tubule c. the matrix of the seminiferous tubule d. the epididymis

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Chap 44_4ce 101. Which structure in the development of the amphibian is equivalent to the primitive knot found in bird

development? a. ectoderm b. dorsal lip of the blastopore c. archenteron d. endoderm 102. Which term refers to the presence of both male and female reproductive tissue in the same individual? a. vivipary b. ovoviviparity c. ovipary d. hermaphroditism 103. In many mammalian species, including bats and most nonhuman primates, there is a bone in the penis that

helps maintain it in an erect state. What is that bone called? a. baculum b. pendulum c. colostrum d. gametogonium

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Chap 44_4ce

Figure 44-3

104. In Figure 44-3, which numbers indicate diploid cells? a. 2 and 3 b. 3 and 4 c. 4 and 5 d. 5 and 6

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Chap 44_4ce 105. Which structure in males is shared by both the urinary and reproductive systems? a. prostate gland b. ureter c. urethra d. urinary bladder 106. During mating in frogs, the male clasps the female tightly around the body with his forelimbs. What is the

appropriate term for this specific behaviour? a. marriage b. copulation c. amplexus d. fertilization 107. Where are sperm stored after they are produced? a. in the vas deferens b. in the epididymis c. in the seminiferous tubules d. in the penis 108. Suppose that humans can reproduce by parthenogenesis. Which of the following would most likely

characterize this situation? a. Males would need to produce more sperm. b. There would be no need for mitosis. c. The children would be identical to their parents. d. The number of females in the population would most likely increase. 109. How many times might a human female ovulate in her lifetime? a. about 40 b. about 400 c. about 4000 d. about 40 000 110. Which group of adult tissues is derived from the mesoderm? a. skin, brain, retina b. muscles, bones, cartilage c. skin, liver, pancreas d. lining of digestive tract, liver, pancreas

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Chap 44_4ce 111. Which of the following occurs after mitotic cell division? a. Cell division occurs, and the mass does not increase. b. No cell division occurs, and the mass increases. c. No cell division occurs, and the mass does not increase. d. Cell division occurs, and the mass increases. 112. Why is timing important for corals? a. because they rely on cross-fertilization b. because they rely on self-fertilization c. because they rely on external fertilization d. because they rely on internal fertilization 113. What is the function of gonads in humans? a. to nourish the embryo b. to produce enzymes c. to nourish the mother d. to produce gametes 114. Which of the following is an example of an escalation in parental investment? a. moving young but not eggs inside the parent’s body b. moving eggs but not young inside the parent’s body c. moving eggs and young outside the parent’s body d. moving eggs and young inside the parent’s body

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Chap 44_4ce

Match each term with its definition. a. undifferentiated muscle cells b. pigmented layer of cytoplasm opposite from point of entry of sperm c. rounded layer of cells at the surface of yolk in birds d. solid rod of tissue that is involved in neurulation e. fingerlike extensions into the endometrium f. clear fibrous protein g. programmed cell death h. event when a group of cells influences a nearby group of cells 115. apoptosis 116. blastodisc 117. crystalline 118. notochord 119. chorionic villi 120. induction 121. grey crescent 122. myoblast

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Chap 44_4ce

Identify each labelled part of the illustration.

123. bulbourethral gland 124. seminal vesicle 125. urethra 126. rectum 127. epididymis 128. scrotum 129. urinary bladder 130. vas deferens 131. prostate gland 132. testis

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Chap 44_4ce

Identify each labelled part of the illustration.

133. organogenesis 134. cleavage 135. gastrulation 136. sexual reproduction 137. development into adult 138. fertilization

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Chap 44_4ce

Put the following mechanisms of development in the order in which they occur. a. cell movements b. determination c. differentiation d. induction e. mitotic cell divisions f. selective cell adhesions 139. first mechanism 140. second mechanism 141. third mechanism 142. fourth mechanism 143. fifth mechanism 144. sixth mechanism

Match each term to its definition. a. fluid-filled cavity within the blastomere b. stage in which an embryo has three tissue layers c. solid ball of blastomeres d. opening that eventually becomes the anus e. process that involves an increase in number of cells, but not an increase in mass f. early stage in formation of the nervous system g. second stage of cleavage; a formed hollow cavity 145. blastocoel 146. blastula 147. neural plate 148. blastopore 149. cleavage 150. morula 151. gastrula

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Chap 44_4ce

Identify each labelled part of the illustration.

152. chorion 153. embryo 154. amnion 155. amniotic cavity 156. yolk sac 157. allantois

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Chap 44_4ce

Match each hormone with its correct description. a. triggers ovulation b. stimulates Sertoli cells c. stimulates growth of the endometrium d. secreted by Sertoli cells and the corpus luteum e. secreted by the hypothalamus f. secreted by follicular cells g. secreted by the corpus luteum even after it regresses later in pregnancy; blocks uterine contractions until time of birth is near h. secreted by Leydig cells 158. testosterone 159. inhibin 160. progesterone 161. gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) 162. relaxin 163. estrogen 164. follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 165. luteinizing hormone (LH) 166. How does the location of the yolk in an egg influence its development?

167. How can an inappropriate neural tube formation provide you with insight into congenital diseases that involve

incomplete neural tube closure?

168. Why could an ultrasound performed at week 4 of development be unable to determine the sex of a

developing human fetus?

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Chap 44_4ce 169. Explain the roles of the hormones GnRH, FSH, and LH in male and female reproductive systems.

170. Compare and contrast the processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.

171. What is the immune function of the placenta in human embryo development in comparison with marsupials?

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Chap 44_4ce Answer Key 1. False - male 2. True 3. False - budding 4. False - animal 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False - not essential 10. False - ovary 11. True 12. False - secretory phase 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. False - monotremes 18. False - menstrual 19. False - wet 20. False - cortical granules 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. b 26. c

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Chap 44_4ce 27. b 28. c 29. b 30. d 31. c 32. b 33. d 34. c 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. c 52. d 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 44_4ce 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. c 59. c 60. c 61. d 62. c 63. c 64. c 65. a 66. c 67. a 68. c 69. d 70. d 71. b 72. b 73. b 74. d 75. b 76. d 77. b 78. d 79. a 80. d 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 44_4ce 83. c 84. c 85. d 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. c 90. b 91. a 92. a 93. d 94. c 95. b 96. b 97. b 98. a 99. c 100. b 101. b 102. d 103. a 104. d 105. c 106. c 107. b 108. d 109. b 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 44_4ce 111. a 112. c 113. d 114. d 115. g 116. c 117. f 118. d 119. e 120. h 121. b 122. a 123. e 124. b 125. j 126. d 127. g 128. h 129. a 130. f 131. c 132. i 133. b 134. d 135. c 136. f 137. a

