Test Bank For Criminology, 10th Edition Freda Adler, William Laufer and Gerhard O. Mueller Chapter 1 by StudyGuide

Test Bank For Criminology, 10th Edition Freda Adler, William Laufer and Gerhard O. Mueller Chapter 1-18 Answer are at the End of Each Chapter Chapter 1

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The principal crime problems of today are totally globalized. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Criminology is not an empirical science. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Conflict theorists view society as a stable entity in which laws are created for the general good. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) In saying that criminologists have to study the process of lawbreaking, Edwin H. Sutherland meant that they should particularly determine whether someone has violated the criminal law. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Most criminological research supports the belief that escalating punishments is an effective way to deal with the crime problem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) According to the wheel of terrorism, which is not a transnational crime that is directly relevant to terrorism?

A) illicit arms trafficking B) money laundering C) animal poaching D) computer crime

Which of the following individuals initially coined the term "criminology" in 1885?

A) Cesare Lombroso B) Raffaele Garofalo C) Enrico Ferri D) Paul Topinard

8) Edwin H. Sutherland mandated that criminologists, like all other scientists, collect information for study and analysis in accordance with

A) the research methods of modern science. B) history. C) the law. D) what the research design will allow.

Which of the following disciplines is related to criminology?

A) sociology B) economics C) political science D) all of these

10)

Criminology is the scientific study of

A) the making of laws. B) the breaking of laws. C) society's reaction to the breaking of laws. D) all of these

11)

Natural-law philosophers believed that

A) some forms of behavior are innately criminal. B) homicide and theft should not be universally condemned. C) criminology is narrowly focused on crime. D) none of these

12) All early societies imposed punishment for acts that were detrimental to their existence, such as

A) homicide. B) treason. C) theft. D) vandalism.

13)

Research has revealed that society's reaction to lawbreaking has often been

A) productive. B) irrational. C) nonarbitrary. D) impassive.

14) the

According to Emile Durkheim, an act can be considered criminal if it violates or offends

A) criminal law. B) civil law. C) collective conscience. D) natural law.

15)

The consensus model of law assumes that

A) the members of a society by and large agree on what is right and wrong. B) the appropriate object of criminological investigation is the conflict within society. C) the criminal justice system is a means of controlling the classes that have no power. D) the criminal law expresses the values of the ruling class in a society.

16)

The conflict model of law assumes that

A) certain acts are deemed so threatening to the society's survival that they are designated crimes. B) the criminal law expresses the values of the ruling class in a society. C) members of a society by and large agree on what is right. D) society is a stable entity in which laws are created for the general good.

17)

Conflict theorists claim that the basic feature of human existence is

A) a struggle for power. B) consensus. C) a sense of belonging. D) turbulence.

18)

Scientists who study the criminal justice system are referred to as

A) sociologists. B) criminologists. C) criminalists. D) criminal justice specialists.

19)

Criminology generally focuses on the study of

A) decision-making processes. B) the efficiency of the criminal justice system. C) correctional systems. D) crime and criminality.

20)

Criminal justice generally focuses on all of the following areas except

A) the just treatment of offenders. B) the needs of victims. C) crime. D) the effect of sentencing philosophy.

21)

A common characteristic of the criminal justice systems in the United States is that

A) they are based on constitutional principles. B) they are unrelated to the heritage of the common law. C) they are based on the assumption that crime is a universal event calling for a federal response. D) they are based on the assumption that crime is unrelated to opportunity.

22)

At the turn of the twentieth century, criminal behavior was attributed to

A) opportunity. B) feeblemindedness. C) economic hardship. D) social conditions.

23)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of terrorism?

A) It involves the use or threat of violence. B) It is politically motivated. C) It is generally local in nature. D) It is related to a host of transnational crimes.

24) Which of the following transnational crimes is not related to the financial support of terrorism?

A) illicit drug trafficking B) destruction of cultural property C) money laundering D) infiltration of legal business

25)

Who generated the most widely accepted definition of criminology?

A) Cesare Beccaria B) Edwin H. Sutherland C) Cesare Lombroso D) Raffaele Garofalo

26) Criminologists distinguish between which two conflicting perspectives on the origin of criminal law?

A) political and scientific B) sociological and psychological C) criminological and criminal justice D) conflict and consensus

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 27) Explain the seven forms of transnational criminality that are in the wheel of terrorism, and explain their relationship to terrorism.

28) Explain the similarities and differences between deviance and crime, and provide examples.

29)

Contrast the consensus model and conflict model of law and crime.

30) Discuss Edwin H. Sutherland's definition of criminology and why criminology can be described as a multidiscipline.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) C 7) B 8) A 9) D 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) D 8

27) 28) 29) 30)

Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The facts and observations that researchers gather for the purpose of a particular study are called secondary data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Investigators who engage in participant observation take part in many of the activities of the groups in order to gain acceptance, but they generally make clear the purpose of their participation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) For the purposes of research, individuals that are under penal supervision are considered to be members of a "vulnerable population," and special provisions regarding informed consent and the protection of privacy must be taken when involving them in research. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) All law enforcement agencies in the United States are required to contribute information on crime in their jurisdictions to the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) for the Uniform Crime Reports (UCR). ⊚ ⊚

true false

Eighty-five percent of prison inmates are blue-collar workers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) _____ allows scientists to test hypotheses about how two or more variables are related.

A) Experimentation B) Case study C) Survey D) Nonparticipant observation

7) A(n) _____ is an analysis of all pertinent aspects of one unit of study, such as an individual, an institution, a group, or a community.

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A) experiment B) case study C) survey D) participant observation

For the purposes of research, which group is not considered a vulnerable population?

A) the mentally ill B) children C) adult females D) those with low social status

9) _____ are severe crimes, subject to punishments of a year or more in prison or to capital punishment.

A) Felonies B) Misdemeanors C) Violations D) Torts

10) According to the Uniform Crime Reports (UCR), which of the following crimes is considered to be a crime against property?

A) motor vehicle theft B) robbery C) vandalism D) traffic violations

11)

Which of the following statements is not true about the Uniform Crime Reports (UCR)?

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A) They include data on reported crimes. B) They provide crime rates. C) They include the number of offenses cleared by arrest. D) They differentiate between completed acts and attempted acts.

12) Which of the following offenses is measured by the National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS)?

A) rape B) homicide C) arson D) commercial burglary

13) Part II offenses of the Uniform Crime Reports (UCR) are excluded from the National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS) for all of the following reasons except

A) Many of them are considered victimless. B) They are not that serious. C) Often the victims are willing participants. D) The victims do not know that they have been victimized.

14)

What are some of the limitations of the National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS)?

A) The NCVS includes only seven offenses. B) The data reported suffers from the fact that memories may fade over time. C) Some individual variations in interviewing and recording style occur, resulting in variation in the information recorded. D) All of the answers are correct.

15)

Self-report surveys reveal that

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A) there is no relationship between school failure and violent offenses. B) boys and girls commit the same number of offenses. C) unrecorded offenders commit a wide variety of offenses, rather than specializing in one type of offense. D) there is no relationship between violence and educational levels.

16)

Which of the following is a limitation of self-report surveys?

A) The questionnaires represent too broad a range of criminal acts. B) Many self-report measures lack validity. C) They reinforce the assumption that only a small percentage of the general population commits crimes. D) Most self-report surveys yield information that applies only to old people.

17)

Which of the following is true of criminal acts?

A) Nationwide crime rates vary by season. B) Most crimes are committed in small cities and suburbs. C) Most personal thefts are committed at night. D) Juvenile violent crime mostly occurs during early hours of the morning.

18)

Which of the following statements is true of the relationship between age and crime?

A) In any given year, approximately half of all arrests are of individuals above age 30. B) Gang membership is ordinarily confined to individuals under age 14. C) People age 65 and over account for less than one percent of all arrests. D) Juveniles account for over 40 percent of arrests for Index crimes.

19)

The decline in criminal activities with age is known as _____.

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A) the crime-cohort phenomenon B) the aging-out phenomenon C) life-course-persistent offending D) the age effect

20)

The life-course perspective argues that

A) the factors that influence people's entrance into criminal activity and the factors that induce them to give up criminal activity are the same. B) all offenders commit fewer crimes as they grow older because they have less strength, less mobility, and so on. C) the frequency of criminal involvement depends on such social factors as economic situation, peer pressure, and lifestyle. D) the decrease in crime rates after adolescence implies that the number of crimes committed by all individual offenders declines.

21) To learn how the causes of crime vary at different ages, Alfred Blumstein and his colleagues suggest that criminologists study

A) age. B) gender. C) socioeconomic status. D) criminal careers.

22)

Which of the following crimes is more likely to be committed by males than females?

A) prostitution B) shoplifting C) welfare fraud D) aggravated assault

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23) What type of data source suggests that the gender differences in crime may be narrowing?

A) self-report surveys B) police statistics C) victimization surveys D) Uniform Crime Reports

24) _____ states that the actor of a crime must achieve the result (the harm) through his or her own effort.

A) The act requirement B) The legality requirement C) The harm requirement D) The causation requirement

25)

_____ states that the criminal act must be accompanied by an equally criminal mind.

A) The punishment requirement B) The concurrence requirement C) The guilty mind requirement D) The causation requirement

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 26) American criminal law scholar Jerome Hall has developed the theory that a human event, in order to qualify as a crime, must meet seven basic requirements. Describe each of these requirements.

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27) Explain what "typologies of crime" are, why typologies of crime are important, and provide examples that are discussed in the text.

28) Describe the three major reasons for measuring the characteristics of crime and criminals. Then discuss three of the five methods of collecting data noted in the text, mentioning each method's strengths and weaknesses.

29) Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Uniform Crime Reports (UCR), the National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS), and various self-report surveys in estimating the nature and extent of crime in the United States.

30) Explain how age, gender, race, ethnicity, and socioeconomic level are related to offending and their representation in the criminal justice system.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) A 10) A 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) B 26) Answers will vary. Version 1

27) 28) 29) 30)

Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Classical criminologists argued that society can control behavior by making the pain of punishment greater than the pleasure of the criminal gains. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Cesare Beccaria's work was governed by utilitarian principles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Jeremy Bentham proposed the "felicific calculus" to explain how people decide whether to commit a crime or not. ⊚ ⊚

true false

According to Lombroso, criminal women are the same as criminal men. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Raffaele Garofalo suggested that the death penalty could rid society of its maladapted members, just as the natural selection process eliminated maladapted organisms. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) The classical school of criminology is based on the assumption that

A) criminals are born, not made. B) individuals choose to commit crimes after weighing the consequences of their actions. C) body build is related to various mental disorders. D) criminals are distinguishable from noncriminals by atavistic stigmata.

The positivist school of criminology posits that

A) human behavior is determined by forces beyond individual control. B) individuals choose to commit crimes after weighing the consequences of their actions. C) all human actions are determined in accordance with the felicific calculus. D) anomie is a breakdown of social order, which causes people to commit crimes.

Who wrote On Crimes and Punishment?

A) Emile Durkheim B) Cesare Lombroso C) Jeremy Bentham D) Cesare Beccaria

_____ is known as the "father of modern criminology."

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A) Emile Durkheim B) Cesare Lombroso C) Cesare Beccaria D) Jeremy Bentham

10)

Whose work was governed by utilitarian principles?

A) Jeremy Bentham B) Cesare Beccaria C) Raffaele Garofalo D) Emile Durkheim

11) What provided the next generation of criminologists with the tools they needed to challenge classical criminology?

A) Beccaria's On Crimes and Punishment B) Bentham's utilitarianism C) Lombroso's The Criminal Man D) Darwin's Origin of Species

12)

Physiognomy is the study of _____ and their relation to human behavior.

