TEST BANK For Campbell Biology in Focus, 3rd Edition by Urry Lisa, Cain Michael, Wasserman Steven, a by StudyGuide

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 1 Introduction: Evolution and the Foundations of Biology 1.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) All of the organisms living in a particular ecosystem are collectively known as a(n) A) biological community. B) order. C) family. D) population. Answer: A Topic: 1.1 The study of life reveals unifying themes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1, V&C 5 2) Many properties of living things involve the transfer and transformation of energy and matter. For example, plant chloroplasts convert energy from sunlight to which of the following forms of energy or matter? A) the energy of motion B) carbon dioxide and water C) chemical energy D) oxygen E) kinetic energy Answer: C Topic: 1.1 The study of life reveals unifying themes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1, V&C 4 3) The primary source of energy for producers in an ecosystem is A) light energy. B) kinetic energy. C) thermal energy. D) chemical energy. Answer: A Topic: 1.1 The study of life reveals unifying themes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1, V&C 4

4) All the living things on Earth along with all the places where life exists are collectively described by which of the following terms? A) an ecosystem B) the biosphere C) a biological community D) a population Answer: B Topic: 1.1 The study of life reveals unifying themes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1, V&C 5 5) All the living organisms in a particular area along with all the nonliving aspects of the environment with which organisms interact are collectively described by which of the following terms? A) an ecosystem B) the biosphere C) a biological community D) a population Answer: A Topic: 1.1 The study of life reveals unifying themes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1, V&C 5 6) All the individuals of a particular species living within the bounds of a specified area are collectively described by which of the following terms? A) a biological system B) a biosphere C) a biological community D) a population Answer: D Topic: 1.1 The study of life reveals unifying themes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1, V&C 5 7) Which of the following types of cells lack(s) a nucleus? A) animal B) plant C) archaea D) fungi Answer: C Topic: 1.1 The study of life reveals unifying themes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.1, V&C 2

8) Investigating the molecular structure of DNA in order to understand the chemical basis of inheritance is an example of which approach utilized in the study of biology? A) systems biology B) emergent properties C) reductionism D) deductive reasoning Answer: C Topic: 1.1 The study of life reveals unifying themes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.1, V&C 1 9) Which of the following correctly describes the forms by which energy flows through an ecosystem from entry to exit? A) heat → chemical → heat B) light → heat → chemical C) light → chemical → heat D) chemical → heat → light Answer: C Topic: 1.1 The study of life reveals unifying themes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.1, V&C 4 10) Approximately what proportion of the carbon dioxide (CO2) released by burning fossil fuels remains in the atmosphere, contributing to the trapping of heat close to Earth's surface? A) less than 1% B) 5% C) 50% D) 90% Answer: C Topic: 1.1 The study of life reveals unifying themes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1, V&C 4, 5 11) Which of the following terms describes membrane-enclosed components of cells that carry out specialized functions? A) tissues B) organs C) organelles D) cells Answer: C Topic: 1.1 The study of life reveals unifying themes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1, V&C 2

12) Which of the following represents the correct hierarchy of biological organization from large scale to smaller scale? A) ecosystems → biosphere → communities → populations → organisms B) communities → populations → organisms → ecosystems → biosphere C) biosphere → communities → populations → ecosystems → organisms D) biosphere → ecosystems → communities → populations → organisms E) biosphere → ecosystems → populations→ communities → organisms Answer: D Topic: 1.1 The study of life reveals unifying themes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1, V&C 5 13) Living things are divided into three different domains. Which of these domains are classified as prokaryotes? A) Bacteria and Eukarya B) Archaea and Eukarya C) Bacteria and Fungi D) Bacteria and Archaea Answer: D Topic: 1.2 The Core Theme: Evolution accounts for the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2, V&C 2 14) A single-celled organism isolated from a deep-sea, hot thermal vent was found to have a cell wall but lacked a nucleus. This organism is most likely a member of which of the following domains? A) Eukarya B) Archaea C) Animalia D) Plantae E) Fungi Answer: B Topic: 1.2 The Core Theme: Evolution accounts for the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.2, V&C 2 15) Strong evidence in support of the common ancestry of all life comes from which of the following observations about living things? A) the fact that decomposers include both bacteria and fungi B) the ability of plants to convert light energy to chemical energy C) the existence of a nearly universal genetic code D) the universal use of protein catalysts by all cells Answer: C Topic: 1.2 The Core Theme: Evolution accounts for the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.2, V&C 1, 2 Global L.O.: G2 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Charles Darwin proposed that "descent with modification" resulted when organisms of a particular species become adapted to their environment because they possess which of the following characteristics? A) nonheritable traits that enhance survival and decrease their reproductive success in the local environment B) nonheritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local environment C) heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local environment D) heritable traits that enhance their survival and decrease their reproductive success in the local environment Answer: C Topic: 1.2 The Core Theme: Evolution accounts for the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2, V&C 1 17) Which of the following statements describes an individual that is likely to be the most successful in an evolutionary sense? A) a reproductively sterile individual who never falls ill B) an organism that dies after five days of life but leaves 10 offspring, all of whom survive to reproduce C) a male who mates with 20 females and fathers one offspring D) an organism that lives 100 years and leaves two offspring, both of whom survive to reproduce E) a female who mates with 20 males and produces two offspring who live to reproduce Answer: B Topic: 1.2 The Core Theme: Evolution accounts for the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.2, V&C 1 Global L.O.: G2 18) Over time, the lineage that led to modern whales shows a change from four-limbed land animals to aquatic animals with two limbs that function as flippers. This change is best explained by which of the following concepts or processes? A) an emergent property B) reductionism C) the hierarchy of the biological organization of life D) natural selection Answer: D Topic: 1.2 The Core Theme: Evolution accounts for the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.2, V&C 1, 2

19) Which of the following statements describes Charles Darwin's most significant original contribution to understanding both the unity and the diversity of life? A) He documented examples of organisms that had evolved over time. B) He proposed a mechanism to explain the process of evolution. C) He explained the relationship between genes and evolution. D) He observed that individuals in a population generally displayed variation for a number of traits. E) He suggested that survival depends upon competition. Answer: B Topic: 1.2 The Core Theme: Evolution accounts for the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2, V&C 1 20) Which of the following statements is a distinguishing characteristic of fungi? A) obtaining nutrients by absorbing them from the environment B) obtaining nutrients by ingesting other organisms C) converting light energy to chemical energy in the form of sugars D) living in extreme environments like boiling hot springs Answer: A Topic: 1.2 The Core Theme: Evolution accounts for the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2, V&C 2 21) The variation observed among the finches Darwin collected from the Galápagos Islands illustrate which of the following principles associated with the evolution of species? A) mutation frequency B) production of more offspring than can survive C) descent with modification D) the accuracy of the fossil record Answer: C Topic: 1.2 The Core Theme: Evolution accounts for the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2, V&C 1

22) Imagine there is a species-specific fishing regulation that mandates that only adult fish of this species that are 75 cm or longer may be kept; shorter fish must be released. Based on your knowledge of natural selection, how would you predict that the average length of the adult fish population might be affected? A) Length would remain unchanged. B) Length would gradually decrease. C) Length would rapidly decrease. D) Length would gradually increase. E) Length would rapidly increase. Answer: B Topic: 1.2 The Core Theme: Evolution accounts for the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.2, V&C 1 Global L.O.: G2 23) In her studies of chimpanzee behavior, Jane Goodall collected both qualitative and quantitative data. Which of the following is an example of quantitative data? A) Chimpanzees typically travel together in small groups. B) Pairs of animals take turns grooming each other. C) Young chimpanzees play games in the trees and on the ground. D) Mothers and their infants typically nap for two to three hours each afternoon. Answer: D Topic: 1.3 In studying nature, scientists form and test hypotheses Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.3, V&C 1 Global L.O.: G1 24) The process of science involves testing which of the following? A) a data set B) a hypothesis C) an observation D) a conclusion E) a control group Answer: B Topic: 1.3 In studying nature, scientists form and test hypotheses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.3, V&C 1 Global L.O.: G1

25) Which of the following statements describes a controlled experiment? A) an experiment that is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate B) an experiment that proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all reactions and process all experimental data C) an experiment with at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment D) an experiment with at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables Answer: C Topic: 1.3 In studying nature, scientists form and test hypotheses Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.3, V&C 1 Global L.O.: G1 26) Which of the following is a requirement for a good scientific hypothesis? A) It must generate quantitative data. B) It must explain a large body of specific observations. C) It must lead to testable predictions. D) It must be able to be proven true. Answer: C Topic: 1.3 In studying nature, scientists form and test hypotheses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.3, V&C 1 Global L.O.: G1 27) Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment? A) The control group is kept in an unchanging environment. B) The control group is left alone by the experimenters. C) The control group is matched with the experimental group except for the one experimental variable. D) The control group is exposed to only one variable rather than several. Answer: C Topic: 1.3 In studying nature, scientists form and test hypotheses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.3, V&C 1 Global L.O.: G1

28) Which of the following is an example of inductive reasoning? A) If a banana is not ripe, then an ape will not eat it. B) Numerous different species live in sunny parts of an ecosystem; therefore, they are all photosynthetic. C) Hundreds of cultures of a unicellular alga are incubated in the presence of light, and in all of the samples the cells congregate on the side of the culture toward the light. Therefore, the alga is phototactic (attracted to light). D) If two species are members of the same genus, then they are more similar to each other than they are to members of a different genus. Answer: C Topic: 1.3 In studying nature, scientists form and test hypotheses Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.3, V&C 1 Global L.O.: G1, G2 29) Why is it important that scientific discoveries and ideas be discussed by people with various points of view, from a variety of subdisciplines, and with diverse cultural backgrounds? A) They can correct each other's approach to make it truly scientific. B) Robust and critical discussion between diverse groups improves scientific thinking. C) Scientists need to exchange their ideas with other disciplines and cultures so that all groups are in agreement regarding the course of future research. D) This is another way of ensuring that everyone gets the same results. Answer: B Topic: 1.3 In studying nature, scientists form and test hypotheses Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 1.3, V&C 1 Global L.O.: G1, G2 30) Why is it important that an experiment include a control group? A) A control group provides a reference by which to determine if a particular outcome may reasonably result from the variable being tested. B) The control group provides a reserve of experimental subjects. C) A control group is required for the development of an "If . . . then" statement. D) A control group assures that an experiment will be repeatable. Answer: A Topic: 1.3 In studying nature, scientists form and test hypotheses Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.3, V&C 1 Global L.O.: G1, G2

31) Which of the following descriptions constitutes a controlled experiment? A) using a microscope to observe organisms present in a sample of pond water and recording the number of each type of organism observed B) setting up a bird feeder and compiling a list of all of the bird species seen at the feeder over a period of several weeks C) growing one set of 10 seedlings under white light and one set of the same type of seedlings under red light and measuring their growth over a period of two weeks D) growing one set of 10 seedlings under white light at 30°C and one set of a different type of seedlings under red light at 25°C and measuring their growth over a period of two weeks Answer: C Topic: 1.3 In studying nature, scientists form and test hypotheses Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.3, V&C 1 Global L.O.: G1, G2 1.2 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) All the organisms on your campus make up A) an ecosystem. B) a community. C) a population. D) a taxonomic domain. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following best demonstrates the unity among all organisms? A) emergent properties B) descent with modification C) DNA structure and function D) natural selection Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) A controlled experiment is one that A) proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results. B) tests experimental and control groups in parallel. C) is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate. D) keeps all variables constant. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4) Which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from theories in science? A) Theories are hypotheses that have been proved. B) Hypotheses are guesses; theories are correct answers. C) Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power. D) Theories are proved true; hypotheses are often contradicted by experimental results. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of the following best describes the logic of scientific inquiry? A) If I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it. B) If my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis. C) If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis. D) If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 2 The Chemical Context of Life 2.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which four of the 92 naturally occurring elements make up approximately 96% of the mass of the human body? A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen C) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen E) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium Answer: D Topic: 2.1 Matter consists of chemical elements in pure form and in combinations called compounds Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.1; V&C 2 2) Trace elements are required by organisms in only minute quantities (less than 0.01% of mass). Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates? A) nitrogen B) calcium C) iodine D) potassium E) phosphorus Answer: C Topic: 2.1 Matter consists of chemical elements in pure form and in combinations called compounds Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.1; V&C 2 3) Trace elements are required by organisms in only minute quantities (less than 0.01% of mass). Which of the following is a trace element that is required by all organisms? A) iron B) calcium C) iodine D) sodium E) potassium Answer: A Topic: 2.1 Matter consists of chemical elements in pure form and in combinations called compounds Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.1; V&C 2

4) Which of the following is the key characteristic that is ultimately responsible for the unique chemical properties of each element? A) Each element has a unique atomic mass. B) Each element has a unique atomic number. C) Each element has a unique number of protons. D) Each element has a unique number of neutrons. Answer: C Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 5) Given only a mass number, one can deduce the number of ________ in each atom of an element. A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) protons plus electrons E) protons plus neutrons Answer: E Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 6) Which of the following properties is common among elements in the same column of the periodic table? A) They have the same number of protons. B) They have the same number of neutrons. C) They have the same number of electrons. D) They have the same number of electrons in their valence shell. E) They have the same number of electron shells. Answer: D Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 7) Which of the following properties is shared by elements in the same row of the periodic table? A) They have the same number of protons. B) They have the same number of neutrons. C) They have the same number of electrons. D) They have the same number of electrons in their valence shell. E) They have the same number of electron shells. Answer: E Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2

8) The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 8 neutrons and 7 protons. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning nitrogen? A) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic number of 7. B) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 15 and an atomic number of 7. C) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 15 and an atomic number of 8. D) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 15 and an atomic number of 15. Answer: B Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 9) The left-to-right position of an element in the first three rows of the periodic table indicates which of the following properties of the element? A) the total number of electrons in the element B) the total number of protons in the element C) the total number of neutrons in the element D) the number of electron orbitals in the element E) the number of electrons in the valence shell Answer: E Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 10) The chemical behavior of an atom depends primarily upon which of the following? A) the number of neutrons in the nucleus B) the number of protons in the nucleus C) the number of electrons in the valence shell D) the total number of electrons contained by the atom E) the number of electron shells contained by the atom Answer: C Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 11) Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist, with mass numbers of 92, 94, 95, 96, 97, 98, and 100. Therefore, which of the following is true? A) The isotopes of molybdenum can have between 50 and 58 neutrons. B) The isotopes of molybdenum have different numbers of valence electrons. C) The isotopes of molybdenum can have between 50 and 58 protons. D) The isotopes of molybdenum can have between 92 and 100 electrons. Answer: A Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2

12) One difference between carbon-12 (

C) and carbon-14 (

C) is that carbon-14 has

A) two more protons than carbon-12. B) two more electrons than carbon-12. C) two more neutrons than carbon-12. D) two more protons and two more neutrons than carbon-12. E) two more electrons and two more protons than carbon-12. Answer: C Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 13) An atom has 6 electrons in its outer shell. How many unpaired electrons does it have? A) 0 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 Answer: B Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 14) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen-15 is heavier than nitrogen-14 because the atomic nucleus of nitrogen-15 contains how many neutrons? A) 15 B) 7 C) 8 D) 14 Answer: C Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 15) Argon has atomic number 18. Which of the following statements about argon is true? A) It has 10 electrons in its outer electron shell. B) It is inert. C) It has an atomic mass of 18 daltons. D) It resides in the first column of the periodic table. Answer: B Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2

16) The atomic number of sulfur is 16, which indicates that a sulfur atom contains A) 16 neutrons. B) 16 protons. C) 16 protons and 16 neutrons. D) 8 electrons in its outermost electron shell. E) 8 protons and 8 neutrons. Answer: B Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 17) The atomic number of each atom is given to the left of each of the following elements. Which of the atoms has the same number of valence electrons as carbon ( C)? A) 1H hydrogen B) 9F fluorine C) 10Ne neon D) 12Mg magnesium E) 14Si silicon Answer: E Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 18) Two atoms that have the same mass number must have the same A) atomic number. B) number of electrons. C) number of protons. D) number of protons plus neutrons. E) chemical properties. Answer: D Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 19) Phosphorus-32, a radioactive isotope of phosphorus-31 (atomic number 15), undergoes a form of radioactive decay whereby a neutron turns into a proton, which is retained in the nucleus and emits radiation in the form of an electron. What is the product of such radioactive decay of phosphorus-32? A) phosphorus-31 B) a positively charged phosphorus-31 ion C) a negatively charged phosphorus-32 ion D) sulfur-32 (atomic number 16) Answer: D Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Sulfur has an atomic number of 16 and a mass number of 32. How many electrons are needed to complete the valence shell of a sulfur atom? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: C Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 21) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 16. What is the atomic mass of an oxygen atom? A) approximately 8 grams B) approximately 8 daltons C) approximately 16 grams D) approximately 16 daltons E) approximately 24 daltons Answer: D Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2; V&C 2 22) Which of the following best describes how an atom with atomic number 12 would behave in terms of forming bonds with other elements? A) It would form ions with a +1 charge. B) It would form ions with a +2 charge. C) It would form ions with a -1 charge. D) It would form ions with a -2 charge. E) It would form two covalent bonds with other atoms. Answer: B Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2

23) A covalent chemical bond is one in which A) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged. B) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms. C) outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to occupy the outer electron shells of both atoms. D) outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another atom. Answer: C Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 24) If an atom of sulfur (atomic number 16) were allowed to react with atoms of hydrogen (atomic number 1), which of the following molecules would be formed? A) S—H B) H—S—H C)

E) H = S = H Answer: B Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 25) What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 8 can make with hydrogen? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 6 Answer: B Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) Sulfur (atomic number 16) will have chemical properties most similar to A) carbon (atomic number 6). B) nitrogen (atomic number 7). C) oxygen (atomic number 8). D) phosphorous (atomic number 15). E) chlorine (atomic number 17). Answer: C Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 27) Nitrogen (N) is much more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following statements about the atoms in ammonia (NH3) is correct? A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial negative charge. B) The nitrogen atom has a full positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a full positive charge. C) Each hydrogen atom has a partial negative charge; the nitrogen atom has a full positive charge. D) The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a partial negative charge. E) There are nonpolar covalent bonds between each hydrogen atom and the nitrogen atom. Answer: A Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 28) When two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to form A) hydrogen bonds. B) van der Waals interactions. C) polar covalent bonds. D) nonpolar covalent bonds. E) ionic bonds. Answer: D Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2

29) Unequal sharing of electrons between atoms will result in which of the following interactions? A) a nonpolar covalent bond B) a polar covalent bond C) an ionic bond D) a hydrophobic interaction Answer: B Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 30) A covalent bond is likely to be polar when A) one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom. B) the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative. C) oxygen is one of the two atoms sharing electrons. D) the two atoms sharing electrons are the same element. Answer: A Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 31) Which of the following molecules contains polar covalent bonds? A) H2 B) O2 C) CH4 D) H2O Answer: D Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2

32) How does the formation of covalent bonds differ from the formation of ionic bonds between two atoms? A) Covalent bonds are formed between atoms to form molecules; ionic bonds are formed between atoms to form compounds. B) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of single electrons between atoms. C) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the transfer of electrons from one atom to the other. D) Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons from one atom to the other; ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between atoms. Answer: C Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 33) A covalent bond is formed by A) sharing of a pair of electrons between two atoms. B) sharing of a single electron between two atoms. C) sharing of a pair of protons between two atoms. D) transfer of an electron from one atom to another. Answer: A Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 34) An ionic bond is formed by A) sharing of a pair of electrons between two atoms. B) sharing of a single electron between two atoms. C) sharing of a pair of protons between two atoms. D) transfer of an electron from one atom to another. E) transfer of a proton from one atom to another. Answer: D Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2

35) The most stable interaction between magnesium (atomic number 12) and chlorine (atomic number 17) forms which of the following molecules? A) MgCl, in which atoms are joined by covalent bonds B) MgCl, in which atoms are joined by ionic bonds C) Mg2Cl, in which atoms are joined by ionic bonds D) MgCl2, in which atoms are joined by covalent bonds E) MgCl2, in which atoms are joined by ionic bonds Answer: E Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 36) In ammonium chloride salt (NH4Cl), the anion is a single chloride ion, (Cl¯). What is the cation of NH4Cl salt? A) N, with a charge of +1 B) NH, with a charge of +1 C) H3, with a charge of +1 D) NH4, with a charge of +1 E) NH4, with a charge of +4 Answer: D Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 37) The atomic number of chlorine is 17. The atomic number of calcium is 20. What is the chemical formula for calcium chloride? A) CaCl B) CaCl2 C) Ca2Cl D) Ca2Cl2 E) CaCl3 Answer: B Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2

38) How many electron pairs are shared between the two carbon atoms in a molecule that has the formula C2H4? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: C Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 39) How many electron pairs are shared between the two carbon atoms in a molecule that has the formula C2H6? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: B Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 40) Which bond or interaction would be most difficult to disrupt when compounds are put into water? A) covalent bond B) hydrogen bond C) van der Waals interaction D) ionic bond Answer: A Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2

41) What type of bonding or interaction may occur among a broad array of molecules with various physical properties (polar, nonpolar, hydrophilic, hydrophobic)? A) covalent bonding B) polar covalent bonding C) ionic bonding D) hydrogen bonding E) van der Waals interactions Answer: E Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 42) Which of the following are the strongest molecular interactions? A) van der Waals interactions B) hydrogen bonds C) ionic bonds in an aqueous environment D) covalent bonds Answer: D Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 43) Which of the following are considered compounds? A) H2O, O2, and CH4 B) H2O and O2 C) O2 and CH4 D) CH4 and O2, but not H2O E) H2O and CH4, but not O2 Answer: E Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2

44) What is the maximum number of hydrogen atoms that can be covalently bonded in a molecule containing two carbon atoms? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: D Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3; V&C 2 45) Chemical equilibrium is described by which of the following statements? A) Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the concentrations of the reactants and products. B) The concentrations of the products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants. C) Forward and reverse reactions have stopped so that the concentrations of the reactants and products remain constant. D) Reactions stop when all reactants have been converted to products. Answer: A Topic: 2.4 Chemical reactions make and break chemical bonds Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4; V&C 2 46) Which of the following correctly describes any reaction that has reached chemical equilibrium? A) The concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products. B) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction. C) All of the reactants have been converted to the products of the reaction. D) All of the products have been converted to the reactants of the reaction. Answer: B Topic: 2.4 Chemical reactions make and break chemical bonds Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4; V&C 2 47) In an aqueous solution, water molecules associate with one another through which of the following? A) hydrogen bonds B) ionic bonds C) polar covalent bonds D) covalent bonds E) van der Waals interactions Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) If a salamander clings to surfaces through hydrogen bonds, it would have the most difficulty clinging to which of the following surfaces? A) a surface coated with a thin film of water B) a surface coated with a thin film of vinegar (acetic acid) C) a surface coated with a thin film of vegetable oil D) a surface coated with a thin film of ammonia (NH3) Answer: C Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 49) In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by A) hydrogen bonds. B) nonpolar covalent bonds. C) polar covalent bonds. D) ionic bonds. E) van der Waals interactions. Answer: C Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2 50) The attraction between the slight negative charge of one water molecule to the slight positive charge of another water molecule results in which of the following interactions? A) a covalent bond B) a hydrogen bond C) an ionic bond D) a hydrophilic bond E) a van der Waals interaction Answer: B Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2

51) Sulfur is in the same column of the periodic table as oxygen but has electronegativity similar to carbon. Compared to water molecules, molecules of H2S will A) ionize more readily. B) have greater cohesion to other molecules of H2S. C) have a greater tendency to form hydrogen bonds with each other. D) have a higher capacity to absorb heat for the same change in temperature. E) not form hydrogen bonds with each other. Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 52) Water molecules are able to form hydrogen bonds with A) compounds that are not soluble in water. B) compounds that have nonpolar covalent bonds. C) oxygen gas (O2) molecules. D) methane gas (CH4) molecules. E) compounds that have polar covalent bonds. Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2 53) Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water? A) Lakes don't freeze solid in winter despite low temperatures. B) A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond. C) Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions. D) Evaporation of sweat from the skin helps to keep people from overheating. E) Water flows upward from the roots to the leaves in plants. Answer: B Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2 54) Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink? A) Molecular collisions in the drink increase. B) Kinetic energy in the drink decreases. C) A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink. D) The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases. E) Evaporation of the water in the drink increases. Answer: B Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2

55) Which of the following statements correctly defines 1 kilocalorie? A) 1,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1,000°C B) 100 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 100 g of water by 1°C C) 10,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°F D) 1,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C E) 1,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 100 g of water by 100°C Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2 56) The nutritional information on a cereal box shows that one serving of a dry cereal has 200 kilocalories. If a person were to ignite one serving of the cereal in a bowl, the amount of heat given off would be sufficient to raise the temperature of 20 kg of water how many degrees Celsius? A) 0.2°C B) 1.0°C C) 2.0°C D) 10.0°C E) 20.0°C Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2 Global L.O.: G4 57) Conversion of liquid water to water vapor requires breaking which of the following types of bonds? A) ionic bonds B) both hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds C) polar covalent bonds D) hydrogen bonds E) both polar covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2

58) Why does ice float in liquid water? A) The high surface tension of liquid water keeps the ice on top. B) The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking. C) Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat. D) Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the water molecules of ice farther apart than the water molecules of liquid water. E) The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water. Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2 59) Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are A) nonpolar substances that repel water molecules. B) nonpolar substances that have an attraction for water molecules. C) polar substances that repel water molecules. D) polar substances that have an affinity for water. Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2 60) One mole (mol) of glucose (molecular mass = 180 daltons) is A) 180 × 1023 molecules of glucose. B) 1 kg of glucose dissolved in 1 L of solution. C) the largest amount of glucose that can be dissolved in 1 L of solution. D) 180 grams of glucose. E) 180 grams of glucose dissolved in 1 L of solution. Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G4 61) Glucose has a molecular mass of 180 g/mol. How many glucose molecules are present in 100 grams of glucose? A) 100 × 1023 B) (6.02/180) × 1023 C) (6.02/100) × 1023 D) (100 × 6.02) × 1023 E) (100/180) × 6.02 × 1023 Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G4 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

62) How many molecules of glycerol (C3H8O3; molecular mass = 92) are present in 1 L of a 0.5 M glycerol solution? A) 1 × 1023 B) 0.5 × 6.02 × 1023 C) 92/2 × 6.02 × 1023 D) 0.5 × 6.02/92 × 1023 E) 6.02 × 1023 Answer: B Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G4 63) How many molecules of glycerol (C3H8O3; molecular mass = 92) are present in 0.5 L of a 1 M glycerol solution? A) 1 × 1023 B) 0.5 × 6.02 × 1023 C) 92/2 × 6.02 × 1023 D) 0.5 × 6.02/92 × 1023 E) 6.02 × 1023 Answer: B Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G4 64) When an ionic compound such as sodium chloride (NaCl) is placed in water, the component atoms of the NaCl crystal dissociate into individual sodium ions (Na+) and chloride ions (Cl-). In contrast, the atoms of covalently bonded molecules (e.g., glucose, sucrose, glycerol) do not generally dissociate when placed in aqueous solution. Which of the following solutions would be expected to contain the greatest number of solute particles (molecules or ions)? A) 1 L of 0.5 M NaCl B) 1 L of 0.5 M glucose C) 1 L of 1.0 M NaCl D) 1 L of 1.0 M glucose E) 2 L of 0.5 M glucose Answer: C Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G2

65) The molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 1 M solution of glucose? A) Dissolve 1 g of glucose in 1 L of water. B) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of water. C) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 180 g of water. D) Dissolve 180 milligrams (mg) of glucose in 1 L of water. E) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 0.8 L of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L. Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 66) The molar mass of glucose (C6H12O6) is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 0.5 M solution of glucose? A) Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L. B) Dissolve 90 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L. C) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L. D) Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in 1 L of water. E) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 0.5 L of water. Answer: B Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 67) How many glucose molecules are contained in one liter of a 0.1 M solution of glucose in water? A) 6.02 × 1023 B) 3.01 × 1023 C) 6.02 × 1024 D) 12.04 × 1023 E) 6.02 × 1022 Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G4

68) How many glucose molecules are contained in 0.1 liter of a 10 M solution of glucose in water? A) 6.02 × 1023 B) 3.01 × 1023 C) 6.02 × 1024 D) 12.04 × 1023 E) 6.02 × 1022 Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G4 69) How many glucose molecules are contained in 1 liter of a 10 M solution of glucose in water? A) 6.02 × 1023 B) 3.01 × 1023 C) 6.02 × 1024 D) 12.04 × 1023 E) 6.02 × 1022 Answer: C Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G4 70) The molar mass of water is 18 g/mol. What is the molarity of 1 liter of pure water? (Hint: One liter of pure water has a mass of 1 kg.) A) 55.6 M B) 18 M C) 37 M D) 0.66 M E) 1.0 M Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G2

71) How many glucose molecules are present in a 100-mL sample of a 1 M solution of glucose? A) 6.02 × 1023 B) 3.01 × 1023 C) 6.02 × 1024 D) 12.04 × 1023 E) 6.02 × 1022 Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G4 72) A strong acid like HCl A) dissociates completely in an aqueous solution. B) increases the pH when added to an aqueous solution. C) reacts with strong bases to create a buffered solution. D) is a strong buffer at low pH. E) is a strong buffer at high pH. Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2 73) Which of the following dissociates completely in aqueous solution and is therefore considered to be a strong base (alkali)? A) NaCl B) HCl C) NH3 D) H2CO3 E) NaOH Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2

74) A 0.01 M solution of a substance has a pH of 2. What can you conclude about this substance? A) It is a strong acid that ionizes completely in water. B) It is a strong base that ionizes completely in water. C) It is a weak acid. D) It is a weak base. E) It is a buffer. Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 75) A solution contains 0.0000001 (10-7) moles of hydroxyl ions (OH-) per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution? A) acidic: H+ acceptor B) basic: H+ acceptor C) acidic: H+ donor D) basic: H+ donor E) neutral Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 76) What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxyl ion (OH-) concentration of 10-12 M? A) pH 2 B) pH 4 C) pH 10 D) pH 12 E) pH 14 Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 77) What is the pH of a 10-3 M NaOH solution? A) pH 3 B) pH 8 C) pH 9 D) pH 10 E) pH 11 Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

78) Which of the following solutions would require addition of the greatest amount of base to bring the solution to neutral pH? A) gastric juice at pH 2 B) vinegar at pH 3 C) tomato juice at pH 4 D) black coffee at pH 5 E) household bleach at pH 12 Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5 79) What is the hydrogen ion (H+) concentration of a solution of pH 8? A) 8 M B) 8 × 10-6 M C) 0.01 M D) 10-8 M E) 10-6 M Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5 80) What is the hydroxyl ion (OH-) concentration of a solution of pH 8? A) 8 M B) 8 × 10-6 M C) 0.01 M D) 10-8 M E) 10-6 M Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5 81) If the pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7, it means that the A) concentration of H+ is twice (2×) what it was at pH 5. B) concentration of H+ is one-half (1/2) what it was at pH 5. C) concentration of OH- is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 5. D) concentration of OH- is one-hundredth (0.01×) what it was at pH 5. E) concentration of H+ is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 5. Answer: C Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

82) If the pH of a solution is decreased from pH 8 to pH 6, it means that the A) concentration of H+ is twice (2×) what it was at pH 8. B) concentration of H+ is one-half (1/2) what it was at pH 8. C) concentration of OH- is one-half (1/2) what it was at pH 8. D) concentration of OH- is one-hundredth (0.01×) what it was at pH 8. E) concentration of H+ is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 8. Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 83) One liter of a solution of pH 4 has how many more hydrogen ions (H+) than 1 L of a solution of pH 9? A) 4 times more B) 16 times more C) 40,000 times more D) 10,000 times more E) 100,000 times more Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 84) One liter of a solution of pH 8 has how many more hydroxyl ions (OH-) than 1 L of a solution of pH 4? A) 5 times more B) 32 times more C) 50,000 times more D) 10,000 times more E) 100,000 times more Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5

85) Which of the following statements about buffer solutions is true? A) They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are added to them. B) They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are added to them. C) They maintain a relatively constant pH of approximately 7 when either acids or bases are added to them. D) They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to them. E) They are found only in living systems and biological fluids. Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5 86) Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH by A) releasing H+ to a solution when acids are added. B) accepting OH- from a solution when bases are added. C) releasing OH- to a solution when bases are added. D) accepting H+ from a solution when acids are added. E) accepting OH- from a solution when acids are added. Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5 87) Carbonic acid (H2CO3) serves as a buffer in human blood. Carbonic acid is a weak acid that dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and a hydrogen ion (H+). Thus, H2CO3 ↔ HCO3- + H+ A decrease in blood pH would result in A) a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of HCO3-. B) a decrease in the concentrations of H2CO3 and HCO3-. C) an increase in the concentration of H2CO3 and a decrease in the concentration of HCO3-. D) an increase in the concentrations of H2CO3 and HCO3-. Answer: C Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2

88) One of the buffers that contributes to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid is a weak acid that, when placed in an aqueous solution, dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and a hydrogen ion (H+). Thus, H2CO3 ↔ HCO3- + H+ If the pH of the blood increases, one would expect A) a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of HCO3-. B) an increase in the concentration of H2CO3 and a decrease in the concentration of HCO3-. C) a decrease in the concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration of H+. D) an increase in the concentration of HCO3- and a decrease in the concentration of OH-. Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2 89) If acid rain has lowered the pH of a particular lake to pH 4.0, which of the following statements about this lake is true? A) The hydrogen ion concentration is 1 × 10-10 moles per liter of lake water. B) The hydrogen ion concentration is 4.0 moles per liter of lake water. C) The hydrogen ion concentration is 1 × 104 moles per liter of lake water. D) The hydroxyl ion concentration is 1 × 10-10 moles per liter of lake water. E) The hydroxyl ion concentration is 1 × 10-4 moles per liter of lake water. Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 90) Research indicates that acid precipitation can damage marine corals by A) buffering ocean waters. B) decreasing the H+ concentration in oceans. C) increasing the OH- concentration in oceans. D) decreasing the concentration of carbonate ions in oceans. E) decreasing the calcium ion concentration in oceans. Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5

91) Approximately what percentage of human-generated atmospheric CO2 is absorbed by the oceans? A) 1% B) 5% C) 25% D) 60% E) 95% Answer: C Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5 92) CO2 absorbed by the oceans combines with water to form H2CO3. Which of the following will result from increasing the concentration of H2CO3 in the oceans? A) Ocean pH will be stabilized by the buffering capacity of H2CO3. B) Ocean pH will increase. C) Ocean pH will decrease. D) The concentration of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) in the ocean will decrease. Answer: C Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2 93) Consider two solutions: solution X has a pH of 4; solution Y has a pH of 7. From this information, we can reasonably conclude that A) solution Y has no free hydrogen ions (H+) because the solution is neutral. B) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 30 times greater than the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y. C) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y is 1,000 times greater than the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X. D) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 3 times greater than the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y. E) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 1,000 times greater than the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y. Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2

94) Carbon dioxide (CO2) is readily soluble in water, according to the equation CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3. Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is a weak acid. Respiring cells release CO2 into the bloodstream. What will be the effect on the pH of blood as that blood first comes in contact with respiring cells? A) Blood pH will decrease slightly. B) Blood pH will increase slightly. C) Blood pH will remain unchanged. D) Blood pH will first increase, then decrease as CO2 combines with hemoglobin. Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2 95) A beaker contains 100 mL of NaOH solution at pH = 13. A technician carefully pours into the beaker 10 mL of HCl at pH = 1. Which of the following statements correctly describes the results of this mixing? A) The concentration of Na+ ion will rise. B) The concentration of Cl- ion will be 0.1 M. C) The concentration of undissociated H2O molecules will remain unchanged. D) The pH of the beaker's contents will be neutral. E) The pH of the beaker's contents will decrease. Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2 96) An equal volume (5 mL) of vinegar from a freshly opened bottle is added to each of the following solutions. After complete mixing, which of the mixtures will have the highest pH? A) 100 mL of pure water B) 100 mL of freshly brewed coffee C) 100 mL of household cleanser containing 0.5 M ammonia D) 100 mL of freshly squeezed lemon juice E) 100 mL of tomato juice Answer: C Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2

97) An equal volume (5 mL) of milk of magnesia from a freshly opened bottle is added to each of the following solutions. After complete mixing, which of the mixtures will have the lowest pH? A) 100 mL of pure water B) 100 mL of freshly brewed coffee C) 100 mL of household cleanser containing 0.5 M ammonia D) 100 mL of freshly squeezed lemon juice E) 100 mL of household cleanser containing 0.5 M bleach Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2 98) Increased atmospheric CO2 concentrations will have what effect on seawater? A) Seawater will become more acidic, and bicarbonate concentrations will decrease. B) Seawater will become more alkaline, and carbonate concentrations will decrease. C) There will be no change in the pH of seawater because carbonate will turn to bicarbonate. D) Seawater will become more acidic, and carbonate concentrations will decrease. Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2 99) How would acidification of seawater affect marine organisms? A) Acidification would increase dissolved carbonate concentrations and promote faster growth of corals and shell-building animals. B) Acidification would decrease dissolved carbonate concentrations and promote faster growth of corals and shell-building animals. C) Acidification would increase dissolved carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of corals and shell-building animals. D) Acidification would decrease dissolved carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of corals and shell-building animals. E) Acidification would increase dissolved bicarbonate concentrations and cause increased calcification of corals and shellfish. Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5

100) One proposal to mitigate the effects of burning fossil fuels on atmospheric CO2 concentrations is to pipe liquid CO2 into the ocean at depths of 2,500 feet or greater. At the high pressures at such depths, CO2 is heavier than water. What potential effects might result from implementing such a scheme? A) increased photosynthetic carbon fixation because of the increased dissolved carbon dioxide in the deep water B) increased carbonate concentrations in the deep waters C) increased growth of corals from a change in the carbonate-bicarbonate equilibrium D) no effect because carbon dioxide is not soluble in water E) changes in the growth of deep sea-dwelling organisms with calcium carbonate shells Answer: E Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2 101) If the cytoplasm of a cell is at pH 7, and the interior of an organelle is pH 8, this means that A) the concentration of hydrogen ions is tenfold higher in the cytoplasm than in the organelle. B) the concentration of hydrogen ions is tenfold higher in the organelle than in the cytoplasm. C) the concentration of hydrogen ions in the cytoplasm is 7/8 the concentration in the organelle. D) the organelle is more acidic than the cytoplasm. E) the concentration of hydrogen ions in the cytoplasm is 8/7 the concentration in the organelle. Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5

2.2 Art Questions 1)

Figure 2.1 Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described in Figure 2.1? A) They are compounds. B) They are polymers. C) They are isotopes. D) They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively. E) They each contain 1 neutron. Answer: C Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2

Figure 2.2 2) Refer to Figure 2.2 (first three rows of the periodic table). If life arose on a planet where carbon is absent, which element might fill the role of carbon in compounds essential to life? A) boron B) silicon C) nitrogen D) aluminum E) phosphorus Answer: B Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global L.O.: G2

Figure 2.3 3) Which drawing in Figure 2.3 depicts the electron configuration of an element with chemical properties most similar to those of helium (2He)? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.2

Figure 2.4 4) In Figure 2.4, how many electrons does nitrogen have in its valence shell? A) 2 B) 5 C) 7 D) 8 E) 14 Answer: B Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2

5) In Figure 2.4, how many unpaired electrons does phosphorus have in its valence shell? A) 15 B) 2 C) 3 D) 7 E) 5 Answer: C Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2 6) How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus-32 (32P) isotope (see Figure 2.4)? A) 5 B) 15 C) 16 D) 17 E) 32 Answer: D Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2 7) How many electrons does an atom of sulfur (S) have in its valence shell (see Figure 2.4)? A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 16 E) 32 Answer: B Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2 8) Based on electron configurations, which of the elements in Figure 2.4 would exhibit a chemical behavior most like that of oxygen? A) carbon (C) B) hydrogen (H) C) nitrogen (N) D) sulfur (S) E) phosphorus (P) Answer: D Topic: 2.2 An element's properties depend on the structure of its atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global L.O.: G2 35 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Figure 2.3 9) Which drawing in Figure 2.3 depicts the electron configuration of an atom that can form covalent bonds with up to two hydrogen atoms? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3 10) Which drawing in Figure 2.3 depicts the electron configuration of an atom capable of forming three covalent bonds with other atoms? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3 11) Which drawing in Figure 2.3 is of the electron configuration of a sodium 11Na+ ion? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3

Figure 2.6 12) What results from the chemical reaction illustrated in Figure 2.6? A) formation of a covalent bond B) formation of an ionic bond C) formation of a hydrogen bond D) formation of an anion with a net charge of +1 and a cation with a net charge of -1 Answer: B Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 13) What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction illustrated in Figure 2.6? A) 1 B) 8 C) 10 D) 11 E) 16 Answer: D Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3

14) Which of the atoms shown would be most likely to form a cation with a charge of +1? A)

Answer: A Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3

15) Which of the atoms shown would be most likely to form an anion with a charge of +1? A)

Answer: D Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3

16) Which of the following pairs of atoms would be most likely to form a polar covalent bond? A)

Answer: A Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3

17) Which of the following pairs of atoms would be most likely to form ions and thus an ionic bond with each other? A)

Answer: B Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3

18)

Figure 2.7 Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule depicted in Figure 2.7 is most likely A) positively charged. B) negatively charged. C) without charge. D) hydrophobic. E) nonpolar. Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 19)

Figure 2.5 Figure 2.5 shows a representation of formic acid. A formic acid molecule A) will dissociate in water, thus increasing the pH. B) will dissociate in water, thus decreasing the pH. C) contains primarily nonpolar covalent bonds. D) has a tetrahedral shape. Answer: B Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5

Figure 2.8 20) How many grams would be equal to 1 mol of the compound shown in Figure 2.8? (carbon = 12, oxygen = 16, hydrogen = 1) A) 29 B) 30 C) 60 D) 150 E) 342 Answer: C Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G4 21) How many grams of the compound in Figure 2.8 would be required to make 1 L of a 0.5 M solution? (carbon = 12, oxygen = 16, hydrogen = 1) A) 29 B) 30 C) 60 D) 180 E) 300 Answer: B Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G4

22) How many grams of the compound in Figure 2.8 would be required to make 2 L of a 1 M solution? (carbon = 12, oxygen = 16, hydrogen = 1) A) 29 B) 30 C) 60 D) 120 E) 180 Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G4

23) A small birthday candle is weighed. It is then lighted and placed beneath a metal can containing 100 mL of water. Careful records are kept as the temperature of the water rises. Data from this experiment are shown on the graph in Figure 2.9. What amount of heat energy is released in the burning of candle wax? (Note that 1 liter of pure water has a mass of 1 kg.)

Figure 2.9 A) 0.5 kilocalorie per gram of wax burned B) 5 kilocalories per gram of wax burned C) 10 kilocalories per gram of wax burned D) 20 kilocalories per gram of wax burned E) 50 kilocalories per gram of wax burned Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.5; V&C C2 Global L.O.: G2, G3, G4

24) Identical heat lamps are arranged to shine on identical containers of water and methanol (wood alcohol) so that each liquid absorbs the same amount of energy minute by minute. The covalent bonds of methanol molecules are nonpolar, so there are no hydrogen bonds among methanol molecules. Which of the following graphs correctly describes what will happen to the temperature of the water and the methanol? A)

Answer: B Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2, G3

25) Carbon dioxide (CO2) is readily soluble in water, according to the equation CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3. Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is a weak acid. If CO2 is bubbled into a beaker containing pure, freshly distilled water, which of the following graphs correctly describes the results? A)

Answer: B Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2, G3 2.3 Scenario Questions 1) Scientists have synthesized a new artificial compound to mimic the effects of a hormone that influences sexual behavior. Which of the following compounds is most likely to mimic the effects of the hormone? A) a compound with the same number of carbon atoms as the hormone B) a compound with the same molecular mass (measured in daltons) as the hormone C) a compound with the same three-dimensional shape as part of the hormone D) a compound with the same number of valence electrons as the hormone E) a compound with the same number of oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen atoms as the hormone Answer: C Topic: 2.3 The formation and function of molecules depend on chemical bonding between atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global L.O.: G2 2) You have two beakers. One contains pure water; the other contains pure methanol (wood alcohol). The covalent bonds of methanol molecules are nonpolar, so there are no hydrogen bonds among methanol molecules. You pour crystals of table salt (NaCl) into each beaker. Predict what will happen. A) Equal amounts of NaCl crystals will dissolve in both water and methanol. B) NaCl crystals will not dissolve in either water or methanol. C) NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in water but will not dissolve in methanol. D) NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in methanol but will not dissolve in water. Answer: C Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2 49 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) You have two beakers. One contains a solution of HCl at pH = 1.0. The other contains a solution of NaOH at pH = 13. Into a third beaker, you slowly and cautiously pour 20 mL of the HCl and 20 mL of the NaOH. After complete stirring, the pH of the mixture will be A) 2.0. B) 12.0. C) 7.0. D) 5.0. E) 9.0. Answer: C Topic: 2.5 Hydrogen bonding gives water properties that help make life possible on Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global L.O.: G2 2.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) The reactivity of an atom arises from A) the average distance of the outermost electron shell from the nucleus. B) the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell. C) the sum of the potential energies of all the electron shells. D) the potential energy of the valence shell. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following statements correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium? A) The concentrations of products and reactants are equal. B) The reaction is now irreversible. C) Both forward and reverse reactions have halted. D) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature? A) water's change in density when it condenses B) water's ability to dissolve molecules in the air C) the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds D) the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4) We can be sure that a mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C are equal in their A) mass. B) volume. C) number of atoms. D) number of molecules. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Measurements show that the pH of a particular lake is 4.0. What is the hydrogen ion concentration of the lake? A) 4.0 M B) 10−4 M C) 104 M D) 10−10 M Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The atomic number of sulfur is 16. Sulfur combines with hydrogen by covalent bonding to form a compound, hydrogen sulfide. Based on the number of valence electrons in a sulfur atom, predict the molecular formula of the compound. A) HS B) HS2 C) H2S D) H3S2 Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) What coefficients must be placed in the following blanks so that all atoms are accounted for in the products? C6H12O6 → ________ C2H6O + ________ CO2 A) 1; 2 B) 3; 1 C) 1; 3 D) 2; 2 Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

8) A slice of pizza has 500 kcal. If we could burn the pizza and use all the heat to warm a 50-L container of cold water, what would be the approximate increase in the temperature of the water? (Note: A liter of cold water weighs about 1 kg.) A) 50°C B) 5°C C) 1°C D) 10°C Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 3 Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life 3.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following structures is formed by the atoms involved when a carbon atom is bound by single covalent bonds to four other atoms? A) sphere B) cube C) tetrahedron D) line E) plane Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1, V&C 2 2) When two carbon atoms are joined by a double bond, the carbons and atoms bound to them form which of the following structures? A) sphere B) cube C) tetrahedron D) line E) plane. Answer: E Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1, V&C 2 3) How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 8 Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1, V&C 2

4) How many electron pairs are shared between two carbon atoms when they are joined by a double bond? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1, V&C 2 5) A carbon atom is most likely to form which of the following bonds with other atoms? A) ionic bonds B) hydrogen bonds C) covalent bonds D) covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1, V&C 2 6) Ibuprofen is a drug commonly used to relieve inflammation and pain. It is a mixture of two enantiomers, which are molecules that A) have identical chemical formulas but differ in the branching of their carbon skeletons. B) are mirror images of one another. C) exist in either linear chain or ring forms. D) differ in the arrangement of atoms around their double bonds. Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1, V&C 2

7) Ethane (C2H6) gas is a molecule that consists of two tetrahedral groups of single-bonded atoms. Which of the following would change the configuration of these atoms from a tetrahedral configuration to a planar configuration? A) the presence of single covalent bonds between the two carbon atoms and single covalent bonds between carbon and hydrogen atoms B) the presence of single covalent bonds between the two carbon atoms and double covalent bonds between carbon and hydrogen atoms C) the presence of double covalent bonds between the two carbon atoms and single covalent bonds between carbon and hydrogen atoms D) the presence of triple covalent bonds between the two carbon atoms and single covalent bonds between carbon and hydrogen atoms Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 8) Hydroxyl groups are the primary chemical group associated with a particular biologically important macromolecule. Which of the following statements regarding this macromolecule is true? A) It is likely to have a planar structure. B) It is unlikely to dissolve in water. C) It will likely dissolve in nonpolar solvents. D) It will likely form hydrogen bonds with water. Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.1, V&C 2 9) Testosterone and estradiol are male and female sex hormones, respectively, in many vertebrates. How do these molecules differ from each other? A) Testosterone and estradiol are structural isomers but have the same molecular formula. B) Testosterone and estradiol are cis-trans isomers but have the same molecular formula. C) Testosterone and estradiol have different functional groups attached to the same carbon skeleton. D) Testosterone and estradiol are enantiomers of the same organic molecule. Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1, V&C 2

10) Which of the following will be most soluble in water? A) organic hydrocarbons B) organic hydrocarbons with hydroxyl groups attached C) organic hydrocarbons with sulfhydryl groups attached D) organic hydrocarbons with methyl groups attached Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1, V&C 2 11) Which of the following common chemical groups is hydrophobic? A) amino B) methyl C) carboxyl D) hydroxyl Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1, V&C 2 12) Which of the following functional groups confers the properties of an acid on amino acids? A) amino B) carbonyl C) carboxyl D) phosphate E) hydroxyl Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 13) A carbon skeleton is covalently bonded to both an amino group and a carboxyl group. When placed in water, it A) will function only as an acid because of the carboxyl group. B) will function only as a base because of the amino group. C) will function as both an acid and a base. D) will function as neither an acid nor a base. Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

14) Which functional group can act as a base? A) amino B) phosphate C) hydroxyl D) carboxyl E) methyl Answer: A Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 15) Which of the following functional groups may be used to form polymers via dehydration reactions? A) only hydroxyl groups B) only carbonyl groups C) only carboxyl groups D) either hydroxyl or carboxyl groups E) either carbonyl or carboxyl groups Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Macromolecules are polymers, built from monomers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.2, V&C 2 16) What is a common chemical reaction mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers? A) decreasing the pH B) hydrolysis reactions C) dehydration reactions D) the formation of ionic bonds between monomers Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Macromolecules are polymers, built from monomers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.2 17) Which of the following chemical equations describes a hydrolysis reaction? A) monosaccharide + monosaccharide = disaccharide + H2O B) monosaccharide + monosaccharide + H2O = disaccharide C) disaccharide = monosaccharide + monosaccharide + H2O D) disaccharide + H2O = monosaccharide + monosaccharide Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Macromolecules are polymers, built from monomers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global L.O.: G2

18) Which of the following chemical equations describes a dehydration reaction? A) monosaccharide + monosaccharide = disaccharide + H2O B) monosaccharide + monosaccharide + H2O = disaccharide C) disaccharide = monosaccharide + monosaccharide + H2O D) disaccharide + H2O = monosaccharide + monosaccharide Answer: A Topic: 3.2 Macromolecules are polymers, built from monomers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global L.O.: G2 19) How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a polysaccharide that is 10 monomers long? A) 12 B) 11 C) 10 D) 9 Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Macromolecules are polymers, built from monomers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 20) Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis? A) Dehydration reactions split water molecules and add hydroxyl groups to polymers, and hydrolysis reactions remove hydroxyl groups from polymers. B) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers. C) Dehydration reactions create monomers, and hydrolysis reactions assemble polymers. D) Dehydration reactions break down polymers, and hydrolysis reactions create monomers. Answer: B Topic: 3.2 Macromolecules are polymers, built from monomers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.2

21) The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions? A) C18H36O18 B) C18H32O16 C) C6H10O5 D) C18H30O15 E) C16H36O16 Answer: B Topic: 3.2 Macromolecules are polymers, built from monomers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.2; V&C 2, C2 Global L.O.: G2, G4 22) Which of the following statements is true of both starch and cellulose? A) They are both polymers of glucose. B) They are cis-trans isomers of each other. C) They can both be digested by humans. D) They are both used for energy storage in plants. E) They are both structural components of the plant cell wall. Answer: A Topic: 3.3 Carbohydrates serve as fuel and building material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3, V&C 2 23) Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because A) the monomer of starch is glucose, whereas the monomer of cellulose is glucose modified by the addition of a nitrogen-containing group. B) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the β glycosidic linkages of starch but not the α glycosidic linkages of cellulose. C) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the α glycosidic linkages of starch but not the β glycosidic linkages of cellulose. D) humans harbor starch-digesting bacteria in the digestive tract but not cellulose-digesting bacteria. Answer: C Topic: 3.3 Carbohydrates serve as fuel and building material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3, V&C 2

24) Which of the following statements is true regarding cellulose? A) It is a polymer composed of enantiomers of glucose. B) It is a primary structural component of plant cell walls. C) It is digestible by bacteria in the human gut. D) It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells. E) It is a polymer of glucose joined by α glycosidic linkages. Answer: B Topic: 3.3 Carbohydrates serve as fuel and building material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 25) Which of the following polymers are assembled with monomers containing nitrogen? A) starch B) glycogen C) cellulose D) chitin Answer: D Topic: 3.3 Carbohydrates serve as fuel and building material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3, V&C 2 26) Amylase is an enzyme that hydrolyzes glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are the α form. Which of the following macromolecules can be broken down by amylase? A) starch B) cellulose C) chitin D) starch and chitin Answer: A Topic: 3.3 Carbohydrates serve as fuel and building material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 27) The term insoluble fiber on food packaging generally refers to which of the following carbohydrates? A) cellulose B) sucrose C) starch D) glycogen Answer: A Topic: 3.3 Carbohydrates serve as fuel and building material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3

28) Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified? A) as a pentose B) as a hexose C) as a monosaccharide D) as a disaccharide E) as a polysaccharide Answer: D Topic: 3.3 Carbohydrates serve as fuel and building material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 29) Which of the following is the smallest carbohydrate? A) sucrose B) glycogen C) chitin D) cellulose E) starch Answer: A Topic: 3.3 Carbohydrates serve as fuel and building material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 30) Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water? A) The majority of their bonds are polar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages. B) The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages. C) They are hydrophilic. D) They exhibit considerable molecular complexity and diversity. Answer: B Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4, V&C 2 31) Which of the following statements concerning saturated fats is true? A) They are more common in plants than in animals. B) They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids. C) They are generally solid at room temperature. D) They contain fewer hydrogen atoms than unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms. Answer: C Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4, V&C 2

32) A molecule with the formula C18H36O2 is most likely a A) fatty acid. B) carbohydrate. C) hydrocarbon. D) polysaccharide. Answer: A Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.4, V&C 2 33) Which of the following statements regarding lipids is true? A) They generally contain nitrogen. B) They are made from glycerol and amino acids. C) A gram of lipid stores less energy than a gram of carbohydrate. D) They are insoluble in water. Answer: D Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4, V&C 2 34) A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is most likely a A) hydrocarbon. B) lipid. C) monosaccharide. D) glycerol. Answer: C Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4, V&C 2 35) Hydrogenated vegetable oil is the primary ingredient in margarine. How does hydrogenated vegetable oil differ from nonhydrogenated vegetable oil? A) Hydrogenated vegetable oil has a lower melting point than nonhydrogenated vegetable oil. B) Hydrogenated vegetable oil is solid at room temperature, whereas nonhydrogenated vegetable oil is liquid. C) Hydrogenated vegetable oil has more kinks in its fatty acid chains than does nonhydrogenated vegetable oil. D) Hydrogenated vegetable oil contains more cis fatty acids than nonhydrogenated vegetable oil. Answer: B Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.4, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

36) Which of the following statements regarding saturated fatty acids is true? A) They are the predominant fatty acid in corn oil. B) They contain one or two double bonds in their hydrocarbon tails. C) They are the principal molecules in lard and butter. D) They are usually liquid at room temperature. E) They are the primary lipids produced by plants. Answer: C Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4, V&C 2 37) Which of the following large biological molecules will self-assemble into a bilayer when mixed with water? A) steroids B) triacylglycerols C) cellulose D) phospholipids Answer: D Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.4, V&C 2 38) Why are the vertebrate sex hormones estrogen and testosterone considered to be lipids? A) They are essential components of cell membranes. B) Their carbon skeletons are composed of primarily C—C and C—H bonds. C) They are made of fatty acids. D) They are hydrophilic compounds. Answer: B Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4, V&C 2 39) Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids? A) hydroxyl and carboxyl B) carbonyl and amino C) ketone and amino D) carboxyl and amino Answer: D Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5

40) The biochemical reaction that joins two amino acids to form a dipeptide is accompanied by A) the addition of a water molecule. B) the release of a carbon dioxide molecule. C) the addition of a nitrogen atom. D) the release of a water molecule. Answer: D Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5 41) Polysaccharides, triacylglycerols, and proteins are similar in that they are A) synthesized from monomers by hydrolysis reactions. B) synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions. C) synthesized through the formation of peptide bonds between monomers. D) broken down into their subunits by dehydration reactions. Answer: B Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5 42) Dehydration reactions are responsible for the formation of which of the following? A) triacylglycerols B) monosaccharides C) amino acids D) fatty acids Answer: A Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5 43) Which of the following molecules lacks amino acids? A) hemoglobin B) insulin C) antibodies D) spider silk E) cholesterol Answer: E Topic: Concepts 3.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2

44) What structural feature makes the 20 common amino acids different from one another? A) different side chains (R groups) attached to the carboxyl carbon B) different side chains (R groups) attached to the amino groups C) different side chains (R groups) attached to an α carbon D) different asymmetric carbons Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 45) How many peptide bonds are present in a polypeptide that contains 45 amino acids? A) 90 B) 46 C) 45 D) 44 Answer: D Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 46) Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein? A) disulfide bonds B) hydrogen bonds C) peptide bonds D) phosphodiester bonds Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 47) Which bonds maintain the primary structure of a protein? A) disulfide bonds B) hydrogen bonds C) ionic bonds D) peptide bonds Answer: D Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2

48) What maintains the secondary structure of a protein? A) peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids B) hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond C) disulfide bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the R group of another amino acid D) hydrogen bonds between the carboxyl group of one peptide bond and the R group of another amino acid Answer: B Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 49) Which type of interaction stabilizes the α helix and the β pleated sheet structures of proteins? A) hydrophobic interactions B) ionic bonds C) hydrogen bonds D) peptide bonds E) covalent bonds Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5 50) The α helix and β pleated sheet are examples of which level of protein structure? A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) primary and tertiary Answer: B Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 51) Lactase is an enzyme composed of a single polypeptide that hydrolyzes the disaccharide lactose to produce monosaccharides. The optimal pH for lactase activity is 6. Transfer of lactase to pH 5 results in a substantial decrease in enzyme activity, likely due to the disruption of A) only the primary structure of the enzyme. B) the primary and secondary structures of the enzyme. C) the secondary and tertiary structures of the enzyme. D) the secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures of the enzyme. Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

52) Collagen is a protein made of three identical polypeptides composed primarily of α helix structure. The α helix is an example of a A) secondary structure stabilized by covalent bonds. B) secondary structure stabilized by hydrogen bonds. C) secondary structure stabilized by ionic bonds. D) tertiary structure stabilized by covalent bonds. E) tertiary structure stabilized by hydrogen bonds. Answer: B Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 53) The tertiary structure of a polypeptide is the A) linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide. B) localized region of a polypeptide chain that forms an α helix or β pleated sheet. C) overall three-dimensional shape of a fully folded polypeptide. D) overall three-dimensional shape of a protein composed of more than one polypeptide. Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5 54) A disulfide bridge is an example of which type of bond? A) ionic bond between R groups B) peptide bond between R groups C) hydrogen bond between R groups D) covalent bond between R groups Answer: D Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5 55) Bonds formed between the side chains (R groups) in a polypeptide are most important in stabilizing which of the following? A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2

56) The side chain (R group) of the amino acid serine is —CH2—OH. The side chain of the amino acid leucine is —CH2—CH—(CH3)2. Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution? A) Serine would be on the exterior, and leucine would be in the interior of the globular protein. B) Serine would be in the interior, and leucine would be on the exterior of the globular protein. C) Both serine and leucine would be in the interior of the globular protein. D) Both serine and leucine would be on the exterior of the globular protein. Answer: A Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 57) Changing a single amino acid in a protein consisting of 433 amino acids would A) always alter the primary structure of the protein but never alter its tertiary structure or function. B) always alter the primary structure of the protein and sometimes alter its tertiary structure or function. C) always alter the primary and tertiary structures of the protein but never alter its function. D) sometimes alter the primary and tertiary structures of the protein but always alter its function. Answer: B Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 58) Normal hemoglobin is a tetramer, consisting of two molecules of β-globin and two molecules of α-globin. In sickle-cell disease, because of a single amino acid change, the mutant hemoglobin tetramers associate with each other and assemble into large fibers. Based on this information alone, we can conclude that sickle-cell hemoglobin exhibits A) altered primary structure only. B) altered tertiary structure only. C) altered secondary and tertiary structures; the primary and quaternary structures may or may not be altered. D) altered quaternary structure only. E) altered primary structure and altered quaternary structure; the secondary and tertiary structures may or may not be altered. Answer: E Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

59) In a normal cellular protein, where would you expect to find a hydrophilic amino acid such as asparagine? A) in the interior of the folded protein, away from water B) on the exterior surface of the protein, interacting with water C) in the transmembrane portion, interacting with lipid fatty acid chains D) on the exterior surface of the protein, interacting with water, or in a transmembrane portion, interacting with lipid fatty acid chains Answer: B Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 60) Which of the following is a correct monomer/polymer pairing? A) monosaccharide/polypeptide B) amino acid/polysaccharide C) amino acid/polypeptide D) glycerol/triglyceride Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 61) If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 35S, which of these molecules will be radioactively labeled? A) triacylglycerols B) nucleic acids C) proteins D) starch Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 62) How will brief heating (to 95°C) affect macromolecular structures in aqueous solution? A) Unsaturated fatty acid tails will become saturated. B) Proteins will unfold (denature). C) Starch will hydrolyze into monomeric sugars. D) Proteins will hydrolyze into amino acids. Answer: B Topic: Concepts 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2

63) Which of the following is an example of a hydrolysis reaction? A) the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of water B) the reaction of a small polypeptide, forming amino acids with the release of water C) the reaction of a two amino acids, forming peptide bond with the consumption of water D) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the consumption of water Answer: D Topic: 3.5, Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 64) Which of the following is an example of a dehydration reaction? A) the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of water B) the reaction of a small polypeptide, forming amino acids with the release of water C) the reaction of a two amino acids, forming peptide bond with the consumption of water D) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the consumption of water Answer: A Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 65) Which of the following statements about the 5' ends of RNA polymers is correct? A) The 5' ends have hydroxyl groups attached to the number 5 carbons of ribose. B) The 5' ends have phosphate groups attached to the number 5 carbons of ribose. C) The 5' ends have phosphate groups attached to the number 5 carbons of the nitrogenous base. D) The 5' ends have nitrogenous bases attached to the number 5 carbons of ribose. Answer: B Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2 66) Which of the following molecules is not a polymer synthesized from several simple monomers? A) a steroid B) cellulose C) DNA D) an enzyme Answer: A Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2

67) Which of the following is a monomer used to build a biological polymer? A) amino acid B) disaccharide C) triglyceride D) DNA Answer: A Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2 68) One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to A) transmit genetic information to offspring. B) function in the synthesis of proteins. C) make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic continuity. D) act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA. Answer: B Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2 69) If 14C-labeled uracil is added to the growth medium of cells, what macromolecules will be labeled? A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) DNA D) RNA E) both DNA and RNA Answer: D Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 70) A nucleotide is composed of A) a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group. B) a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar. C) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar. D) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, a pentose sugar, and an amino acid. Answer: C Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2

71) Which of the following are pyrimidines? A) adenine and thymine B) adenine and guanine C) cytosine and uracil D) cytosine and guanine Answer: C Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6 72) Which of the following are purines? A) cytosine and guanine B) guanine and adenine C) adenine and thymine D) thymine and uracil E) uracil and cytosine Answer: B Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6 73) Which of the following polymers lacks nitrogen? A) protein B) RNA C) glycogen D) chitin Answer: C Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2 74) Which of the following classes of biological molecules consist of both small molecule monomers and macromolecular polymers? A) lipids B) carbohydrates C) proteins D) nucleic acids Answer: B Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2

75) If a DNA sample were composed of 20% guanine, what would be the percentage of cytosine? A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 60 Answer: A Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2 76) If a DNA sample were composed of 15% adenine, what would be the percentage of guanine? A) 15 B) 30 C) 35 D) 45 Answer: C Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 77) If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 32P, which of these molecules will be radioactively labeled? A) triacylglycerols B) nucleic acids C) fatty acids D) starch Answer: B Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2 78) A double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 120 base pairs. This DNA molecule could be composed of A) 40 adenine, 20 guanine, 20 cytosine, and 40 uracil molecules. B) 120 adenine and 120 guanine molecules. C) 30 adenine, 30 guanine, 30 cytosine, and 30 thymine molecules. D) 50 adenine, 70 guanine, 70 cytosine, and 50 thymine molecules. Answer: D Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

79) The difference between the sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in DNA A) is a six-carbon sugar, and the sugar in RNA is a five-carbon sugar. B) is a five-carbon sugar, and the sugar in RNA is a six-carbon sugar. C) is in the α configuration, and the sugar in RNA is in the β configuration. D) contains one less oxygen atom than the sugar in RNA. Answer: D Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6 80) The sequence 5'-GAACUT-3' may be found in which of the following? A) DNA only B) RNA only C) either DNA or RNA D) neither DNA nor RNA Answer: D Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2 81) The sequence 5'-GAACGA'3' may be found in which of the following? A) DNA only B) RNA only C) either DNA or RNA D) neither DNA nor RNA Answer: C Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2 82) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'-ATTGCA-3', the other complementary strand would have the sequence A) 5-'TAACGT-3'. B) 5'-TGCAAT-3'. C) 5'-UAACGU-3'. D) 3'-UAACGU-5'. Answer: B Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.6, V&C 2

83) If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 15N, which of these molecules will be labeled? A) fatty acids only B) nucleic acids only C) proteins only D) both fatty acids and proteins E) both proteins and nucleic acids Answer: E Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.6 Global L.O.: G2 84) DNase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would first happen to DNA molecules treated with DNase? A) The two strands of the double helix would separate. B) The bonds between deoxyribose phosphate groups would be broken. C) The deoxyribose and bases would be broken. D) Oxygen atoms would be removed from the deoxyribose sugars. Answer: B Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6 3.2 Art Questions 1)

Figure 3.1 The two molecules shown in Figure 3.1 are best described as A) optical isomers. B) enantiomers. C) structural isomers. D) cis-trans isomers. Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Figure 3.2 What is the name of the functional group shown in Figure 3.2? A) carbonyl B) ketone C) aldehyde D) carboxyl E) hydroxyl Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1

Figure 3.3 3) Which of the structures illustrated in Figure 3.3 could not be formed by typical covalent bonds? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.1 4) Which of the structures illustrated in Figure 3.3 contain(s) a carbonyl functional group? A) A B) C and D C) C D) D E) D and E Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 5) In which structure(s) illustrated in Figure 3.3 are all bonds with hydrogen polar covalent bonds? A) A only B) A and D C) A and C D) D only Answer: A Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.1 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) Which of the structures illustrated in Figure 3.3 contain(s) only nonpolar single covalent bonds? A) A only B) B only C) B and C D) B and D E) B and E Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.1

Figure 3.4 7) Which functional group shown in Figure 3.4 is characteristic of alcohols? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 8) Which two functional groups shown in Figure 3.4 are present in all amino acids? A) A and B B) A and D C) B and D D) C and D E) C and E Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) During the synthesis of a polypeptide, the next amino acid in the growing polymer is added to which functional group shown in Figure 3.4? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.1 10) Which of the groups shown in Figure 3.4 is a functional group that helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent cross-links within or between protein molecules? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 11) Which of the groups in Figure 3.4 is an acidic functional group that can dissociate and release H+ into a solution? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 12) Which of the groups in Figure 3.4 is a basic functional group that can accept H+ ions and become positively charged? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Figure 3.5 13) Which molecule shown in Figure 3.5 would have a positive charge in a cell? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 14) Which molecule(s) shown in Figure 3.5 is (are) ionized in a cell? A) A only B) B and D C) D and E D) D only E) E only Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.1

15) Which molecules shown in Figure 3.5 contain a carbonyl group? A) A and B B) B and C C) B, C, and D D) D and E E) E and A Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 16) Which molecule shown in Figure 3.5 contains a carboxyl group? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 17) Which molecule shown in Figure 3.5 can increase the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution and is therefore an organic acid? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 18) Which molecule shown in Figure 3.5 has a carbonyl functional group in the form of a ketone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1

19) Which molecule shown in Figure 3.5 has a carbonyl functional group in the form of an aldehyde? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1

Figure 3.6 20) Which molecule shown in Figure 3.6 is a thiol? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1

21) Which molecule shown in Figure 3.6 contains an amino functional group but is not an amino acid? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 22) Which molecule shown in Figure 3.6 contains a functional group that cells use to transfer energy between organic molecules? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.1 23) Which molecule shown in Figure 3.6 can function as a base? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 24) Which molecule shown in Figure 3.6 can form a covalent bond between side chains (R groups) in a polypeptide? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5 31 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Figure 3.7 25) If two of the molecules shown in Figure 3.7 are linked together, carbon-1 of one molecule to carbon-4 of the other, the bond that is formed would be found in which of the following polymers? A) cellulose B) glycogen C) chitin D) polypeptide E) nucleic acid Answer: B Topic: 3.3 Carbohydrates serve as fuel and building material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 26) Which of the following types of molecules is shown in Figure 3.7? A) pentose B) fructose C) α glucose D) β glucose E) ribose Answer: C Topic: 3.3 Carbohydrates serve as fuel and building material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3

Figure 3.8 27) Which of the following statements regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 3.8 is true? A) It is a saturated fatty acid. B) It is an entirely nonpolar molecule. C) Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature. D) It would be highly soluble in water. Answer: A Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4

Figure 3.9 28) Which of the following statements regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 3.9 is true? A) It is a saturated fatty acid. B) It is an entirely nonpolar molecule. C) Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature. D) It is highly soluble in water. Answer: C Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 29) The molecule shown in Figure 3.9 is a(n) A) polysaccharide. B) saturated fatty acid. C) triacylglycerol. D) unsaturated fatty acid. Answer: D Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4

30)

Figure 3.10 What is the structure shown in Figure 3.10? A) fatty acid molecule B) steroid molecule C) triacylglycerol molecule D) phospholipid molecule Answer: B Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 31)

Figure 3.11 Which of the following statements regarding the chemical reaction illustrated in Figure 3.11 is true? A) It is a hydrolysis reaction. B) It results in a peptide bond. C) It forms a disaccharide. D) It forms two amino acids. Answer: B Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5 34 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Figure 3.12 32) At which bond in Figure 3.12 would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the dipeptide resulting in production of its component amino acids? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5 33) Which bond in Figure 3.12 is a peptide bond? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5 34) Which bond in Figure 3.12 is closest to the amino-terminus of the molecule? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5

35) Which bond in Figure 3.12 is farthest from an alpha-carbon? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5 3.3 Scenario Questions 1) A chemist wishes to make an organic molecule less acidic. Which of the following functional groups should be added to the molecule in order to do so? A) carboxyl B) sulfhydryl C) hydroxyl D) amino E) phosphate Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Carbon atoms can form diverse molecules by bonding to four other atoms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.1 Global L.O.: G2 2) Approximately 32 different monomeric carbohydrate subunits are found in various natural polysaccharides. Proteins are composed of 20 different amino acids. DNA and RNA are each synthesized from four nucleotides. Which class of biological polymer has the greatest functional variety? A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) DNA D) RNA Answer: B Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global L.O.: G2

3) A new organism is discovered in the forests of Costa Rica. Scientists there determine that the polypeptide sequence of hemoglobin from the new organism has 72 amino acid differences from humans, 65 differences from a gibbon, 49 differences from a rat, and 5 differences from a frog. These data suggest that the new organism is more closely related to A) humans than to frogs. B) frogs than to humans. C) rats than to frogs. D) humans than to rats. E) gibbons than to rats. Answer: B Topic: 3.5 Proteins include a diversity of structures, resulting in a wide range of functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global L.O.: G2 4) A nutritional supplement developed for athletes is shown to contain only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Based on these data, you may safely conclude that A) the food may contain carbohydrates and protein. B) the food may contain carbohydrates and nucleic acids. C) the food may contain lipids and protein. D) the food may contain carbohydrates and lipids but not protein. Answer: D Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.6 Global L.O.: G2 5) A nutritional supplement developed for athletes is shown to contain only carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and sulfur. Based on these data, you may safely conclude that A) the food may contain carbohydrates, lipids, and protein. B) the food may contain carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids. C) the food may contain carbohydrates, phospholipids, and protein. D) the food may contain carbohydrates and lipids but not protein. Answer: A Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.6 Global L.O.: G2

6) A nutritional supplement developed for athletes is shown to contain only carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen. Based on these data, you may safely conclude that A) the food does not contain protein. B) the food does not contain nucleic acids. C) the food does not contain carbohydrates. D) the food does not contain lipids. Answer: B Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.6 Global L.O.: G2 7) A scientist suspects that food in an ecosystem may have been contaminated by radioactive nitrogen over a period of several months. Which of the following should be isolated from mammals living in the ecosystem and examined for radioactivity in order to test the hypothesis? A) glycogen B) phospholipids C) hair D) fat Answer: C Topic: 3.6 Nucleic acids store, transmit, and help express hereditary information Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 3.6 Global L.O.: G2 8) A food company wishes to convert corn oil into a spread that is solid at room temperature. One way to accomplish this goal would be to A) remove hydrogens, increasing the number of double bonds in the oil molecules. B) remove hydrogens, decreasing the number of double bonds in the oil molecules. C) add hydrogens, increasing the number of double bonds in the oil molecules. D) add hydrogens, decreasing the number of double bonds in the oil molecules. Answer: D Topic: 3.4 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global L.O.: G2

3.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Choose the term that correctly describes the relationship between these two sugar molecules:

A) structural isomers B) cis-trans isomers C) enantiomers D) isotopes Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which functional group is not present in this molecule?

A) carboxyl B) sulfhydryl C) hydroxyl D) amino Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3) Which chemical group is most likely to be responsible for an organic molecule behaving as a base (see Concept 2.5)? A) hydroxyl B) carbonyl C) amino D) phosphate Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following categories includes all others in the list? A) disaccharide B) starch C) carbohydrate D) polysaccharide Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is true? A) They are more common in animals than in plants. B) They have double bonds in their fatty acid chains. C) They generally solidify at room temperature. D) They contain more hydrogen than do saturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the A) primary level. B) secondary level. C) tertiary level. D) quaternary level. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes? A) The two strands of the double helix would separate. B) The phosphodiester linkages of the polynucleotide backbone would be broken. C) The pyrimidines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars. D) All bases would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Which of the following hydrocarbons has a double bond in its carbon skeleton? A) C3H8 B) C2H6 C) C2H4 D) C2H2 Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a polymer made by linking 10 glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions? A) C60H120O60 B) C60H102O51 C) C60H100O50 D) C60H111O51 Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 4 A Tour of the Cell 4.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they can achieve the finest resolution by using a A) phase-contrast light microscope. B) scanning electron microscope. C) transmission electronic microscope. D) confocal fluorescence microscope. Answer: C Topic: 4.1 Biologists use microscopes and biochemistry to study cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G1 2) One advantage of light microscopy over transmission electron microscopy is that A) specimen preparation for light microcopy does not produce artifacts. B) light microscopy provides for higher resolving power than transmission electron microscopy. C) light microscopy provides for higher magnification than transmission electron microscopy. D) light microscopy allows you to view dynamic processes in living cells. Answer: D Topic: 4.1 Biologists use microscopes and biochemistry to study cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G1 3) Cell fractionation is commonly used in biological research to A) sort cells based on their size and weight. B) visualize the 3-D structure of cell membranes. C) isolate organelles to examine their biological functions. D) examine the distribution of organelles within the cell. Answer: C Topic: 4.1 Biologists use microscopes and biochemistry to study cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G1

4) A researcher disrupts cells and separates subcellular components using centrifugation. What is the primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular component remains in the liquid solution or ends up in the pellet? A) the relative size and weight of the component B) the relative solubility of the component C) how hydrophobic the component is D) the carbohydrate composition of the component Answer: A Topic: 4.1 Biologists use microscopes and biochemistry to study cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G1 5) A researcher disrupts cells and separates subcellular components using centrifugation. Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular components will pellet when disrupted cell mixtures are centrifuged at increasingly higher speeds? A) ribosomes, nuclei, mitochondria B) chloroplasts, ribosomes, pieces of membrane C) nucleus, ribosomes, chloroplasts D) nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes Answer: D Topic: 4.1 Biologists use microscopes and biochemistry to study cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G1 6) What is the primary reason that a modern transmission electron microscope (TEM) can resolve biological structures as small as 2 nm, whereas 200 nm is the limit of resolution for a light microscope? A) Diffraction of light by a light microscope distorts the image. B) Contrast is enhanced by staining with atoms of heavy metal. C) Electron beams have much shorter wavelengths than visible light. D) TEM is used to visualize very thin sections of cells. Answer: C Topic: 4.1 Biologists use microscopes and biochemistry to study cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global L.O.: G2

7) What technique would be most appropriate to use to observe the movements of condensed chromosomes during cell division? A) standard light microscopy B) a hand lens (magnifying glass) C) transmission electron microscopy D) scanning electron microscopy Answer: A Topic: 4.1 Biologists use microscopes and biochemistry to study cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 4.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 8) The smallest cell structures that would most likely be visible with a standard (not superresolution) research-grade light microscope are A) microtubules. B) chloroplasts. C) ribosomes. D) nuclear pores. Answer: B Topic: 4.1 Biologists use microscopes and biochemistry to study cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1, V&C 2 9) Which of the following molecules or structures may be found in eukaryotic cells but not in bacteria? A) DNA B) flagella C) plasma membrane D) ribosomes E) endoplasmic reticulum Answer: E Topic: 4.2 Eukaryotic cells have internal membranes that compartmentalize their functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2, V&C 2 10) Which of the following structures will be found in nearly all eukaryotic cells? A) cell wall B) mitochondria C) chloroplast D) nucleoid E) flagella Answer: B Topic: 4.2 Eukaryotic cells have internal membranes that compartmentalize their functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2, V&C 2

11) Which of the following statements concerning cells of bacteria and archaea is correct? A) Archaea contain small membrane-enclosed organelles; bacteria do not. B) Archaea contain a membrane-bound nucleus; bacteria do not. C) Chromosomes in both archaea and bacteria contain DNA. D) Mitochondria are present in some bacteria and all archaea. Answer: C Topic: 4.2 Eukaryotic cells have internal membranes that compartmentalize their functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2, V&C 2 12) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains? A) Bacteria and Eukaryotes B) Bacteria and Protists C) Bacteria and Fungi D) Bacteria and Archaea Answer: D Topic: 4.2 Eukaryotic cells have internal membranes that compartmentalize their functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2, V&C 2 13) Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules? A) lipids B) glycogen C) proteins D) cellulose E) nucleic acids Answer: C Topic: 4.3 The eukaryotic cell's genetic instructions are housed in the nucleus and carried out by the ribosomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3, V&C 2 14) If a treatment were available that would disrupt the nuclear lamina in living cells, what would you expect to be the most likely immediate consequence for the cell? A) the loss of chromosome function B) the inability of the nucleus to divide during cell division C) a change in the shape of the nucleus D) closure of nuclear pores disrupting transport of materials into and out of the nucleus Answer: C Topic: 4.3 The eukaryotic cell's genetic instructions are housed in the nucleus and carried out by the ribosomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 4.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

15) A cell with an abundance of free ribosomes is most likely carrying out which of the following processes? A) producing primarily proteins for secretion B) producing primarily cytoplasmic proteins C) producing primarily cell wall or extracellular matrix components D) producing primarily an abundance of new membranes E) producing primarily vacuole contents Answer: B Topic: 4.3 The eukaryotic cell's genetic instructions are housed in the nucleus and carried out by the ribosomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.3, V&C 2 16) Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins destined for export from the cell? A) smooth ER B) lysosomes C) rough ER D) Golgi vesicles E) free cytoplasmic ribosomes Answer: C Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2 17) Proteins that will be exported from the cell are synthesized by which of the following cellular components? A) smooth ER B) lysosomes C) rough ER D) Golgi vesicles E) free cytoplasmic ribosomes Answer: C Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2

18) The total volume of plant cells is often significantly greater than the total volume in animal cells. The most reasonable explanation for this observation is that A) plant cells are capable of having a much higher surface-to-volume ratio than animal cells. B) plant cells have a much more highly convoluted (folded) plasma membrane than animal cells. C) plant cells contain a large vacuole that occupies much of the volume of the cell. D) animal cells are spherical, whereas plant cells are elongated. Answer: C Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 19) The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells? A) rough ER B) smooth ER C) Golgi apparatus D) nuclear envelope E) lysosomes Answer: B Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2 20) Which of the following statements is a plausible description of some aspect of protein secretion from prokaryotic cells? A) Prokaryotes are unlikely to be able to secrete proteins because they lack an endomembrane system. B) The mechanism of protein secretion in prokaryotes is probably the same as that in eukaryotes. C) Proteins that are secreted by prokaryotes may be synthesized on ribosomes that are associated with the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane. D) In prokaryotes, the ribosomes that are involved in the synthesis of secreted proteins are located outside of the cell. Answer: C Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

21) Which organelle or structure is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids? A) ribosome B) lysosome C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi apparatus Answer: C Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2 22) Which of the following statements correctly describes a function of the Golgi apparatus? A) detoxification of drugs B) protein modification and sorting C) synthesis of cytoplasmic proteins D) production of ribosomal subunits Answer: B Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2 23) A mutation that inactivates an enzyme involved in the modification of sugars associated with glycoproteins is most likely to affect the function of which of the following cellular structures? A) smooth ER B) cisternae of the Golgi apparatus C) transport vesicles produced by the rough ER D) transport vesicles produced by the trans face of the Golgi apparatus Answer: B Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

24) Hydrolytic enzymes must be segregated and packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. In animal cells, which of the following organelles contains these hydrolytic enzymes? A) smooth ER B) lysosomes C) central vacuoles D) peroxisomes Answer: B Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2 25) Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating very large, complex, undigested lipids. Which cellular organelle is likely to be defective in this condition? A) the rough endoplasmic reticulum B) the Golgi apparatus C) the lysosome D) the smooth endoplasmic reticulum Answer: C Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 26) Which of the following organelles produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted by a eukaryotic cell? A) lysosome B) peroxisome C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus Answer: D Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2

27) One of the key innovations in the evolution of eukaryotes from a prokaryotic ancestor is the endomembrane system. Which eukaryotic organelles or features might have evolved as a part of, or as an elaboration of, the endomembrane system? A) plasma membrane B) chloroplasts C) mitochondria D) nuclear envelope Answer: D Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 1, 2 Global L.O.: G2 28) Some key innovations in the evolution of eukaryotic cells from a prokaryotic ancestor are membrane-bound organelles. Which of the following organelles or features is a common structure shared by both eukaryotic cells and their prokaryotic ancestors? A) ribosomes B) chloroplasts C) mitochondria D) nuclear envelope Answer: A Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 1, 2 29) Which organelle occupies much of the volume of a plant cell? A) nucleus B) central vacuole C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) peroxisome Answer: B Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2

30) Which of the following correctly describes the pathway taken by a protein destined for secretion from an animal cell? A) plasma membrane → transport vesicle → Golgi → transport vesicle → rough ER B) Golgi → rough ER → transport vesicle → plasma membrane C) rough ER → transport vesicle → lysosome → transport vesicle → plasma membrane D) rough ER → transport vesicle → Golgi → transport vesicle → plasma membrane E) rough ER → transport vesicle → Golgi → transport vesicle → lysosome → plasma membrane Answer: D Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 31) A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, chloroplasts, and mitochondria. It could be A) a bacterial cell. B) a plant cell but not an animal cell. C) an archaeal cell or a plant cell. D) an animal cell or a plant cell. Answer: B Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2 32) Plastids are only found in which of the following types of cells or organisms? A) bacteria B) archaea C) plant cells D) animal cells Answer: C Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2 33) Why isn't the mitochondrion classified as part of the endomembrane system? A) It has a double membrane structure. B) It is not involved in protein synthesis. C) It produces a special class of transport vesicles. D) It is not derived from the endoplasmic reticulum or Golgi. Answer: D Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 34) What types of proteins are synthesized somewhere other than the rough ER? 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) plasma membrane proteins B) nuclear envelope proteins C) secreted proteins D) mitochondrial membrane proteins Answer: D Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2 35) Which of the following types of proteins are synthesized by the rough ER? A) ribosomal proteins B) cytosolic proteins C) mitochondrial proteins D) lysosomal proteins Answer: D Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2 36) Which plant cell organelle contains its own DNA and ribosomes? A) rough ER B) vacuole C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) peroxisome Answer: C Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2 37) Which animal cell organelle contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to oxygen? A) lysosome B) vacuole C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) peroxisome Answer: E Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2

38) Thylakoids, DNA, and ribosomes are all components found in A) vacuoles. B) chloroplasts. C) mitochondria. D) lysosomes. E) nucleoli. Answer: B Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2 39) In an animal cell, DNA may be found in which of the following organelles? A) only in the nucleus B) only in the nucleus and mitochondria C) only in the nucleus and rough ER D) in the nucleus, mitochondria, and rough ER Answer: B Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2 40) If plant cells are grown on media containing radioactively labeled thymine for one generation, where will radioactively labeled macromolecules be detected? A) only in the nucleus B) only in the nucleus and mitochondria C) only in the nucleus and chloroplasts D) in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts Answer: D Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G1, G2 41) Which of the following organelles are enclosed by a double membrane? A) only nuclei B) only central vacuoles C) nuclei and chloroplasts D) nuclei and lysosomes Answer: C Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2

42) The chemical reactions involved in respiration in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are virtually identical. In eukaryotic cells, ATP is synthesized primarily on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. In light of the endosymbiont theory for the evolutionary origin of mitochondria, where would you expect most ATP synthesis to occur in prokaryotic cells? A) in the cytoplasm B) on the nucleoid membrane C) on the endoplasmic reticulum D) on the plasma membrane Answer: D Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 1, 2 Global L.O.: G2 43) The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved A) endosymbiosis of an oxygen-using bacterium in a larger host cell–the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria. B) endosymbiosis of an oxygen-using photosynthetic bacterium in a larger host cell–the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria. C) endosymbiosis of an oxygen-using scavenger bacterium in a larger host cell–the endosymbiont evolved into lysosomes. D) evolution of an endomembrane system and subsequent evolution of mitochondria from a portion of the Golgi. Answer: A Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 1, 2 44) In a liver cell detoxifying alcohol and some other poisons, the enzymes of the peroxisome remove hydrogen from these molecules and A) combine the hydrogen with water molecules to generate hydrogen peroxide. B) combine the hydrogen with hydrogen peroxide to generate water. C) combine the hydrogen with hydrogen peroxide to generate oxygen and water. D) combine the hydrogen with oxygen molecules to generate hydrogen peroxide. Answer: D Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2

45) Which organelles or structures are absent in plant cells? A) mitochondria B) microtubules C) Golgi apparatus D) centrosomes E) peroxisomes Answer: D Topic: 4.6 The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers that organizes structures and activities in the cell Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6, V&C 2 46) Motor proteins provide for molecular transport of materials in cells by interacting with what type(s) of cellular structures? A) the nuclear envelope B) membrane proteins C) the extracellular matrix D) cytoskeletal structures E) cellulose fibers in the cell wall Answer: D Topic: 4.6 The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers that organizes structures and activities in the cell Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6, V&C 2 47) Movement of vesicles within the cell depends on what cellular structures? A) microtubules and motor proteins B) actin filaments and microtubules C) actin filaments and motor proteins D) centrioles and motor proteins Answer: A Topic: 4.6 The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers that organizes structures and activities in the cell Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6, V&C 2

48) A 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules, consisting of nine doublets of microtubules surrounding a pair of single microtubules, is associated with which of the following structures? A) motile cilia and centrioles B) centrioles only C) both eukaryotic and bacterial flagella D) eukaryotic flagella only E) eukaryotic flagella and motile cilia Answer: E Topic: 4.6 The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers that organizes structures and activities in the cell Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6, V&C 2 49) Vinblastine, a drug that inhibits microtubule polymerization, is used to treat some forms of cancer. Cancer cells given vinblastine would be unable to carry out which of the following processes? A) form cleavage furrows during cell division B) migrate by amoeboid movement C) separate chromosomes during cell division D) extend pseudopods E) maintain the shape of the nucleus Answer: C Topic: 4.6 The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers that organizes structures and activities in the cell Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 50) Centrioles, cilia, flagella, and basal bodies have remarkably similar structural elements and arrangements. Which of the following hypotheses is most plausible in light of such structural similarities? A) Cilia and flagella are derived from the centrioles. B) Motor proteins such as dynein must have evolved before any of these four kinds of structures. C) Centrioles are derived from cilia and/or flagella. D) Natural selection for cell motility repeatedly selected for microtubular arrays in circular patterns in the evolution of each of these structures. Answer: A Topic: 4.6 The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers that organizes structures and activities in the cell Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 4.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

51) Cytochalasin D is a drug that prevents actin polymerization. A cell treated with cytochalasin D will still be able to A) perform amoeboid movement. B) form cleavage furrows. C) contract muscle fibers. D) extend pseudopodia. E) move vesicles within the cell. Answer: E Topic: 4.6 The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers that organizes structures and activities in the cell Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 52) Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is correct? A) Transport vesicles move between organelles of the endomembrane system independently from the cytoskeleton. B) Microfilaments are structurally rigid and resist compression, whereas microtubules resist tension (stretching). C) Movement of cilia and flagella is the result of motor proteins causing microtubules to move relative to each other. D) Chemicals that block the assembly of the cytoskeleton would cause little effect on the cell's response to external signals and stimuli. Answer: C Topic: 4.6 The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers that organizes structures and activities in the cell Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.6, V&C 2 53) Which of the following molecules is required to build cilia or flagella? A) keratin B) tubulin C) actin D) myosin Answer: B Topic: 4.6 The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers that organizes structures and activities in the cell Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6, V&C 2

54) Which of the following is a correct match between a cytoskeletal element and its function? A) microfilaments and intracellular vesicle transport B) microtubules and cleavage furrow formation C) microfilaments and flagellar motility D) intermediate filaments and cytoplasmic streaming E) microtubules and chromosome movement Answer: E Topic: 4.6 The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers that organizes structures and activities in the cell Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.6, V&C 2 55) Extracellular matrix proteins are produced by ribosomes in which part of a eukaryotic cell? A) lysosomes B) cytoplasm C) nuclear envelope D) Golgi apparatus E) rough ER Answer: E Topic: 4.7 Extracellular components and connections between cells help coordinate cellular activities Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.7, V&C 2 56) A mutation that disrupts the ability of an animal cell to add carbohydrate modifications to proteins would most likely cause defects in its A) nuclear lamina. B) nuclear lamina and extracellular matrix. C) microtubules and Golgi apparatus. D) Golgi apparatus and extracellular matrix. Answer: D Topic: 4.7 Extracellular components and connections between cells help coordinate cellular activities Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.7, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

57) Passive movement of fluids and bacteria from the interior of the small intestine through the space between cells of the intestinal wall can cause serious infection and medical complications. Defects in which of the following would be associated with such a condition? A) cell walls B) gap junctions C) tight junctions D) middle lamella E) desmosomes Answer: C Topic: 4.7 Extracellular components and connections between cells help coordinate cellular activities Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.7, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 58) Intermediate filaments attach to which of the following structures in the plasma membrane? A) extracellular matrix B) gap junctions C) tight junctions D) middle lamella E) desmosomes Answer: E Topic: 4.7 Extracellular components and connections between cells help coordinate cellular activities Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.7, V&C 2 59) The cell walls of bacteria, fungi, and plant cells and the extracellular matrix of animal cells are all external to the plasma membrane. Which of the following is a characteristic common to all of these extracellular structures? A) They have pores that regulate the exchange of water and small molecules between cells and their environment. B) They are composed of complex mixtures of lipids and carbohydrates. C) They provide a rigid structure that prevents the uptake of excess water into cells. D) They are constructed of polymers that are synthesized in the cytoplasm and then transported out of the cell for assembly. Answer: D Topic: 4.7 Extracellular components and connections between cells help coordinate cellular activities Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.7, V&C 2

60) When a potassium ion (K+) moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of a root, it must pass through several cellular structures. Which of the following correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion? A) plasma membrane → primary cell wall → cytoplasm → vacuole B) secondary cell wall → plasma membrane → primary cell wall → cytoplasm → vacuole C) primary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm → vacuole D) primary cell wall → plasma membrane → lysosome → cytoplasm → vacuole E) primary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm → secondary cell wall → vacuole Answer: C Topic: 4.7 Extracellular components and connections between cells help coordinate cellular activities Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.7, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 61) The extracellular matrix may influence animal cell behavior by communicating information from the outside to the cytoskeleton of the cell via which of the following molecules or structures? A) gap junctions B) tight junctions C) integrins D) proteoglycans Answer: C Topic: 4.7 Extracellular components and connections between cells help coordinate cellular activities Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.7, V&C 2 62) Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells? A) peroxisomes B) desmosomes C) gap junctions D) extracellular matrix E) tight junctions Answer: C Topic: 4.7 Extracellular components and connections between cells help coordinate cellular activities Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.7, V&C 2

63) Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through A) plasmodesmata. B) intermediate filaments. C) tight junctions. D) desmosomes. E) gap junctions. Answer: E Topic: 4.7 Extracellular components and connections between cells help coordinate cellular activities Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.7, V&C 2 64) Which of the following structures play a key role in maintaining the structural integrity of animal tissues? A) proteoglycans and microtubules B) gap junctions and microfilaments C) tight junctions and microfilaments D) desmosomes and intermediate filaments Answer: D Topic: 4.7 Extracellular components and connections between cells help coordinate cellular activities Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 4.7, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 65) Which of the following structures plays a major role in making skin tissue water tight? A) desmosomes B) gap junctions C) integrins D) tight junctions E) plasmodesmata Answer: D Topic: 4.7 Extracellular components and connections between cells help coordinate cellular activities Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.7, V&C 2

4.2 Scenario Questions 1) A biologist wants to examine the surfaces of different types of cells in kidney tubules of small mammals. The cells in question can be distinguished by external shape, size, and 3-D characteristics. Which of the following would be the optimum method for her study? A) transmission electron microscopy B) cell fractionation C) light microscopy using stained sections of kidney tissue D) light microscopy of living unstained material E) scanning electron microscopy Answer: E Topic: 4.1 Biologists use microscopes and biochemistry to study cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 4.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G1, G2 2) Comparison of samples from the liver of an alcoholic with samples from the liver of a nondrinker when examined by transmission electron microscopy would likely reveal that A) the ultrastructure of the two livers is very similar. B) the liver of the non-drinker has expansive rough ER compared to the alcoholic's liver. C) the liver of the alcoholic has expansive smooth ER compared to the non-drinker's liver. D) the liver of the alcoholic has substantially more lysosomes than the non-drinker's liver. Answer: C Topic: 4.4 The endomembrane system regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.4, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 3) A biologist ground up some plant leaf cells and then centrifuged the mixture to fractionate the organelles. Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP in the light, whereas organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark. The heavier and lighter fractions are most likely to contain, respectively, A) mitochondria and chloroplasts. B) chloroplasts and nuclei. C) peroxisomes and chloroplasts. D) chloroplasts and mitochondria. E) mitochondria and peroxisomes. Answer: D Topic: 4.5 Mitochondria and chloroplasts change energy from one form to another Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.5, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G1, G2

4.3 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system? A) nuclear envelope B) chloroplast C) Golgi apparatus D) plasma membrane Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which structure is common to plant and animal cells? A) chloroplast B) wall made of cellulose C) mitochondrion D) centriole Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell? A) mitochondrion B) ribosome C) nuclear envelope D) chloroplast Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which structure-function pair is mismatched? A) microtubule; muscle contraction B) ribosome; protein synthesis C) Golgi; protein trafficking D) nucleolus; production of ribosomal subunits Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Cyanide binds to at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to cyanide, most of the cyanide will be found within the A) mitochondria. B) ribosomes. C) peroxisomes. D) lysosomes. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will be secreted by a cell? A) ER → Golgi → nucleus B) nucleus →ER →Golgi C) ER → Golgi → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane D) ER → lysosomes → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Which cell would be best for studying lysosomes? A) muscle cell B) nerve cell C) phagocytic white blood cell D) bacterial cell Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 5 Membrane Transport and Cell Signaling 5.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The fluid mosaic model of membrane structure suggests that membranes A) are composed of a fluid bilayer of fatty acids with proteins associated on the outer and inner surfaces. B) are composed of protein molecules embedded in a fluid bilayer of phospholipids. C) are composed of a single fluid layer of phospholipids and proteins. D) are composed of a fluid phospholipid bilayer sandwiched between two layers of hydrophilic proteins. Answer: B Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 2) Which of the following molecules are localized on the exterior of a phospholipid bilayer? A) saturated fatty acids B) unsaturated fatty acids C) phosphate groups D) cholesterol Answer: C Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 3) The primary structural components of the cell membrane are A) phospholipids and cellulose. B) phospholipids and proteins. C) cholesterol and proteins. D) proteins and cellulose. E) glycoproteins and cholesterol. Answer: B Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2

4) When biological membranes are frozen and then fractured, they tend to break along the middle of the bilayer. The best explanation for this is that A) the integral membrane proteins are not strong enough to hold the bilayer together. B) water that is present in the middle of the bilayer freezes and is easily fractured. C) the hydrophobic interactions between ends of the fatty acid tails of the two phospholipid monolayers are the weakest interactions in the membrane. D) the carbon-carbon bonds of the phospholipid tails are easily broken. Answer: C Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 5) At human body temperature (37°C), cholesterol in membranes functions to A) make the membrane less fluid by restricting the movement of phospholipids. B) make the membrane more fluid by stimulating the movement of phospholipids. C) facilitate cell-cell interactions by binding to receptors on neighboring cells. D) make the membrane more fluid by crowding integral membrane proteins into restricted areas. Answer: A Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 6) Based on the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, which of the following statements about membrane phospholipids is true? A) They can move laterally along the plane of the membrane. B) They frequently flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other. C) They occur in an uninterrupted bilayer, with membrane proteins restricted to the surface of the membrane. D) They frequently leave the bilayer and dissolve in the surrounding solution. Answer: A Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 7) Cell membranes in plants that thrive in extreme cold are able to remain fluid by A) increasing the average length of the fatty acid tails in the membrane. B) decreasing the percentage of cholesterol molecules in the membrane. C) decreasing the number of hydrophobic proteins in the membrane. D) increasing the percentage of unsaturated phospholipids in the membrane. Answer: D Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2

8) An integral membrane protein would have to be A) hydrophilic. B) composed primarily of alpha helix structural domains. C) amphipathic, with at least one hydrophobic and one hydrophilic region. D) exposed to water on only one surface of the membrane. Answer: C Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 9) Which of the following membrane proteins tend to lack hydrophobic regions on their surfaces? A) transmembrane proteins B) integral membrane proteins C) peripheral membrane proteins D) integrins Answer: C Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 10) How do unsaturated fatty acids help keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures? A) The double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails that prevent adjacent lipids from packing tightly together. B) Unsaturated fatty acids have a higher cholesterol content that prevents adjacent lipids from packing tightly together. C) Unsaturated fatty acids are more polar than saturated fatty acids. D) The double bonds result in shorter fatty acid tails and therefore thinner membranes. Answer: A Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 11) Which of the following is true of integral membrane proteins? A) They serve only a structural role in membranes. B) They are loosely bound to the surface of the bilayer. C) They are usually transmembrane proteins. D) They are not mobile within the bilayer. Answer: C Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2

12) The sugars associated with glycoproteins and glycolipids of animal cell membranes A) serve as an energy source for the cell. B) serve as markers that distinguish one cell from another. C) decrease membrane fluidity at high temperatures. D) maintain membrane fluidity at low temperatures. Answer: B Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 13) A protein that spans the phospholipid bilayer one or more times is A) a transmembrane protein. B) a glycoprotein. C) a peripheral protein. D) an extracellular matrix protein. Answer: A Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 14) Which of the following evolutionary adaptations would you expect to find in the cell membranes of Antarctic icefish? A) a high percentage of very long chain saturated fatty acids B) no cholesterol C) a high percentage of unsaturated fatty acids D) a high percentage of carbohydrates on membrane lipids Answer: C Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 1, 2 Global L.O.: G2 15) Why are lipids and proteins free to move laterally in membranes? A) The interior of the membrane is filled with liquid water. B) Lipids and proteins repulse each other in the membrane. C) Phospholipids form hydrogen bonds with water at the membrane surface, which moves the lipids as water moves. D) Weak hydrophobic interactions in the interior of the membrane are easily disrupted. Answer: D Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2

16) The protein, lipid, and carbohydrate compositions of the cytoplasmic and extracellular sides of membranes are different from one another. Why is this the case? A) Proteins only function on the cytoplasmic side of the cell membrane, which results in asymmetry across the membrane. B) Some membrane components are synthesized outside of the cell, while others are synthesized in the cytosol. C) The molecular composition of the inner and outer layers of the cell membrane is determined by genes. D) The two sides of a cell membrane face different environments and carry out different functions. Answer: D Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 17) Several species of bacteria and archaea live in hot springs and deep sea thermal vents where the water temperature exceeds 90°C (194°F). Which of the following evolutionary adaptations would you expect to find in the cell membranes of these thermophilic organisms? A) a high percentage of very long chain saturated fatty acids B) a high percentage of cholesterol C) a high percentage of unsaturated fatty acids D) a high percentage of carbohydrates on membrane lipids Answer: A Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 1, 2 Global L.O.: G2 18) What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily? A) large hydrophobic B) small hydrophobic C) large polar D) small ionic E) large and hydrophilic Answer: B Topic: 5.2 Membrane structure results in selective permeability Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.2, V&C 2

19) The movement of the hydrophobic gas nitrous oxide (N2O) (laughing gas) into a cell is an example of A) active transport across the lipid bilayer. B) facilitated diffusion through the lipid bilayer. C) diffusion through the lipid bilayer. D) osmosis through the lipid bilayer. E) cotransport across the lipid bilayer. Answer: C Topic: 5.2 Membrane structure results in selective permeability Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.2, V&C 2 20) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a carrier protein in a plasma membrane? A) It is a peripheral membrane protein. B) It exhibits a specificity for a particular type of molecule. C) It requires the expenditure of cellular energy to function. D) It works against a concentration gradient. Answer: B Topic: 5.2 Membrane structure results in selective permeability Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.2, V&C 2 21) Which of the following molecules would you expect to diffuse through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly? A) glucose B) starch C) O2 D) Na+ E) an amino acid Answer: C Topic: 5.2 Membrane structure results in selective permeability Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

22) Which of the following molecules would you expect to diffuse through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most slowly, if at all? A) CH4 B) an amino acid C) O2 D) CO2 E) water Answer: B Topic: 5.2 Membrane structure results in selective permeability Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 23) Which of the following statements about diffusion is correct? A) It is very rapid over long distances. B) It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell. C) It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. D) It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration. E) It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration. Answer: C Topic: 5.2 Membrane structure results in selective permeability Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.2, V&C 2 24) Water can move quickly through the plasma membrane of some cells because A) the bilayer is hydrophilic. B) it moves through hydrophobic channels. C) water movement is tied to ATP hydrolysis. D) it is a small, nonpolar molecule. E) it moves through aquaporin channel proteins. Answer: E Topic: 5.2 Membrane structure results in selective permeability Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.2, V&C 2

25) Carrot slices placed in a 0.2 M salt solution for several hours become flaccid (limp). Carrot slices placed in fresh water for several hours become turgid (stiff). From this we can deduce that A) the fresh water and the salt solution are both hypertonic to the cells of the carrot slices. B) the fresh water and the salt solution are both hypotonic to the cells of the carrot slices. C) the fresh water is hypertonic and the salt solution is hypotonic to the cells of the carrot slices. D) the fresh water is hypotonic and the salt solution is hypertonic to the cells of the carrot slices. E) the fresh water is isotonic and the salt solution is hypertonic to the cells of the carrot slices. Answer: D Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy investment Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 26) Mammalian blood contains the equivalent of 0.15 M NaCl. Seawater contains the equivalent of 0.45 M NaCl. What will happen if red blood cells are transferred to seawater? A) Water will leave the cells, causing them to shrivel and collapse. B) NaCl will be exported from the red blood cells by facilitated diffusion. C) The blood cells will take up water, swell, and eventually burst. D) NaCl will passively diffuse into the red blood cells. Answer: A Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy investment Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 27) Thinking about the environments where plant and animal cells typically exist, which of the following statements is correct? A) Animal cells are generally in a hypotonic solution, and plant cells are generally in an isotonic solution. B) Animal cells are generally in an isotonic solution, and plant cells are generally in a hypotonic solution. C) Animal cells are generally in an isotonic solution, and plant cells are generally in a hypertonic solution. D) Animal cell are generally in a hypertonic solution, and plant cells are generally in an isotonic solution. E) Animal cells are generally in a hypertonic solution, and plant cells are generally in a hypotonic solution. Answer: B Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy investment Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2

28) Submerging a plant cell in distilled water will result in A) plasmolysis of the cell. B) lysis of the cell membrane. C) bursting of the cell. D) the cell becoming turgid. E) the cell becoming flaccid. Answer: D Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy investment Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 29) Submerging a red blood cell in distilled water will result in A) plasmolysis of the cell. B) lysis of the cell. C) the cell becoming turgid. D) the cell becoming flacid. Answer: B Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy investment Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 30) Submerging a red blood cell in a hypertonic solution will result in A) plasmolysis of the cell. B) lysis of the cell. C) the cell becoming turgid. D) shriveling of the cell. Answer: D Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy investment Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2

31) The rate of diffusion of glucose through artificial phospholipid bilayers is exceptionally low. By contrast, the cells lining the small intestine rapidly transport large quantities of glucose from glucose-rich food into their glucose-poor cytoplasm. Based on this information, which transport mechanism is most likely responsible for glucose transport in the intestinal cells? A) simple diffusion B) phagocytosis C) active transport pumps D) facilitated diffusion Answer: D Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy investment Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 32) Which of the following membrane activities requires energy from ATP hydrolysis? A) facilitated diffusion of chloride ions across the membrane through a chloride channel B) movement of water into a cell through aquaporins C) movement of sodium ions from a lower concentration in a mammalian cell to a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid D) movement of glucose molecules into a bacterial cell from a medium containing a higher concentration of glucose than inside the cell E) movement of carbon dioxide out of a paramecium Answer: C Topic: 5.4 Active transport uses energy to move solutes against their gradients Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.4, V&C 2 33) Which of the following is most likely true of a protein that cotransports glucose and sodium ions into the intestinal cells of an animal? A) Sodium and glucose bind to the same site on the cotransporter. B) Transport of glucose against its concentration gradient provides energy for uptake of sodium ions against the electrochemical gradient. C) Following transport of sodium ions into the cell, the cotransporter can also transport potassium ions out of the cell. D) Transport of sodium ions down their electrochemical gradient facilitates the transport of glucose against its concentration gradient. Answer: D Topic: 5.4 Active transport uses energy to move solutes against their gradients Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.4, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

34) The phosphate transport system in bacteria imports phosphate into the cell against the phosphate concentration gradient. The energy for phosphate import is provided by a pH gradient across the membrane (lower pH outside the cell than inside the cell), rather than by ATP hydrolysis. The bacterial phosphate transport system is an example of A) passive diffusion. B) facilitated diffusion. C) active transport. D) cotransport. E) receptor-mediated endocytosis. Answer: D Topic: 5.4 Active transport uses energy to move solutes against their gradients Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.4, V&C 2 35) The cytoplasmic side of a cell membrane is negative in charge relative to the extracellular side. What is the voltage across a cell membrane called? A) water potential B) chemical gradient C) membrane potential D) osmotic potential E) electrochemical gradient Answer: C Topic: 5.4 Active transport uses energy to move solutes against their gradients Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.4, V&C 2 36) Which of the following is a primary function of an electrogenic pump in cell membranes, such as the sodium-potassium pump? A) transporting electrons across the plasma membrane B) transporting hydrogen ions out of the cell C) generating the membrane potential D) ionizing sodium and potassium atoms Answer: C Topic: 5.4 Active transport uses energy to move solutes against their gradients Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.4, V&C 2

37) Which of the following is required for the sodium-potassium pump to transport potassium ions into an animal cell? A) low intracellular concentrations of sodium B) high intracellular concentrations of sodium C) high intracellular concentrations of potassium D) low intracellular concentrations of potassium E) energy from ATP Answer: E Topic: 5.4 Active transport uses energy to move solutes against their gradients Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.4, V&C 2 38) The sodium-potassium pump generates the following concentration gradients across the plasma membrane: A) high [Na+] and [K+] inside the cell and low [Na+] and [K+] outside. B) low [Na+] and [K+] inside the cell and high [Na+] and [K+] outside. C) low [Na+] and high [K+] inside the cell and high [Na+] and low [K+] outside. D) high [Na+] and low [K+] inside the cell and low [Na+] and high [K+] outside. Answer: C Topic: 5.4 Active transport uses energy to move solutes against their gradients Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.4, V&C 2 39) Proteins that allow the diffusion of ions across membranes in the direction of their concentration gradients are most likely A) channel proteins. B) carrier proteins. C) aquaporins. D) active transport pumps. Answer: A Topic: 5.4 Active transport uses energy to move solutes against their gradients Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.4, V&C 2 40) The electrochemical gradient across a membrane would generally be increased by which of the following membrane proteins? A) a calcium ion channel B) a sucrose-proton cotransporter C) a hydrogen ion pump D) a sodium ion channel Answer: C Topic: 5.4 Active transport uses energy to move solutes against their gradients Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.4, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

41) Proton pumps are used in various ways by members of every domain of organisms: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. What does this most probably mean? A) Proton pumps must have evolved before any living organisms were present on Earth. B) Proton pumps are an essential feature of all cell membranes. C) Proton gradients across a membrane were used by cells that were the common ancestor of all three domains of life. D) Cells of each domain evolved proton pumps independently when oceans became more acidic. Answer: C Topic: 5.4 Active transport uses energy to move solutes against their gradients Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 5.4, V&C 1, 2 Global L.O.: G2 42) A bacterium engulfed by a white blood cell through phagocytosis will be digested by enzymes contained in A) peroxisomes. B) lysosomes. C) Golgi vesicles. D) vacuoles. E) secretory vesicles. Answer: B Topic: 5.5 Bulk transport across the plasma membrane occurs by exocytosis and endocytosis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.5, V&C 2 43) Familial hypercholesterolemia results in extremely high levels of cholesterol in the blood. The underlying cause of this disease is A) defective cell membranes that cannot incorporate cholesterol. B) poor attachment of cholesterol to the extracellular matrix of cells. C) inhibition of the cholesterol active transport system in red blood cells. D) nonfunctional or missing LDL receptors on cell membranes. Answer: D Topic: 5.5 Bulk transport across the plasma membrane occurs by exocytosis and endocytosis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.5, V&C 2

44) The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis is that A) pinocytosis brings only water molecules into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis brings in other molecules as well. B) pinocytosis increases the surface area of the plasma membrane, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis decreases the plasma membrane surface area. C) pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis is highly selective. D) pinocytosis requires cellular energy, but receptor-mediated endocytosis does not. E) pinocytosis generally concentrates substances from the extracellular fluid, but receptormediated endocytosis does not. Answer: C Topic: 5.5 Bulk transport across the plasma membrane occurs by exocytosis and endocytosis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.5, V&C 2 45) In receptor-mediated endocytosis, where are the receptors that bind specific molecules located immediately following endocytosis? A) on the cytoplasmic surface of the cell membrane B) on the interior surface of a cytoplasmic vesicle C) on the exterior surface of a cytoplasmic vesicle D) on the interior surface of the Golgi apparatus E) on the interior surface of a lysosome membrane Answer: B Topic: 5.5 Bulk transport across the plasma membrane occurs by exocytosis and endocytosis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.5, V&C 2 46) Immediately after a membrane receptor protein binds to its ligand, which of the following processes occurs? A) Cytoplasmic enzymes are activated by phosphorylation. B) An intracellular G protein is activated. C) The membrane receptor protein undergoes a conformational change. D) The receptor/ligand complex enters the cytoplasm by endocytosis. Answer: C Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 47) Steroid hormone receptors in animals tend to be A) glycolipids rather than protein. B) transmembrane proteins with an extracellular steroid binding domain. C) transmembrane proteins with an intracellular steroid binding domain. D) soluble proteins in the cytoplasm. Answer: D Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) In what way would the lack of receptors for local paracrine signal molecules affect animal cells? A) The cells would not respond to growth factors from nearby cells. B) The cells would not respond to hormone signals delivered through the bloodstream. C) The cells would bind locally secreted growth factors, but signal transduction to alter gene expression would not occur. D) The cells would grow and divide normally. Answer: A Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 49) The secretion of a signal molecule by a cell into the local environment, followed by a response by a number of cells in the immediate vicinity, is an example of A) hormonal signaling. B) synaptic signaling. C) endocrine signaling. D) paracrine signaling. Answer: D Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 50) How is the plant hormone ethylene delivered to target cells? A) through intracellular steroid hormone receptors B) through the plant vascular system C) through the air D) through plasmodesmata from adjacent cells Answer: C Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 51) When a neuron responds to a particular neurotransmitter by opening gated ion channels, the neurotransmitter is serving as which part of the signal pathway? A) receptor B) relay molecule C) signal molecule D) transducer E) molecule protein Answer: C Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

52) The mechanism by which testosterone alters cell function is by A) binding to a receptor protein that enters the nucleus and activates specific genes. B) binding to a transmembrane signal receptor that activates cell-signaling pathways. C) acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion channel proteins. D) serving as a second messenger that activates cell-signaling pathways. Answer: A Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 53) Transcription factors play a major role in regulating which of the following processes? A) the conversion of ATP into cAMP B) DNA replication C) gene expression D) transmission of signals from steroid hormone receptors to intracellular G proteins Answer: C Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 54) Signal transduction pathways that include a phosphorylation cascade A) are generally initiated by a phosphorylase enzyme. B) are propagated by steroid hormone receptors. C) cause a structural change in each phosphorylated protein. D) are generally inactivated by a kinase enzyme. Answer: C Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 55) Immediately following binding of a growth factor, an activated receptor would most likely stimulate A) activation of a protein kinase. B) activation of adenylyl cyclase. C) activation of a calcium-binding protein. D) activation of a protein phosphatase. Answer: A Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

56) Following activation of a receptor, which sequence below represents the correct order in which components will be involved in a signaling pathway that utilizes the second messenger cAMP? A) G protein → cAMP → adenyl cyclase → protein kinase B) G protein → adenyl cyclase → cAMP → protein kinase C) adenyl cyclase → cAMP → G protein → protein kinase D) cAMP → adenyl cyclase → protein kinase → G protein E) protein kinase → G protein → adenyl cyclase → cAMP Answer: B Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 57) A proper relationship between an enzyme and its function is illustrated by which of the following? A) kinase: addition of a tyrosine B) phosphatase: removal of a phosphate group C) glycogen phosphorylase: synthesis of glycogen D) adenylyl cyclase: conversion of cAMP to AMP Answer: B Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 58) Which of the following enzymes adds a phosphate group to target proteins? A) kinase B) phosphatase C) G protein-coupled receptor D) adenylyl cyclase Answer: A Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 59) The primary function of G proteins in signal transduction is A) transmitting the signal from an activated receptor to the next protein in the pathway. B) binding extracellular signal molecules to activate the pathway. C) converting ATP to cATP to amplify the signal. D) phosphorylating relay molecules in the pathway. Answer: A Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2

60) Phosphatase enzymes in signal transduction pathways function primarily to A) transfer a phosphate group from a kinase to the next relay molecule in a series. B) inactivate protein kinases to turn off signal transduction pathways. C) amplify signal transduction so it activates multiple relay molecules. D) amplify the second messenger cAMP. Answer: B Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 61) The primary function of kinases in signal transduction is to A) inactivate relay molecule to turn off signal transduction. B) regulate gene expression by serving as a transcription factor. C) inactivate second messengers such as cAMP. D) activate protein kinases or other relay molecules in a series. Answer: D Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 62) Theoretically, how might researchers disrupt signal transduction pathways as possible treatments for cancer? A) alter G protein-coupled receptors involved in cell cycle regulation to be active in the absence of their normal signaling molecules B) inactivate epinephrine receptors on cancer cells C) disrupt the function of protein kinases involved in cell cycle regulation D) stimulate production of cAMP in cancer cells Answer: C Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 63) A drug designed to inhibit the response of cells to the steroid hormone aldosterone would almost certainly result in which of the following? A) lower cytoplasmic levels of cAMP B) an increase in receptor tyrosine kinase activity C) a decrease in transcriptional activity of certain genes D) a decrease in G protein activity Answer: C Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

64) At puberty, an adolescent female body changes in both structure and function of several organ systems, primarily under the influence of changing concentrations of estrogens and other steroid hormones. How can one hormone, such as estrogen, mediate so many effects? A) Estrogen is produced in high concentrations by a large number of different cell types. B) Estrogen binds to common receptors inside several cell types, and each cell responds in the same way to its binding. C) Estrogen does not affect cells that lack estrogen receptors in the cell membrane. D) Estrogen binds to specific receptors inside many kinds of cells, each of which has different responses to its binding. Answer: D Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 65) Research on aging suggests that as cells age, their rate of cell division decreases until they ultimately no longer divide. Which of the following would provide evidence that the decreased rate of cell division is related to cell signaling? A) decreased ATP production in aged cells B) decreased hormone production in aged cells C) decreased affinity of growth factor receptors for their respective ligands D) decreased numbers of cytoplasmic ribosomes Answer: C Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 66) Binding of the signaling molecule epinephrine to its receptor results in A) increased concentrations of cyclic AMP in the cytoplasm. B) lower blood glucose levels. C) activation of a steroid hormone receptor inside muscle cells. D) inactivation of the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase. Answer: A Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2

67) Which of the following is the greatest advantage of having multiple steps in a transduction pathway? A) Each step can be used in multiple pathways. B) Having multiple steps in a pathway requires the least amount of ATP. C) Having multiple steps provides for greater possible amplification of a signal. D) Each step can be activated by several G proteins simultaneously. Answer: C Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2

5.2 Art Questions

Figure 5.1 1) 1) In Figure 5.1, a peripheral membrane protein is represented by A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: D Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2

2) Which component in Figure 5.1 is cholesterol? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 3) Which object in Figure 5.1 represents a component of the extracellular matrix? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 4) In Figure 5.1, a microfilament of the cytoskeleton is represented by A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: C Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 5) Which component in Figure 5.1 is a glycolipid? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2

6) Which component in Figure 5.1 helps membranes resist changes in fluidity at high and low temperatures? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2 7) Which component in Figure 5.1 plays an important role in cell-cell recognition? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Topic: 5.1 Cellular membranes are fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1, V&C 2

Figure 5.2 8) The solutions in the two arms of the U-tube shown in Figure 5.2 are separated by a membrane that is permeable to water and glucose but not to sucrose. Side A is half-filled with a solution of 2 M sucrose and 1 M glucose. Side B is half-filled with 1 M sucrose and 2 M glucose. Initially, the liquid levels are equal, and the solution in side A is A) hypotonic to the solution in side B. B) hypertonic to the solution in side B. C) isotonic to the solution in side B. Answer: C Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 9) The solutions in the two arms of the U-tube shown in Figure 5.2 are separated by a membrane that is permeable to water and glucose but not to sucrose. Side A is half-filled with a solution of 2 M sucrose and 1 M glucose. Side B is half-filled with 1 M sucrose and 2 M glucose. Initially, the liquid levels are equal. After the system depicted in the figure reaches equilibrium, what changes are observed? A) The concentrations of glucose and sucrose are unchanged. B) The water level is higher in side A than in side B. C) The water level is unchanged. D) The water level is higher in side B than in side A. Answer: C Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

10) The solutions in the two arms of the U-tube shown in Figure 5.2 are separated by a membrane that is permeable to water and glucose but not to sucrose. Side A is half-filled with a solution of 2 M sucrose and 1 M glucose. Side B is half-filled with 1 M sucrose and 2 M glucose. Initially, the liquid levels are equal. After the system depicted in the figure reaches equilibrium, what changes are observed with respect to the concentrations of sugars? A) The concentration of sucrose is equal in sides A and B, and the concentrations of glucose are unchanged. B) The concentrations of glucose and sucrose are equal in sides A and B. C) The concentration of glucose is equal in sides A and B, and the concentrations of sucrose are unchanged. D) The water levels change, but the concentrations of glucose and sucrose in sides A and B are unchanged. Answer: B Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

Figure 5.4 11) Five dialysis bags, constructed from a semipermeable membrane that is impermeable to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of sucrose and then placed in separate beakers containing an initial concentration of 0.6 M sucrose solution. At 10-minute intervals, the bags were massed (weighed), and the percent change in mass of each bag was graphed. Figure 5.4 illustrates the change in the mass of the bags over time. Which line in the graph represents the bag that contained a 0.6 M solution at the beginning of the experiment? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G3

12) Five dialysis bags, constructed from a semipermeable membrane that is impermeable to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of sucrose and then placed in separate beakers containing an initial concentration of 0.6 M sucrose solution. At 10-minute intervals, the bags were massed (weighed), and the percent change in mass of each bag was graphed. Figure 5.4 illustrates the change in the mass of the bags over time. Which line in the graph represents the bag with the highest initial concentration of sucrose? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G3 13) Five dialysis bags, constructed from a semipermeable membrane that is impermeable to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of sucrose and then placed in separate beakers containing an initial concentration of 0.6 M sucrose solution. At 10-minute intervals, the bags were massed (weighed), and the percent change in mass of each bag was graphed. Figure 5.4 illustrates the change in the mass of the bags over time. Which line or lines in the graph in the figure represent(s) bags that contain a solution that is hypertonic at 50 minutes? A) A and B B) B C) C D) D E) D and E Answer: B Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G3

Figure 5.5 14) Which of the following types of signaling is represented in Figure 5.5? A) autocrine B) paracrine C) hormonal D) synaptic Answer: D Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 15) In Figure 5.5, the dots in the space between the two structures represent which of the following types of molecules? A) receptor molecules B) signal transducers C) neurotransmitters D) hormones Answer: C Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2

5.3 Scenario Questions 1) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease in humans in which the CFTR protein, which functions as a chloride ion channel, is missing or nonfunctional in cell membranes. The CFTR protein belongs to what category of membrane proteins? A) gap junctions B) carrier proteins C) electrogenic ion pumps D) cotransporters E) hydrophilic channels Answer: E Topic: 5.2 Membrane structure results in selective permeability Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.2, V&C 2 2) An accident victim has lost a lot of blood due to a serious injury. Replacement of the lost body fluids with distilled water would have which of the following results? A) It will have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of viruses and bacteria. B) The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid has become hypotonic compared to the cells. C) The patient's red blood cells will swell and lyse because the blood fluid has become hypotonic compared to the cells. D) The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid has become hypertonic compared to the cells. Answer: C Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 3) An accident victim has lost a lot of blood due to a serious injury. Replacement of the lost body fluids with a hypertonic saline solution would have which of the following results? A) It will have no unfavorable effect as long as the saline solution is free of viruses and bacteria. B) The victim's red blood cells will shrivel up. C) The victim's red blood cells will swell and lyse. D) The pH of the victim's blood cells will rise. Answer: B Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

4) You are working on a team that is designing a new drug. In order for this drug to work, it must enter the cytoplasm of specific target cells. Which of the following would be a factor that determines whether the molecule selectively enters the target cells? A) blood or tissue type of the patient B) lack of charge on the drug molecule C) similarity of the drug molecule to other molecules transported by the target cells D) lipid composition of the target cells' plasma membrane Answer: C Topic: 5.3 Passive transport is diffusion of a substance across a membrane with no energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 5) A major group of G protein-coupled receptors contains seven transmembrane α helices. The amino end of the protein lies at the exterior of the plasma membrane. Loops of amino acids connect the helices either at the exterior face or on the cytoplasmic face of the membrane. The loop on the cytoplasmic side between helices 5 and 6 is usually substantially longer than the other loops. The G protein activated by this receptor most likely interacts with the receptor A) at the NH3 end. B) at the COO- end. C) along the exterior face of the membrane. D) at the loop between helices 5 and 6. Answer: D Topic: 5.6 The plasma membrane plays a key role in most cell signaling Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 5.6, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 5.4 5.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) In what way do the membranes of a eukaryotic cell vary? A) Phospholipids are found only in certain membranes. B) Certain proteins are unique to each kind of membrane. C) Only certain membranes of the cell are selectively permeable. D) Only certain membranes are constructed from amphipathic molecules. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following factors would tend to increase membrane fluidity? A) a greater proportion of unsaturated phospholipids B) a greater proportion of saturated phospholipids C) a lower temperature D) a relatively high protein content in the membrane Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Phosphorylation cascades involving a series of protein kinases are useful for cellular signal transduction because A) they are species specific. B) they always lead to the same cellular response. C) they amplify the original signal manifold. D) they counter the harmful effects of phosphatases. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, such as aldosterone, cross the membranes of all cells but affect only target cells because A) only target cells retain the appropriate DNA segments. B) intracellular receptors are present only in target cells. C) only target cells have enzymes that break down aldosterone. D) only in target cells is aldosterone able to initiate a phosphorylation cascade that turns genes on. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of the following processes includes all the others? A) osmosis B) diffusion of a solute across a membrane C) passive transport D) transport of an ion down its electrochemical gradient Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

6) Based on the figure below, which of these experimental treatments would increase the rate of sucrose transport into a plant cell?

