TEST BANK for Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant 3rd Edition by Paul Jac by StudyGuide

Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant 3rd Edition Mansfield Test Bank Chapter 01: Basic Principles of Kinesiology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Translation occurs when: a. All parts of a body move in the same direction as every other part b. All parts of a body move in opposite directions c. A body moves around an axis of rotation d. The center of mass is constant ANS: A Translation occurs when all parts of a body move in the same direction as every other part. PTS:

2. If a clinician provided the force necessary to move a person’s limb through the ranges of motion, this movement would demonstrate: a. Active movements c. Simulated movements b. Gravitational range of motion d. Passive range of motion ANS: D Passive movement is generated by sources other than muscular activation, and movement generated in this way demonstrates passive range of motion. PTS:

3. The motion of bones relative to the three cardinal planes of the body is known as: a. Transverse adjustment c. Osteokinematics b. Anatomic positioning d. Pivot point rot ANS: C Osteokinematics describes the motion of bones relative to the three cardinal planes of the body: sagittal, frontal, and horizontal. PTS: 4.

describes a circular motion through two planes. a. Adduction c. Flexion b. Circumduction d. Extension ANS: B Circumduction describes a circular motion through two planes; therefore joints must have at least 2 degrees of freedom in order to circumduct. PTS:

5. When multiple points along one rotating articular surface contact multiple points on another articular surface, this is known as a:

a. Roll b. Slide

c. Spin d. Lever

ANS: A Multiple points along one rotating articular surface contacting multiple points on another articular surface, such as a tire rotating across a stretch of pavement, is known as a roll. PTS:

6. Rotation describes: a. The arc of movement of a body about an axis b. Movements generated by an active muscle c. Movements generated by non-muscular activation such as gravity d. Motion of the sagittal plane ANS: A Rotation describes the arc of movement of a body about an axis of rotation. PTS:

7. The plane dividing the body into right and left halves is the: a. Frontal plane c. Sagittal plane b. Horizontal plane d. Transverse plane ANS: C The plane dividing the body into right and left halves is the sagittal plane. PTS: 8.

are used in kinesiology to represent the magnitude and direction of a force. a. Axes of rotation c. Levers b. Vectors d. External torques ANS: B Vectors are used in kinesiology to represent the magnitude and direction of a force. The magnitude of the force is indicated by the relative length of the vector line, and the direction is indicated by the orientation of the arrowhead. PTS:

9. The moment arm is defined as: a. Tension generated from ligamentous elongation b. The arthrokinematic spin occurring in the shoulder c. Motion occurring between the articular surfaces of joints d. The length between the axis of rotation and the perpendicular intersection of the force ANS: D This distance, called the moment arm, is the length between the axis of rotation and the perpendicular intersection of the force.

PTS:

10. The amount of generated across a joint depends on the amount of force exerted and the distance between the force and the axis of rotation. a. Torque c. Slide b. Lever strength d. Closed-chain motion ANS: A The amount of torque generated across a joint depends on the amount of force exerted and the distance between the force and the axis of rotation. PTS:

11. Movement of the distal segment of bone about a relatively fixed proximal segment is often referred to as a(n) . a. Closed-chain motion c. Open-chain motion b. Arthrokinematic loop d. Convex articulation ANS: C Movement of the distal segment of bone about a relatively fixed proximal segment is often referred to as an open-chain motion. PTS:

12. Movement of the proximal segment of bone about a relatively fixed—or stationary—distal segment is referred to as a(n) . a. Closed-chain motionTESTBANKSELL c.ERO.pC enO-cMhain motion b. Arthrokinematic loop d. Convex articulation ANS: A Movement of the proximal segment of bone about a relatively fixed—or stationary—distal segment is referred to as a closed-chain motion. PTS:

13. The motion of a top moving in one spot on the floor would best be described as a. Roll c. Slide b. Spin d. Drop ANS: B The motion of a top moving in one spot on the floor would best be described as spin. PTS:

14. Both passive and active forces generated from within the body are known as a. External forces c. Extrinsic movements b. Intrinsic movements d. Internal forces ANS: D

Internal forces are forces generated from within the body. Generally these are active forces generated by muscular contraction, but many times passive internal forces such as tension generated from ligamentous or muscular elongation must be considered as well. PTS:

TRUE/FALSE 1. The origins of the word kinesiology are from the Greek kinesis, “to move,” and ology, “to study.” a. True b. False ANS: T The origins of the word kinesiology are from the Greek kinesis, “to move,” and ology, “to study.” PTS:

2. Kinematics is a branch of biomechanics that deals only with the effects of torque on the body. a. True b. False ANS: F Kinematics is a branch oT f bEiS om sc. riC beOsMthe motion of a body without regard TeBcAhaNnKicSs EthLatLdEeR to the forces that produce the motion. PTS:

3. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves. a. True b. False ANS: T The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves. Typically flexion and extension movements occur in the sagittal plane. PTS:

4. The frontal plane divides the body into upper and lower sections. a. True b. False ANS: F The frontal plane divides the body into front and back sections. Nearly all abduction and adduction motions occur in the frontal plane. PTS:

5. Degrees of freedom refers to the number of planes of motion allowed at a joint. a. True b. False ANS: T Degrees of freedom refers to the number of planes of motion allowed at a joint. PTS:

6. Abduction describes movement of a body segment in the frontal plane, toward the midline. a. True b. False ANS: F Abduction describes movement of a body segment in the frontal plane, away from the midline. PTS:

7. Protraction describes the translation of a bone away from the midline in a plane parallel to the ground. a. True b. False ANS: T Protraction describes the translation of a bone away from the midline in a plane parallel to the ground. PTS:

MATCHING Match the following terms with their definitions: a. Below, or toward the feet b. Imaginary line coursing vertically through the center of the body c. Toward the front of the body d. Toward the back of the body e. Above, or toward the head 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Anterior Posterior Midline Superior Inferior

1. ANS: C 2. ANS: D

PTS: PTS:

1 1

3. ANS: B 4. ANS: E 5. ANS: A

PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1

Match the following terms with their definitions: a. Away from the torso d. Away from the midline of the body b. Closer to or toward the torso e. Toward the head c. Toward the midline of the body 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Medial Lateral Proximal Distal Cephalad

6. ANS: 7. ANS: 8. ANS: 9. ANS: 10. ANS:

C D B A E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Match the following terms with their definitions: a. Proximal attachment of a muscle or ligament b. Toward the inside (core) of the body c. Toward the feet or “tail” d. Distal attachment of T aE mS usTcB leAoN rK ligSaE mL enLt e. Toward the surface (skin) of the body 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Caudal Superficial Deep Origin Insertion

11. ANS: 12. ANS: 13. ANS: 14. ANS: 15. ANS:

C E B A D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Match the following terms with their definitions: a. A rotational movement of the forearm that results in the palm facing posteriorly b. A frontal plane movement toward the midline c. Describes the motion of turning the palm anteriorly d. Describes the motion of one bone as it approaches the flexor surface of the other bone e. A movement that is an approximation of the extensor surfaces of two bones 16. Flexion

17. 18. 19. 20.

Extension Adduction Pronation Supination

16. ANS: 17. ANS: 18. ANS: 19. ANS: 20. ANS:

D E B A C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Match the following terms with their definitions: a. Forces originating from outside the body b. The motion that occurs between the articular surfaces of joints c. The direction of muscular force, typically represented as a vector d. The path of moving bones e. A branch of mechanics that describes the effect of forces on the body 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

Arthrokinematics Osteokinematics Kinetics External forces Line of pull

21. ANS: B 22. ANS: D 23. ANS: E 24. ANS: A 25. ANS: C

PTS: 1 PTTSE : ST 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1

Match the following terms with their definitions: a. Plane dividing the body into upper and lower sections b. Is a branch of biomechanics that describes the motion of a body without regard to the forces that produce the motion c. The position of an individual lying face down d. Plane dividing the body into front and back sections e. The position of an individual lying face up 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Prone Supine Kinematics Horizontal plane Frontal plane

26. ANS: 27. ANS: 28. ANS: 29. ANS:

C E B A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

30. ANS: D

PTS:

Chapter 02: Structure and Function of Joints Mansfield: Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The skull, hyoid bone, ribs, and vertebral column form the: a. Axial skeleton c. Peripheral skeleton b. Core skeleton d. Appendicular skeleton ANS: A The axial skeleton consists of the skull, hyoid bone, ribs, and vertebral column including the sacrum and coccyx, forming the central, semirigid bony axis of the body. PTS:

2. The bones of the appendages (extremities) form the: a. Axial skeleton c. Peripheral skeleton b. Core skeleton d. Appendicular skeleton ANS: D The appendicular skeleton is composed of the bones of the appendages, or extremities. PTS: 3.

is dense, typically lines the outermost portions of bones, and is extremely strong. a. Cancellous bone Lc.ERM.aCrrOow M b. Cortical bone d. Porous bone ANS: B Cortical, or compact, bone is relatively dense and typically lines the outermost portions of bones. This type of bone is extremely strong, especially in regards to absorbing compressive forces through a bone’s longitudinal axis. PTS:

is porous, typically comprises the inner portions of a bone, and lightens bones. a. Cortical bone c. Cancellous bone b. Compact bone d. Porous bone ANS: C Cancellous bone is porous and typically comprises the inner portions of a bone. The porous, web-like structure of cancellous bone not only lightens bones but, similar to a series of mechanical struts, redirects forces toward weight-bearing surfaces covered by articular cartilage. PTS:

5. The diaphysis is: a. The central shaft of the bone b. The expanded portion of bone that arises from the shaft

c. The lining of the articular surface of each epiphysis d. Thin, tough membrane securing attachments of muscle to bone ANS: A The diaphysis is the central shaft of the bone. PTS: 6.

1 lines the articular surface of each epiphysis, acting as a shock absorber between

joints. a. Periosteum b. Medullary canal

c. Endosteum d. Articular cartilage

ANS: D Articular cartilage lines the articular surface of each epiphysis, acting as a shock absorber between joints. PTS:

7. The periosteum is: a. Similar to a thick hollow tube b. Important for storing bone marrow c. A tough, thin membrane covering long bones d. A shock absorber between joints ANS: C Each long bone is covered by a thin, tough membrane called the periosteum. This highly TE SbTrB vascular and innervated m em anAeNhK elS psEsL ecLuE reRt. heCaOttM achments of muscles and ligaments to bone. PTS:

8. The medullary canal is: a. A tube within a short bone b. Lined with membranes that cushion bone c. A dynamic tissue only responding to external forces d. Important for storing bone marrow and provides a passageway for nutrient-carrying arteries ANS: D The medullary canal is the central hollow tube within the diaphysis of a long bone, important for storing bone marrow, and provides a passageway for nutrient-carrying arteries. PTS:

9. The endosteum is a: a. Lining for diaphysis b. Housing for many of the cells important for forming and repairing bone c. Membrane covering long bones d. System used to classify bones

ANS: B The endosteum is a membrane that lines the surface of the medullary canal. Many of the cells important for forming and repairing bone are housed in the endosteum. PTS:

10. A synarthrosis is: a. A junction between bones that allows little to no movement b. A bone similar to the patella c. Best described as having great flexibility of movement d. A type of bone shaped like sesame seeds ANS: A A synarthrosis is a junction between bones that allows little to no movement. Examples include the sutures of the skull and the distal tibiofibular joint. PTS:

11. An amphiarthrosis is: a. A joint formed primarily of bone and disks b. A type of joint that allows limited amounts of motion but plays an important role in shock absorption c. The type of joint found in the shoulder d. A joint formed of several layers of fluid-trapping cells ANS: B An amphiarthrosis is a tyTpE eS ofTjB oiA ntNthKaSt E isLfoLrE mR ed.pCrO imMarily by fibrocartilage and hyaline cartilage. Although these joints allow limited amounts of motion, they play an important role in shock absorption. PTS:

12. The action of the pivot joint: a. Is mated with a matching action of its partner b. Allows motion only on one plane, but from two opposite pivot points c. Is similar to the rotation of a doorknob d. Articulates between a convex surface and a matching cup-like socket ANS: C The pivot joint allows rotation around a single longitudinal axis of rotation, similar to the rotation of a doorknob. PTS:

13. The plane joint is composed of: a. One large, flat bone surrounded by a series of supportive smaller bone structures b. Two flat bone structures sandwiched one atop the other c. The articulation between two relatively flat bony surfaces d. Flexible cartilage that can be compressed slightly as needed

ANS: C The plane joint is composed of the articulation between two relatively flat bony surfaces, allowing limited amounts of motion; however, the lack of bony restriction often allows these joints to slide and rotate in many different directions. PTS:

14. If a joint is , there is a marked increase in the overall stiffness of the joint’s connective tissue and a marked decrease in the ability of these tissues to withstand forces. a. Massaged c. Supported b. Heavily used d. Immobilized ANS: D If a joint is immobilized such as during bed rest or following a casting, there is a marked increase in the overall stiffness of the joint’s connective tissue and a marked decrease in the ability of these tissues to withstand forces. PTS:

TRUE/FALSE 1. Short bones each have lengths, widths, and heights that are about equal. a. True b. False ANS: T Short bones have lengths, widths, and heights that are about equal, such as the carpal bones of the hand. PTS:

2. Sesamoid bones cover tendons to protect them. a. True b. False ANS: F Sesamoid bones are encased within the tendon of a muscle, serving to protect the tendon and increase the muscle’s leverage. PTS:

3. Synovial fluid provides joint lubrication and dissipates compressive forces for joints. a. True b. False ANS: F Synovial fluid provides joint lubrication and nutrition. PTS:

4. The thumb carpometacarpal joint is an example of a hinge joint. a. True b. False ANS: F The thumb carpometacarpal joint is an example of the saddle joint. PTS:

5. The sutures of the skull are examples of amphiarthrosis, a junction between bones that allows little to no movement. a. True b. False ANS: F The sutures of the skull are examples of synarthrosis, a junction between bones that allows little to no movement. PTS:

6. All synovial joints contain blood vessels and sensory nerves. a. True b. False ANS: T All synovial joints contain seven common elements including blood vessels and sensory nerves. PTS:

SHORT ANSWER 1. Joints are classified by their anatomic structure and

ANS: Subsequent movement potential PTS:

2. The three classifications of joints in the body are ANS: Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, and diarthrosis PTS:

3. Synovial fluid is produced by the

, and

ANS: Synovial membrane PTS:

4. All of the connective tissues that support the joints of the body are composed of only three types of biologic materials: , , and . ANS: Fibers, ground substance, and cells PTS:

5. What are some drawbacks of immobilizing the connective tissues of a joint? ANS: Increase in stiffness of connective tissue, decrease in ability of connective tissue to withstand forces, increased susceptibility to injury or instability for the involved joints PTS:

6. List the five basic categories of bones on the basis of bone structure or shape. ANS: Long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, sesamoid bones PTS:

MATCHING Match each type of joint with its example. a. Ball and socket d. Plane b. Hinge e. Pivot joint c. Hinge 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Radiocarpal (wrist) joint Intercarpal joints of the hand Proximal radioulnar joint and atlanto-axial joint between first and second cervical vertebrae Humeroulnar (elbow) and interphalangeal joints of fingers and toes Glenohumeral (shoulder) joint and hip joint

1. ANS: 2. ANS: 3. ANS: 4. ANS: 5. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Match the common elements of synovial joints with their descriptions.

a. b. c. d. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

Capsular ligaments Blood vessels Synovial membrane Synovial fluid

e. Articular cartilage f. Articular capsule g. Sensory nerves

Dissipates and absorbs compressive forces Thickened regions of connective tissue that limit excessive joint motion Transmit signals regarding pain and proprioception Provides joint lubrication and nutrition Provide nutrients to the joint Connective tissue that surrounds and binds the joint together Produces synovial fluid

6. ANS: 7. ANS: 8. ANS: 9. ANS: 10. ANS: 11. ANS: 12. ANS:

C D B G E A F

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1

Match each element of connective tissue with its description. a. Elastin fibers d. Type 1 collagen b. Ground substance e. Type 2 collagen c. Cells 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

Responsible for the maintenance and repair of tissues that constitute joints Thin, less stiff fibers Composed primarily of glycosaminoglycans, water, and solutes Resist stretching (tensile) forces but have more give when elongated Thick, rugged fibers that resist elongation

13. ANS: 14. ANS: 15. ANS: 16. ANS: 17. ANS:

C E B A D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Chapter 03: Structure and Function of Skeletal Muscle Mansfield: Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not a way in which an active muscle develops force? a. Shortening or contracting c. Remaining at a constant length b. Attempting to resist elongation d. Fostering innervation ANS: D An active muscle develops force in only one of the following three ways: shortening or contracting, attempting to resist elongation, and remaining at a constant length. PTS:

2. Which of the following types of activation occurs as a muscle produces an active force and simultaneously shortens? a. Concentric c. Isometric b. Eccentric d. Elliptic ANS: A Concentric activation occurs as a muscle produces an active force and simultaneously shortens; as a result, the muscle decreases the distance between its proximal and distal attachments. PTS:

3. The muscle or muscle groups most directly related to performing a specific movement is known as a(n): a. Antogonist c. Proximal attachment b. Agonist d. Distal attachment ANS: B An agonist is a muscle or muscle group that is most directly related to performing a specific movement. PTS:

4. A occurs when agonist and antagonist muscles are simultaneously activated in a pure or near isometric fashion. a. Stabilization c. Co-contraction b. Synergy d. Force-couple ANS: C A co-contraction occurs when agonist and antagonist muscles are simultaneously activated in a pure or near isometric fashion. PTS:

5. Muscles with expansive proximal attachments converging to small distal attachments (such as the gluteus medius) are known as: a. Fusiform c. Pennate b. Rhombodial d. Triangular ANS: D Triangular muscles such as the gluteus medius have expansive proximal attachments that converge to a small distal attachment. PTS:

6. The condition when a muscle is so tight as to severely restrict joint movement is known as: a. Muscle alteration c. Hyperflexion b. Overflexion d. Contracture ANS: D A muscle so tight that it severely restricts joint movement is pathologic and referred to as a contracture. PTS:

7. When the muscle produces an active force—attempting to contract—and is simultaneously pulled to a longer length by an external force, this is known as what type of activation? a. Concentric c. Isometric b. Eccentric d. Elliptic ANS: B Eccentric activation occuTrsEaSsTaBmAuN scKleSpEroLdLuE ceRs . anCO acM tive force—attempting to contract—but is simultaneously pulled to a longer length by a more dominant external force. During eccentric muscular activation, the external torque, often generated by gravity, exceeds the internal torque produced by muscle. PTS:

8. When a muscle generates an active force while remaining at a constant length, this is known as which of the following types of activation? a. Concentric c. Isometric b. Eccentric d. Elliptic ANS: C Isometric activation occurs when a muscle generates an active force while remaining at a constant length. PTS:

9. The attachment of a muscle refers to the point of attachment that is closest to the midline, or core, of the body when in the anatomic position. a. Distal c. Insertional b. Proximal d. Medial ANS: B

The proximal attachment, or origin, of a muscle refers to the point of attachment that is closest to the midline, or core, of the body when in the anatomic position. PTS:

10. The attachment refers to the muscle’s point of attachment that is farthest from the midline, or core, of the body. a. Distal c. Original b. Proximal d. Medial ANS: A The distal attachment, or insertion, refers to the muscle’s point of attachment that is furthest from the midline, or core, of the body. PTS:

11. Muscles that work together to perform a particular action are known as: a. Synergists c. Couplers b. Stabilizers d. Excursions ANS: A Muscles that work together to perform a particular action are known as synergists. PTS:

12. A synergistic action occurring when two or more muscles produce force in different linear directions but produce toT rqEuS eT inBthe e rLoL taE ryRd.irCecOtion ANsKam SE M is known as a(n): a. Co-contraction c. Bridge extension b. Excursion d. Force-couple ANS: D A force-couple is a type of synergistic action that occurs when two or more muscles produce force in different linear directions but produce torque in the same rotary direction. PTS:

13. A(n) is the basic contractile unit of muscle fiber. a. Cross-sectional area c. Sarcomere b. Actin d. Myosin ANS: C A sarcomere is the basic contractile unit of muscle fiber. PTS: 14.

muscles resemble the shape of a feather, with muscle fibers approaching a central tendon at an oblique angle. a. Fusiform c. Triangular b. Rhomboidal d. Pennate ANS: D

Pennate muscles resemble the shape of a feather, with muscle fibers approaching a central tendon at an oblique angle. PTS:

TRUE/FALSE 1. When a muscle contracts, the freest (or less constrained) segment moves. a. True b. False ANS: T A fundamental principle of kinesiology states that when a muscle contracts, the freest (or less constrained) segment moves. PTS:

2. When performing a movement, usually the antagonist muscle actively contracts at the same time as the agonist actively contracts. a. True b. False ANS: F Usually, the antagonist muscle passively elongates as the agonist actively contracts. PTS:

3. A muscle that fixes, or holds, a body segment relatively stationary so that another muscle can more effectively perform an action is referred to as a stabilizer. a. True b. False ANS: T A muscle that fixes, or holds, a body segment relatively stationary so that another muscle can more effectively perform an action is referred to as a stabilizer. PTS:

4. The change in length of a muscle is known as its contraction rate. a. True b. False ANS: F This change in length of a muscle is known as its excursion. PTS:

5. According to the sliding filament hypothesis, active force is generated as actin filaments slide past the myosin filaments, resulting in contraction of an individual sarcomere.

a. True b. False ANS: T The most popular model that describes muscular contraction is called the sliding filament hypothesis. In this model, active force is generated as actin filaments slide past the myosin filaments, resulting in contraction of an individual sarcomere. PTS:

SHORT ANSWER 1. List the four basic muscle shapes. ANS: Fusiform, triangular, rhomboidal, and pennate PTS:

2. Name the three categories of pennate muscles. ANS: Uni-pennate, bi-pennate, or multi-pennate PTS:

3. Briefly discuss how muscles may produce force passively. ANS: Because of their elastic nature, muscles produce force passively. Similar to a rubber band, a muscle generates greater internal elastic force when stretched as demonstrated by a muscle’s passive length-tension curve. PTS:

4. List two of the three reasons that your text discusses as causes of adaptive shortening, or tightness, of muscles. ANS: Disease, immobility, poor posture PTS:

5. Briefly define the overload principle. ANS: The overload principle states that a muscle must receive a sufficient level of resistance to stimulate hypertrophy. Without a critical amount of resistance (or overload), muscle strengthening will not occur.

PTS:

MATCHING Match the following examples of muscles with the correct category: a. Pennate muscles c. Fusiform muscles b. Rhomboidal muscles d. Triangular muscles 1. Biceps brachii 2. Gluteus medius 3. Gluteus maximus 4. Rectus femoris 1. 2. 3. 4.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

C D B A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

Match the following terms with their definitions: a. The muscle or muscle groups that can oppose the action of the agonist b. The thickness of a muscle c. The structures created when myosin filament “heads” attach to thinner actin filaments d. Point of attachment that is closest to the midline, or core, of the body e. What occurs as a muT scE leSpTroBdA ucNeK sS anEaLcL tivEeRf. orC ceOaMnd simultaneously shortens 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

Actin-myosin cross bridges Cross-sectional area Concentric activation Proximal attachment Antagonist

5. ANS: 6. ANS: 7. ANS: 8. ANS: 9. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Match the following terms with their definitions: a. Muscular growth or enlargement b. When a particular action is weakened because the antagonist muscle is over-stretched c. Loss in muscle strength d. Muscle-wasting or decrease in muscle mass e. A particular action is weakened because the multi-articular agonist muscle performing the action is too short to produce a useful or effective force 10. Active insufficiency

11. 12. 13. 14.

Atrophy Weakness Passive insufficiency Hypertrophy

10. ANS: 11. ANS: 12. ANS: 13. ANS: 14. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Chapter 04: Structure and Function of the Shoulder Complex Mansfield: Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. This bone, often called the breast bone, is located at the midpoint of the anterior thorax: a. Clavicle c. Scapula b. Sternum d. Humerus ANS: B The sternum, often called the breast bone, is located at the midpoint of the anterior thorax. PTS:

2. Which of the following is not related to the sternum? a. Manubrium c. Xiphoid process b. Sternoclavicular joint d. Acromion ANS: D The acromion is a portion of the scapula. PTS:

3. The is an S-shaped bone that acts likes a mechanical rod that links the scapula to the sternum. caCpO ulM a a. Clavicle TESTBANKSELLc.ERS. b. Sternum d. Humerus ANS: B The clavicle, commonly called the collar bone, is an S-shaped bone that acts likes a mechanical rod that links the scapula to the sternum. PTS:

4. The is a highly mobile, triangular-shaped bone that rests on the posterior side of the thorax. a. Clavicle c. Scapula b. Sternum d. Humerus ANS: C Commonly called the shoulder blade, the scapula is a highly mobile, triangular-shaped bone that rests on the posterior side of the thorax. PTS:

5. The slightly concave anterior aspect of the scapula is called the: a. Subscapular fossa c. Humerus b. Glenoid fossa d. Glenohumeral joint ANS: A

The slightly concave anterior aspect of the scapula is called the scapular fossa. PTS:

6. The joint provides the only direct bony attachment of the upper extremity to the axial skeleton. a. Sternoclavicular c. Acromioclavicular b. Scapulothoracic d. Glenohumeral ANS: A The sternoclavicular joint is created by the articulation of the medial aspect of the clavicle with the sternum. This joint provides the only direct bony attachment of the upper extremity to the axial skeleton—accordingly; this joint must be stable while also allowing extensive mobility. PTS:

7. The joint is not a “true” joint and refers to the junction created by the anterior aspect of the scapula on the posterior thorax. a. Sternoclavicular c. Acromioclavicular b. Scapulothoracic d. Glenohumeral ANS: B The scapulothoracic joint is not a “true” joint and refers to the junction created by the anterior aspect of the scapula on the posterior thorax. PTS:

8. The joint is a gliding joint, created by the articulation between the lateral aspect of the clavicle and the acromion process of the scapula. a. Sternoclavicular c. Acromioclavicular b. Scapulothoracic d. Glenohumeral ANS: C The acromioclavicular joint is considered a gliding or plane joint, created by the articulation between the lateral aspect of the clavicle and the acromion process of the scapula. PTS:

9. The is a group of four muscles that includes the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor. a. Glenohumeral support structure c. Labrum ring b. Coracoid process d. Rotator cuff ANS: D The rotator cuff is a group of four muscles that includes the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor. PTS:

10. The is a fibrocartilaginous ring encircling the rim of the glenoid fossa and serving to deepen the socket of the glenohumeral joint. a. Glenohumeral joint capsule c. Coracohumeral ligament b. Glenoid labrum d. Long head of the biceps ANS: B The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous ring that encircles the rim of the glenoid fossa. The labrum serves to deepen the socket of the glenohumeral joint, nearly doubling the functional depth of the glenoid fossa. PTS:

11. Without an inferior slide, the upward roll of the humerus will result in the humeral head jamming into the acromion, a process known as: a. Superior slide c. Humoral lock b. Hyperextension d. Impingement ANS: D Without an inferior slide, the upward roll of the humerus will result in the humeral head jamming into the acromion. This is known as impingement and often results in damage to the supraspinatus muscle or the subacromial bursa, which become pinched between these two bony structures. PTS:

12. The innervates the shoulder complex and is formed by a network of ventral nerve roots from the spinal nerT veEs SCT 5-BTA1N . KSELLER.COM a. Spinal accessory nerve c. Brachial plexus b. Scapulothoracic nervous system d. Clavicular nerve junction ANS: C The entire upper extremity receives innervation primarily through the brachial plexus. The brachial plexus is formed by a network of ventral nerve roots from the spinal nerves C5-T1. PTS: 13.

refers to the medial border of the scapula lifting away from the rib cage and is observed during resisted shoulder abduction. a. Winging c. Edging b. Threading d. Distorting ANS: A Winging refers to the medial border of the scapula lifting away from the rib cage, giving the appearance of a bird’s wing. Clinically this is observed during resisted shoulder abduction. PTS:

14. The is the finger-like projection of bone from the anterior surface of the scapula. a. Glenoid fossa c. Supraspinatous fossa b. Coracoid process d. Acromion

ANS: B The coracoid process is the finger-like projection of bone from the anterior surface of the scapula, palpable about 1 inch below the most concave portion of the distal clavicle. PTS:

TRUE/FALSE 1. Protraction and retraction of the sternoclavicular joint occur in the horizontal plane about a vertical axis of rotation. a. True b. False ANS: T Protraction and retraction of the sternoclavicular joint occur in the horizontal plane about a vertical axis of rotation, allowing about 15 to 30 degrees of clavicular motion in either direction. PTS:

2. Upward rotation of the scapulothoracic joint occurs as the glenoid fossa returns from its upwardly rotated position to its resting position. a. True b. False ANS: F Upward rotation occurs as the glenoid fossa of the scapula rotates upwardly; this occurs as a natural component of raising the arm overhead. Downward rotation occurs as the scapula returns from an upwardly rotated position to its resting position. PTS:

3. The glenoid fossa is a large, rounded hemisphere. a. True b. False ANS: F The head of the humerus is a large, rounded hemisphere, and the glenoid fossa is relatively flat. PTS:

4. The glenohumeral joint is a ball-in-socket joint that allows 3 degrees of freedom. a. True b. False ANS: T The glenohumeral joint is a ball-in-socket joint that allows 3 degrees of freedom.

PTS:

5. During normal shoulder abduction (or flexion), a natural 4:1 ratio or rhythm exists between the glenohumeral joint and the scapulothoracic joint. a. True b. False ANS: F During normal shoulder abduction (or flexion), a natural 2:1 ratio or rhythm exists between the glenohumeral joint and the scapulothoracic joint. This means that for every 2 degrees of glenohumeral abduction, the scapula must simultaneously upwardly rotate roughly 1 degree. PTS:

SHORT ANSWER 1. The shoulder complex functions through the interactions of which four joints? ANS: Sternoclavicular, scapulothoracic, acromioclavicular, and glenohumeral PTS:

2. List the three points of proximal attachment for the upper trapezius. ANS: Occipital protuberance, ligamentum nuchae, and medial portion of the superior nuchal line PTS:

3. Briefly describe the three movements occurring in shoulder extension during a pulling motion. ANS: 1. Extension of the humerus 2. Downward rotation and retraction of the scapula 3. Depression and retraction of the clavicle PTS:

4. List the four muscles of the rotator cuff. ANS: Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis PTS:

5. List the three primary glenohumeral adductors.

ANS: Teres major, latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major PTS:

MATCHING Match the following muscles with their respective innervation points: a. Musculocutaneous nerve b. Upper and lower subscapular nerves c. Suprascapular nerve d. Axillary nerve e. Thoracodorsal nerve 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Supraspinatus Teres minor Subscapularis Latissimus dorsi Biceps brachii

1. ANS: 2. ANS: 3. ANS: 4. ANS: 5. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Match the following muscles with their respective distal attachment points: a. Crest of the greater tubercle of the humerus b. Crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus c. Deltoid tuberosity of the humerus d. Medial aspect of the proximal shaft of the humerus e. Olecranon process of the ulna 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Teres major Pectoralis major Coracobrachialis Deltoids Long head of the triceps

6. ANS: 7. ANS: 8. ANS: 9. ANS: 10. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Match the following muscles with the actions they perform: a. Supination of the forearm d. External rotation of the shoulder b. Shoulder depression e. Shoulder abduction

c. Internal rotation of the shoulder 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Latissimus dorsi Infraspinatus Supraspinatus Subscapularis Biceps brachii

11. ANS: 12. ANS: 13. ANS: 14. ANS: 15. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Match each of the following shoulder components to its descriptor: a. Attaches between the coracoid process and the anterior side of the greater tubercle; helps limit the extremes of external rotation, flexion, and extension b. Palpable just superior and medial to the superior angle of the scapula; painful points develop within this muscle resulting from slouched posture c. Most powerful upward rotator and protractor muscle of the scapula. d. Act with the middle trapezius as a scapular stabilizer and is active during pulling. e. Thin fibrous capsule that includes the superior, middle, and inferior glenohumeral ligaments 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Levator scapulae Serratus anterior Coracohumeral ligament Rhomboids Glenohumeral joint capsule

16. ANS: 17. ANS: 18. ANS: 19. ANS: 20. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Chapter 05: Structure and Function of the Elbow and Forearm Complex Mansfield: Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not a bony feature of the scapula important to elbow muscles? a. Coracoid process c. Infraglenoid tubercle b. Supraglenoid tubercle d. Trochlea ANS: D The trochlea is located on the medial side of the distal humerus. PTS:

2. The is a spool-shaped structure located on the medial side of the distal humerus. a. Coronoid fossa c. Capitulum b. Trochlea d. Medial epicondyle ANS: B The trochlea is a spool-shaped structure located on the medial side of the distal humerus that articulates with the ulna to form the humeroulnar joint. PTS:

3. The is a small pit located just superior to the trochlea that accepts the coronoid process of the ulna whenTthEeSeT lbBoA wNisKfS uE llyLfLleExR ed.. COM a. Coronoid fossa c. Capitulum b. Trochlea d. Medial epicondyle ANS: A The coronoid fossa is a small pit located just superior to the trochlea that accepts the coronoid process of the ulna when the elbow is fully flexed. PTS:

4. The ball-shaped articulates with the head of the radius to form the humeroradial joint. a. Medial epicondyle c. Capitulum b. Lateral epicondyle d. Lateral supracondylar ridge ANS: C Just lateral to the trochlea is the ball-shaped capitulum, which articulates with the head of the radius to form the humeroradial joint. PTS:

5. The is the prominent projection of bone on the medial side of the distal humerus. a. Coracoid process c. Coronoid fossa b. Trochlea d. Medial epicondyle ANS: D

The medial epicondyle is the prominent projection of bone on the medial side of the distal humerus. This easily palpable prominence serves as the proximal attachment for most of the wrist flexor muscles, the pronator teres, and the medial collateral ligament of the elbow. PTS:

6. The is the proximal attachment for most of the wrist extensor muscles, the supinator muscle, and the lateral collateral ligament of the elbow. a. Lateral epicondyle c. Medial epicondyle b. Trochlea d. Coracoid process ANS: A The lateral epicondyle is less prominent; however, it is the proximal attachment for most of the wrist extensor muscles, the supinator muscle, and the lateral collateral ligament of the elbow. PTS:

7. The is the relatively deep, broad pit located on the posterior side of the distal humerus. a. Lateral supracondylar ridge c. Lateral epicondyle b. Olecranon fossa d. Trochlea ANS: B The olecranon fossa is the relatively deep, broad pit located on the posterior side of the distal humerus. With the elbow fully extended, a portion of the olecranon process projects into this fossa. PTS:

8. The is the large, blunt, proximal tip of the ulna commonly referred to as the elbow bone. a. Trochlear notch c. Radial head b. Styloid process d. Olecranon process ANS: D The olecranon process is the large, blunt, proximal tip of the ulna commonly referred to as the elbow bone. The rough posterior surface of the olecranon process is the distal attachment for the triceps muscles. PTS:

9. The large jaw-like curvature of the proximal ulna that in part forms the humeroulnar joint is known as the: a. Styloid process c. Trochlear notch b. Radial head d. Bicipital tuberosity ANS: C The trochlear notch is the large jaw-like curvature of the proximal ulna that articulates with the trochlea (of the humerus) forming the humeroulnar joint.

PTS:

10. This pointed projection of bone arises from the ulnar head and can be palpated on the ulnar side of the wrist dorsum, with the forearm fully pronated: a. Styloid process c. Radial head b. Olecranon process d. Bicipital tuberosity ANS: A The styloid process is a pointed projection of bone that arises from the ulnar head. Both of these structures can be palpated on the ulnar side of the dorsum of the wrist, with the forearm fully pronated. PTS:

11. The is shaped like a wide disk on the proximal end of the radius whose superior surface articulates with the capitulum of the humerus. a. Styloid process c. Ulnar notch b. Radial head d. Ulnar head ANS: B The radial head is shaped like a wide disk on the proximal end of the radius. The superior surface of the radial head consists of a shallow, cup-shaped depression called the fovea that articulates with the capitulum of the humerus, forming the humeroradial joint. PTS:

12. The natural outward angT ulE atS ioT nBoA f tN heKS foE reL arLmEw Ri.thCinOtMhe frontal plane is called: a. Excessive cubitus valgus c. Normal cubitus valgus b. Minimal cubitus valgus d. Natural cubitus valgus ANS: C The natural outward angulation of the forearm within the frontal plane is called normal cubitus valgus: “normal bend outward.” PTS:

13. The primary function of the the elbow. a. Flexion arc b. Collateral ligaments

is to limit excessive vargus and valgus deformations of c. Kinematic flexion d. Tenser ligaments

ANS: B The collateral ligaments limit excessive vargus and valgus deformations of the elbow. PTS:

14. In full supination the radius and ulna lie a. Parallel b. Perpendicular ANS: A

to each other. c. In crossed relation d. Opposed

Full supination leaves the radius and ulna parallel to each other. PTS:

TRUE/FALSE 1. Supination occurs in many functional activities that require the palm to be turned up. a. True b. False ANS: T Supination occurs in many functional activities that require the palm to be turned up such as feeding, washing your face, or holding a bowl of soup. PTS:

2. The prime movers of elbow flexion are the annular ligament and interosseous membrane. a. True b. False ANS: F The prime movers of elbow flexion are the biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis. PTS:

3. A muscle is considered m ToEreSaTcBtivAeNlyKeSffEicLieLnEt w Rh.eCnOaMgiven effort level produces a greater amount of force. a. True b. False ANS: T A muscle is considered more actively efficient when a given effort level produces a greater amount of force. This occurs when (1) a muscle contracts, and the muscle fibers shorten a relatively small amount per instant in time and (2) a muscle remains at a nearly optimal length (to create contractile force throughout an active movement). PTS:

4. When tightening a screw (with a screwdriver) using the right hand, typically the pronators are highly active. a. True b. False ANS: F The direction of rotation for tightening a screw is clockwise and is produced by all the supinator muscles. A greater force is required to tighten a screw than to loosen it. PTS:

5. Total paralysis of the triceps can only occur when the musculocutaneous, radial, and median nerves are all damaged. a. True b. False ANS: F Total paralysis of all elbow flexor muscles requires damage to all three nerves—fortunately a relatively unlikely event. In contrast, total paralysis of the elbow extensor muscles (the triceps) can occur by damage to the radial nerve only. PTS:

SHORT ANSWER 1. List the four bones related to the function of the elbow and forearm complex. ANS: Scapula, distal humerus, ulna, and radius PTS:

2. What is the normal range of motion for the humeroulnar joint? ANS: 5 degrees of hyperextension to 145 degrees of flexion PTS:

3. Discuss briefly how the end feel for full elbow extension differs from the end feel for full elbow flexion. ANS: Full extension results in an abrupt stop or bony end feel as the olecranon runs into the bony floor of the olecranon fossa. Full flexion, in contrast, results in a springy or soft end feel due to the soft tissue approximation of the forearm with the elbow flexor muscles and other soft tissues. PTS:

4. List the three primary elbow flexors. ANS: Biceps brachii, brachialis, brachioradialis PTS:

5. List the four joints of the elbow and forearm complex. ANS:

Humeroulnar joint, humeroradial joint, proximal radioulnar joint, distal radioulnar joint PTS:

6. The humeroradial joint is formed by the ball-shaped the bowl-shaped of the radius.

of the humerus articulating with

ANS: Capitulum, fovea PTS:

MATCHING Match the following bone features with their descriptions: a. Pointed projection of bone arising from the ulnar head b. Enlarged ridge of bone located on the anterior-medial aspect of the proximal radius c. Articulates with the head of the radius, forming the proximal radioulnar joint d. Wide disk-shaped feature on the proximal end of the radius e. Large jaw-like curvature of the proximal ulna 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Radial head Trochlear notch Bicipital tuberosity Radial notch Styloid process

1. ANS: 2. ANS: 3. ANS: 4. ANS: 5. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Match the following bone features with their descriptions: a. Proximal attachment for most of the wrist extensor muscles b. Relatively deep, broad pit located on the posterior side of the distal humerus c. Ball-shaped feature that articulates with the head of the radius d. Large, blunt proximal tip of the ulna e. Prominent projection on the medial side of the distal humerus 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Capitulum Olecranon fossa Olecranon process Lateral epicondyle Medial epicondyle

6. ANS: C 7. ANS: D

PTS: PTS:

1 1

8. ANS: B 9. ANS: E 10. ANS: A

PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1

Match the following bone features with their descriptions: a. Proximal attachment for the long head of the biceps b. Accepts the coronoid process of the ulna of a fully flexed elbow c. Proximal attachment for the long head of the triceps d. Proximal attachment for the short head of the biceps e. Spool-shaped structure on the medial side of the distal humerus 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Supraglenoid tubercle Coronoid fossa Coracoid process Trochlea Infraglenoid tubercle

11. ANS: 12. ANS: 13. ANS: 14. ANS: 15. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Chapter 06: Structure and Function of the Wrist Mansfield: Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following carpal bones is loosely articulated and is the most frequently dislocated? a. Scaphoid c. Capitate b. Lunate d. Trapezium ANS: B The lunate is loosely articulated and is the most frequently dislocated carpal bone. PTS:

2. The is located in the direct pathway of forces crossing the wrist and is fractured more frequently than any other carpal bone. a. Scaphoid c. Capitate b. Lunate d. Trapezium ANS: A The scaphoid is located in the direct pathway of all forces that cross the wrist. For this reason, fracture of the scaphoid occurs more frequently than any other carpal bone. PTS:

3. The is the largest of all carpal bones and the axis of rotation for all wrist motion passes through this bone. a. Scaphoid c. Capitate b. Lunate d. Trapezium ANS: C The capitate is the largest of all carpal bones, occupying a central location within the wrist. The axis of rotation for all wrist motion passes through this bone. PTS:

4. Which of the following can flex the MCP joints of digits 2-5? a. Flexor carpi radialis c. Palmaris longus b. Flexor carpi ulnaris d. Flexor digitorum superficialis ANS: D Flexor digitorum superficialis is part of the secondary set of wrist flexors. PTS:

5. The is a small, thin muscle that can flex the wrist and tense the palmar fascia. a. Palmaris longus c. Digitorum superficialis b. Flexor carpi ulnaris d. Flexor carpi radialis

ANS: A The palmaris longus is a small, thin muscle that can flex the wrist but is more often cited for its ability to tense the palmar fascia—making the palmar surface of the hand more rigid. PTS:

6. The distal tendon of the contains the pisiform bone that improves leverage during the combined action of wrist flexion and ulnar deviation. a. Palmaris longus c. Digitorum superficialis b. Flexor carpi radialis d. Flexor carpi ulnaris ANS: D The distal tendon of flexor carpi ulnaris contains a palpable sesamoid bone known as the pisiform bone. Similar to the patella in the quadriceps muscle at the knee, the sesamoid bone at the wrist improves the leverage of the flexor carpi ulnaris during the combined action of wrist flexion and ulnar deviation. PTS:

7. During active wrist extension the neutralizes the radial deviation action of the extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis. a. Extensor carpi radialis longus c. Extensor carpi ulnaris b. Extensor digiti minimi d. Extensor carpi radialis brevis ANS: C During active wrist extension the extensor carpi ulnaris has the important job of neutralizing the radial deviation actioT nE ofStT wB oA mNuK scS leEs:LtL heEeRx. teC nsOoM r carpi radialis longus and brevis. PTS:

8. When describing the surfaces of the wrist and hand, palmar is synonymous with a. Vertical c. Horizontal b. Anterior d. Posterior

ANS: B Palmar is synonymous with anterior; dorsal is synonymous with posterior. PTS:

9. When describing the surfaces of the wrist and hand, dorsal is synonymous with a. Vertical c. Horizontal b. Anterior d. Posterior ANS: D Palmar is synonymous with anterior; dorsal is synonymous with posterior. PTS:

10. Which of the following is not included in the distal row of carpal bones? a. Trapezium c. Hamate b. Trapezoid d. Lunate

ANS: D The lunate is included in the proximal row of carpal bones. PTS:

11. Which of the following is not included in the proximal row of carpal bones? a. Scaphoid c. Triquetrum b. Lunate d. Hamate ANS: D The hamate is included in the distal row of carpal bones. PTS:

12. The serves as a passageway that helps protect the median nerve and tendons of extrinsic flexor muscles of the digits. a. Carpal tunnel c. Midcarpal joint b. Radiocarpal joint d. Scaphoid excursion ANS: A The transverse carpal ligament bridges the palmar side of the carpal bones, helping to form the carpal tunnel. The tunnel serves as a passageway that helps protect the median nerve and the tendons of extrinsic flexor muscles of the digits. PTS:

13. The is a small butTpE alS paTbB leApNroKjeScE tiL onLoEfRb. onCeOoM n the dorsal aspect of the distal radius that helps guide the direction of the tendons of several wrist and thumb extensor muscles. a. Radial styloid process c. Ulnar styloid process b. Radial tubercle d. Ulnar protuberance ANS: B The radial tubercle, also called Lister’s tubercle, is a small but palpable projection of bone on the dorsal aspect of the distal radius. This ridge of bone helps guide the direction of the tendons of several wrist and thumb extensor muscles. PTS:

14. The is the thickest ligament of the wrist. a. Dorsal radiocarpal ligament c. Palmar radiocarpal ligament b. Radial collateral ligament d. Ulnar collateral ligament ANS: C The palmar radiocarpal ligament is the thickest ligament of the wrist. PTS: TRUE/FALSE

1. The wrist contains 14 small bones that are located between the distal end of the radius and the hand. a. True b. False ANS: F The wrist contains eight small bones that are located between the distal end of the radius and the hand. PTS:

2. The proximal part of the radiocarpal joint consists of the concave surface of the radius and the adjacent articular disk. a. True b. False ANS: T The proximal part of the radiocarpal joint consists of the concave surface of the radius and the adjacent articular disk. PTS:

3. The midcarpal joint separates the proximal and distal rows of carpal bones. a. True b. False ANS: T The midcarpal joint separates the proximal and distal rows of carpal bones. PTS:

4. Extrinsic ligaments interconnect various carpal bones, transfer forces between the hand and forearm, and maintain shapes of radiocarpal and midcarpal joints. a. True b. False ANS: F Intrinsic ligaments interconnect various carpal bones, transfer forces between the hand and forearm, and maintain shapes of radiocarpal and midcarpal joints. PTS:

5. Compression forces never cross the wrist when an overlying muscle contracts or weight is placed through the hand. a. True b. False ANS: F

Compression forces naturally cross the wrist every time an overlying muscle contracts or weight is placed through the hand. PTS:

SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the two major articulations of the wrist. ANS: Radiocarpal joint and midcarpal joint PTS:

2. List the proximal and distal attachment points of the palmaris longus. ANS: Proximal attachment: medial epicondyle of humerus—common flexor tendon; distal attachment: transverse carpal ligament and palmar aponeurosis PTS:

3. List two muscles in the primary set of radial deviators. ANS: The extensor carpi radialT isEloSnTgB usA, N exKteSnE soLr L caErR pi.raCdO iaMlis brevis, and flexor carpi radialis. PTS:

4. List the two muscles within the primary set of ulnar deviators. ANS: Extensor carpi ulnaris and the flexor carpi ulnaris PTS:

5. List the three muscles that form the primary set of wrist flexors. ANS: Flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, and palmaris longus PTS:

6. A primary function of the wrist extensors is to and the wrist for activities involving the fingers, especially while making a strong fist or grasp. ANS: Position, stabilize

PTS:

MATCHING Match each muscle with its correct category. a. Wrist flexor (secondary set) b. Wrist extensor (secondary set) c. Wrist radial deviator (secondary set) d. Wrist extensor (primary set) e. Wrist flexor (primary set) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Extensor indicis Palmaris longus Flexor pollicis longus Abductor pollicis longus Extensor carpi radialis brevis

1. ANS: 2. ANS: 3. ANS: 4. ANS: 5. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Chapter 07: Structure and Function of the Hand Mansfield: Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The hand has a. 5 b. 10

phalanges. c. 14 d. 22

ANS: C The hand has 14 phalanges. PTS:

2. A joint is convex in one dimension and concave in the other, and it allows a maximum of combined mobility and stability. a. Saddle c. Palmar b. Sagittal d. Supinated ANS: A The characteristic feature of a saddle joint is that each articular surface is convex in one dimension and concave in the other—just like the saddle on a horse. Such a shape allows a maximum of combined mobility and stability. PTS:

3. The knuckles of the fingers are the a. Fibrous digital b. Volar plane

joints. c. Metacarpophalangeal d. Transverse metacarpal

ANS: C The metacarpophalangeal joints (or knuckles) of the fingers are relatively large articulations formed between the convex heads of the metacarpals and the shallow concave proximal surfaces of the proximal phalanges. PTS:

4. The is connective tissue that surrounds and stabilizes the metacarpophalangeal joint. a. Fibrous digital sheath c. Palmar plate b. Ulnar ligament d. Capsule ANS: D The capsule is connective tissue that surrounds and stabilizes the metacarpophalangeal joint. PTS:

5. Which of the following cross the metacarpophalangeal joint in an oblique palmar direction and serve to limit abduction and adduction? a. Capsules b. Radial and ulnar collateral ligaments

c. Fibrous digital sheaths d. Deep transverse metacarpal ligaments ANS: B Radial and ulnar collateral ligaments cross the metacarpophalangeal joints in an oblique palmar direction, limit abduction and adduction, and become taut on flexion. PTS:

6. The joints are formed by the articulation between the heads of the proximal phalanges and the bases of the middle phalanges and flex about 100 to 120 degrees. a. Distal interphalangeal c. Proximal interphalangeal b. Radial collateral d. Palmar extension ANS: C The proximal interphalangeal joints are formed by the articulation between the heads of the proximal phalanges and the bases of the middle phalanges. The proximal interphalangeal joints flex to about 100 to 120 degrees. PTS:

7. The flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus each transmit a set of tendons to the fingers. a. 2 c. 6 b. 4 d. 8 ANS: B The flexor digitorum supTerEfiSciTalBisAaNnK dS flE exLoL r dEigRi. toC ruOmMprofundus each transmit a set of four tendons to the fingers. PTS:

8. Optimizing the alignment of the joint and minimizing underlying mechanics causing instability (such as splinting) are typical treatments for . a. Radial deviated posture c. Ulnar drift b. Radial translation d. Pathomechanics ANS: C Treatment for ulnar drift typically includes optimizing the alignment of the joint and, when possible, minimizing the underlying mechanics that caused the instability or deformity. Common non-surgical treatment includes the use of splints and advising patients on how to minimize the deforming forces across the metacarpophalangeal joint. PTS:

9. One primary function of the interosseous muscles is to a. Flex c. Extend b. Abduct or Adduct d. Tense ANS: B

the fingers.

The primary function of the interosseous muscles is to abduct or adduct the fingers. As a set, the dorsal interossei abduct the fingers at the metacarpophalangeal joint away from an imaginary reference line through the middle digit. PTS:

10. The (meaning “earthworm”) are four slender muscles originating from the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus. a. Lumbricals c. Thenar muscles b. Interossei d. Adductor pollicis ANS: A The lumbricals (meaning “earthworm”) are four slender muscles originating from the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus. PTS:

11. Which of the following is not a muscle of the hypothenar eminence? a. Flexor digiti minimi c. Opponens digiti minimi b. Abductor digiti minimi d. Adductor pollicis ANS: D The muscles of the hypothenar eminence consist of the flexor digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, and opponens digiti minimi. PTS:

12. Which of the following is not part of the thenar eminence? a. Abductor pollicis brevis c. Flexor pollicis brevis b. Abductor digiti minimi d. Opponens pollicis ANS: B The abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis make up the bulk of the thenar eminence. PTS:

13. Which of the following is innervated by the median nerve? a. Flexor pollicis longus c. Extensor pollicis longus b. Extensor digitorum d. Abductor pollicis longus ANS: A The flexor pollicis longus is innervated by the median nerve. PTS: 14.

are thick fibrocartilage ligaments, or plates, that cross the palmar side of each metacarpophalangeal joint. These structures limit hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints. a. Capsules b. Fibrous digital sheaths

c. Palmar (volar) plates d. Deep transverse metacarpal ligaments ANS: C Palmar (or volar) plates are thick fibrocartilage ligaments, or plates, that cross the palmar side of each metacarpophalangeal joint. These structures limit hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints. PTS:

TRUE/FALSE 1. Common conservative therapies for basilar joint arthritis are characterized by a variety of surgical interventions. a. True b. False ANS: F The more common conservative therapeutic intervention for basilar joint arthritis includes splinting, careful use of non-strenuous exercise, physical modalities such as cold and heat; non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and corticosteroid injections. In addition, patients are instructed in ways to modify their activities of daily living to protect the base of their thumb from unnecessarily large forces. PTS:

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2. Simultaneous contraction of the flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, and flexor pollicis longus flexes all the joints of hand, used for activities such as making a grip or holding the strap of a handbag. a. True b. False ANS: T Simultaneous contraction of the flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, and flexor pollicis longus flexes all the joints of hand, used for activities such as making a grip or holding the strap of a handbag. PTS:

3. Normal sensory innervation is not important for protection of the hand against mechanical and thermal injury. a. True b. False ANS: F Normal sensory innervation is essential for protection of the hand against mechanical and thermal injury. PTS:

4. The capsule at each interphalangeal joint is weakened by radial and ulnar collateral ligaments and a palmar plate. a. True b. False ANS: F The capsule at each interphalangeal joint is strengthened by radial and ulnar collateral ligaments and a palmar plate. PTS:

5. Because the proximal surface of the proximal phalanx is concave and the head of the metacarpal is convex, the arthrokinematics of flexion and extension occur as a roll and slide in similar directions. a. True b. False ANS: T Because the proximal surface of the proximal phalanx is concave and the head of the metacarpal is convex, the arthrokinematics of flexion and extension occur as a roll and slide in similar directions. PTS:

SHORT ANSWER 1. List the three sets of articulations in which the joints of the hand are organized. ANS: Carpometacarpal, metacarpophalangeal, and interphalangeal PTS:

2. List three of the supporting structures of the metacarpophalangeal joints (knuckles). ANS: Capsule, radial and ulnar collateral ligaments, fibrous digital sheaths, palmar (volar) plates, deep transverse metacarpal ligaments PTS:

3. List the cardinal planes of the body in which the following types of finger movements occur: flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction. ANS: Flexion and extension occur in the sagittal plane; abduction and adduction occur in the frontal plane.

PTS:

4. List the four anatomic characteristics common to all metacarpals. ANS: Base, shaft, head, and neck PTS:

5. List the two interphalangeal joints present in all fingers. ANS: A proximal interphalangeal and a distal interphalangeal joint PTS:

MATCHING Match the attachment to its description. a. By four tendons, each to the sides of the middle phalanges of the fingers b. By four tendons, each to the base of the distal phalanx of digits 2-5 c. Common flexor tendon on the medial epicondyle of the humerus, coronoid process of the ulna, and radius—just lateral to the bicipital tuberosity d. Anterior ulna and interosseous membrane e. Middle anterior portion of the radius and interosseous membrane 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

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Proximal attachment of the flexor digitorum superficialis Distal attachment of the flexor digitorum superficialis Proximal attachment of the flexor digitorum profundus Distal attachment of the flexor digitorum profundus Proximal attachment of the flexor pollicis longus

1. ANS: 2. ANS: 3. ANS: 4. ANS: 5. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Match the term to its description a. Formed by the distal row of carpal bones; forms rigid arch b. The keystone of the distal transverse arch c. Passes through the metacarpophalangeal joints; has mobile sides d. The keystone of the proximal transverse arch e. Has only proximal and distal phalanx 6. Thumb 7. Capitate bone 8. Metacarpophalangeal joints of the second and third metacarpals

9. Proximal transverse arch 10. Distal transverse arch 6. ANS: 7. ANS: 8. ANS: 9. ANS: 10. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Match the thumb-related terminology to its description. a. Forward movement of the thumb away from the palm in a sagittal plane b. Returns the thumb back toward its anatomic position after movement on the frontal plane c. Movement of the palmar surface of the thumb in the frontal plane across and parallel with the palm d. Movement of the thumb across the palm, making direct contact with the tips of any of the fingers e. Returns the thumb to the plane of the hand after movement on the sagittal plane 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Flexion Opposition Extension Adduction Abduction

11. ANS: C 12. ANS: D 13. ANS: B 14. ANS: E 15. ANS: A

PTTSE : ST 1 BANKSELLER.COM PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1

Match the attachment to its description. a. Posterior surface of distal ulna and interosseous membrane b. Ulnar side of the belly of the extensor digitorum c. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus—common extensor tendon d. Joins the tendon of the extensor digitorum to the little finger e. Blends with the index tendon of the extensor digitorum 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Proximal attachment of the extensor digitorum Proximal attachment of the extensor indicis Distal attachment of the extensor indicis Proximal attachment of the extensor digiti minimi Distal attachment of the extensor digiti minimi

16. ANS: 17. ANS: 18. ANS: 19. ANS:

C D B E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

20. ANS: A

PTS:

Chapter 08: Structure and Function of the Vertebral Column Mansfield: Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The cervical and lumbar regions display a natural , or slightly extended posture. a. Sagittal curve c. Thoracic extension b. Kyphosis d. Lordosis ANS: D The cervical and lumbar regions display a natural lordosis—or slightly extended posture—in the sagittal plane. PTS:

2. The thoracic and sacrococcygeal regions exhibit a natural , or slightly flexed posture. a. Sagittal curve c. Thoracic extension b. Kyphosis d. Lordosis ANS: B The thoracic and sacrococcygeal regions exhibit a natural kyphosis—or slightly flexed posture. PTS:

3. The is a ridge of bToE neStT haBt A exNtK enSdE s lLaL teE raR lly.C froOm M the occipital protuberance to the mastoid process. a. Superior nuchal line c. Occipital condyle b. Foramen magnum d. Inferior nuchal line ANS: A The superior nuchal line is a ridge of bone that extends laterally from the occipital protuberance to the mastoid process. PTS:

4. Literally meaning “large hole,” the is located at the base of the skull, providing a passage for the spinal cord to meet the brain. a. Mastoid process c. Superior nuchal line b. Foramen magnum d. Occipital condyle ANS: B Literally meaning “large hole,” the foramen magnum is located at the base of the skull, providing a passage for the spinal cord to meet the brain. PTS: 5.

are short, thick projections of bone that connect the body of the vertebrae to each transverse process. a. Intervertebral discs c. Spinous processes

b. Laminae

d. Pedicles

ANS: D Pedicles are short, thick projections of bone that connect the body of the vertebrae to each transverse process. PTS:

6. The are thin plates of bone that form the posterior wall of the vertebral canal, connecting each transverse process to the base of the spinous process. a. Intervertebral discs c. Superior articular facets b. Laminae d. Pedicles ANS: B The laminae are thin plates of bone that form the posterior wall of the vertebral canal, connecting each transverse process to the base of the spinous process. PTS:

7. The is the gelatinous center of the intervertebral disc. a. Annulus fibrosus c. Nucleus pulposus b. Vertebral end plate d. Intervertebral foramen ANS: C The nucleus pulposus is the gelatinous center of the disc. Composed of 70% to 90% water, the nucleus pulposus serves as a hydraulic shock absorber, dissipating and transferring forces between consecutive vertebrae. PTS:

8. The small rectangular bodies of the cervical vertebrae are bordered posterior-laterally by hook-like . a. Uncinate processes c. Spinous processes b. Transverse foramina d. Apophyseal joints ANS: A The small rectangular bodies of the cervical vertebrae are bordered posterior-laterally by uncinate processes. The articulation of these hook-like uncinate processes with the adjacent vertebrae make the cervical vertebrae appear like a set of stackable shelves. PTS: 9.