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Chap 44_4ce 138. e 139. e 140. a 141. f 142. d 143. b 144. c 145. a 146. g 147. f 148. d 149. e 150. c 151. b 152. e 153. a 154. b 155. c 156. g 157. d 158. h 159. d 160. c 161. e 162. g 163. f 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 44_4ce 166. Development of the egg in the embryo takes place more rapidly in areas of the egg that do not contain the yolk. In

organisms whose eggs contain large amounts of yolk (e.g., chickens), the embryo develops only in the small area of the egg not containing yolk. 167. From the text, we learned that organogenesis begins with formation of the neural tube. Therefore, we can assume

that diseases that result from an inappropriate neural tube closure occur at a very early gestational age. 168. The male and female structures look nearly identical until around week 7. At that point, hormones direct the

development of distinctive male or female reproductive structures, which would later be identifiable on an ultrasound scan. 169. In both males and females, gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is secreted by the hypothalamus gland and

acts on the pituitary gland to release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) into the bloodstream. Although these two hormones were named for their function in females, they both exert effects on the male reproductive system as well. In females, the target of FSH and LH is the ovary: FSH stimulates follicular growth and maturation, and LH triggers ovulation and subsequent formation of the corpus luteum from the remaining follicle cells. In males, the target of the two gonadotropins is the testis. FSH stimulates Sertoli cells to secrete a protein and other molecules that are required for spermatogenesis, and LH stimulates the Leydig cells to secrete testosterone. 170. Both spermatogenesis and oogenesis are types of gametogenesis, or gamete production. Spermatogenesis (sperm

production) occurs in males in the seminiferous tubules of the testes; oogenesis (egg formation) occurs in the ovaries of females. The two processes involve early mitotic and late meiotic divisions. Spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in many respects. These differences include the following: (1) Spermatogenesis begins at puberty and continues throughout the male’s lifetime. Oogenesis, on the other hand, begins during embryonic development and stops at menopause. (2) Spermatogenesis is a continuous, uninterrupted process; oogenesis undergoes two long “pauses” (one in meiosis I and the other in meiosis II). Indeed, oogenesis is not completed until fertilization occurs. (3) Spermatogenesis involves equal cytoplasmic divisions that result in four equivalent and functional gametes. Oogenesis results in one large functional gamete and up to three very small, non-functional, polar bodies. (4) Spermatogenesis results in the production of about 130 million sperm per day. Oogenesis, on the other hand, produces an average of one egg per month! 171. Because the placenta prevents fetal blood from entering the maternal bloodstream, the mother’s immune system

does not sense the presence of a foreign substance in the body. Marsupials, such as the kangaroo, have no placenta, and therefore the fetus is expelled from the mother’s body before development is complete. The young kangaroo then must complete its development in an external pouch.

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Chap 45_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Saltatory conduction is the slowest form of action potential propagation. 2. The parasympathetic division predominates in situations involving stress. 3. Cephalization is associated with bilateral symmetry. 4. Oligodendrocytes are responsible for myelinating central nervous system axons. 5. Human thermoreceptors that respond at temperatures of 45?0?C and above produce a pain response rather

than participating in thermoregulation. 6. Grey matter is composed of axons with myelin sheaths. 7. A particular type of sensory neuron will relay information only about that sensory input. 8. EPSPs can form due to the diffusion of Na+ across a neuron plasma membrane. 9. The human vestibular apparatus is a non-adapting sensory system. 10. The additive effect of one neuron sending many EPSPs to another neuron over a brief period of time is called

spatial summation. 11. Neuromasts are always located on the fish’s body surface. 12. Humans have different thermoreceptors for heat and cold. 13. Many invertebrates have separate and differentiated receptors for taste and smell; others have a single

receptor for both. 14. REM is the pattern of the EEG associated with being wide awake. 15. A deaf dolphin lacks the ability to perceive its environment through echolocation. 16. In mammalian eyes, light must pass through neural cells to reach the photoreceptors in the retina. 17. Action potentials may vary in magnitude along a particular excitable membrane. 18. All animals perceive light using different forms of a pigment called retinal. 19. Chronic pain is due in part to the adapting nature of pain receptors that diminishes the frequency of action

potentials over time. 20. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is mostly inhibitory in its action. 21. Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles located within axon terminals. 22. Comprehension of spoken and written language depends on Wernicke’s area. 23. A network of blood vessels covers the surface of the retina through which light must pass to reach the rods

and cones of the eye. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_4ce 24. Depolarization occurs due to the diffusion of K+ across a neuron plasma membrane. 25. Rods and cones both have four segments, and each segment has a specialized function. 26. If the cerebellum is damaged, an individual would have problems with balance. 27. The nervous systems of arthropods are composed of nerve nets. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 28. Which of the following is a characteristic of rhodopsin? a. Its activity is different for rods and cones, but leads always to increasing amounts of neurotransmitters

being released. b. It is inactive in the dark and thereby inhibits the release of neurotransmitters from the synaptic terminal, unless light is present. c. It is active in the dark and thereby allows the release of neurotransmitters from the synaptic terminal in the absence of light. d. It is inactive in the dark and thereby allows the release of neurotransmitters from the synaptic terminal, unless light is present. 29. Which of the following is a component of neural signalling mechanisms? a. integration b. reaction c. rejection d. action

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Chap 45_4ce

Figure 45-3

30. In Figure 45-3, which number identifies the structure that detects spinning motions? a. 3 b. 7 c. 8 d. 10

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Chap 45_4ce 31. Why does depolarization of the neuron plasma membrane occur? a. due to the diffusion of K+ into the cell b. due to the diffusion of K+ out of the cell c. due to the diffusion of Na+ out of the cell d. due to the diffusion of Na+ into the cell 32. Suppose your finger touches a hot pot on the stove. What process happens to make you move your hand

away? a. a programmed movement that does not change anything b. a programmed movement that takes place without any effort c. a programmed movement that takes place with a conscious effort d. a programmed movement that takes place without conscious effort 33. Which of these statements explains how the two cerebral hemispheres can function separately? a. The right cerebral hemisphere responds primarily to sensory signals from, and controls movements in,

the right side of the body. b. The left cerebral hemisphere responds primarily to sensory signals from, and controls movements in, the left side of the body. c. The left cerebral hemisphere responds primarily to sensory signals from, and controls movements in, the right side of the body. d. The right cerebral hemisphere responds primarily to sensory signals from, and controls movements in, both sides of the body. 34. Jalapeño peppers contain the chemical capsaicin. Suppose that you lack the nociceptors that bind capsaicin.

What would occur if you eat food containing capsaicin? a. You would have the same sensitivity to capsaicin as most other people. b. You would be especially sensitive to spicy foods containing capsaicin. c. You would be able to eat foods containing capsaicin and not feel any burning in your mouth. d. You would experience a feeling of cold when eating foods containing capsaicin. 35. Which of these statements describes taste buds? a. structures that are each able to respond to sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and savoury stimuli b. collections of papilla that each respond to different stimuli c. small capsules of cells, each with a pore at the top through which sensory hairs project and interact

with environmental molecules d. modified sensilla

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Chap 45_4ce 36. Which of the following refers to a graded, subthreshold change in the postsynaptic membrane potential that

moves toward threshold? a. depolarization b. IPSP c. hyperpolarization d. EPSP 37. Which of the following is common to all vertebrates? a. a small brain b. large ganglia c. a midbrain d. a convoluted cerebrum 38. According to the text, which of the following is indicated by current knowledge on memory? a. that long-term memory includes permanent alterations in the number of connections between neurons b. that short-term memory is a product of chemical changes in neurons c. that short-term memory stores information from days to years, or even for life d. that long-term memory is lost after an accident that causes unconsciousness 39. What is the name of the simplest eye structure that is able to perceive light but NOT form an image? a. single-lens eye b. ocellus c. ommatidia d. compound eye

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Chap 45_4ce

Figure 45-1

40. Refer Figure 45-1. When comparing electrical synapses and chemical synapses, what structures are found

only in electrical synapses? a. synaptic clefts b. gap junctions c. neurotransmitters d. postsynaptic plasma cell receptors 41. Suppose that one of your friends is an excellent pianist. Which of these statements could describe your

friend? a. His left hemisphere is well-developed for music. b. His reticular formation is well-developed. c. His right hemisphere is well-developed for music. d. His right hemisphere is well-developed for control over the right side of the body. 42. For which of these axons might you expect action potential propagation to be the fastest? a. a myelinated axon with a large diameter b. an unmyelinated axon with a small diameter c. a myelinated axon with a small diameter d. a myelinated axon of any diameter