A) decreasing extracellular sucrose concentration B) decreasing extracellular pH C) decreasing cytoplasmic pH D) adding a substance that makes the membrane more permeable to hydrogen ions Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 6 An Introduction to Metabolism 6.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones is defined as A) catalysis. B) metabolism. C) anabolism. D) dehydration. E) catabolism. Answer: E Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4 2) The cellular process of synthesizing large molecules from smaller ones is defined as A) catalysis. B) metabolism. C) anabolism. D) dehydration. E) catabolism. Answer: C Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4 3) Anabolic pathways share which of the following characteristics? A) They are not dependent on enzymes. B) They are usually spontaneous chemical reactions that do not require an input of energy. C) They consume energy to synthesize polymers from monomers. D) They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers. Answer: C Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4 4) Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics? A) Energy cannot be created or destroyed. B) The entropy of the universe is decreasing. C) The entropy of the universe is constant. D) Energy cannot be transferred or transformed. Answer: A Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which of the following statements about a living organism is true? A) The energy content of an organism is constant. B) The organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its environment. C) The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity. D) An organism grows by converting energy into organic matter. Answer: B Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 6) Living organisms increase in complexity as they grow, resulting in a decrease in the entropy of an organism. How does this relate to the second law of thermodynamics? A) Living organisms do not obey the second law of thermodynamics, which states that entropy must increase with time. B) The complexity is actually associated with greater disorder than the level of disorder associated with the organism at early stages of development. C) As a consequence of growing, organisms cause a greater increase in entropy in their environment than the decrease in entropy associated with their growth. D) Living organisms are able to transform energy into entropy. Answer: C Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 7) Energy transformations in organisms are always associated with A) a decrease in the free energy of the organism. B) an increase in the free energy of the universe. C) an increase in the entropy of the organism. D) an increase in the entropy of the universe. Answer: D Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4

8) Which of the following statements is a logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics? A) If the entropy of a system increases, there must be a corresponding decrease in the entropy of the universe. B) If there is an increase in the energy of a system, there must be a corresponding decrease in the energy of the rest of the universe. C) Every energy transfer requires activation energy from the environment. D) Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe. Answer: D Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 9) Which of the following statements is representative of the second law of thermodynamics? A) Conversion of energy from one form to another is always accompanied by some gain of free energy. B) Heat represents a form of energy that can be used by most organisms to do work. C) Without an input of energy, organisms would tend toward decreasing entropy. D) Cells require a constant input of energy to maintain their high level of organization. Answer: D Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 10) Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy within a cell? A) anabolic reactions B) hydrolysis C) catabolic reactions D) digestion Answer: A Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 11) Which of the following descriptions would be an example of potential energy? A) the movement of a bicycle coasting down a hill B) flood water rushing through a breach in a dam C) a spark emitted by explosion of a firework D) the chemical bonds in a molecule of sucrose Answer: D Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Which of the following is the most comprehensive definition of metabolism in living organisms? A) Metabolism depends on a constant supply of energy from food. B) Metabolism manages the increase of entropy in an organism. C) Metabolism refers to the sum of all biochemical pathways involved in synthesis of macromolecules. D) Metabolism consists of all the energy transformation reactions in an organism. Answer: D Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 13) Which of the following reactions release energy? A) endergonic reactions B) dehydration reactions C) hydrolysis reactions D) formation of water from hydrogen and hydroxyl ions Answer: C Topic: 6.1 An organism's metabolism transforms matter and energy Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.1, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 14) Which of the following statements about a system at chemical equilibrium is true? A) The system consumes energy at a steady rate. B) The system releases energy at a steady rate. C) Over time, the system will spontaneously move away from equilibrium. D) The system can do no work. Answer: D Topic: 6.2 The free-energy change of a reaction tells us whether or not the reaction occurs spontaneously Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.2, V&C 4 15) Which of the following statements is true for all exergonic reactions? A) The products have more total energy than the reactants. B) The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy. C) The reaction goes only in a forward direction: all reactants will be converted to products, but no products will be converted to reactants. D) A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reaction to proceed. Answer: B Topic: 6.2 The free-energy change of a reaction tells us whether or not the reaction occurs spontaneously Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.2, V&C 4 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) A chemical reaction that has a positive ΔG is best described as A) endergonic. B) at equilibrium. C) spontaneous. D) exergonic. Answer: A Topic: 6.2 The free-energy change of a reaction tells us whether or not the reaction occurs spontaneously Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.2, V&C 4 17) Which of the following reactions tend to require an input of energy? A) exergonic B) dehydration C) hydrolysis D) catabolic Answer: B Topic: 6.2 The free-energy change of a reaction tells us whether or not the reaction occurs spontaneously Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 18) The free-energy change for the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP + ℗i, under standard conditions (1 M concentration of both reactants and products) is -7.3 kcal/mol. However, in the cytoplasm of the cell, the free-energy change is about -13 kcal/mol. Based on this observation, what would you predict the free-energy change for the reverse reaction (formation of ATP from ADP and ℗i) would be under cellular conditions? A) about +7.3 kcal/mol B) less than +7.3 kcal/mol C) about +13 kcal/mol D) about +26 kcal/mol Answer: C Topic: 6.2 The free-energy change of a reaction tells us whether or not the reaction occurs spontaneously Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

19) Which of the following statements best describes the critical role that ATP plays in cellular metabolism? A) The covalent bond on the terminal phosphate of ATP is particularly strong, so it releases extra energy when hydrolyzed. B) It is one of the four building nucleotides required for DNA synthesis. C) ATP hydrolysis provides the energy used to power exergonic reactions in the cell. D) ATP serves as an energy shuttle in the cell, coupling exergonic and endergonic reactions. Answer: D Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4 20) ATP hydrolysis in a test tube releases only about half as much energy as ATP hydrolysis in the cell. Which of the following statements is the best explanation for this observation? A) Cells maintain higher internal pressure, which speeds up the reaction rate. B) Reactant and product concentrations in the cell are different from the standard conditions used in a test tube. C) ATP hydrolysis in a cell produces different products than ATP hydrolysis in a test tube. D) ATP hydrolysis in cells is catalyzed by enzymes, which releases more energy than the uncatalyzed reaction in a test tube. Answer: B Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 21) In addition to its critical role in cellular metabolism, ATP may also be described as which of the following? A) a pentose sugar B) a DNA nucleotide C) an RNA nucleotide D) an amino acid with three phosphate groups attached Answer: C Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4 22) Which of the descriptions below is an example of an exergonic reaction? A) synthesis of ATP from ADP and ℗i B) a dehydration reaction between two monosaccharides to produce a disaccharide C) formation of a peptide bond D) hydrolysis of glycogen to release glucose monomers Answer: D Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) Which of the following processes would be an example of a catabolic pathway? A) combining small molecules into larger, more energy-rich molecules B) providing energy that can be used to drive cellular work C) any endergonic reaction in a cell D) production of complex molecules such as protein from simpler compounds Answer: B Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4 24) Which of the following is an example of an anabolic pathway? A) a set of reactions that combine monomers into larger, more energy-rich polymers B) a set of coupled reactions that are exergonic C) a set of reactions that break covalent bonds between molecules to release free energy D) a set of reactions that release energy that can be used to drive cellular work Answer: A Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4 25) When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is performed by an organism, what happens to the heat that is generated? A) It is used to power yet more cellular work. B) It is used to store energy in the form of ATP. C) It is used to synthesize ADP. D) It is released to the environment. Answer: D Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4 26) Hydrolysis of ATP releases energy, which ultimately results in the production of ADP and inorganic phosphate. What is commonly the immediate fate of the phosphate released by ATP hydrolysis in the cell? A) It is secreted as waste. B) It diffuses through an ion channel into the Golgi apparatus, where it modifies secreted proteins. C) It is attached to ADP to regenerate ATP. D) It is attached to a substrate to form a phosphorylated intermediate. Answer: D Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4

27) Hydrolysis of ATP releases energy, which ultimately results in the production of ADP and inorganic phosphate. What generally happens to the inorganic phosphate produced in the cytosol? A) It is secreted as waste. B) It is combined with ADP to regenerate ATP. C) It is stored in the rough ER. D) It is further broken down to release additional energy. Answer: B Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4 28) A number of systems for pumping ions across membranes are powered by ATP. Such ATPpowered pumps are often called ATPases, although they don't often hydrolyze ATP unless they are simultaneously transporting ions. Because small increases in calcium ions in the cytosol can trigger a number of different intracellular reactions, cells keep the cytosolic calcium concentration quite low under normal conditions, using ATP-powered calcium pumps. For example, muscle cells transport calcium from the cytosol into the membranous system called the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). If a resting muscle cell's cytosol has a free calcium ion concentration of 10-7 while the concentration in the SR is 10-2, then which of the following is the most likely mechanism by which the muscle cell ATPase maintains intracellular calcium concentrations? A) The ATPase pumps calcium from the outside of the cell into the SR against the concentration gradient. B) The ATPase pumps calcium from the cytosol into the SR against the concentration gradient. C) The ATPase transfers ℗i to calcium ions so that they may diffuse into the SR. D) The ATPase opens a calcium ion channel that allows calcium ions to diffuse back into the SR along the concentration gradient. Answer: B Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 29) What is the difference (if any) between the structure of ATP and the structure of the A nucleoside triphosphate used to make RNA? A) The sugar molecule is different. B) The nitrogen-containing base is different. C) The number of phosphates is three in ATP instead of one in RNA. D) There is no difference; they are the same molecule. Answer: D Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4

30) What is the difference (if any) between the structure of ATP and the structure of the A nucleoside triphosphate used to make DNA? A) The sugar molecule is different. B) The nitrogen-containing base is different. C) The number of phosphates is three in ATP instead of one in DNA. D) There is no difference; they are the same molecule. Answer: A Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 2, 4 31) Which of the following statements about enzyme-catalyzed reactions is true? A) The free-energy change of the reaction is greater than when the same reaction occurs in the absence of an enzyme. B) The rate of the reaction is greater than when the same reaction occurs in the absence of an enzyme. C) The activation energy required for the reaction to proceed is greater than when the same reaction occurs in the absence of an enzyme. D) Energy from ATP is required to activate the enzyme before it can catalyze the reaction. Answer: B Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 32) In most exergonic reactions, before products can be formed, the reactants must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the A) entropy of the reaction. B) energy conservation of the reaction. C) chemical equilibrium of the reaction. D) activation energy of the reaction. Answer: D Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 33) A solution of starch at room temperature does not readily decompose to form a solution of glucose because A) the starch solution has less free energy than a solution of glucose. B) the hydrolysis of starch to glucose is endergonic. C) the activation energy barrier for this reaction cannot easily be overcome at room temperature. D) starch hydrolysis is nonspontaneous. Answer: C Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4

34) Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true? A) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by making the reaction more exergonic. B) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by lowering the activation energy barrier. C) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by reducing the rate of reverse reactions. D) Enzymes change the equilibrium point of the reactions they catalyze. Answer: B Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 35) The ∆G for a particular enzyme-catalyzed reaction is -20 kcal/mol. If the amount of enzyme in the reaction is doubled, what will be the ∆G for the new reaction? A) -40 kcal/mol B) -20 kcal/mol C) 0 kcal/mol D) +20 kcal/mol E) +40 kcal/mol Answer: B Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 36) The ∆G for a particular enzyme-catalyzed reaction is -20 kcal/mol. If the enzyme is removed, what will be the ∆G for the noncatalyzed reaction? A) -40 kcal/mol B) -20 kcal/mol C) 0 kcal/mol D) +20 kcal/mol E) +40 kcal/mol Answer: B Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 37) The active site of an enzyme is the region that A) binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme. B) binds substrates for the enzyme. C) binds noncompetitive inhibitors of the enzyme. D) is blocked by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor. Answer: B Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4

38) Which of the following statements best describes the induced fit model of enzyme activity? A) The binding of substrate depends on the conformation of the active site. B) The binding of an activator alters the conformation of the active site to bind products more tightly. C) The binding of substrate changes the conformation of the active site to bind substrate more tightly. D) The binding of a competitive inhibitor changes the shape of the active site so that it binds substrate less tightly. Answer: C Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 39) A mutation that alters a single amino acid in a region of the enzyme outside of the active site may result in which of the following consequences? A) It may alter the ability of a competitive inhibitor to bind to the enzyme. B) It will generally inactivate the enzyme. C) It will generally change the substrate specificity of the enzyme. D) It may alter an allosteric site on the enzyme. Answer: D Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 40) A mutation that results in a single amino acid substitution in the active site of an enzyme may have which of the following consequences? A) It may alter the ability of a noncompetitive inhibitor to bind to the enzyme. B) It may alter the ability of an allosteric regulator to effect enzyme activity. C) It may change the substrate specificity of the enzyme. D) It may change the ∆G for the original reaction catalyzed by the enzyme. Answer: C Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 41) An enzyme-catalyzed reaction is conducted in a test tube with a fixed amount of enzyme. Increasing the substrate concentration in the test tube may overcome the effect of which of the following conditions? A) denaturation of the enzyme B) presence of a fixed amount of an allosteric inhibitor C) presence of a fixed amount of a competitive inhibitor D) a saturated enzyme population Answer: C Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) An enzyme-catalyzed reaction is conducted in a test tube with a fixed amount of enzyme. Increasing the enzyme concentration in the test tube may overcome the effect of which of the following conditions? A) denaturation of the enzyme B) presence of a fixed amount of an allosteric inhibitor C) presence of a fixed amount of a competitive inhibitor D) a saturated enzyme population Answer: D Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 43) Which of the following statements is true of enzymes? A) Required nonprotein cofactors generally alter the substrate specificity of enzymes. B) Enzyme function is generally increased if the three-dimensional conformation of an enzyme is altered. C) Enzyme function is generally independent of physical and chemical environmental factors such as pH and temperature. D) Enzymes generally increase the rate of chemical reactions by lowering activation energy barriers. Answer: D Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 44) Under a particular set of conditions in the lab, the enzyme in a chemical reaction is saturated. Which of the following alterations to the reaction will increase the rate at which substrate is converted to product? A) increasing the concentration of substrate in the reaction B) increasing the amount of enzyme in the reaction C) increasing the volume of the reaction without increasing the amount of substrate or enzyme D) decreasing the temperature of the reaction Answer: B Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4

45) Zinc, an essential trace element for most organisms, is required in the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase in order for the enzyme to function properly. The zinc most likely functions as a(n) A) competitive inhibitor of the enzyme. B) noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme. C) allosteric activator of the enzyme. D) cofactor necessary for enzyme activity. E) coenzyme derived from a vitamin. Answer: D Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 46) An aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase is the enzyme that catalyzes the attachment of a particular amino acid to its corresponding tRNA. This reaction requires energy from ATP. The enzyme initially binds the amino acid and ATP, but it is unable to bind the tRNA at this point. Which of the following would be a likely next step in the reaction by which the enzyme ultimately binds the tRNA and attaches the amino acid? A) Transfer of the ATP to the tRNA opens the active site, which allows the tRNA to bind. B) Hydrolysis of ATP activates the amino acid, which is released, opening up the active site to allow binding of the tRNA, followed by binding of a new amino acid. C) Hydrolysis of ATP phosphorylates the amino acid, which results in a conformational change in the active site that allows the tRNA to bind. D) Alteration in the conformation of the tRNA allows it to bind to the active site along with the amino acid and ATP. Answer: C Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 47) Some of the drugs used to treat HIV patients are competitive inhibitors of the HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme. Unfortunately, the high mutation rate of HIV means that the virus rapidly acquires mutations with amino acid changes that make them resistant to these competitive inhibitors. Where in the reverse transcriptase enzyme would such amino acid changes most likely occur in drug-resistant viruses? A) in or near the active site B) at an allosteric site C) at a cofactor binding site D) in regions of the enzyme that determine packaging into the virus capsid Answer: A Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 2, 4

48) Why might a severe fever result in death if it is not brought under control? A) It may destroy the primary structure of cellular enzymes. B) It may alter the tertiary and quaternary structures of cellular enzymes. C) It may increase the rate of cellular chemical reactions. D) It may result in consumption of excess ATP. Answer: B Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 2, 4 Global L.O.: G2 49) A noncompetitive inhibitor decreases the rate of an enzymatic reaction by A) binding to the active site of the enzyme. B) changing the ∆G for the reaction. C) changing the shape of the enzyme active site. D) decreasing the activation energy required for the reaction. Answer: C Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 2, 4 50) In experimental tests of enzyme evolution, a gene encoding an enzyme was subjected to multiple cycles of random mutagenesis and selection for altered substrate specificity. The resulting enzyme with altered substrate specificity had multiple amino acid changes. Where in the enzyme might these amino acid changes be located? A) only in or near the active site B) only in the hydrophobic interior of the folded protein C) only on surface sites distant from the active site D) in or near the active site, in the hydrophobic interior, and/or at surface sites distant from the active site Answer: D Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 2, 4 51) A mutation results in an amino acid substitution at a site distant from the active site of an enzyme. How might this amino acid change alter the active site and substrate specificity of the enzyme? A) by changing the optimum temperature for the enzyme B) by changing the intracellular location of the enzyme C) by changing the binding site for an allosteric regulator D) by changing the conformation of the enzyme Answer: D Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 2, 4 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

52) The mechanism by which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes an earlier step in the pathway is most precisely described as A) competitive inhibition. B) cooperativity inhibition. C) irreversible inhibition. D) feedback inhibition. Answer: D Topic: 6.5 Regulation of enzyme activity helps control metabolism Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.5, V&C 2, 4 53) Cooperativity is a form of allosteric activation in which A) the product of a metabolic pathway serves as a competitive inhibitor of an early enzyme in the pathway. B) all of the enzymes in a metabolic pathway are contained within a single multienzyme complex. C) completion of one step in a metabolic pathway is required before a subsequent step can occur. D) binding of a substrate molecule to one active site in a multisubunit enzyme stimulates the binding of substrate molecules to the active sites of other subunits. Answer: D Topic: 6.5 Regulation of enzyme activity helps control metabolism Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.5, V&C 2, 4 54) Which of the following is an example of cooperativity? A) binding of an ATP molecule along with another substrate in an active site B) binding of a molecule to one subunit of an enzyme, which promotes faster binding to each of the other subunits of the enzyme C) the product of one enzyme in a metabolic pathway serving as the substrate for the next enzyme in the pathway D) binding of the end product of a metabolic pathway to the enzyme that catalyzes the first step in the pathway Answer: B Topic: 6.5 Regulation of enzyme activity helps control metabolism Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.5, V&C 2, 4 Global L.O.: G2

55) The activity of many cellular enzymes is regulated by activators and inhibitors. Enzyme activity is also regulated in eukaryotic cells by which of the following mechanisms? A) compartmentalization and restricting enzymes to specific organelles or membranes B) limiting the availability of substrates C) changing the primary structure of enzymes D) secreting enzymes out of the cell Answer: A Topic: 6.5 Regulation of enzyme activity helps control metabolism Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.5, V&C 2 6.2 Art Questions

Figure 6.1 1) Which of the following is the most correct interpretation of Figure 6.1? A) Inorganic phosphate is created from organic phosphate. B) Energy from catabolism can be used directly for performing cellular work. C) ADP + ℗i are a set of molecules that store energy for catabolism. D) ATP is a molecule that acts as an intermediary to store energy for cellular work. Answer: D Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4 2) Cells use the ATP cycle shown in Figure 6.1 to perform which of the following processes? A) recycle ADP and phosphate B) recycle energy released by ATP hydrolysis C) recycle the energy used for cellular work D) move energy from ATP to ADP Answer: A Topic: 6.3 ATP powers cellular work by coupling exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.3, V&C 4 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) For the enzyme-catalyzed reaction shown in Figure 6.2, which of these treatments will cause the greatest increase in the rate of the reaction if the initial reactant concentration is 1.0 micromolar? A) doubling the activation energy needed B) cooling the reaction by 10°C C) doubling the concentration of the reactants to 2.0 micromolar, while reducing the concentration of enzyme by half D) doubling the enzyme concentration Answer: D Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4, C2 Global L.O.: G2, G3

4) In Figure 6.2, why does the reaction rate plateau at higher reactant concentrations? A) Feedback inhibition by the product occurs at high reactant concentrations. B) Most enzyme molecules are occupied by substrate at high reactant concentrations. C) The reaction nears equilibrium at high reactant concentrations. D) The activation energy for the reaction increases with reactant concentration. Answer: B Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4, C2 Global L.O.: G2, G3

Figure 6.3 Activity of various enzymes (a) at various temperatures and (b) at various pH. 5) Which curves on the graphs in Figure 6.3 may represent the temperature and pH profiles of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in a mildly alkaline hot spring at temperatures of 70°C or higher? A) curves 1 and 5 B) curves 2 and 4 C) curves 2 and 5 D) curves 3 and 4 E) curves 3 and 5 Answer: E Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2, G3 6) Which temperature and pH profile curves on the graphs in Figure 6.3 were most likely generated from analysis of an enzyme from a human stomach, where conditions are strongly acidic? A) curves 1 and 4 B) curves 1 and 5 C) curves 2 and 4 D) curves 2 and 5 E) curves 3 and 4 Answer: A Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2, G3

Figure 6.4 7) Figure 6.4 illustratesvarious aspects of the free-energy change (ΔG) for the reaction A + B ↔ C + D. Which of the following best describes the forward reaction? A) endergonic, ∆G > 0 B) exergonic, ∆G < 0 C) endergonic, ∆G < 0 D) exergonic, ∆G > 0 Answer: B Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G3 8) Figure 6.4 illustrates various aspects of the free-energy change (ΔG) for the reaction A + B ↔ C + D. Which of the following changes in free-energy represents the overall ΔG for the reaction? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: D Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G3 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Figure 6.4 illustrates various aspects of the free-energy change (ΔG) for the reaction A + B ↔ C + D. Which of the following changes in free-energy would be the same in either an enzyme-catalyzed or a noncatalyzed reaction? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: D Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G3 10) Figure 6.4 illustrates various aspects of the free-energy change (ΔG) for the reaction A + B ↔ C + D. Which of the following represents change in free-energy for the reverse reaction, C + D → A + B? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: D Topic: Concept 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2, G3 11) Figure 6.4 illustrates various aspects of the free-energy change (ΔG) for the reaction A + B ↔ C + D. Which of the following changes in free-energy represents the difference between the free-energy content of the reactants and the free-energy content of the products? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: D Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G3 12) Figure 6.4 illustrates various aspects of the free-energy change (ΔG) for the reaction A + B ↔ C + D. Which of the following changes in free-energy represents the activation energy required for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction? A) a 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: B Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G3 13) Figure 6.4 illustrates various aspects of the free-energy change (ΔG) for the reaction A + B ↔ C + D. Which of the following changes in free-energy represents the activation energy required for a noncatalyzed reaction? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: C Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G3 6.3 Scenario Questions 1) Chemical equilibrium is relatively rare in living cells. Which of the following could be an example of a reaction at chemical equilibrium in a cell? A) a chemical reaction in which the free energy at equilibrium is higher than the free-energy content at any point away from equilibrium B) a chemical reaction in which neither the reactants nor the products are being produced or used in any other active metabolic pathway at that time in the cell C) an endergonic reaction in an active metabolic pathway in which the energy for that reaction is supplied only by heat from the environment D) Chemical equilibrium is not possible under any circumstances in a living cell. Answer: B Topic: 6.2 The free-energy change of a reaction tells us whether or not the reaction occurs spontaneously Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 6.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

2) Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid. Which of the following statements regarding the molecules involved in this reaction is correct? A) Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and fumarate is the substrate. B) Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and malonic acid is the substrate. C) Succinate is the substrate, and fumarate is the product. D) Fumarate is the product, and malonic acid is a noncompetitive inhibitor. E) Malonic acid is the product, and fumarate is a competitive inhibitor. Answer: C Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 3) Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid. The effect of malonic acid on the activity of succinate dehydrogenase suggests which of the following? A) Malonic acid is a noncompetitive inhibitor. B) Malonic acid is a competitive inhibitor. C) Malonic acid blocks the binding of fumarate. D) Malonic acid is an allosteric regulator. Answer: A Topic: 6.4 Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by lowering energy barriers Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.4, V&C 4 4) A series of enzymes catalyze the reactions illustrated in the following metabolic pathway: X → Y → Z → A. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding of A decreases the activity of the enzyme that converts X to Y. What is substance X? A) a coenzyme B) an allosteric inhibitor C) an intermediate D) a substrate Answer: D Topic: 6.5 Regulation of enzyme activity helps control metabolism Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.5, V&C 4

5) A series of enzymes catalyze the reactions illustrated in the following metabolic pathway: X → Y → Z → A. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding of A decreases the activity of the enzyme that converts X to Y. The product A functions as which of the following in terms of its effect on the enzyme that converts X to Y? A) a coenzyme B) an allosteric inhibitor C) a substrate D) a metabolic intermediate E) a competitive inhibitor Answer: B Topic: 6.5 Regulation of enzyme activity helps control metabolism Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.5, V&C 4 6.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as ________ is to ________. A) exergonic; spontaneous B) exergonic; endergonic C) free energy; entropy D) work; energy Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Most cells cannot harness heat to perform work because A) heat does not involve a transfer of energy. B) cells do not have much heat; they are relatively cool. C) temperature is usually uniform throughout a cell. D) heat can never be used to do work. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following metabolic processes can occur without a net influx of energy from some other process? A) ADP + <IMG/>i → ATP + H2O B) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O C) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 O2 D) amino acids → protein Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4) If an enzyme in solution is saturated with substrate, the most effective way to obtain a faster yield of products is to A) add more of the enzyme. B) heat the solution to 90°C. C) add more substrate. D) add an allosteric inhibitor. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because A) they are able to maintain a lower internal temperature. B) high temperatures make catalysis unnecessary. C) their enzymes have high optimal temperatures. D) their enzymes are completely insensitive to temperature. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) If an enzyme is added to a solution in which its substrate and product are in equilibrium, what will occur? A) Additional product will be formed. B) The reaction will change from endergonic to exergonic. C) The free energy of the system will change. D) Nothing; the reaction will stay at equilibrium. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation 7.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following terms describes metabolic pathways that break down complex molecules to release stored energy? A) catabolic pathways B) anabolic pathways C) bioenergetic pathways D) endergonic pathways Answer: A Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 2) In an oxidation-reduction reaction, how is the reducing agent changed? A) It gains electrons and gains potential energy. B) It gains electrons and loses potential energy. C) It loses electrons and loses potential energy. D) It loses electrons and gains potential energy. Answer: C Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 3) As a result of an oxidation-reduction reaction, how is the oxidizing agent changed? A) It gains electrons and gains potential energy. B) It gains electrons and loses potential energy. C) It loses electrons and loses potential energy. D) It loses electrons and gains potential energy. Answer: A Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 4) Which of the following describes the result of transferring an electron from a less electronegative atom to a more electronegative atom? A) The more electronegative atom is reduced, and energy is released. B) The more electronegative atom is reduced, and energy is consumed. C) The more electronegative atom is oxidized, and energy is consumed. D) The more electronegative atom is oxidized, and energy is released. Answer: A Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Why does the oxidation of organic compounds by molecular oxygen to produce CO2 and water release free energy? A) The covalent bonds in organic molecules and molecular oxygen have more kinetic energy than the covalent bonds in water and carbon dioxide. B) Electrons are moved from atoms that have a lower affinity for electrons (such as C) to atoms with a higher affinity for electrons (such as O). C) The oxidation of organic compounds releases less energy than the energy stored in the covalent bonds of CO2 and water. D) The covalent bond in O2 is unstable and easily broken by electrons from organic molecules. Answer: B Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 6) The complete reactions of cellular respiration in the presence of oxygen (C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + energy) result in which of the following? A) oxidation of O2 and reduction of H2O B) oxidation of C6H12O6 and reduction of O2 C) reduction of CO2 and oxidation of O2 D) reduction of C6H12O6 and oxidation of CO2 Answer: B Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 7) When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result of an oxidation-reduction reaction, the glucose molecule becomes A) hydrolyzed. B) hydrogenated. C) oxidized. D) reduced. E) an oxidizing agent. Answer: C Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4

8) Which of the following statements about NAD+ is true? A) NAD+ is the source of electrons used in oxidative phosphorylation. B) NAD+ has more chemical energy than NADH. C) NAD+ is oxidized by the action of dehydrogenase enzymes. D) NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis. Answer: D Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 9) Where does glycolysis occur in animal cells? A) cytosol B) outer mitochondrial membrane C) inner mitochondrial membrane D) mitochondrial matrix Answer: A Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 10) Which chemical process generates the ATP produced in glycolysis? A) chemiosmosis B) electron transport C) photophosphorylation D) oxidative phosphorylation E) substrate-level phosphorylation Answer: E Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 11) Which chemical process generates the ATP produced in the citric acid cycle? A) chemiosmosis B) electron transport C) photophosphorylation D) oxidative phosphorylation E) substrate-level phosphorylation Answer: E Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4

12) When a molecule of NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) gains a hydrogen atom (not a proton), the NAD+ molecule becomes A) dehydrogenated. B) oxidized. C) reduced. D) redoxed. E) hydrolyzed. Answer: C Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 13) The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event? A) glycolysis B) accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain C) the citric acid cycle D) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA E) the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP Answer: B Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 14) Which of the following situations results from the transfer of an electron to a more electronegative atom? A) The electron loses potential energy. B) The electron gains potential energy. C) The electron gains kinetic energy. D) The electron oxidizes the more electronegative atom. Answer: A Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 15) Why are carbohydrates and fats considered high-energy foods? A) They have many oxygen atoms. B) They have few nitrogen atoms. C) They have a large number of electrons associated with hydrogen. D) They have many carbon atoms bound together by single covalent bonds. Answer: C Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4

16) Which of the following indicates a primary path by which electrons travel downhill energetically during aerobic respiration? A) glucose → citric acid cycle → ATP → NAD+ B) glucose → NADH → electron transport chain → oxygen C) glucose → pyruvate → acetyl CoA → ATP → oxygen D) glucose → glycolysis → electron transport chain → NADH → ATP E) glucose → glycolysis → citric acid cycle → NADH → ATP Answer: B Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 17) Which of the following sequences represents the correct order in which metabolic reactions occur during the complete oxidation of glucose through aerobic respiration? A) glucose → citric acid cycle → glycolysis → pyruvate oxidation → electron transport chain B) glucose → pyruvate oxidation → glycolysis → electron transport chain → citric acid cycle C) glucose → glycolysis → pyruvate oxidation → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain D) glucose → glycolysis → citric acid cycle → pyruvate oxidation → electron transport chain E) glucose → pyruvate oxidation → citric acid cycle → glycolysis → electron transport chain Answer: C Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 18) How many molecules of oxygen (O2) are consumed by the complete oxidation of glucose (C6H12O6) to carbon dioxide and water in aerobic respiration? A) 1 B) 3 C) 6 D) 12 E) 36 Answer: C Topic: 7.1 Catabolic pathways yield energy by oxidizing organic fuels Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.1, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

19) Which of the following metabolic processes in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent? A) electron transport B) glycolysis C) the citric acid cycle D) oxidative phosphorylation E) chemiosmosis Answer: B Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 20) Approximately what percentage of the ATP formed by the reactions of glycolysis is produced by substrate-level phosphorylation? A) 0% B) 2% C) 10% D) 38% E) 100% Answer: E Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 21) Approximately what percentage of the ATP formed by the electron transport chain is produced by substrate-level phosphorylation? A) 0% B) 2% C) 10% D) 38% E) 100% Answer: A Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

22) Upon completion of glycolysis, what is the fate of the majority of the potential energy contained in the original glucose molecule? A) It is stored in two ATP molecules. B) It is released as heat. C) It is retained in two pyruvate molecules. D) It is stored in the two NADH molecules. Answer: C Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 23) In addition to ATP, what are the products of glycolysis? A) CO2 and H2O B) CO2 and pyruvate C) NADH and pyruvate D) CO2 and NADH E) H2O, FADH2, and citrate Answer: C Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 24) The free-energy change for the oxidation of glucose to CO2 and water is -686 kcal/mol, and the free-energy change for the reduction of NAD+ to NADH is +53 kcal/mol. Why are only two molecules of NADH formed during glycolysis when it appears that as many as a dozen could be formed? A) Most of the-free energy available from the oxidation of glucose is captured by the production of ATP. B) Glycolysis is a very inefficient process, with much of the energy from glucose released as heat. C) Most of the free energy available from the oxidation of glucose remains in pyruvate, one of the products of glycolysis. D) Glycolysis consists of many enzyme-catalyzed reactions, each of which extracts a small amount of energy from the glucose molecule. Answer: C Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

25) Which of the following correctly lists all of the energy-containing molecules produced by the catabolism of one molecule of glucose in glycolysis? A) 2 NAD+, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP B) 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP C) 2 FADH2, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ATP D) 6 CO2, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP E) 6 CO2, 2 pyruvate, and 30 ATP Answer: B Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 26) Glycolysis results in a net production of which of the following molecules from each molecule of glucose? A) 2 NAD+, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP B) 4 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ATP C) 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP D) 6 CO2, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP E) 6 CO2, 2 pyruvate, and 30 ATP Answer: C Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 27) Which of the following statements correctly describes how ATP is involved in the oxidation of one molecule of glucose in glycolysis? A) Two molecules of ATP are used, and two molecules of ATP are produced. B) Two molecules of ATP are used, and four molecules of ATP are produced. C) Four molecules of ATP are used, and two molecules of ATP are produced. D) Two molecules of ATP are used, and six molecules of ATP are produced. Answer: B Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 28) Catabolism of each molecule of glucose in glycolysis is associated with a net consumption of which of the following other molecules? A) 2 NAD+, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP B) 4 NAD+, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ADP C) 2 NAD+ and 4 ADP D) 2 NAD+ and 2 ADP E) 2 NADH and 2 ADP Answer: D Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

29) Why is glycolysis described as having an energy investment phase and an energy payoff phase? A) Early steps consume energy from ATP and NADH, and later steps store an equal amount of energy in ATP and NAD+. B) Early steps consume energy from ATP and NADH, and later steps store an increased amount of energy in ATP and NADH. C) Early steps consume energy from ATP and NADH, and later steps store an increased amount of energy in ATP. D) Early steps consume energy from ATP, and later steps store an increased amount of energy in ATP and NADH. E) Early steps consume energy from NADH, and later steps store an increased amount of energy in ATP and NADH. Answer: D Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 30) Which of the following statements is true for a molecule that is phosphorylated? A) It has been reduced as a result of a redox reaction involving the loss of an inorganic phosphate. B) It has a decreased chemical energy and is less likely to provide energy for cellular work. C) It has been oxidized as a result of a redox reaction involving the gain of an inorganic phosphate. D) It has increased chemical potential energy that may be used to do cellular work. Answer: D Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 31) Which kind of metabolic poison would most directly interfere with glycolysis? A) an agent that reacts with oxygen and depletes its concentration in the cell B) an agent that binds to pyruvate and inactivates it C) an agent that closely mimics the structure of glucose but is not metabolized D) an agent that reacts with NADH and oxidizes it to NAD+ E) an agent that blocks the passage of electrons along the electron transport chain Answer: C Topic: 7.2 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

32) How many carbon atoms from one molecule of pyruvate enter the citric acid cycle? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10 Answer: A Topic: 7.3 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.3, V&C 4 33) Carbon dioxide (CO2) is released during which of the following stages of cellular respiration? A) glycolysis and the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA B) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle C) the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation D) glycolysis and the citric acid cycle Answer: B Topic: 7.3 Glycolysis harvests chemical energy by oxidizing glucose to pyruvate Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.3, V&C 4 34) For each molecule of glucose that is catabolized in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, how many NADH molecules are produced? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 10 E) 12 Answer: D Topic: 7.3 After pyruvate is oxidized, the citric acid cycle completes the energy-yielding oxidation of organic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.3, V&C 4

35) Assuming glucose is the only energy source for a cell, what fraction of the carbon dioxide produced by aerobic respiration is generated by the reactions of the citric acid cycle? A) 1/6 B) 1/3 C) 1/2 D) 2/3 E) all of it Answer: D Topic: 7.3 After pyruvate is oxidized, the citric acid cycle completes the energy-yielding oxidation of organic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 36) Assuming glucose is the only energy source for a cell, what fraction of the carbon dioxide produced by aerobic respiration is generated by the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA? A) 1/6 B) 1/3 C) 1/2 D) 2/3 E) all of it Answer: B Topic: 7.3 After pyruvate is oxidized, the citric acid cycle completes the energy-yielding oxidation of organic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 37) Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located in a eukaryotic cell? A) cytosol B) outer mitochondrial membrane C) inner mitochondrial membrane D) mitochondrial intermembrane space E) mitochondrial matrix Answer: C Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4

38) In the complete reactions of aerobic respiration, the energy for most of the ATP produced is provided by A) transfer of electrons from organic molecules to acetyl CoA. B) high-energy phosphate bonds from organic molecule intermediates in the citric acid cycle. C) splitting water to produce oxygen. D) a proton gradient across a membrane. Answer: D Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 39) Which of the following molecules donates electrons directly to the electron transport chain at the lowest energy level? A) NAD+ B) NADH C) ATP D) FAD E) FADH2 Answer: E Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 40) Which of the following molecules donates electrons directly to the electron transport chain at the highest energy level? A) NAD+ B) NADH C) ATP D) FAD E) FADH2 Answer: B Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4

41) What is the primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration? A) to donate high energy electrons to the electron transport chain B) to serve as an acceptor for released carbon, forming CO2 C) to serve as an acceptor for electrons and protons, forming water D) to donate high energy electrons to NAD+, forming NADH Answer: C Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 42) Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which of the following pathways? A) NADH → oxidative phosphorylation → ATP → oxygen B) citric acid cycle → FADH2 → electron transport chain → ATP C) electron transport chain → citric acid cycle → ATP → oxygen D) citric acid cycle → ATP → NADH → oxygen E) citric acid cycle → NADH → electron transport chain → oxygen Answer: E Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 43) The oxygen atoms used to form water in the complete reactions of cellular respiration are derived from which of the following molecules? A) carbon dioxide (CO2) B) glucose (C6H12O6) C) pyruvate (C3H3O3-) D) molecular oxygen (O2) Answer: D Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4

44) In chemiosmosis, what is the most direct source of energy that is used to convert ADP + ℗i to ATP? A) energy released as electrons flow through the electron transport system B) energy released from substrate-level phosphorylation C) energy released from ATP hydrolysis D) energy released from movement of protons down their electrochemical gradient through ATP synthase Answer: D Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 45) What is the source of the energy used to generate the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane? A) ATP hydrolysis B) redox reactions in the electron transport chain C) decreasing the pH in the mitochondrial matrix D) splitting water to form oxygen and protons Answer: B Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 46) Where in mitochondria is the enzyme ATP synthase localized? A) mitochondrial matrix B) electron transport chain C) inner membrane D) outer membrane Answer: C Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 47) In the complete oxidation of a molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) in aerobic cellular respiration, how many molecules of ATP are produced by substrate-level phosphorylation? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 30-32 Answer: B Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ into which location in eukaryotic cells? A) cytosol B) outer mitochondrial membrane C) inner mitochondrial membrane D) mitochondrial intermembrane space E) mitochondrial matrix Answer: D Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 49) What is the immediate source of the energy used to synthesize ATP by oxidative phosphorylation in eukaryotic cells? A) oxidation of glucose to CO2 and water B) the thermodynamically favorable flow of electrons from NADH to proteins associated with the mitochondrial electron transport chain C) the transfer of protons and electrons to oxygen D) the proton-motive force across the inner mitochondrial membrane E) the thermodynamically favorable transfer of high-energy phosphate groups from molecules in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle to ADP Answer: D Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 50) When hydrogen ions are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix across the inner membrane and into the intermembrane space, the result is A) the formation of ATP. B) the reduction of NAD+. C) a decrease in the pH of the mitochondrial matrix. D) the creation of a proton-motive force. Answer: D Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

51) Which of the following metabolic processes produces the most ATP when glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide (CO2) and water? A) glycolysis B) fermentation C) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA D) citric acid cycle E) oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis) Answer: E Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 52) The complete oxidation of two molecules of glucose (C6H12O6) in cellular respiration produces about how many molecules of ATP? A) 2 B) 4 C) 15 D) 30-32 E) 60-64 Answer: E Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 53) The synthesis of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation, using the energy released by movement of protons across the membrane down their electrochemical gradient, is an example of A) conversion of potential energy to kinetic energy. B) an endergonic reaction coupled to an exergonic reaction. C) a redox reaction. D) allosteric regulation. Answer: B Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

54) If 30 molecules of ATP are produced for each molecule of glucose completely oxidized to carbon dioxide and water, how many ATP molecules will be produced for each molecule of pyruvate completely oxidized to carbon dioxide and water? A) 2 B) 6 C) 14 D) 28 E) 60 Answer: C Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 55) What is the proton-motive force? A) the energy required to remove an electron from a hydrogen atom B) the energy provided by a transmembrane hydrogen ion gradient C) the energy that moves hydrogen into the intermembrane space D) the energy that moves hydrogen atoms into the mitochondrion Answer: B Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 56) In liver cells, the inner mitochondrial membranes are about five times the area of the outer mitochondrial membranes. What purpose must this serve? A) It increases the surface area for glycolysis. B) It increases the surface area for the citric acid cycle. C) It increases the surface area for oxidative phosphorylation. D) It increases the surface area for substrate-level phosphorylation. Answer: C Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

57) Brown fat cells produce a protein called thermogenin in their mitochondrial inner membrane. Thermogenin is an ion channel that facilitates diffusion of protons across the membrane. What will occur in the brown fat cells when thermogenin is present in their inner mitochondrial membranes? A) ATP synthesis and heat generation will both increase. B) ATP synthesis will increase, and heat generation will decrease. C) ATP synthesis will decrease, and heat generation will increase. D) ATP synthesis and heat generation will both decrease. Answer: C Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 58) In a mitochondrion, if the matrix ATP concentration is high and there is no proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane to generate a proton-motive force, then what might you expect to occur? A) ATP synthase will increase the rate of ATP synthesis. B) ATP synthase will synthesize ATP and pump protons into the intermembrane space. C) ATP synthase will hydrolyze ATP and pump protons into the intermembrane space. D) ATP synthase will hydrolyze ATP and pump protons into the matrix. Answer: C Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 59) Which organelles or organisms are capable of synthesizing ATP using energy from chemiosmosis? A) only mitochondria in animal cells B) only bacteria that generate proton gradients across their plasma membranes C) only mitochondria and chloroplasts D) only mitochondria and bacteria that generate proton gradients across their plasma membranes E) mitochondria, chloroplasts, and bacteria that generate proton gradients across their plasma membranes Answer: E Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4

60) In vertebrate animals, brown fat tissue's color is derived from abundant blood vessels and capillaries. White fat tissue, on the other hand, is specialized for fat storage and contains relatively few blood vessels or capillaries. Brown fat cells produce the protein thermogenin, which is an ion channel that facilitates diffusion of protons across the membrane. Which of the following statements might best describe the function of the brown fat tissue? A) to increase the rate of oxidative phosphorylation from its few mitochondria B) to increase the metabolic rate when it is especially hot C) to increase the rate of ATP production D) to regulate temperature by converting most of the energy from the mitochondrial proton gradient to heat Answer: D Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 61) Under anaerobic conditions, what carbon sources can be metabolized by yeast cells to produce ATP from ADP? A) glucose B) ethanol C) pyruvate D) lactic acid Answer: A Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 62) Yeast cells with defective mitochondria are incapable of cellular respiration. Catabolism of which of the following energy sources would allow these to grow? A) glucose B) proteins C) fatty acids D) pyruvate Answer: A Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

63) Which catabolic processes may have been used by cells on ancient Earth before free oxygen became available? A) only glycolysis and fermentation B) only glycolysis and the citric acid cycle C) only glycolysis and pyruvate oxidation D) only oxidative phosphorylation, using an electron acceptor other than oxygen E) glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation, using an electron acceptor other than oxygen Answer: E Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 64) Which of the following metabolic pathways occur(s) in the cytosol of eukaryotic cells? A) glycolysis and fermentation B) fermentation and chemiosmosis C) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA D) citric acid cycle E) oxidative phosphorylation Answer: A Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 65) Which of the following metabolic pathways occur(s) in mitochondria? A) glycolysis and fermentation B) fermentation and chemiosmosis C) glycolysis and oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA D) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle E) fermentation and oxidative phosphorylation Answer: D Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5

66) Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to both aerobic cellular respiration and anaerobic fermentation? A) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA B) the citric acid cycle C) oxidative phosphorylation D) glycolysis E) chemiosmosis Answer: D Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 67) Which of the following metabolic pathways requires a proton gradient? A) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA B) the citric acid cycle C) oxidative phosphorylation D) glycolysis E) fermentation Answer: C Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 68) Which of the following metabolic pathways generates a proton gradient? A) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA B) the citric acid cycle C) chemiosmosis D) the electron transport chain E) glycolysis Answer: D Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4

69) Which of the following processes is responsible for the ATP made during fermentation? A) the electron transport chain B) substrate-level phosphorylation C) chemiosmosis D) oxidative phosphorylation E) aerobic respiration Answer: B Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 70) Yeast cells grown anaerobically can obtain energy by fermentation, which results in the production of A) ATP, NADH, and pyruvate. B) ATP and lactate. C) ATP, CO2, and lactate. D) ATP, CO2, and ethanol. E) ATP, CO2, and acetyl CoA. Answer: D Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 71) During alcohol fermentation in yeast, NAD+ is regenerated from NADH by which of the following processes? A) oxidation of ethanol to acetaldehyde B) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA C) reduction of pyruvate to lactate D) reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol E) reduction of acetyl CoA to ethanol Answer: D Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4

72) Which of the following statements describes a primary function of both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation? A) to reduce NAD+ to NADH B) to reduce FAD+ to FADH2 C) to oxidize NADH to NAD+ D) to oxidize FADH2 to FAD Answer: C Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 73) Which one of the following molecules is formed by the removal of a carbon (as CO2) from a molecule of pyruvate during aerobic respiration? A) lactate B) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C) oxaloacetate D) acetyl CoA E) citrate Answer: D Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 74) Which statement best supports the hypothesis that glycolysis is an ancient metabolic pathway that originated before the last universal common ancestor of life on Earth? A) Glycolysis is widespread and is found in the domains Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. B) Glycolysis neither uses nor requires O2. C) Glycolysis occurs in all eukaryotic cells. D) The enzymes of glycolysis are localized in the cytosol rather than in a membrane-enclosed organelle. Answer: A Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 1, 4 Global L.O.: G2

75) Why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved? A) It produces much less ATP than does oxidative phosphorylation. B) It does not involve organelles or specialized structures, does not require oxygen, and is present in most organisms. C) It is found in prokaryotic cells but not in eukaryotic cells. D) It relies on chemiosmosis, which is a metabolic mechanism present only in prokaryotic cells. Answer: B Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 1, 4 Global L.O.: G2 76) During strenuous exercise, human muscle cells can become oxygen-deprived. When this occurs, muscle cells perform anaerobic fermentation, which results in the production of lactate from pyruvate. What happens to the lactate produced in muscle cells? A) It is reduced and converted back to pyruvate in muscle cells. B) It is oxidized to CO2 and water. C) It is taken to the liver and converted back to pyruvate. D) It is converted to alcohol. Answer: C Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 77) A mutation in yeast knocks out the ability of cells to convert pyruvate to ethanol. How might this mutation affect these yeast cells? A) The mutant yeast will be unable to metabolize glucose. B) The mutant yeast will be unable to grow anaerobically. C) The mutant yeast will be unable to grow aerobically. D) The mutant yeast will grow anaerobically only when provided glucose. Answer: B Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

78) What is the primary function of beta oxidation in respiration? A) breakdown of glucose B) breakdown of pyruvate C) breakdown of proteins D) breakdown of fatty acids Answer: D Topic: 7.6 Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle connect to many other metabolic pathways Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.6, V&C 4 79) In what form do the catabolic products of beta oxidation enter into the citric acid cycle? A) as pyruvate B) as glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate C) as CO2 D) as acetyl CoA E) as glycerol Answer: D Topic: 7.6 Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle connect to many other metabolic pathways Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.6, V&C 4 80) During intense exercise, as human muscle cells switch from respiration to fermentation, the cells will increase their catabolism of which of the following energy-containing molecules? A) fats only B) carbohydrates only C) proteins only D) fats, carbohydrates, and proteins E) fats and proteins only Answer: B Topic: 7.6 Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle connect to many other metabolic pathways Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.6, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

7.2 Art Questions

Figure 7.1 1) In the citric acid cycle (see Figure 7.1), beginning with one molecule of isocitrate and ending with fumarate, how many ATP molecules can be made through substrate-level phosphorylation? A) 1 B) 2 C) 11 D) 12 E) 24 Answer: A Topic: 7.3 After pyruvate is oxidized, the citric acid cycle completes the energy-yielding oxidation of organic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

2) Carbon skeletons for amino acid biosynthesis are supplied by intermediates of the citric acid cycle (see Figure 7.1). Which intermediate would you predict may directly supply the carbon skeleton for synthesis of a five-carbon amino acid? A) succinate B) malate C) citrate D) α-ketoglutarate E) isocitrate Answer: D Topic: 7.3 After pyruvate is oxidized, the citric acid cycle completes the energy-yielding oxidation of organic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 3) For each mole of glucose (C6H12O6) completely oxidized by cellular respiration, how many moles of CO2 are released in the citric acid cycle (see Figure 7.1)? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 E) 12 Answer: C Topic: 7.3 After pyruvate is oxidized, the citric acid cycle completes the energy-yielding oxidation of organic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 4) How would you predict that blocking the oxidation of pyruvate would affect the levels of oxaloacetate and citrate in the citric acid cycle (see Figure 7.1)? A) There will be no change in the levels of oxaloacetate and citrate. B) Oxaloacetate will decrease, and citrate will accumulate. C) Oxaloacetate will accumulate, and citrate will decrease. D) Both oxaloacetate and citrate will decrease. E) Both oxaloacetate and citrate will accumulate. Answer: C Topic: 7.3 After pyruvate is oxidized, the citric acid cycle completes the energy-yielding oxidation of organic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

5) Which of the following combinations of products would result from three acetyl CoA molecules entering the citric acid cycle (see Figure 7.1)? A) 1 ATP, 1 CoA, 2 CO2, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2 B) 2 ATP, 2 CoA, 2 CO2, 3 NADH, and 3 FADH2 C) 3 ATP, 3 CoA, 3 CO2, 3 NADH, and 3 FADH2 D) 3 ATP, 3 CoA, 6 CO2, 9 NADH, and 3 FADH2 E) 36 ATP, 3 CoA, 6 CO2, 6 NADH, and 6 FADH2 Answer: D Topic: 7.3 After pyruvate is oxidized, the citric acid cycle completes the energy-yielding oxidation of organic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

Figure 7.2

6) Figure 7.2 illustrates the electron transport chain. Which of the following is initially added to the chain with the highest free energy? A) oxygen B) FADH2 C) NADH D) water Answer: C Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 7) Which of the following is an accurate description of the events that occur along the electron transport chain depicted in Figure 7.2? A) ATP is generated directly at three points in the pathway. B) Electron transfer is directly coupled to chemiosmosis. C) Each electron transfer between carriers results in oxidation of one carrier and reduction of another. D) The potential energy of electrons increases at each step in the pathway. Answer: C Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 8) Which of the protein complexes labeled with Roman numerals in Figure 7.2 transfers electrons to O2? A) complex I B) complex II C) complex III D) complex IV Answer: D Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4

9) What happens at the end of the chain in Figure 7.2? A) Two electrons combine with a proton and a molecule of NAD+. B) Two electrons combine with a molecule of oxygen and two hydrogen atoms. C) Four electrons combine with a molecule of oxygen and four protons. D) Four electrons combine with four hydrogen and two oxygen atoms. E) One electron combines with a molecule of oxygen and a hydrogen atom. Answer: C Topic: 7.4 During oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis couples electron transport to ATP synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.4, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 7.3 Scenario Questions 1) In the presence of oxygen, the pyruvate can be catabolized in the citric acid cycle. First, however, the pyruvate (1) loses a carbon, (2) is oxidized to form a two-carbon compound, which (3) is covalently bound to coenzyme A. These three steps result in the formation of A) acetyl CoA, CO2, and ATP. B) acetyl CoA, FADH2, and CO2. C) acetyl CoA, NADH, H2, and CO2. D) acetyl CoA, NADH, H+, and CO2. E) acetyl CoA, NAD+, ATP, and CO2. Answer: D Topic: 7.3 After pyruvate is oxidized, the citric acid cycle completes the energy-yielding oxidation of organic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 2) A young dog has never had much energy. A veterinarian discovers that the dog's mitochondria can use only fatty acids and amino acids for cellular respiration, and his cells produce more lactate than normal. Of the following, which is the best explanation of the dog's condition? A) His mitochondria lack the transport protein that moves pyruvate across the outer mitochondrial membrane. B) His cells cannot transport NADH from glycolysis into the mitochondria. C) His cells contain something that inhibits oxygen use in his mitochondria. D) His cells have a defective electron transport chain, so glucose is converted to lactate instead of acetyl CoA. Answer: A Topic: 7.3 After pyruvate is oxidized, the citric acid cycle completes the energy-yielding oxidation of organic molecules Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 7.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 31 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) An organism is discovered that thrives in both the presence and absence of oxygen. Curiously, the consumption of sugar increases as oxygen is removed from the organism's environment, even though the organism does not gain much weight. This organism A) is photosynthetic. B) is a normal member of the animal kingdom. C) must utilize a molecule other than oxygen to accept electrons from the electron transport chain. D) is a facultative anaerobe. E) is an obligate anaerobe. Answer: D Topic: 7.5 Fermentation and anaerobic respiration enable cells to produce ATP without the use of oxygen Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.5, V&C 4 4) A man interested in losing weight and increasing his fitness followed a strict diet and exercise regimen for three months. Body fat analysis indicated that the man had lost 7 kg (about 15 pounds) of fat by following this exercise and diet program. What is the most likely form by which the fat left his body? A) It was converted to heat, which was released to the environment. B) It was released as CO2 and H2O. C) It was converted to ATP, which weighs much less than fat. D) It was broken down to amino acids and eliminated from the body. Answer: B Topic: 7.6 Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle connect to many other metabolic pathways Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 7.6, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 7.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) The immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation is the A) oxidation of glucose and other organic compounds. B) flow of electrons down the electron transport chain. C) H+ concentration gradient across the membrane holding ATP synthase. D) transfer of phosphate to ADP. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration of a glucose molecule? A) the citric acid cycle B) the electron transport chain C) glycolysis D) reduction of pyruvate to lactate Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) In mitochondria, exergonic redox reactions A) are the source of energy driving prokaryotic ATP synthesis. B) provide the energy that establishes the proton gradient. C) reduce carbon atoms to carbon dioxide. D) are coupled via phosphorylated intermediates to endergonic processes. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is A) oxygen. B) water. C) NAD+. D) pyruvate. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) What is the oxidizing agent in the following reaction? Pyruvate + NADH + H+ → Lactate + NAD+ A) oxygen B) NADH C) lactate D) pyruvate Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

6) When electrons flow along the electron transport chains of mitochondria, which of the following changes occurs? A) The pH of the matrix increases. B) ATP synthase pumps protons by active transport. C) The electrons gain free energy. D) NAD+ is oxidized. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Most CO2 from catabolism is released during A) glycolysis. B) the citric acid cycle. C) lactate fermentation. D) electron transport. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 8 Photosynthesis 8.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In autotrophic bacteria, where are chlorophyll-like pigments located? A) in the chloroplast membranes B) in the central vacuole membrane C) in infolded regions of the plasma membrane D) in infolded regions of the cell wall Answer: C Topic: 8.1 Photosynthesis converts light energy to the chemical energy of food Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.1, V&C 2, 4 2) Which of the following molecules are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle? A) CO2 and glucose B) H2O and O2 C) ADP, ℗i, and NADP+ D) electrons and H+ E) ATP and NADPH Answer: E Topic: 8.1 Photosynthesis converts light energy to the chemical energy of food Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.1, V&C 4 3) Where does the Calvin cycle take place? A) stroma of the chloroplast B) thylakoid membrane C) outer membrane of the chloroplast D) interior of the thylakoid (thylakoid space) Answer: A Topic: 8.1 Photosynthesis converts light energy to the chemical energy of food Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.1, V&C 4 4) Which of the following reactions produces the oxygen released by photosynthesis? A) reduction of NADP+ B) splitting of water molecules C) chemiosmosis D) electron transfer in photosystem I. Answer: B Topic: Concept 8.1 Photosynthesis converts light energy to the chemical energy of food Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.1, V&C 4 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Which of the following statements correctly summarizes a redox reaction that occurs in photosynthesis? A) Glucose is oxidized to form CO2. B) CO2 is oxidized to form glucose. C) CO2 is reduced to form glucose. D) Water is reduced to form O2. E) O2 is oxidized to form water. Answer: C Topic: 8.1 Photosynthesis converts light energy to the chemical energy of food Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.1, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 6) The leaves of a plant with a unique photosynthetic pigment appear orange in sunlight. What wavelengths of visible light are most likely absorbed by this unique pigment? A) red and yellow B) blue and violet C) green and yellow D) blue and red Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 7) What is the primary function of the pigment molecules in a light-harvesting complex? A) to split water and release oxygen to the reaction-center chlorophyll B) to transfer light energy to the reaction-center chlorophyll C) to synthesize ATP from ADP and ℗i D) to transfer electrons to the primary electron acceptor Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 8) Which of the following events occurs in the light reactions of photosynthesis? A) NADP+ is produced. B) ATP is consumed to yield ADP. C) Carbon dioxide is fixed in organic molecules. D) Light is absorbed and transferred to reaction-center chlorophyll. Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Which of the following statements correctly describes a reaction associated with photosystem II? A) Light energy excites electrons in the thylakoid membrane electron transport chain. B) Electrons released from the P680 chlorophyll are replaced by electrons derived from water. C) The P680 chlorophyll donates a pair of electrons directly to NADP+, producing NADPH. D) Electrons are passed from the P680 chlorophyll to oxygen (O2). Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 10) Which of the following statements correctly describes an activity directly associated with photosystem I? A) It produces ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation. B) It receives electrons from the electron transport chain associated with thylakoid membranes. C) It produces O2. D) It extracts hydrogen electrons released by the splitting of water. Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 11) In chemiosmosis in mitochondria, protons flow from the intermembrane space into the matrix. In what direction do protons flow during chemiosmosis in chloroplasts? A) from the stroma into the cytosol B) from the matrix into the stroma C) from the stroma into the thylakoid space D) from the intermembrane space into the stroma E) from the thylakoid space to into the stroma Answer: E Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 12) The pH of the inner thylakoid space has been measured, as have the pH of the stroma and of the cytosol of a particular plant cell. Which of the following relationships would you expect to find when the cell is examined in the light? A) The pH within the thylakoid is lower than that of the stroma. B) The pH of the stroma is lower than that of either the thylakoid space or the cytosol. C) The pH of the thylakoid space is higher than that of either the stroma or the cytosol. D) The pH of the stroma is higher than that of either the thylakoid space or the cytosol. Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) A reduction in the amount of NADP+ available in plant cells in the light will ultimately result in which of the following effects? A) an increase in the rate of the Calvin cycle B) a decrease in the rate of linear electron flow C) a decrease in the rate of cyclic electron flow D) an increase in the rate of oxygen production Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 14) Which of the following reactions reduce(s) oxygen to form water? A) the light reactions of photosynthesis only B) the Calvin cycle only C) cellular respiration only D) both the light reactions of photosynthesis and cellular respiration E) both the light reactions of photosynthesis and the Calvin cycle Answer: C Topic: 8.3 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 15) Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, yet they are able to survive. Which of the following experimental approaches would be a reasonable way to detect the lack of photosystem II in these organisms? A) Determine if they have thylakoid membranes in the chloroplasts. B) Test whether they release O2 in the light. C) Test whether they fix CO2 in the dark. D) Test the action spectrum for photosynthesis. Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G1, G2 16) What are the products of linear electron flow? A) heat and fluorescence B) ATP and water C) ATP and NADPH D) ADP and NADP+ Answer: C Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4

17) What is the primary function of cyclic electron flow? A) to produce additional NADPH B) to produce additional ATP C) to produce additional oxygen D) to produce additional carbon dioxide Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 18) The Calvin cycle in a culture of algae grown in the light utilizes approximately 30,000 molecules of ATP but only 20,000 molecules of NADPH per hour. What is the source of the extra ATP utilized? A) photosystem II B) photosystem I C) cyclic electron flow D) oxidation of NADPH Answer: C Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 19) Chemiosmosis in chloroplasts involves which of the following processes? A) establishment of a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane B) diffusion of electrons through the thylakoid membrane C) reduction of water to produce oxygen D) formation of glucose from carbon dioxide Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 20) Imagine that a researcher has developed a way to isolate thylakoids from chloroplasts and to make the pH of the thylakoid space acidic. If these isolated thylakoids are transferred to a pH8 solution in the dark, what might the researcher expect to observe? A) that the isolated thylakoids produce ATP B) that the isolated thylakoids produce glucose C) that the isolated thylakoids reduce NADP+ to NADPH D) that the isolated thylakoids produce oxygen gas Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G1, G2

21) Where are ATP synthase complexes located in a plant cell? A) thylakoid membranes only B) plasma membranes only C) inner mitochondrial membranes only D) thylakoid membranes and inner mitochondrial membranes E) thylakoid membranes and plasma membranes Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 2, 4 22) In mitochondria, the electron transport chain pumps protons from the matrix into the intermembrane space. In what direction are protons pumped by the electron transport chain in chloroplasts? A) from the stroma to the cytosol B) from the matrix to the stroma C) from the stroma to the thylakoid space D) from the intermembrane space to the stroma E) from the thylakoid space to the stroma Answer: C Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 23) Which of the following statements about the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is correct? A) In cellular respiration, the biochemical pathways of photosynthesis run in reverse. B) In photosynthesis, the biochemical pathways of cellular respiration run in reverse. C) Cellular respiration occurs only in animals, and photosynthesis occurs only in plants. D) There is a net consumption of ATP in cellular respiration and a net production of ATP in photosynthesis. E) Cellular respiration is catabolic and photosynthesis is anabolic. Answer: E Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 24) Where is the electron transport chain associated with photophosphorylation located in plant cells? A) thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts B) stroma of chloroplasts C) outer membrane of chloroplasts D) inner membrane of mitochondria Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 2, 4 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Where are electron transport chains that are responsible for ATP production located in plant cells? A) in the outer chloroplast membranes only B) in the thylakoid membranes only C) in the inner mitochondrial membranes only D) in the thylakoid and outer chloroplast membranes E) in the thylakoid and inner mitochondrial membranes Answer: E Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 26) In photosynthetic cells, which reactions is (are) responsible for the synthesis of ATP by chemiosmosis? A) photosynthesis only B) cellular respiration only C) both photosynthesis and cellular respiration D) cyclic photophosphorylation only Answer: C Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 27) Photophosphorylation in photosynthesis is most similar to which of the following processes associated with cellular respiration? A) substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis B) pyruvate oxidation in the production of acetyl-CoA C) oxidation of NADH in anerobic fermentation D) oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

28) If plants are grown with H2O containing a radioactive isotope of oxygen (18O), subsequent analysis will show that 18O first appears in which of the following molecules produced by the plants? A) O2 B) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) C) CO2 D) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 29) Carotenoids are found in several foods that are considered to have antioxidant properties in human nutrition. What related function do they have in plants? A) They are accessory pigments that narrow the spectrum of light wavelengths used to drive photosynthesis. B) They absorb harmful ultraviolet radiation to protect plant chromosomes from damage. C) They absorb and dissipate excess light energy that might otherwise react with oxygen to form harmful oxidative molecules. D) They absorb orange light, enhancing the efficiency of photosynthesis. Answer: C Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 30) Generation of proton gradients across membranes occurs during which of the following reactions? A) photosynthesis only B) cellular respiration only C) both photosynthesis and cellular respiration D) photosynthesis, cellular respiration, and alcohol fermentation in yeast Answer: C Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 31) What is the relationship between wavelength of light and the quantity of energy per photon? A) They have a direct, linear relationship. B) They are inversely related. C) They are logarithmically related. D) They are only related in certain parts of the spectrum. Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) P680+ is often considered the strongest biological oxidizing agent. Given its function, why is this necessary? A) It is the receptor for the most excited electrons in either photosystem. B) It is the molecule that transfers electrons to the photosynthetic electron transport chain. C) It transfers its electrons directly to NADP+ to produce NADPH. D) It obtains electrons from the oxygen atom in a water molecule, so it must have a greater affinity for electrons than oxygen has. E) It has a positive charge. Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 33) Some photosynthetic bacteria (e.g., purple sulfur bacteria) have only photosystem I, whereas others (e.g., cyanobacteria) have both photosystem I and photosystem II. No photosynthetic bacteria have only photosystem II. Which of the following might be a possible explanation for this observation? A) Both photosystems evolved together, and photosystem II was selected against in some species. B) Photosynthesis with only photosystem I is more ancestral. C) Photosystem I is more efficient at photosynthesis than both photosystems I and II together. D) Linear electron flow is more primitive than cyclic flow of electrons. Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 1, 4 Global L.O.: G2 34) A flask containing photosynthetic green algae and a control flask containing water with no algae are both placed under a bank of lights, which are set to cycle between 12 hours of light and 12 hours of dark. The dissolved oxygen concentrations in both flasks are monitored. Predict what the relative dissolved oxygen concentrations will be in the flask with algae compared to the control flask. A) The concentration of dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will always be higher. B) The concentration of dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will always be lower. C) The concentration of dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will be higher in the light but the same in the dark. D) The concentration of dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will be higher in the light but lower in the dark. E) The concentration of dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will be lower in the light but higher in the dark. Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G1, G2 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle? A) to regenerate ATP for use in the light reactions of photosynthesis B) to produce carbon dioxide for use in the light reactions of photosynthesis C) to produce oxygen by oxidizing water D) to produce simple sugars from carbon dioxide Answer: D Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 36) What compound provides the reducing power for the Calvin cycle reactions? A) ATP B) FAD C) FADH2 D) NADPH E) CO2 Answer: D Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 37) Which of the following metabolic pathways produce(s) reduced soluble electron carriers? A) only the light reactions of photosynthesis B) only the Calvin cycle C) only the citric acid cycle D) both the Calvin cycle and the citric acid cycle E) both the light reactions of photosynthesis and the citric acid cycle Answer: E Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4

38) How would you predict that doubling the atmospheric CO2 concentration would affect C3 plants? A) They will experience increased rates of photosynthesis and growth. B) They will experience increased rates of photorespiration and decreased growth rates. C) They will experience decreased rates of photosynthesis and growth. D) They will experience increased rates of photosynthesis, increased water loss through stomata, and decreased growth rates. Answer: A Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 39) Where do the enzymatic reactions of the Calvin cycle take place? A) stroma of the chloroplast B) thylakoid membranes C) matrix of the mitochondria D) thylakoid space Answer: A Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 40) If plants are grown in the light with CO2 containing a radioactive isotope of oxygen (18O), subsequent analysis will show that 18O incorporated in organic molecules first appears in A) the thylakoid space. B) the thylakoid membranes. C) the stroma. D) mitochondria. Answer: C Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

41) The enzyme rubisco plays a critical role in carbon fixation in which of the following types of plants? A) C3 plants only B) C4 plants only C) C3 and C4 plants only D) C4 and CAM plants only E) C3, C4, and CAM plants Answer: A Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 42) In C3 photosynthesis, the reactions that require ATP take place in A) the light reactions alone. B) the Calvin cycle alone. C) both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle. D) neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle. Answer: B Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 43) An early step in the process of carbon fixation combines three molecules of CO2 with three molecules of RuBP to produce three 6-carbon molecules, which are immediately converted to six 3-carbon molecules. These six molecules are phosphorylated and reduced to produce glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P). What additional events occur to complete the Calvin cycle? A) release of two G3P to make sugars and regeneration of ATP from ADP B) release of one G3P to make sugars and regeneration of RuBP C) release of one G3P to make sugars and regeneration of NADPH from NADP+ D) release of one G3P to make sugars and regeneration of citrate Answer: B Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2

44) The NADPH required for the Calvin cycle is produced by which of the following metabolic reactions? A) reactions initiated in photosystem I B) reactions initiated in photosystem II C) the citric acid cycle D) glycolysis E) oxidative phosphorylation Answer: A Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 45) Which of the following metabolic processes consume(s) CO2? A) the light reactions of photosynthesis only B) the Calvin cycle only C) the citric acid cycle only D) both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle E) both the Calvin cycle and the citric acid cycle Answer: B Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 46) Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle? A) The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the Calvin cycle returns ADP, ℗i, and NADP+ to the light reactions. B) The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the carbon fixation step of the Calvin cycle, and the Calvin cycle provides water and electrons to the light reactions. C) The light reactions supply the Calvin cycle with CO2 to produce sugars, and the Calvin cycle supplies the light reactions with sugars to produce ATP. D) The light reactions provide the Calvin cycle with oxygen for carbon fixation, and the Calvin cycle provides the light reactions with sugars to produce ATP. Answer: A Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4

47) Photorespiration occurs when rubisco combines RuBP with which of the following molecules? A) CO2 B) O2 C) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate D) H2O Answer: B Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 48) Why are C4 plants able to photosynthesize with no apparent photorespiration? A) They do not participate in the Calvin cycle. B) They keep their stomata open most of the time in hot, dry climates, which allows for water loss to prevent photorespiration. C) They keep their stomata closed most of the time in hot, dry climates, which conserves water and oxygen to inhibit photorespiration. D) They do not use rubisco to fix CO2. E) They exclude oxygen from their tissues. Answer: D Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 49) CAM plants keep stomata closed in daytime, thus reducing loss of water. They can do this because they A) fix CO2 into organic acids during the night when temperatures are cooler. B) fix CO2 into organic acids in the bundle-sheath cells, which do not rely on stomata. C) fix CO2 into organic acids in the mesophyll cells, which do not rely on stomata. D) fix CO2 into by combining it with RuBP in the Calvin cycle. E) obtain CO2 through their roots during the day. Answer: A Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4

50) Why does photorespiration decrease the efficiency of photosynthesis? A) It increases the amount of carbon dioxide consumed. B) It reduces the amount of water consumed. C) It reduces the amount of sugar produced. D) It produces excess NADPH but less ATP. E) It inhibits electron transfers from photosystem II. Answer: C Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 51) Which of the following statements is an accurate comparison of C3 and C4 plants A) C4 plants can continue to fix CO2 even at relatively low CO2 concentrations and high oxygen concentrations, whereas C3 plants cannot. B) C4 plants have higher rates of photorespiration than C3 plants. C) C4 plants fix carbon during the day, whereas C3 plants fix carbon at night. D) C4 plants grow better in cool, moist climates, whereas C3 plants grow better in hot, arid climates. Answer: A Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 52) Cellular respiration in plant cell mitochondria consumes approximately what proportion of the organic molecules produced by photosynthesis? A) 5% B) 25% C) 50% D) 80% Answer: C Topic: 8.4 Life depends on photosynthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.4, V&C 4

53) In most plants the carbohydrates produced by photosynthesis are transported out of the leaves to the rest of the plant as which of the following molecules? A) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) B) glucose C) sucrose D) starch Answer: C Topic: 8.4 Life depends on photosynthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.4, V&C 4 54) When plants produce excess carbohydrates, the extra sugar is generally stored in which of the following forms? A) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) B) glucose C) cellulose D) starch Answer: D Topic: 8.4 Life depends on photosynthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.4, V&C 4

8.2 Art Questions

Figure 8.1 1) Figure 8.1 shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. Why are they different? A) Green and yellow wavelengths inhibit the absorption of red and blue wavelengths. B) Bright sunlight destroys photosynthetic pigments. C) Oxygen given off during photosynthesis interferes with the absorption of light. D) Other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a. Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G3

2) Figure 8.1 shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. What wavelength of light is most effective in driving photosynthesis? A) 420 nm B) 450 nm C) 500 nm D) 650 nm E) 700 nm Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G3 3) Figure 8.1 shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. What colors of light are least effective in driving photosynthesis? A) violet-blue B) green-yellow C) yellow-orange D) orange-red Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G3 4) Figure 8.1 shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. Halobacterium has a photosynthetic membrane that appears purple. Its photosynthetic action spectrum is the inverse of the action spectrum for green plants. (That is, the Halobacterium action spectrum has a peak where the green plant action spectrum has a trough.) What wavelengths of light do the Halobacterium photosynthetic pigments absorb? A) red and yellow B) blue, green, and red C) green and yellow D) red and green E) blue and red Answer: C Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 8.1, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2, G3

Figure 8.2

5) Use Figure 8.2 and the compounds labeled A, B, C, D, and E to answer the following question. If ATP used by this plant is labeled with radioactive phosphorus, which molecule or molecules of the Calvin cycle will be radioactively labeled first? A) B only B) B and C only C) B, C, and D only D) B and E only E) B and D only Answer: D Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 6) Use Figure 8.2 and the compounds labeled A, B, C, D, and E to answer the following question. Which molecule in the Calvin cycle also serves as the substrate for the first step in the energy payoff phase of glycolysis? A) 3-phosphoglycerate B) B C) C D) E only Answer: C Topic: 8.3 The Calvin cycle uses the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2 to sugar Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.3, V&C 4 8.3 Scenario Questions 1) Theodor W. Engelmann illuminated a filament of algae with light that passed through a prism, thus exposing different segments of algae to different wavelengths of light. He added aerobic bacteria and then noted in which areas the bacteria congregated. He found that the largest groups were found in the areas illuminated by the red and blue light. What did Engelmann conclude about the congregation of bacteria in the red and blue areas? A) Bacteria congregated in these areas due to a local increase in temperature generated by illumination by red and blue light. B) Bacteria released excess carbon dioxide in these areas. C) Bacteria congregated in these areas because they are attracted to red and blue light. D) Bacteria congregated in these areas because they were the areas where the most oxygen was released by the algae. Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G1, G2 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) Theodor W. Engelmann illuminated a filament of algae with light that passed through a prism, thus exposing different segments of algae to different wavelengths of light. He added aerobic bacteria and then noted in which areas the bacteria congregated. He found that the largest groups were found in the areas illuminated by the red and blue light. This experiment helped to determine the relationship between which of the following parameters? A) heterotrophic and autotrophic organisms B) wavelengths of light and the rate of aerobic respiration C) wavelengths of light and the amount of heat released D) wavelengths of light and the rate of photosynthesis E) the concentration of carbon dioxide and the rate of photosynthesis Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G1, G2 3) Theodor W. Engelmann illuminated a filament of algae with light that passed through a prism, thus exposing different segments of algae to different wavelengths of light. He added aerobic bacteria and then noted in which areas the bacteria congregated. He found that the largest groups were found in the areas illuminated by the red and blue light. What would you predict would happen if you ran the same experiment without passing light through a prism? A) The bacteria would congregate toward the middle of the algal filament. B) The bacteria would be relatively evenly distributed along the algal filament. C) The number of bacteria present would decrease due to an increase in the carbon dioxide concentration. D) The bacteria would congregate toward the two ends of the algal filament. E) The number of bacteria would decrease due to a lack of oxygen. Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G1, G2

4) A spaceship designed to support human life for a multiyear voyage to the outer planets of the solar system will include plants to provide oxygen and consume carbon dioxide. Because the spaceship will have limited exposure to the sun for extensive periods, an artificial light source will be needed to support photosynthesis. What wavelengths of light should be used to maximize plant growth with a minimum expenditure of energy? A) full-spectrum white light B) green light C) a combination of blue and red light D) yellow light E) UV light Answer: C Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 5) A gardener is concerned that her greenhouse is getting too hot from too much light. She plans to shade her plants with colored translucent plastic filters that allow only a narrow part of the visible light spectrum to pass through. To reduce the overall light energy but still maximize plant growth, she should use a filter that allows the passage of which of the following colors of light? A) green B) blue C) yellow D) orange E) white Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The light reactions convert solar energy to the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.2, V&C 4 Global L.O.: G2 8.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) The light reactions of photosynthesis supply the Calvin cycle with A) light energy. B) C and ATP. C) O2 and NADPH. D) ATP and NADPH. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis? A) NADPH → O2 → CO2 B) H2O → NADPH → Calvin cycle C) H2O → photosystem I → photosystem II D) NADPH → electron transport chain → O2 Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) How is photosynthesis similar in C4 plants and CAM plants? A) In both cases, electron transport is not used. B) Both types of plants make sugar without the Calvin cycle. C) In both cases, rubisco is not used to fix carbon initially. D) Both types of plants make most of their sugar in the dark. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following statements is a correct distinction between autotrophs and heterotrophs? A) Autotrophs, but not heterotrophs, can nourish themselves beginning with CO2 and other nutrients that are inorganic. B) Only heterotrophs require chemical compounds from the environment. C) Cellular respiration is unique to heterotrophs. D) Only heterotrophs have mitochondria. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of the following does not occur during the Calvin cycle? A) carbon fixation B) oxidation of NADPH C) release of oxygen D) regeneration of the CO2 acceptor Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

6) In mechanism, photophosphorylation is most similar to A) substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis. B) oxidative phosphorylation in cellular respiration. C) carbon fixation. D) reduction of NADP+. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Which process is most directly driven by light energy? A) creation of a pH gradient by pumping protons across the thylakoid membrane B) reduction of NADP+ molecules C) removal of electrons from chlorophyll molecules D) ATP synthesis Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 9 The Cell Cycle 9.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Beginning with a fertilized egg (zygote), how many cells would be present in an embryo following a series of five cell divisions? A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32 E) 64 Answer: D Topic: 9.1 Most cell division results in genetically identical daughter cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G4 2) A cell in G2 of the cell division cycle contains 20 chromatids. How many centromeres are present in this cell? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 E) 80 Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Most cell division results in genetically identical daughter cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 3) Which of the following components make(s) up eukaryotic chromatin? A) condensed DNA only B) DNA and RNA C) DNA and carbohydrates D) DNA and proteins E) DNA and ribosomes Answer: D Topic: 9.1 Most cell division results in genetically identical daughter cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.1, V&C 2

4) What will be the result if a eukaryotic cell completes mitosis but does not undergo cytokinesis? A) two cells, one cell containing two nuclei and a second cell without a nucleus B) two cells, each cell with half of the genetic material of the parent cell C) one cell with two nuclei, each containing half of the genetic material of the parent cell D) one cell with one nucleus containing half of the genetic material of the parent cell E) one cell with two nuclei, each identical to the nucleus of the parent cell Answer: E Topic: 9.1 Most cell division results in genetically identical daughter cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.1, V&C 2 5) Humans produce skin cells by mitosis and gametes by meiosis. Which of the following statements about the nuclei of skin cells is correct? A) They contain half as much DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis. B) They contain the same amount of DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis. C) They contain twice as much DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis. D) They contain four times as much DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis. Answer: C Topic: 9.1 Most cell division results in genetically identical daughter cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.1, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 6) Somatic cells in elephants have 56 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be carried by the gametes produced by elephants? A) 14 B) 28 C) 56 D) 112 Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Most cell division results in genetically identical daughter cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.1, V&C 2 7) Following DNA replication, each eukaryotic chromosome consists of two identical DNA molecules known as A) daughter chromosomes B) sister chromatids C) sister cohesins D) sister chromatins Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Most cell division results in genetically identical daughter cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.1, V&C 2

8) If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) 40 Answer: B Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 9) Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in animal cells? A) centromere B) centrosome C) centriole D) chromatid E) kinetochore Answer: B Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 10) Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree that binds to microtubules and prevents their depolymerization. Which phase of mitosis or cell division would be inhibited by treatment with Taxol? A) prophase B) prometaphase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) cytokinesis Answer: D Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 11) Which of the following molecules or structures are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells but not in animal cells? A) spot desmosomes B) tubulin and dynein C) actin and myosin D) centrioles and centromeres E) Golgi-derived vesicles Answer: E Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that prevents which of the following processes? A) nuclear envelope breakdown B) cell wall formation C) elongation of microtubules D) shortening of microtubules E) formation of a cleavage furrow Answer: D Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 13) Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle would the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA? A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 Answer: D Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 14) A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 12 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms of DNA would be found in a nucleus at the end of G1 and the end of G2? A) 12; 12 B) 12; 24 C) 24; 12 D) 24; 24 Answer: B Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

15) A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately before beginning mitosis and is found to have an average of 16 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms of DNA would be found in a cell nucleus following completion of mitosis and cytokinesis? A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32 Answer: B Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 16) The beginning of anaphase is indicated by which of the following events? A) loss of kinetochores from sister chromatids B) enzymatic cleavage of cohesin C) joining of the sister chromatids to each other by cohesin D) polymerization of spindle microtubules Answer: B Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 17) At which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids become daughter chromosomes? A) prophase B) prometaphase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) cytokinesis Answer: D Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 18) What is a cleavage furrow? A) a ring of vesicles forming a cell plate B) an indentation between daughter prokaryotic cells C) a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei D) the metaphase plate where chromosomes attach to the spindle Answer: C Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2

19) You have the technology necessary to measure each of the following in a sample of animal cells: carbohydrates, organelle density, picograms of DNA, cell wall components, and enzymatic activity. Which of the following cell characteristics would you expect to increase significantly between a cell in mitosis and one just beginning G1? A) organelle density B) cell wall components C) DNA content D) enzyme activity E) carbohydrates Answer: D Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 20) A plant-derived protein known as colchicine can be used to poison cells by blocking the formation of the mitotic spindle. Which of the following would result if colchicine is added to a sample of cells in G2? A) The cells would immediately die. B) The cells would be unable to begin M, and the cell cycle would arrest in G2. C) The nuclear membrane would break down, but chromosomes would fail to condense and the cell cycle would arrest in early prophase. D) Chromosomes would condense but fail to align at the metaphase plate, and the cell cycle would arrest at this point. Answer: D Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 21) Where are the motor proteins that move chromosomes toward the poles of the mitotic spindle located? A) on the kinetochores only B) at the centrosomes only C) on the kinetochores and at the centrosomes D) along the length of kinetochore microtubules only Answer: C Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2

22) When a cell is in late anaphase of mitosis, which of the following may be observed? A) a clear area in the center of the dividing cell B) decondensing chromosomes clustered at the poles C) individual chromatids beginning to separate from one another D) chromosomes clustered tightly at the center of the dividing cell E) nuclear envelopes forming at the poles Answer: A Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 23) Diatoms and some yeasts are unicellular eukaryotes that have mechanisms of nuclear division that may resemble intermediate steps in the evolution of mitosis. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of nuclear division in these organisms? A) They have circular chromosomes that are segregated by attachment to the plasma membrane. B) They have circular chromosomes that are segregated by attachment to spindle microtubules. C) Chromosomes are not condensed during nuclear division. D) The nuclear envelope remains intact during division. Answer: D Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 1, 2 24) During which phase of mitosis in animal cells do centrioles begin to move apart? A) prophase B) prometaphase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase Answer: A Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 25) Which is the first checkpoint in the cell cycle that will cause a cell to exit the cycle if this point is not passed? A) G0 B) G1 C) G2 D) S E) M Answer: B Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2

26) Which of the following molecules is released by human platelets in the vicinity of a cut to stimulate proliferation of skin cells? A) PDGF B) kinesin C) protein kinase D) cyclin Answer: A Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2 27) The cell cycle is regulated at the molecular level by a set of proteins known as A) ATPases. B) separase proteins. C) cohesins. D) cyclins. Answer: D Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2 28) Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the following statements? A) As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting their size and ability to produce growth factors. B) As cells become more numerous, the protein kinases they produce begin to compete with each other, such that the proteins produced by one cell essentially cancel those produced by its neighbor. C) As cells become more numerous, the cell surface proteins of adjacent cells bind to each other and send signals that inhibit cell division. D) As cells become more numerous, the level of waste products increases, eventually slowing down metabolism. Answer: C Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2 29) Which of the following characteristics is associated with cancer cells? A) They exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture. B) They must be attached to a substrate to divide in culture. C) They evade the normal controls that trigger programmed cell death. D) They stop dividing in culture when growth factors are depleted. Answer: C Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2

30) Besides the ability of some cancer cells to divide uncontrollably, what else might logically result in formation of a tumor? A) enhanced anchorage dependence B) changes in the order of cell cycle stages C) lack of appropriate cell death D) inability to form spindles Answer: C Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 31) Why do most cells in the human body divide infrequently? A) They no longer have active nuclei. B) They no longer carry receptors for signal molecules. C) They have exited the cell cycle and entered G0. D) They have defective microtubules. Answer: C Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2 32) Most animal cells exhibit anchorage dependence, which means that in order to divide, A) all chromosomes must be attached to spindle microtubules. B) nonkinetochore microtubules from opposite poles must overlap and be attached by motor proteins. C) cell-surface phospholipids must be attached to those of adjoining cells. D) cells must be attached to a substrate or extracellular matrix of a tissue. Answer: D Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2 33) Progression through the M phase checkpoint is stimulated by a complex that does which of the following things? A) activates separase to cleave cohesin proteins B) activates separase to modify kinetochores C) activates motor molecules at the centromere to begin disassembly of spindle microtubules D) activates assembly of spindle microtubules Answer: A Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

34) Cells from advanced malignant tumors frequently have very abnormal chromosomes as well as an abnormal number of chromosomes. What might explain the association between malignant tumors and chromosomal abnormalities? A) Cancer cells replicate chromosomes multiple times per cell cycle. B) Cancer cells are no longer anchorage dependent. C) Cell cycle checkpoints are not in place to stop cells with chromosome abnormalities. D) Cells with abnormal chromosomes have increased metabolism. Answer: C Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 35) Researchers studying a new cultured cell line observed that the cells did not exhibit either density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence. What could they conclude right away? A) The cells originated in the nervous system. B) The cells show characteristics of tumors. C) The cells have altered series of cell cycle phases. D) The cells were originally derived from an elderly organism. Answer: B Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2 36) For a chemotherapeutic drug to be useful for treating cancer cells, which of the following characteristics is most desirable? A) It is safe enough to limit all apoptosis. B) It does not affect metabolically active cells. C) It only attacks cells that are density dependent. D) It targets only rapidly dividing cells. Answer: D Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

37) Researchers established a number of cultured cell lines derived from different tumors. How might they determine which ones are malignant? A) Identify the ones that grow in a single layer in culture. B) Identify the ones with elevated rates of apoptosis. C) Identify the ones with aberrant chromosome number or structure. D) Identify the ones with elongated cell cycles. Answer: C Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2

9.2 Art Questions

1) The unlettered circle at the top of the figure above shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes that have not yet replicated. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is black, and the other is gray. The circles labeled A-E show various combinations of these chromosomes. Which image displays the chromosomal composition of one daughter nucleus at telophase of mitosis? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2

2) The unlettered circle at the top of the figure above shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes that have not yet replicated. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is black, and the other is gray. The circles labeled A-E show various combinations of these chromosomes. What is the correct chromosomal condition for a nucleus at prophase of mitosis? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 3) The unlettered circle at the top of the figure above shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes that have not yet replicated. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is black, and the other is gray. The circles labeled A-E show various combinations of these chromosomes. What is the correct chromosomal condition for a nucleus in G1 of the cell division cycle? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2

If the cell whose nuclear material is shown in the figure above continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next? A) cell membrane synthesis B) alignment of chromosomes at the metaphase plate C) segregation of daughter chromosomes toward the poles D) formation of telophase nuclei E) synthesis of sister chromatids Answer: C Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2

5) In the figure above, which numbered segment(s) of the cycle would include cells at some phase of mitosis? A) II only B) III only C) IV only D) III and IV E) II and III Answer: D Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2, G3 6) In the figure above, which numbered segment(s) of the cycle represent G1? A) I and V B) II and IV C) III only D) IV only Answer: A Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2, G3

7) In the figure above, which numbered segment(s) of the cycle represent DNA synthesis? A) I and V B) II only C) III only D) IV only E) II and IV Answer: B Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2, G3 8) In the figure above, which numbered segment(s) of the cycle represent the period during which the chromosomes are replicated? A) I and V B) II only C) III only D) IV only E) II and IV Answer: B Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2, G3 9) In the figure above, which numbered segment(s) of the cycle would contain cells at metaphase of mitosis? A) I and V B) II only C) III only D) II and III Answer: C Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2, G3

10) In the figure above, which numbered segment(s) of the cycle would contain cells in G2? A) I and V B) II and IV C) III only D) IV only E) III and IV Answer: C Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2, G3 11)

The data in the table above were obtained from a study of the length of time spent in each phase of the cell cycle by cells of three eukaryotic organisms designated beta, delta, and gamma. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for the difference in time spent in S phase by beta and gamma? A) Gamma is unicellular, and beta is multicellular. B) Beta is tetraploid, and gamma is diploid. C) Gamma contains more DNA than beta. D) Beta reproduces asexually, and gamma reproduces sexually. Answer: C Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2, G3

12)

The data in the table above were obtained from a study of the length of time spent in each phase of the cell cycle by cells of three eukaryotic organisms designated beta, delta, and gamma. The best conclusion concerning delta is that the cells A) contain no DNA. B) contain only one chromosome that is very small. C) are actually in the G0 phase. D) synthesize DNA in the G1 phase Answer: C Topic: 9.3 The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 9.3, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G2, G3 9.3 Scenario Questions 1) Several organisms, including some diatoms and yeasts, have intermediate mitotic organization. Which of the following is the most probable hypothesis regarding these intermediate forms of cell division? A) They represent a form of cell reproduction that must have evolved completely separately from that present in most eukaryotes. B) These species are not closely related other diatoms and yeasts, even though they may be similar in outward appearance. C) They rely on totally different proteins for the processes they undergo. D) They show some but not all of the evolutionary steps toward complete mitosis. Answer: D Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 1, 2 Global L.O.: G2

2) If cells are provided with nucleotides labeled with a radioactive isotope of hydrogen (3H), newly synthesized DNA will be radioactively labeled. In a set of experiments, a student-faculty research team introduced labeled T nucleotides into a culture of dividing human cells at specific times. Following a 30-minute incubation with the radiolabeled nucleotides, cells were lysed, and the DNA was isolated and tested for presence of radioactivity. Which of the following questions might be answered by such a method? A) How many cells are produced by the culture per hour? B) What is the duration of the S phase of the cell cycle? C) What is the duration of mitosis? D) How many picograms of DNA are contained in each nucleus? Answer: B Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G1, G2 3) If cells are provided with nucleotides labeled with a radioactive isotope of hydrogen (3H), newly synthesized DNA will be radioactively labeled. In a set of experiments, a student-faculty research team introduced labeled T nucleotides into cultures of dividing human lymphocytes at specific times. A pathogen was introduced into one culture prior to the start of the experiment, and another culture was left untreated as a control. Following a 24-hour incubation with the radiolabeled nucleotides, cells were lysed, and the DNA was isolated and tested for presence of radioactivity. The research team found that lymphocytes exposed to a pathogen incorporated three times the amount of labeled nucleotide as the control. Which of the following hypotheses might explain these observations? A) The pathogen thrived in culture and incorporated the excess nucleotide. B) Infection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle. C) Infection causes lymphocytes to reproduce more rapidly. D) Infection causes cell cultures in general to reproduce more rapidly. Answer: C Topic: 9.2 The mitotic phase alternates with interphase in the cell cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 9.2, V&C 2 Global L.O.: G1, G2 9.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely A) an animal cell in the process of cytokinesis. B) a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis. C) a bacterial cell dividing. D) a plant cell in metaphase. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in A) cells with more than one nucleus. B) cells that are unusually small. C) cells lacking nuclei. D) cell cycles lacking an S phase. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following does not occur during mitosis? A) condensation of the chromosomes B) replication of the DNA C) separation of sister chromatids D) spindle formation Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) A particular cell has half as much DNA as some other cells in a mitotically active tissue. The cell in question is most likely in A) G1. B) G2. C) prophase. D) metaphase. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the animal cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B? A) spindle formation B) spindle attachment to kinetochores C) cell elongation during anaphase D) cleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 10 Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 10.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) If a horticulturist breeding plants known as gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following processes would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants with that particular set of traits? A) Go back through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits. B) Breed this plant with another plant with much weaker traits. C) Clone the plant asexually to produce an identical one. D) Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one. Answer: C Topic: 10.1 Offspring acquire genes from parents by inheriting chromosomes. Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 2 2) Which of the following statements correctly describes an organism's genome? A) A genome is a representation of the complete set of polypeptides in any of the organism's cells. B) A genome is a representation of a single gene locus in an organism. C) A genome is made up of the genes found in a gamete produced by the organism. D) A genome is a complete set of all of an organism's genes. Answer: D Topic: 10.1 Offspring acquire genes from parents by inheriting chromosomes. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 2 3) Which of the following is the smallest unit of life that would contain a complete copy of the entire human genome? A) one human somatic cell B) one human chromosome C) one human gamete D) one human gene Answer: A Topic: 10.1 Offspring acquire genes from parents by inheriting chromosomes. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 2

4) If a sexually reproducing organism has a diploid number of 36, how many individual chromosomes would any of its gametes have? A) 36 chromosomes B) 18 chromosomes C) 72 chromosomes D) 9 chromosomes Answer: B Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C 1, C2 5) Which of the following statements correctly describes the differences between sexual and asexual reproduction? A) Asexual reproduction, but not sexual reproduction, is characteristic of all living organisms. B) In sexual reproduction, offspring vary genetically from their siblings and both parents. C) In asexual reproduction, offspring are produced by fertilization of sperm and egg. D) Asexual reproduction produces offspring that vary genetically from the parent. Answer: B Topic: 10.1 Offspring acquire genes from parents by inheriting chromosomes. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 6) Why are cells arrested at metaphase in the preparation of a karyotype? A) All of the chromosomes are at their least condensed state and are easy to visualize. B) All of their chromosomes are highly condensed and easy to visualize. C) All of the sister chromatids have separated into two new daughter cells. D) The chromosomes have duplicated, making them easier to visualize. Answer: B Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 7) Which of the following is true of an organism that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16? A) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell. B) Each cell has eight homologous pairs of chromosomes. C) During the S phase of the cell cycle, there will be 32 separate chromosomes. D) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes. Answer: B Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C 2, C2

8) Which of the following elements do all sexual life cycles in eukaryotic organisms have in common? A) alternation of generations, gametes, and spores B) alternation of generations, meiosis, and gametes C) meiosis, fertilization, and gametes D) meiosis, gametes, and spores Answer: C Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 9) Which of the following statements about humans is true? A) The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY). B) An ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a haploid (n), single-celled zygote. C) At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis. D) Human life cycles alternate between fertilization and meiosis, with meiosis producing haploid zygotes. Answer: A Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 10) Which of the following processes leads directly to the formation of gametes in a plant's sexual life cycle? A) meiosis in the sporophyte B) mitosis in the gametophyte C) meiosis in the gametophyte D) mitosis in the sporophyte Answer: B Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

11) In the life cycle of fungi and some protists, which of the following processes leads to the formation of gametes? A) mitosis in the haploid unicellular or multicellular organism B) meiosis in the haploid unicellular or multicellular organism C) meiosis in the diploid zygote D) mitosis in the diploid zygote Answer: C Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 12) Which of the following statements is correct regarding human X and Y chromosomes? A) They are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike. B) They are about the same size and have approximately the same number of genes. C) They are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names. D) They are responsible for the determination of an individual's sex. Answer: D Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 13) What diagnostic procedures can a karyotype be used for? A) screening for specific genes found in an organism B) identifying the species of an organism C) screening for defective or abnormal numbers of chromosomes in an individual D) identifying the life cycle of a specific organism Answer: C Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 14) Which of the following types of cells would be produced by meiosis? A) a haploid animal cell B) a diploid animal cell C) a diploid plant cell D) a diploid unicellular organism Answer: A Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

15) Which of the following statements regarding sexual life cycles is correct? A) Sexual life cycles can produce both haploid and diploid cells at different stages. B) Sexual life cycles can produce only haploid cells at different stages. C) Sexual life cycles can produce only diploid cells at different stages. D) Sexual life cycles occur only in animals. Answer: A Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 16) A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this organism? A) It must be human. B) It must be an animal. C) It must be sexually reproducing. D) Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes. Answer: D Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C2 17) Scientists have produced a hybrid plant that was the result of the fertilization of gametes between one plant with a diploid number of 24 and another with a diploid number of 20. How many chromosomes would the diploid hybrid plant have? A) 44 chromosomes B) 22 chromosomes C) 24 chromosomes D) 20 chromosomes Answer: B Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C C2 18) Which of the following statements best describes a karyotype? A) a pictorial representation of all the genes for a species B) a display of all of the chromosomes of a single cell C) the combination of all the maternal and paternal chromosomes of a species D) the collection of all the chromosomes in an individual organism Answer: B Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) Which of the following types of organisms has both diploid and haploid forms that exist as separate individuals? A) animals B) fungi C) protists D) some algae Answer: D Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 20) The somatic cells of a type of shrub called a privet each contain 46 chromosomes. To be as different as they are from human cells, which have the same number of chromosomes, which of the following must be true? A) Privet cells cannot reproduce sexually. B) Genes of privet chromosomes are significantly different from those in humans. C) Privet shrubs must be metabolically more like animals than like other shrubs. D) Genes on a particular privet chromosome, such as the X, must be on a different human chromosome, such as number 18. Answer: B Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 21) In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, which of the following characteristics are most likely for the two chromosomes of the pair to have in common? A) length and position of the centromere only B) length, centromere position, and staining pattern only C) length, centromere position, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes D) length, centromere position, staining pattern, and DNA sequences Answer: C Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C 2

22) The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division malfunctions, and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following processes? A) mitosis in her ovary B) telophase II of one meiotic event C) telophase I of one meiotic event D) either anaphase I or II of meiosis Answer: D Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 23) If a cell has completed the first meiotic division and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following statements describes the genetic or chromosomal contents of this cell? A) It has half the amount of DNA of the cell that began meiosis. B) It has twice the number of chromosomes. C) It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell. D) It is identical in content to another cell from the same meiosis. Answer: A Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C2 24) Which of the following events might result in a human zygote with 45 chromosomes? A) an error in either egg or sperm meiotic anaphase B) failure of the egg nucleus to be fertilized by the sperm C) an error in the alignment of chromosomes on the metaphase plate D) multiple crossover events during meiosis I Answer: A Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 25) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is A) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid. B) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids. C) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid. D) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids. Answer: D Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis? A) They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. B) They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. C) They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA. D) They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA. Answer: C Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C2 27) After telophase II of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is A) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single daughter chromosome. B) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two daughter chromosomes. C) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single daughter chromosome. D) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two daughter chromosomes. Answer: C Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 28) Which of the following processes happens during meiosis I? A) Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other. B) The chromosome number per cell is conserved. C) Sister chromatids are separated. D) Four daughter cells are formed. Answer: A Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 29) Chromatids are separated from each other during which of the following processes? A) only during mitosis B) only during meiosis I C) only during meiosis II D) during both mitosis and meiosis II Answer: D Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

30) Which of the following events occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis? A) chromosome replication B) synapsis of pairs of homologous chromosomes C) production of daughter cells D) condensation of chromatin Answer: B Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 31) During mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesins. Such molecules must have which of the following properties? A) They must persist throughout the cell cycle. B) They must be removed before meiosis can begin. C) They must be removed before sister chromatids or homologous chromosomes can separate. D) They must be intact for nuclear envelope re-formation. Answer: C Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 32) Which of the following structures is found in a pair of homologous chromosomes? A) two single-stranded chromosomes that have synapsed B) two sister chromatids that have synapsed C) four sister chromatids D) four unique chromosomes Answer: C Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 33) If chiasmata can be seen in a cell under a microscope, which of the following meiotic processes must have occurred? A) meiosis II B) anaphase II C) prophase I D) anaphase I Answer: C Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

34) To visualize and identify meiotic cells at metaphase I with a microscope, what would you look for? A) sister chromatids of a replicated chromosome grouped at the poles B) individual chromosomes all at the cell's center C) an uninterrupted spindle array D) pairs of homologous chromosomes all aligned at the cell's center Answer: D Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 35) In a cell undergoing meiosis, if homologous chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the meiotic spindle, what process has occurred? A) prophase I B) metaphase I C) prophase II D) metaphase II Answer: B Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 36) In a cell undergoing meiosis, if synaptonemal complexes form or are still present, what process or processes have occurred? A) prophase I only B) prophase I and telophase I only C) prophase I and telophase II only D) prophase I, metaphase I, and anaphase I only Answer: A Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 37) In a cell undergoing meiosis, if centromeres of sister chromatids become disjoined and chromatids separate, what process has occurred?. A) metaphase II B) prophase II C) prophase I D) anaphase II Answer: D Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

38) The following question refers to the essential steps in meiosis described below. 1. formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus 2. alignment of homologous chromosomes at the metaphase plate 3. separation of sister chromatids 4. separation of the homologs; no uncoupling of the centromere 5. synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs Which of the steps take(s) place in both mitosis and meiosis? A) 3 B) 5 C) 2 and 3 only D) 2, 3, and 5 Answer: A Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 39) For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes? A) 23 B) 46 C) 460 D) approximately 8.4 million Answer: D Topic: 10.4 Genetic variation produced in sexual life cycles contributes to evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 1, 2 40) Independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis is a result of A) the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I. B) the random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm. C) the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II. D) the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes. Answer: A Topic: 10.4 Genetic variation produced in sexual life cycles contributes to evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 1, 2

41) During which process does independent assortment of chromosomes occur? A) during mitosis only B) during meiosis I only C) during meiosis II only D) during mitosis and meiosis I Answer: B Topic: 10.4 Genetic variation produced in sexual life cycles contributes to evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 1, 2 42) Which of the following statements correctly describes the characteristics of recombinant chromosomes? A) They carry genes from only one parent. B) They contain more genes than non-recombinant chromosomes. C) At least one to three times per chromosome pair, they carry genes from two different parents. D) They are identical in genetic makeup to the parental chromosomes. Answer: C Topic: 10.4 Genetic variation produced in sexual life cycles contributes to evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 1, 2 43) When homologous chromosomes cross over, what is the result? A) Two sister chromatids get tangled, resulting in one altering the sequence of its DNA. B) Two sister chromatids exchange identical pieces of DNA. C) Specific proteins break the two strands of nonsister chromatids and re-join them. D) Each of the four DNA strands of a homologous pair is broken, and the pieces are mixed. Answer: C Topic: 10.4 Genetic variation produced in sexual life cycles contributes to evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 1, 2

10.2 Art Questions

Figure 10.6 1) Refer to the life cycles illustrated in Figure 10.6 above. Which of the life cycles is (are) typical for animals? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II Answer: A Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 2) Refer to the life cycles illustrated in Figure 10.6 above. Which of the life cycles is (are) typical for plants and some algae? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II Answer: C Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

3) Refer to Figure 10.6 above. Which of the progression of events listed corresponds to the series of events that occurs in the life cycle of animals? A) zygote, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis B) diploid multicellular organism, meiosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis C) fertilization, mitosis, multicellular haploid, mitosis, spores, sporophyte D) gametophyte, meiosis, zygote, spores, sporophyte, zygote Answer: B Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 4) In a life cycle such as that shown in diagram II of Figure 10.6 above, if the zygote's chromosome number is 10, which of the following will be true? A) The sporophyte's chromosome number per cell is 10, and the gametophyte's is 5. B) The sporophyte's chromosome number per cell is 5, and the gametophyte's is 10. C) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 10 chromosomes per cell. D) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 5 chromosomes per cell. Answer: A Topic: 10.2 Fertilization and meiosis alternate in sexual life cycles. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C C2 5)

Which phase of meiosis is represented in the figure above? A) anaphase I B) anaphase II C) prophase I D) telophase I Answer: A Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Which phase of meiosis is represented in the figure above? A) metaphase I B) anaphase II C) prophase I D) metaphase II Answer: D Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

7) You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown in the figure above. Which sample(s) of DNA might be from a germ cell arrested in prophase I of meiosis? A) I B) II C) either I or II D) both I and II Answer: B Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, G3, G4, V&C C2 8) You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown in the figure above. Which sample(s) of DNA might be from a cell at the end of anaphase II of meiosis? A) III B) II C) either I or II D) both I and II Answer: A Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, G3, G4, V&C C2 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in the figure above. A certain female's number 12 chromosomes both have the blue gene and number 19 chromosomes both have the long gene. As cells in her ovaries undergo meiosis, her resulting eggs (ova) may have which of the following? A) either two number 12 chromosomes with blue genes or two with orange genes B) either two number 19 chromosomes with long genes or two with short genes C) either one blue or one orange gene in addition to either one long or one short gene D) one chromosome 12 with one blue gene and one chromosome 19 with one long gene Answer: D Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C 2 10) A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in the figure above. If a female of this species has one chromosome 12 with a blue gene and another chromosome 12 with an orange gene, and has both number 19 chromosomes with short genes, she will produce which of the following egg types? A) only blue short gene eggs B) only orange short gene eggs C) one-half blue short and one-half orange short gene eggs D) three-fourths blue short and one-fourth orange short gene eggs Answer: C Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C C2

11) A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in the figure above. A female with a paternal set of one orange and one long gene chromosome and a maternal set composed of one blue and one short gene chromosome is expected to produce which of the following types of eggs after meiosis? A) All eggs will have paternal types of gene combinations. B) Half the eggs will have maternal and half will have paternal combinations. C) Each egg has a one-fourth chance of having blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short combinations. D) Each egg has a three-fourths chance of having blue long, one-fourth blue short, three-fourths orange long, or one-fourth orange short combinations. Answer: C Topic: 10.3 Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome sets from diploid to haploid Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C C2 10.3 Scenario Questions 1) There is a group of invertebrate animals called rotifers, among which a particular group of species reproduces, as far as is known, only asexually. These rotifers, however, have survived a long evolutionary history without evidence of having been overcome by excessive mutations. Because the rotifers develop from eggs, but asexually, what can you predict about these organisms? A) The eggs and the zygotes are all haploid. B) The animals are all males. C) Although asexual, both males and females are found in nature. D) No males can be found. Answer: D Topic: 10.4 Genetic variation produced in sexual life cycles contributes to evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 1, 2 10.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is A) a sperm. B) an egg. C) a zygote. D) a somatic cell of a male. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during A) mitosis. B) meiosis I. C) meiosis II. D) fertilization. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is 24 fg (femtograms), then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be A) 12 fg. B) 6 fg. C) 24 fg. D) 48 fg. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is 24 fg (femtograms), then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis II would be A) 12 fg. B) 6 fg. C) 24 fg. D) 48 fg. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 11 Mendel and the Gene Idea 11.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements correctly describes a monohybrid cross? A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent. B) A monohybrid cross produces a single offspring. C) A monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for one character. D) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation. Answer: C Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 2) Which of the following statements correctly describes a dihybrid cross? A) A dihybrid cross involves two parents. B) A dihybrid cross produces two offspring. C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters. D) A dihybrid cross results in a 3:1 phenotype ratio in the F2 offspring. Answer: C Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 3) What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants? A) There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas. B) Traits are inherited in discrete units and are not the results of the "blending" of traits. C) Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 generation than do dominant ones. D) An organism that is homozygous for many recessive traits is at a disadvantage. Answer: B Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

4) How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE? A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 64 Answer: B Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2 5) Which of the following statements describes the major reason that an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE can make many kinds of gametes? A) segregation of maternal and paternal alleles B) crossing over during prophase I C) different possible assortment of chromosomes into gametes D) the tendency for dominant alleles to segregate together Answer: C Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 6) Why did Mendel continue some of his experiments to the F2 generation? A) to obtain a larger number of offspring on which to base statistics B) to observe whether or not a recessive trait would reappear C) to observe whether or not the dominant trait would reappear D) to distinguish which alleles were segregating Answer: B Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C C1 7) Which of the following statements correctly describes one difference between the law of independent assortment and the law of segregation? A) The law of independent assortment explains the segregation of two or more genes relative to one another. B) The law of segregation explains the segregation of two or more genes relative to one another. C) The law of segregation requires having two or more generations to describe. D) The law of segregation is accounted for by anaphase of mitosis. Answer: A Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. What does this suggest about the trait? A) that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits B) that the trait shows incomplete dominance C) that a blending of traits has occurred D) that the parents were both heterozygous for a single trait Answer: D Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, C2 9) A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism? A) tt B) Hh C) HhTt D) HT Answer: D Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 10) When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with one that is heterozygous for the same trait, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% Answer: C Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2

11) What was Mendel's explanation for his observation that traits that had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation of the pea plants he used in his experiments? A) New mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny, "reinventing" traits that had been lost in the F1. B) The mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1 and the F2 plants. C) Traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were "hidden" by the dominant ones in the F1. D) The traits were lost in the F1 due to dominance of the parental traits. Answer: C Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, C1 12) All seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment. Which of the following statements correctly describes what this indicates about those traits? A) None of the traits obeyed the law of segregation. B) Some traits obeyed the law of segregation, and some did not. C) All of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome. D) All of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were located on different chromosomes. Answer: D Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, C1 13) Which of the following phases of cell division confirms Mendel's observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation? A) prophase I of meiosis B) anaphase II of meiosis C) metaphase I of meiosis D) anaphase I of meiosis Answer: D Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1

14) Which of the following events of meiosis I confirms Mendel's second law of independent assortment? A) synapsis of homologous chromosomes B) crossing over C) alignment of synapsed pairs of homologous chromosomes on the metaphase plate D) separation of homologs at anaphase Answer: C Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 15) Why did the F1 offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross always look like one of the two parental varieties? A) No genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype. B) Each allele affected phenotypic expression. C) The traits blended together during fertilization. D) One allele was dominant. Answer: D Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 16) Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails? A) 1/16 B) 3/16 C) 3/8 D) 1/2 Answer: D Topic: 11.2 Probability laws govern Mendelian inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2

17) In certain plants, the tall trait is dominant to the short trait. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short? A) 1 B) 1/2 C) 1/4 D) 0 Answer: D Topic: 11.2 Probability laws govern Mendelian inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2 18) In the cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC? A) 1/4 B) 1/8 C) 1/16 D) 1/64 Answer: D Topic: 11.2 Probability laws govern Mendelian inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2 19) Given the following cross between parents of the genotypes AABBCc × AabbCc, assume complete dominance for each trait and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent? A) 1/4 B) 1/8 C) 3/4 D) 3/8 Answer: C Topic: 11.2 Probability laws govern Mendelian inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2 20) The addition rule of probability can be defined as A) the probability that two or more independent events will both occur. B) the probability that two or more independent events will both occur in the offspring of one set of parents. C) the probability that either one of two mutually exclusive events will occur. D) the probability of producing two or more heterozygous offspring. Answer: C Topic: 11.2 Probability laws govern Mendelian inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

21) Which of the following calculations described in the following statements require that you use the addition rule? A) Calculate the probability of black offspring from the cross AaBb × AaBb, when B is the symbol for the black allele. B) Calculate the probability of children with both cystic fibrosis and polydactyly when parents are each heterozygous for both genes. C) Calculate the probability of each of four children having cystic fibrosis if the parents are both heterozygous. D) Calculate the probability of a child having only sickle-cell anemia or cystic fibrosis if each parent is each heterozygous for both traits. Answer: D Topic: 11.2 Probability laws govern Mendelian inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2 22) Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a disease in humans that results from the abnormal metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine. If untreated, it can lead to severe brain damage in infants. Two normal parents have a child who has PKU. What can you determine about the inheritance of the PKU allele from this information? A) It is recessive. B) It is dominant. C) It is pleiotropic. D) It is epistatic. Answer: A Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 23) In humans, wavy hair occurs in heterozygotes (HSHC) offspring of people with straight hair (HSHS) and curly hair (HCHC). Which of the following crosses would produce offspring with the ratio of 1 straight:2 wavy:1 curly? A) straight × straight B) wavy × wavy C) curly × wavy D) curly × curly Answer: B Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1

24) Which of the following describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects? A) incomplete dominance B) multiple alleles C) pleiotropy D) epistasis Answer: C Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.3, V&C 2 25) Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections. Which of the following terms best describes this expression of phenotypes? A) incomplete dominance B) multiple alleles C) pleiotropy D) epistasis Answer: C Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 26) Skin color in humans has a wide variety of phenotypes. The expression of this trait is caused by more than two genes. What type of inheritance pattern is responsible for this expression? A) codominance B) incomplete dominance C) complete dominance D) polygenic inheritance Answer: D Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

27) Characters in humans such as a person's red and white blood cell counts vary quite a bit depending on such factors as altitude and physical activity. Traits like this are referred to as A) polygenic. B) completely dominant. C) recessive. D) multifactorial. Answer: D Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 28) Which of the following statements correctly describes an example of epistasis? A) Recessive genotypes for each of two genes (aabb) result in an albino corn snake. B) In rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype (ee) prevents any fur color from developing. C) In Drosophila (fruit flies), white eyes can be due to a combination of multiple genes. D) In cacti, there are several genes for the type of spines. Answer: B Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 29) A scientist discovers a DNA-based test for one allele of a particular gene. This and only this allele, if homozygous, produces an effect that results in death at or about the time of birth. Which of the following statements describes the best use of this discovery? A) Screen all newborns of an at-risk population. B) Design a test for identifying heterozygous carriers of the allele. C) Introduce a normal allele into deficient newborns. D) Follow the segregation of the allele during meiosis. Answer: B Topic: 11.4 Many human traits follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1

30) The frequency of heterozygosity for the sickle-cell anemia allele is unusually high, presumably because this reduces the frequency of malaria. Such a relationship is related to which of the following concepts? A) Mendel's law of independent assortment B) Mendel's law of segregation C) Darwin's explanation of natural selection D) Darwin's observations of competition Answer: C Topic: 11.4 Many human traits follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1, C6 31) Achondroplasia, a form of dwarfism in humans, is caused by a dominant allele. What is the probability of a heterozygous dwarf man and a normal, homozygous woman having a child who is a heterozygous dwarf? A) 100% B) 50% C) 25% D) 0% Answer: B Topic: 11.4 Many human traits follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C2

11.2 Art Questions

1) In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one D allele have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F2 is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in the figure above, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square. Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond(s) to plants with dark leaves? A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 C) 2 and 3 D) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: D Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1

2) In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one D allele have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F2 is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in the figure above, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square. Which of the boxes correspond(s) to plants with a heterozygous genotype? A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 C) 2, and 3 D) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: C Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 3) In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one D allele have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F2 is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in the figure above, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square. Which of the plants will be true-breeding? A) 1 and 4 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1, 2, 3, and 4 D) 1 only Answer: A Topic: 11.1 Mendel used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1

4) The figure above shows a pedigree chart for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle. What is the genotype of individual II-5? A) WW B) Ww C) ww D) WW or ww Answer: C Topic: 11.4 Many human traits follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 5) The figure above shows a pedigree chart for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle. What is the likelihood that the offspring of IV-3 and IV-4 will have the trait? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% Answer: C Topic: 11.4 Many human traits follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2

6) The figure above shows a pedigree chart for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle. What is the probability that individual III-1 is Ww? A) 3/4 B) 1/4 C) 2/4 D) 1 Answer: D Topic: 11.4 Many human traits follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2

7) The figure above represents a pedigree for a family in which dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individuals' age at the time of diagnosis. A slash through the symbol indicates that the individual is deceased. In each generation of this family after generation I, the age at diagnosis is significantly lower than would be found in nonfamilial (sporadic) cases of this cancer (~63 years). What is the most likely reason? A) Members of this family know to be checked for colon cancer early in life. B) Hereditary (or familial) cases of this cancer typically occur at earlier ages than do nonfamilial forms. C) This is pure chance; it would not be expected if you were to look at a different family. D) This cancer requires mutations in more than this one gene. Answer: B Topic: 11.4 Many human traits follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1, C6

8) The figure above represents a pedigree for a family in which dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individuals' age at the time of diagnosis. A slash through the symbol indicates that the individual is deceased. From this pedigree, what is the most likely manner by which this trait is inherited? A) from mothers B) as a recessive trait C) as a result of epistasis D) as a dominant trait Answer: D Topic: 11.4 Many human traits follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 9) The figure above represents a pedigree for a family in which dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individuals' age at the time of diagnosis. A slash through the symbol indicates that the individual is deceased. The affected woman in generation IV is thinking about her future and asks her oncologist (cancer specialist) whether she can know if any or all of her children will have a high risk of the same cancer. The doctor would be expected to advise which of the following: (I) genetic counseling; (II) prenatal diagnosis when/if she becomes pregnant; (III) testing to see whether she has the allele; (IV) testing to see whether her future spouse or partner has the allele? A) I: genetic counseling only B) II: prenatal diagnosis when/if she becomes pregnant C) I: genetic counseling; II: prenatal diagnosis when/if she becomes pregnant; and IV: testing to see whether her future spouse or partner has the allele only D) III: testing to see whether she has the allele only Answer: A Topic: 11.4 Many human traits follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1, C6

11.3 Scenario Questions 1) Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red axial flowers, and the other has white terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently. If 1,000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red terminal flowers? A) 65 B) 190 C) 250 D) 565 Answer: B Topic: 11.2 Probability laws govern Mendelian inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2 2) Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red axial flowers, and the other has white terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently. Among the F2 offspring, what is the probability of plants with white axial flowers? A) 9/16 B) 1/16 C) 3/16 D) 1/8 Answer: C Topic: 11.2 Probability laws govern Mendelian inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2 3) Labrador retrievers are black, brown, or yellow. In a cross of a black female with a brown male, results can be all black puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown puppies, or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow puppies. These results indicate which of the following about the inheritance pattern of fur color in Labrador retrievers? A) Brown is dominant to black. B) Black is dominant to brown and to yellow. C) Yellow is dominant to black. D) Epistasis is involved. Answer: D Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 C2

4) Labrador retrievers are black, brown, or yellow. In a cross of a black female with a brown male, results can be all black puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown puppies, or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow puppies. How many genes must be responsible for these coat colors in Labrador retrievers? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C2 5) Labrador retrievers have black, brown, or yellow fur. Fur color is controlled by two genes, one of which exhibits epistasis. Black (B) is dominant over brown (b) in one gene, and (E) is dominant over (e) in the other gene. The (E) gene is epistatic to the (B) gene. In a cross of a black female with a brown male, results can be all black puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown puppies, or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow puppies. In one cross of black × black, the results were as follows:9/16 black, 4/16 yellow, 3/16 brown. The genotype eebb must result in which of the following? A) black B) brown C) yellow D) a lethal result Answer: C Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C2 6) Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant trait. If true-breeding red-flowered long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white-flowered oval radishes, the F1 will be expected to be which of the following? A) red-flowered and long B) red-flowered and oval C) white-flowered and long D) purple-flowered and long Answer: D Topic: 11.2 Probability laws govern Mendelian inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant trait. True-breeding red-flowered long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white-flowered radishes. All of the F1 offspring are purple-flowered and long radishes. In the F2 generation of this cross, which of the following phenotypic ratios would be expected? A) 9:3:3:1 B) 9:4:3 C) 1:1:1:1 D) 6:3:3:2:1:1 Answer: D Topic: 11.2 Probability laws govern Mendelian inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2 8) Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant trait. True-breeding red-flowered long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white-flowered radishes. All of the F1 offspring are purple-flowered and long radishes. The flower color trait in radishes is an example of which of the following types of inheritance? A) a multiple allelic system B) sex linkage C) codominance D) incomplete dominance Answer: D Topic: 11.3 Probability laws govern Mendelian inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 9) Drosophila (fruit flies) usually have long wings (+ is the symbol used to represent this allele), but mutations in two different genes can result in bent wings (bt) or vestigial wings (vg). In symbolizing fruit fly alleles, it is common to use two letters as opposed to only one. If a homozygous bent wing fly is mated with a homozygous vestigial wing fly, which of the following offspring would you expect? A) all btvg heterozygotes, long-winged flies B) 1/2 bent and 1/2 vestigial flies C) all homozygous + flies, long-winged D) 3/4 bent and 1/4 vestigial flies Answer: A Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C C2 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Drosophila (fruit flies) usually have long wings (+ is the symbol used to represent this allele), but mutations in two different genes can result in bent wings (bt) or vestigial wings (vg). The bent and vestigial wing alleles segregate independently. In symbolizing fruit fly alleles, it is common to use two letters as opposed to only one. If flies that have long wings and are heterozygous for both the bent wing gene and the vestigial wing gene are mated, what is the probability of offspring with bent wings only? A) 1/8 B) 3/8 C) 1/4 D) 3/16 Answer: D Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C C2 11) Tallness (T) in snapdragon plants is dominant to dwarfness (t), and red (CR) flower color is not dominant to white (CW). The heterozygous condition results in pink (CRCW) flower color. A dwarf red snapdragon is crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness and white flowers. What are the genotype and phenotype of the F1 individuals? A) W— ttCRCW, dwarf and pink B) — ttCWCW, dwarf and white C) —TtCRCW, tall and red D) —TtCRCW, tall and pink Answer: D Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1

12) Tallness (T) in snapdragon plants is dominant to dwarfness (t), and red (CR) flower color is not dominant to white (CW). The heterozygous condition results in pink (CRCW) flower color. If snapdragons are heterozygous for height as well as for flower color, a mating between them will result in what ratio? A) 9:3:3:1 B) 6:3:3:2:1:1 C) 1:2:1 D) 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1 Answer: B Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2 13) Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all. The relationship between genes S and N is an example of A) incomplete dominance. B) epistasis. C) complete dominance. D) pleiotropy. Answer: B Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 14) Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all. A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus homozygous for dull spines would produce A) all sharp-spined progeny. B) 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny. C) 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny. D) all spineless progeny. Answer: A Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) A woman who has blood type A positive has a daughter who is type O positive and a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance over Rh negative and is designated by the alleles R and r, respectively. Which of the following is a possible genotype for the son? A) IBIB B) IAIB C) ii D) IBi Answer: D Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 16) A woman who has blood type A positive has a daughter who is type O positive and a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance over Rh negative and is designated by the alleles R and r, respectively. Which of the following is a possible partial genotype for the mother? A) IAIA B) IBIB C) ii D) IAi Answer: D Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 17) A woman who has blood type A positive has a daughter who is type O positive and a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance over Rh negative and is designated by the alleles R and r, respectively. Which of the following is a possible phenotype for the father? A) A negative B) O negative C) B positive D) AB negative Answer: C Topic: 11.3 Inheritance patterns are often more complex than predicted by simple Mendelian genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 12 The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance 12.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result? A) The gene involved is on the Y chromosome. B) The gene involved is on the X chromosome. C) The gene involved is on an autosome, but only in males. D) Eye color in flies is a multifactorial trait. Answer: B Topic: 12.1 Morgan showed that Mendelian inheritance has its physical basis in the behavior of chromosomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 2) Which of the following statements describes the chromosome theory of inheritance as expressed in the early twentieth century? A) Individuals inherit particular chromosomes attached to genes. B) Mendelian genes are at specific loci on the chromosome and in turn segregate during meiosis. C) Homologous chromosomes give rise to some genes and crossover chromosomes to other genes. D) No more than a single pair of chromosomes can be found in a healthy normal cell. Answer: B Topic: 12.1 Morgan showed that Mendelian inheritance has its physical basis in the behavior of chromosomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 3) Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because A) sex-linked traits are located on autosomes that affect males more severely than females. B) the presence of a Y chromosome often worsens the effects of X-linked mutations. C) X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females. D) males are hemizygous for the X chromosome. Answer: D Topic: 12.2 Sex-linked genes exhibit unique patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

4) Which of the following statements best describes the SRY gene? A) It is a gene present on the X chromosome that triggers female development. B) It is an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y chromosome. C) It is a gene region present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development. D) It is an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome. Answer: C Topic: 12.2 Sex-linked genes exhibit unique patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 5) In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male? A) tortoiseshell females; tortoiseshell males B) black females; orange males C) orange females; orange males D) tortoiseshell females; black males Answer: D Topic: 12.2 Sex-linked genes exhibit unique patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 6) Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. The normal, dominant allele is symbolized with XN, and the recessive allele is symbolized with Xn. Two people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of these parents? A) XNXn and XnY B) XnXn and XNY C) XNXN and XnY D) XNXN and XNY E) XNXn and XNY Answer: E Topic: 12.2 Sex-linked genes exhibit unique patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1

7) Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked recessive characteristic in fruit flies in which the eyes of the individual are lighter in color than the normal wild-type red color. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 males will have cinnabar eyes? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 100% Answer: D Topic: 12.2 Sex-linked genes exhibit unique patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global L.O.: G4, V&C C2 8) Normally, only female cats have the tortoiseshell phenotype because A) the males die during embryonic development. B) a male inherits only one allele of the X-linked gene controlling hair color. C) the Y chromosome has a gene blocking orange coloration. D) only males can have Barr bodies. Answer: B Topic: 12.2 Sex-linked genes exhibit unique patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 9) Sex determination in mammals is due to the SRY gene on the Y chromosome. An abnormality of this region could allow which of the following individuals to have a male phenotype? A) Turner syndrome, 45,X B) translocation of the SRY gene to an autosome of a 46,XX individual C) a person with an extra X chromosome D) a person with one normal and one shortened (deleted) X Answer: B Topic: 12.2, 12.4 Describe the inheritance patterns displayed by sex-linked genes and the effects of X inactivation in female mammals; Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.2, 12.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

10) In humans, clear sex differentiation occurs not at fertilization but after the second month of gestation. What is the first event of this differentiation? A) formation of testosterone in male embryos B) formation of estrogens in female embryos C) anatomical differentiation of a penis in male embryos D) activation of the SRY gene in male embryos and development of testes Answer: D Topic: 12.2 Sex-linked genes exhibit unique patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 11) Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a serious condition caused by a recessive allele of a gene on the human X chromosome. The patients have muscles that weaken over time because they have absent or decreased dystrophin, a muscle protein. They rarely live past their 20s. How likely is it for a woman to have this condition? A) Women can never have this condition. B) One-half of the daughters of an affected man would have this condition. C) One-fourth of the daughters of an affected father and a carrier mother could have this condition. D) Very rarely: it is rare that an affected male would mate with a carrier female. Answer: D Topic: 12.2 Sex-linked genes exhibit unique patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 12) What is the result of the activation of the XIST gene in mammals? A) the inactivation of one of the X chromosomes, which then becomes a Barr body in females B) activation of the SRY gene that results in the development of male sexual characteristics C) the activation of genes on both X chromosomes in females D) the expression of sex-linked traits in males Answer: A Topic: 12.2 Sex-linked genes exhibit unique patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

13) Which of the following statements correctly describes gene linkage? A) The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a crossover will occur between them. B) The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a maximum value of 100%. C) Linked genes always assort independently. D) Linked genes are found on different chromosomes. Answer: A Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 14) Two autosomal genes have a recombination frequency of 16%. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn regarding these genes? A) The two genes are closely linked on the same chromosome. B) The two genes are linked but on different chromosomes. C) Recombination between these two genes cannot occur in the cell during meiosis. D) The genes are located on the X chromosome. Answer: A Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C C1 15) What does a frequency of recombination of 50% between two genes indicate? A) The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes. B) All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents. C) The genes are located on sex chromosomes. D) Independent assortment of the two genes will not occur. Answer: A Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C C1

16) Three genes (A, B, and C) at three loci are being mapped in a particular species. Each gene has two alleles, each of which results in a dominant or recessive phenotype. The dominant allele of gene A is inherited with the dominant allele of gene B or C about 50% of the time. However, the dominant alleles of genes B and C are inherited together 14.4% of the time. Which of the following statements describes what is happening regarding the inheritance of these genes? A) The three genes are showing independent assortment. B) The three genes are linked. C) Gene A is linked but genes B and C are not. D) Gene A is assorting independently of genes B and C, which are linked. Answer: D Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 17) One map unit is equivalent to which of the following values? A) the physical distance between two linked genes B) 1% frequency of recombination between two genes C) 1 nanometer of distance between two genes D) the distance between a pair of homologous chromosomes Answer: B Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 18) Which of the following events causes recombination between linked genes to occur? A) Mutation that causes one homolog to be different from the other homolog. B) Independent assortment of the genes. C) Crossovers between the genes results in chromosomal exchange. D) Nonrecombinant chromosomes break and then re-join with one another. Answer: C Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

19) How does the recombination of linked genes contribute to natural selection? A) It reduces genetic variability in a sexually reproducing species. B) It eliminates specific alleles in a population. C) It maintains genetic variability in a species. D) It increases the number of alleles associated with a specific gene. Answer: C Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 20) Map units on a linkage map cannot be relied upon to calculate physical distances on a chromosome for which of the following reasons? A) The frequency of crossing over varies along the length of the chromosome. B) The relationship between recombination frequency and map units is different in every individual. C) Physical distances between genes change during the course of the cell cycle. D) The gene order on the chromosomes is slightly different in every individual. Answer: A Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 21) What is the reason that closely linked genes are typically inherited together? A) The likelihood of a crossover event between these two genes is low. B) The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes. C) Chromosomes are unbreakable. D) Alleles are paired together during meiosis.. Answer: A Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

22) What evidence did Alfred Sturtevant use to support his conclusion that Drosophila have four pairs of chromosomes? A) All of the genes he identified had a recombination frequency of 50%. B) Drosophila genes cluster into four distinct groups of linked genes. C) The overall number of genes in Drosophila is a multiple of four. D) All of the genes he identified had recombination frequencies of less than 50%. Answer: B Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1 23) If cell X enters meiosis, and nondisjunction of one chromosome occurs in one of its daughter cells during meiosis II, what will be the result at the completion of meiosis? A) All the gametes descended from cell X will be diploid. B) Half of the gametes descended from cell X will be n + 1, and half will be n - 1. C) One-fourth of the gametes descended from cell X will be n + 1, 1/4 will be n - 1, and 1/2 will be n. D) All of the gametes will have the normal number of chromosomes. Answer: C Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 24) One possible result of chromosomal breakage is for a fragment to join a nonhomologous chromosome. What is this alteration called? A) deletion B) transversion C) inversion D) translocation Answer: D Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

25) Which of the following results might be caused by a chromosomal translocation? A) deletion only B) exchange of homologous chromosome fragments C) nondisjunction D) exchange of nonhomologous chromosome fragments Answer: D Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 26) Of the following human aneuploidies, which is the one that generally has the most severe impact on the health of the individual? A) 47,+21, Down syndrome B) 47,XXY, Klinefelter syndrome C) 47,XXX, Trisomy X D) 45,X0, Turner syndrome Answer: A Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 27) Abnormal chromosomes are frequently found in cancerous malignant tumors. Errors such as translocations may place a gene in close proximity to different control regions of the DNA, which can make cells cancerous. Which of the following might then occur to make the cancer worse? A) an increase in nondisjunction B) expression of inappropriate gene products C) a decrease in mitotic frequency D) death of the cancer cells in the tumor Answer: B Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1

28) What is the source of the extra chromosome 21 in an individual with Down syndrome? A) nondisjunction in the mother only B) nondisjunction in the father only C) duplication of the chromosome D) nondisjunction in either parent Answer: D Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 29) Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is correct? A) Down syndrome is the result of a chromosomal duplication. B) The age of the mother has nothing to do with the frequency of births of children with Down syndrome. C) The frequency decreases with the age of the mother. D) The frequency increases with the age of the mother. Answer: D Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 30) A couple has a child with Down syndrome. The mother is 39 years old at the time of delivery. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the child's condition? A) The woman inherited this tendency from her parents. B) One member of the couple carried a translocation. C) Nondisjunction occurred in one member of the couple during somatic cell production. D) Nondisjunction occurred in one member of the couple during gamete production. Answer: D Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 31) What is a syndrome? A) a characteristic facial appearance B) a group of traits, all of which must be present if an aneuploidy is to be diagnosed C) a group of traits typically found in conjunction with a particular chromosomal alteration or gene mutation D) a characteristic trait usually given the discoverer's name Answer: C Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Which of the following types of diseases is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome? A) chronic myelogenous leukemia B) Down syndrome C) Klinefetler syndrome D) heart disease Answer: A Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 33) At what point in meiosis is a chromosome lost so that, after fertilization with a normal gamete, the result is an embryo with the chromosomal makeup of 45, X0? A) after an error occurring in anaphase I or anaphase II B) after an error occurring in anaphase I only C) after an error occurring in anaphase II only D) after an error occurring in prophase I only Answer: A Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 34) Which of the following statements correctly describes aneuploid conditions? A) A monosomy is more frequent than a trisomy. B) Monosomy X is the only known viable human monosomy. C) Of all human aneuploidies, only Down syndrome is associated with developmental delays or subnormal intelligence. D) An aneuploidy resulting in the deletion of a chromosome segment is less serious than a duplication. Answer: B Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 35) A woman is found to have 47 chromosomes, including three X chromosomes. Which of the following describes her expected phenotype? A) masculine characteristics such as facial hair B) enlarged genital structures C) healthy female of slightly above-average height D) sterile female Answer: C Topic: 12.4 Alterations in chromosome number or structure cause some genetic disorders. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12.2 Art Questions 1) The figure below shows a map of four genes on a chromosome.