A) bumps on the head B) body types C) facial features D) ear types

13)

_____ posited that bumps on the head were indications of psychological propensities.

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A) Physiognomy B) Phrenology C) Atavistic stigmata D) The somatotypes school

14) Cesare Lombroso's The Criminal Man replaced the concept of free will with the concept of _____.

A) determinism B) rationality C) science D) utilitarianism

15) Cesare Lombroso argued that the "born criminal" was distinguishable from the noncriminal by

A) bumps on the head. B) small jaws and teeth. C) atavistic stigmata. D) a large nose.

16)

The theory of the born criminal by Cesare Lombroso defines atavistic stigmata as

A) psychological anomalies that drive an individual to commit acts that offend the basic moral sentiments of probity and piety. B) genetically inherited delinquent behavioral traits. C) physical features of creatures at an earlier stage of development, before they became fully human. D) changes in the brains that interfere with people's ability to distinguish between right and wrong.

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17)

The major challenge to Lombrosian theory came from the work of

A) Emile Durkheim. B) Enrico Ferri. C) Charles Buckman Goring. D) Cesare Beccaria.

18) The somatotype school of criminology differentiated three principal types of physiques. Which of the following is not one of those types?

A) the asthenic B) the athletic C) the pyknic D) the ascetic

19) William Sheldon brought the somatotype school to the United States. Which of the following is not one of the three somatotypes that Sheldon formulated?

A) the andromorph B) the ectomorph C) the endomorph D) the mesomorph

20) According to William Sheldon, which of the following somatotypes is most likely to be involved in illegal behavior?

A) the andromorph B) the ectomorph C) the endomorph D) the mesomorph

21)

After World War II, somatotyping fell into disfavor because

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A) the approach was based on the grounds that genetic and environmental influences could not be separated. B) the approach seemed too close to eugenics. C) the approach focused exclusively on the psychological characteristics of criminals. D) the approach contradicted the concept of moral insanity.

22)

The science of controlled reproduction to improve hereditary qualities is called _____.

A) dysgenics B) epigenetics C) genealogy D) eugenics

23)

_____ is acknowledged as America's first forensic psychiatrist.

A) Sigmund Freud B) Philippe Pinel C) Isaac Ray D) Henry Maudsley

24) The term _____ was used to describe persons who were normal in all respects except that something was wrong with the part of the brain that regulates affective responses

A) born criminal B) moral insanity C) synnomie D) neuroticism

25) Among the first scholars to disclaim the free-will doctrine of the classical school of thought were

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A) Cesare Beccaria and Jeremy Bentham. B) Sheldon and Eleanor Glueck. C) Gabriel Tarde and Emile Durkheim. D) Adolphe Quételet and André-Michel Guerry.

26)

One of the earliest sociological theories of criminal behavior was formulated by

A) Michel Guerry. B) Cesare Beccaria. C) Gabriel Tarde. D) Jeremy Bentham.

27) Gabriel Tarde formulated his theory of criminal behavior in terms of _____, principles that governed the process by which people became criminals.

A) laws of imitation B) laws of inheritance C) laws of segregation D) law of conformity

28) The most important of Emile Durkheim's numerous contributions to contemporary sociology is his concept of

A) anomie. B) moral insanity. C) atavistic stigmata. D) moral anomalies.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 29) Discuss the principles of classical criminology, making reference to the works of both Cesare Beccaria and Jeremy Bentham.

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30)

Differentiate between the classical and positivist schools of thought.

31) Differentiate between psychological determinism and sociological determinism, including the scholars associated with each perspective.

32) Discuss the various forms that biological determinism has taken, from the earliest belief that criminals are born to the discovery of an extra sex chromosome in some criminal samples in the 1960s.

33) Emile Durkheim had a powerful influence on contemporary criminology. Discuss Durkheim's influence on criminology, making sure to discuss his most important contribution.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) B 7) A 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) C 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) C Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) Answers will vary. 30) Answers will vary. 31) Answers will vary. 32) Answers will vary. 33) Answers will vary. Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Freud posited that an individual's psychological well-being is dependent on a healthy interaction among the ego, id, and superego. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Social learning theory maintains that delinquent behavior is learned through the same psychological processes as any other behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Disruptions of the prefrontal and frontal lobes are associated with antisocial and aggressive behavior. ⊚ ⊚

Today, moral insanity is called psychopathy, sociopathy, or antisocial personality. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Biocriminology is the study of the psychological aspects of physical disorders.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Studies have found that violent and impulsive male offenders had a higher rate of hypoglycemia than noncriminal controls. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) In the United States, explanations of criminal behavior have been dominated by what type of theories?

A) psychological B) biological C) sociological D) philosophical

8) _____ develop from two separate eggs, both fertilized at the same time, and they share about half their genes.

A) Dizygotic twins B) Conjoined twins C) Monozygotic twins D) Monoamniotic twins

9) _____, classified as "attention deficit hyperactivity disorder," produces asocial behavioral patterns such as impulsivity, hyperactivity, aggressiveness, low self-esteem, and temper outbursts.

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A) Pervasive developmental disorder B) Neuroticism C) Psychosis D) Minimal brain dysfunction

10) The psychoanalytic theory of criminality attributes delinquent and criminal behavior to at least three possible causes. Which of the following is not one of those causes?

A) a conscience so overbearing that it arouses feelings of guilt B) an overactive superego or conscience C) a conscience so weak that it cannot control the individual's impulses D) the need for immediate gratification

11)

Freud proposed that the _____ acts as a moral code or conscience.

A) id B) ego C) supraego D) superego

12) According to the moral reasoning theory developed by Kohlberg, individuals who examine customs and social rules according to their own sense of universal human rights, moral principles, and duties are at the _____ level.

A) preconventional B) premoral C) conventional D) postconventional

13)

The moral developmental theory was pioneered by

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A) Sigmund Freud. B) Lawrence Kohlberg. C) John Bowlby. D) Sheldon Glueck.

14) The moral developmental theory posits that most delinquents and criminals reason at the _____ level.

A) preconventional B) premoral C) conventional D) postconventional

15)

Which of the following is not one of the features of Bowlby's theory of attachment?

A) specificity B) duration C) ontogeny D) neurological function

16) Which leading proponent of social learning theory introduced the concept of "behavioral modeling"?

A) Emile Durkheim B) Ronald Akers C) Albert Bandura D) Lawrence Kohlberg

17)

Albert Bandura's term for violent or aggressive behaviors observed in others is

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A) instructional instigators. B) modeling instigators. C) delusional instigators. D) aversive instigators.

18)

Differential association-reinforcement theory suggests that

A) the persistence of criminal behavior depends on whether or not it is rewarded or punished. B) violence and aggression are learned behaviors, not necessarily expressed until they are elicited. C) delinquent behavior is learned through the same psychological processes as any other behavior. D) None of the answers is correct.

19) Hans J. Eysenck claims that all human personality may be seen in three dimensions. What are those dimensions?

A) id, ego, and superego B) conditioning, cortical arousal, behavior modeling C) preconventional, conventional, postconventional D) psychoticism, extroversion, neuroticism

20) Hans J. Eysenck found that differences in conditionability are dependent on certain physiological factors, the most important of which is _____.

A) cortical arousal B) cardiac output C) blood glucose levels D) amygdala activation

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21) According to Hans J. Eysenck's conditioning theory, individuals that score high on measures of _____ are aggressive, egocentric, and impulsive.

A) extroversion B) psychoticism C) introversion D) neuroticism

22) _____ is the error in thinking or mistaken belief that occurs when one identifies a cause for criminal behavior and then assumes that any behavior resulting from that cause must be excused by law.

A) Fundamental psycholegal error B) Fundamental criminal law error C) Fundamental criminological error D) Fundamental sociological error

23) Studies on the extra chromosome in people with _____ syndrome have investigated the possible relationship between criminal behavior and chromosomal abnormality.

A) XX B) XY C) XXY D) XYY

24)

According to studies of twins,

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A) there is no evidence that genetic factors explain criminality. B) there is some support for the hypothesis that some genetic influences increase the risk of criminality. C) there is a strong causal relationship between genetics and crime. D) there has not been enough research comparing monozygotic twins to dizygotic twins to make any conclusions.

25)

The results of adoption studies

A) support the claim that the criminality of biological parents has more influence on the child than does that of the adoptive parents. B) support the claim that the criminality of the adoptive parents has more influence on the child than does the criminality of the biological parents. C) suggest that neither the criminality of the biological parents nor the criminality of the adoptive parents affects the child. D) are not reliable, as none of the adoption studies to date have been deemed methodologically sound.

26) After evaluating the existing literature on the relationship between IQ and crime, Travis Hirschi and Michael Hindelang concluded that

A) IQ is not an important factor for predicting crime. B) IQ is an important factor in predicting crime but is not as important as social class. C) IQ is an important factor in predicting crime but is not as important as race. D) IQ is an even more important factor in predicting crime than either social class or race.

27)

The idea of "conditioned free will" implies that

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A) individuals are conditioned to recognize right from wrong. B) individuals make choices in regard to a particular action within a range of possibilities that is "preset" yet flexible. C) individuals weigh the consequences and rewards of committing a criminal act before engaging in illegal behavior. D) individuals are conditioned to think that they have free will when they actually do not.

28)

Which of the following is not a biochemical factor?

A) food allergies B) hypoglycemia C) brain lesions D) hormones

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 29) Discuss the psychoanalytic theory of criminality. Make sure to include a discussion of Freud's contributions to the psychological perspective on criminality.

30)

Explain the seven features of John Bowlby's theory of attachment.

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31) Discuss the three phases of moral development and which phase is most related to delinquency and criminality according to Lawrence Kohlberg and his colleagues.

32) Discuss the two parts of Eysenck's conditioning theory which defines the relationship between personality and criminality.

33) The concept of "biocriminology" is offensive to many people. Discuss the criticisms of biocriminology.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) C 8) A 9) D 10) B 11) D 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) Answers will vary. 30) Answers will vary. 31) Answers will vary. 32) Answers will vary. 33) Answers will vary. Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) According to strain theory, individuals who choose the adaptation of innovation do not accept society's goals because they do not have legitimate means to achieve those goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Sociologists define deviance as any behavior that members of a social group define as violating their norms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Messner and Rosenfeld believe that the American dream does not encourage high crime rates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Research has supported the theory that people who feel the most strain are those who have not only high goals but also low expectations of reaching them. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 5) Which of the following theories argues that all members of society subscribe to the cultural values of the middle class?

A) strain theory B) conflict theory C) social disorganization theory D) differential association theory

The structural-functionalist perspective was developed by

A) Robert Agnew. B) Robert McKay. C) Robert K. Merton. D) Emile Durkheim.

Durkheim's concept of anomie was intended to explain

A) crime. B) juvenile delinquency. C) suicide. D) status offenses.

Merton's theory of anomie emphasizes

A) that anger helps justify aggressive behavior and stimulates individuals into action. B) institutionalized means to attain the desired ends. C) that people learn to commit crime as a result of antisocial values, attitudes, and criminal behavior patterns. D) none of these

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Which of the following is not one of the modes of adaptation discussed by Merton?

A) rebellion B) conflict C) retreatism D) conformity

10) People who adapt by _____ reject both the cultural goals and the legitimate means to attain those goals.

A) rebellion B) ritualism C) retreatism D) reformation

11)

Merton and his followers believe that the greatest proportion of crime will be found

A) evenly distributed across the social classes. B) in the upper classes. C) in the middle classes. D) in the lower classes.

12) In a study of 190 U.S. cities with populations of 100,000 or more, researchers found that both inequality and _____ are related to homicide rates.

A) age B) race C) poverty D) gender

13)

Merton's theory has been criticized for which of the following reasons?

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A) It neglects crime committed by middle- and upper-class people. B) It assumes that the heterogeneous society in the United States has goals that everyone agrees on. C) It cannot explain why there is so much useless, destructive behavior. D) All of the answers are correct.

