TEST BANK for Essentials of Marketing Research A Hands-On Orientation 1st Edition Naresh.

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TEST BANK for Essentials of Marketing Research: A Hands-On Orientation 1st Edition, by Naresh K. Malhotra

TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter 1 Introduction to Marketing Research1) Chapter 2 Defining the Marketing Research Problem Chapter 3 Research Design, Secondary and Syndicated Chapter 4 Qualitative Research Chapter 5 Survey and Observation Chapter 6 Experimentation and Causal Research Chapter 7 Measurement and Scaling Chapter 8 Questionnaire and Form Design1 Chapter 9 Sampling: Design and Procedures Chapter 10 Data Collection and Preparation Chapter 11 Data Analysis: Frequency Distribution, Chapter 12 Data Analysis: Hypothesis Testing Chapter 13 Report Preparation and Presentation


Chapter 1 Introduction to Marketing Research 1) Problem-identification research involves going below the surface to identify the true underlying problem that the marketing manager is facing. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 2) Problem-identification research is typically used to address pricing issues. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 3) Problem-identification research is the more common of the forms of research and is undertaken by virtually all marketing firms. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 4) According to the text, problem-solving research is typically used to assess the environment and diagnose problems. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 5) Research undertaken to help solve specific marketing problems is called problem-solving research. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 6) Market share is an example of a topic typically addressed by problem-solving research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


7) Market potential is an example of a topic typically addressed by problem-identification research. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 8) Segmentation is an example of a topic typically addressed by problem-solving research. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 9) Image research is an example of a topic typically addressed by problem-identification research. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 10) Distribution research is an example of a topic typically addressed by problem-identification research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 11) The first step in any marketing research project is to formulate the research design. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 12) Formulating an analytical framework along with models, research questions, hypotheses, and the information needed are included in developing an approach to the problem. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 13) Fieldwork or data collection is the fourth step of the marketing research process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


14) Telephone, mail, personal and electronic interviewing are forms of interviewing in the data collection stage of the research process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 15) Collecting and analyzing data are steps involved in the data-processing stage. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 16) Promotion is considered an uncontrollable environmental factor. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 17) Marketing research is not concerned with factors that are not under the control of the marketing manager. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 18) A manager has control over a competitor's pricing policy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 19) Pricing, promotion, and distribution are all considered controllable marketing variables. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 20) Marketing research departments located within a firm are called internal suppliers. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


21) Marketing research should be conducted whenever a decision has to be made. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 22) The decision to conduct research is automatic. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 23) Outside marketing research companies hired to supply marketing research data are called external suppliers. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 24) According to the text, most of the research suppliers are Fortune 500 operations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 25) The services of full-service suppliers can be categorized into syndicated, customized, and Internet services. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 26) Companies that collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs that a number of clients share are called syndicated services. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 27) Focus groups represent the main method by which syndicated services collect data. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5


28) According to the text, Nielsen Holding was recognized as the largest global research firm based on global research revenues. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 29) Kantar, Westat, and Burke, Inc. are examples of marketing research firms that offer customized services. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 30) Companies whose primary service offering is their expertise in collecting data for research projects are called coding and data entry services. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 31) Data analysis services perform services that include editing competing questionnaires, developing a coding scheme, and transcribing the data onto diskettes or magnetic tapes for input into the computer. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 32) Selecting an outside supplier is always done with a formal "request for proposal." Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 33) According to the text, the most common entry-level position in the marketing research industry for people with bachelor's degrees is assistant project director. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


34) Either a strong qualitative or a strong quantitative background is sufficient to be a successful in marketing research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 35) A good knowledge of marketing is essential to be a successful in marketing research. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 36) A formalized set of procedures for generating, analyzing, storing, and distributing pertinent information to marketing decision makers on an ongoing basis is called a marketing information system. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 37) An information system that enables decision makers to interact directly with both databases and analysis models is called a decision support system. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 38) Hardware and a communication network are recognized as important components of a decision support system. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 39) The ability to improve decision making by using "what-if" analysis is a characteristic of a marketing information system. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7


40) Unstructured problems and the use of models are characteristics that describe a decision support system. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 41) The United States accounts for 60 percent of the marketing research expenditures worldwide. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 8 42) Social media embody social computing tools commonly referred to as Web 1.0. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 9 43) Expectations about objectivity among bloggers and other social media users are lower. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 9 44) Intel is mentioned as a marketing research firm specializing in social media research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 9 45) The book advocates the use of social media to replace the traditional ways in which research is conducted. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 9


46) Marketing research involves all of the following regarding information EXCEPT A) identification B) collection C) analysis D) manipulation E) dissemination Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 47) Which of the following statements is most TRUE about marketing research? A) Marketing research follows an unpredictable path. B) Marketing research is systematic. C) Marketing research cannot be planned. D) All of the answer selections are FALSE. E) A and C are both true. Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 48) Which of the following statements is most FALSE about marketing research? A) Marketing research follows a predictable path. B) Marketing research is systematic. C) Marketing research is planned. D) Marketing research leads to automatic decisions. E) All of the answer selections are FALSE. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 49) research is undertaken to help identify problems that are not necessarily apparent on the surface and yet exist or are likely to arise in the future. A) Problem-solving B) Problem-identification C) Problem-manipulation D) Problem-correction E) Problem exception Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1

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50) Which of the following classifications of marketing research involves going below the surface to identify the true underlying problem that the marketing manager is facing? A) problem solving B) problem manipulation C) problem correction D) problem identification E) problem exception Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 51) Problem-identification research is typically used to address all of the following topics EXCEPT . A) market share B) short-range forecasting C) long-range forecasting D) pricing E) market potential Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 52) Which of the following is the more common of the forms of research and is undertaken by virtually all marketing firms? A) problem-solving research B) problem-identification research C) problem-manipulation research D) problem-correction research E) problem exception Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 53) According to the text, is typically used to assess the environment and diagnose problems. A) problem-solving research B) problem-manipulation research C) problem-identification research D) problem-correction research E) problem exception Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


54) Research undertaken to help solve specific marketing problems is called A) problem-solving research B) problem-manipulation research C) problem-identification research D) problem-correction research E) problem exception Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 55) Research undertaken to identify marketing problems is called A) problem-solving research B) problem-manipulation research C) problem-identification research D) problem-correction research E) problem exception Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1

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56) All of the following are examples of topics typically addressed by problem-solving research EXCEPT . A) segmentation B) product C) promotion D) market share E) pricing Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 57) All of the following are examples of topics typically addressed by problem-solving research EXCEPT . A) segmentation B) product C) market potential D) market share E) C and D Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1


58) Which of the following is NOT a step in the marketing research process? A) problem definition B) problem correction C) research design formulation D) report generation and presentation E) data preparation and analysis Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 59) Which of the following is NOT a step in the marketing research process? A) problem correction B) fieldwork C) research design formulation D) report generation and presentation E) data preparation and analysis Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 60) The first step in any marketing research project is to A) define the problem B) develop an approach to the problem C) formulate the research design D) correct the problem E) eliminate the problem Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

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61) If an outside agency was brought in to conduct work for a research project after the first three steps in the marketing research process were completed, which step would the agency conduct? A) define the problem B) develop an approach to the problem C) formulate the research design D) correct the problem E) do fieldwork or collect data Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


62) The marketing chief of Fossil is considering the introduction of a super functional, fashionable wristwatch for men and women priced at $99. For this, he decided on 30 telephonic interviews from their customer database, 50 valid survey responses from individuals whose income is greater than $60,000 and 2 focus groups. To which of the six steps of the marketing research process do the actions of the marketing chief for Fossil fall into? A) defining the problem B) developing an approach to the problem C) doing analysis D) doing fieldwork or collecting data E) formulating the research design Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 63) Which of the following is NOT a form of interviewing in the data collection stage of the research process? A) telephone interviewing B) mail interviewing C) electronic interviewing D) observational interviewing E) personal interviewing Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 64) All of the following are steps involved in the data-preparation stage of collected data EXCEPT . A) editing B) coding C) transcribing D) collecting E) initial inspection Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


65) Which of the following is NOT considered an uncontrollable environmental factor? A) competition B) social and cultural factors C) political factors D) promotion E) economy Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3 66) All of the following are considered to be controllable marketing variables EXCEPT . A) competition B) pricing C) promotion D) distribution E) product Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 67) All of the following are considered to be controllable marketing variables EXCEPT . A) economy B) pricing C) promotion D) distribution E) All are controllable. Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 68) Researchers enter the realm of the decision maker when they A) make an appointment no less than 2 weeks in advance B) state the facts C) send an invoice for professional services they have rendered D) explain the research design E) give justification for a recommended course of action over others Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3

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69) Marketing research departments located within a firm are called A) internal suppliers B) horizontal suppliers C) virtual suppliers D) external suppliers E) smart zones Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5

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70) Marketing research departments located outside a firm and comprising the marketing research industry are called . A) internal suppliers B) horizontal suppliers C) virtual suppliers D) external suppliers E) smart zones Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 71) A marketing research project is warranted when . A) the required information is already in the organization B) the decision which the research addresses has already been made C) the research will be used for gaining political ends D) time or money are not available in adequate amounts E) the cost of the research is less than its eventual benefits Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 72) ABC is a company which is involved in selling data that is designed to serve information needs of firms like PepsiCo and Coca-Cola. The data are primarily collected through surveys, purchase and media panels, and scanners. What kind of service does ABC provide in the marketing research industry? A) Internet service B) data analysis service C) limited-service suppliers D) coding and data entry services E) syndicated services Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


73) Outside marketing research companies hired to supply marketing research data are called . A) horizontal suppliers B) vertical suppliers C) external suppliers D) internal suppliers E) full-service suppliers Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 74) According to the text, most of the research suppliers are A) multinational operations B) Fortune 500 operations C) foreign operations D) small operations E) 501(c)(3) organizations Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5

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75) The services of full-service suppliers can be categorized into all of the following types of services EXCEPT . A) syndicated services B) environmental services C) customized services D) Internet services E) All of the above are types of full-service suppliers. Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 76) Companies that collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs that a number of clients share are called . A) environmental services B) customized services C) syndicated services D) Internet services E) field services Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


77) All of the following represent main methods used by syndicated services to collected data EXCEPT . A) focus groups B) surveys C) panels D) scanners E) audits Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 78) According to the text, which of the following organizations was recognized as the largest global research firm based on global research revenues? A) IMS Health Inc. B) Arbitron Inc. C) Nielsen D) Ipsos E) GfK SE Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 79) Which of the following marketing research firms does NOT offer customized services? A) Kantar B) Westat C) Burke, Inc. D) Field Work Chicago, Inc. E) All offer customized services. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 80) Companies whose primary service offering is their expertise in collecting data for research projects are called . A) field services B) Internet services C) coding and data entry services D) data analysis services E) research directorates Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


81) According to the text, the most common entry-level position in the marketing research industry for people with bachelor's degrees is . A) assistant project director B) project director C) operational supervisor D) research analyst E) account executive Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 82) Which of the following actions is NOT a step a person would take to prepare for a career in marketing research? A) acquire computer and Internet skills B) obtain any type of work experience C) take courses in statistics and quantitative methods D) acquire effective written and verbal communication skills E) think creatively Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 83) Which of the following are mentioned in the text as steps to take to prepare for a career in marketing research? A) acquire computer and Internet skills B) acquire written communication skills C) take courses in statistics and quantitative methods D) develop verbal communication skills E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


84) A formalized set of procedures for generating, analyzing, storing, and distributing pertinent information to marketing decision makers on an ongoing basis is called a(n) . A) transactions processing system B) formal system C) marketing information system D) expert system E) research directorate Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 85) In order to compare the national retailers' success in selling its brands of digital cameras with the national retailers' success in selling traditional camera equipment, the marketing manager for Sony decided to use the billing information Sony has for these national retailers. This information is fed into spreadsheets formatted in tabular form and updated continuously as accounts change. In doing so, the marketing manager for Sony utilized which one of the following? A) a rolling audit B) a functional system C) an expert system D) a decision support system E) a marketing information system Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 86) An information system that enables decision makers to interact directly with both databases and analysis models is called a(n) . A) transaction processing system B) decision support system C) expert system D) marketing information system E) information load Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7


87) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a marketing information system? A) structured problems B) use of reports C) information displaying restricted D) can improve decision making by using "what-if" analysis E) can improve decision making by clarifying new data Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 88) Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a limitation of social media for conducting marketing research? A) lower objectivity standards for social media B) self selection bias C) advocacy bias D) expressive bias E) All of these are mentioned as limitations. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 9 89) Which of the following stakeholders is NOT mentioned as being directly affected by marketing research activities? A) the government B) the client C) the respondent D) the public E) the marketing researcher Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 10 90) Define marketing research. Answer: Marketing research is the systematic and objective identification, collection, analysis, dissemination, and use of information for the purpose of improving decision making related to the identification and solution of problems and opportunities in marketing. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


91) In a short essay, discuss the differences between problem-identification research and problem-solving research. Include a description of situations in which each type of research would be most appropriate. Answer: Problem-identification research involves going below the surface to identify the true underlying problem that the marketing manager is facing. It may be designed to estimate market potential, market share, brand or company image, market characteristics, sales analysis, shortrange forecasting, long-range forecasting, or to uncover business trends. Problem identification is the more common of the two forms of research and is undertaken by virtually all marketing firms. This type of research is used to assess the environment and diagnose problems. Once a problem or opportunity has been identified, a firm undertakes problem-solving research to address the problem. Problem-solving research addresses many topics, including segmentation, product, pricing, promotion, and distribution. Problem-identification research and problemsolving research go hand in hand, and a given marketing research project may combine both types. Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 92) In a short essay, list and discuss the six steps in the marketing research process. Answer: a. Step 1: Defining the problem — the first step in any marketing research project is to define the problem. Researchers accomplish problem definition through discussions with the decision makers, interviews with industry experts, analysis of secondary data, and some qualitative research, such as focus groups. b. Step 2: Developing an approach to the problem — this includes formulating an analytical framework and models, research questions, and hypotheses. This process is guided by the same tasks performed to define the problem. c. Step 3: Formulating a research design — a research design is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project. It details the procedures needed to obtain the required information. A study may be designed to test hypotheses of interest or determine possible answers to the research questions, both of which contribute to decision making. d. Step 4: Doing fieldwork or collecting data — data collection is accomplished using a staff that operates in the field. Fieldwork involves personal, telephone, mail, or electronic interviewing. Proper selection, training, supervision, and evaluation of the field force are essential to ensure high-quality data collection. e. Step 5: Preparing and analyzing data — data preparation involves data-processing steps leading up to analysis. This includes the editing, coding, and transcribing of collected data. This entire process must then be verified for accuracy. The results are interpreted in order to find conclusions related to the marketing research problem. f. Step 6: Preparing and presenting the report — the entire project should be documented in a written report that addresses the specific research questions; describes the approach, the research design, data collection, and data analysis procedures; and presents the results and the major findings. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2


93) Traditionally, marketing researchers were responsible for assessing information needs and providing the relevant information, whereas marketing decisions were made by the managers. Discuss why the roles of marketing managers and marketing researchers are changing. Answer: These roles are changing and marketing researchers are becoming more involved in decision making, whereas marketing managers are becoming more involved with research. This trend can be attributed to better training of marketing managers, the Internet and other advances in technology, and a shift in the marketing research paradigm where more and more marketing research is being undertaken on an ongoing basis rather than in response to specific marketing problems or opportunities. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 4 94) In a short essay, discuss the characteristics of full-service marketing research suppliers and describe three types of these full service suppliers. Include a description of the various services offered by each type of supplier to support your answer. Answer: Full-service marketing research suppliers offer the entire range of marketing research services, from problem definition to report preparation and presentation. The services of these suppliers can be further broken down into syndicated services, customized services, and Internet services. a. Syndicated services — these companies collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs that a number of clients share. Surveys, panels, scanners, and audits are the main means by which these data are collected. b. Customized services — these companies offer a variety of marketing research services customized to suit a client's needs. Each research project is designed to meet the unique needs of the client. c. Internet services — these services are offered by several marketing research firms including some who have specialized in conducting marketing research on the Internet and/or social media, for example, Harris interactive. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5


95) In a short essay, describe the stages of developing a career in the marketing research industry. List at least four steps a student should take in order to properly prepare for a career in the marketing research industry. Answer: a. A career in research often begins with a supervisory position in fieldwork or data analysis. With experience, the researcher moves up to project management positions, resulting in director and eventually in a vice president-level position. The most common entry-level position in the research industry for people with bachelor's degrees is operational supervisor. Those with MBA or equivalent degrees are likely to be employed as project managers. A researcher entering the profession on the client side would typically begin as a junior research analyst (BBAs) or research analyst (MBAs). b. To prepare for a career in marketing research, a student should do the following: - take as many marketing courses as possible - take courses in statistics and quantitative methods - acquire computer, social media and Internet skills - take courses in psychology and consumer behavior - acquire effective written and verbal communication skills - think creatively Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 96) In a short essay, describe the characteristics of a marketing information system and discuss how it differs from a decision support system. Answer: a. A marketing information system (MIS) is a formalized set of procedures for generating, analyzing, storing, and distributing information to marketing decision makers on an ongoing basis. MIS is differentiated from marketing research in that it is continuously available. MIS is designed to complement the decision maker's responsibilities, style, and information needs. The power of MIS is in the access it gives managers to vast amounts of information, combining production, invoice, and billing information with marketing intelligence, including marketing research. b. Developed to overcome the limitation of MIS, decision support systems have built-in flexibility that allows decision makers to interact directly with databases and analysis models. A decision support system (DSS) is an integrated system including hardware, a communications network, database, model base, software base, and the DSS user who collects and interprets information for decision making. DSSs differ from MISs in that they combine the models and analytic techniques of traditional marketing research with each access and retrieval of MISs. Well-designed DSSs adapt to the decision-making needs of the user with easy interactive processes. In addition to providing easy access to data, DSSs can also enhance decision-making effectiveness by using "what-if" analysis. Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7


97) Why is international marketing research more complex than domestic marketing research? Answer: Conducting international marketing research is much more complex than domestic marketing research. The environment prevailing in the countries or international markets that are being researched influences the way the six steps of the marketing research process should be performed. These environmental factors consist of the marketing, government, legal, economic, structural, informational and technological, and the sociocultural environments (Figure 1.7). The impact of these factors on the marketing research process is discussed in detail in subsequent chapters. Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 8 98) Describe the stakeholders in marketing research. How do ethical issues arise? Answer: Marketing research has often been described as having four stakeholders: (1) the marketing researcher, (2) the client, (3) the respondent, and (4) the public (Figure 1.8). These stakeholders have certain responsibilities to each other and to the research project. Ethical issues arise when the interests of these stakeholders are in conflict and when one or more of the stakeholders are lacking in their responsibilities. Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 10


Chapter 2 Defining the Marketing Research Problem and Developing an Approach 1) While every step in a marketing research project is important, research design formulation is the most important step. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 2) A statement of the management decision problem and a broad statement of the general problem and identification of the specific components of the marketing research problem is called problem definition. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 3) Problem audit is a comprehensive examination of a marketing problem to understand its origin and nature. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 4) Problem audit is a comprehensive examination of a marketing department to identify fraud. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 5) The resume of the decision maker is one of the issues discussed with the decision maker during the problem audit. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 6) The alternative courses of action available to the DM is one of the issues discussed with the decision maker during the problem audit. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 2


7) Secondary data are data collected for some purpose other than the problem at hand. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 8) Secondary data are data of secondary importance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 9) According to the text, primary data are an economical and quick source of background information. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 10) Data originated by the researcher specifically to address the research problem are called primary data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 11) Pilot surveys contain fewer open-ended questions than large-scale surveys. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 12) An unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples intended to provide insight and understanding of the problem setting is called quantitative research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 13) Qualitative research is based on large samples and involves statistical analysis. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


14) The political environment is a factor that comprises the environmental context of the problem. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 15) Buyer behavior is a body of knowledge that tries to understand and predict consumers' reactions based on an individual's specific characteristics. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 16) According to the text, buyer behavior is a central component of the environmental context of the problem. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 17) General economic conditions are considered elements of the legal environment. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 18) Marketing and technological skills are considered elements of the environmental context. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 19) The problem confronting the decision maker is typically referred to as the marketing research problem. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 20) The management decision problem asks what information is needed and how it can best be obtained. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


21) According to the text, the marketing research problem is information-oriented. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 22) Focusing on the underlying causes of a problem is a characteristic of a management decision problem. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 23) Focusing on the underlying causes of a problem is a characteristic of the marketing research problem. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 24) A marketing research problem asks what information is needed and how it should be obtained. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 25) Determining the impact on sales and profits of various levels of price changes is an issue that would be addressed in a management decision problem. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 26) Unbiased evidence that is supported by empirical findings is called objective evidence. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 27) A theory is a conceptual scheme based on foundational statements, which are assumed to be true. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


28) An analytical model consists of a set of variables related in a specified manner to represent all or a part of some real system or process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 29) In graphical models, the variables and their relationships are stated in prose form. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 30) Graphical models are particularly helpful in conceptualizing an approach to the problem. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 31) Graphical models explicitly specify the strength and direction of relationships among variables, usually in equation form. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 32) Research questions are refined statements of the specific components of the problem. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 33) An unproven statement or proposition about a factor or phenomenon that is of interest to the researcher is called a theory. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 34) Hypotheses are statements about proposed relationships rather than merely questions to be answered. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


35) An unproven statement or proposition about a factor or phenomenon that is of interest to the researcher is called a hypothesis. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 36) Specification of information needed is one of the components of the marketing research problem. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 37) Specification of information needed is one of the components of the approach to the problem. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 38) By focusing on each component of the problem, the research questions and hypotheses, the researcher can determine what information should be obtained. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 39) Each specific component of the marketing research problem should be further refined by developing one or more research questions and associated hypotheses. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 40) Many international marketing efforts fail because a problem audit is not conducted prior to entering the foreign market, and the relevant environmental factors are not taken into account. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 7


41) In defining the problem and developing an approach, the researcher must be sensitive to the underlying cultural factors that influence consumption and purchase behavior. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 7 42) Analysis of blogs and Facebook postings revealed to Dell that many customers who purchased its computers were having issues with service support. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 43) With the use of social media such as blogs, Facebook, or Twitter, researchers can update consumers on the research that has been ongoing and the actions that have been taken. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 44) It is possible to identify industry experts, and an analysis of their social media sites can provide insights into their thinking as it relates to problems at hand. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 45) A limitation of social media in understanding consumer behavior is that we cannot determine how consumers interact with each other over time. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 46) The researcher is ethically bound to define the problem so as to further the best interest of the research firm, rather than the interest of the client. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 9


47) At times, ethical considerations may involve making the interest of the research firm subservient to the client. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 9 48) While every step in a marketing research project is important, important step. A) problem definition B) problem correction C) research design formulation D) report generation and presentation E) project completion Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1

is the most

49) According to the problem definition and approach development process as given in the text, the tasks involved in problem definition consist of all of the following EXCEPT . A) discussions with the decision makers B) interviews with industry experts C) analysis of project costs D) analysis of secondary data Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 50) According to the problem definition and approach development process as given in the text, the tasks involved in problem definition consist of all of the following EXCEPT . A) discussions with the decision makers B) interviews with industry experts C) analysis of project schedule D) analysis of secondary data E) qualitative research Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


51) According to the problem definition and approach development process as given in the text, the tasks involved in problem definition consist of . A) discussions with the decision makers B) estimates of expected results C) analysis of project costs D) recommendations for decision makers E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 52) According to the problem definition and approach development process as given in the text, the tasks involved in problem definition consist of . A) secondary data analysis B) experimentation C) budgeting of the project D) scheduling of the project E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 53) A statement of the management decision problem and a broad statement of marketing research problem and identification of the specific components is called . A) problem correction B) problem definition C) hypotheses generation D) problem audit E) project conceptualization Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


54) Michael Dell of Dell Computers wants his company to take market share from HewlettPackard and Apple in the category of printers. As his marketing research director, which of the following would NOT be part of the tasks involved in formulating the marketing research problem to support Dell's strategic initiative in selling printers? A) qualitative research B) interviews with experts C) secondary data analysis D) discussions with Michael Dell E) composing the research design Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 55) The provides a useful framework for interacting with the decision maker and identifying the underlying causes of the problem. A) problem audit B) management problem C) problem definition D) research presentation E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 56) To identify the underlying causes of the problem, the researcher should A) conduct a problem audit B) define the management decision problem C) assess what past research was done for the firm D) assess competitor success E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2

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57) is a comprehensive examination of a marketing problem to understand its origin and nature. A) Problem definition B) Problem correction C) Hypotheses generation D) Research directive E) Problem audit Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 58) The problem audit involves discussions with the decision maker on all of the following issues EXCEPT the . A) history of the problem B) criteria that will be used to evaluate the alternative courses of action C) information that is needed to answer the decision maker's questions D) alternative courses of action available to the decision maker E) national culture as it's related to a country's trade barriers Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 59) Interviews with industry experts, those individuals who are knowledgeable about the firm and the industry, may help formulate the marketing research problem. Which of the following statements is true about interviews with industry experts? A) These experts may be found both inside and outside the firm. B) Typically, expert information is obtained by unstructured personal interviews without Administering a formal questionnaire. C) It is helpful to prepare a list of topics to be covered during the interview. D) All of the above are true. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 60) are data collected for some purpose other than the problem at hand. A) Primary data B) Secondary data C) Virtual data D) Observational data E) Research data Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


61) Which of the following is true about secondary data? A) Collection time is long. B) Quality of data is high. C) Cost of collecting the data is low. D) It is easy to access. E) It is highly relevant to marketing research problems. Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 62) According to the text, information. A) primary data B) virtual data C) secondary data D) observational data E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2

are an economical and quick source of background

63) Which of the following is NOT an example of a source of secondary data? A) trade organizations B) Census Bureau C) Internet D) industry associations E) survey data Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 64) Which of the following represents an example of a secondary data source? A) the formula for Coca-Cola B) population census data C) the new models to be introduced by GM in the next three to five years D) interviews E) experiments Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


65) Which sources of secondary data would be helpful in defining the problem of Wendy's increasing its share of the fast food market? A) a field research project to be conducted by Wendy's to answer the question of how to increase its share of the fast food market B) a report from the Fast Food Retailers Association on changing preferences for consumer tastes C) a US Census Bureau report on the changing demographic profile of the US consumer D) all of the above E) B and C only Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 66) Data originated by the researcher specifically to address the research problem are called . A) primary data B) secondary data C) virtual data D) census data E) research data Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 67) An unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples intended to provide insight and understanding of the problem setting is called . A) quantitative research B) qualitative research C) descriptive research D) causal research E) secondary data Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


68) tend to be less structured and to have smaller samples than large-scale surveys. A) Mail surveys B) Pilot surveys C) Online surveys D) Census surveys E) Telephone surveys Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 69) All of the following represent factors that comprise the environmental context of the problem EXCEPT . A) resources of the firm B) objectives of the decision maker C) accounting practices used by the firm twenty years ago D) economic environment E) constraints of the firm Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3 70) is a body of knowledge that tries to understand and predict consumers' reactions based on an individual's specific characteristics. A) Economic behavior B) Organizational behavior C) Buyer behavior D) Ethical behavior E) Census data Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 71) According to the text, is a central component of the environmental context of the problem. A) economic theory B) organizational behavior C) ethical behavior D) stock price of the publicly held company in question E) buyer behavior Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


72) includes the underlying motives, perceptions, attitudes, buying habits, and demographic and psychographic profiles of buyers and potential buyers. A) Buyer behavior B) Economic behavior C) Organizational behavior D) Ethical behavior E) Advertising creativity Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 73) Of which two objectives must the researcher have a clear understanding? A) market share and profitability B) daily and weekly C) financial and non-financial D) return on investment and return on equity E) of the organization and of the decision maker Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 74) Which of the following is NOT considered an element of the legal environment? A) public policies B) general economic conditions C) laws D) government agencies E) pressure groups Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 75) Which of following is NOT an element in the economic environment? A) public policies B) purchasing power C) discretionary income D) general economic conditions E) disposable income Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


76) The problem confronting the decision maker is typically referred to as the A) management decision problem B) theoretical decision problem C) hypothetical decision problem D) marketing research problem E) research context problem Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 77) The management decision problem is A) the shakeup of the management B) the problem confronting the decision maker C) how to boost the stock price D) how to meet objectives E) how to please stockholders Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4

.

78) The marketing research problem asks the question, A) how can we increase market share B) how can we increase sales and profits C) what information is needed and how can it best be obtained D) how can we save money E) where do we go from here Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4

.

79) The asks what information is needed and how can it best be obtained. A) management decision problem B) theoretical decision problem C) hypothetical decision problem D) research context problem E) marketing research problem Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4

.


80) According to the text, the A) marketing research problem B) management decision problem C) theoretical decision problem D) hypothetical decision problem E) research context problem Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4

is information oriented.

81) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a management decision problem? A) focuses on symptoms B) asks what the decision maker needs to do C) is action oriented D) focused on the underlying causes E) All are characteristics of a management decision problem. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 82) Which of the following is a characteristic of a management decision problem? A) tends to focus on symptoms B) asks what the decision maker would do without the need for information C) focuses on the underlying causes D) occurs late in the research process E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 83) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a marketing research problem? A) asks what the decision maker needs to do B) asks what information is needed and how it should be obtained C) is information oriented D) focuses on the underlying causes E) All are characteristics. Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


84) Which of the following is NOT an issue that would be addressed in a management decision problem? A) Should the advertising campaign be changed? B) Should the price of the product be changed? C) Determine the impact on sales and profits of various levels of price changes. D) What can a company do to expand its share of its product category? E) B and C Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 4 85) Unbiased evidence that is supported by empirical findings is called A) objective evidence B) sound evidence C) legal evidence D) subjective evidence E) research data Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6

.

86) A(n) is a conceptual scheme based on foundation statements, which are assumed to be true. A) experiment B) theory C) objective D) incident E) investigation Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 87) An explicit specification of a set of variables and their interrelationships designed to represent some real system or process in whole or in part is called _. A) an analytical model B) a theory C) a hypothesis D) an objective E) broad-based research Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


88) Which of the following is a common form of a model discussed in the text? A) verbal model B) graphical model C) mathematical model D) technological model E) causal model Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 89) In , the variables and their relationships are depicted in a diagram. A) verbal models B) graphical models C) mathematical models D) technological models E) provisional models Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 90) are visual and pictorially represent the theory. A) Graphical models B) Mathematical models C) Verbal models D) Technological models E) Cartoons Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 91) Which of the following models are used to isolate variables and to suggest directions of relationships but are not designed to provide numerical results? A) graphical models B) mathematical models C) verbal models D) technological models E) specific models Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


92) are refined statements of the specific components of the problem. A) Research questions B) Theories C) Hypotheses D) Experiments E) Scientific information Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 93) An unproved statement or proposition about a factor or phenomenon that is of interest to the researcher is called a(n) . A) theory B) hypothesis C) model D) experiment E) relationship Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 94) A hypothesis is a possible answer to a A) management decision problem B) marketing research problem C) theory D) research question E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6

.