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Chap 45_4ce

Figure 45-1

43. In the chemical synapse in Figure 45-1, which structure represents the synaptic cleft? a. structure B b. structure C c. structure D d. structure E 44. Sensory input from the eyes and ears travels in neurons to the brain. Why are the different stimuli perceived

as light and sound? a. because the sensory receptors themselves are different b. because the physical locations of the sensory receptors are different, ensuring a different “sense” is perceived in the brain c. because information from each type of receptor is sent to a different region of the brain d. because light receptors send neural impulses more frequently than sound receptors 45. Which of these terms refers to the component of a neural signalling pathway in which messages are sorted

and interpreted? a. integration b. reception c. response d. action

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Chap 45_4ce 46. According to the text, why is the refractory period of a neuron’s plasma membrane important? a. because it initiates an action potential b. because it ensures that an impulse will travel in a one-way direction c. because it ensures that the threshold potential will be reached d. because it establishes the resting potential 47. How is the active retinal state returned to the inactive state? a. It reverts to the inactive state on its own. b. It is converted back to the inactive conformation without the use of enzymes. c. It is transported to a lysosome. d. It is converted back to the inactive conformation by a series of enzymes. 48. Which sentence presents characteristics of the sympathetic and the parasympathetic systems respectively? a. One controls external stimuli and the other controls internal stimuli. b. One generally predominates during physical activity and the other predominates during nonphysical

activity. c. Both release norepinephrine. d. One is under voluntary control and the other is under involuntary control. 49. Mechanoreceptors for touch and pressure are located in all the following locations in the vertebrate body

EXCEPT _____ a. in skeletal muscles. b. in skin cells. c. in internal organs. d. in bones. 50. Which of the following is a characteristic of the autonomic nervous system? a. It includes both afferent and efferent nerve fibres. b. It is a functional division of the central nervous system. c. It controls body movements that are under unconscious control. d. It is composed of parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions. 51. Which lobe of the cerebrum of the human brain is correctly paired with its function? a. frontal lobe: general sensory recognition b. occipital lobe: visual recognition c. temporal lobe: primary motor reaction d. parietal lobe: facial recognition

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Chap 45_4ce 52. Which of the following involves Na+? a. resting membrane potential b. repolarization c. hyperpolarization d. depolarization

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Chap 45_4ce

Figure 45-3

53. In Figure 45-3, which number identifies the structure that initiates action potentials? a. 12 b. 13 c. 14 d. 15

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Chap 45_4ce 54. What organic macromolecules allow myelinated sheaths to act as electrical insulators? a. proteins b. lipids c. carbohydrates d. nucleic acids 55. Which of these structures aid in saltatory conduction? a. non-myelinated axons b. synapses c. myelinated axons d. dendrites 56. Where does the lens focus an image in the mammalian eye? a. sometimes on the fovea, sometimes elsewhere on the retina b. primarily on the fovea c. slightly in front of the retina, so the neural cells do not distort the image d. on the retina, using the entire surface of the retina

Figure 45-1

57. In the chemical synapse in Figure 45-1which structure represents the axon of the presynaptic neuron? a. structure E b. structure D c. structure C d. structure A

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Chap 45_4ce

Figure 45-3

58. In Figure 45-3, which numbers identify the structures that are made of bone? a. 1, 2, 3 b. 3, 4, 5 c. 6, 7, 8 d. 9, 10, 11

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Chap 45_4ce 59. Which of the following can be found in higher concentrations on the outside of a neuron’s plasma membrane

relative to the inside? a. Ca2+ b. Na+ c. K+ d. anions 60. Suppose that a person suffered a stroke that resulted in a blood clot reducing blood flow in the brain. Also

suppose that the person is unable to say words, but is able to read and understand text. Which of the following best explains this person’s problem? a. The reduced blood flow damaged Wernicke’s area of the temporal lobe. b. The interruption in blood flow affected the corpus callosum. c. The cortex of the cerebellum was affected by the reduced blood flow. d. The reduced blood flow damaged Broca’s area of the temporal lobe. 61. Which action will be caused in the postsynaptic membrane by the binding of a neurotransmitter to ligand-

gated Cl– channels? a. depolarization b. repolarization c. hyperpolarization d. apolarization 62. Which of these pairs of ions are involved in changing membrane potential? a. magnesium and potassium b. sodium and magnesium c. sodium and potassium d. magnesium and chloride 63. Where is fluid found in a healthy human ear? a. in the vestibular canal and tympanic canal only b. in the middle ear and the inner ear c. in the vestibular canal, tympanic canal, and middle ear d. in the outer ear canal, middle ear, and cochlea

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Chap 45_4ce 64. Which of the following will be caused in the postsynaptic membrane by the binding of a neurotransmitter to

ligand-gated Na+ channels? a. hyperpolarization b. depolarization c. repolarization d. apolarization 65. Which structures are used by many aquatic invertebrates to perceive changes in their body’s position and

orientation? a. otoliths b. statocysts c. stereocilia d. saccules 66. Which of the following is the route through which sensory information is transmitted to the CNS? a. by the efferent neurons of the autonomic nervous system b. by the somatic neurons of the peripheral nervous system c. by the somatic neurons of the sympathetic division d. by the afferent neurons of the peripheral nervous system 67. Which sequence places the components of a neural signalling pathway in the correct order, from beginning to

end? a. reception, integration, transmission, response b. integration, transmission, reception, response c. response, reception, transmission, integration d. transmission, integration, reception, response 68. What is the function of the iris? a. to keep the lens under tension to allow for image focusing b. to control the amount of light entering the eye c. to focus the image on the retina d. to respond to particular colours

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Chap 45_4ce

Figure 45-2

69. In the action potential diagram in Figure 45-2, at what point are Na+ inactivation gates opening and K+

activation gates closing? a. point E b. point D c. point B d. point A 70. According to the text, what happens to the magnitude of an action potential as it is propagated down an

excitable membrane and why? a. It increases because it is a threshold principle. b. It increases because it is an all-or-nothing principle. c. It remains constant because it is an all-or-nothing principle. d. It remains constant because it is a threshold principle. 71. Which of the following is involved in abstract reasoning? a. the right hemisphere in most people b. the left hemisphere in most people c. the left hemisphere in all people d. the right hemisphere in all people 72. In the context of vision, what does accommodation mean? a. preventing light from scattering upon entry to the eye b. keeping the lens under tension to allow for image focusing c. changing the lens shape d. lacking receptor response to continued light signal

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Chap 45_4ce 73. Which part of the firefly’s body flashes? a. wings b. legs c. head d. abdomen 74. Invertebrates such as the flatworm have groups of neurons with a common function. What is the name of

these nerve clusters? a. the spine b. the brain c. nerve cords d. ganglia 75. Suppose that Bob is recovering from a brain injury. Also suppose that he is unable to speak, but he clearly

understands both the written and the spoken word. Given these symptoms, what areas of the brain would most likely have been damaged? a. Broca’s area of the frontal lobe b. Wernicke’s area of the temporal lobe c. the cerebellar association areas d. the primary somatosensory area of the parietal lobe 76. Which of these terms refers to the minimum level of depolarization required to initiate an action potential in an

excitable cell? a. membrane potential b. refractory potential c. electrical potential d. threshold potential 77. During an action potential, what level can the membrane potential reach? a. as high as +70 mV b. as high as +60 mV c. as high as +50 mV d. as high as +30 mV 78. Which of the following conduct(s) electrical signals away from the cell body of a neuron? a. the dendrites b. an axon terminal c. an axon d. the nucleus