14) Which of the following is not a manifestation of the dominance of economic institutions according to Messner and Rosenfeld?

A) the devaluation of noneconomic rules and functions B) the absence of economic success C) the accommodation of other institutions to economic needs D) the penetration of economic norms

15)

Which of the following is not a strain-producing event discussed by Agnew?

A) strain caused by social disorganization B) strain caused by the failure to achieve positively valued goals C) strain caused by the presentation of negative stimuli D) stress caused by the removal of positively valued stimuli from the individual

16) Which of the following programs was designed to address the disparity between goals and means in society?

A) Operation Weed and Seed B) Learning, Earning, and Parenting (LEAP) C) the Chicago Area Project (CAP) D) the Perry Preschool Project

17)

Which of the following is true of social disorganization theory?

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A) It states that different ethnic groups learn different conduct norms and that the conduct norms of one ethnic group in the slum will clash with the norms of another ethnicity in the same slum. B) It maintains that people learn to commit crime as a result of contact with antisocial values, attitudes, and criminal behavior patterns. C) It focuses on the development of high-crime areas in which there is a disintegration of conventional values caused by rapid industrialization, increased immigration, and urbanization. D) It maintains that crime is most likely to occur among the lower social classes.

18)

Cultural deviance theorists argue that

A) crime is most likely to occur among the lower social classes. B) American society is made up of various groups and subgroups, each with its own standards of right and wrong. C) people learn to commit crime as a result of contact with antisocial values, attitudes, and criminal behavior patterns. D) crime is the result of social disorganization.

19) Park and Burgess advanced the study of social disorganization by introducing _____ into the study of human society.

A) ecological analysis B) social class C) statistics D) modes of adaptation

20) for

Though the work of social ecologists has had a significant impact, it has been criticized

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A) its focus on how crime patterns are transmitted, not on how they start in the first place. B) its failure in explaining how differential associations lead to crime. C) ignoring societal heterogeneity. D) not being able to explain all types of crime.

21) Shaw and McKay demonstrated that delinquency was socially learned behavior, transferred from one generation to the next in disorganized urban areas. This phenomenon is called

A) differential association B) dual inheritance. C) sociocultural evolution. D) cultural transmission.

22)

Edwin Sutherland's differential association theory suggests that _____.

A) lower-class persons adopt illegitimate means to achieve economic success B) there is an inevitability about the process of becoming a criminal C) there is no simple connection between class and crime D) delinquency is transmitted from one generation to the next in disorganized urban areas

23) Merton outlined five ways in which people adapt to society’s goals and means. Which of the following is the most common mode of adjustment?

A) innovation B) retreatism C) conformity D) ritualism

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24) A clash occurs at the borders between neighboring cultural areas. This is an example of _____ conflict.

A) primary B) secondary C) class D) race

25) According to Thorsten Sellin, the purpose of _____ is to define what is considered appropriate or normal behavior and what is inappropriate or abnormal behavior.

A) anomie B) cultural norms C) conduct norms D) synnomie

26) According to Thorsten Sellin, which of the following types of conflict arises when a single culture evolves into a variety of cultures, each with its own conduct norms?

A) primary conflict B) secondary conflict C) class conflict D) race conflict

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 27) Discuss and evaluate Merton's theory of anomie and the five modes of adaptation.

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28) Discuss the three main types of strain-producing events according to Agnew's general strain theory. In this discussion, also explain how Agnew revised Merton's theory.

29) Social disorganization theory is one of the three major cultural deviance theories. Explain this theory, including criticisms or limitations.

30) Explain Edwin Sutherland's differential association theory, and discuss any six of the nine propositions that explain the process by which delinquent values are transmitted.

31)

Compare and contrast strain theories and cultural deviance theories.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) B 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) A 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) 28) 29) 30) 31)

Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Cloward and Ohlin maintain that the types of subcultures and of juvenile gangs that flourish within them depend on the type of neighborhood in which they develop. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) According to Miller, juvenile delinquency stems from the frustration of not meeting teachers' expectations in school. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Wolfgang and Ferracuti argue that in some subcultures behavior norms are dictated by a value system that demands the use of force or violence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) "Walked in" is a gang initiation method saved for girls who are at least second-generation gang members, who have an immediate family member in good gang standing, or who have grown up in their "hood" and have established themselves and proved their loyalty. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Suburban delinquent gangs typically adopt hand signals used by inner-city gangs.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) Which of the following is true of subcultures?

A) Subcultures reject all the values of the larger society. B) Subcultures only form among members of racial and ethnic minorities. C) Subcultures exist within a larger society. D) Subcultures exist apart from a larger society.

According to Cohen, delinquent subcultures are rooted in all of the following except

A) acceptance of violence as normal. B) class differentials in parental aspirations. C) child-rearing practices. D) classroom standards.

8) Cohen argues that __________ band together to form a subculture in which they can define status in ways that seem attainable to them.

A) street boys B) delinquent boys C) corner boys D) college boys

_________ boys try to make the best of bad situations, according to Cohen.

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A) Street B) Delinquent C) Corner D) College

10)

Cohen's theory fails to explain

A) the origin of delinquent behavior. B) why some youths raised in the same neighborhoods and attending the same schools do not become involved in delinquent subcultures. C) types of roles that lower-class boys adopt in response to status frustration and strain. D) why most delinquents become law-abiding individuals even though their position in the class structure remains relatively fixed.

11) According to Cloward and Ohlin, which type of gang emerges in areas where conventional and illegitimate values and behavior are integrated by a close connection of illegitimate and legitimate businesses?

A) conflict gangs B) criminal gangs C) innovation gangs D) retreatist gangs

12) The goal of _________ gangs is to gain a reputation for toughness and destructive violence.

A) conflict B) criminal C) innovation D) retreatist

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13) Members of ___________ gangs are described as double failures because they have not been successful in the legitimate world and have been equally unsuccessful in the illegitimate worlds of organized criminal activity and violence-oriented gangs.

A) conflict B) criminal C) innovation D) retreatist

14) Which of the following is true of Cloward and Ohlin's assumption that blocked opportunities are related to delinquency?

A) It has received strong empirical support. B) It has received no empirical support. C) It has received mixed empirical support. D) It has never been empirically tested.

15)

One of the main criticisms of differential opportunity theory is that

A) it is class-oriented. B) it only identifies three types of gangs. C) it overlooks the fact that most delinquents become law-abiding adults. D) it ignores differential parental aspirations.

16) According to Wolfgang and Ferracuti, which of the following is true of subcultures of violence?

A) Violence is frequently an expected response. B) Violence is considered antisocial. C) Violence is used in all situations. D) Violence is condemned.

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17)

Which region of the United States has the highest homicide rate?

A) the North B) the West C) the Midwest D) the South

18) Walter Miller identified _____ as one of the six focal concerns, or areas, to which lowerclass males give persistent attention.

A) self-confidence B) wealth C) industriousness D) excitement

19) Miller’s final focal concern, _____, stems from the lower-class person's resentment of external controls, whether parents, teachers, or police.

A) toughness B) autonomy C) self-esteem D) trouble

20) In studying attachment to lower-class focal concerns, Cernovich found that toughness, excitement, trouble, and ___________ were related to self-reported delinquency in all classes.

A) fate B) autonomy C) pleasure-seeking D) self-esteem

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21) From his investigation of attachment to lower-class focal concerns, Stephen Cernovich concluded that it is _____, rather than class, that are associated with delinquency.

A) races B) statuses C) goals D) values

22)

What is the primary source of financial equity for gangs?

A) arms trafficking B) drug trafficking C) migrant smuggling D) money laundering

23) Anne Campbell published the first major work on the lifestyle of female gang members in New York. Which of the following is a finding of her work?

A) All female gangs have male affiliates. B) Female gangs are unlikely to commit serious delinquent acts. C) Female gangs, like their male counterparts, are composed of members who join for mutual support, protection, and a sense of belonging. D) All female gangs have their own initiation rites, which mimic male ceremonies and are equally violent.

24) According to Albert Cohen, the term _____ refers to a mechanism that relieves anxiety through the process of rejecting with abnormal intensity what one wants but cannot obtain.

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A) atavistic stigmata B) differential association C) reaction formation D) victim precipitation

25)

Mobilization for Youth (MOBY) was based on what theory?

A) opportunity theory B) cultural deviance theory C) learning theory D) social control theory

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 26) Albert Cohen's theory is responsible for major advances in research on delinquency. Discuss Cohen's theory and then evaluate it.

27)

Discuss and evaluate Cloward and Ohlin's differential opportunity theory.

28) Marvin Wolfgang and Franco Ferracuti developed the subculture of violence theory to explain criminal behavior among young, lower-class, urban males. Discuss the subculture of violence, and then discuss tests of this theory.

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29) Miller posited that juvenile delinquency stems from lower-class culture and its value system. Discuss the theory and concerns regarding its implications.

30) Traditionally, gang membership has been limited primarily to young, inner-city males. However, gang membership has been changing. Discuss what recent studies reveal about female gang members and middle-class gangs and gang membership.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) D 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) Answers will vary. Version 1

27) 28) 29) 30)

Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Social control has been conceptualized as representing practically any phenomenon that leads to anomie. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Macrosociological studies explore formal systems, such as law enforcement, for the control of groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

According to Albert Reiss, delinquency is the result of the denial of responsibility. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Francis Ivan Nye posited that indirect control depends on rules, restrictions, and punishments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Developmental theories of crime consider each phase of life in relation to the life span of an offender. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) Which of the following would not be a focus of social control theorists?

A) individual modes of adaptation to environmental strains B) the influence of family on behavior C) techniques that regulate human behavior and lead to conformity D) the influence of religion on behavior

The concept of social control emerged in the early 1900s in a volume by

A) Edwin Sutherland. B) E.A. Ross. C) Robert Merton. D) Travis Hirschi.

8) According to Ross, _____ rather than specific laws guide what people do and universally serve to control behavior.

A) morals B) pressures to conform C) belief systems D) environmental strains

9) Which of the following is a similarity between microsociological and macrosociological studies?

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A) Both approaches focus on informal systems. B) Both approaches focus on formal systems. C) Both approaches examine a person’s internal control system. D) Both approaches explain why people conform.

10) Who was the first theorist to introduce the notion of individual commitment as a powerful determining force in the social control of behavior?

A) Travis Hirschi B) Jackson Toby C) Scott Briar D) Irving Piliavan

11) According to Travis Hirschi, one of the four social bonds that promote socialization and conformity is _____.

A) motivation B) commitment C) coercion D) containment

12)

Which of the following is not a form of Hirschi's first bond, attachment?

A) attachment to parents B) attachment to peers C) attachment to school D) attachment to the church

13) In the context of Travis Hirschi's four social bonds, a preoccupation with activities that promote the interests of society would be an example of

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A) involvement. B) commitment. C) belief. D) attachment.

14) The last of Travis Hirschi's social bonds, _____, consists of assent to the society’s value system.

A) attachment B) belief C) commitment D) involvement

15) One of the differences that Michael Hindelang found between his research and Hirschi's research is that there is

A) no relationship between attachment to father and attachment to peers. B) no relationship between attachment to church and attachment to peers. C) no relationship between attachment to mother and attachment to peers. D) no relationship between attachment to school and attachment to peers.

16) In testing Hirschi's theory, Michael Hindelang found that involvement in delinquency was positively related to

A) drug use. B) social class. C) dislike of siblings. D) attachment to peers.

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17) David Matza states that a youth may enter into a state of _____, or a period when he or she exists in limbo between convention and crime, when a bind between the youth and the law is not in place.

A) drift B) anomie C) delinquency D) transition

18) _____ was one of the first researchers to isolate a group of personal and social control factors.