Which of the following is not a transversospinal muscle? a. Semispinalis c. Rotators b. Multifidus d. Spinalis longissimus ANS: D Spinalis longissimus is part of the erector spinae; the transversospinal muscles include the semispinalis, multifidus, and rotators. PTS:

10. The muscle (also known as the corset muscle) is the deepest of the abdominal muscles. a. Internal oblique c. External oblique b. Transverse abdominis d. Rectus abdominis ANS: B The transverse abdominis muscle is the deepest of the abdominal muscles. This muscle is also known as the corset muscle, reflecting its primary function of increasing intra-abdominal pressure. PTS:

11. The courses in a superior-medial direction and is the primary ipsilateral rotator of the trunk. a. Internal oblique c. External oblique b. Transverse abdominis d. Rectus abdominis ANS: A This muscle courses in a superior-medial direction (from the iliac crest toward the sternum), nearly perpendicular to the deeper fibers of the external oblique. This muscle is the primary ipsilateral (same side) rotator of the trunk. PTS:

12. The muscle is the largest of the lateral abdominal muscles and its fibers travel in an inferior-medial directionT . ESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Internal oblique c. Rectus abdominis b. Transverse abdominis d. External oblique ANS: D The external oblique, formally named the obliquus externus abdominis, is the largest of the lateral abdominal muscles. The fibers of this muscle travel in an inferior-medial direction, similar to the direction of the fingers when placing one’s hands in the front pockets. PTS:

13. A patient with of the intervertebral foramen may be instructed in therapeutic exercises that promote a posterior pelvic tilt. a. Lordosis c. Stenosis b. Widening d. Kyphosis ANS: C A patient with stenosis (narrowing) of the intervertebral foramen may be instructed in therapeutic exercises that promote a posterior pelvic tilt. PTS:

14. The first cervical vertebra is also called the , reflecting its function in supporting the weight of the cranium. a. Anterior arch c. Superior facet

b. Atlas

d. Spinous process

ANS: B The Greek god Atlas is said to have supported the weight of the world on his back. The first cervical vertebra is also called the atlas, reflecting its function in supporting the weight of the cranium. PTS:

TRUE/FALSE 1. There are 14 thoracic vertebrae. a. True b. False ANS: F There are 12 thoracic vertebrae. PTS:

2. The facet joints of the upper lumbar region are oriented close to the sagittal plane but transition toward the frontal plane in the lower regions. a. True b. False ANS: T The facet joints of the upper lumbar region are oriented close to the sagittal plane but transition toward the frontal plane in the lower regions. PTS:

3. The sacral canal houses and protects the cauda equina. a. True b. False ANS: T The sacral canal houses and protects the cauda equina. PTS:

4. Sometimes referred to as the tailbone, the sacrum is a small triangular bone consisting of four fused vertebrae. a. True b. False ANS: F Sometimes referred to as the tailbone, the coccyx is a small triangular bone consisting of four fused vertebrae.

PTS:

5. The term craniocervical region and neck are used interchangeably by the text. a. True b. False ANS: T The term craniocervical region and neck are used interchangeably. Both terms refer to the combined set of three articulations: atlanto-occipital joint, atlanto-axial joint, and the intra-cervical region—referring to the cervical joints between C2 and C7. PTS:

SHORT ANSWER 1. List the three primary components that compose each intervertebral disc. ANS: Nucleus pulposus, annulus fibrosus, and vertebral end plate PTS:

2. The short segmental muscle group is composed of what two components? ANS: Intertransversarus and inT teE rsS piTnB alA esNmKuSscEleLsLER.COM PTS:

3. List the three types of scalene muscles. ANS: Anterior, middle, posterior PTS:

4. During extension, the inferior facets of the superior vertebra slide which two directions? ANS: Posteriorly and inferiorly PTS:

5. Briefly, what has occurred when a person has a herniated nucleus pulposus? ANS: Over time or combined with excessive pressure, the nucleus pulposus oozes through small cracks created within a fragmented annulus fibrosis.

PTS:

6. Which posture is often associated with significant tightness of the lumbar extensor muscles and over-elongation (and potentially, weakness) of the abdominal muscles? ANS: The swayback posture PTS:

MATCHING Match each muscle with its point of innervation. a. Femoral nerve b. Spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) c. Ventral rami (C3-C7) d. Dorsal rami (C2-C8) e. Intercostal nerves (T7-T12) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Splenius capitis Sternocleidomastoid Scalene muscles Rectus abdominis Iliopsoas

1. ANS: 2. ANS: 3. ANS: 4. ANS: 5. ANS:

C D B E A

PTTSE : ST 1 BANKSELLER.COM PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1

Chapter 09: Structure and Function of the Hip Mansfield: Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The junction of the two innominate bones with the sacrum forms the a. Sacroiliac joints c. Inferior iliac spine b. Superior iliac spine d. Pubis

ANS: A The junction of the two innominate bones with the sacrum forms the sacroiliac joints. PTS:

2. The anterior tip of the iliac comes to a sharp point, called the . a. Anterior inferior iliac spine c. Anterior superior iliac spine b. Posterior superior iliac spine d. Posterior inferior iliac spine ANS: C The anterior tip of the iliac crest comes to a sharp point, called the anterior superior iliac spine. PTS:

3. The is a posterior projection of bone that marks the inferior aspect of the greater sciatic notch. a. Ischial tuberosity c. Ischial joint b. Ischial ramus d. Ischial spine ANS: D The ischial spine is a posterior projection of bone that marks the inferior aspect of the greater sciatic notch. PTS:

4. The junction between the pubic crests of each innominate is called the completes the anterior ring of the pelvis. a. Superior pubic ramus c. Inferior pubic ramus b. Pubic symphysis d. Pubic crest

, which

ANS: B The junction between the pubic crests of each innominate is called the pubic symphysis. This relatively immobile joint completes the anterior ring of the pelvis. PTS:

5. The is the horseshoe-shaped superior surface of the acetabulum. a. Acetabular fossa c. Ischial ramus b. Obturator membrane d. Lunate surface

ANS: D The lunate surface is the horseshoe-shaped superior surface of the acetabulum. PTS:

6. The is a sharp, posterior-medial projection of bone, which is the distal attachment for the iliopsoas muscle. a. Greater trochanter c. Lesser trochanter b. Intertrochanteric crest d. Trochanteric fossa ANS: C The lesser trochanter is a sharp posterior-medial projection of bone, which is the distal attachment for the iliopsoas muscle. PTS:

7. The is a line of slightly raised bone that courses along much of the posterior side of the femur and serves as the proximal attachment for two of the quadriceps muscles. a. Linea aspera c. Linea magnus b. Pectineal line d. Intercondylar line ANS: A More distally is the linea aspera (from the Latin, meaning “rough line”)—a line of slightly raised bone that courses along much of the posterior side of the femur. This bony ridge is the distal attachment for many of the adductor muscles and the proximal attachment for two of the quadriceps muscles. PTS:

8. The refers to the frontal plane angle created between the femoral neck and the shaft of the femur. a. Torsion angle c. Anteversion angle b. Angle of inclination d. Angle of optimal alignment ANS: B The angle of inclination refers to the frontal plane angle created between the femoral neck and the shaft of the femur. PTS:

9. Which of the following is not a kinematic strategy discussed as being relevant to basic hip motion? a. Open-chain hip motion b. Maximizing trunk displacement through closed-chain hip motion c. Minimizing trunk displacement through open-chain hip motion d. Short-arc closed-chain hip motion ANS: C All six basic hip motions may be performed using three different kinematic strategies: open-chain hip motion, maximizing trunk displacement through closed-chain hip motion, and short-arc closed-chain hip motion.

PTS:

10. Hip involves a movement between the femur and the pelvis within the sagittal plane about a medial-lateral axis of rotation. a. Flexion c. Abduction b. Rotation d. Adduction ANS: A Hip flexion involves a movement between the femur and the pelvis within the sagittal plane about a medial-lateral axis of rotation. PTS:

11. The is the body’s most powerful hip flexor and is thus well suited to perform an anterior pelvic tilt. a. Rectus femoris c. Iliopsoas b. Sartorius d. Tensor fasciae latae ANS: C The iliopsoas is the body’s most powerful hip flexor and is thus well suited to perform an anterior pelvic tilt. PTS:

12. The is the only muscle of the quadriceps group that crosses the hip and knee joints. a. Sartorius orMfascia latae TESTBANKSELLc.ERT.enCsO b. Iliopsoas d. Rectus femoris ANS: D The rectus femoris is the only muscle of the quadriceps group that crosses the hip and knee joints. This bi-articular muscle is both a flexor of the hip and extensor of the knee. PTS:

13. The is the longest muscle in the body. a. Iliopsoas c. Tensor fascia latae b. Sartorius d. Rectus femoris ANS: B The sartorius is the longest muscle in the body. PTS: 14.

1 The tensor fasciae latae is innervated through the nerve. a. Femoral c. Superior gluteal b. Iliotibial d. Inferior gluteal

ANS: C The tensor fasciae latae is innervated through the superior gluteal nerve.

PTS:

TRUE/FALSE 1. Coxa valga describes an angle of inclination that is significantly greater than 125 degrees. a. True b. False ANS: T Coxa valga describes an angle of inclination that is significantly greater than 125 degrees. PTS:

2. Coxa vara describes an angle of inclination that is significantly greater than 125 degrees. a. True b. False ANS: F Coxa vara describes an angle of inclination that is significantly less than 125 degrees. PTS:

3. A person who spends most of her time seated in a wheelchair is susceptible to hip flexion contracture. a. True b. False ANS: T Persons most susceptible to a hip flexion contracture are those who spend a great deal of time in a sitting or otherwise hip-flexed position. Consider the flexed position of the hips in a person who is confined to a wheelchair or chronically assumes a fetal position in bed. PTS:

4. The femur is naturally twisted along its long axis. a. True b. False ANS: T The femur is naturally twisted along its long axis. PTS:

5. Articular cartilage is thinnest at the superior pole of the femoral head. a. True b. False ANS: F Articular cartilage is thickest at the superior pole of the femoral head.

PTS:

SHORT ANSWER 1. List the three bones that compose each innominate bone. ANS: Ilium, ischium, pubis PTS:

2. The acetabulum is formed by which three bones of the pelvis? ANS: Ilium, pubis, ischium PTS:

3. List the four primary hip flexors. ANS: Iliopsoas, rectus femoris, sartorius, tensor fasciae latae PTS:

4. List the five points of proximal attachment for the gluteus maximus. ANS: The five points of proximal attachment for the gluteus maximus are posterior ilium, sacrum, coccyx, sacrotuberous, and sacroiliac ligaments. PTS:

5. The

and

together are often referred to as the medial hamstrings.

ANS: The semimembranosus and semitendinosus together are often referred to as the medial hamstrings. PTS:

MATCHING Match the following ligament names with their respective descriptions. a. Arises from the anterior-inferior rim of the acetabulum and attaches distally to the lower half of the intertrochanteric line of the femur b. A thick, strong ligament resembling an inverted Y

c. Arises from the ischial portion of the acetabular rim, spirals around the femoral neck, and attaches near the apex of the greater trochanter d. Spans the acetabular notch, completing the “cup” of the acetabulum e. A tubular sheath of connective tissue that runs from the transverse acetabular ligament to the fovea of the femoral head 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Transverse acetabular ligament Ligamentum teres Iliofemoral ligament Ischiofemoral ligament Pubofemoral ligament

1. ANS: 2. ANS: 3. ANS: 4. ANS: 5. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Chapter 10: Structure and Function of the Knee Mansfield: Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The is a small, plate-like bone embedded within the tendon of the quadriceps. a. Fibula c. Femur b. Tibia d. Patella ANS: D The patella is a sesamoid bone embedded within the tendon of the quadriceps. PTS:

2. The normal genu valgum alignment of the femur and tibia forms a lateral angle of degrees. a. 90-95 c. 150-155 b. 120-125 d. 170-175 ANS: D The femur usually meets the tibia to form a lateral angle of 170 to 175 degrees. This alignment is referred to as normal genu valgum. PTS:

3. An alignment of the femT urEaS ndTB tibAiaNfKoS rmEiL ngLaElR at. erCaO l aMngle greater than 180 degrees (giving a bowlegged appearance) is called: a. Reduced genu varum c. Genu varum b. Normal genu valgum d. Excessive genu valgum ANS: C An alignment of the femur and tibia forming a lateral angle greater than 180 degrees (giving a bow-legged appearance) is called genu varum. PTS:

4. A knee that demonstrated marked hyperextension is referred to as a. Genu recurvatum c. Excessive genu valgum b. Genu varum d. Reduced genu varum

ANS: A A knee that demonstrated marked hyperextension is referred to as genu recurvation. PTS:

5. Which of the following is not a quadriceps muscle? a. Rectus femoris c. Vastus intermedius b. Vastus lateralis d. Biceps femoris ANS: D

The quadriceps are composed of four muscles: rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius. PTS:

6. The is the largest and strongest of the quadriceps muscles. a. Rectus femoris c. Vastus intermedius b. Vastus lateralis d. Vastus medialis ANS: B The vastus lateralis is the largest and strongest of the quadriceps muscles. PTS:

7. This muscle can be thought of as the “key that unlocks the knee.” a. Popliteus c. Plantaris b. Gastrocnemius d. Gracilis ANS: A The popliteus muscle can be thought of as the “key that unlocks the knee.” PTS:

8. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the femoral nerve? a. Biceps femoris—long head c. Vastus lateralis b. Adductor brevis d. Plantaris ANS: C The vastus lateralis is innervated by the femoral nerve. PTS:

9. Flexion and extension of the knee occurs in the plane. a. Horizontal c. Transverse b. Sagittal d. Oblique ANS: B Flexion and extension of the knee occurs in the sagittal plane. PTS:

10. The , sometimes called the patellar surface, is the smooth, rounded area between the femoral condyles that articulates with the posterior surface of the patella. a. Intercondylar notch c. Lateral epicondyle b. Medial condyle d. Intercondylar groove ANS: D The intercondylar groove, sometimes called the patellar surface, is the smooth rounded area between the femoral condyles that articulates with the posterior surface of the patella. PTS:

11. The is a double-pointed projection of bone separating the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia. a. Intercondylar eminence c. Fibular head b. Tibial tuberosity d. Proximal tibiofibular joint ANS: A The intercondylar eminence is a double-pointed projection of bone separating the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia. PTS:

12. When active , the quadriceps stabilize and protect the knee. a. Concentrically c. Isometrically b. Eccentrically d. Isotonically ANS: C When active isometrically, the quadriceps stabilize and protect the knee. PTS:

13. The quadriceps muscle courses distally toward the patella and divides into two distinct fiber groups. a. Vastus medialis c. Vastus intermedius b. Vastus lateralis d. Rectus femoris ANS: A As this muscle courses dT isE taS llyTB toA wN arK dSthEeLpL atE elR la. , iCt O diM vides into two distinct fiber groups: the vastus medialis longus and the vastus medialis obliquus. PTS:

14. The is the deepest of the quadriceps muscles. a. Vastus medialis c. Vastus intermedius b. Vastus lateralis d. Rectus femoris ANS: C The vastus intermedius is the deepest of the quadriceps muscles, located just deep to the rectus femoris. PTS:

TRUE/FALSE 1. The primary function of the quadriceps muscles is to extend the knee. a. True b. False ANS: T

The primary function of these muscles is to extend the knee; however, through eccentric, concentric, and isometric activations, these muscles express many other functions. PTS:

2. The medial and lateral meniscus improve the overall congruency of the tibiofemoral joint. a. True b. False ANS: T The medial and lateral meniscus improve the overall congruency of the tibiofemoral joint. PTS:

3. The sartorius muscle is innervated through the obturator nerve. a. True b. False ANS: F The sartorius muscle is innervated through the femoral nerve. PTS:

4. Pronation of the foot can force the tibia into greater valgus of the knee. a. True b. False ANS: T Pronation of the foot can force the tibia into greater valgus of the knee. PTS:

5. Imbalance of forces between the vastus medialis obliquus and the vastus lateralis never causes excessive lateral tracking of the patella. a. True b. False ANS: F Imbalance of forces between the vastus medialis obliquus and the vastus lateralis often causes excessive lateral pull on the patella. PTS:

SHORT ANSWER 1. The muscles of the knee are innervated by which three nerves? ANS:

The muscles of the knee are innervated by three different nerves: the femoral, sciatic, and obturator. PTS:

2. List the two branches of the sciatic nerve. ANS: Tibial and peroneal PTS:

3. List the four muscle groups that make up the hamstrings. ANS: Semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris—long head, and biceps femoris—short head PTS:

4. Which of the hamstring muscles is not innervated through the tibial branch of the sciatic nerve, and in what way is that muscle innervated? ANS: The biceps femoris—short head is innervated through the peroneal branch of the sciatic nerve. PTS:

5. List the three ways in which the Q-angle is measured goniometrically. ANS: Axis, stationary arm, and moveable arm PTS:

MATCHING Match each of the supporting structures of the knee with the correct function. a. Resists anterior translation of the tibia relative to a fixed femur b. Resists valgus deformation of the knee c. Resists varus deformation of the knee d. Improves overall fit of the tibiofemoral joint e. Resists posterior translation of the tibia to a fixed femur 1. 2. 3. 4.

Medial and lateral meniscus Lateral collateral ligament Anterior cruciate ligament Posterior cruciate ligament

5. Medial collateral ligament 1. ANS: 2. ANS: 3. ANS: 4. ANS: 5. ANS:

C D B E A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Match each of the following muscles with its point of innervation. a. Sciatic nerve—tibial portion d. Tibial nerve b. Sciatic nerve—peroneal portion e. Femoral nerve c. Obturator nerve 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Vastus medialis Semitendinosus Biceps femoris—short head Gracilis Gastrocnemius

6. ANS: 7. ANS: 8. ANS: 9. ANS: 10. ANS:

C D B E A

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Chapter 11: Structure and Function of the Ankle and Foot Mansfield: Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The aspect of the foot refers to the sole, or bottom of the foot. a. Plantar c. Dorsal b. Rearfoot d. Dorsal ANS: A The plantar aspect of the foot refers to the sole, or bottom of the foot. PTS:

2. The aspect of the foot refers to the top, or superior, portion of the foot. a. Plantar c. Dorsal b. Rearfoot d. Forefoot ANS: C The dorsal aspect of the foot refers to the top, or superior, portion of the foot. PTS:

3. The describes the events that occur (while walking) within two successive heel contacts of the same leg. onMcycle a. Stance phase TESTBANKSELLc.ERM.oCtiO b. Swing phase d. Gait cycle ANS: D The gait cycle describes the events that occur (while walking) within two successive heel contacts of the same leg. PTS:

4. Which of the following is not a subdivision of the stance phase? a. Heel contact c. Foot flat b. Mid swing d. Toe off ANS: B Mid swing is a subdivision of the swing phase. PTS: 5.

The is the medial projection of bone from the distal tibia. a. Lateral malleolus c. Medial malleolus b. Fibular notch d. Distal tibiofibular joint ANS: C The medial malleolus is the medial projection of bone from the distal tibia.

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6. Which of the following is a distal joint of the ankle and foot? a. Talocrural c. Transverse tarsal b. Subtalar d. Tarsometatarsal ANS: D The distal joints include the tarsometatarsal, metatarsophalangeal, and interphalangeal joints. PTS: 7.

movements are those that occur within a plane that is perpendicular to the three classic axes of rotation: medial-lateral, anterior-posterior, and vertical. a. Fundamental c. Contralateral b. Oblique d. Transmedial ANS: A Fundamental movements are those that occur within a plane that is perpendicular to the three classic axes of rotation: medial-lateral, anterior-posterior, and vertical. PTS:

turns a point anywhere on the plantar aspect of the foot toward the midline. a. Dorsiflexion c. Plantar flexion b. Inversion d. Eversion ANS: B Inversion turns a point anywhere on the plantar aspect of the foot toward the midline. PTS:

is a combined movement that includes eversion, abduction, and dorsiflexion of any region of the ankle and foot. a. Supination c. Pronation b. Adduction d. Abduction ANS: C Pronation is a combined movement that includes eversion, abduction, and dorsiflexion of any region of the ankle and foot. PTS:

10. The joint is commonly called the ankle joint. a. Talocrural c. Transverse tarsal b. Subtalar d. Lateral tarsal ANS: A The talocrural joint, commonly called the ankle joint, is created by the articulation between the trochlea (dome) of the talus and the concavity formed by the distal tibia and fibula.

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11. The joint consists of the articulation between the facets on the inferior surface of the talus and the matching facets on the superior surface of the calcaneus. a. Talocrural c. Transverse tarsal b. Subtalar d. Lateral tarsal ANS: B The subtalar joint consists of the articulation between the facets on the inferior surface of the talus and the matching facets on the superior surface of the calcaneus. PTS:

12. The talonavicular and the calcaneocuboid joints combine to form the: a. Talocrural joint c. Subtalar joint b. Calcaneus d. Transverse tarsal joint ANS: D The transverse tarsal joint, also known as the midtarsal joint, consists of two articulations: the talonavicular joint and the calcaneocuboid joint. PTS:

13. The serves as the attachment site for the Achilles tendon. a. Calcaneal tuberosity c. Navicular tuberosity b. Sustentaculum talus d. Cuboid ANS: A The calcaneal tuberosity serves as the attachment site for the Achilles tendon. PTS:

14. The nerve innervates all muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg. a. Deep peroneal c. Tibial b. Superficial peroneal d. Femoral ANS: A The deep peroneal nerve innervates all muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg. These muscles perform dorsiflexion as one of their primary actions. PTS:

TRUE/FALSE 1. The medial longitudinal arch is the primary load-bearing and shock-absorbing structure of the foot. a. True b. False ANS: T

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The medial longitudinal arch is the primary load-bearing and shock-absorbing structure of the foot. PTS:

2. “Turf toe” describes an injury that typically results from hyperextension of the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe. a. True b. False ANS: T Turf toe describes an injury that typically results from hyperextension of the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe. PTS:

3. Pes cavus describes a chronically dropped or low medial longitudinal arch, or flatfoot. a. True b. False ANS: F Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high medial longitudinal arch. PTS:

4. Dysfunctions of the back are never associated with problems originating from the ankle. TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. True b. False ANS: F Dysfunctions of the hip, knee, or back may be associated with problems originating at the ankle or foot. PTS:

5. The intrinsic muscles of the plantar aspect of the foot are organized into four layers. a. True b. False ANS: T The intrinsic muscles of the plantar aspect of the foot are organized into four layers PTS:

SHORT ANSWER 1. List the five subdivisions of the stance phase. ANS:

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Heel contact, foot flat, mid stance, heel off, and toe off PTS:

2. List the three subdivisions of the swing phase. ANS: Early swing, mid swing, and late swing PTS:

3. List the three cuneiform bones that form the transverse arch of the foot. ANS: The three cuneiforms that form the transverse arch of the foot are the medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiforms. PTS:

4. List one possible result of spasticity or tightness of the flexor digitorum longus. ANS: Spasticity or tightness of the flexor digitorum longus may result in a posture of plantar flexion of the ankle, inversion of the foot, and flexion of the toes. PTS:

5. The interosseus membrane binds the tibia to the and joints. ANS: Fibula, tibiofibular, talocrural PTS:

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and provides stability to the

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Chapter 12: Fundamentals of Human Gait Mansfield: Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. During the stance phase, the instant the entire plantar aspect of the foot is on the ground is known as . a. Heel contact c. Mid stance b. Foot flat d. Heel off ANS: B When the instant the entire plantar aspect of the foot is on the ground (8% of the gait cycle), this is known as foot flat. PTS:

2. The combined action of the heel off and toe off when the stance foot is moving toward the next step is described as: a. Push off c. Heel contact b. Mid stance d. Pull off ANS: A A period referred to as push off is often used to describe the combined action of heel off and toe off, when the stance foot is literally pushing off toward the next step, typically spanning 40% to 60% of the gait cycle. PTS:

3. The average distance for a healthy adult traveled in one step is a. 12 c. 35 b. 28 d. 46

inches.