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Chap 45_4ce 79. Which of these terms refers to the phenomenon of brain function occurring in predominately one of the two

hemispheres? a. recognition b. hemisphere association c. consciousness d. lateralization 80. Vesicles containing neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft when levels of which of these ions

rise within the axon terminal? a. Ca2+ b. Na+ c. H+ d. Cl– 81. How does an earthworm detect sound? a. through general mechanoreceptors on its skin b. through a thinned region of the exoskeleton c. through specialized tympanic membranes located near the head d. through a series of mechanoreceptors arranged in a lateral line 82. Which of the following comprise a fish’s lateral line, which allows it to detect vibrations and water currents? a. stereocilia b. statoliths c. statocysts d. neuromasts

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Chap 45_4ce

Figure 45-2

83. In the action potential diagram in Figure 45-2, at what point are many Na+ activation gates open and K+

activation gates closed? a. point A b. point B c. point C d. point E 84. Where is the tympanic membrane in humans? a. between the middle ear and the inner ear b. adjacent to the stapes c. in the outer ear, adjacent to the pinna d. between the ear canal and the middle ear’s cavity 85. Which of these animals has the least-advanced nerve cord? a. human b. flatworm c. arthropod d. octopus 86. Which of these statements describes a sensillum? a. a structure located on the antennae, foot, or mouthparts of aquatic insects b. a structure common to earthworms, insects, and cnidarians c. a specialized smell receptor in invertebrates d. a hollow hair-like tube characterized by a pore on the end and multiple chemoreceptor cells inside

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Chap 45_4ce 87. What will a hollow neural tube develop into? a. spinal nerves b. the brain c. motor nerves d. the forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain 88. How does an insect such as a moth or cricket detect sound? a. through specialized tympanic membranes located near the head b. through a series of mechanoreceptors arranged in a lateral line c. through general mechanoreceptors on its skin d. through a thinned region of the exoskeleton 89. Which of the following remove(s) Ca2+ from the inside of an axon terminal of a chemical synapse after an

electrical impulse has passed? a. ion channels b. simple diffusion through the plasma membrane c. active transport pumps d. exocytosis 90. Which of the following occurs when threshold potential is reached? a. The activation gates of Na+ channels open. b. The inactivation gates of Na+ channels open. c. The activation gates of Na+ channels close. d. Na+/K+ active transport pumps are activated. 91. Each cone responds primarily to a single colour. How many cones do normal humans have, and what colours

do human cones perceive? a. three cones that perceive red, blue, and yellow light b. four cones that perceive red, blue, yellow, and green light c. three cones that perceive red, blue, and green light d. three cones that perceive orange, green, and purple light

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Chap 45_4ce 92. What would be the predicted outcome for a person having eyes that lack a lens but are otherwise fully

functional? a. The person would be able to perceive light and even colours, including solid colour, over a large area, but not details. b. The person would be totally blind. c. The person would be able to see some details and read print, but only if the text is written in large, black letters. d. The person would have normal vision if wearing glasses. 93. If an action potential persists for one minute or longer, an increase in the strength of synaptic connections

develops. Which term refers to the resulting establishment of memory between two neurons? a. long-term potentiation b. cephalization association c. consciousness potentiation d. lateralization 94. What is lost as a result of destruction of the motor areas in the right cerebral cortex? a. voluntary movement on the left side of the body b. involuntary control of the right side of the body c. sensation on the right side of the body d. sensation on the left side of the body 95. What is the function of the outer segment of the cone in the photoreceptor? a. to release neurotransmitters b. to house discs that contain light-absorbing photopigment c. to store neurotransmitters d. to house the cell’s metabolic machinery 96. If an area of the body, such as the lips or fingers, is represented by a large area in the primary somatosensory

area, then what do those areas have? a. a small number of local receptors, but a great deal of precision of touch and movement b. a great deal of precision in speech c. a large number of local receptors d. a great deal of numbness

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Chap 45_4ce 97. Which of the following are the only receptors to make direct contact with brain interneurons rather than

afferent neurons? a. taste receptors b. photoreceptors c. olfactory receptors d. mechanoreceptors 98. In vertebrates, what does the CNS consist of? a. the brain and grey matter b. the brain and the spinal cord c. the brain and reflexes d. the spinal cord and grey matter 99. Which of these series places the listed events of chemical synapse transmission in the correct order? a. action potential reaches axon terminal of presynaptic neuron neurotransmitter released by

exocytosis ligand-gated ion channels open in postsynaptic membrane postsynaptic receptor Ca2+ enters axon terminal

neurotransmitter binds to

Ca2+ enters axon terminal neurotransmitter released by exocytosis neurotransmitter binds to postsynaptic receptor gated ion channels open in postsynaptic membrane

b. action potential reaches axon terminal of presynaptic neuron

Ca2+ enters axon terminal neurotransmitter released by exocytosis

ligand-

c. action potential reaches axon terminal of presynaptic neuron

neurotransmitter binds to postsynaptic receptor gated ion channels open in postsynaptic membrane

neurotransmitter released by exocytosis neurotransmitter binds to postsynaptic receptor gated ion channels open in postsynaptic membrane

ligand-

d. action potential reaches axon terminal of presynaptic neuron

Ca2+ enters axon terminal

ligand-

100. An action potential is propagated down an unmyelinated neuron plasma membrane because the action

potential stimulates certain voltage-gated channels adjacent to it. Which channels are they? a. Cl– channels b. Ca2+ channels c. Mg+ channels d. Na+ channels

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Chap 45_4ce 101. Like humans, some animals have two eyes on the front of the head that perceive a mostly overlapping visual

field. In contrast, some herbivores (rabbits, for example) have eyes on the sides of their head and visual fields that may not overlap at all. How does position of the eyes in the head impact perception of the environment? a. Humans have better depth perception and a narrower field of vision than rabbits. b. Humans have poorer depth perception and a wider field of vision than rabbits. c. Humans have poorer depth perception and a narrower field of vision than rabbits. c. Due to integration by the brain, there is no real difference in depth perception or visual field size in humans and rabbits. 102. Which brain structure is correctly matched to its function? a. cerebral cortex: to carry out all higher brain functions b. cerebellum: to induce drowsiness c. thalamus: to regulate basic homeostatic functions d. hypothalamus: to coordinate body movement 103. Which of the following can neuropeptide neurotransmitters do? a. act as pain reducers and initiate euphoria b. act as a postsynaptic membrane inhibitor c. act as a direct neurotransmitter between neurons and muscle cells d. directly open K+ channels to inhibit neurons 104. What happens to the neuron’s membrane when its membrane potential goes below its resting value? a. It becomes repolarized. b. It becomes hyperpolarized. c. It becomes hypopolarized. d. It becomes depolarized. 105. What is the combined function of the malleus, incus, and stapes? a. to convert the mechanical vibration of the tympanic membrane into a pressure wave in the cochlear

duct b. to amplify the vibrations of the eardrum c. to convert the oval window’s vibrations into vibrations of the tympanic membrane d. to equalize the pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane 106. In which of the following does the limbic system play a role? a. speaking b. jumping c. emotions d. motor behaviour

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Chap 45_4ce 107. How can organisms perceive different intensities of a stimulus? a. by an increase in intensity and frequency of action potentials generated, as well as an increase in the

number of cells generating action potentials b. by an increase in the frequency of action potentials generated by an afferent neuron c. by an increase in intensity of the action potentials generated by an afferent neuron d. by an increase in the frequency of action potentials generated, as well as the numbers of afferent neurons generating action potentials, but not the intensity of action potentials 108. Which portion of the nervous system is responsible for increasing heart rate, as well as increasing movement

of the intestines? a. somatic nervous system b. parasympathetic division c. sympathetic division d. autonomic nervous system 109. Which eye is the best at detecting motion? a. ocellus b. photoreceptor c. single-lens eye d. compound eye 110. Which of these statements describes grey matter with respect to the cerebrum? a. It is located in the inner region. b. It is located in the outer region and the central region surrounding the ventricles. c. It is composed of nerve fibres. d. It is responsible for transmission of information between neurons. 111. Which of these neuron locations have the greatest density of voltage-gated Na+ channels, thus resulting in the

lowest threshold potential along a neuron? a. axon terminals b. cell bodies c. axon hillocks d. dendrites 112. Which neurons are typically located in the peripheral nervous system? a. spinal cord nerve cells b. interneurons c. brain nerve cells d. motor neurons

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Chap 45_4ce 113. At which of these neuron locations does summation occur? a. dendrites b. axon hillock c. axon terminals d. cell body 114. What type of neuron directly stimulates a muscle or gland? a. efferent neuron b. interneuron c. afferent neuron d. sensory neuron 115. In humans, which neurons are composed of the greatest number of cells? a. motor neurons b. efferent neurons c. interneurons d. afferent neurons 116. Which structure, if lost, would render a fish unable to school? a. the lateral line b. the statocyst c. the eyes d. the vestibular apparatus 117. Which cells connect different photoreceptor cells to each other? a. bipolar cells b. horizontal cells c. rod cells d. amacrine cells 118. Which of the following assist and nourish cells that transmit electrical signals? a. glial cells b. effector cells c. receptors d. neurons

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Chap 45_4ce 119. Which cells relay messages from photoreceptor cells to other cells that are NOT photoreceptor cells? a. horizontal cells b. amacrine cells c. rods and cones d. bipolar cells 120. Which of the following happens as the action potential reaches its peak? a. The inactivation gates of Na+ channels close. b. The activation gates of Na+ channels close. c. The inactivation gates of Na+ channels open. d. Na+/K+ active transport pumps are activated. 121. Which of the following is a reasonable estimation of the duration of an action potential? a. approximately 5 microseconds b. approximately 5 milliseconds c. approximately 5 centiseconds d. approximately 5 seconds 122. What happens to a neuron’s membrane when its membrane potential becomes less negative? a. It becomes depolarized. b. It becomes hyperpolarized. c. It becomes hypopolarized. d. It becomes repolarized. 123. What are electroreceptors usually used for? a. generation of electrical fields in some invertebrates that have special electric organs b. communication between primates c. navigational purposes by fishes only d. communication, navigation, and hunting by the organisms that possess them 124. Which of the following is a function of electroreceptors? a. to repolarize in an electric field; the receptor cell generates postsynaptic potential b. to depolarize in an electric field; the receptor cell generates postsynaptic potential c. to depolarize in an electric field; the receptor cell generates action potential d. to repolarize in an electric field; the receptor cell generates action potential

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Chap 45_4ce 125. Which of these portions of the brain is considered part of the limbic system? a. hippocampus b. brainstem c. cerebrum d. cerebellum 126. What is the typical resting potential of an isolated neuron? a. –100 mV b. –90 mV c. –70 mV d. –60 mV

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Chap 45_4ce

Figure 45-3

127. In Figure 45-3, which number identifies the tympanic membrane? a. 3 b. 5 c. 8 d. 10

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Chap 45_4ce 128. What is the occipital lobe of the brain responsible for? a. smell b. vision c. speech d. memory

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Chap 45_4ce

Figure 45-3

129. In Figure 45-3, which number identifies the organ that detects vibrations? a. 17 b. 18 c. 19 d. 20

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Chap 45_4ce 130. Which of the following refers to an abrupt and transient change in membrane potential? a. resting potential b. refractory potential c. action potential d. threshold potential 131. What is cephalization in animals most associated with? a. bilateral symmetry b. ganglia c. nerves d. nerve nets 132. Which of the following is a feature of sensory adaptation? a. It increases one’s sensitivity to constant stimuli. b. It is associated primarily with pain receptors. c. It functions the same way in all types of sensory receptors. d. It increases one’s sensitivity to changes in environmental stimuli. 133. Which of these structures comprise stretch receptors? a. Golgi tendon organs b. proprioceptors of tendons c. muscle spindles d. bony labyrinths 134. Which of the following is a characteristic of long-term memory? a. It involves reverberating circuits. b. It is limited to multiple chunks of information over a given time. c. It involves permanent changes in interneurons. d. It is dependent on the corpus callosum. 135. Suppose that a boxer received a hard blow to the side of his head during a fight, and as a result he was

unable to recognize and interpret words. Which specific area of the brain must have been damaged during the fight? a. corpus callosum b. the cortex of the cerebellum c. Wernicke’s area d. Broca’s area

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Chap 45_4ce 136. How is it that humans can perceive multiple sounds at once? a. Humans have two ears, each perceiving a subset of frequencies in the environment. b. Each portion of the basilar membrane vibrates at a unique frequency, and multiple regions can be

stimulated at the same time. c. The fluid in the middle ear can transmit multiple frequencies to the oval window. d. The more frequencies of sounds that are present, the farther the sound travels into the cochlea. 137. When does a female firefly stop flashing? a. after mating b. before mating c. during mating d. during feeding 138. In animals with a brain, what are the two major divisions of the nervous system? a. cranial and spinal nerves b. central and peripheral nervous systems c. nerves from the brain and the peripheral systems d. autonomic and peripheral systems 139. Which cells are located in the brain and spinal cord of vertebrates? a. afferent neurons b. efferent neurons c. motor neurons d. interneurons 140. Which of these statements applies to magnetoreceptors? a. well-characterized and understood b. known to rely on the mineral magnetite c. known to allow animals to detect and use Earth’s magnetic field d. have been studied primarily in homing pigeons 141. Which of the following are features of cones and rods? a. Cones respond to particular wavelengths (colours); rods perceive light at low intensity without colour

perception. b. Cones perceive light at low intensities without colour perception; rods respond to particular wavelengths (colours). c. Cones are more sensitive to single photons of light than are rods. d. Humans have approximately equal numbers of cones and rods, but the cones are localized primarily in the fovea.

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Chap 45_4ce 142. Which of these animals has the most-advanced cephalization? a. arthropod b. echinoderm c. chordate d. flatworm 143. Which of the following is a possible result of EPSP and IPSP activity? a. formation of an unusually strong action potential b. formation of an unusually strong presynaptic potential c. temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron d. temporal summation in a presynaptic neuron

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Chap 45_4ce

Figure 45-4

144. In Figure 45-4, which number identifies the sensory hair cells? a. 18 b. 20 c. 21 d. 22

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Chap 45_4ce 145. Which term refers to the spaces between adjacent Schwann cells? a. nodes of Ranvier b. axon terminals c. active gaps d. intercalated discs 146. Which of the following can the neurotransmitter acetylcholine do in vertebrates? a. act as a hormone when released into the circulation b. make it more difficult for some presynaptic membranes to reach threshold c. act as a direct neurotransmitter between neurons and muscle cells d. act as an enzyme when released into circulation 147. How is the intensity of an electrical impulse reflected? a. in the magnitude of action potentials b. in the frequency of action potentials c. in the duration of action potentials d. in the intensity of action potentials 148. Which structures are used by electrical synapses during signal transmission? a. vesicles b. neurotransmitters c. Ca2+ d. gap junctions 149. What would be disrupted if the K+ channels of an excitable plasma membrane were blocked by the action of

a drug? a. depolarization b. repolarization c. hyperpolarization d. hypopolarization 150. What is the function of pain? a. to cause an organism to decrease exposure to a damaging stimulus b. to elicit a reflex response c. to cause an organism to move toward a damaging stimulus d. to protect an organism from encountering harmful conditions