A) A and W B) W and E C) E and G D) A and G Answer: D Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G2, G3, V&C C1, C2

In a series of mapping experiments, the recombination frequencies for four different linked genes of Drosophila were determined as shown in the figure above. Based on these frequencies, what is the order of these genes on a chromosome map? A) rb-cn-vg-b B) vg-b-rb-cn C) cn-rb-b-vg D) b-rb-cn-vg Answer: D Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G2, G3, G4, V&C C1, C2

3) A plantlike organism on the planet Pandora can have three recessive genetic traits: bluish leaves, due to an allele (a) of gene A; a feathered stem, due to an allele (b) of gene B; and hollow roots, due to an allele (c) of gene C. The three genes are linked and recombine. A geneticist did a testcross with an organism that had been found to be heterozygous for the three recessive traits and was able to identify progeny of the phenotypic distribution (+ = wild type) shown in the figure below.

Which of the following are the phenotypes of the parents in this cross? A) 2 and 5 B) 1 and 6 C) 4 and 8 D) 3 and 7 E) 1 and 2 Answer: C Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G2, G3, G4, V&C C1, C2

4) A plantlike organism on the planet Pandora can have three recessive genetic traits: bluish leaves, due to an allele (a) of gene A; a feathered stem, due to an allele (b) of gene B; and hollow roots, due to an allele (c) of gene C. The three genes are linked and recombine. A geneticist did a testcross with an organism that had been found to be heterozygous for the three recessive traits and was able to identify progeny of the phenotypic distribution (+ = wild type) shown in the figure below.

In which progeny phenotypes has there been recombination between genes A and B? The parent phenotypes are 4 and 8. A) 1, 2, 5, and 6 B) 1, 3, 6, and 7 C) 2, 4, 5, and 8 D) 2, 3, 5, and 7 Answer: A Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G2, G3, G4, V&C C1, C2

5) A plantlike organism on the planet Pandora can have three recessive genetic traits: bluish leaves, due to an allele (a) of gene A; a feathered stem, due to an allele (b) of gene B; and hollow roots, due to an allele (c) of gene C. The three genes are linked and recombine. A geneticist did a testcross with an organism that had been found to be heterozygous for the three recessive traits and was able to identify progeny of the phenotypic distribution (+ = wild type) shown in the figure below.

If recombination frequency is equal to distance in map units, what is the approximate distance between genes A and B? A) 1.5 map units B) 3 map units C) 6 map units D) 15 map units Answer: B Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G2, G3, G4, V&C C1, C2

6) A plantlike organism on the planet Pandora can have three recessive genetic traits: bluish leaves, due to an allele (a) of gene A; a feathered stem, due to an allele (b) of gene B; and hollow roots, due to an allele (c) of gene C. The three genes are linked and recombine. A geneticist did a testcross with an organism that had been found to be heterozygous for the three recessive traits and was able to identify progeny of the phenotypic distribution (+ = wild type) shown in the figure below.

The greatest distance among the three genes is between a and c. What does this mean? A) Gene c is between a and b. B) Genes are in the order: a-b-c. C) Gene a is not recombining with c. D) Gene a is between b and c. Answer: B Topic: 12.3 Linked genes tend to be inherited together because they are located near each other on the same chromosome Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global L.O.: G2, G3, G4, V&C C1, C2 12.3 Scenario Questions 1) A man who is a dwarf due to achondroplasia and has normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplasia is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is Xlinked recessive. How many of the couple's daughters might be expected to be color-blind dwarfs? A) all B) none C) half D) one out of four Answer: B Topic: 12.2 Sex-linked genes exhibit unique patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C C1, C2 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) A man who is a dwarf due to achondroplasia and has normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplasia is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is Xlinked recessive. What proportion of their sons would be color-blind and of normal height? A) none B) half C) one out of four D) three out of four Answer: B Topic: 12.2 Sex-linked genes exhibit unique patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C C1, C2 3) A man who is a dwarf due to achondroplasia and has normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplasia is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is Xlinked recessive. They have a daughter who is a dwarf with normal color vision. What is the probability that she is heterozygous for both genes? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 100% Answer: D Topic: 12.2 Sex-linked genes exhibit unique patterns of inheritance Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C C1, C2

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 13 The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 13.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In his transformation experiments, which of the following results did Griffith observe? A) Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections. B) Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form. C) Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic. D) Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains. Answer: B Topic: 13.1 DNA is the genetic material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 2) Which of the following statements most accurately describes transformation in bacteria? A) Transformation is the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule. B) Transformation is the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule. C) Transformation is the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule. D) Transformation is the assimilation of external DNA into a cell. Answer: D Topic: 13.1 DNA is the genetic material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 3) After mixing a heat-killed, phosphorescent (light-emitting) strain of bacteria with a living, nonphosphorescent strain, you discover that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which observation(s) would provide the best evidence that the ability to phosphoresce is a heritable trait? A) DNA passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain. B) Protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain. C) The phosphorescence in the living strain is especially bright. D) Descendants of the living cells are also phosphorescent. Answer: D Topic: 13.1 DNA is the genetic material Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1

4) In trying to determine whether DNA or protein was the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts about these two types of molecules? A) DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not. B) DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not. C) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not. D) DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines. Answer: B Topic: 13.1 DNA is the genetic material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 5) Which of the following statements correctly describes one of Chargaff's rules regarding DNA? A) The percentages of adenine and cytosine are roughly equal, as are the percentages of guanine and thymine in the DNA of a given species. B) DNA has a double helical structure. C) DNA base composition does not vary between species. D) The percentages of adenine and thymine are roughly equal, as are the percentages of guanine and cytosine in the DNA of a given species. Answer: D Topic: 13.1 DNA is the genetic material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 6) Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine? A) 8% B) 16% C) 31% D) 42% Answer: A Topic: 13.1 DNA is the genetic material Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C 2, C2

7) Which of the following characteristics of the structure of DNA was determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA? A) the double helical structure B) the length of a given DNA molecule C) the sequence of nucleotides D) the frequency of A versus T nucleotides Answer: A Topic: 13.1 DNA is the genetic material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 8) Which of the following characteristics of the structure of DNA allows it to carry a large amount of hereditary information? A) the sequence of bases B) phosphate-sugar backbones C) complementary pairing of bases D) different five-carbon sugars Answer: A Topic: 13.1 DNA is the genetic material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 9) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found in a given DNA molecule? A) A = C B) A = G and C = T C) A + C = G + T D) G + C = T + A Answer: C Topic: 13.1 DNA is the genetic material Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global L.O.: G2, G4, V&C 2, C2 10) What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the two strands of nucleic acids that make up DNA? A) The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands. B) The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand. C) Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands. D) One strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines. Answer: B Topic: 13.1 DNA is the genetic material Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) Which of the following statements describes one difference between DNA replication in prokaryotes and DNA replication in eukaryotes? A) Prokaryotic chromosomes have histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not. B) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many. C) The rate of elongation during DNA replication is slower in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes. D) Prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not. Answer: B Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 12) Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of Escherichia coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base? A) One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA. B) Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive. C) All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive. D) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive. Answer: D Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 13) Which of the following statements correctly describes one characteristic of DNA replication in eukaryotes? A) In the leading strand, DNA is replicated in short pieces called Okazaki fragments, which are then joined together at the end of the process. B) DNA is replicated in the 3' to 5' direction in the leading strand. C) In the lagging strand, DNA is replicated in short pieces called Okazaki fragments, which are then joined together at the end of the process. D) Helicase joins the Okazaki fragments together in the lagging strand. Answer: C Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

14) In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin of replication. Which of the following events would you expect to occur as a result of this mutation? A) No proofreading will occur. B) The DNA strands at the origin of replication will separate, but replication will not progress. C) The DNA will supercoil. D) DNA polymerase I will not function correctly. Answer: B Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 15) Which enzyme in E. coli catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' → 3' direction? A) primase B) DNA ligase C) DNA polymerase III D) topoisomerase Answer: C Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 16) A mutation is identified in a single-celled eukaryote called a protist in which DNA primase does not assemble RNA primers on the lagging strand during DNA replication. Which of the following statements correctly describes a possible result of this mutation? A) DNA replication will proceed normally. B) The leading strand will not be replicated normally. C) The lagging strand will continue to be replicated normally. D) The lagging strand will not be replicated normally. Answer: D Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1

17) In which order do the necessary enzymes act to repair a thymine dimer by nucleotide excision repair? A) nuclease, DNA polymerase, RNA primase B) helicase, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase C) DNA ligase, nuclease, helicase D) nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase Answer: D Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, C1 18) What is the function of DNA polymerase III in replication in E. coli? A) to unwind the DNA helix during replication B) to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands C) to add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand D) to degrade damaged DNA molecules Answer: C Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 19) Which of the following statements correctly describes how the leading and the lagging strands of DNA formed during DNA replication differ? A) The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction. B) The leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5' end. C) The lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together. D) The leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand. Answer: A Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

20) Why does a new DNA strand elongate only in the 5' to 3' direction in replication? A) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5' end of the template. B) Okazaki fragments prevent elongation in the 3' to 5' direction. C) Replication must progress toward the replication fork. D) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3' end. Answer: D Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 21) What is the function of topoisomerase? A) relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork B) elongating new DNA at a replication fork by adding nucleotides to the existing chain C) adding methyl groups to bases of DNA D) unwinding of the double helix Answer: A Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 22) What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication? A) It synthesizes RNA nucleotides to make a primer. B) It catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres. C) It joins Okazaki fragments together. D) It unwinds the parental double helix. Answer: C Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 23) Which of the following molecule(s) help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated? A) primase B) ligase C) DNA polymerase D) single-strand binding proteins Answer: D Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

24) Individuals with the disorder xeroderma pigmentosum are hypersensitive to sunlight. What function is impaired in their cells? A) They cannot replicate DNA. B) They cannot undergo mitosis. C) They cannot exchange DNA with other cells. D) They cannot repair thymine dimers. Answer: D Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 25) During DNA replication in E. coli, which of the following enzymes removes the RNA nucleotides from the primer and adds equivalent DNA nucleotides to the 3' end of Okazaki fragments? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I Answer: D Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 26) During DNA replication, which of the following enzymes separates the DNA strands during replication? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I Answer: A Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

27) During DNA replication, which of the following enzymes covalently connects segments of DNA? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I Answer: C Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 28) In E. coli, which of the following enzymes removes the RNA primer from the 5' end of the DNA fragment? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I Answer: D Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 29) Which of the following mechanisms removes nucleotides that are paired incorrectly during DNA replication? A) nucleotide excision repair B) chromosomal breakage repair C) mismatch repair D) telomerase activity Answer: C Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 30) Which of the following sets of materials is required by both eukaryotes and prokaryotes for DNA replication? A) double-stranded DNA, four kinds of DNA nucleotides, primers, origins of replication B) topoisomerases, telomerases, polymerases C) G-C rich regions, polymerases, telomerases D) nucleosomes, four kinds of DNA nucleotides, four kinds of RNA nucleotides Answer: A Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) In a linear eukaryotic chromatin sample, which of the following strands is looped into nucleosomes? A) DNA without attached histones B) RNA primers C) the 10-nm chromatin fiber D) the 30-nm chromatin fiber Answer: C Topic: 13.3 A chromosome consists of a DNA molecule packed together with proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 32) Which of the following statements best describes the eukaryotic chromosome? A) It is composed of DNA alone. B) The nucleosome is its most basic functional subunit. C) The number of genes on each chromosome is different in different cell types of an organism. D) It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA plus proteins. Answer: D Topic: 13.3 A chromosome consists of a DNA molecule packed together with proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 33) If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following effects would likely occur? A) The cell's DNA couldn't be packed into its nucleus. B) Spindle fibers would not form during prophase. C) Expression of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones. D) DNA polymerase I would not function properly. Answer: A Topic: 13.3 A chromosome consists of a DNA molecule packed together with proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 34) Which of the following statements correctly describes one characteristic of histones? A) Each nucleosome consists of two histones. B) Each nucleosome consists of eight histones. C) The carboxyl end of each histone extends outward from the nucleosome and is called a "histone tail." D) Histones are found in mammals but not in other eukaryotes. Answer: B Topic: 13.3 A chromosome consists of a DNA molecule packed together with proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) Why do histones bind tightly to DNA? A) Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged. B) Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged. C) Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic. D) Histones are covalently linked to the DNA. Answer: A Topic: 13.3 A chromosome consists of a DNA molecule packed together with proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 36) Which of the following lists of structures correctly represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin? A) nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain B) looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome C) looped domain, nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber D) nucleosome, looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber Answer: A Topic: 13.3 A chromosome consists of a DNA molecule packed together with proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 37) Which of the following statements correctly describes one difference between heterochromatin and euchromatin? A) Heterochromatin is composed of DNA, whereas euchromatin is made of DNA and RNA. B) Heterochromatin is found in the cytoplasm while euchromatin is found in the nucleus. C) Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact. D) Euchromatin is not transcribed, whereas heterochromatin is transcribed. Answer: C Topic: 13.3 A chromosome consists of a DNA molecule packed together with proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

38) Which of the following modifications is most likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis? A) altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment without adding or removing nucleotides B) radioactively labeling the cytosine bases within the DNA fragment C) increasing the length of the DNA fragment D) leaving the length of the DNA fragment the same Answer: C Topic: 13.4 Understanding DNA structure and replication makes genetic engineering possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C2 39) Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid. Someone gives you a preparation of genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme X. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. You have a plasmid with a single site for Y but not for X. Your strategy should be to A) insert the fragments cut with restriction enzyme X directly into the plasmid without cutting the plasmid. B) cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X, and insert the fragments cut with restriction enzyme Y into the plasmid. C) cut the DNA again with restriction enzyme Y, and insert these fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme. D) cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y, and ligate the two fragments onto the ends of the DNA fragments cut with restriction enzyme X. Answer: C Topic: 13.4 Understanding DNA structure and replication makes genetic engineering possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1 40) How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes? A) by adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines B) by using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle C) by adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA D) by forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching Answer: A Topic: 13.4 Understanding DNA structure and replication makes genetic engineering possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

41) What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium? A) Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA. B) Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule. C) Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule. D) Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes. Answer: C Topic: 13.4 Understanding DNA structure and replication makes genetic engineering possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, C1 42) Why is it so important to be able to amplify DNA fragments when studying genes? A) DNA fragments are too small to use individually. B) A gene may represent only a very small portion of the cell's DNA. C) Restriction enzymes cut DNA into fragments that are too small. D) A clone requires multiple copies of each gene per clone. Answer: B Topic: 13.4 Understanding DNA structure and replication makes genetic engineering possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 43) Which of the following statements accurately describes why Taq polymerase is used in PCR? A) It is heat stable and can withstand the heating step of PCR. B) Only minute amounts are needed for each cycle of PCR. C) It binds more readily than other polymerases to the primers. D) It has regions that are complementary to the primers. Answer: A Topic: 13.4 Understanding DNA structure and replication makes genetic engineering possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

13.2 Art Questions

1) In the late 1950s, Meselson and Stahl grew bacteria in a medium containing "heavy" (radioactive) nitrogen (15N) and then transferred them to a medium containing 14N, which is a nonradioactive form of nitrogen. They then extracted DNA from the bacteria and centrifuged it to separate the DNA of different densities. Which of the results in figure above would be expected after one round of DNA replication in the presence of 14N? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: D Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G2, G3, V&C C1 2) In the late 1950s, Meselson and Stahl grew bacteria in a medium containing "heavy" (radioactive) nitrogen (15N) and then transferred them to a medium containing 14N, which is a less radioactive form of nitrogen. They then extracted DNA from the bacteria and centrifuged it to separate the DNA of different densities. Once the pattern found after one round of replication was observed, Meselson and Stahl could be confident of which of the following conclusions? A) Replication is semiconservative. B) Replication is not dispersive. C) Replication is not semiconservative. D) Replication is not conservative. Answer: D Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G2, G3, V&C C1

Which type of enzyme was used to produce the DNA molecule in the figure above? A) ligase B) a restriction enzyme C) RNA polymerase D) DNA polymerase Answer: B Topic: 13.4 Understanding DNA structure and replication makes genetic engineering possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1

The segment of DNA shown in the figure above has restriction sites I and II, which create restriction fragments A, B, and C. Which of the gels produced by electrophoresis shown below best represents the separation and identity of these fragments? A)

Answer: B Topic: 13.4 Understanding DNA structure and replication makes genetic engineering possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global L.O.: G2, G3, V&C C1 13.3 Scenario Questions 1) For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen of the DNA rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogens. Thus, labeling the nitrogens would provide a stronger radioactive signal than labeling the phosphates. Why won't this experiment work? A) There is no radioactive isotope of nitrogen. B) The phosphate in normal DNA is naturally radioactive. C) Although there are more nitrogens in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have 16 extra neutrons; therefore, they are more radioactive. D) Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins. Answer: D Topic: 13.1 DNA is the genetic material Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global L.O.: G2, G3, V&C C1 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) You briefly expose bacteria undergoing DNA replication to radioactively labeled nucleotides. When you centrifuge the DNA isolated from the bacteria, the DNA separates into two classes. One class of labeled DNA includes very large molecules (thousands or even millions of nucleotides long), and the other includes short stretches of DNA (several hundred to a few thousand nucleotides in length). These two classes of DNA probably represent A) leading strands and Okazaki fragments. B) lagging strands and Okazaki fragments. C) Okazaki fragments and RNA primers. D) leading strands and RNA primers. Answer: A Topic: 13.2 Many proteins work together in DNA replication and repair. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global L.O.: G2, G3, V&C 2, C1 3) A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to the antibiotics ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics. Bacteria that contain the plasmid, but not the eukaryotic gene, would grow in which of the following conditions? A) in the nutrient broth plus ampicillin, but not in the broth containing tetracycline B) only in the broth containing both antibiotics C) in the broth containing tetracycline, but not in the broth containing ampicillin D) in all four types of broth Answer: D Topic: 13.4 Understanding DNA structure and replication makes genetic engineering possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global L.O.: G2, G3, V&C C1

4) A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to the antibiotics ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics. Bacteria containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has been inserted would grow in which of the following conditions? A) in the nutrient broth only B) in the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth only C) in the nutrient broth, the ampicillin broth, and the tetracycline broth D) in the ampicillin broth and the nutrient broth Answer: D Topic: 13.4 Understanding DNA structure and replication makes genetic engineering possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global L.O.: G2, G3, V&C C1 5) A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to the antibiotics ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics. Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media? A) the nutrient broth only B) the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth C) the nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth D) the tetracycline broth and the ampicillin broth Answer: A Topic: 13.4 Understanding DNA structure and replication makes genetic engineering possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global L.O.: G2, G3, V&C C1

6) A group of six students has taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the DNA, and used a restriction enzyme known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest. Analysis of the data obtained shows that two students each have two fragments, two students each have three fragments, and two students each have one only. What does this demonstrate? A) Each pair of students has a different gene for this function. B) The two students who have two fragments have one restriction site in this region. C) The two students who have two fragments have two restriction sites within this gene. D) Each of these students is heterozygous for this gene. Answer: B Topic: 13.4 Understanding DNA structure and replication makes genetic engineering possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global L.O.: G2, G3, V&C C1 13.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) In his work with pneumonia-causing bacteria and mice, Griffith found that A) the protein coat from pathogenic cells was able to transform nonpathogenic cells. B) heat-killed pathogenic cells caused pneumonia. C) some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to nonpathogenic cells, making them pathogenic. D) the polysaccharide coat of bacteria caused pneumonia. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized? A) DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a preexisting strand. B) Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end. C) The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end. D) DNA ligase works only in the 3' → 5' direction. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rules? A) A = G B) A + G = C + T C) A + T = G + C D) A = C Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4) The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis A) progresses away from the replication fork. B) occurs in the 3' → 5' direction. C) produces Okazaki fragments. D) depends on the action of DNA polymerase. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around A) polymerase molecules. B) ribosomes. C) histones. D) a thymine dimer. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which of the following sequences in double-stranded DNA is most likely to be recognized as a cutting site for a restriction enzyme? A) AAGG TTCC B) GGCC CCGG C) ACCA TGGT D) AAAA TTTT Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) E. coli cells grown on 15N medium are transferred to 14N medium and allowed to grow for two more generations (two rounds of DNA replication). DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged. What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment? A) one high-density and one low-density band B) one intermediate-density band C) one high-density and one intermediate-density band D) one low-density and one intermediate-density band Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

8) A student isolates, purifies, and combines in a test tube a variety of molecules needed for DNA replication. After adding some DNA to the mixture, replication occurs, but each DNA molecule consists of a normal strand paired with numerous segments of DNA a few hundred nucleotides long. What has the student probably left out of the mixture? A) DNA polymerase B) DNA ligase C) Okazaki fragments D) primase Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) The spontaneous loss of amino groups from adenine in DNA results in hypoxanthine, an uncommon base, opposite thymine. What combination of proteins could repair such damage? A) nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase B) topoisomerase, primase, DNA polymerase C) topoisomerase, helicase, single-strand binding protein D) DNA ligase, replication fork proteins, adenylyl cyclase Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 14 Gene Expression: From Gene to Protein 14.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Garrod hypothesized that inherited diseases such as alkaptonuria, the inability to metabolize the chemical alkapton, occur because A) metabolic enzymes require vitamin cofactors, and affected individuals have significant nutritional deficiencies. B) many metabolic enzymes use DNA as a cofactor, and affected individuals have mutations that prevent their enzymes from interacting efficiently with DNA. C) certain metabolic reactions are carried out by ribozymes, and affected individuals lack key splicing factors. D) genes dictate the production of specific enzymes, and affected individuals have genetic defects that cause them to lack certain enzymes. Answer: D Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 2) Which of the following statements correctly defines the process of gene expression? A) Gene expression is the process by which proteins direct the synthesis of DNA. B) Gene expression is the process by which DNA directs the synthesis of proteins. C) Gene expression is the process by which proteins direct the synthesis of RNA. D) Gene expression is the process by which RNA direct the synthesis of DNA. Answer: B Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 3) The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which of the following groups of molecules? A) proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone B) proteins, ATP, and DNA C) ATP, RNA, and DNA D) glucose, ATP, and DNA Answer: C Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

4) A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5'-AGT-3'. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is A) 3'-UCA-5'. B) 3'-UGA-5'. C) 5'-TCA-3'. D) 3'-ACU-5'. Answer: A Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G12, V&C 2, 3 5) The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. Based on this information, one can logically assume which of the following statements to be correct? A) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism. B) Gene expression differs considerably in different organisms. C) DNA was the first genetic material. D) The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids. Answer: A Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 1 6) The "universal" genetic code is now known to have exceptions. Evidence for this can be found if which of the following statements is true? A) if UGA, usually a stop codon, is found to code for an amino acid such as tryptophan (usually coded for by UGG only) B) if one stop codon, such as UGA, is found to have the same effect on translation as another stop codon, such as UAA C) if prokaryotic organisms are able to translate a eukaryotic mRNA and produce the same polypeptide D) if several codons are found to translate to the same amino acid, such as serine Answer: A Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 3

7) Which of the following descriptions of nucleotide triplets best represents a codon? A) a triplet separated spatially from other triplets B) a triplet that has no corresponding amino acid C) a triplet at the opposite end of tRNA from the attachment site of the amino acid D) a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG Answer: D Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 3 8) Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in bacteria? A) RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with the transcript and cut it free from the polymerase. B) RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to separate from the DNA and release the transcript. C) RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, which causes the polymerase to let go of the transcript. D) Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the chromosome. Answer: B Topic: 14.2 Transcription is the DNA-directed synthesis of RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 9) Which of the following processes only occurs in eukaryotic gene expression? A) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed. B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter. C) A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA, and a cap is added to the 5' end. D) Transcription can begin as soon as translation has assembled the first few amino acids in the polypeptide. Answer: C Topic: 14.2 Transcription is the DNA-directed synthesis of RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

10) Which of the following statements correctly compares transcription in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? A) Prokaryotes have at least three types of RNA polymerases, whereas eukaryotes only have one. B) Bacteria have one type of RNA polymerase, whereas eukaryotes have at least three. C) RNA polymerase in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes produce the same RNA molecules. D) Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes recognize a polyadenylation signal in order to terminate transcription. Answer: B Topic: 14.2 Transcription is the DNA-directed synthesis of RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 11) In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA known as pre-mRNA? A) ligase B) RNA polymerase I C) RNA polymerase II D) RNA polymerase III Answer: C Topic: 14.2 Transcription is the DNA-directed synthesis of RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 12) Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase? A) the protein product of the promoter B) start and stop codons C) ribosomes and tRNA D) several transcription factors Answer: D Topic: 14.2 Transcription is the DNA-directed synthesis of RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

13) A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in many different organisms through evolution. Which of the following correctly describes why this is the case? A) The sequence evolves very rapidly. B) The sequence does not mutate. C) Any mutation in the sequence is selected against. D) The sequence is found in many but not all promoters. Answer: C Topic: 14.2 Transcription is the DNA-directed synthesis of RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 1 14) Which of the following statements best describes the function of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters? A) It is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor. B) It sets the reading frame of the mRNA. C) It is the recognition site for ribosomal binding. D) It signals the end of the nucleotide sequence of the gene. Answer: A Topic: 14.2 Transcription is the DNA-directed synthesis of RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 15) A eukaryotic mutation upstream of a particular gene has been identified that changes the sequence of the TATA box to GATA. How would you predict that this mutation would affect the transcription of this gene? A) Transcription would proceed normally. B) Transcription factors would bind to the start point in the promoter region. C) Transcription factor binding would be reduced or eliminated, and transcription of the gene would decrease dramatically. D) Transcription factors would bind in the middle of the gene sequence and transcribe the gene from that point. Answer: C Topic: 14.2 Transcription is the DNA-directed synthesis of RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3

16) In which direction does RNA polymerase move along the DNA? A) 5' to 3' along whichever strand it's on B) 3' to 5' along the template strand C) 5' to 3' along the template strand D) 5' to 3' along the double-stranded DNA Answer: B Topic: 14.2 Transcription is the DNA-directed synthesis of RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 17) Which of the following is a function of a poly-A tail in mRNA? A) It adds the modified guanine to the 3' end of the mRNA. B) It indicates the site of translational termination. C) It is a sequence that codes for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA. D) It helps protect the mRNA from degradation by hydrolytic enzymes. Answer: D Topic: 14.3 Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 18) What is a ribozyme? A) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate B) an RNA with enzymatic activity C) an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits D) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process Answer: B Topic: 14.3 Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 19) A eukaryotic transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. Which of the following statements best explains this fact? A) Many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in eukaryotic DNA. B) There is redundancy in the genetic code. C) Many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid. D) There are termination exons near the beginning of the mRNA. Answer: A Topic: 14.3 Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3

20) How do small RNAs in the spliceosome initiate the splicing of the pre-mRNA? A) by base pairing to the exons on each side of the intron B) by binding to the 3'end of the pre-mRNA and removing the poly-A tail C) by base pairing to specific sites along the intron D) by base pairing to sites on both the intron and nearby exons Answer: C Topic: 14.3 Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 21) Which of the following statements correctly describes alternative RNA splicing? A) It is a mechanism that can increase the rate of transcription. B) It can allow the production of different protein products from a single mRNA. C) It allows the production of similar proteins from different RNAs. D) It increases the rate of transcription. Answer: B Topic: 14.3 Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 22) In an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mRNA molecule into a eukaryotic cell after she has removed its 5' cap and poly-A tail. Which of the following would you expect her to find? A) The mRNA would not be transported out of the nucleus. B) The cell recognizes the absence of the tail and adds a new poly-A tail to the mRNA. C) The molecule is digested by restriction enzymes in the nucleus. D) The molecule is degraded by hydrolytic enzymes because it is no longer protected at the 5' end and the 3' end. Answer: D Topic: 14.3 Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 2, 3

23) Use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the question. E1-4 refer to the exons, and I1-3 refer to the introns in the pre-mRNA transcript. 5' UTR E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 UTR 3' Which components of the previous molecule will also be found in mRNA in the cytosol? A) 5' UTR I1 I2 I3 UTR 3' B) 5' E1 E2 E3 E4 3' C) 5' UTR E1 E2 E3 E4 UTR 3' D) 5' I1 I2 I3 3' Answer: C Topic: 14.3 Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 24) During the process of alternative RNA splicing, where on a pre-mRNA transcript does a spliceosome bind? A) to the exons B) to the 5' untranslated region C) to the 3' untranslated region D) on certain sequences of an intron Answer: D Topic: 14.3 Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 25) Use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the question. E1-4 refer to the exons, and I1-3 refer to the introns in the pre-mRNA transcript. 5' UTR E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 UTR 3' Suppose that exposure to a chemical mutagen results in a change in the sequence that alters the 5' end of intron 1 (I1). Which of the following results might occur? A) loss of the gene product B) loss of E1 C) premature transcriptional termination D) inclusion of I1 in the mRNA Answer: D Topic: 14.3 Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

26) Use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the question. E1-4 refer to the exons, and I1-3 refer to the introns in the pre-mRNA transcript. 5' UTR E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 UTR 3' Suppose that an induced mutation removes most of the 5' end of the 5' UTR. What might be the result of this removal? A) Removal of the 5' UTR has no effect because the exons remain intact. B) Removal of the 5' UTR also removes the 5' cap, so the mRNA may be quickly degraded by hydrolytic enzymes. C) The 3' UTR will duplicate, and one copy will replace the 5' end. D) The first exon will not be read because I1 will now serve as the UTR. Answer: B Topic: 14.3 Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 27) What happens to the cut-out intron after alternative RNA splicing? A) It is added back to the mRNA. B) It is kept in the nucleus for insertion back into the genomic DNA. C) It is transported out of the nucleus for translation in they cytosol. D) It is rapidly degraded. Answer: D Topic: 14.3 Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 28) Which of the following experimental procedures is most likely to speed up mRNA degradation in a eukaryotic cell? A) lengthening of the poly-A tail B) removal of the 5' cap C) removal of C nucleotides D) removal of one or more exons Answer: B Topic: 14.3 Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

29) A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is A) TTT. B) UUA. C) UUU. D) AAA. Answer: C Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 30) Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide depends on specificity in which of the following characteristics? A) binding of ribosomes to mRNA B) shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes C) attachment of amino acids to tRNAs D) bonding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 31) Which of the following statements describes one of the functions of GTP in translation? A) GTP provides the energy for the formation of the initiation complex, using initiation factors. B) GTP is hydrolyzed to provide phosphate groups for tRNA binding. C) GTP is hydrolyzed to provide energy for breaking peptide bonds. D) GTP supplies phosphates and energy to make ATP from ADP. Answer: A Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

32) A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. What would be a potential consequence for a cell in which this happens? Remember that phenylalanine may be encoded by multiple codons. A) None of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine. B) Proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU. C) The cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysinespecifying anticodons. D) The ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered. Answer: B Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 33) There are 61 mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact that A) some tRNAs have anticodons that recognize four or more different codons. B) the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible. C) many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that recognize them are dispensable. D) the DNA codes for all 61 tRNAs, but some are then destroyed. Answer: B Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 34) Which of the following events in translation is the first to occur in eukaryotes? A) elongation of the polypeptide B) base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA C) binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits D) the small subunit of the ribosome recognizing and attaching to the 5' cap of mRNA Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3

35) Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of a signal peptide? A) It directs an mRNA molecule into the Golgi apparatus. B) It causes RNA polymerase to bind DNA and initiate transcription. C) It terminates translation of the messenger RNA. D) It assists in the translocation of polypeptides across the ER membrane. Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 36) A mutation in a cell results in a structural change in the signal-recognition particle (SRP) so that it does not bind to the translocation complex in the ER correctly. Which of the following processes will occur because of this mutation? A) The large and small subunits of the ribosome will not bind to each other during translation. B) Proteins produced during translation that are destined for the ER will not be translocated into the ER. C) Proteins produced during translation that are destined for the ER will be translocated into the ER. D) The initiation of translation will not occur normally. Answer: B Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 37) An experimenter has altered the 3' end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid methionine in such a way as to remove the 3' AC. Which of the following statements correctly describes the most likely result of this change? A) tRNA will not form a cloverleaf. B) The nearby stem end will pair improperly. C) The amino acid methionine will not be covalently bound to the altered tRNA. D) The anticodon will not bind with the mRNA codon. Answer: C Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C, 2, 3

38) The process of translation in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes requires tRNAs, amino acids, and ribosomal subunits. Which of the following components must also be present for translation to proceed? A) protein factors and ATP B) protein factors and GTP C) polymerases and GTP D) signal peptides plus release factor Answer: B Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 39) When the ribosome reaches a stop codon on the mRNA, no corresponding tRNA enters the A site. If the translation reaction were to be experimentally stopped at this point, which of the following sets of structures would you be able to isolate from the cell? A) an assembled ribosome with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA in the P site B) separated ribosomal subunits, a polypeptide, and free tRNA C) an assembled ribosome with a separated polypeptide D) separated ribosomal subunits with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA Answer: A Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 40) What is the function of the release factor in translation? A) It separates tRNA in the A site from the growing polypeptide. B) It binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA. C) It releases the amino acid from its tRNA to allow the amino acid to form a peptide bond. D) It releases the ribosome from the ER to allow polypeptides into the cytosol. Answer: B Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4, V&C 2

41) Suppose that an error in transcription alters the formation of a single tRNA molecule in a cell. The altered tRNA still attaches to the same amino acid (Phe), but its anticodon loop has the sequence AAU, which binds to the mRNA codon UUA (usually specifying the amino acid leucine, Leu). What will be the effect on the translation of polypeptides in this cell? A) The altered tRNA will cause this mRNA to make only nonfunctioning product. B) The tRNA-Leu will not be able to enter the ribosome to bind to the UUA codon. C) One altered tRNA molecule will have little effect because it will compete with many "normal" ones. D) The altered tRNA will result in an amino acid variant in all copies of the protein. Answer: C Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 42) What must happen to a newly made polypeptide before it can be secreted from a cell? A) It must be translated by a ribosome that remains free of attachment to the ER. B) Its signal sequence must target it to the ER, after which it goes to the Golgi. C) Its signal sequence must be cleaved off before the polypeptide can enter the ER. D) Its signal sequence must target it to the plasma membrane, where it causes exocytosis. Answer: B Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 43) In what way could a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the function of a protein? A) It might result in a chromosomal translocation. B) It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon. C) It might exchange one serine codon for a different serine codon. D) It might substitute a different amino acid in the protein, which could change its function. Answer: D Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3

44) In the 1920s, Hermann Muller discovered that X-rays caused genetic changes in the fruit fly Drosophila. In a related series of experiments in the 1940s, other scientists discovered that other types of chemicals have a similar effect. A new chemical food additive is developed by a cereal manufacturer. Why is it necessary to test for its ability to cause mutation? A) We worry that it might cause mutation in cereal grain plants. B) We want to make sure that it does not emit radiation. C) We want to be sure that it increases the rate of mutation sufficiently. D) We want to prevent any chance that it might cause mutations. Answer: D Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 2 45) Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the 5ʹ AUG start codon, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product? A) a deletion of a codon B) a deletion of two nucleotides C) a substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon D) a substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon Answer: B Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 46) What is the effect of a nucleotide-pair substitution that results in a nonsense mutation in a gene? A) It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein. B) It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein. C) It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA. D) It alters the reading frame of the mRNA. Answer: C Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.5, V&C 2, 3 47) Which of the following types of mutations could result in a frameshift mutation? A) a base insertion only B) a base deletion only C) a base substitution only D) either an insertion or a deletion of a base Answer: D Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.5, V&C 2, 3 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) Which of the following DNA mutations is likely to have the most negative effect on the protein it specifies? A) a base-pair deletion B) a codon substitution C) a substitution in the last base of a codon D) a codon deletion Answer: A Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 49) Which small-scale mutation would be most likely to have the least negative effect on the function of a protein? A) a base substitution B) a base deletion near the start of a gene C) a base deletion near the end of the coding sequence, but not in the terminator codon D) deletion of three bases near the start of the coding sequence, but not in the initiator codon Answer: A Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.5, V&C 2, 3 50) The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. What is the most likely result of this mutation in the protein product? A) a base-pair substitution B) a nucleotide mismatch C) a frameshift mutation D) a polypeptide missing an amino acid Answer: D Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 51) Which of the following mutations is most likely to cause a phenotypic change? A) a duplication of all or most introns B) a nucleotide substitution in an exon coding for a transmembrane protein C) a single nucleotide deletion in an exon coding for an active site of a protein D) a frameshift mutation one codon away from the 3' end of the nontemplate strand Answer: C Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3

52) Which of the following statements is correct regarding protein synthesis in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? A) Transcription and translation can occur at the same time in both organisms. B) Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress in prokaryotes, but not in eukaryotes. C) The RNA produced during transcription is then modified in both types of organisms. D) In prokaryotes, transcription produces a protein, but in eukaryotes, it produces RNA. Answer: B Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 53) Which of the following statements correctly defines the most current and complete description of a gene? A) a unit of heredity that causes formation of a phenotypic characteristic B) a DNA subunit that codes for a single complete protein C) a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide D) a DNA-RNA sequence combination that results in an enzymatic product Answer: C Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 54) In comparing DNA replication with RNA transcription in the same cell, which of the following is true only of replication? A) It uses RNA polymerase. B) It makes a new molecule from its 5' end to its 3' end. C) The process is extremely fast once it is initiated. D) The entire template molecule is represented in the product. Answer: D Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3

55) When the genome of a particular species is said to include 20,000 protein-coding regions, what does this imply? A) There are 20,000 genes. B) Each gene codes for one protein. C) There are also additional genes for RNAs other than mRNA. D) The species is highly evolved. Answer: C Topic: 14.5 Mutations of one or a few nucleotides can affect protein structure and function Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 14.2 Art Questions

1) Examine the simple metabolic pathway in the figure above. According to Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis, how many genes are necessary for this pathway? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: C Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 2) Examine the simple metabolic pathway in the figure above. A mutation results in a defective enzyme 1. Which of the following results would be a consequence of that mutation? A) an accumulation of A and no production of B and C B) an accumulation of A and B and no production of C C) an accumulation of B and no production of A and C D) an accumulation of B and C and no production of A Answer: A Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

3) Examine the simple metabolic pathway in the figure above. If A, B, and C are all substances required for growth of the organism that carries out this pathway, a strain that is mutant for the gene encoding enzyme 1 would be able to grow on which of the following media? A) minimal medium B) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient A only C) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient B only D) minimal medium with no supplements Answer: C Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

4) Examine the table of codons in the figure above. A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val would be A) 5'-TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG-3'. B) 3'-AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA-5'. C) 5'-AUG-CTG-CAG-TAT-3'. D) 3'-AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA-5'. Answer: D Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3

5) Examine the table of codons in the figure above. What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the following mRNA codon sequence? 5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3' A) met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg B) met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu C) met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser D) met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu Answer: D Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 6) Examine the table of codons in the figure above. A peptide has the sequence NH2-phe-prolys-gly-phe-pro-COOH. Which of the following sequences in the coding strand of the DNA could code for this peptide? A) 3'-UUU-CCC-AAA-GGG-UUU-CCC B) 3'-AUG-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG C) 5'-TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC D) 5'-GGG-AAA-TTT-AAA-CCC-ACT-GGG Answer: C Topic: 14.1 Genes specify proteins via transcription and translation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3

7) Given the locally unwound double strand of DNA in the figure above, in which direction and on what strand does the RNA polymerase move during transcription? A) 3' → 5' along the template strand B) 5' → 3' along the template strand C) 3' → 5' along the complementary strand D) 5' → 3' along the complementary strand Answer: A Topic: 14.2 Transcription is the DNA-directed synthesis of RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3

8) During transcription of the DNA in the figure above, where would the promoter be located? A) at the 3' end of the newly made RNA B) to the right of the template strand C) to the left of the template strand D) to the right of the coding strand Answer: B Topic: 14.2 Transcription is the DNA-directed synthesis of RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 9) A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5'CCG-ACG-3' (mRNA). The charged transfer RNA molecules shown in the figure below (with their anticodons shown in the 3' to 5' direction) are available. Two of them can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can form.

The dipeptide that will form will be A) cysteine-alanine. B) proline-threonine. C) glycine-cysteine. D) alanine-alanine. Answer: B Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3

10) A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5'CCG-ACG-3' (mRNA). The charged transfer RNA molecules shown in the figure below (with their anticodons shown in the 3' to 5' direction) are available. Two of them can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can form.

The anticodon loop of the first tRNA that will complement this mRNA is A) 3'-GGC-5'. B) 5'-GGC-3'. C) 5'-ACG-3'. D) 5'-UGC-3'. Answer: A Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3

11) What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of the tRNA molecule in the figure above? A) covalent bonding between sulfur atoms B) ionic bonding between phosphates C) hydrogen bonding between base pairs D) van der Waals interactions between hydrogen atoms Answer: C Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

12) The figure above represents a tRNA molecule that recognizes and binds a particular amino acid (in this instance, phenylalanine). Which codon on the mRNA strand codes for this amino acid? A) UGG B) GUG C) GUA D) UUC Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 13) The tRNA shown in the figure above has its 3' end projecting beyond its 5' end. Which of the following will occur at this 3' end? A) The codon and anticodon will complement each other. B) The amino acid will bind covalently. C) The small and large subunits of the ribosome will attach to it. D) The 5' cap of the mRNA will become covalently bound. Answer: B Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 14.3 Scenario Questions 1) A transfer RNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) already in the ribosome. Where does tRNA #2 move to after this bonding of lysine to the polypeptide? A) A site B) P site C) E site D) exit tunnel Answer: C Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3

2) A transfer RNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) already in the ribosome. Which component of the complex described enters the exit tunnel through the large subunit of the ribosome? A) tRNA with attached lysine (#1) B) tRNA with polypeptide (#2) C) tRNA that no longer has attached amino acid D) newly formed polypeptide Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Translation is the RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 14.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until A) the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter. B) several transcription factors have bound to the promoter. C) the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA. D) the DNA introns are removed from the template. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following is not true of a codon? A) It may code for the same amino acid as another codon. B) It never codes for more than one amino acid. C) It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule. D) It is the basic unit of the genetic code. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is A) complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon. B) complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA. C) the part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid. D) catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4) Which of the following is not true of RNA processing? A) Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus. B) Nucleotides may be added at both ends of the RNA. C) Ribozymes may function in RNA splicing. D) RNA splicing can be catalyzed by spliceosomes. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which component is not directly involved in translation? A) GTP B) DNA C) tRNA D) ribosomes Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

6) Using the figure below, identify a 5' → 3' sequence of nucleotides in the DNA template strand for an mRNA coding for the polypeptide sequence Phe-Pro-Lys.

Figure 14.6

A) 5′-UUUCCCAAA-3′ B) 5′-GAACCCCTT-3′ C) 5′-CTTCGGGAA-3′ D) 5′-AAACCCUUU-3′ Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Which of the following mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism? A) a deletion of three nucleotides near the middle of a gene B) a single nucleotide deletion in the middle of an intron C) a single nucleotide deletion near the end of the coding sequence D) a single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of the coding sequence Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 15 Regulation of Gene Expression 15.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of a molecule that controls a repressible operon? A) The molecule binds to the promoter region and decreases the affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter. B) The molecule binds to the operator region and blocks the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter. C) The molecule increases the production of inactive repressor proteins. D) The molecule binds to the repressor protein and activates it. Answer: D Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 2) The tryptophan operon in some bacteria is a repressible operon. Which of the following statements correctly describes this operon? A) It is permanently active. B) It is activated only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium. C) It is activated only when glucose is present in the growth medium. D) It is deactivated whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium. Answer: D Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 3) Which of the following is a protein product of a regulatory gene? A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor Answer: D Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

4) A lack of which of the following molecules would result in the cell's inability to "turn off" genes? A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) corepressor Answer: D Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 5) Which of the following molecules, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator? A) ubiquitin B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor Answer: B Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 6) Most repressor proteins exhibit allosteric properties. Which of the following molecules binds with the repressor to alter its structure? A) inducer B) promoter C) RNA polymerase D) transcription factor Answer: A Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 7) What would be the result of a mutation that deactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an Escherichia coli cell? A) continuous transcription of the enzyme-coding gene controlled by that regulator B) complete inhibition of transcription of the enzyme-coding gene controlled by that regulator C) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator D) inactivation of RNA polymerase by alteration of its active site Answer: A Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Which of the following environments would most likely lead to the transcription of the lactose operon? A) There is more glucose in the cell than lactose. B) The cyclic AMP levels are low. C) There is glucose but no lactose in the cell. D) The cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell. E) The cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low. Answer: D Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 9) When the substrate of a metabolic pathway is present in a bacterial cell, which of the following processes will occur? A) transcription of the genes in a repressible operon B) deactivation of the promoter for an operon C) transcription of the genes in an inducible operon D) allosteric regulation of an inducer Answer: C Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 10) Which of the following must occur in order for a repressible operon to be transcribed? A) A corepressor must be present. B) RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present. C) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive. D) RNA polymerase cannot be present, and the repressor must be inactive. Answer: C Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3

11) Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following processes occurs when the lactose enters the cell? A) The repressor protein attaches to the regulator. B) Allolactose binds to the repressor protein. C) Allolactose binds to the operator. D) The repressor protein and allolactose bind to RNA polymerase. E) Allolactose binds to the inducer. Answer: B Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 12) Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely contribute to the organism's survival in which of the following ways? A) organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order B) allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times C) allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions D) allowing young organisms to respond differently than more mature organisms Answer: C Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 13) Which of the following activities can prokaryotes carry out in response to certain chemical signals? A) turn off translation of their mRNA B) alter the level of production of various enzymes C) increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes D) inactivate their mRNA molecules Answer: B Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3

14) In positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the cAMP receptor protein (CRP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. Which of the following events activates CRP? A) increase in glucose and increase in cAMP B) decrease in glucose and increase in cAMP C) increase in glucose and decrease in cAMP D) decrease in glucose and increase in repressor Answer: B Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 15) A type of mutation in bacteria in the repressor results in a molecule known as a superrepressor because it represses the lac operon permanently. Which of the following processes would occur in such a mutant? A) The repressor protein cannot bind to the operator. B) A functional repressor protein is produced. C) The repressor protein cannot bind the inducer. D) The lac operon will be transcribed continuously. Answer: C Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 16) Which of the following mechanisms is used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells? A) A specific combination of control elements in each gene's enhancer coordinates the simultaneous activation of the genes. B) The genes share a single common enhancer, which allows appropriate activators to turn on their transcription at the same time. C) The genes are organized into large operons, allowing them to be transcribed as a single unit. D) A single repressor is able to turn off several related genes. Answer: A Topic: 15.2 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated at many stages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2, V&C 2, 3 17) What effect does methylation have on DNA? A) It allows it to be replicated nearly continuously. B) It allows it to be unwound in preparation for protein synthesis. C) It makes it transcriptionally inactive. D) It activates transcription. Answer: C Topic: 15.2 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated at many stages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of histone acetylation and DNA methylation in gene regulation? A) DNA methylation reduces transcription, and histone acetylation promotes transcription. B) DNA methylation promotes transcription, and histone acetylation reduces transcription. C) DNA methylation and histone acetylation both promote transcription. D) DNA methylation and histone acetylation both reduce transcription. Answer: A Topic: 15.2 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated at many stages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 19) Which of the following events occurs during DNA replication? A) All methylation of the DNA is lost at the first round of replication. B) DNA polymerase is blocked by methyl groups, and methylated regions of the genome are therefore left uncopied. C) Methylation of the DNA is maintained because methylation enzymes act at DNA sites where one strand is already methylated and thus correctly methylate daughter strands after replication. D) Methylation of the DNA is maintained because DNA polymerase directly incorporates methylated nucleotides into the new strand opposite any methylated nucleotides in the template. Answer: C Topic: 15.2 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated at many stages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 20) Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of general transcription factors in eukaryotes? A) They are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes. B) They bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box. C) They inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter and begin transcribing. D) They usually lead to a high level of transcription even without additional specific transcription factors. Answer: B Topic: 15.2 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated at many stages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3

21) Which of the following processes do steroid hormones carry out to produce their effects? A) They activate key enzymes in metabolic pathways. B) They activate translation of certain mRNAs. C) They promote the breakdown of specific mRNAs. D) They bind to receptors inside the cell and promote transcription of specific genes. Answer: D Topic: 15.2 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated at many stages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 22) Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA-binding domains as well as other domains that are specific for binding other molecules. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind? A) repressors B) protein-based hormones C) other transcription factors D) tRNA Answer: C Topic: 15.2 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated at many stages Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 23) Gene expression might be altered based on post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes. Which of the following statements describes this difference? A) Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails. B) Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell. C) Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns. D) Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size. Answer: C Topic: 15.2 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated at many stages Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 24) Which of the following statements describes one of the functions of the protein called ubiquitin? A) It attaches to proteins that are marked for destruction in the cell. B) It assists in the removal of introns from a eukaryotic pre-mRNA. C) It initiates the formation of a transcription complex. D) It adds the 3' and 5' caps to eukaryotic pre-mRNA. Answer: A Topic: 15.2 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated at many stages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Gene expression can be blocked by a process called RNA interference. Which of the following molecules is involved in this process? A) siRNAs B) mRNA C) rRNAs D) tRNA Answer: A Topic: 15.3 Noncoding RNAs play multiple roles in controlling gene expression Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 26) At the beginning of this century there was a general announcement regarding the sequencing of the human genome and the genomes of many other multicellular eukaryotes. There was surprise expressed by many that the number of protein-coding sequences in the human genome was much smaller than had been expected. Which of the following statements would describe most of the rest of the DNA in the human genome? A) "junk" DNA that serves no possible purpose B) rRNA and tRNA coding sequences C) DNA that is translated directly without being transcribed D) non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs with biological function Answer: D Topic: 15.3 Noncoding RNAs play multiple roles in controlling gene expression Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3, C1, C6 27) Among the newly discovered small noncoding RNAs, one type reestablishes methylation patterns during gamete formation and blocks expression of some transposons. What are these types of RNA called? A) miRNA B) piRNA C) snRNA D) siRNA Answer: B Topic: 15.3 Noncoding RNAs play multiple roles in controlling gene expression Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3

28) Which of the following statements best describes siRNA? A) a short double-stranded RNA, one of whose strands can block gene expression B) a double-stranded RNA that is formed by cleavage of hairpin loops in a larger precursor C) a portion of rRNA that allows it to bind to several ribosomal proteins in forming large or small subunits D) an RNA sequence that can block the expression of some transposons Answer: A Topic: 15.3 Noncoding RNAs play multiple roles in controlling gene expression Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 29) One way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding RNAs lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. Of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from RNAs? A) exploring a way to turn on the expression of introns B) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with an autosomal recessive disease C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with an autosomal dominant disease D) creating organisms that can be useful for pharmaceutical drug design Answer: C Topic: 15.3 Noncoding RNAs play multiple roles in controlling gene expression Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, C1, C6 30) Since Watson and Crick described the structure of DNA in 1953, which of the following statements might best explain why the function of small RNAs is still being explained? A) As RNAs have evolved since that time, they have taken on new functions. B) Watson and Crick described DNA but did not predict any function for RNA. C) The functions of small RNAs could not be approached until the entire human genome was sequenced. D) Changes in technology as well as our ability to determine how much of the DNA is expressed have now made this possible. Answer: D Topic: 15.3 Noncoding RNAs play multiple roles in controlling gene expression Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

31) You are given an experimental problem involving control of a gene's expression in the embryo of a particular species. One of your first questions is whether the gene's expression is controlled at the level of transcription or translation. Which of the following experiments might best give you an answer? A) You explore whether there has been alternative splicing by examining amino acid sequences of very similar proteins. B) You measure the quantity of the appropriate pre-mRNA in various cell types and find they are all the same. C) You assess the position and sequence of the promoter and enhancer for this gene. D) You analyze amino acid production by the cell and find that there is an increase at this stage of embryonic life. Answer: B Topic: 15.4 Researchers can monitor expression of specific genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 2, C1 32) In a genome-wide expression study using a DNA microarray assay, what is each spot used to detect? A) the fate of proteins produced by a cell B) the location of a protein produced by a cell C) the location of a gene within a cell D) the expression of a specific gene by a cell Answer: D Topic: 15.4 Researchers can monitor expression of specific genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, C1 33) Which of the following results can a DNA microarray assay detect or identify? A) They can identify the function of any gene in a genome. B) They can be used to introduce entire genomes into bacterial cells. C) They allow the expression of many or even all of the genes in a genome to be compared at once. D) They allow physical maps of the genome to be assembled in a very short time. Answer: C Topic: 15.4 Researchers can monitor expression of specific genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, C1

34) Researchers are looking for better treatments for breast cancer. For a particular DNA microarray assay (DNA chip), cDNA has been made from the mRNAs of a dozen patients' breast tumor biopsies. What would the researchers be looking for in this type of assay? A) a particular gene that is amplified in all or most of the patient samples B) a pattern of fluorescence that indicates which cells are overproliferating C) a pattern shared among some or all of the samples that indicates gene expression differing from control samples D) a group of cDNAs that act differently from those on the rest of the grid Answer: C Topic: 15.4 Researchers can monitor expression of specific genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1, C6 35) Which of the following techniques involves reverse transcriptase, PCR amplification, and gel electrophoresis? A) DNA microarray assays B) RT-PCR C) in situ hybridization D) nucleic acid hybridization Answer: B Topic: 15.4 Researchers can monitor expression of specific genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, C1

15.2 Art Questions 1)

In the microarray shown in the figure above, if you were searching for genes whose expression was inhibited by hormone treatment, you would search for sequences spotted on the array that showed what level of fluorescence? A) none B) high levels C) green D) red Answer: A Topic: 15.4 Researchers can monitor expression of specific genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global L.O.: G2, G3, V&C C1

15.3 Scenario Questions 1) Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. If she moves the promoter for the lac operon to the region between the beta galactosidase (lacZ) gene and the permease (lacY) gene, which of the following results would be likely? A) The three genes will be expressed normally. B) RNA polymerase will no longer transcribe permease. C) The operon will no longer be inducible. D) Beta galactosidase will not be produced. Answer: D Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1 2) Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. If she moves the operator to the far end of the operon, past the transacetylase (lacA) gene, which of the following results would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose? A) The inducer will no longer bind to the repressor. B) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator. C) The operon will never be transcribed. D) The three genes of the operon will be transcribed continuously. Answer: D Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1 3) Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. If she moves the regulatory gene (lac I), along with its promoter, to a position some several thousand base pairs away from its normal position, which would you expect to occur? A) The repressor will no longer be made. B) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator. C) The repressor will no longer bind to the inducer. D) The lac operon will function normally. Answer: D Topic: 15.1 Bacteria often respond to environmental change by regulating transcription. Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1

4) A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments she succeeded in decreasing methylation of histone tails. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation B) decreased chromatin condensation C) activation of histone tails for enzymatic function D) decreased binding of transcription factors Answer: B Topic: 15.2 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated at many stages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1 5) A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify acetylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments using this procedure in Drosophila, she was readily successful in increasing acetylation of amino acids in histone tails. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation B) decreased chromatin condensation C) activation of histone tails for enzymatic function D) decreased binding of transcription factors Answer: B Topic: 15.2 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated at many stages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1 6) A researcher introduces double-stranded RNA into a culture of mammalian cells. The doublestranded RNA corresponds to a region of a protein-coding gene of interest. How may the introduced RNA affect gene expression in these cells? A) The overall rate of translation in the cell may be significantly reduced. B) The overall rate of transcription in the cell may be significantly reduced. C) The overall rate of transcription in the cell may be significantly increased. D) The amount of protein produced by the target gene may be significantly reduced. Answer: D Topic: 15.3 Noncoding RNAs play multiple roles in controlling gene expression Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1

15.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trp operon, then A) the amino acid inactivates the repressor. B) the repressor is active in the absence of the amino acid. C) the amino acid acts as a corepressor. D) the amino acid turns on transcription of the operon. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The functioning of enhancers is an example of A) a eukaryotic equivalent of prokaryotic promoter functioning. B) transcriptional control of gene expression. C) the stimulation of translation by initiation factors. D) post-translational control that activates certain proteins. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression? A) the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA B) the binding of transcription factors to a promoter C) the removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons D) the binding of RNA polymerase to transcription factors Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind the operator? A) irreversible binding of the repressor to the promoter B) reduced transcription of the operon's genes C) buildup of a substrate for the pathway controlled by the operon D) continuous transcription of the operon's genes Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

5) Which statement about DNA in one of your brain cells is true? A) Most of the DNA codes for protein. B) The majority of genes are likely to be transcribed. C) It is the same as the DNA in one of your liver cells. D) Many genes are grouped into operon-like clusters. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Which of the following would not be true of cDNA produced using human brain tissue as the starting material? A) It could be amplified by the polymerase chain reaction. B) It was produced from pre-mRNA using reverse transcriptase. C) It could be labeled and used as a probe to detect genes expressed in the brain. D) It lacks the introns of the pre-mRNA. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 16 Development, Stem Cells, and Cancer 16.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Pax-6 is a gene that is involved in eye formation in many invertebrates, such as Drosophila. Pax-6 is also found in vertebrates. A Pax-6 gene from a mouse can be expressed in a fly, and the protein (PAX-6) leads to a compound fly eye. This information suggests which of the following? A) Pax-6 genes are identical in nucleotide sequence. B) PAX-6 proteins have identical amino acid sequences. C) Pax-6 is highly conserved and shows shared evolutionary ancestry. D) PAX-6 proteins are different for formation of different kinds of eyes. Answer: C Topic: 16.1 A program of differential gene expression leads to the different cell types in a multicellular organism Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 1 2) Which of the following events is considered to be the first evidence of differentiation in the cells of an embryo? A) cell division occurring after fertilization B) the occurrence of mRNAs for the production of tissue-specific proteins C) determination of specific cells for certain functions D) changes in the size and shape of the cell Answer: B Topic: 16.1 A program of differential gene expression leads to the different cell types in a multicellular organism Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 3) If a lethal mutation occurs in an embryo, what might be the result? A) phenotypes that prevent fertilization B) failure to express maternal effect genes C) death during development D) phenotypes that are never born/hatched Answer: D Topic: 16.1 A program of differential gene expression leads to the different cell types in a multicellular organism Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

4) Your brother has just purchased a new plastic model airplane. He places all the parts on the table in approximately the positions in which they will be located when the model is complete. Which process in development do these actions compare to? A) morphogenesis B) determination C) induction D) pattern formation Answer: D Topic: 16.1 A program of differential gene expression leads to the different cell types in a multicellular organism Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 5) Which of the following characteristics would a mutation in the bicoid gene in Drosophila most likely effect? A) egg polarity B) the dorsal-ventral axis C) segmentation D) the anterior-posterior axis Answer: D Topic: 16.1 A program of differential gene expression leads to the different cell types in a multicellular organism Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 6) A Drosophila female has a homozygous mutation for a maternal effect gene. Which of the following results would occur due to this mutation? A) She will not develop past the early embryonic stage. B) All of her offspring will show the mutant phenotype, regardless of their genotype. C) Only her male offspring will show the mutant phenotype. D) Her offspring will show the mutant phenotype only if they are also homozygous for the mutation. Answer: B Topic: 16.1 A program of differential gene expression leads to the different cell types in a multicellular organism Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

7) Mutations in which of the following genes lead to transformations in the identity of entire body parts? A) morphogens B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) homeotic genes Answer: D Topic: 16.1 A program of differential gene expression leads to the different cell types in a multicellular organism Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 8) Which of the following genes map out the basic subdivisions along the anterior-posterior axis of the Drosophila embryo? A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens Answer: B Topic: 16.1 A program of differential gene expression leads to the different cell types in a multicellular organism Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 9) The bicoid gene product is normally localized to the anterior end of the embryo. If large amounts of the product were injected into the posterior end as well, which of the following would occur? A) The embryo would grow to an unusually large size. B) The embryo would grow extra wings and legs. C) The embryo would probably show no anterior development and die. D) Anterior structures would form in both sides of the embryo. Answer: D Topic: 16.1 A program of differential gene expression leads to the different cell types in a multicellular organism Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global L.O.: G2V&C 2, C1

10) Entire plants can be cloned from individual somatic cells. What phenomenon does this demonstrate? A) Differentiated cells retain all the genes of the zygote. B) Genes are lost during differentiation. C) The differentiated state is normally very unstable. D) Differentiated cells contain masked mRNA. Answer: A Topic: 16.2 Cloning of organisms showed that differentiated cells could be "reprogrammed" and ultimately led to the production of stem cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 11) Which of the following processes is most like the formation of twins? A) cell cloning B) therapeutic cloning C) use of adult stem cells D) organismal cloning Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Cloning of organisms showed that differentiated cells could be "reprogrammed" and ultimately led to the production of stem cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 12) Which of the following processes can be used to clone animals? A) use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells of another individual B) replication and dedifferentiation of adult stem cells from bone marrow C) separation of an early stage blastula into separate cells, followed by incubation in a surrogate D) fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated egg, followed by incubation in a surrogate Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Cloning of organisms showed that differentiated cells could be "reprogrammed" and ultimately led to the production of stem cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

13) Cloned animals often die prematurely. Which of the following processes explains why this can occur? A) use of pluripotent instead of totipotent stem cells B) abnormal gene regulation due to variant methylation C) the indefinite replication of totipotent stem cells D) abnormal immune function due to bone marrow dysfunction Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Cloning of organisms showed that differentiated cells could be "reprogrammed" and ultimately led to the production of stem cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, C1 14) Which of the following statements is a likely explanation for why therapeutic cloning is considered acceptable by many? A) Use of adult stem cells is likely to produce more cell types than use of embryonic stem cells. B) Cloning to produce embryonic stem cells may lead to treatments for a large number of diseases. C) Cloning to produce stem cells relies on a different initial procedure than reproductive cloning. D) A clone that lives until the blastocyst stage does not yet have human DNA. Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Cloning of organisms showed that differentiated cells could be "reprogrammed" and ultimately led to the production of stem cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C6 15) Which of the following statements is true of embryonic stem cells? A) They normally differentiate into only eggs and sperm. B) They can give rise to all cell types in the organism. C) They can continue to reproduce for an indefinite period. D) They can provide enormous amounts of information about the process of gene regulation. Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Cloning of organisms showed that differentiated cells could be "reprogrammed" and ultimately led to the production of stem cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

16) A researcher is using adult stem cells and comparing them to other adult cells from the same tissue. Which of the following statements describes a likely finding of this research? A) The cells from the two sources exhibit different patterns of DNA methylation. B) Adult stem cells have more DNA nucleotides than their counterparts. C) The two kinds of cells have virtually identical gene expression patterns in microarrays. D) The non-stem cells have fewer repressed genes. Answer: A Topic: 16.2 Cloning of organisms showed that differentiated cells could be "reprogrammed" and ultimately led to the production of stem cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C C1 17) In animals, which of the following statements describes one difference between reproductive cloning and therapeutic cloning? A) Reproductive cloning uses totipotent cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does not. B) Reproductive cloning uses embryonic stem cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does not. C) Therapeutic cloning uses nuclei of adult cells transplanted into enucleated nonfertilized eggs, whereas reproductive cloning does not. D) Therapeutic cloning supplies cells that may treat disease, whereas reproductive cloning supplies cells that may be used to produce new individuals. Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Cloning of organisms showed that differentiated cells could be "reprogrammed" and ultimately led to the production of stem cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 18) The first cloned cat, called Carbon Copy, was a calico, but she looked significantly different from her female parent. Why? A) The environment, as well as genetics, affects phenotypic variation. B) Fur color genes in cats are influenced by differential acetylation patterns. C) Cloned animals have been found to have a higher frequency of transposon activation. D) X chromosome inactivation in the embryo is random and produces different patterns in each individual. Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Cloning of organisms showed that differentiated cells could be "reprogrammed" and ultimately led to the production of stem cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, C1

19) Which of the following processes must be performed on adult somatic cells in order to induce them to become pluripotent stem cells? A) A retrovirus is used to introduce four master regulatory genes. B) The adult stem cells are fused with embryonic cells. C) Cytoplasm from embryonic cells is injected into the adult cells. D) The nucleus of an embryonic cell is used to replace the nucleus of an adult cell. Answer: A Topic: 16.2 Cloning of organisms showed that differentiated cells could be "reprogrammed" and ultimately led to the production of stem cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 20) Imagine you are a doctor, and a patient comes to you with type I diabetes and needs treatment. Which of the following types of cells would provide the most effective treatment? A) embryonic stem cells B) adult stem cells C) adult somatic cells D) gametes Answer: A Topic: 16.2 Cloning of organisms showed that differentiated cells could be "reprogrammed" and ultimately led to the production of stem cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, C1 21) Which of the following statements correctly describes one of the differences between embryonic and adult stem cells in animals? A) Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than adult stem cells. B) Adult stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic stem cells. C) Embryonic stem cells have fewer genes than adult stem cells. D) Embryonic stem cells are localized to specific sites within the embryo, whereas adult stem cells are spread throughout the body. Answer: A Topic: 16.2 Cloning of organisms showed that differentiated cells could be "reprogrammed" and ultimately led to the production of stem cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

22) Which of the following would result from a mutation in a proto-oncogene? A) normal suppression of tumor growth B) normal stimulation of cell growth and division C) abnormal stimulation of cell growth and division D) reduction in tumor size Answer: C Topic: 16.3 Abnormal regulation of genes that affect the cell cycle can lead to cancer Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 23) Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene? A) It is an activator for other genes. B) It slows down the cell cycle. C) It does not cause cell death via apoptosis. D) It slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase. Answer: A Topic: 16.3 Abnormal regulation of genes that affect the cell cycle can lead to cancer Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 24) Which of the following statements correctly describes tumor-suppressor genes? A) They are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells. B) They are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses. C) They can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion. D) They often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle. Answer: C Topic: 16.3 Abnormal regulation of genes that affect the cell cycle can lead to cancer Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 25) Why are the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes considered to be tumor-suppressor genes? A) They prevent infection by tumor viruses that cause cancer. B) Their normal products participate in repair of DNA damage. C) The mutant forms of either one of these prevent breast cancer. D) They block penetration of breast cells by chemical carcinogens. Answer: B Topic: 16.3 Abnormal regulation of genes that affect the cell cycle can lead to cancer Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

26) Which of the following processes would result from a mutation in the ras gene? A) activation of protein kinases B) DNA replication C) DNA repair D) activation of apoptosis Answer: A Topic: 16.3 Abnormal regulation of genes that affect the cell cycle can lead to cancer Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 27) Forms of the p53 protein found in tumors usually cause which of the following? A) activation of DNA repair B) activation of apoptosis C) cell division to stop D) excessive cell growth Answer: D Topic: 16.3 Abnormal regulation of genes that affect the cell cycle can lead to cancer Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 28) Which type(s) of cancer is the APC gene most associated with? A) colorectal B) lung and breast C) small intestinal and esophageal D) lung only Answer: A Topic: 16.3 Abnormal regulation of genes that affect the cell cycle can lead to cancer Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 29) In colorectal cancer, several genes must be mutated in order to contribute to a cell developing into a cancer cell. Which of the following kinds of genes would you expect to be mutated? A) genes coding for enzymes that act in the colon B) genes involved in control of the cell cycle C) genes that are especially susceptible to mutation D) BRCA1 and BRCA2 Answer: B Topic: 16.3 Abnormal regulation of genes that affect the cell cycle can lead to cancer Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2

16.2 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they A) express different genes. B) contain different genes. C) use different genetic codes. D) have unique ribosomes. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Cell differentiation always involves A) the transcription of the myoD gene. B) the movement of cells. C) the production of tissue-specific proteins. D) the selective loss of certain genes from the genome. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Apoptosis involves all but which of the following? A) fragmentation of the DNA B) cell-signaling pathways C) lysis of the cell D) digestion of cellular contents by scavenger cells Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Absence of bicoid mRNA from a Drosophila egg leads to the absence of anterior larval body parts and mirror-image duplication of posterior parts. This is evidence that the product of the bicoid gene A) normally leads to formation of head structures. B) normally leads to formation of tail structures. C) is transcribed in the early embryo. D) is a protein present in all head structures. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

5) Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells? A) Proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections. B) Proto-oncogenes are mutant versions of normal genes. C) Proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk." D) Proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 17 Viruses 17.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements correctly describes viruses? A) They cannot reproduce without a host cell. B) They can reproduce by dividing. C) They can carry out their own metabolic activities. D) They have a genome similar to prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Answer: A Topic: 17.1 A virus consists of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 2) Which of the following nucleic acids make(s) up viral genomes? A) double-stranded RNA only B) DNA only C) single-stranded RNA only D) DNA or RNA Answer: D Topic: 17.1 A virus consists of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 3) Which of the following statements correctly describes adenoviruses? A) They contain RNA surrounded by a capsid. B) They contain DNA surrounded by a capsid. C) They contain RNA surrounded by a membranous envelope. D) They are a type of bacteriophage. Answer: B Topic: 17.1 A virus consists of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

4) Which of the following characteristics determine a virus's host range? A) the enzymes carried by the virus B) whether its nucleic acid is DNA or RNA C) the proteins in the host's cytoplasm D) the proteins on its surface and that of the host Answer: D Topic: 17.1 A virus consists of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 5) Some people who have had a herpesvirus-mediated cold sore or genital sore may have flareups for the rest of their life. Why does this occur? A) re-infection by a closely related herpesvirus of a different strain B) re-infection by the same herpesvirus strain C) co-infection with an unrelated virus that causes the same symptoms D) copies of the herpesvirus genome remaining as mini-chromosomes in some host cell nuclei Answer: D Topic: 17.2 Viruses replicate only in host cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 6) Which of the following responses correctly lists the order of events in a generalized viral replicative cycle? A) Enzymes transcribe the viral genome into mRNA, the virus enters the cell, host enzymes replicate the viral genome. B) The virus enters the cell, host enzymes replicate the viral genome, enzymes transcribe the viral genome into mRNA. C) Host enzymes replicate the viral genome, enzymes transcribe the viral genome into mRNA, the virus enters the cell. D) The virus enters the cell, enzymes transcribe the viral genome into mRNA, host enzymes replicate the viral genome. Answer: B Topic: 17.2 Viruses replicate only in host cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

7) Which of the following statements correctly describes one characteristic of the lytic cycle of viral replication? A) Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced. B) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome. C) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host. D) A large number of phages are released at a time. Answer: D Topic: 17.2 Viruses replicate only in host cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 8) Which of the following statements correctly describes the lysogenic cycle of lambda (λ) phage? A) After infection, the viral genes immediately turn the host cell into a lambda-producing factory, and the host cell then lyses. B) Most of the prophage genes are activated by the product of a particular prophage gene. C) The phage genome replicates along with the host genome. D) Certain environmental triggers can cause the phage to exit the host genome, switching from the lytic to the lysogenic. Answer: C Topic: 17.2 Viruses replicate only in host cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 9) Most molecular biologists think that viruses originated from naked bits of cellular nucleic acid. Which of the following observations supports this theory? A) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA. B) Viruses are enclosed in protein capsids rather than plasma membranes. C) Viruses can reproduce only inside host cells. D) Viral genomes are usually similar to the genome of the host cell. Answer: D Topic: 17.2 Viruses replicate only in host cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 1

10) A researcher lyses a cell that contains nucleic acid molecules and capsomeres of tobacco mosaic virus (TMV). The cell contents are left in a covered test tube overnight. The next day this mixture is sprayed on tobacco plants. Which of the following would be expected to occur? A) The plants would develop some but not all of the symptoms of the TMV infection. B) The plants would develop symptoms typically produced by viroids. C) The plants would develop the typical symptoms of TMV infection. D) The plants would not show any disease symptoms. Answer: C Topic: 17.2 Viruses replicate only in host cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1 11) Which viruses have single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis? A) lytic phages B) proviruses C) viroids D) retroviruses Answer: D Topic: 17.2 Viruses replicate only in host cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 12) What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? A) It hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA. B) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis. C) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA. D) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands. Answer: B Topic: 17.2 Viruses replicate only in host cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 13) Why do RNA viruses tend to have unusually high rates of mutation? A) RNA nucleotides are more unstable than DNA nucleotides. B) Replication of their genomes does not involve correcting errors in genome replication. C) RNA viruses replicate faster. D) RNA viruses can incorporate a variety of nonstandard bases. Answer: B Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

14) Which of the following processes can be effective in preventing the onset of viral infection in humans? A) taking vitamins B) getting vaccinated C) taking antibiotics D) applying antiseptics Answer: B Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 15) Which of the following statements accurately describes plant virus infections? A) They can be controlled by the use of antibiotics. B) They are spread via the plasmodesmata. C) They have little effect on plant growth. D) They are rarely spread by insects. Answer: B Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 16) Which of the following statements correctly describes one difference between vertical and horizontal transmission of plant viruses? A) Vertical transmission is transmission of a virus from a parent plant to its progeny, and horizontal transmission is one plant spreading the virus to another plant. B) Vertical transmission is the spread of viruses from the upper leaves to the lower leaves of the plant, and horizontal transmission is the spread of a virus among leaves at the same general level. C) Vertical transmission is the spread of viruses from trees and tall plants to bushes and other smaller plants, and horizontal transmission is the spread of viruses among plants of similar size. D) Vertical transmission is the transfer of DNA from one type of plant virus to another, and horizontal transmission is the exchange of DNA between two plant viruses of the same type. Answer: A Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

17) Which of the following statements correctly describes the best predictor of how much damage a virus causes? A) ability of the infected cell to undergo normal cell division B) ability of the infected cell to carry on translation C) whether the infected cell produces viral protein D) whether the viral mRNA can be transcribed Answer: A Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 18) How do antiviral drugs help to treat viral infections? A) They remove all viruses from the infected host. B) They interfere with viral replication. C) They remove all viral proteins from the host. D) They remove all viral mRNAs from the host. Answer: B Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 19) Which of the following series of events best reflects what we know about how the flu virus moves between species? A) An avian flu virus undergoes several mutations and rearrangements such that it is able to be transmitted to other birds and then to humans. B) The flu virus in a pig is mutated and replicated in alternate arrangements so that humans who eat the pig products can be infected. C) A flu virus from a human epidemic or pandemic infects birds; the birds replicate the virus differently and then pass it back to humans. D) An animal such as a pig is infected with more than one virus, genetic recombination occurs, the new virus mutates and is passed to a new species such as a bird, and the virus mutates and can be transmitted to humans. Answer: D Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, C6

20) Which of the following statements correctly describes the most probable fate of a newly emerging virus that causes high mortality in its host? A) It is able to spread to a large number of new hosts quickly because the new hosts have no immunological memory of them. B) The new virus replicates quickly and undergoes rapid adaptation to a series of divergent hosts. C) Sporadic outbreaks will be followed almost immediately by a widespread pandemic. D) The newly emerging virus will die out rather quickly or will mutate to be far less lethal. Answer: D Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, C6 17.2 Art Questions

1) Which of the three types of viruses shown in the figure above would you expect to include glycoproteins as part of their overall structure? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only Answer: B Topic: 17.1 A virus consists of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

2) Which of the three types of viruses shown in the figure above would you expect to include a capsid(s) as part of their overall structure? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) all three Answer: D Topic: 17.1 A virus consists of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

3) In the figure above, at the arrow marked II, what enzyme is being utilized? A) reverse transcriptase B) viral DNA polymerase C) host cell DNA polymerase D) host cell RNA polymerase Answer: C Topic: 17.2 Viruses replicate only in host cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) In the figure above, when new viruses are being assembled during the step labeled IV, how is the assembly of the new virus particles completed? A) by host cell chaperones B) by assembly proteins coded for by the host nucleus C) by assembly proteins coded for by the viral genes D) the proteins self-assemble Answer: D Topic: 17.2 Viruses replicate only in host cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 5) In 1971, David Baltimore described a scheme for classifying viruses based on how the virus produces mRNA, referred to as the Baltimore requirements. The table below shows the results of testing five viruses (A-E) for nuclease sensitivity, the ability of the viral genome to act as an mRNA, and the presence (+) or absence (-) of each virus's own polymerase.

Based on the table above, which virus meets the requirements for a bacteriophage? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 17.2 Viruses replicate only in host cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1

17.3 Scenario Questions 1) You isolate an infectious substance that is capable of causing disease in plants, but you do not know whether the infectious agent is a bacterium, virus, or prion. You have four methods at your disposal that you can use to analyze the substance in order to determine the nature of the infectious agent. I. Treat the substance with nucleases that destroy all nucleic acids and then determine whether it is still infectious. II. Filter the substance to remove all elements smaller than what can be easily seen under a light microscope. III. Culture the substance by itself on nutritive medium, away from any plant cells. IV. Treat the sample with proteases that digest all proteins and then determine whether it is still infectious. If you already knew that the infectious agent was either bacterial or viral, which treatment listed above would allow you to distinguish between these two possibilities? A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: C Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1

2) You isolate an infectious substance that is capable of causing disease in plants, but you do not know whether the infectious agent is a bacterium, virus, or prion. You have four methods at your disposal that you can use to analyze the substance in order to determine the nature of the infectious agent. I. Treat the substance with nucleases that destroy all nucleic acids and then determine whether it is still infectious. II. Filter the substance to remove all elements smaller than what can be easily seen under a light microscope. III. Culture the substance by itself on nutritive medium, away from any plant cells. IV. Treat the sample with proteases that digest all proteins and then determine whether it is still infectious. If you already knew that the infectious agent was a prion, which treatment listed above would allow you to distinguish this? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) either I or IV Answer: D Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1 3) The herpesviruses are very important enveloped DNA viruses that cause disease in all vertebrate species and in some invertebrates such as oysters. Some of the human ones are herpes simplex virus (HSV) types I and II, causing facial and genital lesions, and the varicella zoster virus (VSV), causing chicken pox and shingles. Each of these three actively infects nervous tissue. Primary infections are fairly mild, but the virus is not then cleared from the host; rather, viral genomes are maintained in cells in a latent phase. The virus can then reactivate, replicate again, and be infectious to others. If scientists are trying to use what they know about HSV to devise a means of protecting other people from being infected, which of the following would have the best chance of lowering the number of new cases of infection? A) vaccination of all persons with preexisting cases B) interference with new viral replication in preexisting cases C) treatment of the HSV lesions to shorten the breakout D) medication that destroys surface HSV before it gets to neurons Answer: B Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C C1, C6

4) The herpesviruses are very important enveloped DNA viruses that cause disease in all vertebrate species and in some invertebrates such as oysters. Some of the human ones are herpes simplex virus (HSV) types I and II, causing facial and genital lesions, and the varicella zoster virus (VSV), causing chicken pox and shingles. Each of these three actively infects nervous tissue. Primary infections are fairly mild, but the virus is not then cleared from the host; rather, viral genomes are maintained in cells in a latent phase. The virus can then reactivate, replicate again, and be infectious to others. In electron micrographs of HSV infection, it can be seen that the intact virus initially reacts with cell-surface proteoglycans, then with specific receptors. This is later followed by viral capsids docking with nuclear pores. Afterward, the capsids go from being full to being "empty." Which of the following statements best describes these observations? A) Viral capsids are needed for the cell to become infected; only the capsids enter the nucleus. B) The viral envelope is not required for infectivity, since the envelope does not enter the nucleus. C) Only the genetic material of the virus is involved in the cell's infectivity, and it is injected like the genome of a phage. D) The viral envelope mediates entry into the cell, the capsid docks onto the nuclear membrane, and the genome is all that enters the nucleus. Answer: D Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1, C6 5) The herpesviruses are very important enveloped DNA viruses that cause disease in all vertebrate species and in some invertebrates such as oysters. Some of the human ones are herpes simplex virus (HSV) types I and II, causing facial and genital lesions, and the varicella zoster virus (VSV), causing chicken pox and shingles. Each of these three actively infects nervous tissue. Primary infections are fairly mild, but the virus is not then cleared from the host; rather, viral genomes are maintained in cells in a latent phase. The virus can then reactivate, replicate again, and be infectious to others. In order to be able to remain latent in an infected live cell, HSV must be able to shut down what process? A) DNA replication B) transcription of viral genes C) apoptosis of a virally infected cell D) all immune responses Answer: C Topic: 17.3 Viruses and prions are formidable pathogens in animals and plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C C1, C6

17.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses? A) metabolism B) ribosomes C) genetic material composed of nucleic acid D) cell division Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Emerging viruses arise by A) mutation of existing viruses. B) the spread of existing viruses to new host species. C) the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species. D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) A human pandemic is A) a viral disease that infects all humans. B) a flu that kills more than 1 million people. C) an epidemic that extends around the world. D) a virus that increases in mortality rate as it spreads. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) A bacterium is infected with an experimentally constructed bacteriophage composed of the T2 phage protein coat and T4 phage DNA. The new phages produced would have A) T2 protein and T4 DNA. B) T4 protein and T2 DNA. C) T2 protein and T2 DNA. D) T4 protein and T4 DNA. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

5) RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because A) host cells rapidly destroy the viruses. B) host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome. C) these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins. D) these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 18 Genomes and Their Evolution 18.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) What is metagenomics? A) genomics as applied to a species that most typifies the average phenotype of its genus B) the sequence of one or two representative genes from several species C) the sequencing of only the most highly conserved genes in a lineage D) sequencing DNA from a group of species from the same ecosystem Answer: D Topic: 18.1 The Human Genome Project fostered development of faster, less expensive sequencing techniques Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 2) Which of the following procedures is required when the whole-genome shotgun approach to sequencing is carried out? A) use of protein sequencing B) isolation of proteomes associated with the small fragments C) cloning randomly cut DNA fragments D) PCR amplification Answer: C Topic: 18.1 The Human Genome Project fostered development of faster, less expensive sequencing techniques Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3, C1 3) Which of the following statements most correctly describes the whole-genome shotgun approach for sequencing a genome? A) genetic mapping followed immediately by sequencing B) physical mapping followed immediately by sequencing C) cloning fragments from many copies of an entire chromosome, sequencing the fragments, and then ordering the sequences D) cloning the whole genome directly, from one end to the other Answer: C Topic: 18.1 The Human Genome Project fostered development of faster, less expensive sequencing techniques Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3

4) What is proteomics? A) the linkage of each gene to a particular protein B) the study of the full protein set encoded by a genome C) the totality of the functional possibilities of a single protein D) the study of how a single gene activates many proteins Answer: B Topic: 18.2 Scientists use bioinformatics to analyze genomes and their functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 5) What is bioinformatics? A) a technique using three-dimensional images of genes to predict how and when they will be expressed B) the application of computational methods to the storage and analysis of biological data C) software programs available from NIH to design and synthesize genes D) a procedure that uses software to order DNA sequences in a variety of comparable ways Answer: B Topic: 18.2 Scientists use bioinformatics to analyze genomes and their functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.2 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 6) A microarray known as a GeneChip, with most of the human protein-coding genetic sequences, has been developed to aid in the study of human cancer by comparing gene sequences and patterns of gene expression in cancer cells with those in normal cells. What kind of information might be gleaned from this GeneChip to aid in cancer prevention? A) information about whether or not a patient has this type of cancer prior to treatment B) evidence that might suggest how best to treat a person's cancer with chemotherapy C) data that could alert patients to what kind of cancer they were likely to acquire D) information about which parent might have provided a patient with cancer-causing genes Answer: C Topic: 18.2 Scientists use bioinformatics to analyze genomes and their functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 18.2 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3, C1, C6 7) Which of the following statements provides a correct representation of gene density? A) Humans have 3,000 Mb per genome. B) C. elegans has approximately 20,000 genes. C) Humans have approximately 21,000 genes in 3,000 Mb. D) Humans have 27,000 bp in introns. Answer: C Topic: 18.3 Genomes vary in size, number of genes, and gene density Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Why might the cricket genome have 11 times as many base pairs as that of Drosophila melanogaster? A) The two insect species evolved in very different geologic eras. B) Crickets have higher gene density. C) Drosophila are more complex organisms. D) Crickets must have more noncoding DNA. Answer: D Topic: 18.3 Genomes vary in size, number of genes, and gene density Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 1, 2 9) The comparison between the number of human genes and those of other animal species has led to many conclusions, including the idea that A) the density of the human genome is far higher than in most other animals. B) the number of proteins expressed by the human genome is far more than the number of its genes. C) most human DNA consists of genes for protein, tRNA, rRNA, and miRNA. D) the genomes of other organisms are significantly smaller than the human genome. Answer: B Topic: 18.3 Genomes vary in size, number of genes, and gene density Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 1, 2 10) In most eukaryotes, only about 1.5% of the genome codes for proteins. What types of sequences make up the rest of the genome? A) multigene families B) genes for tRNAs C) genes for mRNAs D) gene-related regulatory sequences Answer: D Topic: Concept 18.4 Multicellular eukaryotes have a lot of noncoding DNA and many multigene families Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3

11) Which of the following statements correctly describes the manner in which transposons and retrotransposons are copied before they move around in a genome? A) Both move with a "cut and paste" method as double stranded DNA. B) Transposons are copied as double stranded DNA first and then moved to a new location in the genome, while retrotransposons are copied first as RNA and then into DNA. C) Transposons are copied as RNA first and then moved to a new location in the genome, while retrotransposons are copied first as DNA D) Both are copied first as RNA and then moved in the genome. Answer: B Topic: 18.4 Multicellular eukaryotes have a lot of noncoding DNA and many multigene families Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 12) What characteristic of short tandem repeat DNA makes it useful for DNA fingerprinting? A) The number of repeats varies widely from person to person or animal to animal. B) The sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to individual. C) The sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in different environments. D) Every racial and ethnic group has inherited different short tandem repeats. Answer: A Topic: 18.4 Multicellular eukaryotes have a lot of noncoding DNA and many multigene families Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 13) In humans, the embryonic and fetal forms of hemoglobin have a higher affinity for oxygen than that of adults. Why is this the case? A) Nonidentical genes produce different versions of globins during development. B) Identical genes generate many copies of the ribosomes needed for fetal globin production. C) Pseudogenes interfere with gene expression in adults. D) The attachment of methyl groups to cytosine following birth changes the type of hemoglobin produced. Answer: A Topic: 18.4 Multicellular eukaryotes have a lot of noncoding DNA and many multigene families Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2

14) Which of the following statements correctly describes a multigene family? A) It is composed of multiple genes whose products must be coordinately expressed. B) It is made up of genes whose sequences are very similar and that probably arose by duplication. C) It contains many tandem repeats such as those found in centromeres and telomeres. D) It consists of a gene whose exons can be spliced in a number of different ways. Answer: B Topic: 18.4 Multicellular eukaryotes have a lot of noncoding DNA and many multigene families Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2, 3 15) Which of the following genomic components can be duplicated in a genome? A) DNA sequences below a minimum size only B) entire chromosomes only C) entire sets of chromosomes only D) DNA sequences, chromosomes, or sets of chromosomes Answer: D Topic: 18.5 Duplication, rearrangement, and mutation of DNA contribute to genome evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 2, 3 16) Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes. By contrast, chimpanzees have 24 pairs of chromosomes and lack any pair resembling the long human chromosome 2 pair; instead, chimpanzees have two pairs of medium-sized chromosomes, each of which resembles parts of human chromosome pair 2. What is the most likely explanation for these differences and similarities in the human and chimpanzee genomes? A) The common ancestor of humans and chimpanzees had 24 pairs of chromosomes, and at some point in the human lineage, two chromosomes fused end to end, providing some selective advantage. B) The common ancestor of humans and chimpanzees had 23 pairs of chromosomes, but when chimpanzees evolved, one of the chromosomes broke in half. C) At some point in evolution, human ancestors and chimpanzee ancestors were able to mate and produce fertile offspring, making a new species. D) Chromosome breakage resulted in additional centromeres being made, allowing meiosis to proceed successfully. Answer: A Topic: 18.5 Duplication, rearrangement, and mutation of DNA contribute to genome evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 1, 2

17) Unequal crossing over during prophase I can result in one sister chromosome with a deletion and another with a duplication. A mutated form of hemoglobin, called hemoglobin Lepore, exists in the human population. Hemoglobin Lepore has a deleted series of amino acids. If this mutated form was caused by unequal crossing over, what would be an expected consequence? A) There should also be persons whose hemoglobin contains two copies of the series of amino acids that is deleted in hemoglobin Lepore. B) Each of the genes in the hemoglobin gene family must show the same deletion. C) The deleted gene must have undergone exon shuffling. D) The deleted region must be located in a different area of the individual's genome. Answer: A Topic: 18.5 Duplication, rearrangement, and mutation of DNA contribute to genome evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 1, 2 18) When does exon shuffling occur? A) during splicing of DNA B) during DNA replication C) during meiotic recombination D) during posttranslational modification of proteins Answer: C Topic: 18.5 Duplication, rearrangement, and mutation of DNA contribute to genome evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 2 19) How do transposable elements contribute to genome evolution? A) They decrease the chances for recombination of genes during meiosis. B) They maintain the function of control genes. C) They cause unequal crossing over during meiosis. D) They carry entire genes or individual exons to new locations. Answer: D Topic: Concept 18.5 Duplication, rearrangement, and mutation of DNA contribute to genome evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 1, 2

20) What might be the most reasonable approach to determine the probable function of a particular sequence of DNA in humans? A) Genetically engineer a mouse with a copy of this sequence and examine its phenotype. B) Look for a reasonably identical sequence in another species, prepare a knockout of this sequence in that species, and look for the consequences. C) Prepare a genetically engineered bacterial culture with the sequence inserted and assess which new protein is synthesized. D) Mate two individuals heterozygous for the normal and mutated sequences. Answer: B Topic: 18.6 Comparing genome sequences provides clues to evolution and development Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 1, 2, 3 21) Genetic variation among humans is relatively small when compared to other species. Where in the human genome does most of the diversity occur? A) in sequences that code for tRNA B) in the homeotic genes C) in single nucleotide-polymorphisms D) in the mitochondrial DNA Answer: C Topic: Concept 18.6 Comparing genome sequences provides clues to evolution and development Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global L.O.: G1, V&C 1, 2 22) Homeotic genes contain a homeobox sequence that is highly conserved among very diverse species. The homeobox encodes a protein domain that binds to DNA to regulate development of the embryo. The selective expression of homeotic genes, over time and space, is central to pattern formation during development. Based on this information, which of the following statements would you expect to be correct? A) Homeotic genes are selectively expressed over space and time during development. B) A homeobox-containing gene has to be a developmental regulator. C) Homeoboxes cannot be expressed in nonhomeotic genes. D) All organisms must have homeotic genes. Answer: A Topic: 18.6 Comparing genome sequences provides clues to evolution and development Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 1, 2, 3

23) A recent study compared the Homo sapiens genome with that of Neanderthals. The results of the study indicated that there was a mixing of the two genomes at some period in evolutionary history. What data were discovered that suggested this conclusion? A) Some Neanderthal sequences were not found in humans. B) A number of modern H. sapiens with Neanderthal sequences were observed. C) Neanderthal Y chromosomes were preserved in the modern population of males. D) Mitochondrial sequences were found that were common to both groups. Answer: B Topic: 18.6 Comparing genome sequences provides clues to evolution and development Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 1, 2, C1, C6 24) Fragments of DNA have been extracted from the remnants of extinct woolly mammoths, amplified, and sequenced. How might these fragments be used now? A) They may be introduced into relatives, such as elephants, to recreate certain mammoth traits. B) They may be used to clone live woolly mammoths. C) They may help study the relationships among woolly mammoths and other wool producers. D) They may help us to understand the evolutionary relationships among members of related organisms. Answer: D Topic: 18.6 Comparing genome sequences provides clues to evolution and development Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 1, 2, 3, C6

18.2 Art Questions

1) The figure above shows a diagram of blocks of genes on human chromosome 16 and the locations of blocks of similar genes on four chromosomes of the mouse. What does the movement of these blocks in the genomes suggest? A) During evolutionary time, these sequences have separated and have returned to their original positions. B) DNA sequences within these blocks have become increasingly divergent. C) Sequences represented have duplicated at least three times. D) Chromosomal translocations have moved blocks of sequences to other chromosomes. Answer: D Topic: 18.5 Duplication, rearrangement, and mutation of DNA contribute to genome evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 1, 2, 3, C1 2) The figure above shows a diagram of blocks of genes on human chromosome 16 and the locations of blocks of similar genes on four chromosomes of the mouse. Which of the following descriptions represents another example of the same phenomenon that is responsible for the rearrangements depicted in the figure above? A) the apparent fusion between two chromosome pairs of primates such as chimpanzees to form the ancestor of human chromosome 2 B) the difference in the numbers of chromosomes in five species of one genus of birds C) the formation of several pseudogenes in the globin gene family subsequent to human divergence from other primates D) the high frequency of polyploidy in many species of angiosperms Answer: A Topic: 18.5 Duplication, rearrangement, and mutation of DNA contribute to genome evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 1, 2, 3, C1

18.3 Scenario Questions 1) Multigene families include two or more nearly identical genes or genes sharing nearly identical sequences. A classical example is the set of genes for globin molecules, including genes on human chromosomes 11 and 16. How might identical and obviously duplicated gene sequences have gotten from one chromosome to another? A) by normal meiotic recombination B) by normal mitotic recombination between sister chromatids C) by transcription followed by recombination D) by chromosomal translocation Answer: D Topic: 18.4 Multicellular eukaryotes have a lot of noncoding DNA and many multigene families Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global L.O.: G2, V&C 1, 2, 3, C1 2) Several different globin genes are expressed in humans, but at different times in development. What mechanism could allow for this? A) exon shuffling B) intron activation C) differential translation of mRNAs D) differential gene regulation over time Answer: D Topic: 18.4 Multicellular eukaryotes have a lot of noncoding DNA and many multigene families Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, V&C 2, 3 18.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Bioinformatics includes all of the following except A) using computer programs to align DNA sequences. B) using DNA technology to combine DNA from two different sources in a test tube. C) developing computer-based tools for genome analysis. D) using mathematical tools to analyze biological systems. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) Homeotic genes A) encode transcription factors that control the expression of genes responsible for specific anatomical structures. B) are found only in Drosophila and other arthropods. C) are the only genes that contain the homeobox domain. D) encode proteins that form anatomical structures in the fly. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Two eukaryotic proteins have one domain in common but are otherwise very different. Which of the following processes is most likely to have contributed to this similarity? A) gene duplication B) alternative splicing C) exon shuffling D) random point mutations Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 19 Descent with Modification 19.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Evolution is best defined as which of the following? A) a change in living conditions for an organism B) a change in genetic composition of a population from one day to the next day C) a change in genetic composition of a population from generation to generation Answer: C Topic: 19.1 The Darwinian revolution challenged traditional views of a young Earth inhabited by unchanging species Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1, V&C 1 2) You overhear a couple of your friends discussing the layers in sedimentary rock. One of them states that the layers only form after a large flood or earthquake. The other person agrees and adds that they must form pretty suddenly. Which of the following questions would help the least in guiding them to other causes of sedimentary rock layer formation? A) Do volcanoes suddenly erupt? B) Are canyons carved out over a few years? C) Do valleys form within days? D) Are mountains created overnight? Answer: A Topic: 19.1 The Darwinian revolution challenged traditional views of a young Earth inhabited by unchanging species Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 19.1, V&C 1, G2 3) Fossils are found in A) sedimentary rocks. B) igneous rocks. C) metamorphic rocks. D) glass. Answer: A Topic: 19.1 The Darwinian revolution challenged traditional views of a young Earth inhabited by unchanging species Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1, V&C 1

4) What was the prevailing belief prior to the time of Lyell and Darwin? A) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging. B) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations gradually change. C) Earth is millions of years old, and populations rapidly change. D) Earth is millions of years old, and populations are unchanging. Answer: A Topic: 19.1 The Darwinian revolution challenged traditional views of a young Earth inhabited by unchanging species Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1, V&C 1 5) During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow students remarks, "The giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring inherited longer necks as a result." Which statement is most likely to be helpful in correcting this student's misconception? A) Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are not passed on through genes. B) Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits. C) Only favorable adaptations have survival value. D) Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance. Answer: A Topic: 19.1 The Darwinian revolution challenged traditional views of a young Earth inhabited by unchanging species Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.1, V&C 1, G2 6) Which of the following is the most accurate summary of Cuvier's consideration of fossils found in the strata near Paris? A) extinction of species: yes; evolution of new species: yes B) extinction of species: no; evolution of new species: yes C) extinction of species: yes; evolution of new species: no D) extinction of species: no; evolution of new species: no Answer: C Topic: 19.1 The Darwinian revolution challenged traditional views of a young Earth inhabited by unchanging species Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1, V&C 1 7) Lamarck's contribution to evolutionary theory was the A) use and disuse principle. B) idea of the inheritance of acquired characteristics. C) idea that evolutionary change explains patterns in fossils. D) idea that Earth's features could be explained by gradual mechanisms. Answer: C Topic: 19.1 The Darwinian revolution challenged traditional views of a young Earth inhabited by unchanging species Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1, V&C 1, G7 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Which of the following is an example of artificial selection? A) plant bending toward a light source B) catfish able to breathe outside of water C) a farmer cultivating sweet watermelons D) moth able to survive due to camouflage Answer: C Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1 9) A food-engineering company is interested in producing a new species of strawberry that has fruit that weigh a half a kilogram each. Which of the following is most likely correct regarding how this could hypothetically be accomplished? A) Adaptation of the plant to support the weight of the strawberries will have to occur over many generations for evolution of the new species to happen. B) Natural stressors from the environment will select for plants that can support the weight of larger strawberries in order to increase their survival. C) Only strawberry plants that can support the weight of larger strawberries will reproduce. D) Gene editing techniques could potentially modify those genes related to fruit size. Answer: D Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1, G2, G5 10) Within the past century, humans have been eating higher cholesterol and fatty meals and have become less physically active, which makes them more susceptible to heart disease. Which of the following will lead to an adaptation? A) Some people's bodies are able to break down cholesterol and fat more efficiently than others. B) Groups of people try going on a daily run. C) More people start taking medication for heart disease. D) Some people stop eating meals that are high cholesterol and fat. Answer: A Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1, G2, G5

11) A large community of rattlesnakes, from El Paso, Texas, is separated into two groups. One group is taken 46 miles northwest to Las Cruces, New Mexico. The other group goes 712 miles north to Estes Park, Colorado. Which of the following statements is most accurate? A) The group moved to Las Cruces will evolve because of the drastic change in environment. B) The group moved to Estes Park will undergo a series of adaptations to survive. C) Both groups will undergo the same heritable adaptations. D) The frequency of adaptations that are not favorable will be higher in the Estes Park group. Answer: B Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1, G2 12) Which of the following best explains the difference between Lamarck's and Darwin's mechanisms for evolution? A) Lamarck believed organisms have an innate drive to become more simple. B) Darwin's theory corroborates with current knowledge of inherited traits. C) Lamarck had more evidence than Darwin. D) Darwin's mechanism of evolution was not based on facts. Answer: B Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1, G5 13) What are adaptations? A) inherited characteristics of organisms that enhance their survival and reproduction in specific environments B) acquired characteristics of organisms that enhance their survival and reproduction in specific environments C) processes that allow individuals with certain inherited traits to survive and reproduce D) patterns seen in fossils documenting the origins of other new groups of organisms Answer: A Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1

14) Natural selection is based on all of the following except A) genetic variation exists within populations. B) the best-adapted individuals tend to leave the most offspring. C) individuals who survive longer tend to leave more offspring than those who die young. D) individuals adapt to their environments and thereby evolve. Answer: D Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1 15) Which of the following represents an idea that Darwin learned from the writings of Thomas Malthus? A) Technological innovation in agricultural practices will permit exponential growth of the human population into the foreseeable future. B) Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply normally allows. C) Earth changed over the years through a series of catastrophic upheavals. D) The environment is responsible for natural selection. Answer: B Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1, G5 16) Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the following events, under the influence of natural selection? 1. Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring than do poorly adapted individuals. 2. A change occurs in the environment. 3. Genetic frequencies within the population change. 4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship. A) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3 B) 4 → 2 → 1 → 3 C) 4 → 1 → 2 → 3 D) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1 Answer: A Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1, G2, G7

17) A biologist studied a population of squirrels for 15 years. During that time, the population was never fewer than 30 squirrels and never more than 45. Her data showed that over half of the squirrels born did not survive to reproduce because of both competition for food and predation. In a single generation, 90% of the squirrels that were born lived to reproduce, and the population increased to 80. Which inference about this population might be true? A) The amount of available food may have increased. B) The parental generation of squirrels developed better eyesight due to improved diet; the subsequent squirrel generation inherited better eyesight. C) The number of predators that prey upon squirrels may have decreased. D) There may have been an increase in available food or a decrease in squirrel predation. Answer: D Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1, G2, G7 18) Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that population? A) genetic variation among individuals B) variation among individuals caused by environmental factors C) sexual reproduction D) genetic homogeneity among population members Answer: A Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1, G7 19) Which of Darwin's ideas had the strongest connection to Darwin having read Malthus's essay on human population growth? A) descent with modification B) variation among individuals in a population C) the struggle for existence D) that the ancestors of the Galápagos finches had come from the South American mainland Answer: C Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1

20) Artificial selection is A) human-directed selective breeding. B) past extinction. C) patterns of evolution. D) slower than natural selection. Answer: A Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2, G5 21) Darwin's observation of the Galápagos Islands finches' various beaks and behaviors could be explained by A) adaptations to the specific foods available on their mainland. B) adaptations forged by natural selection. C) modification with descent. D) inherited traits that did not survive. Answer: B Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1 22) DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Instead, today DDT is largely useless against many insects. Which of the following should have occurred for this pest eradication effort to be successful in the long run? A) Larger doses of DDT should have been applied. B) All habitats should have received applications of DDT at about the same time. C) The frequency of DDT application should have been higher. D) None of the individual insects should have possessed genomes that made them resistant to DDT. Answer: D Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1, G2, G5 23) Analogous features share ________ function but not ________ ancestry. A) similar; common B) common; similar C) similar; similar D) common; common Answer: A Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G8 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Currently, two extant elephant species (X and Y) are placed in the genus Loxodonta, and a third species (Z) is placed in the genus Elephas. Thus, which of the following statements is true? A) Species X and Y are not related to species Z. B) Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies than with species Z. C) Species X and Y share a common ancestor that is still extant (in other words, not yet extinct). D) Species X and Y are the result of artificial selection from an ancestral species Z. Answer: B Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2 25) The rise of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) can be considered to be an example of artificial selection because A) humans purposefully culture MRSA in large fermenters in an attempt to make the bacteria ever-more resistant. B) soil is cultivated with S. aureus to replenish the nutrients. C) humans synthesize methicillin and create environments in which bacteria frequently come into contact with methicillin. D) humans are becoming resistant to bacteria by taking methicillin. Answer: C Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2, G5 26) Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of A) parallel evolution. B) convergent evolution. C) allopatric speciation. D) gene flow. Answer: B Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1

27) If the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus experiences a cost for maintaining one or more antibiotic-resistance genes, then what should happen in environments from which antibiotics are missing? A) These genes should continue to be maintained in case the antibiotics ever appear. B) These bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes. C) The bacteria should try to make the cost worthwhile by locating, and migrating to, microenvironments where traces of antibiotics are present. D) The bacteria should start making and secreting their own antibiotics. Answer: B Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2 28) Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the bones in the wing of a bird? A) bones in the hind limb of a kangaroo B) chitinous struts in the wing of a butterfly C) bony rays in the tail fin of a flying fish D) bones in the flipper of a whale Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2, G7 29) If two modern organisms are distantly related in an evolutionary sense, then one should expect that A) they live in very different habitats. B) they should share fewer homologous structures than two more closely related organisms. C) their chromosomes should be very similar. D) they shared a common ancestor relatively recently. Answer: B Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1

30) What is an example of what happens when herbivores switch to a new food source with different characteristics? A) In southern Florida, the soapberry bug (Jadera haema-toloma) will not have beaks to feed on the seeds of a native plant, the balloon vine (Cardiospermum corindum). B) Soapberry bugs in central Florida, where balloon vines have become rare, now have bigger beaks to feed on seeds of the goldenrain tree (Koelreuteria elegans), a species recently introduced from Asia. C) Soapberry bugs feed most effectively when the length of their beak is longer than the depth at which seeds are found within the fruit. Goldenrain tree fruit consists of three flat lobes, and its seeds are much closer to the fruit surface than seeds of the plump, round fruit of the native balloon vine. D) In populations that feed on goldenrain tree, natural selection results in beaks that are shorter than those in populations that feed on balloon vine. Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2 31) Over evolutionary time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs. How can natural selection account for these losses? A) Natural selection cannot account for losses, only for innovations. B) Natural selection accounts for these losses by the principle of use and disuse. C) Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these structures presented greater costs than benefits. D) The ancestors of these organisms experienced harmful mutations that forced them to find new habitats that these species had not previously used. Answer: C Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2, G7 32) Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth? A) All organisms require energy. B) All organisms use essentially the same genetic code. C) All organisms reproduce. D) All organisms show heritable variation. Answer: B Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2, G7

33) Logically, which of the following should cast the most doubt on the relationships depicted by an evolutionary tree? A) Some of the organisms depicted by the tree had lived in different habitats. B) The skeletal remains of the organisms depicted by the tree were incomplete (in other words, some bones were missing). C) Transitional fossils had not been found. D) Relationships between DNA sequences among the species did not match relationships between skeletal patterns. Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2 34) Which of the following statements are accurate about the function of the appendix? A) The appendix can be surgically removed with no immediate ill effects. B) The appendix might have been larger in fossil hominids. C) The appendix has a substantial amount of defensive lymphatic tissue. D) Individuals with a larger-than-average appendix leave fewer offspring than those with a below-average-size appendix. Answer: C Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1 35) Members of two different species possess similar-looking structures that they use in a similar fashion to perform the same function. Which of the following statements describes these structures originating from convergent evolution? A) The two species live at great distance from each other and have structures for flying. B) These structures share function but do not share a common ancestry. C) The functions of the structures in adult members of both species are not similar. D) Both species have structures that are not adapted to their particular environments. Answer: B Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1 36) What environment stimulates evolution of drug-resistant pathogens? A) presence of an enzyme called penicillinase B) colonization of host C) pathogens without cell walls D) excess antibiotics Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G5

37) Both ancestral birds and ancestral mammals shared a common ancestor that was terrestrial. Today, penguins (which are birds) and seals (which are mammals) have forelimbs adapted for swimming. What term best describes the relationship of the bones in the forelimbs of penguins and seals, and what term best describes the flippers of penguins and seals? A) homologous; homologous B) analogous; homologous C) homologous; analogous D) analogous; analogous Answer: C Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2, G7 38) What must be true of any organ that is described as vestigial? A) It must be analogous to some feature in an ancestor. B) It must be homologous to some feature in an ancestor. C) It must be both homologous and analogous to some feature in an ancestor. D) It need be neither homologous nor analogous to some feature in an ancestor. Answer: B Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1 39) What is true of pseudogenes? A) They are composed of RNA, rather than DNA. B) They are the same things as introns. C) They are unrelated genes that code for the same gene product. D) They are vestigial genes. Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1 40) It has been observed that organisms on islands are different from, but closely related to, similar forms found on the nearest continent. This is taken as evidence that A) island forms and mainland forms descended from common ancestors. B) common environments are inhabited by the same organisms. C) the islands were originally part of the continent. D) the island forms and mainland forms are converging. Answer: A Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G7

41) If you wanted to find the largest number of endemic species, you should visit which of the following geological features (assuming each has existed for several millions of years)? A) an isolated ocean island in the tropics B) an extensive mountain range C) a midcontinental grassland with extreme climatic conditions D) a shallow estuary on a warm-water coast Answer: A Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1 42) Convergent evolution uses analogous features to describe A) distantly related organisms that have structures for different functions. B) the independent evolution of similar features in different lineages. C) two mammals that have adapted to similar environments in a similar way. D) features that share common ancestry but not necessarily similar functions. Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1

19.2 Art Questions

1) The diagram shows an outcrop of sedimentary rock whose strata are labeled A-D. If x indicates the location of fossils of two closely related species, then fossils of their most-recent common ancestor are most likely to occur in which stratum? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: C Topic: 19.1 The Darwinian revolution challenged traditional views of a young Earth inhabited by unchanging species Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.1, V&C 1, G2, G3 2) The diagram shows an outcrop of sedimentary rock whose strata are labeled A-D. If x indicates the fossils of two closely related species, neither of which is extinct, then their remains may be found in how many of these strata? A) one stratum B) two strata C) three strata D) four strata Answer: B Topic: 19.1 The Darwinian revolution challenged traditional views of a young Earth inhabited by unchanging species Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.1, V&C 1, G2, G3

3) Currently, two extant elephant species (X and Y) are placed in the genus Loxodonta, and a third species (Z) is placed in the genus Elephas. Assuming this classification reflects evolutionary relatedness, which of the following is the most accurate phylogenetic tree? A)

Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2, G3

Examine the evolutionary tree. The horizontal axis of the cladogram depicted below is a timeline that extends from 100,000 years ago to the present; the vertical axis represents nothing in particular. The labeled branch points on the tree (V-Z) represent various common ancestors. Let's say that only since 50,000 years ago has there been enough variation between the lineages depicted here to separate them into distinct species, and only the tips of the lineages on this tree represent distinct species.

4) Which pair would probably have agreed with the process that is depicted by this tree? A) Cuvier and Lamarck B) Lamarck and Wallace C) Aristotle and Lyell D) Wallace and Linnaeus Answer: B Topic: 19.1 The Darwinian revolution challenged traditional views of a young Earth inhabited by unchanging species Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.1, V&C 1, G2, G3

5) How many separate species, both extant and extinct, are depicted in this tree? A) two B) four C) five D) six Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2, G3 6) According to this tree, what percent of the species seem to be extant (in other words, not extinct)? A) 25% B) 33% C) 50% D) 66% Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, G2, G3 7) Which of the five common ancestors, labeled V-Z, has given rise to the greatest number of species, both extant and extinct? A) V B) W C) Both W and Z can be considered to have given rise to the greatest number of extant and extinct species. D) Both X and Y can be considered to have given rise to the greatest number of extant and extinct species. Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2, G3 8) Which of the five common ancestors, labeled V-Z, has been least successful in terms of the percent of its derived species that are extant? A) V B) W C) X D) Y Answer: B Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2, G3

9) Which of the five common ancestors, labeled V—Z, has been most successful in terms of the percent of its derived species that are extant? A) V B) W C) X D) Z Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2, G3

10) Darwin viewed the history of life as a tree, as depicted in the figure, with multiple branchings from a common trunk to the tips of the twigs.

Which part of that tree represents extant organisms? A) tips of the twigs B) unlabeled branches C) common trunk D) forks of the tree Answer: A Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1, G2, G3

19.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. About 13 different species of finches inhabit the Galápagos Islands today, all descendants of a common ancestor from the South American mainland that arrived a few million years ago. Genetically, there are four distinct lineages, but the 13 species are currently classified among three genera. The first lineage to diverge from the ancestral lineage was the warbler finch (genus Certhidea). Next to diverge was the vegetarian finch (genus Camarhynchus), followed by five tree finch species (also in genus Camarhynchus) and six ground finch species (genus Geospiza). 1) If the six ground finch species have evolved most recently, then which of these is the most logical prediction? A) They should be limited to the six islands that most recently emerged from the sea. B) Their genomes should be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the five tree finch species. C) They should share fewer anatomical homologies with each other than they share with the tree finches. D) The chances of hybridization between two ground finch species should be less than the chances of hybridization between two tree finch species. Answer: B Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2 2) According to a 1999 study, the vegetarian finch is genetically no more similar to the tree finch than it is to the ground finch, despite the fact that it is placed in the same genus as the tree finch. Based on this finding, it is reasonable to conclude that the vegetarian finch A) is no more closely related to the tree finch than it is to the ground finch, despite its classification. B) should be reclassified as a warbler finch. C) is not truly a descendent of the original ancestral finch. D) is a hybrid species, resulting from a cross between a ground finch and a tree finch. Answer: A Topic: 19.3 Evolution is supported by an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 19.3, V&C 1, G2

3) An article in the New York Times stated the following: "Scientists have discovered microorganisms living beneath the ocean floor that appear to have not evolved for more than two billion years, a finding that nonetheless may support the theory of evolution." The lack of evolution of these microorganisms could be caused by A) organisms adapting to a changing physical or biological environment. B) the bacteria's unchanging environment. C) lack of protection in an environment that's existed on Earth, unchanged. D) comparison of the specimens to modern communities of sulfur bacteria. Answer: B Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1, G2, G7 4) An article in the New York Times noted that the human population has shown a significant increase in height. When the relationship of height to reproductive success in humans was examined across three decades (1935-1967), height had a positive correlation to the number of children born and the number of surviving children. These observations suggest that A) individuals vary in heritable characteristics. B) humans produce more offspring than the environment can support. C) individuals who are taller are better suited to their environment. D) over time, favorable traits will accumulate in the population. Answer: D Topic: 19.2 Descent with modification by natural selection explains the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 19.2, V&C 1, G2 19.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which natural selection is based? A) There is heritable variation among individuals. B) Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring. C) Species produce more offspring than the environment can support. D) Only a fraction of an individual's offspring may survive. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) Which of the following observations helped Darwin shape his concept of descent with modification? A) Species diversity declines farther from the equator. B) Fewer species live on islands than on the nearest continents. C) Birds live on islands located farther from the mainland than the birds' maximum nonstop flight distance. D) South American temperate plants are more similar to the tropical plants of South America than to the temperate plants of Europe. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Within six months of effectively using methicillin to treat S. aureus infections in a community, all new S. aureus infections were caused by MRSA. How can this best be explained? A) A patient must have become infected with MRSA from another community. B) In response to the drug, S. aureus began making drug-resistant versions of the protein targeted by the drug. C) Some drug-resistant bacteria were present at the start of treatment, and natural selection increased their frequency. D) S. aureus evolved to resist vaccines. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) The upper forelimbs of humans and bats have fairly similar skeletal structures, whereas the corresponding bones in whales have very different shapes and proportions. However, genetic data suggest that all three kinds of organisms diverged from a common ancestor at about the same time. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these data? A) Forelimb evolution was adaptive in people and bats but not in whales. B) Natural selection in an aquatic environment resulted in significant changes to whale forelimb anatomy. C) Genes mutate faster in whales than in humans or bats. D) Whales are not properly classified as mammals. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) DNA sequences in many human genes are very similar to the sequences of corresponding genes in chimpanzees. The most likely explanation for this result is that A) humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor. B) humans evolved from chimpanzees. C) chimpanzees evolved from humans. D) convergent evolution led to the DNA similarities. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 20 Phylogeny 20.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In addition to naming species, Linnaeus also grouped species into a hierarchy of increasingly inclusive categories. The largest category that would include closely related species is the A) genus. B) class. C) order. D) domain. Answer: D Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 2) The various taxonomic categories (genera, classes, etc.) of the hierarchical classification system differ from each other on the basis of A) how widely the organisms assigned to each are distributed throughout the environment. B) their inclusiveness. C) the relative genome sizes of the organisms assigned to each. D) morphological characters that are applicable to all organisms. Answer: B Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1, G2 3) If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders, and if organisms D, E, and F belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology? A) A and B B) A and C C) B and D D) D and F Answer: D Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.1, G2

4) Linnaeus was a "fixist" who believed that species remained fixed in the form in which they had been created. Linnaeus would have been uncomfortable with A) classifying organisms using the morphospecies concept. B) the scientific discipline known as taxonomy. C) phylogenies. D) nested, ever-more inclusive categories of organisms. Answer: C Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1, V&C 1, G7 5) When hypothesizing a possible phylogeny in order to classify taxa, scientists incorporate systematics to A) provide primarily morphological information. B) provide molecular or genetic information, as well as morphological information. C) name organisms using a genus and specific epithet. D) create a hierarchy of classification based upon reproductive mating patterns. Answer: B Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.1, G2, V&C 1 6) Sister taxa A) represent the common ancestor of taxa. B) represent groups of organisms that share an immediate common ancestor. C) represent a polytomy. D) diverge from all other lineages early in the history of the group. Answer: B Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 7) What evidence suggests that limbless bodies are the result of convergent evolution of snakes and lizards? A) Snakes and lizards with limbless bodies evolved from different ancestors of legged lizards. B) Limbless bodies do not share a most recent common ancestor. C) Three traits are shared by all snakes. D) Species adapted to their environments. Answer: A Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1, G2

8) From the list below, select the correct format for the binomial (scientific name) of the species the monarch butterfly. A) Danaus plexippus B) danaus plexippus C) Danaus Plexippus D) Danaus Plexippus Answer: A Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.1 9) Corvids are a large family of birds that includes many species of ravens, jays, crows, and magpies. It was recently discovered that numerous birds in this family are an important vector for the West Nile virus because infected mosquitoes may pass the virus to these birds. Not to mention other species: there are over 35 species crows across the world alone and more than 3,500 species of mosquitoes across 41 different genera. Taken together, these facts demonstrate that it is critical that global societies and scientists A) use more detailed common names to identify species, such as the "violet crow" or the "American crow." B) use the genus and specific epithet scientific name to identify taxa. C) use DNA sequences when referring to a particular species. D) track diseases like West Nile virus using remote sensing technology on birds to help predict illness spread. E) invoke higher levels of the classification system, such as kingdom and domain, when referring to a species. Answer: B Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.1, G2, V&C C6, G5 10) What is one common mistake taxonomists may make when attempting to place seemingly closely related species into a shared classification group? A) The two species seem to be located in the same region on the planet. B) The two species share similar morphology or character traits. C) The two species share an evolutionary history based upon matching DNA. D) The two species share many structural proteins, genes, and metabolic pathways. Answer: B Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1, V&C 1

11) What is true about this phylogenetic tree?

A) Fish are equally related to frogs, lizards, chimps and humans. B) Fish share a common ancestor with frogs but not with lizards, chimps, or humans. C) Fish are more closely related to grogs than any other groups shown. D) Chimps and humans have been evolving for the same amount of time. Answer: A Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.1, V&C 1, G2, G3 12) The term homoplasy is most applicable to which of the following features? A) the five-digit condition of human hands and bat wings B) the β hemoglobin genes of mice and humans C) the fur that covers Australian moles and North American moles D) the bones of bat forelimbs and the bones of bird forelimbs Answer: C Topic: 20.2 Phylogenies are inferred from morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 13) Which of the following are the best examples of homologous structures? A) bones in the bat wing and bones in the human forelimb B) owl wing and hornet wing C) bat wing and bird wing D) eyelessness in the Australian mole and eyelessness in the North American mole Answer: A Topic: 20.2 Phylogenies are inferred from morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2

14) Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family (Ursidae) but place the lesser panda in the raccoon family (Procyonidae). Consequently, the morphological similarities of these two species are probably due to A) inheritance of acquired characteristics. B) sexual selection. C) inheritance of shared derived characters. D) possession of analogous structures. Answer: D Topic: 20.2 Phylogenies are inferred from morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 15) The importance of computers and computer software to modern cladistics is most closely linked to advances in A) radiometric dating. B) fossil discovery techniques. C) Linnaean classification. D) molecular genetics. Answer: D Topic: 20.2 Phylogenies are inferred from morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2, G6 16) The common ancestors of birds and mammals were very early (stem) reptiles, which almost certainly possessed three-chambered hearts (two atria, one ventricle). Birds and mammals, however, are alike in having four-chambered hearts (two atria, two ventricles). The fourchambered hearts of birds and mammals are best described as A) structural homologies. B) vestiges. C) homoplasies. D) the result of shared ancestry. Answer: C Topic: 20.2 Phylogenies are inferred from morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.2, G2 17) A potential source of confusion in constructing a phylogeny tree is similarity between organisms that is due to A) convergent evolution. B) adaptation. C) shared ancestry. D) homology. Answer: A Topic: 20.2 Phylogenies are inferred from morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) Which statement about the relationship between phenotypic and genetic attributes is correct? A) Genetically similar organisms can appear profoundly different morphologically. B) Organisms with very similar morphology also have very similar genes. C) Usually phenotypically similar organisms are not genetically similar. D) When phenotypic or genotypic qualities among two species are similar due to shared ancestry, they are referred to as analogies. Answer: A Topic: 20.2 Phylogenies are inferred from morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 19) Although hummingbirds and house flies both use wings to fly, this similarity is not based upon closely shared ancestry but rather on evolution and adaptation as a result of survival and reproduction in a given environment. The term best describing such a phenomenon is A) homology. B) genera sharing. C) convergent evolution. D) congruent evolution. Answer: C Topic: 20.2 Phylogenies are inferred from morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.2, V&C 1, G2 20) Four relatively recent fossil species were recovered, and when the DNA was extracted, investigators observed that Species W and Z both had long finger bones, and species X and Y had short finger bones. Based upon this information and the hypothetical molecular data below, sequenced from common regions in one gene of their DNA, which two species are the most closely related to each other? Species W: AACATTGCTT TTGTAACGAA

Species X: AACCGCGCGT TTGGCGCGCA

Species Y: AGCAGCGCTT TCGTCGCGAA

Species Z: AACCGCGCTT TTGGCGCGAA

A) Species X and Z B) Species X and Y C) Species Y and Z D) Species W and Z Answer: A Topic: 20.2 Phylogenies are inferred from morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.2, V&C 1, V&C C2, G2

21) Analisa and Mateo, two research anthropologists interested in deciphering the relatedness between four extinct primates, were studying the similarities and differences among a number of measurements of the complex structures of the jaw fragments they collected, as well as making many other morphological contrasts between other fossilized bones from dozens of collected specimens. In the lab, they noticed the lengths of the bones of the leg, particularly the femur, tibia, and fibula, were very different in all the specimens, whereas the jaw structures were nearly identical among the specimens. What should they tentatively conclude based on this evidence? A) The four primates likely share a close common ancestor or could potentially be the same species based upon the jaw measurements. B) The hominids with the most closely matching leg bone measurements are likely more closely related than the others, due to the importance of locomotion as an evolutionary adaptation. C) The femur measurements are not important. D) Because the measurements of the leg bones vary widely, it is probable that the four species are from different genera. Answer: A Topic: 20.2 Phylogenies are inferred from morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 20.2, V&C 1, G2 22) A shared ancestral character is A) a character that originated in an ancestor of two taxa. B) shared by all mammals but not found in their ancestors. C) an evolutionary novelty unique to a clade. D) an outgroup character. Answer: A Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3, V&C 1 23) Which of the following are problematic when the goal is to construct phylogenies that accurately reflect evolutionary history? A) polyphyletic taxa B) paraphyletic taxa C) monophyletic taxa D) polyphyletic and paraphyletic taxa Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3, V&C 1

24) Which of the following is true of all horizontally oriented phylogenetic trees, in which time advances to the right? A) Each branch point represents a point in absolute time. B) Organisms represented at the base of such trees are descendants of those represented at higher levels. C) The fewer branch points that occur between two taxa, the more divergent their DNA sequences should be. D) The common ancestor represented by the rightmost branch point existed more recently in time than the common ancestors represented at branch points located to the left. Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3, V&C 1 25) When using a cladistic approach to systematics, which of the following is considered most important for classification? A) shared primitive characters B) analogous primitive characters C) shared derived characters D) the number of homoplasies Answer: C Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3, V&C 1 26) Cladograms (a type of phylogenetic tree) constructed from evidence from molecular systematics are based on similarities in A) morphology. B) the pattern of embryological development. C) biochemical pathways. D) mutations to homologous genes. Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3, V&C 1

27) There is some evidence that extinct reptiles called cynodonts, which arose about 260 million years ago, may have had whisker-like hairs around their mouths. If this is true, then what can be properly said of hair? A) It is a shared derived character of mammals, even if cynodonts continue to be classified as reptiles. B) It is a shared derived character of the amniote clade and not of the mammal clade. C) It is a shared ancestral character of the amniote clade, but only if cynodonts are reclassified as mammals. D) It is a shared derived character of the mammals, but only if cynodonts are reclassified as mammals. Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.3, G2 28) According to the principle of maximum parsimony, A) phylogenies based in DNA require the most base changes between taxa. B) the preferred tree is the one that minimizes the amount of evolutionary change. C) in the case of trees based on morphology, a parsimonious tree requires the most changes. D) a large number of trees should be examined. Answer: B Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3 29) A phylogenetic tree shows that birds and crocodiles share many features. A hypothesis based on this tree predicts that these features are present in a common ancestor. Which of these predicted traits is supported by fossil evidence? A) four-chambered heart B) singing for territory C) eggs and nests D) singing to attract mates Answer: C Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.3, G2 30) How does a molecular clock measure time? A) by observing that some genes and other regions of genomes appear to evolve at different rates B) by detecting gene irregularities that result from natural selection C) by counting the number of nucleotide substitutions over a fixed period of time D) by using few gene mutations to calibrate the clock Answer: C Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.4 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of A) archaeans and bacteria. B) fungi and animals. C) chimpanzees and humans. D) sharks and dolphins. Answer: C Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.4, G2 32) The most important feature that permits a gene to act as a molecular clock is A) having a large number of base pairs. B) having a larger proportion of exonic DNA than of intronic DNA. C) having a reliable average rate of mutation. D) its recent origin by a gene duplication event. E) its being acted upon by natural selection. Answer: C Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.4, G7 33) Neutral theory proposes that A) molecular clocks are more reliable when DNA mutations occur on the nitrogenous bases, thymine (T) and adenine (A). B) most mutations of highly conserved DNA sequences should have no functional effect. C) DNA is less susceptible to mutation when it codes for amino acid sequences whose side groups (or R groups) have a neutral pH. D) DNA is less susceptible to mutation when it codes for amino acid sequences whose side groups (or R groups) have a neutral electrical charge. E) a significant proportion of mutations are not acted upon by natural selection. Answer: E Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.4, G7 34) When it acts upon a gene, which of the following processes consequently makes that gene an accurate molecular clock? A) transcription B) directional natural selection C) mutation D) proofreading E) reverse transcription Answer: C Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.4, G7 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) Which of these would, if it (they) had acted upon a gene, prevent this gene from acting as a reliable molecular clock? A) neutral mutations B) genetic drift C) mutations within introns D) natural selection E) most substitution mutations involving a codon's third position (of exons) Answer: D Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.4, G7 36) You discover a fossil with feathers on forelimbs, short hind limbs, and teeth. You conclude that this organism appears early on a phylogenetic tree for which group of organisms? A) reptiles B) birds C) mammals D) snakes Answer: B Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 20.4, G2 37) Which kind of DNA should provide the best molecular clock for determining the evolutionary relatedness of several species whose common ancestor became extinct billions of years ago? A) DNA coding for ribosomal RNA B) intronic DNA belonging to a gene whose product performs a crucial function C) paralogous DNA that has lost its function (that is, no longer codes for functional gene product) D) mitochondrial DNA E) exonic DNA that codes for a noncrucial part of a polypeptide Answer: A Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.4, V&C 1, G7, G2

38) The observation that genetic mutations in the genome appear to accumulate at constant rates across a wide diversity of taxa led to the development of A) phylogenetic analysis. B) cladistics. C) molecular clocks. D) maximum parsimony. Answer: C Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.4, V&C 1

39) Researchers obtained the data depicted in this figure by sampling human blood containing HIV and then isolating and sequencing genes within the human immunodeficiency virus's DNA . What does the y-axis represent?