ANS: B The distance traveled in one step, on average, is 28 inches for the healthy adult. PTS: 4.

is defined as the number of steps taken per minute. a. Stride length c. Cadence b. Step width d. Walking velocity ANS: C Cadence is usually defined as the number of steps taken per minute. The average cadence for a healthy adult is 110 steps per minute. PTS:

is defined as the speed at which an individual walks. a. Step c. Cadence b. Stride length d. Walking velocity

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ANS: D Walking velocity is the speed at which an individual walks. Normal walking velocity is about 3 miles per hour; changes in walking velocity occur through changes in cadence or step length, or both. PTS: 6.

is the beginning of the gait cycle, when the heel first touches the ground. a. Heel contact c. Heel off b. Foot flat d. Toe off ANS: A Heel contact, often called heel strike, is the beginning of the gait cycle, when the heel first contacts the ground. At this point in the gait cycle the center of gravity of the body is at its lowest point, marking the beginning of weight-transfer from one leg to the other. PTS:

7. At the phase, the ankle has just moved into 5 to 10 degrees of plantar flexion and will immediately begin to move toward dorsiflexion. a. Heel-contact c. Heel-off b. Foot-flat d. Toe-off ANS: B At foot flat the ankle has just rapidly moved into 5 to 10 degrees of plantar flexion. This motion is controlled through eccentric activation of the dorsiflexor muscles. Immediately following foot flat, the anTkEleSbTeB giA nsNtK oSmEoL veLtE oR w. arC dO doMrsiflexion, as the leg advances forward over the foot. PTS: 8.

occurs as the leg approaches a vertical position, about 30% of the gait cycle. a. Heel off c. Toe off b. Foot flat d. Mid stance ANS: D Mid stance occurs as the leg approaches a vertical position, about 30% of the gait cycle. PTS:

9. At the phase, the extended knee prepares to flex and the hip continues to extend, ending in about 10 degrees of extension. a. Heel-off c. Toe-off b. Foot-flat d. Mid-stance ANS: A At heel off, the extended knee prepares to flex, usually driven by a short burst of activity from the hamstring muscles. The hip continues to extend, ending in about 10 degrees of extension.

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10. During the degrees. a. Mid-stance b. Foot-flat

phase, the toes are in marked hyperextension and the knee is flexed 30 c. Toe-off d. Heel-off

ANS: C At toe off, the toes are in marked hyperextension at the metatarsophalangeal joints, supported by activation of the intrinsic muscles of the foot. At toe off, the knee is flexed 30 degrees; however, the hamstrings are only minimally active. PTS:

11. During early swing, the leg . a. Is contralateral, fully supporting the body’s weight b. Begins to accelerate forward c. Begins to decelerate in preparation for heel contact d. Is placed well in front of the body, preparing for transition ANS: B During early swing the leg begins to accelerate forward. PTS:

12. During terminal swing, the become inactive. a. Ankle dorsiflexor muTscElS esTBANKSELL c.ERH.ipCeOxM tensor muscles b. Hamstrings d. Hip flexor muscles ANS: D The hip flexor muscles, which have powered the leg into nearly 35 degrees of flexion, become inactive in terminal swing. PTS:

13. With this type of gait deviation, the individual appears to be stepping over an imaginary obstacle. a. high stepping gait c. Weak quadriceps gait b. Foot slap d. Genu recurvatum ANS: A With the high stepping gait, the individual appears to be stepping over an imaginary obstacle, hence the French term steppage. PTS:

14. With this type of gait deviation, the person rises up on the toes of the stance foot while swinging the contralateral leg forward. a. Vaulting c. Weak quadriceps gait b. High steppage gait d. Genu recurvatum

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ANS: A With the vaulting deviation in gait, the person rises up on the toes of the stance foot while swinging the contralateral leg forward. PTS:

TRUE/FALSE 1. Weak quadriceps gait may stress the posterior capsule of the knee and may lead to genu recurvatum. a. True b. False ANS: T Weak quadriceps gait may stress the posterior capsule of the knee and may lead to genu recurvatum. PTS:

2. Walking with hip or knee flexion contracture, or both, is never associated with increased lumbar lordosis or reduced stride length. a. True b. False ANS: F Walking with hip or kneeTfEleSxT ioB nAcoNnKtrS acEtuLrL e,EoR r. boCthO, M is often associated with increased lumbar lordosis and reduced stride length. PTS:

3. Weak hip abductor gait may occur secondary to a number of issues including muscular dystrophy, hip arthritis, and obesity. a. True b. False ANS: T Weakness of the hip abductor muscles may occur secondary to Guillain-Barré syndrome, muscular dystrophy, poliomyelitis, hip pain and avoidance of activation of hip abductor muscles, arthritis of the hip, or obesity. PTS:

4. Weak gluteus maximus gait is characterized by forward lean of the trunk during the foot-flat phase of gait. a. True b. False ANS: F

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Weak gluteus maximus gait is characterized by backward lean of the trunk during the foot-flat phase of gait. PTS:

5. As part of the hip circumduction gait deviation, the swing leg is advanced in a semicircle arc. a. True b. False ANS: T As part of the hip circumduction gait deviation, the swing leg is advanced in a semicircle arc. PTS:

SHORT ANSWER 1. The gait cycle is divided into what two phases? ANS: Stance phase and swing phase PTS:

ioEnS sT inBthAeNfK roS ntEalLpLlaEnR e. suCcO hM as gluteus medius limp or the 2. Characteristic gait deviatT Trendelenburg gait are caused by what? ANS: Weakness of the hip abductors PTS: 3.

support occurs during the first and last 10% of the stance phase, whereas support occurs once every stance phase between 10% and 50% of the gait cycle. ANS: Double-limb, single-limb PTS:

4. List two of the gait deviations that may result from the inability to shorten the swing leg. ANS: Hip circumduction, hip hiking, vaulting PTS:

5. The swing phase of the gait cycle is divided into what three periods?

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ANS: Early swing, mid swing, terminal swing PTS:

MATCHING Match each of the following gait deviations with a description of the impairment that will most likely lead to the deviation. a. Weakness of hip extensors b. Plantar flexion contracture c. Weakness of the dorsiflexors d. Weakness of hip abductors e. Avoidance of quadriceps muscle activation 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Foot slap Weak quadriceps gait Genu recurvatum Weak gluteus maximus gait Weak hip abductor gait

1. ANS: 2. ANS: 3. ANS: 4. ANS: 5. ANS:

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Chapter 13: Kinesiology of Mastication and Ventilation Mansfield: Essentials of Kinesiology for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

is the process of chewing, tearing, and grinding food with the teeth. a. Protrusion c. Retrusion b. Mastication d. Lateral excursion ANS: B Mastication is the process of chewing, tearing, and grinding food with the teeth. This process involves an interaction among the muscles of mastication, the teeth, and the pair of temporomandibular joints. PTS:

2. The is the largest of the facial bones. a. Maxilla c. Mandible b. Zygomatic bone d. Hyoid bone ANS: C The mandible, often referred to as the lower jawbone, is the largest of the facial bones. PTS:

3. The is the horizonT taEl S poTrtBioAnNoK fS thE eL mLanEdRib.leCtO haMt has sockets for the lower 16 adult teeth. a. Ramus c. Body b. Mandibular condyle d. Mandibular fossa ANS: C The body is the horizontal portion of the mandible that has sockets for the lower 16 adult teeth. PTS:

4. The extends between the coronoid process and mandibular condyle. a. Pterygoid fossa c. Mandibular fossa b. Ramus d. Mandibular notch ANS: D The mandibular notch extends between the coronoid process and mandibular condyle. PTS:

5. The compose the cheek regions and lateral orbit of the eyes. a. Zygomatic bones c. Sphenoid bones b. Maxillae d. Hyoid bones ANS: A

The zygomatic bones compose the cheek regions and lateral orbit of the eyes. PTS:

6. The is a single, deep bone that runs transversely across the cranium. a. Sphenoid bone c. Zygomatic bone b. Mandible d. Hyoid bone ANS: A The sphenoid bone is a single, deep bone that runs transversely across the cranium. PTS:

7. The is a U-shaped bone located at the base of the throat, just anterior to the third cervical vertebrae. a. Sphenoid bone c. Zygomatic bone b. Hyoid bone d. Temporal bone ANS: B The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone located at the base of the throat, just anterior to the third cervical vertebrae. PTS: 8.

describes the anterior translation of the mandible and is important for widely opening the mouth. c. Protrusion a. Retrusion TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Lateral excursion d. Elevation ANS: C Protrusion describes the anterior translation of the mandible and is important for widely opening the mouth. PTS:

occurs as the mandible translates posteriorly and is important for closing the widely opened mouth. a. Lateral excursion c. Protrusion b. Retrusion d. Depression ANS: B Retrusion is the opposite of protrusion. This motion occurs as the mandible translates posteriorly, an important motion for closing the widely opened mouth. PTS:

10.

of the mandible occurs as the mandible translates side to side, a motion used to grind food between the teeth. a. Retrusion c. Elevation b. Depression d. Lateral excursion

ANS: D Lateral excursion of the mandible occurs as the mandible translates side to side. This motion is used to grind food between the teeth. PTS:

11. The is a thick, powerful muscle, easily palpable during a biting motion just above the angle of the mandible. a. Masseter c. Medial pterygoid b. Temporalis d. Lateral pterygoid ANS: A The masseter is a thick powerful muscle, easily palpable during a biting motion just above the angle of the mandible. Bilateral activation of the masseters elevates the mandible, bringing the teeth together for mastication. PTS:

12. The is a fan-shaped muscle that fills much of the concavity of the temporal fossa. a. Masseter c. Temporalis b. Medial pterygoid d. Lateral pterygoid ANS: C The temporalis is a fan-shaped muscle that fills much of the concavity of the temporal fossa. PTS:

13. The has two distinct heads, both of which are important in mandibular protrusion and lateral excursion. a. Medial pterygoid c. Lateral pterygoid b. Masseter d. Temporalis ANS: C The lateral pterygoid has two distinct heads, both of which play a role in mandibular protrusion and lateral excursion to the opposite side. PTS: 14.

is a primary component of mastication, as food is ground between the teeth. a. Lateral excursion c. Protrusion b. Retrusion d. Depression ANS: A Lateral excursion—or lateral deviation—is a primary component of mastication, as food is ground between the teeth. This motion primarily involves contraction of the masseter and temporalis on the same side as the lateral motion, as well as activation of the contralateral medial and lateral pterygoid muscles. PTS:

TRUE/FALSE 1. Ventilation is the mechanical process by which air is inhaled and exhaled through the lungs. a. True b. False ANS: T Ventilation is the mechanical process by which air is inhaled and exhaled through the lungs. PTS:

2. In the healthy population, forced ventilation occurs during relatively sedentary activities—those with low metabolic demands. a. True b. False ANS: F In the healthy population, quiet ventilation occurs during relatively sedentary activities—those with low metabolic demands. PTS:

3. The inspiratory reserve volume is the amount of air that can be forced out of the lungs (above the tidal volume) on forced inspiration. a. True b. False ANS: F The inspiratory reserve volume is the amount of air that can be taken into the lungs (above the tidal volume) on forced inspiration. PTS:

4. Boyle’s law states that the volume and pressure exerted by a gas are inversely proportional. a. True b. False ANS: T Boyle’s law states that the volume and pressure exerted by a gas are inversely proportional. PTS:

5. Expiration is the process of exhaling air from the lungs into the environment. a. True b. False ANS: T Expiration is the process of exhaling air from the lungs into the environment.

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SHORT ANSWER 1. List the five bones related to the structure and function of the temporomandibular joint. ANS: The mandible, maxillae, zygomatic, sphenoid, and hyoid bones are all related to the structure and function of the temporomandibular joint. PTS:

2. List the four primary muscles of the temporomandibular joint. ANS: The primary muscles of the temporomandibular joint are the masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, and lateral pterygoid. PTS:

3. List the two categories of secondary muscles of mastication. ANS: Suprahyoid and infrahyoid PTS:

4. What are the four muscles that make up the suprahyoid muscles? ANS: Digastric, geniohyoid, mylohyoid, stylohyoid PTS:

5. What are the four muscles that make up the infrahyoid muscles? ANS: Omohyoid, sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid PTS:

6. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a disorder that typically incorporates which three components? ANS: Chronic bronchitis, emphysema, asthma PTS:

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7. Which muscle is the most important for inspiration? ANS: The diaphragm is the most important muscle of inspiration. PTS:

MATCHING Match the following kinematic names with their descriptors. a. Lateral deviation d. Closing b. Protraction e. Opening c. Retraction 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Lateral excursion Protrusion Depression Retrusion Elevation

1. ANS: C 2. ANS: D 3. ANS: B 4. ANS: E 5. ANS: A

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Match the following bone names with their descriptors. a. U-shaped bone at throat base b. Upper jawbone c. Deep bone running across the cranium d. Composes cheek regions and lateral eye orbit e. Lower jawbone 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Mandible Maxillae Zygomatic bone Sphenoid bone Hyoid bone

6. ANS: 7. ANS: 8. ANS: 9. ANS: 10. ANS:

C D B E A

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