A) Travis Hirschi B) Albert Reiss C) David Matza D) Jackson Toby

19)

According to Reiss, delinquency is the result of all but which of the following factors?

A) a failure to internalize socially accepted and prescribed norms of behavior B) a breakdown of internal controls C) attachment to delinquent peers D) a lack of social rules that prescribe behavior in the family, the school, and other important social groups

20) Which approach, according to Toby, can explain why one neighborhood has a much higher crime rate than another, but not why one particular individual becomes a hoodlum and another does not?

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A) the containment approach B) the social bond approach C) the social control approach D) the social disorganization approach

21) _____ theory assumes that for every individual, there exists a containing external structure and a protective internal structure, both of which provide defense, protection, or insulation against delinquency.

A) Containment B) Differential association C) Drift D) Social bond

22)

According to Walter Reckless, the primary containment factor is found in

A) self-control. B) self-concept. C) a strong ego. D) a good conscience.

23)

Who developed the notion that multiple control factors determine human behavior?

A) Travis Hirschi B) Walter Reckless C) Francis Ivan Nye D) Albert Reiss

24) Gottfredson and Hirschi proposed a new model of personal and social control in A General Theory of Crime. Their model assumes that

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A) offenders have a great deal of control over their own behavior and desires. B) offenders have a weak attachment to their parents. C) offenders have a weak belief in the legal system. D) offenders have little control over their own behaviors and desires.

25) According to Terence Thornberry, _____ is a function of a dynamic social process that changes over time.

A) criminality B) synnomie C) conflict D) strain

26) According to Francis Ivan Nye, _____ comes from an individual's identification with noncriminals and a desire not to embarrass parents and friends by acting against their expectations.

A) internalized control B) direct control C) indirect control D) external control

27)

Joseph Weis has proposed an integrated theory of crime, which suggests that

A) crime results from an interaction between diminished social controls and influences from delinquent peers. B) a combination of multiple personal, social, and environmental factors are associated with crime over the course of a lifetime. C) individual differences in offending behavior can be explained by interactions between five clusters of causes. D) crime causation must be viewed developmentally—in the context of the turning points in a criminal career.

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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 28) Explain why regulating smoking in public is an example of social control, and also give another example of similar social control either in your state or elsewhere.

29)

Discuss Matza's drift theory and the empirical tests of this theory.

30)

Explain containment theory and the criticisms that have been directed against it.

31)

Discuss Gottfredson and Hirschi's general theory of crime, and then evaluate it.

32)

Discuss three programs that have been informed by social control theory.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) A 26) C Version 1

27) A 28) Answers will vary. 29) Answers will vary. 30) Answers will vary. 31) Answers will vary. 32) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Viewed from the labeling perspective, criminal acts themselves are not particularly significant; the social reaction to them, however, is. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) The intellectual roots of labeling theory can be traced to the work of Charles Horton Cooley, William I. Thomas, and George Herbert Mead. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The consensus model assumes that members of society by and large agree on what is right and wrong and that law is the codification of these agreed-upon social values. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Empirical evidence strongly supports conflict theory. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

5) One of the significant features of Marxist theory is that it focuses on crime committed by both males and females. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Left realists advocate the redistribution of power by returning it to communities and individuals, in order to fix the existing power differential. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) Due process means that

A) a person cannot be deprived of life, liberty, or property without lawful procedures. B) no one can be denied the safeguards of law. C) a citizen is guaranteed the right to counsel in all criminal cases. D) no one can undermine a citizen's right against self-incrimination.

Labeling theorists are interested in all but which of the following?

A) how certain acts are defined as criminal or deviant B) why people commit crimes in the first place C) why certain people are defined as criminal or deviant D) why certain people have had criminal status conferred upon them by both the criminal justice system and the community at large

9) In focusing on the ways in which social interactions create deviance, _____ declares that the reactions of other people and the subsequent effects of those reactions create deviance.

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A) Marxist theory B) conflict theory C) labeling theory D) consensus theory

10) In the 1940s, which of the following theorists formulated the basic assumptions of labeling theory?

A) Frank Tannenbaum B) George Herbert Mead C) Howard Becker D) Edwin Lemert

11)

Edwin Lemert contended that there are two types of deviant acts: _____.

A) primary and secondary B) noncriminal and criminal C) violent and nonviolent D) initiated and abetted

12)

According to Edwin Lemert, secondary deviance sets in after A) the second time an act is committed by the same individual. B) the community becomes aware of a primary deviance. C) an individual is labeled as deviant by the courts. D) an individual moves from committing nonviolent acts to committing violent acts.

13) According to Howard Becker, it is the _____ who make the rules that define deviant behavior.

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A) moral legislators B) moral engineers C) moral entrepreneurs D) moral elites

14)

Labeling by adjudication was studied by

A) Anthony Platt. B) Howard Becker. C) William Chambliss. D) Richard Schwartz and Jerome Skolnick.

15)

The primary concern of labeling theorists is

A) the consequences of making and enforcing rules. B) the cause of deviant behavior. C) understanding the power struggles in society. D) the ways in which the law is applied to different social classes.

16) Which theoretical perspective claims that a struggle for power is a basic feature of human existence?

A) labeling theory B) conflict theory C) peacemaking theory D) consensus theory

17) The _____ model of criminal lawmaking assumes that members of society by and large agree on what is right and wrong and that law is the codification of these agreed-upon social values.

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A) conflict B) radical C) consensus D) Marxist

18)

Conflict theorists argue that

A) law exists for the collective good. B) most people agree on what is right and wrong. C) lawmaking is the result of the popular vote. D) laws represent the interests of specific groups that have the power to get them enacted.

19)

Who was the first theorist to relate conflict theory to criminology?

A) George Vold B) Ralf Dahrendorf C) Willem Bonger D) Austin Turk

20) When Freda Adler studied the importance of nonlegal factors in the decision-making of juries, she found that _____ significantly influenced the juries’ judgment.

A) the gender of the defendants B) the socioeconomic level of the defendants C) the type of offense committed by the defendants D) the attitude of the defendants

21)

All of the following statements are true of conflict theory except

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A) conflict theory identifies social conflict as a basic fact of life. B) conflict theory identifies social conflict as a source of discriminatory treatment by the criminal justice system of certain groups and social classes. C) conflict theory attempts to explain crime. D) conflict theory studies bias and discrimination in the criminal justice system.

22)

The leading American spokesperson for radical criminology is

A) Austin Turk. B) Paul Walton. C) William Chambliss. D) Richard Quinney.

23)

Carl Klockars attacks Marxists for focusing exclusively on

A) class interests. B) the many interest groups that make up society. C) male criminality. D) how people become labeled as deviant.

24)

Left realists recognize crime as

A) being primarily a "male" activity. B) an inevitable outcome of social and political deprivation. C) a means of survival. D) being primarily a juvenile male crime.

25)

Radical criminologists find the cause of crime in women to be

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A) class oppression. B) gender oppression. C) male aggression. D) racial discrimination.

26)

The peacemaking perspective is part of an intellectual and social movement toward

A) socialism. B) world peace. C) Marxism. D) restorative justice.

27)

Critics of Marxist persuasion believe that labeling theory _____.

A) concentrates too heavily on the exotic varieties of deviants who capture public imagination B) places too much emphasis on "the unethical, illegal and destructive actions of powerful individuals, groups, and institutions of our society" C) assigns an overly active role to offenders and an overly passive role to the community and its criminal justice system D) focuses exclusively on class interests and ignores the fact that society is made up of many interest groups

28)

Which of the following is the cornerstone of the Marxist explanation of crime?

A) Deviance is a consequence of the application of rules and sanctions to an offender by society. B) People who are kept in a state of poverty will rebel by committing crimes. C) Crime and criminal justice arise from communal consensus. D) The destruction of communities by the state is at the root of crime.

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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 29) Discuss the basic assumptions of labeling theory, and then evaluate the theory.

30)

Compare and contrast the consensus and conflict models of lawmaking.

31)

Discuss the empirical support for the conflict model.

32) Select two of the radical criminologists discussed in the text, and discuss their contributions to criminology.

33) Over the last decade, a number of important critical perspectives have emerged, including radical feminist theory, left realism, abolitionist and anarchist criminology, and peacemaking criminology. Discuss three of these perspectives.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) Answers will vary. 30) Answers will vary. 31) Answers will vary. 32) Answers will vary. 33) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) As a result of the "missing victim" in basic criminology, theories of victimization have been developed for the purpose of understanding crime from the victim's perspective or with the victim in mind. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The rational-choice perspective posits that most crime is the product of a deranged mind. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Victim precipitation refers to situations where the victims initiate the confrontation that leads to their death. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The rational-choice perspective provides the foundation for designing situational-crimeprevention techniques.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Research findings of Richard Wright and Scott Decker indicate that street robbers, before committing their offenses, take into account familiarity with the area, fear of recognition, and the possibility that a particular area is no longer cost-beneficial. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) A criticism of situational crime prevention is that it treats the causes rather than the symptoms of the crime problem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) Contrary to the established criminological theories that explain motivation, environmental criminology begins with the assumption that

A) most people are not criminally motivated. B) some people are criminally motivated. C) all people would commit crime if there were no social controls. D) people make a choice to commit crime with an objective in mind.

The rational-choice perspective is based on two main theoretical approaches. They are

A) environmental criminology and rational ecological approaches. B) social control and differential association. C) the routine-activity approach and social disorganization theory. D) utilitarianism and traditional economic choice theory.

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The rational-choice perspective assumes that

A) some people are criminally motivated. B) all people would commit crime if there were no social controls. C) people make the decision to commit crime with a goal in mind and with free will. D) a crime can only occur if there is a suitable target and lack of a capable guardian.

10) According to the rational-choice perspective, characteristics come into play when an offender decides to commit a crime. Characteristics fall into two distinct sets: _____.

A) those of the offender and those of the victim B) those of the victim and those of the sanction C) those of the offender and those of the offense D) those of the offense and those of the sanction

11)

Which of the following is not one of the components of the routine-activity approach?

A) the monetary yield per crime B) a suitable target C) a likely offender D) the absence of a capable guardian

12)

Who developed the routine-activity approach?

A) Gottfredson and Hirschi B) Cohen and Felson C) Wolfgang and Ferracuti D) Cornish and Clarke

13)

The routine-activity approach does not explore

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A) situational factors. B) what suitable targets are. C) the factors that influence the offender's decision to commit a crime. D) crime rates.

14) Tactical displacement, one of the five forms of displacement identified by Marcus Felson and Ronald Clarke, means that _____.

A) one kind of crime can be substituted for another B) crime can be moved from one time to another C) crime can be directed away from one target to another D) one method of committing crime can be substituted for another

15) Wright and Decker found that street robbers frequently victimize all but which of the following? A) gamblers B) gang members C) drug dealers D) drug users

16)

What acronym did Clarke use to describe hot products?

A) HOTPRO B) PRODHOT C) CRAVED D) CASH

17)

The history of victims in criminology can be traced to an article published in 1941 by

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A) Edwin Sutherland B) Michael Hindelang. C) Benjamin Mendelssohn. D) Hans von Hentig.

18)

The term "victimology" was coined in 1947 by

A) Benjamin Mendelsohn. B) Edwin Sutherland. C) Marvin Wolfgang. D) Hans von Hentig.

19)

A "lifestyle theory of victimization" was developed by _____ in 1978.

A) Hirschi, Sutherland, and Clarke B) Hindelang, Gottfredson, and Garofalo C) Cohen and Felson D) Wolfgang

20)

The term "victim precipitation" was coined by

A) Travis Hirschi. B) Michael Gottfredson. C) Marcus Felson. D) Marvin Wolfgang.

21) James Tedeschi and Richard Felson put forward a theory of "coercive actions," which stresses that

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A) people commit violence when they feel they have no other alternative. B) the way victims and offenders interact plays a large role in violent crime. C) people commit violence only when they lose control. D) individuals who commit violence are often victims of violence themselves.