A) an index of natural selection on the HIV genes studied B) an index of mutations within gene regions of HIV that are unrelated to the success of the virus (such as how virulent it is or how well it reproduces within its human hosts) C) a measurement of changes between HIV gene sequences, specifically on genes important for the replication, reproduction, and spreading of the virus D) an index of time since the first human HIV infection occurred Answer: B Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.4, V&C 1, G3, G2

40) Researchers obtained the data depicted here by sampling human blood containing HIV and then isolating and sequencing genes within the human immunodeficiency virus's DNA. What does the line and shaded area that intersect the x-axis represent?

A) an index of natural selection on the HIV genes studied B) an index of mutations within gene regions of HIV that are unrelated to the success of the virus (such as how virulent it is or how well it reproduces within its human hosts) C) a measurement of changes between HIV gene sequences, specifically on genes important for the replication, reproduction, and spreading of the virus D) a prediction of when HIV first infected humans, based on the theory that neutral DNA mutations to non-protein coding sections of the HIV genome have accumulated in a consistent manner over time. Answer: D Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.4, G2, G3, V&C 1 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

41) A polytomy on a phylogenetic tree represents A) sister taxa. B) a lineage that diverges from all other lineages in its group. C) its most recent common ancestor. D) insufficient data to determine lineage relationship. Answer: D Topic: 20.5 New information continues to revise our understanding of evolutionary history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5, V&C 1 42) What kind of evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of two different domains rather than assigning all prokaryotes to the same kingdom? A) molecular B) behavioral C) nutritional D) anatomical E) ecological Answer: A Topic: 20.5 New information continues to revise our understanding of evolutionary history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5, V&C 1 43) Which kingdom has been replaced with two domains? A) Plantae B) Fungi C) Animalia D) Protista E) Monera (prokaryotes) Answer: E Topic: 20.5 New information continues to revise our understanding of evolutionary history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5 44) What evidence allowed biologists to conclude that classification of the tree of life required a three-domain system? A) The validity of three domains is supported by a recent study that sequenced proteins. B) Most of the currently known prokaryotes belong to three domains. C) The Archaea domain consists of diverse prokaryotes that inhabit the same habitats. D) The phylogenetic tree of the three domains of life is based on sequence data for rRNA and other genes. Answer: D Topic: 20.5 New information continues to revise our understanding of evolutionary history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5, V&C 1

45) The kingdom Protista is obsolete because it contains members of how many other kingdoms? A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: B Topic: 20.5 New information continues to revise our understanding of evolutionary history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5 46) Biologists have concluded that classification of the tree of life requires a three-domain system. What would this conclusion be termed, scientifically? A) a prediction B) a hypothesis C) a fact D) a theory E) a law Answer: D Topic: 20.5 New information continues to revise our understanding of evolutionary history Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 20.5, V&C 1, G1, G2, G7

20.2 Art Questions

Figure 20.1 1) Using the phylogenetic tree shown in Figure 20.1, which extinct species should be the best candidate to serve as the outgroup for the clade whose common ancestor occurs at position 2? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.3, V&C 1, G2, G3

2) Assuming the phylogenetic tree shown in Figure 20.1 is an accurate depiction of relatedness, then which of the following should be correct? 1. The entire tree is based on maximum parsimony. 2. If all species depicted here make up a taxon, this taxon is monophyletic. 3. The last common ancestor of species B and C occurred more recently than the last common ancestor of species D and E. 4. Species C is the direct ancestor of both species B and species D. 5. The species present at position 3 is ancestral to C, D, and E. A) 1 and 3 B) 3 and 4 C) 2, 3, and 4 D) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.3, G3, G2

Figure 20.2 3) Using the phylogeny drawn in Figure 20.2, taken together, the lesser apes (gibbons and siamangs) and great apes (chimpanzees, gorillas, and orangutans) shared a common ancestor most recently with other members of their A) order, about 17 million years ago. B) genus, about 6 million years ago. C) family, about 13 million years ago. D) subfamily, about 7 million years ago. Answer: A Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.1, G3, G2 4) Using the phylogeny drawn in Figure 20.2, assuming chimpanzees and gorillas are humans' closest relatives, removing humans from the great ape clade and placing them in a different clade has the effect of making the phylogenetic tree of the great apes A) polyphyletic. B) paraphyletic. C) monophyletic. D) conform with Linnaeus's view of great ape phylogeny. Answer: B Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.3, V&C 1, G2, G3

5) Using the phylogeny drawn in Figure 20.2, which other event occurred closest in time to the divergence of gorillas from the lineage that led to humans and chimpanzees? A) the divergence of chimpanzees and humans B) the divergence of Dryopithecus and Ouranopithecus C) the divergence of gibbons and siamangs D) could be either the divergence of chimpanzees and humans or that of Dryopithecus and Ouranopithecus E) could be either the divergence of chimpanzees and humans or that of gibbons and siamangs Answer: E Topic: 20.5 New information continues to revise our understanding of evolutionary history Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.5, V&C 1, G2, G3

Figure 20.3 6) In Figure 20.3, phylogeny branch lengths represent genetic changes. Which organism on the tree has undergone the most genetic changes since divergence from common ancestor? A) mouse B) human C) chicken D) Drosophila Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.3, V&C 1, G3, G2

Figure 20.20 Extrapolating backward in time using the molecular clock indicates that the HIV-1 M strain originated around A) 1920. B) 1930. C) 1950. D) 1960. Answer: B Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.4, V&C 1, G3, G2

20.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Traditionally, zoologists have placed birds in their own class, Aves. More recently, molecular evidence has shown that birds are more closely related to reptiles than their anatomy reveals. Genetically, birds are more closely related to crocodiles than crocodiles are to turtles. Thus, bird anatomy has become highly modified as they have adapted to flight, without their genes having undergone nearly as much change. 1) Taxonomically, what should be done with the birds? A) The traditional stance is correct. Such dramatic morphological change as undergone by birds indicates that birds should be placed in their own order, separate from the reptiles. B) Birds should be reclassified, and their new taxon should be the subclass Aves. Genetic similarity trumps morphological dissimilarity in cases where morphological traits are uninformative. C) The rest of the reptiles should be reclassified as a subclass within the class Aves. D) The classification scheme should remain the same because of historical precedence. Answer: B Topic: 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 20.1, G2, G7 2) Scientists discovered a fossil in China that belongs to a previously unknown species of an obscure group of small dinosaurs, related to primitive birds such as the famous Archaeopteryx. It had feathers, but they seemed too insubstantial to be useful in flight. Then the scientists said they recognized the unusually long, rodlike bone extending from each of the two wrists: curving structures possibly supporting an aerodynamic membrane. These scientists are grouping the found fossil with birds based on ________ structures. A) analogous B) homologous C) molecular D) derived Answer: B Topic: 20.2 Phylogenies are inferred from morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.2, G2

This question refers to Table 20.1, which compares the % sequence homology of four different parts (two introns and two exons) of a gene found in five different eukaryotic species. Each part is numbered to indicate its distance from the promoter (for example, intron I is the one closest to the promoter). The data reported for species A were obtained by comparing DNA from one member of species A to the DNA of another member of species A.

Table 20.1 3) Based on the tabular data, and assuming that time advances vertically, which cladogram (a type of phylogenetic tree) is the most likely depiction of the evolutionary relationships among these five species? A)

Answer: D Topic: 20.2 Phylogenies are inferred from morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 20.2, G3, G2 4) Regarding these sequence homology data, the principle of maximum parsimony would be applicable in A) distinguishing introns from exons. B) determining degree of sequence homology. C) selecting appropriate genes for comparison among species. D) inferring evolutionary relatedness from the number of sequence differences. Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 20.3, G3, G2 5) Which of these four gene parts should allow the construction of the most accurate phylogenetic tree, assuming this is the only part of the gene that has acted as a reliable molecular clock? A) intron I B) exon I C) intron VI D) exon V Answer: C Topic: 20.4 Molecular clocks help track evolutionary time Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 20.4, V&C 1, G2, G3

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Traditionally, whales and hippopotamuses have been classified in different orders, the Cetacea and the Artiodactyla, respectively. Recent molecular evidence, however, indicates that the whales' closest living relatives are the hippos. This has caused some zoologists to lump the two orders together into a single clade, the Cetartiodactyla. There is no consensus on whether the Cetartiodactyla should be accorded order status or superorder status. This is because it remains unclear whether the whale lineage diverged from the lineage leading to the hippos before or after the other members of the order Artiodactyla (pigs, camels, etc.) diverged (see Figure 20.5).

Figure 20.5 6) What can be properly inferred from Figure 20.5? A) In the "without" tree, pigs are more distantly related to hippos than is depicted in the "within" tree. B) In the "without" tree, pigs are more closely related to hippos than are whales. C) In the "within" tree, pigs are more closely related to whales than they are to hippos. D) The "without" tree is more consistent with molecular evidence than is the "within" tree. Answer: B Topic: Concept 20.1 Phylogenies show evolutionary relationships Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.1, V&C 1, G2, G3 7) Placing whales and hippos in the same clade means that A) these organisms are phenotypically more similar to each other than to any others shown on the trees in the figure. B) their morphological similarities are probably homoplasies. C) they had a common ancestor. D) all three of the responses are correct. Answer: C Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.3, G3, G2

8) If it turns out that the whale lineage diverged from the lineage leading to hippos after the divergence of the lineage leading to the pigs and other artiodactyls, and if the whales continue to be classified in the order Cetacea, then what becomes true of the order Artiodactyla? A) It becomes monophyletic. B) It becomes paraphyletic. C) It becomes polyphyletic. D) It is incorporated into the order Cetacea. Answer: B Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.3, V&C 1, G2, G3 9) If it turns out that the whale lineage diverged from the lineage leading to hippos after the divergence of the lineage leading to the pigs and other artiodactyls, and if the whales continue to be classified in the order Cetacea, then what becomes true of the taxon Cetartiodactyla? A) It should be considered as one monophyletic superorder. B) It should be considered a superorder that consists of two monophyletic orders. C) It should be established as a paraphyletic order. D) It should be thrown out or modified by taxonomists if classification is to reflect evolutionary history. Answer: A Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 20.3, G2, G3 10) One morphological feature of modern cetaceans is a vestigial pelvic girdle. If it is determined that cetacean lineage diverged from the artiodactyls' lineage after the divergence of pigs and other artiodactyla, then what should be true of the vestigial pelvic girdle of cetaceans? A) It should be considered a shared ancestral character of the cetartiodactyls. B) It should be considered a shared derived character of the cetartiodactyls. C) It should be considered a shared ancestral character of the cetaceans. D) It should be considered a shared derived character of the cetaceans. Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.3, V&C 1, G2, G3

11) If cetaceans are determined to have diverged from the lineage leading to the artiodactyls before the divergence of lineages leading to the modern artiodactyls (including hippos), then the cetaceans can be considered 1. a sister order to the order Artiodactyla. 2. an ingroup of the order Artiodactyla. 3. the common ancestor of the order Artiodactyla. A) 1 only B) 3 only C) 1 and 2 D) 1 and 3 Answer: A Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.3, G2, G3 12) It was once thought cetaceans had evolved from an extinct group of mammals called the mesonychids. If, in the future, it is determined that some organisms currently classified as cetaceans did actually evolve from mesonychids, whereas other cetaceans evolved from artiodactyl stock, then what will be true of the order Cetacea? A) It will be paraphyletic. B) It will be polyphyletic. C) It will need to be modified if classification is to reflect evolutionary history. D) It will be paraphyletic, and it will need to be modified if classification is to reflect evolutionary history. E) It will be polyphyletic, and it will need to be modified if classification is to reflect evolutionary history. Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Shared characters are used to construct phylogenetic trees Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.3, V&C 1, G2, G3 20.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) In a comparison of birds and mammals, the condition of having four limbs is A) a shared ancestral character. B) a shared derived character. C) a character useful for distinguishing birds from mammals. D) an example of analogy rather than homology. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) To apply parsimony to constructing a phylogenetic tree, A) choose the tree that assumes all evolutionary changes are equally probable. B) choose the tree in which the branch points are based on as many shared derived characters as possible. C) choose the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes, in either DNA sequences or morphology. D) choose the tree with the fewest branch points. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) In Figure 20.6 below, which similarly inclusive taxon descended from the same common ancestor as Canidae?

4) Three living species X, Y, and Z share a common ancestor T, as do extinct species U and V. A grouping that consists of species T, X, Y, and Z (but not U or V) makes up A) a monophyletic taxon. B) an ingroup, with species U as the outgroup. C) a polyphyletic group. D) a paraphyletic group. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Based on the tree below, which statement is not correct?

A) The salamander lineage is a basal taxon. B) Salamanders are a sister group to the group containing lizards, goats, and humans. C) Salamanders are as closely related to goats as to humans. D) Lizards are more closely related to salamanders than to humans. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) If you were using cladistics to build a phylogenetic tree of cats, which of the following would be the best outgroup? A) wolf B) domestic cat C) frog D) leopard Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

7) The relative lengths of the frog and mouse branches in the phylogenetic tree in the figure below indicate that

Figure 20.7 A) frogs evolved before mice. B) mice evolved before frogs. C) the homolog has evolved more rapidly in mice. D) the homolog has evolved more slowly in mice. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 21 The Evolution of Populations 21.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) If, on average, 46% of the loci in a species' gene pool are heterozygous, then the average homozygosity of the species should be A) 23%. B) 46%. C) 54%. Answer: C Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1, G4 2) Which statement about the beak size of finches on the island of Daphne Major during prolonged drought is true? A) Each bird evolved a deeper, stronger beak as the drought persisted. B) Each bird's survival was strongly influenced by the depth and strength of its beak as the drought persisted. C) Each bird that survived the drought produced only offspring with deeper, stronger beaks than seen in the previous generation. D) The frequency of the strong-beak alleles increased in each bird as the drought persisted. Answer: B Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1 3) Which of the following is correct about genetic variation? A) It is created by the direct action of natural selection. B) It arises in response to changes in the environment. C) It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population. D) It tends to be reduced when diploid organisms produce gametes and reproduce. E) A population that has a higher average heterozygosity has less genetic variation than one with a lower average heterozygosity. Answer: C Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1, G7

4) How did Mendel's model of inheritance help explain Darwin's theory of natural selection? A) by observations of individuals' differences in traits B) by proposing a mechanism of how organisms could transmit discrete, heritable units to offspring C) by explaining the natural selection of genetic differences among offspring D) by leading to an evolutionary change Answer: B Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1, G7 5) How can genetic variation at the whole gene level (gene variability) be quantified? A) by the average percentage of loci that are heterozygous B) by the average percentage of loci that are homozygous C) by nucleotide variability D) by the differences in noncoding DNA Answer: A Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1, G4 6) Why don't similar genotypes always produce the same phenotype? A) Phenotypes can vary depending upon environment B) Parents alter their phenotypes and pass on this phenotype to progeny. C) Animals display different phenotypes dependent on diet, not genotype. D) Genetic variants of ADH enzyme produce the same phenotype. Answer: A Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1, G7 7) Which of the following describes a mechanism for generating more genes? A) translocation B) duplication C) meiosis D) gametogenesis Answer: B Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1

8) Which process in sexual reproduction results in diversity at the nucleotide level? A) chromosome shuffling B) chromosome crossover C) independent assortment of chromosomes D) random distribution of chromosomes Answer: B Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1 9) When evolution occurred on the Galápagos Islands, the finch beaks A) of individual birds in the population changed size and shape between the time of fledging the nest and adulthood due to the environmental stress induced by drought. B) varied in size across the population and sometimes conferred benefits in feeding, survivorship, and reproduction that were passed down to surviving offspring. C) had corresponding genetic codes in the DNA that were modified or mutated by individuals when attempting to survive the stressful environment of the drought. D) changed in size and depth only during the lifetime of the fittest birds able to survive the drought. Answer: B Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1 10) Which of the following consistently improves the degree to which organisms are well suited for life in their environment? A) adaptation B) natural selection C) gene flow D) genetic drift Answer: B Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1 11) Recent research investigating variation in human height have found that a variety of genes at different loci, as well as early nutrition, especially that of the mother during gestation (the period of time during development of a fetus) and childhood years, influence height. Given this information, which of the following is correct? A) Phenotypes are directly linked to genotypes and not influenced externally. B) Phenotypes are usually the result of a combination of genes as influenced by the environment. C) One phenotypic trait is usually related to one gene. D) For human height, the environment is more influential than inheritance of particular alleles. Answer: B Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1, G2 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) It is estimated by a wide body of scientists that in recent decades we have begun another mass extinction event on Earth. Amphibians in particular have been in decline, sometimes due to climate change, and they therefore provide a possible early sign of dramatic biodiversity change to come. With respect to climate change and natural selection acting upon a population of one species of frog in a tropical rain forest, mutations of DNA sequences of the frog genome that are inherited by offspring A) could either be beneficial or harmful. B) will primarily be harmful. C) may have no effect at all, be beneficial, or be harmful. D) will only speed the decline and extinction of the species. Answer: C Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1, V&C C6, G2 13) A mutation that is neither harmful nor beneficial is termed a A) point mutation. B) silent mutation. C) deleterious mutation. D) heterozygote advantage. Answer: B Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.1, V&C 1 14) Whenever diploid populations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium at a particular locus, A) the allele's frequency should not change from one generation to the next, but its representation in homozygous and heterozygous genotypes may change. B) natural selection, gene flow, and genetic drift are acting equally to change an allele's frequency. C) this means that, at this locus, two alleles are present in equal proportions. D) the population itself is not evolving, but individuals within the population may be evolving. Answer: A Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G7

15) In the formula for determining a population's genotype frequencies, the 2 in the term 2pq is necessary because A) the population is diploid. B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways based upon parental gametes. C) the population is doubling in number. D) heterozygotes have two alleles. Answer: B Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G4 16) In the formula for determining a population's genotype frequencies, the pq in the term 2pq is necessary because A) the population is diploid. B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways. C) the population is doubling in number. D) heterozygotes have two alleles. Answer: D Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G4 17) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.3. What is the frequency of individuals that are homozygous for this allele? A) 0.09 B) 0.49 C) 0.9 D) 9.0 Answer: A Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G4 18) In peas, a gene controls flower color such that R = purple and r = white. In an isolated pea patch, there are 36 purple-flowering plants and 64 white-flowering plants. Assuming HardyWeinberg equilibrium, what is the value of q for this population? A) 0.36 B) 0.64 C) 0.75 D) 0.80 Answer: D Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G4

19) Which statement about variation is true? A) All phenotypic variation is the result of genotypic variation. B) All genetic variation produces phenotypic variation. C) All nucleotide variability results in neutral variation. D) All new alleles are the result of nucleotide variability. E) All geographic variation results from the existence of clines. Answer: D Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1 20) What is a population in biology? A) when a group of individuals of the same species live in the same area and interbreed B) when a group of individuals live in the same area and share resources C) when a group of individuals of different species live in the same area D) when closely related organisms share a low frequency of alleles Answer: A Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1 21) What is the Hardy-Weinberg equation? A) an assessment of evolution at a particular locus B) a determination of allele frequency C) a determination of genotype frequency D) an assessment of heterozygosity in a population Answer: A Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1 22) Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a birth defect that causes an amino acid called phenylalanine to build up in the body. The frequency of individuals born in a population with PKU is q2. There is one PKU (q2) birth per 10,000 births. The frequency of the recessive allele for PKU in this population is q = 0.01. The frequency of the dominant allele in this population is p = 1 – q = 0.99. What is the frequency of carriers (2pq) in this population? A) 1% B) 2% C) 3% D) 4% Answer: B Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G4

23) "Until the agricultural revolution 10,000 years ago, people used to live in small populations with little gene flow between them. That is the best situation for rapid evolution," said Sewall Wright, one of the founders of population genetics. This conclusion on gene flow conflicts with the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which states that no gene flow means A) natural selection. B) no genetic drift. C) no random mating. D) no evolution. Answer: D Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2 24) When using the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium model, we assume that A) the population is infinitely large. B) the population under study has experienced gene flow. C) the population has passed through a bottleneck. D) natural selection is not occurring. Answer: D Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1 25) The Hardy-Weinberg equation p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 allows you to calculate A) population declines. B) genotype frequencies. C) genome frequencies. D) population abundance and mating patterns. Answer: B Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1 26) In a population of 200 mice, brown fur is dominant to gray fur. If 120 of the 200 mice have brown fur, what is the frequency of mice that are heterozygous? A) 46% B) 23% C) 37% D) 63% Answer: A Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G4

27) In a population of 200 seagulls, dark brown feathers are dominant to having only white feathers. If 160 of the 200 seagulls have brown feathers, what is the frequency of seagulls that are homozygous dominant? A) 31% B) 55% C) 49% D) 25% Answer: A Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G4 28) Why is the Hardy-Weinberg model useful? A) It allows you to calculate genotype frequencies of a population and compare them to what was expected under the assumptions. B) It is used under the assumption that natural selection is occurring, thus providing a quantitative method to detect genetic drift in a population. C) It allows you to get an accurate count of the total population size. D) It allows you to get a total count of all individuals in a population and compare those values to an equilibrium. Answer: A Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1 29) The frequency of a disease is 30/1000. This is a disease that follows a dominant/recessive pattern of inheritance on one gene (where the only affected individuals are all homozygous recessive). What is the frequency of the disease genotype q2? A) 3% B) 13% C) 6% D) 30% Answer: A Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G4

30) Imagine you predict a particular frequency for a genotype, based upon detailed knowledge of that genotype frequency in population "X" of a species. Then, using the Hardy-Weinberg model, you find that the observed genotype frequency in a different population, named "Y" of the same species, is not significantly different from what you predicted/expected based on population "X." Which of the following should you conclude? A) The particular gene of interest is not undergoing any mechanisms of evolution. B) Population Y must have diverged, and macroevolution has occurred. C) Population Y is undergoing mutation, natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow. D) The particular gene of interest is evolving through some mechanism. Answer: A Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2 31) In evolution, which driving factor most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence? A) mutation B) nonrandom mating C) genetic drift D) natural selection Answer: C Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1, G7 32) Evolution of a gene A) must happen, due to organisms' innate desire to survive. B) must happen whenever a population is not well adapted to its environment. C) can happen whenever any of the conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are not met for that particular gene. D) requires the operation of natural selection. Answer: C Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1, G2, G7

33) Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing A) nonrandom mating. B) geographic isolation. C) genetic drift. D) gene flow. Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1, G7 34) If the original finches that flew over to the Galápagos Islands from South America had already been genetically different from the parental population of South American finches, even before adapting to the Galápagos, this would have been an example of A) genetic drift. B) the bottleneck effect. C) the founder effect. D) genetic drift and the founder effect. Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1, G7 35) Which of the following statements best summarizes evolution as it is viewed today? A) It represents the result of selection for acquired characteristics. B) It is synonymous with the process of gene flow. C) It is the descent of humans from the present-day great apes. D) It is the differential survival and reproduction of the most-fit phenotypes. Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1, G7 36) What is the founder effect? A) a selection of the best-suited traits for the environment B) a series of chance events that change allele frequency C) when a few individuals become isolated from a larger population and their gene pool differs from that source population D) a sudden change in the environment that reduces the size of the population Answer: C Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

37) Which one of the genetic drift effects would limit natural selection? A) allele frequencies change at random B) loss of genetic variation C) cause harmful alleles to be fixed D) alter frequencies in small population Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1, G2 38) How can gene flow improve adaptation of population? A) Alleles mutate in different geographical areas. B) Alleles increase in frequency in original population. C) Beneficial alleles are transferred to a new population. D) Allele frequencies decrease in new population. Answer: C Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1, G7 39) What is true of natural selection? A) Natural selection is a random process. B) Natural selection creates beneficial mutations. C) The only way to eliminate harmful mutations is through natural selection. D) Mutations occur at random; natural selection can preserve and distribute beneficial mutations. Answer: D Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 40) What is the result of adaptive evolution? A) formation of new genetic variants B) sorting by natural selection C) increase in frequency of alleles that provide reproductive advantage D) survival of the fittest Answer: C Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G7

41) The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from successful attack by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by the restriction enzymes. The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these restriction enzymes because bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation selects for bacteriophages whose genomes are also methylated. As new strains of resistant bacteriophages become more prevalent, this in turn selects for bacteria whose genomes are not methylated and whose restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. The outcome of the conflict between bacteria and bacteriophage at any point in time results from A) frequency-dependent selection. B) evolutionary imbalance. C) heterozygote advantage. D) neutral variation. Answer: A Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G2, G7 42) Sexual dimorphism is most often a result of A) pansexual selection. B) stabilizing selection. C) intrasexual selection. D) intersexual selection. E) artificial selection. Answer: D Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1 43) Adult male humans generally have deeper voices than do adult female humans, which is the direct result of higher levels of testosterone causing growth of the larynx. If the fossil records of apes and humans alike show a trend toward decreasing larynx size in adult females and increasing larynx size in adult males, then A) sexual dimorphism was developing over time in these species. B) intrasexual selection seems to have occurred. C) stabilizing selection was occurring in these species concerning larynx size. D) selection was acting more directly upon genotype than upon phenotype. Answer: A Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G2, G7

44) Which of the following is most likely to produce an African butterfly species in the wild whose members have one pattern? A) artificial selection B) directional selection C) stabilizing selection D) disruptive selection Answer: C Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1 45) Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch. Starlings producing fewer, or more, than this have reduced fitness. Which of the following terms best describes this situation? A) artificial selection B) directional selection C) stabilizing selection D) disruptive selection E) sexual selection Answer: C Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G7 46) Heterozygote advantage should be most closely linked to which of the following? A) sexual selection B) stabilizing selection C) random selection D) directional selection E) disruptive selection Answer: B Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G7 47) In seedcracker finches from Cameroon, small- and large-billed birds specialize in cracking soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long-term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate on the finch population? A) disruptive selection B) directional selection C) stabilizing selection D) No selection would operate because the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Answer: B Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G2, G7

48) The same gene that causes various coat patterns in wild and domesticated cats also causes a cross-eyed condition in these cats, the cross-eyed condition being slightly maladaptive. In a hypothetical environment, the coat pattern that is associated with crossed eyes is highly adaptive, with the result that both the coat pattern and the cross-eyed condition increase in a feline population over time. Which statement is supported by these observations? A) Evolution is progressive and tends toward a more perfect population. B) Phenotype is often the result of compromise. C) Natural selection reduces the frequency of maladaptive genes in populations over the course of time. D) Polygenic inheritance is generally maladaptive and should become less common in future generations. Answer: B Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G2 49) Identify the statement that describes the imperfection of natural selection. A) Natural selection has not had sufficient time to create the optimal design in each case but will do so given enough time. B) In many cases, phenotype is not merely determined by genotype but by the environment as well. C) Though we may not consider the fit between the current skeletal arrangements and their functions excellent, we should not doubt that natural selection ultimately produces the best design. D) Natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were present in previous generations and in previous species. Answer: D Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G7 50) In a hypothetical population's gene pool, an autosomal gene, which had previously been fixed, undergoes a mutation that introduces a new allele, one inherited according to incomplete dominance. Natural selection then causes stabilizing selection at this locus. Consequently, what should happen over the course of many generations? A) The proportions of both types of homozygote should decrease. B) The proportion of the population that is heterozygous at this locus should remain constant. C) The population's average heterozygosity should decrease. D) The two homozygotes should decrease at different rates. Answer: B Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G2, G5

51) Mountains also have an unmatched power to drive human evolution. Starting tens of thousands of years ago, people moved to high altitudes, and there they experienced natural selection that has reworked their biology. In Tibet, for example, people have broader arteries and capillaries. In the Andes, they can dissolve more oxygen into their blood. These different traits of people who live in high altitudes illustrate A) stabilizing evolution. B) sexual selection. C) adaptive evolution. D) acclimatization. Answer: C Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G2

21.2 Art Questions 1) Blue light is a portion of the visible spectrum that penetrates deep into bodies of water. Ultraviolet (UV) light, though, can penetrate even deeper. A gene within a population of marine fish that inhabits depths from 500 m to 1,000 m has an allele for a photopigment that is sensitive to UV light and another allele for a photopigment that is sensitive to blue light. Which of the graphs in Figure 21.1 best depicts the predicted distribution of these alleles within a population if the fish that carry these alleles prefer to locate themselves where they can see best?

Figure 21.1 A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G3

2) Anopheles mosquitoes, which carry the malaria parasite, cannot live above elevations of 5,900 feet. In addition, oxygen availability decreases with higher altitude. Consider a hypothetical human population that is adapted to life on the slopes of Mt. Kilimanjaro in Tanzania, a country in equatorial Africa. Mt. Kilimanjaro's base is about 2,600 feet above sea level, and its peak is 19,341 feet above sea level. If the incidence of the sickle-cell allele in the population is plotted against altitude (feet above sea level), which of the following distributions is most likely, assuming little migration of people up or down the mountain? A)

Answer: B Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G3, G5 3) Use Figure 21.2 to answer the following question.

Figure 21.2 Soon after the island of Hawaii rose above the sea surface (somewhat less than 1 million years ago), the evolution of life on this new island should have been most strongly influenced by A) genetic bottleneck. B) sexual selection. C) habitat differentiation. D) founder effect. Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1, G2, G3 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Figure 21.3 In a very large population, a quantitative trait has the distribution pattern shown in Figure 21.3. If the curve in Figure 21.3 shifts to the left or to the right, there is no gene flow, and the population size consequently increases over successive generations. Which of the following is (are) probably occurring? A) immigration or emigration only B) genetic drift only C) directional selection and adaptation D) genetic drift and disruptive selection E) immigration or emigration, directional selection, and adaptation Answer: C Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G2, G3

Please use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

5) Examining the figure, which type of selection has two peaks of frequency of individuals? A) directional selection B) disruptive selection C) stabilizing selection D) natural selection Answer: B Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G2, G3, G9

6) Examining the figure, which type of selection eliminates extreme frequency of individuals' phenotype? A) directional selection B) disruptive selection C) stabilizing selection D) natural selection Answer: C Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G2, G3, G9 21.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. HIV's genome of RNA includes the code for reverse transcriptase (RT), an enzyme that acts early in infection to synthesize a DNA genome off an RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme that acts later in infection by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller, functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, whereas drugs called protease inhibitors (PI) act against PR. 1) Which of the following represents the treatment option most likely to avoid the production of drug-resistant HIV (assuming no drug interactions or side effects)? A) using a series of NAs, one at a time, and changed about once a week B) using a single PI but slowly increasing the dosage over the course of a week C) using high doses of NA and a PI at the same time for a period not to exceed one day D) using moderate doses of NA and two different PIs at the same time for several months Answer: D Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G5 2) Every HIV particle contains two RNA molecules. If two genes from one RNA molecule become detached and then, as a unit, get attached to one end of the other RNA molecule within a single HIV particle, which of these is true? A) There are now fewer genes within the viral particle. B) There are now more genes within the viral particle. C) A point substitution mutation has occurred in the retroviral genome. D) One of the RNA molecules has experienced gene duplication as the result of translocation. Answer: D Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G5

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 25% of the animals display a recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the beginning of the breeding program. The rest of the animals show the dominant phenotype, with heterozygotes indistinguishable from the homozygous dominants. 3) What is the most reasonable conclusion that can be drawn from the fact that the frequency of the recessive trait (aa) has not changed over time? A) The population is undergoing genetic drift. B) The two phenotypes are about equally adaptive under laboratory conditions. C) The genotype AA is lethal. D) There has been a high rate of mutation of allele A to allele a. Answer: B Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G3, G7 4) What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool? A) 0.25 B) 0.50 C) 0.75 D) 0.125 Answer: B Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G4 5) What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa) for this trait? A) 0.05 B) 0.25 C) 0.50 D) 0.75 Answer: C Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G3, G4

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. You are studying three populations of birds. Population A has 10 birds, of which 1 is brown (a recessive trait) and 9 are red. Population B has 100 birds, of which 10 are brown. Population C has 30 birds, and 3 of them are brown. 6) In which population would it be least likely that an accident would significantly alter the frequency of the brown allele? A) population A B) population B C) population C Answer: B Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G4 7) Which population is most likely to be subject to the bottleneck effect? A) population A B) population B C) population C Answer: A Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.3, G2, V&C 1 Please use the following information to answer the questions below. In those parts of equatorial Africa where the malaria parasite is most common, the sickle-cell allele constitutes 20% of the β hemoglobin alleles in the human gene pool. 8) With respect to the sickle-cell allele, what should be true of the β hemoglobin locus in U.S. populations of African Americans whose ancestors were from equatorial Africa? 1. The average heterozygosity at this locus should be decreasing over time. 2. There is an increasing heterozygote advantage at this locus. 3. Diploidy is helping to preserve the sickle-cell allele at this locus. 4. Frequency-dependent selection is helping to preserve the sickle-cell allele at this locus. A) 1 only B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 1, 2, and 3 E) 1, 2, and 4 Answer: B Topic: 21.1 Genetic variation makes evolution possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G3, G5

9) Although selection is clearly present, if the ideal equilibrium of alleles existed, what should be the proportion of heterozygous individuals in populations who live here? A) 0.04 B) 0.16 C) 0.20 D) 0.32 E) 0.80 Answer: D Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G4 10) Again, if this population were in equilibrium, and if the sickle-cell allele is recessive, what proportion of the population should be susceptible to sickle-cell disease under typical conditions? A) 0.04 B) 0.16 C) 0.20 D) 0.32 E) 0.80 Answer: A Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G4 11) Considering the overall human population of the U.S. mainland at the time when the slave trade brought large numbers of people from equatorial Africa, what was primarily acting to change the frequency of the sickle-cell allele in the overall U.S. population? A) natural selection B) gene flow C) genetic drift D) founder effect Answer: B Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1, G2, G5

12) The sickle-cell allele is pleiotropic (i.e., it affects more than one phenotypic trait). Specifically, this allele affects oxygen delivery to tissues and affects an individual's susceptibility to malaria. Under conditions of low atmospheric oxygen availability, individuals heterozygous for this allele can experience life-threatening sickle-cell "crises." Such individuals remain less susceptible to malaria. Thus, pleiotropic genes/alleles such as this can help explain why A) new advantageous alleles do not arise on demand. B) evolution is limited by historical constraints. C) adaptations are often compromises. D) chance events can affect the evolutionary history of populations. Answer: C Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1, G2, G5, G7 13) In the United States, the parasite that causes malaria is not present, but African Americans whose ancestors were from equatorial Africa are present. What should be happening to the sickle-cell allele in the United States, and what should be happening to it in equatorial Africa? A) stabilizing selection; disruptive selection B) disruptive selection; stabilizing selection C) disruptive selection; directional selection D) directional selection; disruptive selection Answer: D Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1, G2, G7 Please use the following information to answer the question(s) below. In the year 2500, five male space colonists and five female space colonists (all unrelated to each other) settle on an uninhabited Earthlike planet in the Andromeda galaxy. The colonists and their offspring randomly mate for generations. All 10 of the original colonists had free earlobes, and 2 were heterozygous for that trait. The allele for free earlobes is dominant to the allele for attached earlobes. 14) Which of these is closest to the allele frequency in the founding population? A) 0.1 a, 0.9 A B) 0.2 a, 0.8 A C) 0.5 a, 0.5 A D) 0.8 a, 0.2 A E) 0.4 a, 0.6 A Answer: A Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G4

15) If you assume that Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium applies to the population of colonists on this planet, about how many people will have attached earlobes when the planet's population reaches 10,000? A) 100 B) 400 C) 800 D) 1,000 E) 10,000 Answer: A Topic: 21.2 The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test whether a population is evolving Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.2, V&C 1, G2, G4 16) If four of the original colonists died before they produced offspring, the ratios of genotypes could be quite different in the subsequent generations. This would be an example of A) diploidy. B) gene flow. C) genetic drift. D) disruptive selection. E) stabilizing selection. Answer: C Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1, G2 17) You are maintaining a small population of fruit flies in the laboratory by transferring the flies to a new culture bottle after each generation. After several generations, you notice the viability of the flies has decreased greatly. Recognizing that small population size is likely to be linked to decreased viability, the best way to reverse this trend is to A) cross your flies with flies from another lab. B) reduce the number of flies that you transfer at each generation. C) transfer only the largest flies. D) change the temperature at which you rear the flies. E) shock the flies with a brief treatment of heat or cold to make them more hardy. Answer: A Topic: 21.3 Natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow can alter allele frequencies in a population Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 21.3, V&C 1, G2

18) Swine are vulnerable to infection by bird flu virus and human flu virus, which can both be present in an individual pig at the same time. When this occurs, it is possible for genes from bird flu virus and human flu virus to be combined. If the human flu virus contributes a gene for Tamiflu resistance (Tamiflu is an antiviral drug) to the new virus, and if the new virus is introduced to an environment lacking Tamiflu, then what is most likely to occur? A) The new virus will maintain its Tamiflu-resistance gene, just in case of future exposure to Tamiflu. B) The Tamiflu-resistance gene will undergo mutations that convert it into a gene that has a useful function in this environment. C) If the Tamiflu-resistance gene involves a cost, it will experience directional selection leading to reduction in its frequency. D) If the Tamiflu-resistance gene confers no benefit in the current environment and has no cost, the virus will become dormant until Tamiflu is present. Answer: C Topic: 21.4 Natural selection is the only mechanism that consistently causes adaptive evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 21.4, V&C 1 21.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Natural selection changes allele frequencies because some ________ survive and reproduce more successfully than others. A) alleles B) loci C) species D) individuals Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) No two people are genetically identical, except for identical twins. The main source of genetic variation among human individuals is A) new mutations that occurred in the preceding generation. B) genetic drift. C) the reshuffling of alleles in sexual reproduction. D) environmental effects. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3) Sparrows with average-sized wings survive severe storms better than those with longer or shorter wings, illustrating A) the bottleneck effect. B) disruptive selection. C) frequency-dependent selection. D) stabilizing selection. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) If the nucleotide variability of a locus equals 0%, what is the gene variability and number of alleles at that locus? A) gene variability = 0%; number of alleles = 0 B) gene variability = 0%; number of alleles = 1 C) gene variability = 0%; number of alleles = 2 D) gene variability > 0%; number of alleles = 2 Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) There are 25 individuals in population 1, all with genotype AA, and there are 40 individuals in population 2, all with genotype aa. Assume these populations are located far from each other and that their environmental conditions are very similar. Based on the information given here, the observed genetic variation most likely resulted from A) genetic drift. B) gene flow. C) nonrandom mating. D) directional selection. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) A fruit fly population has a gene with two alleles, A1 and A2. Tests show that 70% of the gametes produced in the population contain the A1 allele. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what proportion of the flies carry both A1 and A2? A) 0.7 B) 0.49 C) 0.42 D) 0.21 Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 22 The Origin of Species 22.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about species, as defined by the biological species concept, is (are) correct? I. Biological species are defined by reproductive isolation. II. Biological species are the models used for grouping extinct forms of life. III. The biological species is the largest unit of population in which successful interbreeding is possible. A) I and II only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) I, II, and III Answer: B Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G7 2) There is still some controversy among biologists about whether Neanderthals should be placed within the same species as modern humans or into a separate species of their own. Most DNA sequence data analyzed so far indicate that there was interbreeding between Neanderthals and humans; however, it appears to have been limited and mostly unidirectional (Neanderthal genes are present in Homo sapiens DNA, but there exists little to no evidence of the DNA of Homo sapiens in the small number of genomes sequenced from Neanderthal fossils. Which species concept is most applicable as a method of analysis in this example? A) phylogenetic B) ecological C) morphological D) biological Answer: A Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G2, G7

3) You are an undergraduate student working with a graduate student in an entomology lab, and she presents you with a box of preserved grasshoppers of various species that are new to science and have not been described. Your assignment is to help her separate them into species. There is no accompanying information as to where or when they were collected. Which species concept will you have to use? A) biological B) phylogenetic C) ecological D) morphological Answer: D Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G2, G7 4) Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the offspring fail to develop and hatch. What is the mechanism for keeping the two frog species separate? A) the postzygotic barrier, reduced hybrid viability B) the postzygotic barrier, hybrid breakdown C) the prezygotic barrier, reduced hybrid fertility D) the prezygotic barrier, gametic isolation Answer: A Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1 5) Dogs (Canis lupus familiaris) and gray wolves (Canis lupus) can interbreed to produce viable, fertile offspring. These species shared a common ancestor recently (in geologic time) and have a high degree of genetic similarity, although their anatomies vary widely. Judging from this evidence, which two species concepts are most likely to place dogs and wolves together into a single species? A) ecological and phylogenetic B) morphological and phylogenetic C) biological and morphological D) biological and phylogenetic Answer: D Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G2, G7

6) Which of the following statements about speciation is correct? A) The end result of natural selection is always speciation. B) Natural selection chooses the reproductive barriers for populations. C) It always takes millions of years for speciation to occur. D) Speciation is a basis for understanding macroevolution. Answer: D Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G7 7) Which of the following criteria used in classification is the most easily evaluated by the observer? A) morphology B) biochemistry C) physiology D) DNA sequence Answer: A Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.1, G2, V&C 1 8) A species is represented by individuals that form a population A) whose members have the ability to interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring. B) whose members have the ability to interbreed but do not produce viable offspring. C) but are reproductively incompatible. D) but are distinct biological species that live in the same area. Answer: A Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1 9) Which of the following reproductive types of isolation illustrates postzygotic barriers? A) habitat isolation B) mechanical isolation C) temporal isolation D) hybrid breakdown Answer: D Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1

10) When the only evidence available for two extinct species is their fossil record, evaluation of reproductive isolation and the biological species concept is not useful. However, the phylogenetic species concept could potentially differentiate the species by using evolutionary history to describe A) morphology traits shared by the smallest group of individuals of each species that share a common ancestor. B) the ecological niches of each, interacting with living and nonliving parts of their environment. C) their gametic compatibility. D) their temporal isolation. Answer: A Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G2 11) Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum) and one-seeded juniper (J. monosperma) have overlapping ranges. If pollen grains (which contain sperm cells) from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female ovules (which contain egg cells) of the other species, then which of these terms are applicable? 1. sympatric species 2. prezygotic isolation 3. postzygotic isolation 4. allopatric species 5. habitat isolation 6. reduced hybrid fertility A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 4 only C) 1, 3, and 6 only D) 2, 4, and 5 only E) 1, 2, 5, and 6 only Answer: A Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G2

12) In a hypothetical situation, a certain species of flea feeds only on the blood of pronghorn antelopes. In rangelands of the western United States, pronghorns and cattle often associate with one another. If some of these pronghorn-feeding fleas develop a strong preference for cattle blood and mate only with other fleas that prefer cattle blood, then over time which of these should occur, if the host mammal can be considered as the fleas' habitat? 1. reproductive isolation 2. sympatric speciation 3. habitat isolation 4. prezygotic barriers A) 1 only B) 2 and 3 C) 1, 2, and 3 D) 2, 3, and 4 E) 1 through 4 Answer: E Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G2 13) Which of the following correctly describes, or is an example of, habitat isolation? A) Members of different frog species never come in contact due to a difference in mating season. B) Members of different bird species never come in contact due to differences in their songs or mating calls. C) Members of the same species never come in contact due to a geographic barrier to interbreeding. D) Morphological features such as size or incompatible genitalia prevent interbreeding. E) Members of different plant species are in flower at different times of the season, minimizing interbreeding. Answer: C Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G2

14) Imagine a male dragonfly is flying around in an aggressive pattern to find an appropriate mate in a wetland with many species of dragonflies and damselflies. Finally, he spots a female dragonfly that appears to be of the same species, based on her flight behavior and color, and the two mate. The sperm of the male, however, are unable to fertilize the eggs of the female when she lays them because her egg cell membrane proteins and carbohydrates do not recognize and bind to the male's sperm. This is an example of A) reduced hybrid viability. B) behavioral isolation. C) a postzygotic barrier. D) mechanical isolation. E) gametic isolation. Answer: E Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G2 15) Imagine two species of snakes that live in a tropical rain forest of Malaysia do not typically interbreed. In nature, one species is ground-dwelling and feeds mainly on insects and small amphibians near water, whereas the other snake feeds in the lower to mid-canopy of trees and vines rising from the forest floor. However, at a zoo in Singapore where they were kept in the same gallery exhibit, the two species were observed interbreeding and produced viable offspring. Which of the following reproductive barriers is most likely preventing these species from interbreeding in the forest? A) reduced hybrid viability B) habitat isolation C) a postzygotic barrier D) mechanical isolation E) gametic isolation Answer: B Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G2 16) Macroevolution occurs A) only when reproductive barriers, either pre- or post-zygotic, prevent all gene flow between two populations. B) when reproductive barriers, either pre- or post-zygotic, genetically isolate species, even in the presence of some gene flow between two populations. C) when species populations undergo changes in allele frequencies over time. D) when species morphology from genetic change causes their physical similarity to drift apart. Answer: B Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1

17) Microevolution occurs A) only when reproductive barriers, either pre- or post-zygotic, prevent all gene flow between two populations. B) when species diverge. C) when species populations undergo changes in allele frequencies over time. D) when reproductive barriers, either pre- or post-zygotic, genetically isolate species to the point where they no longer interbreed to produce viable offspring. Answer: C Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1 18) Among known plant species, which of these are the two most commonly occurring phenomena that have led to the origin of new species? 1. allopatric speciation 2. sympatric speciation 3. sexual selection 4. polyploidy A) 1 and 3 only B) 1 and 4 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 2 and 4 only Answer: D Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2 19) The origin of a new plant species by hybridization, coupled with accidents during cell division, is an example of A) allopatric speciation. B) sympatric speciation. C) autopolyploidy. D) habitat selection. Answer: B Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1

20) The most likely explanation for the high rate of sympatric speciation that apparently existed among the cichlids of Lake Victoria in the past is A) sexual selection. B) habitat differentiation. C) polyploidy. D) pollution. E) introduction of a new predator. Answer: A Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1 21) More species tend to be found in regions subdivided by rivers, canyons, mountains, or other human-induced barriers because of A) geographic isolation. B) absence of geographic isolation. C) gene flow. D) gene drift. Answer: A Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1 22) After geographic separation, what process would be the last step before reproductive isolation? A) gene pool divergence B) mutation C) natural selection D) genetic drift Answer: C Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1 23) How can reproductive barriers form between sympatric populations while their members stay in contact with them? A) increased gene flow B) increased polyploidy C) decreased habitat differentiation D) decreased sexual selection Answer: B Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G7

24) Which of the following descriptions of polyploidy indicate speciation? A) An accident during cell division results in an extra set of chromosomes. B) An individual has more than two chromosome sets from a single species. C) Two different species interbreed and produce hybrid offspring. D) Allopolyploids mate with each other but cannot interbreed with parent species. Answer: D Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2 25) Which one of the following choices describes an advantage of the biological species concept? A) lack of methodology to evaluate fossil reproduction B) does not apply to organisms that reproduce asexually C) overemphasizes absence of gene flow D) describes speciation by the evolution of reproductive isolation Answer: D Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1 26) "Conventional wisdom holds that the development of separate species happens quickly, most often when populations become separated by a geographical barrier." This is called ________ speciation. "Even if these groups meet again and manage to mate before diverging too far from one another, their offspring will be unfit and die out." This is described as hybrid ________. A) sympatric; viability B) allopatric; fertility C) sympatric; breakdown D) allopatric; breakdown Answer: D Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1 27) You find a plant that is larger than others in your wheat field. When you examine the chromosomes of this plant during cell division, you observe that the cells have double chromosome numbers of the other wheat plants. You conclude this is an autopolyploid plant representing a new biological species in your wheat field when you observe A) fertile tetrapods produced by self-pollinating. B) production of hybrid organisms. C) allopolyploids interbreeding with parents. D) ancestral sterile plants. Answer: A Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) In the ocean, on either side of the Isthmus of Panama, are 30 species of snapping shrimp; some are shallow-water species, and others are adapted to deep water. There are 15 species on the Pacific side and 15 different species on the Atlantic side. The Isthmus of Panama started rising about 10 million years ago. The oceans were completely separated by the isthmus about 3 million years ago. Why should deepwater shrimp on different sides of the isthmus have diverged from each other earlier than shallow-water shrimp? A) They have been geographically isolated from each other for a longer time. B) Cold temperatures, associated with deep water, have accelerated the mutation rate, resulting in faster divergence in deepwater shrimp. C) The rise of the land bridge was accompanied by much volcanic activity. Volcanic ash contains heavy metals, which are known mutagens. Ash fall caused high levels of heavy metals in the ocean sediments underlying the deep water, resulting in accelerated mutation rates and faster divergence in deepwater shrimp. D) Fresh water entering the ocean from the canal is both less dense and cloudier than seawater. The cloudy fresh water interferes with the ability of shallow-water shrimp to locate mating partners, which reduces the frequency of mating, thereby slowing the introduction of genetic variation. Answer: A Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2 29) Imagine a very large volcanic eruption occurs, and a 20 km-wide lava flow moves into a valley and separates it into two halves. How might this affect resident species with regard to allopatric speciation? A) The lava flow area will cause a geographic barrier that promotes speciation among the majority of species populating the area. B) The effect of the lava flow on allopatric speciation will depend on the identity and traits of the various species present, including their abundance and respective mobility within the valley. C) The effects of the lava flow on speciation will depend on to what extent the various individuals present at the time can adapt to the new lava in the environment. D) The lava flow will not cause much allopatric speciation to populations in the area because species that are present will be able to move across and around the lava flow. Answer: B Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2

30) Which of the following statements is most accurate? A) Biological reproductive barriers always occur after physical separation of populations. B) Biological reproductive barriers occur as a direct result of geographic isolation of populations. C) Geographic separation may result in biological barriers over time if populations of a species in the newly isolated regions undergo selective pressures that promote biological isolation and prevent successful reproduction if the species were to again come into contact later. D) Biological reproductive barriers may prevent successful interbreeding even when geographic isolation has occurred, and two populations do not come into contact with each other. Answer: C Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2 31) The form of speciation that requires the emergence of a reproductive barrier that isolates a subset of a population from the remainder of the population in the same area is A) allopatric. B) sympatric. C) reduced hybrid fertility. D) geographic isolation. Answer: B Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1 32) Which of these phrases describes a stable hybrid zone? A) obstacle to gene flow B) reduced hybrid viability C) reduced hybrid fertility D) continued production of hybrid individuals Answer: D Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1 33) Which mechanism would reverse speciation? A) increased gene flow B) gene pools of the two species becoming increasingly different C) increased ability of females to discriminate mates D) decreased production of hybrids Answer: A Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1

34) Sexual selection in cichlids occurs by female mate choice and results in reproductive isolation when A) subpopulations exploit a habitat not used by the parent population. B) under normal light, each species prefers males of their own species. C) all species have extra sets of chromosomes. D) under orange light, each species prefers orange mates. Answer: B Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1 35) A hybrid zone is properly defined as A) an area where two closely related species' ranges overlap. B) an area where mating occurs between members of two closely related species, producing viable offspring. C) a zone that features a gradual change in species composition where two neighboring ecosystems border each other. D) a zone that includes the intermediate portion of a cline. E) an area where members of two closely related species co-inhabit but experience no gene flow. Answer: B Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1 36) Which of these should decline in hybrid zones where reinforcement is occurring? A) gene flow between distinct gene pools B) speciation C) the genetic distinctness of two gene pools D) mutation rate E) hybrid sterility Answer: A Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1 37) The most likely explanation for the recent decline in cichlid species diversity in Lake Victoria is A) reinforcement. B) fusion. C) stability. D) geographic isolation. Answer: B Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1

38) A narrow hybrid zone separates the toad species Bombina bombina and Bombina variegata. What is true of those alleles that are unique to the parental species? A) Such alleles should be absent. B) Their allele frequency should be nearly the same as the allele frequencies in toad populations distant from the hybrid zone. C) The alleles' heterozygosity should be higher among the hybrid toads there. D) Their allele frequency on one edge of the hybrid zone should be roughly equal to their frequency on the opposite edge of the hybrid zone. Answer: C Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1, G2 39) Evolution of a new species can occur A) as a result of individuals acquiring mutations in reaction to environmental changes in their surroundings. B) only over many generations of a species. C) only if species are separated geographically. D) in two populations of a species over as little as one generation, even if they are not reproductively, biologically, or geographically isolated. Answer: D Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1, G2 40) Which of the following processes occurs first in order to begin speciation? A) single gene change B) formation of mechanical barrier to reproduction C) postzygotic hybrid sterility in Drosophila D) interruption of gene flow between two populations Answer: D Topic: 22.4 Speciation can occur rapidly or slowly and can result from changes in few or many genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.4, V&C 1, G2 41) The mechanism of macroevolution occurs by A) multiple acts of speciation on an ancestral organism. B) continuation of gene flow between populations. C) weakening of barriers to reproductive isolation. D) appearing in the fossil record of species with similar morphologies. Answer: A Topic: 22.4 Speciation can occur rapidly or slowly and can result from changes in few or many genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.4, V&C 1 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum) and one-seeded juniper (J. monosperma) have overlapping ranges. If pollen grains (which contain sperm cells) from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female ovules (which contain egg cells) of the other species, then which of these terms is applicable? A) behavioral isolation B) mechanical isolation C) hybrid breakdown D) reduced hybrid viability Answer: B Topic: 22.4 Speciation can occur rapidly or slowly and can result from changes in few or many genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.4, V&C 1, G2 43) Speciation A) occurs at such a slow pace that no one has ever observed the emergence of new species. B) occurs only by the accumulation of genetic change over vast expanses of time. C) must begin with the geographic isolation of a small, frontier population. D) occurs when one species splits into two or more species. Answer: D Topic: 22.4 Speciation can occur rapidly or slowly and can result from changes in few or many genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.4, V&C 1

22.2 Art Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. In the ocean, on either side of the Isthmus of Panama, are 30 species of snapping shrimp; some are shallow-water species, and others are adapted to deep water. There are 15 species on the Pacific side and 15 different species on the Atlantic side. The Isthmus of Panama started rising about 10 million years ago. In Figure 22.1, the isthmus separates the Pacific Ocean on the left (side from the Atlantic Ocean on the right (side B). The seawater on either side of the isthmus is separated into five depth habitats (15), with 1 being the shallowest.

Figure 22.1 1) In which habitat should you find snapping shrimp most closely related to shrimp that live in habitat A4? A) A3 B) A5 C) B4 D) either A3 or A5 E) any species from any one of the side A habitats Answer: C Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2, G3 2) Which of these habitats is likely to harbor the youngest species? A) A5 B) B4 C) A3 D) B2 E) A1 Answer: E Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2, G3 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Which habitats should harbor snapping shrimp species with the greatest degree of genetic divergence from each other? A) A1 and A5 B) A1 and B5 C) B5 and B1 D) A5 and B5 E) Both A1/A5 and B1/B5 should have the greatest, but equal amounts of, genetic divergence. Answer: D Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2, G3 4) Which factor is most important for explaining why there are equal numbers of snapping shrimp species on either side of the isthmus? A) the relative shortness of time they have been separated B) the depth of the ocean C) the number of actual depth habitats between the surface and the sea floor D) the elevation of the isthmus above sea level E) the depth of the canal Answer: A Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2, G3 5) There are currently two large, permanent bridges that span the Panama Canal. The bridges are about 8 miles apart. If snapping shrimp avoid swimming at night and avoid swimming under shadows, then what do these bridges represent for the snapping shrimp? A) sources of refuge B) geographic barriers C) sources of a hybrid zone between the two bridges D) sources for increased gene flow Answer: B Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2, G3

6) The Panama Canal was completed in 1914, and its depth is about 50 feet. After 1914, snapping shrimp species from which habitats should be most likely to form hybrids as the result of the canal? A) A5 and B5 B) A3 and B3 C) A1 and B1 D) either A1 and A2 or B1 and B2 E) A1-A3 and B1-B3 have equal likelihoods of harboring snapping shrimp species that can hybridize. Answer: C Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1, G2, G3

7) In a hypothetical situation, the National Park Service, which administers Grand Canyon National Park in Arizona, builds a footbridge over the Colorado River at the bottom of the canyon. The footbridge permits migration to occur between populations of two closely related antelope squirrels. Previously, one type of squirrel had been restricted to the terrain south of the river, and the other type had been restricted to terrain on the north side of the river. Immediately before and 10 years after the bridge's completion, researchers collected 10 antelope squirrels from both sides of the river, took blood samples, and collected frequencies of alleles unique to the two types of antelope squirrels (see the graphs in Figures 22.2 and 22.3).

Figure 22.2

Figure 22.3 The data in these graphs indicate that A) a hybrid zone was established after the completion of the bridge. B) there was no migration between the two squirrel populations after the bridge was completed. C) gene flow occurred from one type of squirrel into the gene pool of the other type of squirrel. D) two-way migration of squirrels occurred across the bridge, but without hybridization. E) some northern squirrels migrated south, but no southern squirrels migrated north across the bridge. 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1, G2, G3 The following questions refer to the evolutionary tree in Figure 22.4, whose horizontal axis represents time (present time is on the far right) and whose vertical axis represents morphological change.

Figure 22.4 8) Which species is most closely related to species W? A) V is most closely related to species W. B) X is most closely related to species W. C) Y and Z are equally closely related to W. Answer: A Topic: 22.4 Speciation can occur rapidly or slowly and can result from changes in few or many genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.4, V&C 1, G2, G3, G7

9) Which species is least expected to have a good record of transitional fossils; in other words, which species' fossils, if present at all, are expected only in relatively superficial (that is, shallow) strata? A) V B) W C) X D) Y E) Z Answer: A Topic: 22.4 Speciation can occur rapidly or slowly and can result from changes in few or many genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 22.4, V&C 1, G2, G3, G7 10) Which of these five species originated earliest and appeared suddenly in the fossil record? A) V B) W C) X D) Y E) Z Answer: B Topic: 22.4 Speciation can occur rapidly or slowly and can result from changes in few or many genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.4, V&C 1, G2, G3, G7 11) Which conclusion can be drawn from this evolutionary tree? A) Gradualistic speciation and speciation involving punctuated equilibrium are mutually exclusive concepts. B) Eldredge and Gould would deny that the lineages labeled X, Y, and Z could represent true species. C) Assuming that the tip of each line represents a species, there are five extant (that is, not extinct) species resulting from the earliest common ancestor. D) A single clade (that is, a group of species that share a common ancestor) can exhibit both gradualism and punctuated equilibrium. Answer: D Topic: 22.4 Speciation can occur rapidly or slowly and can result from changes in few or many genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 22.4, V&C 1, G2, G3

12) Which of these five species is the extant (that is, not extinct) species that is most closely related to species X, and why is this so? A) V; shared a common ancestor with X most recently B) W; shared a common ancestor with X most recently C) Y; arose before X D) Z; shared a common ancestor with X Answer: A Topic: 22.4 Speciation can occur rapidly or slowly and can result from changes in few or many genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.4, V&C 1, G2, G3 13)

Figure 22.5 Which of the following is evidence for allopatric speciation by the formation of the Isthmus of Panama? A) One species of the sister species lives on the Pacific side. B) Genetic analyses indicate time of origin. C) Sister species diverge first. D) Coordination of geological evidence demonstrated species divergence. Answer: D Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2, G3 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

14)

Figure 22.6 A hybrid zone is indicated by plotting the frequency of the yellow-belly allele across the distance from the center of the hybrid zone. What is the gene frequency of the fire-bellied toad 20 km from the hybrid zone center? A) 1 B) 0 C) 0.1 D) 10 Answer: C Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1, G2, G3

Figure 22.7 15) Two models for the speed of speciation are based on patterns in the fossil record. Which of the following statements describes the gradual model of evolution? A) Species steadily diverge from one another. B) New species change suddenly. C) Periods of stasis are punctuated by change. D) There is absence of intermediate fossils. Answer: A Topic: 22.4 Speciation can occur rapidly or slowly and can result from changes in few or many genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.4, V&C 1, G3

22.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. On the volcanic, equatorial West African island of Sao Tomé, two species of fruit fly exist. Drosophila yakuba inhabits the island's lowlands and is also found on the African mainland, located about 200 miles away. At higher elevations, and only on Sao Tomé, is found the very closely related Drosophila santomea. The two species can hybridize, though male hybrids are sterile. A hybrid zone exists at middle elevations, though hybrids there are greatly outnumbered by D. santomea. Studies of the two species' nuclear genomes reveal that D. yakuba on the island is more closely related to mainland D. yakuba than to D. santomea (2n = 4 in both species). Sao Tomé rose from the Atlantic Ocean about 14 million years ago. 1) Which of the following reduces gene flow between the gene pools of the two species on Sao Tomé, despite the existence of hybrids? A) hybrid breakdown B) hybrid inviability C) hybrid sterility D) temporal isolation E) a geographic barrier Answer: C Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G2 2) If a speciation event occurred on Sao Tomé, producing D. santomea from a parent colony of D. yakuba, then which of the following terms applies (apply)? I. macroevolution II allopatric speciation III. sympatric speciation A) I only B) II only C) I and II D) I and III Answer: D Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2

3) Using only the information provided in the paragraph, which of the following is the best initial hypothesis for how D. santomea descended from D. yakuba? A) geographic isolation B) autopolyploidy C) habitat differentiation D) sexual selection E) allopolyploidy Answer: C Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2 4) The observation that island D. yakuba are more closely related to mainland D. yakuba than island D. yakuba are to D. santomea is best explained by proposing that D. santomea A) descended from a now-extinct non-African fruit fly. B) arrived on the island before D. yakuba. C) descended from a single colony of D. yakuba, which had been introduced from elsewhere, with no subsequent colonization events. D) descended from an original colony of D. yakuba, of which there are no surviving members. Answer: D Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1, G2

5) Which of these evolutionary trees represents the situation described in the paragraph? (Note: D. yakuba (I) represents the island population, and D. yakuba (M) represents the mainland population.) A)

Answer: A Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1, G2, G3, G7 6) If the low number of hybrid flies in the hybrid zone, relative to the number of D. santomea flies there, is due to the fact that hybrids are poorly adapted to conditions in the hybrid zone, and if fewer hybrid flies are produced with the passage of time, these conditions will most likely lead to A) fusion. B) reinforcement. C) stability. D) further speciation events. Answer: B Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1, G2, G3 Please use the following information to answer the questions below. On the Bahamian island of Andros, mosquitofish populations live in various now-isolated freshwater ponds that were once united. Currently, some predator-rich ponds have mosquitofish that can swim in short, fast bursts; other predator-poor ponds have mosquitofish that can swim continuously for a long time. When placed together in the same body of water, the two kinds of female mosquitofish exhibit exclusive breeding preferences. 7) Which type of reproductive isolation operates to keep the mosquitofish isolated, even when fish from different ponds are reunited in the same body of water? A) behavioral isolation B) habitat isolation C) temporal isolation D) mechanical isolation E) gametic isolation Answer: A Topic: 22.1 The biological species concept emphasizes reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.1, V&C 1, G2

8) Which two of the following have operated to increase divergence between mosquitofish populations on Andros? 1. improved gene flow 2. bottleneck effect 3. sexual selection 4. founder effect 5. natural selection A) 1 and 3 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 2 and 4 only D) 3 and 4 only E) 3 and 5 only Answer: E Topic: 22.2 Speciation can take place with or without geographic separation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 22.2, V&C 1, G2 9) What is the best way to promote fusion between two related populations of mosquitofish, one of which lives in a predator-rich pond, and the other of which lives in a predator-poor pond? A) Build a canal linking the two ponds that permits free movement of mosquitofish but not of predators. B) Transfer only female mosquitofish from a predator-rich pond to a predator-poor pond. C) Perform a reciprocal transfer of females between predator-rich and predator-poor ponds. D) Remove predators from a predator-rich pond and transfer them to a predator-poor pond. Answer: A Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1, G2 10) If you build a canal linking a predator-rich pond to a predator-poor pond, then what type of selection should subsequently be most expected among the mosquitofish in the original predatorrich pond, and what type should be most expected among the mosquitofish in the formerly predator-poor pond? A) stabilizing selection; directional selection B) stabilizing selection; stabilizing selection C) less-intense directional selection; more-intense directional selection D) less-intense disruptive selection; more-intense disruptive selection Answer: C Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1, G2

11) The predatory fish rely on visual cues and speed to capture mosquitofish. Mosquitofish rely on speed and visual cues to avoid the predatory fish. Which adaptation(s) might help the predators survive in ponds that are home to faster mosquitofish? 1. directional selection for increased speed 2. stabilizing selection for speed that matches that of the mosquitofish 3. change in hunting behavior that replaces reliance on visual cues with reliance on tactile cues 4. change in hunting behavior that eliminates speed in favor of better camouflage, which permits an ambush strategy A) 1 only B) 2 only C) either 1 or 3 D) 1, 3, or 4 Answer: D Topic: 22.3 Hybrid zones reveal factors that cause reproductive isolation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 22.3, V&C 1, G2 22.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) The largest unit within which gene flow can readily occur is a A) population. B) species. C) genus. D) hybrid. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Males of different species of the fruit fly Drosophila that live in the same parts of the Hawaiian Islands have different elaborate courtship rituals. These rituals involve fighting other males and making stylized movements that attract females. What type of reproductive isolation does this represent? A) habitat isolation B) temporal isolation C) behavioral isolation D) gametic isolation Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3) According to the punctuated equilibria model, A) natural selection is unimportant as a mechanism of evolution. B) given enough time, most existing species will branch gradually into new species. C) most evolution occurs in sympatric populations. D) most new species accumulate their unique features relatively rapidly as they come into existence, then change little for the rest of their duration as a species. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Bird guides once listed the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler as distinct species. Recently, these birds have been reclassified as eastern and western forms of a single species, the yellow-rumped warbler. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would be cause for this reclassification? A) The two forms interbreed often in nature, and their offspring survive and reproduce well. B) The two forms live in similar habitats and have similar food requirements. C) The two forms have many genes in common. D) The two forms are very similar in coloration. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Which of the following factors would not contribute to allopatric speciation? A) A population becomes geographically isolated from the parent population. B) The separated population is small, and genetic drift occurs. C) The isolated population is exposed to different selection pressures than the ancestral population. D) Gene flow between the two populations is extensive. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Plant species A has a diploid number of 12. Plant species B has a diploid number of 16. A new species, C, arises as an allopolyploid from A and B. The diploid number for species C would probably be A) 14. B) 16. C) 28. D) 56. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 23 Broad Patterns of Evolution 23.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 5,730 years, then a fossil that has 1/16th the normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12 should be about how many years old? A) 1,400 B) 2,800 C) 11,200 D) 22,900 Answer: D Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1, V&C C2, G2, G4 2) What is true of the fossil record of mammalian origins? A) It is a good example of punctuated equilibrium. B) It shows that mammals and birds evolved from the same kind of dinosaur. C) It includes transitional forms with progressively specialized teeth. D) It indicates that mammals and dinosaurs did not overlap in geologic time. Answer: C Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1 3) The first terrestrial organisms probably were considered which of the following? 1. burrowers 2. photosynthetic 3. multicellular 4. prokaryotes 5. eukaryotes 6. plants and their associated fungi A) 2 and 4 only B) 3 and 5 only C) 1, 3, and 5 only D) 2, 3, and 6 only Answer: A Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1, G2

4) The evolution of mammals from early tetrapods A) is well documented by a series of transitional fossils. B) involves specialization in teeth. C) involves changes in the temporal fenestra of the skull. D) is an example of macroevolution. Answer: D Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1 5) Of the following, which is the most abundant source of fossil evidence? A) amber, because a large portion of Earth is vegetated and insects often become trapped in sap B) sedimentary rock, because such rock forms in areas sediment moved by water can cause the burial of organisms C) mud, because such material is heavy and organisms cannot escape from it easily D) ice, because most of Earth has been covered in ice at some point or another Answer: B Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1 6) Radiometric dating is based on the A) decay of radioactive isotopes. B) temperature and pressure of the environment. C) amount of carbon-12 in an organism at time of death. D) ratio of carbon-14 to carbon-12. Answer: A Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1 7) Which event stimulated the rapid development of eukaryotes? A) extinction of some organisms B) addition of oxygen to the atmosphere C) origin of multicellular organisms D) colonization of land Answer: B Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1

8) For purposes of differentiation, what is the unique feature of the jaw fossils of nonmammalian tetrapods? A) The lower and upper jaws hinge between the same bones. B) The lower jaw is composed of several bones. C) There are three bones in the middle ear. D) Teeth are differentiated for function. Answer: B Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1 9) Which group of tetrapods had the first examples of specialized teeth? A) synapsids B) therapsids C) early cynodonts D) late cynodonts Answer: B Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1 10) What is the benefit of using carbon in radioisotope dating, versus using other elements? A) The relatively longer half-life of carbon allows more accurate dating when samples are within the last ~55,000 years. B) The longer half-life of carbon compared with other elements allows more precision in dating, especially for contaminated samples. C) Carbon is relatively rare on Earth, so the presence of carbon can lead researchers to surprising findings compared with other elements. D) Carbon is central to nearly all molecules in living organisms, and its ubiquitous presence in the atmosphere, plus shorter half-life, provides accurate dating of especially recent samples. Answer: D Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1, G2, G7 11) Which of the following statements about the fossil record is correct? A) The fossil record includes more organisms that were abundant, or lived for long periods on Earth, than it is with those that lived for short periods of time and then became extinct. B) The fossil record is richer with organisms that are the same ones as currently common and living on Earth today. C) The fossil record is richer with organisms that resemble organisms that are those alive today. D) A fossil of a rain forest snake would not be found in an area on Earth that is currently a desert. Answer: A Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1, G2, G7 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) If we visualize the time that has passed since the origin of our solar system and Earth, or about 4.6 billion years, as a one-hour clock, then out of one hour, humans have been present on the planet for about A) 30 minutes. B) 15 minutes. C) 1 minute. D) 20 seconds. E) 2/10ths of a second. Answer: E Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1, G2, G4, G7 13) If we visualize the time that has passed since the origin of our solar system and Earth, or about 4.6 billion years, as a one-hour clock, then out of one hour, multicellular eukaryotes have been present on the planet for about A) 45 minutes. B) 15 minutes. C) 10 minutes. D) 30 seconds. E) 1 second. Answer: B Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1, G2, G4, G7 14) If we visualize the time that has passed since the origin of our solar system and Earth, or about 4.6 billion years, as a one-hour clock, then out of one hour, prokaryotes have been present on the planet for about A) 45 minutes. B) 15 minutes. C) 10 minutes. D) 30 seconds. E) 3 seconds. Answer: A Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1, G2, G4, G7

15) Which life form has been present on Earth the longest? A) jawed vertebrates B) humans C) microbes such as bacteria D) single-celled eukaryotes such as protists Answer: C Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1 16) Which statement about the atmosphere and life on Earth is correct? A) Life on Earth arose once oxygen was present. B) Life on Earth arose once temperatures of gases warmed. C) Life on Earth arose before oxygen was present. D) Life on Earth arose once the products of photosynthesis such as oxygen were present. Answer: C Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1 17) The major evolutionary episode corresponding most closely in time with the formation of Pangaea was the A) Cambrian explosion. B) Permian extinctions. C) Pleistocene ice ages. D) Cretaceous extinctions. Answer: B Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1 18) Which effect of continental drift would allow scientists to track the history of life on the planet? A) alteration of habitat B) climate change C) allopatric speciation D) change in distribution of extinct animals Answer: D Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1

19) Which of the following is a biological cause of extinctions? A) habitat destruction B) change in environment temperature C) ocean anoxia D) origin of new species Answer: D Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1 20) A difficulty in presenting evidence for a sixth mass extinction is A) that tropical rain forests harbor many unknown species. B) that species numbers are declining because of habitat loss. C) introduction of new species. D) increased global temperatures. Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1, G7 21) Adaptive radiation A) reduces the size of prosperous ecological communities. B) increases extinction rates. C) allows new species to occupy different habitats. D) observes trends in the fossil record. Answer: C Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1 22) Learning from the history about plate tectonics on Earth, scientists now predict that A) continents will continue moving apart for a few hundred million years more. B) continents may come back together during the next few hundred million years, forming new mountain ranges and larger continents. C) continents will soon slow in their drift and stabilize. D) continents will speed up in their drift across the planet, potentially causing a sixth major extinction event. Answer: B Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1

23) Speciation that occurs when continents move and cause geographic barriers to gene flow and reproduction between populations of species would be termed which of the following? A) allopatric B) sympatric C) peripatric Answer: B Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1, G7 24) The history of continental drift on Earth has A) allowed for speciation to occur. B) allowed for both speciation and extinction to occur. C) caused speciation rates to exceed extinction rates. D) caused speciation to equal extinction rates. Answer: B Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1, G7 25) Records of extinctions on the planet indicate that A) although Earth has experienced five mass extinctions, the diversity of life appears to be greater now than ever before. B) mass extinctions on the planet have caused a steady decline over hundreds of millions of years, both in the numbers and abundance of species. C) mass extinctions have caused the number of predator genera to decline over time. D) extinction rates are highest when global temperatures are lower. Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1, G7 26) Hox genes are a group of related genes that A) control the body plan of an embryo and are conserved across many taxonomic groups. B) do not affect change in location. C) do not affect plant development. D) control the body plan of an embryo of a small portion of animal species. Answer: A Topic: 23.3 Major changes in body form can result from changes in the sequences and regulation of developmental genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3, V&C 1

27) An organism has a relatively large number of Hox genes in its genome. Which of the following is true of this organism? A) These genes are fundamental and are expressed in all cells of the organism. B) The organism must have multiple paired appendages along the length of its body. C) The organism has the genetic potential to have a relatively complex anatomy. D) Most of its Hox genes owe their existence to gene fusion events. Answer: C Topic: 23.3 Major changes in body form can result from changes in the sequences and regulation of developmental genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3, V&C 1 28) A change in the nucleotide sequence of a gene affects function of that gene A) in cells that express that gene. B) but is limited to a single cell type. C) after gene duplication events. D) resulting in paedomorphosis. Answer: A Topic: 23.3 Major changes in body form can result from changes in the sequences and regulation of developmental genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.3, V&C 1, G2 29) Bagworm moth caterpillars feed on evergreens and carry a silken case or bag around with them in which they eventually pupate. Adult female bagworm moths are larval in appearance; they lack the wings and other structures of the adult male and instead retain the appearance of a caterpillar even though they are sexually mature and can lay eggs within the bag. This is a good example of A) allometric growth. B) paedomorphosis. C) sympatric speciation. D) adaptive radiation. Answer: B Topic: 23.3 Major changes in body form can result from changes in the sequences and regulation of developmental genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.3, V&C 1, G2

30) The loss of ventral spines by modern freshwater sticklebacks is due to natural selection operating on the phenotypic effects of Pitx1 gene A) duplication (gain in number). B) elimination (loss). C) mutation (change). D) silencing (loss of expression). Answer: D Topic: 23.3 Major changes in body form can result from changes in the sequences and regulation of developmental genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3, V&C 1, G7 31) Larval flies (maggots) express the Ubx gene in all their segments and thereby lack appendages. If this same gene continued to be expressed throughout subsequent developmental stages, except in the head region, and if the result was a fit, sexually mature organism that still strongly resembled a maggot, this would be an example of A) exaptation. B) homochrony. C) paedomorphosis. D) adaptive radiation. Answer: C Topic: 23.3 Major changes in body form can result from changes in the sequences and regulation of developmental genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.3, V&C 1, G2 32) What type of genes control how flower petals are arranged or where a set of wings on a bird will develop? A) homeotic genes B) paedomorphic genes C) gene sequences D) convergent genes Answer: A Topic: 23.3 Major changes in body form can result from changes in the sequences and regulation of developmental genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3, V&C 1

33) During the Cambrian explosion, fossil evidence indicates a rapid and sudden diversification of more complex animals. However, fossils of Ediacaran animals from 30 million years prior to this demonstrate that genes to produce complex animals had already existed. What could explain this? A) a lack of gene expression due to lack of stress on the Cambrian species B) changes in the environment that brought about selective adaptations and evolution during the Cambrian, repurposing some gene regions through differential regulation C) changes that led to the innate ability of organisms during the Cambrian to mutate in response to environmental pressures or opportunities D) a spatial pattern of organisms across the landscape during the Ediacaran that allowed adaptations and evolution Answer: B Topic: 23.3 Major changes in body form can result from changes in the sequences and regulation of developmental genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3, V&C 1 34) One explanation for the evolution of insect wings suggests that wings began as lateral extensions of the body that were used as heat dissipaters for thermoregulation. When they had become sufficiently large, these extensions became useful for gliding through the air, and selection later refined them as flight-producing wings. If this hypothesis is correct, modern insect wings could best be described as A) adaptations. B) mutations. C) exaptations. D) isolating mechanisms. Answer: C Topic: 23.4 Evolution is not goal oriented Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.4, V&C 1, G2 35) Many species of snakes lay eggs. However, in the forests of northern Minnesota where growing seasons are short, only live-bearing snake species are present. This trend toward species that perform live birth in a particular environment is an example of A) natural selection. B) sexual selection. C) species selection. D) goal direction in evolution. Answer: C Topic: 23.4 Evolution is not goal oriented Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.4, V&C 1, G2, G7

36) In the 5 to 7 million years that the hominid lineage has been diverging from its common ancestor with the great apes, dozens of hominid species have arisen, often with several species coexisting in time and space. As recently as 30,000 years ago, Homo sapiens coexisted with Homo neanderthalensis. Both species had large brains and advanced intellects. The fact that these neurological traits were common to both species is most easily explained by which of the following? A) species selection B) uniformitarianism C) sexual selection D) convergent evolution Answer: A Topic: 23.4 Evolution is not goal oriented Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.4, V&C 1, G2, G5 37) The existence of evolutionary trends, such as increasing body sizes among various horse species, is evidence that A) a larger volume-to-surface area ratio is beneficial to all mammals. B) an unseen guiding force is at work. C) evolution always tends toward increased complexity or increased size. D) in particular environments, similar adaptations can be beneficial in more than one species. Answer: D Topic: 23.4 Evolution is not goal oriented Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.4, V&C 1 38) Exaptations A) imply that a structure evolves in anticipation of use. B) evolve in one environment but are used for another function. C) process new forms by modifying existing forms. D) trend toward larger body size. Answer: B Topic: 23.4 Evolution is not goal oriented Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.4, V&C 1 39) Over time, new forms of life have arisen by A) modification of existing structures or existing developmental genes. B) sexual selection only. C) the process of species living in variable environments with the end goal of mutating and evolving. D) the availability of resources after other species go extinct. Answer: A Topic: 23.4 Evolution is not goal oriented Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.4, V&C 1 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) What is critical to understand about the following statement? Eyes could not have evolved over time, part by part, because for the eyeball to function at all, it needs all of its parts working together. A) Many different taxa rely on simple eyes to survive, which function and are missing some components of more complex eyes. B) An eye can only work to form and image and transmit it to the brain if it has all components. C) The purpose of an eye is always to form and image and transmit the image to the brain. D) Eyes that distinguish only light from dark are too simple to be useful. Answer: A Topic: 23.4 Evolution is not goal oriented Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.4, V&C 1, G2

23.2 Art Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Figure 23.1 represents a cross section of the seafloor through a mid-ocean rift valley, with alternating patches of black and white indicating seafloor with reversed magnetic polarities. At the arrow labeled I (the rift valley), the igneous rock of the seafloor is so young that it can be accurately dated using carbon-14 dating. At the arrow labeled III, however, the igneous rock is about 1 million years old, and potassium-40 dating is typically used to date such rocks. Note: The horizontal arrows indicate the direction of seafloor spreading, away from the rift valley.

Figure 23.1 1) If a particular marine organism is fossilized in the sediments immediately overlying the igneous rock at the arrow labeled II, at which other location(s), labeled A—E, would a search be most likely to find more fossils of this organism? A) B only B) C only C) D only D) B and C Answer: B Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1, G2, G3 2) Assuming that the rate of seafloor spreading was constant during the 1-million-year period depicted in Figure 23.1, what should be the approximate age of marine fossils found in undisturbed sedimentary rock immediately overlying the igneous rock at the arrow labeled II? A) 10,000 years B) 250,000 years C) 500,000 years D) 1,000,000 years Answer: C Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1, G2, G3 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Figure 23.2 A sediment core is removed from the floor of an inland sea. The sea has been in existence, off and on, throughout the entire time that terrestrial life has existed. Researchers wish to locate and study the terrestrial organisms fossilized in this core. The core is illustrated in Figure 23.2 as a vertical column, with the top of the column representing the most recent strata and the bottom representing the time when land was first colonized by life. Assuming the existence of fossilized markers for each of the following chemicals, what is the sequence in which they should be found in this sediment core, working from ancient sediments to recent sediments? 1. chitin coupled with protein 2. chlorophyll 3. bone 4. cellulose A) 2, 4, 3, 1 B) 2, 4, 1, 3 C) 4, 2, 1, 3 D) 4, 2, 3, 1 Answer: B Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1, G2, G3 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Figure 23.3 4) Hawaii is the most southeastern of the seven islands and is also closest to the seafloor spreading center from which the Pacific plate originates, which lies about 5,600 km farther to the southeast. Assuming equal sedimentation rates, what should be the location of the thickest sediment layer and, thus, the area with the greatest diversity of fossils above the oceanic crust? A) between the island of Hawaii and the seafloor spreading center B) around the base of the island of Hawaii C) around the base of Kauai, the oldest of the Hawaiian Islands D) where the islands are most concentrated (highest number of islands per unit surface area) Answer: C Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1, G2, G3

5) According to the theory of seafloor spreading, oceanic islands, such as the Hawaiian Islands depicted in Figure 23.3, form as oceanic crustal plates move over a stationary "hot spot" in the mantle. Currently, the big island of Hawaii is thought to be over a hot spot, which is why it is the only one of the seven islands that has active volcanoes. What should be true of the island of Hawaii? 1. Scientists in search of ongoing speciation events are more likely to find them there than on the other six islands. 2. Its species should be more closely related to those of nearer islands than to those of farther islands. 3. It should have a rich fossil record of terrestrial organisms. 4. There is a good chance of finding endemic species on this island. 5. On average, it should have fewer species per unit surface area than the other six islands. A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 1, 2, and 5 C) 1, 2, 3, and 4 D) 1, 2, 4, and 5 Answer: D Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1, G2, G3 6) Upon being formed, oceanic islands, such as the Hawaiian Islands, should feature what characteristic, leading to which phenomenon? A) mass extinctions, leading to bottleneck effect B) major evolutionary innovations, leading to rafting to nearby continents C) a variety of empty ecological niches, leading to adaptive radiation D) adaptive radiation, leading to founder effect Answer: C Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1, G3

This evolutionary tree shows the influence of speciation and extinction on the diversity of life. After 2 million years, lineage A had a(n) ________ rate of speciation and ________ extinction rates compared to lineage B. A) higher; lower B) lower; higher C) increased; decreased D) improved; enhanced Answer: A Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1, G2, G3 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Which period had the greatest rate of extinction? A) Permian B) Cretaceous C) Devonian D) Cambrian Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The rise and fall of groups of organisms reflect differences in speciation and extinction rates Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.2, V&C 1, G2, G3, G4

23.3 Scenario Questions The following questions refer to this hypothetical situation. A female fly, full of fertilized eggs, is swept by high winds to an island far out to sea. She is the first fly to arrive on this island and the only fly to arrive in this way. Thousands of years later, her numerous offspring occupy the island, but none of them resembles her. There are, instead, several species, each of which eats only a certain type of food. None of the species can fly, for their flight wings are absent, and their balancing organs (in other words, halteres) are now used in courtship displays. The male members of each species bear modified halteres that are unique in appearance to their species. Females bear vestigial halteres. The ranges of all of the daughter species overlap. 1) If these fly species lost the ability to fly independently of each other as a result of separate mutation events in each lineage, then the flightless condition in these species could be an example of A) adaptive radiation. B) species selection. C) sexual selection. D) allometric growth. Answer: B Topic: 23.4 Evolution is not goal oriented Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.4, V&C 1, G2 2) Which of these fly organs, as they exist in current fly populations, best fits the description of an exaptation? A) wings B) balancing organs C) mouthparts D) thoraxes E) walking appendages Answer: B Topic: 23.4 Evolution is not goal oriented Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 23.4, V&C 1, G2 Please use the following information to answer the questions below. All animals with eyes or eyespots that have been studied so far share a gene in common. When mutated, the gene Pax-6 causes lack of eyes in fruit flies, tiny eyes in mice, and missing irises (and other eye parts) in humans. The sequence of Pax-6 in humans and mice is identical. There are so few sequence differences with fruit fly Pax-6 that the human/mouse version can cause eye formation in eyeless fruit flies, even though vertebrates and invertebrates last shared a common ancestor more than 500 million years ago.

3) Fruit fly eyes are of the compound type, which is structurally very different from the cameratype eyes of mammals. Even the camera-type eyes of molluscs, such as octopi, are structurally quite different from those of mammals. Yet fruit flies, octopi, and mammals possess very similar versions of Pax-6. The fact that the same gene helps produce very different types of eyes is most likely due to A) the few differences in nucleotide sequence among the Pax-6 genes of these organisms. B) variations in the number of Pax-6 genes among these organisms. C) the independent evolution of this gene at many different times during animal evolution. D) differences in the control of Pax-6 expression among these organisms. Answer: D Topic: 23.3 Major changes in body form can result from changes in the sequences and regulation of developmental genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 23.3, V&C 1, G2 4) Pax-6 usually causes the production of a type of light-receptor pigment. In vertebrate eyes, though, a different gene (the rh gene family) is responsible for the light-receptor pigments of the retina. The rh gene, like Pax-6, is ancient. In the marine ragworm, for example, the rh gene causes production of c-opsin, which helps regulate the worm's biological clock. Which of these most likely accounts for vertebrate vision? A) The Pax-6 gene mutated to become the rh gene among early mammals. B) During vertebrate evolution, the rh gene for biological clock opsin was co-opted as a gene for visual receptor pigments. C) In animals more ancient than ragworms, the rh gene(s) coded for visual receptor pigments; in lineages more recent than ragworms, rh has flip-flopped several times between producing biological clock opsins and visual receptor pigments. D) Pax-6 was lost from the mammalian genome and replaced by the rh gene much later. Answer: B Topic: 23.3 Major changes in body form can result from changes in the sequences and regulation of developmental genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 23.3, V&C 1, G2 5) The appearance of Pax-6 in all animals with eyes can be explained in multiple ways. Based on the information given, which explanation is most likely? A) Pax-6 in all of these animals is not homologous; it arose independently in many different animal phyla due to intense selective pressure favoring vision. B) The Pax-6 gene is really not one gene. It is many different genes that, over evolutionary time and due to convergence, have come to have a similar nucleotide sequence and function. C) The Pax-6 gene was an innovation of an ancestral animal of the early Cambrian period. Animals with eyes or eyespots are descendants of this ancestor. D) The perfectly designed Pax-6 gene appeared instantaneously in all animals created to have eyes or eyespots. Answer: C Topic: 23.4 Evolution is not goal oriented Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 23.4, V&C 1, G2 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) An improved method of radiometric dating, which filtered out contaminants, showed that most Neanderthal bones in Europe are older than suggested by earlier dating. This new dating suggests that Neanderthals' time on the planet did not overlap with modern humans. Radiocarbon dating depends on measuring the radioactive isotopes of carbon-14. Which of the following statements supports the null hypothesis that modern humans and Neanderthals did not occupy the same sites at the same time? A) The Neanderthal fossils were older than originally dated because very little carbon-14 remained in filtered specimens. B) Small amounts of contaminating carbon-14 can make a sample seem much older. C) The amount of carbon in an organism's body increases after death. D) Re-dating Neanderthal sites across Europe shows evidence for extensive interbreeding between Neanderthals and modern humans. Answer: A Topic: 23.1 The fossil record documents life's history Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 23.1, V&C 1, G2 7) Scientists, looking at the range of beak shapes and sizes across different finch species, observed that the thicker beak expressed a gene known as BMP4 early in development. To verify that the BMP4 gene itself could trigger the growth of bigger beaks, researchers increased the production of BMP4 in the developing beaks of chicken embryos. Which of the following results would explain why BMP4-treated chicks began growing wider, taller beaks? A) Change to the genome induces radical changes in form. B) New genes arise every time a new species arises. C) Development cannot change morphology. D) BMP4 is a homeotic gene. Answer: D Topic: 23.3 Major changes in body form can result from changes in the sequences and regulation of developmental genes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 23.3, V&C 1, G2 23.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which factor most likely caused animals and plants in India to differ greatly from species in nearby Southeast Asia? A) The species became separated by convergent evolution. B) The climates of the two regions are similar. C) India is in the process of separating from the rest of Asia. D) India was a separate continent until 45 million years ago. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) Adaptive radiations can be a direct consequence of four of the following five factors. Select the exception. A) vacant ecological niches B) genetic drift C) colonization of an isolated region that contains suitable habitat and few competitor species D) evolutionary innovation Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) A researcher discovers a fossil of what appears to be one of the oldest-known multicellular organisms. The researcher could estimate the age of this fossil based on A) the amount of uranium-238 in the fossil. B) the amount of carbon-14 in the fossil. C) the amount of uranium-238 in volcanic layers surrounding the fossil. D) the amount of carbon-14 in volcanic layers surrounding the fossil. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) A genetic change that caused a certain Hox gene to be expressed along the tip of a vertebrate limb bud instead of farther back helped make possible the evolution of the tetrapod limb. This type of change is illustrative of A) the influence of environment on development. B) paedomorphosis. C) a change in a developmental gene or in its regulation that altered the spatial organization of body parts. D) heterochrony. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) A swim bladder is a gas-filled sac that helps fish maintain buoyancy. The evolution of the swim bladder from the air-breathing organ (a simple lung) of an ancestral fish is an example of A) exaptation. B) changes in Hox gene expression. C) paedomorphosis. D) adaptive radiation. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 24 Early Life and the Diversification of Prokaryotes 24.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) On early Earth, more than 4 billion years ago, environmental conditions were very different from those today because A) only early Earth was intensely bombarded by large rocks and ice from space. B) only early Earth had an oxidizing atmosphere. C) less ultraviolet radiation penetrated early Earth's atmosphere. D) early Earth's atmosphere had significant quantities of ozone. Answer: A Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 2) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life? A) formation of protocells, synthesis of organic molecules, synthesis of organic macromolecules, formation of DNA-based genetic systems B) formation of protocells, synthesis of organic macromolecules, synthesis of organic molecules, formation of DNA-based genetic systems C) synthesis of organic molecules, synthesis of organic macromolecules, formation of protocells, formation of DNA-based genetic systems D) synthesis of organic molecules, synthesis of organic macromolecule, formation of DNAbased genetic systems, formation of protocells Answer: C Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1, V&C 2 3) Which of the following is a defining characteristic that all protocells or vesicles had in common? A) the ability to synthesize enzymes B) a surrounding membrane or membrane-like structure C) RNA genes D) the ability to replicate RNA Answer: B Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1, V&C 2

4) The first genes on Earth were probably A) DNA produced by reverse transcriptase from abiotically produced RNA. B) DNA molecules whose information was transcribed to RNA and later translated in polypeptides. C) self-replicating RNA molecules. D) antibiotic resistant. Answer: C Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1, G7, V&C 3 5) Several scientific laboratories across the globe are involved in research concerning the origin of life on Earth. Which of these questions is currently the most challenging and would have the greatest impact on our understanding if we were able to answer it? A) How can amino acids, simple sugars, and nucleotides be synthesized abiotically? B) How can RNA molecules catalyze reactions? C) How did RNA sequences come to carry the code for amino acid sequences? D) How could polymers involving lipids and/or proteins form membranes in aqueous environments? E) How can RNA molecules act as templates for the synthesis of complementary RNA molecules? Answer: C Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 24.1, G1, G2, G5, V&C 3 6) Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend? A) 3.5 million years B) 5.0 million years C) 3.5 billion years D) 5.0 billion years Answer: C Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 7) According to scientists' hypotheses, prokaryotes most likely evolved prior to eukaryotes because A) prokaryotic cells lack nuclei. B) the meteorites that have struck Earth contain fossils only of prokaryotes. C) laboratory experiments have produced ribosomes abiotically. D) ribosomes closely resemble prokaryotic cells. E) the oldest fossilized cells resemble prokaryotes. Answer: E Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1, V&C 1 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Suppose it were possible to conduct sophisticated microscopic and chemical analyses of microfossils found in 3.5-billion-year-old rock formations. Which of the following structures would be surprising to observe? A) RNA B) vesicles with a membrane C) a nucleus D) ribozymes Answer: C Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.1, G2, V&C 2 9) In 2009, which of the following did scientists discover was possible on early Earth? A) abiotic synthesis of RNA monomers B) bacterial cell walls made mainly of chitin C) gram-positive bacteria with outer membranes that contain lipopolysaccharides D) gram-negative bacteria with cell walls composed of a thick layer of peptidoglycan Answer: A Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 10) The first genetic material on early Earth was most likely A) DNA. B) RNA. C) peptidoglycan. D) protocells. Answer: B Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 11) Which of the following is likely the greatest impact that organisms have ever had on Earth? A) Early cyanobacteria released hydrogen to Earth's atmosphere during the water-splitting step of photosynthesis. B) Early cyanobacteria released carbon dioxide to Earth's atmosphere during the water-splitting step of photosynthesis. C) Early cyanobacteria released oxygen to Earth's atmosphere during the water-splitting step of photosynthesis. D) Early cyanobacteria released nitrogen to Earth's atmosphere during the water-splitting step of photosynthesis. Answer: C Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) What fossil evidence supports the hypothesis of modification by descent, or adaptation, of early Earth's bacteria? A) the presence of distinct stromatolite morphologies and stromatolite formations in both lake and marine environments B) cyanobacterium fossils, which have one of the earliest appearances in the fossil record C) the presence on non-photosynthetic bacteria D) the presence of spherical, rod-shaped, and spiral prokaryotes Answer: A Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.1, G1, V&C 1 13) On early Earth, what substance is hypothesized to have played a key role to facilitate the formation of polymers of amino acids, polymers of RNA, and vesicles? A) DNA B) sand, rock, or clay C) peptidoglycan D) biofilms Answer: B Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1, G1, V&C 2 14) Which of the following is an accurate characteristic of bacterial cell walls? A) They are primarily made of chitin. B) They prevent cells from shrinking in hypertonic environments. C) They prevent cells from bursting in hypertonic environments. D) They have peptidoglycan only if they are gram-negative. Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2

15) The predatory bacterium Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus drills into a prey bacterium and, once inside, digests it. When the predatory bacterium attacks the gram-negative bacterium, what are the first structures penetrated by B. bacteriovorus on its way into the prey's cytoplasm? A) lipopolysaccharides and an outer membrane B) peptidoglycan layer and plasma membrane C) lipopolysaccharides and plasma membrane D) fimbriae and peptidoglycan layer Answer: A Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, V&C 2 16) Bacteria can rarely colonize and contaminate foods with high sugar content, such as syrup, honey, jelly, or bags of sugar, even if these products are left open in warm temperatures. The reason they do not become contaminated is because bacteria that encounter these foods A) undergo death as a result of water loss from the cell. B) are unable to metabolize the glucose, sucrose, or fructose and thus starve to death. C) experience lysis. D) are obligate anaerobes. E) are unable to move through these thick and viscous materials. Answer: A Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, G5, V&C 2

17) What structure(s) can allow a bacterium to persist, often over extended periods of time, in extreme environments such as those lacking in nutrients, dehydrating, and freezing, or in very hot temperatures? A) nucleoids B) capsules or endospores C) plasmids D) peptidoglycan E) fimbriae Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2 18) Bacteria are able to adhere to substrates and to other individuals by using which structures? A) capsules and endospores B) capsules and fimbriae C) endospores and fimbriae D) fimbriae and plasmids E) fimbriae and flagella Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, V&C 2

19) Which portion of a typical prokaryotic flagellum is embedded in the cell wall and plasma membrane?

A) a hook B) a complex "motor" C) a filament D) a pili Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, V&C 2 20) The structure of a prokaryotic ribosome is not the same as a ribosome in an animal cell. As a result, which of the following is correct? A) Some antibiotics can block protein synthesis in bacteria without harming the eukaryotic host. B) Eukaryotes did not evolve from prokaryotes. C) Translation can occur at the same time as transcription in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes. D) Some antibiotics can block the synthesis of peptidoglycan in the walls of bacteria. E) Prokaryotes are unable to use a greater variety of molecules as food sources than can eukaryotes. Answer: A Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, V&C 2 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

21) Which statement about the genomes of prokaryotes is correct? A) Prokaryotic genomes are diploid throughout most of the cell cycle. B) Prokaryotic chromosomes are sometimes called plasmids. C) Prokaryotic cells have more proteins than eukaryotes. D) The prokaryotic chromosome is not contained within a nucleus but, rather, is found at the nucleolus. E) Prokaryotic genomes are composed of circular DNA. Answer: E Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, V&C 2 22) If a bacterium regenerates from an endospore that did not possess any of the plasmids that were contained in its original parent cell but does contain the large circular chromosome, the regenerated bacterium will probably also A) lack antibiotic-resistant genes. B) lack a cell wall. C) lack chromosomes. D) lack water in its cytoplasm. E) be unable to survive in its normal environment. Answer: A Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, V&C 3 23) The majority of a bacterium's key genetic information is located in the A) flagella. B) nucleoid. C) capsule. D) plasmids. E) endospore. Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, V&C 2

24) Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that targets prokaryotic (70S) ribosomes but not eukaryotic (80S) ribosomes. Which of these questions stems from this observation plus an understanding of eukaryotic origins? A) Can chloramphenicol also be used to control human diseases that are caused by archaeans? B) Can chloramphenicol pass through the capsules possessed by many cyanobacteria? C) If chloramphenicol inhibits prokaryotic ribosomes, should it not also inhibit mitochondrial ribosomes? D) Why aren't prokaryotic ribosomes identical to eukaryotic ribosomes? E) How is translation affected in ribosomes that are targeted by chloramphenicol? Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 24.2, G1, G2, V&C 2, V&C 3 25) Which of the following describes an organism that obtains both carbon and energy by ingesting prey? A) autotroph only B) chemotroph only C) autotroph and phototroph D) heterotroph and chemotroph E) autotroph, phototroph, and chemotroph Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, V&C 4 26) Which of the following describes an organism that obtains energy from light? A) autotroph only B) phototroph only C) autotroph and phototroph D) heterotroph and chemotroph E) autotroph, phototroph, and chemotroph Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, V&C 4 27) Which of the following describes an organism that oxidizes inorganic substances to obtain energy that is used, in part, to fix CO2 from the atmosphere? A) photoautotrophs B) photoheterotrophs C) chemoautotrophs D) chemoheterotrophs that perform decomposition Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, V&C 4 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) In a hypothetical situation, assume that the genes for sex pilus construction and for tetracycline resistance are located together on the same plasmid within a particular bacterium. If this bacterium readily performs conjugation involving a copy of this plasmid, then the result should be A) a bacterium that has undergone transduction. B) the rapid spread of tetracycline resistance to other bacteria in that habitat. C) the subsequent loss of tetracycline resistance from this bacterium. D) the production of endospores among the bacterium's progeny. E) the temporary possession by this bacterium of a completely diploid genome. Answer: B Topic: 24.2, 24.3 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes; Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 24.2, 24.3, G2, V&C 3 29) Although not present in all bacteria, this cell covering often enables cells that possess it to resist the defenses of host organisms, especially their phagocytic cells. A) endospore B) sex pilus C) cell wall D) capsule Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, V&C 2 30) Thiobacillus ferrooxidans is a type of bacteria that oxidizes iron compounds for energy and then uses that energy to build carbohydrates. We might best recognize this bacterium as the rustcolored ring that builds up inside toilet bowls. Thiobacillus ferrooxidans is an example of a A) photoautotroph. B) chemoheterotroph. C) photoheterotroph. D) chemoautotroph. Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, V&C 4

31) Why can prokaryotic population numbers be magnitudes larger than populations of multicellular eukaryotes? A) Prokaryotes are small only. B) Prokaryotes are small and have short generation times only. C) Prokaryotes reproduce by binary fission, often have short generation times, and have cell walls primarily made of cellulose. D) Prokaryotes are small, reproduce by binary fission, and often have short generation times. Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 32) In what way(s), if any, is a chemoautotroph different from a chemoheterotroph? A) Chemoautotrophs can produce carbon-containing compounds for use in metabolism or for the building of its structures, whereas a chemoheterotroph must consume such compounds. B) Chemoautotrophs use light energy to produce carbon-containing compounds, whereas a chemoheterotroph uses inorganic compounds. C) Chemoautotrophs use organic compounds as an energy and carbon source, whereas chemoheterotrophs use inorganic compounds as an energy and carbon source. D) Chemoautotrophs and chemoheterotrophs are not different from one another with respect to energy and carbon sources. Answer: A Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, V&C 4 33) What is the best explanation for how a motor unit of a flagellum can stay in its correct location within a bacterial cell wall and membrane? A) It is attached to the membrane using proteinaceous fibers. B) Some portions of the proteins of the motor unit have regions of polar hydrophilic amino acids, and others have non-polar hydrophobic amino acids. C) The force of the flagellum filament keeps the motor unit pinned to the membrane. D) The rod portion of the motor unit forms a tube-like structure that uses the suction of water to keep it in place. Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 24.2, G7, V&C 2

34)

Which photograph in the figure shows the cellular structure observed in species such as Staphylococcus epidermis, Staphylococcus aureus, and Streptococcus pneumoniae? A) spherical B) rod-Shaped C) spiral Answer: A Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G7, V&C 2

35)

Two prokaryotes are shown in the figure that have additional cellular membranes within the plasma membrane. What functions could the respiratory membranes and the thylakoid membranes provide? A) These are both autotrophic evolutionary adaptations to allow organic molecule production. B) The respiratory membrane allows a functional electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation of ATP. C) The thylakoid membrane allows the fixation of CO2 during the Calvin Cycle. D) The respiratory membrane provides a location to conduct the citric acid cycle. Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, G7, V&C 2, V&C 4 36) Which of these statements about prokaryotes is correct? A) Bacterial cells conjugate to mutually exchange genetic material. B) Their genetic material is confined within vesicles known as plasmids. C) They divide by binary fission, without mitosis or meiosis. D) The persistence of bacteria throughout evolutionary time is due to their lack of genetic variation. E) Genetic variation in bacteria is not known to occur because of their asexual mode of reproduction. Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, V&C 2 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

37) Which of the following processes is least associated with the others? A) horizontal gene transfer B) genetic recombination C) conjugation D) transformation E) binary fission Answer: E Topic: 24.2, 24.3 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes; Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2, 24.3, G2 38) Mitochondria are thought to be the descendants of certain alpha proteobacteria. They are, however, no longer able to lead independent lives because most genes originally present on their chromosome have moved to the nuclear genome. Which phenomenon accounts for the movement of these genes? A) transduction B) conjugation C) translation D) binary fission E) horizontal gene transfer Answer: E Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3, V&C 1, V&C 2 39) Suppose bacteria are grown on a petri dish that contains nutrient agar and the antibiotic ampicillin. After observing the bacteria growth on the plate for two days, you notice that only some of the bacteria have survived. What is a plausible explanation for your observations? A) Some of the bacterial DNA was not able to replicate because it lacked some of its own genetic material. B) The bacteria that survived were transformed with a plasmid that contains the resistance gene for ampicillin. C) The pili of the bacterial could not attach to the ampicillin. D) F plasmids were not present to transfer bacterial DNA. Answer: B Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.3, G2, V&C C1, V&C 1, V&C 3

40) In sexually reproducing lizards, recombination and meiosis result in offspring that have a variety of genetic material from both parents and high genetic diversity in the population. In contrast, what is one key way in which genetic diversity arises in non-sexually reproducing bacteria? A) Bacterial and archaeal cells are able to mutate their DNA in order to adapt to harmful environmental conditions or to resist antibiotics. B) Binary fission results in two bacterium cells with unique DNA. C) Prokaryotes can sometimes exchange DNA when subjected to harmful environmental conditions. D) Bacteria typically form populations with high numbers of individuals, and combined with rapid generation times, this may lead to a high rate of genetic mutations. Answer: D Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.3, G2, G7, V&C 1, V&C 3 41) What is one key difference between transduction and conjugation? A) Transduction involves DNA being incorporated via a virus from one cell to another. B) Conjugation involves DNA being incorporated via a virus from one cell to another. C) Conjugation involves DNA transfer from two different species, whereas transduction is within the same species. D) Transduction involves the direct joining of prokaryotic plasma membranes and then genetic transfer. Answer: A Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3, V&C 2, V&C 3 42) What is one key difference between genetic transformation and transduction in prokaryotes? A) Transduction involves the uptake of foreign DNA from the surroundings, whereas transformation involves a virus transferring DNA from one bacterium to another. B) Transformation involves the uptake of foreign DNA from the surroundings, whereas transduction involves a virus transferring DNA from one bacterium to another. C) Transformation involves eukaryotes as the source of DNA, whereas transduction involves a transfer of DNA between bacteria. D) Transduction is the physical joining of one bacterium to another, whereas transformation is the uptake of DNA via a viral source. Answer: B Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3, V&C 2, V&C 3

43) Scientists have identified two major branches of prokaryotic evolution. What was the basis for dividing prokaryotes into two domains? A) microscopically observed staining characteristics of the cell wall B) metabolic characteristics such as the production of methane gas C) metabolic characteristics such as chemoautotrophy and photosynthesis D) genetic characteristics such as ribosomal RNA sequences E) ecological characteristics such as the ability to survive in extreme environments Answer: D Topic: 24.4 Prokaryotes have radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4, V&C 1 44) Which statement about the domain archaea is true? A) Genetic prospecting has recently revealed the existence of many previously unknown archaean species. B) No archaeans can reduce CO2 to methane. C) The genomes of archaeans are unique, containing no genes that originated within bacteria. D) No archaeans can inhabit solutions that are nearly 30% salt. E) No archaeans are adapted to waters with temperatures above the boiling point. Answer: A Topic: 24.4 Prokaryotes have radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 45) If archaeans are more closely related to eukaryotes than to bacteria, then which of the following is a reasonable prediction? A) Archaean DNA should have no introns. B) Archaean chromosomes should have no protein bonded to them. C) Archaean DNA should be single-stranded. D) Archaean ribosomes should be larger than typical prokaryotic ribosomes. E) Archaeans should lack cell walls. Answer: D Topic: 24.2, 24.4 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes; Prokaryotes have radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 24.2, 24.4, G2 46) Which of the following traits do archaeans and bacteria share? A) composition of the cell wall B) presence of plasma membrane C) a nuclear envelope D) identical rRNA sequences Answer: B Topic: 24.4 Prokaryotes have radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4, V&C 2 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

47) Assuming that each possesses a cell wall, which of these prokaryotes should be expected to be most strongly resistant to plasmolysis in hypertonic environments? A) extreme halophiles B) extreme thermophiles C) methanogens D) cyanobacteria E) nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in root nodules Answer: A Topic: 24.4 Prokaryotes have radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.4, G2 48) The thermoacidophile Sulfolobus acidocaldarius lacks peptidoglycan but still possesses a cell wall. What is likely to be true of this species? A) It is a bacterium with enzymes that can function above a pH of 7 and withstand high temperatures. B) It is an archaean that could inhabit hot springs with alkaline conditions. C) It is an archaean that could inhabit hydrothermal vents if the optimal pH of its enzymes lies below pH 7. D) It is likely a gram-positive bacterium that has the ability to cope with high acidity and temperatures. Answer: C Topic: 24.4 Prokaryotes have radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.4, G2, V&C 2 49) A fish that has been salt-cured subsequently develops a reddish color. You suspect that the fish has been contaminated by the extreme halophile Halobacterium. Which of these features of cells removed from the surface of the fish, if confirmed, would support your suspicion? A) cell walls that have peptidoglycan B) cells that are hypotonic to conditions on the surface of the fish C) cells able to survive salt concentrations lower than 9% D) the presence of very large numbers of ion pumps in the plasma membrane Answer: D Topic: 24.4 Prokaryotes have radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 24.4, G2, G7, V&C 2

50) Mycoplasmas are bacteria with the rare structural feature that they do not have cell walls. On the basis of this fact, which statement concerning mycoplasmas should be true? A) They are gram-negative. B) They are subject to lysis in hypotonic conditions. C) They lack a cell membrane as well. D) They contain less cellulose than do bacteria that possess cell walls. E) They possess typical prokaryotic flagella. Answer: B Topic: 24.4 Prokaryotes have radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.4, G2, V&C 2 51)

Which pair of proteobacterial subgroups shown in the figure are most closely related through evolution? A) alpha and beta B) beta and gamma C) gamma and delta D) epsilon and beta Answer: B Topic: 24.4 Prokaryotes have radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 24.5, V&C 1, G3, G7 52) What is a main difference between endotoxins and exotoxins? A) Endotoxins are proteins, and exotoxins are lipopolysaccharides. B) Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides and thus structurally integral to the bacterium, whereas exotoxins are proteins that are secreted by living bacteria. C) Exotoxins are released only when the bacteria die and their cell walls break down. D) Exotoxins are made of RNA, and endotoxins are made of DNA. Answer: B Topic: 24.4 Prokaryotes have radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5, V&C 2 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

53) Which of the following is an important source of endotoxin in gram-negative species? A) endospore B) sex pilus C) flagellum D) cell wall E) capsule Answer: D Topic: 24.5 Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5, V&C 2 54) The termite gut protist Mixotricha paradoxa has at least two kinds of bacteria attached to its outer surface. One bacterium is a spirochete that propels its protist host through the termite gut. A second type of bacteria synthesizes ATP, some of which is used by the spirochetes. The locomotion provided by the spirochetes introduces the ATP-producing bacteria to new food sources. Which of the following terms is (are) applicable to the relationship between the two kinds of bacteria? A) mutualism only B) mutualism and parasitism only C) parasitism and symbiosis only D) mutualism, symbiosis, and metabolic cooperation E) parasitism, symbiosis, and metabolic cooperation Answer: D Topic: 24.5 Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.5, G7, V&C 2, V&C 4 55) In general, what is the primary ecological role of prokaryotes? A) parasitizing eukaryotes, thus causing diseases B) recycling soil nutrients and breaking down organic matter C) metabolizing materials in extreme environments D) adding methane to the atmosphere E) serving as primary producers in terrestrial environments Answer: B Topic: 24.5 Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5, V&C 4, V&C 5

56) If all prokaryotes on Earth suddenly vanished, which of the following would be the most likely and most direct result? A) The number of organisms on Earth would decrease by 10-20%. B) Human populations would thrive in the absence of disease. C) Bacteriophage numbers would dramatically increase. D) The recycling of nutrients would be greatly reduced, at least initially. E) There would be no more pathogens on Earth. Answer: D Topic: 24.5 Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5, G2, G5 57) In a hypothetical situation, a bacterium lives on the surface of a leaf, where it obtains nutrition from the leaf's nonliving, waxy covering while inhibiting the growth of other microbes that are plant pathogens. If this bacterium gains access to the inside of a leaf, however, it causes a fatal disease in the plant. Once the plant dies, the bacterium and its offspring decompose the plant. What is the correct sequence of ecological roles played by the bacterium in the situation described here? Use only those that apply. A) nutrient recycler, commensalist, pathogen B) mutualist, commensalist, pathogen C) mutualist, pathogen, nutrient recycler D) nutrient recycler, mutualist, primary producer E) nutrient recycler, mutualist, commensalist Answer: C Topic: 24.5 Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.5, G2 58) Broad-spectrum antibiotics inhibit the growth of most intestinal bacteria. Consequently, assuming that nothing is done to counter the reduction of intestinal bacteria, a hospital patient who is receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics is most likely to become A) unable to fix carbon dioxide. B) antibiotic resistant. C) unable to fix nitrogen. D) unable to synthesize peptidoglycan. E) deficient in certain vitamins and nutrients. Answer: E Topic: 24.5 Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.5, G2, G5

59) Imagine a person ingests some food that causes them to become ill and have symptoms such as a diarrhea and fever. What kind of pathogenic bacterial poison could the person have been exposed to? A) bacteria that produced exotoxins in the person's system B) bacteria that died, and endotoxins were then released C) both exotoxins or endotoxins are possible sources of the illness Answer: C Topic: 24.5 Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.5, G2, G5, V&C C1 60) The interactions of prokaryotes with humans are A) only negative. B) only positive. C) only mutualistic. D) both negative and positive. Answer: D Topic: 24.5 Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.5, G5, V&C 5 61) The prokaryotic CRISPR-Cas system A) was discovered as a natural, evolutionarily derived immune system that arose in viruses as a defense mechanism to detect pathogenic bacteria. B) was discovered as a natural, evolutionarily derived immune system that arose in bacteria as a defense mechanism to viral infection. C) allows scientists to insert DNA into an organism but is limited to one group of gram-positive bacterial species. D) is an innovative approach that allows us to reduce our use of petroleum. Answer: B Topic: 24.5 Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5, G5, V&C 5

24.2 Art Questions 1) Several scientific laboratories across the globe are performing research concerning the origin of life on Earth. Suppose one of these laboratories conducts abiotic experiment(s) to test the potential for hydrogen bonding between various nucleic acids and amino acids. Which of the following results of such experiments are most consistent with our current understanding of Earth's first genetic systems? A)

Answer: B Topic: 24.1 Conditions on early Earth made the origin of life possible Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.1, G2, G3, G7

Please use the following information to answer the question(s) below. In Figure 24.1, data are presented from an eight-year experiment in which 12 populations of Escherichia coli, each begun from a single cell, were grown in low-glucose conditions for 20,000 generations. Each culture was introduced to fresh growth medium every 24 hours. Occasionally, samples were removed from the populations, and their fitness in low-glucose conditions was tested against that of members sampled from the ancestral (common ancestor) E. coli population.

Figure 24.1 2) If the vertical axis of Figure 24.1 refers to "Darwinian fitness," then which of the following is the most valid and accurate measure of fitness? A) number of offspring or close kin that survive to reproductive age B) amount of ATP generated per cell per unit time C) average swimming speed of cells through the growth medium D) amount of glucose synthesized per unit time E) number of generations per unit time Answer: A Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3, G7

3) If new genetic variation in the experimental populations arose solely by spontaneous mutations, then the most effective process for subsequently increasing the number of individuals that possess all of these beneficial mutations is A) transduction. B) binary fission. C) conjugation. D) transformation. E) meiosis. Answer: B Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.3, G2, G3 4) E. coli cells typically make most of their ATP by metabolizing glucose. Under the conditions of this experiment, what should be true of E. coli's generation time (especially early in the course of the experiment, but less so later on)? A) Generation time should be the same as in the typical environment. B) Generation time should be faster than in the typical environment. C) Generation time should be slower than in the typical environment. D) It is theoretically impossible to make any predictions about generation time under these conditions. Answer: C Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.3, G2, G3 5) If the experimental population of E. coli lacks an F factor or F plasmid, and if bacteriophages are excluded from the bacterial cultures, then which of these is means by which beneficial mutations might be transmitted horizontally to other E. coli cells? A) via sex pili B) via transduction C) via conjugation D) via transformation Answer: D Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.3, G2, G3

Figure 24.2 depicts changes to the amount of DNA present in a recipient cell that is engaged in conjugation with an Hfr cell. Hfr cell DNA begins entering the recipient cell at time A. Assume that reciprocal crossing over occurs (in other words, a fragment of the recipient's chromosome is exchanged for a homologous fragment from the Hfr cell's DNA). Use Figure 24.2 to answer the following question(s).

Figure 24.2 6) What is occurring at time C that is decreasing the DNA content? A) crossing over B) cytokinesis C) meiosis D) degradation of DNA that was not retained in the recipient's chromosome E) reversal of the direction of conjugation Answer: D Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.3, G2, G3 7) How is the recipient cell different at time D than it was at time A? A) It has a greater number of genes. B) It has a greater mass of DNA. C) It has a different sequence of base pairs. D) It contains bacteriophage DNA. E) Its membrane-bound DNA pumps are inactive. Answer: C Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.3, G2, G3 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Which two processes are responsible for the shape of the curve at time B? 1. transduction 2. entry of single-stranded Hfr DNA 3. rolling circle replication of single-stranded Hfr DNA 4. conjugation A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 2 and 4 E) 3 and 4 Answer: C Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.3, G2, G3 9) During which two times can the recipient accurately be described as "recombinant" due to the sequence of events portrayed in Figure 24.2? A) during times C and D B) during times A and C C) during times B and C D) during times A and B E) during times B and D Answer: A Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.3, G2, G3 10) Which question arising from the results depicted in Figure 24.2 is most interesting from a genetic perspective and has the greatest potential to increase our knowledge base? A) If reciprocal crossing over could occur even if the piece of donated Hfr DNA is identical to the homologous portion of the recipient's chromosome, what prevents this from occurring? B) What forces are generally responsible for disrupting the sex pilus? C) How is it that a recipient cell does not necessarily become an Hfr cell as the result of conjugation with an Hfr cell? D) What makes a cell an Hfr cell? Answer: A Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 24.3, G2, G3

11) Data were collected from the heterocysts of a nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium inhabiting equatorial ponds. Study the following figure, and choose the most likely explanation for the shape of the curve.

Figure 24.3 A) Enough O2 enters heterocysts during hours of peak photosynthesis to have a somewhat inhibitory effect on nitrogen fixation. B) Light-dependent reaction rates must be highest between 1800 hours and 0600 hours. C) Atmospheric N2 levels increase at night because plants are no longer metabolizing this gas, so they are not absorbing this gas through their stomata. D) Heterocyst walls become less permeable to N2 influx during darkness. Answer: A Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, G3, G7

The table depicts characteristics of five prokaryotic species (A-E). Use the information in the table to answer the following question(s).

Table 24.1 12) Which two species in Table 24.1 should have much more phospholipid, in the form of bilayers, in their cytoplasm than most other bacteria? A) species A and B B) species A and C C) species B and E D) species C and D E) species C and E Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, G3 13) Which species in Table 24.1 should be able to respond most readily to taxes (plural of taxis)? A) species A B) species B C) species C D) species D E) species E Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, G3

14) How many of these species in Table 24.1 probably have a cell wall that partly consists of an outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide? A) only one species B) two species C) three species D) four species E) all five species Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, G3 15) In Table 24.1, Species D is pathogenic if it gains access to the human intestine. Which other species, if it coinhabited a human intestine along with species D, is most likely to result in a recombinant species that is both pathogenic and resistant to some antibiotics? A) species A B) species B C) species C D) species D E) species E Answer: C Topic: 24.2, 24.5 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes; Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, 24.5, G2, G3, G5 16) Which species in Table 24.1 is most self-sustaining in terms of obtaining nutrition in environments containing little fixed nitrogen or carbon? A) species A B) species B C) species C D) species D E) species E Answer: E Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, G3

17) Which two species in Table 24.1 might be expected to cooperate metabolically, perhaps forming a biofilm wherein one species surrounds cells of the other species? A) species A and B B) species A and C C) species B and E D) species C and D E) species C and E Answer: A Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, G3 18) Which species in Table 24.1 is most likely to be found both in sewage treatment plants and in the guts of cattle? A) species A B) species B C) species C D) species D E) species E Answer: B Topic: 24.2, 24.5 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes; Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, 24.5, G2, G3, G5 19) Which species in Table 24.1 is probably an important contributor of organic compounds such as sugars, which are then passed up through aquatic food chains? A) species A B) species B C) species C D) species D E) species E Answer: E Topic: 24.5 Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.5, G2, G3, G7

20) Thermoacidophiles are archaeans that are able to successfully live and reproduce in environments that are acidic, have high sulfur content and temperatures, and have little organic material. Consider the thermoacidophile Sulfolobus acidocaldarius. Which of the following graphs most accurately depicts the expected temperature and pH profiles of its enzymes? (Note: The horizontal axes of these graphs are double, with pH above and temperature below.)