95) are statements about proposed relationships rather than merely questions to be answered. A) Theories B) Models C) Experiments D) Hypotheses E) Scientific notations Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


96) An unproven statement or proposition about a factor or phenomenon that is of interest to the researcher is called a(n) . A) situation B) incident C) hypothesis D) theory E) research question Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 97) The researcher can determine what information should be obtained by focusing on . A) the components of the problem B) research questions C) hypotheses D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 98) Many international marketing efforts fail because . A) the researcher cannot understand the language B) the relevant environmental factors are not taken into account C) the researcher is incompetent D) funds are not provided to conduct the research E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 7


99) In a short essay, list and discuss at least three important issues that are discussed with decision makers when a problem audit is conducted. Answer: a. The history of the problem — this is a discussion of the events that led to the decision to act. b. The alternate courses of action available to the decision maker — the set of alternatives may be incomplete at this stage, and qualitative research may be needed to identify the more innovative courses of action. c. The information that is needed to answer the decision maker's questions — the information needed includes a comparison of all elements of the marketing mix in order to determine relative strengths and weaknesses. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 100) In a short essay, discuss the differences between primary and secondary data. Include a specific example of each to support your answer. Answer: Secondary data are data collected for some purpose other than the problem at hand, such as data available from trade organizations, the Bureau of Census, and the Internet. Primary data, on the other hand, are originated by the researcher for the specific problem under study, such as survey data. Secondary data include information made available by business and government sources, commercial marketing research firms, and computerized databases. Secondary data are an economical and quick source of background information. Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 101) In a short essay, discuss the differences between a management decision problem and a marketing research problem. Answer: The management decision problem asks what the decision maker needs to do, whereas the marketing research problem asks what information is needed and how can it best be obtained. The management decision problem is action-oriented, framed from the perspective of what should be done, and focuses on the symptoms not the underlying causes. It asks questions such as "How should the loss of market share be arrested? Should the market be segmented differently? Should a new problem be introduced? Should the promotional budget be increased?" In contrast, the marketing research problem is information-oriented. Research is directed at providing the information necessary to make a sound decision. The marketing research problem focuses on the underlying causes. Examples of this type of problem include the determination of the effectiveness of the current advertising campaign and the determination of the impact on sales and problems of various levels of price changes. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


102) In a short essay, discuss the characteristics of an analytical model and list and discuss the three most common forms of this model. Answer: An analytical model consists of a set of variables related in a specified manner to represent all or a part of some real system or process. Models can take many forms. The most common are verbal, graphical, and mathematical structures. In verbal models, the variables and their relationships are stated in prose form. These models are often a summary or restatement of the main points of the theory. Graphical models are visual and pictorially represent the theory. They are used to isolate variables and to suggest directions of relationships but are not designed to provide numerical results. They are logical, preliminary steps to developing mathematical models. Mathematical models explicitly specify the strength and direction of relationships among variables, usually in equation form. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 103) In a short essay, discuss the characteristics of research questions and a hypothesis. Answer: a. Research questions are refined statements of the specific components of the problem. A problem component may break into several research questions. Research questions are designed to ask the specific information required to address each problem component. Research questions that successfully address the problem components will provide valuable information for the decision maker. The formulation of the research questions should be guided, not only by the problem definition, but also by the analytical framework and the model adopted. b. A hypothesis is an unproven statement or proposition about a factor or phenomenon that is of interest to the researcher. It may be a tentative statement about the relationships discussed in the theoretical framework or represented in the analytic model. The hypothesis may also be stated as a possible answer to the research question. Hypotheses are statements about proposed relationships rather than merely questions to be answered. They reflect the researchers' expectation and can be tested empirically. Hypotheses also play the important role of suggesting variables to be included in the research design. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


Chapter 3 Research Design, Secondary and Syndicated Data 1) The research design is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project that specifies the procedures necessary to obtain the information needed to structure and/or solve the marketing research problem. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 2) A type of research design that has as its primary objective the provision of insights into and comprehension of the problem situation confronting the researcher is called conclusive research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 3) Exploratory research is research conducted to gain ideas and insight into the problem confronting the management or the researcher. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 4) Conclusive research should be used when management realizes a problem exists but does not yet understand why. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 5) Conclusive research is conducted on a small and nonrepresentative sample, so the findings should be regarded as tentative and should be used as building blocks for further research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 6) Research designed to assist the decision maker in determining, evaluating, and selecting the best course of action in a given situation is called subjective research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


7) Conclusive research is based on the assumption that the researcher has an accurate understanding of the problem at hand. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 8) According to the text, the objective of exploratory research is to test specific hypotheses and examine specific relationships. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 9) Exploratory research is typically more formal and structured than conclusive research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 10) The objective of causal research is discovery of ideas and insights. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 11) A characteristic of descriptive research is that it is often the front end of total research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 12) Descriptive research is a type of exploratory research that has as its major objective the description of something — usually market characteristics or functions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 13) A cause-and-effect study is a major type of descriptive study. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


14) A type of research design involving the one-time collection of information from any given sample of population elements is called longitudinal design. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 15) Cross-sectional design is a type of research design involving a fixed sample of population elements that is measured repeatedly. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 16) According to the text, a longitudinal design provides a series of pictures, which track the changes that take place over time. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 17) A panel consists of a sample of respondents, generally households that have agreed to provide information over an extended period. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 18) Causal research is a type of conclusive research whose major objective is to obtain evidence regarding cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 19) According to the text, the main method of causal research is a panel. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 20) When little is known about the problem situation, it is desirable to begin with descriptive research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


21) Social media can be appropriate for conducting exploratory and descriptive research but not causal research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 9 22) Secondary data is data originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the research problem. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 23) Primary data represents any data that have already been collected for purposes other than the problem at hand. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 24) According to the text, the collection process of secondary data is rapid and easy compared to the collection process of primary data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 25) Compared to the collection cost of primary data, secondary data is more expensive. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 26) As compared to primary data, secondary data are collected rapidly and easily, at a relatively low cost, and in a short time. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 27) According to the text, a basic rule of research is to examine secondary data first. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


28) The value of secondary data is typically limited by their degree of fit with the current research problem and by concerns regarding data accuracy. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 29) The research design specifications or the methodology used to collect secondary data should be examined to identify sources of bias. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 30) Availability is mentioned in the text as a primary criterion for evaluating secondary data. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 31) An overall indication of the dependability of the data may be obtained by examining the cost of the source. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 32) External data is data that originates outside of the client organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 33) Accounting records, sales reports, and internal experts are typical sources of internal secondary data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 34) Data mining is marketing that involves using powerful computers with advanced statistical and other software to analyze large databases to discover hidden patterns in the data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 5


35) CRM databases can be analyzed in terms of a customer's activity over the life of the business relationship. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 5 36) External sources may be broadly classified as general business/non-government data, government data, or syndicated data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 37) A focus group is an example of a general business source of external secondary data. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 38) A company's blog, Facebook page, or Twitter account can generate rich internal secondary data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 9 39) The posts from social media such as blogs or Facebook "fan" pages give an informative account of consumer perception and preference with regard to the problem at hand. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 9 40) Companies that collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs shared by a number of clients are called syndicated services or syndicated sources. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


41) Customized services make their money by collecting data and designing research products that fit the information needs of more than one organization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 42) Interviews with a large number of respondents using a predesigned questionnaire are called observations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 43) Panel surveys collect data on the same set of variables at regular intervals, each time sampling from a new group of respondents. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 44) Periodic surveys measure the same group of respondents over time but not necessarily on the same variables. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 45) An advantage of scanner volume-tracking data is being the most flexible way of obtaining data. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 46) Verifications of product movement by examining physical records or performing inventory analysis are characteristics of audits. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


47) Audits can help consumer product firms determine the size of the total market and distribution of sales by type of outlet and by different regions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 48) Psychometrics refers to the psychological profiles of individuals and to psychologically based measures of lifestyle, such as brand loyalty and risk taking. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 49) "Lifestyles" refer to the distinctive models of living of a society or some of its segments. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 50) According to the text, surveys are the primary means of obtaining information about consumers' motives, attitudes, and preferences. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 51) Scanner data are data obtained by passing merchandise over a laser scanner that reads the UPC code from the packages. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 52) Scanner data that provides information on purchases by brand, size, price, and flavor or formulation are called volume-tracking data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 53) The three types of scanner data that are available are scanner panels, volume-tracking data, and scanner panels with cable TV. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


54) Scanner panels collect scanner data wherein panel members are issued an ID card allowing panel members' purchases to be linked to their identities. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 55) The collection of product movement data for wholesalers and retailers is called a focus group. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 56) A physical audit is a formal examination and verification of product movement carried out by examining physical records or analyzing inventory. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 57) Syndicated services or sources can be classified based on the unit of measurement. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 58) Which statement is NOT true about research design? A) Research design is a framework for conducting the marketing research project. B) Research design specifies the measurement and scaling procedures. C) Research design is undertaken before developing the approach to the problem. D) Research design is undertaken after the marketing research problem is defined. Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


59) The is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project that specifies the procedures necessary to obtain the information needed to structure and/or solve the marketing research problem. A) problem definition B) research design C) fieldwork design D) data preparation and analysis E) research directive Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 60) A type of research design that has as its primary objective the provision of insights into and comprehension of the problem situation confronting the researcher is called . A) conclusive research B) descriptive research C) causal research D) exploratory research E) insight research Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 61) is research conducted to gain ideas and insight into the problem confronting the management or the researcher. A) Exploratory research B) Conclusive research C) Descriptive research D) Causal research E) Directed research Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


62) Which of the following types of research design should be used when management realizes a problem exists but does not yet understand why? A) conclusive research B) exploratory research C) descriptive research D) causal research E) expeditionary research Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 63) is conducted on a small and nonrepresentative sample, so the findings should be regarded as tentative and should be used as building blocks for further research. A) Causal research B) Exploratory research C) Conclusive research D) Descriptive research E) Focused research Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 64) research is typically more formal and structured than A) Exploratory; conclusive B) Conclusive; exploratory C) Exploratory; descriptive D) Subjective; observational E) Lead; supporting Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1

research.

65) Large, representative samples are used to collect data that are analyzed with statistical techniques for which of the following types of research designs? A) subjective research B) exploratory research C) conclusive research D) observational research E) supporting research Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


66) Descriptive research is a type of that has as its major objective the description of something — usually market characteristics or functions. A) subjective research B) exploratory research C) conclusive research D) observational research E) supporting research Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 67) is particularly useful whenever research questions relate to describing a market phenomenon, such as frequency of purchase, identifying relationships, or making predictions. A) Descriptive research B) Exploratory research C) Causal research D) Subjective research E) Identifying research Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 68) Which of the following is NOT an example of a descriptive research goal? A) to develop a profile of a target market B) to determine the cause of a sales decrease C) to estimate the frequency of product use as a basis for sales forecasts D) to determine the degree to which marketing variables are associated E) to determine the relationship between product use and perception of product characteristics Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 69) assumes that the researcher has prior knowledge about the problem situation. A) Exploratory research B) Descriptive research C) Objective research D) Subjective research E) Lead research Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


70) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of descriptive research? A) based on data that is collected using small, nonrepresentative samples B) based on a clear statement of the problem C) based on specific hypotheses D) based on specification of the information needed E) collection of data in a structured fashion Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 71) Which of the following is NOT one of the major types of descriptive studies? A) internally or externally focused sales studies B) consumer perception and behavior studies C) cause-and-effect qualitative studies D) market characteristic studies E) consumer behavior studies Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 72) A type of research design involving the one-time collection of information from any given sample of population elements is called . A) cross-sectional design B) longitudinal design C) horizontal design D) vertical design E) conditional design Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 73) is a type of research design involving a fixed sample of population elements that is measured repeatedly. A) Cross-sectional design B) Longitudinal design C) Horizontal design D) Vertical design E) Fixed design Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


74) According to the text, a take place over time. A) cross-sectional design B) longitudinal design C) horizontal design D) vertical design E) photographic design Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1

provides a series of pictures, which track the changes that

75) A(n) consists of a sample of respondents, generally households that have agreed to provide information over an extended period. A) focus group B) panel C) hypothesis D) theory E) research mix Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 76) Which of the following is an example of a longitudinal design in a descriptive research project? A) surveys involving 600 mall intercepts in six major cities to determine the likes and dislikes of health food B) a variety of promotional offers displayed in stores, with each group of respondents seeing only one offer and the resulting brand sales would be monitored. C) a panel that consists of households that provide purchasing information at specified intervals over an extended period D) a cross-sectional study of the elderly held once at the end of the fiscal year E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


77) is a type of conclusive research whose major objective is to obtain evidence regarding cause-and-effect relationships. A) Descriptive research B) Causal research C) Exploratory research D) Subjective research E) Conditional research Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 78) According to the text, the main method of causal research is a(n) A) panel B) focus group C) survey D) experiment E) client project Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1

.

79) Which of the following is the best example in which to apply causal research? A) the Andrew Jergens Company periodically conducting surveys to measure consumer's perceptions, attitudes and use of soap bars and related personal care products B) to determine the relationship between sales promotion and advertising expenditures and sales of Mercedes C) to gain insights on why Nokia is losing market share in Asia D) to understand how consumers evaluate the Home Depot brand compared to competing brands E) one-on-one depth interviews matching respondents and interviewers by gender Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 80) When little is known about the problem situation, it is desirable to begin with A) causal research B) descriptive research C) exploratory research D) observational research E) conditional research Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1

.


81) is very versatile and can be used at any point in a study. A) Causal research B) Descriptive research C) Exploratory research D) Observational research E) Provisional research Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 82) Which of the following is NOT a task a researcher must perform in formulating a research design? A) specify the information needed B) determine how to make the research design error free C) specify the measurement and scaling procedures D) determine the sampling process and sample size E) develop a plan of analysis Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 83) When conducting exploratory research overseas in a country such as Saudi Arabia on the topic of attitudes toward household appliances, it would be most effective to conduct A) focus groups of husbands, wives, and children B) only secondary data collection C) focus groups composed of both males and females D) interviews with several in-country experts now living in the United States E) one-on-one depth interviews matching respondents and interviewers by gender Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 8 84) is data originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the research problem. A) Primary data B) Secondary data C) Experimental data D) Virtual data E) Problem-focused data Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

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85) Which of the following types of data represent any data that have already been collected for purposes other than the problem at hand? A) primary data B) secondary data C) experimental data D) virtual data E) special data Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 86) According to the text, the collection process of secondary data is collection process of primary data. A) very involved B) the same C) rapid and easy D) not correlated E) long and involved Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3

compared to the

87) Compared to the collection cost of primary data, secondary data is A) more expensive B) approximately the same cost C) less expensive D) nonexistent E) more elusive Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3

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88) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of secondary data? A) the objectives, nature, and methods used to collect the secondary data may not be appropriate to the present situation B) may lack in accuracy C) may be expensive and time consuming D) may not be completely current E) may lack relevance Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


89) According to the text, a basic rule of research is to A) examine primary data first B) examine secondary data first C) examine experimental data first D) examine virtual data first E) examine special data first Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3

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90) Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text as a primary criterion for evaluating secondary data? A) specifications B) error C) currency D) availability E) objective Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 91) If the key variables have not been defined or are defined in a manner inconsistent with the researcher's definition, then the usefulness of the data is limited. This statement refers to the criteria for evaluating secondary data. A) nature B) objective C) error/accuracy D) currency E) relevance Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 92) An overall indication of the dependability of the data may be obtained by examining all of the following EXCEPT the . A) expertise of the source B) reputation of the source C) trustworthiness of the source D) cost of the source E) source being the original source rather than an acquired source Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


93) is data that originates outside of the client organization. A) Internal data B) External data C) Modular data D) Secondary data E) Supporting data Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 94) is marketing that involves using powerful computers with advanced statistical and other software to analyze large databases to discover hidden patterns in the data. A) Data mining B) Mass marketing C) Parallel marketing D) Traditional marketing E) Competitive intelligence Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 5 95) A is a centralized database that consolidates company-wide data from a variety of operational systems. A) syndicated service B) bibliography C) competitive intelligence system D) Standard Industry Classification (SIC) system E) data warehouse Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 5 96) Psychographics refers to . A) qualitative inventories of business personalities B) pictorial renderings of individuals' psychological traits C) psychological assessments of consumers' behavior D) graphic depictions of psychological testing results E) quantified psychological profiles of individuals Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


97) According to the text, A) Nielsen B) Yahoo! C) Arbitron D) the U.S. government E) Microsoft Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5

is the largest source of secondary data in the United States.

98) Which of the following is true about census data? A) The information in census data is available in only one form. B) The data can be geographically categorized at various levels of detail. C) Census data does not need to be detailed as long as it is accurate. D) Integrating enhanced census data with internal company databases is a waste of secondary sources. E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 99) Which of the following describes information services offered by marketing research organizations that provide information from a common database to firms that subscribe to the service? A) syndicated services B) primary services C) secondary services D) modular services E) online services Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 100) Comparisons between numerical data from different countries can be difficult because of all of the following EXCEPT . A) units of measurement might differ B) accuracy may vary across countries C) frequency of census data collection can differ D) differences in tax evasion rates affect reported business income E) language differs across countries Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 8


101) According to the text, what is an ethical responsibility of a research agency? A) To use all forms of data, as well as data obtained from any source — internal or external. B) Discussion about all issues surrounding the relevance and accuracy of the secondary data used with the client should be done only when required by law. C) After a detailed analysis of secondary data has been conducted, the researcher should reexamine the collection of primary data stipulated in the proposal. D) Privacy related to the client's issues is not as important as safe keeping of the client's databases. E) B and D are valid statements. Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 10 102) Companies that collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs shared by a number of clients are called . A) syndicated services /sources B) data processing services C) field services D) qualitative research services E) pooling services Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 103) make their money by collecting data and designing research products that fit the information needs of more than one organization. A) Data processing services B) Syndicated services C) Field services D) Qualitative research services E) Pooling services Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


104) Which of the following are the two types of general surveys? A) periodic and panel B) panel and shared C) shared and periodic D) cross-sectional and shared E) quasi and true Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 105) Syndicated sources can be classified based on units of measurement, such as . A) observations; insights B) surveys; interviews C) qualitative; quantitative D) secondary; primary E) households/consumer; institutions Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6

and

106) collect data on the same set of variables at regular intervals, each time sampling from a new group of respondents. A) Periodic surveys B) Panel surveys C) Shared surveys D) Parallel surveys E) Regular surveys Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 107) Which of the following types of general surveys measure the same group of respondents over time but not necessarily on the same variables? A) periodic surveys B) panel surveys C) shared surveys D) parallel surveys E) regular surveys Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


108) For which of the following types of syndicated services do electronic devices automatically record behavior that supplement a diary? A) purchase panels B) audit services C) surveys D) media panels E) online surveys Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 109) Verification of product movement by examining physical records or performing inventory analysis are characteristics of which of the following types of syndicated services? A) surveys B) audits C) purchase panels D) media panels E) movement exams Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 110) Relatively precise information at the retail and wholesale levels is an advantage of which of the following syndicated services? A) media panels B) surveys C) purchase panels D) movement exams E) audit services Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 111) refer to the psychological profiles of individuals and to psychologically based measures of lifestyle, such as brand loyalty and risk taking. A) Psychometrics B) Psychographics C) Demographics D) Geodemographics E) Ego-profiling Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


112) The distinctive models of living of a society or some of its segments refers to A) geodemographics B) lifestyles C) psychometrics D) demographics E) usage segments Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6

.

113) According to the text, are the primary means of obtaining information about consumers' motives, attitudes, and preferences. A) surveys B) focus groups C) secondary research D) experiments E) in-depth interviews Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 114) Purchase panel respondents like those on NPD's Online Panel provide detailed information on all of the following EXCEPT . A) brand and amount purchased B) price paid C) special deals used D) store where purchased E) All of the above are provided by those NPD respondents. Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 115) A data gathering technique that is comprised of samples of respondents whose television viewing behavior is automatically recorded by electronic devices is referred to as . A) scanner panels/cable TV B) scanner panels C) purchase panels D) media panels Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


116) are data obtained by passing merchandise over a laser scanner that reads the UPC code from the packages. A) Scanner data B) Secondary data C) Qualitative data D) Modular data E) Cashier data Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 117) Scanner data where panel members are identified by an ID card allowing each panel member's purchases to be stored with respect to the individual shopper are referred to as . A) scanner panels with cable TV B) volume tracking data C) scanner panels D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 118) Scanner data that provides information on purchases by brand, size, price, and flavor or formulation are called . A) segmenting data B) volume-tracking data C) secondary data D) modular data E) audiologs Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 119) Which of the following is a type of scanner data that is currently available? A) scanner panels B) modular data C) volume-tracking data D) scanner panels with cable TV E) A, C, and D Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6


120) The collection of product movement data for wholesalers and retailers is called a(n) . A) audit B) panel C) survey D) focus group E) movement exam Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 121) If a company is interested in determining the in-store shelf exposure of their brand versus competitive brands, the most effective way to obtain this information is via . A) scanner data B) in-store intercepts where consumers were observed purchasing a product in a particular category C) telephone interviews with individuals who made a recent purchase in a particular category D) an audit E) panel data from individuals in the interested category Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 122) provide secondary data derived from industrial and organizational sources that are intended for industrial or institutional use. A) Industrial Firms/Organizations B) Single-source services C) Customized services D) Retail services E) Movement services Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


123) An effort to combine data from different sources by gathering integrated information on household and marketing variables applicable to the same set of respondents is called A) single-source data B) dual-source data C) multiple-source data D) qualitative data E) cashier data Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7 124) Information gathered from social media is used to A) understand the market B) answer clients' concerns C) connect to consumers and potential participants D) conduct online research E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 9

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125) Which of the following practices might be unethical? A) the use of secondary data alone when the research requires primary data collection B) The client is billed a fixed fee for the project. C) the unnecessary collection of expensive primary data when the research problem can be addressed based on secondary sources alone D) Both A and C are correct. Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 10

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126) Regarding supermarket loyalty cards, a shopper provides demographic and shoppingrelated information when applying for the cards. At check-out, the UPC-coded loyalty cards are swiped prior to scanning the items for purchase. Typically, databases gather the list of items that are scanned at check-out and match them to the shopper's records. A) Maintaining these databases reduces grocery-store profits by 11 percent each year. B) In 2004, Congress proposed legislation limiting loyalty card programs. C) The supermarkets' data from these loyalty programs cannot be sold to syndicated research firms. D) Forty percent of supermarkets have reported increased sales as a result of implementing their loyalty card programs. E) Most consumers are unaware that the supermarkets have all this information on them. Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 10 127) Informed consent is an ethical principle which . A) applies to the contracts between clients and research agencies B) applies primarily to syndicate firms C) deals with requests for social security numbers from respondents D) occurs when retailers don't take title to goods until they are purchased by customers E) requires researchers to avoid both uninformed and misinformed participation in marketing research projects Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 10


128) In a short essay, discuss the differences between exploratory and conclusive research. Answer: a. Exploratory research is research conducted to explore the problem situation, that is, to gain ideas and insight into the problem confronting the management or the researcher. Exploratory research may be used when management realizes a problem exists but does not yet understand why. Because the information needs are only loosely defined at this stage, exploratory research must be flexible and unstructured. Exploratory research is conducted on a small and nonrepresentative sample, so the findings should be regarded as tentative and should be used as building blocks for further research. b. Conclusive research is research designed to assist the decision maker in determining, evaluating, and selecting the best course of action in a given situation. Conclusive research is based on the assumption that the researcher has an accurate understanding of the problem at hand. The objective of conclusive research is to test specific hypotheses and examine specific relationships. Conclusive research is typically more formal and structured than exploratory research. The researcher specifies the detailed steps in the research to be conducted prior to initiating the project. Large, representative samples are used to collect data that are analyzed with statistical techniques. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 129) Compare and contrast the exploratory, descriptive, and causal research designs. Answer: The objective of exploratory design is to discover ideas and insights; of descriptive design is to describe market characteristics; of causal design to determine cause and effect of functions. The characteristics of exploratory design include flexibility, versatility, and that it is often used as the front end of total research design. The characteristics of descriptive design include its preplanned and structured design and that it is marked by the prior formulation of specific hypotheses. The characteristics of causal design include the fact that mediating variables must be controlled for and that one or more independent variables are manipulated. Methods using exploratory design include expert surveys, pilot surveys, secondary data (which is analyzed qualitatively), and qualitative research. Methods using descriptive design include secondary data (which is analyzed quantitatively), surveys, panels, and observational and other data. Methods using causal design include experiments. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


130) In a short essay, discuss the relationships among exploratory, descriptive, and causal research and provide some basic guidelines discussing the appropriate situation in which to apply each type of research design. Include a specific example of each research design type to support your answer. Answer: When little is known about the problem situation, it is desirable to begin with exploratory research. For example, exploratory research is suitable for generating alternative courses of action, research questions, or hypotheses. Exploratory research can then be followed by descriptive or causal research. It is not necessary to begin every research design with exploratory research. If the researcher has a good understanding of the problem situation, descriptive or causal research may be a more appropriate initial step. Annual consumer satisfaction surveys are an example of research that need not begin with or include an exploratory phrase. Exploratory research can be used at any point in a study. For example, when descriptive or causal research leads to results that are unexpected or difficult to interpret, the researcher may turn to exploratory research for insight. Exploratory and descriptive designs are frequently used in commercial marketing research, but causal research is not as popular. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 131) In a short essay, list the six tasks that a researcher must typically perform in formulating a research design. Answer: a. Specify the information needed. b. Design the exploratory, descriptive, and/or causal phases of the research. c. Specify the measurement and scaling procedures. d. Construct and pretest a questionnaire or an appropriate form for data collection. e. Specify the sampling process and sample size. f. Develop a plan of data analysis. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


132) What would you say is a unifying theme for the Ethics in Marketing Research examples related to research design in Chapter 3? Justify your answer. Answer: One important theme in the ethics examples featured in Chapter 3 was simply "communicating honesty from the start." Other ways of saying this is "truthfulness," or "integrity." The research agency must honestly fulfill its role from the beginning to the end. Honesty between the researcher and the client will lead the researcher to match the right design with the needs of the business at that time. If a longitudinal design is needed, as in the case of brand switching, then it must be done. If the research firm has no experience in doing a longitudinal design, then this must be disclosed at the outset along with the ways the research agency will ensure quality (such as contracting for a consultant to guide them, or for another firm to actually execute this part of the project. A research firm that justifies the use of a crosssectional design simply because it has no experience in conducting longitudinal studies is behaving unethically. Also, if customer contact has to be restricted or if time is an issue, the client should make these constraints known at the start of the project. Honesty is also needed from client firms at the start of projects. Theft of ideas must always be avoided. It would be unethical for a client to extract details from a proposal submitted by one research firm and pass them on to another who actually would do the project for the client. A proposal is the property of the research firm that prepared it, unless the client has paid for it. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 10 133) In a short essay, discuss the advantages and uses of secondary data. Include a discussion of the disadvantages of secondary data to support your answer. Answer: a. The main advantages of secondary data are the time and money they can save. While it is rare for secondary data to provide all the answers to a nonroutine research problem, analysis of secondary data should always be the first step taken toward solving a research problem. Secondary data can help a researcher (1) identify the problem, (2) better understand and define the problem, (3) develop an approach to the problem, (4) formulate an appropriate research design, (5) answer certain research questions and test some hypotheses, and (6) interpret primary data with more insight. Given these advantages and uses of secondary data, the basic rule of research is to examine available secondary data first. The research project should proceed to primary data collection only when secondary data sources have been exhausted or yield marginal returns. b. The value of secondary data is typically limited by their degree of fit to the current research problem and by concerns regarding data accuracy. The objectives, nature, and methods used to collect secondary data may not be compatible with the present situation. Also, secondary data may be lacking in terms of its accuracy, compatibility of units of measurement, or time frame. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


134) In a short essay, list and discuss at least five specific criteria that are essential for evaluating secondary data. Answer: a. Specifications: Methodology used to collect the data — the research design specifications should be critically examined to identify possible sources of bias. Factors such as the size and nature of the sample, response rate and quality, questionnaire design and administration, procedures used for fieldwork, and data analysis and reporting procedures are all important in identifying potential error as well as relevance of the data. b. Error: Accuracy of the data — both secondary and primary data can have errors, stemming from the research approach, research design, sampling, data collection, analysis, and reporting stages of the project. Moreover, it is difficult to evaluate the accuracy of secondary data when the researcher has not directly participated in the research. The further removed the inquiring research is from the originating data source, the greater the possibility of problems with accuracy. c. Currency: When the data were collected — secondary data may not be current. There may be a time lag between data collection and publication, as is the case with census data. Additionally, the data may not be updated frequently enough to answer questions related to the problem at hand. Marketing research requires current data; therefore, the value of secondary data is diminished as they become dated. d. Objective: The purpose for the study — understanding why secondary data were originally collected can sensitize the researcher to the limitations of using them for the current marketing problem. The originating purpose of a previous research study may be irrelevant to the research problem at hand. e. Nature: The content of the data — the nature, or content, of the data should be examined with special attention to the definition of key variables, the units of measurement, categories used, and the relationships examined. One of the most frustrating limitations of secondary data comes from differences in definition, units of measurement, time frame examined, or questionable assumptions regarding the relationships of key variables. f. Dependability: Overall, how dependable are the data? An overall indication of the dependability of the data may be obtained by examining the expertise, credibility, reputation, and trustworthiness of the source. This information can be obtained by checking with others who have used information this source provides. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


135) In a short essay, explain the appeal of census data to marketers. Answer: a. Relevant data captured. Census data are useful in a variety of marketing research projects. The demographic data collected by the Census Bureau includes information about household types, sex, age, marital status, and race. Consumption detail related to automobile ownership, housing characteristics, work status, and practices as well as occupations are just a few of the categories of information available. b. Geographical focus. What makes this demographic information particularly valuable to marketers is that these data can be geographically categorized at various levels of detail. These data can be summarized at various levels: city block, block group, census tract, metropolitan statistical area (MSA), consolidated metropolitan statistical area (CMSA), region (Northeast, Midwest, South, and West), or they can be aggregated for the nation as a whole. Census tracts have a population of more than 4000 and are defined by local communities. In urban areas, the MSAs have a population of at least 50,000 and are comprised of counties containing a central city. In addition, census data are available by civil divisions such as ward, cities, counties, and state. c. High quality of data. In general, the quality of census data is quite high, and the data are often extremely detailed. d. Available in a variety of forms. To facilitate business analysis, this information is available in multiple forms. One can purchase computer tapes, diskettes, or CD-ROMs from the Census Bureau for a nominal fee and recast this information into the desired format. Important census data include Census of Housing, Census of Manufacturers, Census of Population, Census of Retail Trade, Census of Service Industries, and Census of Wholesale Trade. Nielsen's PRIZM uses census data. Integrating enhanced census data with internal company databases is a useful application of multiple secondary sources. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 136) In a short essay, list and discuss the two types of general surveys used to collect syndicated data. Answer: a. Periodic surveys collect data on the same set of variables at regular intervals, each time sampling a new group of respondents. Like longitudinal research, periodic surveys track change over time. However, the changes due to variation in the respondent pool are not controlled in the way it is true for longitudinal studies. A new sample of respondents is chosen, with each survey taken by the syndicate firm. Once analyzed, the data are made available to subscribers. b. Panel surveys measure the same group of respondents over time but not necessarily on the same variables. A large pool of respondents is recruited to participate on the panel. From this pool, different subsamples of respondents may be drawn for different surveys. Any of the survey techniques may be used, including mail, telephone, or personal or electronic interviewing. The content and topic of the surveys vary and cover a wide range. Panel surveys are used primarily because of their lower cost compared to random sampling. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


137) In a short essay describe the characteristics of a consumer panel and discuss the uses of this type of panel. Next, list and discuss the two classifications of panels. Answer: a. A panel is made up of a group of individuals, households, or organizations that record their purchases and behavior in a diary over time. Households are continually being recruited and added to the panel as respondents drop out of the study or are removed in order to rotate the panel. The makeup of the panel is designed to be representative of the U.S. population in terms of demographics. These panels are used to provide information useful for forecasting sales, estimating market shares, assessing brand loyalty and brand switching behavior, establishing profiles of specific user groups, measuring promotional effectiveness, and conducting controlled store tests. Based on the content of information recorded, panels can be classified as purchase panels or media panels. b. A purchase panel is a data-gathering technique in which respondents record their purchases in a diary. A media panel is composed of samples of respondents whose television viewing or other media consumption behavior is automatically recorded by electronic devices, supplementing the purchase information recorded in a diary. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 138) What are purchase panels and media panels? Develop examples of marketing situations where you would use each. Be sure to explain the type of information you would collect and the makeup of the panel respondents. Answer: In purchase panels respondents record their purchases online or in a diary. Media panels comprise samples of respondents whose television viewing or other media consumption behavior is automatically recorded by electronic devices supplementing the purchase information recorded online or in a diary. Students should give their own examples. Complete information on the NPD Group and the Nielsen Co. examples given here are in the text. NPD uses purchase panels to gather information on consumer behaviors on a wide range of product categories including food, fashion, fun, house and home, tech, and auto. Detailed information is gathered on the brand, amount purchased, price paid, intended use, and more. The composition of the panel is representative of the U.S. population as a whole. A recent study identified the top 5 women's accessory purchases. Nielsen uses People Meters to measure audiences for local television 4 times a year in the 210 TV markets in the country. Viewers write in diaries who watched, what channel they watched, and what program they watched. Five thousand households are randomly selected by Nielsen so as to be representative of the U.S. population. Using these data, Nielsen estimates the number and percentage of all TV household viewing a given show. The information is disaggregated by 10 demographic and socioeconomic characteristics. The Nielsen Index is useful to firms in selecting specific TV programs on which to air their commercials. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