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Chap 45_4ce 151. Which of these actions will be caused in the postsynaptic membrane by the binding of a neurotransmitter to

ligand-gated K+ channels? a. apolarization b. depolarization c. repolarization d. hyperpolarization 152. Which of the following is a stimulus that can be perceived by sensory signals? a. wind b. UV light c. magnetic field d. radiation 153. What does an invertebrate statocyst contain that surrounds movable elements so that changes in body

position move the latter and thus trigger an action potential? a. efferent neurons, which surround statoliths b. statoliths, which surround sensory hair cells c. otoliths, which surround sensory hair cells d. sensory hair cells, which surround statoliths 154. What does the brain emit during conscious, quiet rest? a. rapid, irregular waves b. delta waves c. beta waves d. alpha waves

Match each term with its definition. a. single units of a compound eye b. allow animals to detect and use Earth’s magnetic field for navigation c. structure that creates pressure waves in the cochlea as it vibrates d. reduction in the frequency of action potentials generated by afferent neurons even though the stimulus has not changed e. commonly known as the eardrum f. specialized receptors that detect electrical fields g. viscous liquid filling the human eye cavity between the retina and lens h. responsible for terrestrial vertebrates’ ability to perceive motion and position of the head i. process of converting a stimulus into a change in the membrane potential j. cells in the human eye that connect bipolar cells and ganglion cells k. dendrites of afferent neurons, or specialized cells that synapse with afferent neurons, that can gather Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_4ce

information about the environment l. calcium carbonate crystals that bend stereocilia as a result of movement of the head m. a duct that eliminates pressure differentials that can occur between the outer and middle ear n. process by which the contrast between dark and light is increased in visual processing in the mammalian eye o. family of photopigments consisting of opsins combined with retinal p. photopigment found in vertebrate and invertebrate eyes alike q. clear liquid between the cornea and the lens of a human eye r. cells in the human eye that connect different photoreceptor cells to each other s. where a portion of each optic nerve crosses to the opposite side of the brain t. detect stimuli used for balance and the perception of body position u. small region in the retina where cones are concentrated v. specialized muscle cells surrounded by afferent neuron dendrites; detect the degree of stretching that a muscle is undergoing w. the site in the thalamus where most optic axons make synapses with interneurons leading to the visual cortex x. hollow sensory bristles in insects 155. proprioceptors 156. muscle spindles 157. vitreous humour 158. aqueous humour 159. sensory transduction 160. photopsins 161. sensory receptors 162. rhodopsin 163. ommatidia 164. fovea 165. otoliths 166. oval window 167. amacrine cells 168. electroreceptors 169. sensilla 170. magnetoreceptors 171. lateral inhibition 172. optic chiasm 173. tympanic membrane Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_4ce 174. lateral geniculate nuclei 175. eustachian tube 176. sensory adaptation 177. vestibular apparatus 178. horizontal cells

Identify each lettered part of the human eye shown.

179. ciliary body 180. blind spot 181. aqueous humour 182. choroid 183. pupil 184. optic nerve 185. fovea 186. vitreous humour 187. cornea 188. lens 189. iris 190. ciliary muscle 191. retina 192. sclera

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Chap 45_4ce

Match each term with its definition. a. loose meshwork of neurons organized with radial symmetry b. cavities in the vertebrate brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid c. efferent portion of the PNS that deals with body movements that are under conscious, voluntary control d. neuronal activity that occurs without conscious effort; often associated with protection e. carries nervous activity from the brain and spinal cord to effector structures f. composed of the midbrain, pons, and medulla g. associated with the ability to speak 193. reflex 194. somatic nervous system 195. nerve net 196. peripheral nervous system 197. Broca’s area 198. brain stem 199. ventricles

Identify each lettered cell in the human eye shown.

200. ganglion 201. amacrine cell 202. optic nerve 203. horizontal cell 204. rod 205. bipolar cell 206. cone Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Identify each lettered part of the vestibular apparatus shown.

207. utricle 208. saccule 209. anterior semicircular canal 210. afferent neurons 211. posterior semicircular canal 212. lateral semicircular canal 213. otoliths 214. sensory hair cells 215. stereocilia

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Chap 45_4ce

Identify each lettered part of the neuromast shown.

216. stereocilia 217. sensory hair cell 218. gelatinous cupula 219. afferent nerve fibre 220. supporting cell

Match each term with its description. a. electrical potential difference across a plasma membrane b. subthreshold change in membrane potential toward the threshold potential of a neuron c. membrane potential of an excitable membrane when it is not being stimulated d. subthreshold change in membrane potential away from the threshold potential of a neuron e. abrupt, transient change in membrane potential, consisting of membrane depolarization followed by repolarization f. minimum membrane potential required to form an action potential g. any subthreshold change in membrane potential whose effects are additive 221. resting potential 222. action potential 223. graded potential 224. IPSP 225. membrane potential 226. EPSP 227. threshold potential

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Match each situation to the most appropriate term. a. depolarization b. repolarization c. hyperpolarization 228. begins when Na+ channel inactivation gates close and K+ activation gates open 229. the phase of an action potential when the membrane potential becomes more positive 230. an IPSP 231. occurs in a postsynaptic membrane when ligand-gated Cl– channels open 232. causes a neuron membrane potential to become more negative, allowing it to approach its resting potential 233. occurs in a postsynaptic membrane when ligand-gated Na+ channels open 234. occurs when a membrane potential becomes more negative than its resting membrane potential 235. describes the change in resting membrane potential that causes it to approach threshold potential 236. occurs due to the diffusion of Na+ 237. an EPSP

Match each descriptive phrase to a receptor type. Receptor types may be used more than once. a. mechanoreceptors b. photoreceptors c. chemoreceptors d. thermoreceptors e. nociceptors 238. detect motion of an organism’s own body 239. detect the flow of heat energy 240. perceive temperature changes on the body’s surface 241. perceive light energy 242. stimulation of may result in a sensation of pain 243. detect tissue damage 244. detect an increase in pressure against the skin 245. detect specific molecules, such as glucose 246. perceive damage in some internal organs 247. Define and explain the importance of the blood–brain barrier.

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Chap 45_4ce 248. Explain the general process of a reflex.

249. Valium is a drug that causes voltage-gated Cl– channels to open. What effects would this cause in a

postsynaptic membrane?

250. In terms of changes in membrane potential, compare and contrast action potentials and graded potentials.

251. A toxin interferes with the opening of Na+ channels in the postsynaptic membrane so that they open more

slowly when bound to a neurotransmitter. What effect would there be on action potential formation in the postsynaptic membrane?

252. Explain how neuron action potential propagation rate can be increased.

253. Explain how the resting membrane potential and resting ion distributions are established in a neuron.

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Chap 45_4ce 254. Define long-term potentiation.

255. Define sensory adaptation.

256. Explain why adaptation of pain receptors would NOT be desirable and yet the adaptation of other sensory

systems is beneficial.