22) In their analysis of repeat victimization, researchers concluded that the _____ theory of offender decision making is useful in understanding repeat victimization. A) rational-choice B) routine-activity C) environmental D) victim precipitation

23) Measures such as steering-column locks, vandal-resistant construction, enhanced street lighting, and improved library checkout systems that demonstrably decrease opportunities for crime are known as _____. A) target-removal strategies B) rule-setting techniques C) target-hardening techniques D) entry/exit-screening strategies

24)

Who proposed the concept of "defensible space"? A) Marvin Wolfgang B) Ronald Clarke C) Hans von Hentig D) Oscar Newman

25) _____ theory looks at crime in terms of an offender's decision to commit a specific offense at a particular time and place.

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A) Routine-activity B) Victimization C) Rational-choice D) Target-hardening

26)

_____ is the commission of a quantitatively similar crime at a different time or place.

A) Displacement B) Relocation C) Parallel offending D) Comparative offending

27) In the context of the typologies of frequent auto theft offenders, which of the following is true of instrumental offenders?

A) They are least likely to be deterred. B) They are rational and engage in crimes with the least risk. C) They are responsible for a large proportion of totaled and burned cars. D) They do not consider the outcome of their crimes.

28)

Rational-choice theory, unlike traditional theories, is not concerned with strategies of

A) law enforcement. B) crime planning. C) policymaking. D) overall crime prevention.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 29) Explain, compare, and contrast the rational-choice perspective and the routine-activity approach.

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30) Discuss environmental criminology and explain how it differs from established criminological theories.

31) Discuss Hindelang, Gottfredson, and Garofalo's lifestyle theory of victimization and its propositions.

32) Discuss the theories of victim-offender interaction by Marvin Wolfgang and Tedeschi and Felson.

33) Explain how the rational-choice theory provides the foundation for designing situationalcrime-prevention techniques. Provide examples from the text.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) B 8) D 9) C 10) C 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) D 29) Answers will vary. 30) Answers will vary. 31) Answers will vary. 32) Answers will vary. 33) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Voluntary manslaughter is a killing committed intentionally but without malice. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Homicide is both an intraracial and an intragender crime. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Research suggests that men who father children by age 21 are three times more likely to be perpetrators of abuse than are men who are not fathers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Under English Common Law, kidnapping was a misdemeanor. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

5) Firearm-related crime is more prevalent in the United States than in other developed Western nations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) At common law, _____ was defined as the intentional killing of another person with malice forethought.

A) murder B) voluntary manslaughter C) involuntary manslaughter D) negligent manslaughter

_____ is a killing committed intentionally but without malice.

A) Negligent homicide B) Voluntary manslaughter C) Justifiable homicide D) Criminal homicide

8) A crime is designated as _____ when a person has caused the death of another unintentionally but recklessly by consciously disregarding a substantial and unjustifiable risk that endangered another person's life.

A) voluntary manslaughter B) justifiable homicide C) involuntary manslaughter D) murder

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Which of the following statements is true about serial murder?

A) It involves killing multiple victims in one event or in very quick succession. B) It involves killing several victims over a period of time. C) It was treated as a misdemeanor under English Common Law. D) It is the unintentional killing of another person without malice.

10)

In the United States, homicide rates tend to be higher in the _____ and the _____.

A) North; East B) West; North C) Northeast; Midwest D) South; West

11) A study by Felson and Messner found that victim precipitation is more often seen in cases where

A) women kill their friends. B) men kill their wives. C) women kill their husbands. D) men kill their friends.

12)

Which of the following statements is true about sociopaths?

A) They disregard common values. B) They have high internal controls. C) They lack any desire to dominate others. D) They remain unaffected by the social environment with which they interact.

13) A survey of homicide rates shows that the number of homicides per 100,000 children under age 15 in the United States was _____ times the number in other countries combined. Version 1

A) two B) three C) five D) seven

14)

Which of the following is true about assault rates?

A) They are highest in rural areas. B) They are highest during the winter months. C) They are highest in the West. D) They are highest in the evening hours.

15)

A(n) _____ is one that inflicts little or no physical hurt.

A) simple assault B) aggravated assault C) felonious assault D) sadistic assault

16) Which of the following is a finding of the National Crime Victimization Survey on domestic violence?

A) The most common reason given for failure to report a domestic assault to the police was that the victim did not believe any action would be taken. B) The police classified two-thirds of the reported incidents of domestic assault as simple assaults even though half of them involved injuries as serious as those inflicted during aggravated assaults. C) Majority of the incidents of domestic assault are reported. D) Majority of the victims that report domestic assault prefer that the offender be arrested.

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17) In 2017, Child Protective Service (CPS) agencies received an estimated _____ million referrals involving the alleged maltreatment of approximately 7.5 million children.

A) 1.1 B) 1.6 C) 4.4 D) 3.2

18) _____ is a type of elderly abuse where paid caregivers in a nursing home are perpetrators of abuse.

A) Institutional elder abuse B) Domestic elder abuse C) Self-neglect elder abuse D) Sibling elder abuse

19)

Which of the following statements is true of rape and the legal system?

A) All states have eliminated the marital rape exemption. B) The victim's testimony often suffices to convict the defendant in a rape case. C) All states have enacted rape shield laws, under which women are no longer required to disclose their prior sexual activity. D) Rape victims in the courtroom tend to become the "accused," required to defend their good reputations, their propriety, and their mental soundness.

20)

_____ occurs when a victim has had little or no prior contact with an offender.

A) Stranger rape B) Marital rape C) Predatory rape D) Date rape

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21) _____ is a property crime as well as a violent crime; a combination of the motive for economic gain and the violent nature is what makes it so serious.

A) Robbery B) Theft C) Burglary D) Felony murder

22) Which of the following has been used to assert some governmental control over organized crime?

A) Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO) B) Project Headstart C) Project Exile D) None of the answers is correct.

23) _____ is/are a resort to violence or a threat of violence on the part of a group seeking to accomplish a purpose against the opposition of constituted authority.

A) Threats B) Battery C) Assault D) Terrorism

24)

Which of the following is a feature of militia groups?

A) They are primarily made up of Black, Christian, upper-class Americans. B) They believe that their constitutional right to bear arms is threatened. C) They refrain from participating in any paramilitary maneuvers. D) They tend to have a favorable view of U.S. politics and the federal government.

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25) The financial cost of gunshot injury and death, in terms of medical costs, lost productivity, pain, suffering, and reduced quality of life, has been estimated at over _____ each year.

A) $10 billion B) $20 billion C) $40 billion D) $60 billion

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 26) Differentiate between murder, manslaughter, and involuntary manslaughter.

27)

Discuss what research reveals about the nature and extent of spouse abuse.

28)

John Conklin has differentiated four types of robbers. Discuss each of these types.

29)

Discuss the nature and extent of terrorism today and the steps taken to control terrorism.

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30)

Discuss the arguments on both sides of the gun control debate.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) D 26) Answers will vary. Version 1

27) Answers will vary. 28) Answers will vary. 29) Answers will vary. 30) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Larceny is the most prevalent crime in our society. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) According to research on shoplifters, it is estimated that men are slightly more likely than women to be shoplifters. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Carjacking is considered a combination of motor vehicle theft and burglary. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The British Banking Association in London estimates the cost of computer fraud worldwide at about $12 billion a year. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Most law enforcement agencies are not equipped to deal with high-tech crimes.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) Our common law definition of larceny is virtually identical with the concept in

A) Roman law. B) French law. C) German law. D) Greek law.

Which of the following is not one of the elements of larceny?

A) There must be a trespass. B) The property must be taken. C) The property must belong to another. D) The property has to be personal property and may include real estate.

Which of the following statements is true of larceny?

A) It is the malicious burning of or setting fire to the dwelling of another person. B) It is the prototype of all property offenses. C) It is the least prevalent crime in the United States. D) It is the acquisition of the property of another person through cheating or deception.

In the context of thieves, amateur thieves

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A) steal when a high level of risk is involved. B) predominantly think of themselves as professional criminals. C) carry out their acts with strict planning. D) resolve some immediate crisis by stealing.

10)

Which of the following statements is true about shoplifting?

A) It is a low-risk offense, with a low detection rate. B) It constitutes about 90 percent of all larcenies. C) It is the largest property crime in the United States. D) It is considered a combination of robbery and confidence game.

11) In response to the increasing problem of art theft, the Federal Bureau of Investigation created the

A) National Stolen Art File. B) American Stolen Art File. C) National File of Stolen Art. D) American File of Stolen Art.

12)

_____ is the most prevalent property crime in the United States.

A) Art theft B) Motor vehicle theft C) Arson D) Burglary

13)

Which of the following statements is true about confidence games?

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A) They primarily involve shoplifting items from a retail store. B) They are the most prevalent crime in the society. C) They are the highest form of larceny. D) They are an aggravated form of obtaining property by false pretenses.

14)

Carjacking is considered to be a combination of motor vehicle theft and

A) robbery. B) burglary. C) insurance fraud. D) larceny.

15)

Auto insurance schemes include all but which of the following?

A) staged claims B) ping-ponging C) caused accidents D) abandoned vehicles

16) _____ occurs when physicians refer patients to several practitioners when symptoms do not warrant such referrals.

A) Family ganging B) Overutilization C) Ping-ponging D) Steering

17) In the context of medical fraud, _____ is a practice in which doctors direct patients to their clinic's pharmacy to fill unneeded prescriptions.

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A) family ganging B) upgrading C) ping-ponging D) steering

18) The Industrial Espionage Act of 1996 makes the theft, unauthorized appropriation, or other misuse of _____ a federal crime.

A) credit cards B) proprietary economic information C) computer software D) None of the answers is correct.

19) Which of the following involves an attempt to pursue illegal activities through the use of advanced electronic media?

A) shoplifting B) high-tech crime C) motor vehicle theft D) ping-ponging

20)

In 2018, burglary accounted for nearly a(n) _____ of all Index offenses.

A) third B) fourth C) fifth D) eighth

21)

A _____ is a person who buys stolen property, on a regular basis, for resale.

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A) middle-man B) pawn C) hack D) fence

22)

Which of the following statements is true about arson?

A) It has been predominantly viewed as a less violent crime than burglary. B) It is the largest property crime in the United States. C) It is a high-tech crime that is carried out without any malice. D) It involves setting fire to the dwelling of another person.

23)

_____ account for the most significant share of arsonists.

A) Insurance fraudsters B) Organized crime figures C) Juveniles D) Embezzlers

24) According to a national survey of fire departments, what were the most frequent targets of arson?

A) motor vehicles B) buildings C) trailers D) crops

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 25) According to some criminologists, amateur and professional thieves differ considerably. Compare and contrast these two types of thieves.

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26)

Discuss what research on motor vehicle theft reveals.

27)

Define fraud, and then discuss five types of fraud.

28) Discuss the three main categories of computer crime and the problems these high-tech crimes pose to law enforcement agencies.

29) Explain the differences between the common law definition of burglary and the definition currently used today. Then discuss what the research on burglary reveals.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) A 7) D 8) B 9) D 10) A 11) A 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) Answers will vary. 26) Answers will vary. Version 1

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27) Answers will vary. 28) Answers will vary. 29) Answers will vary. Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The Sherman Antitrust Act, passed by Congress in 1890, authorized the prosecution of corporations engaged in monopolistic practices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Churning is the use of material, nonpublic financial information to obtain an unfair advantage in trading securities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Business opportunity fraud is not a type of consumer fraud. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Embezzlement is the conversion of property or money with which one is entrusted or for which one has a fiduciary responsibility. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The world's legal systems include many highly effective laws and mechanisms to curb destruction of the environment. ⊚ ⊚

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) The _____, passed by Congress in 1890, authorized the prosecution of corporations engaged in monopolistic practices.

A) Sherman Antitrust Act B) Congressional Antitrust Act C) Sarbanes-Oxley Act D) Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act

Which of the following statements is true about white-collar crimes?

A) They are easy to detect. B) They are extremely difficult to commit. C) They can be committed by a corporation as well as by an individual. D) They exclude offenses related to bankruptcy fraud and insider-related fraud.

8) _____ crimes are crimes committed by individuals for themselves in the course of rendering a service.

A) Corporate B) Service C) Occupational D) Institutional

9) The practice of trading a client's shares of stock frequently in order to generate large commissions is known as

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A) burning. B) stock manipulation. C) insider trading. D) churning.

10) _____ is the use of material, nonpublic financial information to obtain an unfair advantage in trading securities.

A) Insider trading B) Churning C) Stock manipulation D) Burning

11) Operations run by stock manipulators who, through deception and misleading sales techniques, seduce unsuspecting and uninformed individuals into buying stocks in obscure and often poorly financed corporations are referred to as

A) pink rooms. B) boiler rooms. C) steam rooms. D) scam rooms.

12) In the context of bankruptcy fraud, which of the following scams most likely involves employees of an already established firm who, motivated by a desire for quick profits, bilk the company of its money and assets and file for bankruptcy?

A) the successful-business scam B) the new-company scam C) the old-company scam D) the similar-name scam

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13) In the context of the models of corporate culpability, which of the following models most likely considers the corporate response to the discovery of a criminal act?

A) the corporate policy B) the constructive corporate culpability C) the proactive corporate fault D) the reactive corporate fault

14) Which of the following scams involves a profitable corporation that is well positioned in a market but is forced into bankruptcy after new owners have bilked the corporation of all of its money and assets?

A) the successful-business scam B) the corporate-pirate scam C) the old-company scam D) the new-company scam

15) An important step to curb government contract fraud was taken with the passage of the _____, creating a separate offense of government contract fraud in excess of $1 million.

A) Fraudulent Contract Act B) Major Fraud Act C) Sherman Antitrust Act D) Wedtech Act

16)

Which of the following statements is true about insider-related fraud?

A) It uses bait-and-switch advertising techniques to scam customers. B) It excludes the sale of any confidential information. C) It involves the use and misuse of one's position for pecuniary gain or privilege. D) It is an old-company scam that is used by a company when it is losing money in the market.

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17) _____ crime is a criminal act committed by one or more employees of a corporation that is attributed to the corporation itself.

A) Organizational B) Employee C) Institutional D) Corporate

18)

Which of the following statements is true about bait-and-switch advertising?

A) It is a type of fraud that is carried out by amateur thieves who embezzle huge sums of money from their customers. B) It is the most common form of telemarketing fraud. C) It involves offering a consumer an inferior product at a higher price as a substitute for a product that is out of stock. D) It enables a consumer to buy products at a price below their original selling price.

19) In 1909, which of the following cases caused courts to review a wide variety of criminal cases against corporations?

A) People v. The Transcontinental Railroad B) New York Central Railroad C) In re People of Hawk's Nest, West Virginia D) United States v. Ford Motor works

20)

An artificial person created by state charter is known as a

A) dummy. B) mock person. C) corporation. D) prosthetic business.

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21) In the context of corporate culpability, which of the following models assumes that a corporation is to blame where practices and procedures are inadequate to prevent the commission of a crime?

A) proactive corporate fault B) reactive corporate fault C) constructive corporate culpability D) corporate stock culpability

22) In the context of corporate culpability, when an organization's personality encourages its agents to commit criminal acts, there is liability under a theory of _____.

A) corporate ethos B) corporate policy C) organizational steering D) organizational overutilizing

23) Which of the following statements is true of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)?

A) It was created by the Clean Water Act in 2014. B) It monitors plant discharges all over the United States. C) It cannot enforce federal statutes relating to the protection of the environment. D) It cannot take action against private industry or municipal governments.

24) Congressional sentencing guidelines significantly increased sanctions for corporate crime but also allowed companies large reductions in fines where there was evidence of

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A) a sincere apology. B) little real impact of the crime. C) organizational due diligence. D) a conspiracy among employees.

25) In the context of the options used by the U.S. legislators in developing legislation to protect the environment, which of the following options includes penalties imposed for failure to install or maintain prescribed antipollution equipment?

A) the independent use of the criminal sanction B) the dependent-direct use of the criminal sanction C) the preventive use of the criminal sanction D) the dependent-indirect approach

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 26) Compare the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act. What do both laws accomplish? How do they help, and how might they hurt?

27) The text discusses eight categories of white-collar offenses committed by individuals. Discuss five of these.

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28)

Discuss the four models of corporate criminal liability.

29) Discuss the issue of environmental crime. Explain why it is so difficult to enforce legislation preventing environmental crime.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) A 7) C 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) Answers will vary. Version 1

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27) Answers will vary. 28) Answers will vary. 29) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) During the Civil War, heroin addiction among veterans was referred to as the "soldier's disease." ⊚ ⊚

true false

Crack is more expensive than powdered cocaine, slow-acting, and less effective. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The Volstead Act of 1919 defined any beverage that contained more than one-half of one percent alcohol as intoxicating liquor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) One of the major differences between alcohol and other drugs is that the sale and purchase of alcohol are legal in most jurisdictions of the United States. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) After analyzing studies on the relationship between pornography and violence, the Attorney General's Commission concluded that nonviolent and nondegrading pornography is not significantly associated with crime and aggression.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) During the Civil War, what drug addiction among veterans came to be known as the "soldier's disease"?

A) morphine B) marijuana C) alcohol D) cocaine

It was not until the _____ that the abuse of marijuana began to arouse public concern.

A) 1920s B) 1930s C) 1940s D) 1950s

8) Most of the basic federal antidrug legislation has been drawn together in Title _____ of the United States Code, the collection of all federal laws.

A) 17 B) 18 C) 21 D) 23

Which of the following statements is true about alcohol?

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A) Sale and purchase of alcohol are illegal in most jurisdictions of the United States. B) Consumption of alcohol among young people is rare. C) The rate of alcohol use has rapidly declined since 1994. D) Alcohol escalates aggression by reducing awareness of consequences.

10)

In the 1980s, _____ constituted the United States' major drug problem.

A) cocaine B) morphine C) heroin D) marijuana

11) During the 1960s, _____ became one of the major drugs of choice in the United States among white, middle-class young people who identified themselves as anti-establishment.

A) cocaine B) marijuana C) heroin D) alcohol

12)

_____ is a mixture of crack and heroin.

A) Jump B) Speed ball C) Crank D) Horse

13) The cash obtained from drug sales in the United States is physically smuggled out of the country because it cannot be legally exported without disclosure. This describes what phenomenon?

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A) Inside trading B) Churning C) Embezzlement D) Money laundering

14) Which of the following is true of the critics of the educational approach to drug treatment?

A) They maintain that inner-city youngsters lack enough information about the harmful effects of drugs. B) They argue that educational programs to treat drug addiction are the most expensive programs. C) They believe that most people who begin to use drugs believe that they will easily become addicted because they have enough information about addiction. D) They believe that most addicts are quite knowledgeable about the potential consequences of taking drugs but think of them as just part of the "game."

15) Since the first drug court was established in Dade County, Florida, in 1989, more than _____ similar courts have been established in counties throughout the country.

A) 400 B) 800 C) 1500 D) 2100

16) In the late 1970s and early 1980s, the government of Bolivia was completely corrupt from the drug trade, as evidenced by the minister of justice being referred to as the

A) minister of cocaine. B) minister of marijuana. C) minister of the opium poppies. D) minister of heroin.

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17)

The first drug court was established in _____ in 1989.

A) Atlanta, Georgia, B) Dade County, Florida, C) Los Angeles, California, D) New York, New York,

18)

Which of the following statements best defines bootlegging?

A) It is the process by which inferior products are sold at a higher price. B) It is the process by which crack and heroin are mixed to produce crank. C) It refers to the unlawful sale of alcohol. D) It refers to the illegal trafficking of children.

19) On January 16, 1920, the _____ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution went into force, prohibiting the manufacture, sale, and transportation of alcoholic beverages.

A) Thirteenth B) Fifteenth C) Sixteenth D) Eighteenth

20) The only national survey of inmates in jails and prisons and substance abuse shows that about _____ percent of the convicted offenders incarcerated for violent crimes consumed alcohol immediately before the crimes.

A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50

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21) Following the ratification of the _____ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, the voting age was lowered to 18 years and many states also lowered their minimum-age requirement for the purchase and sale of alcoholic beverages.

A) Twenty-sixth B) Twenty-third C) Eighteenth D) Sixteenth

22)

As per common law, which of the following statements is true about sodomy?

A) It is the highest form of pedophilia. B) It is a sexual act that happens between a human and an animal. C) It is a form of statutory rape that happens between couples. D) It is the illegal selling of prostitutes by a pimp.

23) In the context of sexual morality offenses, _____ is the illegal sexual activity between two people when it would otherwise be legal if not for their age.

A) bootlegging B) orgasm C) statutory rape D) confidence game

24) In a series of decisions culminating in _____, the Supreme Court articulated the view that obscenity, really meaning pornography, is outside the protection of the Constitution.

A) Pope v . Illinois B) Miller v. Illinois C) Pope v. New York D) Miller v. California

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25) As long ago as the late 1940s and the early 1950s, the pioneering Kinsey reports provided evidence about the enormous gap between the goals of law and actual behavior. According to these studies, of the total white male population in the United States, _____ percent had had some experience with prostitutes.

A) 75 B) 69 C) 55 D) 37

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 26) The discussion of the "drug problem" includes a wide variety of conditions that extend beyond American borders, that involve all social classes, and that in one way or another touch most people's lives. Discuss the research on the extent of drug abuse.

27)

Discuss what the research on patterns of drug abuse reveals.

28) The drug problem is a worldwide phenomenon. Discuss money laundering and the political impact of the drug trade on producer countries.

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29) Laws related to sexual morality have always been controversial. Discuss the three sexual morality offenses covered in the text.

30) The task of defining pornography subject to legal prohibition belongs to the Supreme Court of the United States. Discuss the Supreme Court's view on pornography.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 13 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) A 26) Answers will vary. Version 1

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27) Answers will vary. 28) Answers will vary. 29) Answers will vary. 30) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A comparative study of victimization rates between Montana and Mississippi is an example of comparative criminology. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Comparative criminology has only theoretical goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) A comparison between the "official" crime rates of the United Nations Surveys and the victimization rates reported shows that the two are reasonably related. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The Permanent International Criminal Court became functional when 50 governments ratified the treaty. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Balkanization is the breakup of nation-states into ethnic entities.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) Which of the following is an example of comparative criminology?

A) a comparative study of victimization rates between Montana and Mississippi B) a comparative study of the victimization rates between Cambridge, England and London, England C) a comparative study of victimization rates of the Cheyenne nation in Wyoming with that among the people of the rest of the state D) a comparative study of victimization rates between the Cheyenne nation in Wyoming and the Cheyenne nation in Montana

Which of the following statements is true of micro-level criminology?

A) It explores offending behaviors from an individualistic perspective. B) It considers the offending behaviors in a certain group or neighborhood. C) It considers the offending behaviors of people from different cultures. D) It explores offending behaviors from a collectivistic perspective.

Which of the following statements is true of macro-level criminology?

A) It explores offending behaviors from an individualistic perspective. B) It considers the offending behaviors in a certain group, neighborhood, or culture. C) It explores the offending behaviors across several cultures rather than one particular culture. D) It considers offending behaviors from people who are independent and autonomous.

9) The great majority of countries send international crime statistics to_____, which publishes the data biannually.

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A) the International Criminal Police Organization (Interpol) B) the World Health Organization C) the Comparative Crime Data File D) the International Crime Victims Survey

10) Which of the following was undertaken by a conglomeration of international researchers who conducted three victimization surveys in numerous developed and developing countries?

A) Correlates of Crime B) Comparative Crime Data File C) International Crime Victims Survey D) Uniform Crime Report

11) by

The first book on comparative research, entitled Comparative Criminology, was authored

A) Karl Marx. B) Friedrich Engels. C) Hermann Mannheim. D) Emile Durkheim.

12) Criminologists who cannot find or rely upon comparative data must generate their own. Which one of the following is not a problem that they face?

A) identification of comparable problems B) identification of sources of information C) selection of a research method compatible in the countries under comparison D) selection of a sample

13) Recently, criminologist Obi Ebbe has reviewed the Gluecks' studies and found their theories to be applicable to juvenile delinquents in

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A) Nigeria. B) England. C) Germany. D) Japan.

14) Cross-cultural researchers have devoted particular attention to the recently developed hypothesis that _____ lead to increases in crime.

A) overpopulation and homelessness B) modernization and urbanization C) heterogeneity and immigration D) increased drug abuse and availability of weapons

15)

Which of the following is

not a category of crimes reaching beyond national borders?

A) transnational crime B) international crime C) transnational victimology D) internationally induced local crime problems

16) Criminologists use the term _____ to refer to criminal activities, transactions, or schemes that violate the laws of more than one country or have a direct impact on a foreign country.

A) international crime B) foreign crime C) intranational crime D) transnational crime

17)

Which of the following statements is true about money laundering?

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A) It ends with the collection of dirty money from drug barons. B) It is ranked last on the list of transnational crimes by the United Nations. C) It usually involves the physical transfer of cash out of a country. D) It usually begins with the layering of dirty money in an economy.

18)

Which of the following statements is true about illicit arms trade?

A) Criminological information on illicit arms trade is abundant. B) A lethal part of illicit arms trade involves the transfer of nuclear materials. C) The United Nations ranks illicit arms trade as the number one transnational crime in the world. D) Illicit arms trade involves robbing entire cultures and nations of their cultural heritage.

19)

The unauthorized use of the rights of authors and performers is referred to as

A) theft of art and cultural objects. B) computer crime. C) theft of intellectual property. D) illicit traffic in patents and copyrights.

20) No other form of transnational and organized crime is as costly in terms of human suffering and national financial burden as the

A) illegal trade in arms. B) trafficking of young children by pimps. C) mass killing of people by sea pirates. D) illicit trade in narcotic drugs.

21)

Research indicates that much of the illegal population flow worldwide is controlled by

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A) organized crime. B) the Mafia. C) the Yakuzza. D) drug cartels.

22) _____ are the major criminal offenses so designated by the community of nations for the protection of interests common to all humankind.

A) Intranational crimes B) International crimes C) Worldwide crimes D) Global crimes

23) In the context of the categories of transnational criminality that emergedfrom a report by the United Nations, which of the following categories ranks number one on the list because of its massive impact on the global economy?

A) money laundering B) terrorist activities C) illicit traffic in arms D) aircraft hijacking

24) Which of the following crimes most likely falls within the jurisdiction of the International Criminal Court (ICC)?

A) larceny B) bootlegging C) genocide D) sodomy

25)

Which of the following statements is true about the International Criminal Court (ICC)?

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A) Pakistan, China, and India were the first nations to become members of the ICC. B) The ICC predominantly tries cases involving pornography and white-collar crimes. C) The ICC is a court of last resort, and its jurisdiction extends to serious war crimes. D) Crimes related to colonial and alien domination are beyond the jurisdiction of the ICC.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 26) Criminologists who cannot find or rely upon comparative data must generate their own, usually by parallel field investigations proceeding more or less simultaneously. Discuss the three problems these researchers confront.

27)

Compare the three categories of crime problems that reach beyond national borders.

28) The United Nations demonstrated the existence and prevalence of 18 categories of transnational crime. Discuss the following four transnational crimes: money laundering, illicit arms traffic, sea piracy, and trafficking in persons.

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29) A vast majority of the governments of the world voted to establish the Permanent International Criminal Court. The court became effective on July 1, 2002. Discuss the jurisdiction of this court and the issues surrounding the United States' involvement in the court.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 14 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) Answers will vary. Version 1

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27) Answers will vary. 28) Answers will vary. 29) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The due process model of criminal justice is one in which effectiveness and efficiency are emphasized. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) In Miranda v. Arizona (1961), the Supreme Court ruled that all courts in the country must apply the exclusionary rule. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) If the Miranda warning is not given, the courts may exclude from evidence at trial any statement that the arrestee may have made and any evidence that may have resulted from it. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) A group of federal judges very reluctantly estimated the probability of true guilt to be only about 75 percent. That would mean that 25 percent of convicts are wrongfully convicted. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) In the Anglo-American criminal process, the victim had no role in the imposition of sentencing. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) Which model for criminal justice is oriented more to the rights of defendants?

A) the crime control model B) the reasonable doubt model C) the due process model D) the defendants' rights model

The final phase in the criminal justice process is _____.

A) corrections B) indictment C) arraignment D) trial sanctions

8) Which of the following statements is true about the adjudication phase of the criminal justice process?

A) It is the first phase of the criminal justice process. B) It is the phase where defendants are sentenced for charges against them. C) It is the phase where citizens first bring criminal events to the attention of the police. D) It is conducted by a judge, with or without a jury.

9) The President's Commission depicts the criminal justice system as composed of five phases. Which of the following is the second phase of the criminal justice system?

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A) sentencing and sanctions B) adjudication C) prosecution and pretrial services D) entry into the system

10) The intent of the _____ is to deter the police from engaging in illegal practices and to keep the courts from condoning such conduct.

A) excessive force rule B) exclusionary rule C) Miranda warning D) exceptional evidence rule

11) Which of the following cases resulted in the Supreme Court ruling in 1961 that all courts in the country must apply the exclusionary rule?

A) Miranda v . Arizona B) Gideon v . Wainwright C) Mapp v . Ohio D) In re Gault

12) In the context of the criminal justice process, _____ is a preview of the trial in court before a judge, in which the prosecution must produce enough evidence to convince the judge that the case should proceed to trial or to the grand jury.

A) plea bargaining B) preliminary hearing C) revocation D) correction

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13) In the context of the criminal justice process, in the _____, in which the defense need not present any evidence, the defendant gains the advantage of finding out how the prosecution's case is being developed.

A) plea bargaining B) adjudication process C) grand jury D) preliminary hearing

14)

Which of the following statements is true about plea bargaining?

A) It increases the cost of a trial to the state. B) It guarantees the plaintiff that the defendant will be given a tougher sentence than what was warranted by the original charge. C) It allows for adjustment of inadequately developed legal rules regarding defenses, such as mistake or insanity. D) It is an ineffective legal device as it causes courts to get hopelessly clogged with too many criminal cases.

15) A grand jury indictment must rest on evidence indicating a _____ case against the defendant.

A) prima guiltius B) facie guiltius C) prima facie D) res ipsa loquitur

16)

A prima facie case exists where there seems to be _____ to convict the defendant.

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A) reasonable doubt B) reasonable suspicion C) insufficient evidence D) sufficient evidence

17)

Which of the following statements is true about parole?

A) All states have abolished the use of parole system to release inmates. B) Parole is a legal device used by plaintiffs to ensure that defendants are severely punished for their crimes. C) Parole is an early release of an inmate from prison based on the decision of a parole board. D) Parole typically occurs during the adjudication phase of the criminal justice process.

18) Throughout the criminal justice process, the number of persons within the system steadily decreases. This phenomenon is called the _____ rate.

A) attrition B) drop-out C) fatality D) innocence

19)

The number of juveniles arrested in 2010 was

A) 1.28 million. B) 1.50 million. C) 1.43 million. D) 1.99 million.

20)

Which of the following most likely refers to the term "in loco parentis"?

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A) in the place of a capable and worthy parent B) in the place of both parents C) the location of the parents D) in the place of a parent deemed incapable or unworthy

21)

The nation's first juvenile court was located in

A) Boston, Massachusetts. B) Chicago, Illinois. C) New Orleans, Louisiana. D) New York, New York.

22) In which case did the Supreme Court rule that children also have rights that are protected by the Constitution?

A) Miranda v . Arizona B) Gideon v . Wainwright C) Mapp v . Ohio D) In re Gault

23) In the _____, a juvenile court judge must decide whether the facts warrant a decision in accordance with a petition.

A) adjudicatory hearing B) dispositional hearing C) plea-bargaining phase D) intake phase

24)

In _____ states, victims now have the right to state their views at sentencing hearings.

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A) 20 B) 25 C) 30 D) 35

25) A promising new strategy for involving victims in the sentencing process is the opportunity of reconciling victim and offender in some cases, with or without compensation for victim. One such program began operating in 1992

A) at the Marion federal penitentiary. B) at "The Farm" in Louisiana. C) at the Graterford, Pennsylvania, Correctional Institution. D) at the Boscobe Supermax Correctional Institution.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 26) The President's Commission depicts the criminal justice system as composed of five phases. Discuss each of these phases.

27) There are three kinds of decisions made at the entry stage of the criminal justice system. Discuss decisions by victims and decisions by police.

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28) There are legal criteria for processing a suspect from one phase to the next phase in the criminal justice system. Define and explain the significance of probable cause, the exclusionary rule, and reasonable suspicion.

29) In 1977, an influential joint committee of the Institute of Judicial Administration at New York University and the American Bar Association formulated a set of standards for juvenile justice. The implementation of these standards resulted in the juvenile justice system becoming more punitive. Discuss the six developments in which that punitiveness was manifested.

30)

Discuss the victim's role in the five phases of the criminal justice process.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 15 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) C 16) D 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) Answers will vary. Version 1

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27) Answers will vary. 28) Answers will vary. 29) Answers will vary. 30) Answers will vary. Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The first uniformed police force in the United States was established in New York City. ⊚ ⊚

true false

O.W. Wilson developed the professional model of policing in the early twentieth century. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) A vice squad enforces laws against activities such as gambling, drug dealing, and prostitution. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) In the context of the agencies maintained by the Department of Justice, the U.S. Marshals Service is charged with the enforcement of laws controlling the use, sale, and distribution of narcotics. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) According to the Knapp Commission, the two types of corrupt police officers are "meat eaters" and "grass eaters."

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⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) Which of the following statements is true about the frankpledge system?

A) A night watchmen served as the head of the system. B) Every male over age 12 was part of the system. C) Sheriffs were excluded from making any decisions relating to law enforcement. D) The Statute of Winchester established the system.

7) In the context of the frankpledge system, the _____ presided over the shire's court, executed summonses, and enforced the law.

A) sheriff B) constable C) night watchman D) justices of the peace

Which of the following statements is true about justices of the peace?

A) They were well trained in patrolling to lookout for disturbances in a society. B) They were first commissioned in 1285 by the Statute of Winchester. C) They were usually nobles who investigated and tried minor cases. D) They were members of the working class.

Who developed the professional model of policing in the early twentieth century?

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A) Sir Robert Peel B) O.W. Wilson C) Henry Fielding D) August Vollmer

10)

In the context of the frankpledge system, a _____ refers to an association of 10 families.

A) sodality B) tithing C) guild D) confraternity

11)

American policing differs from that found in other countries in its diversity of forces and

A) lack of autonomy. B) lack of control over crime. C) lack of central coordination and command. D) lack of jurisdictional territories.

12) In 1908, President Theodore Roosevelt, angered by Congress's failure to adopt legislation to regulate political and business corruption, established the

A) United States Marshal Service. B) Federal Bureau of Investigation. C) Texas Rangers. D) Bureau of Investigations.