Answer: A Topic: 24.4 Prokaryotes have radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.4, G2, G3

24.3 Scenario Questions The following question(s) are based on the observation that several dozen different proteins comprise the prokaryotic flagellum and its attachment to the prokaryotic cell, producing a highly complex structure. 1) If the complex protein assemblage of the prokaryotic flagellum arose by the same general processes as those of the complex eyes of molluscs (such as squids and octopi), then A) natural selection cannot account for the rise of the prokaryotic flagellum. B) ancestral versions of this protein assemblage were either less functional or had different functions from modern prokaryotic flagella. C) scientists should accept the conclusion that neither eyes nor flagella could have arisen by evolution. Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, G7 2) Certain proteins of the complex motor that drives bacterial flagella are modified versions of proteins that had previously belonged to plasma membrane pumps. This evidence supports the claim that A) some structures are so complex that natural selection cannot, and will not, explain their origins. B) the power of natural selection allows it to act in an almost predictive fashion, producing organs that will be needed in future environments. C) the motors of bacterial flagella were originally synthesized abiotically. D) structures originally adapted for one purpose can take on new functions through descent with modification. E) bacteria that possess flagella must have lost the ability to pump certain chemicals across their plasma membranes. Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2

Please use the following information to answer the question(s) below. A hypothetical bacterium swims among human intestinal contents until it finds a suitable location on the intestinal lining. It adheres to the intestinal lining using a feature that also protects it from bacteriophages and dehydration. Fecal matter from a human in whose intestine this bacterium lives can spread the bacterium, even after being mixed with water and boiled. The bacterium is not susceptible to the penicillin family of antibiotics. It contains no plasmids and relatively little peptidoglycan. 3) This bacterium's ability to survive in a human who is taking penicillin pills may be due to the presence of which of the following? 1. penicillin-resistance genes 2. a gram-positive cell wall 3. a gram-negative cell wall 4. an endospore A) 1 or 4 B) 1 or 3 C) 2 or 4 D) 3 or 4 Answer: D Topic: 24.2, 24.5 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes; Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 24.2, 24.5, G2, G5 4) Adherence to the intestinal lining by this bacterium is due to its possession of A) fimbriae. B) pili. C) a capsule. D) a flagellum. E) a cell wall with an outer lipopolysaccharide membrane. Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2 5) What should be true of the cell wall of this bacterium? A) Its innermost layer is composed of a phospholipid bilayer. B) After it has been subjected to Gram staining, the cell should remain purple. C) It has an outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide. D) It is mostly composed of a complex, cross-linked polysaccharide. E) Two of the responses above are correct. Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2 35 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) In which feature(s) should you be able to locate a complete chromosome of this bacterium? 1. nucleolus 2. pili 3. endospore 4. nucleoid A) 4 only B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 3 and 4 E) 2, 3, and 4 Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2 7) The cell also lacks F factors and F plasmids. Which mechanism(s) of genetic recombination can possibly take place? 1. conjugation 2. transduction 3. transformation A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 Answer: D Topic: 24.3 Rapid reproduction, mutation, and genetic recombination promote genetic diversity in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.3, G2 8) This bacterium derives nutrition by digesting human intestinal contents (in other words, food). Thus, this bacterium should be an A) aerobic chemoheterotroph. B) aerobic chemoautotroph. C) anaerobic chemoheterotroph. D) anaerobic chemoautotroph. Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2

9) This bacterium derives nutrition by digesting human intestinal contents (in other words, food). Humans lacking this bacterium have no measurable reproductive advantage or disadvantage relative to humans who harbor this bacterium. Consequently, the bacterium can be properly described as which of the following? 1. symbiont 2. endotoxin 3. mutualist 4. commensal A) 4 only B) 1 and 2 C) 1 and 4 D) 2 and 3 E) 2 and 4 Answer: C Topic: 24.5 Prokaryotes play crucial roles in the biosphere Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.5, G2 10) Please use the following information to answer the question below. Nitrogenase, the enzyme that catalyzes nitrogen fixation, is inhibited whenever free O2 reaches a critical concentration. Consequently, nitrogen fixation cannot occur in cells wherein photosynthesis produces free O2. Consider the colonial aquatic cyanobacterium Anabaena, whose heterocytes are described as having "a thickened cell wall that restricts entry of O2 produced by neighboring cells. Intracellular connections allow heterocysts to transport fixed nitrogen to neighboring cells in exchange for carbohydrates." Given that the enzymes that catalyze nitrogen fixation are inhibited by oxygen, what are two "strategies" that nitrogen-fixing prokaryotes might use to protect these enzymes from oxygen? A) package them in membranes that are impermeable to all gases, and package these enzymes in specialized cells or compartments that inhibit oxygen entry B) be obligate anaerobes and package these enzymes in specialized cells or compartments that inhibit oxygen entry C) be obligate anaerobes and be facultative aerobes D) be facultative aerobes and package these enzymes in specialized cells or compartments that inhibit oxygen entry Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2, G7

11) Please use the following information to answer the question below. Nitrogenase, the enzyme that catalyzes nitrogen fixation, is inhibited whenever free O2 reaches a critical concentration. Consequently, nitrogen fixation cannot occur in cells wherein photosynthesis produces free O2. Consider the colonial aquatic cyanobacterium Anabaena, whose heterocytes are described as having "a thickened cell wall that restricts entry of O2 produced by neighboring cells. Intracellular connections allow heterocysts to transport fixed nitrogen to neighboring cells in exchange for carbohydrates." Which of the following questions arise from a careful reading of this quotation and are most important for understanding how N2 enters heterocysts and how O2 is kept out of heterocysts? A) If carbohydrates can enter the heterocysts from neighboring cells via the "intracellular connections," how is it that O2 doesn't also enter via this route? B) If the cell walls of Anabaena's photosynthetic cells are permeable to O2 and CO2, are they also permeable to N2? C) If the nuclei of the photosynthetic cells contain the genes that code for nitrogen fixation, how can these cells fail to perform nitrogen fixation? D) If the nuclei of the heterocysts contain the genes that code for photosynthesis, how can these cells fail to perform photosynthesis? E) If the cell walls of Anabaena's heterocysts are permeable to N2, how is it that N2 doesn't diffuse out of the heterocysts before it can be fixed? Answer: A Topic: 24.2 Diverse structural and metabolic adaptations have evolved in prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 24.2, G2 24.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of the following steps has not yet been accomplished by scientists studying the origin of life? A) synthesis of small RNA polymers by ribozymes B) abiotic synthesis of polypeptides C) formation of molecular aggregates with selectively permeable membranes D) formation of protocells that use DNA to direct the polymerization of amino acids Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) Fossilized stromatolites A) more than 2.8 billion years old have not been discovered. B) formed around deep-sea vents. C) resemble structures formed by bacterial communities that are found today in some shallow marine bays. D) provide evidence that photosynthesis was occurring in the oceans by 2.5 billion years ago. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Genetic variation in bacterial populations cannot result from A) meiosis. B) transformation. C) transduction. D) mutation. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Photoautotrophs use A) light as an energy source and methane as a carbon source. B) light as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source. C) H2S as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source. D) CO2 as both an energy source and a carbon source. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of the following statements is true? A) Archaea and bacteria have the same type of membrane lipids. B) The cell walls of archaea have peptidoglycan. C) Only bacteria have histones associated with DNA. D) Only some archaea use CO2 to oxidize H2, releasing methane. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Bacteria participate in many ecological interactions. Which of the following roles typically does not require or involve symbiosis? A) living as commensalists on the skin of humans B) providing bioluminescence in fish C) digesting food as mutualists in animal intestines D) decomposing dead organisms and organic wastes Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) Plantlike photosynthesis that releases O2 occurs in A) cyanobacteria. B) chlamydias. C) archaea. D) chemoautotrophic bacteria. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 25 The Origin and Diversification of Eukaryotes 25.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The chloroplasts of all of the following are thought to be derived from ancestral red algae, except those of A) diatoms. B) dinoflagellates. C) green algae. D) brown algae. Answer: C Topic: 25.1 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1, V&C 1 2) What does scientific evidence indicate to be the correct sequence of these events, from earliest to most recent, in the evolution of life on Earth? 1. origin of mitochondria 2. origin of multicellular eukaryotes 3. origin of chloroplasts 4. origin of cyanobacteria 5. origin of fungal-plant symbioses A) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 B) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 C) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5 D) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 E) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 Answer: C Topic: 25.1 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1, V&C 1 3) Which of these observations gives the most support to the endosymbiotic theory for the origin of eukaryotic cells? A) the existence of structural and molecular differences between the plasma membranes of prokaryotes and the internal membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts B) the similarity in size between the cytosolic ribosomes of prokaryotes and the ribosomes within mitochondria and chloroplasts C) the size disparity between most prokaryotic cells and most eukaryotic cells D) the observation that some eukaryotic cells lack mitochondria Answer: B Topic: 25.1 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1, V&C 2, G7

4) All protists are A) unicellular. B) eukaryotic. C) symbionts. D) monophyletic. E) mixotrophic. Answer: B Topic: 25.1 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1, V&C 2 5) According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate? A) from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for proteins in energy-transfer reactions B) from engulfed, originally free-living proteobacteria C) by secondary endosymbiosis D) from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes E) when a protoeukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protocell Answer: B Topic: 25.1 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1, V&C 2 6) An individual mixotroph loses its plastids yet continues to survive. Which of the following most likely accounts for its continued survival? A) It relies on photosystems that float freely in its cytosol. B) It must have gained extra mitochondria when it lost its plastids. C) It engulfs organic material by phagocytosis or by absorption. D) It has an endospore. E) It has multiple alveoli. Answer: C Topic: 25.1 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.1, V&C 2, G2 7) Which of the following was derived from an ancestral cyanobacterium? A) chloroplast B) mitochondrion C) hydrogenosome D) mitosome Answer: A Topic: 25.1 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1, V&C 1

8) Why can eukaryotes be considered "combination" organisms? A) Some of their genes and cellular characteristics were derived from archaea, and others from bacteria. B) They eventually developed flagella. C) Their diversity outnumbers prokaryotes by over 1 million species. D) They eventually developed cellulose plates. Answer: A Topic: 25.1 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1 9) Imagine you are investigating life in the shallow soils of a forest. In your collected samples, you observe evidence of various single-celled organisms using multiple genetic techniques as well as microscopy. If the organisms you initially assess possess mostly asymmetric or irregular forms, then this particular sample probably has many A) eukaryotes. B) archaea. C) bacteria. D) prokaryotes. Answer: A Topic: 25.2 Multicellularity has originated several times in eukaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.2, V&C 2, G2 10) The theory of endosymbiosis and history of life on Earth allows one to predict that the gene sequences that are responsible for encoding functional, mitochondrial ribosomes in a particular tree likely share many similar nucleotides in the sequences from the ribosomal genes of I) other plant species. II) bacterial species. III) other tree species. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I, II, and III Answer: D Topic: 25.1 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.2, V&C 2, G2

11) Which of the following statements support(s) the theory of the endosymbiotic origin of mitochondria and plastids? I) Mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA and replicate by splitting. II) Mitochondria and plastids have ribosomes. III) Mitochondrial and plastid ribosomal RNA sequences are more similar to cytoplasmic ribosomes than to bacterial ones. IV) The inner membranes of plastids and mitochondria have transport proteins homologous to those in bacterial plasma membranes. A) I only B) I and II only C) III only D) I, II, and IV Answer: D Topic: 25.1 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2, V&C 2 12) Which statement is correct with regard to the comparison of secondary endosymbiosis to primary endosymbiosis? A) In secondary endosymbiosis, an entire free-living alga is ingested into the food vacuole of a heterotrophic eukaryote. B) In secondary endosymbiosis, an entire free-living alga is incorporated into the mitochondrion a heterotrophic eukaryote. C) Primary endosymbiosis is the result of alga being engulfed by a cyanobacterium. D) Primary and secondary endosymbiosis are essential equivalent but occurred at different points in time in the evolution of life. Answer: A Topic: 25.2 Multicellularity has originated several times in eukaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.2, V&C 1, V&C 2, G2 13) In a sample of pond water, a new organism is identified with the following characteristics: It consists of 70 cells surrounded by rigid cell walls that join the cells together. Inside each of these identical cells are mitochondria and chloroplasts. Such an organism would most likely be classified as a A) colonial photosynthetic eukaryote. B) fungal photosynthetic eukaryote. C) colonial photosynthetic prokaryote. D) multicellular photosynthetic prokaryote. E) colonial eukaryotic fungus. Answer: A Topic: 25.2 Multicellularity has originated several times in eukaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.2, V&C 2, G2

14) Which of the following is the most likely sequence of events, from earliest to most recent, in the evolution of sponges (organisms with many cells that have different functions)? 1. single-celled eukaryote 2. single-celled prokaryote 3. multicellular eukaryote 4. colonial eukaryote A) 2, 1, 4, 3 B) 2, 1, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 4, 3 Answer: A Topic: 25.2 Multicellularity has originated several times in eukaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.2, V&C 2, G2 15) The evolution of multicellularity in animals required adaptations that promoted A) cellular migration and intercellular communication. B) cellular migration and cellular adhesion. C) cellular adhesion and intercellular communication. D) photosynthesis and cellular migration. E) cellular fusion and regeneration. Answer: C Topic: 25.2 Multicellularity has originated several times in eukaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2, V&C 1, V&C 2 16) The last common ancestor of fungi and animals was most likely a A) multicellular photosynthetic eukaryote. B) colonial photosynthetic prokaryote. C) multicellular photosynthetic prokaryote. D) single-celled eukaryote. Answer: D Topic: 25.2 Multicellularity has originated several times in eukaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2, V&C 1 17) The evolution of multicellularity in animals has primarily occurred by A) changing how existing genes are used. B) deleting many old genes. C) producing many new genes. D) deleting many old chromosomes. Answer: A Topic: 25.2 Multicellularity has originated several times in eukaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2, V&C 1

18) Multicellular colonies of plant cells adhere to each other primarily by ________, whereas multicellular colonies of animal cells are typically held together by ________. A) fusion of cellular membranes; cell walls B) cell walls; fused cellular membranes C) cell walls; proteins D) interlocking chloroplasts; interlocking mitochondria E) interlocking cellular shapes; large, calcified capsules Answer: C Topic: 25.2 Multicellularity has originated several times in eukaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2, V&C 2 19) Which of the following organism pairs is/are an example of secondary endosymbiosis? I. red algae–heterotrophic eukaryote II. green algae–heterotrophic eukaryote III. E. coli bacteria–photosynthetic cyanobacterium IV. Chlamydomonas and Gonium A) I only B) III and IV C) I and II D) II and III Answer: C Topic: 25.2 Multicellularity has originated several times in eukaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2, G7 20) Which statement is correct with regard to the origins of multicellular organisms? A) Multicellular organisms with differentiated cells likely originated from a single common ancestor. B) Multicellular organisms with differentiated cells likely originated from multiple different ancestors. C) Early colonial multicellular organisms had cells that were highly differentiated. D) None of the early multicellular organisms that arose on Earth are still alive today. Answer: B Topic: 25.2 Multicellularity has originated several times in eukaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2, V&C 1, V&C 2

21) Comparisons of choanoflagellate and animal genome sequences tell us that key steps in the transition to multicellularity in animals involved new ways of using proteins or parts of proteins that were encoded by genes found in A) multicellular eukaryotes. B) unicellular protists. C) unicellular bacteria. D) unicellular archeae. Answer: B Topic: 25.2 Multicellularity has originated several times in eukaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2, V&C 1 22) Which of the following pairs of protists and their characteristics are mismatched? A) apicomplexans–internal parasites B) mixotrophs–combine photosynthesis and heterotrophic nutrition C) euglenozoans–unicellular flagellates D) ciliates–red tide organisms Answer: D Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2 23) Which of the following statements about dinoflagellates is correct? A) They possess two flagella. B) All known varieties are autotrophic. C) Their walls are usually composed of silica plates. D) Many types lack mitochondria. E) Their dead cells accumulate on the seafloor and are mined to serve as a filtering material. Answer: A Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 24) Why is the filamentous morphology of the slime molds considered a case of convergent evolution with fungi? A) Water molds evolved from filamentous fungi. B) Body shape reflects ancestor-descendant relationships among organisms. C) DNA sequence analyses indicate that slime molds descended from different unicellular ancestors than did fungi. D) Filamentous body shape is evolutionarily ancestral for all eukaryotes. Answer: C Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 1, V&C 3, G2 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Diatoms are mostly asexual members of the phytoplankton. They obtain their nutrition from functional chloroplasts, and each diatom is encased within two porous, glasslike valves. Which question would be most important for one interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms? A) How does carbon dioxide get into these protists with their glasslike valves? B) How do diatoms get transported from one location on the water's surface layers to another location on the surface? C) How do diatoms with their glasslike valves keep from sinking into poorly lit waters? D) How do diatoms with their glasslike valves avoid being shattered by the action of waves? E) How do diatom sperm cells locate diatom egg cells? Answer: C Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2, G2 26) A large seaweed that floats freely on the surface of deep bodies of water would be expected to lack which of the following? A) alveoli B) bladders C) holdfasts D) flagella Answer: C Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2, G2 27) Rhizarians that feed using threadlike pseudopodia include which of the following group(s)? I. forams II. red algae III. cercozoans IV. green algae A) I and III B) II and III C) I and IV D) II and IV Answer: A Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2

28) A snail-like, coiled, porous test (shell) of calcium carbonate is characteristic of which group? A) diatoms B) foraminiferans C) red algae D) cercozoans Answer: B Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 29) The chloroplasts of land plants are thought to have been derived according to which evolutionary sequence? A) cyanobacteria → green algae → land plants B) cyanobacteria → green algae → fungi → land plants C) red algae → brown algae → green algae → land plants D) cyanobacteria → red algae → green algae → land plants Answer: A Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 1 30) A biologist discovers an alga that is marine, multicellular, and can absorb both green and blue light. This alga probably belongs to which group? A) red algae B) brown algae C) green algae D) dinoflagellates Answer: A Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2 31) Green algae differ from land plants in that some green algae A) are heterotrophs. B) are unicellular. C) have plastids. D) have alternation of generations. E) have cell walls containing cellulose. Answer: B Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Some scientists who study organismal classification believe that green algae should be in an expanded "plant" kingdom called Viridiplantae. If land plants are excluded from this kingdom, then what will be true of it? A) It will be monophyletic. B) It will more accurately depict evolutionary relationships than does the current taxonomy. C) It will be paraphyletic. D) It will be a true clade. Answer: C Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 1, G2 33) The best evidence for not classifying the slime molds as fungi comes from slime molds' A) DNA sequences. B) nutritional modes. C) choice of habitats. D) physical appearance. E) reproductive methods. Answer: A Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 3 34) Which pair of alternatives is highlighted by the life cycle of the cellular slime molds, such as Dictyostelium? A) prokaryotic or eukaryotic B) unicellular or multicellular C) diploid or haploid D) autotroph or heterotroph Answer: B Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3

35) Which of the following statements concerning protists is correct? A) All protists have mitochondria, although in some species they are much reduced and known by different names. B) The primary organism that transmits malaria to humans by its bite is the tsetse fly. C) All apicomplexans are autotrophic. D) All slime molds have an amoeboid stage that may be followed by a stage during which spores are produced. E) Euglenozoans that are mixotrophic lack functional chloroplasts. Answer: A Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 36) Of the four supergroups of eukaryotes, which one contains red algae, green algae, and all land plants? A) SAR B) Archeplastida C) Excavata D) Unikonta Answer: B Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 37) Why is there controversy surrounding the eukaryotic tree? A) It suggests that the unikonts are evolutionarily derived from the archeplastids. B) It suggests that amoebozoans are more closely related (evolutionarily) to red algae than green algae. C) The tree lacks branches for species that have yet to be classified. D) The root of the tree is uncertain such that it is unknown which supergroup was the first to diverge from all other eukaryotes. Answer: D Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 1, G1

38) Which of the following is correctly described as a primary producer? A) foram B) kinetoplastid C) apicomplexan D) diatom Answer: D Topic: 25.3, 25.4 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data; Single-celled eukaryotes play key roles in ecological communities and affect human health Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3, 25.4, G7 39) You discover a new species of aerobic, mixotrophic protist that can perform photosynthesis in water up to 250 m deep. It can also crawl about and engulf small particles. Which two characteristics does your protist have to have in order to successfully complete these tasks? 1. hydrogenosome 2. apicoplast 3. pseudopods 4. chloroplast from red alga 5. chloroplast from green alga A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 and 4 D) 3 and 4 E) 4 and 5 Answer: D Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2, G2

40) In a synthetic biology experiment, you are given a task to design a new species of aquatic protist. Your design should account for the following characteristics: 1. The protist functions as a primary producer. 2. It cannot swim on its own. 3. It must stay in well-lit surface waters. 4. It must be resistant to physical damage from wave action. Based on these criteria, you decide to model your creation after a(n) A) diatom. B) dinoflagellate. C) apicomplexan. D) red alga. E) radiolarian. Answer: A Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2, G1, G2 41) Which of the following is (are) mutualistic partnerships between a protist and a host organism? I. cellulose-digesting gut protists–wood-eating termites II. dinoflagellates–reef-building coral animals III. Trichomonas–humans IV. algae–certain foraminiferans A) I only B) II and IV C) I, II, and III D) I, II, and IV Answer: D Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 42) Living diatoms contain brownish plastids. If global warming causes blooms of diatoms in the surface waters of Earth's oceans, how might this be harmful to the animals that build coral reefs? A) The coral animals, which capture planktonic organisms, may be outcompeted by the diatoms. B) The coral animals' endosymbiotic dinoflagellates may get "shaded out" by the diatoms. C) The coral animals may die from overeating the plentiful diatoms. D) The diatoms' photosynthetic output may over-oxygenate the water. Answer: B Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, G2, G5, G7 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their cellular membrane surface proteins? 1. Plasmodium 2. Trichomonas 3. Paramecium 4. Trypanosoma A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 4 C) 2 and 3 D) 2 and 4 Answer: B Topic: 25.4 Single-celled eukaryotes play key roles in ecological communities and affect human health Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4, V&C 2, G5 44) Protists are I) complex at the cellular level, even though they're simple compared with other eukaryotes. II) typically water-living. III) mostly unicellular. IV) exclusively heterotrophic. A) I only B) I and II only C) I, II, and III D) I, II, III, and IV Answer: C Topic: 25.4 Single-celled eukaryotes play key roles in ecological communities and affect human health Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4, V&C 1 45) Global warming of Earth's oceans may have a direct effect on global photosynthetic rates and carbon storage, given that A) 30% of the world's photosynthesis is done by aquatic protists. B) 20% of the world's photosynthesis is done by aquatic protists. C) 50% of the world's photosynthesis is done by aquatic protists. Answer: C Topic: 25.4 Single-celled eukaryotes play key roles in ecological communities and affect human health Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4, V&C 4, G5

46) The life cycle of the malarial parasite, Plasmodium, includes A) haploid and diploid stages both inside the human host and the mosquito. B) a haploid stage diploid inside the human host and both haploid and diploid stages in the mosquito. C) only haploid stages inside the mosquito and diploid states inside liver cells and blood cells of humans. Answer: B Topic: 25.4 Single-celled eukaryotes play key roles in ecological communities and affect human health Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4, V&C 4, G5 25.2 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Diatoms are encased in valves made of translucent hydrated silica whose thickness can vary. The material used to store excess calories can also vary. At certain times, diatoms store excess calories in the form of the liquid polysaccharide laminarin and at other times as oil. The table shows data concerning the density (specific gravity) of various components of diatoms and of their environment.

1) Judging from the table and given that water's density and, consequently, its buoyancy decreases at warmer temperatures, in which environment would diatoms (and other suspended particles) sink most slowly? A) cold pure water B) warm pure water C) cold seawater D) warm seawater Answer: C Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2, V&C C2, G2, G3

2) Using dead diatoms to "pump" CO2 to the seafloor is feasible only if dead diatoms sink quickly. Consequently, application of mineral fertilizers, such as iron, should be most effective at times when diatom valves A) are thickest, and laminarin is being produced rather than oil. B) are thickest, and oil is being produced rather than laminarin. C) are thinnest, and laminarin is being produced rather than oil. D) are thinnest, and oil is being produced rather than laminarin. Answer: A Topic: Concepts 25.3, 25.4 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data; Single-celled eukaryotes play key roles in ecological communities and affect human health Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 25.3, 25.4, V&C 2, V&C C2, G2, G3 3) When diatoms die, their shells fall to the floor of the ocean or lake that they inhabit and form sediments called diatomaceous earth (DE). Diatoms can be identified by their shells, and different species of diatoms prefer different water temperatures. What information can be gained if scientists take samples of long-existing DE and identify the diatom species that created it? A) Scientists can decipher evolutionary lineages between diatom species. B) Scientists can predict future trends in greenhouse gas emissions. C) Scientists can learn about past climates. D) Scientists can better understand how wind currents affect water temperature. Answer: C Topic: 25.4 Single-celled eukaryotes play key roles in ecological communities and affect human health Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 25.4, G1, G2, G5 4) When diatoms die, their shells fall to the floor of the ocean or lake that they inhabit and form sediments called diatomaceous earth (DE). Diatoms can be identified by their shells, and different species of diatoms prefer different water temperatures. The diatoms' porous shells are hard but often break and result in sharp edges. Crop farmers incorporate DE into their soil to help kill insect pests. When insects encounter DE, sharp shell edges cut through their exoskeletons and then softer, broken down DE absorbs insect body fluids, thereby causing the insects to die due to dehydration. Why might farmers who raise large livestock also use DE in the animals' feed? A) The sharp shells can damage the tissue of intestinal parasites and eventually kill them. B) DE helps to slow down the livestock's digestion of food, thereby increasing nutrient absorption. C) The porous nature of the shells in the DE helps keep livestock hydrated. D) DE encourages growth of "healthy" intestinal bacteria. Answer: A Topic: 25.4 Single-celled eukaryotes play key roles in ecological communities and affect human health Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 25.4, V&C 2, G2, G5 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. You are given four test tubes, each containing an unknown protist. Your task is to read the following description and match these four protists to the correct test tube. When red and blue light are shone on the tubes, oxygen bubbles accumulate on the inside of test tubes 1 and 2. Chemical analysis of test tube 1 indicates the presence of a chemical that is toxic to fish and humans. Chemical analysis of test tube 2 indicates the presence of substantial amounts of silica. Microscopic analysis of organisms in test tube 3 reveals the presence of an apicoplast in each. Microscopic analysis of the contents in test tube 4 reveals thousands of cilia on the surface of the organism. 5) Test tube 4 contains A) Paramecium. B) Navicula (diatom). C) Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate). D) Plasmodium. Answer: A Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, G2 6) Test tube 2 contains A) Paramecium. B) Navicula (diatom). C) Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate). D) Plasmodium. Answer: B Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, G2 7) Test tube 1 contains A) Paramecium. B) Navicula (diatom). C) Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate). D) Plasmodium. Answer: C Topic: 25.4 Single-celled eukaryotes play key roles in ecological communities and affect human health Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.4, G2

8) Test tube 3 contains A) Paramecium. B) Navicula (diatom). C) Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate). D) Plasmodium. Answer: D Topic: 25.4 Single-celled eukaryotes play key roles in ecological communities and affect human health Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.4, G2 Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Giardia intestinalis is an intestinal parasite of humans and other mammals that causes intestinal ailments in most people. It can infect people when they drink water contaminated with feces containing Giardia cysts. Upon ingestion, each cyst releases two motile cells, called trophozoites. These attach to the small intestine's lining via a ventral adhesive disk. The trophozoites anaerobically metabolize glucose from the host's intestinal contents to produce ATP. Reproduction is completely asexual, occurring by longitudinal binary fission of trophozoites, with each daughter cell receiving two haploid nuclei (n = 5). A trophozoite will often encyst as it passes into the large intestine by secreting around itself a case that is resistant to cold, heat, and dehydration. 9) Giardia's mitosome can be said to be "doubly degenerate," because it is a degenerate form of ________, an organelle that is itself a degenerate form of ________. A) nucleus; archaean B) nucleus; bacterium C) mitochondrion; proteobacterium D) mitochondrion; spirochete E) chloroplast; cyanobacterium Answer: C Topic: 25.1, 25.3 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago; Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1, 25.3, V&C 2

10) Given its mode of reproduction and internal structures, which of the following should be expected to occur in Giardia at some stage of its life cycle? 1. separation (segregation) of daughter chromosomes 2. crossing over 3. meiosis A) 1 only B) 3 only C) 1 and 2 D) 1 and 3 E) 2 and 3 Answer: A Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, G2, G7 11) Unlike most excavates, Giardia trophozoites have no oral groove and are unable to form food vacuoles. Thus, we should expect its nutrition (mostly glucose) to come from A) its mitosomes. B) endosymbiotic cyanobacteria. C) the ventral disk by which it adheres to the intestinal lining. D) osmosis involving aquaporins (proteins that transport water across cell membranes). E) plasma membrane proteins that are transporters or pumps. Answer: E Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2, G2, G7 12) During passage through the large intestine, a trophozoite will often secrete a case around itself, forming a cyst. Cysts contain four haploid nuclei. When cysts "hatch" within a new host, two trophozoites are released. Thus, which of the following must happen within the cyst prior to hatching? 1. meiosis 2. nuclear division 3. S phase 4. binary fission A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 C) 2 and 3 D) 2 and 4 E) 2, 3, and 4 Answer: E Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2, G2, G7 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) The cysts of Giardia are most analogous to the A) mitochondria of ancestral diplomonads. B) nuclei of archaeans. C) endospores of bacteria. D) capsids of viruses. Answer: C Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2, G2, G7 14) If the mitosomes of Giardia contain no DNA yet are descendants of what were once freeliving organisms, then where are we likely to find the genes that encode their structures, and what accounts for their current location there? A) plasmids; conjugation B) plasmids; transformation C) nucleus; horizontal gene transfer D) nucleus; S phase Answer: C Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2, V&C 3, G2, G7 15) The primary treatment for giardiasis (infection with Giardia), trichomoniasis (infection with Trichomonas vaginalis), and amoebic dysentery (infection with Entamoeba histolytica) is a drug marketed as Flagyl (generic name is metronidazole). The drug also kills anaerobic gut bacteria. Consequently, which of these are cues that Flagyl's mode of action has nothing to do with attacking or disabling flagella, as the drug's name might imply? 1. Flagyl would also harm the flagellated lining of the human intestine. 2. Entamoeba possesses pseudopods, not flagella, yet it is killed by Flagyl. 3. Not all anaerobic gut bacteria possess flagella, yet flagyl kills these bacteria. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 2 D) 2 and 3 E) 1 and 3 Answer: D Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2, G2, G5

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Paulinella chromatophora is one of the few cercozoans that is autotrophic, carrying out aerobic photosynthesis with its two elongated "cyanelles." The cyanelles are contained within vesicles of the host cell, and each is derived from a cyanobacterium, though not the same type of cyanobacterium that gave rise to the chloroplasts of algae and plants. 16) What must occur for asexual reproduction to be successful in P. chromatophora? 1. mitosis 2. S phase 3. meiosis 4. equal distribution of cyanelles during cytokinesis A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 1, 2, and 3 D) 1, 2, and 4 E) 2, 3, and 4 Answer: D Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 3, G2, G7 17) The closest living relative of P. chromatophora is the heterotroph P. ovalis. What type of evidence permits biologists to make this claim about relatedness? A) morphological B) ecological C) biochemical D) genetic E) fossil Answer: D Topic: 25.1 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.1, V&C 1, G2 18) The closest living relative of P. chromatophora is the heterotroph P. ovalis. P. ovalis uses threadlike pseudopods to capture its prey, which it digests internally. Which of the following, if observed, would be the best reason for relabeling P. chromatophora as a mixotroph? A) a threadlike pseudopod B) a vacuole with food inside C) a secretory vesicle D) a contractile vacuole Answer: B Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2, G2 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) Which of the following represents the true significance of the finding that the cyanelles of stem from a different type of cyanobacterium than gave rise to chloroplasts? A) This finding indicates that there is a second evolutionary lineage of photosynthetic eukaryotes. B) This finding represents the first time that primary endosymbiosis has been directly observed. C) This finding is the strongest evidence yet for the theory of endosymbiosis. D) This finding is an example of the phenomenon known as "serial endosymbiosis." E) This finding is the first evidence that eukaryotic cells do not necessarily digest prokaryotic cells that manage to gain access to their cytoplasm. Answer: A Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 1, G2 20) If true, which of the following would be most important in determining whether P. chromatophora's cyanelle is still an endosymbiont or is an organelle, as the term cyanelle implies? A) if P. chromatophora is less fit without its cyanelle than with it B) if the cyanelle is less fit without the host cercozoan than with it C) if there is ongoing metabolic cooperation between the cyanelle and the host cercozoan D) if there has been movement of genes from the cyanelle genome to the nuclear genome, such that these genes are no longer present in the cyanelle genome Answer: D Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 1, V&C 3, G2 21) If true, which of the following is the best evidence that the cyanelles are providing nutrition (in other words, calories) to the surrounding cercozoan? A) if the cyanelle performs aerobic photosynthesis B) if the vesicle membrane that surrounds each cyanelle possesses glucose-transport proteins C) if the cyanelle performs aerobic respiration D) if radiolabeled 14CO2 enters the cyanelle and if, subsequently, radiolabeled glucose is present in cercozoan cytosol Answer: D Topic: 25.1 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 25.1, V&C 2, G2, G7

22) A crucial photosynthetic gene of the cyanobacterium that gave rise to the cyanelle is called psaE. This gene is present in the nuclear genome of the cercozoan but is not in the genome of the cyanelle. This is evidence of A) reciprocal mutations in the cyanelle and nuclear genomes. B) horizontal gene transfer from bacterium to eukaryotes. C) genetic recombination involving a protist and an archaean. D) the origin of photosynthesis in protists. E) transduction by a phage that infects both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Answer: B Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 1, V&C 3, G2, G7 23) Including the membrane of the surrounding vesicle, how many phospholipid (not lipopolysaccharide) bilayers should be found around each cyanelle, and which one of these bilayers should have photosystems embedded in it? A) two; innermost B) two; outermost C) three; innermost D) three; middle E) three; outermost Answer: A Topic: 25.3 Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.3, V&C 2, G2, G7

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Healthy individuals of Paramecium bursaria contain photosynthetic algal endosymbionts of the genus Chlorella. When within their hosts, the algae are referred to as zoochlorellae. In aquaria with light coming from only one side, P. bursaria gathers at the well-lit side, whereas other species of Paramecium gather at the opposite side. The zoochlorellae provide their hosts with glucose and oxygen, and P. bursaria provides its zoochlorellae with protection and motility. P. bursaria can lose its zoochlorellae in two ways: (1) if kept in darkness, the algae will die; and (2) if prey items (mostly bacteria) are absent from its habitat, P. bursaria will digest its zoochlorellae. 24) Which term best describes the symbiotic relationship of well-fed P. bursaria with their zoochlorellae? A) mutualistic (each species benefits from the other) B) photosynthetic C) parasitic D) predatory Answer: A Topic: 25.1, 25.3 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago; Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.1, 25.3, G2, G7 25) The motility that permits P. bursaria to move toward a light source is provided by A) pseudopods. B) a single flagellum composed of the protein flagellin. C) many cilia. D) contractile vacuoles. Answer: C Topic: 25.1, 25.3 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago; Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1, 25.3 26) A P. bursaria cell that has lost its zoochlorellae is said to be aposymbiotic. It might be able to replenish its contingent of zoochlorellae by ingesting them without subsequently digesting them. Which of the following situations would be most favorable to the reestablishment of resident zoochlorellae, assuming that compatible Chlorella are present in P. bursaria's habitat? A) abundant light, no bacterial prey B) abundant light, abundant bacterial prey C) no light, no bacterial prey D) no light, abundant bacterial prey Answer: B Topic: 25.1, 25.3 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago; Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.1, 25.3, G2 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

27) Theoretically, P. bursaria can obtain zoochlorella either vertically (via the asexual reproduction of its mother cell) or horizontally (by ingesting free-living Chlorella from its habitat). Consider a P. bursaria cell containing zoochlorellae but whose habitat lacks free-living Chlorella. If this cell subsequently undergoes many generations of asexual reproduction, if all of its daughter cells contain roughly the same number of zoochlorellae as it had originally contained, and if the zoochlorellae are all haploid and identical in appearance, then what is true? A) The zoochlorellae also reproduced asexually, at an increasing rate over time. B) The zoochlorellae also reproduced asexually, at a decreasing rate over time. C) The zoochlorellae also reproduced asexually, at a fairly constant rate over time. D) The zoochlorellae reproduced sexually, undergoing mitosis and meiosis. Answer: C Topic: 25.1, 25.3 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago; Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 25.1, 25.3, G2 28) Which term most accurately describes the nutritional mode of healthy P. bursaria? A) photoautotroph B) photoheterotroph C) chemoheterotroph D) chemoautotroph E) mixotroph Answer: E Topic: 25.1, 25.3 Eukaryotes arose by endosymbiosis more than 1.8 billion years ago; Four "supergroups" of eukaryotes have been proposed based on morphological and molecular data Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 25.1, 25.3, G2 25.3 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) The oldest fossil eukaryote that can be resolved taxonomically is of A) a red alga that lived 1.2 billion years ago. B) a red alga that lived 635 million years ago. C) a fungus that lived 2 billion years ago. D) an Ediacaran that lived 550 million years ago. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) The evolution of complex multicellularity in eukaryotes A) occurred only once, in the common ancestor of all eukaryotes. B) occurred only once, in the common ancestor of all multicellular eukaryotes. C) occurred only once, in the animal lineage. D) occurred independently in several eukaryotic lineages. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Plastids that are surrounded by more than two membranes are evidence of A) evolution from mitochondria. B) fusion of plastids. C) origin of the plastids from archaea. D) secondary endosymbiosis. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Biologists think that endosymbiosis gave rise to mitochondria before plastids partly because A) the products of photosynthesis could not be metabolized without mitochondrial enzymes. B) all eukaryotes have mitochondria (or their remnants), whereas many eukaryotes do not have plastids. C) mitochondrial DNA is less similar to prokaryotic DNA than is plastid DNA. D) without mitochondrial CO2 production, photosynthesis could not occur. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which group is incorrectly paired with its description? A) diatoms–important producers in aquatic communities B) red algae–acquired plastids by secondary endosymbiosis C) apicomplexans–parasites with intricate life cycles D) diplomonads–protists with modified mitochondria Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

6) Based on the phylogenetic tree in the figure given below, which of the following statements is correct?

A) The most recent common ancestor of Excavata is older than that of SAR. B) The most recent common ancestor of red algae and plants is older than that of nucleariids and fungi. C) The most basal (first to diverge) eukaryotic supergroup cannot be determined. D) Excavata is the most basal eukaryotic supergroup. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 26 The Colonization of Land by Plants and Fungi 26.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The structural integrity of bacteria is to peptidoglycan as the structural integrity of plant spores is to A) lignin. B) cellulose. C) secondary compounds. D) sporopollenin. Answer: D Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, G2, G7 2) Commonalities to both charophytes and vascular land plants include I. sporopollenin. II. lignin. III. chlorophyll a. IV. cellulose. V. chlorophyll b. A) I, II, III, and V only B) I, III, IV, and V only C) III and IV only D) II and IV only Answer: B Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 3) According to our current knowledge of plant evolution, which group of organisms should feature mitosis most similar to that of land plants? A) unicellular green algae B) charophytes C) red algae D) multicellular green algae Answer: C Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.1, V&C 1, G2

4) On a field trip, a student in a marine biology class collects an organism that has differentiated organs, cell walls of cellulose, and chloroplasts with chlorophyll a. Based on this description, the organism could be a brown alga, a red alga, a green alga, a charophyte recently washed into the ocean from a freshwater or brackish water source, or a land plant washed into the ocean. The presence of which of the following features would definitively identify this organism as a land plant? A) sporopollenin B) rings of cellulose-synthesizing complexes C) flagellated sperm D) embryos Answer: D Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.1, V&C 2, G2 5) Some green algae exhibit alternation of generations. All land plants exhibit alternation of generations. No charophytes exhibit alternation of generations. Keeping in mind the recent evidence from molecular systematics, the correct interpretation of these observations is that A) charophytes are not related to either green algae or land plants. B) plants evolved alternation of generations independently of green algae. C) alternation of generations cannot be beneficial to charophytes. D) land plants evolved directly from the green algae that perform alternation of generations. E) scientists have no evidence to indicate whether or not land plants evolved from any kind of alga. Answer: B Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, V&C 1, V&C 2 6) Which taxon is essentially equivalent to the "embryophytes"? A) Viridiplantae B) Plantae C) Streptophyta D) Bryophyta Answer: B Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1

7) The functional role of sporopollenin is primarily to A) comprise spore surface structures that catch the wind and assist in spore dispersal. B) reduce the dehydration of zygotes. C) make spores less dense and able to disperse more readily. D) repel toxic chemicals. E) provide nutrients to spores. Answer: B Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, V&C 2 8) If the kingdom Plantae is someday expanded to include the charophytes, then the shared derived characteristics of the kingdom will include 1. rings of cellulose-synthesizing complexes. 2. chlorophylls a and b. 3. alternation of generations. 4. cell walls of cellulose. 5. ability to synthesize sporopollenin. A) 1 and 5 only B) 1, 2, and 3 only C) 1, 3, and 5 only D) 1, 4, and 5 only E) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only Answer: A Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, V&C 1, V&C 2, G7 9) Challenges for survival of the first land plants include I. sources of water. II. sperm transfer. III. desiccation. IV. animal predation. V. lack of structural support. A) I only B) II only C) II, III, and IV only D) I, II, III, and V only Answer: D Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, V&C 2

10) Adaptations in plants to life on land include I. rings of cellulose-synthesizing complexes. II. cuticles. III. tracheids. IV. reduced gametophyte generation. V. multicellular, dependent embryos. A) I only B) II and IV only C) I, II, III, and IV only D) II, III, IV, and V only Answer: D Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, V&C 2 11) Mitotic activity by the apical meristem of a root makes which of the following more possible? A) increase of the aboveground stem B) increased absorption of mineral nutrients C) increased absorption of CO2 D) increased number of chloroplasts in roots E) increased stomata production Answer: B Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, V&C 2 12) Arrange the following terms from most inclusive to least inclusive. 1. embryophytes 2. green plants 3. seedless vascular plants 4. ferns A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 2, 1, 3, 4 C) 3, 2, 1, 4 D) 1, 4, 2, 3 E) 2, 1, 4, 3 Answer: B Topic: 26.1, 26.3 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago; Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.1, 26.3, G2

13) Evidence indicates that plants increase the number of stomata in their leaves as atmospheric CO2 levels decline. Increasing the number of stomata per unit surface area should have the effect of doing which of the following? 1. increasing dehydration of leaf tissues 2. decreasing dehydration of leaf tissues 3. countering the effect of declining CO2 on photosynthesis 4. reinforcing the effect of declining CO2 on photosynthesis 5. decreasing the O2 content of air next to the leaves lower than it would otherwise be 6. increasing the O2 content of air next to the leaves higher than it would otherwise be A) 1, 3, and 5 only B) 1, 3, and 6 only C) 1, 4, and 5 only D) 2, 3, and 6 only E) 2, 4, and 5 only Answer: B Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.1, G2, G7, V&C 2 14) Assuming that they all belong to the same plant, arrange the following structures from largest to smallest (or from most inclusive to least inclusive). 1. spores 2. sporophytes 3. sporangia A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 1, 3 C) 3, 1, 2 D) 3, 2, 1 E) 2, 3, 1 Answer: E Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, V&C 2

15) Which of the following were benefits to algae in the early oceans of Earth, compared to the first plants that colonized land? 1. no scarcity of water 2. less solar damage to tissues 3. the need for structural support 4. more plentiful dissolved carbon dioxide A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 B) 1 and 2 only C) 1, 2, and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 4 Answer: B Topic: 26.1, 26.3 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago; Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, V&C 2, G2

Figure 26.5 16) Using Figure 26.5, which of the following taxonomic groups from the list below would you expect to have a genome with DNA sequences most similar to the Plantae? A) other charophytes B) chlorophytes C) red algae D) ancestral Alga Answer: A Topic: 26.1, 26.3 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago; Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.1, V&C 2, G2

17) In seed plants, which of the following is part of a pollen grain and has a function most like that of the seed coat? A) sporophyll B) male gametophyte C) sporopollenin D) stigma E) sporangium Answer: C Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2, V&C 2 18) A botanist discovers a new species of land plant with a dominant sporophyte, chlorophylls a and b, and cell walls made of cellulose. In assigning this plant to a phylum, which of the following, if present, would be least useful? A) endosperm B) seeds C) sperm that lack flagella D) flowers E) spores Answer: E Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.2, G2, V&C 2 19) Fossil fungi date back to the origin and early evolution of plants. What combination of environmental and morphological change is similar in the evolution of both fungi and plants? A) presence of "coal forests" and change in mode of nutrition B) periods of drought and presence of filamentous body shape C) predominance in swamps and presence of cellulose in cell walls D) colonization of land and loss of flagellated cells E) continental drift and mode of spore dispersal Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2, V&C 1

20) If all fungi in an environment that perform decomposition were to suddenly die, then which group of organisms should benefit most, after their fungal competitors have been removed? A) plants B) protists C) prokaryotes D) animals E) mutualistic fungi Answer: C Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.2, G2 21) When a mycelium infiltrates an unexploited source of dead organic matter, what are most likely to appear within the food source soon thereafter? A) chitin B) fungal enzymes C) increased oxygen levels D) larger bacterial populations Answer: B Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.2, G2 22) Which of the following is a characteristic of hyphate fungi (fungi featuring hyphae)? A) They acquire their nutrients by phagocytosis. B) Their body plan is a unicellular sphere. C) They have symbiotic relationships with nucleariids. D) They are adapted for rapid directional growth to new food sources. E) They reproduce asexually by a process known as budding. Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2

23) The vegetative (nutritionally active) bodies of most fungi are I. composed of hyphae. II. referred to as a mycelium. III. usually underground. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) II and III only E) I, II, and III Answer: E Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 24) Immediately after karyogamy occurs, which term applies? A) plasmogamy B) heterokaryotic C) haploid D) diploid Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 25) Which description(s) apply(ies) equally well to fungal spores produced both sexually and asexually? I. They are typically dispersed by wind and water. II. Spores that germinate produce new mycelium. III. They are produced in large numbers. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) I, II, and III Answer: E Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2

26) Plasmogamy can directly result in which of the following? I. cells with a single haploid nucleus II. heterokaryotic cells III. cells with two diploid nuclei A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) I, II, and III Answer: B Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 27) Which process occurs in fungi and has the opposite effect on a cell's chromosome number than does meiosis? A) mitosis B) plasmogamy C) crossing over D) binary fission E) karyogamy Answer: E Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2, G7 28) When pathogenic fungi are found growing on the roots of grape vines, grape farmers sometimes respond by covering the ground around their vines with plastic sheeting and pumping a gaseous fungicide into the soil. The most important concern of grape farmers who engage in this practice should be that the A) fungicide might also kill the native yeasts residing on the surfaces of the grapes. B) lichens growing on the vines' branches are not harmed. C) fungicide might also kill mycorrhizae. D) sheeting is transparent so that photosynthesis can continue. Answer: C Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 26.2, G2, G5

29) Which of the following is a true statement about plant reproduction? A) Embryophytes are small because they are in an early developmental stage. B) In bryophytes, the dominant generation consists of haploid gametophytes. C) Rhizoids protect gametes from excess water. D) Eggs and sperm of bryophytes swim toward one another. E) Bryophytes are limited to asexual reproduction. Answer: B Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 30) The leaflike appendages of moss gametophytes may be one to two cell layers thick. Consequently, which of the following is least likely to be found associated with such appendages? A) cuticle B) rings of cellulose-synthesizing complexes C) stomata D) tracheids Answer: C Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.3, G2, V&C 2 31) Considering that the mature sporophytes of true mosses get their nutrition from the gametophytes on which they grow, and considering these generations as individual plants, what is true of the relationship between true moss sporophytes and gametophytes? A) Sporophytes are endosymbionts of gametophytes. B) Sporophytes are mutualists of gametophytes. C) Sporophytes are commensalists of gametophytes. D) Sporophytes are parasites of gametophytes. Answer: D Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.3, G2, G7 32) Which of the following characteristics helped seedless plants better adapt to life on land? A) a dominant gametophyte B) the presence of photosystem II C) a chitinous cuticle D) a well-developed vascular system E) an unbranched sporophyte Answer: D Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3, G7

33) Which of the following would have had gene sequences most similar to the charophyte that was the common ancestor of the land plants? A) early angiosperms B) early bryophytes C) early gymnosperms D) early lycophytes Answer: B Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.3, G2 34) If intelligent extraterrestrials visited Earth 475 million years ago, and then again 300 million years ago (at the close of the Carboniferous period), what trends would they have noticed in Earth's terrestrial vegetation over this period? 1. a trend from dominant gametophytes to dominant sporophytes 2. a trend from no true leaves to microphylls to megaphylls 3. a trend from plants that grow just above the soil surface to "overtopping" plants 4. a trend toward increased lignification of conducting systems A) 1 and 3 only B) 3 and 4 only C) 1, 2, and 3 only D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Answer: D Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 35) In which of the following plant groups does the mature sporophyte depend completely on the gametophyte for nutrition? A) bryophytes B) monilophytes C) gymnosperms D) angiosperms Answer: A Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3

36) A botanist discovers a new species of plant in a tropical rain forest. After observing its anatomy and life cycle, he notes the following characteristics: flagellated sperm, xylem with tracheids, separate gametophyte and sporophyte generations with the sporophyte dominant, and no seeds. This plant is probably most closely related to A) mosses. B) charophytes. C) ferns. D) gymnosperms. E) flowering plants. Answer: C Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.3, G2 37) You are hiking in a forest and come upon a mysterious plant, which you believe to be a lycophyte or a monilophyte. Which of the following would be most helpful in determining the correct classification of the plant? A) whether or not it has true leaves B) whether it has microphylls or megaphylls C) whether or not it has seeds D) its height E) whether or not it has chlorophyll a Answer: B Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.3, G2 38) Sporophylls can be found in which of the following? A) mosses B) liverworts C) hornworts D) gymnosperms E) charophytes Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, 26.4

39) If humans had been present to build house structures during the Carboniferous period, which plant types would have been possible building materials? A) whisk ferns and bryophytes B) horsetails and charophytes C) angiosperms and bryophytes D) ferns, horsetails, and lycophytes E) ferns, angiosperms, and gymnosperms Answer: D Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 40) Which of the following is true of seedless vascular plants? A) Extant seedless vascular plants are larger than the extinct varieties. B) Whole forests were dominated by large, seedless vascular plants during the Carboniferous period. C) The sperm are non-flagellated. D) The gametophyte is the dominant generation. Answer: B Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 41) Which group is noted for the independence of gametophyte and sporophyte generations from each other? A) ferns B) mosses, hornworts, and liverworts C) charophytes D) angiosperms E) gymnosperms Answer: A Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3

42) Suppose that the cells of seed plants, like the skin cells of humans, produce a pigment upon increased exposure to UV radiation. Rank the following cells, from greatest to least, in terms of the likelihood of producing this pigment. 1. cells of sporangium 2. cells in the interior of a subterranean root 3. epidermal cells of sporophyte megaphylls 4. cells of a gametophyte A) 3, 4, 1, 2 B) 3, 4, 2, 1 C) 3, 1, 4, 2 D) 3, 2, 1, 4 E) 3, 1, 2, 4 Answer: C Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 26.3, G2 43) Arrange the following in the correct sequence, from earliest to most recent, in which these plant traits originated. 1. sporophyte dominance, gametophyte independence 2. sporophyte dominance, gametophyte dependence 3. gametophyte dominance, sporophyte dependence A) 1 → 2 → 3 B) 2 → 3 → 1 C) 2 → 1 → 3 D) 3 → 2 → 1 E) 3 → 1 → 2 Answer: E Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 44) How have fruits contributed to the success of angiosperms? A) by nourishing the plants that make them B) by facilitating dispersal of seeds C) by attracting insects to the pollen inside D) by producing sperm and eggs inside a protective coat Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4

45) Arrange the following structures from largest to smallest, assuming that they belong to two generations of the same angiosperm. 1. ovary 2. ovule 3. egg 4. carpel A) 4, 2, 1, 3 B) 3, 1, 2, 4 C) 4, 3, 1, 2 D) 1, 4, 2, 3 E) 4, 1, 2, 3 Answer: E Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 46) Which of the following flower parts develops into a seed? A) ovule B) ovary C) fruit D) stamen Answer: A Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4, V&C 2 47) Which of the following flower parts develops into the pulp of a fleshy fruit? A) stigma B) style C) ovule D) ovary E) micropyle Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4

48) Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the following features is unique to them and helps account for their success? A) wind pollination B) dominant gametophytes C) fruits enclosing seeds D) embryos enclosed within seed coats E) sperm cells without flagella Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 49) Which of the following is a true statement about angiosperm carpels? A) Carpels are features of the gametophyte generation. B) Carpels consist of an anther and a stamen. C) Carpels are structures that directly produce male gametes. D) Carpels surround and nourish the female gametophyte. E) Carpels consist of highly modified microsporangia. Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 50) The generative cell of male angiosperm gametophytes is haploid. This cell divides to produce two haploid sperm cells. What type of cell division does the generative cell undergo to produce these sperm cells? A) binary fission B) mitosis C) meiosis D) plasmogamy Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4

51) What adaptations should one expect of the seed coats of angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by frugivorous (fruit-eating) animals, as opposed to angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by other means? 1. The exterior of the seed coat should have barbs or hooks. 2. The seed coat should contain secondary compounds that irritate the lining of the animal's mouth. 3. The seed coat should be able to withstand low pH environments. 4. The seed coat, upon its complete digestion, should provide vitamins or nutrients to animals. 5. The seed coat should be resistant to the animals' digestive enzymes. A) 4 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 3 and 5 only E) 3, 4, and 5 only Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 52) Which of the following are structures of angiosperm gametophytes? A) immature ovules B) pollen tubes C) ovaries D) stamens E) sepals Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 53) Which of the following is true concerning flowering plants? A) The flower includes sporophyte tissue. B) The gametophyte generation is dominant. C) The gametophyte generation is what we see when looking at a large plant. D) The sporophyte generation is not photosynthetic. E) The sporophyte generation consists of relatively few cells within the flower. Answer: A Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4

54) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the megasporangium of pine ovules? A) male gametophyte B) female gametophyte C) male sporophyte D) female sporophyte Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 55) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the fruit? A) male gametophyte B) female gametophyte C) male sporophyte D) female sporophyte Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 56) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the integument of a pine seed? A) male gametophyte B) female gametophyte C) male sporophyte D) female sporophyte Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 57) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the pollen tube? A) male gametophyte B) female gametophyte C) male sporophyte D) female sporophyte Answer: A Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4

58) What is true of stamens, sepals, petals, and carpels? A) They are female reproductive parts. B) None are capable of photosynthesis. C) They are modified leaves. D) They are found on flowers. E) They are found on angiosperms. Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 59) Which structure protects seed plants' embryos from desiccation? A) ovules B) ovaries C) fruits D) pollen grains E) integuments Answer: E Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 60) Arrange the following structures, which can be found on male pine trees, from the largest structure to the smallest structure (or from most inclusive to least inclusive). 1. sporophyte 2. microspores 3. microsporangia 4. pollen cone 5. pollen nuclei A) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 B) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 C) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 D) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 E) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 Answer: A Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4

61) Which trait(s) is (are) shared by many modern gymnosperms and angiosperms? 1. pollen transported by wind 2. lignified xylem 3. microscopic gametophytes 4. endosperm A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 only E) 1, 3, and 4 only Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 62) Which structure is common to both gymnosperms and angiosperms? A) stigma B) carpel C) ovule D) ovary E) anthers Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 63) Which of the following can be found in gymnosperms? A) non-fertile flower parts B) fruits C) pollen D) carpels Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 64) Which of the following statements is true of the pine life cycle? A) Cones are homologous to the capsules of moss plants. B) The pine tree is a gametophyte. C) Male and female gametophytes are in close proximity during gamete synthesis. D) Conifer pollen grains contain male gametophytes. Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4

65) Within a gymnosperm megasporangium, what is the correct sequence in which the following should appear during development, assuming that fertilization occurs? 1. sporophyte embryo 2. female gametophyte 3. egg cell 4. megaspore A) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1 B) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1 C) 4 → 1 → 2 → 3 D) 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 E) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3 Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 66) Generally, wind pollination is most likely to be found in seed plants that grow A) close to the ground. B) in dense, single-species stands. C) in relative isolation from other members of the same species. D) along coastlines where prevailing winds blow from the land out to sea. E) in well-drained soils. Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 67) Which of the following statements correctly describes a portion of the pine life cycle? A) Female gametophytes use mitosis to produce eggs. B) Seeds are produced in pollen-producing cones. C) Pollen grains contain female gametophytes. D) A pollen tube slowly digests its way through the triploid endosperm. Answer: A Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, G2

68) A researcher has developed two stains for use with seed plants. One stains sporophyte tissue blue; the other stains gametophyte tissue red. If the researcher exposes pollen grains to both stains and then rinses away the excess stain, what will occur? A) The pollen grains will be pure red. B) The pollen grains will be pure blue. C) The pollen grains will have red interiors and blue exteriors. D) The pollen grains will have blue interiors and red exteriors. Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, G1, G2 69) Gymnosperms differ from both extinct and extant (living) ferns because they A) are woody. B) have macrophylls. C) have pollen. D) have sporophylls. E) have spores. Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 70) Which of the following is most important in making the typical seed more resistant to adverse conditions than the typical spore? A) a different type of sporopollenin B) an internal reservoir of liquid water C) integument(s) D) ability to be dispersed E) waxy cuticle Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, G2 71) Which of the following cellular structures is functionally important in cells of the gametophytes of both angiosperms and gymnosperms? A) sporangium B) anthers C) cell walls D) apical meristems Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4

72) The seed coat's most important function is to provide A) a nonstressful environment for the megasporangium. B) a means for dispersal. C) dormancy. D) a nutrient supply for the embryo. E) protection for the embryo. Answer: E Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 73) In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics is unique to the seed-producing plants? A) sporopollenin B) lignin present in cell walls C) pollen D) use of air currents as a dispersal agent E) megaphylls Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 74) Which of the following refers to symbiotic relationships that involve fungi living between the cells in plant leaves? A) pathogens B) endosymbioses C) endophytes D) lichens E) mycorrhizae Answer: C Topic: 26.5 Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.5

75) What is thought to be the correct sequence of the following events during the Carboniferous period? 1. Vascular plants become more prevalent. 2. Megaphylls with large surface areas become more prevalent. 3. Atmospheric CO2 levels decline dramatically. 4. Global cooling occurs, leading to widespread glaciations. A) 1, 2 ,3, 4 B) 2, 1, 3, 4 C) 2, 1, 4, 3 D) 1, 2, 4, 3 E) 3, 4, 1, 2 Answer: A Topic: 26.5 Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.5 76) The fruit of the mistletoe, a parasitic angiosperm, is a one-seeded berry. In members of the genus Viscum, the outside of the seed is viscous (sticky), which permits the seed to adhere to surfaces, such as the branches of host plants or the beaks of birds. What should be expected of the fruit if the viscosity of Viscum seeds is primarily an adaptation for dispersal rather than an adaptation for infecting host plant tissues? A) It should be drab in color. B) It should be colored so as to provide it with camouflage. C) It should be nutritious. D) It should secrete enzymes that can digest bark. Answer: C Topic: 26.5 Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.5, G2 77) What is the greatest threat to plant diversity? A) insects B) grazing and browsing by animals C) pathogenic fungi D) competition with other plants E) human population growth Answer: E Topic: 26.5 Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.5, G5

78) The microsporidian Brachiola gambiae parasitizes the mosquito Anopheles gambiae. Adult female mosquitoes must take blood meals in order for their eggs to develop, and it is while they take blood that they transmit malarial parasites to humans. Male mosquitoes drink flower nectar. If humans are to safely and effectively use Brachiola gambiae as a biological control to reduce human deaths from malaria, then how many of the following statements should be true? 1. Brachiola should kill the mosquitoes before the malarial parasite they carry reaches maturity. 2. Brachiola must be harmful to male mosquitoes but not to female mosquitoes. 3. Microsporidians should infect mosquito larvae rather than mosquito adults. 4. The subsequent decline in Anopheles gambiae should not significantly disrupt human food resources or other food webs. A) 3 and 4 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 1 and 4 only D) 2 and 4 only Answer: C Topic: 26.5 Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 26.5, G2 79) Lichens are symbiotic associations of fungi and I. mosses. II. cyanobacteria. III. green algae. IV. gymnosperms A) I only B) I and II C) II and III D) III and IV Answer: B Topic: 26.5 Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.5 80) In both lichens and mycorrhizae, what does the fungal partner provide to its photosynthetic partner? A) carbohydrates B) fixed nitrogen C) antibiotics D) water and minerals E) protection from harmful UV Answer: D Topic: 26.5 Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.5

81) Which of the following is a characteristic of all angiosperms? A) complete reliance on wind as the pollinating agent B) double internal fertilization C) free-living gametophytes D) carpels that contain microsporangia E) ovules that are not contained within ovaries Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 82) Which of the following statements are true of monocots? I. Over 25% of extant angiosperms are monocots. II. Monocots include both crop plants and ornamental plants. III. Monocots are most closely related to eudicots. IV. Monocots possess multiple cotyledons. A) I and II B) II and IV C) I, III, and IV D) I, II, and III Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 83) What do fungi and arthropods have in common? A) The haploid state is dominant in both groups. B) Both groups are predominantly heterotrophs that ingest their food. C) The protective coats of both groups are made of chitin. D) Both groups have cell walls. Answer: C Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2, G7

26.2 Art Questions The following question refers to the generalized life cycle for land plants shown in the figure.

1) In the figure, which structure produces haploid gametes by mitosis? A) Gametophyte B) Spore C) Sporophyte D) Zygote Answer: A Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, G3 2) In the figure, which structure produces haploid spores by meiosis? A) Zygote B) Gamete C) Sporophyte D) Gametophyte Answer: C Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, G3 29 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Meiosis, as part of the alternation of generations in land plants, produces A) diploid spores and gametes B) haploid spores C) haploid gametes D) diploid zygotes Answer: B Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, G3 4) What describes the product of when a zygote completes mitosis? A) a haploid gametophyte B) a diploid gametophyte C) a haploid sporophyte D) a diploid sporophyte Answer: D Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, G3 5) In the figure, which processes may result in haploid structures during the generalized life cycle for land plants? A) mitosis only B) meiosis only C) mitosis and meiosis D) fertilization, mitosis, and meiosis Answer: C Topic: 26.1 Fossils show that plants colonized land more than 470 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1, G3

The following question(s) refer to the phylogenetic trees.

6) Which tree depicts all of the currently recognized major groups of fungi? A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: C Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2, V&C 1, G3

7) Which tree depicts the closest relationship between zygomycetes and chytrids? A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: C Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.2, V&C 1, G2, G3 8) In phylogenetic tree I, which group of organisms is most directly related to the common ancestor of the tree? A) zygomycetes B) basidiomycetes C) ascomycetes D) chytrids Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.2, V&C 1, G2, G3 9)

What is true of the phylogenetic tree in the figure? 1. It depicts uncertainty about whether the bryophytes or the vascular plants evolved first. 2. It is hypothetical. 3. It shows that ferns are the closest living relatives to the seed plants. 4. It indicates that seeds are a shared ancestral character of all vascular plants. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 and 4 only D) 1 and 3 only Answer: B Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.3, V&C 1, G2, G3

26.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Fairy rings are circles of fungi that often appear in open meadows and in forest areas. In the soil beneath the fungi is an ever-extending mycelium. As the mycelium spreads to seek more food, it sometimes will produce the fungi we see above ground. The figure depicts the outline of a fairy ring that has appeared overnight in an open meadow, as viewed from above. The ring represents the farthest advance of this mycelium through the soil. Locations A—D are all 0.5 meters below the soil surface.

1) What is the most probable location of the oldest portion of this mycelium? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: C Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.2, G2, G3

2) Which location is nearest to basidiocarps? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: A Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.2, G2, G3 3) At which location should one find the lowest concentration of fungal enzymes, assuming that the enzymes do not diffuse far from their source and that no other fungi are present in this habitat? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 26.2, G2, G3 4) All four locations are 0.5 m below the surface. On a breezy day with prevailing winds blowing from left to right, where should one expect to find the highest concentration of free basidiospores in an air sample? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 26.2, G2, G3

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Diploid nuclei of the ascomycete Neurospora crassa contain 14 chromosomes. A single diploid cell in an ascus will undergo one round of meiosis, followed in each of the daughter cells by one round of mitosis, producing a total of eight ascospores. 5) If a single, diploid G2 nucleus in an ascus contains 400 nanograms (ng) of DNA, then a single ascospore nucleus of this species should contain how much DNA (ng), carried on how many chromosomes? A) 100, carried on 7 chromosomes B) 100, carried on 14 chromosomes C) 200, carried on 7 chromosomes D) 200, carried on 14 chromosomes E) 400, carried on 14 chromosomes Answer: A Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.2, G2, G4, G7, V&C C2 6) What is the ploidy of a single mature ascospore? A) haploid B) diploid C) triploid (three homologous sets of chromosomes) D) tetraploid (four homologous sets of chromosomes) Answer: A Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.2, G2, G7, V&C C2

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. For several decades now, amphibian species worldwide have been in decline. A significant proportion of the decline seems to be due to the spread of the chytrid fungus Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis (Bd). Chytrid sporangia reside within the epidermal cells of infected animals, animals that consequently show areas of sloughed skin. Infected animals can also be lethargic, which is expressed through failure to hide and failure to flee. The infection cycle typically takes four to five days, at the end of which zoospores are released from sporangia into the environment. Zoospores are spores of fungi (as well as some algae and protozoans) that use a flagella for swimming locomotion. In some amphibian species, mortality rates approach 100%; other species seem able to survive the infection. 7) The chytrid sporangia reside within the amphibian epidermal cells. Consequently, which term(s) apply to Bd? A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 4 only D) 2, 3, and 5 only E) 2, 4, and 5 only Answer: E Topic: 26.2, 26.5 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land; Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.2, 26.5, G2, G7 8) Sexual reproduction has not been observed in Bd. A Bd sporangium initially contains a single haploid cell. Which of the following processes must be involved in generating the multiple zoospores eventually produced by each sporangium? 1. S phase 2. cytokinesis 3. mitosis 4. meiosis A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 only E) 1, 2, and 4 only Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.2, G2, G7

9) If infection primarily involves the outermost layers of adult amphibian skin, and if the chytrids use the skin as their sole source of nutrition, then which term best applies to the chytrids? A) anaerobic chemoautotroph B) aerobic chemoautotroph C) anaerobic chemoheterotroph D) aerobic chemoheterotroph Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.2, G2 10) The fact that infection by Bd causes lethargy in many infected amphibians can have what effect on efforts to accurately census the numbers of dead or dying amphibians at a particular time, in a particular habitat? I. It can cause underestimation due to infected amphibians preferring to seek out refuges relative to uninfected amphibians. II. It can cause underestimation due to increased predation on, and removal of, infected amphibians relative to uninfected amphibians. III. It can cause overestimation because infected frogs should be more readily observable to human census-takers than should uninfected amphibians. A) II only B) I and II C) II and III D) I, II, and III Answer: D Topic: 26.2, 26.5 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land; Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 26.2, 26.5, G2

11) When adult amphibian skin harbors populations of the bacterium Janthinobacterium lividum (Jl), chytrid infection seems to be inhibited. Which of the following represents the best experimental design for conclusively determining whether this inhibition is real? A) Inoculate uninfected amphibians with Jl, and determine whether the amphibians continue to remain uninfected by chytrids. B) Inoculate infected amphibians with Jl, and determine whether the amphibians recover from infection by chytrids. C) Take infected amphibians, and assign them to two populations. Leave one population alone; inoculate the other with Jl. Measure the rate at which infection proceeds in both populations. D) Take infected amphibians, and assign them to two populations. Inoculate one population with a high dose of Jl; inoculate the other with a low dose of Jl. Measure the survival frequency in both populations. Answer: C Topic: 26.2, 26.5 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land; Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 26.2, 26.5, G1, G2 12) A researcher took water in which a Jl population had been thriving, filtered the water to remove all bacterial cells, and then applied the water to the skins of adult amphibians to see if there would subsequently be a reduced infection rate by Bd when frog skins were inoculated with Bd. For which of the following hypotheses is this procedure a potential test? A) the hypothesis that a toxin secreted by Jl cells kills Bd cells when both are present together on frog skin B) the hypothesis that Jl cells infect and kill Bd cells when both are present together on frog skin C) the hypothesis that Jl outcompetes Bd when both are present together on frog skin D) the hypothesis that the presence of Jl on frog skin causes a skin reaction that prevents attachment by Bd cells Answer: A Topic: 26.2, 26.5 Though not closely related to plants, fungi played a key role in the colonization of land; Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 26.2, 26.5, G1, G2

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. A biology student hiking in a forest happens upon an erect, 15-cm-tall plant that bears microphylls and a strobilus (a cone) at its tallest point. When disturbed, the cone emits a dense cloud of brownish dust. The student takes the dust back to the laboratory, where a microscope reveals the dust to be composed of tiny spheres with a high oil content. 13) This student has probably found a(n) A) immature pine tree. B) bryophyte sporophyte. C) fern sporophyte. D) horsetail gametophyte. E) lycophyte sporophyte. Answer: E Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.3, G2 14) A dissection of the interior of this organism's stem should reveal A) lignified vascular tissues. B) a cuticle. C) that it is composed of only a single, elongated cell. D) a relatively high proportion of dead, water-filled cells. Answer: A Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.3, G2

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Big Bend National Park in Texas is mostly Chihuahuan desert where rainfall averages about 10 inches per year. Yet when hiking in this bone-dry desert, it is not uncommon to encounter mosses and ferns. One such plant is called "flower of stone." It is not a flowering plant, nor does it produce seeds. Under arid conditions, its leaflike structures curl up. However, when it rains, it unfurls its leaves, which form a bright green rosette on the desert floor. Consequently, it is sometimes called the "resurrection plant." 15) Upon closer inspection of the leaves of flower of stone, one can observe tiny, cone-like structures. Each cone-like structure emits spores of two different sizes. Further investigation also reveals that the roots of flower of stone branch only at the growing tip of the root, forming a Yshaped structure. Consequently, flower of stone should be expected to possess which other characteristics? 1. a gametophyte generation that is dominant 2. lignified vascular tissues 3. microphylls 4. spores that are diploid when mature A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 5 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 2, 3, and 4 only E) 1, 3, and 4 only Answer: C Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.3, G2 16) In which combination of locations would one who is searching for the gametophytes of flower of stone have the best chance of finding them? 1. moist soil 2. underground, nourished there by symbiotic fungi 3. permanently shady places 4. far from any flower of stone sporophytes A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 1, 2, and 3 only D) 2, 3, and 4 only Answer: B Topic: 26.3 Early plants radiated into a diverse set of lineages Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 26.3. G2

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. The cycads, a mostly tropical phylum of gymnosperms, evolved about 300 million years ago and were dominant forms during the age of the dinosaurs. Though their sperm are flagellated, their ovules are pollinated by beetles. These beetles get nutrition (they eat pollen) and shelter from microsporophylls (leaflike structures that contain microsporangia). Upon visiting megasporophylls (leaflike structures where megaspores are formed), the beetles transfer pollen to the exposed ovules. In cycads, pollen cones and seed cones are borne on different plants. Cycads synthesize neurotoxins, especially in the seeds, that are effective against most animals, including humans. 17) Which feature of cycads distinguishes them from most other gymnosperms? 1. They have exposed ovules. 2. They have flagellated sperm. 3. They are pollinated by animals. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 only E) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, V&C 1, G2 18) Which feature of cycads makes them similar to many angiosperms? 1. They have exposed ovules. 2. They have flagellated sperm. 3. They are pollinated by animals. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 only E) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, V&C 1, G2

19) If the beetles survive by consuming cycad pollen, then whether the beetles should be considered mutualists with, or parasites of, the cycads depends upon A) the extent to which their overall activities affect cycad reproduction. B) the extent to which the beetles are affected by the neurotoxins. C) the extent to which the beetles damage the cycad flowers. D) the distance the beetles must travel between cycad microsporophylls and cycad megasporophylls. Answer: A Topic: 26.4, 26.5 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land; Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, 26.5, V&C 1, G2, G5, G7 20) On the Pacific island of Guam, large herbivorous bats called "flying foxes" commonly feed on cycad seeds, a potent source of neurotoxins. The flying foxes do not visit male cones. Consequently, what should be true? A) The flying foxes are attracted to cycad fruit and eat the enclosed seeds only by accident. B) Flying foxes are highly susceptible to the effects of the neurotoxins. C) The flying foxes assist the beetles as important pollinating agents of the cycads. D) Flying foxes can be dispersal agents of cycad seeds when they swallow the seeds whole (without getting chewed). Answer: D Topic: 26.4, 26.5 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land; Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, 26.5, V&C 1, G2, G5 Please use the following information to answer the questions below. In onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes within each nucleus. 21) How many chromosomes should be in an embryo nucleus? A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 24 E) 32 Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, G2, G4, G7

22) How many chromosomes should be in a megasporangium nucleus? A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 24 E) 32 Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, G2, G4, G7 Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Oviparous (egg-laying) animals have internal fertilization (sperm cells encounter eggs within the female's body). Yolk and/or albumen is (are) provided to the embryo, and a shell is then deposited around the embryo and its food source. Eggs are subsequently deposited in an environment that promotes their further development or are incubated by one or both parents. 23) The shell of an animal egg is analogous to which feature of an angiosperm? A) endosperm B) pollen tube C) carpels D) fruit E) integuments Answer: E Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, G2, G7 24) The internal fertilization that occurs in animals prior to shell deposition is analogous to which features of an angiosperm? A) endosperm and sperm nuclei B) pollen tube and sperm nuclei C) carpels D) fruit E) integuments Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, G2, G7

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. The Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to over 50 meters tall, is a source of high-quality lumber, and is a favorite nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits, each containing 8—25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still others inside the fruit, which moisture can then enter. The uneaten seeds may subsequently germinate. 25) The agouti is most directly involved with the Brazil nut tree's dispersal of A) male gametophytes. B) female gametophytes. C) sporophyte embryos. D) sporophyte megaspores. E) female gametes. Answer: C Topic: 26.4, 26.5 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land; Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, 26.5, G2, G5 26) Orchid bees are to Brazil nut trees as ________ are to pine trees. A) breezes B) rain droplets C) seed-eating birds D) squirrels Answer: A Topic: 26.4, 26.5 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land; Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, 26.5. G2, G5

27) The harpy eagle, Harpia harpyja, is the largest, most powerful raptor in the Americas. It nests only in trees taller than 25 meters. It is a "sloth specialist" but will also kill agouti. Thus, if these eagles capture too many agoutis from a particular locale, they might contribute to their own demise by A) having too many offspring. B) increasing habitat loss. C) decreasing atmospheric CO2. D) increasing the number of sloths. Answer: B Topic: 26.5 Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.5, G2, G5 28) People who attempted to plant Brazil nuts in hopes of establishing plantations of Brazil nut trees played roles most similar to those of A) agoutis. B) orchid bees. C) pollen tubes. D) harpy eagles. Answer: A Topic: 26.5 Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.5, G2, G5 29) The same bees that pollinate the flowers of the Brazil nut trees pollinate orchids, which are epiphytes (plants that grow on other plants); however, orchids cannot grow on Brazil nut trees. These observations explain A) the coevolution of Brazil nut trees and orchids. B) why Brazil nut trees do not set fruit in areas where only orchids are grown and harvested. C) why male orchid bees do not pollinate Brazil nut tree flowers. D) why male orchid bees are smaller than female orchid bees. E) the importance of orchid and Brazil nut tree flowers for the production of orchid bee honey. Answer: B Topic: 26.5 Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 26.5, V&C 1, G2, G5

30) Entrepreneurs attempted, but failed, to harvest nuts from plantations grown in Southeast Asia. Attempts to grow Brazil nut trees in South American plantations also failed. In both cases, the trees grew vigorously, produced healthy flowers in profusion, but set no fruit. Consequently, what is the likely source of the problem? A) poor sporophyte viability B) poor sporophyte fertility C) failure to produce fertile ovules D) failure to produce pollen E) pollination failure Answer: E Topic: 26.4 Seeds and pollen grains are key adaptations for life on land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 26.4, G2, G5

Ecologists often build models to depict the relationships between organisms. In such models, an arrow is used to link two organisms in a relationship. The arrowhead is next to the organism that is affected. If the effect is positive, the arrow is labeled with (+), and if negative, the label is (-). 31) Which of the following models best illustrates the relationship of the Brazil nut tree and the other organisms associated with it? A)

Answer: B Topic: 26.5 Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 26.5, G2, G3, G5, V&C 4

32) Capuchin monkeys have been known to use rocks to smash open the fruits of Brazil nut trees. On the rare occasions this has been observed, the monkeys consume all of the Brazil nuts. Thus, which of the following correctly depicts the relationship between capuchin monkeys and Brazil nut trees? A)

Answer: A Topic: 26.5 Plants and fungi fundamentally changed chemical cycling and biotic interactions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 26.5, G2, G3, V&C 4 26.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) All fungi are A) symbiotic. B) heterotrophic. C) flagellated. D) decomposers. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) Which of the following characteristics of plants is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae? A) chlorophyll b B) cellulose in cell walls C) multicellularity D) alternation of generations Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Among the organisms listed here, which are thought to be the closest relatives of fungi? A) slime molds B) vascular plants C) animals D) mosses Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is primarily related to A) the ability to form haustoria and parasitize other organisms. B) avoiding sexual reproduction until the environment changes. C) the potential to inhabit almost all terrestrial habitats. D) an extensive surface area well suited for invasive growth and absorptive nutrition. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 27 The Rise of Animal Diversity 27.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. The fact below that distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that only animals derive their nutrition from A) preying on animals. B) ingestion. C) consuming living, rather than dead, prey. D) using enzymes to digest their food. Answer: B Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.1, G2, G7 2) Which of the following is unique to animals? A) cells that have mitochondria B) the structural carbohydrate, chitin C) nervous conduction and muscular movement D) heterotrophy E) flagellated gametes Answer: C Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.1, V&C 2 3) In terms of food capture, which sponge cell is most similar to the cnidocyte of a cnidarian? A) amoebocyte B) choanocyte C) epidermal cell D) gastrovascular cavity cell Answer: B Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.1, V&C 2 4) Sponges are most accurately described as A) marine predators. B) chemoautotrophs. C) freshwater scavengers. D) filter feeders. E) aquatic predators. Answer: D Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.1 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Which of the following functions as both a mouth and an anus in members of the phylum Cnidaria? A) a noncentralized nerve net B) a gastrovascular cavity C) nematocysts D) an alimentary canal Answer: B Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.1, V&C 2 6) Which of the following is true of members of the phylum Cnidaria? A) They are not capable of locomotion because they lack true muscle tissue. B) They are primarily filter feeders. C) They coordinate movements through a noncentralized nerve set. D) They are the simplest organisms with a complete alimentary canal (two openings). Answer: C Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.1, V&C 2 7) The members of which clade in the phylum Cnidaria exist only as polyps? A) Hydrozoa B) Scyphozoa C) Anthozoa D) Arthropoda Answer: C Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.1 8) Evidence of which structure or characteristic would be most surprising to find among fossils of the Ediacaran fauna? A) true tissues B) hard body parts C) bilateral symmetry D) embryos Answer: B Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.1, V&C 2

9) The most ancient branch point in animal phylogeny is that between having A) radial and bilateral symmetry. B) a well-defined head and no head. C) true tissues and no tissues. D) a body cavity and no body cavity. Answer: C Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.1, V&C 1 10) According to the evidence collected so far, the animal kingdom is A) monophyletic. B) paraphyletic. C) no longer growing in size. D) growing at an exponential rate. Answer: A Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.1 11) The flagella of choanocyte cells in a sponge are most similar in basic function to A) the flagellum of a paramecium, propelling it through the water. B) the cilia of a protozoan, propelling it through the water. C) the cilia of the trachea, moving mucous, dirt, and any liquid out of the human lung. Answer: C Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.1, V&C 2, G2 12) If the current molecular evidence regarding animal origins is well substantiated in the future, then what will be true of any contrary evidence regarding the origin of animals derived from the fossil record? A) The contrary fossil evidence will be seen as a hoax. B) The fossil evidence will be understood to have been interpreted incorrectly because it is incomplete. C) The fossil record will henceforth be ignored. D) Phylogenies involving even the smallest bit of fossil evidence will need to be discarded. E) Only phylogenies based solely on fossil evidence will need to be discarded. Answer: B Topic: 27.1, 27.2 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago; The diversity of large animals increased dramatically during the "Cambrian explosion" Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 27.1, 27.2, V&C 1, G2

13) Whatever its ultimate cause(s), the Cambrian explosion is a prime example of A) mass extinction. B) evolutionary stasis. C) adaptive radiation. D) a large meteor impact. Answer: C Topic: 27.2 The diversity of large animals increased dramatically during the "Cambrian explosion" Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.2, V&C 1, G2, G7 14) Which statement is most consistent with the hypothesis that the Cambrian explosion was caused by the rise of predator-prey relationships? A) increased incidence of worm burrows in the fossil record B) increased incidence of larger animals in the fossil record C) increased incidence of organic material in the fossil record D) increased incidence of hard body parts in the fossil record Answer: D Topic: 27.2 The diversity of large animals increased dramatically during the "Cambrian explosion" Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.2, G2 15) Which of the following genetic processes may be most helpful in accounting for the Cambrian explosion? A) binary fission B) mitosis C) meiosis D) gene duplication Answer: D Topic: 27.2 The diversity of large animals increased dramatically during the "Cambrian explosion" Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.2, G2, G7

16) Using the figure above, what is the minimum age of the common ancestor of Sponges and Cnidarians? A) 695 million years B) 635 million years C) 560 million years D) 515 million years Answer: A Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, V&C 1, G3, G7, G2

17) Use the figure to identify the most recent common ancestor (branch point) of Brachiopods and Echinoderms. How many other common ancestors (branch points) must be considered when comparing these taxa to Sponges? A) 1 additional common ancestor B) 2 additional common ancestors C) 3 additional common ancestors D) 4 additional common ancestors Answer: B Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, V&C 1, G3, G7, G2 18) Use the figure to identify the most recent common ancestor of Echinoderms and Chordates. How many other taxonomic groups shown in this phylogenetic tree share that same common ancestor? A) zero B) two C) three D) four Answer: A Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, V&C 1, G3, G7, G2 19) Use the figure to identify the most recent common ancestor of Chordates and Arthropods. How many other taxonomic groups shown in this phylogenetic tree share that same common ancestor? A) zero B) two C) three D) four Answer: D Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, V&C 1, G3, G2 20) The last common ancestor of all animals was probably a(n) A) chytrid. B) yeast. C) algae. D) fungus. E) protist. Answer: E Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.3, V&C 1 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

21) If a multicellular animal lacks true tissues, then it can properly be included among the A) eumetazoans. B) metazoans. C) choanoflagellates. D) lophotrochozoans. E) bilateria. Answer: B Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.3 22) Which of the following statements concerning animal taxonomy is (are) true? 1. Animals are more closely related to plants than to fungi. 2. All animal clades based on body plan have been found to be incorrect. 3. Kingdom Animalia is monophyletic. 4. Only animals reproduce by sexual means. 5. Animals are thought to have evolved from flagellated protists similar to modern choanoflagellates. A) 5 only B) 1 and 3 C) 3 and 5 D) 3, 4, and 5 Answer: C Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.3, V&C 1 23) Some researchers claim that sponge genomes have homeotic genes (genes that regulate development of anatomical structures) but no Hox genes (genes that regulate development of posterior-anterior axes and body segments). If true, this finding would A) strengthen sponges' evolutionary ties to the Eumetazoa. B) mean that sponges must no longer be classified as animals. C) confirm the identity of sponges as basal animals. D) mean that extinct sponges must have been the last common ancestor of animals and fungi. E) require sponges to be reclassified as choanoflagellates. Answer: C Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, V&C 1, V&C 2, G2, G7

24) The last common ancestor of all bilaterians is thought to have had four Hox genes (genes that regulate development of posterior-anterior axes and body segments). Most extant cnidarians have two Hox genes, except Nematostella, which has three Hox genes. On the basis of these observations, some have proposed that the ancestral cnidarians were originally bilateral and, in stages, lost Hox genes from their genomes. If true, this would mean that A) Radiata should be a true clade. B) the radial symmetry of extant cnidarians is secondarily derived rather than being an ancestral trait. C) Hox genes play little actual role in coding for an animal's "body plan." D) Cnidaria may someday replace porifera as the basal bilaterians. E) Cnidarians are the basal metazoans. Answer: B Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 27.3, V&C 1, G2, G7 25) What is the probable sequence in which the following clades of animals originated, from earliest to most recent? 1. tetrapods 2. vertebrates 3. deuterostomes 4. amniotes 5. bilaterians A) 5 → 3 → 2 → 4 → 1 B) 5 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 4 C) 5 → 3 → 4 → 2 → 1 D) 3 → 5 → 4 → 2 → 1 E) 3 → 5 → 2 → 1 → 4 Answer: B Topic: 27.3, 27.4 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments; Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.3, 27.4

26) Fossil evidence indicates that the following events occurred in what sequence, from earliest to most recent? 1. Protostomes invade terrestrial environments. 2. Cambrian explosion occurs. 3. Deuterostomes invade terrestrial environments. 4. Vertebrates become top predators in the seas. A) 2 → 4 → 3 → 1 B) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 C) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3 D) 2 → 3 → 1 → 4 E) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4 Answer: C Topic: 27.2 The diversity of large animals increased dramatically during the "Cambrian explosion" Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.2, V&C 1 27) Which of these, if true, would support the claim that the ancestral cnidarians had bilateral symmetry? 1. Cnidarian larvae possess anterior-posterior, left-right, and dorsal-ventral aspects. 2. Cnidarians have fewer Hox genes than bilaterians. 3. All extant cnidarians are diploblastic. 4. All cnidarians are acoelomate. A) 1 only B) 1 and 4 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 2 and 4 only E) 3 and 4 only Answer: A Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, G2 28) Which of the following animal groups is entirely aquatic? A) Mollusca B) Crustacea C) Echinodermata D) Nematoda E) Platyhelminthes Answer: C Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.3

29) A student catches a ray-finned fish from the ocean and notices that attached to its flank is an equally long, snakelike organism. The attached organism has no external segmentation, no scales, a slimy substance on its surface, a round mouth surrounded by a sucker, a tongue, and two small eyes. The student thinks it might be a marine hagfish or a lamprey. Which feature excludes the organism from possibly being a lamprey? A) elongated shape B) lack of scales C) a slimy substance on its surface D) round mouth E) tongue Answer: C Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, G2 30) Using similarities in body symmetry and other anatomical features to assign an organism to a clade involves 1. cladistics based on body plan. 2. molecular-based phylogeny. 3. morphology-based phylogeny. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 only E) 1 and 3 only Answer: E Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, V&C 1, G2 31) Chordate pharyngeal slits appear to have functioned first as A) the digestive system's opening. B) suspension-feeding devices. C) components of the jaw. D) gill slits for respiration. E) portions of the inner ear. Answer: B Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.4, V&C 2

32) Which of the following statements would be least acceptable to most zoologists? A) The extant lancelets are contemporaries, not ancestors, of vertebrates. B) The first fossils resembling lancelets appeared in the fossil record around 530 million years ago. C) Recent work in molecular systematics supports the hypothesis that lancelets are the basal clade of chordates. D) The extant lancelets are the immediate ancestors of the fishes. E) Lancelets display the same method of swimming as do fishes. Answer: D Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.4, V&C 1, G2 33) Which extant chordates are postulated to be most like the earliest chordates in physical appearance? A) lancelets B) adult tunicates C) amphibians D) reptiles E) chondrichthyans Answer: A Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.4 34) A new species of aquatic chordate is discovered that closely resembles an ancient form. It has the following characteristics: external armor of bony plates, no paired lateral fins, and a suspension-feeding mode of nutrition. In addition to these, it will probably have which of the following characteristics? A) legs B) no jaws C) an amniotic egg D) endothermy Answer: B Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.4, G2, V&C 2

35) What do all craniates have that earlier chordates did not have? A) brain B) vertebrae C) cartilaginous pipe surrounding notochord D) partial or complete skull E) bones Answer: D Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.3 36) The feeding mode of the extinct conodonts was A) herbivory. B) suspension feeding. C) predation. D) filter feeding. E) absorptive feeding. Answer: C Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.4, V&C 2 37) The earliest known mineralized structures in vertebrates are associated with which function? A) reproduction B) feeding C) locomotion D) defense E) respiration Answer: D Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.4, V&C 2 38) Jaws first occurred in which extant group of fishes? A) lampreys B) chondrichthyans C) ray-finned fishes D) lungfishes E) placoderms Answer: B Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.4 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) Which of these might have been observed in the common ancestor of chondrichthyans and osteichthyans? A) a mineralized, bony skeleton B) limbs C) digits D) a swim bladder Answer: A Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.4 40) Which group's members have had both lungs and gills during their adult lives? A) sharks, skates, and rays B) lungfishes C) lancelets D) bivalves Answer: B Topic: 27.3, 27.4 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments; Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.3, 27.4 41) Which of the following belong to the lobe-fin clade? A) chondrichthyans B) ray-finned fishes C) lampreys D) hagfishes E) tetrapods Answer: E Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.4

42) Arrange these taxonomic terms from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most specific). 1. lobe-fins 2. amphibians 3. gnathostomes 4. osteichthyans 5. tetrapods A) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 B) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 C) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 D) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2 E) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 Answer: D Topic: 27.4, 27.5 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years; Several animal groups had features facilitating their colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.4, 27.5, G2 43) During chordate evolution, what is the sequence (from earliest to most recent) in which the following structures arose? 1. amniotic egg 2. paired fins 3. jaws 4. four-chambered heart A) 2, 3, 1, 4 B) 3, 2, 1, 4 C) 4, 1, 3, 2 D) 2, 1, 3, 4 E) 1, 3, 2, 4 Answer: A Topic: 27.5, 27.6 Several animal groups had features facilitating their colonization of land; Amniotes have key adaptations for life in a wide range of terrestrial environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.5, 27.6, V&C 1, V&C 2 44) Which of the following are the most abundant and diverse of the extant vertebrates? A) ray-finned fishes B) birds C) amphibians D) mammals Answer: A Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.3

45) What should be true of fossils of the earliest tetrapods? A) They should show evidence of internal fertilization. B) They should show evidence of having produced shelled eggs. C) They should indicate limited adaptation to life on land. D) They should be transitional forms with the fossils of chondrichthyans that lived at the same time. E) They should feature the earliest indications of the appearance of jaws. Answer: C Topic: 27.4, 27.5 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years; Several animal groups had features facilitating their colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.4, 27.5 46) Which of these are amniotes? A) amphibians B) fishes C) all mammals D) placental mammals only E) egg-laying mammals only Answer: C Topic: 27.6 Amniotes have key adaptations for life in a wide range of terrestrial environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.6 47) Why is the amniotic egg considered an important evolutionary breakthrough? A) It has a shell that increases gas exchange. B) It allows deposition of eggs in a terrestrial environment. C) It prolongs embryonic development. D) It provides insulation to conserve heat. E) It permits internal fertilization to be replaced by external fertilization. Answer: B Topic: 27.6 Amniotes have key adaptations for life in a wide range of terrestrial environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.6, V&C 1 48) Which of these characteristics added most to vertebrate success in relatively dry environments? A) the shelled, amniotic egg B) the ability to maintain a constant body temperature C) two pairs of appendages D) bony scales E) a four-chambered heart Answer: A Topic: 27.6 Amniotes have key adaptations for life in a wide range of terrestrial environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.6 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) Which of the following are the only extant animals that descended directly from dinosaurs? A) lizards B) crocodiles C) snakes D) birds E) tuataras Answer: D Topic: 27.6 Amniotes have key adaptations for life in a wide range of terrestrial environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.6 50) A trend first observed in the evolution of the earliest tetrapods was A) the appearance of jaws. B) the appearance of bony vertebrae. C) feet with digits. D) the mineralization of the endoskeleton. E) the amniotic egg. Answer: C Topic: 27.5 Several animal groups had features facilitating their colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.5, V&C 1 51) Among the invertebrate phyla, phylum Arthropoda is unique in possessing members that have A) a cuticle. B) a ventral nerve cord. C) open circulation. D) wings. E) segmented bodies. Answer: D Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.3 52) Arthropods invaded land about 100 million years before vertebrates did so. This most clearly implies that A) arthropods evolved before vertebrates did. B) extant terrestrial arthropods are better adapted to terrestrial life than are extant terrestrial vertebrates. C) ancestral arthropods must have been poorly adapted to aquatic life and thus experienced a selective pressure to invade land. D) vertebrates evolved from arthropods. E) arthropods have had more time to coevolve with land plants than vertebrates have had. Answer: E Topic: 27.5 Several animal groups had features facilitating their colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 27.5, V&C 1, G2 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

53) Which of these would a paleontologist be most likely to do in order to determine whether a fossil represents a reptile or a mammal? A) Look for the presence of milk-producing glands. B) Look for the mammalian characteristics of a four-chambered heart and a diaphragm. C) Because mammals are eutherians, look for evidence of a placenta. D) Use molecular analysis to look for the protein keratin. E) Examine the teeth to determine how sharp or ground down they are. Answer: E Topic: 27.5, 27.6 Several animal groups had features facilitating their colonization of land; Amniotes have key adaptations for life in a wide range of terrestrial environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.5, 27.6, G2 54) In which vertebrates is fertilization exclusively internal? A) chondrichthyans, osteichthyans, and mammals B) amphibians, mammals, and reptiles C) chondrichthyans, osteichthyans, and reptiles D) reptiles and mammals E) reptiles and amphibians Answer: D Topic: 27.4, 27.5 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years; Several animal groups had features facilitating their colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.4, 27.5 55) Internal fertilization, leathery amniotic eggs, and skin that resists drying are characteristics of which extant vertebrate group? A) amphibians B) non-bird reptiles C) chondrichthyans D) mammals E) birds. Answer: B Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.4

56) Organisms at which of the following trophic levels increased the most because of the movement of animals onto land? A) herbivores and carnivores B) decomposers and producers C) producers D) decomposers Answer: A Topic: 27.5 Several animal groups had features facilitating their colonization of land Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.5, G2, G7 57) The decline of cyanobacteria in the early Cambrian oceans was most likely related to A) the movement of animals onto land. B) the evolution of land plants. C) an increase in the number of predatory fish. D) an increase in organisms with suspension-feeding mouthparts. E) a decline in the number of marine decomposers. Answer: D Topic: 27.7 Animals have transformed ecosystems and altered the course of evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.7, V&C 1 58) If all of the animals died in a large region of an ocean, we would expect an increase in the A) number of filter feeders. B) number of cyanobacteria. C) number of decomposers. D) clarity of the ocean waters. E) temperature of the ocean waters. Answer: B Topic: 27.7 Animals have transformed ecosystems and altered the course of evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.7, G2 59) Evidence indicates that an ancestral finch species from South America arrived on the Galapágos Islands and formed many new species, adapting to the diverse environments on the islands. With the evolution of these new bird species on the Galapágos Islands, we would expect to find a corresponding A) increase in the number of bird parasites on the Galapágos Islands. B) decrease in the number of bird parasites on the Galapágos Islands. C) increase in the number of bird parasites in South America. D) decrease in the number of bird parasites in South America. E) elimination of bird parasites on the Galapágos Islands. Answer: A Topic: 27.7 Animals have transformed ecosystems and altered the course of evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.7, V&C 1, G2 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

60) A new, sixth global mass-extinction event appears to be occurring on Earth today. The most likely explanation for the dramatic loss of species is A) climate change. B) natural fluctuations in global temperatures and precipitation. C) the evolution of new types of viruses. D) human activity that alters natural environments. E) decreases in atmospheric levels of oxygen. Answer: D Topic: 27.7 Animals have transformed ecosystems and altered the course of evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.7, V&C 1, G5 61) As a result of harvesting a higher proportion of older and larger cod and other fish species for food, A) the number of fish in these populations has increased dramatically. B) the age and size of fish reaching sexual maturity have decreased. C) many new species of predators have evolved in these regions. D) the affected fish species have stopped reproducing. E) many of the fish in these populations have started to reproduce asexually. Answer: B Topic: 27.7 Animals have transformed ecosystems and altered the course of evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.7, V&C 1 62) Which of the following characteristics distinguishes modern humans from other modern apes? 1. Humans walk upright. 2. Humans walk on two legs. 3. Humans use simple tools. 4. Humans are capable of symbolic thought. A) 2 and 3 only B) 1, 2, and 4 only C) 2, 3, and 4 only D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only Answer: B Topic: 27.6 Amniotes have key adaptations for life in a wide range of terrestrial environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.6

63) What is a primary, common evolutionary feature of all reptiles, mammals, and birds? A) teeth B) endothermic behavior C) gastrovascular cavity D) amniotic egg Answer: D Topic: 27.6 Amniotes have key adaptations for life in a wide range of terrestrial environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.6, V&C 1 64) One important evolutionary change that occurred with the rise of animals is A) a change from a microbe-only environment to one of large producers, predators, and prey. B) the extinction of cyanobacteria. C) a marine ecosystem dominance of sponges and cnidarians. D) a confirmed second common ancestor of animals. Answer: A Topic: 27.6 Amniotes have key adaptations for life in a wide range of terrestrial environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.6, V&C 1 65) If wild dogs take part in cooperative hunting, they will likely have a better outcome than if they hunt alone, especially if they share the prey. The dogs that cooperate are increasing the survival probability of one another. This is an example of A) parasitism. B) reciprocal selection. C) defensive adaptations. D) adaptive radiation. Answer: B Topic: 27.7 Animals have transformed ecosystems and altered the course of evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.7, G2 66) Humans widely use pesticides on plants as a means to control insect and plant pests. However, pesticides are not selective in what they kill, so they often kill beneficial insect and plant species as well. This unintentional consequence favors plant and insect species that are pesticide resistant. This scenario is an example of A) human impacts on evolution. B) reciprocal selection. C) human impacts on antibiotic resistance. D) mass extinction of plant species. Answer: A Topic: 27.7 Animals have transformed ecosystems and altered the course of evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.7, V&C 1, G2, G5

27.2 Art Questions

A: Morphological phylogeny.

B: Molecular phylogeny. 1) Which of the following is a point of conflict between the phylogenetic analyses presented in these two figures? A) the relationship of taxa of segmented animals to taxa of nonsegmented animals B) that sponges are basal animals C) that chordates are deuterostomes D) the evolutionary relationship between Nematoda and Arthropoda Answer: A Topic: 27.2 The diversity of large animals increased dramatically during the "Cambrian explosion" Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.2, V&C 1, G2, G3

2) What is true in the molecular phylogeny (B) that is not true in the traditional phylogeny (A)? A) Deuterostomia is paraphyletic. B) To maintain Deuterostomia as a clade, some phyla had to be removed from it. C) Deuterostomia now includes the Acoela. D) It diverged from the rest of the Bilateria earlier than did the Acoela. Answer: B Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, V&C 1, G2, G3 3) In the traditional phylogeny (A), the phylum Platyhelminthes is depicted as a sister taxon to the rest of the protostome phyla and as having diverged earlier from the lineage that led to the rest of the protostomes. In the molecular phylogeny (B), Platyhelminthes is depicted as a lophotrochozoan phylum. What probably led to this change? A) Platyhelminthes ceased to be recognized as true protostomes. B) The removal of the acoel flatworms (Acoela) from the Platyhelminthes allowed the remaining flatworms to be clearly tied to the Lophotrochozoa. C) All Platyhelminthes must have a well-developed lophophore as their feeding apparatus. D) Platyhelminthes' close genetic ties to the arthropods became clear as their Hox gene sequences were studied. Answer: B Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 27.3, V&C 1, G2, G3

Table 27.1. Proposed Number of Hox Genes in Various Extant and Extinct Animals 4) What conclusion is apparent from the data in Table 27.1? A) Land animals have more Hox genes than do those that live in water. B) All bilaterian phyla have had the same degree of expansion in their numbers of Hox genes. C) Acoel flatworms should be expected to contain seven Hox genes. D) The expansion in number of Hox genes throughout vertebrate evolution cannot be explained merely by three duplications of the ancestral vertebrate Hox cluster. E) Extant insects all have seven Hox genes. Answer: D Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, V&C 1, G2, G3

5) All things being equal, which of these is the simplest explanation for the change in the number of Hox genes from the last common ancestor of insects and vertebrates to ancestral vertebrates, as shown in Table 27.1? A) the occurrence of seven independent duplications of individual Hox genes B) the occurrence of 14 independent duplications of individual Hox genes C) the occurrence of two distinct duplications of the entire seven-gene cluster, followed by the loss of one cluster D) the occurrence of a single duplication of the entire seven-gene cluster Answer: D Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 27.3, G2, G3

27.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Placozoan evolutionary relationships to other animals are currently unclear, and different phylogenies can be created, depending on the characters used to infer relatedness. Placozoans are multicellular invertebrates with a simple structure of only two tissue layers and only four cell types. They have the smallest amount of DNA measured in any animal. In comparison, sponges have no tissues but about 20 cell types. One species of placozoans, Tp (Trichoplax adhaerens), produces a neuropeptide almost identical to one found in cnidarians. The genome of Tp, although the smallest of any known animal, shares many features of complex eumetazoan (even human!) genomes. The next three questions refer to the phylogenetic trees that follow. In the trees, the outgroup is a taxon that is outside the group of interest; members of the group of interest are more closely related to one another than to the outgroup.

1) Which tree(s) has (have) been created by emphasizing genomic features of placozoans? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II Answer: C Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.1, V&C 2, G2, G3

2) Which tree(s) has (have) been created by emphasizing the structural simplicity of placozoans? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) II and III Answer: A Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.1, G2, G3 3) Which tree(s) has (have) been created by emphasizing a protein found in placozoans? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and III Answer: B Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.1, G2, G3

Please use the following information to answer the questions below.

Figure 27.2 Fishes that have swim bladders can regulate their density and thus their buoyancy. There are two types of swim bladder: physostomous and physoclistous. The ancestral version is the physostomous version, in which the swim bladder is connected to the esophagus via a short tube (Figure 27.2). The fish fills this version by swimming to the surface, taking gulps of air, and directing them into the swim bladder. Air is removed from this version by "belching." The physoclistous version is more derived and has lost its connection to the esophagus. Instead, gas enters and leaves the swim bladder via special circulatory mechanisms within the wall of the swim bladder. 4) The presence of a swim bladder allows the typical ray-finned fish to stop swimming and still A) effectively circulate its blood. B) be highly maneuverable. C) use its swim bladder as a respiratory organ. D) not sink. Answer: D Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 27.4

5) If a physoclistous fish removes gas from its swim bladder, this fish's density cannot actually change until that gas arrives at the A) mouth. B) gills. C) skin. D) heart. E) anus. Answer: B Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 27.4, G2, G3

6) Which graph properly depicts the relationship between the amount of gas in the swim bladder and the density of the fish? A)

Answer: C Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 27.3, G2, G3, G4 7) How do a physoclistous fish and a physostomous fish compare in terms of the amount of energy each must use to maintain its position (depth) in the water column over the long term? A) A physoclistous fish uses more energy than a physostomous fish. B) A physostomous fish uses more energy than a physoclistous fish. C) A physoclistous fish and a physostomous fish use the same amount of energy. D) A physoclistous fish initially uses more energy than a physostomous fish but then decreases its energy use to be equal to the physostomous fish. Answer: B Topic: 27.4 Vertebrates have been the ocean's dominant predators for more than 400 million years Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.4, G2, G3

Please use the following information to answer the question(s) below. Trichoplax adhaerens (Tp) is the only living species in the phylum Placozoa. Individuals are about 1 mm wide and only 27 μm high, are irregularly shaped, and consist of a total of about 2,000 cells, which are diploid (2n = 12). There are four types of cells, none of which is a nerve or muscle cell, and none of which has a cell wall. They move using cilia, and any "edge" can lead. Tp feeds on marine microbes, mostly unicellular green algae, by crawling atop the algae and trapping it between its ventral surface and the substrate. Enzymes are then secreted onto the algae, and the resulting nutrients are absorbed. Tp sperm cells have never been observed, nor have embryos past the 64-cell (blastula) stage. 8) In which of the following ways is Tp similar to a typical animal? 1. Tp is multicellular. 2. Tp lacks muscle and nerve cells. 3. Tp has cilia. 4. Tp lacks cell walls. 5. Tp does not have observable sperm cells. A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 1, 3, and 5 only D) 3, 4, and 5 only E) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 Answer: B Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 27.1, G2 9) On the basis of the information in the paragraph, which of these should be able to be observed in Tp? A) the act of fertilization B) the process of gastrulation C) the presence of eggs D) A and B only E) A, B, and C Answer: C Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.1, G2, G7

10) Tp's body symmetry seems to be most like that of A) most sponges. B) cnidarians. C) worms. D) tetrapods. Answer: A Topic: 27.1 Animals originated more than 700 million years ago Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.1, G2 Please use the following information to answer the questions below. An elementary school science teacher decided to liven up the classroom with a saltwater aquarium. Knowing that saltwater aquaria can be quite a hassle, the teacher proceeded stepwise. First, the teacher conditioned the water. Next, the teacher decided to stock the tank with various marine invertebrates, including a sea star, a sponge, a sea urchin, a jellyfish, several hermit crabs, some sand dollars, and an ectoproct. Last, she added some vertebrates–a parrotfish and a clownfish. She arranged for daily feedings of copepods and feeder fish. 11) One day, Tommy (a student in an undersupervised class of 40 fifth graders) got the urge to pet Nemo (the clownfish), who was swimming among the waving petals of a pretty underwater "flower" that had a big hole in the midst of the petals. Tommy giggled upon finding that these petals felt sticky. A few hours later, Tommy was in the nurse's office with nausea and cramps. Microscopic examination of his fingers would probably have revealed the presence of A) teeth marks. B) spines. C) spicules. D) nematocysts. E) a radula. Answer: D Topic: 27.2 The diversity of large animals increased dramatically during the "Cambrian explosion" Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.2, G2 12) Had the teacher wanted to point out organisms that move and feed using the same structural adaptation, the teacher should have chosen the A) sponge and the jellyfish. B) hermit crabs and the ecotoprot. C) sea star, sea urchin, and sand dollars. D) vertebrates. Answer: C Topic: Concept 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. The most recently discovered phylum in the animal kingdom (1995) is the phylum Cycliophora. It includes three species of tiny organisms that live in large numbers on the outsides of the mouthparts and appendages of lobsters. When in the feeding stage, a cycliophoran permanently attaches to the lobster via an adhesive disk and collects scraps of food from its host's feeding by capturing the scraps in a current created by a ring of cilia. Its body is sac-like and has a U-shaped intestine that brings the anus close to the mouth. Cycliophorans are eucoelomate (have a body cavity that is a coelom) and do not molt (though their host does). 13) Which of these features is least useful in assigning the phylum Cycliophora to a clade of animals? A) having a true coelom as a body cavity B) having a body symmetry that permits a U-shaped intestine C) lacking ecdysis (molting) D) its feeding mechanism Answer: A Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3 14) Basing your inferences on information in the paragraph, to which clade(s) should cycliophorans belong? 1. Eumetazoa 2. Deuterostomia 3. Bilateria 4. Ecdysozoa 5. Lophotrochozoa A) 1 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 1, 3, and 5 only D) 2, 3, and 4 only E) 2, 3, and 5 only Answer: C Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, G2

15) What is true of the feeding stage of cycliophorans? 1. It is chemoheterotrophic. 2. It is sessile. 3. Its tube feet allow it to feed efficiently. 4. It has radial symmetry. A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 4 only D) 1, 2, and 3 only E) 2, 3, and 4 only Answer: A Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, G2 16) Cycliophorans have two types of larvae. One type of larva is produced when the digestive system of a female is impregnated by a male. The digestive system then collapses and develops into a larva, which swims away in search of a new host after the surrounding female dies. Which is the embryonic tissue that is apparently most important in forming this type of larva? A) mesoderm B) ectoderm C) endoderm D) mantle Answer: C Topic: 27.3 Diverse animal groups radiated in aquatic environments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 27.3, G2 27.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of the following clades contains the greatest number of animal species? A) the vertebrates B) the bilaterians C) the deuterostomes D) the insects Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Fossil steroid and molecular clock evidence suggests that animals originated A) between 710 and 770 million years ago. B) more than 100 million years before the oldest known fossils of large animals. C) during the Cambrian explosion. D) both A and B Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Which of the following was probably the least important factor in bringing about the Cambrian explosion? A) the emergence of predator-prey relationships among animals B) the accumulation of sufficient atmospheric oxygen to support the more active metabolism of mobile animals C) the movement of animals onto land D) the origin of Hox genes and other genetic changes affecting the regulation of developmental genes Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following could be considered the most recent common ancestor of living tetrapods? A) a sturdy-finned, shallow-water lobe-fin whose appendages had skeletal supports similar to those of terrestrial vertebrates B) an armored gnathostome with two pairs of appendages C) an early ray-finned fish that developed bony skeletal supports in its paired fins D) a salamander that had legs supported by a bony skeleton but moved with the side-to-side bending typical of fishes Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which clade does not include humans? A) synapsids B) lobe-fins C) lophotrochozoans D) tetrapods Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

6) In the figure below, the Deuterostomia clade is most closely related to which two main clades?

A) Ctenophora and Cnidaria B) Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa C) Cnidaria and Platyhelminthes D) Echinodermata and Hemichordata Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 28 Plant Structure and Growth 28.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Root hairs, which absorb the water and minerals in the majority of plants, are the extensions of root A) collenchyma tissue. B) pericycle. C) endodermis. D) epidermal cells. E) parenchyma. Answer: D Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2 2) Xylem, a vascular tissue, performs which of the following functions? A) storage of food B) photosynthesis C) aerobic respiration D) transport of water and minerals E) transport of food Answer: D Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2 3) Which plant pollen grain has one opening? A) magnolia B) rice C) rose D) peanut E) cashew Answer: B Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2

4) Adventitious roots in monocots are very helpful in coastal ecosystems to reduce A) water absorption. B) evaporation. C) soil erosion. D) nutrient absorption. E) decomposition. Answer: C Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2 5) An association between the roots of a terrestrial plant with soil fungus is referred to as A) parasitism. B) symbiosis. C) autotrophism. D) heterotrophism. E) saprobism. Answer: B Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G6 6) Storage roots, stems, and leaves are some of the evolutionary adaptations of plants. Which of the following are listed in the order of modified root, stem, and leaf? A) rhizome, bulb, tuber B) bulb, stolon, spine C) rhizome, stolon, tendril D) stolon, rhizome, bulb E) tendril, rhizome, spine Answer: C Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2

7) Which tissue is responsible for plant growth? A) parenchyma B) vascular tissue C) meristem D) collenchyma E) sclerenchyma Answer: C Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2 8) Which type of roots support tall and top-heavy plants? A) buttress roots B) storage roots C) tap roots D) pneumatophores E) prop roots Answer: E Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2 9) Lateral branches, thorns, or flowers on the shoot and vertical roots on the rhizome produce from the A) apical bud. B) internode. C) node. D) axillary bud. E) petiole. Answer: D Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2

10) Which of the plant organs pays a pivotal role on dissipating heat? A) stem B) root C) leaf D) tuber E) stolon Answer: C Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2 11) Which of the following plant organs is an evolutionary adaptation of a leaf that stores food? A) tuber B) pneumatophore C) rhizome D) bulb E) tendril Answer: D Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2 12) More than a quarter of the dry wood mass contributed by ________, a strengthening polymer, comes from the cell walls of ________ tissue. A) cellulose; parenchyma B) lignin; collenchyma C) lignin; sclerenchyma D) cellulose; sclerenchyma E) suberin; parenchyma Answer: C Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2 & G7

13) The cork cambium replaces which of the following tissues during the plant growth? A) epidermis B) primary xylem C) primary phloem D) vascular cambium E) endodermis Answer: D Topic: 28.2 Different meristems generate new cells for primary and secondary growth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.2 Global L.O.: G2 14) Arrange the following steps of cell differentiation during plant growth (in length) in the correct sequence. i. cell division in primary meristem ii. cell division in apical meristem iii. differentiated cells iv. growing cells in primary meristem A) i, ii, iii, iv B) ii, i, iv, iii C) ii, iii, i, iv D) i, iii, ii, iv E) iii, ii, iv, ii Answer: B Topic: 28.2 Different meristems generate new cells for primary and secondary growth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 28.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 15) The activation or inactivation of specific genes during cell differentiation depends largely on A) cell division. B) cell-to-cell communication. C) cell structure. D) cell function Answer: A Topic: 28.2 Different meristems generate new cells for primary and secondary growth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 28.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

16) Guard cells of stomata in leaves of plants are modified A) mesophyll cells. B) epidermal cells. C) palisade mesophyll cells. D) sclerenchyma cells. E) collenchyma cells. Answer: B Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G1 17) Which tissue is responsible for the recovery and rapid growth of damaged leaves of grass grazed by sheep in a pasture? A) parenchyma B) apical meristem C) axillary buds D) mesophyll E) intercalary meristem Answer: E Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G2 18) Secondary growth in eudicot stems and roots is caused by the A) apical meristem. B) axillary bud. C) lateral meristem. D) secondary xylem. E) secondary phloem. Answer: C Topic: 28.2 Different meristems generate new cells for primary and secondary growth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.2 Global L.O.: G2

19) Which of the following environmental factors plays a critical role in plant photosynthesis? A) CO2 and O2 B) O2 and light C) O2 and chlorophyll in mesophyll D) light and CO2 E) light, chlorophyll, and CO2 Answer: D Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G2 20) The cortex in a cross section of a dicot root is located between A) the epidermis and endodermis. B) the endodermis and pericycle. C) the xylem and phloem. D) the endodermis and xylem. E) the pericycle and pith. Answer: A Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 21) The lateral root originates in which of the following parts of the root? A) xylem B) phloem C) endodermis D) pericycle E) periderm Answer: D Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G2 22) Root hairs originate from which of the following parts of the root? A) cortex B) endodermis C) epidermis D) pericycle E) periderm Answer: C Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G2 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) Which type of meristem enables grasses to regrow after grazing by herbivores? A) intercalary meristem B) apical meristem C) axillary meristem D) lateral meristem Answer: A Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G2 & G7 24) Which of the following tissues played a very critical role in the process of evolution to produce the great biodiversity of flowering plant species? A) lateral meristem B) apical meristem C) mesophyll D) endodermis E) xylem and phloem Answer: A Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G7 25) The strength and hardness of wood are due to A) secondary growth. B) highly lignified walls of secondary phloem. C) highly lignified walls of xylem. D) annual rings. E) tracheids. Answer: C Topic: 28.4 Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and roots in woody plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.4 Global L.O.: G2

26) Mature cork cells deposit a waxy substance called ________ in cell walls. A) suberin B) lignin C) chitin D) cellulose E) pectin Answer: A Topic: 28.4 Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and roots in woody plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.4 Global L.O.: G2 27) Which part of a plant absorbs most of the water and minerals taken up from the soil? A) root cap B) root hairs C) the thick parts of the roots near the base of the stem D) storage roots E) sections of the root that have secondary xylem Answer: B Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2 28) ________ is to xylem as ________ is to phloem. A) Sclerenchyma cell; collenchyma cell B) Apical meristem; vascular cambium C) Vessel element; sieve-tube member D) Cortex; pith E) Vascular cambium; cork cambium Answer: C Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2

29) Which of the following have unevenly thickened primary walls that support young, growing parts of the plant and provide flexibility? A) parenchyma cells B) collenchyma cells C) sclerenchyma cells D) tracheids and vessel elements E) sieve-tube elements Answer: B Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2 30) The vascular bundle in the shape of a single central cylinder in a root is called the A) cortex. B) stele. C) endodermis. D) periderm. E) pith. Answer: B Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2 31) One important difference between the anatomy of roots and the anatomy of leaves is that A) only leaves have phloem, and only roots have xylem. B) root cells have cell walls, and leaf cells do not. C) leaves have mesophyll tissue, but roots do not. D) vascular tissue is found in roots but is absent from leaves. E) leaves have epidermal tissue, but roots do not. Answer: C Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2

32) A student examining leaf cross sections under a microscope finds many tightly packed cells with relatively thick cell walls. The cells have no nucleus and are dead. What type of cells are they? A) parenchyma B) xylem rays C) endodermis D) collenchyma E) sclerenchyma Answer: E Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G1, G3, G4 33) Which of the following cell types retains the ability to undergo cell division? A) a sclereid B) a parenchyma cell 2 mm from the tip of a root C) a functional sieve-tube element D) a tracheid E) a stem fiber Answer: B Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2 34) Axillary buds A) are initiated by the cork cambium. B) have dormant meristematic cells. C) are composed of a series of internodes lacking nodes. D) grow immediately into shoot branches. E) do not form a vascular connection with the primary shoot. Answer: B Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2

35) A plant has the following characteristics: a taproot system, several growth rings evident in a cross section of the stem, and a layer of bark around the outside. Which of the following best describes the plant? A) herbaceous eudicot B) woody eudicot C) woody monocot D) herbaceous monocot E) woody annual Answer: B Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2 36) Compared to most animals, the growth of most plants is best described as A) perennial. B) weedy. C) indeterminate. D) derivative. E) primary. Answer: C Topic: 28.2 Different meristems generate new cells for primary and secondary growth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.2 Global L.O.: G2 37) Vascular cambium in eudicot stems produce A) dermal and ground tissue. B) lateral tissues. C) pith. D) secondary xylem and phloem. E) shoots and roots. Answer: D Topic: 28.2 Different meristems generate new cells for primary and secondary growth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2

38) Plants contain meristems whose major function is to A) attract pollinators. B) absorb ions. C) photosynthesize. D) produce more cells. E) produce flowers. Answer: D Topic: 28.2 Different meristems generate new cells for primary and secondary growth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.2 Global L.O.: G2 39) Which of the following statements about growth in plants is true? A) Primary growth is localized at meristems, whereas secondary growth is localized at buds. B) Some plants lack secondary growth. C) Secondary growth occurs only in stems. D) Reproductive structures are produced by secondary growth. E) Monocots have only primary growth, and eudicots have only secondary growth. Answer: B Topic: 28.2 Different meristems generate new cells for primary and secondary growth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.2 Global L.O.: G2 40) Arrange the following tissues in an order from the upper surface to the middle area of a leaf cross section. i. epidermis ii. xylem iii. palisade mesophyll iv. spongy mesophyll A) i, ii, iii, iv B) ii, i, iv, iii C) iii, i, ii, iv D) iv, iii, i, ii E) i, iii, iv, ii Answer: E Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

41) Which of the following is a true statement? A) Flowers may have secondary growth. B) Secondary growth is a common feature of eudicot leaves. C) Secondary growth is produced by both the vascular cambium and the cork cambium. D) Primary growth and secondary growth alternate in the life cycle of a plant. E) Plants with secondary growth are typically the smallest ones in an ecosystem. Answer: C Topic: 28.2 Different meristems generate new cells for primary and secondary growth Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.2 Global L.O.: G2 42) Gas exchange, which is necessary for photosynthesis, can occur most easily in which leaf tissue? A) epidermis B) palisade mesophyll C) spongy mesophyll D) vascular tissue E) bundle sheath Answer: C Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2 43) CO2 enters the inner spaces of the leaf through the A) cuticle. B) epidermal trichomes. C) stoma. D) phloem. E) walls of guard cells. Answer: C Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G2

44) The shoot elongation in a growing bud is due to A) cell division at the shoot apical meristem. B) cell elongation directly below the shoot apical meristem. C) cell division localized in each internode. D) cell elongation localized in each internode. E) cell division at the shoot apical meristem and cell elongation directly below the shoot apical meristem. Answer: D Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G2 45) The following question is based on parts of a growing primary root. i. root cap ii. zone of elongation iii. zone of cell division iv. zone of cell differentiation v. apical meristem Which of the following is the correct sequence from the growing tips of the root upward? A) i, ii, v, iii, iv B) iii, v, i, ii, iv C) ii, iv, i, v, iii D) iv, ii, iii, i, v E) i, v, iii, ii, iv Answer: E Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G4 46) Which of the following root tissues gives rise to lateral roots? A) endodermis B) phloem C) cortex D) epidermis E) pericycle Answer: E Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G2

47) A person working with plants may increase the lateral branches by which of the following? A) pruning shoot tips B) deep watering of the roots C) fertilizing D) treating the plants with auxins E) feeding the plants nutrients Answer: A Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, G7 48) The dominant type of tissue that makes up most of the wood of a tree is A) primary xylem. B) secondary xylem. C) secondary phloem. D) mesophyll cells. E) vascular cambium. Answer: B Topic: Concept 28.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2 49) The secondary growth in stems and roots of woody plants produced by the A) intercalary meristem. B) lateral meristem. C) apical meristem. D) axillary meristem. Answer: B Topic: 28.4 Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and roots in woody plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 28.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 50) Which of the following cells in a dicot stem is only one cell thick? A) cortex B) pith C) secondary xylem D) vascular cambium E) phloem Answer: C Topic: 28.4 Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and roots in woody plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

51) The vascular rays, made of parenchyma, connect the A) primary xylem and pericycle. B) secondary xylem and phloem. C) primary xylem and phloem. D) primary xylem and secondary phloem. E) pericycle and secondary xylem. Answer: B Topic: 28.4 Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and roots in woody plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 28.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 52) Annual rings in woody plant stems and roots represent the A) primary phloem of spring and summer. B) primary and secondary xylem of summer. C) secondary xylem of spring and summer. D) secondary phloem of spring and summer. E) primary and secondary xylem of spring. Answer: C Topic: 28.4 Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and roots in woody plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 53) If you were able to walk into an opening cut into the center of a large redwood tree, when you exit from the middle of the trunk (stem) outward, you would cross, in order, A) the annual rings, new xylem, vascular cambium, phloem, and bark. B) the secondary xylem, cork cambium, phloem, and periderm. C) the vascular cambium, oldest xylem, and newest xylem. D) the secondary xylem, secondary phloem, and vascular cambium. E) the summer wood, bark, and phloem. Answer: A Topic: 28.4 Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and roots in woody plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.4 Global L.O.: G2, G4

28.2 Art Questions

Figure 28.1 1) Which of the following statements about the cells shown in the photograph in Figure 28.1 is true? A) They are parenchyma cells. B) They are photosynthetic. C) They are usually found in roots. D) They are phloem cells. E) They are parenchyma cells and photosynthetic. Answer: E Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G3 2) The characteristic feature of typical collenchyma tissue is A) a thick cell wall. B) large intercellular space. C) lignin filled intercellular spaces. D) inability to divide. E) transportation. Answer: C Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G2

Figure 28.2 3) A monocot stem is represented in Figure 28.2 by A) I only. B) II only. C) III only. D) IV only. E) both I and III. Answer: B Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, G3, G6, G7 4) A plant that is at least 3 years old is represented in Figure 28.2 by A) I only. B) II only. C) III only. D) IV only. Answer: D Topic: 28.4 Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and roots in woody plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 28.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, G3, G6, G7

28.3 Scenario Questions 1) Suppose George Washington completely removed the bark from around the base of a cherry tree but was stopped by his father before cutting the tree down. The leaves retained their normal appearance for several weeks, but the tree eventually died. The tissue(s) that George left functional was/were the A) phloem. B) xylem. C) cork cambium. D) cortex. E) companion and sieve-tube members. Answer: B Topic: 28.1 Plants have a hierarchical organization consisting of organs, tissues, and cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, G7 2) As a youngster, you drive a nail in the trunk of a young tree that is 3 meters tall. The nail is about 1.5 meters from the ground. Fifteen years later, you return and discover that the tree has grown to a height of 30 meters. About how many meters above the ground is the nail? A) 0.5 B) 1.5 C) 3.0 D) 15.0 E) 28.5 Answer: B Topic: 28.4 Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and roots in woody plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, G3, G6, G7 3) Imagine you are in an introductory biology laboratory observing the cross section of a primary dicot stem. The diameter of vascular bundle was 200 µm. Your instructor asked you to convert the diameter of the vascular bundle into mm. Which of the following is the correct response? A) 20 B) 2 C) 0.2 D) 0.02 E) 0.002 Answer: C Topic: 28.3 Primary growth lengthens roots and shoots Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 28.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, G4, & G7

4) Which of the following responses is the correct order of tissues from the center to the periphery (outside) of a two-year-old dicot stem cross section? A) primary xylem, secondary xylem, vascular cambium, secondary phloem, secondary xylem B) secondary xylem, secondary phloem, vascular cambium, secondary xylem, primary xylem C) primary phloem, primary xylem, secondary xylem, secondary phloem, vascular cambium D) secondary phloem, secondary xylem, primary xlem, primary phloem, vascular cambium E) vascular cambium, primary xylem, secondary xylem, primary phloem, secondary phloem Answer: A Topic: 28.4 Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and roots in woody plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 28.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 28.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) The new root cells will be generated in the A) zone of elongation. B) zone of cell division. C) root cap. D) zone of differentiation. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The innermost layer of the root cortex is the A) core. B) pericycle. C) endodermis. D) pith. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Heartwood and sapwood consist of A) bark. B) periderm. C) secondary xylem. D) secondary phloem. E) cork. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4) The bark of woody plants represents all tissues external to the A) cortex. B) vascular cambium. C) endodermis. D) pith. E) pericycle. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) The location and function of lenticels in woody plants are ________ and ________, respectively. A) periderm; gas exchange B) endodermis; gas exchange C) cortex; photosynthesis D) cortex; storage E) pericycle; photosynthesis Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Which of the following would not be seen in a cross section through the woody part of a root? A) sclerenchyma cells B) sieve-tube elements C) parenchyma cells D) root hairs Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 29 Resource Acquisition, Nutrition, and Transport in Vascular Plants 29.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is an adaptation by plants to life on land? A) lack of waxy cuticle B) Calvin cycle of photosynthesis C) xylem tracheids and vessels D) Krebs cycle of respiration Answer: C Topic: 29.1 Adaptations for acquiring resources were key steps in the evolution of vascular plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.1 Global L.O.: G7 2) Which of the following was an essential adaptive feature for the evolution of plants from water to the land? A) minimizing the evaporative loss of water B) using light more effectively C) acquiring CO2 from the air D) acquiring water from the ground Answer: A Topic: 29.1 Adaptations for acquiring resources were key steps in the evolution of vascular plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.1 Global L.O.: G2 3) Given that early land plants most likely share a common ancestor with green algae, the earliest land plants were most likely A) nonvascular plants that grew leafless photosynthetic shoots above the shallow fresh water in which they lived. B) species that did not exhibit alternation of generations. C) vascular plants with well-defined root systems. D) plants with well-developed leaves. Answer: A Topic: 29.1 Adaptations for acquiring resources were key steps in the evolution of vascular plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

4) Which of the following tissues have revolutionized the advancement of vascular plants with extensive shoot and root systems on land in the process of evolution? A) apical meristem B) xylem C) cambium D) endodermis Answer: B Topic: 29.1 Adaptations for acquiring resources were key steps in the evolution of vascular plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.1 Global L.O.: G2 5) Which of the following processes allowed land plants to structurally adapt shoots to acquire light from sun and carbon dioxide from the air? A) transpiration B) respiration C) photosynthesis D) evaporation Answer: C Topic: 29.1 Adaptations for acquiring resources were key steps in the evolution of vascular plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 6) Which of the following processes happens during photosynthesis in plants? A) Stomata open. B) Oxygen is taken up by leaves. C) All oxygen produced will be released into the air. D) Water vapor is lost. Answer: A Topic: 29.1 Adaptations for acquiring resources were key steps in the evolution of vascular plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2 & G7

7) Phloem sap in plant vascular system flows A) one way from leaves to the sites of sugar use. B) one way from leaves to the sites of sugar storage units. C) two ways from the leaves to the sites of sugar use and to the sugar storage units. D) two ways from the sites of use and the sugar storage units to the leaves. Answer: C Topic: 29.1 Adaptations for acquiring resources were key steps in the evolution of vascular plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2 & G7 8) The pattern of leaf arrangement on the shoots of land plants is critical for A) increasing the shade of the lower leaves. B) decreasing the surface area of leaves for the exposure of light. C) increasing the rate of photosynthesis. D) increasing the rate of transpiration. Answer: C Topic: 29.1 Adaptations for acquiring resources were key steps in the evolution of vascular plants Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 9) The symplast is the continuum of cytosol connected by A) extracellular spaces. B) the apoplastic route. C) plasmodesmata. D) the symplastic route. Answer: C Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G2 10) Which of the following determines the direction of water movement across the membrane? A) cell health B) a difference in water potential C) size of the cell D) shape of the cell Answer: B Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G2

11) Which of the following ions plays a critical role in transport and cotransport processes in plant cells? A) hydrogen B) nitrogen C) potassium D) calcium Answer: A Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G2 12) The solute potential (Ψs) of pure water at sea level and at room temperature is A) -1.0. B) 0. C) 1. D) >1. Answer: B Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G2 13) Typically, what percentage of a plant's fresh biomass is water? A) 70-75 B) 65-75 C) 80-90 D) 75-80 Answer: C Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G2 14) Which of the following would be least likely to affect osmosis in plants? A) proton pumps in the membrane B) a difference in solute concentrations C) receptor proteins in the membrane D) aquaporins Answer: C Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

15) An open beaker of pure water has a water potential (Ψ) of A) -0.23 MPa. B) +0.23 MPa. C) +0.07 MPa. D) 0.00 MPa. Answer: D Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 16) Which of the following phenomena occurs naturally in plant cells? A) Water (solvent) moves from regions of higher water potential to regions of lower water potential. B) Water (solvent) moves from regions of lower water potential to regions of higher solvent potential. C) Solute moves from regions of higher water potential to regions of lower water potential. D) Solute moves from regions of lower water potential to regions of higher water potential. Answer: B Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 17) What is the fate of a flaccid cell in pure water with zero water potential? A) Cell remains the same. B) Cell shrinks. C) Cell enlarges. D) Cell dies. Answer: C Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 18) If ΨP = 0.3 MPa and ΨS = -0.45 MPa, the resulting Ψ is A) +0.75 MPa. B) -0.75 MPa. C) -0.15 MPa. D) +0.15 MPa. Answer: C Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

19) Compared to a cell with few aquaporins in its membrane, a cell containing many aquaporins will have a A) faster rate of osmosis. B) lower water potential. C) higher water potential. D) faster rate of active transport. Answer: A Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 20) Essential elements are the elements that are required for a plant to A) grow normally. B) complete its life cycle. C) produce another generation. D) have normal metabolism. Answer: C Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 21) Which of the following macronutrients plays a critical role on plant growth and crop yields? A) carbon B) oxygen C) nitrogen D) potassium Answer: B Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 22) A fertilizer marked "20-10-5" is A) 20% N (as ammonium nitrate), 10% P (as phosphate), and 5% K (as the mineral potash). B) 20% P (as phosphate), 10% N (as ammonium nitrate) and 5% K (as the mineral potash). C) 20% K (as the mineral potash), 10% P (as phosphate), and 5% N (as ammonium nitrate). D) 20% N (as ammonium nitrate), 10% K (as the mineral potash), and 5% P (as phosphate). Answer: A Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G2

23) Which of the following is considered an organic fertilizer? A) manure B) 10:12:10 C) MiracleGrow D) ammonium nitrate Answer: A Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G2 24) The size of clay particles ranges from ________ in diameter. A) 0.002-2.0 mm B) 0.002-0.02 mm C) less than 0.002 m D) 0.02-2.0 mm Answer: C Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G2 25) What is the role of proton pumps in root hair cells? A) establish ATP gradients B) maintain the H+ gradient C) pressurize xylem transport D) eliminate excess electrons Answer: B Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 26) If isolated plant cells with a water potential averaging -0.5 MPa are placed into a solution with a water potential of -0.3 MPa, which of the following would be the most likely outcome? A) The pressure potential of the cells would increase. B) Water would move out of the cells. C) The cell walls would rupture, killing the cells. D) Solutes would move out of the cells. Answer: A Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G2

27) Guard cells do which of the following? A) protect the endodermis B) accumulate K+ in order to close the stomata C) contain chloroplasts that import K+ directly into the cells D) help balance the photosynthesis-transpiration compromise Answer: D Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G2 28) Photosynthesis begins to decline when leaves wilt because A) chloroplasts within wilted leaves are incapable of photosynthesis. B) CO2 accumulates in the leaves and inhibits the enzymes needed for photosynthesis. C) there is insufficient water for photolysis during the light reactions. D) stomata close, restricting CO2 entry into the leaf. Answer: D Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 29) The opening of stomata is thought to involve A) an increase in the solute concentration of the guard cells. B) a decrease in the solute concentration of the stoma. C) active transport of water out of the guard cells. D) decreased turgor pressure in the guard cells. Answer: A Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G2 30) In which plant cell or tissue would the pressure component of water potential most often be negative? A) leaf mesophyll cell B) stem xylem C) stem phloem D) root cortex cell Answer: B Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

31) Which of the following has the lowest (most negative) water potential? A) root cortical cells B) root xylem C) trunk xylem D) leaf air spaces Answer: D Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 32) Active transport would be least important in the normal functioning of which of the following plant tissue types? A) leaf transfer cells B) stem tracheid element C) root endodermal cells D) leaf mesophyll cells Answer: B Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 33) Which of the following essential nutrients plays an essential role in the opening and closing of the stomatal aperture? A) Fe B) Bo C) Mg D) K Answer: D Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G7 34) Which of the following is a correct statement about sugar movement in phloem? A) Diffusion can account for the observed rates of transport. B) Movement can occur both upward and downward in the plant. C) Sugar is translocated from sinks to sources. D) Only phloem cells with nuclei can perform sugar movement. Answer: B Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G2

35) Phloem transport is described as being from source to sink. Which of the following would most accurately complete this statement about phloem transport as applied to most plants in the late spring? Phloem transports ________ from the ________ source to the ________ sink. A) amino acids; root; mycorrhizae B) sugars; leaf; apical meristem C) nucleic acids; flower; root D) proteins; root; leaf Answer: B Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 36) Arrange the following five events in an order that explains the mass flow of materials in the phloem. 1. Water diffuses into the sieve tubes. 2. Leaf cells produce sugar by photosynthesis. 3. Solutes are actively transported into sieve tubes. 4. Sugar is transported from cell to cell in the leaf. 5. Sugar moves down the stem. A) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 D) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 Answer: C Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G2 37) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (a) The average size of particles that constitute silt (b) The average size of particles that constitute clay A) Item (a) is larger than item (b). B) Item (a) is smaller than item (b). C) Item (a) is exactly or very approximately equal to item (b). D) Item (a) bears no relationship to item (b). Answer: A Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G2

38) Atmospheric nitrogen can be fixed by nitrogen-fixing bacteria. Arrange the following forms of nitrogen from the atmospheric N stage to the final form that enters the roots. 1. Ammonia 2. Nitrogen gas 3. Ammonium ion 4. Nitrite 5. Nitrate A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 C) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 D) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 Answer: D Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G2 39) If you wanted to increase the cation exchange and water retention capacity of loamy soil, what should you do? A) Adjust the soil pH to 7.9. B) Add clay to the soil. C) Practice no-till agriculture. D) Add fertilizer containing potassium, calcium, and magnesium to the soil. Answer: B Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G2 40) Why does overwatering a plant kill it? A) Water does not have all the necessary minerals a plant needs to grow. B) Water neutralizes the pH of the soil. C) The roots are deprived of oxygen. D) Water supports the growth of root parasites. Answer: C Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

41) Which of the following soil minerals is most likely leached away during a hard rain? A) Na+ B) K+ C) Ca2+ D) NO3Answer: D Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.3 42) Most of the dry weight of a plant is derived from A) NO3- and CO2. B) K+ and CO2. C) PO43- and K+. D) H2O and CO2. Answer: D Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G2 43) In hydroponic culture, what is the purpose of bubbling air into the solute? A) to keep dissolved nutrients evenly distributed B) to provide oxygen to the root cells C) to inhibit the growth of aerobic algae D) to inhibit the growth of anaerobic bacteria Answer: B Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 44) The bulk of a plant's dry weight is derived from A) soil minerals. B) CO2. C) the hydrogen from H2O. D) the oxygen from H2O. Answer: B Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G2

45) Which of the following elements is required for the stability of cell walls? A) zinc B) chlorine C) calcium D) molybdenum Answer: C Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G2 46) Synthesis of which of the following compounds in a mature leaf would be least impacted by a temporary soil nitrogen deficiency? A) chlorophyll B) DNA C) RNA D) cellulose Answer: D Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 47) Copper plays a critical role in ________ of plant cells. A) water splitting in photosynthesis B) redox reactions and lignin-biosynthetic enzymes C) cytochromes D) cofactor for enzymes needed for nitrogen fixation Answer: B Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G2 48) A corn (Zea mays) mutant is developed that is impaired in magnesium uptake. The most likely phenotypic expression would be A) chlorosis, especially in the older leaves. B) a purple tinge to actively growing shoots. C) severely stunted root growth and branching. D) a reduction in leaf surface area. Answer: A Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

49) Iron deficiency is often indicated by yellowing in newly formed leaves. This suggests that iron is A) a relatively immobile nutrient in plants. B) tied up in formed chlorophyll molecules. C) concentrated in the xylem of older leaves. D) concentrated in the phloem of older leaves. Answer: A Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 50) The mutualistic associations between bacteria and plants will A) enhance plant growth. B) secrete antibiotics and protect roots from disease. C) increase crop yields. D) All the above are true. Answer: D Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 51) Plants can use nitrogen in the form of A) NH3. B) NH4+ ion. C) NO3- ion. D) NO2- ion. Answer: B Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

52) Arrange the following in the correct sequence of steps in nitrogen fixation. i. Nitrogen gas ii. Nitrite ion iii. Ammonia iv. Nitrate ion A) i, ii, iii, iv B) i, iv, ii, iii C) i, iii, ii, iv D) iii, i, iv, ii Answer: C Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 53) Which of the following, if used as a fertilizer, would be most immediately available for plant uptake? A) NH3 B) N2 C) CN2H2 D) NO3Answer: D Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 54) The enzyme complex nitrogenase catalyzes the reaction that reduces atmospheric nitrogen to A) N2. B) NH3. C) NO2-. D) NO+. Answer: B Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G2

55) In a root nodule, the gene coding for nitrogenase is A) inactivated by leghemoglobin. B) absent in active bacteroids. C) found in the cells of the pericycle. D) part of the Rhizobium genome. Answer: D Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G2 56) If a plant is infected with nitrogen-fixing bacteria, what is the most probable effect on the plant? A) It gets chlorosis. B) It dies. C) It will have a higher concentration of N2 in its roots and shoots. D) It will likely grow faster than an uninfected plant. Answer: D Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 57) You are weeding your garden when you accidentally expose some roots of your pea plants. You notice swellings (root nodules) on the roots, and there is a reddish tinge to the ones you accidentally damaged. Most likely your pea plants A) suffer from a mineral deficiency. B) are benefiting from a mutualistic bacterium. C) are developing offshoots from the root. D) contain developing insect pupa. Answer: B Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 58) Upregulation of leghemoglobin biosynthesis in a leguminous species would most likely indicate A) the plant is suffering from a mineral deficiency. B) the successful inoculation of nitrogen-fixing bacteria. C) the plant is suffering from water stress. D) an increase in the biosynthesis of amino acids. Answer: B Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G2 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

59) An example of a mutualistic association between a plant and a fungus would be A) nitrogen fixation. B) Rhizobium infection. C) mycorrhizae. D) parasitic infection. Answer: C Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G2 60) Hyphae form a covering over roots. These hyphae create a large surface area that helps to do which of the following? A) aid in absorbing minerals and ions B) maintain cell shape C) increase cellular respiration D) protect the roots from ultraviolet light Answer: A Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 61) The earliest vascular plants on land had underground stems (rhizomes) but no roots. Water and mineral nutrients were most likely obtained by A) absorption by hairs and trichomes. B) absorption by mycorrhizae. C) osmosis through the root hairs. D) diffusion across the cuticle of the rhizome. Answer: B Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2 62) What are epiphytes? A) aerial vines common in tropical regions B) haustoria used for anchoring to host plants and obtaining xylem sap C) plants that live in poor soil and digest insects to obtain nitrogen D) plants that grow on other plants but do not obtain nutrients from their hosts Answer: D Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G2 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

63) Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms that trap and digest small animals. The products of this digestion are used to supplement the plant's supply of A) energy. B) carbohydrates. C) minerals. D) water. Answer: C Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G2 64) Rhizobia, actinomycetes, and cyanobacteria all share the common feature that they can A) increase water uptake in plants. B) increase nutrient availability in the soil for plants. C) kill parasites in the soil. D) fix atmospheric nitrogen. Answer: D Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 65) Nitrogen fixation is a process that A) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials. B) converts ammonia to ammonium. C) releases nitrate from the rock substrate. D) converts nitrogen gas into ammonia. Answer: D Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G2 66) Which of the following would be the most effective strategy to remove toxic heavy metals from a soil? A) heavy irrigation to leach out the heavy metals B) application of fertilizers to compete with heavy metal uptake C) adding plant species that have the ability to take up and accumulate heavy metals D) inoculating soil with mycorrhizae to avoid heavy metal uptake Answer: C Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G2

67) Which of the following plant structures shares the most common features and functions with a fungal hyphae? A) stomata B) vascular cambium C) lenticels D) root hairs Answer: D Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G2 68) A plant developed a mineral deficiency after being treated with a fungicide. What is the most probable cause of the deficiency? A) Mineral receptor proteins in the plant membrane were not functioning. B) Mycorrhizal fungi were killed. C) Active transport of minerals was inhibited. D) Proton pumps reversed the membrane potential. Answer: B Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 69) Pine seedlings grown in sterile potting soil grow much slower than seedlings grown in soil from the area where the seeds were collected. This is most likely because A) the sterilization process kills the root hairs as they emerge from the seedling. B) the normal symbiotic fungi are not present in the sterilized soil. C) water and mineral uptake is faster when mycorrhizae are present. D) B and C. Answer: D Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.4 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 70) The water and minerals in the xylem vessels transported by A) diffusion. B) active transport. C) bulk flow. D) passive transport. Answer: C Topic: 29.4 Plant nutrition often involves relationships with other organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G2 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

71) The rise (upward mobility/transportation) of xylem sap by the cohesion-tension mechanism begins at the A) root hairs. B) leaves. C) roots. D) stem. Answer: B Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 72) The transpiration pull is due to the ________ that causes water to move up through the xylem that begins at the surface of mesophyll cells. A) negative pressure potential B) positive pressure potential C) solute potential D) solvent potential Answer: A Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 73) Some botanists argue that the entire plant should be considered as a single unit rather than a composite of many individual cells. Which of the following cellular structures best supports this view? A) cell wall B) cell membrane C) vacuole D) plasmodesmata Answer: D Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

74) A water molecule could move all the way through a plant from soil to root to leaf to air and pass through a living cell only once. This living cell would be a part of which structure? A) the Casparian strip B) a guard cell C) the root epidermis D) the endodermis Answer: D Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 75) The Casparian strip in plant roots is correctly described by which of the following? A) It aids in the uptake of nutrients. B) It provides energy for the active transport of minerals into the stele from the cortex. C) It ensures that all minerals are absorbed from the soil in equal amounts. D) It ensures that all water and dissolved substances must pass through a cell membrane before entering the stele. Answer: D Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 76) What drives the flow of water through the xylem? A) passive transport by the endodermis B) the number of companion cells in the phloem C) the evaporation of water from the leaves D) active transport by tracheid and vessel elements Answer: C Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G1, G2

77) What is the main force by which most of the water within xylem vessels moves toward the top of a tree? A) active transport of ions into the stele B) atmospheric pressure on roots C) evaporation of water through stoma D) the force of root pressure Answer: C Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G2 78) Most of the water taken up by a plant is A) used as a solvent. B) used as a hydrogen source in photosynthesis. C) lost during transpiration. D) used to keep cells turgid. Answer: C Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G2 79) The water lost during transpiration is a side effect of the plant's exchange of gases. However, the plant derives some benefit from this water loss in the form of A) evaporative cooling. B) mineral transport. C) increased turgor. D) evaporative cooling and mineral transport. Answer: D Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G2

80) Ignoring all other factors, what kind of day would result in the fastest delivery of water and minerals to the leaves of a tree? A) cool, dry day B) warm, dry day C) warm, humid day D) very hot, dry, windy day Answer: B Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G2 81) Which of the following experimental procedures would most likely reduce transpiration while allowing the normal growth of a plant? A) subjecting the leaves of the plant to a partial vacuum B) increasing the level of carbon dioxide around the plant C) putting the plant in drier soil D) decreasing the relative humidity around the plant Answer: B Topic: Concept 29.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.6 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 82) Stomatal movement (opening and closing) depends on active transport of A) hydrogen ions. B) nitrate ions. C) nitrite ions. D) ammonium ions. Answer: A Topic: 29.6 The rate of transpiration is regulated by stomata Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.6 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 83) Maximum amount of water loss occurs through stomata that account for ________% of the external leaf surface area. A) 5-10 B) 1-2 C) 10-20 D) 20-30 Answer: B Topic: 29.6 The rate of transpiration is regulated by stomata Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.6 Global L.O.: G2 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

84) The cuticle on the surface of epidermis of leaves is an adaptation for plants to conserve A) water. B) sugars. C) gas exchange. D) elements. Answer: A Topic: 29.6 The rate of transpiration is regulated by stomata Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.6 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 85) The amount of water lost through the stomata of a leaf under the same environmental conditions depends on the A) size and shape of guard cells in a unit area. B) length of petiole. C) shape and size of the leaf. D) leaf margin. Answer: A Topic: 29.6 The rate of transpiration is regulated by stomata Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.6 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 86) Which of the following environmental conditions would favor high stomatal density during leaf development in plants? A) high light exposure B) high carbon dioxide levels C) low oxygen levels D) high oxygen levels Answer: A Topic: 29.6 The rate of transpiration is regulated by stomata Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.6 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

87) As a biologist, it is your job to look for plants that have evolved structures with a selective advantage in dry, hot conditions. Which of the following adaptations would be least likely to meet your objective? A) CAM plants that grow rapidly B) small, thick leaves with stomata on the lower surface C) a thick cuticle on fleshy leaves D) plants that do not produce abscisic acid and have a short, thick taproot Answer: D Topic: 29.6 The rate of transpiration is regulated by stomata Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.6 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 88) Which of the following elemental ions plays a critical role in opening and closing of stomata? A) nitrogen B) potassium C) magnesium D) calcium Answer: B Topic: 29.6 The rate of transpiration is regulated by stomata Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.6 Global L.O.: G2 89) Which of the following is an adaptation in xerophytes? A) high density of stomata in a unit area of the leaf B) succulent stems with thick cuticle C) stems modified as spines D) lack of thick cuticle Answer: B Topic: 29.6 The rate of transpiration is regulated by stomata Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.6 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 90) Phloem sap flows through A) tracheids. B) vessels. C) sieve tubes. D) ground tissue. Answer: C Topic: 29.7 Sugars are transported from sources to sinks via the phloem Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.7 Global L.O.: G2 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

91) The dominant chemical in phloem sap is (are) A) sucrose. B) hormones. C) minerals. D) amino acids. Answer: A Topic: 29.7 Sugars are transported from sources to sinks via the phloem Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.7 Global L.O.: G2 92) According to the pressure flow hypothesis of phloem transport, A) solute moves from a high concentration in the source to a lower concentration in the sink. B) water is actively transported into the source region of the phloem to create the turgor pressure needed. C) the combination of a high turgor pressure in the source and transpiration water loss from the sink moves solutes through phloem conduits. D) the formation of starch from sugar in the sink increases the osmotic concentration. Answer: A Topic: 29.7 Sugars are transported from sources to sinks via the phloem Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.7 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 93) If you were to prune the shoot tips of a plant, what would be the effect on the plant and the leaf area index? A) bushier plants; lower leaf area index B) tall plants; lower leaf area index C) short plants; lower leaf area index D) bushier plants; higher leaf area indexes Answer: D Topic: 29.7 Sugars are transported from sources to sinks via the phloem Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.7 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 94) You are most likely to see guttation in small plants when the A) transpiration rates are high. B) root pressure exceeds transpiration pull. C) preceding evening was hot, windy, and dry. D) water potential in the stele of the root is high. Answer: B Topic: 29.7 Sugars are transported from sources to sinks via the phloem Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 29.7 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

95) A young farmer purchases some land in a relatively arid area and is interested in earning a reasonable profit for many years. Which of the following strategies would best allow the farmer to achieve such a goal? A) establishing an extensive irrigation system B) using plenty of the best fertilizers C) finding a way to sell all parts of crop plants D) selecting crops adapted to arid areas Answer: D Topic: 29.7 Sugars are transported from sources to sinks via the phloem Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.7 Global L.O.: G2, G7 96) Arrange the following tissues, organs, chemicals, and flows in the correct cyclical steps in the bulk flow of phloem sap. i. sieve tube ii. xylem vessel iii. sucrose in leaf (source) iv. sucrose in root (sink) v. bulk flow by negative pressure vi. bulk flow by positive pressure A) iii, i, vi, iv, ii, v B) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi C) ii, i, iii, v, iv, vi D) iii, ii, i, v, iv, iv Answer: A Topic: 29.7 Sugars are transported from sources to sinks via the phloem Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.7 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 97) Historically, the decrease in stomatal density in many plant species could be related to A) fluctuations in oxygen levels. B) increased carbon dioxide levels. C) increased levels of oxygen. D) increased flow of solvent. Answer: C Topic: 29.6 The rate of transpiration is regulated by stomata Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.6 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

98) Stomata open when the flow of A) potassium ions in guard cells increases from neighboring epidermal cells across the cell membrane. B) potassium ions in guard cells decreases from neighboring epidermal cells across cell the membrane. C) hydrogen ions in guard cells increases from neighboring epidermal cells across the cell membrane. D) sodium ions in guard cells increases from neighboring epidermal cells across the cell membrane. Answer: A Topic: 29.6 The rate of transpiration is regulated by stomata Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.6 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

29.2 Art Questions In west Texas, cotton has become an important crop in the last several decades. However, in this hot, dry part of the country there is little rainfall, so farmers irrigate their cotton fields. They must also regularly fertilize the cotton fields because the soil is very sandy. Figure 29.1 shows the record of annual productivity (measured in kilograms of cotton per hectare of land) since 1960 in a west Texas cotton field. Use these data to answer the following question(s).