257. Distinguish between the central and peripheral nervous systems.

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Chap 45_4ce Answer Key 1. False - fastest 2. False - sympathetic 3. True 4. True 5. False - 52?0?C 6. False - White 7. True 8. True 9. False - an adapting 10. False - temporal summation 11. False - In some they are located in the fish’s recessed canals. 12. True 13. True 14. False - Beta waves are 15. True 16. True 17. False - stay the same as they travel 18. True 19. False - non-adapting 20. False - excitatory 21. True 22. True 23. True 24. False - Na+ 25. False - three 26. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_4ce 27. False - animals with radial symmetry 28. d 29. a 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. c 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. a 43. b 44. c 45. a 46. b 47. d 48. b 49. d 50. a 51. b 52. d 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_4ce 55. c 56. b 57. d 58. b 59. b 60. d 61. c 62. c 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. a 68. b 69. b 70. c 71. b 72. c 73. d 74. d 75. a 76. d 77. d 78. c 79. d 80. a 81. a 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_4ce 83. a 84. d 85. b 86. d 87. d 88. d 89. c 90. a 91. c 92. a 93. a 94. a 95. b 96. c 97. c 98. b 99. b 100. d 101. a 102. a 103. a 104. b 105. b 106. c 107. d 108. d 109. d 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_4ce 111. c 112. d 113. b 114. a 115. c 116. a 117. b 118. a 119. d 120. a 121. b 122. a 123. d 124. c 125. a 126. c 127. d 128. b 129. c 130. c 131. a 132. d 133. c 134. c 135. c 136. b 137. a

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Chap 45_4ce 138. b 139. d 140. c 141. a 142. c 143. c 144. c 145. a 146. c 147. b 148. d 149. c 150. a 151. d 152. c 153. d 154. d 155. t 156. v 157. g 158. q 159. i 160. o 161. k 162. p 163. a 164. u 165. l Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_4ce 166. c 167. j 168. f 169. x 170. b 171. n 172. s 173. e 174. w 175. m 176. d 177. h 178. r 179. c 180. m 181. h 182. b 183. f 184. n 185. l 186. j 187. g 188. e 189. d 190. i 191. k 192. a 193. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_4ce 194. c 195. a 196. e 197. g 198. f 199. b 200. b 201. c 202. a 203. e 204. g 205. d 206. f 207. d 208. e 209. a 210. i 211. b 212. c 213. f 214. h 215. g 216. b 217. c 218. a 219. e 220. d 221. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_4ce 222. e 223. g 224. d 225. a 226. b 227. f 228. b 229. a 230. c 231. c 232. b 233. a 234. c 235. a 236. a 237. a 238. a 239. d 240. d 241. b 242. e 243. e 244. a 245. c 246. e 247.

The blood–brain barrier is a structural system of tight cellular junctions. Many substances are prevented from passing from the blood to the neurons because of these cellular junctions. This provides protection for the neurons from microorganisms and toxins. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_4ce 248.

A reflex is an immediate reaction, often elicited by pain, in which movement of a body part happens automatically, without conscious effort. A pain receptor stimulates an afferent neuron, which transmits the impulses to the spinal cord, where interneurons integrate the information, sending the information to the efferent neuron affecting the effector. 249. Valium would cause hyperpolarization in the postsynaptic membrane. Thus, it would take more frequent, or a

greater number of, EPSPs to generate an action potential in a postsynaptic membrane. 250. Action potentials are all-or-none phenomena that form when a membrane potential of an excitable cell reaches

threshold potential. Graded potentials are additive subthreshold changes in the membrane potential of an excitable cell. The net effect of graded potentials may cause a membrane potential to move closer to, or further away from, threshold potential. 251. This would cause a postsynaptic membrane action potential to form more slowly (if at all), as well as slow the

action potential propagation speed. 252. Neuron action potential propagation can be increased in two ways: (1) by increasing axonal diameter, and (2) by

myelinating the axon. Increased axonal diameter reduces electrical resistance to current flow. Myelination causes an electrical current to “jump” from one node of Ranvier to the next by salutatory conduction, which is more rapid than conduction in an unmyelinated neuron. 253. A resting membrane potential of –70 mV is established due to the unequal distribution of ions across the neuron

plasma membrane. Na+/K+ pumps accumulate Na+ outside the plasma membrane and K+ inside the plasma membrane, while the presence of negatively charged anions inside the cell give the inside of the plasma membrane an overall negative charge relative to the outside. 254.

It is a series of events involved in the transfer of memory from short term to long term. Increased numbers and strength of synaptic connections occur with repeated stimulation. 255.

Sensory adaptation occurs when a constant stimulus results in a reduction of the frequency of the action potentials generated by the afferent neurons. 256.

The purpose of pain is to reduce damage to the body. In adaptation, a constant stimulus results in fewer action potentials being sent to the central nervous system. This allows the brain to focus on changes in the environment while ignoring stimuli that remain constant. With pain, however, adaptation could lead to a continuation in or an increase of damage. For this reason, pain receptors do not adapt or reduce the frequency of action potentials. 257. The central nervous system involves the brain and spinal cord, where integration of neural activity occurs. The

peripheral nervous system is involved with transmission of information to the central nervous system—the afferent division—and transmission of information away from the central nervous system—the efferent division—to target structures and organs.

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Chap 46_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What are the A bands in skeletal muscle composed of? a. stacked, thick filaments along with parts of thin filaments that overlap both ends b. discs to which thin filaments are anchored c. discs to which thick filaments are anchored d. thin filaments but no thick filaments 2. What is the main role of myoglobin in muscle fibres? a. to enhance the strength of the power stroke b. to magnify responses to neurotransmitters c. to store oxygen d. to synthesize ATP 3. Which of the following is a system of vesicles that wraps around each A band and I band, and stores ions that

are used in muscle contractions? a. a neuromuscular junction b. the microvillus c. the sarcoplasmic reticulum d. the Golgi apparatus 4. What are the I bands in skeletal muscles composed of? a. discs to which thick filaments are anchored b. thick filaments but no thin filaments c. thin filaments but no thick filaments d. stacked, thick filaments along with parts of thin filaments that overlap both ends 5. What is the name of the bundles of elongated, cylindrical cells that make up skeletal muscles? a. tendons b. muscle fibres c. sarcomeres d. myofibrils 6. In a skeletal muscle contraction, which of the following acts to allow the crossbridge cycle to occur when it

flows into the cytosol through open ion channels? a. ATP b. acetylcholine c. tropomyosin d. Ca2+

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Chap 46_4ce 7. What does bone provide the blood with? a. phosphate and calcium ions b. magnesium and phosphate ions c. carbon dioxide and sodium d. sodium and magnesium ions 8. In which ion would a defect in transport have the most direct effect on muscle contraction? a. Na+ b. Ca2+ c. Zn2+ d. K+ 9. Which molecules compose parallel bundles of thick filaments? a. tropomyosin molecules b. myosin molecules c. actin molecules d. acetylcholine molecules 10. How are synovial joints held together? a. by sarcomeres b. by ligaments c. by muscle fibres d. by myofibrils 11. How many skeletal muscles are in a typical human body? a. over 600 b. about 200 c. about 160 d. fewer than 100 12. What is the name of the cords of connective tissues that connect skeletal muscles to bones? a. muscle fibres b. myofibrils c. sarcomeres d. tendons

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Chap 46_4ce 13. What are the H zones in skeletal muscles composed of? a. thick filaments but no thin filaments b. discs to which thin filaments are anchored c. discs to which thick filaments are anchored d. stacked, thick filaments along with parts of thin filaments that overlap both ends 14. Which skeletons are the radius and ulna considered to be a part of? a. the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton b. the axial and endoskeleton c. the appendicular and endoskeleton d. the exoskeleton and appendicular 15. What action causes the shape change in the myosin crossbridge that directly triggers the power stroke in

skeletal muscle contraction? a. binding of tropomyosin to myosin b. binding of troponin to tropomyosin c. binding of tropomyosin to actin d. binding of myosin to actin 16. In skeletal muscle contraction, what binds to myosin? a. ATP b. Ca2+ c. troponin d. acetylcholine 17. Which of the following refers to a single, weak contraction of a muscle fibre? a. an action potential b. fatigue c. constriction d. a muscle twitch 18. Which term refers to a muscle that decreases the angle between two bones at a joint? a. antagonist b. flexor c. extensor d. depressor

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Chap 46_4ce 19. What is a motor unit? a. a group of muscle fibres activated by one neuron b. the complete set of muscle fibres in a single muscle c. a single muscle fibre activated by one neuron d. a single sarcomere 20. Which muscle type is found in the walls of body tubes and the cavities of vertebrates, such as blood vessels

and the intestines? a. cardiac muscle b. smooth muscle c. skeletal muscle d. branched muscle 21. Which of the following would be involved in a rapid, powerful movement of short duration that could NOT be

sustained for long? a. mainly slow aerobic fibres b. mainly fast aerobic fibres c. mainly slow muscle fibres d. mainly fast anaerobic fibres 22. How many nuclei do skeletal muscle cells have, and what controls them? a. many nuclei; the somatic nervous system b. many nuclei; the autonomic nervous system c. one nucleus each; the autonomic nervous system d. one nucleus each; the somatic nervous system 23. How is the body of humans and most vertebrates supported? a. primarily by an endoskeleton b. primarily by an exoskeleton c. primarily by joined exo- and endoskeletons d. primarily by a hydrostatic skeleton 24. How are the tube feet of sea stars, the erectile tissue of the penis in vertebrates, and the bodies of cnidarians

supported? a. by only non-skeletal structures b. by a hydrostatic skeleton c. by an exoskeleton d. by an endoskeleton

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Chap 46_4ce 25. What is the primary source of new red blood cells in mammals? a. the bone marrow b. the heart c. the spleen d. the blood itself 26. How are the bodies of arthropods supported? a. mainly by an endoskeletons b. mainly by an exoskeleton c. mainly by a hydrostatic skeleton d. mainly by non-skeletal structures 27. How deep may loons dive while foraging? a. about 20 metres b. about 50 metres c. about 60 metres d. about 80 metres 28. What kind of joint is the human elbow an example of? a. a flexible joint b. a fibrous joint c. a cartilaginous joint d. a synovial joint 29. Why does the frozen contraction of muscle cells, called rigor mortis, occur after death? a. because ions are not available in muscle cells b. because ATP production stops c. because neurotransmitters are no longer released d. because tropomyosin breaks down quickly 30. Which term refers to the joints that are somewhat moveable, but do NOT have a fluid-filled capsule

surrounding them, and that have fibrous connective tissue covering the ends of the bones involved? a. synovial joints b. flexible joints c. cartilaginous joints d. fibrous joints

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Chap 46_4ce 31. What is the name of the cylindrical contractile elements that are about 1 mm in diameter and which individual

skeletal muscle cells are packed with? a. ligaments b. tendons c. myofibrils d. sarcomeres 32. Which term refers to a muscle that increases the angle between two bones at a joint? a. flexor b. depressor c. agonist d. extensor 33. In a skeletal muscle contraction, which neurotransmitter is released at the axon terminal to trigger an action

potential in the muscle cell? a. acetylcholine b. tropomyosin c. Ca2+ d. troponin 34. In a skeletal muscle contraction, what must be moved to the grooves in the actin double helix to uncover the

crossbridge binding site? a. tropomyosin b. ATP c. troponin d. acetylcholine 35. Which fibres have a high myoglobin content? a. fast muscle fibres and fast anaerobic muscle fibres b. slow muscle fibres and slow aerobic muscle fibres c. fast muscle fibres and fast aerobic muscle fibres d. slow muscle fibres and fast aerobic muscle fibres 36. What kind of joints hold cranial bones together? a. flexible joints b. synovial joints c. cartilaginous joints d. fibrous joints

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Chap 46_4ce 37. What is the region between two adjacent Z lines? a. a myofibril b. a sarcomere c. a muscle fibre d. a ligament 38. What are the Z lines in skeletal muscles composed of? a. stacked thick filaments along with parts of thin filaments that overlap both ends b. discs to which thin filaments are anchored c. thin filaments but no thick filaments d. thick filaments but no thin filaments 39. Which term refers to joints that are usually highly moveable, and that have a fluid-filled capsule of connective

tissue surrounding them? a. fibrous joints b. synovial joints c. flexible joints d. cartilaginous joints 40. Which term refers to a muscle that has the opposite effect to that of another muscle at the same joint? a. depressor b. extensor c. flexor d. antagonist 41. Which term refers to a pair of muscles that cooperatively cause any type of movement? a. agonistic pair b. antagonistic pair c. pair of extensors d. pair of depressors 42. In a skeletal muscle contraction, which of the following undergoes a conformational change when it binds to a

specific ion and then uncovers the crossbridge binding site by causing another factor to be moved to the grooves in the actin double helix? a. ATP b. Ca2+ c. acetylcholine d. troponin

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Chap 46_4ce 43. Which of the following is an antagonist muscle pair in humans? a. calf and gluteus maximus b. hamstring and biceps c. biceps and triceps d. deltoid and pectoral 44. What kind of joints hold human vertebrae together? a. synovial joints b. fibrous joints c. cartilaginous joints d. flexible joints 45. Which term refers to a muscle contraction where fibres cannot relax at all between stimuli? a. a muscle twitch b. constriction c. tetanus d. an action potential 46. What is the diameter of muscle fibres? a. less than 5 micrometres b. 5 to 10 micrometres c. 10 to 100 micrometres d. more than 100 micrometres 47. Which joints have bones joined by stiff fibres of connective tissue and are essentially immobile? a. fibrous joints b. flexible joints c. cartilaginous joints d. synovial joints 48. Which skeletons are the ribs and sternum considered to be a part of? a. the appendicular skeleton and the exoskeleton b. the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton c. the exoskeleton and axial skeleton d. the axial skeleton and the endoskeleton

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Chap 46_4ce

Match each characteristic with a muscle fibre type. Each muscle fibre type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. slow b. fast aerobic c. fast anaerobic d. both slow and fast aerobic e. both fast aerobic and fast anaerobic 49. low oxidative phosphorylation capacity 50. intermediate glycogen content 51. red fibre colour 52. slow contraction speed 53. low myoglobin content 54. high myosin-ATPase activity 55. high contraction intensity 56. many mitochondria 57. intermediate fatigue resistance 58. high fatigue resistance

Match each bone type with a skeleton type. Each skeleton type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. axial skeleton b. appendicular skeleton c. both the axial and the appendicular skeleton d. neither the axial nor the appendicular skeleton 59. femur 60. humerus 61. facial bones 62. sternum 63. phalanges 64. vertebrae 65. scapula 66. cranial bones

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Match each molecule with its description. a. molecules that form a twisted double helix that makes up most of the thin filaments b. neurotransmitters involved in muscle cell contraction c. molecules that block the crossbridge binding sites when the muscle is not contracting d. molecules that make up thick filaments e. molecules that bind to Ca2+, change their shape, and then uncover the crossbridge binding sites 67. actin 68. troponin 69. myosin 70. tropomyosin 71. acetylcholine

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Chap 46_4ce Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. d 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. b 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. d 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. b

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Chap 46_4ce 27. c 28. d 29. b 30. c 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. a 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. d 41. b 42. d 43. c 44. c 45. c 46. c 47. a 48. d 49. c 50. b 51. d 52. a 53. c 54. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 46_4ce 55. c 56. d 57. b 58. a 59. b 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. a 68. e 69. d 70. c 71. b

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