13) Which of the following is most likely to be at the lowest level in the structure of a wellorganized operational unit?

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A) a criminal investigation unit B) an art theft unit C) the bureau of public safety D) the bureau of fraud investigations

14) In a well-organized municipal police department, which of the following constitutes a nonline function?

A) planning and training B) investigative duties C) patrol duties D) traffic control

15) In the context of the agencies maintained by the Department of Justice, which of the following agencies has the dual authority of policing U.S. borders to prevent aliens from entering illegally and overseeing the admission, exclusion, and deportation of aliens?

A) the Immigration and Naturalization Service (INS) B) the U.S. Marshals Service (USMS) C) the United States Department of Homeland Security (DHS) D) the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

16) Undercover operations in which police pretend to involve themselves in illegal acts to trap a suspect are called

A) job operations. B) sting operations. C) entrapments. D) decoy operations.

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17) In the context of investigative duties, _____ refers to a type of police conduct in which an originally unwilling person is actively induced to commit a crime and such conduct is considered to be illegal as per the U.S. Supreme Court.

A) tithing B) arraignment C) entrapment D) decoying

18)

Which category of police functions predominated well into the 1960s?

A) community policing B) community service C) order maintenance D) law enforcement

19) One way in which police can enhance community relations is through _____, where police work with citizens to identify and respond to community problems.

A) problem-oriented policing B) foot patrols C) team policing D) order maintenance

20)

Which landmark Supreme Court case dealt with the use of deadly force?

A) Miranda v . Arizona B) Mapp v . Ohio C) Tennessee v . Garner D) In re Gault

21)

A police officer who cooperates with criminals for personal gain is known as a

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A) grass eater. B) vegetarian. C) shark. D) meat eater.

22) as a

A police officer who looks the other way when illegal activities are taking place is known

A) grass eater. B) vegetarian. C) shark. D) meat eater.

23)

More than _____ Miami police officers were implicated in corrupt drug-related activities.

A) 100 B) 125 C) 150 D) 200

24)

The first minority police officer was hired in Washington, D.C., in

A) 1961. B) 1905. C) 1898. D) 1861.

25) A study of 2,300 police officers in 20 departments found that _____ percent abused alcohol.

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A) 37 B) 36 C) 23 D) 10

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 26) Discuss policing in the United States in terms of the progressive era, Vollmer and Wilson, and the Wickersham Commission.

27) The police have three categories of functions: law enforcement, order maintenance, and community service. Discuss these three functions.

28) The most widely accepted strategy for improving police-community relations is that of community policing. Discuss community policing in general, and then discuss foot patrols and team policing as they relate to community policing.

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29) National investigative commissions in the 1930s and again in the 1960s found American policing to be defective in six distinct areas. Discuss the area of use of deadly force and police brutality.

30)

Define and discuss the police subculture.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 16 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) A 24) D 25) C 26) Answers will vary. Version 1

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27) 28) 29) 30)

Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A state's major trial courts are the courts of general jurisdiction. ⊚ ⊚

There are 13 circuit courts of appeals in the United States. ⊚ ⊚

true false

All states are required to have 12 trial jurors for all crimes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The process by which lawyers and the judge examine a prospective juror to determine his or her acceptability is known as peremptory challenge. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Capital punishment is the only sentence that, once executed, is irreversible and final. ⊚ ⊚

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) Municipal courts, justice of the peace courts, and magistrate's courts are examples of what level of courts of law?

A) courts of limited or special jurisdiction B) courts of general jurisdiction C) courts of appellate jurisdiction D) None of the answers is correct.

A state's major trial courts are called

A) courts of limited or special jurisdiction. B) courts of general jurisdiction. C) courts of appellate jurisdiction. D) None of the answers is correct.

8) In what case did the Supreme Court rule that a state cannot pass and enforce a law making it a criminal offense for Black and white citizens to intermarry?

A) Janis v. Maryland B) Grant v. Texas C) Loving v. Virginia D) Gideon v. Wainwright

A motion for a sanity hearing is made when

A) the evidence presented is insufficient to establish probable cause. B) the defendant claims that mental illness deprives him or her of legal responsibility. C) the defendant claims that a fair trial cannot be obtained in a particular county. D) the evidence is discovered in the hands of the prosecution.

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10) An order by a higher court directing a lower court to send to it the records of a case is exercised by a

A) writ of habeas corpus. B) writ of prosecution. C) writ of certiorari. D) writ of appeal.

11)

In the criminal justice process, a trial begins with the _____.

A) arraignment B) correction C) revocation D) probation

12) If a defendant pleads _____, he or she admits criminal liability for the purposes of the immediate proceeding only.

A) no solo B) nolle prosequi C) nolo contendere D) no liability

13) After a plea of not guilty, the first step is the impaneling of a jury, which is called the _____ jury, for the trial.

A) petit B) voir dire C) general D) grand

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14) The process by which lawyers and the judge examine a prospective juror to determine his or her acceptability is known as

A) challenges for cause. B) voir dire. C) peremptory challenges. D) pretrial challenges.

15) In every criminal case, an attorney represents the government, whether county, city, or state. That attorney is called a _____.

A) pleader B) barrister C) prosecutor D) defense counsel

16)

A _____ is a request that proceedings be terminated.

A) presumptive sentence B) revocation C) plea bargain D) motion to dismiss

17) _____ is a sentencing option where a defendant is sentenced to complete a period of community supervision with special limitations.

A) Incarceration B) Probation C) Fine D) Restitution

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18) An offender may be required to provide financial reimbursement to cover the cost of a victim's losses. This sanction is referred to as

A) retribution. B) a fine. C) restitution. D) community service.

19) As a sentencing strategy or option, _____ is based on the premise that through correctional intervention an offender may be changed and returned to society as a productive citizen.

A) incapacitation B) arraignment C) retribution D) rehabilitation

20) The theory of _____ holds that fear of punishment will cause potential offenders to refrain from committing crimes.

A) incapacitation B) retribution C) deterrence D) just deserts

21)

The philosophy of an "eye for an eye" is an example of what philosophy of punishment?

A) incapacitation B) retribution C) deterrence D) rehabilitation

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22)

Restorative justice differs from retributive justice in that restorative justice

A) focuses on ensuring that one party wins while the other party loses. B) aims to identify obligations and promote healing. C) aims to establish blame and administer pain. D) focuses on reducing the exchange of information among victims, offenders, and the community.

23)

Most state prison inmates are serving _____ sentences.

A) preliminary B) indeterminate C) presumptive D) concurrent

24)

What are the two types of sentencing guidelines?

A) voluntary and presumptive B) mandatory and presumptive C) voluntary and indeterminate D) consecutive and concurrent

25) In the context of the philosophies of punishment, which of the following concepts is based on the proposition that a punishment must be based on the gravity of the offense and the culpability of the perpetrator?

A) split sentence B) rehabilitation C) incapacitation D) just deserts

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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 26) Most states have three distinct levels of courts of law: courts of limited or special jurisdiction, courts of general jurisdiction, and courts of appellate jurisdiction. Discuss each of these levels of courts of law and the types of cases each may hear.

27) There are several levels of federal courts. Discuss federal magistrates, the United States District Courts, the United States Circuit Courts of Appeals, and the Supreme Court of the United States.

28) Discuss what psychological research reveals about the relationship between jury decision making, courtroom testimony, and eyewitness testimony and identification.

29)

Compare and contrast the five most prominent philosophies of punishment.

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30) Discuss the opposing deterrence and discrimination arguments regarding whether and to what extent executions deter murder.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 17 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) Answers will vary. Version 1

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27) 28) 29) 30)

Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary. Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The Pennsylvania penitentiary system utilized congregate labor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Prisons, for the most part, have better management, education, recreation, and employment programs than jails. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Progressive criminologists regard the principal objective of the correctional system to be reformation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The first prison gang, the Gypsy Jakers, started at Angola prison. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Boot camp programs are politically attractive because they are cost-effective and demonstrate to the public that offenders are undergoing an intense disciplinary experience. ⊚ ⊚

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) The American correctional movement began in

A) Massachusetts. B) Pennsylvania. C) New York. D) Illinois.

7) Which of the following physicians from Philadelphia took up the cause of penal reform, calling for the abolition of capital punishment?

A) William Penn B) John Elmira C) William Rush D) John Auburn

Which of the following was a principal feature of the Eastern Penitentiary?

A) three hours of exercise every day for prisoners B) outdoor working environment C) congregate labor D) solitary confinement

9) Which penitentiary was a round building, permitting control of all cells from a central point?

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A) Western Penitentiary B) Eastern Penitentiary C) Auburn Penitentiary D) Elmira Penitentiary

10) In the context of the approaches to imprisonment, which of the following is true of the Auburn system?

A) It did not adopt any of the features of the Pennsylvania system. B) It did not permit younger offenders to work and eat in groups. C) It made use of an innovation called congregate labor. D) It allowed offenders to talk to or even meet one another.

11) The National Prison Association considered the _____ Penitentiary to be a model for the reformatory movement.

A) Western B) Eastern C) Auburn D) Elmira

12)

A serious prison riot broke out in which prison in 1971?

A) Santa Fe B) Attica C) Angola D) Joliet

13) Prior to the 1960s, the courts had a(n) _____ doctrine; the courts did not intervene with the management of prisons.

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A) ambivalent B) laissez faire C) "leave them alone" D) "hands-off"

14)

Which type of facility does not normally house convicted persons?

A) detention centers B) correctional facilities C) prisons D) None of the answers is correct.

15)

Which of the following statements is true about jails?

A) Jails have better management and facilities than prisons. B) Jails have better recreation and education programs than prisons. C) Jails have better recreation and education programs than prisons. D) Jails are much larger than prisons.

16) In the context of operation of jails, a _____ is one in which a county government pays a modest amount of money for each prisoner per day.

A) fee system B) conjugal system C) good-time system D) victim compensation system

17)

The United States currently has _____ supermax units in 42 states.

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A) 78 B) 57 C) 60 D) 12

18)

In 2007, what percentage of the Black male population ages 25 to 29 were in prison?

A) 1.2 B) 3.6 C) 8.5 D) 14.8

19)

The U.S. incarceration rate is exceeded only by that of

A) Kazakhstan. B) Belarus. C) Russia. D) None of the answers is correct.

20) The term _____ is used to describe the complex process by which new inmates learn the ways of prison society and what is expected of them.

A) prisonization B) indoctrination C) socialization D) acculturation

21) Which model suggests that the inmate subculture is not formed within the prison but is brought in from the outside?

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A) deprivation B) importation C) cultural transference D) transient

22) In the context of the types of personalities found in correctional officers, _____ are most likely to have positive attitudes toward inmates but negative attitudes toward other officers.

A) pollyannas B) burnouts C) white hats D) hard asses

23) In the context of the types of personalities found in correctional officers, _____ are most likely to have positive attitudes toward both inmates and other correctional officers.

A) pollyannas B) burnouts C) white hats D) hard asses

24)

The first prison for women was opened at Mt. Pleasant, New York, in what year?

A) 1904 B) 1851 C) 1835 D) 1809

25) _____ refers to the release of a prison-bound offender into the community under the supervision of a trustworthy person and bound by certain conditions.

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A) Probation B) Arraignment C) Incarceration D) Indictment

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 26) Compare and contrast the Pennsylvania and Auburn penitentiary systems.

27)

Discuss the prisoners' rights movement that began in the mid- and late 1960s.

28)

Compare and contrast jails and prisons.

29) Discuss the two major competing models of prison culture and society: the deprivation model and the importation model.

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30)

Discuss what research uncovers about elderly and female inmates.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 18 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) B 7) C 8) D 9) A 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) Answers will vary. Version 1

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27) Answers will vary. 28) Answers will vary. 29) Answers will vary. 30) Answers will vary.

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