Figure 29.1 1) Based on the information provided in Figure 29.1, what is the most likely cause of the decline in productivity? A) The farmer used the wrong kind of fertilizer. B) The cotton is developing a resistance to the fertilizer and to irrigation water. C) Water has accumulated in the soil due to irrigation. D) The soil water potential has become more negative due to salination. Answer: D Topic: 29.7 The rate of transpiration is regulated by stomata Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.7 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

2) If you were the county agriculture agent, what would be the best advice you could give the farmer who owns the field under study in Figure 29.1? A) Plant a variety of cotton that requires less water and can tolerate salinity. B) Continue to fertilize, but stop irrigating the field and rely on rainfall. C) Continue to irrigate, but stop fertilizing the field and rely on organic nutrients in the soil. D) Continue to fertilize and irrigate, but add the nitrogen-fixing bacteria Rhizobium to the irrigation water until the productivity increases. Answer: A Topic: 29.6 The rate of transpiration is regulated by stomata Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.7 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 29.3 Scenario Questions 1) You are conducting an experiment on plant growth. You take a plant fresh from the soil that weighs 5 kg. Then you dry the plant overnight and determine the dry weight to be 1 kg. Of this dry weight, how much would you expect to be made up of organic molecules? A) 1 g B) 4 g C) 40 g D) 960 g Answer: D Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 2) Ten tomato plants are germinated and maintained in a large tray with no drainage. After several weeks they all begin to wilt and die despite repeated watering and fertilization. The most likely cause of this die-off is A) competition for resources. B) anoxia. C) organic nutrient depletion. D) no room left for root growth. Answer: B Topic: 29.3 Plant roots absorb essential elements from the soil Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

3) The general biology class was divided into two groups. The first group of students was given 5 red bean seeds and 100 mL distilled water, and the second group received 5 red bean seeds and 100 mL 5% salt solution. Both teams immersed seeds in their respective solvents at the same time and left them for 24 hours. What do you expect to observe in seeds after 24 hours, and why? A) Red beans in distilled water swell due to water potential difference between the seeds and the water outside. B) Red beans in distilled water shrink due to water potential difference between the seeds and the water outside. C) Red beans in 5% salt solution swell due to water potential difference between the seeds and the water outside. D) Red beans in 5% salt solution remain the same due to water potential difference between the seeds and the water outside. Answer: B Topic: 29.2 Different mechanisms transport substances over short or long distances Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 29.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, G7, & G9 4) Several tomato plants are growing in a small garden plot. If soil water potential were to drop significantly on a hot summer afternoon, which of the following would most likely occur? A) Stomatal apertures would decrease. B) Transpiration would increase. C) The leaves would become more turgid. D) The uptake of CO2 would be enhanced. Answer: A Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 5) A fellow student brought in a leaf to be examined. The leaf was dark green and thin, had stoma on the lower surface only, and had a total surface area of 10 square meters. What is the most likely environment where this leaf was growing? A) a dry, sandy region B) a large, still pond C) a tropical rain forest D) an oasis within a grassland Answer: C Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

6) A class of 10 students was divided into two groups. The first group was given a rose leaf, and the second group was given a cactus. Which of these two groups identified the xerophyte based on which characteristic feature(s)? A) group 2; thick cuticle B) group 2; surface stomata C) group 1; several stomata, thin cuticle D) group 1; thin cuticle Answer: A Topic: 29.5 Transpiration drives the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots via the xylem Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 29.5 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 29.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which structure or compartment is part of the symplast? A) the interior of a vessel element B) the interior of a sieve tube C) the cell wall of a mesophyll cell D) an extracellular air space Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following is an adaptation that enhances the uptake of water and minerals by roots? A) mycorrhizae B) cavitation C) active uptake by vessel elements D) rhythmic contractions by cortical cells Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) A plant cell with a ΨS of -0.65 MPa maintains a constant volume when bathed in a solution that has a ΨS of -0.30 MPa and is in an open container. The cell has a A) ΨP of +0.65 MPa. B) Ψ of -0.65 MPa. C) ΨP of +0.35 MPa. D) Ψ of 0 MPa. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

4) Two groups of tomatoes were grown in the laboratory, one with humus added to the soil and the other a control without humus. The leaves of the plants grown without humus were yellowish (less green) compared with those of the plants grown in humus-enriched soil. The best explanation for this difference is that A) the healthy plants used carbohydrates in the decomposing leaves of the humus for energy to make chlorophyll. B) the humus made the soil more loosely packed, so water penetrated more easily to the roots. C) the humus contained minerals such as magnesium and iron, needed for the synthesis of chlorophyll. D) the heat released by the decomposing leaves of the humus caused more rapid growth and chlorophyll synthesis. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Hydroponic culture is a technique in which A) plants are grown in soil mixed with water. B) plants are grown in soil. C) plants are grown in pure water. D) plants are grown in mineral solutions. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) ________ ions in the soil solution neutralize the negative charge of soil particles, causing the release of the mineral ________ into the soil solution. A) Nitrogen; anion B) Hydrogen; anion C) Nitrogen; cation D) Hydrogen; cation Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) The percentage of atmospheric nitrogen (N2) is A) 65. B) 90. C) 29. D) 79. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

8) The process of transpiration depends on which of the following water properties? A) temperature B) hydrogen bonds C) density D) polar covalent bonds Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 9) Chlorosis in plant leaves is due to the deficiency of A) carbon and zinc. B) magnesium and iron. C) manganese and copper. D) iron and zinc. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 30 Reproduction and Domestication of Flowering Plants 30.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following male reproductive organs in a dicot flower is haploid (n)? A) stamen B) anther wall C) sperm cell D) anther Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 2) The three characteristics of all angiosperms are A) tap root, flowers, and fruits. B) flowers, double fertilization, and fruits. C) tap roots, adventitious roots, and xylem vessels. D) double fertilization, seeds, and fruits. Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 3) At the end of meiosis (without cytokinesis), a diploid cell in a dicot flower ovule produce A) four unidentical haploid cells. B) four unidentical diploid nuclei. C) two identical cells. D) four unidentical haploid nuclei. Answer: D Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

4) In the process of evolution, ________ in the life cycle became reduced in size and completely dependent on ________ for nutrients. A) gametophyte; sporophyte B) gametophyte; zygote C) sporophyte; flower D) sporophyte; gametophyte Answer: A Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 5) A mature, unfertilized ovule in an angiosperm is the result of A) a single meiotic division. B) a single mitotic division. C) both meiotic and mitotic divisions. D) mitosis from the megaspore mother cell. Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 6) At the conclusion of meiosis in plants, the end products are always four haploid A) spores. B) eggs. C) sperm. D) seeds. Answer: A Topic: Concept 30.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2

7) Which of the following is the correct sequence during the alternation of generations in the life cycle in a flowering plant? A) sporophyte → meiosis → gametophyte → gametes → fertilization → diploid zygote B) sporophyte → mitosis → gametophyte → meiosis → sporophyte C) haploid gametophyte → gametes → meiosis → fertilization → diploid sporophyte D) sporophyte → spores → meiosis → gametophyte → gametes Answer: A Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G7 8) Arrange the following stages in the life cycle of an angiosperm in a correct sequence. i. gametophyte development ii. double fertilization iii. pollination iv. seed development A) ii, i, iii, iv B) i, ii, iii, iv C) i, iii, ii, iv D) i, iv, iii, ii Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 9) The ovary is most often located on/in the A) stamen. B) carpel. C) petals. D) sepals. E) receptacle. Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2

10) Microsporangia in flowering plants are located in the A) stamen. B) carpel. C) petals. D) sepals. Answer: A Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 11) Which of the following floral parts is correctly matched? A) anther–microsporangia B) petals–protecting floral parts in unopened buds C) sepals–attractive for insects D) stamen–megasporangium Answer: A Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 12) The function of antipodals in an embryosac is A) to attract and guide the pollen tube to the embryosac. B) double fertilization. C) unknown. D) both A and B. Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 13) Which of the following stages in the development of a male gametophyte is haploid (n)? A) microsporocyte B) generative cell C) anther D) stamen Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

14) The union of a sperm cell with ________ of the female gametophyte is referred as double fertilization. A) two polar nuclei B) two synergids C) two antipodals D) megasporocyte Answer: A Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 15) During the process of evolution of an angiosperm, A) the sporophyte became larger, more complicated, and short lived. B) the sporophyte became reduced, smaller, simpler, and long lived. C) the gametophyte became reduced, smaller, simpler, and short lived. D) the gametophyte became larger, simpler, and long lived. E) the sporophyte became reduced, smaller, and long lived. Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G7 16) In a typical dicot ovule, a surviving megaspore divided by ________ consecutive mitotic divisions without cytokinesis results in ________ nuclei. A) 2; 6 B) 3; 8 C) 3; 12 D) 4; 16 E) 1; 1 Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G7

17) The imbibition in seeds takes place during seed germination because of A) the uptake of water due to the high water potential of the dry seed. B) the loss of water due to the low water potential of the dry seed. C) the uptake of water due to the low water potential of the dry seed. D) the loss of water due to the high water potential of the seed. Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 18) The ________ is (are) the first plant organ(s) that emerge(s) during the process of seed germination. A) shoot B) root C) leaves D) cotyledons Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 19) Which of the following is a multiple fruit? A) apple B) pineapple C) raspberry D) pea Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2

20) A fruit that develops from many separate carpels of one flower is referred as A) a simple fruit. B) an aggregate fruit. C) a multiple fruit. D) an accessory fruit. Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 21) Which of the following plant seeds disperse by water? A) coconut B) dandelions C) maple D) puncture wine Answer: A Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 22) The products of asexual reproduction in plants are A) clones, and they do not require the fusion of egg and sperm. B) genetically unidentical. C) clones, and they require the union of gametes. D) somatically different. Answer: A Topic: 30.2 Flowering plants reproduce sexually, asexually, or both Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 23) Where does meiosis occur in a flowering plant? A) megasporocyte B) microsporocyte C) pollen tube D) megasporocyte and microsporocyte Answer: D Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Which of the following is the correct sequence of processes that takes place when a flowering plant reproduces? A) meiosis → fertilization → ovulation → germination B) fertilization → meiosis → nuclear fusion → formation of embryo and endosperm C) meiosis → pollination → nuclear fusion → formation of embryo and endosperm D) growth of pollen tube → pollination → germination → fertilization Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G7 25) Which of the following is correctly paired with its life cycle generation? A) anther–sporophyte B) pollen–sporophyte C) embryo sac–gametophyte D) stamen–gametophyte Answer: A Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 26) Which of the following pollinating agents is correctly matched with the type of plant it helps pollinate? A) water–terrestrial plants B) animals–aquatic plants C) wind–grasses D) sand–desert plants Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 27) Which of the following plants is correctly matched with its fruit type? A) peas–aggregate B) raspberry–simple C) beans–simple D) pineapple–accessory Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) Which of the following occurs in an angiosperm ovule? A) An antheridium forms from the megasporophyte. B) A megaspore mother cell (megasporocyte) undergoes meiosis. C) The nucleus forms a diploid egg. D) A pollen tube emerges to accept pollen after pollination. Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 29) In which of the following pairs are the two terms equivalent? A) ovule–egg B) embryo sac–female gametophyte C) endosperm–male gametophyte D) seed–zygote Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 30) In flowering plants, a mature male gametophyte contains A) two haploid gametes and a diploid pollen grain. B) a generative cell and a tube cell. C) two sperm nuclei and one tube cell nucleus. D) two haploid microspores. Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 31) Three mitotic divisions within the female gametophyte of a flowering plant will produce A) three antipodal cells, two polar nuclei, one egg, and two synergids. B) the triple fusion nucleus. C) three pollen grains. D) two antipodal cells, two polar nuclei, two eggs, and two synergids. Answer: A Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G7 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) The primary function of the integument of an ovule is to A) protect against animal predation. B) ensure double fertilization. C) form a seed coat. D) direct development of the endosperm. Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 33) Which of the following events suggests there is a change in the egg cell membrane after penetration by a sperm? A) The pollen tube grows away from the egg toward the polar nuclei. B) The Ca2+ concentration increases in the cytoplasm of the egg. C) The egg plasmolyzes. D) Double fertilization occurs. Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G7 34) When a diploid cell in the ovule develops into a seed without sexual reproduction, it is referred to as A) apomixis. B) asexual reproduction. C) cloning. D) meiosis. Answer: A Topic: 30.2 Flowering plants reproduce sexually, asexually, or both Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 35) Callus is a group of A) ground tissue. B) vascular tissue. C) meristematic tissue. D) undifferentiated cells. Answer: D Topic: 30.2 Flowering plants reproduce sexually, asexually, or both Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.2 Global L.O.: G2 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) What typically results from double fertilization in angiosperms? A) The endosperm develops into a diploid nutrient tissue. B) A triploid zygote is formed. C) Both a diploid embryo and triploid endosperm are formed. D) Two embryos develop in every seed. Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 37) Which of the following "vegetables" is botanically a fruit? A) lettuce B) radish C) cabbage D) okra Answer: D Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 38) The embryo of a grass seed is enclosed by two protective sheaths, a ________, which covers the young shoot, and a(n) ________, which covers the young root. A) cotyledon; radicle B) hypocotyl; epicotyl C) coleoptile; coleorhiza D) scutellum; coleoptile Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 39) Seeds develop from A) receptacles. B) fertilized eggs. C) an ovary. D) ovules. Answer: D Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) Which of the following best describes the ploidy level of a fertilized embryo sac? A) All cells are diploid. B) All cells are triploid. C) All cells are polyploid. D) There are haploid, diploid, and triploid cells. Answer: D Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 41) A parent with an S1S2 genotype exhibiting sporophytic self-incompatibility can potentially fertilize which of the following plant genotypes of the same species with pollen grains? A) S1S3 B) S2S3 C) S3S4 D) S1S4 Answer: C Topic: 30.2 Flowering plants reproduce sexually, asexually, or both Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.2 42) Which of the following types of plants are incapable of self-pollination? A) dioecious B) monoecious C) complete D) wind-pollinated Answer: A Topic: 30.2 Flowering plants reproduce sexually, asexually, or both Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.2 Global L.O.: G2 43) Recent research has shown that fertilization requires that carpels recognize pollen grains as "self" or "non-self." For self-incompatibility, the system requires A) the rejection of non-self cells. B) the rejection of self cells. C) carpel incompatibility with the egg cells. D) that the flowers be incomplete. Answer: B Topic: 30.2 Flowering plants reproduce sexually, asexually, or both Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.2

44) The introduction of genes using biotechnological techniques (genetic engineering) from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis in corn and cotton crops A) reduces the use of chemical insecticides. B) decreases the crop yield by reducing the pests. C) makes them resistant to extreme weather conditions. D) makes them susceptible to extreme weather conditions. Answer: A Topic: 30.3 People modify crops through breeding and genetic engineering Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 45) Transgenic plants (plants modified by biotechnology tools) are A) resistant for pests. B) likely to increase soil erosion. C) intolerant for pesticides. Answer: B Topic: 30.3 People modify crops through breeding and genetic engineering Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 30.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 46) Plant biotechnology is an effective tool for A) reducing world hunger. B) increasing the import of oil. C) decreasing genetic diversity. D) increasing the incompatibility of fertilization. Answer: A Topic: 30.3 People modify crops through breeding and genetic engineering Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.3 Global L.O.: G7 47) Which of the following is true about vegetative reproduction? A) It involves both meiosis and mitosis to produce haploid and diploid cells. B) It produces vegetables and not fruits. C) It involves meiosis only. D) It produces clones of the parent plant. Answer: D Topic: 30.2 Flowering plants reproduce sexually, asexually, or both Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.2 Global L.O.: G2, G7

48) Which of the following is a true statement about clonal reproduction in plants? A) Clones of plants do not occur naturally. B) Cloning, although achieved in animals, has not been demonstrated in plants. C) Making cuttings of ornamental plants is a form of fragmentation. D) Reproduction of plants by cloning may be either sexual or asexual. Answer: C Topic: 30.2 Flowering plants reproduce sexually, asexually, or both Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.2 Global L.O.: G2, G7 49) Which of the following could be considered an evolutionary advantage of asexual reproduction in plants? A) increased success of progeny in a stable environment B) increased agricultural productivity in a rapidly changing environment C) maintenance and expansion of a large genome D) production of numerous progeny Answer: A Topic: 30.2 Flowering plants reproduce sexually, asexually, or both Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.2 50) Biofuels are mainly produced by A) the breakdown of cell wall biopolymers into sugars that can be fermented. B) plants that convert hemicellulose into gasoline. C) the genetic engineering of ethanol-generating genes into plants. D) transgenic crops that have cell walls containing ethylene. Answer: A Topic: 30.3 People modify crops through breeding and genetic engineering Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 30.3 Global L.O.: G2, G5 51) Due to the limitation of land and water resources on planet earth, biotechnology can help to increase the crop yields to meet human needs and demands in the years to come. Farmers have to produce ________% more grain per hectare to feed human population in ________. A) 25; 2035 B) 40; 2030 C) 50; 2050 D) 20; 2030 Answer: B Topic: 30.3 People modify crops through breeding and genetic engineering Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.3 Global L.O.: G2, G7

52) Cassava is a ________ crop that has been modified by biotechnology experiments. A) shoot B) root C) rhizome D) leaf Answer: B Topic: 30.3 People modify crops through breeding and genetic engineering Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 53) The most abundant organic compounds on planet Earth that are essential and a great resource to produce biofuels are A) cellulose. B) lignin. C) protein. D) lipid. Answer: A Topic: 30.3 People modify crops through breeding and genetic engineering Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 54) Which of the following can cause abnormal development of floral parts? A) pollinators B) a mutation in a gene C) floral meristem D) apical meristem Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2

55) Here is the ABC hypothesis of the impact of genes A, B, and C on floral part development: i. "A" genes are switched on in the two outer whorls (sepals and petals). ii. "B" genes are switched on in the two middle whorls (petals and stamens). iii. "C" genes are switched on in the inner two whorls (stamens and carpels). Which of these genes are active for petals? A) i B) i and ii C) i and iii D) iii and iv Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 30.2 Art Questions The following questions refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an angiosperm shown in Figure 30.1.

Figure 30.1 1) Based on Figure 30.1, which cell(s), after fertilization, give(s) rise to the embryo plant? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2

2) Based on Figure 30.1, which cell(s) become(s) the triploid endosperm? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: C Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2, G7 3) Based on Figure 30.1, which cell(s) guide(s) the pollen tube to the egg cell? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: A Topic: 30.1 Flowers, double fertilization, and fruits are unique features of the angiosperm life cycle Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 30.1 Global L.O.: G2 30.3 Scenario Questions 1) You are studying a plant from the Amazon rain forest that shows strong self-incompatibility. To characterize this reproductive mechanism, you would look for A) ribonuclease (RNAase) activity in stigma cells. B) RNA in the plants. C) pollen grains with very thick walls. D) carpels that cannot produce eggs by meiosis. E) systems of wind, but not insect, pollination. Answer: A Topic: 30.2 Flowering plants reproduce sexually, asexually, or both Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.2

2) A plant has a set of multiple alleles for "self" gene "S," which causes self-incompatibility (the ability of plant to reject its own pollen or pollen from closely related plants) to fertilize the egg. Here is a set of plants (sporophytes) with genotypes: i. S1S2 ii. S2S3 iii. S3S3 iv. S1S3 The S3 pollen from S2S3 parental sporophyte cannot fertilize the eggs of A) i B) ii C) iii D) iv Answer: B Topic: 30.2 Flowering plants reproduce sexually, asexually, or both Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 30.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 3) Several million people around the world experience malnutrition or hunger due to lack of nutritious food. Which tool would be most effective in helping alleviate human malnutrition and hunger? A) cloning B) crop breeding C) tissue culture D) self-pollination E) vegetative reproduction Answer: B Topic: 30.2 Flowering plants reproduce sexually, asexually, or both Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 30.2, 30.3 30.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) A fruit develops from an A) ovum. B) embryo. C) ovule. D) ovary. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) The number of megaspores that survive in each ovule after meiosis in megasporocyte is A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 4. Answer: A Topic: Concept 30.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Global L.O.: G2 3) How many times does the surviving megaspore divide to produce eight haploid nuclei? A) 2 with cytokinesis B) 3 without cytokinesis C) 3 with cytokinesis D) 2 without cytokinesis Answer: B Topic: Concept 30.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7 4) Double fertilization means that A) flowers must be pollinated twice to yield fruits and seeds. B) every egg must receive two sperm to produce an embryo. C) one sperm is needed to fertilize the egg, and a second sperm is needed to fertilize the polar nuclei. D) every sperm has two nuclei. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) "Golden rice" A) is resistant to various herbicides, making it practical to weed rice fields with those herbicides. B) is resistant to a virus that commonly attacks rice fields. C) includes bacterial genes that produce a toxin that reduces damage from insect pests. D) has a modified genome that includes transgenes that lead to increased vitamin A content. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which statement concerning grafting is correct? A) Stocks and scions refer to twigs of different species. B) Stocks and scions must come from unrelated species. C) Stocks provide root systems for grafting. D) Grafting creates new species. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) Some dioecious species have the XY genotype for male and XX for female. After double fertilization, what would be the genotypes of the embryos and endosperm nuclei? A) embryo X/endosperm XX or embryo Y/endosperm XY B) embryo XX/endosperm XX or embryo XY/endosperm XY C) embryo XY/endosperm XXX or embryo XX/endosperm XXY D) embryo XX/endosperm XXX or embryo XY/endosperm XXY Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) The pollen produced by wind-pollinated plants is often smaller than the pollen produced by animal-pollinated plants. A reason for this might be that A) wind-pollinated plants, in general, are smaller than animal-pollinated plants. B) wind-pollinated flowers don't need large pollen grains because they don't have to attract animal pollinators. C) small pollen grains can be carried farther by the wind. D) animal pollinators are more facile at picking up large pollen grains. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) The floral parts are arranged in concentric whorls. Which of the following sequences of floral parts is correct from the center to periphery of the receptacle? A) stamens, corolla, calyx, carpels B) carpels, stamens, corolla, calyx C) calyx, corolla, stamens, carpels D) calyx, stamens, carpels, corolla Answer: B Topic: Concept 30.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Global L.O.: G2 10) In vitro plant cultures produce A) unidentical plants. B) the possibility to regenerate genetically modified plants. C) plants at a much slower pace. D) plants with high vigor. Answer: B Topic: Concept 30.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

11) The technique of plant cross breeding facilitates plant breeders to A) produce crops with desirable traits. B) reduce the vigor of crops. C) reduce the yield and quality of crops. D) increase the susceptibility for diseases. Answer: A Topic: Concept 30.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Global L.O.: G1, G2, & G7

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 31 Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals 31.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Almost all plant cells have the ability to produce abscisic acid. One of the functions of abscisic acid in plants is to A) stimulate cell elongation. B) regulate development of fruit. C) promote stomatal closure during drought stress. D) delay leaf senescence. Answer: C Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G1 2) Charles and Francis Darwin concluded from their experiments on phototropism by grass seedlings that the part of the seedling that detects the direction of light is the A) tip of the coleoptile. B) part of the coleoptile that bends during the response. C) base of the coleoptile. D) cotyledon. Answer: A Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2 3) Which of the following conclusions is supported by the research of both Frits Went and Charles and Francis Darwin on shoot responses to light? A) When shoots are exposed to light, a chemical substance migrates toward the light. B) Agar contains a chemical substance that mimics a plant hormone. C) A chemical substance involved in shoot bending is produced in shoot tips. D) Once shoot tips have been cut, normal growth cannot be induced. Answer: C Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.1

4) Which of the following most correctly describes the effect of most hormones that control growth and development? A) individual hormonal action B) interaction between hormones C) chemical nature of hormones D) availability of nutrients Answer: B Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2 5) The apical bud of a shoot produces ________, resulting in the inhibition of lateral bud growth. A) abscisic acid B) ethylene C) cytokinin D) auxin Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 6) After some time, the tip of a plant that has been forced into a horizontal position grows upward. This phenomenon is related to A) calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum of shaded cells. B) whether the plant is in the northern or southern hemisphere. C) auxin production in cells receiving red light. D) auxin movement toward the lower side of the stem. Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 7) The ripening of fruit and the dropping of leaves and fruit are principally controlled by A) auxins. B) cytokinins. C) indoleacetic acid (IAA). D) ethylene. Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1

8) Auxins are produced mainly in A) leaves. B) root tips. C) shoot tips. D) fruits. Answer: C Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2 9) When growing plants in culture, IAA is used to stimulate cell enlargement. Which plant growth regulator has to now be added to stimulate cell division? A) ethylene B) indoleacetic acid C) gibberellin D) cytokinin Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 10) Why do coleoptiles grow toward light? A) Auxin is destroyed by light. B) Gibberellins are destroyed by light. C) Auxin synthesis is stimulated in the dark. D) Auxin moves away from the light to the shady side. Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G1 11) The proton pump plays a critical role on cell growth response by increasing cell wall plasticity to A) auxin. B) cytokinin. C) gibberellin. D) ethylene. Answer: A Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, and G7

12) Plant hormones produce their effects by A) altering the expression of genes. B) modifying the structure of the hormones. C) modifying the structure of the nuclear envelope membrane. D) altering the expression of genes and modifying the permeability of the plasma membrane. Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.1 13) Which of the following plant hormones alters gene expression and causes cells in the zone of elongation to produce proteins quickly? A) abscisic acid B) auxin C) ethylene D) cytokinin Answer: B Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, and G7 14) Which of the following plant hormones is responsible for the activation of lateral buds to grow into new branches? A) cytokinin B) ethylene C) abscisic acid D) auxin Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, and G7 15) Which part of the plant structure synthesizes cytokinins primarily? A) shoot apical meristem B) roots C) ripened fruits D) almost all plant parts Answer: B Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2

16) If a farmer wanted more loosely packed clusters of grapes, he would most likely spray the immature bunches with A) auxin. B) gibberellins. C) cytokinins. D) ethylene. Answer: B Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 17) The most common natural cytokine is zeatin, and it was first discovered in A) maize. B) rice. C) barley. D) oats. Answer: A Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2 18) ________ is produced in roots and moves up the plant in xylem sap to influence organ formation. A) Cytokinin B) Ethylene C) Abscisic acid D) Auxin Answer: A Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2 19) Which of the following hormones would be most useful in promoting the rooting of plant cuttings? A) strigolactones B) cytokinins C) gibberellins D) indolebutyric acid Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1

20) The aleurone layer is stimulated to release ________ as a result of gibberellin release from the embryo. A) amino acids B) carbohydrates C) cytokinins D) amylase Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 21) If you were shipping green bananas to a supermarket thousands of miles away, which of the following chemicals would you want to eliminate from the plants' environment? A) CO2 B) cytokinins C) ethylene D) auxin Answer: C Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2 22) Gibberellins and auxins play a common role in A) cell division. B) cell maturation. C) apical dominance. D) stem elongation. Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2 23) Experiments on the positive phototropic response of plants indicate that A) light destroys auxin. B) auxin moves down the plant apoplastically. C) auxin is synthesized in the area where the stem bends. D) auxin can move to the shady side of the stem. Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G1

24) Why are axillary buds often inhibited from growing even though a stem may be actively elongating? A) The cells of axillary buds respond differently to auxin than stem cells. B) Axillary buds are high in abscisic acid that prevents elongation. C) Axillary buds are low in gibberellins. D) Stem cells lack receptors for auxin. Answer: A Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.1 25) The application of which of the following hormones would be a logical first choice in an attempt to produce normal growth in mutant dwarf plants? A) indoleacetic acid B) cytokinin C) gibberellin D) abscisic acid Answer: C Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2 26) Which of the following plant hormones plays a critical role in breaking seed dormancy? A) abscisic acid B) ethylene C) indolebutyric acid D) gibberellin Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2 27) Young leaves and developing seeds are the prime sites for ________ synthesis. A) auxin B) gibberellin C) cytokinin D) ethylene Answer: B Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2

28) Which of the following best explains both the growth of a vine up the trunk of a tree and the directional growth of a houseplant toward a window? A) nastic movement B) taxic movement C) tropism response D) morphological response Answer: C Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G1, G7 29) Which plant hormone affects the response to mechanical stress, senescence, leaf abscission, and fruit ripening? A) abscisic acid B) ethylene C) indoleacetic acid D) gibberellin Answer: B Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2 30) Which of the following gases in air circulating units inhibits the production of new ethylene in fruits? A) oxygen B) carbon dioxide C) carbon monoxide D) sulfur dioxide Answer: B Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2 31) Auxin transports from cell to cell A) from top to bottom. B) from the bottom up. C) from side to side. D) in multidirectional ways. Answer: A Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Which of the following plant hormones stimulates cell elongation? A) cytokinin B) ethylene C) abscisic acid D) auxin Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G2 33) During the process of etiolation, a morphological adaptation in potato plant growth, which of the following activities takes place? A) expanded and above ground leaves B) excessive loss of water through stomata C) extensive root system D) elongated stems Answer: D Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, and G7 34) Seed packets give a recommended planting depth for the enclosed seeds. The most likely reason some seeds are to be covered with only 1/4 inch of soil is that the A) seedlings do not produce a hypocotyl. B) seedlings do not have an etiolation response. C) seeds require light to germinate. D) seeds require a higher temperature to germinate. Answer: C Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.2 35) A short-day plant will flower only when A) days are shorter than nights. B) days are shorter than a certain critical value. C) nights are shorter than a certain critical value. D) nights are longer than a certain critical value. Answer: D Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.2 Global L.O.: G2

36) A flash of red light followed by a flash of far-red light given during the middle of the night to a short-day plant will likely A) cause increased flower production. B) have no effect upon flowering. C) inhibit flowering. D) stimulate flowering. Answer: B Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.2 37) Which of the following treatments would enhance the level of the Pfr form of phytochrome? A) exposure to far-red light B) exposure to red light C) long dark period D) inhibition of protein synthesis Answer: B Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.2 38) Statoliths are structures that are responsible for A) phototropism. B) gravitropism. C) thigmotropism. D) dormancy. Answer: B Topic: 31.3 Plants respond to a wide variety of stimuli other than light Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.3 Global L.O.: G2 39) Which of the following chemicals functions as a photoreceptor in plants and regulates photoperiodism and responses to seasons? A) phytochromes B) auxins C) gibberellins D) cytokinins Answer: A Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.2 Global L.O.: G2

40) Plants often use changes in day length (photoperiod) to trigger events such as dormancy and flowering. It is logical that plants have evolved this mechanism because photoperiod changes A) are more predictable than air temperature changes. B) alter the amount of energy available to the plant. C) are modified by soil temperature changes. D) can reset the biological clock. Answer: A Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.2 41) Which plant organ detects changes in the photoperiod and produces signaling molecules that cue buds to develop as flowers? A) stem B) petiole C) root D) leaf Answer: D Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.2 Global L.O.: G2 42) If the range of a species of plants expands to a higher latitude, which of the following processes is the most likely to be modified by natural selection? A) circadian rhythm B) photoperiodic response C) phototropic response D) biological clock Answer: B Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.2 43) Statoliths are responsible for plants to exhibit A) thigmotropism. B) positive gravitropism. C) positive phototropism. D) negative gravitropism. Answer: B Topic: 31.3 Plants respond to a wide variety of stimuli other than light Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.3 Global L.O.: G2

44) If a short-day plant has a critical night length of 15 hours, then which of the following 24hour cycles will prevent flowering? A) 8 hours light/16 hours dark B) 4 hours light/20 hours dark C) 6 hours light/2 hours dark/light flash/16 hours dark D) 8 hours light/8 hours dark/light flash/8 hours dark Answer: D Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.2 45) Plants that have their flowering inhibited by being exposed to bright lights at night are A) day-neutral plants. B) short-night plants. C) short-day plants. D) long-day plants. Answer: C Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.2 Global L.O.: G2 46) A short-day plant exposed to nights longer than the minimum for flowering but interrupted by short flashes of light A) will never flower. B) might flower depending upon the duration of the light flash. C) will not be affected and will flower. D) might flower depending upon the wavelengths of the light flashes. Answer: D Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.2 47) You are part of a desert plant research team trying to discover crops that will be productive in arid climates. You discover a plant that produces a hormone under water-deficit conditions that triggers a suite of drought responses. Most likely the hormone is A) ABA. B) GA. C) IAA. D) 2,4-D. Answer: A Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.2 Global L.O.: G1, G2, G7

48) Which one of the following plants has thigmotropism? A) Mimosa pudica B) chrysanthemum C) rose D) dandelion Answer: A Topic: 31.3 Plants respond to a wide variety of stimuli other than light Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.3 Global L.O.: G2 49) Which of the following plant hormones plays a critical role on stomatal closures to avoid wilting? A) abscisic acid B) gibberellins C) ethylene D) cytokinin Answer: A Topic: 31.3 Plants respond to a wide variety of stimuli other than light Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.3 Global L.O.: G1, G2, and G7 50) A botanist discovers a plant that lacks the ability to form starch grains in root cells, yet the roots still grow downward. This evidence refutes the long-standing hypothesis that A) falling statoliths trigger gravitropism. B) starch accumulation triggers the negative phototropic response of roots. C) starch grains block the acid growth response in roots. D) starch is converted to auxin, which causes the downward bending in roots. Answer: A Topic: 31.3 Plants respond to a wide variety of stimuli other than light Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.3 51) Most scientists agree that global warming is under way; thus, it is important to know how plants respond to heat stress. Which of the following would be a useful line of inquiry to try to improve plant response to and survival of heat stress? A) the production of heat-stable carbohydrates B) increased production of heat-shock proteins C) the opening of stomata to increase evaporational heat loss D) protoplast fusion experiments with xerophytic plants Answer: B Topic: 31.3 Plants respond to a wide variety of stimuli other than light Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.3

52) In extremely cold regions, woody species may survive freezing temperatures by A) emptying water from the vacuoles to prevent freezing. B) decreasing the numbers of phospholipids in cell membranes. C) decreasing the fluidity of all cellular membranes. D) increasing cytoplasmic levels of specific solute concentrations, such as sugars. Answer: D Topic: 31.3 Plants respond to a wide variety of stimuli other than light Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.3 Global L.O.: G2, G7 53) The initial response of the root cells of a tomato plant watered with seawater would be to A) rapidly produce organic solutes in the cytoplasm. B) rapidly expand until the cells burst. C) begin to plasmolyze as water is lost. D) actively transport water from the cytoplasm into the vacuole. Answer: C Topic: 31.3 Plants respond to a wide variety of stimuli other than light Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.3 54) The rapid leaf movements resulting from a response to touch (thigmotropism) primarily involve A) rapid growth response. B) potassium channels. C) nervous tissue. D) aquaporins. Answer: B Topic: 31.3 Plants respond to a wide variety of stimuli other than light Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.3 55) Which of the following is the most likely plant response to an attack by herbivores? A) leaf abscission to prevent further loss B) early flowering to try to reproduce before being eaten C) production of chemical compounds for defense or to attract predators D) production of physical defenses, such as thorns Answer: C Topic: 31.4 Plants respond to attacks by herbivores and pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 31.4

56) The hypersensitive response, a nonspecific defense mechanism, of plants prevents the spread of pathogens by producing ________ around the infection site. A) methyl salicylic acid B) citric acid C) succinic acid D) fumaric acid Answer: A Topic: 31.4 Plants respond to attacks by herbivores and pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.4 Global L.O.: G2 57) The transduction pathway that activates systemic acquired resistance in plants is initially signaled by A) antisense RNA. B) Pfr phytochrome. C) salicylic acid. D) abscisic acid. Answer: C Topic: 31.4 Plants respond to attacks by herbivores and pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.4 58) A plant will recognize a pathogenic invader A) if it has many specific plant disease resistance (R) genes. B) when the pathogen has an R gene complementary to the plant's antivirulence (Avr) gene. C) only if the pathogen and the plant have the same R genes. D) if it has the specific R gene that corresponds to the pathogen molecule encoded by an Avr gene. Answer: D Topic: 31.4 Plants respond to attacks by herbivores and pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.4 59) Trichomes on certain plant species are a ________ to prevent excessive herbivory. A) physical defense B) chemical defense C) behavioral defense D) combination of chemical and behavioral defense Answer: A Topic: 31.4 Plants respond to attacks by herbivores and pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.4 Global L.O.: G2

60) What is the probable role of salicylic acid in the defense responses of plants? A) to destroy pathogens directly B) to activate the systemic acquired resistance of plants C) to close stomata, thus preventing the entry of pathogens D) to activate heat-shock proteins Answer: B Topic: 31.4 Plants respond to attacks by herbivores and pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.4 61) When an arborist prunes a limb off a valuable tree, he or she usually paints the cut surface. The primary purpose of the paint is to A) minimize water loss by evaporation from the cut surface. B) improve the appearance of the cut surface. C) stimulate growth of the cork cambium to "heal" the wound. D) block entry of pathogens through the wound. Answer: D Topic: 31.4 Plants respond to attacks by herbivores and pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.4 Global L.O.: G2 62) When plants exhibit generalized defense responses in organs distant from the infection site, this is termed A) a hyperactive response. B) systemic acquired resistance. C) pleiotropy. D) hyperplasia. Answer: B Topic: 31.4 Plants respond to attacks by herbivores and pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 31.4

31.2 Art Questions

Figure 31.1 1) The heavy line in Figure 31.1 illustrates the relationship between auxin concentration and cell growth in stem tissues. If the same range of concentrations were applied to lateral buds, what curve(s) would probably be produced? A) I B) II C) III D) II or III Answer: A Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.1

Figure 31.2 2) The results of this experiment, shown on the left of the graph in Figure 31.2 (area A), may be used to A) show that these plants can live without gibberellin. B) show that gibberellin is necessary in positive gravitropism. C) show that taller plants with more gibberellin produce fruit (pods). D) show a correlation between plant height and gibberellin concentration. Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.1 3) This experiment suggests that the unknown amount of gibberellin in the experimental plant (B) is approximately A) zero. B) 0.01 μg/mL. C) 0.1 μg/mL. D) 1.0 μg/mL. Answer: C Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.1

4) This experiment suggests that the optimum amount of gibberellin in the experiment is approximately A) zero. B) 0.01 μg/mL. C) 0.1 μg/mL. D) 1.0 μg/mL. Answer: D Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.1 31.3 Scenario Questions 1) In an experiment, a plant physiologist has four groups of bananas of the same species. He exposes each of the four groups of bananas with the same concentration of auxins, gibberellins, abscisic acid, or ethylene. Which of these four groups of bananas ripen the fastest? A) auxins B) gibberellins C) abscisic acid D) ethylene Answer: D Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.2 2) In nature, poinsettias bloom in early March. Research has shown that the flowering process is triggered 3 months before blooming occurs. In order to make poinsettias bloom in December, florists change the length of the light/dark cycle in September. Given this information and clues, which of the following is a correct statement about poinsettias? A) They are short-day plants. B) They require a light period longer than some set minimum. C) They require a shorter dark period than is available in September. D) The dark period can be interrupted without affecting flowering. Answer: A Topic: 31.2 Responses to light are critical for plant success Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.2

3) In a tissue culture experiment, parenchyma tissue was used as a source to develop a new plant. However, the parenchyma tissue did not have enough hormones, so a group of undifferentiated cells, called callus, formed. Which one of the following could happen if the callus was supplemented with specific hormones? A) Callus supplemented with auxin would produce shoot buds. B) Callus supplemented with cytokinin would produce leaves. C) Callus supplemented with auxin and cytokinin would produce root and shoot buds, respectively. D) Callus supplemented with auxin and cytokinin would produce shoot buds and roots, respectively. Answer: C Topic: 31.1 Plant hormones help coordinate growth, development, and responses to stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 31.1 Global L.O.: G1, G2, and G7 31.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) The variety of leaf patterns in plants is due to A) abscisic acid. B) auxin. C) ethylene. D) cytokinin. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Auxin enhances cell elongation in all of these ways except A) increased uptake of solutes. B) gene activation. C) acid-induced denaturation of cell wall proteins. D) increased activity of plasma membrane proton pumps. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Charles and Francis Darwin discovered that A) red light is most effective in shoot phototropism. B) auxin can pass through agar. C) light destroys auxin. D) light is perceived by the tips of coleoptiles. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4) Which of the following plant hormones stimulates cell division and differentiation and apical dominance? A) abscisic acid B) auxin C) ethylene D) cytokinin Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) If a long-day plant has a critical night length of 9 hours, which 24-hour cycle would prevent flowering? A) 16 hours light/8 hours dark B) 14 hours light/10 hours dark C) 4 hours light/8 hours dark/4 hours light/8 hours dark D) 8 hours light/8 hours dark/light flash/8 hours dark Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Which of the following is a long-day plant? A) soybean B) spinach C) chrysanthemum D) poinsettia Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which of the following synthetic auxin functions as a herbicide? A) indolebutyric acid B) indoleacetic acid C) 2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D) D) cytokinin Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 32 Homeostasis and Endocrine Signaling 32.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following has (have) both endocrine and exocrine activity? A) the pituitary gland B) parathyroid glands C) salivary glands D) the pancreas E) adrenal glands Answer: D Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2 2) Penguins, seals, and tuna have body forms that permit rapid swimming because A) all share a common ancestor at some point in the past. B) all of their bodies have evolved to allow rapid swimming because of their predator/prey interactions over time. C) the shape is a convergent evolutionary solution to the need to reduce drag while swimming. D) this is the only shape that will allow them to maintain a constant body temperature in water. Answer: C Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.1, G2, V&C 1 3) Interstitial fluid is A) the fluid inside the gastrovascular cavity of Hydra. B) the internal environment inside animal cells. C) identical to the composition of blood. D) the fluid that surrounds body cells. Answer: D Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2

4) A collection of tissues functioning together is an A) organ. B) organ system. C) organelle. D) organism. Answer: A Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1 5) An exchange surface in direct contact with the external environment is found in the A) lungs. B) skeletal muscles. C) liver. D) heart. E) brain. Answer: A Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1 6) The absorptive epithelial cells lining the inner wall of the alimentary canal (digestive tract) are considered "polarized" because A) they pump wastes into the lumen while pumping nutrients toward the blood. B) the colors seen on the top and bottom of the cells are different. C) they must initiate action potentials to absorb most nutrients. D) the structures on the apical surface are different from those on the basal surface. Answer: D Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1 7) An example of connective tissue is (are) A) the skin. B) nerves. C) blood. D) skeletal muscles. Answer: C Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1

8) Connective tissues typically have A) many densely packed cells with direct connections between the membranes of adjacent cells. B) an apical side and a basal side. C) the ability to shorten upon stimulation. D) relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular matrix. E) the ability to transmit electrochemical impulses. Answer: D Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1 9) If you gently twist your earlobe, it does not remain twisted or in an abnormal position because it contains A) epithelial tissue. B) connective tissue. C) muscle tissue. D) nervous tissue. Answer: B Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.1, G2 10) The nourishment, insulation, and support for neurons are the result of activity by A) adipose tissue. B) the endocrine system. C) fibroblasts. D) glia. Answer: D Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1 11) Fibroblasts secrete A) fats. B) plasma. C) interstitial fluids. D) collagen. Answer: D Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1

12) Blood is best classified as connective tissue because A) its cells are separated from each other by an extracellular matrix. B) it contains more than one type of cell. C) it is contained in vessels that "connect" different parts of an organism's body. D) its cells can move from place to place. E) it is found within all the organs of the body. Answer: A Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1 13) What do tendons hold together? A) bones to other bones B) muscles to bones C) muscles to other muscles D) skin to other organs Answer: B Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1 14) With its abundance of collagenous fibers, cartilage is an example of A) connective tissue. B) muscle tissue. C) nervous tissue. D) epithelial tissue. Answer: A Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1 15) All types of muscle tissue have A) nonstriated banding patterns seen under the microscope. B) striated banding patterns seen under the microscope. C) cells that lengthen when appropriately stimulated. D) a response that can be consciously controlled. E) interactions between actin and myosin fibers. Answer: E Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1

16) What type of muscle tissue is found lining the walls of many internal organs such as blood vessels and the digestive tract? A) skeletal muscle B) cardiac muscle C) smooth muscle D) intestinal muscle Answer: C Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1 17) An animal body's automatic maintenance of a constant and optimal internal environment is termed A) positive feedback. B) negative feedback. C) homeostasis. D) thermoregulation. Answer: C Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.3 18) An example of a properly functioning homeostatic control system is seen when A) the core body temperature of a runner rises gradually from 37°C to 42°C. B) the kidneys excrete salt into the urine when dietary salt levels rise. C) a blood cell shrinks when placed in a solution of salt and water. D) blood pressure increases in response to an increase in blood volume. E) the level of glucose in the blood is abnormally high whether or not a meal has been eaten. Answer: B Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.3, G2 19) An example of a homeostatic response is A) an increase in body temperature that results from involuntary shivering. B) an increase in body temperature that results from exercise. C) the rising sun causing an increase in body temperature in a stationary animal. D) a fish in the ocean moving toward shallower waters to warm up. Answer: A Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.3, G2

20) In a cold environment that supports life, an ectotherm is more likely to survive an extended period of food deprivation than would an equal size endotherm because the ectotherm A) expends more energy per kilogram of body mass than does the endotherm. B) invests less energy in temperature regulation. C) metabolizes its stored energy more readily than does the endotherm. D) has greater insulation on its body surface. Answer: B Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.3, G2 21) Animals can lose heat, but cannot gain heat, through the process of A) conduction. B) convection. C) radiation. D) evaporation. Answer: D Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.3 22) An example of an ectothermic organism that would have difficulty adjusting its body temperature due to its typical physical environment is a A) terrestrial lizard. B) sea star, a marine invertebrate. C) shark. D) hummingbird. E) house fly. Answer: B Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.3, G2 23) The thermoregulatory response of an overheated dog, already in a very hot environment, is impaired if the response causes A) evaporative heat loss to increase. B) metabolic heat production to decrease. C) its body temperature to match the environmental temperature. D) blood vessels near the skin to vasoconstrict. E) a behavioral response that takes the dog to a cooler location. Answer: C Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.3, G2

24) The panting responses that are observed in overheated birds and mammals dissipate excess heat by A) conduction. B) radiation. C) vasoconstriction. D) evaporation. Answer: D Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.3 25) An example of an organism that has only behavioral controls over its body temperature is the A) rosy boa (a snake). B) penguin. C) bald eagle. D) coyote. Answer: A Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.3, G2 26) Most land-dwelling invertebrates and all of the amphibians A) are ectothermic organisms with variable body temperatures. B) alter their metabolic rates to maintain a constant body temperature of 37°C. C) have a net loss of heat across a moist body surface, even in direct sun. D) become more active when environmental temperatures drop below 20°C. Answer: A Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.3 27) The temperature-regulating center of vertebrate animals is located in the A) pituitary gland. B) thyroid gland. C) hypothalamus. D) adrenal glands. Answer: C Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.3

28) Seasonal changes in snake activity are due to the fact that snakes are A) less active in winter because the food supply is decreased. B) less active in winter because they do not need to avoid predators. C) more active in summer because that is the period for mating. D) more active in summer because they can gain body heat by conduction. Answer: D Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.3, G2 29) Positive feedback differs from negative feedback in that A) positive feedback benefits the organism, whereas negative feedback is detrimental. B) the positive feedback's responses are in the same direction as the initiating stimulus rather than opposite to it. C) positive feedback results in increases in some parameter (such as body temperature), whereas negative feedback results only in decreases to the parameter. D) positive feedback systems have control centers that are lacking in negative feedback systems. Answer: B Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2 30) Most types of communication between cells utilize A) the exchange of cytosol between the cells. B) a direct electrical connection between the cells. C) the release or reception of chemical signaling molecules. D) the exchange of DNA between the cells. Answer: C Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2 31) Coordinating body functions via release of chemical signals into the vascular system is accomplished by A) the respiratory system. B) the endocrine system. C) the integumentary system. D) the nervous system. Answer: B Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2

32) All hormones A) are produced by endocrine glands. B) are lipid-soluble molecules. C) are carried to target cells in the blood. D) are protein molecules. E) elicit the same biological response from all of their target cells. Answer: C Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2 33) A cell with membrane-bound proteins that selectively binds to a specific hormone is called that hormone's A) neurosecretory cell. B) endocrine cell. C) target cell. D) daughter cell. Answer: C Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2 34) The steroid hormone aldosterone affects only a small number of cells in the body because A) only its target cells are exposed to aldosterone. B) only its target cells contain aldosterone receptors. C) aldosterone can only cross the cell membrane of target cells. D) aldosterone is only soluble in target cells. Answer: B Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.2, G2 35) Different cells in the body are able to uniquely respond to the same hormones because A) different target cells have different sets of genes. B) each cell converts that hormone to a different metabolite. C) different target cells may use different signal transduction pathways. Answer: C Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2

36) During mammalian labor and delivery, the contraction of uterine muscles is enhanced partly by the actions of oxytocin. This is an example of A) a negative feedback system. B) a hormone that is involved in a positive feedback loop. C) signal transduction immediately changing gene expression in its target cells. D) the key role of the anterior pituitary gland in regulating uterine contraction. Answer: B Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2 37) The interrelationships between the endocrine and the nervous systems are especially apparent in a A) neuron in the spinal cord. B) steroid-producing cell in the adrenal cortex. C) neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus. D) neuron in the cerebral cortex. E) digestive enzyme-producing cell in the pancreas. Answer: C Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.2, G2 38) Prolactin stimulates mammary gland growth and development in mammals, and it also regulates salt and water balance in freshwater fish. Many scientists think that this wide range of functions indicates that prolactin A) is a nonspecific hormone. B) has a unique mechanism for eliciting its effects. C) is an evolutionarily conserved hormone. D) is derived from two separate sources. E) interacts with many different receptor molecules. Answer: C Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2, G7, V&C 1

39) In a lactating mammal, the two hormones that promote milk synthesis and milk release, respectively, are A) prolactin and calcitonin. B) prolactin and oxytocin. C) follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone. D) luteinizing hormone and oxytocin. E) prolactin and luteinizing hormone. Answer: B Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2 40) Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are synthesized in the A) hypothalamus. B) adrenal medulla. C) anterior pituitary gland. D) adrenal cortex. E) posterior pituitary gland. Answer: A Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2 41) Fight-or-flight reactions include activation of A) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate. B) the thyroid gland, leading to an increase in the epinephrine concentration. C) the anterior pituitary gland, leading to cessation of gonadal function. D) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine. E) the pancreas, leading to a reduction in blood sugar concentration. Answer: D Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2

42) Suppose that a patient is diagnosed with a tumor in her parathyroid gland such that excess PTH is secreted. What can be given to the patient to counteract the effects of the tumor? A) T3 and T4 B) epinephrine C) growth hormone D) calcitonin E) glucagon Answer: D Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.2, G2, G5 43) The endocrine gland that produces epinephrine is the A) ovary. B) adrenal medulla. C) adrenal cortex. D) testis. E) thyroid. Answer: B Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2 44) Melatonin is secreted by A) the hypothalamus. B) the pineal gland. C) the adrenal medulla. D) the posterior pituitary gland. E) the thyroid gland. Answer: B Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2

45) The increased contraction of the human uterus during labor and delivery is at least partially due to the actions of A) epinephrine. B) glucagon. C) thyroxine. D) oxytocin. E) growth hormone. Answer: D Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2, G5 46) Abnormally reduced somatic growth (dwarfism) can be a consequence of decreased hormone secretion from the A) kidneys. B) pancreas. C) adrenal gland. D) posterior pituitary gland. E) anterior pituitary gland. Answer: E Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.2, G2 47) In a positive-feedback system where hormone A alters the amount of protein X, A) an increase in A always produces an increase in X, which results in an increase in A. B) an increase in X always produces a decrease in A, which results in a decrease in X. C) a decrease in A always produces an increase in X, which results in an increase in A. D) a decrease in X always causes a decrease in A, which causes an increase in X. Answer: A Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.2, G2

48) The hypothalamus A) functions only as an endocrine target. B) functions only in neural transmission. C) does not have any hormone receptors on its cells. D) secretes hormones that act directly on the gonads. E) controls most neuroendocrine signaling in mammals. Answer: E Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.2 49) Most of the exchange surfaces of multicellular animals are lined with A) connective tissue. B) muscle tissue. C) nervous tissue. D) epithelial tissue. Answer: D Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.1 50) A necropsy (post-mortem analysis) of a marine sea star that died after it was mistakenly placed in fresh water would likely show that it died because A) it was stressed and needed more time to acclimate to the new conditions. B) it was so hyperosmotic to the fresh water that it could not osmoregulate. C) its kidneys could not handle the change in ionic content presented by the fresh water. D) it had an immediate movement of water out of its cells after being placed in fresh water. Answer: B Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.4, G2 51) Organisms categorized as osmo-conformers are most likely A) found in freshwater lakes and streams. B) marine. C) amphibious D) found in arid terrestrial environments. E) found in terrestrial environments with adequate moisture. Answer: B Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4

52) The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ________ with a ________ environment. A) hyperosmotic; freshwater B) isotonic; freshwater C) hyperosmotic; saltwater D) isoosmotic; saltwater E) hypoosmotic; saltwater Answer: D Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 53) Compared to the seawater around them, most marine invertebrates are A) hyperosmotic. B) hypoosmotic. C) isoosmotic. Answer: C Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 54) The fluid with the highest osmolarity is A) fresh water. B) plasma in birds. C) plasma in a marine mammal. D) seawater in a tidal pool. E) plasma in terrestrial reptiles. Answer: D Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.4, G2 55) A human who has no access to fresh water and can only drink salty seawater instead A) will thrive under such conditions, as long as he has lived by the ocean most of his life. B) will excrete more water molecules than are taken in because of the high load of ion ingestion. C) will develop structural changes in the kidneys to accommodate the salt overload. D) will find that drinking saltwater satiates his thirst. E) will excrete less water molecules than are taken in because of the high load of ion ingestion. Answer: B Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.4, G2

56) How do marine fish perform osmoregulation? A) through gaining water through the gills B) through gaining salt through the gills C) through drinking water and eating food D) through excreting large amounts of dilute urine Answer: C Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 57) The necropsy (post-mortem analysis) of a freshwater lake fish that died after accidentally being placed in salty ocean water would likely show that A) loss of water by osmosis from cells in vital organs resulted in cell death and organ failure. B) high amounts of salt had diffused into the fish's cells, causing them to swell and lyse. C) the kidneys were not able to keep up with the water removal necessary in this hyperosmotic environment, creating an irrevocable loss of homeostasis. D) the gills became encrusted with salt, resulting in inadequate gas exchange and eventual asphyxiation. E) brain cells lysed as a result of increased osmotic pressure in this hyperosmotic environment, leading to death by loss of autonomic function. Answer: A Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.4, G2 58) Urea is produced in the A) liver from NH3 and CO2. B) liver from glycogen. C) kidneys from glucose. D) kidneys from glycerol and fatty acids. Answer: A Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 59) Urea is A) the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans. B) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds. C) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most aquatic invertebrates. D) unimportant in relation to humans. Answer: A Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4

60) Which nitrogenous waste has the greatest number of nitrogen atoms? A) ammonia B) ammonium ions C) urea D) uric acid Answer: D Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 61) Ammonia is likely to be the primary nitrogenous waste in living conditions that include A) lots of fresh water flowing across the gills of a fish. B) lots of seawater, such as the environment of a marine bird. C) lots of seawater, such as the environment of a marine mammal (e.g., a polar bear). D) a terrestrial environment, such as one that supports crickets. E) a moist system of burrows, such as those of naked mole rats. Answer: A Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.4, G2 62) The nitrogenous waste that requires the most energy to produce is A) ammonia. B) urea. C) uric acid. Answer: C Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 63) Ammonia A) is soluble in water. B) can be stored in the body as a precipitate. C) has low toxicity relative to urea. D) requires more energy to synthesize than urea. E) is the major nitrogenous waste excreted by insects. Answer: A Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4

64) An advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that A) urea can be exchanged for Na+. B) urea is less toxic than ammonia. C) urea requires more water for excretion than ammonia. D) urea does not affect the osmolarity gradient. E) less nitrogen is removed from the body. Answer: B Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 65) The primary nitrogenous waste excreted by birds is A) ammonia. B) urea. C) uric acid. D) nitrite. Answer: C Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 66) Which nitrogenous waste requires hardly any water for its excretion? A) urea B) uric acid C) ammonia Answer: B Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 67) In animals, nitrogenous wastes are produced mostly from the catabolism of A) starch and cellulose. B) triglycerides and steroids. C) proteins and nucleic acids. D) phospholipids and glycolipids. E) fatty acids and glycerol. Answer: C Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4

68) Sparrows (a small bird species) secrete uric acid as their form of nitrogenous waste because uric acid A) is readily soluble in water. B) is metabolically less expensive to synthesize than other excretory products. C) requires little water for nitrogenous waste disposal, thus reducing water waste. D) excretion allows birds to live in desert environments. Answer: C Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.4, G2 69) Which of the following mammals likely produces the most concentrated urine? A) desert kangaroo rats B) humans C) dolphins D) chimpanzees Answer: A Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.4, G2 70) Materials are returned to the blood from the filtrate by which of the following processes? A) filtration B) reabsorption C) secretion D) excretion Answer: B Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 71) Excretory structures known as protonephridia are present in A) flatworms. B) earthworms. C) insects. D) vertebrates. Answer: A Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4

72) Excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules are present in A) earthworms. B) flatworms. C) insects. D) jellyfish. E) sea stars. Answer: C Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 73) The osmoregulatory process called secretion refers to the A) formation of filtrate at an excretory structure. B) reabsorption of nutrients from a filtrate. C) selective elimination of excess ions and toxins from body fluids. D) formation of an osmotic gradient along an excretory structure. E) excretion of urine from the body. Answer: C Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 74) Which of the following pairs of organisms excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid? A) mice and birds B) insects and birds C) lions and horses D) humans and frogs E) fish and turtles Answer: B Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 75) Choose a pair that correctly associates the mechanism for osmoregulation or nitrogen removal with the appropriate animal. A) protonephridium–earthworm B) Malpighian tubule–frog C) kidney–insect D) flame bulb–snake E) exchange across the body surface–marine invertebrate Answer: E Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4

76) An excretory system that includes tubules and uses the process of filtration is the A) flame bulb system of flatworms. B) protonephridia of flatworms. C) Malpighian tubules of insects. D) kidneys of vertebrates. Answer: D Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 77) The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule A) results from active transport. B) transfers large molecules as easily as small ones. C) is very selective as to which subprotein-sized molecules are transferred. D) is mainly a consequence of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulus. E) usually includes the transfer of red blood cells into Bowman's capsule. Answer: D Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 78) Within a normally functioning kidney, blood can be found in A) the vasa recta. B) Bowman's capsule. C) the loop of Henle. D) the proximal tubule. E) the collecting duct. Answer: A Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 79) What structure directly supplies the renal pelvis with filtrate? A) the loop of Henle B) the glomerulus C) Bowman's capsule D) the proximal tubule E) the collecting duct Answer: E Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4

80) Juxtamedullary nephrons can concentrate salt effectively in the renal medulla because of their long A) loops of Henle. B) distal convoluted tubules. C) proximal convoluted tubules. Answer: A Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4 81) The filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule of the human does not normally include A) ions. B) glucose. C) plasma proteins. D) amino acids. E) dissolved gasses. Answer: C Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.5 82) A primary reason that the kidneys have one of the highest metabolic rates of all body organs is that A) they store the body's excess fats. B) they have membranes of varying permeability to water. C) they operate an extensive set of active-transport ion pumps. D) they are the body's only means of shedding excess nutrients. Answer: C Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.5 83) Low selectivity of solute movement is a characteristic of A) salt pumping to control osmolarity. B) H+ pumping to control pH. C) reabsorption mechanisms along the proximal tubule. D) filtration from the glomerular capillaries. E) secretion along the distal tubule. Answer: D Topic: 32.4 A shared system mediates osmoregulation and excretion in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.4

84) If ATP production or availability in a human kidney was suddenly stopped, urine production would A) come to a complete stop. B) decrease, and the urine would be hypoosmotic compared to plasma. C) increase, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma. D) increase, and the urine would be hyperosmotic compared to plasma. E) decrease, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma. Answer: C Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 32.5, G2 85) Water conservation in mammals of arid regions, compared to wetland mammals, is enhanced by arid region mammals having more A) juxtamedullary nephrons. B) Bowman's capsules. C) cortical nephrons. Answer: A Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.5, G2 86) Processing of filtrate in the proximal and distal tubules A) sorts plasma proteins according to size. B) converts toxic ammonia to less toxic urea. C) maintains homeostasis of pH in body fluids. D) reabsorbs urea to maintain osmotic balance. Answer: C Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.5 87) In humans, the transport epithelial cells in the ascending loop of Henle A) are the largest epithelial cells in the body. B) are not in contact with interstitial fluid. C) have plasma membranes of low permeability to water. Answer: C Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.5

88) The typical osmolarity of human blood is A) 100 mOsm/L. B) 200 mOsm/L. C) 300 mOsm/L. D) 500 mOsm/L. Answer: C Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.5 89) When stimulated by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), the reabsorption of water is increased along A) the loop of Henle. B) the glomerulus. C) the collecting duct. D) the proximal tubule. E) the distal tubule. Answer: C Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.5 90) Increased ADH secretion likely occurs after A) drinking lots of pure water. B) eating a large bowl of salty popcorn. C) drinking alcoholic drinks. D) eating a small sugary snack. E) blood pressure becomes abnormally high. Answer: B Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.5, G2, G5 91) Suppose you drink several large glasses of orange juice at breakfast. What type of urine will you produce, and how? A) Concentrated urine will be produced by increased activation of the renin-angiotensinaldosterone system (RAAS). B) Dilute urine will be produced by increased activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). C) Concentrated urine will be produced by inhibition of ADH secretion. D) Dilute urine will be produced by inhibition of ADH secretion. Answer: D Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.5, G2, G5

92) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) functions at the cellular level by A) stimulating the reabsorption of glucose through channel proteins. B) triggering the synthesis of an enzyme that makes the phospholipid bilayer more permeable to water. C) causing membranes to include more phospholipids that have unsaturated fatty acids. D) causing an increase in the number of aquaporin molecules of collecting duct cells. E) decreasing the speed at which filtrate flows through the nephron, leading to increased reabsorption of water. Answer: D Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.5 93) ADH and RAAS work together in maintaining osmoregulatory homeostasis through which of the following ways? A) ADH regulates the osmolarity of the blood, and RAAS regulates the volume of the blood. B) ADH regulates the osmolarity of the blood by altering renal reabsorption of water, and RAAS maintains the osmolarity of the blood by stimulating Na+ and water reabsorption. C) ADH and RAAS work antagonistically: ADH stimulates water reabsorption during dehydration, and RAAS causes increased excretion of water when it is in excess in body fluids. D) Both stimulate the adrenal gland to secrete aldosterone, leading to an increase in both blood volume and pressure via receptors in the urinary bladder. Answer: B Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.5, G2 94) If a person loses a large amount of water in a short period of time, she may die from dehydration. ADH can help reduce water loss through its interaction with its target cells in the A) anterior pituitary gland. B) posterior pituitary gland. C) adrenal gland. D) bladder. E) kidney. Answer: E Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.5

95) A football player has been rushed to the emergency room after passing out during practice on a hot day. The player is sweating extensively but appears to have normal blood pressure. As the attending physician, you need to give the player a drug to counteract his symptoms. Which of the following drugs would be best to give the player? A) a drug that acts like ADH B) a drug that acts like oxytocin C) a drug that acts like insulin D) a drug that acts like melatonin E) a drug that acts like angiotensin II Answer: A Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 32.5, G2, G5 96) A researcher is conducting an experiment to identify an unknown hormone. The experiment consists of exposing cells to the hormone and then determining where the hormone is located after a period of time. The researcher collects the data in the table below. What could be the identity of the unknown hormone?

A) oxytocin B) ADH C) testosterone D) insulin E) glucagon Answer: C Topic: 32.2 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 32.2, G1, G2, G4

97) An inoperable tumor has been discovered in a patient's brain. While the tumor is small now, it potentially may become malignant and grow. As the patient's doctor, you tell her to keep a diary of how she is feeling and to call you if she notices any trends. One day she calls you to tell you that after taking hot showers, it takes hours for her to cool off. What region of the brain may be affected by the tumor? A) pineal gland B) anterior pituitary gland C) posterior pituitary gland D) hypothalamus Answer: D Topic: 32.2, 32.3 The endocrine and nervous systems act individually and together in regulating animal physiology; Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 32.2, 32.3, G2, G5 98) You are observing an unknown animal species in the Amazon rain forest and want to know whether it is an ectotherm or an endotherm. Which of the following methods would be the least helpful in making this determination? A) Measure the animal's body temperature, and compare it to ambient temperature at various times throughout the day and night. B) Determine the animal's urine production, and compare it to ambient temperature at various times throughout the day and night. C) Measure the animal's rate of oxygen consumption, and compare it to ambient temperature at various times throughout the day and night. D) Observe the animal's behavior and activity level, and compare it to ambient temperature at various times throughout the day and night. Answer: B Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 32.3, G1, G2 99) Some tissues contain microvilli, which are tiny extensions of cell surfaces that increase surface area to allow for more absorption and secretion to occur. What type of tissue has microvilli, and on what "side" of the tissue are microvilli found? A) Microvilli are found on the apical side of epithelial tissues. B) Microvilli are found on the basal side of epithelial tissues. C) Microvilli are found on the apical side of connective tissues. D) Microvilli are found on the basal side of connective tissues. Answer: A Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.1, G2, V&C 1

100) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome negatively affects various connective tissues in the body, including joints, heart valves, and organ walls. It is caused by defects in the production of collagen. What cell type might be affected in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome? A) neuron B) fibroblast C) macrophage D) glial cell Answer: B Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.1, G2, G5 101) Julia is a 41-year-old female who is suffering from a condition that is causing frequent infections, difficulty in controlling her body temperature, and excess loss of water. What organ system is likely affected in Julia? A) excretory B) muscular C) integumentary D) digestive Answer: C Topic: 32.1 Animal form and function are correlated at all levels of organization Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.1, G2, G5 102) Suppose you want to know whether a person's body temperature is higher than normal, but you cannot measure his body temperature. Which observation would suggest that this person's body temperature is higher than normal? A) slowing of digestive tract activity B) decreased sweat gland activity C) skeletal muscles rapidly contracting D) increased blood flow to capillaries in the integumentary system Answer: D Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.3, G2 103) Thiazide is a medicinal drug that blocks reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the distal convoluted tubule. What effect will thiazide have on the resulting filtrate? A) The filtrate will be more dilute. B) The filtrate will be more concentrated. C) The filtrate will not change. D) The filtrate will have more sodium and chloride. Answer: A Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.5, G2, G5 28 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

104) Use of the illegal drug MDMA, commonly known as ecstasy, may cause hyperthermia (increased body temperature), which may cause a person to drink a lot of water. In addition, MDMA increases the production of vasopressin. What is the most likely outcome if a person takes MDMA and experiences hyperthermia, increased water intake, and increased vasopressin production? A) an increase in blood pressure and the production of dilute urine B) an increase in blood pressure and the production of concentrated urine C) a decrease in blood pressure and the production of dilute urine D) a decrease in blood pressure and the production of concentrated urine Answer: B Topic: 32.5 The mammalian kidney's ability to conserve water is a key terrestrial adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.5, G2, G5 105) Suppose homeostasis in a mammal was suddenly affected such that the osmolarity of the medulla of the kidney was equal along the entire length of the loop of Henle. How would this affect the filtrate at the junction of the descending and ascending loops of Henle? A) The filtrate would be more concentrated than normal. B) The filtrate would be less concentrated than normal. C) The filtrate concentration would not be affected. Answer: B Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.5, G2

32.2 Art Questions

1) The thin horizontal arrows in the figure show that A) the warmer arterial blood can bypass the legs as needed when the legs are too cold to function well. B) the warmer venous blood transfers heat to the cooler arterial blood. C) the warmer arterial blood transfers heat to the cooler venous blood. D) the arterial blood is always cooler in the abdomen, compared to the temperature of the venous blood in the feet of the goose. E) the goose's legs get progressively warmer as the blood moves away from the abdomen to the feet. Answer: C Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.3, G3

2) Examine the figure. The countercurrent arrangement of the arterial and venous blood vessels causes A) the temperature difference between the blood of the two sets of vessels to be minimized. B) the venous blood to be as cold near the abdomen as it is near the feet. C) the blood in the feet to be as warm as the blood in the abdomen. D) the temperature at the abdomen to be less than the temperature at the feet. E) the loss of the maximum possible amount of heat to the environment. Answer: A Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 32.3, G3 3) Researchers measure animals' oxygen consumption (VO2) as a way to quantify metabolic rate. A researcher measured the VO2 for two animals, A and B, as function of ambient temperature and collected the data shown in the figure. One of the animals was an ectotherm, and one was an endotherm. Based on these data, which animal was the endotherm, and why?

A) Animal A is the endotherm because at colder temperatures endotherms need to warm themselves through their own metabolic activity. B) Animal A is the endotherm because endotherms do not need to regulate their own body temperature by changing metabolic activity. C) Animal B is the endotherm because at colder temperatures endotherms need to warm themselves through their own metabolic activity. D) Animal B is the endotherm because endotherms do not need to regulate their own body temperature by changing metabolic activity. Answer: A Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 32.3, G1, G2, G3

4) The graph shows the body temperatures of two animals as a function of the environmental temperature. What might Animal 2 be?

A) human B) lobster C) seagull D) dog Answer: B Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.3, G2, G3

5) These turtles are sitting on a log being warmed by the sun and a warm breeze. What mode(s) of heat exchange are being used to warm their bodies?

A) radiation only B) conduction only C) radiation and convection only D) convection and conduction only Answer: C Topic: 32.3 Feedback control maintains the internal environment in many animals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 32.3, G2, G3 32.3 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) The body tissue that consists largely of material located outside of cells is A) epithelial tissue. B) connective tissue. C) muscle. D) nervous tissue. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) Which of the following would increase the rate of heat exchange between an animal and its environment? A) feathers or fur B) vasoconstriction C) wind blowing across the body surface D) countercurrent heat exchanger Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which process in the nephron is least selective? A) filtration B) reabsorption C) active transport D) secretion Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Homeostasis typically relies on negative feedback because positive feedback A) requires a response but not a stimulus. B) drives processes to completion rather than to a balance point. C) acts within, but not beyond, a normal range. D) can decrease but not increase a variable. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Which of the following is an accurate statement about thermoregulation? A) Endotherms are regulators, and ectotherms are conformers. B) Endotherms maintain a constant body temperature, and ectotherms do not. C) Endotherms and ectotherms differ in their primary source of heat for thermoregulation. D) Endothermy has a lower energy cost than ectothermy. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) In which of the following species should natural selection favor the highest proportion of nephrons with loops of Henle that extend deep into the renal medulla? A) a river otter B) a mouse species living in a temperate broadleaf forest C) a mouse species living in a desert D) a beaver Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 34 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) African lungfish, which are often found in small, stagnant pools of fresh water, produce urea as a nitrogenous waste. What is the advantage of this adaptation? A) Urea takes less energy to synthesize than ammonia. B) Small, stagnant pools do not provide enough water to dilute the toxic ammonia. C) Urea forms an insoluble precipitate. D) Urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 33 Animal Nutrition 33.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The richest source of stored chemical energy in the body is A) fat in adipose tissue. B) glucose in the blood. C) protein in muscle cells. D) glycogen in muscle cells. E) calcium phosphate in bone. Answer: A Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.5, V&C 4 2) Animals that migrate great distances would obtain the greatest energetic benefit from storing chemical energy as A) proteins. B) nucleic acids. C) carbohydrates. D) fats. Answer: D Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.3, G2, V&C 4 3) Certain nutrients are considered "essential" in the diets of some animals because A) only those animals use those nutrients. B) the nutrients are subunits of important polymers. C) they are required for animal diets, but these animals are not able to synthesize the nutrients. D) the nutrients are necessary coenzymes. E) only certain foods contain them. Answer: C Topic: 33.1 An animal's diet must supply chemical energy, organic building blocks, and essential nutrients Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.1

4) To maintain adequate nutrition, animals require dietary access to certain amino acids. An amino acid that is referred to as "nonessential" would be best described as one that A) can be synthesized by the animal's body from other substances. B) is not used by the animal in biosynthesis. C) must be ingested in the diet. D) is not readily absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract. Answer: A Topic: 33.1 An animal's diet must supply chemical energy, organic building blocks, and essential nutrients Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.1 5) Which vitamin plays a key role in blood clotting? A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) vitamin D D) vitamin E E) vitamin K Answer: E Topic: 33.1 An animal's diet must supply chemical energy, organic building blocks, and essential nutrients Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.1 6) Vitamins A, D, E, and K can be grouped together because they share a common property. What is this property? A) They all mix easily in water. B) They are all fat soluble. C) They are all nonessential. D) They all are important for proper eye health. Answer: B Topic: 33.1 An animal's diet must supply chemical energy, organic building blocks, and essential nutrients Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.1

7) A general rule relating the capacity of a specific animal's digestive system to provide adequate access to substrates for biosynthesis of cellular components as well as energy molecules needed for ATP production is that the animal should have access to A) a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. B) a diet low in lipids and high in protein. C) a low-calorie diet with a large intake of fluids, especially water. D) a diet that matches needed chemical energy, essential nutrient, and organic molecule building blocks. E) a diet that maximizes vitamins and minerals. Answer: D Topic: 33.1 An animal's diet must supply chemical energy, organic building blocks, and essential nutrients Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.1, V&C 4 8) Carbohydrate digestion yields monosaccharides, whereas protein digestion yields amino acids. Both digestive processes A) are catalyzed by the same enzyme. B) are types of hydrolysis reactions. C) require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower the pH. D) require ATP as an energy source. Answer: B Topic: 33.2 Food processing involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.2 9) Ingested dietary substances must cross cell membranes to be used by the body, a process known as A) ingestion. B) digestion. C) absorption. D) elimination. Answer: C Topic: 33.2 Food processing involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.2 10) The small intestine has a very large surface area that directly facilitates high rates of A) digestion. B) absorption. C) elimination. D) filtration. Answer: B Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3, V&C 2 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) An advantage of a complete digestive system over a gastrovascular cavity is that the complete system A) excludes the need for extracellular digestion. B) allows for specialized regions with specialized functions. C) allows digestive enzymes to be more specific. D) allows for extensive branching. E) facilitates intracellular digestion. Answer: B Topic: 33.2 Food processing involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.2, V&C 2 12) Earthworms, grasshoppers, and birds all have a A) gastric cecae. B) gizzard. C) crop. D) gastrovascular cavity. Answer: C Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.4 13) Because the foods eaten by animals are often composed largely of macromolecules, they must be able to break down ingested substances into smaller molecules. What process achieves this goal? A) excretion B) dehydration reactions C) hydrolysis D) absorption Answer: C Topic: 33.2 Food processing involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.2 14) What happens during peristalsis in the digestive system? A) Fat is emulsified in the small intestine. B) Rectal sphincters are voluntarily controlled to regulate defecation. C) Nutrients are transported to the liver through the hepatic portal vein. D) Smooth muscle contracts to move food along the alimentary canal. Answer: D Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3, V&C 2

15) Once humans ingest food, the first category of macromolecules to be chemically digested by enzymes in the mouth is A) proteins. B) carbohydrates. C) lipids. D) nucleic acids. Answer: B Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3, G5 16) Salivary amylase digests A) protein. B) starches. C) monosaccharides. D) glucose. Answer: B Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3 17) Digestive secretions with a pH of 2 are characteristic of the A) small intestine. B) stomach. C) pancreas. D) liver. E) mouth. Answer: B Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3 18) Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that A) is manufactured by the pancreas. B) helps stabilize fat-water emulsions. C) splits maltose into monosaccharides. D) begins the hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach. E) is denatured and rendered inactive in solutions with low pH. Answer: D Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) Upon activation by stomach acidity, the secretions of the parietal cells A) initiate the digestion of protein in the stomach. B) initiate the mechanical digestion of lipids in the stomach. C) initiate the chemical digestion of lipids in the stomach. D) delay digestion until the food arrives in the small intestine. Answer: A Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.3 20) Bile salts A) are enzymes. B) are manufactured by the pancreas. C) emulsify fats in the duodenum. D) increase the efficiency of pepsin action. E) are normally an ingredient of gastric juice. Answer: C Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3 21) Complex nutrients are digested and then absorbed into the bloodstream as A) disaccharides. B) polymers. C) monomers. D) enzymes. E) peptides. Answer: C Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3, V&C 4 22) Which enzyme has high activity in acidic environments? A) amylase B) pepsin C) gastrin D) trypsin E) sucrose Answer: B Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that the A) processing of fats does not require any digestive enzymes, whereas the processing of carbohydrates does. B) fat absorption occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the small intestine. C) carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not. D) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the blood. Answer: D Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3 24) Constipation can result from the consumption of a substance that A) contains high quantities of fiber. B) promotes water reabsorption in the large intestine. C) speeds up movement of material in the large intestine. D) decreases water reabsorption in the small intestine. E) stimulates peristalsis. Answer: B Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3, G2 25) What has been shown to cause gastric ulcers? A) stress B) diet C) Helicobacter pylori D) alcohol Answer: C Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3, G5

26) A hiatal hernia that disrupts the functional relationship between the smooth muscle in the esophagus and that in the stomach would be most likely to increase the frequency of A) gastric reflux. B) premature entry of food into the duodenum. C) excess secretion of pepsinogen. D) increased stomach pH. E) retention of food in the stomach. Answer: A Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.3, G2, G5 27) What cells secrete the acidic components of stomach juices? A) chief cells B) parietal cells C) mucous cells D) cells of the pancreas Answer: B Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3 28) Stomach cells are moderately well adapted to the acidity and protein-digesting activities in the stomach by having A) a thriving colony of H. pylori. B) a thick, mucous secretion and active mitosis of epithelial cells. C) a high level of secretion by chief cells. D) a high level of secretion from parietal cells. E) secretions that enter the stomach from the pancreas. Answer: B Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.3 29) The molar teeth of herbivorous mammals are especially effective at A) cutting. B) ripping. C) grinding. D) crushing. Answer: C Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.4, V&C 2 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) What group of animals has relatively long cecums? A) carnivores B) herbivores C) omnivores D) autotrophs Answer: B Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.4 31) Cattle are able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant material because A) they are autotrophic. B) cattle, like rabbits, re-ingest their feces. C) they manufacture all 15 amino acids out of sugars in the liver. D) cattle saliva has enzymes capable of digesting cellulose. E) they have cellulose-digesting, mutualistic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs. Answer: E Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.4, V&C 4 32) Analysis of jawbones from the skeletal remains of a vertebrate animal reveal its dietary patterns owing to A) the position of muscle attachment sites. B) the prevalence of specific kinds of teeth. C) the size of the mouth opening. D) the evidence of food molecules still present. E) whether the mouth is the most anterior structure. Answer: B Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.4 33) An enlarged cecum is typical of A) rabbits, horses, and herbivorous bears. B) carnivorous animals. C) humans and other primates. D) tapeworms and other intestinal parasites. Answer: A Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.4

34) Coprophagy, the nutrition-boosting ingestion of fecal material, is important for the nutritional balance of A) ruminants such as cows. B) insects and arthropods. C) rabbits and rodents. D) squirrels and some rodents. E) very large animals, such as elephants. Answer: C Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.4, V&C 4 35) When the digestion and absorption of organic carbohydrates result in more energy-rich molecules than are immediately required by an animal, the excess is A) eliminated in the feces. B) stored as starch in the liver. C) stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles. D) oxidized and converted to ATP. E) hydrolyzed and converted to ADP. Answer: C Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.5, V&C 4 36) Hypoglycemia occurs when there are low levels of glucose in the blood of a healthy human. Which is likely the most effective way to treat hypoglycemia? A) Increase the secretion of insulin. B) Increase the secretion of glucagon. C) Increase the secretion of both insulin and glucagon. D) Decrease the secretion of both insulin and glucagon. E) Decrease the secretion of thyroid hormones. Answer: B Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 33.5, G2, G5 37) A fasting animal whose energy needs exceed those provided in its diet draws on its stored resources in which order? A) fat, then glycogen, then protein B) glycogen, then protein, then fat C) liver glycogen, then muscle glycogen, then fat D) muscle glycogen, then fat, then liver glycogen E) fat, then protein, then glycogen Answer: C Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.5, V&C 4 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

38) Obesity in humans is most clearly a contributing risk factor to the development of A) type 1 diabetes and prostate cancer. B) type 1 diabetes and breast cancer. C) type 2 diabetes and muscle hypertrophy. D) type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. E) type 2 diabetes and decreased appetite. Answer: D Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.5, G5 39) Standard metabolic rate (SMR) and basal metabolic rate (BMR) are A) used differently: SMR is measured during exercise, whereas BMR is measured at rest. B) used to compare metabolic rate between hibernating and non-hibernating states. C) both measured across a wide range of temperatures for a given species. D) both standard measurements of fat metabolism in mammals. E) both measured in animals experiencing a resting and fasting state. Answer: E Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.5 40) Independent of whether an organism is an endotherm or ectoderm, the least reliable indicator of an animal's metabolic rate is the amount of A) food eaten in one day. B) heat generated in one day. C) oxygen used in mitochondria in one day. D) carbon dioxide produced in one day. E) water consumed in one day. Answer: E Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 33.5, G2 41) After eating a carbohydrate-rich meal, the mammalian pancreas increases its secretion of A) glucagon. B) mucus. C) bile salts. D) insulin. Answer: D Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.5

42) Identical twins have identical genes. If one twin has type 1 diabetes, the other twin will also have type 1 diabetes approximately 50% of the time. What can you conclude from this information? A) Genes are not the sole reason that individuals acquire type 1 diabetes. B) The hereditary factor in type 1 diabetes has not been well studied. C) Twins with type 2 diabetes have lower insulin levels than 50% of twins with type 1 diabetes. D) Twins with type 2 diabetes have a 50% lower probability of showing sugar in their urine than those with type 1 diabetes. Answer: A Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 33.5, G2, G5 43) Most individuals diagnosed with type 1 diabetes have an increased probability of having inherited the disease from both parents. Additionally, Caucasians have the highest diagnosed rate of type 1 diabetes. What can you conclude from this information? A) Type 1 diabetes risk factors likely influence the risk factors for type 2 diabetes in Caucasians. B) Type 1 diabetes is treated most easily in Caucasians. C) Type 1 diabetes is easily cured in Caucasians. D) Type 1 diabetes risk factors are likely more prevalent in Caucasians than in other races. Answer: D Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 33.5, G2, G5 44) If someone is feeling stressed or anxious, hormones present in blood communicate with cells to begin breaking down stored energy if the body needs it. In this situation, how does stress affect metabolic rate? A) Stress does not affect metabolic rate. B) Stress causes metabolic rate to decrease. C) Stress causes metabolic rate to increase. Answer: C Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.5, G2

45) Omega-3 and omega-6 essential fatty acids are readily available in leafy green plants. What is one way to ensure that animals raised for commercial purposes have enough of these fatty acids in their diets such that fatty acid supplementation is not needed? A) Regularly check the health of the livestock's teeth to ensure that they can efficiently grind plants. B) Allow the livestock adequate environment for natural grazing. C) Regularly test for the presence of symbiotic bacteria in the gut of the livestock. D) Reduce the amount of calcium that the livestock intake daily. E) Increase the amount of phosphorus that the livestock intake daily. Answer: B Topic: 33.1 An animal's diet must supply chemical energy, organic building blocks, and essential nutrients Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.1, G2, G5 46) The hydra is an example of an organism with a simple body plan that uses the same site for both digestion and nutrient distribution. What is the name of that site? A) gastrovascular cavity B) mouth C) crop D) midgut E) anus Answer: A Topic: 33.2 Food processing involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.2 47) A main difference between organisms with simple body plans and those with complex body plans is that A) animals with simple body plans have digestive tubes with two openings, whereas organisms with complex body plans have a digestive compartment with one opening. B) animals with simple body plans have a digestive compartment with one opening, whereas organisms with complex body plans have digestive tubes with two openings. C) animals with simple body plans have digestive tubes with specialized compartments, whereas animals with complex body plans do not. D) animals with simple body plans can ingest food while earlier meals are still being digested, whereas animals with complex body plans cannot. E) animals with simple body plans eliminate undigested food via an anus, whereas animals with complex body plans eliminate undigested food via a mouth. Answer: B Topic: 33.2 Food processing involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.2

48) In the process of intracellular digestion, what do you predict will happen if food vacuoles are unable to fuse with lysosomes? A) Cells will not be able to engulf solid food by pinocytosis. B) Cells will not be able to engulf liquid food by phagocytosis. C) The cells will not be able to utilize their hydrolytic enzymes. D) The food to be digested will not be able to come in contact with hydrolytic enzymes. Answer: C Topic: 33.2 Food processing involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.2, G2 49) A person diagnosed with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI) does not have the digestive enzymes that are needed to adequately digest fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. What would be a likely consequence of this medical condition? A) weight gain B) weight loss C) dilated hepatic portal vein D) increased rate of peristalsis E) increased bile production Answer: B Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 33.3, G2, G5 50) People who live in agrarian societies eat more starch and have extra copies of the amylase gene compared with people who live in societies that depend on hunting or fishing. This is an example of A) a dietary deficiency. B) acquisition of essential amino acids. C) feedback circuits that regulate appetite and digestion. D) evolutionary adaptations to differences in diet. E) absorption in the small intestine. Answer: D Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.4, G2, G5

51) In 2011 it was reported that scientists used GPS to create a "map" of bats' molar teeth (similar to how GPS can produce a topographic map of a mountain). Why would scientists want to pursue this project? A) Differences in the features of the molars might provide information about intracellular digestion processes in bats. B) Differences in the features of the molars might provide information about how the relative size of the bats affected their abilities to acquire food. C) Differences in the features of the molars might suggest evolutionary adaptations to diet. D) Differences in the features of the molars might provide information about climate change in the bats' area of origin. E) Differences in the features of the molars might provide information about mating behaviors. Answer: C Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 33.4, G2, G5 52) Mouse mutations can affect an animal's appetite and eating habits. The ob gene codes for a satiety factor (being fed to capacity), the hormone leptin. The db gene product, the leptin receptor, is required to respond to the satiety factor. Leptin is a product of adipose cells. Therefore, a mouse that became very obese by eating in excess would be expected to have A) increased gene expression of ob and decreased expression of db. B) increased gene expression of db and decreased expression of ob. C) decreased transcription of both ob and db. D) mutation of ob or db. Answer: D Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 33.5, G2 53) Imagine you are a biologist who is attempting to get an accurate measure of an animal's basal metabolic rate. The best time to measure the metabolic rate is when the animal A) is resting and has not eaten its first meal of the day. B) is resting and has just completed its first meal of the day. C) has recently eaten a sugar-free meal. D) has not consumed any water for at least 48 hours. E) has just completed 30 minutes of vigorous exercise. Answer: A Topic: 33.5 Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.5, G2

54) Abetalipoproteinemia is a very rare genetic disorder that results in normal absorption of fats and vitamins from food, thus causing vitamin deficiencies. One of the symptoms of abetalipoproteinemia is poor transmission of nerve impulses due to issues with neuron cell membranes. A deficiency in what vitamin could result in this symptom? A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) vitamin D D) vitamin E E) vitamin K Answer: D Topic: 33.1 An animal's diet must supply chemical energy, organic building blocks, and essential nutrients Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.1, G2, G5 55) Scurvy is a disease that results from a vitamin deficiency. Symptoms of scurvy include poor wound healing, bleeding from the gums and skin, loose teeth, and bones that break more easily, all of which are due to abnormal collagen production. A deficiency in what vitamin could result in scurvy? A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) vitamin D D) vitamin E E) vitamin K Answer: B Topic: 33.1 An animal's diet must supply chemical energy, organic building blocks, and essential nutrients Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.1, G2, G5 56) What is the correct order of structures that a piece of food would encounter as it travels through the alimentary canal of a bald eagle? A) mouth, esophagus, crop, stomach, gizzard, intestine, anus B) mouth, esophagus, crop, stomach, intestine, gizzard, anus C) mouth, esophagus, stomach, crop, gizzard, intestine, anus D) mouth, esophagus, crop, gizzard, stomach, intestine, anus Answer: A Topic: 33.2 Food processing involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.2

57) Trypsin is a digestive enzyme that hydrolyzes proteins at the carboxyl terminus of lysine or arginine amino acids. Suppose you added trypsin to a test tube with a protein that contained lysine and arginine amino acids and that the conditions allowed trypsin to be active. What would you expect to observe as the reaction occurred? A) an increase in the protein concentration B) a decrease in the water concentration C) an increase in the trypsin concentration D) a decrease in the lysine concentration Answer: B Topic: 33.2 Food processing involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.2, G2 58) What does the human microbiome refer to? A) the collection of microorganisms living on and in a human B) the types of microorganisms found in a human's diet C) the amount of microorganisms living in the soil near a human's home D) the variety of microorganisms found in in the home of a human Answer: A Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 33.4, G5 59) Suppose a herd of dairy cows is given an excess of antibiotics, which enter their stomachs. What biological process will the cows now have difficulty performing? A) hydrolyzing proteins B) producing urine C) chewing "cud" D) digesting cellulose Answer: D Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.4, G2 60) John is a 37-year-old male who is suffering from an unknown bacterial infection that is causing him to feel quite ill. John was prescribed broad-spectrum antibiotics that kill a wide variety of bacteria. What effects would these antibiotics have on John's microbiome? A) The antibiotics would likely change the diversity of his microbiome. B) The antibiotics would likely only kill the harmful bacteria in his body. C) The antibiotics would likely cause his microbiome to resemble the microbiome of a child. Answer: A Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.4, G2, G5

61) The box jellyfish is a carnivore that feeds on fish, crustaceans, and plankton and contains a gastrovascular cavity. Suppose a box jellyfish had a mutation in its genome such that it could not secrete any molecules from its gland cells. What biological process would this box jellyfish have difficulty performing? A) ingesting prey into its mouth B) eliminating undigested food out of its mouth C) engulfment of food particles by vacuoles D) digestion of food into smaller particles Answer: D Topic: 33.2 Food processing involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.2, G2, G7

33.2 Art Questions Use the following table showing the contents of a multivitamin supplement and its percentage of recommended daily values (% DV) to answer the following question.

Figure 33.1 1) The most likely reason that some of the vitamins and minerals in this supplement are found at less than 100% is that A) it would be chemically impossible to add more. B) these vitamins and minerals are too large in size to reach 100%. C) it is dangerous to overdose on fat-soluble vitamins such as A and K, and some minerals are already present in high enough quantities from ingested food. D) these supplements are meant for individuals who have been deprived of healthy foods. Answer: C Topic: 33.1 An animal's diet must supply chemical energy, organic building blocks, and essential nutrients Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.1, G2, G3

2) Examine the digestive system structures in the figure. The agent(s) that help emulsify fats are produced in location A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 8. E) 9. Answer: E Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.3, G2, G3

3) Examine the digestive system structures in the figure. Enzymatic hydrolysis of macromolecules occurs to the highest extent at location(s) A) 3 only. B) 4 only. C) 1 and 4 only. D) 3 and 4 only. E) 1, 3, and 4 only. Answer: B Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.3, G2, G3 4) Examine the digestive system structures in the figure. Most of the digestion of fats occurs in location(s) A) 3 only. B) only. C) 1 and 4 only. D) 3 and only. E) 1, 3, and 4 only. Answer: B Topic: 33.3 Organs specialized for sequential stages of food processing form the mammalian digestive system Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.3, G2, G3

5) Examine the figure above, which shows the proportional diversity of bacteria in the human microbiome. What can you conclude? A) There are more Firmicutes bacterial cells in an adult human than a toddler. B) There is a higher proportion of Proteobacteria in an obese adult than a healthy adult. C) The diet of an infant does not affect the microbiome of an infant. D) A high proportion of Actinobacteria cause people to live past 100 years old. Answer: B Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.4, G2, G4, G5

6) Examine the teeth of this organism. What type of organism is it?

A) carnivore B) herbivore C) omnivore Answer: A Topic: 33.4 Evolutionary adaptations of vertebrate digestive systems correlate with diet Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 33.4, G2, G4

33.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Once a person turns 25 years of age, his or her BMR decreases by approximately 2% to 6% every 10 years. This is due to the fact that as you age, muscle mass decreases and fat levels increase. These changes decrease BMR and therefore the amount of calories the body burns at rest. 1) If a person wants to stay the same weight between 10-year periods without changing his activity level, what action should he take? A) He needs to raise his daily calorie intake by 2% to 6% every 10 years. B) He needs to maintain his daily calorie intake. C) He needs to increase his essential amino acid daily intake and decrease his essential fatty acid daily intake. D) He needs to maintain his essential vitamin daily intake and increase his daily caloric intake. E) He needs to lower his daily calorie intake by the same amount. Answer: E Topic: 33.1, 33.5 An animal's diet must supply chemical energy, organic building blocks, and essential nutrients; Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 33.1, 33.5, G2, G4 2) If a person were to maintain the same level of activity at ages 25 and 35, how would the weight of the person differ between the two ages? A) The person will weigh the same at ages 25 and 35. B) The person will weigh more at age 25 than at age 35. C) The person will weigh more at age 35 than at age 25. Answer: C Topic: 33.1, 33.5 An animal's diet must supply chemical energy, organic building blocks, and essential nutrients; Feedback circuits regulate digestion, energy allocation, and appetite Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 33.1, 33.5, G2, G4 33.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) The mammalian trachea and esophagus both connect to the A) large intestine. B) stomach. C) pharynx. D) rectum. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) Which organ is incorrectly paired with its function? A) stomach—protein digestion B) large intestine—bile production C) small intestine—nutrient absorption D) pancreas—enzyme production Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following is not a major activity of the stomach? A) storage B) HCl production C) nutrient absorption D) enzyme secretion Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Fat digestion yields fatty acids and glycerol. Protein digestion yields amino acids. Both digestive processes A) occur inside cells in most animals. B) add a water molecule to break bonds. C) require a low pH resulting from HCl production. D) consume ATP. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) After surgical removal of the gallbladder, a person might need to limit their dietary intake of A) starch. B) protein. C) sugar. D) fat. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) If you were to jog 1 km a few hours after lunch, which stored fuel would you probably tap? A) muscle proteins B) muscle and liver glycogen C) fat in the liver D) fat in adipose tissue Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 34 Circulation and Gas Exchange 34.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Gas exchange in the aquatic salamander known as the axolotl is correctly described as A) active transport to move oxygen into the salamander from the water. B) facilitated diffusion to move oxygen into the salamander from the water. C) facilitated diffusion of carbon dioxide from the salamander into the water. D) simple diffusion of oxygen into the salamander from the water. E) active transport of carbon dioxide from the salamander into the water. Answer: D Topic: 34.1 Circulatory systems link exchange surfaces with cells throughout the body Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.1, V&C 2, V&C 3 2) Circulatory systems compensate for A) temperature differences between the lungs and the active tissue. B) the slow rate at which diffusion occurs over large distances. C) the problem of communication between the nervous system and respiratory system. D) the need fetal organisms have for maintaining an optimal body temperature. Answer: B Topic: 34.1 Circulatory systems link exchange surfaces with cells throughout the body Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.1, V&C 2 3) Hemolymph is found in the circulatory system of what kind of animal? A) grasshopper B) dog C) eagle D) earthworm Answer: A Topic: 34.1 Circulatory systems link exchange surfaces with cells throughout the body Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.1, V&C 2

4) Edema, or swelling, is a potentially serious medical issue where a significant increase in the amount of interstitial fluid surrounding cells and tissues occurs. If edema were to occur in the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary beds of a human's lungs, what is the most likely outcome? A) an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide moving from the blood to the lungs B) an increase in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood C) a decrease in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood D) an increase of pressure that would cause the capillary beds to burst E) a decrease in the amount of work needed for effective ventilation of the lungs Answer: C Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.5, G2, G5 5) Organisms with a circulating bodily fluid that is distinct from the fluid that directly surrounds the body's cells are likely to have A) an open circulatory system. B) a closed circulatory system. Answer: B Topic: 34.1 Circulatory systems link exchange surfaces with cells throughout the body Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.1, V&C 2 6) In which of the following organisms does blood flow from the pulmocutaneous circulation to the heart before circulating through the rest of the body? A) annelids B) molluscs C) fishes D) frogs E) insects Answer: D Topic: 34.1 Circulatory systems link exchange surfaces with cells throughout the body Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.1, V&C 2 7) The only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart are the A) amphibians. B) birds. C) fishes. D) mammals. E) reptiles. Answer: C Topic: 34.1 Circulatory systems link exchange surfaces with cells throughout the body Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.1 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) To adjust blood pressure independently in the capillaries of the gas-exchange surface and in the capillaries of the general body circulation, an organism would need a(n) A) open circulatory system. B) closed circulatory system. C) lymphatic system. D) two-chambered heart. E) four-chambered heart. Answer: E Topic: 34.1 Circulatory systems link exchange surfaces with cells throughout the body Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.1, G2, V&C 2 9) Why has natural selection favored the evolution of double circulation in birds and mammals? A) because they are larger than reptiles and amphibians B) because they use more energy than equivalent-size reptiles and amphibians C) because they have more viscous blood than reptiles and amphibians D) because they cannot obtain as much oxygen from the air as reptiles and amphibians Answer: B Topic: 34.1 Circulatory systems link exchange surfaces with cells throughout the body Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.1, G7 10) Which of the following develops the greatest pressure on the blood in the mammalian aorta? A) systole of the left atrium B) diastole of the right ventricle C) systole of the left ventricle D) diastole of the right atrium E) systole of the right ventricle Answer: C Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.3, V&C 2 11) A human red blood cell is in an artery of the left arm and is on its way to deliver oxygen to a cell in the left thumb. To travel from the artery in the left arm to the cell in the left thumb, this red blood cell must pass through A) one capillary bed. B) two capillary beds. C) three capillary beds. D) four capillary beds. Answer: A Topic: 34.2 Coordinated cycles of heart contraction drive double circulation in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.2, G2, V&C 2

12) Which of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in reptiles and mammals? A) left ventricle → aorta → lungs → systemic circulation B) right ventricle → pulmonary vein → pulmocutaneous circulation C) pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary circuit D) vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary circuit E) right atrium → pulmonary artery → left atrium → ventricle Answer: D Topic: 34.2 Coordinated cycles of heart contraction drive double circulation in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.2, G2 13) A patient with a blood pressure of 120/75, a pulse rate of 40 beats/minute, a stroke volume of 70 mL/beat, and a respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute will have a cardiac output of A) 500 mL/minute. B) 1,000 mL/minute. C) 1,750 mL/minute. D) 2,800 mL/minute. E) 4,800 mL/minute. Answer: D Topic: 34.2 Coordinated cycles of heart contraction drive double circulation in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.2, V&C C2, G2, G4 14) Damage to the sinoatrial node in humans A) is a major contributor to heart attacks. B) would block conductance between the bundle branches and the Purkinje fibers. C) would cause blood flow rate to increase. D) would disrupt the rate and timing of cardiac muscle contractions. E) would have a direct effect on blood pressure monitors in the aorta. Answer: D Topic: 34.2 Coordinated cycles of heart contraction drive double circulation in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.2, G5, V&C 2 15) Kevin is sitting quietly at home reading his biology textbook. His stroke volume is 70 mL per beat, and his resting heart rate is 60 beats per minute. What is Kevin's cardiac output? A) 4.2 L/minute B) 4.2 mL/minute C) 0.42 L/minute D) 42 L/minute E) 420 L/minute Answer: A Topic: 34.2 Coordinated cycles of heart contraction drive double circulation in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.2, V&C C2, G2, G4

16) The semilunar valves of the mammalian heart A) are the route by which blood flows from the atria to the ventricles. B) are found only on the right side of the heart. C) are the attachment sites where the pulmonary veins empty into the heart. D) are able to prevent backflow of blood in the aorta and pulmonary arteries. Answer: D Topic: 34.2 Coordinated cycles of heart contraction drive double circulation in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.2, V&C 2 17) Heart rate will increase in the presence of increased A) apolipoproteins. B) immunoglobulins. C) erythropoietin. D) epinephrine. E) platelets. Answer: D Topic: 34.2 Coordinated cycles of heart contraction drive double circulation in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.2 18) All of the following are present in arterioles and in capillaries except A) fully oxygenated blood. B) plasma in which carbon dioxide has been added. C) a lining of endothelial cells. D) circular smooth muscle cells. E) white blood cells and platelets. Answer: D Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.3 19) The set of blood vessels with the slowest velocity of blood flow is A) the arteries. B) the arterioles. C) the venules. D) the capillaries. E) the veins. Answer: D Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.3, V&C 2

20) The set of blood vessels with the lowest blood pressure driving flow is A) the arteries. B) the arterioles. C) the venules. D) the capillaries. E) the veins. Answer: E Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.3, V&C 2 21) An increased concentration of nitric oxide within a vascular bed is associated with A) vasoconstriction. B) vasodilation. C) a reduction in blood flow in that region. D) a decreased amount of blood in the capillaries of that vascular bed. Answer: B Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.3 22) Which organism likely has the highest systolic pressure? A) rat B) snake C) human D) rhinoceros E) giraffe Answer: E Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.3, G2 23) Small swollen areas in the neck, groin, and axillary region are associated with A) increased activity of the immune system. B) blood sugar that is abnormally high. C) dehydration. D) sodium depletion. Answer: A Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.3, G5

24) The velocity of blood flow is the lowest in capillaries because A) the capillary walls are not thin enough to allow oxygen to exchange with the cells. B) the capillaries are far from the heart, and blood flow slows as distance from the heart increases. C) the diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate. D) the systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output than the right ventricle. E) the total cross-sectional area of the capillaries is greater than the total cross-sectional area of the arteries or any other part of the circulatory system. Answer: E Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.3, V&C 2 25) If, during protein starvation, the osmotic pressure on the venous side of capillary beds drops below the hydrostatic pressure, then A) hemoglobin will not release oxygen. B) fluids will tend to accumulate in tissues. C) the pH of the interstitial fluids will increase. D) most carbon dioxide will be bound to hemoglobin and carried away from tissues. E) plasma proteins will escape through the endothelium of the capillaries. Answer: B Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.3, G2 26) Lymphedema is a disorder in which the lymphatic vessels associated with capillary beds are blocked. What will be the long-term effect of lymphedema? A) more fluid entering the venous capillaries B) an increase in the blood pressure in the capillary bed C) the accumulation of more fluid in the interstitial areas D) fewer proteins leaking out of the blood to enter the interstitial fluid E) the area of the blockage becoming abnormally small Answer: C Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.3, G2, G5, V&C 2

27) A species that has a normal resting systolic blood pressure of >260 mm Hg is likely to be A) an animal that is small and compact. B) a species that has very wide-diameter veins. C) an animal that has a very long distance between its heart and its brain. D) an animal that makes frequent, quick motions. Answer: C Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.3, G2, V&C 2 28) Large proteins such as albumin remain in capillaries rather than diffusing out, resulting in the A) loss of osmotic pressure in the capillaries. B) development of an osmotic pressure difference across capillary walls. C) loss of fluid from capillaries. D) increased diffusion of CO2. E) increased diffusion of Hb. Answer: B Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.3 29) The diagnosis of hypertension in adults is based on the A) measurement of fatty deposits on the endothelium of arteries. B) measurement of the LDL/HDL ratio in peripheral blood. C) percent of blood volume made up of platelets. D) blood pressure being greater than 140 mm Hg systolic and/or >90 diastolic. E) number of leukocytes per mm3 of blood. Answer: D Topic: 34.4 Blood components function in exchange, transport, and defense Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.4, G5

30) Dialysis is a medical process used to treat patients whose kidney function is below normal. During dialysis, blood is removed from the body and filtered by an artificial membrane, and plasma and its proteins are separated from the cells. Dialysis patients, who will have blood withdrawn, dialyzed, and then replaced, are always weighed when they enter the facility and then weighed carefully again before they leave, because A) even small changes in body weight may signify changes in blood volume and therefore blood pressure. B) many people who have dialysis are diabetic and must control their weight carefully. C) dialysis removes blood proteins, and these weigh more than other blood components. D) dialysis is likely to cause edema, and such swelling must be controlled. Answer: A Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 34.3, G2, G5 31) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels delivering blood to the gut is a likely response when an individual is A) lying down after standing up. B) eating a meal. C) stressed and secreting stress hormones. D) responding to increased blood pressure. E) having an allergy attack with lots of histamine secretion. Answer: C Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.3, G2 32) In a healthy human, the typical life span of a red blood cell is A) 24 hours. B) 1 week. C) 1 month. D) 4 months. Answer: D Topic: 34.4 Blood components function in exchange, transport, and defense Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.4

33) The hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells and the organ where this hormone is synthesized are A) insulin and pancreas, respectively. B) erythropoietin and kidney, respectively. C) epinephrine and adrenal gland, respectively. D) prothrombin and platelets, respectively. Answer: B Topic: 34.4 Blood components function in exchange, transport, and defense Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.4 34) Dissolved proteins in human plasma include which of the following? A) fibrinogen only B) hemoglobin only C) fibrinogen and immunoglobulin only D) hemoglobin and immunoglobulin only E) fibrinogen, hemoglobin, and immunoglobulin Answer: C Topic: 34.4 Blood components function in exchange, transport, and defense Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.4 35) The plasma proteins in humans A) maintain the blood's osmotic pressure. B) transport water-soluble lipids. C) carry out gas exchange. D) undergo aerobic metabolism. E) transport oxygen. Answer: A Topic: 34.4 Blood components function in exchange, transport, and defense Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.4 36) The production of red blood cells is stimulated by A) low-density lipoproteins. B) immunoglobulins. C) erythropoietin. D) epinephrine. E) platelets. Answer: C Topic: 34.4 Blood components function in exchange, transport, and defense Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.4

37) The meshwork that forms the fabric of a blood clot is A) epinephrine. B) fibrin. C) thrombin. D) prothrombin. E) collagen. Answer: B Topic: 34.4 Blood components function in exchange, transport, and defense Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.4 38) Which of the following can cause the LDL/HDL ratio to increase and thus increase the likelihood of a myocardial infarction? A) stopping smoking B) eating more trans fats C) exercising more D) taking statin drugs Answer: B Topic: 34.4 Blood components function in exchange, transport, and defense Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.4, G5 39) Air in a testing chamber is specially mixed so that its oxygen content is 20% and its overall air pressure is 500 mm Hg. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in this chamber? A) 1000 mm Hg B) 100 mm Hg C) 10 mm Hg D) 1 mm Hg Answer: B Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.5, V&C C2, G2, G4 40) The sun shining on a tidal pool during a hot day heats the water. As some water evaporates, the pool becomes saltier, causing A) a decrease in its carbon dioxide content. B) a decrease in its oxygen content. C) an increase in its ability to sustain aerobic organisms. D) a decrease in the water's density. E) a decrease in the movement of the water molecules. Answer: B Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.5, G2

41) Sponges, cnidarians, and flatworms lack a specialized gas-exchange surface because A) they are too large for a circulatory system to operate well. B) they live without the need for oxygen. C) they do not produce carbon dioxide. D) countercurrent exchange mechanisms cannot function well in their living conditions. E) nearly all of their cells are in direct contact with the external environment. Answer: E Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.5, V&C 2 42) What happens to pH and breathing rate during exercise? A) pH decreases, which causes breathing rate to increase. B) pH decreases, which causes breathing rate to decrease. C) pH increases, which causes breathing rate to increase. D) pH increases, which causes breathing rate to decrease. Answer: A Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.5 43) The amount of air inhaled and exhaled in a normal breath is called A) residual volume. B) vital capacity. C) tidal volume. D) stroke volume. Answer: C Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.5 44) In mammals, most gas exchange between the atmosphere and the pulmonary blood occurs in the A) trachea. B) larynx. C) bronchi. D) bronchioles. E) alveoli. Answer: E Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.5, V&C 2

45) Gas exchange is more difficult for aquatic animals with gills than for terrestrial animals with lungs because A) water is less dense than air. B) water contains much less O2 than air per unit volume. C) gills have less surface area than lungs. D) gills allow only unidirectional transport. E) gills collapse in air. Answer: B Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.5, V&C 2 46) Countercurrent exchange is evident in A) the flow of water across the gills of a fish and that of blood within those gills. B) the flow of blood in the dorsal vessel of an insect and that of air within its tracheae. C) the flow of air within the primary bronchi of a human and that of blood within the pulmonary veins. D) the flow of water across the skin of a frog and that of blood within the ventricle of its heart. E) the flow of fluid out of the arterial end of a capillary and that of fluid back into the venous end of the same capillary. Answer: A Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.5, V&C 2 47) Countercurrent exchange in the fish gill helps to maximize A) endocytosis. B) blood pressure. C) diffusion. D) active transport. E) osmosis. Answer: C Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.5, V&C 2 48) Air-breathing insects carry out gas exchange A) in their specialized external gills. B) in their specialized internal gills. C) in the alveoli of their lungs. D) across the finest branches of the trachea and cell membranes. E) across all parts of their thin exoskeleton. Answer: D Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.5, V&C 2 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) An oil-water mixture works as an insecticidal spray against mosquitoes and other insects because it A) coats their lungs. B) blocks the openings into the tracheal system. C) interferes with gas exchange across the capillaries. D) clogs their bronchi. Answer: B Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.5, G2 50) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to a column of 760 mm Hg. Oxygen makes up 21% of the atmosphere by volume. The partial pressure of oxygen in such conditions is A) 160 mm Hg. B) 16 mm Hg. C) 1.6 mm Hg. D) 760 mm Hg. Answer: A Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.5, V&C C2, G4 51) Some human infants, especially those born prematurely, suffer serious respiratory failure because of A) the overproduction of surfactants. B) the incomplete development of the lung surface. C) lung collapse due to inadequate production of surfactant. D) mutations in the genes involved in lung formation. Answer: C Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.5, G5, V&C 2 52) At an atmospheric pressure of 870 mm Hg of 21% oxygen, the partial pressure of oxygen is A) 100 mm Hg. B) 127 mm Hg. C) 15 mm Hg. D) 182 mm Hg. E) 219 mm Hg. Answer: D Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.5, V&C C2, G2, G4

53) At sea level, atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg. Nitrogen gas is approximately 78% of the total gases in the atmosphere, so the approximate partial pressure of nitrogen is A) 5.9 mm Hg. B) 59.2 mm Hg. C) 76 mm Hg. D) 160 mm Hg. E) 592.8 mm Hg. Answer: E Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.5, V&C C2, G2, G4 54) At the summit of a high mountain, the atmospheric pressure is 380 mm Hg. If the atmosphere is still composed of 21% oxygen, then the partial pressure of oxygen at this altitude is A) 0 mm Hg. B) 80 mm Hg. C) 160 mm Hg. D) 380 mm Hg. E) 760 mm Hg. Answer: B Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.5, V&C C2, G2, G4 55) Damage to which brain structures will most likely cause impairment of a mammal's breathing cycle? A) the cerebrum and cerebellum B) the medulla oblongata and the pons C) the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex D) the thalamus and the hypothalamus E) the frontal lobe and the temporal lobe Answer: B Topic: 34.6 Breathing ventilates the lungs Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.6, V&C 2 56) Air rushes into the lungs of humans during inhalation because A) the rib muscles and diaphragm contract, increasing the lung volume. B) the volume of the alveoli increases as smooth muscles contract. C) gas flows from a region of lower pressure to a region of higher pressure. D) pulmonary muscles contract and pull on the outer surface of the lungs. E) a positive respiratory pressure is created when the diaphragm relaxes. Answer: A Topic: 34.6 Breathing ventilates the lungs Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.6, V&C 2 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

57) The exhalation of air from human lungs is driven by A) a decrease in the volume of the thoracic cavity. B) a decrease in the residual volume of the lungs. C) the contraction of the diaphragm. D) the closure of the mouth. E) the expansion of the rib cage. Answer: A Topic: 34.6 Breathing ventilates the lungs Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.6, V&C 2 58) During most daily activities, the human respiration rate is most closely linked to the blood levels of A) nitrogen. B) oxygen. C) carbon dioxide. D) sodium. Answer: C Topic: 34.6 Breathing ventilates the lungs Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.6 59) Breathing is usually regulated by A) erythropoietin levels in the blood. B) the concentration of red blood cells. C) hemoglobin levels in the blood. D) CO2 and O2 concentration and pH-level sensors. E) the lungs and the larynx. Answer: D Topic: 34.6 Breathing ventilates the lungs Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.6

60) Blood pH and cerebrospinal fluid pH are affected by carbon dioxide content. This enables the organism to sense a disturbance in gas levels as A) the brain directly measures and monitors carbon dioxide and causes breathing changes accordingly. B) the medulla oblongata, which is in contact with cerebrospinal fluid, monitors pH and uses this measure to control breathing. C) the brain alters the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid to force the animal to retain more or less carbon dioxide. D) the lungs sense changes in oxygen concentration, which causes the medulla oblongata to speed up or slow breathing. E) the medulla oblongata is able to control the concentration of bicarbonate ions in the blood. Answer: B Topic: 34.6 Breathing ventilates the lungs Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.6, V&C 2 61) To become bound to hemoglobin for transport in a mammal, atmospheric molecules of oxygen must cross A) zero membranes–oxygen binds directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood. B) one membrane–that of the lining in the lungs–and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood. C) two membranes–in and out of the cell lining the lung–and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood. D) four membranes–in and out of the cell lining the lung and in and out of the endothelial cell lining an alveolar capillary–and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood. E) five membranes–in and out of the cell lining the lung, in and out of the endothelial cell lining an alveolar capillary, and into the red blood cell–to bind with hemoglobin. Answer: E Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.7 62) An increase in blood plasma pH from 7.3 to 7.4 will cause A) hemoglobin to release all bound oxygen molecules. B) an increase in the affinity of hemoglobin to bind oxygen molecules. C) an increase in the binding of H+ by hemoglobin. D) hemoglobin to more readily give up its oxygen molecules. Answer: B Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.7, G2

63) An "internal reservoir" of oxygen in rested muscle is found in oxygen molecules bound to A) hemoglobin. B) bicarbonate ion. C) carbonic acid. D) myoglobin. Answer: D Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.7, V&C 2 64) Hemoglobin and hemocyanin A) are both found within blood cells. B) are both red in color. C) are both freely dissolved in the plasma. D) both transport oxygen. E) are both found in mammals. Answer: D Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.7 65) The Bohr shift on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is produced by changes in A) the partial pressure of oxygen. B) the partial pressure of carbon dioxide. C) hemoglobin concentration. D) temperature. E) pH. Answer: E Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.7 66) Most of the carbon dioxide produced by humans is A) converted to bicarbonate ions by an enzyme in red blood cells. B) bound to hemoglobin. C) transported in the erythrocytes as carbonic acid. D) simply dissolved in the plasma. Answer: A Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.7

67) Hydrogen ions (protons) produced within human red blood cells are prevented from significantly lowering plasma pH because they bind to A) hemoglobin. B) plasma proteins. C) carbon dioxide. D) carbonic acid. Answer: A Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.7 68) The hemocyanin of arthropods and molluscs differs from the hemoglobin of mammals in that A) the oxygen dissociation curve for hemocyanin is linear. B) hemocyanin carries more carbon dioxide. C) hemocyanin is bound to copper rather than iron. D) the protein of hemocyanin is not bound to metals. E) hemocyanin is bound to potassium ions. Answer: C Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 34.7 69) In an animal species known for endurance running rather than fast sprinting, you would expect to find a A) slower rate of oxygen consumption so that its breathing will not have to be accelerated. B) decrease in myoglobin concentration in the muscles. C) relatively slow heart rate in order to lower oxygen consumption. D) lower pressure of oxygen in the alveoli. E) much higher rate of oxygen consumption for its size. Answer: E Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 34.7, G2, V&C 2 70) In which of the following animals would you expect to find high concentrations of myoglobin? A) lizard B) frog C) lion D) seal Answer: D Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.7, G2

71) A biologist discovers the carcass of an animal that was recently partially eaten by a predator in the jungle. The animal's heart was large, well-formed, and had four chambers, with no connection between the right and left sides. A reasonable conclusion supported by these observations is that the A) animal had evolved from birds. B) animal was endothermic and had a high metabolic rate. C) animal was most closely related to alligators and crocodiles. D) animal was likely an invertebrate animal. E) species had little to no need to regulate blood pressure. Answer: B Topic: 34.1 Circulatory systems link exchange surfaces with cells throughout the body Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 34.1, G2 72) A group of students were investigating the effects of smoking on grass frogs for a research paper. They hypothesized that keeping the frogs in a smoke-filled environment for defined periods of time would result in the animals developing lung cancer. However, when they searched for previously published information to support their hypothesis, they discovered they were wrong in their original assessment. What potential harmful effects could carcinogens from tobacco smoke likely have on the frogs, if not lung cancer? A) the amphibian equivalent of hypertension B) skin cancer C) gill abnormalities in the next generation of tadpoles D) tracheal tube abnormalities Answer: B Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 34.5, G2 73) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal 760 mm Hg. Denver, Colorado, is at an elevation of 5,280 feet above sea level, and so the atmospheric pressure in Denver is ~623 mmHg. Oxygen is found in the same percentage at both sea level and in Denver. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in Denver compared to at sea level? A) The partial pressure of oxygen is higher in Denver than at sea level. B) The partial pressure of oxygen is lower in Denver than at sea level. C) The partial pressure of oxygen is the same in Denver as at sea level. Answer: B Topic: 34.5 Gas exchange occurs across specialized respiratory surfaces Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.5, V&C C2, G2, G4

74) Lisa is a healthy 21-year-old female with normal cardiovascular and respiratory function. Assuming she has a normal tidal volume and vital capacity, how much air is left in her lungs after a normal exhalation? A) 0.5 L B) 1.2 L C) 2.9 L D) 3.4 L Answer: C Topic: 34.6 Breathing ventilates the lungs Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.6, G2, G4, G5 75) George is a 67-year-old male who was recently diagnosed with emphysema, a condition that causes shortness of breath due to damaged alveoli. George's physician measured his breathing ability and found that he was able to exhale less air than a healthy male should be able to. What is George's residual volume compared to a healthy male? A) George's residual volume will be lower compared to a healthy male. B) George's residual volume will be higher compared to a healthy male. C) George's residual volume will be the same as compared to a healthy male. Answer: B Topic: 34.6 Breathing ventilates the lungs Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 34.6, G2, G5, V&C 2 76) Valerie is a 55-year-old female who received an electrocardiogram (ECG) as part of a routine medical examination. She had the ECG performed both at rest and after running on a treadmill for 5 minutes. How would the ECG graphs differ between these two measurements? A) The peaks on the resting ECG graph would be closer together than the peaks on the exercise ECG graph because her heart rate is higher at rest. B) The peaks on the exercise ECG graph would be closer together than the peaks on the resting ECG graph because her heart rate is higher during exercise. C) The peaks on the resting ECG graph would be closer together than the peaks on the exercise ECG graph because her stroke volume is higher at rest. D) The peaks on the resting ECG graph would be closer together than the peaks on the exercise ECG graph because her stroke volume is higher during exercise. Answer: B Topic: 34.2 Coordinated cycles of heart contraction drive double circulation in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.2, G2, G5

77) Mitral valve prolapse is a condition where the mitral valve (the left atrioventricular valve) does not close fully and thus allows blood to flow "backward," which may be minor or severe depending on the extent of the condition. Into what structure would blood flow immediately "backward" in a person with mitral valve prolapse? A) left atrium B) left ventricle C) aorta D) pulmonary artery Answer: A Topic: 34.2 Coordinated cycles of heart contraction drive double circulation in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.2, G2, G5, V&C 2 78) If a vial of blood if spun at high speeds in a centrifuge, it separates into three layers: erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets, and plasma. Which component of blood is the least dense? A) erythrocytes B) leukocytes and platelets C) plasma Answer: C Topic: 34.4 Blood components function in exchange, transport, and defense Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.4, G2, G7 79) The longest time a human has been recorded holding their breath is over 22 minutes! When you hold your breath, what happens to your blood chemistry? A) The CO2 concentration increases, the hydrogen ion concentration increases, and the pH decreases. B) The CO2 concentration increases, the hydrogen ion concentration decreases, and the pH increases. C) The CO2 concentration decreases, the hydrogen ion concentration increases, and the pH decreases. D) The CO2 concentration decreases, the hydrogen ion concentration decreases, and the pH increases. Answer: A Topic: 34.6 Breathing ventilates the lungs Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.6, G2, G5

34.2 Art Questions 1) At what point in the following figure would blood pressure be highest?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.3, G2, G3, V&C 2

2) At what point in the following figure would blood velocity be lowest?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 34.3 Patterns of blood pressure and flow reflect the structure and arrangement of blood vessels Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.3, G2, G3, V&C 2

34.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. In the Himalayas, Mount Everest, Earth's highest mountain, reaches over 8,800 meters at its peak. At this altitude the atmospheric pressure is only 254 mm Hg. Although humans cannot survive at this altitude, the bar-headed goose can fly there without any problems. Bar-headed goose hemoglobin can bind the same number of oxygen molecules as human hemoglobin, but its affinities for binding oxygen are different (see graph below).