139) In a short essay, list and discuss the three types of scanner data. Answer: a. Volume-tracking data are data routinely collected by supermarkets and other outlets with electronic checkout counters. When the consumer purchases are scanned, the data are automatically entered into a computer. These data provide information on purchases by brand, size, price, and flavor or formulation, based on sales data collected from the checkout scanner tapes. However, this information cannot be linked to background characteristics of consumers since their identities are not recorded when their purchases are scanned. b. Scanner panels provide each household member an ID card that can be read by the electronic scanner at the cash register. The scanner panel members simply present the ID card at the checkout counter each time they shop. In this way, consumer identity is linked to products purchased as well as the time and day of the shopping trip, and the firm can build a shopping record for that individual. c. Scanner panels with cable TV combines panels with new technologies growing out of the cable TV industry. Households on these panels subscribe to one of the cable TV systems in their market. By means of a cable TV "split," the researcher targets various commercials into the homes of the panel members. These panels allow researchers to conduct fairly controlled experiments in a relatively natural environment. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 140) In a short essay, describe an audit and list at least four uses of audit data. Answer: A physical audit is a formal examination and verification of product movement carried out by examining physical records or analyzing inventory. These audits track inventory flow, current inventory levels, and the impact of both promotional and pricing programs on inventory levels. Standardized as well as customized reports are available to help subscribers manage their brands. These reports provide information that can be used to (1) determine market size and share for both categories and brands by type of outlet, region, or city; (2) assess competitive activity; (3) identify distribution problems including shelf space allocation and inventory issues; (4) develop sales potentials and forecasts; and (5) develop and monitor promotional allocations based on sales volume. Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


141) In a short essay, describe the uses of scanner data and list at least three advantages and three disadvantages of using scanner data. Answer: Scanner data are useful for a variety of purposes. National volume-tracking data can be used for tracking sales, prices, distribution, modeling, and analyzing early warning signals. Scanner panels with cable TV can be used for testing new products, repositioning products, analyzing promotional mix, and making advertising and pricing decisions. These panels provide marketing researchers with a unique controlled environment for the manipulation of marketing variables. a. The advantages of using scanner data include having the data available more quickly and also that the data is typically more accurate than data collected through either surveys or panels. Errors due to failures in recall are also eliminated with electronic data collection. Another advantage is that in-store variables such as pricing, promotions, and displays are also recorded. Finally, a scanner panel with cable TV provides a highly controlled test environment for alternate promotional messages. b. The disadvantages of using scanner data include its lack of representativeness. Another disadvantage is that the quality of scanner data is only as good as the scanning process itself and may be limited. With respect to scanner panels, the available technology permits the monitoring of only one TV set per household. Hence, there is a built-in bias if the household has a second or third TV set because the viewing of these additional sets is not considered. Also, the system provided information on TV sets in use rather than actual viewing behavior. Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6


Essentials of Marketing Research (Malhotra) Chapter 4 Qualitative Research 1) Quantitative research is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples, which provides insight and understanding of the problem setting. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 2) Qualitative research explores a problem with few preconceived notions about the outcome of that exploration. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 3) In addition to defining the problem and developing an approach, qualitative research is also appropriate when facing a situation of uncertainty. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 4) Qualitative research is a research methodology that seeks to quantify the data and, typically, applies some form of statistical analysis. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 5) Quantitative research seeks conclusive evidence, which is based on large, representative samples and typically applies some form of statistical analysis. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 6) In contrast to quantitative research, the findings of qualitative research can be treated as conclusive and used to recommend a final course of action. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


7) Whenever a new marketing research problem is addressed, qualitative research must be preceded by appropriate quantitative research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 8) Qualitative research procedures are classified as either direct or indirect. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 9) A direct approach is one type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project are disclosed to the respondent or are obvious given the nature of the interview. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 10) The type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project are disguised from the respondents is called an indirect approach. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 11) A depth interview is conducted by a trained moderator among a small group of respondents in an unstructured and natural manner. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 12) The main purpose of a focus group is to gain insights on issues of interest to the researcher by listening to a group of people from the appropriate target market. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 13) A focus group should be homogeneous in terms of demographic and socioeconomic characteristics. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


14) According to the text, the typical focus group costs the client about $4,500. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 15) A depth interview is recognized as the most important qualitative research procedure. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 16) According to the text, the typical duration of a focus group is less than an hour. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 17) A focus group typically consists of eight to twelve participants. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 18) Focus groups are unstructured, direct, personal interviews in which a single respondent is probed by a highly skilled interviewer to uncover underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, and feelings on a topic. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 19) There are fewer people in an online group than in a face-to-face group. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 3 20) Online focus groups take less time to set up and complete (turnaround time) than traditional focus groups. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 3


21) Traditional focus groups are much less expensive to conduct than online focus groups. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 3 22) Depth interviews are described as loosely structured, one-on-one conversations with individuals drawn from the target audience. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 23) An unstructured and indirect form of questioning that encourages respondents to project their underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, or feelings regarding the issues of concern is called a projective technique. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 24) Projective techniques are different from focus groups and depth interview techniques in that projective techniques attempt to disguise the purpose of the research. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 25) The evaluation technique is a classification of a projective technique used in marketing research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 26) The evaluation technique is a popular form of qualitative research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 27) The association technique is the projective technique in which the respondent is presented with a stimulus and asked to respond with the first thing that comes to mind. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


28) A projective technique, in which respondents are presented with a list of words, one at a time, is called word association. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 29) Completion techniques are a natural extension of association techniques, generating more detail about the individual's underlying feelings and beliefs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 30) A projective technique in which respondents are presented with a number of incomplete sentences and asked to complete them is called sentence completion. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 31) The word association technique requires the respondent to construct a response in the form of a story, dialogue, or description. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 32) The picture response technique is a projective technique in which the respondent is shown a picture and asked to tell a story describing it. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 33) Cartoon characters are shown in a specific situation related to the problem in the cartoon test projective technique. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


34) A projective technique in which respondents are asked to play the role or assume the behavior of someone else is called sentence completion. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 35) In the third-person technique, the respondent is presented with a verbal or visual situation and asked to relate the beliefs and attitudes of a third person to the situation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 36) In cultural settings, such as the Far East where persons are hesitant to discuss their feelings in group situations, depth interviews should be used. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 6 37) Just being a part of different types of social media and analyzing what people are talking about cannot yield a basic understanding of customers. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 38) Private online communities can play the role of extended focus groups. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 39) Participant blogs are one way to conduct focus-group type research using social media. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 40) It is not possible to conduct depth interviews using social media. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7


41) The structured and direct form of questioning on social media has consumers willing to project their underlying thoughts, motivations, and feelings regarding the issues of concern. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 42) GlaxoSmithKline Consumer Healthcare used the picture response technique in social media to closely define the customer base for its new line of Alli weight-loss products. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 43) Often the amount of information generated while conducting qualitative research in social media can be rather limited. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 44) Including a client as a co-researcher in focus-group settings without introducing the client as the sponsor of the research raises ethical problems. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 8 45) is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples, which provides insights and understanding of the problem setting. A) Quantitative research B) Qualitative research C) Experimental research D) Hypothetical research E) Statistical research Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


46) Which of the following types of research explores a problem with few preconceived notions about the outcome of that exploration? A) quantitative research B) experimental research C) qualitative research D) hypothetical research E) lead research Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 47) In addition to defining the problem and developing an approach, appropriate when facing a situation of uncertainty. A) qualitative research B) quantitative research C) statistical research D) hypothetical research E) lead research Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1

is also

48) is a research methodology that seeks to quantify the data and, typically, applies some form of statistical analysis. A) Quantitative research B) Qualitative research C) Experimental research D) Hypothetical research E) Thorough research Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 49) Which of the following types of research seeks conclusive evidence, which is based on large, representative samples and typically applies some form of statistical analysis? A) qualitative research B) lead research C) quantitative research D) hypothetical research E) total research Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


50) Which of the following types of research seeks statistical evidence, based on large, representative samples? A) qualitative research B) exploratory research C) quantitative research D) hypothetical research E) quasi-experimental research Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 51) In contrast to research, the findings of conclusive and used to recommend a final course of action. A) quantitative; qualitative B) observational; qualitative C) qualitative; quantitative D) descriptive; observational E) partial; total Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1

research can be treated as

52) In contrast to research, the findings of research should be treated as tentative and are not used to recommend a final course of action. A) quantitative; qualitative B) observational; qualitative C) qualitative; quantitative D) descriptive; observational E) partial; total Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


53) Whenever a new marketing research problem is addressed, preceded by appropriate research. A) qualitative; quantitative B) quantitative; qualitative C) observational; qualitative D) descriptive; observational E) total; partial Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 54) Qualitative research procedures are classified as either A) primary or secondary B) direct or indirect C) descriptive or exploratory D) theoretical or non-theoretical E) partial or total Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

research must be

.

55) is one type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project are disclosed to the respondent or are obvious given the nature of the interview. A) A direct approach B) An indirect approach C) A panel D) A survey E) An informed approach Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 56) The type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project are disguised from the respondents is called a(n) . A) direct approach B) panel C) indirect approach D) survey E) masked approach Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


57) A(n) is an interview conducted by a trained moderator among a small group of respondents in an unstructured and natural manner. A) experiment B) focus group C) quantitative survey D) depth interview E) moderator group Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 58) are the most important qualitative research procedure. A) Focus groups B) Depth interviews C) Projective techniques D) Association techniques Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 59) The main purpose of a(n) is to gain insights on issues of interest to the researcher by listening to a group of people from the appropriate target market. A) depth interview B) quantitative survey C) experiment D) moderator group E) focus group Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 60) According to the text, the typical focus group costs the client about A) $400 B) $2,000 C) $4,000 - 5,000 D) $6,000 - 8,000 E) $10,000 Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3

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61) Which of the following is recognized as the most important qualitative research procedure? A) focus group B) depth interview C) quantitative survey D) experiment E) projective technique Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 62) According to the text, the typical duration of a focus group is A) less than an hour B) two to four hours C) one to three hours D) three to five hours E) more than five hours Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3

.

63) A focus group typically consists of how many participants? A) one to four B) five to eight C) eight to twelve D) thirteen to fifteen E) more than fifteen Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 64) All of the following are steps the moderator must take in order to increase the success rate of the focus group EXCEPT to . A) choose which participant will be the group leader B) state the rules of group interaction C) probe the respondents and provoke intense discussion in the relevant areas D) attempt to summarize the group's response to determine the extent of agreement E) establish rapport with the group Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


65) Due to financial constraints, the lack of standardization in qualifications for focus group moderators can be minimized by . A) hiring moderators with at least 5 years of experience B) putting prospective moderators through company-specific training C) including video or voice recording devices in the focus group D) doing focus groups after the survey work on the project is completed E) preparing a detailed moderator discussion guide Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 66) Which of the following is NOT one of the key qualifications of focus group moderators? A) joviality B) skill C) experience D) knowledge of the discussion topic E) knowledge of the marketing research project Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 67) In focus group reports, which of following is included? A) frequencies and percentages of respondent views B) all of the words spoken by the participants C) "instant interpretation" done with managers immediately after the last focus group has finished for the night D) analysis of facial expressions and body language E) plans for survey research Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 68) Disadvantages of focus groups include all of the following EXCEPT A) tendency to regard findings as conclusive B) difficulty in moderating focus groups C) completely skilled moderators are rare D) coding, analysis, and interpretation are difficult E) respondents are generally spontaneous Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3

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69) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using focus groups in marketing research? A) The richness of the comments, which come from real customers, makes this technique highly useful. B) Focus groups are easy to moderate. C) The comments of one person in a focus group can trigger unexpected reactions from others. D) The responses in a focus group are generally spontaneous and candid, and they provide rich insights. E) Ideas are more likely to arise out of the blue. Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 70) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of online focus groups? A) Geographic distance is overcome for respondents. B) Client can observe from home or office. C) Respondents can be re-contacted easier. D) People are less inhibited in their responses. E) Costs are equivalent to traditional focus groups. Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 71) Which of the following statements is NOT an advantage of online focus groups? A) The researcher can reach segments that are usually hard to survey. B) Researchers can re-contact group participants at a later date. C) The cost of the online focus group is much less. D) Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate. E) The researcher can include geographically dispersed participants. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 72) Which of the following statements is an advantage of online focus groups? A) The researcher can reach segments that are usually hard to survey. B) Researchers can re-contact group participants at a later date. C) The cost of the online focus group is much more. D) Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate. E) A and B Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


73) are unstructured, direct, personal interviews in which a single respondent is probed by a highly skilled interviewer to uncover underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, and feelings on a topic. A) Focus groups B) Depth interviews C) Quantitative surveys D) Experiments E) Probing interviews Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 74) Which of the following is described as loosely structured conversations with individuals drawn from the target audience? A) experiments B) quantitative surveys C) panels D) conversation interviews E) depth interviews Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 75) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using depth interviews compared to using focus groups in marketing research? A) Depth interviews can uncover deeper insights than focus groups. B) Depth interviews result in a free exchange of information that may not be possible in focus groups. C) Depth interviews attribute the responses directly to the respondent, unlike focus groups, where it is often difficult to determine which respondent made a particular response. D) With probing, it is possible to get at the real issue when topics are complex. E) Skilled depth interviewers are inexpensive and easy to find compared to focus group moderators. Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


76) An unstructured and indirect form of questioning that encourages respondents to project their underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, or feelings regarding the issues of concern is called the . A) projective technique B) quantitative technique C) survey technique D) evaluation technique E) motivation elicitation Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 77) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of depth interviews over traditional focus groups? A) richer discussion of sensitive topics B) deeper insights about underlying motives C) less social pressure to conform D) scheduling of respondents E) cost per respondent Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 78) Which of the following is NOT a classification of the projective techniques used in marketing research? A) word association B) evaluation technique C) sentence completion D) picture response E) third person technique Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


79) Which of the following describes the projective technique in which the respondent is presented with a stimulus and asked to respond with the first thing that comes to mind? A) word association technique B) sentence completion technique C) construction technique D) expressive technique E) evaluation technique Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 80) A projective technique in which respondents are presented with a list of words, one at a time, is called . A) word association B) sentence completion C) story completion D) role playing E) piecewise thought-listing Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 81) Sentence completion can be extended to A) paragraph completion B) word association C) cartoon test D) means-end chaining E) laddering Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5

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82) Which of the following describes the projective technique in which respondents are shown a picture and asked to tell a story describing it? A) word association technique B) picture response technique C) cartoon test D) third person technique E) B and C Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


83) is a natural extension of word association techniques, generating more detail about the individual's underlying feelings and beliefs. A) Evaluation techniques B) Sentence completion techniques C) Construction techniques D) Expressive techniques E) Detail techniques Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 84) A projective technique in which respondents are presented with a number of incomplete sentences and asked to complete them is called _ . A) word association B) sentence completion C) story completion D) role playing E) evaluation technique Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 85) A projective technique in which the respondent is shown a picture and required to construct a response in the form of a story, dialogue, or description of a picture is called the . A) association technique B) completion technique C) picture response technique D) third person technique E) laddering Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 86) A projective technique in which the respondent is presented with a list of words and asked to write the first word or phrase that comes to mind is called the . A) cartoon test B) completion technique C) word association D) third person technique E) laddering Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


87) The is a projective technique in which the respondent is shown a picture and asked to tell a story describing it. A) association technique B) picture response technique C) construction technique D) expressive technique E) evaluation technique Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 88) Cartoon characters are shown in a specific situation related to the problem in which of the following projective techniques? A) word association B) sentence completion C) story completion D) motivation elicitation E) cartoon tests Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 89) In which of the following projective techniques is the respondent presented with a verbal or visual situation and asked to relate the feelings and attitudes of other people to the situation? A) association technique B) completion technique C) construction technique D) evaluation technique E) third person technique Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


90) A projective technique in which respondents are asked to play the role or assume the behavior of someone else is called . A) word association B) sentence completion C) story completion D) role playing E) evaluation technique Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 91) In a short essay, discuss the differences between qualitative research and quantitative research. Answer: a. Qualitative research provides insights and understanding of the problem setting. It explores the problem with few preconceived notions about the outcome of that exploration. In addition to defining the problem and developing an approach, qualitative research is also appropriate when facing a situation of uncertainty, such as when conclusive results differ from expectations. It can provide insight before or after the fact. Qualitative research is based on small, nonrepresentative samples, and the data are analyzed in a nonstatistical way. b. Quantitative research seeks to quantify the data. It seeks conclusive evidence, which is based on large, representative samples and typically applies some form of statistical analysis. In contrast to qualitative research, the findings of quantitative research can be treated as conclusive and used to recommend a final course of action. The approach to data collection can vary along a continuum from highly structured to completely unstructured. Qualitative or exploratory research lies at the unstructured end of this continuum, and quantitative research lies at the highly structured end. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


92) In a short essay, describe the characteristics of a focus group, and list and discuss the basic steps to conducting a focus group. Answer: A focus group is an interview with a small group of respondents conducted by a trained moderator who leads the discussion in a nonstructured and natural manner. The main purpose of a focus group is to gain insights on issues of interest to the researcher by listening to a group of people from the appropriate target market. Focus groups are the most important qualitative research procedure. They are so popular that many marketing research practitioners consider this technique synonymous with qualitative research. The following are basic steps to conducting a focus group. a. Designing the environment — focus group sessions are typically held in facilities specially equipped to comfortably accommodate and record a group discussion. The setting is typically an informal conference room equipped with a one-way mirror and microphones throughout the room. Behind the one-way mirror is a viewing room for management. b. Recruiting and selecting focus group participants — a focus group is generally made up of eight to twelve members. A focus group should be homogeneous in terms of demographic and socioeconomic characteristics. c. Selecting a moderator — the moderator plays a key role and must be well trained. General group management skills as well as background in psychology and marketing typically suffice in most focus group situations. The moderator must be able to establish rapport with the participants. d. Preparing the discussion guide — regardless of the skills or qualifications of the moderator, any focus group will flounder without an outline of the topics to be covered. The discussion guide should reflect the objectives of qualitative research. A moderator's discussion guide can reduce some of the reliability problems inherent in focus groups, such as the lack of consistency in topics covered from group to group. e. Conducting the group interview — during the interview, the moderator must (1) establish rapport with the group; (2) state the rules of group interaction; (3) set objectives; (4) attempt to summarize the group's response to determine the extent of agreement. Ideally, the number of focus groups conducted should increase until the moderator becomes familiar enough with the range of responses and can anticipate what will be said. f. Preparing the focus group report — following the focus group session, the moderator and the managers who viewed the session often engage in an instant interpretation. There is value in this free exchange in that it captures the impressions of the group and may be a good source of information for additional brainstorming. Due to the small number of participants, frequencies and percentages are not usually reported in a focus group summary. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


93) In a short essay, list at least five applications of focus groups. Include a specific example of each application to support your answer. Answer: Focus group applications include all of the following: a. Understand consumer perceptions, preferences, and behavior concerning a product category (how consumers select a cellular phone company and their perceptions of AT&T, Verizon, andSprint). b. Obtain impressions of new product concepts (consumer response to the iPad). c. Generate new ideas about older products (new packaging and positioning for Cheer detergent). d. Develop creative concepts and copy material for advertisements (a new campaign for Diet Pepsi). e. Secure price impressions (the role of price in consumer selection of luxury cars such as Cadillac, Lexus, Mercedes, BMW, and Infinity). f. Obtain preliminary consumer reaction to specific marketing programs (General Mills' instant coupons for Cheerios). g. Interpret previously obtained quantitative results (the reasons for the 5.6 percent sales decline of Vanderbilt perfume). Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 94) In a short essay, discuss at least two applications of projective techniques and provide three basic guidelines that can enhance the usefulness of these techniques. Answer: With the exception of word associations, projective techniques are used much less frequently than either focus groups or depth interviews. Word association is commonly used for testing brand names and occasionally to measure attitudes about particular products, brands, packages, or advertisements. The usefulness of these techniques is enhanced when the following guidelines are observed: a. Projective techniques are used when the sensitivity of the subject matter is such that respondents may not be willing or able to answer direct questions honestly. b. Projective techniques are used to uncover subconscious motives, beliefs, or values, providing deeper insights and understanding as part of exploratory research. c. Projective techniques are administered and interpreted by trained interviewers who understand their advantages and limitations. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5


95) Discuss the major advantage of projective techniques over the unstructured direct techniques (focus groups and depth interviews). Answer: Projective techniques have a major advantage over the unstructured direct techniques (focus groups and depth interviews): they may elicit responses that subjects would be unwilling or unable to give if they knew the purpose of the study. At times, in direct questioning, the respondent may intentionally or unintentionally misunderstand, misinterpret, or mislead the researcher. In these cases, projective techniques can increase the validity of responses by disguising the purpose. This is particularly true when the issues to be addressed are personal, sensitive, or subject to strong social norms. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5


96) Why would a researcher choose to use online focus groups over traditional focus groups? Taking the other view, why would traditional focus groups be preferred? Answer: Why would a researcher choose to use online focus groups over traditional focus groups? People from all over the country or even the world can participate, and the client can observe the group from the convenience of the home or office. Geographical constraints are removed and time constraints are lessened. Unlike traditional focus groups, you have the unique opportunity to re-contact group participants at a later date, to either re-visit issues, or introduce them to modifications in material presented in the original focus group. The Internet enables the researcher to reach segments that are usually hard to survey: doctors, lawyers, professional people, working mothers, and others who lead busy lives and are not interested in taking part in traditional focus groups. Moderators may also be able to carry on side conversations with individual respondents, probing deeper into interesting areas. People are generally less inhibited in their responses and are more likely to fully express their thoughts. A lot of online focus groups go well past their allotted time since so many responses are expressed. Finally, as there is no travel, videotaping, or facilities to arrange, the cost is much lower than traditional focus groups. Firms are able to keep costs between one-fifth and one-half the costs of traditional focus groups. Online groups are also faster to conduct. Taking the other view, why would traditional focus groups be preferred? Only people that have and know how to use a computer can be surveyed online. Since the name of an individual on the Internet is often private, actually verifying that a respondent is a member of a target group is difficult. This is illustrated in a cartoon in The New Yorker, where two dogs are seated at a computer and one says to the other "On the Internet, nobody knows you are a dog!" To overcome this limitation, other traditional methods such as telephone calls are used for recruitment and verification of respondents. Body language, facial expressions, and tone of voice cannot be obtained and electronic emotions obviously do not capture as full a breadth of emotion as videotaping. Another factor that must be considered is the lack of general control over the respondent's environment and their potential exposure to distracting external stimuli. Since online focus groups could potentially have respondents scattered all over the world, the researchers and moderator(s) have no idea what else the respondents may be doing while participating in the group. Only audio and visual stimuli can be tested. Products cannot be touched (e.g., clothing) or smelled (e.g., perfumes). Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 3


Essentials of Marketing Research (Malhotra) Chapter 5 Survey and Observation 1) A structured questionnaire is given to a sample of a population and is designed to elicit specific information from respondents when using the survey method. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 2) The most popular primary data-collection method is the structured direct survey. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 3) Use of a formal questionnaire that presents questions in a prearranged order is called structured data collection. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 4) Observational interviews are recognized as a classification for the various methods of collecting survey data. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 5) Survey questionnaires may be administered in four major modes: (1) telephone interview, (2) personal interviews, (3) mall interviews, and (4) electronic interviews (Figure 5.4 in text). Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 6) The method of interview that is one of the most popular for collecting survey data is mail interviews. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


7) According to the text, using telephone interviews to collect survey data is the least popular method of collecting survey data. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 8) Sample control is the ability of the survey mode to reach the units specified in the sample effectively and efficiently. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 9) The percentage of the total attempted interviews that are completed is referred to as response rate. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 10) In-home interviewing permits easy interviewer supervision and control as the interviewers are traveling door-to-door. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 11) The ability to collect a large quantity of data is an advantage of using telephone interviewing to collect research data. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 12) Disadvantages of using telephone interviewing to collect research data include no use of physical stimuli and poor response rates. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


13) The advantages of using in-home interviewing to collect research data include very good sample control and the ability to collect a large quantity of data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 14) Disadvantages of using in-home interviewing to collect research data include the potential for interviewer bias and poor sample control. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 15) The advantages of using mall intercept interviews to collect research data include good control of the environment and good response rates. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 16) Poor response rates and the potential for interviewer bias are disadvantages of using mall intercept interviews to collect research data. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 17) Advantages of using computer-assisted personal interviewing to collect research data include good response rates and low potential for interviewer bias. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 18) High social desirability and high cost are disadvantages of using computer-assisted personal interviewing to collect research data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


19) An advantage of using mail interviews to collect research data is the ability to control the interviewing environment. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 20) High interviewer bias is a primary disadvantage of using mail interviews to collect research data. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 21) The advantages of using electronic interviewing to collect research data include high speed and low cost. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 22) Low sample control and low response rates are disadvantages of using electronic interviewing to collect research data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 23) According to the text, despite their value, personal in-home interviews are being replaced by telephone interviews. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 24) The tendency of the respondents to give answers that may not be accurate but that may be desirable from a social standpoint is called social desirability. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


25) Interviewer bias is defined as the error due to the interviewer not following the correct interviewing procedures. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 26) CAPI interviewing is inappropriate for conducting B2B research at trade shows or conventions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 1 27) In CAPI, interviewer bias is reduced because the computer administers the interview. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 1 28) People are more likely to respond and respond sooner to fax surveys than mail surveys. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 29) A large and nationally representative sample of households who have agreed to periodically participate in mail questionnaires, product tests, and telephone surveys are called mail panels. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 30) Response bias is the bias that arises when actual respondents differ from those who refuse to participate in ways that affect the survey results. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 31) Compared to mail surveys, e-mail surveys offer time and cost advantages, especially in large surveys. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 2


32) Promised incentives are incentives that are included with the survey or questionnaire. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 33) A prepaid incentive is sent to only those respondents who complete the survey. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 34) The recording of behavioral patterns of people, objects, and events in a systematic manner to obtain information about the phenomenon of interest is called observation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 35) Personal observation is an observational research strategy in which human observers record the phenomenon being observed as it occurs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 36) An observational research strategy in which mechanical devices, rather than human observers, record the phenomenon being observed is called mechanical observation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 4 37) Many social media sites today present an excellent platform for allowing researchers the widespread ability to disseminate questionnaires. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 38) The collection of survey data through social media sites can be automated, but does not allow the researcher to customize reach to various segments of consumers. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7


39) A limitation is that online surveys conducted through social media platforms do not encourage committed and credible feedback. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 40) Analysis of the comments, photos, videos, audio, and other stimuli posted voluntarily by consumers on their social media sites are traces of their behaviors. An analysis of these constitutes a form of observation known as trace analysis. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 41) Participant blogs and online research communities may be considered to be examples of eethnography or netnography. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 42) Sugging is fund-raising under the guise of research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 8 43) Interviews conducted by Procter & Gamble on Olay Beauty Bar, where the respondents actually washed their hands and face with the bar in a test area before responding to a survey falls under which of the following categories? A) traditional telephone interviews B) computer-assisted telephone interviewing C) personal in-home interviews D) mall-intercept personal interviews E) mail interviews Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


44) A structured questionnaire is given to a sample of a population and is designed to elicit specific information from respondents when using the . A) focus group method B) exploratory method C) survey method D) sampling method E) motivation elicitation technique Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 45) According to the text, which of the following types of questions does NOT apply to survey research? A) questions regarding behavior B) questions regarding attitudes C) questions regarding lifestyle characteristics D) questions regarding observational research E) questions regarding motivations Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 46) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using the survey method? A) ease of use B) reliability C) cost D) validity E) All are advantages. Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 47) Use of a formal questionnaire that presents questions in a prearranged order is called . A) exploratory data collection B) structured data collection C) randomized data collection D) hypothetical data collection E) pre-arranged data collection Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


48) Which of the following is NOT recognized as a classification for the various methods of collecting survey data? A) telephone interview B) mail interview C) observational interview D) electronic interview E) personal interview Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 49) The method of interviewing that is one of the most popular in the United States for collecting survey data is the . A) Internet interview B) mail interview C) telephone interview D) mall intercept interview E) in-home personal interview Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 50) Which of the following methods of collecting survey data is the least popular in the United States? A) telephone interview B) mail interview C) observational interview D) electronic interview E) personal interview Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


51) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about computer-assisted telephone interviewing (CATI)? A) The computer checks the responses for appropriateness and consistency. B) Interviewing time is reduced, data quality is enhanced, and the laborious steps in the datacollection process, coding questionnaires and entering the data into the computer, are eliminated. C) The CATI software cannot perform skip patterns. D) Interim and update reports on data collection or results can be provided almost instantaneously. Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 52) A list of the disadvantages of telephone interviewing would include which of the following? A) Questioning is restricted to the spoken word. B) Interviewers cannot use physical stimuli such as visual illustrations or product demonstrations. C) Personal rapport and commitment are difficult to establish. D) Respondents are less tolerant of lengthy interviews. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 53) is the ability of the survey mode to reach the units specified in the sample effectively and efficiently. A) Social desirability B) Interviewer bias C) Nonresponse bias D) Efficiency effect E) Sample control Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


54) The percentage of the total attempted interviews that are completed is referred to as . A) sample control B) response rate C) social desirability D) interviewer bias E) cooperation rate Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 55) Which of the following is NOT a category of personal interviewing methods? A) mail panel B) in-home C) mall intercept D) computer-assisted E) All of the above are categories of personal interviewing. Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 56) All of the following are examples of advantages of using in-home interviewing to collect research data EXCEPT that . A) it enables the interviewer to provide clarifications to the respondent, allowing for complex questions B) it permits the use of physical stimuli and allows the interviewer to display or demonstrate the product C) it provides very good sample control since homes can be selected without generating a list of all the homes in a given area D) it allows for longer interviews E) it permits easy interviewer supervision and control as the interviewers are traveling door-todoor Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


57) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using telephone interviewing to collect research data? A) large quantity of data can be collected B) high sample control C) good control of the field force D) good response rate E) fast Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 58) Which of the following disadvantages does NOT apply to using telephone interviewing to collect research data? A) no use of physical stimuli B) limited to simple questions C) low quantity of data D) poor response rate E) labor costs Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 59) Which of the following advantages does NOT apply to using in-home interviewing to collect research data? A) good for physical stimuli B) relatively inexpensive C) good sample control D) large quantity of data can be collected E) complex questions can be asked Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 60) Which of the following disadvantages does NOT apply to using in-home interviewing to collect research data? A) low control of field force B) potential for interviewer bias C) poor sample control D) most expensive E) may take long to collect the data Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


61) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using mall intercept interviews to collect research data? A) good for physical stimuli B) good control of the environment C) low cost D) good response rate E) complex questions can be asked Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 62) The disadvantages of using mall intercept interviews to collect research data include all of the following EXCEPT . A) poor response rate B) potential for interviewer bias C) moderate quantity of data can be collected D) high cost E) high social desirability Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 63) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using computer-assisted personal interviewing to collect research data? A) good response rate B) low cost C) low potential for interviewer bias D) good for physical stimuli E) very good control of environment Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 2


64) All of the following are recognized as disadvantages of using computer-assisted personal interviewing to collect research data EXCEPT . A) high social desirability B) moderate quantity of data can be collected C) high cost D) poor response rate E) accessibility Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 2 65) Which of the following is NOT recognized as an advantage of using mail interviews to collect research data? A) no interviewer bias B) good control of environment C) low social desirability D) low/moderate cost E) no field force problems Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 66) The disadvantages of using mail interviews to collect research data include all of the following EXCEPT . A) high interviewer bias B) limited to simple questions C) low sample control for cold mail D) no control of environment E) low speed Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 67) Which of the following is NOT recognized as an advantage of using electronic interviewing to collect research data? A) no interviewer bias B) high speed C) low cost D) high sample control E) hard-to-reach-respondent contact Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 2


68) All of the following are recognized as disadvantages of using electronic interviewing to collect research data EXCEPT . A) high interviewer bias B) limited to simple questions C) low sample control D) low response rate E) moderate quantity of data Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 2 69) The tendency of the respondents to give answers that may not be accurate but that may be desirable from a social standpoint is called . A) interviewer bias B) social desirability C) nonresponse error D) response rate E) the fundamental attribution error Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 70) is defined as the error due to the interviewer's failure to follow the correct interviewing procedures. A) Social desirability B) Nonresponse error C) Interviewer bias D) Response bias E) The fundamental attribution error Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 71) A large and nationally representative sample of households who have agreed to periodically participate in mail questionnaires, product tests, and telephone surveys are called . A) focus groups B) electronic groups C) exploratory groups D) mail panels E) household constituencies Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


72) is the bias that arises when actual respondents differ from those who refuse to participate in ways that affect the survey results. A) Response bias B) Nonresponse bias C) Social desirability D) Interviewer bias E) Facsimile bias Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 73) Limitations of e-mail surveys include all of the following EXCEPT . A) questionnaires cannot utilize programmed skip patterns, logic checks, or randomization B) skipping instructions (e.g., "If the answer to question 5 is yes, go to question 9") must appear explicitly, just as on paper C) there is inherent self-selection bias D) some e-mail software products limit the length of the body of an e-mail message Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 2 74) Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of electronic methods of data collection? A) no control of the environment B) low sample control C) low response rate D) only moderate quantities of data can be obtained E) low social desirability Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 2 75) Advantages of Internet surveys over e-mail surveys include which of the following? A) Graphs, images, animations, and links to other Web pages may be integrated into or around the survey. B) It is possible to validate responses as they are entered. C) Skip patterns can be programmed and performed automatically. D) All of the above are correct. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 2


76) Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text as a method used to improve response rates? A) prior notification B) incentives C) follow-up D) personalization E) All of these methods are used to improve response rates. Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 77) Which of the following types of incentives is included with the survey or questionnaire? A) promised incentive B) observed incentive C) prepaid incentive D) virtual incentive E) Hollywood incentive Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 78) A(n) is sent to only those respondents who complete the survey. A) promised incentive B) observed incentive C) prepaid incentive D) virtual incentive E) completion incentive Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 79) Which of the survey methods listed below is preferable when using physical stimuli? A) in-home B) mall intercept C) CAPI D) A and C only E) A, B and C Answer: E Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


80) The recording of behavioral patterns of people, objects, and events in a systematic manner to obtain information about the phenomenon of interest is called . A) projection B) observation C) description D) exploration E) micro-pattern research Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 81) is an observational research strategy in which human observers record the phenomenon being observed as it occurs. A) Mechanical observation B) Virtual observation C) Personal observation D) Perceptual observation E) Simultaneous rigor Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 82) An observational research strategy in which mechanical devices, rather than human observers, record the phenomenon being observed is called . A) personal observation B) virtual observation C) perceptual observation D) mechanical observation E) device recording Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 4 83) Which of the following is NOT a relative disadvantage of using personal observation methods? A) high observation bias B) high analysis bias C) unsuitable in natural settings D) All of the selections are relative disadvantages of using personal observation methods. E) A and B only Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5


84) Which of the following is a disadvantage of observational data? A) Attitudes, motivations and values can't be assessed. B) perceptual differences among observers C) Infrequent behaviors are too expensive to record. D) difficulty in observing behaviors E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 85) Telephone interviewing is not a popular mode of administering questionnaires in countries that . A) have a low rate of households with telephones B) have a high rate of households with telephones C) use English as a national language D) use Spanish as a national language E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 6 86) Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an advantage of social media for conducting surveys? A) wider coverage B) survey administration is easy to control C) simplicity in implementing surveys D) ability to field more complex questions E) responses are more candid Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 87) Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a disadvantage of social media for conducting surveys? A) surveys do not address the responses from nonusers of social media B) survey administration is difficult to control. C) inability to field more complex questions D) response rates may be low E) confidentiality is an issue Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7


88) In a short essay, discuss the characteristics of the survey method of obtaining information and list at least three advantages and three disadvantages of survey research. Answer: The survey method of obtaining information is based on questioning respondents. Surveys are used when the research involves sampling a large number of people and asking them a series of questions. Surveys may be conducted in person, by telephone, through a mailed questionnaire, or electronically via the Internet. a. The advantages of the survey method include ease, reliability, and simplicity. Questionnaires are relatively easy to administer. Using fixed-response questions reduces variability in the results that may be caused by differences in interviewers, and enhances reliability of the responses. It also simplifies coding, analysis, and interpretation of data. b. Disadvantages of the survey method are that respondents may be unable or unwilling to provide the desired information. Also, structured data collection involving a questionnaire with fixed-response choices may result in loss of validity for certain types of data, such as beliefs and feelings. Finally, properly wording questions is not easy. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 89) In a short essay, list and discuss at least three advantages and three disadvantages of using telephone interviewing to collect marketing research data. Answer: a. Telephone interviewing, whether conducted with pen and paper or in a computer-assisted format, remains a popular survey method despite having lost its dominant status to Internet surveys. This popularity can be traced to several advantages. Interviews can be completed quickly since the travel time associated with personal interviews is completely eliminated. Sample control is high when proper sampling and callback procedures are followed. The control of the field force is good because the interviewers can be supervised from a central location. The response rate of telephone interviewing is good and telephone surveys are not very expensive b. The disadvantages of telephone interviewing include being restricted to the spoken word. Interviewers cannot use physical stimuli such as visual illustrations or product demonstrations. Moreover, they cannot ask complex questions. Personal rapport and commitment are difficult to establish due to lack of face-to-face interaction between the interviewer and the respondent. This results in less tolerance for lengthy interviews over the phone and limits the quantity of data that can be collected. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


90) In a short essay, list and discuss the three categories of personal interviewing methods. Answer: a. Personal in-home interviews — in this type of interview, respondents are interviewed face-toface in their homes. The interviewer's task is to contact the respondents, ask the questions, and record the responses. In recent years, the use of personal in-home interviews has declined. Nevertheless, they are still used, particularly by syndicated firms. b. Mall intercept personal interviews — in this type of interview, respondents are intercepted in shopping malls. The process involves stopping the shoppers, screening them for appropriateness, and either administering the survey on the spot or inviting them to a research facility located in the mall to complete the interview. c. Computer-assisted personal interviewing — in this type of interview, the respondent sits in front of a computer terminal and answers a questionnaire on the screen by using the keyboard or a mouse. This method has been classified as a personal interview technique since an interviewer is usually present to serve as a host and to guide the respondent as needed. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 91) Discuss the traditional mail interview method and the typical mail interview package. Answer: In the traditional mail interview, questionnaires are mailed to pre-selected potential respondents. A typical mail interview package consists of the outgoing envelope, cover letter, questionnaire, return envelope, and possibly an incentive. The respondents complete and return the questionnaires. There is no verbal interaction between the researcher and the respondent. However, before data collection can begin, the respondents need to be at least broadly identified. Therefore, an initial task is to obtain a valid mailing list. Mailing lists can be compiled from telephone directories, customer rosters, or association membership rolls or purchased from publication subscription lists or commercial mailing list companies. Regardless of its source, a mailing list should be current and closely related to the population of interest. The researcher must also make decisions about the various elements of the mail interview package. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


92) In a short essay, list and discuss the three primary methods researchers use in an attempt to improve response rates. Answer: a. Prior notification — this consists of sending a letter or e-mail, or making a telephone call to potential respondents, notifying them of the imminent mail, telephone, personal, or electronic survey. Prior notification increases response rates for samples of the general public because it reduces surprise and uncertainty and creates a more cooperative atmosphere. b. Incentives — offering monetary as well as nonmonetary incentives to potential respondents can increase response rates. Monetary incentives can be prepaid or promised. The prepaid incentive is included with the survey or questionnaire. The promised incentive is sent to only those respondents who complete the survey by the specified deadline. c. Follow-up — contacting the nonrespondents periodically after the initial contact, is particularly effective in decreasing refusals in mail surveys. The researcher might send a postcard or letter to remind nonrespondents to complete and return the questionnaire. Follow-up can also be done by telephone, e-mail, or personal contact. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 93) In a short essay, list and discuss the two major observation methods used in descriptive research. Next, list at least one advantage and one disadvantage for each of the two major observation methods. Answer: a. In personal observation, a trained observer collects the data by recording behavior exactly as it occurs. The observer does not attempt to control or manipulate the phenomenon being observed but simply records what takes place. The main advantage of personal observation is that it is a highly flexible method, as the observer can record a wide variety of phenomena. The main disadvantage is that the method is unstructured in that an observation form is generally not used for recording the behavior as it occurs. This leads to high observation bias. b. Mechanical observation involves the use of a mechanical device to record behavior. These devices may or may not require the respondents' direct participation. The main advantage of mechanical observation is low observation bias, as the behavior is recorded mechanically, not by an observer. Likewise, the data are analyzed according to prespecified norms and guidelines, resulting in low to medium analysis bias. The main disadvantages are that some of these methods can be intrusive or expensive and may not be suitable in natural settings such as the marketplace. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


94) Briefly discuss mechanical observation. What is it and why is it used? Describe two devices used for mechanical observation that do not require the respondent's direct participation. Answer: In mechanical observation, mechanical devices, rather than human observers, record the phenomenon being observed. These devices may or may not require the respondents' direct participation. They are used for continuously recording ongoing behavior for later analysis. Of the mechanical devices that do not require respondents' direct participation, the Nielsen audimeter is best known. The audimeter is attached to a television set to continually record what channel the set is tuned to. Recently, people meters have been introduced. People meters attempt to measure not only the channels to which a set is tuned but also who is watching. Other common examples include turnstiles that record the number of people entering or leaving a building, and traffic counters placed across streets to determine the number of vehicles passing certain locations. On-site cameras (still, motion picture, or video) are increasingly used by retailers to assess package designs, counter space, floor displays, and traffic flow patterns. Technological advances such as the Universal Product Code (UPC) have made a major impact on mechanical observation. The UPC system, together with optical scanners, allows for mechanized information collection regarding consumer purchases by product category, brand, store type, price, and quantity. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


95) In a short essay, list and discuss how interviewing methods would likely vary across countries and explain why. Answer: The popularity of the different interviewing methods varies widely across countries. In the United States and Canada, nearly all households have telephones. As a result, telephone interviewing is a popular mode of administering questionnaires. This is also true in some European countries, such as Sweden. However, in many other European countries, not all households have telephones. In some developing countries only a few households have them. In-home personal interviews are the dominant mode of collecting survey data in many European countries, such as Switzerland, and in newly industrialized countries (NICs) or developing countries. While mall intercepts are being conducted in some European countries, such as Sweden, they are not popular in other European countries or in developing countries. In contrast, central location/street interviews constitute the dominant method of collecting survey data in France and the Netherlands. Due to their low cost, mail interviews continue to be used in most developed countries where literacy is high and the postal system is well developed: the United States, Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Sweden, and the Netherlands, for example. In Africa, Asia, and South America, however, the use of mail surveys and mail panels is low because of illiteracy and the large proportion of the population living in rural areas. Mail panels are used extensively only in a few countries outside the United States, such as Canada, the United Kingdom, France, Germany, and the Netherlands. However, the use of panels may increase with the advent of new technology. Likewise, although a Web site can be accessed from anywhere in the world, access to the Web or e-mail is limited in many countries, particularly developing countries. Hence, the use of electronic surveys is not feasible, especially for interviewing households. Various methods may be reliable in some countries but not others. When collecting data from different countries, it is desirable to use survey methods with equivalent levels of reliability, rather than necessarily using the identical method. Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 6


Essentials of Marketing Research (Malhotra) Chapter 6 Experimentation and Causal Research 1) Validity takes place when the occurrence of X increases the probability of the occurrence of Y. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 2) Causality refers to when the occurrence of X causes the occurrence of Y. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 3) Concomitant variation occurs when the presumed cause and presumed effect are both present and both vary in a manner predicted by the researcher's hypothesis. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 4) The relevant cause/effect relationship is identified when both time order and concurrent variation conditions are satisfied. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 5) In an after-the-fact examination of a situation, we can confidently rule out all other causal factors. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 6) The process of manipulating one or more independent variables and measuring their effect on one or more dependent variables while controlling for the extraneous variables is called an experiment. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


7) According to the text, experiments can be described in terms of interdependent variables. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 8) Dependent variables are variables that are manipulated by the researcher and whose effects are measured and compared. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 9) Individuals, organizations, or other entities whose response to independent variables or treatments is being studied are called test units. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 10) Variables that measure the effect of the independent variables on the test units are called dependent variables. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 11) Consumers are good examples of dependent variables. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 12) Variables, other than the independent variables, that influence the response of the test units are called extraneous variables. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 13) According to the text, an experimental group is the group exposed to the manipulated independent variable. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


14) The control group is not exposed to the independent variable manipulation, but provides a point of comparison when examining the effects of these manipulations on the dependent variable. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 15) With experimental designs, it is possible to control for some of the extraneous variables. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 16) External validity refers to whether the manipulation of the independent variables or treatments actually caused the observed effects on the dependent variables. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 17) Internal validity refers to whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the experiment remain the same when replicated in a larger population. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 18) Extraneous variables represent alternative explanations of experimental results. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 19) Randomization is the preferred method for controlling extraneous variables. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 20) Designs that do not control for extraneous factors by randomization are called true experimental design. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


21) Preexperimental designs are distinguished by the fact that the researcher can randomly assign test units to experimental groups and also randomly assign treatments to experimental groups. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 22) Statistical designs allow for the statistical control and analysis of external variables. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 23) A preexperimental design in which a single group of test units is exposed to a treatment X, and then a single measurement on the dependent variable is taken, is called the one-shot case study. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 24) The random group is a preexperimental design in which a group of test units is measured before and after exposure to the treatment. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 25) The static group is a two-group experimental design in which one of the groups acts as a control group, the subjects are not assigned randomly, and measurements are made on both groups following the treatment. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 26) True experimental designs include the pretest-posttest control group design and the posttestonly control group design. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


27) A static group involves a prior measurement of the test units. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 28) An experimental design in which there is randomization and the experimental group is exposed to the treatment but the control group is not and no pretest measure is taken is called the posttest-only control group design. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 29) The one-group pretest-posttest design is a design that involves randomization of the test units. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 30) A factorial design is a statistical experimental design used to measure the effects of two or more independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions between variables. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 31) According to the text, factorial designs are the most common statistical designs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 32) A field environment is an artificial setting for experimentation in which the researcher constructs the desired conditions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 33) Responses given because the respondents attempt to guess the purpose of the experiment and respond accordingly are called demand artifacts. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


34) A laboratory environment involves measurement of behavior, attitudes, or perceptions in the environment in which they occur. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 35) The internal and external validity of field experiments conducted overseas is generally higher than in the United States. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 6 36) All of the experimental designs discussed in the book can be implemented within the context of the virtual world but not the real social world. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 37) It is possible to give monetary incentive in the form of Linden dollars in Second Life but nonmonetary incentives cannot be given. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 38) In the virtual world, it is more complex but much less costly to manipulate the independent variable and control for mediating variables than it is in the real world. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 39) Opinions, tastes, and preferences in virtual worlds are the same as in a real setting. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7


40) As compared to the field, experimentation in social media offers the advantages of ease of implementation and lower cost. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 7 41) implies that the occurrence of X increases the probability of the occurrence of Y. A) Probability B) Causality C) Reliability D) Validity E) True scores Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 42) Concomitant occurs when the presumed cause and presumed effect are both present and both vary in a manner predicted by the researcher's hypothesis. A) variation B) probability C) reliability D) validity E) measurement Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 43) is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary together in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration. A) The time order of occurrence of variables B) The role of evidence C) Concomitant variation D) The elimination of other possible factors Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


44) Which of the conditions must be satisfied in order to justify the inference of a possible causal relationship between two variables? i. Concomitant variation ii. Time order of occurrence of variables iii. Absence of other possible causal factors iv. Sterile measurement environment A) (i) B) (i), (iii), and (iv) C) (ii) and (iii) D) (i) and (iv) E) (i), (ii), and (iii) Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 45) The process of manipulating one or more independent variables and measuring their effect on one or more dependent variables while controlling for the extraneous variables is called a(n) . A) experiment B) test unit C) hypothesis D) theory E) manipulation measurement Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 46) According to the text, experiments can be described in terms of all of the following EXCEPT . A) independent variables B) interdependent variables C) dependent variables D) extraneous variables E) B and D Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


47) Experimental design is the set of experimental procedures specifying the test units and sampling procedures and all of the following EXCEPT specifying . A) independent variables B) dependent variables C) plan for data analysis D) how to control the extraneous variables E) test stimuli Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 48) variables are variables that are manipulated by the researcher and whose effects are measured and compared. A) Dependent B) Interdependent C) Extraneous D) Independent E) Test unit Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 49) All of the following are good examples of independent variables EXCEPT A) price levels B) package designs C) advertising themes D) sales E) gender Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4

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50) Individuals, organizations, or other entities whose responses to independent variables or treatments being studied are called . A) hypotheses B) independent variables C) test units D) dependent variables E) corollaries Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


51) All of the following are good examples of test units EXCEPT A) consumers B) price levels C) stores D) geographic areas E) households Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4

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52) Variables that measure the effect of the independent variables on the test units are called . A) interdependent variables B) concurrent variables C) extraneous variables D) concomitant variables E) dependent variables Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 53) All of the following are good examples of dependent variables EXCEPT A) sales B) consumers C) profits D) market shares E) attitudes Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4

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54) Variables other than the independent variables that influence the response of the test units are called . A) interdependent variables B) dependent variables C) extraneous variables D) concurrent variables E) influence variables Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


55) According to the text, a(n) variable. A) control group B) hypothetical group C) experimental group D) extraneous group E) corollary group Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4

is the group exposed to the manipulated independent

56) The is not exposed to the independent variable manipulation but provides a point of comparison when examining the effects of these manipulations on the dependent variable. A) control group B) hypothetical group C) experimental group D) extraneous group E) caveat group Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 57) Using the set of symbols commonly used in marketing research to denote experimental designs, which symbol below represents the exposure of a group to an independent variable, treatment, or event? A) T B) O C) X D) R Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


58) Which experimental design means that two groups of test units were randomly assigned to two different treatment groups at the same time, and the dependent variable was measured in the two groups simultaneously? A) R X1 O1 R X2 O2 B) R X1 O1 O2 X2 O3 C) X O1 O2 X O1 O2 D) R X1 O1 R X1 O1 Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 59) refers to whether the manipulation of the independent variables or treatments actually caused the observed effects on the dependent variables. A) Internal validity B) Extraneous validity C) External validity D) Control validity E) Corollary group Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 60) refers to whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the experiment remain the same when replicated in a larger population. A) Internal validity B) Extraneous validity C) External validity D) Control validity E) Population validity Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


61) An experiment was conducted to test the effects of coupon value on redemption. Personal interviews were conducted in New York with 280 shoppers who were entering a supermarket. These shoppers were given a coupon for one of four brands prior to entering the store. Two coupon values were used, one offering 15-cents off and the other 50-cents off. Shoppers were randomly assigned to these two coupon-value levels. Four brands — Tide detergent, Kellogg's corn flakes, Aim toothpaste, and Joy liquid dishwashing detergent — were used. These same shoppers were re-interviewed upon leaving the store and asked to report on any coupons used in the store. What is the dependent variable in this experiment? A) value of coupon B) coupons used in the store C) supermarket D) the brand selected E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 62) Which of the following is a way of controlling extraneous variables? A) randomization B) personalization C) quality control D) extraneous control E) analysis Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 63) Which of the following is NOT one of the broad categories of experimental designs? A) concurrent design B) preexperimental design C) statistical design D) true experimental E) All are broad categories of experimental designs. Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


64) Designs that do not control for extraneous factors by randomization are called A) true experimental designs B) quasi-experimental designs C) statistical designs D) preexperimental designs E) extraneous designs Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4

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65) are distinguished by the fact that the researcher can randomly assign test units to experimental groups and also randomly assign treatments to experimental groups. A) Preexperimental designs B) True experimental designs C) Quasi-experimental designs D) Statistical designs E) Concurrent designs Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 66) A random sample of respondents would be distributed randomly, half to the experimental group and half to the control group. A pretest questionnaire would be administered to the respondents in both groups to obtain a measurement on attitudes toward Pepsi advertising, brand, and celebrity; only the respondents in the experimental group would be exposed to the TV program containing the Pepsi commercial. Then, a questionnaire would be administered to respondents in both groups to obtain posttest measures on attitudes toward Pepsi advertising, brand, and celebrity. Which of the following experimental designs best represents the above scenario? A) one-shot case study B) one-group pretest-posttest design C) posttest-only control group design D) static group design E) pretest-posttest control group design Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


67) Which of the following can be symbolized as: EG: R X O1 CG: R O2 Where, X = the exposure of a group to an independent variable, treatment, event, the effects of which are to be determined O = the process of observation or measurement of the dependent variable on the test units or group of units R = the random assignment of test units or groups to separate treatments CG = control group EG = experimental group A) one-shot case study B) one-group pretest-posttest design C) posttest-only control group design D) static group design E) Pretest-posttest control group design Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 68) In a Pepsi project the researcher is interested in examining the effect of humor and the effect of various levels of brand information on advertising effectiveness. Three levels of humor (no humor, some humor, and high humor) are to be examined. Likewise, brand information is to be manipulated at three levels (low, medium, and high). The resulting table would be three rows (levels of information) by three columns (levels of humor), producing nine possible combinations or cells. The respondents would be randomly assigned to one of the nine cells. Respondents in each cell would receive a specific treatment combination. After exposure to a treatment combination, measures would be obtained on attitudes toward Pepsi advertising, brand, and the celebrity from respondents in each cell. To which category of design does this fall into? A) statistical regression design B) recombinant design C) static group design D) one-shot case study E) factorial design Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


69) allow for the statistical control and analysis of external variables. A) Preexperimental designs B) True experimental designs C) Quasi-experimental designs D) Statistical designs E) External variable designs Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 70) Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of preexperimental designs? A) one-shot case study B) one-group pretest-posttest design C) random group D) static group E) All are preexperimental designs. Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 71) A preexperimental design in which a single group of test units is exposed to a treatment X and then a single measurement on the dependent variable is taken is called the . A) one-shot case study B) one-group pretest-posttest design C) random group D) static group E) X-file Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 72) The is a preexperimental design in which a group of test units is measured before and after exposure to the treatment. A) one-shot case study B) one-group pretest-posttest design C) random group D) static group E) before-and-after study Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


73) The is a two-group experimental design in which one of the groups acts as a control group, the subjects are not assigned randomly, and measurements are made on both groups following the treatment. A) one-shot case study B) one-group pretest-posttest design C) random group D) partial experimental design E) static group Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 74) True experimental designs include the and . A) one-shot case study; the pretest-posttest control group design B) pretest-posttest control group design; the posttest-only control group design C) posttest-only control group design; the static group D) static group; the one-shot case study E) random study; the control study Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 75) An experimental design in which the test units are assigned randomly and the experimental group is exposed to the treatment but the control group is not, and no pretest measure is taken is called the . A) one-shot case study B) random group C) static group D) manipulated treatment study E) posttest-only control group design Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


76) A design in which a single group of subjects is exposed to a treatment (X), and then a single measurement on the dependent variable is taken (O1) is called a(n) . A) factorial design B) multiple time series design C) posttest-only control group design D) one-shot case study E) alternative group design Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 77) allow for the statistical control and analysis of external variables. A) Quasi-experimental designs B) True experimental designs C) Statistical designs D) Preexperimental designs E) One-shot case studies Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 78) A(n) is a statistical experimental design used to measure the effects of two or more independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions between variables. A) multiple time series design B) posttest-only control group design C) factorial design D) one-shot case study E) interaction design Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 79) According to the text, which of the following is the most common statistical design? A) factorial design B) multiple time series design C) posttest-only control group design D) one-shot case study E) regular matrix design Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


80) A is an artificial setting for experimentation in which the researcher constructs the desired conditions. A) statistical environment B) laboratory environment C) field environment D) virtual environment E) construct condition design Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 81) Responses given because the respondents attempt to guess the purpose of the experiment and respond accordingly are called . A) nonresponse bias B) environmental constraints C) demand artifacts D) sample controls E) guessing bias Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 82) A involves measurement of behavior, attitudes, or perceptions in the environment in which they occur. A) statistical environment B) laboratory environment C) field environment D) virtual environment E) perceptual environment Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 83) Field experiments feature which of the following? A) realistic environment B) low control C) high external validity D) A and C E) A, B, and C Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


84) Limitations of experiments include which of the following? A) time B) cost C) administration of an experiment D) need for control E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 85) is an application of a controlled experiment done in limited, but carefully selected, test markets. A) Random sampling B) Parallel sampling C) Experimentation D) Selective control sampling E) Test marketing Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 86) Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality. Answer: Experimentation is commonly used to infer causal relationships. The concept of causality requires some explanation. The scientific concept of causality is complex. "Causality" means something very different to the average person on the street than to a scientist. A statement such as "X causes Y" will have different meanings to an ordinary person and to a scientist. The scientific meaning of causality is more appropriate to marketing research than is the everyday meaning. Marketing effects are caused by multiple variables, and the relationship between cause and effect tends to be probabilistic. Moreover, we can never prove causality (i.e., demonstrate it conclusively); we can only infer a cause-and-effect relationship. In other words, it is possible that the true causal relation, if one exists, may not have been identified. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


87) In a short essay, define internal validity and external validity and discuss the difference between each type of validity. Answer: a. Internal validity refers to whether the manipulation of the independent variables or treatments actually caused the observed effects on the dependent variables. Internal validity is threatened when the influences of extraneous variables are mixed with the independent variables. Without proper control of the extraneous variables, the researcher is unable to isolate the effect of the independent variable and thus cannot establish internal validity. b. External validity refers to whether the cause-effect relationships found in the experiment remain the same when replicated in a larger population. Threats to external validity arise when the experiment is conducted in an unrealistic manner, limiting the ability to generalize. This occurs when the experimental conditions do not account for factors likely to be encountered in the real world. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 88) In a short essay, describe the broad categories of experimental designs and discuss the various applications of each design category. Answer: a. Preexperimental designs are designs that do not use randomization to control for extraneous factors. Thus, they suffer from many threats to internal and external validity. However, with a proper note of their limitations, they can add value when used in an exploratory fashion. b. True experimental designs are designs in which the researcher can randomly assign subjects and experimental groups. Therefore, these designs provide a larger degree of control over extraneous variables. Included in this category are the pretest-posttest control group design and the posttest-only control group design. c. Statistical designs are a series of basic experiments that allow for statistical control and analysis of external variables. Statistical designs are classified on the basis of their characteristics and use. The important statistical designs include factorial designs. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


89) In a short essay, list and discuss the three specific preexperimental designs. Answer: a. One-shot case study is a preexperimental design in which a single group of test units is exposed to a treatment X, and then a single measurement on the dependent variable is taken. This type of design is constructed using a nonrandom sampling process in which the subjects are selfselected or selected arbitrarily by the researcher. Without randomization, the observed dependent variables are subject to the influences of several extraneous variables. b. One-group pretest-posttest design is a preexperimental design in which a group of test units is measured before and after exposure to the treatment. Although this design is considered better than a case study, the validity of conclusions is questionable since extraneous variables are largely uncontrolled due to lack of randomization and a control group. c. Static group is a two-group experimental design in which one of the groups acts as a control group. Only one group, the experimental group, receives the experimental treatment. The subjects are not assigned randomly, and measurements are made on both groups following the treatment. The treatment effect would be measured as the difference between the control and experimental group. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 90) In a short essay, define randomization and list and discuss the two types of true experimental design. Answer: Randomization is one method of controlling extraneous variables that involves randomly assigning test units to experimental groups by using random numbers. Treatment conditions are also randomly assigned to experimental groups. Randomization is the preferred procedure for ensuring the prior equality of experimental groups. a. Pretest-posttest control group design is an experimental design in which the experimental group is exposed to the treatment but the control group is not. Pretest and posttest measures are taken on both groups. Test units are randomly assigned. The randomization of this design controls for most extraneous variables. The extraneous effects are presumed to be equally represented in both the control and experimental groups. b. Posttest-only control group design is an experimental design in which the experimental group is exposed to the treatment but the control group is not and no pretest measure is taken. Test units are randomly assigned. One significant advantage of this design over the pretestposttest control is the elimination of the interactive testing effect that comes with pretesting. Additionally, the simplicity of this design offers time, cost, and sample size advantages. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


91) In a short essay, discuss the difference between laboratory and field experimentation. Answer: a. A laboratory environment is an artificial one, which affords the greatest amount of control over the crucial factors involved in the study. Compared to field experiments, the artificial nature of laboratory environments may cause reactive error in that the respondents react to the situation itself rather than to the independent variable. On the positive side, laboratory experiments do allow for more complex designs than field experiments. b. A field experiment involves measurement of behavior, attitudes, or perceptions in the environment in which they occur. The researcher has much less control over extraneous variables that may affect internal validity. However, if internal validity can be maintained, the results may generalize more easily than those obtained in a laboratory setting. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5


Essentials of Marketing Research (Malhotra) Chapter 7 Measurement and Scaling 1) The assignment of numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects according to certain prespecified rules is called measurement. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 2) The generation of a continuum upon which measured objects are located is called sampling. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 3) When we measure the perceptions, attitudes, and preferences of consumers, we are not measuring the object but some characteristic of it. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 4) A scale whose numbers serve only as labels or tags for identifying and classifying objects with a strict one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the objects is called an ordinal scale. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 5) Nominal scales are recognized as the most basic or limited. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 6) Preference rankings, market position, and social class are examples of interval scales. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


7) According to the text, interval scales are the simplest to use. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 8) The most complex of the primary scales of measurement is the ratio scale. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 9) Nominal scales are used for classification and identification purposes only. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 10) Mutually exclusive means that there is no overlap between classes and every object being measured falls into only one class. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 11) In marketing research, ordinal scales are used to measure market share. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 12) The numbers assigned in a nominal scale do not reflect relative amounts of the characteristic being measured. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 13) A ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative extent to which some characteristic is possessed is called a nominal scale. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


14) A ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative extent to which some characteristic is possessed is called an ordinal scale. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 15) Common examples of ordinal scales include educational levels and social security numbers. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 16) An interval scale is a scale in which the numbers are used to rate objects such that numerically equal distances on the scale represent equal distances in the characteristic being measured. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 17) A ratio scale is the highest level of measurement and allows the researcher to identify or classify objects, rank order the objects, and compare intervals or differences. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 18) Temperature scales such as Celsius and Fahrenheit are examples of interval scales. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 19) Because the zero point is fixed in interval scales, it is not meaningful to take ratios of scale values. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 20) The scaling techniques commonly used in marketing research can be classified into comparative and noncomparative scales. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


21) A noncomparative scale is one of the two types of scaling techniques in which there is direct comparison of stimulus objects with one another. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 22) A noncomparative scale is one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the others. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 23) The major benefit of comparative scaling is that it is the most widely used scaling technique. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 24) According to the text, noncomparative scales are also referred to as nonmetric scaling. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 25) Interval scales are widely used in marketing research. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 26) According to the text, semantic differential scaling is a comparative scaling technique. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 27) A comparative scaling technique in which a respondent is presented with two objects at a time and asked to select one object in the pair according to some criterion is called paired comparison scaling. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


28) Paired comparison scaling is useful when the number of brands under consideration is limited to no more than seven. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 29) A comparative scaling technique in which respondents are presented with several objects simultaneously and asked to order or rank them according to some criterion is called rank order scaling. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 30) The most popular comparative scaling technique is semantic differential scaling. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 31) Constant sum scaling forces the respondent to discriminate among alternatives and also comes closer to resembling the shopping environment. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 32) In paired comparison scaling, respondents allocate a constant sum of units, such as points, dollars, or chips, among a set of alternatives according to some specified criterion. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 33) According to the text, the constant sum should be considered an ordinal scale. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 34) All the primary scales and all the comparative scales that have been discussed in the book can be easily implemented in social media with the exception of ratio scales. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8


35) An analysis of social media content can shed light on the level of measurement that is appropriate in a given project. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 36) An analysis of social media content can provide guidance on the type of scaling techniques, comparative or noncomparative, to use. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 37) A noncomparative scale is one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the other objects in the stimulus set. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 38) An itemized rating scale describes a measurement scale in which respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate position on a line that runs from one extreme of the criterionvariable to the other. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 39) A continuous rating scale allows the respondent to place a mark at any point along a line running between two extreme points rather than selecting from among a set of predetermined response categories. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 40) According to the text, noncomparative scales are broadly classified as either continuous or itemized. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


41) With the development of information technologies, such as computers and the Internet, continuous scales are being used less frequently. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 4 42) An itemized rating scale is a measurement scale having numbers and/or brief descriptions associated with the categories and the categories are ordered in terms of scale position. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 43) A measurement scale with five response categories ranging from "strongly disagree" to "strongly agree," which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus object, is called a Stapel scale. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 44) Typically, each Likert scale item has seven response categories, ranging from "strongly disagree" to "strongly agree." Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 45) Likert scale analysis is generally conducted by appropriately summing the item scores. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 46) When using a semantic differential, the respondent is typically asked to rate a brand, store, or some other object in terms of bipolar adjectives, such as cold and warm. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


47) In semantic differential scales, the negative adjective or phrase sometimes appears at the left side of the scale and sometimes at the right. This controls the tendency of some respondents, particularly those with very positive or negative attitudes, to mark the right- or left-hand sides without reading the labels. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 48) A scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle of an evennumbered range of values is called a Stapel scale. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 49) Of the three itemized rating scales considered, the semantic differential scale is used the least. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 50) Scales are only presented horizontally. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 51) A scale consisting of multiple items, in which an item is a single question or statement to be evaluated is called a multi-item scale. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 52) Random error affects the measurement in a constant way and represents stable factors that affect the observed score in the same way each time the measurement is made. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


53) Systematic error describes measurement error that arises from arbitrary changes that have a different effect each time the measurement is made. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 54) The extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated measurements are made on the characteristic is called reliability. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 55) According to the text, total measurement error is determined by multiplying systematic error with random error. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 56) Reliability refers to the extent to which a scale produces valid results if repeated measurements are made. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 57) Validity is the extent to which differences in observed scale scores reflect true differences among objects on the characteristic being measured, rather than systematic or random errors. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 58) Perfect reliability implies perfect validity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 59) Perfect validity implies perfect reliability. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


60) All the noncomparative scales that we have discussed in this chapter can be easily implemented in social media except the Stapel scale that has to be presented vertically. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 61) Continuous scales can be used efficiently in social media. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 62) An analysis of social media content can provide guidance on whether continuous or itemized rating scales should be used. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 63) Given space limitations, it is not feasible to employ more than one scaling method to measure a given construct in social media. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 64) The assignment of numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects according to certain prespecified rules is called . A) randomization B) measurement C) sampling D) exploring E) characterization Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


65) The generation of a continuum upon which measured objects are located is called A) sampling B) hypothesizing C) scaling D) factoring E) continuous generation Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1

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66) Consider a scale from 1 to 100 for locating consumers according to the characteristic "attitude toward department stores." Each respondent is assigned a number from 1 to 100 indicating the degree of (un)favorableness, with 1 = extremely unfavorable, and 100 = extremely favorable. is the actual assignment of a number from 1 to 100 to each respondent. is the process of placing the respondents on a continuum with respect to their attitude toward department stores. A) Measurement; Scaling B) Scaling; Ranking C) Scaling; Measurement D) Ranking; Measurement Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 67) Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary scales of measurement? A) nominal scales B) ordinal scales C) interval scales D) random scales E) C and D Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


68) A scale whose numbers serve only as labels or tags for identifying and classifying objects with a strict one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the objects is called a(n) . A) nominal scale B) ratio scale C) ordinal scale D) interval scale E) random scale Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 69) Which of the following primary scales of measurement is recognized as the most basic or limited? A) ordinal scales B) nominal scales C) ratio scales D) interval scales E) random scale Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 70) According to the text, A) ratio scales B) ordinal scales C) interval scales D) random scales E) nominal scales Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2

are the simplest to use.

71) The most complex of the primary scales of measurement is the A) ordinal scale B) interval scale C) ratio scale D) nominal scale E) random scale Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2

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72) Which of the following primary scales of measurement is used for classification purposes? A) ordinal scales B) ratio scales C) nominal scales D) interval scales E) random scales Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 73) In a department store project, numbers 1 through 10 were assigned to the 10 stores considered in the study. Suppose store number 9 referred to Sears and store number 6 referred to Neiman Marcus. Using this information, which of the following statements is true? A) Sears is in some way superior or inferior to Neiman Marcus. B) It is meaningful to state that the number of the average store is 5.5. C) Both A and B are true. D) None of the above statements are true. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 74) According to the text, means that there is no overlap between classes and every object being measured falls into only one class. A) mutually exclusive B) collectively exclusive C) mutually exhaustive D) collectively exhaustive E) object non-overlap Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 75) According to the text, means that all the objects fall into one of the classes. A) mutually exclusive B) collectively exclusive C) mutually exhaustive D) collectively exhaustive E) object non-overlap Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


76) The numbers assigned in a(n) being measured. A) nominal scale B) ordinal scale C) interval scale D) ratio scale E) random scale Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2

do not reflect relative amounts of the characteristic

77) A ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative extent to which some characteristic is possessed is called a(n) . A) nominal scale B) ordinal scale C) interval scale D) ratio scale E) random scale Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 78) A(n) is a scale in which the numbers are used to rate objects such that numerically equal distances on the scale represent equal distances in the characteristic being measured. A) nominal scale B) ordinal scale C) interval scale D) ratio scale E) random scale Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 79) A(n) is the highest level of measurement and allows the researcher to identify or classify objects, rank order the objects, and compare intervals or differences. A) ratio scale B) nominal scale C) ordinal scale D) interval scale E) random scale Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


80) The scaling techniques commonly used in marketing research can be classified into and . A) random; nonrandom scales B) comparative; noncomparative scales C) interval; ratio scales D) nominal; ordinal scales E) object; non-object scales Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 81) A is one of the two types of scaling techniques in which there is direct comparison of stimulus objects with one another. A) random scale B) nonrandom scale C) comparative scale D) noncomparative scale E) direct scale Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 82) A major disadvantage of comparative scales would be which of the following? A) Halo or carryover effects are reduced. B) Respondents bring the same point of reference to a task. C) The resulting data measures relative differences. D) Only big differences between objects can be detected. E) A researcher cannot generalize beyond the objects under study. Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 83) According to the text, comparative scaling is sometimes referred to as A) metric scaling B) random scaling C) monadic scaling D) nonmetric scaling E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3

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84) A(n) is one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the others. A) random scale B) nonrandom scale C) comparative scale D) noncomparative scale E) independence scale Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 85) Which of the following is NOT a classification of itemized rating scales? A) Likert scales B) semantic differential scales C) Stapel scales D) perceptual scales E) All of the above are classifications of itemized rating scales. Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 86) Which of the following is NOT recognized as a comparative scaling technique? A) rank order scaling B) paired comparison scaling C) constant sum scaling D) semantic differential scaling E) All of the above are comparative scaling techniques. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 87) A comparative scaling technique in which a respondent is presented with two objects at a time and asked to select one object in the pair according to some criterion is called . A) rank order scaling B) paired comparison scaling C) constant sum scaling D) semantic differential scaling E) semantic meaning scaling Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


88) A comparative scaling technique in which respondents are presented with several objects simultaneously and asked to order or rank them according to some criterion is called . A) rank order scaling B) paired comparison scaling C) constant sum scaling D) semantic differential scaling E) semantic meaning scaling Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 89) forces the respondent to discriminate among alternatives and also comes closer to resembling the shopping environment. A) Constant sum scaling B) Rank order scaling C) Paired comparison scaling D) Semantic differential scaling E) Discriminative scaling Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 90) In , respondents allocate a constant sum of units, such as points, dollars, or chips, among a set of alternatives according to some specified criterion. A) rank order scaling B) paired comparison scaling C) constant sum scaling D) semantic differential scaling E) semantic meaning scaling Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 91) A major disadvantage of constant sum scaling is that it . A) is limited to large discriminations among alternatives B) takes too much time to collect C) has no absolute zero point D) cannot be considered an ordinal scale E) cannot prevent respondents from allocating more or fewer units than those specified Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


92) According to the text, the constant sum should be considered a(n) A) ordinal scale B) ratio scale C) interval scale D) nominal scale E) random scale Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3

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93) In developing countries, which of the following scales would be best for measuring consumer preferences? A) ordinal scales B) ratio scales C) interval scales D) substantive scales E) dichotomous scales Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 7 94) A(n) is one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the other objects in the stimulus set. A) noncomparative scale B) continuous rating scale C) itemized rating scale D) Likert scale E) random scale Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 95) Which of the following describes a measurement scale in which respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate position on a line that runs from one extreme of the criterion variable to the other? A) a comparative scale B) a continuous rating scale C) an itemized rating scale D) a Likert scale E) extreme scaling Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


96) Scores assigned to continuous rating scales by the researcher are typically treated as data. A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio E) constant Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 97) A(n) allows the respondent to place a mark at any point along a line running between two extreme points rather than selecting from among a set of predetermined response categories. A) comparative scale B) itemized rating scale C) continuous rating scale D) Likert scale E) extreme scaling Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 98) Which of the following types of scales are sometimes referred to as graphic rating scales? A) noncomparative scales B) continuous rating scales C) itemized rating scales D) Likert scales E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 99) Which scale is NOT an itemized rating scale? A) Likert scale B) semantic differential scale C) continuous rating scale D) Stapel scale E) semantic differential Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 4


100) According to the text, which of the following is NOT one of the commonly used itemized rating scales? A) Likert scale B) semantic differential C) Stapel scale D) random scale E) All of the above are commonly used itemized rating scales. Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 101) A(n) is a measurement scale having numbers and/or brief descriptions associated with each category with the categories ordered in terms of scale position. A) comparative scale B) itemized rating scale C) continuous rating scale D) Likert scale E) descriptor scale Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 102) A measurement scale with five response categories ranging from "strongly disagree" to "strongly agree," which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus object is called a(n) . A) Likert scale B) semantic differential C) Stapel scale D) opinion rating scale E) penta scales Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


103) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Likert scale? A) easy to construct B) easy to administer C) easy for the respondent to understand D) the number of scale points can vary E) respondents read a short phrase rather than an entire statement Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 104) Which of the following types of scales is described as a seven-point rating scale with end points associated with bipolar labels that have semantic meaning? A) Likert scale B) semantic differential C) Stapel scale D) balanced rating scale E) select scales Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 105) When using a(n) , the respondent is typically asked to rate a brand, store, or some other object in terms of bipolar adjectives, such as cold and warm. A) Likert scale B) Stapel scale C) balanced rating scale D) semantic differential E) image scale Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 106) A scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle of an evennumbered range of values is called a . A) Likert scale B) semantic differential C) Stapel scale D) balanced rating scale E) mid-range scale Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


107) Which noncomparative scale is analyzed using profile analysis? A) Likert scale B) semantic differential scale C) Stapel scale D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 108) What type of scale is this? Sears is: Powerful —:—:—:—:-X-:—:—: Weak Unreliable —:—:—:—:—:-X-:—: Reliable A) Likert scale B) semantic differential scale C) continuous rating scale D) Stapel scale E) visual scale Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 109) Scale categories can be A) assigned numerical values B) presented horizontally C) expressed by boxes D) expressed by discrete lines E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5

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110) A scale consisting of multiple items, in which an item is a single question or statement to be evaluated, is called a . A) forced rating scale B) systematic scale C) multiple measurement scale D) multi-item scale E) single question scale Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


111) affects the measurement in a constant way and represents stable factors that affect the observed score in the same way each time the measurement is made. A) Systematic error B) Random error C) Forced error D) Coefficient error E) Dispersion error Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 112) Which of the following types of error describes measurement error that arises from arbitrary changes that have a different effect each time the measurement is made? A) systematic error B) forced error C) coefficient error D) random error E) dispersion error Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 113) The extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated measurements are made on the characteristic is called . A) reliability B) validity C) accuracy D) efficiency E) substantiality Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 114) According to the text, which of the following formulas determines total measurement error? A) systematic error - random error B) systematic error + random error C) systematic error × random error D) systematic error/random error E) square root of (systematic error/random error ) Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


115) is the extent to which differences in observed scale scores reflect true differences among objects on the characteristic being measured, rather than systematic or random errors. A) Reliability B) Validity C) Effectiveness D) Consistency E) Substantive difference Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 116) Discuss measurement and scaling. What are they and how are they related? Answer: Measurement means assigning numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects according to certain prespecified rules. What is measured is not the object, but some characteristic of it. Thus, we do not measure consumers. We only measure their perceptions, attitudes, preferences, or other relevant characteristics. In marketing research, numbers are usually assigned for one of two reasons. First, numbers permit statistical analysis of the resulting data. Second, numbers facilitate the communication of measurement rules and results. The most important aspect of measurement is the specification of rules for assigning numbers to the characteristics. There must be one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the characteristics being measured. The rules for assigning numbers should be standardized and applied uniformly. They must not change over objects or time. Scaling may be considered an extension of measurement. Scaling involves creating a continuum upon which measured objects are located. Consider a scale from 1 to 100 for locating consumers according to the characteristic "attitude toward department stores." Each respondent is assigned a number from 1 to 100 indicating the degree of (un)favorableness, with 1 = extremely unfavorable, and 100 = extremely favorable. Measurement is the actual assignment of a number from 1 to 100 to each respondent. Scaling is the process of placing the respondents on a continuum with respect to their attitude toward department stores. Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


117) In a short essay, list and discuss the four primary scales of measurement. Include an example of how each scale of measurement is used in marketing research. Answer: a. A nominal scale uses numbers as labels or tags for identifying and classifying objects. When a nominal scale is used for identification, there is a strict one-to-one correspondence between the numbers being assigned and the objects being measured. Each number is assigned to only one object, and each object has only one number assigned to it. In marketing research, nominal scales are used for identifying participants in a study, brands, attributes, stores, and other objects. b. An ordinal scale is a ranking scale. In an ordinal scale, numbers are assigned to objects, which allows researchers to determine whether an object has more or less of a characteristic than some other object. However, this type of scale cannot determine how much more or less the characteristics differ from the other object. In marketing research, ordinal scales are used to measure relative attitudes, opinions, perceptions, and preferences. c. An interval scale is a scale in which the numbers are used to rate objects such that numerically equal distances on the scale represent equal distances in the characteristic being measured. An interval scale contains all the information of an ordinal scale. In addition, it allows the comparison of differences between objects. In marketing research, data on attitudes obtained from rating scales are often treated as interval data. d. A ratio scale is the highest level of measurement and allows the researcher to identify or classify objects, rank order the objects, and compare intervals or differences. In addition, an absolute zero point is specified; that is, the origin of the scale is fixed. When measurement is taken using ratio scales, a researcher can identify or classify objects, rank the objects, and compare intervals or differences. In marketing, sales, costs, market share, and number of customers are variables measured on a ratio scale. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 118) In a short essay, compare and contrast the categories of mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive. Answer: Nominal scales are used for classification purposes. They serve as labels for classes or categories. The classes are mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive. Mutually exclusive means that there is no overlap between classes; every object being measured falls into only one class. The objects in each class are viewed as equivalent in terms of the characteristic represented by the nominal scale. All objects in the same class have the same number, and no two classes have the same number. Collectively exhaustive means that all the objects fall into one of the classes. For example, the numbers 1 and 2 can be used to classify survey respondents based on sex or gender, with 1 denoting females and 2 denoting male. Each respondent will fall into one of these two categories. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


119) In a short essay, discuss the difference between comparative and noncomparative scales. Include an example of each scaling technique to support your answer. Answer: Comparative scales involve the direct comparison of two or more objects. For example, respondents might be asked whether they prefer Coke or Pepsi. A comparative scale gives the marketer data that measure relative differences. It has only ordinal or rank order properties. In noncomparative scales, objects are scaled independently of each other. The resulting data are generally assumed to be interval scaled. For example, respondents may be asked to evaluate Coke on a 1 to 7 preference scale (1 = not at all preferred, 7 = greatly preferred). Similar evaluations would be obtained for Pepsi and RC Cola. Noncomparative scales comprise continuous rating or itemized rating scales. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 120) In a short essay, list and discuss the three types of comparative scaling techniques. Include a specific example for each scaling technique to support your answer. Answer: a. Paired comparison scaling is a comparative scaling technique in which a respondent is presented with two objects at a time and asked to select one object in the pair according to some criterion. Data obtained in this way are ordinal in nature. For example, a consumer involved in a paired comparison study may state that she shops in J.C. Penney more than in Sears, likes Total cereal better than Kellogg's Product 19, or likes Crest toothpaste more than Colgate. Paired comparison scales are frequently used when the research involves physical products. b. Rank order scaling is a comparative scaling technique in which respondents are presented with several objects simultaneously and asked to order or rank them according to some criterion. For example, consumers may be asked to rank brands of jeans according to overall preference. These rankings are typically obtained by asking the respondents to assign a rank of 1 to the most preferred brand, 2 to the second most preferred, and so on, until each alternative is ranked down to the least preferred brand. c. Constant sum scaling is a comparative scaling technique in which respondents are required to allocate a constant sum of units, such as points, dollars, or chips, among a set of stimulus objects with respect to some criterion. Respondents may be asked, for example, to allocate 100 points to eight attributes of a bath soap. The points are allocated to represent the importance attached to each attribute. If an attribute is unimportant, the respondent assigns it zero points. If an attribute is twice as important as some other attribute, the respondent assigns it twice as many points. All the points a respondent assigns must total 100. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


121) In a short essay, discuss the relationship of measurement and scaling to the marketing research process. Answer: The marketing research problem is defined in Step 1. Based on this definition, an approach to the problem is developed (Step 2). An important component of the approach is specifying the information needed to address the marketing research problem. Measurement and scaling are part of the research design (Step 3). The researcher must identify an appropriate level of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio) for each item of information needed and identify an appropriate noncomparative or comparative scaling technique to measure it. When designing a questionnaire, also part of the research design (Step 3), the researcher must translate the information needed to appropriate questions using the identified scales. While conducting fieldwork (Step 4), the questions should be administered using the appropriate scales. When analyzing the data (Step 5), the researcher should use only those statistical techniques that are compatible with the measurement level of the data. Finally, in Step 6, the report should discuss the statistical results and the findings in light of the scales used to measure the variables. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 122) In a short essay, list and discuss the three commonly used itemized rating scales in marketing. Include at least one advantage and one disadvantage of each itemized rating scale to support your answer. Answer: a. The Likert scale is a measurement scale with five response categories ranging from "strongly disagree" to "strongly agree," which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to a stimulus object. The Likert scale has several advantages that include being easy for the researcher to construct and administer and being easy for the respondent to understand. The major disadvantage is that it takes longer for respondents to complete than other itemized rating scales. b. The semantic differential is a seven-point rating scale with end points associated with bipolar labels that have semantic meaning. When using a semantic differential, the respondent is typically asked to rate a brand, store, or some other object in terms of these bipolar adjectives, such as cold and warm. The advantage of this scale is its versatility. The major disadvantage is the difficulty in determining the appropriate bipolar adjectives required to construct the scale. c. The Stapel scale measures attitudes that consist of a single adjective in the middle of an even-numbered range of values. Respondents indicate how accurately or inaccurately each term describes an object by selecting the number that is appropriate. The higher the number, the more accurately the adjective describes the object. The advantage of this scale is that it is simple to use. However, some researchers consider the Stapel scale's disadvantage to be that it is confusing and difficult to apply. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


123) In a short essay, discuss the proper steps in choosing a scaling technique for a particular marketing research problem. Answer: In addition to theoretical considerations and evaluation of reliability and validity, the researcher should consider certain practical factors in selecting scaling techniques for a particular marketing research problem. These include the level of measurement desired, the experience of the respondents with the research topic, the difficulty of administering the scales, and the context. As a general rule, the scaling technique used should be the one that will yield the highest level of measurement feasible. Such a scaling technique will permit the greatest flexibility in statistical analysis of the results. Additionally, using multiple scale items to measure the same characteristic will improve the accuracy of results. In many situations, it is desirable to use more than one scaling technique. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 124) In a short essay, discuss issues related to the use of scale in international research. Answer: Respondents may be asked to indicate the verbal descriptors for the extreme scale categories (anchors) before positioning an object along the scale. This approach is useful when conducting attitude research related to cultural norms (for example, attitude toward friends). Suppose the researcher is interested in measuring the influence of friends on the purchase of personal clothing in a cross-cultural study involving students in the United States and India. The question asked is, "To what extent should your friends influence your purchase of personal clothing?" The responses are obtained on a seven-point scale. Respondents in India may provide the anchors as 1 = little, 7 = much. Respondents in the United States may provide different anchors: 1 = not at all, 7 = a great deal. Such scales have proven to be universally adaptable because they are relatively insensitive to differences in educational level across countries. On the other hand, if the researchers specify the anchors, they should pay special attention to determining equivalent verbal descriptors in different languages and cultures. The end descriptors used to anchor the scale are particularly prone to different interpretations. Additionally, the scale numbering may have different meanings. In some cultures, 1 may be interpreted as best, while in others it may be interpreted as worst, regardless of how it is scaled (1 = best, 7 = worst, or 1 = worst, 7 = best). In such cases, it may be desirable to avoid numbers and to just use boxes that respondent can check (worst □ □ □ □ □ □ □ best). It is important that the scale end points and the verbal descriptors be employed in a manner that is consistent with the culture. Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 7


Essentials of Marketing Research (Malhotra) Chapter 8 Questionnaire and Form Design 1) A questionnaire is a structured technique for data collection that consists of a series of questions, written or verbal, which a respondent answers. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 2) A questionnaire is an informal set of questions for obtaining information from respondents. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 3) A well-designed questionnaire can motivate the respondents and increase the response rate. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 4) According to the text, a conversational style should be avoided when writing intervieweradministered questionnaires. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 5) Collecting demographic information that can be used in direct mail campaigns is mentioned in the text as a specific objective of a questionnaire. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 6) The last step in the questionnaire design process is to reproduce the questionnaire. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 7) A single question that attempts to cover two issues is called a double-barreled question. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


8) When respondents are unable to articulate a response to a question, this usually indicates they have no opinion on that topic. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 9) To increase the likelihood of obtaining sensitive information, such topics should be placed in the middle of the questionnaire. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 10) Open-ended is a popular form of structured question. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 11) Open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words are called unstructured questions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 12) According to the text, unstructured questions are also referred to as free-response or freeanswer questions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 13) Dichotomous questions allow the respondent to express their attitudes or opinions without the bias associated with restricting responses to predefined alternatives. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 14) Open-ended questions are most useful in conclusive research and as opening questions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


15) Questions that prespecify the set of response alternatives and the response format are called structured questions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 16) In multiple-choice questions, the researcher provides a choice of answers, and respondents are asked to select one or more of the alternatives given. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 17) An open-ended question is a structured question with only two response alternatives, such as yes or no. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 18) According to the text, dichotomous questions should be used when the researcher has reason to believe that the respondent thinks of the topic in yes/no terms. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 19) To avoid problems in question wording, a researcher should use leading questions when designing a questionnaire. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 20) A researcher should use questions with positive statements only to avoid problems with question wording. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


21) "Usually," "normally," and "frequently" are examples of words that are oftentimes considered confusing to respondents. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 22) A question that gives the respondent a clue as to what the answer should be is called a leading question. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 23) Problem-solving information is one of the three types of information that is obtained in a questionnaire. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 24) Basic information is the most important aspect of a marketing research study. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 25) According to the text, classification information is information that relates directly to the marketing research problem. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 26) Socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to categorize respondents are referred to as basic information. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 27) Identification information is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address, and phone number. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


28) Classification information is considered most sensitive and, therefore, should appear at the very end of the questionnaire. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 29) A strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire in which the sequence starts with the general questions, which are followed by progressively more specific questions, in order to prevent specific questions from biasing general questions, is called the funnel approach. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 30) According to the text, branching questions direct respondents to different places in the questionnaire based on their response to the question at hand. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 31) A leading question is a question used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 32) Questions regarding identification information generally come before questions regarding demographics. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 33) Pretesting is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the purpose of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential problems before using it in the actual survey. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


34) Respondents for the pretest and for the actual survey should NOT be drawn from the same population. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 35) According to the text, pretests are best done by telephone interviews. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 36) One consistency in conducting cross-national studies is the universal definition of "household" and "household size" across countries of the world. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 5 37) Forms for recording observational data are more difficult to construct than questionnaires. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 38) Analysis of social media can give an understanding that can be valuable in designing an appropriate questionnaire for use in social media surveys but not in traditional surveys. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 39) An analysis of social media content can aid in determining the content, structure, and wording of individual questions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 40) For questionnaires to be used in surveys to be conducted in social media, the general principles and guidelines for questionnaire design remain the same as those for traditional media. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6


41) A(n) is a structured technique for data collection that consists of a series of questions, written or verbal, which a respondent answers. A) questionnaire B) observation C) focus group D) test market E) set of time-series questions Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 42) Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text as a specific objective to consider when designing a questionnaire? A) translate the researcher's information needs into a set of specific questions that respondents are willing and able to answer B) minimize demands imposed on respondents C) minimize response error D) collect demographic information that can be used in later direct mail campaigns E) minimize item nonresponse Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 43) Which of the following is NOT an objective of a questionnaire? A) A questionnaire must translate the information needed into a set of specific questions that the respondents can and will answer. B) Questionnaire data must be easy to analyze. C) A questionnaire must uplift, motivate, and encourage the respondent to become involved in the interview, to cooperate, and to complete the interview. D) A questionnaire should minimize response error. Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 44) Which of the following is the first step in the questionnaire design process? A) specify the information needed B) specify the type of interviewing method C) determine the content of individual questions D) decide on the question structure E) segment the customer base Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


45) Which of the following is the last step in the questionnaire design process? A) arrange the questions in proper order B) eliminate bugs by pretesting C) identify the form and layout D) reproduce the questionnaire E) present the results to the client Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 46) According to the text, a single question that attempts to cover two issues is called a . A) filtered question B) double-barreled question C) random question D) coefficient question E) two-issue query Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 47) Deciding if a question is necessary or if several questions are needed rather than one are decisions involved with . A) determining the order of scales B) choosing question wording C) choosing question structure D) individual question content E) minimizing item nonresponse Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 48) Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text as a reason people typically cannot answer a survey question? A) They may not be informed. B) They may not remember. C) They may not be able to articulate certain types of responses. D) All of the selections represent a reason people typically cannot answer a survey question. E) B and C Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


49) Initial questions in questionnaires that screen potential respondents to ensure they meet the requirements of the sample are called . A) double-barreled questions B) screening or qualifying questions C) random questions D) coefficient questions E) requirement questions Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 50) Which of the following is NOT a situation in which respondents are likely to refuse to answer a survey question? A) They may feel there's simply too much effort involved. B) They may feel that the question is not needed. C) They may feel that the information is too sensitive. D) The question is a screening question. E) All of the selections represent a circumstance where respondents are likely to refuse to answer a survey question. Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 51) Which of the following is NOT a popular form of structured question? A) multiple-choice B) dichotomous C) open-ended D) scales E) All of the above are forms of structured questions. Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 52) Open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words are called A) structured questions B) unstructured questions C) double-barreled questions D) filtered questions E) own-voice questions Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

.


53) According to the text, are also referred to as free-response or free-answer questions. A) structured questions B) unstructured questions C) double-barreled questions D) filtered questions E) free-bird questions Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 54) Which of the following types of questions allow respondents to express their attitudes or opinions without the bias associated with restricting responses to predefined alternatives? A) multiple-choice questions B) open-ended questions C) dichotomous questions D) structured questions E) alternative questions Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 55) All of the following are mentioned in the text as disadvantages that are related to unstructured questions EXCEPT . A) respondent response limitations B) recording error C) data coding D) unstructured questions are not suitable for self-administered questionnaires E) All of the above are disadvantages. Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 56) Open-ended questions are most useful in A) descriptive research B) exploratory research C) conclusive research D) virtual research E) confirmatory research Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

and as opening questions.


57) Questions that prespecify the set of response alternatives and the response format are called . A) unstructured questions B) structured questions C) open-ended questions D) double-barreled questions E) response-alternative questions Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 58) In , the researcher provides a choice of answers, and respondents are asked to select one or more of the alternatives given. A) open-ended questions B) dichotomous questions C) multiple-choice questions D) random questions E) response-alternative questions Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 59) A(n) is a structured question with only two response alternatives, such as yes or no. A) dichotomous question B) open-ended question C) multiple-choice question D) random question E) yay-nay question Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


60) According to the text, should be used when the researcher has reason to believe that the respondent thinks of the topic in yes/no terms. A) open-ended questions B) multiple-choice questions C) dichotomous questions D) random questions E) yay-nay answers Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 61) In wording questions, the researcher should avoid doing all of the following EXCEPT . A) use industry jargon B) avoid ambiguous words C) use leading questions D) use positive and negative statements E) All of the above are things a researcher should avoid doing when writing questions. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 62) Which of the following of the 6 W's is NOT particularly well-suited for serving as a guideline for defining the issue in a question? A) Who B) What C) When D) Where E) Why Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 63) Which of the following is NOT a guideline that should be followed to avoid problems in question wording? A) use positive statements only B) define the issue C) use ordinary words D) avoid ambiguous words E) avoid leading questions Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


64) Which of the words below, when used in a question, tend to be confusing to respondents? A) usually B) normally C) frequently D) sometimes E) All may be confusing to respondents. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 65) A question that gives the respondent a clue as to what the answer should be is called a(n) . A) filtered question B) double-barreled question C) leading question D) open-ended question E) clue question Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 66) Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of information that is obtained from a questionnaire? A) basic information B) problem-solving information C) classification information D) identification information E) C and D Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 67) Which of the following types of information is the most important aspect of a marketing research study? A) basic information B) classification information C) problem-solving information D) identification information E) quantification information Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


68) According to the text, is information that relates directly to the marketing research problem. A) classification information B) problem-solving information C) basic information D) identification information E) quantification information Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 69) Socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to categorize respondents are referred to as . A) basic information B) classification information C) problem-solving information D) identification information E) quantification information Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 70) is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address, email address and phone number. A) Basic information B) Classification information C) Problem-solving information D) Identification information E) Phone book information Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


71) Which of the following types of information is considered most sensitive and, therefore, should appear at the end of the questionnaire? A) basic information B) identification information C) problem-solving information D) random information E) quantification information Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 72) A strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire in which the sequence starts with general questions, which are followed by progressively more specific questions, in order to prevent specific questions from biasing general questions, is called the . A) unstructured approach B) funnel approach C) diagnostic approach D) goal-oriented approach E) inverted-funnel approach Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 73) According to the text, direct respondents to different places in the questionnaire based on their response to the question at hand. A) branching questions B) leading questions C) double-barreled questions D) filter questions E) break-out questions Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


74) A is a question used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given. A) branching question B) leading question C) double-barreled question D) filter question E) break-out questions Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 75) According to the text, identification information is usually positioned in which place in the questionnaire? A) at the beginning B) right after the screening questions C) in the middle D) before the lifestyle questions E) at the end Answer: E Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 76) is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the purpose of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential problems before using it in the actual survey. A) Precoding B) Pretesting C) Sampling D) Encoding E) Consolidation Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 77) According to the text, pretests are best done by A) telephone B) electronic C) mail D) personal E) online Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

interviews.


78) Regarding international marketing research, which of the following statements is true? A) Only one pretest is recommended in cross-national studies. B) Demographics questions can be used without modification in cross-national studies. C) Structured questions minimize the risk of cultural bias but are more sensitive to differences in educational levels. D) Personal interviewing is the dominant survey method. E) C and D Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 5 79) According to the text, at what point are telephone interviews considered to be too long? A) over 10 minutes B) over 15 minutes C) over 20 minutes D) over 25 minutes E) over 30 minutes Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 7 80) In a short essay, describe a questionnaire and discuss the three specific objectives of a questionnaire. Answer: A questionnaire is a formalized set of questions for obtaining information from respondents. It has three specific objectives. First, the overriding objective is to translate the researcher's information needs into a set of specific questions that respondents are willing and able to answer. Second, a questionnaire should be written to minimize demands imposed on respondents. It should encourage them to participate in the entire interview, without biasing their responses. Third, a questionnaire should minimize response error. These errors can arise from respondents who give inaccurate answers or from misrecording or misanalyzing their answers. Minimizing the error introduced by the questionnaire itself is an important objective of questionnaire design. Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


81) In a short essay, list the ten steps to designing the ideal questionnaire. Answer: The guidelines to support questionnaire design include the following 10 steps: (1) specify the information needed, (2) specify the type of interviewing method, (3) determine the content of individual questions, (4) design the questions to overcome the respondent's inability and unwillingness to answer, (5) decide on the question structure, (6) determine the question wording, (7) arrange the questions in proper order, (8) choose the form and layout, (9) reproduce the questionnaire, and (10) pretest the questionnaire. Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 82) If a researcher were trying to overcome the unwillingness of respondents to answer by considering the effort required of the respondents, what might he/she do to make the respondent more willing to respond? Develop an example question (showing the incorrect and correct way to best overcome the respondents unwillingness to answer) to clarify your response. Answer: The researcher should minimize the effort required by providing lists of options for respondents to check off instead of asking respondents to provide their own list. (The student should provide his/her own supporting example like the one given in the book.) Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 83) In a short essay, define unstructured questions and discuss at least two advantages and two disadvantages to using these types of questions. Answer: Unstructured questions are open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words. They are also referred to as free-response or free-answer questions. The advantages of open-ended questions include enabling the respondents to express general attitudes and opinions that can help the researcher interpret their responses to structured questions. Openended questions allow the respondent to express their attitudes or opinions without the bias associated with restricting responses to predefined alternatives. Thus they can be useful in identifying underlying motivations, beliefs, and attitudes. Unstructured questions are useful in exploratory research. The disadvantages of unstructured questions relate to recording error, data coding, and the added complexity of analysis. In personal or telephone interviews, successfully recording verbatim comments depends entirely on the recording skills of the interviewer. Categorizing the recording comments to open-ended questions introduces the second source of bias and another major disadvantage. Unstructured questions are also of limited value in selfadministered questionnaires because respondents tend to be briefer in writing than in speaking. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


84) In a short essay, list and discuss at least four guidelines that should be followed in order to avoid problems in question wording. Answer: a. Define the issue — questions should always clearly define the issue being addressed. An issue should be defined in terms of who, what, when, where, why, and way. These, particularly who, what, when, and where, can also serve as guidelines for defining the issue in a question. b. Use simple words — simple, ordinary words that match the vocabulary level of the respondent should be used in a questionnaire. When choosing words, keep in mind that the average person in the United States has a high school, not a college, education. c. Use unambiguous words — when selecting words for a questionnaire, the questionnaire designer should choose words with only one meaning. This is not an easy task given that a number of words that appear unambiguous can have different meanings to different people. d. Avoid producing leading or biasing questions — a leading question is one that clues the respondent to what the answer should be. Words can lead respondents in a particular direction. Identification of the research sponsor can have the same effect. e. Balance dual statements — evidence shows that the responses obtained from questions often depend on the direction of the wording of the question — whether the wording is stated positively or negatively. Questions of this type should be balanced by using dual statements, some of which are positive and some negative. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 85) In a short essay, list and discuss the three types of information that are obtained from a questionnaire. Answer: The three types of information obtained from a questionnaire include basic information, classification information, and identification information. Basic information relates directly to the research problem. Classification information consists of socioeconomic and demographic characteristics. It is used to classify the respondents in order to analyze results across different groups. Identification information includes name, address, and telephone number. Identification information may be obtained for a variety of purposes, including verifying that the respondents listed were actually interviewed and remitting promised incentives. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


86) Pretesting refers to the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents to identify and eliminate potential problems. Discuss what the researcher expects to gain from pretesting the questionnaire. Answer: All aspects of the questionnaire should be tested. Subsequent pretests done after changes are made from an initial pretest should reveal whether the problems have been corrected. The project director, the researcher who developed the questionnaire, and other key members of the research team should conduct some pretest interviews to gain a feel for potential problems and the nature of expected data. Experienced interviewers can easily perceive uneasiness, confusion, and resistance in the respondents. New interviewers can help the researcher identify interviewer-related problems. Analysis of pretest responses can serve as a check on the adequacy of the problem definition and the data and the analysis required to obtain the necessary information. Analysis of pretest data helps to ensure that all data collected will be utilized and that the questionnaire will obtain all the necessary data. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 87) In a short essay, discuss ethical issues of questionnaire design related to a) the researcher/respondent relationship, and b) the researcher/client relationship. Answer: a. Researcher/respondent relationship — In consideration of the respondents, questions that are confusing, exceed the respondents' ability, are difficult, or are otherwise improperly worded should be avoided. When asking sensitive questions, researchers should attempt to minimize the respondents' discomfort. It should be made clear at the beginning of the questionnaire that respondents are not obligated to answer any question that makes them uncomfortable. Similarly, overly long questionnaires should be avoided. As a general guideline, the following are considered overly long: a personal, in-home interview lasting over 60 minutes, a telephone interview over 30 minutes, a mall-intercept interview over 30 minutes, a mail or electronic interview over 30 minutes. Overly long questionnaires are burdensome on the respondents and adversely affect the quality of responses. b. Researcher/client relationship — Finally, the researcher has the ethical responsibility to design a questionnaire that obtains the required data in an unbiased manner. Deliberately biasing the questionnaire in a desired direction — for example, by asking leading questions — cannot be condoned. In deciding the question structure, the most appropriate rather than the most convenient option should be adopted. If the questionnaire is not thoroughly pretested, an ethical breach has occurred. Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 7


Essentials of Marketing Research (Malhotra) Chapter 9 Sampling: Design and Procedures 1) In sampling, an incident is the object or person about which or from which the information is desired. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 2) Objects that possess the information the researcher seeks and about which the researcher will make inferences are called elements. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 3) According to the text, in survey research, the element is usually the interviewer. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 4) A population is the total of all the elements that share some common set of characteristics. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 5) The aggregate of all elements, sharing some common set of characteristics, which comprises the universe for the purpose of the marketing research problem, is called the sample. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 6) A census involves a complete count of each element in a population. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 7) A census can greatly decrease nonsampling error. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


8) A complete enumeration of the elements of a population or study object is called a sample. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 9) It is not always possible to reduce nonsampling error sufficiently to compensate for sampling error. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 10) An incident is a subgroup of the elements of the population selected for participation in the study. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 11) If a great deal of the company's product would need to be consumed as part of the study, then a census would be appropriate. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 12) According to the text, the first step in the sampling design process is to determine the sample size. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 13) The collection of elements or objects that possess the information the researcher seeks and about which the researcher will make inferences is called the target population. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


14) The target population should be defined in terms of elements, sample units, extent, and time frame. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 15) A sampling unit is the basic unit containing the elements of the population to be sampled. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 16) A sampling frame is a representation of the elements of the target population, which consists of a list or set of directions for identifying the target population. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 17) If the sampling unit is different from the element, it is necessary to specify precisely how the elements within the sampling unit should be selected. Selecting the person within the sampling unit with the next birthday is an appropriate way to precisely specify which element to sample. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 18) Every potential nonprobability sample needs to have the same probability of selection. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 19) Probability sampling relies on the personal judgment of the researcher, rather than chance, in selecting sampling elements. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 20) Sampling techniques that do not use chance selection procedures and rely on the personal judgment of the researcher are called nonprobability sampling techniques. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


21) An example of nonprobability sampling is interviewing people in malls. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 22) According to the text, precision refers to the level of uncertainty about the characteristic being measured. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 23) In nonprobability sampling, sampling elements are selected by chance, that is, randomly. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 24) A sampling procedure in which each element of the population has a fixed probabilistic chance of being selected for the sample is called probability sampling. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 25) The number of units to be included in a study is called the sample size. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 26) The typical range for sample size in problem solving research, product tests, and test marketing studies is 300-500 respondents. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 27) Cluster sampling is a commonly used nonprobability sampling technique. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


28) Quota sampling is an example of a commonly used probability sampling technique. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 29) Convenience sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique that attempts to obtain a sample of convenient elements and leaves the selection of sampling units primarily to the interviewer. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 30) Interviewing students, church groups, and members of social organizations are examples of convenience sampling. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 31) Convenience samples are appropriate to use with exploratory research. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 32) A form of convenience sampling in which the population elements are selected based on the researcher's discretion is called judgmental sampling. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 33) Judgmental sampling is a probability sampling technique in which each element in the population has a known and equal probability of selection. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


34) Quota sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique that is a two-stage restricted judgmental sampling. The first stage consists of developing control categories of population elements. In the second stage, sample elements are selected based on convenience or judgment. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 35) A nonprobability sampling technique in which an initial group of respondents is selected randomly and subsequent respondents are selected based on the referrals or information provided by the initial respondents is called snowball sampling. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 36) The major advantage of snowball sampling is that it substantially increases the likelihood of locating respondents in the population with the desired characteristic(s). Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 37) Sampling efficiency refers to the trade-off between sampling cost and precision. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 38) A probability sampling technique in which the sample is chosen by selecting a random starting point and then picking every ith element in succession from the sampling frame is called systematic sampling. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 39) Area sampling relies on clustering based on geographic areas such as counties, housing tracts, or blocks. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5


40) The social media sampling frame is unbiased and appropriate for use in marketing research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 41) Social media content available in the public domain is representative and appropriate for use in marketing research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 42) The representativeness of information from general social media can be improved by screening resulting in a more targeted and representative sample. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 8 43) Projecting findings based on nonprobability sampling to the population is misleading and therefore unethical. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 9 44) The results of business-to-business research should be presented in such a way that respondents can be identified and linked to specific comments and findings. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 9 45) Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic questions that is addressed in the sample design phase? A) "Should a sample be taken?" B) "What kind of sample should be taken?" C) "How much should the sample cost?" D) "How large should the sample be?" E) "What process should be followed?" Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


46) In sampling, a(n) is the object or person about which or from which the information is desired. A) element B) incident C) hypothesis D) census E) information unit Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 47) Objects that possess the information the researcher seeks and about which the researcher will make inferences is called a(n) . A) incident B) element C) hypothesis D) census E) inference unit Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 48) According to the text, in survey research, the element is usually the A) questionnaire B) interviewer C) respondent D) product E) Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA) Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

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49) A(n) is the total of all the elements that share some common set of characteristics. A) sample B) population C) inference D) hypothesis E) elements Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


50) The aggregate of all elements, sharing some common set of characteristics, which comprise the universe for the purpose of the marketing research problem, is called the . A) sample B) inference C) hypothesis D) population E) element aggregate Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 51) A(n) involves a complete count of each element in a population. A) census B) sample C) element D) sampling unit E) count Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 52) A complete enumeration of the elements of a population or study objects is called a(n) . A) sample B) element C) census D) sampling unit E) count Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 53) A(n) is a subgroup of the elements of the population selected for participation in the study. A) census B) element C) incident D) sample E) segment Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


54) Which of the following conditions does NOT favor the choice of using a sample over a census? A) small budget B) Time available is short. C) Population size is large. D) Variance in the characteristic of interest is low. E) Cost of sampling error is high. Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 55) According to the text, which of the following is the first step in the sampling design process? A) define the population B) determine the sampling frame C) select sampling technique(s) D) determine the sample size E) count your resources available Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 56) The collection of elements or objects that possess the information the researcher seeks and about which the researcher will make inferences is called the . A) target population B) census C) element D) incident E) intended abstract Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 57) The target population should be defined in terms of all of the following EXCEPT in terms of . A) elements B) cost C) sampling units D) time frame E) extent Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


58) A(n) is the basic unit containing the elements of the population to be sampled. A) hypothesis B) theory C) sampling unit D) coefficient alpha E) household Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 59) A(n) is a representation of the elements of the target population, which consists of a list or set of directions for identifying the target population. A) sampling frame B) census tract C) sampling unit D) hypothesis E) geodemographic template Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 60) relies on the personal judgment of the researcher, rather than chance, in selecting sampling elements. A) Nonprobability sampling B) Probability sampling C) Simple random sampling D) Systematic sampling E) Umpire sampling Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 61) Sampling techniques that do not use chance selection procedures and rely on the personal judgment of the researcher are called . A) probability sampling techniques B) nonprobability sampling techniques C) stratified sampling D) cluster sampling E) semantic differential sampling Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


62) Examples of nonprobability sampling include all of the following EXCEPT A) interviewing people at street corners B) interviewing people in retail stores C) interviewing people in malls D) asking for referrals from participants who volunteer E) All of the above selections are examples of nonprobability sampling. Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3

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63) According to the text, refers to the level of uncertainty about the characteristic being measured. A) precision B) reliability C) validity D) efficiency E) technical doubt Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 64) In , sampling elements are selected by chance, that is, randomly. A) nonprobability sampling B) convenience sampling C) judgmental sampling D) probability sampling E) lotto sampling Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 65) A sampling procedure in which each element of the population has a fixed probabilistic chance of being selected for the sample is called _ . A) probability sampling B) nonprobability sampling C) quota sampling D) snowball sampling E) window sampling Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


66) The number of units to be included in a study is called the A) census B) sampling frame C) sample size D) incident E) company roster Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

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67) All of the following are examples of commonly used nonprobability sampling techniques EXCEPT . A) judgmental sampling B) quota sampling C) snowball sampling D) cluster sampling E) convenience sampling Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 68) Which of the following is NOT an example of a commonly used probability sampling technique? A) quota sampling B) systematic sampling C) stratified sampling D) cluster sampling E) simple random sampling Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 69) is a nonprobability sampling technique that attempts to obtain a sample of convenient elements and leaves the selection of sampling units primarily to the interviewer. A) Convenience sampling B) Snowball sampling C) Simple random sampling D) Systematic sampling E) Window sampling Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


70) All of the following are examples of convenience sampling EXCEPT A) expert witnesses used in court B) use of students, church groups, and members of social organizations C) department stores using charge account lists D) tear-out questionnaires included in a magazine E) mall intercept interviews conducted without qualifying respondents Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4

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71) In which of the following types of research are convenience samples appropriate to use? A) descriptive research B) causal research C) exploratory research D) survey research E) any research where the goal is to draw population inferences Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 72) A form of convenience sampling in which the population elements are selected based on the researcher's discretion is called . A) quota sampling B) snowball sampling C) judgmental sampling D) sampling E) simple random sampling Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 73) Which of the following is NOT a common example of judgmental sampling? A) test markets selected to determine the potential of a new product B) purchase engineers selected in industrial marketing research because they are considered to be representative of the company C) department stores selected to test new merchandising display D) mall intercept interviews conducted without qualifying the respondents E) precincts selected in voting behavior research Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


74) is a nonprobability sampling technique that is a two-stage restricted judgmental sampling. The first stage consists of developing control categories of population elements. In the second stage, sample elements are selected based on convenience or judgment. A) Quota sampling B) Simple random sampling C) Snowball sampling D) Cluster sampling E) Stratified sampling Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 75) A nonprobability sampling technique in which an initial group of respondents is selected randomly and subsequent respondents are selected based on the referrals or information provided by the initial respondents is called . A) quota sampling B) snowball sampling C) stratified sampling D) cluster sampling E) respondent sampling Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 76) is a probability sampling technique in which each element in the population has a known and equal probability of selection. A) Simple random sampling B) Quota sampling C) Snowball sampling D) Cluster sampling E) Equivalent sampling Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


77) is a technique used to overcome the bias of unpublished and recent telephone numbers by selecting all telephone number digits at random. A) Systematic dialing B) Cluster dialing C) Quota dialing D) Random-digit dialing E) Speed dialing Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 78) Which of the following is NOT a weakness of simple random sampling? A) difficult to construct sampling frame B) expensive C) lower precision producing samples with large standard errors D) no assurance of representativeness E) not easily understood Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 79) Which of the following is NOT a weakness of stratified sampling? A) difficult to select relevant stratification variables B) not feasible to stratify on many variables C) expensive D) All are weaknesses of stratified sampling. E) None are weaknesses of stratified sampling. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 80) A probability sampling technique in which the sample is chosen by selecting a random starting point and then picking every ith element in succession from the sampling frame is called . A) simple random sampling B) snowball sampling C) cluster sampling D) systematic sampling E) succession sampling Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


81) According to the text, all of the following are challenges faced in implementing a sampling design in international research EXCEPT . A) individuals responsible for making or influencing decision may vary B) in developing an appropriate sampling frame one cannot rely on high-quality secondary data as one can in developed countries C) equivalence of samples can elude the researcher D) probability sampling techniques are uncommon overseas E) non-governmental organizations are needed for implementing the sampling design in some countries of the world Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 7 82) In a short essay, list and discuss the five steps in the sampling design process. Answer: a. Define the target population — sampling design begins by specifying the target population. It is essential that the researcher precisely define the target population if the data generated are to address the marketing research problem. Defining the target population involves translating the research problem into a precise statement of who should and should not be included in the sample. The target population should be defined in terms of elements, sampling units, extent, and time frame. b. Determine the sampling frame — a sampling frame is a representation of the elements of the target population. It consists of a list or set of directions for identifying the target population. A sampling frame can come from the telephone book, a computer program for generating telephone numbers, an association directory listing the firms in an industry, a mailing list purchased from a commercial organization, a city directory, or a map. If a listing is not readily available, it must be compiled. c. Select a sampling technique — selecting a sampling technique involves choosing nonprobability or probability sampling. d. Determine the sample size — determining the sample size involves both qualitative and quantitative considerations. Important qualitative factors that the researcher should consider in determining the sample size are (1) the importance of the decision, (2) the nature of the research, (3) the number of variables, (4) the nature of the analysis, (5) sample sizes used in similar studies, and (6) resource constraints. As a general rule, the more important the decision, the more precise the information must be. e. Execute the sampling process — execution of the sampling process refers to implementing the various details of the sample design. The population is defined, the sampling frame is compiled, and the sampling units are drawn using the appropriate sampling technique so as to achieve the required sample size. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


83) In a short essay, discuss the difference between nonprobability sampling and probability sampling. Include a specific example of each type of sampling to support your answer. Answer: a. Nonprobability sampling relies on the personal judgment of the researcher, rather than chance, in selecting sample elements. The researcher may select the sample arbitrarily, based on convenience, or make a conscious decision about which elements to include in the sample. Examples of nonprobability sampling include interviewing people at street corners, in retail stores, or in the malls. While nonprobability sampling produces good estimates of population characteristic, these techniques are limited. There is no way to objectively evaluate the precision of the sample results. b. In probability sampling, sampling elements are selected by chance, that is, randomly. The probability of selecting each potential sample from a population can be prespecified. While every potential sample need not have the same probability of selection, it is possible to specify the probability of selecting a particular sample of a given size. An example of a probability sample is a randomly drawn lottery. Confidence intervals can be calculated around the sample estimates, and it is meaningful to statistically project the sample results to the population, that is, draw inferences about the target population. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


84) In a short essay, list and discuss the four commonly used nonprobability sampling techniques used in marketing research. Answer: a. Convenience sampling attempts to obtain a sample of elements based on the convenience of the researcher. The selection of sampling units is left primarily to the interviewer. Often, respondents are selected because they happen to be in the right place at the right time. Examples of convenience sampling are (1) use of students, church groups, and members of social organizations, (2) mall intercept interviews conducted without qualifying the respondent, (3) department stores using charge account lists, (4) tear-out questionnaires included in magazines, (5) "people on the street" interviews, and (6) Internet browsers. b. Judgmental sampling is a form of convenience sampling in which the population elements are selected based on the researcher's judgment. The researcher chooses the sampling elements because she or he believes they represent the population of interest. Common examples of judgmental sampling include (1) test markets selected to determine the potential of a new product, (2) purchase engineers selected in industrial marketing research because they are considered to be representative of the company, (3) bellwether precincts selected in voting behavior research, (4) expert witnesses used in court, and (5) department stores selected to test a new merchandising display system. c. Quota sampling introduces two stages to the judgmental sampling process. The first stage consists of developing control categories, or quotas, of population elements. Once the quotas have been assigned, the second stage of the sampling process takes place. Elements are selected using a convenience or judgment process. There is considerable freedom in selecting the elements to be included in the sample. d. In snowball sampling, an initial group of respondents is selected, usually at random. After being interviewed, these respondents are asked to identify others who belong to the target population of interest. This process is continued, resulting in a snowball effect as one referral is obtained from another. Thus, the referral process effectively produces the sampling from which respondents are selected. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


85) In a short essay, list and discuss the four probability sampling techniques used in marketing research. Answer: a. In simple random sampling, each element in the population has a known and equal probability of selection. Furthermore, each possible sample of a given size has a known and equal probability of being the sample actually selected. The implication in a random sampling procedure is that each element is selected independently of every other element. b. In systematic sampling, the sample is chosen by selecting a random starting point and then picking every ith element in succession from the sampling frame. The frequency with which the elements are drawn, i, is called the sampling interval. It is determined by dividing the population size N by the sample size n and rounding to the nearest integer. c. Stratified sampling involves a two-step sampling process, producing a probability rather than a convenience or judgment sample. First, the population is divided into subgroups called strata. Every population element should be assigned to one and only one stratum, and no population elements should be omitted. Second, elements of each stratum are then randomly selected. A major objective of stratified sampling is to increase precision without increasing cost. d. In cluster sampling, the target population is first divided into mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive subpopulations, or clusters. Then a random sample of clusters is selected, based on a probability sampling technique. For each selected cluster, either all the elements are included in the sample or a sample of elements is drawn probabilistically. If all the elements in each selected cluster are included in the sample, the procedure is called one-stage cluster sampling. If a sample of elements is drawn probabilistically from each selected cluster, the procedure is two-stage cluster sampling. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 86) In a short essay, discuss the considerations that should be made when choosing between nonprobability sampling versus probability sampling for a market research study. Answer: Choosing between nonprobability and probability samples is based on considerations such as the nature of the research, the error contributed by the sampling process relative to the nonsampling error, variability in the population, and statistical and operational considerations. For example, in exploratory research the findings are treated as preliminary and the use of probability sampling may not be warranted. On the other hand, in conclusive research in which the researcher wishes to generalize results to the target population, as in estimating market shares, probability sampling is favored. Probability samples allow statistical projection of the results to a target population. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


Essentials of Marketing Research (Malhotra) Chapter 10 Data Collection and Preparation 1) According to the text, fieldwork is the first step in the marketing research process. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 2) Fieldwork is the step in the research process immediately after developing an approach to the problem. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 3) Fieldwork is the fifth step in the marketing research process. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 4) All fieldwork involves the selection, training, and supervision of persons who collect data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 5) An observer counting customers in a particular section of a store is an example of a field worker. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 6) The first step in the fieldwork process is the selection of field workers. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 7) Researchers have one choice for collecting their data: hire a data collection agency. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


8) Field workers who collect data typically have research backgrounds and extensive training. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 9) A researcher should decide what characteristics the field workers should have when selecting field workers. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 10) To the extent possible, interviewers should be selected to emphasize a higher income class than respondents, since this increases the probability of a successful interview. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 11) According to the text, the typical interviewer is a single woman aged 18 to 34, with an above-average education and an above-average household income. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 12) Field workers are generally paid an hourly rate or on a per-interview basis. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 13) Training ensures that all interviewers administer the questionnaire in the same manner so that the data can be collected uniformly. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 14) Interviewers should record responses after the interview. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


15) Validating the interview is recognized as a phase of the interviewing process. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 16) A motivational technique used when asking survey questions to induce the respondents to enlarge on, clarify, or explain their answers and to help the respondents focus on the specific content of the interview is called probing. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 17) All interviewers should use the same format and conventions to record the interviews, but should alter their way of editing completed interviews to ensure variety and coverage. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 18) The general rule for recording answers to unstructured questions is to record the responses verbatim. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 19) Sampling control helps respondents focus on the specific content of the interview and provide only relevant information. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 20) Supervision of field workers involves coding of questionnaires. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 21) To understand the interviewers' problems, the supervisors should do some interviewing. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


22) An important aspect of supervision is sampling control, which attempts to ensure that the interviewers are strictly following the sampling plan rather than selecting sampling units based on convenience or accessibility. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 23) To validate the study, the supervisors call 30 to 40 percent of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 24) According to the text, interviewer cheating can be minimized through pretesting of the questionnaires. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 25) Central office control involves tabulating the responses to important demographic characteristics and key questions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 26) Coding of fieldwork means verifying that field workers are submitting authentic interviews. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 27) To validate the study, the supervisors call 1 percent to 10 percent of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


28) The supervisor should ask a complex and sensitive survey question when validating an interview with a respondent. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 29) When evaluating field workers, the interviewer's time should be broken down into actual interviewing, travel, and administration. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 30) To evaluate interviewers on the quality of interviewing, the supervisor must directly observe the interviewing process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 31) For structured questions, frequent occurrence of nonresponse items is an indicator that should be used to evaluate an interviewer on the quality of interviewing. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 4 32) Research staff collecting and analyzing data from social media are normally part-time employees of the research firm. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 12 33) A limited number of operational staff or field workers, as few as two or three, may be assigned to a social media project. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 12


34) The selection, training, supervision, validation, and evaluation of field-workers is much more streamlined in social media fieldwork than in traditional fieldwork. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 12 35) According to the text, the data preparation process begins with checking the questionnaires for completeness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 36) The data preparation process begins after the fieldwork is done. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 37) The final data analysis plan should never differ from the preliminary plan for data analysis. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 38) Data preparation should only begin once all batches of questionnaires are received from the field. In this way, processing uniformity is boosted. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 39) Data cleaning is the last stage of the data preparation process. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 40) At the editing stage, the researcher makes a preliminary check for consistency. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


41) A review of the questionnaires with the objective of increasing accuracy and precision is called editing. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6 42) Deleting the question from the survey is an alternative for the treatment of unsatisfactory responses. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 43) Unsatisfactory responses from collected data may be discarded when the proportion of unsatisfactory respondents is 20 percent to 30 percent. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 6 44) Coding consists of screening questionnaires to identify illegible, incomplete, inconsistent, or ambiguous responses. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7 45) The assignment of a symbol to represent a specific response to a specific question, along with the data record and column position that symbol will occupy, is called coding. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7 46) According to the text, the symbols used in the assignment of codes to each possible response to each question is usually a number. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7


47) A book containing coding instructions and the necessary information about variables in the data set is called a codebook. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7 48) Only software programs developed for the research industry should be used to enter data, not programs such as Microsoft EXCEL. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7 49) Coding unstructured questions is relatively simple, since the response options are predetermined. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7 50) According to the text, category codes should be collectively exhaustive and mutually exclusive. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7 51) Data should be coded in a lean way in order to avoid retaining much detail. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7 52) Categories are collectively exhaustive if each response fits into one of the assigned category codes. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7 53) If possible, standard codes should be used for missing data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7


54) According to the text, categories are mutually exclusive if every response fits into one and only one of the assigned category codes. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7 55) When entering respondent data into a spreadsheet, each column contains the data for one respondent. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7 56) Transcribing data involves transferring the coded data from the questionnaires or coding sheets onto disks or directly into computers by key punching or other means. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7 57) Optical scanning involves direct machine reading of the codes and simultaneous transcription. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7 58) The thorough and extensive check for consistency and treatment of missing responses is called validating. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8 59) Data cleaning includes consistency checks and treatment of missing responses. The checks at this stage are less extensive than the checks made during editing. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8


60) A part of the data cleaning process that identifies data that are out of range or logically inconsistent, or that have extreme values, is called consistency checks. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 8 61) Missing responses represent values of a variable that are unknown, either because respondents provided ambiguous answers or their answers were not properly recorded. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 8 62) Treatment of missing responses poses problems, particularly if the proportion of missing responses is between 5 percent and 10 percent. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8 63) Casewise deletion is an option available for the treatment of missing responses. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8 64) A method for handling missing responses in which respondents with any missing responses are discarded from the analysis is called pairwise deletion. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8 65) Casewise deletion is a method of handling missing values in which for each calculation or analysis, only the respondents with complete responses are considered. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 8 66) Pairwise deletion may be appropriate when the sample size is large. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8


67) Considering the known characteristics of the data is a stage in selecting a data analysis strategy. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 10 68) Unlike traditional data collection, in social media respondents do not merely respond to questions or stimuli. Rather, they generate the data and edit it by their communal participation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 12 69) The data preparation process for social media is exactly similar to that for data collected by traditional means. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 12 70) A good rule of thumb about the discarding of respondents is that such decisions should be made before conducting any analysis. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 13 71) According to the text, fieldwork is the A) first step B) second step C) third step D) fourth step E) fifth step Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1

in the marketing research process.


72) Which of the following individuals is NOT recognized as a field worker? A) an interviewer intercepting shoppers in a mall B) a project director conducting a check on the data analysis C) a telephone interviewer calling from a central location D) an observer counting customers in a particular section of a store E) a worker mailing questionnaires from an office Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 73) All of the following are mentioned in the text as elements related to the fieldwork process EXCEPT the . A) selection of field workers B) validation of fieldwork C) evaluation of field workers D) training and supervision of field workers E) All of the mentioned elements are related to the fieldwork process. Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 74) The first step in the fieldwork process is the A) selection of field workers B) training of field workers C) supervision of field workers D) evaluation of field workers E) validation of fieldwork Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1

.

75) A researcher should implement all of the following steps when selecting field workers EXCEPT . A) develop job specification for the project B) decide what characteristics the field workers should have C) recruit appropriate individuals D) All of the mentioned steps should be followed when selecting field workers. E) None of these are steps to follow when selecting field workers. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


76) To the extent possible, interviewers should be selected probability of a successful interview. A) to emphasize a higher income class than respondents B) to match respondents' characteristics C) to emphasize a lower income class than respondents D) based primarily on their availability E) based on height and weight tables Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 77) According to the text, the typical interviewer is a education and an above-average household income. A) single woman aged 18 to 34 B) single woman aged 35 to 54 C) married woman aged 18 to 34 D) married woman aged 35 to 54 E) senior woman aged 55 to 65 Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1

since this increases the

, with an above-average

78) Which of the following is NOT recognized as a phase of the interviewing process? A) validating the interview B) making the initial contact C) asking the questions D) recording the answers E) probing Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 79) A motivational technique used when asking survey questions to induce the respondents to enlarge on, clarify, or explain their answers and to help the respondents focus on the specific content of the interview is called . A) probing B) sampling C) factoring D) recording E) selecting Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


80) helps respondents focus on the specific content of the interview and provide only relevant information. A) Sampling B) Factoring C) Probing D) Recording E) Selecting Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 81) The general rule for recording answers to unstructured questions is to A) summarize the responses B) record the responses verbatim C) filter the responses D) interpret the responses E) select the responses Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

.

82) Supervision of field workers involves all of the following EXCEPT A) quality control and editing B) sampling control C) central office control D) coding of questionnaires E) control of cheating Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 83) To understand the interviewers' problems, the supervisors should A) revise the questionnaire B) do some interviewing C) replace the interviewer D) interview the interviewer E) do secondary data analysis Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3

.

.


84) An important aspect of supervision is , which attempts to insure that the interviewers are strictly following the sampling plan rather than selecting sampling units based on convenience or accessibility. A) questionnaire design B) sequential coding C) sampling control D) pretesting E) insurance Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 85) To control the problems of interviewers not strictly following the sampling plan, supervisors should keep daily records of all of the following EXCEPT . A) the number of calls made B) the number of not-at-homes C) the number of refusals D) the number of completed interviews for each interviewer E) Supervisors should keep daily records of all of the selections to control interviewers. Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 86) According to the text, interviewer cheating can be minimized through all of the following EXCEPT through . A) proper training B) pretesting of questionnaires C) proper supervision D) validation of fieldwork E) All of the above will help to minimize interviewer cheating. Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


87) involves tabulating the responses to important demographic characteristics and key questions. A) Central office control B) Sampling control C) Control of cheating D) Questionnaire pretesting E) Cross-tabulation Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 88) of fieldwork means verifying that field workers are submitting authentic interviews. A) Verification B) Validation C) Pretesting D) Coding E) Selection Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3 89) To validate the study, the supervisors call the field workers actually conducted the interviews. A) 1 percent to 10 percent B) 10 percent to 25 percent C) 25 percent to 40 percent D) 40 percent to 49 percent E) 50 percent Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3

of the respondents to inquire whether

90) Which of the following types of questions should the supervisor NOT ask when validating an interview with a respondent? A) length of the interview B) a complex and sensitive survey question C) reaction to the interviewer D) basic demographic data E) quality of the interview Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3


91) When evaluating field workers, which category is relevant for assessing how effectively the interviewer's time was spent? A) actual interviewing B) travel C) administrative record-keeping D) reviewing responses E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 92) To evaluate interviewers on the quality of interviewing, the supervisor A) should ask other interviewers about the interviewer in question B) must directly observe the interviewing process C) should ask the respondent about the qualities of the interviewer in question D) should use a pretested questionnaire to evaluate the interviewer E) should ask permission of the interviewer Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4

.

93) Which of the following is NOT an indicator that should be used to evaluate an interviewer on the quality of interviewing? A) The recorded data are legible. B) All instructions, including skip patterns, are followed. C) The answers to unstructured questions are recorded verbatim. D) For structured questions, the data seem reasonable. E) The answers to unstructured questions are meaningful and complete enough to be coded. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 94) Which of the following indicators should NOT be used to evaluate interviewers on the quality of interviewing? A) Qualitative answers are summarized. B) For structured questions, item nonresponse occurs infrequently. C) The recorded data are legible. D) All instructions, including skip patterns, are followed. E) All are indicators relevant of evaluating interviewers. Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


95) When supervising field workers, supervisors should be concerned with all of the following EXCEPT . A) quality control B) pay levels C) sampling control D) control of cheating E) central office control Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 96) Conditions of conducting fieldwork in international marketing research include which of the following? A) Minimal training of overseas field workers is all that is required for success. B) Selecting sampling units is done with stricter adherence to the sampling plan than in the United States. C) Cheating by field workers is less of a problem. D) Sending expatriates to collect data overseas is frequently done. E) Local fieldwork agencies are unavailable in many countries. Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 11 97) When collecting qualitative data from social media, which of the following is a decision that has to be made? A) determining the type and specification of the social media channels to be monitored B) developing a standardization of terms, conversation types, and content types C) establishing a standardized coding scheme D) setting benchmarks E) All of these are decisions that have to be made. Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 12 98) Researchers and field workers can make respondents feel comfortable by A) entertaining them B) hiding the purpose of the project C) addressing questions of respondents D) revealing what other respondents said E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 13

.


99) In the marketing research process, data preparation and analysis comes immediately after and before . A) problem definition; research design B) research design; fieldwork C) fieldwork; research design D) problem definition; report preparation E) fieldwork; report preparation and presentation Answer: E Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 100) According to the text, the data preparation process begins with A) validating the questionnaires B) evaluating the interviewers C) pretesting the questionnaire D) transcribing data E) preliminary plan of data analysis Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5

.

101) Which of the following is the last stage of the data preparation process? A) questionnaire checking B) coding C) data cleaning D) transcribing E) selecting a data analysis strategy Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 102) A review of the questionnaires with the objective of increasing accuracy and precision is called . A) editing B) coding C) validating D) pretesting E) transcribing Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


103) consists of screening questionnaires to identify illegible, incomplete, inconsistent, or ambiguous responses. A) Coding B) Editing C) Validating D) Pretesting E) Transcribing Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 104) Which of the following is NOT an alternative for the treatment of unsatisfactory responses? A) return the questionnaire to the field to get better data B) assign missing values C) discard unsatisfactory respondents D) delete the question from the survey E) All of the above are alternatives. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6 105) Which of the following is NOT a stage of the data preparation process? A) questionnaire design B) editing C) transcribing D) data cleaning E) coding Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 106) Respondents with unsatisfactory responses may be simply discarded when the proportion of unsatisfactory respondents is . A) less than 10 percent B) 10 percent to 20 percent C) 21 percent to 30 percent D) 31 percent to 40 percent E) more than 41 percent Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 6


107) The assignment of a symbol to represent a specific response to a specific question, along with the data record and column position that symbol will occupy, is called . A) editing B) coding C) sampling D) pretesting E) selecting Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7 108) According to the text, the symbol used in the assignment of codes to each possible response to each question is usually a(n) . A) letter of the alphabet B) Greek symbol C) number D) binary digit E) ampersand Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7 109) A book containing coding instructions and the necessary information about variables in the data set is called a(n) . A) editing book B) sampling record C) codebook D) questionnaire E) checking book Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7 110) Coding questions is relatively simple since the response options are predetermined. A) unstructured B) open-ended C) structured D) free-flowing E) uniform Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7


111) According to the text, category codes should be A) dependent; collectively exhaustive B) collectively exhaustive; mutually exclusive C) mutually inclusive; dependent D) dependent; mutually exclusive E) precoded; post-coded Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7

and

.

112) Categories are if each response fits into one and only one category code. A) dependent B) mutually inclusive C) collectively exhaustive D) mutually exclusive E) uniform Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7 113) According to the text, categories are assigned category codes. A) dependent B) mutually inclusive C) collectively exhaustive D) mutually exclusive E) uniform Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7

if every response fits into one of the

114) data involves transferring the coded data from the questionnaires or coding sheets onto disks or directly into computers by key punching or other means. A) Validating B) Editing C) Coding D) Transcribing E) Selecting Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7


115) involves direct machine reading of the codes and simultaneous transcription. A) Optical scanning B) Key punching C) Validating D) Data cleaning E) Predictive dialing Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 7 116) The thorough and extensive check for consistency and treatment of missing responses is called . A) validating B) transcribing C) data cleaning D) key punching E) editing Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 8 117) A part of the data cleaning process that identifies data that are out of range or logically inconsistent, or that have extreme values, is called . A) transcribing B) validating C) consistency checks D) coding E) editing Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 8 118) represent values of a variable that are unknown, either because respondents provided ambiguous answers or their answers were not properly recorded. A) Missing responses B) Inconsistent responses C) Out-of-range values D) Invalid responses E) Edits Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8


119) Treatment of missing responses poses problems, particularly if the proportion of missing responses is . A) between 1 percent and 3 percent B) between 3 percent and 5 percent C) between 5 percent and 7 percent D) between 8 percent and 9 percent E) more than 10 percent Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8 120) A method for handling missing responses in which respondents with any missing responses are discarded from the analysis is called . A) casewise deletion B) pairwise deletion C) alternate deletion D) concurrent deletion E) simple deletion Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8 121) is a method of handling missing values in which for each calculation or analysis, only the respondents with complete responses are considered. A) Casewise deletion B) Pairwise deletion C) Alternate deletion D) Concurrent deletion E) Simple deletion Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8 122) Pairwise deletion may be appropriate when all of the following conditions are present EXCEPT when . A) the sample size is large B) there are few missing responses C) the variables are not highly related D) the sample size is small E) the variables are correlated Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 8


123) involves the transformation of data to create new variables or modify existing ones. A) Transformational displacement B) Transform and reform C) Transform and modify D) Variable streamlining E) Variable respecification Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 9 124) If there are too few respondents in the lowest income category, this category may be combined or merged with the next lowest category. This is known as . A) recombining B) replication C) returning D) resetting E) recoding Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 9 125) According to the text, a survey discloses that 31 percent of the respondents preferred the client's brand, while 30.8 percent preferred the closest competing brand. In such a case, it is announced that the client's brand is the dominant brand. Such a situation would be . A) acceptable based on the facts of the survey B) acceptable if only the client was told this C) impossible to weigh in with a moral judgment based on these details D) unacceptable if only the client was told this E) unacceptable because it is misleading; the brands have virtual parity Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 13


126) In a short essay, discuss the process of selecting qualified field workers. Answer: The first step in the fieldwork process is the selection of field workers. The researcher should: (1) develop job specifications for the project, taking into account the mode of data collection; (2) decide what characteristics the field workers should have; and (3) recruit appropriate individuals. Interviewers' background characteristics, opinions, perceptions, expectations, and attitudes can affect the responses they elicit. To the extent possible, interviewers should be selected to match respondents' demographic characteristics since this increases the probability of a successful interview. The job requirements will also vary with the nature of the problem and the type of data collection method. However, some general qualifications of field workers include work orientation, teamwork, aptitude, pride, discipline, third ear, command, the ability to woo, and ethics. Interviewers with these qualifications will have a high likelihood of being successful in conducting the fieldwork. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 127) In a short essay, describe the process of properly training field workers. Next, list and discuss the five phases of the interviewing process. Answer: Training field workers is critical to the quality of the data collected. Training may be conducted in person at a central location, or, if the interviewers are geographically dispersed, by mail. Training ensures that all interviewers administer the questionnaire in the same manner so that the data can be collected uniformly. Training should cover all phases of the interviewing process: making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview. a. The initial contact can result in the cooperation or the loss of potential respondents. Interviewers should be trained to make opening remarks that will convince potential respondents that their participation is important. b. Asking questions is an art. Even a slight change in wording, sequence, or manner in which a question is asked can distort its meaning and bias the response. Training in asking questions can yield high dividends by eliminating potential sources of bias. c. Probing is intended to motivate respondents to elaborate, clarify, or explain their answers. Probing also helps respondents focus on the specific content of the interview and provide only relevant information. Probing should not introduce any bias. d. Although recording respondent answers seems simple, several mistakes are common. All interviewers should use the same format and conventions to record the interviews and edit completed interviews. While the rules for recording answers to structured questions vary with each questionnaire, the general rule is to check the box that reflects the respondent's answer. The general rule for recording answers to unstructured questions is to record the responses verbatim. e. Before terminating the interview, the interviewer should answer the respondent's questions about the project. The respondent should be left with a positive feeling about the interview. It is important to thank respondents and express appreciation for their participation. Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


128) In a short essay, discuss the importance of properly supervising field workers and list and discuss the four elements of field worker supervision. Answer: Supervision of field workers means making sure that they are following the procedures and techniques in which they were trained. Supervision involves quality control and editing, sample control, control of cheating, and central office control. a. Quality control of field workers requires checking to see if the field procedures are being properly implemented. If any problems are detected, the supervisor should discuss them with the field workers and provide additional training if necessary. To understand the interviewers' problems, the supervisors should also do some interviewing. b. An important aspect of supervision is sampling control, which attempts to ensure that the interviewers are strictly following the sampling plan rather than selecting sampling units based on convenience or accessibility. To control these problems, supervisors should keep daily records of the number of calls made, the number of not-at-homes, the number of refusals, the number of completed interviews for each interviewer, and the total of all interviewers under their control. c. Cheating involves falsifying part of a question or the entire questionnaire. An interviewer may falsify part of an answer to make it acceptable or may fake answers. The most blatant form of cheating occurs when the interviewer falsifies the entire questionnaire, filling in answers without contacting a respondent. Cheating can be minimized though proper training, supervision, and validation of fieldwork. d. Central office control involves tabulating the responses to important demographic characteristics and key questions. It also includes checking on the quotas to make sure they are being met. Supervisors provide quality and cost-control information to the central office so that a progress report can be maintained. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 129) In a short essay, discuss the process of validating fieldwork. Answer: Validation of fieldwork means verifying that field workers are submitting authentic interviews. To validate a study, the supervisors call 10 percent to 25 percent of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews. The supervisors ask about the length and quality of the interview, reaction to the interviewer, and basic demographic data. The demographic information is cross-checked against the information reported by the interviewers on the questionnaires. Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


130) In a short essay, discuss the importance of properly evaluating field workers and discuss five elements that are important when conducting these evaluations. Answer: It is important to evaluate field workers to provide feedback on their performance. Evaluation helps identify the more effective field workers in order to build a better, higherquality field force. The evaluation criteria should be clearly communicated to the field workers during their training. The evaluation of field workers should be based on the criteria of quantity and quality. Interviewers can be compared in terms of total cost per completed interview. Field workers should also be evaluated on how they spend their time. Time should be broken down into categories such as actual interviewing, travel, and administration. It is important to monitor response rates on a timely basis so that corrective action can be taken if these rates are too low. Supervisors can help interviewers with an inordinate number of refusals by listening to the introductions they use and providing immediate feedback. When all the interviews are over, different field workers' percentage of refusals can be compared to identify the better workers. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4


131) List and discuss the major areas of the fieldwork/data collection process Answer: All fieldwork involves the selection, training, and supervision of persons who collect data. The validation of fieldwork and the evaluation of field workers are also parts of the process. The first step in the fieldwork process is the selection of field workers. The researcher should: (1) develop job specifications for the project, taking into account the mode of data collection; (2) decide what characteristics the field workers should have; and (3) recruit appropriate individuals. Interviewers' background characteristics, opinions, perceptions, expectations, and attitudes can affect the responses they elicit. The training of field workers is critical to the quality of data collected. Training may be conducted in person at a central location or, if the interviewers are geographically dispersed, by mail, video-conferencing, or by using the Internet. Training ensures that all interviewers administer the questionnaire in the same manner so that the data can be collected uniformly. Supervision of field workers means making sure that they are following the procedures and techniques in which they were trained. Supervision involves quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control. Validation of fieldwork means verifying that the field workers are submitting authentic interviews. To validate the study, the supervisors call 10 to 25 percent of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews. The supervisors ask about the length and quality of the interview, reaction to the interviewer, and basic demographic data. The demographic information is cross-checked against the information reported by the interviewers on the questionnaires. It is important to evaluate field workers to provide them with feedback on their performance as well as to identify the better field workers and build a better, high-quality field force. The evaluation criteria should be clearly communicated to the field workers during their training. The evaluation of field workers should be based on the criteria of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and quality of data. Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


132) In a short essay, discuss the fieldwork issues facing researchers conducting international marketing research. Answer: The selection, training, supervision, and evaluation of field workers are critical in international marketing research. Because local fieldwork agencies are unavailable in many countries, it may be necessary to recruit and train local field workers or import trained foreign workers. Using local field workers is preferable, however, since they are familiar with the local language and culture and can create an appropriate climate for the interview and be sensitive to the concerns of the respondents. Extensive training of field workers may be required, and close supervision may be necessary. In many countries, interviewers tend to help respondents with the answers and select households or sampling units based on personal considerations rather than the sampling plan. Also, interviewer cheating may be more of a problem in many foreign countries than in the United States. For these reasons, validation of fieldwork is critical. Proper application of fieldwork procedures can greatly reduce these difficulties and result in consistent and useful findings. Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 11 133) In a short essay, discuss the steps in the data preparation process. When should the data preparation process begin? Why is it important to begin the data preparation process at this step? Answer: The entire data preparation process is guided by a preliminary plan of data analysis that was formed in the research design phase. The fieldwork supervisor checks for acceptable questionnaires. Editing, coding, and transcribing the data, all done by the data collection agency as part of fieldwork, follow this. The researcher cleans the data then performs further checks for consistency and specifies how missing responses will be treated. The researcher then selects an appropriate data analysis strategy. The final data analysis strategy differs from the preliminary plan of data analysis due to the information and insights gained since the preliminary plan was formulated. Data preparation should begin as soon as the first batch of questionnaires is received from the field, while the fieldwork is still going on. Thus, if any problems are detected, the fieldwork can be modified to incorporate corrective action. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 134) In a short essay, describe the process of editing in the data preparation process and discuss the four types of errors a researcher is attempting to minimize in this procedure. Answer: Editing involves reviewing questionnaires to increase accuracy and precision. It consists of screening questionnaires to identify illegible, incomplete, inconsistent, or ambiguous responses. Responses may be illegible if they have been poorly recorded, such as answers to unstructured or open-ended questions. Likewise, questionnaires may be incomplete to varying degrees. A few or many questions may be unanswered. At this stage, the researcher makes a preliminary check for consistency. A response is ambiguous if, for example, the respondent has circled both 4 and 5 on a 7-point scale. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 6


135) In a short essay, describe the process of coding and discuss the purpose of a field and a record. Include a specific example to support your answer. Next, describe the purpose of a codebook in the coding process. Answer: Coding means assigning a code, usually a number, to each possible response to each question. The code includes an indication of the column position and data record it will occupy. For example, gender of respondents may be coded as 1 for females and 2 for males. A field represents a single item of data, such as gender of the respondent. A record consists of related fields, such as sex, marital status, age, household size, and occupation. Thus, each record can have several columns. Generally, all the data for a respondent will be stored on a single record, although a number of records may be used for each respondent. It is often helpful to prepare a codebook containing the coding instructions and the necessary information about the variables in the data set. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 7 136) In a short essay, define data cleaning and discuss how consistency checks and treatment of missing responses relate to the data cleaning process. Answer: Data cleaning is the thorough and extensive checking for consistency and treatment of missing responses. This cleaning process includes consistency checks and treatment of missing responses. While preliminary consistency checks have been made during editing, the checks at this stage are more thorough and extensive, since these are made by computer. Consistency checks are a part of the data cleaning process that identify data that are out of range or logically inconsistent, or that have extreme values. Data with values not defined by the coding scheme are inadmissible. Missing responses represent values of a variable that are unknown, either because respondents provided ambiguous answers or their answers were not properly recorded. Proper selection, training, and supervision of field workers should minimize the incidence of missing responses. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8


137) In a short essay, list and discuss the three options available to the researcher for the treatment of missing responses on a questionnaire. Answer: a. Substitute a neutral value — a neutral value, typically the mean response to the variable, is substituted for missing responses. Thus, the mean of the variable remains unchanged and other statistics, such as correlation, may not be affected much if the proportion of missing values is small. b. Casewise deletion — in casewise deletion, cases or respondents with any missing responses are discarded from the analysis. However, casewise deletion could lead to a significant reduction in the sample size and should be used with caution. c. Pairwise deletion — in pairwise deletion, instead of discarding all cases with any missing values, the researcher uses only the cases or respondents with complete responses for each calculation. However, pairwise deletion could also lead to a reduction in the sample size and other inconsistencies. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8 138) In a short essay, discuss the ethical issues related to data preparation and analysis. Answer: Ethical issues can arise during the data preparation and analysis step, particularly in areas where the researcher has to exercise judgment. While checking, editing, coding, transcribing, and cleaning, the researcher can get some idea about the quality of the data. Sometimes it is easy to identify respondents who did not take the questionnaire seriously or who otherwise provided data of questionable quality. Consider, for example, a respondent who checks the "neither agree nor disagree" response to all the 30 items measuring attitude toward spectator sports. Decisions about whether such respondents should be discarded, that is, not included in the analysis, can raise ethical concerns. A good rule of thumb is to make such decisions during the data preparation phase before conducting any analysis. Discarding respondents after analyzing the data raises ethical concerns, particularly if this information is not fully disclosed in the written report. Moreover, the procedure used to identify unsatisfactory respondents and the number of respondents discarded should be clearly disclosed. Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 13


Essentials of Marketing Research (Malhotra) Chapter 11 Data Analysis: Frequency Distribution, Hypothesis Testing, and CrossTabulation 1) Many marketing research projects do not go beyond basic data analysis. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 2) A mathematical distribution whose objective is to obtain a count of the number of responses associated with different values of one variable as to express these counts in percentage terms is called frequency distribution. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 3) In a frequency distribution, two variables are considered at a time. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 4) The valid percentage column in a frequency distribution represents percentages calculated by excluding the cases with missing values. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 5) Frequency data may be used to construct a histogram, or a vertical bar chart. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 6) The mean, mode, and median are associated with the measures of location of frequency distribution. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


7) The most commonly used statistics associated with frequencies are measures of location and measures of variability. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 8) According to the text, the measures of variability is a statistic that describes a location within a data set. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 9) The mean is that value obtained by summing the values of all elements in a set and dividing by the number of elements. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 10) The mode is used to estimate the average when the data have been collected using an interval or ratio scale. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 11) A measure of central tendency given as the value that occurs the most in a sample distribution is called the median. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 12) According to the text, the mode represents the highest peak of the distribution. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 13) The mean is a good measure of location when the variable is inherently categorical or has otherwise been grouped into categories. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2


14) A measure of central tendency, given as the value above which half of the values fall and below which half of the values fall is called the median. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 15) The mean of a sample is the middle value when the data are arranged in ascending or descending rank order. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 16) If the distribution is asymmetric and the variable is measured on a nominal scale, the median should be used. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 17) The median should be used if the distribution is asymmetric and the variable is measured on an ordinal scale. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 18) A statistic that indicates the distribution's dispersion is called measures of variability. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 19) The most common measures of variability are the range and variance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 20) The difference between the smallest and largest values of a distribution is called the variance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


21) According to the text, the range measures the spread of the data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 22) The mean squared deviation of all the values from the mean is called the variance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 23) Standard deviation is the square root of the variance and is expressed in the same units as the data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 24) An alternative hypothesis is a statement of the status quo, one of no difference or no effect. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 25) A statement that some difference or effect is expected is called a null hypothesis. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 26) According to the text, accepting the alternative hypothesis will lead to changes in opinions or actions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3 27) The null hypothesis is always the hypothesis that is tested, but can never be accepted based on a single test. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


28) The test of the null hypothesis is a two-tailed test if the alternative hypothesis is expressed directionally. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3 29) The null hypothesis refers to a specified value of the population parameter, not a sample statistic. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 30) A test of the null hypothesis where the alternative hypothesis is not expressed directionally is called a one-tailed test. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3 31) In commercial marketing research, the one-tailed test is used more often than a two-tailed test. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 32) A measure of how close the sample has come to the null hypothesis is called the test statistic. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 33) A hypothesis test using the standard normal distribution is called the F-test. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 34) Type I error occurs when the sample results lead to the rejection of a null hypothesis that is in fact true. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


35) Type II error occurs when the sample results lead to nonrejection of a null hypothesis that is in fact false. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 36) The power of a test is the probability of accepting the null hypothesis when it is in fact true and should be accepted. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3 37) The two-tailed test is more conservative than the one-tailed test. If a hypothesis is rejected using a two-tailed test, it will also be rejected using a one-tailed test. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3 38) Cross-tabulation with two variables is known as twice-tabulation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 39) Cross-tabulation examines associations between variables, not causation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 40) The null hypothesis, H0, when using the chi-square statistic, is that there is no association between the variables. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 41) When using the chi-square statistic in cross-tabulation, the null hypothesis (H0) will be rejected only when the probability of obtaining a more extreme value is less than 0.05. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5


42) The chi-square statistic can be estimated on counts of data or on percentages. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 43) Data collected in social media often lend themselves to basic analysis involving frequencies, percentages and cross-tabulations. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 1 44) A mathematical distribution whose objective is to obtain a count of the number of responses associated with different values of one variable and to express these counts in percentage terms is called . A) sampling distribution B) random distribution C) frequency distribution D) systematic distribution E) chi-square distribution Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 45) A frequency distribution for a variable produces A) a table of frequency counts B) percentages C) cumulative percentages D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2

.

46) A frequency distribution . A) helps identify the presence of outliers B) indicates the shape of the empirical distribution of the variable C) contains the same information as the margins of a contingency table D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2


47) Which of the following is NOT a statistic that is associated with the measures of location of frequency distribution? A) mean B) mode C) median D) maxima E) All are associated with measures of location. Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 48) According to the text, the A) measures of location B) measures of variability C) measures of association D) measures of relativity E) measures of position Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2

is a statistic that describes a location within a data set.

49) The is that value obtained by summing the values of all elements in a set and dividing by the number of elements. A) mean B) mode C) median D) maxima E) aggregate Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 50) Which of the following is used to estimate the average when the data have been collected using an interval or ratio scale? A) mode B) median C) mean D) maxima E) trend Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2


51) A measure of central tendency given as the value that occurs the most in a sample distribution is called the . A) mean B) median C) mode D) maxima E) trend Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 52) According to the text, which of the following represents the highest peak of the distribution? A) mode B) mean C) median D) maxima E) crest Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 53) The is a good measure of location when the variable is inherently categorical or has otherwise been grouped into categories. A) mean B) median C) maxima D) mode E) categorical listing Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 54) A measure of central tendency given as the value above which half of the values fall and below which half of the values fall is called the . A) mean B) mode C) median D) maxima E) binary inflection Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


55) The of a sample is the middle value when the data are arranged in ascending or descending rank order. A) median B) mean C) mode D) maxima E) trend Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 56) If the distribution is asymmetric and the variable is measured on a nominal scale, the should be used as a measure of location. A) mean B) mode C) median D) maxima E) trend Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 57) The should be used as a measure of location if the distribution is asymmetric and the variable is measured on an ordinal scale. A) mean B) mode C) median D) maxima E) ranking order Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2


58) If the distribution is asymmetric, which measure of location is most appropriate if the data is in a nominal scale? If it is in an ordinal scale? If it is in an interval or ratio scale? A) mode, mode, median B) median, median, median C) median, mean, mode D) mean, mode, median E) mode, median, mean Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 59) A statistic that indicates the distribution's dispersion is called A) measures of location B) measures of variability C) measures of association D) measures of relativity E) measures of difference Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 60) The most common measures of variability are the A) median; range B) variance; mean C) mean; median D) range; variance E) difference; trend line Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

and

_.

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61) The difference between the smallest and largest values of a distribution is called the . A) range B) variance C) median D) mean E) body Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


62) According to the text, the A) mode B) median C) mean D) range E) body Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2

measures the spread of the data.

63) The mean squared deviation of all the values from the mean is called the A) variance B) range C) median D) mean E) geometric mean Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

.

64) is the square root of the variance and is expressed in the same units as the data. A) Range B) Standard error C) Standard deviation D) Mean E) Statistical significance Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 65) A(n) is a statement of the status quo, one of no difference or no effect. A) null hypothesis B) alternative hypothesis C) random hypothesis D) standardized hypothesis E) starting hypothesis Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


66) A statement that some difference or effect is expected is called a(n) A) null hypothesis B) alternative hypothesis C) random hypothesis D) standardized hypothesis E) incidence of difference Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 67) According to the text, accepting the A) null hypothesis B) alternative hypothesis C) random hypothesis D) standardized hypothesis E) quid pro quo Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3

.

will lead to changes in opinions or actions.

68) The is always the hypothesis that is tested, but can never be accepted based on a single test. A) alternative hypothesis B) random hypothesis C) null hypothesis D) standardized hypothesis E) incidence of difference Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 69) The test of the null hypothesis is a(n) directionally. A) two-tailed B) three-tailed C) extreme-tailed D) one-tailed E) A and D Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3

test if the alternative hypothesis is expressed


70) A test of the null hypothesis where the alternative hypothesis is not expressed directionally is called a test. A) one-tailed B) two-tailed C) three-tailed D) four-tailed E) A and B Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3 71) In commercial marketing research, the A) one-tailed test; two-tailed test B) two-tailed test; one-tailed test C) exhaustive test; inexhaustive test D) inexhaustive test; exhaustive test E) f-test; g-test Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 3

is used more often than a(n)

72) A measure of how close the sample has come to the null hypothesis is called the A) level of significance B) power of a test C) test statistic D) critical value E) incidence of difference Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3

.

.

73) Which of the following often follows a well-known distribution, such as the normal, t, or chisquare distribution? A) test statistic B) level of significance C) critical value D) z-test E) incidence of difference Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


74) A hypothesis test using the standard normal distribution is called the A) F-test B) p-test C) t-test D) z-test E) poisson test Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3

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75) occurs when the sample results lead to the rejection of a null hypothesis that is in fact true. A) Type I error B) Type II error C) Type III error D) Type IV error E) Power of a test Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 76) The probability of making a type I error is called the A) level of significance B) critical value C) test statistic D) power of a test E) incidence of difference Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3

.

77) occurs when the sample results lead to nonrejection of a null hypothesis that is in fact false. A) Type I error B) Type II error C) Type III error D) Type IV error E) Power of a test Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


78) The is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected. A) level of significance B) z-test C) test statistic D) power of a test E) incidence of difference Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 79) A statistical technique that describes two or more variables simultaneously and results in tables that reflect the joint distribution of two or more variables that have a limited number of categories or distinct values is called . A) cross-tabulation B) regression analysis C) frequency distribution D) random sampling E) binary regression Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 80) A is a cross-tabulation table that contains a cell for every combination of categories of the two variables. A) t-test table B) hypothesis table C) contingency table D) chi square table E) categories table Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 81) When the frequency in any cell of a contingency table is low, it is A) time to stop the analysis B) okay to ignore this and move on to finish the analysis C) okay to proceed if the phi coefficient is used D) time to increase the size of the table E) time to reduce the size of the table by combining categories Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5

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82) In a short essay, discuss measures of location as they are associated with frequencies. Include a discussion of mean, mode, and median to support your answer. Answer: The measures of location are statistics that describe a location within a data set. If the entire sample is changed by adding a fixed constant to each observation, then the mean, mode, and median change by the same fixed amount. The mean, or average value, is the most commonly used measure of central tendency, or center of a distribution. It is used to estimate the average when the data have been collected using an interval or ratio scale. The mode is the value that occurs most frequently. It represents the highest peak of the distribution. The mode is a good measure of location when the variable is inherently categorical or has otherwise been grouped into categories. The median of a sample is the middle value when the data are arranged in ascending or descending rank order. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 83) In a short essay, discuss measures of variability as they are associated with frequencies. Include a discussion of range, variance, and standard deviation. Answer: The measures of variability are statistics that indicate the distribution's dispersion. The range is the difference between the smallest and largest values of a distribution. It measures the spread of the data and is simply the difference between the largest and smallest values in the sample. The difference between the mean and an observed value is called the deviation from the mean. The variance is the mean squared deviation from the mean, that is, the average of the square of the deviations from the mean for all the values. The standard deviation is the square root of the variance. Thus, the standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data, while the variance is expressed in square units. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 84) In a short essay, list and discuss the two types of errors that can occur whenever inferences are drawn about a population. Answer: a. Type I error occurs when the sample results lead to the rejection of the null hypothesis when it is in fact true. The probability of type I error is also called the level of significance. The type I error is controlled by establishing the tolerable level of risk of rejecting a true null hypothesis. The selection of a particular risk level should depend on the cost of making a type I error. b. Type II error occurs when, based on the sample results, the null hypothesis is not rejected when it is in fact false. Unlike the probability of type I error, which is specified by the researcher, the magnitude of the probability of type II error depends on the actual value of the population parameter. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


85) In a short essay, define cross-tabulation and discuss the three primary reasons crosstabulation is widely used in commercial marketing research. Answer: Cross-tabulation is a statistical technique that describes two or more variables simultaneously and results in tables that reflect the joint distribution of two or more variables that have a limited number of categories or distinct values. Cross-tabulation is widely used in commercial marketing research because (1) cross-tabulation analysis and results can be easily interpreted and understood by managers who are not statistically oriented; (2) the clarity of interpretations provides a stronger link between research results and managerial action; and (3) cross-tabulation analysis is simple to conduct and more appealing to less sophisticated researchers. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 86) In a short essay, list and discuss at least three statistics associated with cross-tabulation. Answer: a. Chi-square — this statistic is used to test the statistical significance of the observed association in a cross-tabulation. It assists a researcher in determining whether a systematic association exists between the two variables. b. Phi coefficient — this is used as a measure of the strength of association in the special case of a table with two rows and two columns. The phi coefficient is proportional to the square root of the chi-square statistic. c. Contingency coefficient — while the phi coefficient is specific to a 2 × 2 table, the contingency coefficient can be used to assess the strength of association in a table of any size. This index is also related to chi-square. d. Cramer's V — this is a modified version of the phi correlation coefficient and is used in tables larger than 2 × 2. When phi is calculated for a table larger than 2 × 2, it has no upper limit. Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 6


87) In a short essay, discuss which measure of location should be used if the distribution is asymmetric. Answer: If the distribution is asymmetric, which measure should be used? If the variable is measured on a nominal scale, the mode should be used. If the variable is measured on an ordinal scale, the median is appropriate. If the variable is measured on an interval or ratio scale, the mode is a poor measure of central tendency. This can be seen from Table 11.2. While the modal value of 6 has the highest frequency of 9, it represents only 20.5 percent of the sample. In general, for interval or ratio data, the median is a better measure of central tendency, although it too ignores available information about the variable. The actual values of the variable above and below the median are ignored. The mean is the most appropriate measure of central tendency for interval or ratio data. The mean makes use of all the information available since all of the values are used in computing it. However, the mean is sensitive to isolated cases with extremely small or extremely large values, called outliers. When outliers are in the data, the mean is not a good measure of central tendency and it is useful to consider both the mean and the median. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 88) Discuss the relationship between cross-tabulation and frequency distribution. Answer: Whereas a frequency distribution describes one variable at a time, a cross-tabulation describes two or more variables simultaneously. A cross-tabulation is the merging of the frequency distribution of two or more variables in a single table. It helps us to understand how one variable such as brand loyalty relates to another variable such as sex. Cross-tabulation results in tables that reflect the joint distribution of two or more variables with a limited number of categories or distinct values. The categories of one variable are cross-classified with the categories of one or more other variables. Thus, the frequency distribution of one variable is subdivided according to the values or categories of the other variables. Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 4


Essentials of Marketing Research (Malhotra) Chapter 12 Data Analysis: Hypothesis Testing Related to Differences, Correlation, and Regression 1) Non-parametric tests are hypothesis testing procedures that assume the variables of interest are measured on at least an interval scale. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 2) The most popular parametric test is the t-test conducted for examining hypotheses about means. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 3) A hypothesis test using the t distribution, which is used when the standard deviation is unknown and the sample size is small, is called the z-test. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 4) In the case of conducting the t-test on the means of two samples of observations, the samples can be independent or paired. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 5) The t statistic is a statistic that assumes that the variable has a symmetric bell-shaped distribution and the mean is known; the population variance is estimated from the sample. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 6) Parametric tests provide inferences for making statements about the means of parent populations. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1


7) An F-test is commonly used for the purpose of providing inferences for making statements about the means of parent populations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 8) The t statistic is calculated by assuming that the sample size is large. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 9) The t distribution is a symmetric bell-shaped distribution that is useful for small sample testing. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 10) According to the text, the t distribution is similar to the normal distribution in appearance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 11) A z-test is a hypothesis test using the standard normal distribution. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 12) Two samples that are not experimentally related are called dependent samples. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 13) According to the text, samples drawn randomly from different populations are termed independent samples. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


14) A t-test of sample variance may be performed if it is not known whether the two populations have equal variance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 15) The F statistic is computed as the ratio of two sample variances. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3 16) A frequency distribution that depends on two sets of degrees of freedom is called an F distribution. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 17) The two sets of degrees of freedom on which the F distribution depends are the degrees of freedom in the numerator and the degrees of freedom in the denominator. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 18) A two-tailed test is more conservative than the corresponding one-tailed test. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3 19) For a large sample size, the t distribution approaches the normal distribution. Thus, the t-test and the z-test are equivalent. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 20) In advertising testing, attitude toward the brand was measured for respondents of a sample before and after seeing an ad for a brand. A one-sample t-test would then be used to evaluate whether the ad had any effect on attitude toward the ad. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 4


21) The F statistic is computed as the ratio of two sample means. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 22) The value of the F distribution depends only upon the degrees of freedom in the numerator. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 23) In many marketing research applications, the observations for two groups are not selected from independent samples. Rather, the observations relate to paired samples in that the two sets of observations relate to the same respondents. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 4 24) A test for differences in the means of paired samples is called the paired samples t-test. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 25) According to the text, hypotheses related to differences in the population means can be tested using the t distribution. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 26) It is not possible to conduct hypothesis testing if the data collected in social media are qualitative in nature. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 1 27) A statistic summarizing the strength of association between two metric variables is called the product moment correlation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


28) The product moment correlation is also referred to as regression correlation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5 29) The test statistic for evaluating the null hypothesis associated with the product moment correlation is the F-test. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 30) Regression analysis is a statistical procedure for analyzing associative relationships between a metric dependent variable and one or more independent variables. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 31) A procedure for deriving a mathematical relationship, in the form of an equation, between a single metric dependent variable and a single metric independent variable is called univariate regression. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 32) Standardization may be desirable because it is easier to compare the beta coefficients than it is to compare the raw coefficients. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 33) The term used to denote the standardized regression coefficient is called the alpha coefficient. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5


34) According to the text, the beta coefficient is also called the beta weight. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 35) Multiple regression is a statistical technique that simultaneously develops a mathematical relationship between two or more independent variables and an interval-scaled dependent variable. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 36) An equation used to explain the results of multiple regression analysis is called the multiple regression model. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 37) In multiple regression, if the overall null hypothesis is rejected, we know which specific coefficients (βis) are nonzero. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 38) In multiple regression, the strength of association is measured by the square of the multiple correlation coefficient, which is called the coefficient of multiple determination. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 39) R2 cannot decrease as more independent variables are added to the regression equation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 40) The multiple correlation coefficient, R, can also be viewed as the simple correlation coefficient, r, between Y and Ŷ. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5


41) Significance testing involves testing the significance of the overall regression equation as well as specific partial regression coefficients. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 42) are hypothesis testing procedures that assume the variables of interest are measured on at least an interval scale. A) Non-parametric tests B) Parametric tests C) Parallel tests D) Regression tests E) Interval tests Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 43) All of the following are types of tests of differences EXCEPT A) one sample B) two independent samples C) paired samples D) unitary samples E) All are types of tests of differences. Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1

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44) Which of the following is the first step in hypothesis testing based on the t statistic? A) Select the appropriate formula for the t statistic. B) Take one or two samples and compute the mean. C) Select a significance level α for testing. D) Refer to statistical tables. E) Formulate the null (H0) and the alternative (H1) hypotheses. Answer: E Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


45) The most popular parametric test is the means. A) F-test B) p-test C) t-test D) z-test E) parametric test Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1

_ conducted for examining hypotheses about

46) A hypothesis test using the t distribution, which is used when the standard deviation is unknown and the sample size is small, is called the . A) t-test B) F-test C) p-test D) z-test E) k-means test Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 47) According to the text, the samples of observations. A) F-test B) p-test C) t-test D) z-test E) k-means test Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2

can be conducted on the means of one sample or two

48) In the case of conducting the t-test on the means of two samples of observations, the samples can be or . A) independent; random B) random; exclusive C) exclusive; dependent D) independent; paired E) set-up; breakdown Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1


49) The is a statistic that assumes that the variable has a symmetric bell-shaped distribution and the mean is known, and the population variance is estimated from the sample. A) a statistic B) p statistic C) t statistic D) z statistic E) bell statistic Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 50) tests provide inferences for making statements about the means of parent populations. A) Non-parametric tests B) Parametric tests C) Parallel tests D) Regression tests E) Parent population tests Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 51) A(n) is commonly used for the purpose of providing inferences for making statements about the means of parent populations. A) F-test B) p-test C) t-test D) z-test E) chi-square test Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1


52) The t statistic is calculated by assuming that all of the following exists EXCEPT that the . A) variable is normally distributed B) mean is known C) population variance is estimated from the sample D) sample size is large E) All are assumptions used with the t statistic. Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 53) The is a symmetric bell-shaped distribution that is useful for small sample testing. A) F distribution B) p distribution C) t distribution D) z distribution E) chi-square distribution Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 54) According to the text, the t distribution is similar to the A) parallel distribution B) normal distribution C) vertical distribution D) horizontal distribution E) chi-square distribution Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1

in appearance.

55) The is a statistic that assumes that the variable has a symmetric bell-shaped distribution and the mean is known (or assumed to be known) and the population variance is estimated from the sample. A) F statistic B) t statistic C) z statistic D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


56) Which statement is NOT true concerning the t distribution? A) Compared to the normal distribution, the t distribution has more area in the tails and less in the center. B) As the number of degrees of freedom increases, the t distribution approaches the normal distribution. C) The t distributions are skewed to the left. D) The population variance is unknown and is estimated by the sample variance s2. E) All are true. Answer: C Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 57) Which of the following is NOT an example of a statement that is about a single variable against a known or given standard? A) The market share for the new product will exceed 15 percent. B) The proportion of households with an Internet connection in the United States exceeds the proportion of those in Germany. C) At least 65 percent of customers will like the new package design. D) The average monthly household expenditure on groceries exceeds $500. E) The new service plan will be preferred by at least 70 percent of the customers. Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 58) A(n) is a hypothesis test using the standard normal distribution. A) F-test B) p-test C) t-test D) z-test E) chi-square test Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 2 59) Two samples that are not experimentally related are called A) independent samples B) dependent samples C) parallel samples D) exclusive samples E) non-experimental samples Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3

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60) According to the text, samples drawn randomly from different populations are termed . A) dependent samples B) parallel samples C) exclusive samples D) independent samples E) divergent samples Answer: D Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 61) A(n) of sample variance may be performed if it is not known whether the two populations have equal variance. A) p-test B) F-test C) t-test D) z-test E) chi-square test Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 62) The is computed as the ratio of two sample variances. A) F statistic B) p statistic C) t statistic D) z statistic E) chi-square statistic Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 63) A frequency distribution that depends on two sets of degrees of freedom is called a(n) . A) p distribution B) t distribution C) F distribution D) z distribution E) chi-square distribution Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3


64) The two sets of degrees of freedom in which the F distribution depends on are the degrees of freedom in the and the degrees of freedom in the . A) sample; questionnaire B) numerator; denominator C) variance; standard deviation D) t-test; F-test E) matrix; contingency table Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3 65) If the probability of F is greater than the significance level α, should be used. A) H0 is rejected; t based on "equal variances not assumed" B) H0 is not rejected; t based on "equal variances assumed" C) H0 is rejected; t based on "equal variances assumed" D) H0 is not rejected; t based on "equal variances not assumed" E) H1 is not rejected; t based on "equal variances not assumed" Answer: B Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 3

and

66) In many marketing research applications, the observations for two groups are not selected from independent samples. Rather, the observations relate to in that the two sets of observations relate to the same respondents. A) distributed samples B) independent samples C) paired samples D) random samples E) divergent samples Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4


67) Examples of hypotheses related to paired samples include all of the following EXCEPT . A) shoppers consider brand name to be more important than price while purchasing fashion clothing B) households spend more money on pizza than they do on hamburgers C) the proportion of households who subscribe to a daily newspaper exceeds the proportion subscribing to magazines D) the new service plan will be preferred by at least 70 percent of the customers E) the proportion of a bank's customers who have a checking account exceeds the proportion who have a savings account Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 4 68) A test for differences in the means of paired samples is called the A) paired samples t-test B) paired samples F-test C) paired samples p-test D) paired samples z-test E) paired samples ratio test Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4

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69) According to the text, hypotheses related to differences in population means if the population variance is unknown can be tested using the . A) F distribution B) p distribution C) t distribution D) z distribution E) chi-square distribution Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1


70) A statistic summarizing the strength of association between two metric variables is called the . A) product moment correlation B) covariance correlation C) inverse correlation D) bivariate correlation E) F-statistic Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 71) The is the most widely used statistic that summarizes the strength and direction of association between two metric variables. A) covariance correlation B) product moment correlation C) inverse correlation D) bivariate correlation E) F-statistic Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 72) Which of the following statistics indicates the degree to which the variation in one variable, X, is related to the variation in another variable, Y? A) covariance correlation B) inverse correlation C) product moment correlation D) multiple regression E) F-statistic Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 73) The product moment correlation is also referred to as all of the following EXCEPT . A) simple correlation B) bivariate correlation C) correlation coefficient D) Pearson correlation E) F-statistic Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


74) A systematic relationship between two variables in which a change in one implies a corresponding change in the other is called . A) causation B) analysis of variance C) correlation D) deviation E) standard deviation Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 75) is a statistical procedure for analyzing associative relationships between a metric dependent variable and one or more independent variables. A) Regression analysis B) Covariance analysis C) Deviation analysis D) Correlation analysis E) Functional linear analysis Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 76) A procedure for deriving a mathematical relationship, in the form of an equation, between a single metric dependent variable and a single metric independent variable is called . A) univariate regression B) bivariate regression C) multivariate regression D) parallel regression E) pairwise regression Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


77) may be desirable because it is easier to compare the beta coefficients than it is to compare the raw coefficients. A) Covariance B) Standardization C) Correlation D) Regression E) Analysis of variance Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 78) The term used to denote the standardized regression coefficient is called the A) alpha coefficient B) beta coefficient C) gamma coefficient D) theta coefficient E) pi coefficient Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 8 79) According to the text, the beta coefficient is also called the A) beta factor B) beta variable C) beta element D) beta weight E) beta carotene Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5

.

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80) The coefficient is the slope obtained by the regression of y on x when the data are standardized. A) random regression B) standardized regression C) bipolar regression D) alternate regression E) alpha Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5


81) The strength of association is measured by the A) coefficient of determination B) regression equation C) correlation coefficient D) F factor E) F-statistic Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5

.

82) is a statistical technique that simultaneously develops a mathematical relationship between two or more independent variables and an interval-scaled dependent variable. A) Product moment correlation B) Standard regression C) Factor analysis D) Multiple regression E) Canonical correlation Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 83) In multiple regression, the strength of association is measured by the square of the multiple correlation coefficient, which is called the . A) coefficient of multiple determination B) variance C) standard error of the mean D) standard deviation E) squared deviation Answer: A Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5 84) involves testing the significance of the overall regression equation as well as specific partial regression coefficients. A) Correlation analysis B) Significance testing C) Regression analysis D) Factor analysis E) Residual analysis Answer: B Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 5


85) According to the text, the measures the linear association between two metric variables. A) regression analysis coefficient B) covariance coefficient C) analysis of variance coefficient D) product moment correlation coefficient E) F-statistic Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 86) derives a mathematical equation in the form of a straight line between a single metric criterion variable and a single metric predictor variable. A) Bivariate regression B) Standard deviation C) Standard error of the mean D) Analysis of variance E) Functional linear analysis Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5 87) involves a single dependent variable and two or more independent variables. A) Analysis of variance B) Factor analysis C) Correlation analysis D) Multiple regression E) Canonical correlation Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5


88) Define the null and alternative hypotheses. Discuss the relationship between the two hypotheses. Answer: A null hypothesis is a statement of the status quo, one of no difference or no effect. If the null hypothesis is not rejected, no changes will be made. An alternative hypothesis is one in which some difference or effect is expected. Accepting the alternative hypothesis will lead to changes in opinions or actions. Thus, the alternative hypothesis is the opposite of the null hypothesis. The null hypothesis is always the hypothesis that is tested. The alternative hypothesis represents the conclusion for which evidence is sought. The null hypothesis refers to a specified value of the population parameter, not a sample statistic. In marketing research, the null hypothesis is formulated in such a way that its rejection leads to the acceptance of the desired conclusion. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 1 89) In a short essay, discuss t-test, the t statistic, and the t distribution. Answer: A t-test is a univariate hypothesis test using the t distribution, which is used when the population mean is known, the standard deviation is unknown and the sample size is small. This test is based on Student's t statistic. The t statistic is a statistic that assumes that the variable has a symmetric bell-shaped distribution and the mean is known, and the population variance is estimated from the sample. The t distribution is a symmetric bell-shaped distribution that is useful for small sample testing. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 90) In a short essay, list at least three statements that exhibit a single variable against a known or given standard. Answer: a. The market share for the new product will exceed 15 percent. b. At least 65 percent of customers will like the new package design. c. The average monthly household expenditure on groceries exceeds $500. d. The new service plan will be preferred by at least 70 percent of the customers. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


91) In a short essay, describe an independent sample and list at least three hypotheses in marketing that relate to parameters from two different populations. Answer: Independent samples are two samples that are not experimentally related and the measurement of one sample has no effect on the values of the other sample. The following are hypotheses in marketing that relate to parameters from two different populations. a. The populations of users and nonusers of a brand differ in terms of their perceptions of the brand. b. The high-income consumers spend more on entertainment than low-income consumers do. c. The proportion of brand-loyal users in Segment I is more than the proportion in Segment II. d. The proportion of households with an Internet connection in the United States exceeds the proportion of those in Germany. Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 3 92) In a short essay, discuss paired samples and list at least three examples of hypotheses that arerelated to paired samples. Answer: In hypothesis testing, paired samples are observations that are paired so that the two sets of observations relate to the same respondents. The following are examples of hypotheses related to paired samples. a. Shoppers consider brand name to be more important than price while purchasing fashion clothing. b. Households spend more money on pizza than they do on hamburgers. c. The proportion of households who subscribe to the daily newspaper exceeds the proportion subscribing to magazines. d. The proportion of a bank's customers who have a checking account exceeds the proportion of those who have a savings account. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 93) In a short essay, define regression analysis and discuss ways in which regression analysis can be used. Answer: Regression analysis is a powerful and flexible procedure for analyzing associative relationships between a metric-dependent variable and one or more independent variables. It can be used in the following ways. a. Determine whether the independent variables explain a significant variation in the dependent variable: whether a relationship exists. b. Determine how much of the variation in the dependent variable can be explained by the independent variables: strength of the relationship. c. Determine the structure or form of the relationship: the mathematical equation relating the independent and dependent variables. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical thinking Objective: 5


94) In a short essay, discuss multiple regression and the multiple regression model. Answer: Multiple regression is a statistical technique that simultaneously develops a mathematical relationship between two or more independent variables and an interval-scaled dependent variable. Just as bivariate regression attempts to fit a best line to the data, regression with two independent variables tries to fit a best plane to the data. The multiple regression model is an equation used to explain the results of multiple regression analysis. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 5


Essentials of Marketing Research (Malhotra) Chapter 13 Report Preparation and Presentation 1) Report preparation and presentation is the last step in the marketing research project. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 2) The involvement of many marketing managers in the research project is limited to the written report and the oral presentation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 3) The first step in the report preparation and presentation process is problem definition. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 4) According to the text, the last step in the report preparation and presentation process is recommendations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 5) When writing the final report, the researcher should draw conclusions but should not make recommendations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 6) Given the possibility of being sued by the client, the researcher should not make recommendations or suggest any actions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1


7) A report prepared for top management should emphasize the operating details. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 8) Each report will have a unique character based on the personalities, responsibilities, etc., of the researcher and the decision maker to whom the report is addressed. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 9) A marketing research firm should produce reports that are uniform across clients and follow the same format. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 10) A letter that delivers the report to the client and summarizes the researcher's overall experience with the project without mentioning the findings is called the letter of authorization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 11) The letter of transmittal should identify the need for further action on the part of the client, such as implementation of the findings or further research that should be undertaken. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 12) The client writes a letter of estimation to the researcher before work on the project begins. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 13) A letter of authorization authorizes the researcher to proceed with the project and specifies its scope and terms of the contract. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1


14) The executive summary is an extremely important part of the report, as this is often the only portion of the report that executives read. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 15) The researcher must make sure that management does not overly rely on the research results or use them for unintended purposes, such as projecting them to unintended populations. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 16) A report should be as brief as possible but not at the expense of completeness. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 17) The research design section of a report gives the background to the problem, highlights discussions with the decision makers and industry experts, discusses the secondary data analysis, the qualitative research that was conducted, and the factors that were considered. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 18) The problem definition section of the report should include the nature of the research design adopted, information needed, data collection from secondary and primary sources, scaling techniques, questionnaire development and pretesting, sampling techniques, and fieldwork. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 19) According to the text, every table should have a number and a title. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


20) Data should be arranged in a table to emphasize the most significant aspect of the data. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 21) If ease of locating items is critical, an alphabetical arrangement is most appropriate. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 22) Instead of ruling the table horizontally or vertically, it is suggested that leaders be used to set off data items. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 23) Dots or hyphens that are used to impart uniformity and improve readability of a table are called stubs. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 24) Leaders are designations placed in the left-hand column of a table. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 25) If data contained in a table of the report are secondary, then the source of the data should not be cited. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 26) As a general rule, graphic aids should be used whenever practical. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


27) A round chart divided into sections is called a pie chart. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 28) A line chart is a chart that connects a series of data points using continuous lines. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 29) A graphical depiction that makes use of small pictures or symbols to display the data is called a pictograph. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 30) A pie chart is a chart that displays data in bars positioned horizontally or vertically. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 31) A vertical bar chart in which the height of the bars represents the relative or cumulative frequency of occurrence is called a histogram. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 32) In a pictograph, the area of each section, as a percentage of the total circle, reflects the percentage associated with the value of a specific variable. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 33) According to the text, a pie chart is not useful for displaying relationships over time or relationships among several variables. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


34) As a general guideline, a pie chart should not require more than four sections. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 35) An attractive way of illustrating trends and changes over time is to use a line chart. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 36) Bar charts can be used to display the steps or components of a process. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 37) According to the text, the key to an effective presentation is preparation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 3 38) The KISS 'em principle stands for Keep It Short, Stupid! Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 3 39) The researcher's task ends with the oral presentation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4 40) If a research report will be used across different countries and languages only one report should be prepared. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments Objective: 5


41) Social media can play a crucial role in disseminating the results and the report of a marketing research project but not the decisions made by the company based on the findings. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 42) Blogs can also provide an avenue for a company to obtain consumer reaction to the research findings as well as their feedback on the decisions made and actions taken by the company based on the research findings. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 43) The use of social media community members' stories as illustrations of statistical findings in reports or executive presentations can be misleading and should not be undertaken. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 44) Unexpectedly low response rates should be reported to the client. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 7 45) is the last step in the marketing research project. A) Data collection B) Questionnaire coding C) Data analysis D) Research design E) Report preparation and presentation Answer: E Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1


46) Which of the following is NOT a step in the report preparation and presentation process? A) questionnaire design B) data analysis C) oral presentation D) research follow-up E) interpretations, conclusions, and recommendations Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 47) The first step in the report preparation and presentation process is A) data analysis B) problem definition C) recommendations D) research follow-up E) interpretations, conclusions, and recommendations Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1

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48) According to the text, the last step in the report preparation and presentation process is . A) problem definition B) data analysis C) recommendations D) research follow-up E) reading of the report by the client Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 49) A letter that delivers the report to the client and summarizes the researcher's overall experience with the project without mentioning the findings is called the . A) letter of acceptance B) letter of authorization C) letter of transmittal D) letter of recommendation E) letter of invoice Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1


50) The should identify the need for further action on the part of the client, such as implementation of the findings or further research that should be undertaken. A) letter of transmittal B) letter of estimation C) letter of authorization D) letter of recommendation E) letter of invoice Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 51) The client writes a _ to the researcher before work on the project begins. A) letter of estimation B) letter of authorization C) letter of transmittal D) letter of recommendation E) letter of invoice Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 52) A authorizes the researcher to proceed with the project and specifies its scope and terms of the contract. A) letter of estimation B) letter of transmittal C) letter of recommendation D) letter of authorization E) letter of invoice Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 53) The is an extremely important part of the report, as this is often the only portion of the report that executives read. A) executive summary B) problem definition section C) research design section D) conclusions and recommendations section E) the invoice statement Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1


54) The executive summary should concisely describe all of the following EXCEPT the . A) research problem B) approach C) research design D) major results E) problems encountered while conducting the project Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1 55) Which of the following sections of the report gives the background to the problem, highlights discussions with the decision makers and industry experts, and discusses the secondary data analysis, the qualitative research that was conducted, and the factors that were considered? A) executive summary B) problem definition C) research design D) conclusions and recommendations E) letter of transmittal Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 56) Recommendations that are made in the report should be A) complex B) so rigorous they stimulate technical experts C) only for those who worked on the project D) kept to a minimum E) directly usable as inputs into management decision making Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1

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57) The section of the report should include the nature of the research design adopted, information needed, data collection from secondary and primary sources, scaling techniques, questionnaire development and pretesting, sampling techniques, and fieldwork. A) executive summary B) problem definition C) research design D) conclusions and recommendations E) approach to the problem Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 58) Which of the following is NOT a suggestion to follow when writing a marketing research report? A) Technical jargon should be used. B) The report should be easy to follow. C) Objectivity should guide report writing. D) Reinforce key information in the text with tables, graphs, and pictures. E) Several revisions of the report may be needed before the final document emerges. Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 2 59) It is important to reinforce key information in the text of the report with all of the following EXCEPT the use of . A) tables B) graphs C) pictures D) maps E) underlining Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 2 60) According to the text, every table should have a A) footnote; title B) summary; footnote C) title; summary D) number; title E) header; footer Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

and a

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61) Data should be arranged in a table to emphasize the most A) expensive aspect of the data B) current aspect of the data C) significant aspect of the data D) reliable aspect of the data E) expensive part of the project Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 62) If ease of locating items is critical, a(n) appropriate. A) numerical B) current ranking C) alphabetical D) random E) catalogued Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2

.

arrangement of the data in a table is most

63) Instead of ruling the table horizontally or vertically, it is suggested that set off data items. A) white spaces B) leaders C) stubs D) hyphens E) asterisks Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

be used to

64) Dots or hyphens that are used to impart uniformity and improve readability of a table are called . A) stubs B) footnotes C) headings D) leaders E) brackets Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


65) are designations placed in the left-hand column of a table. A) Leaders B) Stubs C) Footnotes D) Headings E) Brackets Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 66) A round chart divided into sections is called a A) pie chart B) line chart C) pictograph D) histogram E) round graph Answer: A Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

.

67) A is a chart that connects a series of data points using continuous lines. A) pictograph B) bar chart C) line chart D) histogram E) streamline Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 68) A graphical depiction that makes use of small pictures or symbols to display the data is called a . A) pictograph B) pie chart C) line chart D) histogram E) symbology Answer: A Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


69) A is a chart that displays data in bars positioned horizontally or vertically. A) line chart B) pictograph C) bar chart D) pie chart E) grid Answer: C Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 70) A vertical bar chart in which the height of the bars represents the relative or cumulative frequency of occurrence is called a . A) line chart B) pictograph C) histogram D) pie chart E) box and whiskers chart Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 71) In a , the area of each section, as a percentage of the total circle, reflects the percentage associated with the value of a specific variable. A) line chart B) pictograph C) histogram D) pie chart E) line out Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 72) According to the text, a is not useful for displaying relationships over time or relationships among several variables. A) line chart B) pie chart C) bar chart D) histogram E) streamline Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2


73) As a general guideline, a pie chart should not require more than A) two B) four C) five D) six E) seven Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2

sections.

74) An attractive way of illustrating trends and changes over time is to use a A) bar chart B) histogram C) line chart D) pie chart E) streamline Answer: C Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2 75) can be used to display the steps or components of a process. A) Pie charts B) Line charts C) Bar charts D) Flowcharts E) Streamline Answer: D Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 2 76) According to the text, the key to an effective presentation is A) advanced technology B) preparation C) detailed descriptions D) professionalism E) video equipment Answer: B Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 3

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77) Which of the following filler words is appropriate to use during a presentation? A) "uh" B) "y'know" C) "all right" D) "like" E) No filler words should be used during a presentation. Answer: E Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 3 78) After the oral presentation, the researcher should A) help the client understand the findings B) help the client implement the findings C) evaluate the entire marketing research project D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 4 79) An important reason for client follow-up is to A) get paid B) get face time C) evaluate the client D) research the research already done E) discuss further research projects Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 4

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80) Which of the following should be included in the limitations and caveats section of the research report? A) sanctions levied by the Federal Trade Commission B) lack of National Science Foundation approval C) lack of acceptance by NASA D) respondents requiring cash incentive E) the populations to which the results should not be extended Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1


81) An excellent check on the clarity of the report is . A) limiting the report to no more than 100 pages B) limiting the report to 50 pages C) having 2 people write the report D) putting it on the web for unsolicited comments E) having 2 or 3 people who are unfamiliar with the report read the report and give comments Answer: E Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 2 82) A principle that is effective for structuring a presentation is to just A) "go for it" B) "slide and glide" C) "fourth and goal" D) "preach it" E) "tell 'em" Answer: E Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 3

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83) Which of the following are advantages to publishing marketing research reports on the Web? A) These reports can include all kinds of multimedia presentations. B) The dissemination is immediate. C) Reports can be searched electronically to identify materials of interest. D) A and C only E) A, B, and C Answer: E Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 84) In a short essay, discuss the importance of the report and its presentation for a marketing research project. Answer: The report and its presentation are the tangible products of the research effort, and the report serves as a historical record of the project. If inadequate attention is paid to this step, the value of the project to management will be greatly diminished. The involvement of many marketing managers in the project is limited to the written report and the oral presentation. These managers evaluate the quality of the entire project based on the quality of the report and the presentation. Management's decision to undertake marketing research in the future or to use the particular research supplier again will be influenced by the perceived usefulness of the report and the presentation. For these reasons, report preparation and presentation assume great importance. Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and oral communication Objective: 1


85) In a short essay, discuss why initial research findings should be communicated to the client's key decision makers. Answer: The process begins by interpreting the results of data analysis in light of the marketing research problem, approach, research design, and fieldwork. Instead of merely summarizing the statistical results, the researcher should present the findings in such a way that they can be used directly as input into decision making. Whenever appropriate, conclusions should be drawn and recommendations that management can act upon should be made. Before writing the report, the researcher should discuss the major findings, conclusions, and recommendations with the client's key decision makers. These discussions play a major role in ensuring that the report meets the client's needs and is ultimately accepted. These discussions should confirm specific dates for the delivery of the written report and other data. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 1 86) In a short essay, discuss at least five elements that should be included in the research design section of the marketing research report. Answer: The report section on research design should specify the details of how the research was conducted. This should include the nature of the research design adopted, information needed, data collection from secondary and primary sources, scaling techniques, questionnaire development and pretesting, sampling techniques, and fieldwork. These topics should be presented in a nontechnical, easy-to-understand manner. The technical details should be included in the appendix. This section of the report should justify the specific methods selected. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 1 87) In a short essay, discuss at least four recommendations that should be followed when writing the report for a marketing research project. Answer: A marketing research report should be written for a specific reader or readers: the marketing managers who will use the results. The report should take into account the reader's technical sophistication and interest in the project, as well as the circumstances under which they will read the report and how they will use it. Technical jargon should be avoided. The report should be easy to follow. It should be structured logically and written clearly. An excellent check on the clarity of a report is to have two or three people who are unfamiliar with the project read it and offer critical comments. Several revisions of the report may be needed before the final document emerges. Objectivity is a virtue that should guide report writing. The report should accurately present the methodology, results, and conclusions of the project, without slanting the findings to conform to the expectations of management. It is important to reinforce key information in the text with tables, graphs, pictures, maps, and other visual devices. Visual aids can greatly facilitate communication and add to the clarity and impact of the report. The appearance of the report is also important. The report should be professionally reproduced with quality paper, typing, and binding. Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of knowledge Objective: 2


88) In a short essay, discuss why it is important to evaluate a marketing research project. Include a listing of at least five specific questions that should be asked when evaluating the marketing research project. Answer: Every marketing research project provides an opportunity for learning, and the researcher should critically evaluate the entire project to obtain new insights and knowledge. The key question to ask is, "Could this project have been conducted more effectively or efficiently?" This question raises several more specific questions. Could the problem have been defined differently so as to enhance the value of the project to the client or reduce the cost? Could a different approach have yielded better results? Was the research design the best? How about the mode of data collection? Should mall intercepts have been used instead of telephone interviews? Was the sampling plan the most appropriate? Were the sources of possible design error correctly anticipated and kept under control, at least in a qualitative sense? If not, what changes could have been made? The insights gained from such an evaluation will benefit the researcher and subsequent projects. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking Objective: 4 89) In a short essay, discuss the advantages to publishing marketing research reports on the Web. Give an example of how one company has benefited from such use of new media. Answer: There are a number of advantages to publishing marketing research reports on the Web. These reports can incorporate all kinds of multimedia presentations, including graphs, pictures, animation, audio, and full motion video. The dissemination is immediate, and an authorized person anywhere in the world can access the reports online. These reports can be searched electronically to identify materials of specific interest. For example, a Coca-Cola manager in Brazil can electronically locate the portions of the report that pertain to South America. Storage and future retrieval is efficient and effortless. It is easy to integrate these reports to become a part of the decision support system. Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology Objective: 6 90) List some of the ethical issues faced by the researcher and the client in the report preparation and presentation stage of the marketing research project. Answer: Report preparation and presentation involves many issues pertaining to research integrity. These issues include defining the marketing research problem to suit hidden agendas, compromising the research design, deliberately misusing statistics, falsifying figures, altering research results, misinterpreting the results with the objective of supporting a personal or corporate point of view, and withholding information. The dissemination of the marketing research results to the client, and other stakeholders as may be appropriate, should be honest, accurate, and complete. Likewise, clients also have the responsibility for complete and accurate disclosure of the research findings and are obligated to use the research results in an ethical manner. Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning Objective: 7


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