1) What is the maximum number of molecules of oxygen that bar-headed goose hemoglobin can bind to? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.7, G2

2) What is the approximate partial pressure of oxygen on top of Mount Everest? A) 26 mm Hg B) 53 mm Hg C) 159 mm Hg D) 254 mm Hg Answer: B Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 34.7, G2, G4 3) What is the approximate oxygen saturation percentage of bar-headed goose hemoglobin on top of Mount Everest? A) 70% B) 80% C) 90% D) 100% Answer: C Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 34.7, G2, G3, G4 4) In order to fly over Mount Everest, bar-headed geese must fly higher and increase their altitude. What will happen in bar-headed geese as they increase their altitude? A) More oxygen molecules will bind to hemoglobin. B) Fewer oxygen molecules will bind to hemoglobin. C) Carbon dioxide molecules will bind to hemoglobin instead of oxygen. D) The number of oxygen molecules bound to hemoglobin will not change. Answer: B Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 34.7, G2, G3 5) What statement about the data in the graph is true? A) Bar-headed geese hemoglobin can bind more oxygen at higher altitudes than human hemoglobin. B) Bar-headed geese hemoglobin can bind more oxygen at lower altitudes than human hemoglobin. C) Bar-headed geese hemoglobin can bind more oxygen at higher temperatures than human hemoglobin. D) Bar-headed geese hemoglobin can bind more oxygen at lower temperatures than human hemoglobin. Answer: A Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 34.7, G2, G3

6) Which of the following best explains how the bar-headed goose can survive at an altitude of 8,800 meters? A) The bar-headed goose has a higher metabolic rate. B) The bar-headed goose has a structural difference in the hemoglobin protein as a result of evolution in the hemoglobin gene. C) The bar-headed goose has a decreased tidal volume. D) The bar-headed goose has an open circulatory system. Answer: B Topic: 34.7 Adaptations for gas exchange include pigments that bind and transport gases Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 34.7, G2 34.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of the following respiratory systems is not closely associated with a blood supply? A) the lungs of a vertebrate B) the gills of a fish C) the tracheal system of an insect D) the skin of an earthworm Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein drains first into the A) left atrium. B) right atrium. C) left ventricle. D) right ventricle. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Pulse is a direct measure of A) blood pressure. B) stroke volume. C) cardiac output. D) heart rate. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4) When you hold your breath, which of the following blood gas changes first leads to the urge to breathe? A) rising O2 B) falling O2 C) rising CO2 D) falling CO2 Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) One feature that amphibians and humans have in common is A) the number of heart chambers. B) a complete separation of circuits for circulation. C) the number of circuits for circulation. D) a low blood pressure in the systemic circuit. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) If a molecule of CO2 released into the blood in your left toe is exhaled from your nose, it must pass through all of the following except A) the pulmonary vein. B) the trachea. C) the right atrium. D) the right ventricle. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Compared with the interstitial fluid that bathes active muscle cells, blood reaching these cells in arteries has a A) higher PO2. B) higher PCO2. C) greater bicarbonate concentration. D) lower pH. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 35 The Immune System 35.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Innate immunity A) is activated immediately upon infection. B) depends on a newly infected animal's previous exposure to the same pathogen. C) is based on recognition of antigens that are specific to different pathogens. D) is found only in vertebrate animals. E) utilizes highly specific antigen receptors on B cells. Answer: A Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1 2) Acidity in human sweat is an example of A) cell-mediated immune response. B) acquired immunity. C) adaptive immunity. D) innate immunity. Answer: D Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1 3) Suppose that a mosquito has been internally infected by a potentially pathogenic fungus. What will help protect it from the infection? A) its plasma cells B) its immunoglobulins C) its antibodies D) its antimicrobial peptides E) its B cells Answer: D Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.1, G2

4) Engulfing-phagocytic cells of innate immunity include all of the following except A) neutrophils. B) macrophages. C) dendritic cells. D) natural killer cells. Answer: D Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1 5) An inflammation-causing signal released by mast cells at the site of an infection is (are) A) interferons. B) lymph. C) histamine. D) mucus. E) antibodies. Answer: C Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1 6) A systemic inflammatory response that is often life-threatening is A) mild fever. B) aches and dull pain. C) septic shock. D) high blood pressure. E) increased white blood cell count. Answer: C Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1, G5 7) The eyes and the respiratory tract are both protected against infections by A) the mucous membranes that cover their surface. B) the secretion of complement proteins. C) the release of slightly alkaline secretions. D) the secretion of lysozyme onto their surfaces. E) interferons produced by immune cells. Answer: D Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Salmonella are a genus of pathogenic bacteria that can cause infections through the gastrointestinal tract. How could Salmonella poisoning be initiated if a human were to ingest these bacteria? A) The bacteria survive the acidic environment of the stomach and resist lysosomal degradation in macrophages. B) There is a delay in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and fight these bacteria. C) The bacteria release chemical messengers that make them resistant to phagocytosis. D) The combination of foods eaten at a meal increases the pH of the stomach sufficiently so that ingested bacteria are not destroyed. Answer: A Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.1, G2, G5 9) The complement system is a A) set of proteins involved in innate but not acquired immunity. B) set of proteins secreted by cytotoxic T cells and other CD8 cells. C) group of proteins that includes interferons. D) group of antimicrobial proteins that act together in a cascading manner. E) set of proteins that act individually to attack and lyse microbes. Answer: D Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1 10) Cave art by early humans recognized the existence of the major signs of inflammation. The most inclusive set of symptoms of inflammation that might appear in such early human art is A) heat, pain, and redness. B) pain and whitening of the surrounding tissue. C) swelling and pain. D) antibody-producing cells. E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain. Answer: E Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1, G7

11) The cells and signaling molecules that initiate inflammatory responses are A) the phagocytes and the histamines. B) the dendritic cells and the interferons. C) the mast cells and the histamines. D) the lymphocytes and the interferons. Answer: C Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1 12) Inflammatory responses typically include A) clotting proteins migrating away from the site of infection. B) increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area. C) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma. D) release of substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area. E) inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow. Answer: B Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1 13) Suppose you get a cut on your finger, and bacteria enter your skin through the cut. What would be the immediate response by your immune system? A) Apoptosis of nearby body cells would occur. B) Interferons would be released. C) Natural killer cells would be activated. D) The complement system would be activated. Answer: D Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1 14) An invertebrate, such as an insect, has innate immunity activity in its intestine that likely includes A) complement. B) lysozyme. C) mucus. D) neutrophils. E) dendritic cells. Answer: B Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) In some insects, such as Drosophila, fungal cell wall elements can activate the protein Toll, which A) acts as a receptor that, when activated, signals synthesis of antimicrobial peptides. B) functions directly to attack the fungi presented to it. C) produces antimicrobial peptides by interaction with chitin. D) secretes special recognition signal molecules that identify specific pathogens. E) causes some hemocytes to phagocytize the pathogens. Answer: A Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1 16) Mammals have Toll-like receptors (TLRs) that can recognize a kind of macromolecule that is absent from vertebrates but present in/on certain groups of pathogens, including viral A) lipopolysaccharides. B) double-stranded DNA. C) double-stranded RNA. D) glycoproteins. E) phospholipids. Answer: C Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1, V&C 2 17) Histamines trigger dilation of nearby blood vessels as well as an increase in vessel permeability, producing A) redness and heat only. B) swelling only. C) pain only. D) redness, heat, and swelling. Answer: D Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1

18) Septic shock, a systemic response including high fever and low blood pressure, is a response to A) certain bacterial infections. B) specific forms of viruses. C) the presence of natural killer cells. D) a fever of > 103°F in adults. E) increased production of neutrophils. Answer: A Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1, G5 19) Infection by a bacterium that has elements on its surface that enhance its resistance to lysozyme will likely result in A) destruction of the bacterium by natural killer cells. B) successful reproduction of the bacterium and continued progression of the disease. C) the infected individual's humoral immunity becoming the only route of infection response. D) lymphocytes having an increased ability to attack the bacterium. Answer: B Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.1, G2 20) Adaptive immunity depends on A) traits common to groups of pathogens. B) pathogen-specific recognition. C) maternal provision of antibodies to offspring. D) plants being exposed to new pathogens. E) having exhausted all options for innate immunity responses. Answer: B Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.1

21) Bacterial infection in a previously uninfected house cat would most quickly activate its A) toll-like receptors. B) memory cells. C) plasma cells. D) cytotoxic T cells. E) humoral immune responses. Answer: A Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.1, G2 22) Suppose there is a phagocytic cell in which the pH inside the lysosome is significantly higher than normal. What outcome regarding phagocytosis is most likely to occur? A) Phagocytosis will be able to proceed normally. B) Pathogens will able to be broken down but not released from the cell. C) Pathogens will not be able to enter the cell. D) Pathogens will be able to enter the cell but will not be able to be broken down. Answer: D Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 35.1, G2 23) An epitope is A) part of the interferons that penetrate foreign cells. B) a protein protruding from the surface of B cells. C) an antibody that is dissolved in blood plasma. D) the part of an antigen that binds to an antigen receptor. Answer: D Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2, V&C 2 24) B cells have antigen receptors that bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells. T cells have antigen receptors that A) are active only in lymph nodes. B) bind only to antigens present on the surface of the invading/foreign cells. C) bind only to freely dissolved antigens in the plasma. D) bind to antigen fragments presented on major histocompatibility complexes by host cells. E) bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells. Answer: D Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2, V&C 2 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Clonal selection of B cells activated by antigen exposure leads to production of A) large numbers of neutrophils. B) large quantities of the antigen initially recognized. C) vast numbers of B cells with random antigen-recognition receptors. D) long-lived red blood cells that can later secrete antibodies for the antigen. E) short-lived plasma cells that secrete antibodies for the antigen. Answer: E Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2 26) Antigens are A) proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump. B) foreign molecules that trigger an inflammatory response. C) proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains. D) foreign molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies. Answer: D Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2 27) A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the thymus would most likely A) lack class I MHC molecules on cell surfaces. B) lack humoral immunity. C) be unable to genetically rearrange antigen receptors. D) be unable to produce mature T cells. E) have a reduced number of B cells and be unable to form antibodies. Answer: D Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2, G5 28) Clonal selection implies that A) antigens increase mitosis in specific lymphocytes. B) only certain cells can produce interferon. C) a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors. D) the body selects which antigens to which to respond. Answer: B Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2, G7

29) Clonal selection is an explanation for how A) a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells. B) V, J, and C gene segments are rearranged. C) an antigen can provoke production of high levels of specific antibodies. D) HIV can disrupt the immune system. E) macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells. Answer: C Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2 30) The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is important in a T cell's ability to A) trigger an adaptive immune response. B) recognize specific parasitic pathogens. C) identify specific bacterial pathogens. D) identify specific viruses. E) trigger an innate immune response. Answer: A Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2 31) Light chains of immunoglobulin (Ig) molecules C and V are made up of what regions? A) one C region and one V region B) three C regions and one V region C) two C regions and two V regions D) two C regions and one V region Answer: A Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2 32) The ability of one person to produce over a million different antibody molecules does not require over a million different genes; rather, this wide range of antibody production is due to A) alternative splicing of exons after transcription. B) increased rate of mutation in the RNA molecules. C) rearrangements of randomly selected V and J coding fragments in DNA. D) expression of different cytosolic proteins in the thymus cells. E) crossing over between the light and heavy chains of each antibody molecule during meiosis I. Answer: C Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2, V&C 2

33) Immunological memory accounts for A) the human body's ability to distinguish self from nonself. B) the observation that some strains of the pathogen that causes dengue fever cause worse disease than others. C) the ability of a helper T cell to signal B cells via cytokines. D) the ancient observation that someone who had recovered from the plague could safely care for those newly diseased. E) the ability of the immune system to present antigen fragments in association with MHC antigens. Answer: D Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2 34) What is the function of an antibody? A) to inject toxins into living pathogens B) to secrete cytokines that attract macrophages to infection sites C) to bind to Toll-like receptors D) to mark pathogenic cells for destruction Answer: D Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2 35) Antibodies are made up of A) one heavy chain and one light chain. B) two heavy chains and two light chains. C) three heavy chains and three light chains. D) four heavy chains and four light chains. Answer: B Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2 36) For the successful development of a vaccine to be used against a pathogen, it is necessary that A) the surface antigens of the pathogen do not change. B) a rearrangement of the B cell receptor antibodies takes place. C) all of the surface antigens on the pathogen be identified. D) the pathogen has only one epitope. E) the MHC molecules are heterozygous. Answer: A Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2, G5

37) The switch of a B cell from producing one class of antibody to another antibody class that is responsive to the same antigen is due to A) mutation in the genes of that B cell, induced by exposure to the antigen. B) the rearrangement of V region genes in that clone of responsive B cells. C) a switch in the kind of antigen-presenting cell that is involved in the immune response. D) a patient's reaction to the first kind of antibody made by the plasma cells. E) the rearrangement of immunoglobulin heavy-chain C region DNA. Answer: E Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2 38) The number of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein combinations possible in a given population is enormous. However, an individual in that diverse population has a far more limited array of MHC molecules because A) the MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable of rearranging in a number of ways. B) MHC proteins from one individual can only be of class I or class II. C) each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual only inherits two for each gene. D) once a B cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC response categories. E) once a T cell has matured in the thymus, it can only respond to two MHC categories. Answer: C Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2, G7 39) Antihistamine treatment reduces A) blood vessel dilation. B) phagocytosis of antigens. C) MHC presentation by macrophages. D) the secondary immune response. E) clonal selection by antigens. Answer: A Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3, G5 40) A key part of the humoral immune response is A) the attack of cytotoxic T cells on infected host cells. B) the production of antibodies by plasma cells. C) the attack of phagocytes on living pathogens. D) the initiation of programmed cell death in infected host cells. Answer: B Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

41) The receptors on T cells and B cells bind to A) antibodies. B) antigens. C) natural killer cells. D) double-stranded RNA. E) immunoglobulins. Answer: B Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2 42) Secondary immune responses upon a second exposure to a pathogen are due to the activation of A) natural killer cells. B) memory cells. C) macrophages. D) B cells. E) T cells. Answer: B Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.2 43) Jazmin is a 44-year-old female who can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens but not against viral infections. Jazmin probably has a disorder in her A) B cells. B) plasma cells. C) natural killer cells. D) T cells. E) macrophages. Answer: D Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2, G5 44) In which situation would helper T cells be activated? A) when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell B) when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines C) when natural killer (NK) cells come in contact with a tumor cell D) when B cells respond to T-independent antigens Answer: A Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3

45) Which type of immunity is present only when a newborn infant is fed by nursing and ends when nursing ends? A) innate immunity B) passive immunity C) cell-mediated immunity D) adaptive immunity Answer: B Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3, G5 46) Yearly vaccination of humans for influenza viruses is necessary because A) of an increase in immunodeficiency diseases. B) flu can generate anaphylactic shock. C) surviving the flu one year exhausts the immune system to non-responsiveness the second year. D) mutations of DNA in rapidly evolving generations of flu viruses result in altered surface proteins in infected host cells. E) flu leads to autoimmune disorders. Answer: D Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3, V&C 1, G5 47) The cell-mediated immunity that destroys virally infected cells involves A) cytotoxic T cells. B) natural killer cells. C) helper T cells. D) macrophages. E) B cells. Answer: A Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3 48) Which of the following cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and also respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes? A) cytotoxic T cells B) natural killer cells C) helper T cells D) macrophages E) B cells Answer: A Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) Select the pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells. A) B cells contact antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs B) body cell becomes infected with a virus → new viral proteins appear → class I MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface C) self-tolerance of immune cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines released D) complement is secreted → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated → cytokines released E) cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule—antigen complex displayed → cytokines released → cell lysis Answer: B Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2 50) Among the last line of defenses against prolonged exposure to an extracellular pathogen is A) lysozyme production. B) phagocytosis by neutrophils. C) antibody production by plasma cells. D) histamine release by basophils. E) conversion of helper T cells to memory helper T cells. Answer: C Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3 51) Arrange these components of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a pathogen in the correct sequence. I. Pathogen is destroyed. II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies. III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes. IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous. V. Only memory cells remain. A) I → III → II → IV → V B) III → II → I → V → IV C) II → I → IV → III → V D) IV → II → III → I → V E) III → IV → II → I → V Answer: E Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2

52) A cell type that interacts with both the humoral and cell-mediated immune pathways is a A) plasma cell. B) cytotoxic T cell. C) natural killer cell. D) helper T cell. Answer: D Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3 53) A mutation in the gene for CD4 leads to the production of nonfunctioning CD4 proteins in the plasma membrane of a helper T cell. What role would the helper T cell be unable to perform? A) response to T-independent antigens B) lysing tumor cells C) stimulating a cytotoxic T cell D) interacting with a class I MHC-antigen complex E) interacting with a class II MHC-antigen complex Answer: E Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.3, V&C 2, G2 54) T cells of the immune system include A) cytotoxic and helper cells. B) plasma, antigen-presenting, and memory cells. C) lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells. Answer: A Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3 55) B cells that interact with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when A) B cells produce antibodies. B) B cells release cytokines. C) helper T cells present the class II MHC molecule-antigen complex on their surface. D) helper T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells. E) helper T cells release cytokines. Answer: E Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3

56) Normal immune responses can be described as polyclonal because A) blood contains many different antibodies and antigens. B) multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B cell. C) diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen. D) macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in a normal immune response. Answer: C Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3 57) When antibodies bind antigens, they may clump together. Why does this occur? A) because antibodies have at least two binding regions for antigens B) because disulfide bridges form between the antigens C) because bonds form between class I and class II MHC molecules D) because the antibodies denature Answer: A Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3, V&C 2 58) The primary function of humoral immunity is to A) defend against fungi and protozoa. B) reject transplanted tissues. C) protect the body against cells that become cancerous. D) protect the body against extracellular pathogens. E) defend against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells. Answer: D Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3 59) Naturally acquired passive immunity results from the A) injection of vaccine. B) ingestion of interferon. C) placental transfer of antibodies. D) absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes. E) injection of antibodies. Answer: C Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3, G5

60) In active immunity, but not passive immunity, there is A) acquisition and activation of antibodies. B) proliferation of lymphocytes in bone marrow. C) the transfer of antibodies from the mother across the placenta. D) the requirement for direct exposure to a living or simulated pathogen. E) the requirement of secretion of cytokines from T cells. Answer: D Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3 61) An individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin would likely benefit from A) vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin. B) injection of antibodies to the toxin. C) injection of histamine. D) injection of interferon. Answer: B Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2, G5 62) Aaleyah has previously donated blood to her cousin Mohammed for a blood transfusion. However, a bone marrow transplant from Aaleyah to Mohammed may not be possible because A) even though Aaleyah's blood type is a match to Mohammed's, her MHC proteins may not be a match. B) a blood type match is less stringent than a match required for transplant because blood is more tolerant of change. C) for each gene, there is only one blood allele but many tissue alleles. D) Aaleyah's class II genes are not expressed in bone marrow. E) Mohammed's immune response has been made inadequate before he receives the transplant. Answer: A Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2, G5

63) An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because A) MHC molecules of the donor may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue, but bacteria lack MHC molecules. B) the tissue graft, unlike the bacterium, is isolated from the circulation and will not enter into an immune response. C) a response to the graft will involve B cells and a response to the bacterium will not. D) a bacterium cannot escape the immune system by replicating inside normal body cells. E) the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient. Answer: A Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2 64) In the human disease known as lupus, there is an immune reaction against a patient's own DNA from broken or dying cells, which categorizes lupus as A) an allergy. B) an immunodeficiency. C) an autoimmune disease. D) an antigenic variation. E) a cancer. Answer: C Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3, G5 65) A patient who undergoes a high level of histamine release, dilation of blood vessels, and an acute drop in blood pressure is likely suffering from A) an autoimmune disease. B) a typical allergy that can be treated by antihistamines. C) an organ transplant, such as a skin graft. D) the effect of exhaustion on the immune system. E) anaphylactic shock immediately following exposure to an allergen. Answer: E Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3, G5

66) An example of a pathogen that undergoes rapid changes resulting in antigenic variation is A) the influenza virus, which expresses alternative envelope proteins. B) the strep bacteria, which can be communicated from patient to patient with high efficiency. C) human papillomavirus, which can remain latent for several years. D) the causative agent of the autoimmune disease known as rheumatoid arthritis. E) multiple sclerosis, which attacks the myelinated cells of the nervous system. Answer: A Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3, G7, V&C1 67) The ability of some viruses to remain inactive (latent) for a period of time is exemplified by A) influenza, a particular strain of which returns every 10-20 years. B) herpes simplex viruses (oral or genital), whose reproduction is triggered by physiological or emotional stress in the host. C) Kaposi's sarcoma, which causes a skin cancer in people with AIDS but rarely does so in those not infected by HIV. D) the virus that causes a form of the common cold, which recurs in patients many times in their lives. Answer: B Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3 68) Preventing the appearance of the symptoms of an allergy attack would be the likely result of A) reducing the ability of antibodies to attach to mast cells. B) reducing the number of helper T cells in the body. C) reducing the number of cytotoxic cells. D) reducing the number of natural killer cells. Answer: A Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2 69) A patient complaining of watery, itchy eyes and sneezing after being given a flower bouquet as a birthday gift should first be treated with A) a vaccine. B) complement. C) antihistamines. D) monoclonal antibodies. Answer: C Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2, G5

70) What is the main reason that HIV usually cannot be completely eliminated by the body's immune system? A) The virus infects B cells. B) The virus does not trigger an innate immune response. C) The virus has a high mutation rate. D) The virus is too small. Answer: C Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3, G5 71) Through the evolution of antigenic variation, pathogens are able to A) change the epitopes they express to elude a secondary immune response. B) change their genome to elude a secondary immune response. C) change the types of RNAs they express to elude a secondary immune response. D) change their size to elude a secondary immune response. Answer: A Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3, G7, V&C1 72) In which of the following persons would the risk of developing a viral-induced cancer (such as Kaposi's sarcoma) be highest? A) an adult with weakened barrier defenses B) an adult with a weakened innate immune system C) an adult with a weakened adaptive immune system Answer: C Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2, G5 73) Activation of helper T cells by an antigen will directly activate A) B cells only. B) cytotoxic T cells only. C) memory helper T cells only. D) B cells and cytotoxic T cells only. E) cytotoxic T cells and memory helper cells only. Answer: D Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3

74) Which cell type is incorrectly matched with its function? A) cytotoxic T cell–kills infected host cells B) helper T cell–activates innate immune responses C) plasma cell–produces antibodies D) memory cell–gives rise to effector cells Answer: B Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 35.3 75) There is a mutation in the gene for CD4 in a helper T cell such that it is transcribed and translated, but it cannot bind to class II MHC molecules. What effect will this have on the adaptive immune response? A) Histamine would not be produced at all. B) Cytotoxic T cells would not be as effective as normal. C) Antibodies would not be produced as readily. D) Lymphocytes would not differentiate as quickly. Answer: C Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2 76) There is a mutation such that mast cells cannot produce and secrete histamine. Which of the following outcomes is most likely to happen if an injury to the skin occurs? A) Macrophages will not be able to secrete cytokines. B) Neutrophils will not be attracted to the injury site. C) Neutrophils will not be able to phagocytose pathogens at the injury site. D) Macrophages will not be able to phagocytose pathogens at the injury site. Answer: C Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2 77) Suppose a T cell had no access to the amino acid cysteine. What consequence would this have with regard to the immune response of the T cell? A) Antibodies would not be produced. B) Histamine would not be released. C) Antigen receptors would not form properly. D) CD4 would not bind to MHC II molecules. Answer: C Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2, G7

78) Juan is a 5-year-old boy and recently recovered from the chickenpox. He returned to kindergarten and found out that his friend Tram had chickenpox too. Normally chickenpox is very infectious, but Juan did not acquire it again. Why was Juan protected from a second exposure to chickenpox? A) because his immune system now has immunological memory B) because his innate immune system was strengthened C) because his inflammatory response was conditioned for chickenpox D) because his immune system underwent antigenic variation Answer: A Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2, G5 79) A researcher suspects that a weakened immune response may be due to poor antigen presentation. Which experiment would best test this hypothesis? A) Expose B cells to different antigens, and measure the proliferation rate. B) Expose T cells to different antigens, and identify what is bound to the MHC molecules. C) Expose natural killer cells to different antigens, and quantify the amount of chemicals released. Answer: A Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2, G5 80) Suppose a B cell is unable to perform alternative splicing. What consequence will this have in regards to the immune response of the B cell? A) The B cell will produce fewer cytokines. B) The B cell will make a limited number of antigen receptors. C) The B cell will not be able to engulf pathogenic bacteria. D) The B cell will not be able to produce any antibodies at all. Answer: B Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2

81) A dog is exposed to a pathogen that causes its B cells to produce antigen receptors against the pathogen. A week later, the dog is exposed to a similar but different pathogen. What immune response will the dog's immune system go through? A) The dog's immune system will produce a secondary immune response since it was previously exposed to a pathogen. B) The dog's immune system will produce a primary immune response since this pathogen was different from the first pathogen. C) The dog's immune system will produce a large quantity of histamines because the pathogen is an allergen. Answer: B Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2

35.2 Art Questions 1) Fruit flies normally produce two types of antimicrobial peptides (defensin and drosomycin). Mutant fruit flies were generated that produced no antimicrobial peptides, defensin only, or drosomycin only. Wild-type flies and the mutant flies were then tested for survival after infection with Neurospora crassa fungi or with Micrococcus luteus bacteria. The results are shown in Figures 35.1 and 35.2.

Figure 35.1

Figure 35.2 The results shown in Figures 35.1 and 35.2 support the hypothesis that A) the defensin gene exacerbates fungal infections in flies. B) the drosomycin gene protects flies from bacterial infection. C) wild-type flies with the full set of genes for antimicrobial peptides are highly susceptible to these infective agents. D) the presence of any single antimicrobial peptide protects against both infective agents. Answer: B Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Outcome: 35.1, G1, G2, G3 2) All cells have protein markers on their membranes, and the Rh antigen is found in the membranes of red blood cells. If a person possesses the Rh antigen on his or her red blood cells, it is indicated with a + sign. If a person does not possess the Rh antigen, it is indicated with a sign. A, B, and O refer to the ABO blood groups. Data are given in the table for three different pairs of mothers and fetuses.

In which case(s) could the mother exhibit an anti-Rh factor reaction to the developing fetus? A) case 1 only B) case 3 only C) cases 1 and 2 only D) cases 1, 2, and 3 E) It cannot be determined from the data given. Answer: A Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2, G3, G5

3) All cells have protein markers on their membranes, and the Rh antigen is found in the membranes of red blood cells. If a person possesses the Rh antigen on his or her red blood cells, it is indicated with a + sign. If a person does not possess the Rh antigen, it is indicated with a sign. A, B, and O refer to the ABO blood groups. Data are given in the table for three different pairs of mothers and fetuses.

In which case(s) would giving the mother anti-Rh antibodies before delivering her baby be a wise precaution? A) case 1 only B) case 3 only C) cases 1 and 2 only D) cases 1, 2, and 3 E) It cannot be determined from the data given. Answer: A Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2, G3, G5

4) According to the graph, B cells will first produce effector cells

A) between 0 and 7 days. B) between 7 and 14 days. C) between 28 and 35 days. D) between 0 and 7 days and between 7 and 14 days. E) between 0 and 7 days and between 28 and 35 days. Answer: B Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2, G3

5) According to Figure 35.5, approximately when did a second exposure to antigen occur?

Figure 35.5 A) at 0 days B) at 7 days C) at 14 days D) at 28 days E) at 49 days Answer: D Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2, G3

6) Fruit flies normally produce two types of antimicrobial peptides (defensin and drosomycin). Mutant fruit flies were generated that produced no antimicrobial peptides, defensin only, or drosomycin only. Wild-type flies and the mutant flies were then tested for survival after infection with Neurospora crassa fungi. What statement about these data is true?

A) No wild-type fruit flies die after being infected by the fungi. B) Drosomycin protects fruit flies from N. crassi infections to a higher degree than does defensin. C) Defensin is effective at preventing fruit fly infection by all fungal species. D) After two days, approximately 65% of mutant + defensin fruit flies are dead. Answer: B Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.1, G1, G2, G3

7) Fruit flies normally produce two types of antimicrobial peptides (defensin and drosomycin). Mutant fruit flies were generated that produced no antimicrobial peptides, defensin only, or drosomycin only. Wild-type flies and the mutant flies were then tested for survival after infection with Micrococcus luteus bacteria. What statement about these data is true?

A) Drosomycin likely protects fruit flies by activating an adaptive immune response. B) Drosomycin and defensin are equally effective at protecting fruit flies from the bacterial infection. C) Defensin likely protects fruit flies by activating an innate immune response. D) After five days, greater than 90% of mutant fruit flies are dead. Answer: D Topic: 35.1 In innate immunity, recognition and response rely on traits common to groups of pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.1, G1, G2, G3

8) The figure below provides data for measles deaths and vaccinations. What can you conclude from these data?

A) The spike in measles deaths in 1990 was due to a lack of vaccinations. B) The rate of measles vaccinations increased between 1970 and 2015. C) Measles vaccination rates are the lowest in African countries. D) Measles deaths decreased between 1950 and 1960 due to the use of the measles vaccine. Answer: C Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2, G3

35.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. An otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had been infected when she was a child, at which time she merely experienced a mild sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in her neck. This time, although infected, she does not get sick. 1) Her immune system's recognition of the second infection involves the A) helper T cells. B) memory B cells. C) plasma cells. D) cytotoxic T cells. E) natural killer cells. Answer: D Topic: 35.2 In adaptive immunity, receptors provide pathogen-specific recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.2, G2 2) The EBV antigen fragments will be presented by the virus-infected cells along with A) complement. B) antibodies. C) class I MHC molecules. D) class II MHC molecules. E) dendritic cells. Answer: C Topic: 35.3 Adaptive immunity defends against infection of body fluids and body cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 35.3, G2 35.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of these is not part of insect immunity? A) antibacterial digestive enzymes B) activation of natural killer cells C) phagocytosis by hemocytes D) production of antimicrobial peptides Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

2) An epitope associates with which part of an antigen receptor or antibody? A) the tail B) heavy-chain constant regions only C) variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined D) light-chain constant regions only Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which statement best describes the difference in responses of effector B cells (plasma cells) and cytotoxic T cells? A) B cells confer active immunity; cytotoxic T cells confer passive immunity. B) B cells respond the first time a pathogen is present; cytotoxic T cells respond subsequent times. C) B cells secrete antibodies against a pathogen; cytotoxic T cells kill pathogen-infected host cells. D) B cells carry out the cell-mediated response; cytotoxic T cells carry out the humoral response. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following statements is not true? A) An antibody has more than one antigen-binding site. B) A lymphocyte has receptors for multiple different antigens. C) An antigen can have different epitopes. D) A liver cell makes one class of MHC molecule. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Which of the following should be the same in identical twins? A) the set of antibodies produced B) the set of MHC molecules produced C) the set of T cell antigen receptors produced D) the set of immune cells eliminated as self-reactive Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 36 Reproduction and Development 36.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Regeneration, the regrowth of lost body parts, normally follows A) all types of asexual reproduction. B) all types of sexual reproduction. C) fission. D) fragmentation. E) parthenogenesis. Answer: D Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.1, V&C 2 2) One of the evolutionary "enigmas," or unsolved puzzles, of sexual reproduction is that A) sexual reproduction allows for more rapid population growth than does asexual reproduction. B) only half of the offspring from sexually reproducing females are also females. C) asexual reproduction produces offspring of greater genetic variety. D) sexual reproduction is completed more rapidly than asexual reproduction. E) asexual reproduction is better suited to environments with extremely varying conditions. Answer: B Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.1 3) An advantage of asexual reproduction is that it A) allows the species to endure long periods of unstable environmental conditions. B) enhances genetic variability in the species. C) enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species. D) produces offspring that respond effectively to new pathogens. E) allows a species to easily rid itself of harmful mutations. Answer: C Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.1

4) Asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than does sexual reproduction when A) pathogens are rapidly diversifying. B) a species has accumulated numerous deleterious mutations. C) there is some potential for rapid overpopulation. D) a species is expanding into diverse geographic settings. E) a species is in stable and favorable environments. Answer: E Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 36.1, G2 5) Hermaphroditism is a type of A) asexual reproduction pattern only. B) sexual reproduction pattern only. C) both asexual and sexual reproduction patterns. Answer: B Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.1 6) Sexual reproduction A) allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions. B) can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment. C) yields more numerous offspring more rapidly than is possible with asexual reproduction. D) enables males and females to remain isolated from each other while rapidly colonizing habitats. E) guarantees that both parents will provide care for each offspring. Answer: B Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.1 7) Environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by A) increasing organisms' body temperature. B) providing access to water for external fertilization. C) increasing the ambient temperature to that which is comfortable for sexual reproduction. D) causing direct effects on gonadal structures. E) causing direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms. Answer: E Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.1

8) Evidence that parthenogenetic whiptail lizards are derived from sexually reproducing ancestors includes A) the requirement for male-like behaviors in some females before their partners will ovulate. B) the development and then regression of testes prior to sexual maturation. C) the observation that all of the offspring are haploid. D) dependence on favorable weather conditions for ovulation to occur. E) a complete cycle of fragmentation and regeneration of female gonadal structures. Answer: A Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.1, V&C 2 9) Like many other fishes, bluehead wrasses utilize harem mating as they reproduce sexually. However, unlike most fishes, A) they also reproduce by fission. B) they function without any signaling by steroid hormones. C) they undergo a prolonged menopause during low tide. D) their offspring can be either haploid or diploid. E) large females morph into reproductively competent males. Answer: E Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.1 10) Which of the following patterns of reproduction are found only among invertebrate animals? A) sexual and asexual reproduction B) external and internal fertilization C) hermaphroditism and parthenogenesis D) fission and budding Answer: D Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.1

11) Below are four factors that may be important for an animal to reproduce. Which factor(s) are required by animals that reproduce using internal fertilization? I. cooperative copulatory behavior II. compatible reproductive systems III. a moist environment for spawning IV. sperm A) IV only B) I and II only C) II, III, and IV only D) I, II, and IV only Answer: D Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.1, G2 12) In close comparisons, external fertilization often yields more offspring than does internal fertilization. However, internal fertilization offers the advantage that A) it is the only way to ensure the survival of the species. B) it requires less time and energy to be devoted to reproduction. C) the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental investment. D) it permits the most rapid population increase. E) it requires expression of fewer genes and maximizes genetic stability. Answer: C Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.1, V&C 2 13) External chemical signals that coordinate potential reproductive partners are called A) hormones. B) gametes. C) pheromones. Answer: C Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.1, G7

14) Springtails are a type of arthropod. Male springtails drop tiny beads of semen attached to stalks. Females that are ready to reproduce search out these drops and take them into their genital opening. This is an example of A) external fertilization without copulation. B) external fertilization with copulation. C) internal fertilization without copulation. D) internal fertilization with copulation. Answer: C Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.1, G2, V&C 2 15) Horseshoe crabs, genetically related to scorpions and spiders, are capable of only one type of fertilization. Female horseshoe crabs dig a shallow hole near the ocean shoreline that can fill with water. They then lay their eggs in that hole, and male horseshoe crabs mount the females and deposit their sperm over the eggs. This is an example of A) external fertilization without copulation. B) external fertilization with copulation. C) internal fertilization without copulation. D) internal fertilization with copulation. Answer: B Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.1, G2 16) Why might scientists want to figure out how to change sexually reproducing plants that are in high demand in agriculture into asexually reproducing plants? A) Farmers would be able to harvest asexually producing plants in a more efficient manner because asexual reproduction has lower energy costs than sexual reproduction. B) Farmers who have to buy new seeds for high-demand plants would have their seed costs cut dramatically. C) High-demand plants, such as beans and corn, will have higher taste quality in asexually reproducing plants. D) Asexually reproducing plants require less water and fertilizer than sexually reproducing plants. Answer: B Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.1, G2, G5

17) Among nonmammalian vertebrates, the cloaca is an anatomical structure that functions as a A) specialized sperm-transfer device produced only by males. B) shared pathway for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems. C) region bordered by the labia minora and clitoris in females. D) source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes. E) gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening. Answer: B Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2, V&C 2 18) The spermathecae is used by what kind of species for sperm storage? A) male mammals B) female birds C) male crustaceans D) female insects Answer: D Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2 19) An oocyte released from a human ovary enters the oviduct as a result of A) the beating action of the flagellum on the oocyte. B) the force of the follicular ejection directing the oocyte into the oviduct. C) the wavelike beating of cilia lining the oviduct. D) movement of the oocyte through the pulsating uterus into the oviduct. E) peristaltic contraction of ovarian muscles. Answer: C Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2, V&C 2 20) The cervix is formed by the junction of the A) upper vagina and uterus. B) lower vagina and labia minora. C) ovary and uterus. D) clitoris and labia majora. Answer: A Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2

21) Among mammals, the male and female genital structures that consist mostly of erectile tissue include the A) penis and clitoris. B) vas deferens and oviduct. C) testes and ovaries. D) seminiferous tubules and hymen. E) prostate and ovaries. Answer: A Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2, V&C 2 22) What is the function of the epididymis in human males? A) sperm maturation B) ejaculation C) urine storage D) secretion of seminal fluids Answer: A Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2, V&C 2 23) Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the A) vas deferens. B) urinary bladder. C) seminal vesicle. D) urethra. E) ureter. Answer: D Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2, V&C 2 24) Human sperm cells first arise in the A) prostate gland. B) vas deferens. C) seminiferous tubules. D) epididymis. E) Sertoli cells. Answer: C Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2

25) The surgical removal of the seminal vesicles would likely A) cause sterility because sperm would not be produced. B) cause sterility because sperm would not be able to exit the body. C) greatly reduce the volume of semen. D) enhance the fertilization potency of sperm in the uterus. E) cause the testes to migrate back into the abdominal cavity. Answer: C Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, G2, G5 26) Most of the noncellular fluid in ejaculated human semen is composed of A) the secretions of the seminiferous tubules. B) the secretions of the bulbourethral glands. C) the secretions of the seminal vesicles. D) the secretions of the prostate gland. Answer: C Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2 27) Increasing the temperature of the human scrotum by 2°C (i.e., near the normal body core temperature) and holding it there would A) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing the production of gonadal steroid hormones. B) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing spermatogenesis. C) increase the fertility of the affected man by enhancing the rate of spermatogenesis. D) have no effect on male reproductive processes. Answer: B Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 36.2, G2 28) In vertebrate animals, spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in that A) oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity, whereas spermatogenesis begins during embryonic development. B) oogenesis produces four haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only one functional spermatozoon. C) cytokinesis is unequal in oogenesis, whereas it is equal in spermatogenesis. D) oogenesis ends at menopause, whereas spermatogenesis is finished before birth. E) spermatogenesis is not completed until after fertilization occurs, but oogenesis is completed by the time a girl is born. Answer: C Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, G2

29) Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that they A) have the same number of chromosomes. B) are approximately the same size. C) each have a flagellum that provides motility. D) are produced from puberty until death. E) are formed before birth. Answer: A Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2 30) A primary response in the testes to the presence of luteinizing hormone is an increase in the synthesis and secretion of the hormone testosterone. What cell type produces testosterone? A) Sertoli cells B) Leydig cells C) sperm cells Answer: B Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2 31) In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following ovulation become A) the ovarian endometrium that is shed at the time of the menses. B) a steroid-hormone-synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum. C) the thickened portion of the uterine wall. D) swept into the fallopian tube. E) the placenta, which secretes cervical mucus. Answer: B Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2 32) Inhibin is synthesized primarily by the A) Sertoli cells. B) hypothalamus. C) Leydig cells. D) anterior pituitary gland. E) seminiferous tubules. Answer: A Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.3

33) During human sexual excitement, vasocongestion occurs A) only in the penis. B) only in the testes. C) only in the clitoris. D) only in the vagina and penis. E) in the clitoris, vagina, and penis. Answer: E Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.3 34) The moment of orgasm is characterized by A) the ovulation of the oocyte from the ovary. B) the release of sperm from the seminiferous tubules. C) rhythmic contraction of many parts of the reproductive system. D) increased synthesis and release of ovarian steroid hormones. E) increased synthesis and release of testicular steroid hormones. Answer: C Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.3 35) At the time of fertilization, the complete maturation of each oogonium has resulted in A) one secondary oocyte. B) two primary oocytes. C) four secondary oocytes. D) four primary oocytes. E) four zygotes. Answer: A Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.3, G2 36) A male's "primary" sex characteristics include A) deepening of the voice at puberty. B) embryonic differentiation of the seminal vesicles. C) growth of skeletal muscle. D) elongation of the skeleton prior to puberty. E) onset of growth of facial hair at puberty. Answer: B Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2

37) Low levels of ________ may indicate that a woman's ovaries are beginning to fail. A) estradiol B) progesterone C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D) luteinizing hormone (LH) Answer: A Topic: 36.2, 36.3 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes; The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, 36.3, G2 38) If a man is born with a blockage in his vas deferens, he may experience A) low testosterone production. B) low sperm count. C) high testosterone production. D) high sperm count. Answer: B Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, G2, G5 39) A well-used method to determine if a tarantula (a spider) is male or female is to look at the skin that the tarantula sheds. If the molt (shed skin) shows evidence of small organs that are used to store sperm, one can determine that the specimen is a female. This particular organ is an example of A) an ovary. B) an oviduct. C) a blastocoel. D) a blastospore. E) a spermatheca. Answer: E Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, G2

40) The primary difference between estrous and menstrual cycles is that A) the endometrium shed by the uterus during the estrous cycle is reabsorbed, whereas the shed endometrium of menstrual cycles is excreted from the body. B) behavioral changes during estrous cycles are much less apparent than those of menstrual cycles. C) season and climate have less-pronounced effects on estrous cycles than they do on menstrual cycles. D) copulation normally occurs across the estrous cycle, whereas in menstrual cycles copulation only occurs during the period surrounding ovulation. E) most estrous cycles are of much longer duration compared to menstrual cycles. Answer: A Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.3, G2 41) At the end of a nonpregnant ovarian cycle, the breakdown and discharge of the soft uterine tissues are called A) menstruation. B) lactation. C) fertilization. D) menopause. E) ovulation. Answer: A Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.3 42) In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human ovarian cycle are A) menstrual → ovulation → luteal. B) follicular → luteal → secretory. C) menstrual → proliferative → secretory. D) follicular → ovulation → luteal. E) proliferative → luteal → ovulation. Answer: D Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.3

43) In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human uterine cycle are A) menstrual → ovulation → luteal. B) follicular → luteal → secretory. C) menstrual → proliferative → secretory. D) follicular → ovulation → luteal. E) proliferative → luteal → ovulation. Answer: C Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.3 44) An inactivating mutation in the progesterone receptor gene would likely result in A) the absence of secondary sex characteristics. B) the absence of pituitary gonadotropin hormones. C) the inability of the uterus to support pregnancy. D) enlarged and hyperactive uterine endometrium. E) the absence of mammary gland development. Answer: C Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 36.3, G2 45) A reproductive hormone that is secreted directly from the hypothalamus is A) testosterone. B) estradiol. C) progesterone. D) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Answer: E Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.3, G7 46) The primary function of the corpus luteum is to A) nourish and protect the egg cell. B) produce prolactin in the alveoli. C) maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation has occurred. D) stimulate the development of the mammary glands. E) support pregnancy in the second and third trimesters. Answer: C Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2, V&C 2

47) For the 10 days following ovulation in a nonpregnant menstrual cycle, the corpus luteum is the main source of which hormone? A) testosterone B) progesterone C) LH D) FSH Answer: B Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2, V&C 2 48) A burst of secretion of LH causes which response to occur? A) ovulation B) menstruation C) oogenesis D) spermatogenesis Answer: A Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.3, V&C 2 49) Prior to ovulation, the primary steroid hormone secreted by the growing follicle is A) luteinizing hormone (LH). B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). C) inhibin. D) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). E) estradiol. Answer: E Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.3 50) The hypothalamic hormone that stimulates hormone secretion by the anterior pituitary gland is A) luteinizing hormone (LH). B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). C) inhibin. D) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). E) estradiol. Answer: D Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.3

51) The hormone progesterone is produced by which structure and acts on which organ? A) pituitary and acts directly on the ovary B) uterus and acts directly on the pituitary C) ovary and acts directly on the uterus D) pituitary and acts directly on the uterus Answer: C Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2, V&C 2 52) Menopause is characterized by A) reduced synthesis of ovarian steroids despite high levels of gonadotropin hormones. B) a decline in production of the gonadotropin hormones by the anterior pituitary gland. C) wearing away of the uterine endometrium. D) an increase in the blood supply to the ovaries. E) a halt in the synthesis of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the brain. Answer: A Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.3, G2, G5 53) The hypothalamic hormone that triggers the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is A) luteinizing hormone (LH). B) estradiol. C) progesterone. D) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG). E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Answer: E Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.3 54) The secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary gland is reduced by A) inhibin. B) luteinizing hormone. C) oxytocin. D) prolactin. E) vasopressin. Answer: A Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.3

55) What is a possible outcome of oligo-ovulation, a condition in which a woman has infrequent or irregular menstrual cycles? A) Ovulation does not occur on a regular basis. B) Menopause does not occur. C) Spermatogenesis is not able to occur. D) The hypothalamus becomes inhibited by high levels of estradiol. Answer: A Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.3, G2, G5 56) A contraceptive pill that continuously inhibits the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus will A) increase the production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovaries. B) initiate ovulation. C) reduce the secretion of gonadotropins from the anterior pituitary gland. D) stimulate the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the posterior pituitary gland. E) increase the flow phase of the menstrual cycle. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.4, G2, G5 57) For normal human fertilization to occur, A) many ova must be released. B) the uterus must be enlarged. C) only one sperm need penetrate one egg. D) secretion of pituitary follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) must decrease. E) the secondary oocyte must implant in the uterus. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4

58) Fertilization of human eggs usually takes place in the ________, whereas implantation occurs in the ________. A) ovary; uterus B) uterus; ovary C) vagina; oviduct D) oviduct; uterus E) cervix; vagina Answer: D Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, V&C 2 59) What embryo-produced hormone maintains progesterone and estrogen secretion by the corpus luteum through the first trimester of pregnancy? A) luteinizing hormone (LH) B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) C) progesterone D) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Answer: D Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, G5, V&C 2 60) Labor contractions can be increased by the medical use of a synthetic drug that mimics the action of A) inhibin. B) luteinizing hormone. C) oxytocin. D) prolactin. E) vasopressin. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 36.4, G2, G5

61) In excreted urine, a reliable "marker" that a pregnancy has initiated is A) progesterone. B) estrogen. C) follicle-stimulating hormone. D) chorionic gonadotropin. E) hypothalamic-releasing hormones. Answer: D Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, G5 62) Of the following contraception methods, the highest risk of accidental pregnancy accompanies A) the use of a diaphragm. B) the use of a condom. C) the practice of coitus interruptus. D) a verified vasectomy. E) the practice of the "rhythm method." Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, G5 63) The use of birth control pills (oral contraceptives) A) reduces the incidence of ovulation. B) prevents fertilization by keeping the sperm and egg physically separated by a mechanical barrier. C) prevents implantation of an embryo. D) prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra. E) prevents oocytes from entering the uterus. Answer: A Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, G5

64) Two contraceptive methods that are generally irreversible and that block the gametes from moving to a site where fertilization can occur are A) the male condom and the female condom. B) the male condom and oral contraceptives. C) vasectomy and tubal ligation. D) coitus interruptus and the rhythm method. E) the diaphragm and the rhythm method. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, G5 65) For lactation to take place, the synthesis of breast milk and its release from the mammary gland, respectively, are caused by A) testosterone and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). B) estrogen and progesterone. C) cortisol and testosterone. D) prolactin and oxytocin. E) luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). Answer: D Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, V&C 2 66) So-called "combination" birth control pills function in contraception by A) inhibiting the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). B) irritating the uterine lining so as to prevent implantation. C) causing spontaneous abortions. D) blocking progesterone receptors so that pregnancy cannot be maintained. E) binding to and inactivating any sperm that enter the oviduct. Answer: A Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, G5

67) As an embryo develops, new cells are produced as the result of A) differentiation. B) cell division. C) morphogenesis. Answer: B Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, V&C 2 68) Fertilization of an egg without activation is most like A) placing the key in the ignition of a car but not starting the engine. B) resting during halftime of a basketball game. C) preparing a pie from scratch and baking it in the oven. D) walking to the cafeteria and eating lunch. E) dropping a rock off a cliff and watching it land in the valley below. Answer: A Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.4, G2 69) Contact of a sperm with signal molecules in the coat of an egg causes the sperm to undergo A) mitosis. B) depolarization. C) gastrulation. D) asexual reproduction. E) the acrosomal reaction. Answer: E Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, V&C 2 70) Even in the absence of sperm, metabolic activity in an egg can be artificially activated by A) abnormally high levels of carbonic acid in the cytosol. B) abnormally low levels of extracellular oxygen. C) injection of calcium ions into the cytosol. D) exposure to the low pH of the uterus. E) depletion of its ATP supplies. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4

71) The formation of the fertilization membrane requires an increase in the availability of A) bicarbonate ions. B) calcium ions. C) hydrogen ions. D) potassium ions. E) sodium ions. Answer: B Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, V&C 2 72) What occurs 24 hours after a human zygote is formed? A) its first cell division B) organogenesis C) cleavage D) gastrulation Answer: A Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, V&C 2 73) A reproductive difference between sea urchins and humans is that A) the sea urchin egg completes meiosis prior to fertilization, but meiosis in humans is completed after fertilization. B) sea urchin eggs are produced by meiosis, but human eggs are produced by mitosis. C) sea urchin eggs and sperm are of equal size, but human eggs are much bigger than human sperm. D) sea urchins, but not humans, have a need to block polyspermy because only in sea urchins can there be more than one source of sperm to fertilize the eggs. E) sea urchin zygotes get their mitochondria from the sperm, but human zygotes get their mitochondria from the egg. Answer: A Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4

74) Fusion of egg and sperm membranes triggers ________, which then blocks polyspermy. A) mitosis B) membrane depolarization C) cleavage D) cortical reaction E) acrosomal reaction Answer: B Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4 V&C 2 75) During fertilization, the acrosomal contents A) block polyspermy. B) help propel more sperm toward the egg. C) digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg. D) nourish the mitochondria of the sperm. E) trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, V&C 2 76) The cortical reaction functions directly in the A) formation of a fertilization envelope. B) production of a fast block to polyspermy. C) release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell. D) generation of a nerve-like impulse by the egg cell. E) fusion of egg and sperm nuclei. Answer: A Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4

77) In sea urchins, the "fast block" and the longer-lasting "slow block" to polyspermy, respectively, are A) the acrosomal reaction and the formation of jelly coat. B) the cortical reaction and the formation of cortical granules. C) the jelly coat of the egg and the vitelline layer. D) membrane depolarization and the cortical reaction. E) inactivation of the sperm acrosome. Answer: D Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4 78) In mammals, the nuclei resulting from the union of the sperm and the egg are first truly diploid at the end of the A) acrosomal reaction. B) completion of spermatogenesis. C) initial cleavage. D) activation of the egg. E) completion of gastrulation. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4 79) Fertilization normally A) reinstates diploidy. B) follows gastrulation. C) merges two diploid cells into one haploid cell. D) precedes ovulation. Answer: A Topic: 36.1, 36.4 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom ; Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 36.1, 36.4, G2, G7

80) During the early part of the cleavage stage in many animal species, the rapidly developing cells skip A) the mitosis phase of the cell cycle. B) the S phase of the cell cycle. C) the G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle. D) the cytokinesis phase of the cell cycle. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4 81) Which of the following correctly displays the sequence of developmental milestones? A) blastula → gastrula → cleavage B) blastula → cleavage → gastrula C) cleavage → gastrula → blastula D) cleavage → blastula → gastrula E) gastrula → blastula → cleavage Answer: D Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4 82) What occurs during gastrulation? A) The sperm penetrates the egg. B) The blastula is formed. C) Rudimentary body organs develop. D) Three germ tissue layers are established. Answer: A Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4 83) The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is A) mesoderm → ectoderm → endoderm. B) mesoderm → endoderm → ectoderm. C) ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm. D) ectoderm → endoderm → mesoderm. E) endoderm → mesoderm → ectoderm. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, V&C 2 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

84) If gastrulation was blocked by an environmental toxin, then A) cleavage would not occur in the zygote. B) embryonic germ layers would not form. C) fertilization would be blocked. D) the blastula would not be formed. E) internal fertilization could not occur. Answer: B Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 36.4, G2 85) The archenteron of the developing sea urchin eventually develops into the A) reproductive organs. B) blastocoel. C) heart and lungs. D) digestive tract. E) brain and spinal cord. Answer: D Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, V&C 2 86) The vertebrate nervous system develops from the A) endoderm. B) mesoderm. C) ectoderm. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, V&C 2 87) The archenteron is an open space within the A) blastula. B) gastrula. C) diploblast. D) triploblast. E) zygote. Answer: B Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4

88) At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called a A) blastocyst. B) gastrula. C) fetus. D) placenta. E) zygote. Answer: A Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4 89) Thalidomide, now banned for use as a sedative in pregnancy, was used in the early 1960s by many women in their first trimester of pregnancy. Some of these women gave birth to children with arm and leg deformities, suggesting that the drug most likely influenced A) early cleavage divisions. B) determination of the polarity of the zygote. C) differentiation of bone tissue. D) morphogenesis. E) organogenesis. Answer: D Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.4, G2, G5 90) From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds in which of the following sequences? A) gastrulation → organogenesis → cleavage B) ovulation → gastrulation → fertilization C) cleavage → gastrulation → organogenesis D) gastrulation → morphogenesis → ovulation E) organogenesis → morphogenesis → cleavage Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4

91) Changes in both cell shape and cell position occur extensively during A) gastrulation, but not organogenesis or cleavage. B) organogenesis, but not gastrulation or cleavage. C) cleavage, but not gastrulation or organogenesis. D) gastrulation and organogenesis, but not cleavage. E) gastrulation, organogenesis, and cleavage. Answer: E Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.4, G2 92) Select the choice that correctly associates the organ with its embryonic sources. A) pituitary gland—mesoderm and endoderm B) thyroid gland—mesoderm and ectoderm C) adrenal gland (adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex)—ectoderm and mesoderm D) skin—endoderm and mesoderm E) jaws—mesoderm and endoderm Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, G7 93) The first cavity formed during sea urchin development is the A) blastopore. B) mouth. C) blastocoel. D) anus. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4 94) Human trophoblasts A) form the inner cell mass. B) form from ectoderm. C) are the precursors of the mesoderm. D) are of embryonic origin and function in embryo nutrition. E) are of maternal origin and function in embryo gas exchange. Answer: D Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.4, V&C 2 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

95) Assume that successful reproduction in a rare salamander species, wherein all individuals are females, relies on those females having access to sperm from males of another species but that the resulting embryos show no signs of a genetic contribution from the sperm. In this case, the sperm appear to be used only for A) morphogenesis. B) epigenesis. C) egg activation. D) cell differentiation. E) the creation of a diploid cell. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 36.4, G2, V&C 2 96) Obesity is directly related to low testosterone levels. Why would this be of concern for a male-female couple interested in having a baby? A) Testosterone is involved in sperm production, so obese males may be more likely to have infertility problems. B) Low testosterone levels in males will cause lower luteinizing hormone (LH) production in females during reproduction. C) Low testosterone levels in males will cause the adrenal glands to reduce production of other sex hormones. D) Low testosterone levels in males will cause their offspring to have delayed secondary sex characteristic development. Answer: A Topic: 36.2, 36.3, 36.4 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom; Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes; Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 36.2, 36.3, 36.4, G2, G5 97) Uterine fibroid tumors are benign tumors that grow in the wall of the uterus. These tumors may alter the shape of the uterine cavity, thereby potentially affecting A) the formation of the blastula. B) the S and M cycles of cleavage. C) proper implantation of the fertilized egg. D) frequency of polyspermy. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.4, G2, G5

98) Imagine a woman is in the final week of her pregnancy. Her doctor gives her an injection of oxytocin. The likely result of this is that the pregnant woman would A) undergo the loss of oxytocin receptors from her uterine smooth muscle cells. B) stop secreting prostaglandins from the placenta. C) undergo vigorous contractions of her uterine muscles. D) increase the synthesis and secretion of progesterone. E) be prevented from beginning lactation. Answer: C Topic: 36.4 Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 36.4, G2 99) How do some coral reefs reproduce? A) through asexual reproduction B) through sexual reproduction via male and female gametes from different coral "parents" C) through sexual reproduction via male and female gametes from the same coral "parent" Answer: B Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.1 100) A colony of a new species of bees is examined, and they are all determined to be genetically identical females. What reproductive process could have led to this result? A) sexual reproduction B) parthenogenesis C) fission D) budding Answer: B Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.1, G2 101) Researchers have observed that production of caribou offspring in Greenland has declined by 75% since 1993 because of climate change. What could researchers do in response to climate change to improve caribou reproductive success in Greenland? A) Cultivate additional plants that will sprout in timing when the caribou arrive. B) Build barns and stables with heaters to keep the mother caribou warm. C) Maintain the caribou in pens that artificially control the length of day and night. D) Ensure that no predators are in the area during the time that caribou mate. Answer: A Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.1, G2, G5

36.2 Art Questions

Figure 36.1 Some nonreproductive structures are labeled in parentheses for orientation purposes. 1) In Figure 36.1, which number corresponds to where fertilization normally takes place? A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 7 E) 13 Answer: C Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, G3, V&C 2

2) In Figure 36.1, which number corresponds to where IUDs are placed? A) 1 B) 3 C) 6 D) 8 E) 11 Answer: D Topic: 36.2, 36.3 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes; The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, 36.4, G2, G3, G5, V&C 2 3) In Figure 36.1, which numbers comprise the clitoris? A) 5, 10, 15 B) 7, 8, 9 C) 3, 4, 5 D) 9, 10, 11 E) 12, 13, 14 Answer: E Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2, G3 4) In Figure 36.1, which number corresponds to a structure that is most similar to the male penis? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 11 E) 12 Answer: E Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, G2, G3

Figure 36.2 5) In Figure 36.2, which number corresponds to a structure that is found in males but not females? A) 2 B) 5 C) 11 D) 13 E) 15 Answer: B Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, G2, G3, V&C 2 6) In Figure 36.2, which number corresponds to the structure that is severed in a vasectomy? A) 2 B) 7 C) 9 D) 15 E) 17 Answer: B Topic: Concept 36.2, 36.4 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes; Development of an egg into a mature embryo requires fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, 36.4, G2, G3, G5, V&C 2

7) In Figure 36.2, which number corresponds to the location where sperm mature? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 14 E) 13 Answer: C Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, G2, G3 8) What would be the effect if structure 6 in Figure 36.2 was surgically removed? A) Sperm would not be produced. B) The male sexual response would not occur. C) Ejaculations would not occur. D) Clear mucus would not be present in the semen. Answer: D Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, G2, G3, G5, V&C 2 9) In Figure 36.2, which numbers correspond to the vas deferens? A) 1, 4 B) 2, 6 C) 8, 13 D) 3, 7 E) 5, 12 Answer: D Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 36.2, G3, V&C 2 10) Sertoli cells are important for nourishing sperm. Where in Figure 36.2 are they located? A) 1 B) 4 C) 9 D) 11 Answer: C Topic: 36.2, 36.3 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes; The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, 36.3, G2, G3, V&C 2

11) In spermatogenesis, stem cells that eventually produce sperm are located near the outer edge of what location in Figure 36.2? A) 2 B) 9 C) 12 D) 13 Answer: B Topic: 36.2 Reproductive organs produce and transport gametes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.2, G2, G3, V&C 2 12)

Figure 36.3 According to Figure 36.3, what is a likely consequence if one or both negative feedback loops do not function properly? A) Androgen levels will not be maintained at optimal levels. B) Estrogen levels will not be maintained at optimal levels. C) Oogenesis will not occur as frequently. D) Mammalian reproduction will cease. Answer: A Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.3, G2, G3

13) The lizard species A. uniparens experiences varying sexual reproductive behaviors depending on hormone levels. The data in Figure 36.b are shown for the brown lizard in the images. What can you conclude from the data in the figure regarding this process? A) Female hormone levels and ovary size are positively correlated. B) Decreases in progesterone lead to "male-like" behaviors. C) Ovulation causes the gray lizard to change behavior. D) The brown lizard's behavior is consistent across hormone levels. Answer: A Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.1, G2, G3 14) The lizard species A. uniparens experiences varying sexual reproductive behaviors depending on hormone levels. The data in Figure 36.4b are shown for the brown lizard in the images. What do you think would happen to the brown lizard if progesterone levels stayed consistently low? A) The brown lizard would alternate between female and male-like. B) The brown lizard would always stay female. C) The brown lizard would always stay male-like. Answer: B Topic: 36.1 Both asexual and sexual reproduction occur in the animal kingdom Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.1, G2, G3 35 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

36.3 Scenario Questions Use the information below to answer the following questions. Normally the Y chromosome contains the SRY gene, and the X chromosomes lacks the SRY gene. The SRY gene directs the development of adult male characteristics such as a penis and testes, deeper voice, facial hair, and larger muscles. However, during meiosis, chromosomes exchange genetic material with one another through a process called homologous recombination. One outcome of homologous recombination is for an X chromosome to gain the SRY gene (referred to as X(SRY+)). Conversely, through the same process, it is possible for the Y chromosome to lose the SRY gene (referred to as Y(SRY-)). 1) What biological (chromosomal) gender and adult human characteristics would a zygote having an XX genotype have, assuming the recombination event described did not take place? A) male biological gender with male adult characteristics B) female biological gender with female adult characteristics C) male biological gender with female adult characteristics D) female biological gender with male adult characteristics Answer: B Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.3, G2, G5, G7 2) What biological (chromosomal) gender and adult human characteristics would a zygote having an XY genotype have? A) male biological gender with male adult characteristics B) female biological gender with female adult characteristics C) male biological gender with female adult characteristics D) female biological gender with male adult characteristics Answer: A Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.3, G2, G5, G7 3) What biological (chromosomal) gender and adult human characteristics would a zygote having an XX(SRY+) genotype have? A) male biological gender with male adult characteristics B) female biological gender with female adult characteristics C) male biological gender with female adult characteristics D) female biological gender with male adult characteristics Answer: D Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.3, G2, G5, G7

4) What biological (chromosomal) gender and adult human characteristics would a zygote having an XY(SRY-) genotype have? A) male biological gender with male adult characteristics B) female biological gender with female adult characteristics C) male biological gender with female adult characteristics D) female biological gender with male adult characteristics Answer: C Topic: 36.3 The interplay of tropic and sex hormones regulates reproduction in mammals Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 36.3, G2, G5, G7 36.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of these refers to parthenogenesis? A) An individual may change its sex. B) Groups of cells grow into new individuals. C) An organism is first a male and then a female. D) An egg develops without being fertilized. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in A) the formation of a fertilization envelope. B) the production of a fast block to polyspermy. C) the generation of an electrical impulse by the egg. D) the fusion of egg and sperm nuclei. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following is not properly paired? A) seminiferous tubule–cervix B) vas deferens–oviduct C) testosterone–estradiol D) scrotum–labia majora Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

4) Peaks of LH and FSH production occur during A) the menstrual flow phase of the uterine cycle. B) the beginning of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle. C) the period just before ovulation. D) the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) During human gestation, rudiments of all organs develop A) in the first trimester. B) in the second trimester. C) in the third trimester. D) during the blastocyst stage. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which of the following statements is true? A) All mammals have menstrual cycles. B) The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles. C) Estrous cycles are more frequent than menstrual cycles. D) Ovulation occurs before the endometrium thickens in estrous cycles. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) For which is the number the same in males and females? A) interruptions in meiotic divisions B) functional gametes produced by meiosis C) meiotic divisions required to produce each gamete D) different cell types produced by meiosis Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Which statement about human reproduction is false? A) Fertilization occurs in the oviduct. B) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis require different temperatures. C) An oocyte completes meiosis after a sperm penetrates it. D) The earliest stages of spermatogenesis occur closest to the lumen of the seminiferous tubules. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 37 Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling 37.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A simple nervous system A) must include chemical senses and vision. B) includes sensory information but no effectors. C) has information flow in only one direction: toward an integrating center. D) has information flow in only one direction: away from an integrating center. E) includes sensory information, an integrating center, and effectors. Answer: E Topic: 37.1 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.1, V&C 3 2) Most of the neurons in the human brain are A) sensory neurons. B) motor neurons. C) interneurons. Answer: C Topic: 37.1 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.1 3) The cell body of a neuron contains A) the nucleus and most organelles. B) dendrites. C) the axon. D) synaptic vesicles about to be released at the synapse. Answer: A Topic: 37.1 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.1, V&C 2 4) A synapse is A) a single long extension off the cell body of a neuron. B) the point of connection between two communicating neurons. C) one of many extensions off a cell body that receives signals from other neurons. D) the location where action potentials are generated. Answer: B Topic: 37.1 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.1, V&C 2

5) In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by A) the dendritic membrane. B) the presynaptic membrane. C) axon hillocks. D) cell bodies. Answer: B Topic: 37.1 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.1, V&C 2 6) Somatic motor neurons are used to transmit motor signals to muscles. For example, a somatic motor neuron carries a signal from your spinal cord to your biceps brachii so that you can flex your arm at the elbow. In this example, what is the correct sequence of neuronal structures that this signal would travel through in the motor neuron? A) dendrites, cell body, axon, axon hillock, synaptic terminals, biceps brachii B) dendrites, cell body, axon hillock, axon, synaptic terminals, biceps brachii C) axon, cell body, synaptic terminals, dendrites, axon hillock, biceps brachii D) synaptic terminals, dendrites, cell body, axon, axon hillock, biceps brachii Answer: B Topic: 37.1 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.1, G2, V&C 2, V&C 3 7) Although the membrane of a "resting" neuron is highly permeable to potassium ions, its membrane potential does not exactly match the equilibrium potential for potassium because the neuronal membrane is also A) fully permeable to sodium ions. B) slightly permeable to sodium ions. C) fully permeable to calcium ions. D) impermeable to sodium ions. E) highly permeable to chloride ions. Answer: B Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.2, V&C 2 8) The operation of the sodium-potassium "pump" moves sodium ions ________ the cell and potassium ions ________ the cell. A) into; out of B) out of; into C) into; into D) out of; out of Answer: B Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.2, V&C 2 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) A cation that is more abundant as a solute in the cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is A) HCO3-. B) Cl-. C) Ca2+. D) Na+. E) K+. Answer: E Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.2, G7 10) The membrane potential that exactly offsets an ion's concentration gradient is called the A) graded potential. B) threshold potential. C) equilibrium potential. D) action potential. E) inhibitory postsynaptic potential. Answer: C Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.2 11) ATP hydrolysis, and the binding of a phosphate to the pump, directly powers the movement of A) K+ out of cells. B) Na+ out of cells. C) Na+into cells. D) Ca2+ into cells. E) Cl- into cells. Answer: B Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.2

12) Two fundamental concepts about the ion channels of a "resting" neuron are that the channels A) are always open, but the concentration gradients of ions frequently change. B) are always closed, but ions move closer to the channels during excitation. C) open and close depending on stimuli and are specific as to which ion can traverse them. D) open and close depending on chemical messengers and are nonspecific as to which ion can traverse them. E) open in response to stimuli and then close simultaneously, in unison. Answer: C Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.2, V&C 2 13) Suppose you are a researcher examining the impacts of ion channels on resting membrane potential in typical neurons. By using a drug, you artificially open all sodium channels and keep all other ion channels closed. What value of the resting membrane potential should you observe? A) -90 mV B) -70 mV C) 0 mV D) +30 mV E) +62 mV Answer: E Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.2, G2, V&C 2 14) The selectivity of a particular ion channel refers to its A) permitting passage by positive but not negative ions. B) permitting passage by negative but not positive ions. C) ability to change its size depending on the ion needing transport. D) binding with only one type of neurotransmitter. E) permitting passage only to a specific ion. Answer: E Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.2, V&C 2 15) For a neuron with an initial membrane potential at -70 mV, an increase in the movement of potassium ions out of that neuro's cytoplasm would result in the A) depolarization of the neuron. B) hyperpolarization of the neuron. C) replacement of potassium ions with sodium ions. D) replacement of potassium ions with calcium ions. E) neuron switching on its sodium-potassium pump to restore the initial conditions. Answer: B Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) A graded hyperpolarization of a membrane can be induced by A) increasing its membrane's permeability to Na+. B) decreasing its membrane's permeability to H+. C) decreasing its membrane's permeability to Cl-. D) increasing its membrane's permeability to Ca2+. E) increasing its membrane's permeability to K+. Answer: E Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.3, G2 17) Self-propagation and refractory periods are typical of A) action potentials. B) graded hyperpolarizations. C) excitatory postsynaptic potentials. D) inhibitory postsynaptic potentials. E) resting potentials. Answer: A Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3 18) The "threshold" potential of a membrane is the A) maximum depolarization needed to operate sodium-potassium pumps. B) lowest frequency of action potentials a neuron can produce. C) minimum hyperpolarization needed to prevent the occurrence of action potentials. D) minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels. E) peak amount of depolarization seen in an action potential. Answer: D Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3 19) Action potentials move along axons A) more slowly in axons of large diameter as compared to those of small diameter. B) by the direct action of acetylcholine on the axonal membrane. C) by activating the sodium-potassium "pump" at each point along the axonal membrane. D) more rapidly in myelinated than in nonmyelinated axons. E) by reversing the concentration gradients for sodium and potassium ions. Answer: D Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3

20) A drug that specifically inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels in axons would be expected to A) prevent the hyperpolarization phase of the action potential. B) prevent the depolarization phase of the action potential. C) prevent graded potentials. D) increase the release of neurotransmitter molecules. E) have most of its effects on the dendritic region of a neuron. Answer: B Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.3, G2, V&C 2 21) After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by A) the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels. B) the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the closing of sodium channels. C) a decrease in the membrane's permeability to potassium and chloride ions. D) a brief inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump. E) the opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels. Answer: B Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3, V&C 2 22) The "undershoot" phase of after-hyperpolarization is due to A) slow opening of voltage-gated sodium channels. B) sustained opening of voltage-gated potassium channels. C) rapid opening of voltage-gated calcium channels. D) slow restorative actions of the sodium-potassium ATPase. E) ions that move away from their open ion channels. Answer: B Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3 23) When a membrane is in its refractory period, A) it is not possible to generate a second action potential. B) it is at the equilibrium potential. C) it is above threshold. D) all of its voltage-gated potassium channels are open. Answer: A Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3

24) An action potential can start in the middle of an axon and proceed to both opposite directions when A) the neuron is an inhibitory neuron and operating normally. B) only the middle section of the axon has been artificially stimulated by an electrode. C) the dendritic region fires an action potential. D) it is in its typical refractory state. E) its membrane potential is above the threshold. Answer: B Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.3, G2 25) The fastest possible conduction velocity of action potentials is observed in A) thin, nonmyelinated axons. B) thin, myelinated axons. C) thick, nonmyelinated axons. D) thick, myelinated axons. Answer: D Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.3, G2 26) In the sequence of permeability changes for a complete action potential, the first of these events that occurs is the A) activation of the sodium-potassium "pump." B) inhibition of the sodium-potassium "pump." C) opening of voltage-gated sodium channels. D) closing of voltage-gated potassium channels. E) opening of voltage-gated potassium channels. Answer: C Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3 27) Saltatory conduction is a term applied to A) conduction of impulses across electrical synapses. B) an action potential that skips the axon hillock when it moves from the dendritic region to the axon terminal. C) the rapid movement of an action potential reverberating back and forth along a neuron. D) jumping from one neuron to an adjacent neuron. E) jumping from one node of Ranvier to the next in a myelinated neuron. Answer: E Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3

28) Which of the following principles characterize gated ion channels in the neuronal membrane? Select all that apply. I. Channels are always open. II. Channels are always closed. III. Channels open and close depending on stimuli. IV. Channels are specific to which ions can traverse them. V. Channels are nonspecific to which ions can traverse them. A) I and V only B) II and IV only C) III and IV only D) II and V only E) III and V only Answer: C Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3 29) Researchers created a genetic strain of mice that were lacking both genes for MyRF, a transcription factor that is required for oligodendrocytes to function normally. What is the most likely effect that this would have on the mice? A) loss of salutatory conduction B) thicker myelin sheaths C) impaired ability for potassium ions to cross neuronal membranes D) growth of dendrites Answer: A Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.3, G2 30) Action potentials are normally carried in only one direction: from the axon hillock toward the axon terminals. If you experimentally depolarize the middle of the axon to threshold, then A) no action potential will be initiated. B) an action potential will be initiated and proceed only in the normal direction toward the axon terminal. C) an action potential will be initiated and proceed only back toward the axon hillock. D) two action potentials will be initiated, one going toward the axon terminal and one going back toward the hillock. E) an action potential will be initiated, but it will die out before it reaches the axon terminal. Answer: D Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.3, G2

31) The nervous system can alter the activities of skeletal muscle fibers because A) it is electrically coupled by gap junctions to the muscles. B) its signals bind to receptor proteins on the muscles. C) its signals reach the muscles via the blood. D) its light pulses activate contraction in the muscles. E) it is connected to the internal neural network of the muscles. Answer: B Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4, V&C 2 32) In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are received by A) the postsynaptic dendritic membrane. B) the postsynaptic axon membrane. C) the presynaptic dendritic membrane. D) the presynaptic axon membrane. Answer: A Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4, V&C 2 33) The surface on a neuron that discharges the contents of synaptic vesicles is the A) dendrite. B) axon hillock. C) node of Ranvier. D) postsynaptic membrane. E) presynaptic membrane. Answer: E Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4, V&C 2 34) Neural transmission across a mammalian synapse is accomplished by A) the movement of sodium and potassium ions from the presynaptic neuron into the postsynaptic neuron. B) impulses traveling as electrical currents across the synapse. C) impulses causing the release of a chemical signal and its diffusion across the synapse. D) impulses ricocheting back and forth across the synapse. E) the movement of calcium ions from the presynaptic into the postsynaptic neuron. Answer: C Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4

35) The observation that the acetylcholine released into the junction between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle binds to a sodium channel and opens it is an example of a A) voltage-gated sodium channel. B) voltage-gated potassium channel. C) ligand-gated sodium channel. D) second-messenger-gated sodium channel. E) chemical that inhibits action potentials. Answer: C Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4, V&C 2 36) If a membrane is made more permeable to ________, then an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) will occur. A) potassium ions B) sodium ions C) calcium ions Answer: A Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4 37) The following steps refer to various stages in transmission at a chemical synapse. 1. Neurotransmitters bind with receptors associated with the postsynaptic membrane. 2. Calcium ions rush into the neuron's cytoplasm. 3. An action potential depolarizes the membrane of the axon terminal. 4. The ligand-gated ion channels open. 5. The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. Which sequence of events is correct? A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5 B) 2 → 3 → 5 → 4 → 1 C) 3 → 2 → 5 → 1 → 4 D) 4 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 5 E) 5 → 1 → 2 → 4 → 3 Answer: C Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4, V&C 2

38) The activity of acetylcholine in a synapse is terminated by its A) active transport out of the synaptic cleft. B) diffusion across the presynaptic membrane. C) active transport across the postsynaptic membrane. D) diffusion across the postsynaptic membrane. E) degradation by a hydrolytic enzyme in the synaptic cleft. Answer: E Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4 39) Ionotropic receptors are found at synapses operated via A) ligand-gated ion channels. B) metabotropic receptors. C) inhibitory, but not excitatory, synapses. D) excitatory, but not inhibitory, synapses. Answer: A Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4 40) Neurotransmitters that hyperpolarize neuron membranes are categorized as A) excitatory. B) inhibitory. C) neutral. Answer: B Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4 41) ________ occurs when several excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) arrive at the axon hillock from different dendritic locations and then depolarize the postsynaptic cell to threshold for an action potential A) Temporal summation B) Spatial summation C) A normal action potential Answer: B Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4

42) ________ occurs when several inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) arrive at the axon hillock rapidly in sequence from a single dendritic location, hyperpolarizing the postsynaptic cell more and more and thus preventing an action potential. A) Temporal summation B) Spatial summation C) A normal action potential Answer: A Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4 43) Assume that a single IPSP has a negative magnitude of -0.5 mV at the axon hillock and that a single EPSP has a positive magnitude of +0.5 mV. For a neuron with an initial membrane potential of -70 mV, the net effect of the simultaneous arrival of six IPSPs and two EPSPs would be to move the membrane potential to A) -72 mV. B) -71 mV. C) -70 mV. D) -69 mV. E) -68 mV. Answer: A Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.4, G2, G4, V&C C2 44) Receptors for neurotransmitters are of primary functional importance in assuring one-way synaptic transmission because they are mostly found on the A) axonal membrane. B) axon hillock. C) postsynaptic dendritic membrane. D) presynaptic membrane. Answer: C Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4, V&C 2 45) Functionally, which cellular location is the neuron's "decision-making site" as to whether or not an action potential will be initiated? A) axonal membrane B) axon hillock C) dendritic membrane Answer: B Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4, V&C 2

46) Neurotransmitters affect postsynaptic cells by (select all that apply) I. initiating signal transduction pathways in the cells. II. causing molecular changes in the cells. III. affecting ion-channel proteins. IV. altering the permeability of the cells. A) II only B) I and III only C) II, III, and IV only D) I, II, and III only E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4 47) GABA is A) a chemical that affects neuronal function but is not stored in presynaptic vesicles. B) an amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the brain. C) a neuropeptide that might function as a natural analgesic. D) the major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the human brain. Answer: D Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4 48) An endorphin is A) a chemical that affects neuronal function but is not stored in presynaptic vesicles. B) an amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the brain. C) a neuropeptide that might function as a natural analgesic. D) the major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the human brain. Answer: C Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4 49) The botulinum toxin inhibits the synaptic release of A) acetylcholine. B) epinephrine. C) endorphin. D) nitric oxide. E) GABA. Answer: A Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4

50) The heart rate decreases in response to the arrival of A) acetylcholine. B) epinephrine. C) endorphin. D) nitric oxide. E) GABA. Answer: A Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4 51) Nitric oxide is A) a chemical that affects neuronal function but is not stored in presynaptic vesicles. B) an amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the brain. C) a neuropeptide that might function as a natural analgesic. D) the major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the human brain. Answer: A Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4 52) Motor neurons alter skeletal muscle activities by releasing neurotransmitters because A) they are electrically coupled by gap junctions to the muscles. B) their signals bind to receptor proteins on the muscles. C) their signals reach the muscles via the blood. D) their light pulses activate contraction in the muscles. E) they are connected to the internal neural network of the muscles. Answer: B Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4, V&C 2 53) Most of the synapses in vertebrates conduct information in only one direction A) as a result of the nodes of Ranvier. B) as a result of voltage-gated sodium channels found only in the vertebrate system. C) because vertebrate nerve cells have dendrites. D) because only the postsynaptic cells can bind and respond to neurotransmitters. E) because the sodium-potassium pump moves ions in one direction. Answer: D Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.4, V&C 2

54) Assume that excessive consumption of ethanol increases the influx of negative chloride ions into "commonsense" neurons whose action potentials are needed for you to act appropriately and not harm yourself or others. Thus, any resulting poor decisions associated with ethanol ingestion are likely due to A) increased membrane depolarization of "commonsense" neurons. B) increased membrane hyperpolarization of "commonsense" neurons. C) more action potentials in your "commonsense" neurons. D) more EPSPs in your "commonsense" neurons. E) fewer IPSPs in your "commonsense" neurons. Answer: B Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 37.4, G2, G5 55) The autonomic nervous system innervates cardiac muscle, smooth muscles, and glands and is analogous to the part of the nervous system that innervates skeletal muscle. What type of neuron would innervate structures via the autonomic nervous system? A) sensory neuron B) motor neuron C) interneuron Answer: B Topic: 37.1 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.1, G2, G7 56) Neurons can be classified according to structure as well as function. If a neuron has a single projection from the cell body, it is a unipolar neuron. If it has two projections, it is a bipolar neuron. Finally, if it has more than two projections, it is a multipolar neuron. What structural type of neuron is a motor neuron? A) unipolar neuron B) bipolar neuron C) multipolar neuron Answer: C Topic: 37.1 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.1, G2, V&C 2

57) Neurons can be classified according to structure as well as function. If a neuron has a single projection from the cell body, it is a unipolar neuron. If it has two projections, it is a bipolar neuron. Finally, if it has more than two projections, it is a multipolar neuron. What structural type of neuron is an interneuron? A) unipolar neuron B) bipolar neuron C) multipolar neuron Answer: C Topic: 37.1 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.1, G2, V&C 2 58) Alexander disease is a type of leukodystrophy in which myelin sheaths surrounding axons in the brain are destroyed. What type of cell is affected, and what is the outcome in Alexander disease? A) Schwann cells are affected, and action potential propagation is slowed. B) Oligodendrocytes are affected, and action potential propagation is slowed. C) Schwann cells are affected, and action potential propagation is sped up. D) Oligodendrocytes are affected, and action potential propagation is sped up. Answer: B Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.3, G2, G5, V&C 2 59) What will happen if a neuron membrane suddenly becomes permeable to chloride ions? A) Chloride ions will enter the neuron, and the membrane potential will become more negative. B) Chloride ions will enter the neuron, and the membrane potential will become more positive. C) Chloride ions will exit the neuron, and the membrane potential will become more negative. D) Chloride ions will exit the neuron, and the membrane potential will become more positive. Answer: A Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.2, G2, V&C 2

37.2 Art Questions

Figure 37.1 1) In Figure 37.1, the membrane potential is closest to the equilibrium potential for potassium at label A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: D Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.2, G2, G3

2) In Figure 37.1, the period in which voltage-gated potassium channels are open and hyperpolarization has yet to occur is at label A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: C Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3, G3 3) In Figure 37.1, the membrane's permeability to sodium ions is at its maximum at label A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: B Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.3, G2, G3 4) In Figure 37.1, the minimum graded depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels is indicated by the label A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: A Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3, G3 5) In Figure 37.1, at what point in the graph are sodium channels closed (or closing) and potassium channels opened? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 37.3 Action potentials are the signals conducted by axons Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.3, G3 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) In Figure 37.1, the neuronal membrane is at its resting potential at label A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: E Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 37.2, G3 7) In Figure 37.1, what could cause the membrane potential at label D to be even more negative? A) opening voltage-gated potassium channels B) opening voltage-gated sodium channels C) closing voltage-gated potassium channels Answer: A Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.2, G2, G3 8) In Figure 37.1, what could cause the membrane potential at label B to be even more positive? A) opening voltage-gated potassium channels B) opening voltage-gated sodium channels C) closing voltage-gated sodium channels Answer: A Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.2, G2, G3

Figure 37.2 9) Figure 37.2 shows many channels in a neuron membrane. The channel third from the left is a voltage-gated sodium channel. What would happen if this channel became blocked and thus unable to function? A) The cell's membrane potential would not change. B) The cell would hyperpolarize. C) The cell would depolarize. Answer: B Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.2, G2, G3, V&C 2 10) Figure 37.2 shows many proteins in a neuron membrane. The first protein on the left is a sodium-potassium pump. What would happen if this protein became blocked and thus unable to function? A) The cell's membrane potential would not change. B) The cell would hyperpolarize. C) The cell would depolarize. D) The potassium and sodium gradients would be eliminated. Answer: D Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.2, G2, G3, V&C 2

Figure 37.2 11) Suppose you are designing a drug to prevent action potential generation in neurons without compromising the ability of a neuron to receive information. What structure in Figure 37.2 should the drug target? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Topic: 37.1 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.1, G2, G3, V&C 2

12) Suppose you are studying a toxin from a new species of poisonous snake, and you find that neurons exposed to the toxin can initiate action potentials, but they cannot send electrical signals to other neurons. What structure in Figure 37.2 is the toxin targeting? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Topic: 37.1 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.1, G2, G3, V&C 2 37.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. The Arizona bark scorpion is the most venomous scorpion in North America, and its bite will cause extensive pain to a human that lasts up to three days. However, the southern grasshopper mouse is essentially immune to the sting of this scorpion and actually eats the scorpions as prey. Researchers have recently elucidated the neuronal reason for why the southern grasshopper mouse does not feel pain from bark scorpion venom. 1) The southern grasshopper mouse essentially does not feel pain when stung by the bark scorpion. What type of neuron is most likely affected in this scenario? A) interneuron B) motor neuron C) sensory neuron D) glial cells Answer: C Topic: 37.1 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.1, G2, V&C 2

2) When mice feel pain on their bodies, they lick that part of their body. Researchers injected bark scorpion venom into the hind paws of the common house mouse and the southern grasshopper mouse; they also injected 0.9% saline (essentially salt water) as a control. The researchers then observed how long the mice licked their paws. Which of the data sets depicted below do you think the researchers collected?

A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: D Topic: 37.1, 37.4 Neuron structure and organization reflect function in information transfer; Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 37.1, 37.4, G1, G2, G3

3) Researchers injected bark scorpion venom in mouse neurons (both a common house mouse and the southern grasshopper mouse) and measured how many action potentials were generated after the venom was introduced. Their data are shown below.

Based on these data, what effect do you think the venom is having on the grasshopper mouse? A) The venom is blocking voltage-gated sodium channels. B) The venom is blocking voltage-gated potassium channels. C) The venom is opening voltage-gated sodium channels. D) The venom is opening voltage-gated potassium channels. Answer: A Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 37.2, G1, G2, G3

4) Researchers injected bark scorpion venom in mouse neurons (both a common house mouse and the southern grasshopper mouse) and measured the flow of sodium ions across the cell membrane. Their data are shown below.

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Tetraethylammonium (TEA) is a potent neurotoxin that results in death from respiratory failure within 10 to 30 minutes. When a neuron is incubated with TEA, researchers observed that action potentials could be generated, but the membrane potential remained positive and never returned to the resting membrane potential. 5) What channel is TEA likely acting on? A) voltage-gated sodium channels B) voltage-gated potassium channels C) sodium potassium pumps D) chloride channels Answer: B Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.2, G2, G5, V&C 2 6) What channels could be opened that would counter the effects of TEA and allow the neuron to return to resting membrane potential? A) chloride channels B) calcium channels C) sodium channels D) There are no channels that can oppose the effects of TEA. Answer: A Topic: 37.2 Ion pumps and ion channels establish the resting potential of a neuron Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.2, G2, G5 Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Curare is a potent neurotoxin extracted from the Strychnos toxifera plant in Central and South America. Indigenous peoples of South America apply curare to arrows, which they used to hunt and kill animals. Curare acts at synapses between motor neurons and skeletal muscle cells. When a motor neuron synapses with a skeletal muscle cell, the skeletal muscle cell may be stimulated or inhibited just like postsynaptic neurons are. Curare acts by binding temporarily to acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic cell and prevents acetylcholine from binding. 7) What effect does curare likely have on the postsynaptic cell? A) It prevents voltage-gated sodium channels from opening. B) It hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic cell. C) It stimulates muscle contraction. D) It depolarizes the presynaptic cell. Answer: A Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 37.4, G2, G5 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Which of the following could be an effective treatment for curare poisoning? A) a drug that promotes acetylcholine reuptake into the presynaptic cells B) a drug that removes acetylcholine receptors from the postsynaptic cell C) a drug that inhibits acetylcholinesterase D) a drug that activates acetylcholinesterase Answer: C Topic: 37.4 Neurons communicate with other cells at synapses Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 37.4, G2, G5 37.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) What happens when a resting neuron's membrane depolarizes? A) There is a net diffusion of Na+ out of the cell. B) The equilibrium potential for K+ (EK) becomes more positive. C) The neuron's membrane voltage becomes more positive. D) The cell's inside is more negative than the outside. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) A common feature of action potentials is that they A) cause the membrane to hyperpolarize and then depolarize. B) can undergo temporal and spatial summation. C) are triggered by a depolarization that reaches threshold. D) move at the same speed along all axons. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Where are neurotransmitter receptors located? A) the nuclear membrane B) the nodes of Ranvier C) the postsynaptic membrane D) synaptic vesicle membranes Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction? A) Ions can flow along the axon in only one direction. B) Voltage-gated Na+ channels are inactivated during the refractory period. C) The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the axon. D) Voltage-gated channels for both Na+ and K+ open in only one direction. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Which of the following is a direct result of depolarizing the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal? A) Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open. B) Synaptic vesicles fuse with the membrane. C) Ligand-gated channels open, allowing neurotransmitters to enter the synaptic cleft. D) An EPSP or IPSP is generated in the postsynaptic cell. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Suppose a particular neurotransmitter causes an IPSP in postsynaptic cell X and an EPSP in postsynaptic cell Y. A likely explanation is that A) the threshold value in the postsynaptic membrane is different for cell X and cell Y. B) the axon of cell X is myelinated, but that of cell Y is not. C) only cell Y produces an enzyme that terminates the activity of the neurotransmitter. D) cells X and Y express different receptor molecules for this particular neurotransmitter. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 38 Nervous and Sensory Systems 38.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part of the animal, is apparent in A) Hydra. B) cnidarians. C) Planaria. D) sea stars. Answer: C Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.1 2) Which description of a glial cell and its function is correct? A) astrocytes—metabolize neurotransmitters and modulate synaptic effectiveness B) oligodendrocytes—produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the peripheral nervous system C) microglia—produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the central nervous system D) radial glia—the source of immunoprotection against pathogens E) Schwann cells—provide nutritional support to nonmyelinated neurons Answer: A Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.1, V&C 2 3) The cerebrospinal fluid is A) a filtrate of the blood. B) a secretion of glial cells. C) a secretion of interneurons. D) cytosol secreted from ependymal cells. E) a secretion of the hypothalamus. Answer: A Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.1

4) The blood-brain barrier A) filters the entry of solutes from the blood into the cerebrospinal fluid. B) is formed by oligodendrocytes. C) tightly regulates the intracellular environment of the CNS. D) uses chemical signals to communicate with the spinal cord. E) provides support to the brain tissue. Answer: A Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.1, V&C 2 5) What type of neuron would be abundant in the white matter in the brain and the white matter in the spinal cord? A) unmyelinated axons B) myelinated axons Answer: B Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.1 6) Cerebrospinal fluid can be described as all of the following except A) functioning in transport of nutrients and hormones through the brain. B) a product of the filtration of blood in the brain. C) formed from layers of connective tissue. D) functioning to cushion the brain. E) filling cavities in the brain called ventricles. Answer: C Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.1, V&C 2 7) The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic, or opposing, actions are the A) motor and sensory systems. B) sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. C) motor and sympathetic systems. D) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. Answer: B Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.1

8) Preparation for the "rest and digest" response includes activation of the ________ nervous system. A) sympathetic B) somatic C) sensory D) parasympathetic Answer: D Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.1 9) Suppose you were walking to class when all of a sudden your friend jumped out and scared you! What would you expect to observe with your nervous system? A) increased activity in all parts of the peripheral nervous system B) increased activity in the sympathetic division and decreased activity in the parasympathetic division C) decreased activity in the sympathetic division and increased activity in the parasympathetic division D) increased activity in the enteric nervous system Answer: B Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.1, G2, G5 10) The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated with A) resting and digesting. B) release of epinephrine into the blood. C) increased metabolic rate. D) fight-or-flight responses. E) intensive aerobic exercise. Answer: A Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.1 11) What nervous system components would you expect to find in a cephalized invertebrate such as a beetle? A) a nerve net B) nerve cords and transverse nerves C) a brain, ventral nerve cords, and segmental ganglia D) a brain, spinal cord, and sensory ganglia Answer: C Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.1 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Afferent neuronal systems include the A) sensory systems. B) entire peripheral nervous system. C) autonomic nervous system. D) parasympathetic nervous system. E) sympathetic nervous system. Answer: A Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.1 13) Imagine you are resting comfortably on a sofa after dinner. This could be described as a state with A) increased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems. B) decreased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems. C) decreased activity in the sympathetic nervous system and increased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems. D) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system and decreased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems. E) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, decreased activity in the parasympathetic nervous system, and increased activity in the enteric nervous system. Answer: C Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.1, G2, G5 14) The system that modulates excitation and inhibition of the smooth and cardiac muscles of the digestive, cardiovascular, and excretory systems is the A) central nervous system. B) motor system. C) autonomic nervous system. D) sensory system. Answer: C Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.1, V&C 2 15) What vertebrate brain structure coordinates the biological clock? A) pituitary gland B) hypothalamus C) cerebrum D) cerebellum E) thalamus Answer: B Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.2, V&C 2 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) The endogenous nature of biological rhythms is based on the observation that animals isolated from light and dark cues A) continue to have cycles of exactly 24 hours in duration. B) continue to have cycles of approximately 24 hours in duration–some more rapid, some slower. C) synchronize activity with whatever lighting cycle is imposed on them. D) cease having any biological rhythms. E) are independent of any genetic determinants. Answer: B Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.2 17) The bottlenose dolphin breathes air but can sleep in the ocean because it A) ceases breathing while sleeping and remains underwater. B) sleeps for only 30 minutes at a time, the maximum interval for which it can cease breathing. C) fills its swim bladder with air to keep its blowhole above the surface of the water while it sleeps. D) moves to shallow water to sleep, so it does not need to swim to keep its blowhole above the surface of the water. E) alternates which half of its brain is asleep and which half is awake. Answer: E Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.2 18) The telencephalon region of the developing brain of a mammal A) develops as the neural tube differentiates. B) develops from the midbrain. C) is the brain region most like that of ancestral vertebrates. D) gives rise to the cerebrum. Answer: D Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.2

19) Juan is a 67-year-old male who has been diagnosed with a brain tumor. Notably, Juan experiences rapid fluctuations in his heart rate even when at rest. Where is his tumor likely located? A) corpus callosum B) medulla oblongata C) thalamus D) pituitary E) cerebellum Answer: B Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.2, G2, G5, V&C 2 20) Amar is a 67-year-old male who has been diagnosed with a brain tumor. Notably, Amar experiences rapid fluctuations in his breathing patterns even when at rest. Where is his tumor likely located? A) thalamus B) cerebellum C) medulla oblongata D) corpus callosum E) cerebrum Answer: C Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.2, G2, G5, V&C 2 21) Which of the following structures are correctly paired? A) forebrain and medulla oblongata B) forebrain and cerebellum C) midbrain and cerebrum D) hindbrain and cerebellum E) brainstem and anterior pituitary gland Answer: D Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.2 22) Hormones that are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland are made in the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) thalamus. D) hypothalamus. E) medulla oblongata. Answer: D Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.2 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) The coordination of groups of skeletal muscles is driven by activity in the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) thalamus. D) hypothalamus. E) medulla oblongata. Answer: B Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.2 24) The regulation of body temperature derives from the activity of the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) thalamus. D) hypothalamus. E) medulla oblongata. Answer: D Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.2, V&C 2 25) The regulatory centers for the respiratory and circulatory systems are found in the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) thalamus. D) hypothalamus. E) medulla oblongata. Answer: E Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.2, V&C 2 26) Suppose a person could go days between eating but not feel hungry. What part of his or her brain may be affected? A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) thalamus D) hypothalamus E) medulla oblongata Answer: D Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.2, G2, G5, V&C 2

27) The suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in the A) thalamus. B) hypothalamus. C) epithalamus. D) amygdala. E) Broca's area. Answer: B Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.2 28) How does fMRI measure brain activity? A) by measuring changes in oxygen concentration B) by measuring changes in pressure C) by measuring changes in blood flow D) by measuring changes in temperature Answer: A Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.2, G5 29) What would you expect to see in an fMRI analysis of person who is experiencing hunger? A) large changes in oxygen concentration in the cerebellum B) small changes in oxygen concentration in the limbic system C) large changes in oxygen concentration in the hypothalamus D) small changes in oxygen concentration in the cerebrum Answer: C Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.2, G2, G5 30) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) is a psychedelic drug that stimulates the reward pathway. Which of the following is a possible mechanism of how it affects neurons? A) LSD molecules act as an agonist and bind to dopamine receptors. B) LSD molecules block the release of dopamine from axon terminals. C) LSD molecules catalyze the breakdown of dopamine in the synaptic cleft. D) LSD molecules promote the reuptake of dopamine into the presynaptic neuron. Answer: A Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.2, G2, G5, G7

31) A researcher is interested in determining whether mice can remember the location of a piece of cheese in a maze. Which of the following would be the best experiment to perform to test the hypothesis that the limbic system is involved? A) Place a healthy mouse and a mouse with a disrupted hippocampus in a maze, and allow them to find the cheese in the center of the maze. Repeat the next day, and measure the time it takes for the mice to find the cheese. B) Place a healthy mouse and a mouse with a disrupted cerebellum in a maze, and allow them to find the cheese in the center of the maze. Measure how long it took each mouse to find the cheese. C) Perform an fMRI on a healthy mouse after allowing it to find the cheese in the center of the maze. D) Place a mouse with a disrupted amygdala in the maze, and allow it to find the cheese at the center of the maze. Repeat the next day, but this time put a bowl of water in the center of the maze, and measure how long it takes the mouse to find the water. Answer: A Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 38.2, G1, G2 32) Sheila is a 29-year-old female who suffered a brain injury in a car accident. After the accident she had trouble with calculation, contemplation, and cognition. What part of the brain did Sheila likely injure? A) pituitary gland B) hypothalamus C) cerebrum D) cerebellum E) spinal cord Answer: C Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.3, G2, G5, V&C 2 33) An organism that lacks neurons that perform integration A) cannot receive stimuli. B) will not have a nervous system. C) will not be able to interpret stimuli. D) can be expected to lack myelinated neurons. Answer: C Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.1, G2, V&C 2

34) The motor cortex is part of the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) spinal cord. D) midbrain. E) medulla oblongata. Answer: A Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.3 35) In mammals, advanced cognition is usually correlated with a large and very convoluted cerebral cortex, but birds are capable of sophisticated cognition because they have A) a more advanced cerebellum. B) a cerebellum with several flat layers. C) a pallium with neurons clustered into nuclei. D) microvilli to increase the brain's surface area. Answer: C Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.3 36) Josue is a 55-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with speaking, even though he can understand language (as evidenced by his ability to write thoughtful responses after someone asks him a question). What part of his brain is likely affected? A) Broca's area B) Wernicke's area C) amygdala D) hippocampus E) somatosensory cortex Answer: A Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.3, G2, G5, V&C 2 37) Choose the correct match of brain structure with one of its primary functions. A) frontal lobe—decision making B) occipital lobe—control of skeletal muscles C) temporal lobe—visual processing D) cerebellum—language comprehension E) occipital lobe—speech production Answer: A Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.3, V&C 2

38) If you were writing an essay, the part(s) of your brain that would be actively involved in this task would be A) the temporal and frontal lobes. B) the parietal lobe. C) the temporal lobe only. D) the frontal lobe only. E) the occipital lobe. Answer: A Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.3, G2 39) Wernicke's area A) is active when speech is heard and comprehended. B) is active during the generation of speech. C) coordinates the response to olfactory sensation. D) is active when you are reading silently. E) is found on the right side of the brain. Answer: A Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.3, V&C 2 40) Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the A) brainstem. B) medulla. C) hypothalamus. D) hippocampus. Answer: D Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.3, V&C 2 41) Forming new long-term memories is strikingly disrupted after damage to the A) thalamus. B) hypothalamus. C) hippocampus. D) somatosensory cortex. E) primary motor cortex. Answer: C Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.3, V&C 2

42) When Phineas Gage had a metal rod driven into his frontal lobe, he experienced A) loss of the ability to reason. B) loss of all short-term memory. C) greatly altered emotional responses. D) loss of all long-term memory. E) loss of his sense of balance. Answer: C Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.3, V&C 2 43) A football player suffered a hard hit to the back of his head, and he "saw stars." What region of his brain was affected? A) occipital lobe B) frontal lobe C) temporal lobe D) parietal lobe Answer: A Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.3, G2, G5, V&C 2 44) A researcher is interested in determining whether mice can remember the location of a piece of cheese in a maze. Which of the following results best supports the hypothesis that mice can remember the location of the cheese? A) an increase in the number of synapses between neurons in the hippocampus B) an increase in the number of synapses between neurons in the hypothalamus C) a decrease in the number of synapses between neurons in the hypothalamus D) a decrease in the number of synapses between neurons in the hippocampus Answer: A Topic: 38.2, 38.3 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized ; The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 38.2, 38.3, G2 45) A ligand for the umami receptor in the sense of taste is A) glucose. B) sodium ions. C) potassium ions. D) hydrogen ions. E) monosodium glutamate. Answer: E Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.4 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) The olfactory bulbs are located A) close to the back of the brain. B) close to the thalamus. C) close to the medulla oblongata. D) close to the front of the brain. Answer: D Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.2 47) The correct sequence of sensory processing is A) sensory adaptation → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception. B) stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation. C) sensory perception → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory adaptation. D) sensory perception → sensory transduction → stimulus reception → sensory adaptation. E) stimulus reception → sensory perception → sensory adaptation → sensory transduction. Answer: B Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.4 48) Eating habanero peppers (which are very spicy!) would activate what type of channel? A) calcium channels sensitive to cold temperature B) calcium channels sensitive to hot temperature C) sodium channels sensitive to cold temperature D) sodium channels sensitive to hot temperature Answer: B Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.4, G2, G5, V&C 2 49) Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's menthol-sensitive neurons would likely produce the sensation of A) cold temperature. B) hot temperature. C) tactile stimulus. D) odor of pepper. E) deep pressure. Answer: A Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.4

50) Tastes and smells are distinct kinds of environmental information in that A) odorants are airborne, and tastants are present in fluids. B) humans can detect many more types of tastants than odorants. C) distinguishing tastant molecules requires learning, whereas smell discrimination is an innate process. D) odorants bind to receptor proteins, but none of the tastant stimuli will bind to receptors. Answer: A Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.4 51) Stimuli alter the activity of excitable sensory cells via A) integration. B) transmission. C) transduction. D) amplification. Answer: C Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.4 52) Choose the correct sequence of the following events leading to the sensory processing of a stimulus. 1. adaptation 2. perception 3. transduction 4. transmission A) 3 → 2 → 1 → 4 B) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3 C) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4 D) 3 → 4 → 2 → 1 E) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 Answer: D Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.4

53) Immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin might feel itchy. However, this perception soon fades due to A) sensory adaptation. B) accommodation. C) the increase of transduction. D) reduced motor unit recruitment. E) reduced receptor amplification. Answer: A Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.4, G2 54) A given photon of light may trigger an action potential with thousands of times more energy because the signal strength is magnified by A) the receptor. B) an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. C) sensory adaptation. D) triggering several receptors at once. Answer: C Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.4 55) The generation of action potentials in olfactory neurons initiated by odors drawn into the nasal cavity is an example of A) perception. B) sensory transduction. C) sensory adaptation. D) amplification. Answer: B Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.4

56) Umami perception would be stimulated by A) sugar water. B) chocolate milk. C) a savory and rich cheese. D) acidic orange juice. E) salt water. Answer: C Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.4 57) Proteins coded by a very large family of related genes are active in the sensory transduction of A) gustatory stimuli. B) olfactory stimuli. C) visual stimuli. D) auditory stimuli. Answer: B Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.4 58) After earning an A in your biology course, your instructor gives you a firm handshake. You can feel the deep pressure of the handshake, and it is so strong it even starts to hurt a little. What type(s) of receptor was (were) activated by the handshake? A) mechanoreceptors only B) thermoreceptors only C) nociceptors only D) thermoreceptors and nociceptors E) mechanoreceptors and nociceptors Answer: E Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.4, G2, V&C 2

59) Statocysts contain cells that are A) mechanoreceptors used to detect orientation relative to gravity. B) chemoreceptors used in selecting migration routes. C) photoreceptors used in setting biological rhythms. D) thermoreceptors used in prey detection. E) chemoreceptors used in acid-base balance. Answer: A Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5, V&C 2 60) A lobster without a statocyst would not be able to A) eat and digest prey. B) sense lightness and darkness. C) sense vibrations in the water. D) know which way is up and which is down. Answer: D Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.5, V&C 2 61) The cellular membrane across which ion flow varies during auditory transduction is the A) tectorial membrane. B) tympanic membrane. C) hair cell membrane. D) basilar membrane. Answer: C Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5, V&C 2 62) Sound waves arriving at a listener first strike the A) tectorial membrane. B) tympanic membrane. C) hair cell membrane. D) basilar membrane. Answer: B Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5

63) The pathway leading to the perception of sound by mammals begins with the A) hair cells of the organ of Corti, which rests on the basilar membrane, coming in contact with the tectorial membrane. B) hair cells of the organ of Corti, which rests on the tympanic membrane, coming in contact with the tectorial membrane. C) hair cells of the organ of Corti, which rests on the tectorial membrane, coming in contact with the basilar membrane. D) hair cells of the organ of Corti coming in contact with the tectorial membrane as a result of fluid waves in the cochlea causing vibrations in the round window. E) hair cells on the tympanic membrane as a result of fluid waves in the cochlea causing vibrations in the round window. Answer: A Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5, V&C 2 64) The cochlea is an organ of auditory transduction that contains A) fluid and cells that can undergo mechanosensory transduction. B) air and cells that produce wax. C) air and small bones that vibrate in response to sound waves. D) fluid with stacks of chemosensory cells. E) air and statocysts activated by movement. Answer: A Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5 65) Dizziness is a perceived sensation that can occur when A) the hair cells in the cochlea move more than their normal limits. B) moving fluid in the semicircular canals encounters a stationary cupula. C) the basilar membrane makes physical contact with the tectorial membrane. D) the utricle is horizontal but the saccule is vertical. Answer: B Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5

66) The perceived pitch of a sound depends on A) which part of the tympanic membrane is being vibrated by sound waves. B) which part of the oval window produces waves in the cochlear fluid. C) which region of the basilar membrane was set in motion. D) whether or not the sound moves the incus, malleus, and stapes. Answer: C Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5, V&C 2 67) The sand grains or other dense materials resting on mechanoreceptors used by most invertebrates to sense gravity are called A) cochlea. B) statoliths. C) otoliths. D) pinnae. Answer: B Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5 68) It can be very difficult to select an angle for sneaking up to a grasshopper to catch it because grasshoppers have A) excellent hearing for detecting predators. B) compound eyes with multiple ommatidia. C) eyes with multiple fovea. D) a camera-like eye with a single fovea. Answer: B Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.6, G2, V&C 2 69) Sensory transduction of light/dark information in the vertebrate retina is accomplished by A) ganglion cells. B) amacrine cells. C) bipolar cells. D) horizontal cells. E) rods and cones. Answer: E Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.6, V&C 2

70) Rods exposed to light will A) depolarize due to the opening of sodium channels. B) hyperpolarize due to the closing of sodium channels. C) depolarize due to the opening of potassium channels. D) hyperpolarize due to the closing of potassium channels. Answer: B Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.6, V&C 2 71) A cone exposed to light will A) undergo a graded depolarization that will increase its release of glutamate. B) undergo a graded hyperpolarization that will increase its release of glutamate. C) undergo a graded depolarization that will decrease its release of glutamate. D) undergo a graded hyperpolarization that will decrease its release of glutamate. Answer: D Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.6, V&C 2 72) In the human retina, A) cone cells can detect color, but rod cells cannot. B) cone cells are more sensitive than rod cells to light. C) cone cells, but not rod cells, have a visual pigment. D) rod cells are most highly concentrated in the center of the retina. E) rod cells require higher illumination for stimulation than do cone cells. Answer: A Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.6 73) A patient has been diagnosed with a tumor that has destroyed the center of her optic chiasm. How has this affected her vision? A) She is blind. B) She can only see out of her left eye. C) She can only see out of her right eye. D) She has a limited field of view in each eye. E) She has normal vision. Answer: D Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.6, G2, G5, V&C 2

74) Raccoons are most active from dusk until dawn. What kinds of cells would you expect to find in the retina of a raccoon? A) a high density of cones at the fovea B) an equal mixture of cones and rods C) three or more types of cones in large quantities D) many more rods than cones Answer: D Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.6, G2 75) While on an African safari, you squint into the distance in order to get a better view of an elephant. What is happening in your eye to allow you to focus on the elephant? A) The iris is opening to allow more light into the pupil. B) The iris is closing to allow less light into the pupil. C) The lens is becoming flatter. D) The lens is becoming more spherical. Answer: C Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.6, G2, G5 76) Experiments with genetically altered mice showed that the mice would consume abnormally high amounts of bitter-tasting compounds in water after their A) hormone receptors for digestive hormones were reduced or eliminated, showing that bitter tastes are reinforced by digestive responses. B) salt-taste cells were altered to express receptors for bitter tastants, suggesting that animals have unregulated salt appetites. C) visual sense was reduced or eliminated, suggesting that mice learn visual cues about bitter tastes. D) olfactory sense was reduced or eliminated, suggesting that mice learn odor cues about bitter tastes. E) sweet-taste cells were altered to express receptors for bitter tastants, suggesting that the sensation of taste depends only on which taste cell is stimulated. Answer: E Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 38.4, G2

77) Optic neuritis is a condition where the optic nerve is inflamed, leading to loss of the myelin sheath surrounding the optic nerve. What is the likely outcome of optic neuritis? A) The eye will be unable to focus on distant objects. B) Action potentials will travel slower through the optic nerve, and vision will be impaired. C) The right side of the visual field will be transposed with the left. D) Rods and cones will be more sensitive to light. Answer: D Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.6, G2, G5, G7, V&C 2 38.2 Art Questions

Figure 38.1 1) A person is having trouble deciphering emotions. Which structure labeled in Figure 38.1 would be affected? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.2, G2, G3, G5, V&C 2

2) A woman suffered damage to her brain such that sensory information cannot travel from the brainstem to the cerebrum. Which structure labeled in Figure 38.1 is affected? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.2, G2, G3, G5, V&C 2 3) One day, a man woke up and was unable to smell anything around him. Which structure labeled in Figure 38.1 may be affected? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.2, G2, G3, G5, V&C 2 4) A woman suffered a brain injury such that she is having trouble with short-term memory formation and recollection. Which structure labeled in Figure 38.1 may be affected? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.2, G2, G3, G5, V&C 2

5) A man suffered a brain injury such that his body temperature was poorly regulated to the extent that he would sweat even in the frigid cold. Which structure labeled in Figure 38.1 may be affected? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.2, G2, G3, G5, V&C 2 6)

Figure 38.2 The structure diagrammed in Figure 38.2 is a(n) A) rod. B) statocyst. C) taste bud. D) cone. E) olfactory bulb. Answer: B Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5, G3

Figure 38.3 7) The structure involved in equalizing the pressure between the ear and the atmosphere is represented in Figure 38.3 by number A) 7. B) 1. C) 8. D) 9. E) 10. Answer: C Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5, G3, V&C 2 8) The sense of head motion begins with sensory transduction by the structure(s) in Figure 38.3 at which number(s)? A) 2, 3, and 4 only B) 2, 5, and 7 only C) 4 only D) 5 only E) 7 and 8 only Answer: D Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5, G3

9) Vibrations of the tympanic membrane are transmitted to the oval window by the structure(s) in Figure 38.3 at which number(s)? A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only B) 2, 3, and 4 only C) 3 and 4 only D) 4 only E) 5 only Answer: B Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5, G3 10) Excessive sound levels can damage the mechanoreceptors in the ear, leading to hearing loss. What numbered structure in Figure 38.3 would be affected in this case? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: E Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.5, G2, G3, G5, V&C 2 11) Hair cells are found in the structures represented by which two numbers in Figure 38.3? A) 1 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 5 and 7 D) 6 and 8 E) 9 and 10 Answer: C Topic: 38.5 In hearing and equilibrium, mechanoreceptors detect moving fluid or settling particles Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 38.5, G3

12) This is the trans isomer of retinal. Where would it be bound to the opsin protein, and why?

A) Retinal would be found at the cytosolic side of opsin because it is hydrophilic. B) Retinal would be found at the cytosolic side of opsin because it is mostly hydrophobic. C) Retinal would be found in the transmembrane core of opsin because it is mostly hydrophobic. D) Retinal would be found in the transmembrane core of opsin because it is hydrophilic. Answer: C Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.6, G2, G3, G7 13)

Which of the PET images above shows high levels of activity in the occipital lobe? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.2, G2, G3 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

14) Macular degeneration is a medical condition that results in no vision or blurred vision at the center of the visual field and can be caused by aging, smoking, and hypertension. What structure is most affected in macular degeneration? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.6, G2, G5, V&C 2

15) Cataracts are a medical condition that result in clouding of the eye structure that focuses light and can be caused by aging, trauma, and radiation. What structure is most affected in cataracts? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.6, G2, G5, V&C 2 16) Mydriasis is a medical condition in which the pupils remain dilated even when exposed to light. What structure is most affected in mydriasis? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 38.6 The diverse visual receptors of animals depend on light-absorbing pigments Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.6, G2, G5, V&C 2

17) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that results in skeletal muscle wasting and weakness. What lobe is most affected in ALS? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: A Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.3, G2, G5, V&C 2 18) Cortical deafness is a rare form of hearing loss where the patient is unable to hear sounds without any damage to the anatomy of the ear. What lobe is most affected in cortical deafness? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Topic: 38.3 The cerebral cortex controls voluntary movement and cognitive functions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.3, G2, G5, V&C 2

38.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the questions below. The southern grasshopper mouse feeds regularly on the Arizona bark scorpion, the most venomous scorpion in the United States. While attempting to capture the scorpion, the mouse usually gets stung multiple times by the scorpion but does not seem to be affected. 1) What type of sensory receptor in the mouse seems to be immune to the scorpion's sting and venom? A) thermoreceptors B) chemoreceptors C) electromagnetic receptors D) nociceptors Answer: D Topic: 38.4 Sensory receptors transduce stimulus energy and transmit signals to the central nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.4, G2 2) While attempting to capture the scorpion, the mouse's heart rate increases, and there is an increase in epinephrine in the mouse's blood. What nervous system division is responsible for the mouse's physiological state? A) enteric B) sensory C) sympathetic D) parasympathetic Answer: C Topic: 38.1 Nervous systems consist of circuits of neurons and supporting cells Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.1, G2 3) A sensation of hunger triggers the mouse to leave its den to hunt the scorpions. Where would you expect to see a high level of activity in the mouse's brain when it feels hungry? A) on the outer edges B) near the middle C) at the bottom D) only on the left side Answer: B Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 38.2, G2

4) What would be the best experiment to conduct to determine if the grasshopper mouse is unique among mouse species in that it does not feel pain when stung by the bark scorpion? A) Inject a grasshopper mouse with bark scorpion venom, and measure its brain activity in regards to pain reception. Then inject the same grasshopper mouse with other venoms, and measure its pain response. B) Inject other species of mice with bark scorpion venom, and measure their brain activity in regards to pain reception. Compare their pain responses to that of the grasshopper mouse. C) Inject a grasshopper mouse with bark scorpion venom, and measure its brain activity in regards to pain reception. Then inject the same grasshopper mouse with a benign salt solution, and measure its pain response. D) Inject other species of mice with bark scorpion venom, and measure their brain activity in regards to pain reception. Compare their pain responses to that of the grasshopper mouse and also to their level of pain response when injected with a benign salt solution. Answer: D Topic: 38.2 The vertebrate brain is regionally specialized Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 38.2, G1, G2 38.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Patients with damage to Wernicke's area have difficulty A) coordinating limb movement. B) generating speech. C) recognizing faces. D) understanding language. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The cerebral cortex does not play a major role in A) short-term memory. B) long-term memory. C) circadian rhythm. D) breath holding. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The middle ear converts A) air pressure waves to fluid pressure waves. B) air pressure waves to nerve impulses. C) fluid pressure waves to nerve impulses. D) pressure waves to hair cell movements. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) If the following events are arranged in the order in which they occur for an animal hiding and holding still in response to seeing a predator, which is the fourth event in the series? A) signaling by an afferent PNS neuron B) signaling by an efferent PNS neuron C) information processing in the CNS D) activation of a sensory receptor Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Injury to just the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt A) regulation of body temperature. B) short-term memory. C) executive functions, such as decision making. D) sorting of sensory information. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Which sensory distinction is not encoded by a difference in which axon transfers the information to the brain? A) white and red B) red and green C) loud and faint D) salty and sweet Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 39 Motor Mechanisms and Behavior 39.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Ruminant animals such as cows regurgitate their food and chew it (the "cud") seemingly nonstop all day long. What type of muscle fibers would you expect to find in their masticatory muscles? A) oxidative fast-twitch B) oxidative slow-twitch C) glycolytic fast-twitch D) smooth muscle Answer: B Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.1, G2 2) The contraction of skeletal muscles is based on A) actin filaments coiling up to become shorter. B) myosin filaments coiling up to become shorter. C) actin cross-bridges binding to myosin and transitioning from a high-energy to a low-energy state. D) myosin cross-bridges binding to actin and transitioning from a high-energy to a low-energy state. Answer: D Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.1, V&C 2 3) Compared to glycolytic skeletal muscle fibers, those classified as oxidative typically have A) a lower concentration of myoglobin. B) a lower density of mitochondria. C) a lighter visual appearance. D) a smaller diameter. Answer: D Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.1

4) Myasthenia gravis is a form of muscle paralysis in which A) motor neurons lose their myelination and the ability to rapidly fire action potentials. B) acetylcholine receptors are recognized by antibodies and destroyed by an overactive immune system. C) ATP production becomes uncoupled from mitochondrial electron transport. D) the spinal cord is infected with a virus that attacks muscle stretch receptors. E) troponin molecules become unable to bind calcium ions. Answer: B Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.1, G5 5) Suppose the rectus femoris, one of the quadriceps muscles in your anterior thigh, has been deprived of ATP. Rectus femoris will A) immediately relax. B) release all actin-myosin bonds. C) enter a state where actin and myosin are unable to separate. D) fire many more action potentials than usual and enter a state of "rigor." E) sequester all free calcium ions into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: C Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.1, G2 6) What does troponin bind to during excitation of muscle contraction? A) calcium ions B) sodium ions C) ATP D) ADP E) phosphate Answer: A Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.1 7) The "motor unit" in vertebrate skeletal muscle refers to A) one actin binding site and its myosin partner. B) one sarcomere and all of its actin and myosin filaments. C) one myofibril and all of its sarcomeres. D) one motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers on which it has synapses. E) an entire muscle. Answer: D Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.1

8) The muscles of a recently deceased animal can remain in a contracted state, termed rigor mortis, for several hours due to the lack of A) phosphorylated myosin. B) ATP needed to break actin-myosin bonds. C) calcium ions needed to bind to troponin. D) oxygen supplies needed for myoglobin. E) sodium ions needed to fire action potentials. Answer: B Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.1, G2 9) Calcium ions initiate sliding of filaments in skeletal muscles by A) breaking the actin-myosin cross-bridges. B) binding to the troponin complex, which causes tropomyosin to move and thus expose myosinbinding sites. C) transmitting action potentials across the neuromuscular junction. D) spreading action potentials through the T tubules. E) reestablishing the resting membrane potential following an action potential. Answer: B Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.1 10) Muscle cells are stimulated by neurotransmitters released from the synaptic terminals of A) motor neuron axons. B) sensory neuron axons. C) motor neuron dendrites. D) sensory neuron dendrites. Answer: A Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.1 11) In a relaxed skeletal muscle, actin is bound to A) myosin only. B) troponin only. C) tropomyosin and troponin only. D) tropomyosin, troponin, and myosin. Answer: C Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.1

12) Skeletal muscle contraction begins when calcium ions bind to A) myosin. B) actin. C) tropomyosin. D) troponin. Answer: D Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.1 13) A skeletal muscle with abnormally low levels of calcium ions would be impaired in A) ATP hydrolysis. B) the initiation of an action potential. C) maintaining its resting membrane potential. D) initiating contraction. E) its ability to sustain glycolysis. Answer: D Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.1, G2 14) Which of the following is the correct sequence that describes the excitation and contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber? 1. Tropomyosin moves and uncovers the cross-bridge binding sites. 2. Calcium is released and binds to the troponin complex. 3. Transverse tubules depolarize the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 4. The thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments by the heads of the myosin molecules using energy from ATP. 5. An action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release acetylcholine, which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane. A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5 B) 2 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 4 C) 2 → 3 → 4 → 1 → 5 D) 5 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 4 E) 5 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 4 Answer: E Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.1, G2, V&C 2

15) What do skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle have in common? A) A bands and I bands B) transverse tubules C) gap junctions D) motor units E) thick and thin filaments Answer: E Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.1 16) Calcium ions regulate contraction of smooth muscle cells by binding to A) troponin. B) tropomyosin. C) actin. D) myosin. E) calmodulin. Answer: E Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.1, V&C 2 17) What force(s) must animals overcome in order to move? A) friction only B) gravity only C) inertia only D) friction and gravity only E) friction and inertia only Answer: D Topic: 39.2 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.2 18) The hydrostatic skeleton of the earthworm allows it to move around in its environment by A) walking on its limbs. B) crawling with its feet. C) swimming. D) using peristaltic contractions of its circular and longitudinal muscles. E) alternating contractions and relaxations of its smooth muscle. Answer: D Topic: 39.2 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.2

19) A hydrostatic skeleton is a A) hardened internal skeleton buried in soft tissues. B) hard covering deposited on an animal's surface. C) skeleton that consists of fluid held under pressure in a closed body compartment. Answer: C Topic: 39.2 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.2 20) What bones unite to form the knee joint in humans? A) femur and fibula only B) femur and tibia only C) tibia and fibula only D) tibia, fibula, and femur Answer: B Topic: 39.2 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.2, G5 21) An example of a ball-and-socket joint in the human skeleton is found between A) the radius and the ulna. B) the radius and the metacarpals. C) the ulna and the humerus. D) the humerus and the scapula. E) the femur and the tibia. Answer: D Topic: 39.2 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.2 22) In which form of locomotion is friction the greatest impediment to moving? A) running B) hopping C) swimming D) flying Answer: C Topic: 39.2 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.2

23) A female cat in heat urinates more often and in many places. Male cats are attracted to the urine deposits. Which of the following is a proximate cause of this increased urination? A) It announces to the males that she is in heat. B) Female cats that did this in the past attracted more males. C) It is a result of hormonal changes associated with her reproductive cycle. D) The female cat learned the behavior from observing other cats. Answer: C Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.3, G2 24) A female cat in heat urinates more often and in many places. Male cats congregate near the urine deposits and fight with each other. Which of the following would be an ultimate cause of the male cats' response to the female's urinating behavior? A) The males have learned to recognize the specific odor of the urine of a female in heat. B) When the males smelled the odor, various neurons in their brains were stimulated. C) Responding to the odor means locating reproductively receptive females. D) Male cats' hormones are triggered by the odor released by the female. E) The odor serves as a releaser for the instinctive behavior of the males. Answer: C Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.3, G2 25) Which of the following examples describes a behavioral pattern that results from a proximate cause? A) A cat kills a mouse to obtain nutrition. B) A male sheep fights with another male because it helps to improve its social position. C) A female bird lays its eggs because the amount of daylight is decreasing slightly each day. D) A goose squats and freezes motionless to escape a predator. E) A cockroach runs into a crack in the wall and avoids being stepped on. Answer: C Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.3, G2 26) The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the environment, but behavior is ultimately shaped by A) hormones. B) evolution. C) mating rituals. D) pheromones. Answer: B Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.3, V&C 1 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

27) Animal communication involves what type(s) of sensory information? A) visual only B) auditory only C) olfactory only D) tactile only E) visual, auditory, olfactory, and tactile Answer: E Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.3 28) Male mountain lions will kick up piles of dirt and leaves and then urinate on them (which leaves a strong scent) to mark their territory. What type of communication signal is this? A) olfactory B) visual C) auditory D) tactile Answer: A Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.3, G2 29) Male alligators roar and slap their heads against the water to get the attention of females. What type of communication signal is this? A) olfactory B) visual C) auditory D) tactile Answer: C Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.3, G2 30) Chimpanzees indicate to each other that there are threats nearby by raising their arms in the air. What type of communication signal is this? A) olfactory B) visual C) auditory D) tactile Answer: B Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.3, G2

31) A chemical produced by an animal that serves as a communication to another animal of the same species is called a A) hormone. B) visual signal. C) pheromone. D) tactile signal. Answer: C Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.3 32) Circannual rhythms in birds are influenced by A) periods of food availability. B) reproductive readiness. C) periods of daylight and darkness. D) magnetic fields. E) lunar cycles. Answer: C Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.3 33) Upon returning to its hive, a European honeybee communicates to other worker bees the presence of a nearby food source it has discovered by A) vibrating its wings at varying frequencies. B) performing a round dance. C) performing a waggle dance. D) visual cues. Answer: B Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.3 34) Karl von Frisch demonstrated that European honeybees communicate the location of a distant food source by A) performing a round dance. B) performing a waggle dance. C) emanating minute amounts of stimulus pheromone. D) varying wing vibration frequency. Answer: B Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.3

35) Animals use pheromones to communicate A) only reproductive readiness. B) only species recognition. C) only gender recognition. D) only danger. E) reproductive readiness, species recognition, gender recognition, and danger. Answer: E Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.3 36) Coyotes are awake and often hunt at night. What types of communication do coyotes likely use? A) visual and auditory B) tactile and visual C) olfactory and auditory D) visual and olfactory E) tactile and auditory Answer: C Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.3, G2 37) A cage containing male mosquitoes has a small earphone placed on top through which the sound of a female mosquito is played. All the males immediately fly to the earphone and go through all of the steps of copulation. What is the best explanation for this behavior? A) The males learned to associate the sound with females. B) Copulation is a fixed action pattern, and the female flight sound is a sign stimulus that initiates it. C) The sound is a form of a visual signal, which causes the males to attempt to mate. D) The reproductive drive is so strong that when males are deprived of females, they will attempt to mate with anything that has even the slightest female characteristic. Answer: B Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.3, G2 38) A stickleback fish will attack a fish model as long as the model has red coloring. What animal behavior idea is manifested by this observation? A) sign stimulus B) migration C) imprinting D) associative learning Answer: A Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.3 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) Parental protective behavior in turkeys is triggered by the cheeping sound of young chicks. What term best applies to this behavior? A) sign stimulus B) migration C) imprinting D) associative learning Answer: A Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.3, G2 40) A type of learning that can occur only during a brief period of early life and results in a behavior that is difficult to modify through later experiences is called A) innate behavior. B) imprinting. C) spatial learning. D) associative learning. Answer: B Topic: 39.4 Learning establishes specific links between experience and behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.4 41) Salmon are hatched in freshwater streams, and then they migrate to the ocean. When an adult salmon is ready to mate, it returns to the exact stream where it hatched. What term best applies to this behavior? A) sign stimulus B) spatial learning C) imprinting D) associative learning Answer: C Topic: 39.4 Learning establishes specific links between experience and behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.4, G2

42) Scientists have tried raising endangered whooping cranes in captivity by using sandhill cranes as foster parents. This strategy is no longer used because A) fostered whooping crane chicks did not develop the necessary cues for migration. B) the fostered whooping cranes' critical period was variable such that different chicks imprinted on different "mothers." C) sandhill crane parents rejected their fostered whooping crane chicks soon after incubation. D) none of the fostered whooping cranes formed a mating pair-bond with another whooping crane. E) sandhill crane parents did not properly incubate whooping crane eggs. Answer: D Topic: 39.4 Learning establishes specific links between experience and behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.4 43) A human baby performs a sucking behavior perfectly when it is put in the presence of the nipple of its mother's breast. What form of animal behavior is this? A) associative learning B) innate behavior C) imprinting D) altruistic behavior E) agonistic behavior Answer: B Topic: 39.4 Learning establishes specific links between experience and behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.4, G2, G5 44) A mother goat can recognize its own kid by smell. What form of animal behavior is this? A) associative learning B) innate behavior C) imprinting D) altruistic behavior E) agonistic behavior Answer: C Topic: 39.4 Learning establishes specific links between experience and behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.4, G2

45) Which of the following would be the best experiment to conduct in order to determine if a rabbit is capable of using associative learning? A) Provide some food for the rabbit in a specific location and then cover it up with leaves. Monitor the location to see if the rabbit returns to find the food at a later time. B) Introduce the sound of a predator (e.g., coyote howl) to the rabbit's habitat at a specific time of the day. Monitor the rabbit's activity when the sound is and is not played throughout the day. C) Provide the rabbit with some food in a hard to reach location. Monitor the rabbit's activity to see if it is able to reach the food using a novel approach. D) Expose the rabbit to pheromones, and see if they stimulate the rabbit's interest in mating even though a potential mate is not available. Answer: B Topic: 39.4 Learning establishes specific links between experience and behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 39.4, G1, G2 46) Sea otters use stones and rocks to break open abalone shells in order to eat the flesh inside. A young sea otter observes other sea otters break open shells and thus learns how to perform this task. What type of learning did the young sea otter use to be able to perform this task? A) associative learning B) spatial learning C) imprinting D) social learning Answer: D Topic: 39.4 Learning establishes specific links between experience and behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.4, G2 47) Animal behavior that includes searching for, capturing, and eating food is known as A) innate behavior. B) foraging. C) imprinting. D) altruistic behavior. Answer: B Topic: 39.5 Selection for individual survival and reproductive success can explain diverse behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.5

48) While on a field expedition in Ethiopia, you come across a group of baboons. After watching them for several days, you notice that one male baboon frequently mates with many different females. You also don't see any other males in the group. What type of mating system best describes these baboons? A) monogamy B) polygyny C) polyandry D) intrasexual selection Answer: B Topic: 39.5 Selection for individual survival and reproductive success can explain diverse behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.5, G2 49) Male stalk-eyed flies compete with other males in order to attract female attention. What kind of mating behavior is this an example of? A) intersexual selection B) intrasexual selection C) polygamy D) monogamy Answer: B Topic: 39.5 Selection for individual survival and reproductive success can explain diverse behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.5, V&C 1 50) Male elephant seals routinely fight (sometimes to the death) in order to mate with large groups of female elephant seals. What kind of mating behavior is this an example of? A) intersexual selection B) intrasexual selection C) polygandry D) monogamy Answer: B Topic: 39.5 Selection for individual survival and reproductive success can explain diverse behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.5, G2, V&C 1

51) Upon observing a golden eagle flying overhead, a prairie dog on "guard duty" gives a warning call to other members of the prairie dog community that are foraging. What form of animal behavior is this? A) associative learning B) innate behavior C) imprinting D) altruistic behavior E) agonistic behavior Answer: D Topic: 39.6 Genetic analyses and the concept of inclusive fitness provide a basis for studying the evolution of behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.6, G2 52) While at a zoo, you notice that a male peacock is larger and more ornamental compared with a female peacock. Even without observing their mating habits, you can probably conclude that peacocks are A) polygamous. B) monogamous. C) polyandrous. D) promiscuous. Answer: A Topic: 39.5 Selection for individual survival and reproductive success can explain diverse behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.5, G2 53) The mating system in which females are more ornamented than males is A) monogamy. B) promiscuity. C) polygamy. D) polygyny. E) polyandry. Answer: E Topic: 39.5 Selection for individual survival and reproductive success can explain diverse behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.5

54) What is the fitness benefit of polygamy in birds that rear young that are precocious (develop and mature rapidly)? A) Females will copulate with many males to ensure that all of their eggs are fertilized. B) Females don't have to decide on one mate and can copulate with as many males as they deem worthy to share their genes with in reproduction. C) Fit males don't have to help feed and rear young and can spend this time seeking out and mating with many females. D) Females don't have to spend time rearing young and can mate and rear additional broods during a breeding season. E) Both males and females spend little time with courtship and brood-rearing and don't tax their own physiology, so they can breed again in subsequent breeding seasons. Answer: C Topic: 39.5 Selection for individual survival and reproductive success can explain diverse behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.5 55) Which of the following statements about the certainty of paternity is true? A) Young or eggs laid by a female are likely to contain the same genes as another female's eggs in a population of birds. B) The certainty of paternity is high in most species with internal fertilization because the acts of mating and birth are separated by time. C) Males that guard females they have mated with are certain of their paternity. D) The certainty of paternity is low when egg laying and mating occur together, as in external fertilization. E) Paternal behavior exists because it has been reinforced over generations by natural selection. Answer: E Topic: 39.5 Selection for individual survival and reproductive success can explain diverse behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.5, V&C 1

56) Imagine you are designing an experiment aimed at determining whether the initiation of migratory behavior is largely under genetic control. Of the following options, the best way to proceed is to A) observe genetically distinct populations in the field and see if they have different migratory habits. B) perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have different migratory habits. Do this in the laboratory and see if offspring display parental migratory behavior. C) bring animals into the laboratory and determine the conditions under which they become restless and attempt to migrate. D) perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have different migratory habits. Rear the offspring in the absence of their parents and observe the migratory behavior of offspring. Answer: D Topic: 39.6 Genetic analyses and the concept of inclusive fitness provide a basis for studying the evolution of behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 39.6, G1, G2 57) What probably explains why coastal and inland garter snakes react differently to banana slug prey? A) Ancestors of coastal snakes that could eat the abundant banana slugs had increased fitness. No such selection occurred inland, where banana slugs were absent. B) Banana slugs are camouflaged, and inland snakes, which have poorer vision than coastal snakes, are less able to see them. C) Garter snakes learn about prey from other garter snakes. Inland garter snakes have fewer types of prey because they are less social. D) Inland banana slugs are distasteful, so inland snakes learn to avoid them. Coastal banana slugs are palatable to garter snakes. E) Garter snakes learn to eat what their mothers eat. Coastal snake mothers happened to prefer slugs. Answer: A Topic: 39.6 Genetic analyses and the concept of inclusive fitness provide a basis for studying the evolution of behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.6, V&C 1 58) Which of the following statements about the evolution of behavior is correct? A) Natural selection will favor behavior that enhances survival and reproduction. B) An animal may show behavior that minimizes reproductive fitness. C) If a behavior is less than optimal, it will eventually become optimal through natural selection. D) Innate behaviors can never be altered by natural selection. Answer: A Topic: 39.6 Genetic analyses and the concept of inclusive fitness provide a basis for studying the evolution of behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.6, G7 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

59) Pair-bonding in a population of prairie voles can be prevented by A) the ensuing confusion caused by introducing meadow voles. B) administering a drug that inhibits the brain receptor for vasopressin in males. C) administering a drug that turns on ADH receptor sites in male voles. D) dying the coat color from brown to blond in either male or female prairie voles. E) allowing the population size to reach critically low levels. Answer: B Topic: 39.6 Genetic analyses and the concept of inclusive fitness provide a basis for studying the evolution of behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.6, G7 60) How do altruistic behaviors arise through natural selection? A) By its actions, the altruist increases the likelihood that some of its genes will be passed on to the next generation. B) The altruist is appreciated by other members of the population because their survivability has been enhanced by virtue of the altruist's risky behavior. C) Animals that perform altruistic acts are allowed by their population to breed more, thereby passing on their behavior genes to future generations. D) Altruistic behaviors lower stress in populations, which increases the survivability of all the members of the population. Answer: A Topic: 39.6 Genetic analyses and the concept of inclusive fitness provide a basis for studying the evolution of behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.6, G7, V&C 1 61) Which of the following has a coefficient of relatedness of less than 0.5? A) a mother to her daughter B) a father to his son C) an aunt to her niece D) a brother to his sister E) a sister to her sister Answer: C Topic: 39.6 Genetic analyses and the concept of inclusive fitness provide a basis for studying the evolution of behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.6, G2

62) Animals that help other animals of the same species A) have excess energy reserves. B) are bigger and stronger than the other animals. C) are usually related to the other animals. D) are always male. Answer: C Topic: 39.6 Genetic analyses and the concept of inclusive fitness provide a basis for studying the evolution of behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.6 63) The presence of altruistic behavior is most likely due to kin selection, a theory maintaining that A) aggression between sexes promotes the survival of the fittest individuals. B) genes enhance the survival of copies of themselves by directing organisms to assist others who share those genes. C) companionship is advantageous to animals because in the future they can help each other. D) critical thinking abilities are normal traits for animals and they have arisen, like other traits, through natural selection. E) natural selection has generally favored the evolution of exaggerated aggressive and submissive behaviors to resolve conflict without grave harm to participants. Answer: B Topic: 39.6 Genetic analyses and the concept of inclusive fitness provide a basis for studying the evolution of behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.6 64) During a field trip, an instructor touched a moth resting on a tree trunk. The moth raised its forewings to reveal large eyespots on its hind wings. The instructor asked why the moth lifted its wings. One student answered that sensory receptors had fired and triggered a neuronal reflex culminating in the contraction of certain muscles. A second student responded that the behavior might frighten predators. Which statement best describes these explanations? A) The first explanation is correct, but the second is incorrect. B) The first explanation refers to proximate causation, whereas the second refers to ultimate causation. C) The first explanation is testable as a scientific hypothesis, whereas the second is not. D) Both explanations are reasonable and simply represent a difference of opinion. Answer: B Topic: 39.3 Discrete sensory inputs can stimulate both simple and complex behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 39.3, G2

65) One way to understand how early environment influences differing behaviors in similar species is through the "cross-fostering" experimental technique. Suppose the curly-whiskered mud rat differs from the bald mud rat in several ways, including being much more aggressive. How would you set up a cross-fostering experiment to determine if environment plays a role in the curly-whiskered mud rat's aggression? A) You would cross curly-whiskered mud rats and bald mud rats, and hand-rear the offspring to see if any grew up to be aggressive. B) You would place newborn curly-whiskered mud rats with bald mud rat parents, place newborn bald mud rats with curly-whiskered mud rat parents, and let some mud rats of both species be raised by their own species. Then you would compare the outcomes. C) You would remove the offspring of curly-whiskered mud rats and bald mud rats from their parents, raise them in the same environment, and then compare the outcomes. D) You would see if curly-whiskered mud rats bred true for aggression. E) You would replace normal newborn mud rats with deformed newborn mud rats to see if it triggered an altruistic response. Answer: B Topic: 39.4 Learning establishes specific links between experience and behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 39.4, G2, V&C 1 66) Fred and Joe, two unrelated, mature male gorillas, encounter each other. Fred is courting a female. He grunts as Joe comes near. As Joe continues to advance, Fred begins drumming (pounding his chest) and bares his teeth. Joe then rolls on the ground on his back, gets up, and quickly leaves. This behavioral pattern is repeated several times during the mating season. Choose the most specific behavior described by this example. A) agonistic behavior B) spatial behavior C) associative behavior D) innate behavior Answer: A Topic: 39.5 Selection for individual survival and reproductive success can explain diverse behaviors Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.5, G2 67) Suppose a squirrel hides some acorns in the ground in preparation for winter. After a heavy snowfall, the squirrel is able to find the acorns even though their location is hidden. What type of learning did the squirrel use to remember where the acorns were stored? A) imprinting B) spatial learning C) associative learning D) problem solving Answer: B Topic: 39.4 Learning establishes specific links between experience and behavior Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.4, G2 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

39.2 Art Questions

Figure 39.1 1) The structure pictured in Figure 39.1 is found in A) skeletal muscles and smooth muscles only. B) cardiac muscles and skeletal muscles only. C) smooth muscles and cardiac muscles only. D) smooth muscles, skeletal muscles, and cardiac muscles. E) smooth muscles only. Answer: B Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.1, G3 2) Myosin filaments that form crossbridges with actin are in which section of Figure 39.1? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.1, G2, G3 3) Which area in Figure 39.1 indicates the M line? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D Topic: 39.1 The physical interaction of protein filaments is required for muscle function Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.1, G2, G3 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Figure 39.2 The most energetically efficient locomotion per unit mass is likely A) running by a 50-gram mouse. B) running by a 40-kg horse. C) flying by a 4-g hummingbird. D) swimming by a 10-g stickleback (bony fish). E) swimming by a 100-kg shark. Answer: E Topic: 39.2 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.2, G2, G3, V&C C2

Figure 39.3 In the territorial behavior of the stickleback fish, the red belly of one male that elicits attack from another male is functioning as a A) pheromone. B) sign stimulus. C) fixed action pattern. D) hormone. Answer: B Topic: 39.3 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.3, G3

Figure 39.4 The behavior of most animals is influenced by the periods of daylight and darkness in the environment. Fiddler crabs' courtship behaviors are instead synchronized by the 29 1/2-day cycle of the moon. What is the adaptive significance of using lunar cues? A) The fiddler crab courtship ritual is highly visual, so individuals need the light of the full moon to be able to observe courtship displays. B) Egg maturation in fiddler crab females takes 29 1/2 days. C) By courting at the full and new moon, fiddler crabs link their reproduction to the times of the highest tides that disperse their larvae to safer, deeper waters. D) The algae that larval fiddler crabs consume for energy and metabolism bloom on a monthly cycle, so recently hatched larvae have plenty to eat during a crucial time of their lives. E) It takes about 29 days for a fiddler crab to reach sexual maturity. Answer: C Topic: 39.3 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 39.3, G3

Figure 39.2 Consider a small duck that weighs about 1 kilogram (about 2.2 pounds). What form of locomotion by this duck would use the most energy? A) running B) flying C) swimming Answer: A Topic: 39.2 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.2, G2, G3, V&C C2 39.3 Scenario Questions Use this information to answer the following questions. Teo is a 27-year-old male who crashed his motorcycle while riding on an icy road through the Rocky Mountains. Luckily, Teo was wearing his helmet, so he did not suffer any head injuries, but he did break several bones in his body and damaged several joints. 1) Teo sprained his left ankle. What statement about this injury is correct? A) Teo stretched the ligament connecting his left tibia and fibula. B) Teo stretched the tendon connecting his left tibia and fibula. C) Teo stretched the ligament connecting his left radius and ulna. D) Teo stretched the tendon connecting his left radius and ulna. Answer: A Topic: 39.2 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.2, G2, G3, G5 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) Teo suffered a simple fracture (when the bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin) of the bone that forms a ball and socket joint with his pelvis. What bone did Teo break? A) humerus B) femur C) tibia D) sternum Answer: B Topic: 39.2 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.2, G2, G3, G5 3) After the crash, Teo is having difficulty bending his fingers of his right hand to form a fist. What type of joint is being affected? A) pivot B) ball and socket C) hinge Answer: C Topic: 39.2 Skeletal systems transform muscle contraction into locomotion Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 39.2, G2, G3, G5 39.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) During the contraction of a vertebrate skeletal muscle fiber, calcium ions A) break cross-bridges by acting as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP. B) bind with troponin, changing its shape so that the myosin-binding sites on actin are exposed. C) transmit action potentials from the motor neuron to the muscle fiber. D) spread action potentials through the T tubules. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following is true of innate behaviors? A) Their expression is only weakly influenced by genes. B) They occur with or without environmental stimuli. C) They are expressed in most individuals in a population. D) They occur in invertebrates and some vertebrates but not mammals. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3) According to Hamilton's rule, A) natural selection does not favor altruistic behavior that causes the death of the altruist. B) natural selection favors altruistic acts when the resulting benefit to the recipient, corrected for relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist. C) natural selection is more likely to favor altruistic behavior that benefits an offspring than altruistic behavior that benefits a sibling. D) the effects of kin selection are larger than the effects of direct natural selection on individuals. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The binding of calcium to the troponin complex A) disrupts cross-bridges, allowing filaments to slide past each other. B) allows tropomyosin to bind actin. C) opens ion channels, allowing sodium to rush into the muscle cells. D) causes tropomyosin to shift position, exposing myosin bind sites on actin. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Curare, a substance that blocks the acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle, will cause A) rapid muscle twitches. B) sustained muscle contraction (tetanus). C) muscle relaxation. D) no effect in the absence of acetylcholinesterase. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Although many chimpanzees live in environments with oil palm nuts, members of only a few populations use stones to crack open the nuts. The likely explanation is that A) the behavioral difference is caused by genetic differences between populations. B) members of different populations have different nutritional requirements. C) the cultural tradition of using stones to crack nuts has arisen in only some populations. D) members of different populations differ in learning ability. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Which of the following is not required for a behavioral trait to evolve by natural selection? A) The form of the behavior is determined entirely by genes. B) The behavior varies among individuals. C) An individual's reproductive success depends in part on how the behavior is performed. D) Some component of the behavior is genetically inherited. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 40 Population Ecology and the Distribution of Organisms 40.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Trees are rare in the savanna biome because of A) tropical storms. B) acidic topsoils. C) frequent fires. D) limited rainfall. Answer: C Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.1 2) Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution? A) Average annual temperature and precipitation are sufficient to predict which biome will be found in a certain area. B) Seasonal climate variation is not a limiting factor in biome distribution in areas with the same annual climate patterns. C) Both average climate and the pattern of climatic variation are important in determining the nature of an area biome. D) Temperate forests and grasslands are not the same biomes solely because of the variances in sunlight received. E) Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the cause of terrestrial biome patterns. Answer: C Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.1 3) The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes? A) an African savanna B) a broadleaf forest C) a temperate grassland D) a tropical rain forest E) a Northern pine forest Answer: E Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2

4) Areas where terrestrial biomes grade into neighboring biomes way be wide or narrow. Which of the following terms best describes this intergradation? A) latitude B) ecotone C) longitude D) ecosystem Answer: B Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.1 5) Which of the following levels of ecological organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive? A) community, ecosystem, individual, population B) ecosystem, community, population, individual C) population, ecosystem, individual, community D) individual, population, community, ecosystem E) individual, community, population, ecosystem Answer: B Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.1 6) Which of the following choices causes all of the others in creating global terrestrial climates? A) differential heating of Earth's surface B) Pacific and Atlantic ocean currents C) seasonal changes in wind patterns D) evaporation of water from the oceans Answer: A Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.1 7) A particular mountain range is subjected to prevailing winds. Which of the following contributes the most to a drier climate on the leeward side of the mountain range? A) air expanding and heating on the windward side of the range B) air expanding and cooling on the windward side of the range C) air expanding and heating on the leeward side of the range D) air expanding and cooling on the leeward side of the range Answer: B Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.1

8) With respect to the sun, Earth normally rotates once in a 24-hour period. What would be the effect on climate in the temperate latitudes if the rotation increased to 48-hours? A) Seasons would be longer and more distinct; for example, colder winters and hotter summers. B) Smaller ranges between nighttime low and daytime high temperatures would be common. C) Large-scale weather events such as hurricanes would no longer be a part of regional climates. D) In the Northern and Southern hemispheres, winter precipitation would increase in frequency. E) Larger ranges between daytime high and nighttime low temperatures would occur frequently. Answer: E Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2 9) Palm trees and subtropical plants are commonplace in Land's End, England, whose latitude is the equivalent of Labrador in coastal Canada, where the local flora is subarctic. Which of the following contributes the most to the differences between these two biomes? A) differences in latitude B) direction of ocean currents C) variances in annual rainfall D) intensity of solar radiation Answer: B Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.1 10) In mountainous areas of western North America, which type of plant life would you expect to find on a southern-slope of a mountain? A) drought-tolerant plants B) coniferous pine trees C) broadleaf woody trees D) cone-bearing trees Answer: A Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.1 11) Deserts typically occur in a band around 30 degrees north and 30 degrees south latitude because A) descending air masses originating from the tropical areas tend to be dry. B) ascending air masses absorb moisture and create an arid, desert climate. C) moisture-laden air is heavier than dry air and is not carried to these latitudes. D) these locations get the most intense solar radiation of any location on Earth. Answer: A Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.1

12) The tilt of the Earth's axis relative to its plane of orbit is 23.5 degrees. Which of the following events might you predict to occur if the angle of tilt increased to 33 1/2 degrees? A) Summers in the United States would likely become warmer. B) Winters and summers in Australia would become indiscrete. C) Seasonal variation at the equator might decrease significantly. D) The North and South poles would experience massive ice melts. Answer: A Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2 13) A cosmic catastrophic event occurred that caused the tilt of the Earth's axis relative to its plane of orbit to increase from 23.5 degrees to 90 degrees. The most obvious effect of this change would be A) the elimination of trade winds. B) an increase in the length of night. C) an increase in the length of a year. D) the elimination of seasonal variation. Answer: D Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2 14) The main reason that polar regions are cooler than the equator is that A) there is more ice/glaciers at polar regions. B) sunlight strikes the poles at a lower angle. C) the polar regions are farther from the sun. D) the polar regions' atmosphere is thinner. E) the poles are always tilted away from the sun. Answer: B Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.1 15) Generalized global air circulation and precipitation patterns are dependent on the intensity of solar radiation near the equator. Which of the following correctly states an event that contributes to the creation of these global patterns? A) rising, warm, moist air masses at 30 degrees north and south B) rising air masses that expand and cool in the tropical regions C) rising cool, moist air masses at 90 degrees north and south D) rising air masses that expand and warm in temperate regions Answer: B Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.1

16) Air masses formed over the Pacific Ocean eventually encounter extensive north-south mountain ranges as they move from west to east. Which statement best describes a component of an outcome of this encounter between a mountain range and an air mass? A) The cool, moist Pacific air heats up as it rises, releasing its precipitation as it passes the tops of the mountains. B) The warm, moist Pacific air rises and cools, releasing precipitation as it moves up the windward side of the range. C) The cool, dry Pacific air heats up and picks up moisture from evaporation of the snowcapped peaks of the mountain range. D) The warm, moist Pacific air is blocked by the mountains, resulting in the heavy annual rainfall on the windward side. E) These air masses remain essentially unchanged in moisture content and temperature as they pass over the ranges. Answer: B Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2 17) Coral reefs can be found on the southeast coast of the United States but not at similar latitudes on the southwest coast. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this? A) sunlight intensity B) ocean salinity C) day length D) ocean currents E) precipitation Answer: D Topic: 40.1, 40.2 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes; Aquatic biomes are diverse and dynamic systems that cover most of Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.1, 40.2, G2 18) What is the limiting factor for the growth of trees in the tundra? A) low precipitation B) lack of sunlight C) insufficient minerals in bedrock D) pH of soils E) permafrost Answer: E Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2

19) In which of the following terrestrial biome pairs are both biomes dependent upon periodic burning? A) tundra and coniferous forest B) chaparral and savanna C) desert and savanna D) tropical and broadleaf forest E) grassland and tundra Answer: B Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.1 20) Fire suppression by humans A) will always result in an increase in species diversity in a given biome. B) can change the species composition within biological communities. C) will result in more small non-woody plants and fewer trees in savannas. D) is necessary to maintain species composition in grassland and chaparral. Answer: B Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2, G5 21) Which of the following statements best describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems? A) Fires maintain the low, widely scattered vegetation found in deserts. B) Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires. C) Many species in temperate broadleaf forests depend on fire to regenerate. D) Chaparral communities have evolved to the extent that they rarely burn. E) Most species have not adapted to fire as it is unnatural in every ecosystem. Answer: B Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2 22) Which marine zone is expected to have the lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)? A) pelagic B) abyssal C) photic D) limnetic E) intertidal Answer: B Topic: 40.2 Aquatic biomes are diverse and dynamic systems that cover most of Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.2, G2, G7

23) If a meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reduced the sunlight reaching Earth's surface by 70% for one year, which of the following marine communities most likely would be least affected? A) deep-sea vent B) coral reef C) intertidal D) pelagic E) estuary Answer: A Topic: 40.2 Aquatic biomes are diverse and dynamic systems that cover most of Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.2, G2 24) Which statement best describes how climate might change if Earth were 75% land and 25% water? A) Terrestrial ecosystems would likely experience increased precipitation. B) Daytime temperatures would be higher and nighttime temperatures lower. C) Summers would be longer and winters shorter for locations at midlatitude. D) Earth would experience an increase in temperate broadleaf forest regions. E) Terrestrial microclimates would increase because of fluctuations in climate. Answer: B Topic: 40.2 Aquatic biomes are diverse and dynamic systems that cover most of Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 40.2, G2, G7 25) Which of the following examples of an ecological effect leading to an evolutionary effect is most correct? A) When seeds are not plentiful, trees produce more seeds which can germinate when conditions improve. B) A few organisms of a larger population survive a drought, and then these survivors emigrate to less arid environments. C) Only animals with denser fur survived the coldest days of an ice age, and all the future offspring have dense fur. D) Fish that swim the fastest in running water catch the most prey and more easily escape predation. Answer: C Topic: 40.3 Interactions between organisms and the environment limit the distribution of species Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 40.3, G2, G7

26) Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities? A) precipitation, wind B) nutrient availability, soil pH C) predation, competition D) temperature, water E) light intensity, seasonality Answer: C Topic: 40.3 Interactions between organisms and the environment limit the distribution of species Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.3 27) A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above 2,800 m in the western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in these specific places, an ecologist should A) conclude that lower elevations are limiting to the survival of this species. B) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude. C) conduct soil analysis for growth supporting chemicals in the vicinity of these trees. D) collect data on temperature, wind, and rainfall at several of these locations for a year. Answer: B Topic: 40.3 Interactions between organisms and the environment limit the distribution of species Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.3, G2 28) Studying species transplants is a way that ecologists A) determine the abundance of a species in a specified area. B) determine the distribution of a species in a specified area. C) develop mathematical models for distribution of organisms. D) determine if dispersal limited distribution of organisms. E) consolidate a landscape region into a single ecosystem. Answer: D Topic: 40.3 Interactions between organisms and the environment limit the distribution of species Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.3

29) Which of the following is a physical factor that can limit the geographic distribution of species? A) predation B) disease C) soil structure D) nutrients E) pH Answer: C Topic: 40.3 Interactions between organisms and the environment limit the distribution of species Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.3 30) A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics? I. inhabits the same general area II. belongs to the same species III. possesses a constant and uniform density and dispersion A) I only B) III only C) I and II only D) II and III only E) I, II, and III Answer: C Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.4 31) An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer per one square mile in one woodlot and 20 per one square mile in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing? A) density B) dispersion C) capacity D) cohorts E) range Answer: A Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.4, G2, G3, G4

32) Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with A) chance. B) patterns of high humidity. C) the random distribution of seeds. D) the concentration of nutrients within the population's range. E) competitive interaction between individuals of the same population. Answer: E Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.4, G2 33) Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion? A) red squirrels, a type of animal that actively defends its territories B) cattails, plants that grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams C) dwarf mistletoes, plants that parasitize particular species of forest trees D) moths in cities throughout North America that are active at night E) lake trout, fish that seek out cold, deep water high in dissolved oxygen Answer: A Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.4, G2 34) To construct a life table for a sexual species, you need to A) assess sperm viability for the males in the population. B) keep track of all the offspring of a cohort. C) keep track of the female individuals in a cohort. D) keep track of all the offspring of females in a cohort. Answer: C Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.4 35) Which of the following methods would most accurately measure the density of the population being studied? A) counting the number of prairie dog burrows per square mile B) counting the number of coyote droppings per square meter C) counting the number of moss plants in one square kilometer D) counting the number of zebras from airplane observations Answer: C Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.4, G2

36) Long-term studies of Belding's ground squirrels show that immigrants move nearly 2 km from where they are born and become 1-8% of the males and 0.7-6% of the females in other populations. On an evolutionary scale, why is this significant? A) These immigrants make up for the deaths of individuals, keeping the other populations' sizes stable over time. B) Young reproductive males tend to stay in their home population and are not driven out by other territorial males. C) These immigrants provide a source of genetic diversity for the newly formed squirrel populations. D) Those individuals that emigrate to these new populations are looking for less crowded conditions with more resources. E) The populations of ground squirrels will move from a clumped to a uniform population pattern of dispersion. Answer: C Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 40.4, G2, G7 37) Which of the following sets of measurements would best describe a population's physical structure and vital statistics? A) density, dispersion, and demographics B) gene frequency over time a year C) annual precipitation averages D) annual temperature extremes E) ratio of predators to prey in an area Answer: A Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.4 38) Which of the following methods would provide the most legitimate data on population density? A) Count the number of nests of a particular species of songbird, and multiply this by two (because there are two parent birds per nest). B) Count the number of pine trees in several randomly selected 10-m × 10-m plots, and extrapolate this number to the fraction of the study area that these plots represent. C) Calculate the difference between all of the immigrants and emigrants to see if the population is growing or shrinking. D) Add the number of births and subtract the number of individuals who die to see if the population's density is increasing or decreasing. Answer: B Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.4, G2

39) Which of the following is the best natural example of uniform distribution? A) bumblebees collecting pollen in a wildflower meadow B) snails in an intertidal zone at low tide in California C) territorial songbirds in a mature forest during mating season D) mushrooms growing on the floor of an old-growth forest E) a cultivated sweet cornfield in an urban community Answer: C Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 40.4, G2 40) Which of the following would most likely promote random distribution? A) territorial species well-rooted in an area B) periodic use of chemical attractants C) flocking and schooling behaviors D) spacing during the breeding season E) constancy of key chemical factors Answer: E Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.4 41) Which of the following best defines a cohort? A) a group of individuals that inhabits a small isolated region within the range for the species B) all of the individuals that are annually added to a population by birth and immigration C) the reproductive males and females within the population that can produce offspring D) a group of individuals from the same age group, from birth until they are all dead E) the number of individuals that annually die or emigrate out of a population Answer: D Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.4 42) Why do some invertebrates, such as lobsters, show a "stair-step" survivorship curve? A) Many invertebrate species mate and produce offspring on multiyear cycles. B) Younger individual species have a higher survivorship than older individuals. C) Invertebrates are vulnerable to predation during molting when their shell is soft. D) Some species have fluctuating population cycles according to the frequency of sunspots. E) The number of fertilized eggs that mature to adult females depends on ambient temperature. Answer: C Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.4

43) What is population dispersion? A) the number of individuals in a population per unit area or volume B) the pattern of spacing among individuals within a population's boundaries C) the influx of new individuals from other areas through immigration D) the defense of a bounded physical space against encroachment by others Answer: B Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.4 44) Which of the following describes a Type II survivorship curve? A) flat at the start, then dropping steeply as death rates increase B) dropping sharply at the start, then flattening out as death rates decline C) a constant decline with a constant death rate over the life span D) flat at the start, then rising steeply as death rates decrease Answer: C Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.4 45) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1,000 individuals in one year. A) 120 individuals added B) 40 individuals added C) 20 individuals added D) 400 individuals added E) 20 individuals lost Answer: B Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.5, G2, G3, G4 46) Exponential growth of a population is represented by dN/dt = rN. What does "r" represent in the equation? A) extrinsic rate of increase B) intrinsic rate of increase C) extrinsic rate of decrease D) intrinsic rate of decrease Answer: B Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.5

47) Starting from a single individual, what is the size of a population of bacteria that reproduce by binary fission every 20 minutes at the end of a 2-hour time period? (Assume unlimited resources and no mortality.) A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) 64 E) 128 Answer: D Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.5, G2, G3, G4 48) Which of the following models is used to examine decreases in the rate of population growth as population size approaches carrying capacity? A) exponential growth B) logistic growth model C) survivorship curve D) intrinsic rate of increase Answer: B Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.5 49) In July 2008, the U.S. population was approximately 302,000,000. If the estimated 2008 growth rate was 0.88%, approximately how many total Americans were there in July 2009? A) 2,700,000 B) 5,500,000 C) 303,000,000 D) 304,700,000 E) 2,710,800,000 Answer: D Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.5, G2, G3, G4, G5 50) In 2008, the New Zealand population was approximately 4,275,000. If the birth rate was 14 births for every 1,000 people, approximately how many births occurred in New Zealand in 2008? A) 6,000 B) 42,275 C) 60,000 D) 140,000 E) 600,000 Answer: C Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.5, G2, G3, G4, G5 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

51) Consider two forests: one is an undisturbed old-growth forest, and the other has recently been logged. In which forest are species likely to experience exponential growth, and why? A) old growth, because the stable conditions would favor exponential growth of all species in the forest B) old growth, because each of the species is well established and can produce many offspring C) logged, because the disturbed forest affords more resources for increased specific populations to grow D) equally probable in old-growth and logged forests, because disturbed and stable habitats have equal opportunity for tree seedlings to survive Answer: C Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.5, G2, G5 52) Using the logistic growth model, population growth would be represented by dN/dt = A) . B) rN. C) rN (K + N). D) rN . E) rN

Answer: D Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.5 53) As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation? A) The population growth rate will not change. B) The population growth rate will approach zero. C) The population will increase exponentially. D) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase. Answer: B Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.5

54) In models of logistic population growth, A) the population growth rate slows, eventually becoming zero as N approaches K. B) new individuals are added to the population most rapidly as K approaches N. C) new individuals are added to the population most rapidly as N approaches K. D) only density-independent environmental factors affect the rate of population growth. E) carrying capacity is the number of additional individuals the environment can support. Answer: A Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.5 55) Carrying capacity is A) seldom exceeded in most real populations as resources are always abundant. B) the maximum population size that any one particular environment can support. C) fixed for almost all species over most of their range the majority of the time. D) determined by density and dispersion data obtained through population studies. E) the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited resources. Answer: B Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.5 56) Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic population growth? A) increased birth rate B) removal of predators C) decreased death rate D) competition for resources E) favorable climatic conditions Answer: D Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.5, G2

57) Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another. As moose populations increase, for example, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation for the wolf population, dN/dt = rN , which factor accounts for the effect of the moose population? A) r B) N C) rN D) K E) dt Answer: D Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.5, G2, G4 58) What is an assumption of the logistic model of population growth? A) Populations adjust instantaneously to growth. B) Populations reach carrying capacity abruptly. C) There is no limitation to growth exhibited. D) Growth depends on predators and competitors. Answer: A Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.5 59) Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between A) choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how long to live. B) producing larger numbers of gametes with internal fertilization versus external fertilization. C) increasing the quantity of offspring per reproductive episode and an increase in parental care. D) ensuring high offspring survival rates per reproductive episode and the cost of parental care. Answer: D Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.6

60) The three basic variables that make up the life history of an organism are A) life expectancy of females in the population, birth rate of offspring, and death rate of offspring. B) number of reproductive females in the population, age structure of the population, and life expectancy. C) age when reproduction begins, how often reproduction occurs, and how many offspring are produced per reproductive episode. D) how often reproduction occurs, life expectancy of females in the population, and number of offspring per reproductive episode. E) the number of reproductive females in the population, how often reproduction occurs, and death rate. Answer: C Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.6 61) Which of the following reproductive strategies is consistent with energetic trade-off and reproductive success? A) Pioneer species of plants produce many very small, highly airborne seeds. B) Rabbits that suffer high predation rates produce several litters per breeding season. C) Animals that are caring parents produce fewer offspring with lower infant mortality. D) A flowering plant nurtures its thousands of seeds until they are ready to germinate. Answer: B Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 40.6, G2, G7 62) Which of the following is an expected characteristic of K-selected populations? A) offspring born with good chances of survival B) small offspring born in crowded environments C) a high intrinsic rate of population increase D) early parental reproduction in populations Answer: A Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.6, G2

63) Which variables define the ecological life history of a species? A) the age at which reproduction begins, frequency of reproduction, and the number of offspring for each reproductive episode B) the ratio of females to males, the length of the breeding season, and the number of offspring for each reproductive episode C) the number of offspring produced over a lifetime by a breeding pair and the survivability of the offspring D) timing breeding sessions with optimal environmental conditions and the number of offspring produced during each breeding session E) the amount of parental care given after birth, the number of reproductive episodes per year, and the number of years females are capable of producing viable offspring Answer: A Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.6 64) In which of the following situations would you expect to find the largest number of Kselected individuals? A) a recently abandoned farm field B) a shifting sand dune community C) an old-growth (virgin) forest D) a coastline after a hurricane E) a newly emergent volcanic island Answer: C Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.6, G2 65) Which of the following is most likely to contribute to density-dependent regulation of populations? A) yeast converting ethanol to carbohydrates B) intraspecific competition for nutrients C) lack of chemical territorial boundaries D) extrinsic factors regulating reproduction Answer: B Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.6

66) Why do populations grow more slowly as they approach their carrying capacity? A) Density-dependent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality. B) Density-independent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality. C) Hormonal changes promote higher death rates in crowded populations. D) Individuals voluntarily stop mating so that overcrowding does not occur. E) The incoming energy decreases in populations experiencing a high rate of increase. Answer: A Topic: 40.5, 40.6 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations; Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.5, 40.6 67) Which of the following could be a density-independent factor limiting human population growth? A) housing units B) earthquakes C) plagues D) famines Answer: B Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.6, G2, G5 68) What is a metapopulation? A) all of the populations of different species within a community B) family units and their patches within a single population C) populations that are linked by immigration and emigration D) the exponential growth in a population's numbers over time Answer: C Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.6 69) What is one application of the metapopulation concept? A) It models conservation as multiple species live in a network of habitat patches. B) It shows how many different populations can coexist within one community. C) It predicts the carrying capacity of populations that exhibit limited growth rates. D) It explains why some high density populations have a clumped dispersion pattern. Answer: A Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.6, G5

70) Which of the following is an intrinsic physiological factor that can regulate population size? A) transmission rate of a disease in a dense area B) competition for nutrients within territories C) flooding of a flood plain by an adjacent river D) hormonal changes in response to aggression Answer: D Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 40.6

40.2 Art Questions Please use the following information to answer the question(s) below. The eight climographs in Figure 40.1 show yearly temperature (line graph and left vertical axis) and precipitation (bar graph and right vertical axis) averages for each month for some locations on Earth. Choose the climograph that best answers the question.

Figure 40.1 1) Which climograph shows the climate for location 1? A) I B) III C) V D) VII E) VIII Answer: A Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2, G3 2) Which climograph shows the climate for location 2? A) II B) III C) IV D) VI E) VIII Answer: D Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2, G3 3) Which climograph shows the climate for location 3? A) II B) III C) IV D) V E) VI Answer: C Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2, G3 4) Which climograph shows the climate for location 4? A) I B) II C) III D) V E) VI Answer: D Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2, G3 5) Which climograph shows the climate for location 5? A) I B) III C) IV D) V E) VIII Answer: B Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2, G3 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) Which of the following best substantiates why location 3 is an equatorial (tropical) climate? A) It has a monsoon season during the winter months. B) It has consistent monthly averages for rainfall. C) The temperature is high for each monthly average. D) The temperatures reach 100°F during some months. E) The temperatures are lower in June, July, and August. Answer: C Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2, G3

Figure 40.2 shows a generalized cross section of the marine environment with various zones labeled with letters. Choose the number that best answers the question(s).

Figure 40.2 7) Which zone has a condition of constant temperature? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Topic: 40.2 Aquatic biomes are diverse and dynamic systems that cover most of Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.2, G2, G3

8) Which zone produces the most global oxygen? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Topic: 40.2 Aquatic biomes are diverse and dynamic systems that cover most of Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.2, G2, G3 9) Which zone has the lowest biomass per unit of volume? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D Topic: 40.2 Aquatic biomes are diverse and dynamic systems that cover most of Earth Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.2, G2, G3

Figure 40.3 10) In Figure 40.3, which curve best describes survivorship in marine molluscs? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.4, G2, G3 11) Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.4, G2, G3

12) Which curve best describes survivorship in a marine crustacean that molts (i.e., sheds its exoskeleton in order to grow)? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.4, G2, G3 13) Which curve best describes survivorship in humans who live in developed nations? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.4, G2, G3, G5 14) Which statement best explains survivorship curve B? A) It is likely a species that provides little postnatal care but lots of midlife care for offspring. B) This curve is likely a species that produces lots of offspring, but few are expected to survive. C) There was a mass emigration of young to middle-aged individuals in this cohort. D) Survivorship can only decrease; therefore, this curve could not happen in nature. Answer: D Topic: 40.4 Biotic and abiotic factors affect population density, dispersion, and demographics Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.4, G2, G3

15) Which of the following graphs illustrates the population growth curve of single bacterium growing in a flask of ideal medium at optimum temperature over a 24-hour period? A)

Answer: C Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.5, G2, G3

16) Which of the following graphs illustrates the growth curve of a small population of rodents that has grown to reach a static carrying capacity? A)

Answer: E Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.6, G2, G3

17) A population of snowshoe hares was introduced to an appropriate habitat also inhabited by their natural predators in northern Canada. Which of the following graphs illustrates the growth over several seasons of the snowshoe hares? A)

Answer: D Topic: 40:6 Population dynamics are influenced strongly by life history, traits, and population density Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.6, G2, G3

40.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the question(s) below. In areas of permafrost, stands of black spruce are frequently observed in the landscape, whereas other tree species are noticeably absent. Often these stands are referred to as "drunken forests" because many of the black spruce are displaced from their normal vertical alignment. 1) What might be the adaptive significance of these unusual forests growing the way they do in this marginal habitat? A) Needles are adapted to withstand cold Arctic temperatures. B) Branches are adapted to absorb more CO2 with this displaced alignment. C) Taproot formation is impossible, so trees developed shallow root beds and easily tilt. D) Trees are tilted so that snow won't break them or tip them over. E) Trees tip so that they do not compete with each other for sunlight. Answer: C Topic: 40.1 Earth's climate influences the distribution of terrestrial biomes Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 40.1, G2 2) Imagine you are managing a large game ranch. You know from historical accounts that a species of deer used to live there, but they have been extirpated. You decide to reintroduce them. After doing some research to determine what might be an appropriate size founding population, you do so. You watch the population increase for several generations and then graph the number of individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). The graph will likely appear as A) a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation. B) an "S," increasing with each generation. C) an upside-down "U." D) a "J," increasing with each generation. E) an "S" that ends with a vertical line. Answer: D Topic: 40.5 The exponential and logistic models describe the growth of populations Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 40.5, G2, G3 40.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate? A) savanna—low temperature, precipitation uniform during the year B) tundra—long summers, mild winters C) temperate broadleaf forest—relatively short growing season, mild winters D) tropical forests—nearly constant day length and temperature Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) A population's carrying capacity A) may change as environmental conditions change. B) can be accurately calculated using the logistic model. C) generally remains constant over time. D) increases as the per capita growth rate decreases. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to the changes in A) different depths in the ocean. B) biomes at different latitudes. C) a community through different seasons. D) an ecosystem as it evolves over time. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) According to the logistic growth equation [&*frac*{dN}{dt}|=|rN|thn|*frac*{(K|-|N)}{K}&] A) the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero. B) the per capita growth rate increases as N approaches K. C) population growth is zero when N equals K. D) the population grows exponentially when K is small. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 41 Ecological Communities 41.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Two species of bacteria with identical fundamental niches cannot permanently coexist together in a community. This phenomenon is best described as A) character displacement. B) competitive exclusion. C) resource partitioning. D) mutualistic interaction. E) exploitative interaction. Answer: B Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1 2) According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same A) habitat. B) niche. C) territory. D) range. E) biome. Answer: B Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1 3) Which of the following best describes resource partitioning? A) competitive exclusion that results in the success of the superior species B) slight variations in a species's niche that allow similar species to coexist C) two species that can coevolve to share an identical fundamental niche D) decreases in community species diversity due to differential resource use E) climax community that is reached when no new niches are available Answer: B Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1

4) As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in areas without the other species. However, where their ranges overlap, the two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night, and the three-spot hunts in the morning. When you bring them into the laboratory and isolate the two different species, you discover that the offspring of both species are nocturnal. You have discovered an example of A) mutualistic interaction. B) Batesian mimicry. C) commensalism. D) resource partitioning. Answer: D Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1, G2 5) Resource partitioning would be most likely to occur between A) sympatric populations of a predator and its prey. B) sympatric populations of species with similar niches. C) sympatric populations of a plant and its pollinator. D) allopatric populations of the same animal species. E) allopatric populations of species with similar niches. Answer: B Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1, G2 6) Which of the following is the most reasonable example of cryptic coloration? A) a coral snake with red, yellow, and black contrasting bands living in a desert area B) various species of birch trees with white or yellow bark rooted near a river's edge C) a butterfly with dark orange and black vein patterned wings living in a wetland D) a black-and-yellow-striped bumblebee living in a garden among tomato plants E) a brownish twig-like bug living in a forest on the small branches of a willow tree Answer: E Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1, G2

7) Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry? A) a moth that resembles clumps of bird droppings on a green leaf B) an Indian leaf butterfly that resembles a dead leaf in a rain forest C) a non-poisonous gopher snake that looks like a venomous rattlesnake D) a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment E) a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm and attract fish Answer: C Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1, G2 8) Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration? A) brightly colored skin patterns of poison dart frogs B) black-and-white-striped skin patterns of a zebra C) vibrant green colored leaves of a fern plant D) yellow and orange colored petals of an insect-pollinated flower E) a katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf Answer: A Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1 9) Dwarf mistletoes are flowering plants that grow on certain forest trees. They obtain nutrients and water from the vascular tissues of the trees. The trees derive no known benefits from the dwarf mistletoes and can be harmed if nutrients and water are scarce in the environment. Which of the following best describes the interactions between dwarf mistletoes and trees? A) mutualism B) parasitism C) commensalism D) facilitation E) competition Answer: B Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1, G2

10) Evidence shows that some grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms would best describe this plant-herbivore interaction? A) mutualism B) commensalism C) parasitism D) competition E) predation Answer: A Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1, G2 11) White-breasted nuthatches and Downy woodpeckers both eat insects that hide in the furrows of bark in hardwood trees. The Downy woodpecker searches for insects by hunting from the bottom of the tree trunk toward the top, whereas the white-breasted nuthatch searches from the top of the trunk down. These hunting behaviors best illustrate which of the following ecological concepts? A) competitive exclusion B) resource partitioning C) character displacement D) exploitative interaction E) Batesian mimicry Answer: B Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1, G2 12) Which statement best describes the evolutionary significance of mutualism? A) Mutualism offers more biodiversity to a community through positive interaction. B) Individuals partaking in a mutualistic relationship are more resistant to parasites. C) Interaction increases the survival and reproductive rates of mutualistic species. D) Mutualistic interaction lessens competition in communities where it is present. E) Mutualistic relationships allow organisms to synthesize and use energy efficiently. Answer: C Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1

13) How might an ecologist test whether a species is occupying a fundamental niche or a realized niche? A) Study the temperature range and humidity requirements of the species. B) Observe the effect of variations in habitat resources on the niche size. C) Introduce a similar non-native species, and record niche size changes. D) Measure reproductive rates as a species is under environmental stress. E) Examine changes in the species range upon removal of a competitor. Answer: E Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1, V&C C1, G1, G2 14) Which of the following terms is most correct in describing any interaction in which one of two species benefits by feeding on the other species? A) mutualism B) competition C) exploitation D) + interaction E) commensalism Answer: C Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1 15) Which of the following phrases best describes an ecological niche? A) a specific location where an organism resides B) the specific trophic level that an organism occupies C) an organism's specific role in the community D) the organism's role in recycling nutrients in its habitat E) an organism's relations with other community members Answer: C Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.1, V&C 1

16) In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to 8 after one species was removed. The species removed was likely a(n) A) invasive species. B) keystone species. C) foundational species. D) quaternary consumer. E) tertiary consumer. Answer: B Topic: 41.2 Biological communities can be characterized by their diversity and trophic structure Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.2, G2 17) Elephants are not the most dominant species in African grasslands, yet they influence community structure. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants, but they are kept in check by the uprooting activities of the elephants. If the elephants are taken away, the grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. The newly growing forests support fewer species than the previous grasslands. Which of the following describes why elephants are the keystone species in this scenario? A) Elephants have a disparate influence on communities relative to their abundance. B) Grazing animals depend upon the work of elephants to convert forests to grassland. C) Elephants prevent droughts in African grasslands by uprooting shrubs and trees. D) Elephants are the largest of all the herbivorous mammals in their communities. E) Elephants help other populations survive by keeping out many large predators. Answer: A Topic: 41.2 Biological communities can be characterized by their diversity and trophic structure Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.2, G2 18) According to top-down control model of community organization, which of the following expressions correctly represents a decrease in prey/secondary consumer (P) as a result of an increase in a predator/tertiary consumer (T), but not vice versa? A) P ← T B) P → T C) T ↔ P D) T → P E) T ← P Answer: A Topic: 41.2 Biological communities can be characterized by their diversity and trophic structure Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.2, G2, G3

19) Which of the following is a likely explanation for why invasive species take over communities into which they have been introduced? A) Invasive species are less efficient than native species in competing for limited environmental resources. B) Invasive species are not held in check by the predators and agents of disease that effect native species. C) Invasive species reproduce at higher reproductive rates when compared to rates of native species. D) Invasive species that were formerly isolated thrive when they are faced with competitive species. Answer: B Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved, 41.2 Biological communities can be characterized by their diversity and trophic structure Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.1, 41.2, G2 20) Which of the following most correctly represents biomanipulation through the top-down model? A) removal of secondary consumers, so that tertiary consumers can increase B) addition of primary producers, so that secondary consumers can increase C) addition of quaternary consumers, so that tertiary consumers can decrease D) removal of tertiary consumers, so that secondary consumers can increase Answer: D Topic: 41.2 Biological communities can be characterized by their diversity and trophic structure Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.2, G2 21) Imagine five forest communities, each with 100 individuals distributed among four different tree species (W, X, Y, and Z). Which forest community would be most diverse? A) 25W, 25X, 25Y, 25Z B) 40W, 30X, 20Y, 10Z C) 50W, 25X, 15Y, 10Z D) 70W, 10X, 10Y, 10Z E) 100W, 0X, 0Y, 0Z Answer: A Topic: 41.2 Biological communities can be characterized by their diversity and trophic structure Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.2, G2, G3, G4

22) In a lake with three trophic levels (non-native fish, zooplankton, algae), how might an algal bloom be prevented? A) Remove the non-native fish. B) Remove the zooplankton. C) Add nutrient fertilizers. D) Add more non-native fish. Answer: A Topic: 41.2 Biological communities can be characterized by their diversity and trophic structure Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.2, G2 23) The feeding relationships between species in a community is called A) biomass chain. B) trophic structure. C) top-down control. D) bottom-up control. Answer: B Topic: 41.2 Biological communities can be characterized by their diversity and trophic structure Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.2, V & C 2 24) According to the non-equilibrium model, A) communities remain stable when competition is absent. B) disturbances cause irreversible damage in communities. C) native species-species contact alters communities in time. D) communities are constantly changing due to disturbances. Answer: D Topic: 41.3 Disturbance influences species diversity and composition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.3, V & C 2 25) In a particular case of secondary succession, three species of wild grass invaded a field. A fourth species's seeds were also dispersed to this field, but despite being adapted to the abiotic conditions, this fourth species did not establish. A possible factor in this secondary succession was A) equilibrium. B) facilitation. C) immigration. D) inhibition. E) parasitism. Answer: D Topic: 41.3 Disturbance influences species diversity and composition Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.3, G2 26) In 1988, a severe drought contributed to a forest fire in Yellowstone National Park. Approximately one year later, herbaceous plants, unlike those in the original forest, covered the 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

forest floor. Which of the following most correctly describes the process of this herbaceous growth? A) low frequency disturbance B) primary succession C) secondary succession D) intermediate disturbance Answer: C Topic: 41.3 Disturbance influences species diversity and composition Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.3, G2 27) Why do moderate levels of disturbance result in an increase in community diversity? A) Moderate levels of disturbance open up new habitats for less competitive species. B) Dominant competitors increase in population at the exclusion of other species. C) Environmental conditions are optimal after a disturbance, so native species thrive. D) The resulting uniform habitat supports stability, which in turn supports diversity. E) Less-competitive species evolve strategies to compete with the dominant species. Answer: A Topic: 41.3 Disturbance influences species diversity and composition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.3, V & C 2 28) What are usually the first photosynthetic organisms to colonize during primary succession? A) shrubs B) lichens C) trees D) grasses Answer: B Topic: 41.3 Disturbance influences species diversity and composition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.3, V & C 2 29) Which of the following is considered to be a pioneer species colonizing Glacier Bay during primary succession? A) liverworts B) hemlock trees C) sphagnum moss D) spruce trees E) alder trees Answer: A Topic: 41.3 Disturbance influences species diversity and composition Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.3, V & C 2

30) Species richness increases A) in latitudinal gradients with decreased evapotranspiration. B) as we travel southward from the North Pole to the equator. C) on small islands as distance from the mainland increases. D) in communities experiencing frequent disturbance events. Answer: B Topic: 41.4 Biogeographic factors affect community diversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.4 31) Evapotranspiration varies based on the latitude of a community and the area a community occupies. Which of the following would result in the highest degree of evapotranspiration? A) annual low solar radiation with little precipitation B) annual high intensity sunlight with little rainfall C) annual low intensity sunlight with much rainfall D) annual high solar radiation with much precipitation Answer: D Topic: 41.4 Biogeographic factors affect community diversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.4 32) Why do tropical communities tend to have greater species diversity than temperate or polar communities? A) Tropical communities are less likely to be affected by human disturbance. B) There are fewer parasites to negatively affect the health of tropical communities. C) The tropics are lower in altitude as compared to temperate and polar regions. D) Tropical communities are generally older than temperate and polar communities. E) Competitive dominant species have evolved in temperate and polar communities. Answer: D Topic: 41.4 Biogeographic factors affect community diversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.4 33) Which of the following is a correct statement about the MacArthur/Wilson Island Equilibrium Model? A) Small islands typically have greater species diversity with lower extinction rates. B) As the number of species on an island increases, the emigration rate decreases. C) Competitive exclusion is less likely on an island that has large numbers of species. D) Small islands, a far distance from the mainland, receive few new immigrant species. E) Islands closer to the mainland have higher extinction rates and lower species diversity. Answer: D Topic: 41.4 Biogeographic factors affect community diversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.4

34) Which of the following factors influences the species richness of a community the most? A) amount of sunlight B) amount of precipitation C) speciation rate D) geographic size E) distance to other communities Answer: C Topic: 41.4 Biogeographic factors affect community diversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.4, V&C 1 35) Tuberculosis is a human disease caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis. When this pathogen is inhaled, it grows in lung cells, causing damage to the human host. Which of the following best describes the interaction between the bacterial pathogen Mycobacterium tuberculosis and its human host? A) mutualism B) commensalism C) competition D) exploitation Answer: D Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species, 41.5 Pathogens alter community structure locally and globally Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, 41.5, G2, G5 36) Which of the following best describes the consequences of white-band disease in Caribbean coral reefs? A) The population of staghorn coral has been decimated, but elkhorn coral has replaced it. B) The coral reef community for lobsters, snappers, and other reef fish species has improved. C) Fish herbivores have populated the area in response to increased algal population growth. D) Increased populations of algal species have led to an overall increase in reef diversity. E) Many other coral species have repopulated the habitats of the affected staghorn species. Answer: C Topic: 41.5 Pathogens alter community structure locally and globally Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.5 37) Zoonotic diseases A) are transmitted from one human to another human. B) can be transmitted by means of an insect vector. C) require direct contact between an animal and a human. D) require an intermediate host between animals and humans. Answer: B Topic: 41.5 Pathogens alter community structure locally and globally Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.5, G5 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

38) Which of the following studies would shed light on the mechanism of spread of H5N1 from Asia to North America? A) Check for the virus in the feces and saliva of waterfowl that have migrated to Alaska. B) Test fecal samples for H5N1 in Asian birds that live near domestic poultry farms in Asia. C) Locate and destroy H5N1 infected birds in Asian open-air markets prior to migration. D) Record the incidence of H5N1 infection in domestic poultry farms within Southeast Asia. Answer: A Topic: 41.5 Pathogens alter community structure locally and globally Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 41.5, G1, G2, G5 39) Which of the following best describes a pathogen? A) the bacteria that causes tuberculosis B) the tick that causes Lyme disease C) the pig that causes swine flu D) the bird that causes avian flu Answer: A Topic: 41.5 Pathogens alter community structure locally and globally Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.5, G5 40) Zoonotic diseases, like West Nile virus, are concentrated in distinct regions and spread at different rates. The difference in the rate of spread is most directly related to A) the type of pathogen. B) the host's mobility. C) the vector population. D) the area temperature. E) the regional rainfall. Answer: C Topic: 41.5 Pathogens alter community structure locally and globally Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.5, G2, G5

41.2 Art Questions Please use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

Figure 41.1 In this experiment, Balanus was removed from the habitat shown on the left. 1) Which of the following statements is a valid conclusion of this experiment? A) Balanus can survive only in the lower intertidal zone because it is unable to resist desiccation. B) Balanus is inferior to Chthamalus in competing for lower rock space in the intertidal zone. C) The two barnacle species are not competitive because they feed at different times of day. D) The results show that the realized niche of Chthamalus is smaller than its fundamental niche. E) The barnacles Balanus and Chthamalus do not show competitive exclusion between them. F) If Chthamalus species were removed, Balanus's fundamental niche would become larger. Answer: D Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.1, G3 2) Connell conducted this experiment to learn more about A) character displacement in the color of barnacles. B) habitat preference in two different species of barnacles. C) desiccation resistance exhibited by barnacle species. D) how sea-level changes affect barnacle distribution. E) competitive exclusion and distribution of barnacle species. Answer: E Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.1, G3

3) Chthamalus and Balanus belong to the same trophic level. Based on this information and their distributions in the low tide zone in Connell's experiment, what is the best way to represent the interaction between the two species using the symbols for positive (+) and negative (-) interaction? A) +/+ B) -/+ C) -/D) +/0 Answer: C Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, G2, G3 4)

Figure 41.2 Examine Figure 41.2. Which block shows the greatest diversity? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Topic: 41.2 Biological communities can be characterized by their diversity and trophic structure Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.2, G2, G3

Figure 41.3 Examine the diagram of a hypothetical food web in Figure 41.3. The arrows represent the transfer of energy between the various trophic levels. Which letter represents an organism that could be a primary producer? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Topic: 41.2 Biological communities can be characterized by their diversity and trophic structure Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.2, G2, G3

Use the diagram in Figure 41.4 of five islands formed at around the same time near a particular mainland, as well as MacArthur and Wilson's island biogeography principles, to answer the following question(s).

Figure 41.4 6) Which island would likely have the greatest species diversity? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 41.4 Biogeographic factors affect community diversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.4, G2, G3 7) Which island would likely exhibit the least species diversity? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Topic: 41.4 Biogeographic factors affect community diversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.4, G2, G3

8) Which island would likely have the lowest extinction rate? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Topic: 41.4 Biogeographic factors affect community diversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.4, G2, G3 41.3 Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the question(s) below. The symbols +, -, and 0 are to be used to show the results of interactions between individuals and groups of individuals in the examples that follow. The symbol + denotes a positive interaction, denotes a negative interaction, and 0 denotes an interaction that has no effect on the individuals involved. The first symbol refers to the first organism mentioned. 1) What interactions exist between the cattle egret and grazing cattle? A) 0/B) +/0 C) +/D) 0/0 E) -/Answer: B Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, G2 2) What interactions exist between a lion pride and a hyena pack if they utilize the same food sources? A) +/+ B) +/0 C) +/D) 0/0 E) -/Answer: E Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, G2

3) What interactions exist between a bee and a flower? A) +/+ B) +/0 C) +/D) 0/0 E) -/Answer: A Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, G2 4) What interactions exist between a tick on a dog and the dog? A) +/+ B) +/0 C) +/D) 0/0 E) -/Answer: C Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, G2 5) What interactions exist between cellulose-digesting organisms in the gut of a termite and the termite? A) +/+ B) +/0 C) +/D) 0/0 E) -/Answer: A Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, G2

6) What interactions exist between mycorrhizae (root fungus) and evergreen tree roots? A) +/+ B) +/0 C) +/D) 0/0 E) -/Answer: A Topic: 41.1 Interactions within a community may help, harm, or have no effect on the species involved Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.1, G2

Please use the following information to answer the question(s) below. The effect of invasive species on the diversity of communities can be large, and protecting native communities from the invasion of non-native species is often a priority for conservation. You conduct an experiment to study how the impact of invasive plant species on the diversity of plant communities varies as a function of distance from the source of the invasive species. In this experiment, you create five communities with equal numbers of three native plant species at the beginning. Each of these communities is located at increasing distances from a large patch of an invasive species. You and your research assistant return 1 year later to measure the relative abundance of each species. The results are shown in the table.

7) The biological hypothesis for your experiment is based on the model of island biogeography. What is the independent variable of your experiment? A) the native plant communities 1-5 B) the patch of the invasive species C) the distance from the invasive species D) the relative abundance of plant species E) the duration of the experiment Answer: C Topic: 41.4 Biogeographic factors affect community diversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.4, G1, G2, G7

8) Based on the Shannon Diversity calculations, which of the following communities is most diverse? A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 E) 1 Answer: C Topic: 41.2 Biological communities can be characterized by their diversity and trophic structure; Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 41.2, 41.4, G2, G3, G4 9) Which of the following most correctly describes the principle of relative abundance? A) the variety of different types of organisms in a community B) the quantity of different species found in a community C) the proportion of each individual species within a community D)the relative abundance is the same as the Shannon Diversity Index Answer: C Topic: 41.2 Biological communities can be characterized by their diversity and trophic structure Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 41.2 41.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) The feeding relationships among the species in a community determine the community's A) secondary succession. B) ecological niche. C) species richness. D) trophic structure. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Based on the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, a community's species diversity is increased by A) frequent massive disturbance. B) stable conditions with no disturbance. C) moderate levels of disturbance. D) human intervention to eliminate disturbance. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3) Which of the following could qualify as a top-down control on a grassland community? A) limitation of plant biomass by rainfall amount B) influence of temperature on competition among plants C) influence of soil nutrients on the abundance of grasses versus wildflowers D) effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 42 Ecosystems and Energy 42.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In ecosystems, why is the term cycling used to describe the transfer of chemical elements, whereas the term flow is used for energy exchange? A) Chemical elements are repeatedly used, but energy passes through and between ecosystems. B) Photosynthesis results in transforming chemical elements with no effect on energy transfer. C) Chemical elements flow between ecosystems, whereas energy stays within one ecosystem. D) Photosynthesis alters system energy without a change in the number of chemical elements. Answer: A Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.1, V&C 4 2) Which statement most accurately describes how matter and energy are used in ecosystems? A) Matter flows through ecosystems; energy cycles within a single ecosystem. B) Energy flows through ecosystems; matter cycles within and through ecosystems. C) Energy can be converted into matter; matter cannot be converted into energy. D) Matter can be converted into energy; energy cannot be converted into matter. E) Matter is used in every ecosystem; energy is only used in some ecosystems. Answer: B Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.1, V&C 4 3) The law of conservation of mass states that matter cannot be created, yet matter is sometimes gained or lost to an ecosystem. What is the reason for this seeming contradiction? A) Chemosynthetic prokaryotes convert all organic matter to energy. B) Matter can be moved between ecosystems as they are open systems. C) Autotrophs convert simple sugars to complex organic molecules. D) Matter can be lost to the environment as it is converted to energy. E) Heterotrophs convert light energy to non-living organic matter. Answer: B Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.1, V&C 4

4) Photosynthetic organisms are unique to most ecosystems because they A) synthesize organic compounds they obtain from decaying heterotrophs. B) synthesize inorganic compounds from decaying organic compounds. C) use light energy to synthesize organic matter from inorganic matter. D) use chemical energy to synthesize organic matter from decaying matter. E) convert light and chemical energy into inorganic and organic matter. Answer: C Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.1 5) A cow's herbivorous diet indicates that it is a(n) A) primary consumer. B) secondary consumer. C) chemotrophic animal. D) autotrophic animal. E) primary producer. Answer: A Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.1 6) To recycle nutrients, an ecosystem must have, at a minimum, A) producers. B) producers and decomposers. C) producers, primary consumers, and decomposers. D) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers. E) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, top carnivores, and decomposers. Answer: B Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.1 7) Scientists use trophic cycles to study the flow of matter in an ecosystem by observing feeding relationships between organisms. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the terminology used in trophic cycles? A) It is incorrect to refer to an omnivore as a heterotroph. B) The terms herbivore and autotroph mean the same thing. C) Labeling a carnivore as a heterotroph would be correct. D) Autotrophs can be correctly labeled as primary consumers. E) Primary producers would include the heterotrophic species. Answer: C Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.1, G2

8) Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem? A) all of the brook trout in a 500-square-hectare river drainage system B) the interactions between all plant and animal species in a savanna C) the plants, animals, and decomposers that inhabit an alpine meadow D) a pond and all of the various plant and animal species that live in it E) the interactions between all organisms and their desert environment Answer: E Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.1, G2 9) If the sun were to suddenly stop providing energy to Earth, most ecosystems would vanish. Which of the following ecosystems would likely survive the longest after this hypothetical disaster? A) Brazilian rain forest ecosystem B) Antarctic tundra ecosystem C) Pacific deep-sea vent ecosystem D) African grassland ecosystem E) California desert ecosystem Answer: C Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.1, G2, G7 10) Which of the following is most correct regarding the activity of detritivores? A) They synthesize the organic molecules that are used by the primary producers. B) They convert organic matter to inorganic, which is used by primary producers. C) They are primary producers that convert organic matter into inorganic detritus. D) They are autotrophs and heterotrophs that convert detritus to organic matter. Answer: B Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.1, V&C 4 11) The major role of detritivores in ecosystems is to A) provide an organic nutritional resource for heterotrophic organisms. B) recycle chemical matter to a form capable of being used by autotrophs. C) prevent the buildup of the remains of organisms at all trophic levels. D) convert organic matter to energy previously lost by the ecosystem. Answer: B Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.1, V&C 4

12) Primary producers support the primary consumers in an ecosystem. Which of the following is most correct regarding primary producers? A) Primary producers occupy the trophic level that directly feeds all autotrophs. B) Heterotrophs are able to thrive in an ecosystem without primary producers. C) Chemoautotrophic prokaryotes near deep-sea vents are primary producers. D) Detritivores have no interaction with the primary producers in an ecosystem. Answer: C Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.1, V&C 4 13) Approximately 1% of the solar radiation that strikes a plant is converted into the chemical bond energy of sugars. Why is this amount so low? A) Approximately 99% of the incoming solar radiation is converted to heat energy. B) Only 1% of visible light wavelengths are absorbed by photosynthetic pigments. C) 50% of the sun's energy strikes large bodies of water and barren land surfaces. D) 99% of the solar radiation is reflected, absorbed, or scattered in the atmosphere. E) Only the green wavelengths of light are absorbed by plants for photosynthesis. Answer: B Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2, V&C 4 14) What percentage of visible light striking a plant is converted into chemical energy? A) 1% B) 10% C) 25% D) 50% E) 100% Answer: A Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 15) Subtraction of which of the following will convert gross primary productivity into net primary productivity? A) the energy contained in the standing crop B) the energy used by heterotrophs in respiration C) the energy used by autotrophs in respiration D) the energy fixed by photosynthetic processes E) the energy absorbed as solar or light energy Answer: C Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Which of these ecosystems accounts for the largest amount of Earth's net primary productivity? A) Antarctic tundra B) African savanna C) Florida salt marsh D) Pacific open ocean E) Bolivian rain forest Answer: D Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 17) Which of these ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity per square meter annually? A) Nigerian savanna B) Southern open ocean C) Canada's boreal forest D) Amazon rain forest E) Asian temperate forest Answer: D Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 18) The availability of soil nutrients has a direct effect on primary productivity. Which of the following is most correct regarding non-limiting and limiting nutrients? A) Only phosphorus acts as a limiting nutrient to global primary productivity. B) Adding a limiting nutrient, such as nitrogen, would decrease primary production. C) Increases in non-limiting nutrients result in increases in primary productivity. D) Nitrogen is the limiting nutrient when considering global primary production. E) Phosphorous is the only limiting nutrient in terrestrial primary productivity. Answer: D Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 19) Which of the following refers to the amount of new biomass added in a given period of time? A) net ecosystem production B) net primary productivity C) secondary productivity D) trophic level efficiency E) gross primary productivity Answer: B Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) How is it that the open ocean produces the highest net primary productivity of Earth's ecosystems, yet net primary productivity per square meter is relatively low? A) Oceans contain more nutrients as compared to other ecosystems. B) Oceans receive a lesser amount of solar radiation per unit area. C) Oceans have the largest area of all the many ecosystems on Earth. D) Ocean ecosystems are less diverse with more autotrophs per unit area. E) Oceanic producers are generally much smaller than oceanic consumers. Answer: C Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 21) Why is net primary production (NPP) a more useful measurement to an ecosystem ecologist than gross primary production (GPP)? A) NPP can be expressed in energy per unit of area per unit of time [J/(m2.yr]. B) NPP is expressed in terms of carbon fixed by photosynthesis for an ecosystem. C) NPP represents the stored energy available to consumers in an ecosystem. D) NPP is the same as the total biomass of the photosynthetic autotrophs present. E) NPP shows the rate at which the total biomass is utilized by primary consumers. Answer: C Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 22) The measures of net primary production (NPP) and net ecosystem production (NEP) both can be used to quantify gross primary production (GPP). Which of the following most correctly explains a difference between these two measures? A) NPP measures GPP minus the energy used by all heterotrophs. B) NEP measures GPP minus the energy used by all autotrophs. C) NPP measures GPP minus the energy used by primary producers. D) NEP measures GPP minus the energy used by primary consumers. E) NPP measures GPP minus the energy used by all detritivores. Answer: C Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 23) Aquatic primary productivity is most limited by which of the following? A) light and nutrient availability B) predation by primary consumers C) increased pressure with depth D) unregulated industrial pollution E) global increases in temperature Answer: A Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Gross primary production in aquatic ecosystems is most likely to be limited by decreases in which of the following nutrient pairs? A) nitrogen and phosphorous B) carbon and phosphorous C) potassium and phosphorous D) iron and phosphorous E) molybdenum and phosphorous Answer: A Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 25) What is the primary limiting factor for aquatic primary production? A) water pressure B) lack of nutrients C) light availability D) primary consumers E) invasive organisms Answer: B Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 26) Which of the following ecosystems would likely have a larger net primary productivity per hectare (10,000 m2), and why? A) the Atlantic open ocean due to the total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs B) the Asian temperate grasslands due to conditions suited for rapid decomposition C) the Costa Rican rain forest due to high annual rainfall and moderate temperatures D) the Alps underground caverns and caves due to the abundance of photoautotrophs E) the Arctic tundra due to extreme growth patterns during the warm summer season Answer: C Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.2, G2 27) Climatic factors such as temperature and rainfall affect net primary production (NPP). Which of the following climate-related events led to an increase in NPP in terrestrial ecosystems? A) severe droughts in the American Southwest B) bark beetle infestations in white pine forests C) wildfires in the Yellowstone National Park D) decreased cloud cover in Amazon rain forests E) increased phosphorous in the Atlantic Ocean Answer: D Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.2 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) A moderate-size lake in the American Midwest suddenly has succumbed to an algal bloom. What is the likely cause of eutrophication in this lake? A) increased solar radiation during the summer season B) the introduction of non-native tertiary consumer fish C) excessive farm fertilizer runoff during a heavy rainfall D) accidental introduction of a prolific culture of algae E) iron dust blowing into the lake from area factories Answer: C Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.2, G2 29) Which of the following lists of organisms is ranked in correct order from lowest to highest production efficiency? A) bears, fish, mosquitos B) mosquitos, fish, bears C) fish, mosquitos, bears D) mosquitos, bears, fish E) bears, mosquitos, fish Answer: A Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2 30) Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient. Approximately how many kilograms of secondary consumer biomass can be supported by a field plot containing 1,000 kg of plant material? A) 10,000 B) 1,000 C) 100 D) 10 E) 1 Answer: D Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2, G4

31) The amount of chemical energy in a consumer's food that is converted to its own new biomass during a given time period is known as which of the following? A) tertiary production B) quaternary production C) primary production D) secondary production Answer: D Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.3 32) Secondary production is A) energy conversion by secondary consumers received from primary consumers. B) solar energy that is converted to chemical energy by photosynthetic producers. C) chemical energy in food that is converted to new biomass by consuming organism. D) energy that is transferred when not used by consumers for growth and reproduction. E) growth that takes place during the second year of life in heterotrophic consumers. Answer: C Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.3 33) It is well known that animals at higher trophic levels are vulnerable to extinction. Which of the following factors is most likely to increase the likelihood of extinction? A) increased dry mass at higher trophic levels B) increased energy transfer at higher levels C) the same energy transfer at all levels D) decreased energy transfer at higher levels E) decreased dry mass at higher trophic levels Answer: E Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2, G5 34) Trophic efficiency basically measures the efficiency of energy transfer. Which of the following is most correct in illustrating a measurement of trophic efficiency? A) 9% of energy passed from a primary consumer to a tertiary consumer B) 5% of energy passed from a primary producer to a secondary consumer C) 12% of energy passed from a primary producer to a primary consumer D) 7% of energy passed from a tertiary consumer to a primary consumer E) 10% of energy passed from a primary consumer to a primary producer Answer: B Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, V&C 4, G2

35) Assume that, over a period of time, an owl consumes 5000 J of animal matter. The owl loses 2000 J in feces and uses 100 J for cellular respiration. The remainder of the energy was used for growth and reproduction. What is the production efficiency based on the energy stored in assimilated food for this owl? A) 50% B) 40% C) 70% D) 30% E) 10% Answer: A Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2, G4 36) Why does a vegetarian leave a smaller ecological footprint than a person who eats meat? A) Fewer farm animals are slaughtered for human consumption. B) There is an excess of plant biomass in all terrestrial ecosystems. C) Vegetarians need to ingest less chemical energy than omnivores. D) Vegetarians require less protein to sustain life than do omnivores. E) Eating meat is an inefficient way to utilize autotrophic productivity. Answer: E Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.3, G5 37) For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids composed of species abundances, biomass, and energy are similar in that they have a broad base and a narrow top. The primary reason for this pattern is that A) secondary consumers and top-level carnivores require far less energy than producers. B) at each step, energy is lost from the system because of the second law of thermodynamics. C) as matter passes through ecosystems, some of the matter is lost to the environment as heat. D) toxin accumulation in an animal's tissues limits the secondary consumers and top carnivores. E) top carnivores and secondary consumers have a more general diet than primary producers. Answer: B Topic: Concepts 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems, 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.1, 42.3

38) The number of trophic levels is typically limited to four or five. Which of the following is primarily responsible for this limitation? A) Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders. B) Decomposers compete with higher-order consumers for nutrients and energy. C) Nutrient cycles involve both abiotic and biotic components of ecosystems. D) Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition by detritivores. E) Energy transfer between trophic levels tends to be of very low efficiency. Answer: E Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.3 39) Which trophic level is most vulnerable to extinction? A) milkweed plants that conduct photosynthesis B) monarch caterpillars that eat milkweed plants C) goldfinches that eat monarch caterpillars D) large golden eagles that eat goldfinches E) inky cap fungus that breaks down detritus Answer: D Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2 40) Some chemical energy is not converted to new biomass as energy is transferred between trophic levels. Which of the following best describes the fate of the unconverted energy? A) It is all undigested and excreted as feces, so it is not passed on to higher trophic levels. B) It is only used by organisms to maintain essential processes like cellular respiration. C) It is converted during cellular respiration to heat helping the heterotroph to stay warm. D) It is eliminated as feces or released as heat to satisfy the second law of thermodynamics. E) It is recycled by decomposers to a form that is once again usable by primary producers. Answer: D Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.3 41) Consider the food chain grass → grasshopper → mouse → snake → hawk. How much of the chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis of the grass (100%) is available to the hawk? A) 0.01% B) 0.1% C) 1% D) 10% E) 60% Answer: A Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2, G4 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) The flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain: phytoplankton to zooplankton to fish to seals to polar bears. Which of the following is most correct about this food chain? A) Less energy is transferred from fish to seals than from seals to bears. B) The total biomass of the fish population is lower than that of the seals. C) Energy transfer is greater from zooplankton to fish than from fish to seals. D) Seal populations are larger than zooplankton and phytoplankton populations. E) There is equal energy transfer in joules between all organisms at all levels. Answer: C Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2 43) Nitrogen can be used by plants in the form of A) nitrogen gas. B) nitrite ions. C) uric acid. D) ammonia. E) nitrate ions. Answer: E Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.4 44) Which of the following locations is the main reservoir for nitrogen in Earth's nitrogen cycle? A) atmosphere B) solid rock C) plant fossils D) plant biomass E) soil bacteria Answer: A Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.4 45) Which of the following locations is the largest reservoir for carbon in the carbon cycle? A) atmosphere B) sedimentary rocks C) fossilized plants D) plant biomass E) soil bacteria Answer: B Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.4

46) In the nitrogen cycle, the organisms that convert nitrate to atmosphere N2 are A) detritivores. B) nitrifying bacteria. C) denitrifying bacteria. D) nitrogen-fixing bacteria. E) decomposers. Answer: C Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.4 47) How does phosphorus normally enter ecosystems? A) from cellular respiration B) from photosynthesis C) from rock weathering D) from the atmosphere Answer: C Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.4 48) Which of the following statements about biogeochemical cycling is correct? A) The phosphorus cycle includes the recycling of atmospheric phosphorus gas. B) The phosphorus cycle involves the weathering of rocks of marine origin. C) The carbon cycle incorporates carbon dioxide produced from photosynthesis. D) The carbon cycle always maintains a constant level of atmospheric CO2. Answer: B Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.4 49) Why do logged tropical rain forests typically have nutrient-poor soils? A) Decomposition on the forest floor takes four to six years on average. B) Logging results in soil temperatures that are lethal to nitrogen-fixing bacteria. C) Most of the nutrients in the ecosystem are removed in the harvested timber. D) Nutrients evaporate easily into the atmosphere in the post-logged forest. Answer: C Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.4, G2, G5

50) In the nitrogen cycle, which step depends exclusively on bacteria? A) fertilizer runoff into waterways B) sedimentation into lake bottoms C) decomposition of detritus D) nitrogen fixation in roots Answer: D Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.4, G2 51) Rain falls on a fertilized agricultural field after a farmer has harvested the corn. Which biogeochemical cycles are involved when runoff from the field flows into a nearby stream? A) only carbon and water B) only water and nitrogen C) only carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus D) only water, nitrogen, and phosphorus Answer: D Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.4, G2 52) What is the first step in the restoration of an extremely degraded ecosystem? A) to restore the physical structure B) to restore the native species C) to remove competitive invasive species D) to identify the factors limiting producers E) to remove toxic pollutants Answer: A Topic: 42.5 Restoration ecologists return degraded ecosystems to a more natural state Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.5, G5 53) What is the goal of restoration ecology? A) to replace a ruined ecosystem with a more suitable ecosystem B) to initiate or accelerate the restoration of a degraded ecosystem C) to completely restore a disturbed ecosystem to its former state D) to prevent further degradation by protecting an area with park status E) to manage competition between species in human-altered ecosystems Answer: B Topic: 42.5 Restoration ecologists return degraded ecosystems to a more natural state Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 42.5, G5

54) Which of the following is an example of bioremediation? A) bulldozing the land around an abandoned strip mine to combat erosion B) scraping a river bottom with a tool to remove contaminated sediments C) reconfiguring a river channel to increase the flow of water down a river D) using microorganisms to eat oil in marine waters after a tanker oil spill E) selectively logging younger trees to leave older trees for woodpecker nests Answer: D Topic: 42.5 Restoration ecologists return degraded ecosystems to a more natural state Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.5, G2, G5 55) After Hurricane Katrina, sunflowers and other plants were planted to selectively remove contaminants from the soil. Once the plants matured, they were pulled up by the roots and safely stored with other contaminated wastes. This is an example of A) biological augmentation. B) reducing primary production. C) lowering production efficiency. D) detoxification by phytoremediation. E) obstruction of nutrient cycling. Answer: D Topic: 42.5 Restoration ecologists return degraded ecosystems to a more natural state Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.5, G2, G5 56) Corn production can be limited by nitrogen levels in the soil. Some farmers reduce the need to apply ammonia to their fields by rotating corn crops with nitrogen-fixing soybean crops. Using soybeans to add nitrogen to degraded soils is an example of A) biological augmentation. B) reducing fertilizer runoff. C) production efficiency. D) plant bioremediation. E) trophic level efficiency. Answer: A Topic: 42.5 Restoration ecologists return degraded ecosystems to a more natural state Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.5, G2, G5

57) In Japan, seaweed and seagrass bed reconstruction included constructing a seafloor habitat, transplanting seaweeds and seagrasses, and hand seeding. Which of the following correctly pairs the specific task with the restoration strategy? A) biological augmentation–transplanting seaweeds B) biological augmentation–constructing seafloor habitat C) bioremediation–hand seeding D) bioremediation–transplanting seagrasses Answer: A Topic: 42.5 Restoration ecologists return degraded ecosystems to a more natural state Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.5, G2, G5 42.2 Art Questions

Figure 42.1 Food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem (arrows represent energy flow and numbers represent species) 1) Examine the food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem in Figure 42.1. Which species is autotrophic? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.1, G2, G3

2) Examine the food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem in Figure 42.1. Which species is most likely a decomposer in this food web? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.1, G2, G3 3) Examine the food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem in Figure 42.1. Species C is toxic to predators. Which species is most likely to benefit from being a mimic of C? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 42.1, G2, G3, G7 4) Examine the food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem in Figure 42.1. Which pair of species acquire energy from more than one trophic level? A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 4 C) 2 and 3 D) 3 and 4 E) 3 and 5 Answer: E Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.1, G2, G3

Figure 42.2 Diagram of a food web (arrows represent energy flow and numbers represent species) 5) If Figure 42.2 represents a terrestrial food web, the combined biomass of 3 + 4 would probably be A) greater than the biomass of 1. B) less than the biomass of 8. C) greater than the biomass of 2. D) less than the biomass of 1 + 2. E) less than the biomass of 6. Answer: D Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2, G3 6) If Figure 42.2 represents a marine food web, the simplest organism might be A) 1. B) 6. C) 3. D) 9. E) 5. Answer: A Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2, G3

Figure 42.3 7) In the diagram of the nitrogen cycle in Figure 42.3, which number represents nitrogen gas? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.4, G2, G3 8) In the diagram of the nitrogen cycle in Figure 42.3, which number represents the ammonium ion (NH4+)? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.4, G2, G3

9) In the diagram of the nitrogen cycle in Figure 42.3, which number represents nitrogen-fixing bacteria? A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 1 Answer: A Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.4, G2, G3 10) In the diagram of the nitrogen cycle in Figure 42.3, which number represents the activity of nitrifying bacteria converting ammonium to nitrate? A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 3 Answer: B Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.4, G2, G3 42.3 Scenario Questions 1) As big as it is, the ocean is nutrient-limited. If you wanted to investigate this, one reasonable approach would be to A) follow whale migrations in order to determine where most nutrients are located. B) observe Southern/Antarctic Ocean productivity from year to year to see if it changes. C) enrich some areas of the ocean, and compare their productivity to that of untreated areas. D) compare nutrient concentrations between photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic zones. E) contrast nutrient uptake by autotrophs in marine locations with different temperatures. Answer: C Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 42.2, G1, G2

2) A porcupine eats 3000 J of plant material. Of this, 2000 J are indigestible and are eliminated as feces, 900 J are used in cellular respiration, and 100 J are used for growth and reproduction. What is the approximate production efficiency of this animal? A) 0.03% B) 3% C) 10% D) 5% E) 67% Answer: C Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2, G4 3) Suppose you are studying the nitrogen cycling in a pond ecosystem over the course of a month. While you are collecting data, a flock of 100 migrating Canada geese lands and spends the night. How could you quantify the effect of this event on the pond's nitrogen cycling? A) Find out how much nitrogen is consumed in plant material by a Canada goose over about a 12-hour period, and add that amount to the total nitrogen. B) Find out how much nitrogen is eliminated by a Canada goose over about a 12-hour period, and subtract that amount from the total nitrogen in the ecosystem. C) Find out how much nitrogen is consumed and eliminated by a Canada goose over about a 12hour period, and record the net value of nitrogen associated with the goose visitation. D) Do nothing. The Canada geese visitation to the lake would have a negligible impact on the nitrogen budget of the pond. Answer: C Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 42.4, G1, G2, G4

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Starting with the European settlers, humans have introduced earthworms from Europe and Asia into North American forests. These introductions continue through the transport of soil that contains non-native earthworms, such as during construction and through the release of nonnative earthworms used for fishing. The effects of non-native earthworms are especially large in forests that did not have any native earthworms. For example, forests of the Great Lakes region did not previously have earthworms until humans introduced them. When non-native earthworms are introduced, the thick layer of leaf litter disappears quickly, thereby altering biogeochemical cycles. 4) Which of the following correctly traces a carbon molecule in a Great Lakes forest that is invaded with non-native earthworms? A) leaf litter → earthworm → soil → trees B) trees → leaf litter → earthworm → atmosphere C) bird → earthworm → soil → trees D) earthworm → fungi → leaf litter → trees Answer: B Topic: 42.1 Physical laws govern energy flow and chemical cycling in ecosystems; 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.1, 42.4, G2 5) Predict the fate of a phosphorus atom after a non-native earthworm consumes leaf litter in a forest. A) It is incorporated into the earthworm as an energy-storing molecule. B) It is excreted as ammonium ion by the non-native earthworm. C) It is released during cellular respiration as a phosphate ion. D) It is weathered into rocks as it is released from the soil and leaf litter. Answer: A Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.4, G2 6) You conduct an experiment to compare the nitrogen cycle in soils with and without non-native earthworms. Predict the results of your experiment. A) The soils with earthworms will have a faster rate of nitrogen fixation. B) The soils with earthworms will have a faster rate of ammonification. C) The soils with earthworms will have a slower rate of denitrification. D) The soils with earthworms will have a slower rate of nitrification. Answer: B Topic: 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.4, G1, G2

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. The tundra biome is rapidly changing as a result of global warming. Studying the energy budget of the tundra can help scientists to evaluate the magnitude of these changes. In a randomly selected square meter of tundra, the amount of plant biomass is 200 g. The amount of new plant biomass added in a year is 100 g. In the same square meter, the total biomass added in a year is 15 g. A grasshopper that eats 1 g of plant biomass is able to use 0.15 g of that biomass for growth. The grasshopper cannot assimilate 50% of the plant's biomass. 7) The 100 g of new plant biomass is the A) net ecosystem production. B) gross primary production. C) total biomass production. D) secondary production. E) net primary production. Answer: E Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.2, G2 8) If the total amount of energy from light converted into chemical energy in this square meter of tundra is 200 g, what is the amount of autotrophic respiration? A) 200 g B) 100 g C) 85 g D) 15 g E) 0.5 g Answer: B Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.2, G2, G4 9) What is the amount of secondary production described in this scenario? A) 100 g B) 85 g C) 15 g D) 1 g E) 0.15 g Answer: E Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2

10) What is the production efficiency of the grasshopper? A) 70% B) 50% C) 30% D) 15% Answer: D Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2, G4 11) What is the net ecosystem production of this square meter of tundra? A) 100 g B) 85 g C) 15 g D) 1 g E) 0.15 g Answer: C Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.2, G2, G4 12) What is the maximum biomass of grasshoppers that could be supported by this square meter of tundra (i.e., if grasshoppers ate all the existing vegetation)? A) 100 g B) 50 g C) 20 g D) 15 g Answer: C Topic: 42.3 Energy transfer between trophic levels is typically only 10% efficient Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.3, G2, G4

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. A scientist conducts an experiment to quantify the effect of mycorrhizae and soil nitrogen levels on plant growth in a grassland. The experiment has four treatments: (1) mycorrhizae present and ambient levels of nitrogen, (2) mycorrhizae present and nitrogen added, (3) mycorrhizae absent and ambient levels of nitrogen, and (3) mycorrhizae absent and nitrogen added. After four weeks, the scientist removes the aboveground plant material for weighing.

Figure 42.4 13) Figure 42.4 shows the results of the experiment. What is (are) the independent variable(s)? A) nitrogen treatment only B) biomass of aboveground plant only C) presence and absence of mycorrhizae D) nitrogen treatment and whether mycorrhizae are present Answer: D Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems; 42.4 Biological and geochemical processes cycle nutrients and water in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.2, 42.4, G1, G2, G3

14) What is the dependent variable in the experiment shown in Figure 42.4? A) net primary productivity B) total biomass of heterotrophs C) net secondary productivity D) total biomass of autotrophs Answer: D Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 42.2, G1, G2, G3 15) What conclusion is best supported by Figure 42.4? A) With ambient nitrogen levels, growth is limited even when mycorrhizae are present. B) Mycorrhizal associations result in the highest NPP levels regardless of nitrogen level. C) Interactions with mycorrhizae are always positive mutualistic fungal-plant interactions. D) Mycorrhizae should be added to restore successfully grasslands with high soil nitrogen. Answer: A Topic: 42.2 Energy and other limiting factors control primary production in ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 42.2, G1, G2, G3 42.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) Which of the following organisms is correctly paired with its trophic level? A) cyanobacterium–primary consumer B) grasshoppers–primary producers C) zooplankton–primary consumer D) detritivores–primary producers Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of these ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square meter? A) a salt marsh B) an open ocean C) a coral reef D) a tropical rain forest Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

3) The discipline that applies ecological principles to returning degraded ecosystems to a more natural state is known as A) restoration ecology. B) thermodynamics. C) eutrophication. D) biogeochemistry. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by A) converting nitrogen gas to ammonia. B) releasing ammonium from organic compounds. C) converting ammonium to nitrate. D) incorporating nitrogen into amino acids. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Which of the following has the greatest effect on the rate of chemical cycling in an ecosystem? A) the rate of decomposition in the ecosystem B) the production efficiency of the consumers C) the trophic efficiency of the ecosystem D) the location of the nutrient reservoirs Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Which of the following correctly represents an experimental result from the Hubbard Brook watershed deforestation experiment? A) Very few minerals were recycled within a forest ecosystem. B) Calcium levels remained high in the soil of deforested areas. C) Deforestation increased water runoff leaving the watershed. D) Water leaving the area of study had little to nitrogen present. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation? A) adding nitrogen-fixing bacteria to increase nitrogen availability B) using a bulldozer to regrade a strip mine to its original state C) reconfiguring the channel of a river to its natural river channel D) using a chromium-accumulating plant to extract soil chromium Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) If you applied a fungicide to a cornfield, what would you expect to happen to the rate of decomposition and net ecosystem production (NEP)? A) Both decomposition rate and NEP would decrease. B) Neither would change. C) Decomposition rate would increase, and NEP would decrease. D) Decomposition rate would decrease, and NEP would increase. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

Campbell Biology in Focus, 3e (Urry) Chapter 43 Conservation Biology and Global Change 43.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following ecological locations, if destroyed, would result in the greatest loss of species diversity? A) Antarctic tundra B) deciduous forests C) tropical rain forest D) temperate grasslands E) Pacific Ocean islands Answer: C Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1 2) Estimates of current rates of extinction A) indicate that rates of speciation equal extinction, so an equilibrium has been reached. B) suggest that one-half of all animal and plant species may be gone by the year 2100. C) indicate that rates may be greater than extinction rates seen in the fossil records. D) indicate that only 1% of all of the species that have ever lived on Earth are still alive. E) suggest that rates of extinction have decreased globally but have increased locally. Answer: C Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1 3) It is estimated that 99% of all species that ever lived are now extinct. Why, then, do we say we are now experiencing an extinction (loss of biodiversity) crisis? A) Humans are ethically responsible for protecting endangered species, but protection is limited. B) Most of the species on Earth have been identified, so rates of extinction can be quantified. C) The current rate of extinction is high, and human activities threaten biodiversity at all levels. D) High human need for plant-based medicinal compounds is leading to plant species extinction. E) Most biodiversity hot spots have been destroyed by recent ecological disasters, such as floods. Answer: C Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1

4) Which of the following will have the most effect on species biodiversity in the future? A) presence of invasive zebra mussels in Lake Michigan B) prolonged industrial mercury runoff into Lake Ontario C) oil and gas pipeline construction in tropical rain forests D) reduced water supply downstream due to a dam in China Answer: C Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.1, G2, G5 5) Although extinction is a natural process, current extinctions are of concern to environmentalists because A) more animals than ever before are going extinct globally. B) most current extinctions are caused by introduced species. C) the rate of extinction is higher than former extinction rates. D) current extinction is primarily affecting plant diversity. Answer: C Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1 6) Which of the following terms includes all of the others? A) species diversity B) biological diversity C) genetic diversity D) ecosystem diversity Answer: B Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1 7) The difference between an endangered species and a threatened one is that A) an endangered species is closer to extinction. B) a threatened species is closer to extinction. C) endangered species are mainly tropical. D) only endangered species are vertebrates. Answer: A Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1

8) What is our natural appreciation of wild environments and living organisms called? A) biodiversity B) biophilia C) conservation D) ecology Answer: B Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1 9) Which of the following is the most direct threat to global biodiversity? A) increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide B) the depletion of the protective ozone layer C) overexploitation of selected plant species D) habitat destruction due to human activity Answer: D Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1 10) Humans alter natural ecosystems. Which of the following would be the most likely detrimental effect of human disturbance of a natural ecosystem for the purpose of urban development? A) increases in waste decomposition by soil bacteria B) decreases in oxygen release by autotrophic plants C) increases in pollination rates by native insects D) decrease in toxins in the soil and groundwater Answer: B Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.1, G2, G5 11) What is the biological significance of genetic diversity between populations? A) Genes for adaptive traits to local conditions make microevolution possible. B) The population that is most fit would survive by competitive exclusion. C) Genetic diversity allows for species stability by preventing speciation. D) Diseases and parasites are not spread between separated populations. Answer: A Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1

12) Overharvesting encourages extinction and is most likely to affect A) animals that occupy a very broad ecological niche. B) large animals with low intrinsic reproductive rates. C) most organisms that live in the lakes and oceans. D) terrestrial organisms more than aquatic organisms. Answer: B Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1 13) How might the extinction of some Pacific Island bats called flying foxes threaten the survival of over 75% of the tree species in those islands? A) Flying foxes protect trees from invasive herbivores. B) Flying foxes are increasingly hunted as a luxury food. C) Flying foxes spread disease between trees in a population. D) Flying foxes pollinate tree flowers and disperse seeds. Answer: D Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1 14) The introduction of the brown tree snake in the 1940s to the island of Guam has resulted in A) eradication of invasive rats and other undesirable/pest species. B) the extinction of many of the island's bird and reptile species. C) a new hybrid snake species as a result of species crossbreeding. D) local extinction of the brown tree snake due to native competition. Answer: B Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1 15) Which of the following examples poses the greatest potential threat to biodiversity? A) replanting a single culture of native trees in a clear-cut old-growth forest B) allowing farmland to lie idle and begin to fill in with weeds and then shrubs C) lack of regulations to limit the harvesting of the medicinal plant ginseng D) human damming of a large river in a South American tropical rain forest Answer: D Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.1, G2, G5

16) Which of the following species was driven to extinction by overharvesting by hunters/fishermen? A) African elephant B) the great auk C) flying foxes D) zebra mussels Answer: B Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1 17) The wood turtle (Glyptemys insculpta) is endangered through much of its range in North America. As the populations shrink in size, it becomes even more difficult for turtles to find mates, and small populations have steadily become smaller. What best describes what the wood turtles in small populations are experiencing? A) overharvesting B) an extinction vortex C) habitat loss D) climate change Answer: B Topic: 43.2 Population conservation focuses on population size, genetic diversity, and critical habitat Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.2, V&C 1, G2 18) Which of the following conditions is the most likely indicator of a population in an extinction vortex? A) The population is geographically divided into many populations. B) The species is now found only in small pockets of its former range. C) The effective population size of the species studied falls below 500. D) Genetic measurements indicate a loss of genetic variation over time. Answer: D Topic: 43.2 Population conservation focuses on population size, genetic diversity, and critical habitat Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.2, V&C 1

19) Review the formula for effective population size: Ne (effective population) =

Imagine a total population of 1,000 small rodents. Of these, 300 are breeding females, 300 are breeding males, and 400 are nonbreeding juveniles. What is the effective population size? A) 1,000 B) 1,200 C) 600 D) 400 E) 300 Answer: C Topic: 43.2 Population conservation focuses on population size, genetic diversity, and critical habitat Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.2, G3, G4 20) If the sex ratio in a population is significantly different from 50:50, then which of the following will always be true? A) The genetic variation in the population will increase over time. B) The genetic variation in the population will decrease over time. C) The effective population size will be greater than the effective population size. D) The effective population size will be less than the effective population size. Answer: D Topic: 43.2 Population conservation focuses on population size, genetic diversity, and critical habitat Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.2 21) Which of the following can potentially influence effective population size (Ne)? A) length of life span after reproduction B) body size of individual members C) number of alleles per each trait D) genetic relatedness of members Answer: D Topic: 43.2 Population conservation focuses on population size, genetic diversity, and critical habitat Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.2

22) The word triage originated during World War I and was first used by French doctors in prioritizing patients based on the severity of their wounds because there were more wounded soldiers in need of urgent care than there were resources to treat them. Conservation biologists have to make similar determinations with degraded ecosystems. Which of the following is the most important consideration when it comes to managing for maintenance of biodiversity? A) creating public awareness of endangered vertebrate species and plans to save them B) determining which species is most important for conserving biodiversity as a whole C) altering a non-native habitat to be more suitable for an invasive rare bird species D) sustaining optimum population size of all plant and animal species in the ecosystem Answer: B Topic: 43.2 Population conservation focuses on population size, genetic diversity, and critical habitat Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.2 23) The primary difference between the small-population approach (S-PA) and the decliningpopulation approach (D-PA) to biodiversity recovery is A) S-PA is interested in bolstering the genetic diversity of a threatened population rather than the environmental factors that caused the population's decline. B) D-PA would likely involve bringing together individuals from scattered small populations to interbreed in order to promote genetic diversity. C) S-PA would investigate and eliminate all of the human impacts on the habitat of the species being studied for recovery. D) D-PA would use recently collected population data to calculate an effective population size. Answer: A Topic: 43.2 Population conservation focuses on population size, genetic diversity, and critical habitat Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.2, G1 24) Managing southeastern forests specifically for the red-cockaded woodpecker A) required the growth of a dense understory of trees and shrubs. B) included providing nesting cavities for breeding groups. C) caused other species of songbird to decline in population. D) involved the creation of fragmented forest habitat. Answer: B Topic: 43.2 Population conservation focuses on population size, genetic diversity, and critical habitat Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.2

25) According to the small-population approach, what would be the best strategy for saving a population from extinction in its current environment? A) determining the minimum viable population size B) establishing a nature reserve to protect its habitat C) translocating the same species from other areas D) determining and remedying the cause of decline E) reducing the population size of competing species Answer: C Topic: 43.2 Population conservation focuses on population size, genetic diversity, and critical habitat Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.2 26) Which of the following is true about the current research regarding forest fragmentation? A) Small patches of forest result in greater biodiversity of forest-interior species. B) Large patches of forest result in greater biodiversity of forest-exterior species. C) Small patches of forest result in lesser biodiversity of forest-interior species. D) Large patches of forest result in lesser biodiversity of forest-exterior species. Answer: C Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.3 27) Relatively small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species and a large number of endangered and threatened species are known as A) nature reserves. B) movement corridors. C) biodiversity hot spots. D) extinction vortices. Answer: C Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.3 28) How is habitat fragmentation related to biodiversity loss? A) Less carbon dioxide is absorbed by plants in fragmented habitats. B) In smaller fragmented habitats, more soil erosion takes place. C) Smaller fragmented populations are more prone to extinction. D) Animals and plants are forced out of smaller habitat fragments. Answer: C Topic: Concepts 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity, 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1, 43.3

29) Brown-headed cowbirds, an edge-adapted species, utilize fragmented forests effectively by A) feeding on the fruits of shrubs that tend to grow at the forest/open-field interface. B) parasitizing forest bird nests and feeding on open-field insects in their patches. C) roosting in forest trees during mating season and nesting in grassy edge fields. D) outcompeting other songbird species for insects in fragmented communities. E) using forest cover to escape from predators in their normal grassland habitat. Answer: B Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.3 30) Which of the following is consistent with forest fragmentation research? A) The number of species is the same in both fragmented forests and forest interiors. B) Edge communities consistently have lower species diversity than interior ones. C) Forest-interior species show declines in population in small patch communities. D) Fragmented forests with small patches support more species than continuous forest. Answer: C Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.3 31) How are movement corridors potentially harmful to certain species? A) They increase inbreeding. B) They promote dispersion. C) They allow disease transmission. D) They permit seasonal migration. Answer: C Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.3 32) Biodiversity hot spots are not necessarily the best choice for nature preserves because A) hot spots need to be situated in remote areas not accessible to wildlife viewers. B) their ecological importance makes land purchase very expensive in those areas. C) a hot spot for one group of organisms may not be a hot spot for another group. D) hot spots are designated by the abiotic factors present, not the biotic factors. Answer: C Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.3

33) Which of the following nations has become a world leader in the establishment of zoned reserves? A) Costa Rica B) Canada C) China D) United States E) Mexico Answer: A Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.3 34) The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by A) their tolerance to shade. B) their seed dispersal rate. C) their physical size. D) their growth rate. Answer: B Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.4, G2, G5, G7 35) As the climate changes because of global warming, species' ranges of plants in the Northern Hemisphere may move northward, using effective reproductive adaptations to disperse their seeds. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that A) have seeds that are easily dispersed by wind or animals. B) produce seeds that contain large nutrient stores for growth. C) have seeds that become viable only after a forest fire. D) disperse many seeds in close proximity to the parent tree. Answer: A Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.4, G2, G5, G7 36) If global warming continues at its present rate, which biomes will likely take the place of the coniferous forest (taiga)? A) Arctic tundra and polar ice B) temperate broadleaf forest and grassland C) tropical forest and savanna D) tropical and temperate broadleaf forest Answer: B Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.4, G2, G5

37) Many temperate regions are affected by climate change. Which of the following investigations would lend understanding to the future distribution of organisms in temperate regions? A) Remove, to the mineral soil, all the organisms from an experimental plot, and monitor the colonization of the area over time in terms of both species diversity and abundance. B) Look at the climatic changes that occurred since the last ice age and how species redistributed as glaciers melted, then make predictions on future distribution in species based on past trends. C) Quantify the impact of humankind's activities on present-day populations of threatened and endangered species to assess the rate of extirpation and extinction. D) There is no scientific investigation that can help make predictions on the future distribution of organisms. Answer: B Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.4, G2, G5 38) Burning fossil fuels releases oxides of sulfur and nitrogen. These air pollutants can be responsible for A) the increase of fish populations in lakes. B) precipitation with a pH as low as 3.0. C) biological magnification of toxins. D) preventing the eutrophic process. Answer: B Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity, 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.1, 43.4 39) How can human-caused environmental changes create problems for selecting a site for a preserve? A) Nutrient enrichment prevents preserves from being connected by corridors. B) The site's environmental conditions may change because of climate change. C) Global warming makes all climates less suitable for maintaining high diversity. D) Only lands that are not useful to human activities are available for preserves. Answer: B Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.4

40) What is a critical load? A) the nutrient supplementation necessary to bring a depleted habitat back to its former level B) the level of a given toxin in an ecosystem that is lethal to 50% of the species present C) the population of a particular species beyond which additional numbers will degrade a habitat D) the amount of added nutrient that can be absorbed by plants without damaging the ecosystem Answer: D Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.4 41) The use of DDT as an insecticide in the United States has been outlawed since 1971, yet it is still a problem for certain top-level carnivores in the United States. Which of the following terms best explains this apparent incongruity? A) habitat fragmentation B) biological magnification C) extinction vortex D) biological manipulation Answer: B Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.4 42) Agricultural lands frequently require nutrient augmentation because A) pesticide use has decreased the nitrogen-fixing bacteria population in the soil. B) nutrients in plant biomass are not returned to the same soil where they are harvested. C) grains raised for feeding livestock must be fortified and thus require extra nutrients. D) cultivation of agricultural land inhibits the decomposition of organic matter. Answer: B Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.4 43) Which of the following refers to the reflecting and absorption of infrared radiation by atmospheric methane, carbon dioxide, and water? A) acid precipitation B) biological magnification C) greenhouse effect D) eutrophication Answer: C Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.4

44) What is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into aquatic ecosystems? A) acid precipitation B) biological magnification C) greenhouse effect D) eutrophication Answer: D Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.4 45) What causes extremely high levels of toxic chemicals in fish-eating birds? A) acid precipitation B) biological magnification C) greenhouse effect D) eutrophication Answer: B Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.4 46) Considering the most important ecological issue of the future, what is the biggest challenge that Costa Rica will likely face in its dedication to conservation and restoration in the future? A) the pressures of its growing population B) the country's size and limited resources C) spread of disease and parasites via corridors D) the number of species in an extinction vortex Answer: A Topic: 43.5 The human population is no longer growing exponentially but is still increasing rapidly Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.5, G5 47) Which of the following best explains the reduction in human population growth rates over the past four decades? A) education on global famine B) improved worldwide health care C) voluntary reduction of family size D) improved sanitary conditions E) reduction of casualties of war Answer: C Topic: 43.5 The human population is no longer growing exponentially but is still increasing rapidly Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.5

48) Which statement is true with regard to the rate of current human population growth? A) It is at a zero growth rate. B) There is exponential increase. C) Its rate of growth is slowing. D) Its rate of growth is increasing. Answer: C Topic: 43.5 The human population is no longer growing exponentially but is still increasing rapidly Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.5 49) The typical ecological footprint for a person in the United States is 8 global hectares (gha). How would you estimate the number of Earths required to support the entire population of the United States? A) Multiply the typical U.S. ecological footprint by the number of people who live there, and divide by the total global hectares of biologically productive land. B) Multiply the typical U.S. ecological footprint by the effective population size of the United States, and divide by the total global hectares of biologically productive land. C) Take the difference between the typical U.S. ecological footprint and the 1.7 gha sustainable ecological footprint, and multiply this difference by the number of people who live in the United States. D) Take the difference between the typical U.S. ecological footprint and the 1.7 gha sustainable ecological footprint, and multiply this difference by the total global hectares of productive land. Answer: A Topic: 43.5 The human population is no longer growing exponentially but is still increasing rapidly Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.5, G2 50) The main goal of sustainable development is to A) involve more countries in global conservation efforts. B) use only natural resources in new building construction. C) use natural resources such that they do not decline over time. D) reevaluate and re-implement management plans over time. Answer: C Topic: 43.6 Sustainable development can improve human lives while conserving biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.6

51) Which of the following best illustrates human efforts to improve environmental sustainability? A) rerouting major highways around cities to avoid traffic congestion B) increasing our reliance on renewable sources of energy, such as wind C) upgrading computers every few years to improve performance D) converting automobiles from gasoline to ethanol as a new fuel source Answer: B Topic: 43.6 Sustainable development can improve human lives while conserving biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.6, G5 52) Which of the following best illustrates the sustainable use of a resource? A) Coal mines in West Virginia remove the tops of mountains to extract large amounts of coal. B) Improved fishing methods now result in removal of more than 90% of the fish in a region. C) Huge windmills in Texas are able to capture 50% of the wind energy in a specific region. D) Corporations are converting their company automobiles from gasoline to natural gas. Answer: C Topic: 43.6 Sustainable development can improve human lives while conserving biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.6, G2, G5 53) The concept of sustainable development emphasizes A) the resource needs of future generations. B) trade between all nations of the world. C) the importance of developing the arts. D) the fastest ways to economic prosperity. Answer: A Topic: 43.6 Sustainable development can improve human lives while conserving biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 43.6 54) Which of the following is the most sustainable source of energy? A) natural gas used to heat homes B) gasoline used to run cars C) solar panels on rooftops D) a coal fueled power plant Answer: C Topic: Concepts 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions, 43.6 Sustainable development can improve human lives while conserving biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.4, 43.6

43.2 Art Questions Figure 42.1

1) Figure 43.1 shows five patches that can potentially serve as quail habitat. Each patch contains four plots, and the types of cover that are available in each plot are listed in each row of the patch. Assuming that only one quail can occupy a plot where all cover requirements are met, what is the maximum number of quail that could inhabit all of the patches? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 9 Answer: E Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.3, G2, G3

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. Three forest areas are being considered for a conservation reserve. Each area contains the same number of trees and is the same cumulative size. The area surrounding the forest patches is a mix of agricultural land and residential homes.

2) Which area(s) would be most suitable for conserving amphibians, which are highly susceptible to a pathogenic (disease-causing) chytrid fungus? A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 1 only D) 2 only E) 3 only Answer: E Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.3, G2, G3 3) Which area(s) would be able to support the most scarlet tanagers, a bird species that is restricted to forest interior habitat? A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 1 only D) 2 only E) 3 only Answer: C Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.3, G2, G3

4) The American lady butterfly (Vanessa virginiensis) inhabits only forest edges and does not disperse well across unsuitable habitat. Which of the following area(s) would support the highest numbers of this butterfly? A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 1 only D) 2 only E) 3 only Answer: D Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.3, G2, G3

Figure 42.3 Use the graph in Figure 43.3 and the information provided in the paragraph below to answer the following questions. Flycatcher birds that migrate from Africa to Europe feed their nestlings a diet that is almost exclusively moth caterpillars. The graph in Figure 43.3 shows the mean (peak) dates of bird arrival, bird hatching, and caterpillar season for the years 1980 and 2000. 5) The shift in the peak of caterpillar season between 1980 and 2000 is most likely due to A) pesticide use in the area. B) earlier flycatcher migration. C) global climate change. D) acid precipitation in Europe. Answer: C Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.4, G2, G3, G5 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) Why were ecologists concerned about the shift in the peak caterpillar season from June 3, 1980, to May 15, 2000? A) The caterpillars would have eaten much of the foliage of the trees where flycatchers would have nested, rendering their nests more open to predation. B) The earlier hatching of caterpillars would compete with other insect larval forms that the flycatchers would also use to feed their young. C) The flycatcher nestlings in 2000 would miss the peak caterpillar season and might not be as well fed, leading to population reductions. D) The flycatchers would have to migrate sooner to match their brood-rearing to the time of peak caterpillar season. Answer: C Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.4, G2, G5 43.3 Scenario Questions 1) Suppose you attend a town meeting at which some experts tell the audience that they have performed a cost-benefit analysis of a proposed transit system that would probably reduce overall air pollution and fossil fuel consumption. The analysis, however, reveals that ticket prices will not cover the cost of operating the system when fuel, wages, and equipment are taken into account. As a biologist, you know that if ecosystem services had been included in the analysis, the experts might have arrived at a different answer. Why are ecosystem services rarely included in economic analyses? A) People take them for granted because we generally do not pay for them. B) They are not worth much and would not greatly change the cost-benefit analysis. C) There are too many variables to include in ecosystem services, making their calculation impossible. D) Ecosystem services take into account only abiotic factors that affect local environments. Answer: A Topic: 43.1 Human activities threaten Earth's biodiversity Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.1 2) Your friend is wary of environmentalists' claims that climate change could lead to major biological change on Earth. Which of the following statements should you use to support the biological predictions associated with climate change? A) Studies show that atmospheric CO2 has increased over the past 150 years. B) CO2 levels and temperature fluctuations are directly correlated in the studies. C) The distribution of many organisms has already shifted as a result of warming. D) Sea levels will fall, displacing as much as 50% of the world's human population. Answer: C Topic: 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 43.4, G2, G5

Please use the following information to answer the questions below. A scientist hypothesizes that biological magnification of heavy metals in fragment-dwelling, insect-eating birds should be greater in forest fragments with relatively more edge habitat. This is because edge-dwelling bird species may forage for insects in areas contaminated by heavy metals outside of the forest. Forest fragments with more interior habitat would not have as much biological magnification because insect-eating interior bird species would have less exposure to insects that contain heavy metals. 3) To test this hypothesis, the scientist conducts an experiment. Which of the following designs would be most informative? A) Locate a single forest fragment with equal amounts of edge and interior habitat, then sample the blood of insect-eating birds at regular distances across the widest point of the fragment. B) Locate several forest fragments of similar sizes but different shapes, then sample the blood of insect-eating birds at regular distances along a 100-m path in each fragment. C) Locate several forest fragments of different sizes but similar shapes, then sample the blood of insect-eating birds at regular distances along a path across the widest point of each fragment. D) Locate several forest fragments of similar sizes and shapes, then sample the blood of insecteating birds at regular distances along a 100-m path in each fragment. Answer: B Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity, 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 43.3, 43.4, G1, G2 4) The scientist wishes to summarize the data in a way that can be compared to other studies on biological magnification of heavy metals in insect-eating birds that live in other forest fragments. What is the best way for the scientist to summarize the data for comparative purposes? A) Calculate the mean concentration of heavy metals measured in the birds that were found in a fragment. B) Calculate the mean concentration of heavy metals measured in the birds that were found in a fragment, and divide by the size of the fragment. C) Calculate the sum total concentrations of heavy metals across all the birds found in a fragment. D) Calculate the sum total concentrations of heavy metals across all the birds found in a fragment, and divide by the size of the fragment. Answer: B Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity, 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 43.3, 43.4, G1, G2

5) How should the scientist draw a graph of the data to best address the hypothesis? A) Plot the heavy metal concentration on the y-axis and the relative amount of edge habitat on the x-axis. B) Plot the total amount of edge habitat on the y-axis and the total amount of interior habitat on the x-axis. C) Plot the number of birds on the y-axis and the size of the fragment on the x-axis. D) Plot the density of insects on the y-axis and the total amount of edge habitat on the x-axis. Answer: A Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity, 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 43.3, 43.4, G1, G2, G3 6) The scientist finds that the heavy metal concentration in the insect-eating birds of a fragment does not depend on the relative amount of edge habitat of that fragment. Which of the following describes how experimental error may have influenced the results? A) The density of birds is higher in edge habitat compared to the density in interior habitat. B) The forest fragments studied were too small, and there was no true interior habitat. C) The insects eaten by both edge and interior birds do not differ in heavy metal concentration. D) Heavy metals deposited from atmospheric pollution are equal across the landscape. Answer: B Topic: 43.3 Landscape and regional conservation help sustain biodiversity, 43.4 Earth is changing rapidly as a result of human actions Bloom's Taxonomy: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating Learning Outcome: 43.3, 43.4, G1, G2 43.4 End-of-Chapter Questions 1) One characteristic that distinguishes a population in an extinction vortex from most other populations is that A) it is a population of a rare, top-level predator species. B) it is effective population is less than total population. C) it is a small population with a loss of genetic diversity. D) it is not well adapted to edge-fragment conditions. Answer: C Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The main cause of the increase in the amount of CO2 in Earth's atmosphere over the past 150 years is A) increased worldwide primary production. B) increased worldwide standing crop. C) increased absorption of infrared radiation. D) increased amounts of fossil fuel burning. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) What is the single greatest threat to biodiversity? A) overharvesting of commercially important species B) habitat alteration, fragmentation, and destruction C) introduced species that compete with native species D) pollution of Earth's atmosphere, freshwater, and soil Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification? A) Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers. B) Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary consumers. C) The biomass of producers in an ecosystem is generally higher than the biomass of primary consumers. D) Only a small portion of the energy captured by primary producers is transferred to primary consumers. Answer: A Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in an extinction vortex? A) Establish a reserve that protects the population's habitat from any external pressures. B) Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species. C) Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population, so that they cannot reproduce. D) Control populations of the endangered population's predators and competitors. Answer: B Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Of the following statements about protected areas that have been established to preserve biodiversity, which one is the most correct? A) About 75% of Earth's land area is now protected. B) National parks are the only type of protected area. C) Management of a protected area is an isolated process. D) It is especially important to protect biodiversity hot spots. Answer: D Topic: End-of-Chapter Questions Bloom's Taxonomy: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing