Test Bank for Human Anatomy, 9th Edition, by Elaine N. Marieb, Patricia M. Brady Jon B. Mallatt, by StudyGuide

Human Anatomy, 9e Marieb Test Bank Chapter 1 The Human Body: An Orientation 1.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The smallest living unit is A) a cell. B) an organ. C) a human being. D) a molecule. Answer: A Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which branch of anatomy studies the structural changes that occur as one ages? A) developmental anatomy B) pathological anatomy C) regional anatomy D) surface anatomy Answer: A Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Morphology is A) a measuring technique B) the study of form C) an imaging technology D) the study of disease E) a type of microscopy Answer: B Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4) How many centimeters are there in a meter? A) 10 B) 100 C) 1,000 D) 1,000,000 Answer: B Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.4 Global LO: G4 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 5) A histologist examines a specimen that has an epithelium overlying some smooth muscle. This specimen is part of A) a molecule. B) a cell. C) a tissue. D) an organ. Answer: D Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) An example of a tissue in the body is A) the stomach. B) a muscle cell. C) epithelium. D) a macromolecule. Answer: C Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) An example of an organ is A) a fat cell. B) the intestine. C) epithelium. D) the cardiovascular system (but not the circulatory system). Answer: B Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) Which organ system consists of vessels that do not carry blood, but pick up fluids (and some cells) that are leaked from the blood? A) urinary B) endocrine C) integumentary D) lymphatic Answer: D Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.3 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 9) Large molecules such as proteins are called A) cells. B) macromolecules. C) multi-atom units. D) cellular organelles. Answer: B Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which organ system covers the external surface of the body, but not the internal surface of the mouth? A) lymphatic B) digestive C) integumentary D) cutaneous Answer: C Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Which organ system includes the spinal cord? A) skeletal B) muscular C) nervous D) integumentary Answer: C Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

12) The elimination of nitrogenous wastes from body fluids is regulated by the ________ system. A) urinary B) endocrine C) integumentary D) lymphatic Answer: A Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The dimensions of cells and organelles would best be described using which units of measurement? A) mg B) cm C) µm D) m E) ml Answer: C Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.4 Global LO: G4 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 14) Which organ system includes the pancreas, thymus, testes, and pituitary gland? A) integumentary B) endocrine C) reproductive D) lymphatic Answer: B Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.3 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The roots of anatomical terminology lie mainly in A) German and French. B) Latin and Greek. C) Esperanto. D) Russian and Old English. Answer: B Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

16) Hormones are regulatory proteins that are secreted by the ________ system. A) urinary B) endocrine C) integumentary D) lymphatic Answer: B Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.3 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) Which organ system keeps blood constantly supplied with oxygen, removes carbon dioxide, and contains many air tubes? A) urinary B) endocrine C) circulatory D) respiratory Answer: D Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.3 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) The ________ cavity contains the heart and lungs. A) abdominopelvic B) dorsal C) thoracic D) lateral Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) A coronal section through the human body can A) pass through both the nose and the occipital region. B) pass through both ears. C) provide mirror right and left images. D) lie in a horizontal plane. Answer: B Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 20) Which letter indicates the mental region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

21) Which letter indicates the umbilical region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which letter indicates the hallux? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which letter indicates the inguinal region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which letter indicates the femoral region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

25) Which structures are evidence of the vertebrate characteristic of segmentation? A) branches of the blood vessels B) multiple joints of fingers C) subdivisions of the gastrointestinal tract D) vertebral column Answer: D Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which statement about visceral serosa is false? A) It clings to the surface of organs. B) It is continuous with the membrane that covers the outer body wall. C) It is deep to the parietal serosa. D) It lines the internal surface of hollow organs. Answer: D Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) The buccal region is the A) cheeks. B) waist. C) calf of the leg. D) underside of the foot. Answer: A Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 28) The popliteal region is A) the side of the leg. B) in the cervical region. C) the posterior surface of the knee. D) the inferior part of the gluteal region. Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

29) The coxal region is A) the same as the inguinal region. B) the skin over the "tailbone." C) the hip. D) the posterior surface of the wrist. Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which structure is located entirely within the right upper quadrant? A) appendix B) gallbladder C) spleen D) stomach Answer: B Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which organ is not found in the ventral body cavity? A) heart B) liver C) spinal cord D) urinary bladder Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 32) The ankle lies ________ to the thigh. A) distal B) proximal C) lateral D) inferior Answer: A Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

33) The axillary artery is found in the region of the A) posterior surface of the knee. B) vertebral column. C) armpit. D) long axis of any limb. Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) The extremities are the same as A) the ears. B) the fingers and toes. C) the limbs. D) all structures in the head. Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which of the following pairs of organs/structures is located ipsilateral? A) cecum : sigmoid colon B) descending colon : spleen C) mouth : navel D) right lung : left lung Answer: B Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 36) A physician viewing an injury to the back would look at the patient's ________ side. A) lateral B) posterior C) cranial D) ventral Answer: B Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

37) The ________ body cavity contains the brain. A) dorsal B) ventral C) serous D) lateral Answer: A Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) As an anatomical region, lumbar refers to A) the infero-medial aspect of the back. B) part of the lower limb. C) the wrist. D) the breast. Answer: A Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 39) Which letter indicates the lumbar region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

40) Which letter indicates the acromial region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) Which letter indicates the scapular region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) Which letter indicates the popliteal region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which letter indicates the occipital region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

44) The chest is ________ to the abdomen. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: A Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 45) The sternal region is ________ to the scapular region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 46) Which of these terms refers to the head? A) cranial B) caudal C) medial D) frontal E) sacral Answer: A Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

47) The brain is ________ to the skull. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: E Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 48) The thumb is ________ to the index finger. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: B Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 49) Muscles are ________ to the skin. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: E Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 50) The axillary region is ________ to the sternum. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: B Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

51) The lip is ________ to the chin. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: A Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 52) The eye is ________ to the occipital region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 53) The gluteal region is ________ to the popliteal region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: A Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

54) The femoral region is ________ to the plantar region. A) superficial B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: D Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 55) The heart is ________ to the sternum. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: E Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 56) The pubic area is ________ to the gluteal region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 57) The perineal region is the A) side of the leg. B) region between the external genitals and the anus. C) point of the shoulder. D) superior part of the gluteal region. Answer: B Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

58) Which structure is not present in the mediastinum? A) esophagus B) heart C) lung D) trachea Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) A frontal plane is the same as a ________ plane. A) midsagittal B) transverse C) coronal D) sagittal Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) Another name for the midsagittal plane is A) parasagittal. B) oblique. C) coronal. D) median. Answer: D Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) The umbilical region is ________ to the lumbar region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

62) The cervical region is the A) thigh. B) calf. C) neck. D) head. Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) What is the function of serous membranes? A) They act like wrapping paper to hold visceral organs together. B) They contain gland cells that secrete mucus. C) They halt the spread of infection. D) They reduce friction so that viscera move freely. Answer: D Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) The dorsal hollow nerve cord A) develops into the brain and spinal cord. B) is a primitive supporting rod. C) contains the notochord. D) is the same as the human backbone. Answer: A Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) Which statement concerning the anatomical position is false? A) The palms face anteriorly. B) The toes point anteriorly, but the fingers point inferiorly. C) The knees, elbow, and neck are straight (not bent). D) The person is lying down, as straight as possible. Answer: D Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

66) Bilateral symmetry can apply to objects as well as to animal bodies. Which of the following capital letters of the alphabet is not bilaterally symmetrical? A) A B) M C) L D) O Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) Which structure is not covered by visceral serosa? A) lungs B) ribs C) stomach D) uterus Answer: B Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 68) The femoral region is the A) buttocks. B) hip. C) thigh. D) toes. Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) The inguinal region lies A) anterior to the elbow joint. B) on the anterior neck. C) where the thigh joins the trunk. D) on the external genitals. Answer: C Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

70) What point or structure in the body is located farthest laterally? (Hint: Questions always refer to the body in the anatomical position.) A) the coxal region B) ear C) little toe D) tip of thumb Answer: D Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 71) Although transmission electron microscopy is usually used for high-magnification viewing, it is certainly possible to use it at low magnification as well. That is, one can produce similar micrographs of tissues taken by light microscopy and electron microscopy at the same magnification. Even at the same magnification, however, you can easily tell the two kinds of micrographs apart. How? A) The image in the electron micrograph is still sharper. B) Tissue viewed by electron microscopy is colored, whereas light micrographs are always black and white (and shades of gray). C) Tissue for light microscopy cannot be fixed (no fixation). D) Tissue for electron microscopy cannot be sectioned. Answer: A Section: 1.3 Book LO: 1.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 72) During the process of ________, noncellular artifacts can be introduced into histology samples. A) time B) observation C) staining D) photography Answer: C Section: 1.3 Book LO: 1.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

73) The main purpose of fixation is A) to preserve the tissue. B) to mend breaks in tissue sections. C) to make an organ easier to section. D) to stick tissue sections to a glass slide. Answer: A Section: 1.3 Book LO: 1.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 74) The "CT" in "CT scanning" stands for A) cut transversely. B) Charles Thorgaard, the inventor's name. C) correlated thickness. D) computed tomography. Answer: D Section: 1.4 Book LO: 1.13 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) What is the main advantage of MRI as a medical imaging technique? A) It is safe. B) The patient feels less pain during the procedure than with any other imaging technique. C) It is very inexpensive. D) It shows soft tissues very clearly. Answer: D Section: 1.4 Book LO: 1.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

1.2 True/False Questions 1) Pathological anatomy deals with structural changes caused by disease. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Most adults are between 1.5 and 2 meters tall. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.1 Book LO: 1.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 3) All vertebrate embryos have a dorsal hollow nerve cord. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Serous cavities include the pleural cavity. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Serous cavities contain air. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) A transverse plane could cut the head off the body! Answer: TRUE Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

7) In anatomical position, the palms of the hands face medially toward the thighs. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) The mediastinum contains the trachea and lungs. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) The peritoneal cavity is a serous cavity. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.2 Book LO: 1.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) EM has much greater resolution than LM. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.3 Book LO: 1.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) A CT scan produces an image of a transverse section of the body. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.4 Book LO: 1.13 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) MRI techniques can show only images that are hard and deflect the X-rays. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.4 Book LO: 1.13 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

13) Ultrasound techniques are used to image a fetus because they are less damaging than other techniques. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.4 Book LO: 1.13 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Angiography imaging is used primarily in the study of blood supply to the heart wall and brain. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.4 Book LO: 1.13 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) A CT scan is used to detect regions of high metabolic activity. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.4 Book LO: 1.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 1.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe the terms proximal and distal. Answer: Proximal means closer to the point of attachment to the main part of the body; distal is farther from the point of attachment. 2) Describe the location of the femoral region in relation to the crural region. Answer: The femoral region is proximal to the crural region. 3) Describe the location of the brachial region in relation to the pollex. Answer: The brachial region is proximal to the pollex. 4) In humans, what term is synonymous with posterior? Answer: dorsal 5) Clinicians refer to ________ anatomy when locating blood vessels to draw blood, feeling pulses, and avoiding nerves while giving injections. Answer: surface 6) In humans, the region between the anus and the external genitals is the ________ region. Answer: perineal 7) The olecranal region is posterior to what region? Answer: antecubital 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

8) The head, neck, and trunk comprise the ________ region. Answer: axial 9) What is the anatomical term for the thumb? Answer: pollex 10) One could say that the forearm is ________ to the brachial region. Answer: distal 11) Cutting the body along the median plane produces a(n) ________ section Answer: midsagittal 12) One could describe the scalp as being ________ to the skull. Answer: superficial 13) A(n) ________ plane separates the body into equal left and right halves. Answer: midsagittal (or median) 14) Which type of imaging technology uses radioactive isotopes to detect regions of high metabolic activity? Answer: PET scan 15) The ________ system is involved in immunity. Answer: lymphatic 1.4 Essay Questions 1) Identify each of the systems that are found in the arm. Answer: The arm contains elements of the skeletal, nervous, cardiovascular, muscular, lymphatic, and integumentary systems. 2) Which of the organ systems found in the arm are not found in the leg? Answer: None 3) List the six unique features found in all vertebrates at some stage of their life. Answer: Tube-within-a-tube body plan, bilateral symmetry, dorsal hollow nerve cord, notochord and vertebrae, segmentation, and pharyngeal pouches. 4) In adult humans, what remnants of segmentation remain? Answer: The ribs and the vertebrae, with their segmental spinal nerves, are remnants of segmentation.

5) Select from the following techniques the best method for assessing brain function in a stroke patient: X-ray imaging, sonography, MRI. Explain why the other choices are not the best choice. Answer: MRI is the best method of assessing brain function. X-rays do not image soft tissues well or with high resolution. They also produce only two-dimensional images of a structure. Sonography cannot be used to study the brain because sound waves cannot pass through the skull.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 2 Cells: The Living Units 2.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Each cell performs all of the function necessary to sustain life. Those functions include all of the following except A) obtaining nutrients from the surrounding body fluids. B) dispose of wastes. C) replicate itself. D) use nutrients to make the molecules it needs. E) phagocytosing other cells. Answer: E Section: 2.1 Book LO: 2.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 2) Which letter indicates the rough endoplasmic reticulum? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 2.1 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

3) Which letter indicates the nucleolus? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 2.1 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which letter indicates the plasma membrane? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 2.1 Book LO: 2.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which letter indicates the mitochondrion? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 2.1 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which letter indicates the Golgi apparatus? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 2.1 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

7) Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane? A) protect the internal aspect of the cell from substances outside the cell. B) breaking down and digesting unwanted substances within the cell. C) binding specific molecules arriving from outside of the cell. D) selectively controlling the substances that enter or leave the cell. E) moving specific substances from outside the cell to inside the cell. Answer: B Section: 2.2 Book LO: 2.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) The plasma membrane is A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell. B) a single-layered membrane enclosing the plasma. C) the membrane surrounding the cell. D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae. E) a double-layered membrane surrounding the mitochondria of the cell. Answer: C Section: 2.2 Book LO: 2.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) The plasma membrane is important for all the following reasons except A) it determines what substances enter and exit the cell. B) it separates the extracellular fluid from the intracellular fluid. C) it acts as a site for cell-to-cell interaction and recognition. D) it is an important site for DNA transcription. Answer: D Section: 2.2 Book LO: 2.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 10) The plasma membrane is composed of all of the following except A) glycoproteins. B) tubulin protein. C) cholesterol. D) phospholipids. E) integral proteins Answer: B Section: 2.2 Book LO: 2.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

11) Embedded in the plasma membrane of cells, cholesterol molecules act to A) stabilize the membrane. B) make the membrane more resistant to freezing. C) destabilize the membrane, leading to heart attacks. D) participate in pinocytosis. E) allow water to easily pass through the plasma membrane. Answer: A Section: 2.2 Book LO: 2.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Phospholipids of the plasma membrane are arranged A) around a central layer of cholesterol. B) in a single layer with polar heads facing outwards. C) as a bilayer with their nonpolar tails sandwiched between the polar heads. D) as a bilayer with their polar heads sandwiched between the nonpolar tails. E) as a bilayer with the polar heads facing the nonpolar tails. Answer: C Section: 2.2 Book LO: 2.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 13) Which of the following statements about integral proteins in the plasma membrane is false? A) Most extend all the way through the membrane. B) Some attach to the glycocalyx. C) They determine which molecules are transported through the membrane. D) They are more abundant by volume than the membrane phospholipids. E) They are involved in the transport of some water-soluble or charged molecules across the membrane. Answer: D Section: 2.2 Book LO: 2.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

14) Hypercholesterolemia is an inherited disease in which the body's cells lack protein receptors that bind to cholesterol-delivering low-density lipoproteins. Based on your knowledge of cell anatomy, what do you think a consequence of the lack of this receptor may be? A) Cholesterol will not bind to the receptor and enter the cell. B) Cholesterol will not exit the cell via exocytosis. C) The lipids in the plasma membrane will break down, resulting in death of the cell. D) Ribosomes will not be able to make proteins. E) Rough endoplasmic reticulum will not be able to break down lipids. Answer: A Section: 2.2 Book LO: 2.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15) The endocytotic process in which small vesicles of fluid are brought into the cell is called A) phagocytosis. B) pinocytosis. C) exocytosis. D) xenocytosis. E) receptor-mediated endocytosis Answer: B Section: 2.2 Book LO: 2.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) Which type of endocytosis ingests the most specific type of molecule? A) fluid-phase endocytosis B) phagocytosis C) pinocytosis D) receptor-mediated endocytosis E) vesiclcytosis Answer: D Section: 2.2 Book LO: 2.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

17) Hormones are secreted by A) phagocytosis. B) pinocytosis. C) exocytosis. D) osmosis. E) receptor-mediated endocytosis Answer: C Section: 2.2 Book LO: 2.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) Materials that are to be exocytosed by cells are enclosed in vesicles synthesized by the A) nucleosome. B) ribosome. C) Golgi apparatus. D) mitochondrion. E) lysosome. Answer: C Section: 2.2 Book LO: 2.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 19) Membrane-bound organelles have the same type of membrane as the plasma membrane except A) for the absence of a glycocalyx. B) for the absence of cholesterol. C) the nonpolar tails face outward. D) they are all covered with ribosomes. Answer: A Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 20) Which of the following is associated with protein synthesis? A) mitochondria B) ribosomes C) chloroplasts D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) Golgi apparatus Answer: B Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

21) Ribosomes may be either free within the cytoplasm or bound to a membrane system known as the A) Golgi apparatus. B) microtubule organizing center. C) cytoskeleton. D) rough endoplasmic reticulum. E) plasma membrane. Answer: D Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which membranous organelle is the site of protein synthesis for proteins that are secreted by the cell? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) peroxisome Answer: C Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which membranous organelle stores calcium and is a primary site of lipid metabolism? A) Golgi apparatus B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) mitochondrion D) peroxisome E) rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

24) Which of the following statements about the rough endoplasmic reticulum is false? A) It consists of stacked envelopes called cisternae. B) It makes the digestive enzymes contained in the lysosomes. C) It stores lipids as inclusions. D) It makes the integral proteins of the cell membrane. E) It contains ribosomes on the external face of its membranes. Answer: C Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which organelle has both a cis and a trans face? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) peroxisome Answer: A Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Functions of the Golgi apparatus include all of the following except A) preparing proteins for inclusion in lysosomes. B) DNA replication. C) plasma membrane formation. D) production of secretory granules. E) modifying proteins created by the endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: B Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 27) Which organelle sorts, processes, and packages products made by the rough ER? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) peroxisome Answer: A Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

28) The ________ face of the Golgi apparatus is ________ to receive spherical vesicles from the rough endoplasmic reticulum. A) cis; convex B) trans; concave C) cis; flattened D) trans; convex Answer: A Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 29) Which organelle is primarily a sac of powerful digestive enzymes called acid hydrolases? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) peroxisome Answer: B Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) When a phagocytic white blood cell ingests a foreign bacterial cell, which organelle fuses with the vesicle? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) peroxisome Answer: B Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

31) In the process of phagocytosis, the organelles whose enzymes break down ingested foreign cells are the A) nucleoli. B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum. C) peroxisomes. D) lysosomes. E) centrosomes. Answer: D Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which of these organelles is involved in production of cellular energy? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) peroxisome Answer: D Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which organelle is characterized by folded inner membranes called cristae? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) peroxisome Answer: D Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

34) Which organelle produces ATP molecules? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) peroxisome Answer: D Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Of the following, the only organelle that has a double membrane structure is the A) centriole. B) Golgi apparatus. C) rough endoplasmic reticulum. D) mitochondrion. E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: D Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 36) Which organelle contains some DNA and is capable of self-replication? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) peroxisome Answer: D Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which membranous organelle contains oxidase and catalase enzymes? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) peroxisome Answer: E Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

38) Which organelle is numerous in cells of the liver and kidney, organs involved in removing toxic substances from the body? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) peroxisome Answer: E Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 39) Peroxisomes function to A) synthesize and degrade hydrogen peroxide. B) store cellular free radicals. C) produce pigments. D) regulate membrane permeability. E) synthesize integral proteins. Answer: A Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) Peroxisomes A) are the toxic waste removal system of the cell. B) are involved in the production of ATP. C) contain some of the code necessary for their own duplication. D) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell. E) provide support to the cell skeleton. Answer: A Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

41) Which of the following cytoskeleton elements are the largest in diameter? A) microtubules B) microfilaments C) intermediate filaments D) centrioles E) actin Answer: A Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) Which of the following is not a cytoskeleton element? A) microtubule B) microfilament C) intermediate filament D) centriole E) myosin Answer: D Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) The elements of the cytoskeleton that are stiff but bendable, analogous to the bones of the human body, are the A) microtubules. B) microfilaments. C) intermediate filaments. D) the cytosol. Answer: A Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 44) The cytoskeletal elements which generate pseudopodia and contractile forces in conjunction with myosin are A) microtubules. B) microfilaments. C) intermediate filaments. D) integral proteins. Answer: B Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

45) Dyneins and kinesins are motor proteins that A) enable a cell to send out and retract extensions called pseudopods. B) move organelles along microtubules through the cytoplasm. C) are molecular components of telomeres. D) resist pulling forces that are placed on cells. E) stabilize the cell in its location in the tissue. Answer: B Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 46) Which organelle is important in neutralizing free radicals? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) mitochondrion D) peroxisome E) centrioles Answer: D Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) The mitotic spindle forms from the A) nucleus. B) Golgi apparatus. C) centrosome matrix. D) nucleolus. Answer: C Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) Which of the following is an inclusion, not an organelle? A) lysosome B) microtubule C) mitochondrion D) glycosome E) peroxisome. Answer: D Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

49) The temporary structures in the cytoplasm include all of the following except A) pigments. B) glycosomes. C) lipid droplets. D) the Golgi apparatus. E) protein crystals. Answer: D Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) Which of the following is true regarding cytoplasmic inclusions? A) Lipid droplets are found in all cells in the body. B) Glycosomes store sugar in the form of glycogen. C) Crystals of protein contain enzymes that degrade glycogen into glucose subunits. D) Lysosomes are considered cytoplasmic inclusions. E) Pigments are cytoplasmic inclusions that store fat. Answer: B Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 51) Which letter indicates the DNA molecule? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

52) Which letter indicates the chromatid? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Which letter indicates a nucleosome? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) Which letter indicates histones? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) Which letter indicates the metaphase chromosome? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

56) The nuclear envelope is continuous with which organelle? A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) peroxisome Answer: C Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) Which of the following does not pass through nuclear pores? A) chromatin B) messenger RNA C) proteins D) ribosomal RNA Answer: A Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of the nuclear envelope? A) separation of nucleoplasm and cytoplasm B) regulation of passage of substances into and out of the cell membrane C) transcription of DNA D) protein synthesis E) waste removal from the nucleus Answer: A Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 59) The nuclear envelope is continuous with the rough ER, but it differs from the rough ER in that it A) is not associated with ribosomes. B) has unique pores. C) consists of two membranes separated by a space. D) consists of tubes, like the smooth ER. Answer: B Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

60) In chromatin, the DNA molecule wraps around proteins called A) nucleotides. B) codons. C) integral protein. D) histones. E) SNARE proteins Answer: D Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) Transcription of DNA requires the presence of A) centrosomes. B) extended chromatin. C) histones. D) nucleosomes. Answer: B Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) The cytoskeletal elements that form a ring to "squeeze" the two daughter cells apart during cytokinesis are A) microtubules. B) microfilaments. C) intermediate filaments. D) the microtrabecular lattice. Answer: B Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 63) In the cell life cycle, DNA is replicated during A) interphase G1. B) interphase S. C) prophase I. D) prophase II. E) interphase G2. Answer: B Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

64) Which is not part of interphase? A) G1 B) G2 C) M D) S Answer: C Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) During what phase of the cell cycle is the DNA duplicated? A) metaphase B) anaphase C) interphase D) prophase Answer: C Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) During what phase of mitosis does the mitotic spindle break down and disappear? A) metaphase B) anaphase C) telophase D) late prophase Answer: C Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) Mitosis refers only to nuclear division. Separation of the entire cell following mitosis is ___. A) meiosis. B) karyokinesis. C) cytokinesis. D) telophase. E) anaphase Answer: C Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

68) During mitosis, the kinetochore microtubules of the mitotic spindle A) attach to chromatids and align them at the metaphase plate. B) push on the chromatids. C) anchor the centriole to the cell membrane. D) push the two poles of the cell apart. Answer: A Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 69) The longest arrays of microtubules that assemble from each centrosome during prophase form filaments called A) mitotic spindles. B) kinetochores. C) asters. D) the nuclear envelope. E) histones. Answer: A Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 70) During anaphase, motor proteins attached to mitotic spindle fibers serve to A) pull the chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell. B) pull together the replicated chromosomal strands. C) re-form the nuclear envelope. D) form the aster. Answer: A Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) The cell that gathers information and controls body functions is a A) macrophage. B) fat cell. C) sperm cell. D) neuron. E) muscle cell. Answer: D Section: 2.6 Book LO: 2.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

72) Which cell type is correctly matched with its function? A) erythrocyte — cell that produces movement B) epithelial cell — cell that covers and lines organs C) macrophages — cell that stores nutrients D) fibroblast — cell that fights disease E) neuron — cell of reproduction Answer: B Section: 2.6 Book LO: 2.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 73) The theory proposing that aging results from the effects of free radicals is the A) mitochondrial theory of aging. B) genetic theory of aging. C) immunity theory of aging. D) cross-linking of glucose theory of aging. Answer: A Section: 2.6 Book LO: 2.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 74) The process of cellular aging may involve all of the following except A) accumulated damage by free radicals. B) decreased production of lysosomes. C) excessive metabolic rate. D) progressive shortening of telomeres. Answer: B Section: 2.6 Book LO: 2.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

2.2 True/False Questions 1) Ribosomes consist of two subunits, each surrounded by a membrane. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) The smooth ER contains its own molecules of DNA. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 3) Peroxisomes are important in detoxification of a number of toxic substances, for instance, hydrogen peroxide. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Microtubules are composed of actin. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.3 Book LO: 2.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Chromatin is composed of DNA wound around proteins known as actin. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Extended chromatin is tightly wound around histones. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

7) DNA is a long double-helix composed of four distinct nucleotides. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) The nucleolus serves as the cell's ribosome-producing machine. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.4 Book LO: 2.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) An example of a type of cell with high rates of mitosis is a cell of the skin. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) During the G1 phase, DNA is replicated in the cytoplasm. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) During the S phase, cells are characterized by rapid growth. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) A mitotic spindle develops during early telophase of mitosis. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

13) During anaphase, the chromosomes are moved to the center of the cell. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Cytokinesis is the physical division of the cytoplasm between the two newly formed cells that result from mitosis. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.5 Book LO: 2.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Telomeres are structures that limit the maximum number of times cells can divide. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.6 Book LO: 2.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Name the smallest living units in the body. Answer: cells 2) The outermost continuous boundary of a human cell is the ________. Answer: plasma membrane (plasmalemma) 3) What is the name of the currently held theory describing the plasma membrane structure? Answer: fluid mosaic model 4) The phospholipid molecules of the plasma membrane are primarily composed of ________. Answer: a non-polar tail comprised of 2 fatty acid chains attached to a polar head 5) Identify the two different types of membrane-associated molecules that comprise the glycocalyx. Answer: glycolipids and glycoproteins 6) This is the type of protein involved in transport mechanisms across the plasma membrane. Answer: integral proteins (transmembrane proteins) 7) This is the mechanism by which large particles and macromolecules enter a cell. Answer: endocytosis

8) This is the diffusion of water molecules across a membrane. Answer: osmosis 9) What is the transport mechanism by which substances move from the cytoplasm to the outside of the cell? Answer: exocytosis 10) Cell aging may be related to production of what charged molecules produced by the mitochondria? Answer: free radicals 11) This network of rods running throughout the cytosol acts as a cell's "bones," "muscles," and "ligaments." Answer: cytoskeleton 12) What would extended chromatin wrapped around a group of eight histones be called? Answer: a nucleosome 13) Name the phase in which a cell grows and carries on all its usual metabolic activities. Answer: G1 phase of interphase 14) Which phase involves the physical division of the cytoplasm between the two newly formed cells that result from mitosis. Answer: cytokinesis 2.4 Essay Questions 1) Differentiate phagocytosis from receptor-mediated endocytosis. Answer: In phagocytosis, the cell extends pseudopods and engulfs the foreign protein/foreign cell, which is often degraded after the phagocytic vesicle fuses with a lysosome. In receptormediated endocytosis, specific membrane receptors bind specific extra-cellular molecules. Once bound, the membrane deforms inward, creating a vesicle with the receptors and molecules inside. The vesicle contents are released into the cytoplasm or fuse with a lysosome, with the receptors recycled back to the membrane. 2) Describe the mitochondria. Answer: These are long, thin organelles, that have their own DNA molecule which allows for self-replication. They produce ATP molecules, which are the equivalent of cellular energy. They are bound by two membranes. The inner one is highly folded into cristae, where many of the critical molecules involved in ATP production are imbedded.

3) Describe the three major types of cytoskeletal elements. Answer: Microtubules are the largest in diameter and are formed by the protein tubulin. They are stiff, but bendable. Microtubules are important in the trafficking of organelles within the cytoplasm. Microfilaments are the smallest in diameter. They are strands of the protein actin, are contractile proteins, which are typically very labile. Intermediate filaments are of intermediate diameter. They are very stable and permanent, functioning to resist shearing forces within and between adjacent cells. 4) Describe how cellular differentiation results in structural variation among cells in the human body. Answer: Cellular differentiation is the result of highly regulated gene activation/inactivation in the developing embryo. The products of gene activation are proteins. As the embryo develops, certain cells will begin to produce proteins that neighboring cells do not produce. As development progresses, these unique protein "signatures" lead to differences in cellular function. For example, in muscle cells actin and myosin proteins predominate which results in their unique contractile properties. 5) Describe the two checkpoints that occur during interphase. Answer: The G1 checkpoint ensures that the cell has reached a maximum size and has replicated the necessary organelles and enzymes to synthesize DNA. The G2 checkpoint, checks to see whether replication errors or DNA damage has occurred during DNA synthesis.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 3 Basic Embryology 3.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Approximately ________ percent of all children have some birth defect. A) 0.01 B) 1 C) 3 D) 20 Answer: C Section: 3.0 Book LO: 3.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) The embryonic period of prenatal development is the first ________ weeks. A) two B) four C) eight D) twelve Answer: C Section: 3.1 Book LO: 3.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

3) Which letter indicates the blastocyst? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which letter indicates the uterus? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which letter indicates the oocyte? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which letter indicates the zygote? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which letter indicates the morula? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Quickening occurs (mother feels fetus moving). A) 8 weeks (end of embryonic period) B) 9-12 weeks (month 3) C) 13-16 weeks (month 4) D) 17-20 weeks (month 5) E) 21-30 weeks (months 6 and 7) Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Limbs are complete. A) 8 weeks (end of embryonic period) B) 9-12 weeks (month 3) C) 13-16 weeks (month 4) D) 17-20 weeks (month 5) E) 21-30 weeks (months 6 and 7) Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) Sex can be determined from the genitals. A) 8 weeks (end of embryonic period) B) 9-12 weeks (month 3) C) 13-16 weeks (month 4) D) 17-20 weeks (month 5) E) 21-30 weeks (months 6 and 7) Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.12 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Lungs complete development at A) 8 weeks (end of embryonic period) B) 9-12 weeks (month 3) C) 13-16 weeks (month 4) D) 17-20 weeks (month 5) E) 21-30 weeks (months 6 and 7) Answer: E Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) All major organs are present in rudimentary form. A) 8 weeks (end of embryonic period) B) 9-12 weeks (month 3) C) 13-16 weeks (month 4) D) 17-20 weeks (month 5) E) 21-30 weeks (months 6 and 7) Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) This develops into the brain and spinal cord. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Sensory nerve cells, the skin's pigment-producing cells, and the facial bones all derive from A) neural crest cells B) hypoblast C) endoderm D) mesoderm E) trophoblast Answer: A Section: 3.3 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Book LO: 3.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15) This develops into the epidermis of the skin. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) The epiblast develops a primitive streak during days 14-15, the initial cells that ingress through the primitive streak become this germ layer. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 17) Mucus-producing glands of the respiratory tract arise from this layer. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 18) The coelom forms between which two layers of the lateral mesoderm? A) paraxial and intermediate B) intermediate and somatic C) splanchnic and somatic D) parietal and visceral Answer: C 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 19) Embryonic epiblast cells that remain on the surface of the trilaminar disc are ultimately called A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 20) The neural tube develops from this layer. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) The mesoderm located deep to the neural tube that forms the kidneys and the gonads is the A) endoderm. B) ectoderm. C) mesoderm—somites. D) mesoderm—lateral plate. E) intermediate mesoderm. Answer: E Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

22) The ribs and vertebrae form from this primary germ layer. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 23) The ectoderm develops into the epithelium of the skin, whereas this layer gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gut tube. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 24) This layer will give rise to the bones, ligaments and joints of the embryonic limbs. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

25) Neural crest cells are derived from this germ layer. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) The dermis of the dorsal body region is derived from somites. However, the dermis of the ventral body region is derived from A) endoderm. B) ectoderm. C) mesoderm—somites. D) mesoderm—lateral plate. E) intermediate mesoderm. Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) Blood vessels and the heart arise from this primary germ layer. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

28) The splanchnic mesoderm forms next to this layer. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 29) Conception occurs in the A) lateral third of the uterine tube. B) ovary. C) peritoneal cavity. D) uterine cavity. Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) The embryonic notochord will eventually be replaced by the developing ________, leaving only remnants that persist as the nucleus pulposus of intervertebral discs. A) spinal cord B) pharynx C) lateral muscle D) vertebral column Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which of the following is the proper sequence for neurulation? A) neural tube, neural plate, neural groove B) neural groove, neural plate, neural tube C) neural plate, neural groove, neural tube D) neural groove, brain, neural tube Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

32) Limb buds emerge in the human embryo about A) day 9. B) day 15. C) day 28. D) day 60. Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) Division of cells in a zygote is called A) blastulation. B) cleavage. C) gastrulation. D) induction. Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) The gonads arise from what embryonic structure? A) notochord B) endoderm C) splanchnic mesoderm D) intermediate mesoderm Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which of the following is endodermal in origin? A) liver B) spleen C) blood vessels D) skin Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

36) Somites differentiate into A) the epidermis. B) myotomes. C) the gastrointestinal lining. D) muscles. Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 37) The sclerotomes will develop into the A) peritoneum. B) visceral serosa. C) vertebrae. D) heart. Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) Splanchnic mesoderm forms the A) heart. B) notochord. C) brain. D) skin. Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) A transverse section through the 24-day embryo, dorsal to ventral, would first contact the A) neural tube. B) notochord. C) somites. D) myotomes. Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

40) The embryonic layer that invades the lining of the uterus and forms the placenta is the A) trophoblast. B) embryoblast. C) inner cell mass. D) endometrium. Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) The expression "breaking water" during birthing refers to the rupture of the A) amniotic sac B) allantois. C) chorion. D) yolk sac. Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) Which characteristic is not true of a blastocyst? A) It contains a fluid-filled cavity. B) It develops 24-36 hours after conception. C) It has an inner cell mass and an outer trophoblast. D) It implants into the uterus. Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) The solid mass of cells that results from cleavage of the zygote is the A) trophoblast. B) blastocyst. C) morula. D) gastrula. Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

44) Which of the following does not distinguish mesoderm from either endoderm or ectoderm? A) It is a mesenchyme tissue. B) It is derived from the epiblast. C) It is the last of the three germ layers to develop. D) Its cells can migrate widely within the embryo. Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 45) The term bilaminar disc refers to the embryonic ________ and ________. A) epidermis; dermis B) ectoderm; mesoderm C) epiblast; hypoblast D) inner cell mass; trophoblast Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) Mesenchyme would refer to ________ but not ________. A) mesoderm; ectoderm B) ectoderm; mesoderm C) endoderm; ectoderm D) ectoderm; endoderm Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 47) Male and female fetuses can first be distinguished by their genitalia at A) 1 week. B) 3 weeks. C) 3 months. D) 7 months. Answer: C Section: 3.4 Book LO: 3.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

48) The most common cause of mental retardation in the United States is A) anencephaly. B) spina bifida. C) fetal alcohol syndrome. D) thalidomide. Answer: C Section: 3.0 Book LO: 3.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) Implantation of the blastocyst into the uterine lining takes about A) 1 week. B) 2 weeks. C) 3 weeks. D) 4 weeks. Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) Fertilization is to zygote as A) egg is to sperm. B) oocyte is to ovary. C) cleavage is to morula. D) birth is to parturition. Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 51) In human embryos, the yolk sac is important because it A) stores yolk. B) gives rise to earliest blood cells and blood vessels. C) stores nitrogenous wastes. D) allows for gas exchange through the placenta. Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

52) The body's axis of development is determined by the A) blastomeres. B) epiblast. C) notochord. D) primitive streak. Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Most organ systems are fully formed and ready to function in the fetus by the sixth month. Which of the following systems is the exception to this generalization because it takes longer to finish development? A) the circulatory system B) the respiratory system C) the urinary system D) the integumentary system Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 54) The urinary bladder is derived from which embryonic layer? A) ectoderm B) mesoderm C) endoderm D) neural crest Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) A teratogen is A) a deformed baby. B) a specific sedative used in the 1950s in Europe. C) a chemical agent, infectious agent or environmental factor that causes birth defects. D) a stage of development in the mid-fetal period. Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

56) The primary germ layer that ultimately produces the hair, fingernails, and toenails is A) ectoderm. B) mesoderm. C) endoderm. D) neural crest. Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) The primary germ layer that ultimately forms the serous membranes of the peritoneum is A) ectoderm. B) mesoderm. C) endoderm. D) neural crest. Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) The neural tube of the embryo develops into the A) spinal cord. B) neural crest. C) sensory neurons. D) dorsal skin. Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) Somatic mesoderm gives rise to all of the following except A) some bones. B) some serous membranes. C) dermis of the skin of the belly. D) epidermis of the upper limb. Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

60) Another name for birth defect is A) birth illness. B) teratogenesis. C) congenital abnormality. D) prenatal pathology. Answer: C Section: 3.4 Book LO: 3.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) Which of the following adult structures derives from neural crest? A) all the nerve cells in the brain B) all the nerve cells in the spinal cord C) all the pigment-producing cells in the body D) all bones Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) As a result of folding, the embryo acquires a tadpole shape by A) day 9. B) day 12. C) day 15. D) day 24. Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 63) The amniotic sac is derived from the epiblast, while the placenta develops from the A) bilaminar disc. B) hypoblast. C) neural crest. D) trophoblast. Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

64) Identical (monozygotic) twins are A) formed from splitting of the inner cell mass. B) formed from splitting of the zygote. C) formed from the release of two eggs. D) formed from two sperm fertilizing one egg. Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) If a mutation occurs in the hypoblast cells of a bilaminar embryo, one might expect birth defects to be present in the A) blood cells or vessels. B) brain and spinal cord. C) hair and skin. D) musculoskeletal system. Answer: A Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.5 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 66) Which of the following is not a property of mesenchyme? A) It is present before birth. B) Its cells migrate. C) Its cells are star-shaped. D) Its cells attach closely to one another and form sheets. Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) The ability of one cell to influence the development of its neighboring cells is called A) blastulation. B) cleavage. C) gastrulation. D) induction. Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

68) Which of the following appears latest in human development? A) limb buds B) somites C) heart D) separate fingers Answer: D Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) Conjoined twins occur as a result of A) complete separation of cells in the early morula. B) failure of the blastocyst to implant in the uterine lining. C) incomplete division of the inner cell mass. D) fertilization of the ovum by two different sperm Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 70) The cavity in the mesoderm that ultimately develops into the peritoneal, pericardial, and pleural cavities is called the A) antrum. B) blastocoel. C) coelom. D) dermatome. Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) Which of the following is not a primary germ layer? A) ectoderm B) mesoderm C) epidermis D) endoderm Answer: C Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

72) The correct sequence for embryonic development is A) zygote, blastocyst, morula. B) zygote, morula, blastocyst. C) blastocyst, morula, zygote. D) zygote, fetus, embryo. Answer: B Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 73) Based on the proportions of the adult body, the 3-month fetus still shows disproportionately large A) hands. B) stomach. C) head. D) heart. Answer: C Section: 3.4 Book LO: 3.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 74) Thalidomide, once used to alleviate morning sickness in pregnant women, resulted in A) severe limb abnormalities. B) heart defects. C) mental retardation. D) multiple births. Answer: A Section: 3.4 Book LO: 3.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 75) Production of surfactant begins during week 22-26 of gestation. Premature infants born after week 26 A) will not survive. B) will not need medical assistance for breathing. C) will need medical assistance for breathing. D) will be at increased risk for visual disorders and mental impairment. Answer: B Section: 3.4 Book LO: 3.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

3.2 True/False Questions 1) Spina bifida results when the neural tube fails to close in the head. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) The embryonic notochord gives rise to part of the intervertebral discs in the adult human. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) The inner cell mass will form the embryo, and the trophoblast will form the placenta. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) The outer membrane of the amniotic sac is called the amnion. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) The epiblast gives rise to the three primary germ layers. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) The developing embryo, about 72 hours after fertilization, is called the zygote. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

7) During the blastocyst stage, there are three cell layers evident. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) It is easy to remember that in humans, 3 weeks after fertilization, there are three germ layers. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) The three primary germ layers are the endoderm, myotome, and exoderm. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) The yolk sac, formed from the hypoblast, has little yolk in the human embryo. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) The ability of one group of cells to influence development of neighboring cells is called gastrulation. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Endoderm forms many glands, such as those associated with the gastrointestinal tract. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

13) Premature birth is one that occurs 38 weeks after conception. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.4 Book LO: 3.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 14) Identical twins arise from the splitting of a three-layered embryo. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.3 Book LO: 3.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15) The fetal period is the longer and later of the prenatal growth periods. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.4 Book LO: 3.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The embryonic ________ ultimately form the arms and legs of the adult. Answer: limb buds 2) By the end of week 3, the mesoderm has divided into the somites, intermediate mesoderm, and ________. Answer: lateral plate 3) The process of neurulation begins as the ectoderm dorsal to the ________ thickens into the neural plate. Answer: notochord 4) Splanchnic mesoderm gives rise to components of the cardiovascular system, including ________. Answer: the heart and blood vessels 5) Somites differentiate into dermatomes, myotomes, and ________. Answer: sclerotomes 6) The sex of the fetus can be determined externally by approximately month ________. Answer: 3 7) The hand develops with ________ between the fingers. Answer: webs (webbing) 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

8) This is the most common preventable cause of mental retardation in the United States. Answer: fetal alcohol syndrome 9) Defects in the development of the neural tube may be linked to inadequate dietary intake of ________. Answer: folic acid 10) ________ is a clinical procedure that provides a genetic profile for a fetus. Answer: Amniocentesis 11) A(n) ________ abortion is one in which the fetus dies and is naturally aborted. Answer: spontaneous 12) The wall and lining of the gut develop from the mesoderm and ________, respectively. Answer: endoderm 13) Hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and brown fat begin forming in month ________ of fetal development. Answer: 5 14) The ________ is the embryonic stage that implants in the uterus. Answer: blastocyst 15) A primitive characteristic that an adult human retains only in part, but is important in determining bilateral symmetry is the ________. Answer: notochord 16) The intermediate mesoderm forms the ________. Answer: kidneys and gonads 17) ________ results when the neural tube fails to close cranially. Answer: Anencephaly 3.4 Essay Questions 1) Explain how conjoined twins may occur. Answer: Conjoined twins result with the incomplete division of the inner cell mass during the twinning process. The twins may be joined at any/multiple body regions and often share organs. 2) Briefly describe the two cellular layers that comprise the bilaminar embryonic disc and explain their importance in embryonic development. Answer: Cells within the inner cell mass of the blastocyst begin to differentiate into two separate layers approximately nine days after fertilization occurs. These two layers will give rise to all of the cell types of the body. The epiblast will give rise to the three primary germ layers; ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm. The hypoblast gives rise to the yolk sac, which will develop into part of the digestive tube and tissue around the yolk sac gives rise to the earliest blood cells and blood vessels. 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

3) Describe the types of tissues that make up the endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm, and explain how these tissues relate to their developmental processes. Answer: Both endoderm and ectoderm are epithelial tissues. These cells are joined together in sheets that form external or internal linings of the body. The mesoderm consists of mesenchyme tissue whose cells don't stick together. Instead, the cells and groups of cells are free to migrate within the embryo to eventually give rise to muscles, bones, and viscera. 4) Define the term teratogen, and explain why exposure to teratogens during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy is particularly dangerous. Answer: A teratogen is any chemical, biological, or physical factor that disrupts normal embryo development. Exposure to teratogenic agents is most dangerous during the first 8 weeks of embryo development because it is during this time that most of the major organ systems initially develop. Disruption to these early cell lines may either be inconsistent with life and cause spontaneous abortion or may cause significant malformations that will persist throughout the fetal period. 5) Briefly describe the formation of the nervous system. Answer: The nervous system develops by an infolding of ectodermal cells from the neural plate. These cells continue to fold toward each other, forming initially the neural groove, which then becomes the completed neural tube. The cranial region of the neural tube becomes the brain, the caudal portion becomes the spinal cord. Just lateral to the developing neural groove, on either side, a ridge begins to form called the neural crest, again formed by ectodermal cells. These lateral ridges fuse; forming a superficial layer of ectoderm, surrounding the hollow, deeper neural tube Migratory neural crest cell derivatives will later become sensory nerve cells, pigment-producing cells, and bone-forming cells of the face.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 4 Tissues 4.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Which letter indicates microvilli? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

2) Which letter indicates the connective tissue layer? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which letter indicates the epithelium? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which letter indicates the basement membrane? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which letter on the diagram indicates motile structural elements of the epithelial membrane? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

6) Which category of tissue is characterized by cells that have adhesion proteins and specialized cell-to-cell junctions? A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 7) Which one of the following basic types of tissues functions as a covering tissue for the body? A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nervous Answer: A Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Using your knowledge of tissues of the body, which type of tissue do you deduce is located on the anterior surface of a person's eyeball? A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nervous Answer: A Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 9) Of the following, the tissue with the greatest capacity for regeneration is A) skeletal muscle. B) neurons. C) epithelium. D) smooth muscle. Answer: C Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

10) Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelia? A) highly cellular with little extracellular matrix B) innervated C) specialized cell-cell junctions D) vascular Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Cancer occurs when cells multiply excessively, forming malignant neoplasms. Which characteristic of epithelium makes it the most common type of tissue involved in cancer? A) specialized cell junctions B) polarity C) avascularity D) high regenerative capacity E) supportive connective tissue Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.1 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 12) Cells lining the digestive tube are characteristic of this tissue category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) Pseudostratified columnar is one of the tissues of this category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

14) Which major tissue category includes tissues that function in secretion, absorption, and filtration? A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The thinnest type of epithelium is A) simple squamous. B) pseudostratified columnar. C) stratified squamous. D) stratified columnar. Answer: A Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) Simple squamous epithelia would not provide A) protection from abrasion. B) diffusion. C) filtration. D) secretion. Answer: A Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 17) Which of the following provides the least resistance to diffusion? A) simple columnar epithelium B) simple cuboidal epithelium C) simple squamous epithelium D) stratified squamous epithelium Answer: C Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

18) The major function of pseudostratified columnar epithelium is A) secretion. B) filtration. C) protection. D) absorption. Answer: A Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) An epithelium in which the basal layer of cells is cuboidal and the apical layer has cells that are thin, flat and irregular in shape is a ________ epithelium. A) stratified squamous B) simple columnar C) stratified cuboidal D) simple cuboidal Answer: A Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 20) The major function of stratified squamous epithelium is A) diffusion. B) absorption. C) filtration. D) protection from abrasion. Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 21) A stratified epithelium that thins and flattens as the tissue stretches is a A) pseudostratified epithelium. B) stratified cuboidal epithelium. C) stratified squamous epithelium. D) transitional epithelium. Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

22) When unstretched, transitional epithelium looks most like ________ epithelium. A) simple squamous B) pseudostratified columnar C) stratified squamous D) stratified cuboidal Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) A structure that secretes hormones into the blood is A) a plasma cell. B) a goblet cell. C) an endocrine gland. D) an exocrine gland. Answer: C Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) A common example of a unicellular exocrine gland is A) a fibroblast. B) any hormone-secreting cell. C) an endothelial cell. D) a goblet cell. Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) What do goblet cells secrete? A) enzymes B) histamine C) mucin D) antibodies Answer: C Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

26) A highly branched gland whose walls do not balloon into spherical sacs is called A) compound alveolar. B) compound tubular. C) compound tubuloalveolar. D) simple branched alveolar. Answer: B Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) All of the following are true regarding multicellular exocrine glands except A) Each has an epithelium-walled duct and secretory epithelium. B) Supportive connective tissue with blood vessels and nerves surrounds most glands. C) Simple glands contain a duct without branches. D) Alveolar glands have secretory cells that form tubes. E) Compound glands have branched ducts. Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 28) Which letter indicates a cellular junction that prevents molecules from passing between epithelial cells? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 29) Which letter indicates the acellular layer that acts as a selective filter and a scaffold for regenerating epithelial cells? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

30) Which letter indicates tunnel-like junctions in the lateral membranes of adjacent epithelial cells? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 31) Which letter indicates junctions commonly associated with tissues under mechanical stress? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 32) Which letter indicates the cytoplasmic protein fiber that connects desmosomes? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

33) The distinguishing characteristic between tight junctions and adherens junctions is that A) adherens junctions attach to the actin myofilaments of the cytoskeleton, whereas tight junctions do not. B) adherens junctions involve integral membrane proteins, whereas tight junctions do not. C) tight junctions are present near apical lateral borders, whereas adherens junctions are located near basal lateral borders. D) tight junctions involve fusion of proteins on adjacent cells, whereas adherens junctions create tunnels between adjacent cells. Answer: A Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 34) The type of cell junction that closes off the space between epithelial cells, thereby limiting the passage of small molecules, is the A) tight junction. B) adherens junction. C) desmosome. D) gap junction. Answer: A Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Cell junctions occur in which plasma membrane of epithelial cells? A) apical B) lateral C) nuclear D) basal lamina Answer: B Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

36) Despite their name, many types of cell junction are not very strong at joining and holding cells together. The cell junctions that best keep cells from being pulled apart are A) tight junctions. B) gap junctions. C) desmosomes. D) zonula occludens. Answer: C Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) The type of cell junction that permits small sugar molecules and ions to pass from the cytoplasm of one cell to that of another is a A) tight junction. B) gap junction. C) desmosome. D) zonula occludens. Answer: B Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) The difference between a basal lamina and a basement membrane is that A) the basal lamina is thicker. B) they lie on opposite surfaces of the epithelium. C) a basal lamina plus a layer of reticular fibers equals a basement membrane. D) only the basal lamina can be seen by light microscopy. Answer: C Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

39) The basement membrane of the epithelial lining of capillaries in the kidney can thicken over time in patients with untreated diabetes mellitus. What could be a consequence of this thickening? A) Substances would have a difficult time traveling between the capillaries and the functional structures of the kidney, leading to a failure of the kidney to function. B) Substances would travel more easily between the capillaries and functional structures of the kidney. C) The kidney would become more structurally stable due to the excess tissue in the basement membrane. D) The epithelium of these capillaries would change from stratified squamous to stratified columnar as the basement membrane thickens. Answer: A Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 40) Which of the following is true regarding apical surface features of epithelium? A) Microvilli are highly motile apical extensions that bend and move in coordinated waves. B) Cilia are most prominent in epithelium that absorbs nutrients. C) Microvilli are longer and more flexible than cilia. D) Cilia move in a specific sequence in order to move fluid along the epithelium surface in only one direction. E) The primary function of cilia is to increase surface area. Answer: D Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 41) Which major category of tissues has the most diverse and most numerous types of tissue? A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: C Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

42) Which one of the following basic types of tissues has an abundant extracellular matrix? A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nervous Answer: B Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) Tissues in this category are characterized by an extracellular matrix that holds some amount of fluid. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: C Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 44) Fat is a form of ________ tissue. A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nervous Answer: B Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) In connective tissue, extracellular matrix is not exactly the same as ground substance, because the matrix also contains A) fibers. B) cells. C) an epithelium. D) blood. Answer: A Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

46) Glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans are components of A) blood. B) inflammation. C) ground substance. D) reticular fibers. Answer: C Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 47) Which of the following is not associated with connective tissue? A) fibroblasts B) collagen C) goblet cells D) chondrocytes E) extracellular matrix Answer: C Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) In connective tissues, the primary extracellular molecules responsible for resisting tension are A) intermediate filaments in fibroblasts. B) collagen fibers. C) proteoglycans D) elastin fibers. Answer: B Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) Within connective tissue, the fibers that recoil to their original length and shape when stretched are called A) collagen fibers. B) stretch fibers. C) elastic fibers. D) reticular fibers. Answer: C Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

50) In connective tissue proper, ground substance is manufactured and secreted by which type of cell? A) fibroblast B) endothelial cell C) chondroblasts D) osteocytes Answer: A Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) A type of connective tissue that is not classified as a connective tissue proper is A) dense irregular connective tissue. B) areolar tissue. C) adipose tissue. D) cartilage. Answer: D Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 52) Adipocytes are found in tissues belonging to this category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: C Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Connective tissue that must resist forces pulling it from many different directions without stretching would most likely be A) areolar connective tissue. B) dense irregular connective tissue. C) dense regular connective tissue. D) reticular connective tissues. Answer: B Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

54) Ligaments are examples of tissues in this category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: C Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) Ligaments consist primarily of which kind of connective tissue? A) loose areolar B) dense irregular C) cartilage D) dense regular Answer: D Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) Bone and cartilage are examples of tissues in this category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: C Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) A connective tissue that has a liquid matrix is A) areolar connective tissue. B) tissue fluid. C) blood. D) epithelium. Answer: C Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

58) Histologists consider blood to be an example of what primary tissue category? A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: C Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) All lining and covering membranes consist of A) an epithelium only. B) a serosa. C) an epithelium, a connective tissue, and smooth muscle. D) epithelium and connective tissue. Answer: D Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) Of the types of lining and covering membranes, is the driest one is A) cutaneous. B) serous. C) mucous. D) parietal. Answer: A Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) Tissue types which are known as mucous and serous membranes are comprised of sheets of epithelial cells and A) adipose tissue. B) areolar connective tissue. C) reticular connective tissue D) elastic connective tissue. Answer: B Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

62) The embryonic tissue that gives rise to the adult connective tissues, consisting of star-shaped cells separated by large amounts of extracellular matrix, is A) ectoderm. B) epithelium. C) mesenchyme. D) hypoblast. Answer: C Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) Which tissue category contains tissues comprised of cells containing myofilaments? A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: A Section: 4.3 Book LO: 4.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) The primary contractile tissue of the heart characterizes tissues in this category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: A Section: 4.3 Book LO: 4.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) This type of tissue includes smooth and cardiac. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: A Section: 4.3 Book LO: 4.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

66) A muscle fiber is A) the same as a collagen fiber that is viewed by electron microscopy. B) part of a striation of a muscle cell. C) a muscle cell. D) an intercalated disc. Answer: C Section: 4.3 Book LO: 4.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) This tissue type, in addition to certain muscle tissues, is capable of generating electrical impulses. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: B Section: 4.4 Book LO: 4.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 68) The brain and spinal cord are composed primarily of this tissue type. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: B Section: 4.4 Book LO: 4.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) Which one of the following basic types of tissues functions to regulate and control body functions? A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nervous Answer: D Section: 4.4 Book LO: 4.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

70) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the inflammatory response? A) the margins of the wound are pulled together B) involves release of chemicals that cause local vasodilation C) occurs within connective tissue D) results in edema and delivery of chemicals needed for repair Answer: A Section: 4.5 Book LO: 4.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) Inflamed tissue is often warm to the touch because of A) accumulation of bacterial toxins. B) increased blood flow to the area. C) infiltration by neutrophils. D) leakage of clotting proteins. Answer: B Section: 4.5 Book LO: 4.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 72) The best definition of fibrosis is A) the production of collagen fibers. B) the production of elastic fibers. C) the formation of dense regular connective tissue. D) the formation of scar tissue. Answer: D Section: 4.5 Book LO: 4.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 73) During repair of a scrape or cut through the skin, a blood clot is replaced with collagen-rich granulation tissue in a process called A) inflammation. B) organization. C) repair. D) regeneration. Answer: B Section: 4.5 Book LO: 4.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

74) Which type of tissue is correctly matched with the embryonic tissue it is derived from? A) connective tissue — ectoderm B) nervous tissue — mesenchyme C) muscle tissue — ectoderm D) nervous tissue — endoderm E) connective tissue — mesenchyme Answer: E Section: 4.6 Book LO: 4.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) All of the following are consequences of aging in tissues of the body except A) decline in collagen in the body B) atrophy of muscles C) thickening of epithelium D) decreased speed of wound healing E) reduced nutrient delivery to tissues Answer: C Section: 4.6 Book LO: 4.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4.2 True/False Questions 1) Multilayered epithelia are named for the cell shape found in the basal layer. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Microvilli are abundant on cells that function for absorption in the small intestine and the kidney. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.1 Book LO: 4.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) The cutaneous membrane is the skin. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

4) Areolar connective tissue forms the lamina propria of mucous membranes. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Superficial fascia refers to the fatty hypodermis below the skin, whereas deep fascia are the sheets of tissue that wrap around muscles, large blood vessels, etc. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 6) Much of the body's adipose tissue is found in the hypodermis. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 7) Dense regular connective tissue is characterized by giving strength in all directions. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Dense regular connective tissue gains its strength from the multitude of actin fibers that make up the bulk of the matrix. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 9) Unlike other connective tissues, bone is not considered to be a living tissue. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

10) In bony tissues, chondrocytes are found in the lacunae. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) In blood, the matrix is the liquid blood plasma. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.2 Book LO: 4.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Cardiac muscle cells are connected to each other by intercalated discs. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.3 Book LO: 4.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) Skeletal muscle is characterized by obvious striations (seen microscopically) and multinucleate cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.3 Book LO: 4.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Fibrosis involves the proliferation of a fibrous connective tissue called scar tissue. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.5 Book LO: 4.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Connective tissue and muscle tissue are both derived from the embryonic tissue mesenchyme. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.6 Book LO: 4.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4.3 Short Answer Questions 1) This is the sheet of tissue between the epithelium and the connective tissue below it. Answer: Basement Membrane 2) The basal lamina and a layer of ________ combine to form the basement membrane. Answer: reticular fibers 3) The smallest diameter blood vessels, capillaries are comprised of ________. Answer: simple squamous epithelium 4) A(n) ________ gland releases its products through ducts onto body surfaces or into body cavities. Answer: exocrine 5) Linker proteins in the extracellular space join cytoplasmic plaques on adjacent epithelial cells in this type of cell junction. Answer: desmosome 6) The disease scurvy results from a deficiency of vitamin C, leading to a disruption in the synthesis of ________ fibers. Answer: collagen 7) Elastic fibers are comprised of the protein ________. Answer: elastin 8) This type of fat is important in babies to aid in thermoregulation. Answer: brown fat 9) Deep ________ is a dense regular connective tissue that wraps around muscle groups, large vessels, and nerves. Answer: fascia 10) The outermost layers of intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis are comprised of this type of cartilage. Answer: fibrocartilage 11) Identify two different locations in the human body where elastic cartilage is found. Answer: Pinna of the ear, epiglottis of the larynx 12) This term refers to the accumulation of fluid at a site of inflammation. Answer: edema 13) Nervous tissue and ________ tissues are generally thought to lack the capability to regenerate. Answer: cardiac muscle 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

14) Stem cells may be characterized as being ________ cells; in other words, they can produce new tissue cells as needed. Answer: undifferentiated 15) After a wound has healed, the scar that remains is mostly composed of ________ fibers. Answer: collagen 4.4 Essay Questions 1) List at least four characteristics that distinguish epithelial tissues from other types of tissues. Answer: Epithelia are composed almost entirely of cells, have specialized contacts, have a free apical surface and a lower basal surface, are supported by underlying connective tissue, are avascular but innervated, and have a high capacity for regeneration. 2) Describe the classification of epithelial tissues. Answer: Epithelia may be simple (single layered) or stratified (in more than one layer). The cells that form it may be flat and platelike (squamous), roughly square (cuboidal), or tall and slender (columnar). 3) Describe the basal lamina, its location, composition, and function. Answer: The basal lamina lies between the epithelium and the connective tissue deep to it. It is a thin, noncellular sheet of proteins secreted by the epithelial cells. It functions as a selective filter. When the epithelium has been damaged or scraped off, the basal lamina aids in regeneration of the epithelium by serving as a scaffold for migrating epithelial cells. 4) Briefly outline the steps of tissue repair in a skin wound. Include in your response the terms organization, granulation, and regeneration. Answer: 1. An inflammatory response increases blood flow to the site of injury, which promotes the formation of a blood clot. 2. During the "organization" phase of tissue repair, blood vessels invade the clot and allow fibroblasts to arrive. These cells deposit collagen to tie the sides of the wound together with granulation tissue. 3. Macrophages dispose of bacteria, dead cells, and debris. 4. Regeneration involves the replacement of epithelium over the surface of the scar tissue. 5) Describe the medical potential seen for the use of stem cells. Answer: Stem cells may be used to "make" replacement tissues; may help to alleviate degenerative diseases; and could form new tissues, such as bone marrow cells, cardiac cells, and other tissues that have been damaged or have died. Further, they may be used to treat degenerative neurological tissues, because nerve tissue cannot effectively repair itself.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 5 The Integumentary System 5.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Which letter indicates projections from the dermis that reduce blister formation? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

2) Which letter indicates a specialized sensory receptor? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 3) Which letter indicates the integument layer that corresponds to leather hides from an animal? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which letter indicates the integument layer that has no vascularization? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 5) Which letter indicates the integument layer composed of keratinized stratified squamous cells? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

6) Which primary layer of the skin contains melanocytes? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: C Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which layer of the integument contains the stratum basale? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: C Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which tissue layer deep to the integument acts as a shock and thermal insulator? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: B Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which primary layer of the skin provides a pink undertone to Caucasian skin? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

10) A localized deposit of melanin in the epidermis is called a mole or a A) pimple. B) freckle. C) blister. D) boil. Answer: B Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Which connective tissue layer is discussed in the chapter on the integumentary system but is truly not a part of it? A) dermal papilla B) hair C) nail D) hypodermis Answer: D Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which of the following is a sensory receptor? A) keratinocyte B) melanocyte C) dendritic cell D) Pacinian corpuscle Answer: D Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) Which of the following is not a current hypothesis proposed for the evolution of skin color? A) preventing damage to DNA B) preventing damage to elastin C) protecting the level of folic acid D) protecting the level of vitamin D Answer: B Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

14) A(n) ________ responds to the movement of a single hair. A) arrector pili muscle B) hair matrix C) hair papilla D) root hair plexus Answer: D Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The only cell type found superficial to the stratum spinosum in the epidermis is the A) keratinocyte. B) melanocyte. C) dendritic cell. D) tactile epithelial cell. Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) A sebaceous gland is classified as a ________ gland. A) compound tubular B) simple tubular C) simple alveolar D) compound alveolar Answer: C Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 17) The epidermis is a keratinized ________ epithelium. A) compound columnar B) stratified squamous C) simple squamous D) simple areolar Answer: B Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

18) When doctors make incisions on the body based on the lines of cleavage of the skin, these cleavage lines are based on the arrangement of collagen fibers in which layer of the skin? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 19) Diffusion of chemicals from a transdermal patch must reach what layer of the skin to be effective? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which primary layer of the skin contains lamellated granules that aid in waterproofing? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: C Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 21) Light-skinned people have less melanin in the superficial layers of their epidermis because A) they are exposed to less UV radiation. B) they have fewer melanocytes. C) keratinocytes in their deeper layers rapidly digest melanin. D) their melanocytes produce a pinkish color melanin instead of brown. Answer: C Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

22) ________ sweat glands begin to function at puberty and are involved in sexual signaling. A) apocrine. B) eccrine. C) sebaceous. D) holocrine. Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) The integumentary structures that are derived from mesoderm and function in thermoregulation are A) nails. B) hair. C) sebaceous glands. D) arrector pili muscles. Answer: D Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 24) Identify the layer of the skin that contains most of the sensory receptors. A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which epidermal cells are part of the immune system? A) melanocytes B) keratinocytes C) dendritic cells D) tactile epithelial cells Answer: C Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

26) The papillary layer of the dermis consists of ________ connective tissue A) dense regular B) dense irregular C) reticular D) areolar E) adipose Answer: D Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) Visible stretch marks on the skin surface are actually the result of microscopic tears in collagen fibers in which layer? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which layer of the epidermis contains keratohyalin granules and lamellated granules? A) stratum basale B) stratum corneum C) stratum granulosum D) stratum spinosum Answer: C Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 29) The reticular layer of the dermis consists of ________ connective tissue. A) reticular B) stratified squamous C) dense regular D) dense irregular Answer: D Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

30) In the thick skin of the palm, the layer of the epidermis directly deep to the stratum corneum is the stratum A) granulosum. B) basale. C) lucidum. D) spinosum. Answer: C Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) The coarse hairs in the skin of the perineum and axillary regions are all ________ hairs. A) pubic B) apocrine C) terminal D) vellus Answer: C Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) In addition to nourishing the epidermal cells, the dermal blood vessels function in A) thermoregulation. B) protection. C) sensory reception. D) Vitamin D production. Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 33) "Goose bumps" on the skin are due to action of the A) arrector pili muscles. B) sweat glands. C) sebaceous glands. D) flexion creases. Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

34) Which is the most abundant and widespread type of sweat gland? A) eccrine B) apocrine C) holocrine D) endocrine Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) When a blister forms due to friction, liquid pools between the epidermis and what other layer of the integument? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) If you were to have liposuction, you would have tissue removed from which layer? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: B Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which connective tissue layer s found deep to the dermis? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: B Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

38) The thickness of skin is determined by the presence of the stratum lucidum and the thickness of the A) papillary layer of the dermis. B) reticular layer of the dermis. C) stratum basale. D) stratum corneum. Answer: D Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) The subpapillary plexus A) nourishes the dermal papillae and epidermis. B) nourishes the hypodermis and reticular layer of the dermis. C) provides the sensation of fine touch. D) provides the sensation of deep pressure. Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 40) The color of red or blonde hair is due to A) carotene. B) oxygenated hemoglobin. C) porphyrins. D) a different type of melanin. Answer: D Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) The black part of a blackhead is A) oxidized sebum. B) dirt. C) a growing hair stub. D) excreted carbon. Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

42) The appearance of wrinkles in skin with age is largely due to changes in the A) collagen and elastic fibers in the dermis. B) keratin of the epidermis. C) carotene in the epidermis. D) blood vessels in the dermis. Answer: A Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 43) Since apocrine glands are almost inactive until puberty, they may function primarily in A) cooling the body. B) sexual signalling, under the influence of androgens. C) keeping hair from falling out. D) strengthening melanin in the skin. Answer: B Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 44) Soft keratin is present in the A) epidermis. B) hair cuticles. C) dermis. D) body of the nails. Answer: A Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 45) The white half-moon visible under the proximal part of a fingernail is the A) matrix. B) bed. C) lunule. D) cuticle. Answer: C Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

46) Cleavage lines A) are scars resulting from overstretching of the dermis. B) attach the dermis to underlying bone and muscle. C) form the pattern of epidermal ridges known as fingerprints. D) run parallel to the orientation of collagen bundles in the reticular layer. Answer: D Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 47) Tattoos are permanent because A) Langerhans cells do not recognize the pigments as foreign. B) the melanocytes are altered to produce different colors. C) the pigments are injected in the dermis. D) the pigments are injected in the stratum basale, which continuously replaces the superficial layers that are sloughed off. Answer: C Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) Which layer of the integument are toenails and fingernails derived from? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: C Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 49) Which letter indicates cells that produce melanin in the hair root? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) Which letter indicates the portion of a hair that projects above the skin surface? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

51) Which letter indicates the innermost portion of hair that is comprised of large epithelial cells and air spaces? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) Which letter indicates the portion of the hair root that contains a single capillary cluster? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Which letter indicates a layer of cells that are derived from the epidermis? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) Damage to the hair ________ would prevent hair growth. A) cortex B) cuticle C) matrix D) medulla Answer: C Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

55) Which statement is not part of the explanation for male pattern baldness? A) Cells of the hair matrix cease mitosis. B) Hair growth cycles shorten. C) Hair shafts may not reach the surface. D) Terminal hairs are replaced by vellus hairs. Answer: A Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) Holocrine secretion A) differentiates the products of ceruminous and mammary glands from other sweat glands. B) involves the bursting of the glandular epithelial cell. C) produces a lipid-rich product that can be metabolized by bacteria. D) results from the exocytosis of protein-rich vesicles. Answer: B Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) Which layer of the skin invaginates downward to form sebum-producing glands? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis Answer: C Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) Is the human integumentary system best adapted for hot or cold climates? A) cold, because we have many skin features that keep us from overheating B) cold, because we have a thick hypodermis C) warm, because sweating cools us in hot climates but we would die in cold climates without clothing D) warm, because sebaceous glands aid us in hot climates but evaporative cooling would kill us in cold climates Answer: C Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

59) The cells in the skin that store the most melanin granules are A) dendritic cells. B) tactile epithelial cells. C) basal keratinocytes. D) melanocytes. Answer: C Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 60) The proximal nail fold is also called the nail's A) matrix. B) bed. C) lunule. D) eponychium. Answer: D Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) The lunule, which represents the thickest part of the nail matrix is found at the A) body of the nail. B) eponychium. C) proximal part of the nail bed. D) dermis around the nail. Answer: C Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) The most external layer of a hair shaft is the A) medulla. B) cuticle. C) cortex. D) epidermal root sheath. Answer: B Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

63) Since both hair and skin contain keratin, the hair shaft is most comparable to what part of the epidermis? A) stratum corneum B) melanocytes C) basal lamina D) stratum basale Answer: A Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) Pimples begin A) as localized infections in the hypodermis. B) as tiny cuts and nicks in the skin. C) when bacteria enter sweat pores. D) when sebaceous glands become blocked by sebum. Answer: D Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) An appendage or layer of the skin that does not develop from ectoderm is the A) stratum spinosum. B) hair follicle. C) stratum corneum. D) dermis. Answer: D Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) The type of skin cancer that is most common and has the lowest metastasis rate is A) basal cell carcinoma. B) squamous cell carcinoma. C) malignant melanoma. D) leukopenia. Answer: A Section: 5.3 Book LO: 5.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

67) Based on the rule of nines, approximately what percent of the total body surface covers the anterior and posterior torso? A) 37% B) 50% C) 58% D) 66% Answer: A Section: 5.3 Book LO: 5.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 68) The type of burn in which the epidermis and part of the dermis are damaged is ________ degree. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth Answer: B Section: 5.3 Book LO: 5.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) In the ABCD rule for recognizing melanoma, the letter D stands for A) depth. B) diameter. C) dark. D) density. Answer: B Section: 5.3 Book LO: 5.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 70) The type of skin cancer that arises from keratinocytes of the stratum spinosum is A) basal cell carcinoma. B) malignant melanoma. C) squamous cell carcinoma. D) psoriasis. Answer: C Section: 5.3 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

71) Excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation (UVR) can lead to skin cancer, but minimal UVR exposure can lead to A) porphyria. B) vitiligo. C) vitamin D deficiency. D) ulcerative colitis. Answer: C Section: 5.3 Book LO: 5.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 72) The "cheesy" layer on the skin of a newborn is A) lanugo. B) baby sweat. C) seborrhea. D) vernix caseosa. Answer: D Section: 5.4 Book LO: 5.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 73) Lanugo hair is replaced in a fetus by A) nominal hair. B) no hair. C) vellus hair. D) dermal hair. Answer: C Section: 5.4 Book LO: 5.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 74) Any condition involving absence or loss of hair is called A) psoriasis. B) alopecia. C) impetigo. D) vitiligo. Answer: B Section: 5.4 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

5.2 True/False Questions 1) As a person balds, terminal hair is replaced by vellus. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 2) Skin consists of two distinct tissue layers: the epidermis and dermis. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Keratinocytes begin to die in the stratum granulosum. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 4) Chemotherapy causes hair loss because these drugs specifically target the rapidly dividing cells in the hypodermis. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Nutrients enter a hair follicle through the dermal papilla. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) The letter A in the ABCD rule for melanoma detection stands for asymmetry. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.3 Book LO: 5.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

7) Skin cancers are the most common types of cancer in the United States, and the most important risk factor is overexposure to ultraviolet radiation. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.3 Book LO: 5.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) An immediate concern with a burn patient is loss of fluids, so fluids must be administered immediately. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.3 Book LO: 5.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) First-degree burns are the most severe type of burn. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.3 Book LO: 5.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) If you are truly "smelly" after a workout that causes you to work up a sweat, the smell is due to secretions from your eccrine glands. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Sebaceous glands secrete oil onto the surface of the epidermis via the hair follicle. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) The contraction of skeletal muscle cells of the arrector pili muscles, attached to hair follicles, causes "goose bumps." Answer: TRUE Section: 5.2 Book LO: 5.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

13) Consumer goods made of leather are produced from the subcutaneous adipose layer of animals. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) By the time keratinocytes reach the stratum corneum, they are dead and filled with collagen. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The three pigments which contribute to skin color are hemoglobin, carotene, and melanin. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.1 Book LO: 5.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The epidermal layer in which the cells are actively dividing is the ________. Answer: stratum basale 2) In the skin, the rich capillary beds and the ________ glands aid in thermoregulation. Answer: sweat or sudoriferous 3) Most ________ glands open into hair follicles. Answer: sebaceous 4) The stratum ________ lies between the stratum granulosum and the stratum corneum of thick skin. Answer: lucidum 5) This stratum ________ of the epidermis contains the greatest number of cellular layers in both thick and thin skin. Answer: corneum 6) The epidermal stem cells that give rise to hair matrix cells are located in a bulge in the ________, near the insertion of the arrector pili muscle. Answer: external root sheath

7) Deodorants mask the odor produced by the bacteria that live off the secretions of ________ glands. Answer: apocrine 8) The vitamin produced by the skin is vitamin ________. Answer: D 9) Keratinocytes produce keratin, as well as various enzymes and ________. Answer: antibiotics 10) The dendritic cells reside in the ________. Answer: stratum spinosum 11) Melanin functions to "shade" keratinocyte DNA molecules from harmful ________. Answer: UV radiation 12) Mitosis primarily occurs in one layer of the epidermis, the stratum ________. Answer: basale 13) Found in the stratum spinosum, dendritic cells are cells of the ________ system. Answer: immune 14) The layer is found only in thick skin, appearing as thin translucent band when viewed with a light microscope, is the ________. Answer: stratum lucidum 15) The process that causes premature damage to skin with prolonged exposure to ultraviolet radiation is called ________. Answer: photoaging 5.4 Essay Questions 1) List the layers of the epidermis found in thick skin from the deepest layer to the most superficial layer, and provide a few descriptive terms that characterize each layer. Answer: Stratum basale: single layer of cells, rapid mitosis. Stratum spinosum: keratinocytes have spiny extensions seen in prepared slides. Stratum granulosum: cells have keratohyaline and lamellated granules. Stratum lucidum: cells are thin, dead keratinocytes. Stratum corneum: outer layer of dead, thin cells filled with keratin, surrounded by lipids. 2) Name the location and function of these cells: keratinocytes, tactile epithelial cells, melanocytes, and dendritic cells. Answer: Keratinocytes are found in all layers of the epidermis; they accumulate keratin and produce antimicrobial compounds and enzymes that protect the epidermis. Tactile epithelial cells are found in the stratum basale; they serve as touch receptors. Melanocytes are found in the stratum basale; they produce the pigment melanin, which protects the skin from UV radiation of the sun. Dendritic cells are found in the stratum spinosum; they function in immunity via receptor-mediated endocytosis. 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

3) Describe the effects of postpubescent aging on sebaceous glands, melanocytes, and the structure of the dermis. Answer: As an individual ages, sebaceous glands decrease their activity. The resulting decline in sebum causes itchy, dry skin. Exposure to UV light causes accumulations of melanin to produce freckles and liver spots. It may also cause various forms of skin cancer. These damaging rays also alter collagen and elastin fibers, causing the skin to become wrinkled, loose, and inelastic. 4) Describe the vascularization of the skin. Answer: The dermis contains two vascular plexi. The dermal plexus is located between the hypodermis and the dermis, nourishing the hypodermis and the deeper portions of the dermis. The subpapillary plexus is located just deep to the dermal papillae and supplies the upper dermal layer. It also provides nourishment to cells of the deeper layers of the epidermis by diffusion. 5) Describe the location, characteristics, and function of the hypodermis. Answer: The hypodermis, or superficial fascia, is just deep to the dermal layer of the skin. It is composed primarily of adipose tissue, covered by a more superficial areolar connective tissue. Its functions include thermal and shock insulation, nutrient storage, and anchors the skin to underlying tissues.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 6 Bones and Skeletal Tissues 6.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) All of the following are true regarding cartilage except A) it is more abundant in an infant than in an adult. B) it contains no nerves or blood vessels. C) it is primarily composed of water. D) it is easily deformed with compression and does not return to its original shape. Answer: D Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 2) All of the following structures in the body contain cartilage except A) the nose B) the joints C) the discs between vertebrae D) the esophagus E) the ears Answer: D Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) In an adult, the perichondrium A) inhibits growth and repair of cartilage. B) produces new chondrocytes. C) acts like a girdle to prevent the matrix from pushing outward when the cartilage is compressed. D) binds the cartilage to adjacent bones. Answer: C Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4) The type of cartilage that forms the long bones of the embryonic skeleton is A) hyaline cartilage. B) fibrocartilage. C) elastic cartilage. D) calcified cartilage. Answer: A Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) The type of cartilage that comprises the epiglottis is A) hyaline cartilage. B) fibrocartilage. C) elastic cartilage. D) calcified cartilage. Answer: C Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) The type of cartilage that forms the costal cartilages at the ends of the ribs is A) hyaline cartilage. B) fibrocartilage. C) elastic cartilage. D) calcified cartilage. Answer: A Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) The type of cartilage that can withstand the strongest compression and tension forces is A) hyaline cartilage. B) elastic cartilage. C) fibrocartilage. D) calcified cartilage. Answer: C Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) Which of the following is true regarding the three types of cartilage? A) The high water content of hyaline cartilage allows it to resist compression well. B) Fibrocartilage contains the most abundant amount of elastic fibers. C) Hyaline cartilage is best able to withstand repeated bending. D) Elastic cartilage is most similar to dense regular connective tissue. Answer: A Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which of the following cells is secreting cartilage matrix? A) osteocyte. B) osteoblast. C) osteoclast. D) chondroblast. Answer: D Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) In growing cartilage, the chondroblasts associated with the perichondrium are responsible for A) interstitial growth. B) appositional growth. C) endochondral growth. D) calcification. Answer: B Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Cartilage repairs slowly after adolescence because A) the perichondrium thickens, preventing diffusion of gasses and nutrients. B) the cartilage matrix becomes mineralized. C) chondrocytes no longer are able to divide and secrete new matrix. D) collagen synthesis ceases. Answer: C Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

12) Which of the following is not a function of the bony skeleton? A) support and protection B) storage of parathyroid hormone C) transmission of muscular forces by acting as levers D) production of blood cells Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) All of the following are true regarding the functions of bones except A) yellow marrow is not involved in blood cell production. B) they store minerals, including calcium and phosphate, that can be released into the bloodstream when needed by the body. C) muscles use bones as levers in movement. D) they do not play any role in hormone secretion or metabolism. Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) All of the following are true regarding the composition of bone tissue except A) 35% of bone tissue is composed of organic materials. B) 65% of bone tissue is composed of inorganic hydroxyapatites. C) elastin fibers are the most abundant organic components of bone. D) the mixture of organic and inorganic components allows bone to be strong but not brittle. Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the A) chondroblast. B) osteoblast. C) osteoclast. D) chondrocyte. Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

16) In the bone matrix, osteoblasts become A) osteocytes. B) chondrocytes. C) osteoclasts. D) mesenchyme cells. Answer: A Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) Osteoid is A) the mineral part of the bone matrix. B) secreted by osteocytes. C) the entire extracellular matrix of bone. D) the organic part of bone matrix prior to the crystallization with calcium salts. Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 18) Which letter indicates the region of the long bone comprised of trabecular bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

19) Which letter indicates the diaphysis of a long bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which letter indicates the remnant of what was once, in a growing juvenile, the epiphyseal plate? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which letter indicates the region known as the epiphysis? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

22) Which letter indicates the region of a long bone that in an adult is filled with yellow bone marrow? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which of the following statements about a long bone is false? A) It has a diaphysis. B) It has two distinct ends. C) It is longer than it is wide. D) It must be more than 5 inches in length. Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 24) If a bone located in a limb is longer than it is wide, that bone is a(n) ________ bone. A) long B) short C) irregular D) flat Answer: A Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) Bones in the wrists and ankles are A) long bones. B) short bones. C) irregular bones. D) flat bones. Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

26) The kneecap, or patella, is an example of A) a flat bone. B) an irregular bone. C) a sesamoid bone. D) calcified cartilage. Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) If a bone is thin, flattened, and somewhat curved, that bone is a(n) ________ bone. A) long B) short C) irregular D) flat Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 28) If a long bone is fractured midshaft, which region of the bone has been damaged? A) meniscus. B) articular cartilage. C) epiphysis. D) diaphysis. Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 29) Blood vessels to the diaphysis move through the A) epiphyseal plate. B) articular cartilage. C) foramen magnum. D) nutrient foramen. Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

30) A long bone is able to withstand extreme torsion or twisting stresses because A) the bone is spongelike with many hollow spaces, such as the central and epiphyseal marrow cavities. B) within each osteon the collagen fibers and mineral crystals in adjacent lamellae are aligned in opposite directions. C) the internal and external surfaces are both covered in irregular connective tissue fibers. D) the trabeculae of spongy bone are aligned along stress trajectories. Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 31) Which these is true regarding the anatomical design of bone to deal with the stresses placed on it? A) Spongy bone is arranged in a random network. B) All surfaces of bones are smooth. C) Compact bone occurs in the center of each bone. D) Trabeculae are aligned along the lines of stress within a bone. Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 32) Which of these bony markings is not a site of muscle or ligament attachment? A) facet B) tubercle C) spine D) epicondyle E) line Answer: A Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which of these bony markings is correctly paired with its function? A) trochanter — joint surface B) foramen — site of muscle attachment C) fissure — opening D) crest — depression Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

34) Muscles are not likely to tear from their bones because A) a circumferential lamella sandwiches the ends of the tendon onto the surface of an adjacent lamella. B) elastin fibers in the tendon can allow for stretching and recoil of the muscle. C) perforating fibers of collagen attach the tendons and periosteum to the cortical surfaces of bone. D) the tendons are partially ossified at their attachment points to the periosteum. Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 35) Which letter indicates the space where microscopic blood vessels and nerves pass through the center of the osteon? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

36) Which letter indicates the collagen fibers of the periosteum known as the perforating, or Sharpey's, fibers? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which letter indicates the circumferential lamellae? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) Which letter indicates lamellae located outside the lamellae belonging to the osteon? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

39) Which letter indicates bone that is not arranged in osteons and is called spongy or trabecular bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) Which letter indicates the perforating, or Volkmann's canals which lie at right angles to central canals? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) An osteon is composed of A) a cell body and a long, threadlike extension. B) cartilage. C) layers of bone lamellae surrounding a central canal. D) interstitial lamellae. Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) Which of the following is not present in the central canals of osteons? A) blood vessels B) nerves C) endosteum D) osteocytes Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

43) Spongy bone A) contains osteons. B) contains vessels within a central canal. C) contains several layers of lamellae. D) contains a nutrient artery. Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 44) Within a long bone of the skeleton, the circumferential lamellae are located in the A) trabeculae. B) osteons. C) external and internal regions of compact bone. D) marrow cavity. Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) The type of bone growth in which bones form directly from mesenchyme is called A) intramembranous ossification B) endochondral ossification C) appositional ossification D) interstitial ossification Answer: A Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) Which of these is not a step in intramembranous ossification? A) ossification centers develop within membranous connective tissue B) woven bone forms C) osteoid calcifies D) a bony collar forms around the bone E) compact bone replaces woven bone Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

47) The only bone inferior to the skull that develops via intramembranous ossification is the A) femur. B) sternum. C) rib. D) clavicle. Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 48) Which of the following statements about woven bone is false? A) It is the same as spongy bone of adults. B) It contains no trabeculae. C) It is characteristic of the development of embryonic flat bones. D) As fetal development progresses, it is replaced by compact bone at the periphery. Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 49) The primary center of ossification A) occurs in the 4-week embryo. B) is in the diaphysis. C) is in the epiphysis. D) is in membrane bones but not in endochondral bones. Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) Which of these is not a step in endochondral ossification? A) a bone collar forms around the diaphysis B) woven bone fills the primary ossification center C) the periosteal bud enters the diaphysis D) secondary ossification centers form in the epiphysis Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

51) Which of the following is true regarding endochondral ossification? A) the majority of the bones of the body are formed in this way. B) the epiphysis gets its blood supply from the diaphyseal periosteal bud. C) bone begins replacing the cartilage model shortly after birth. D) the marrow cavity is the first bony structure to form. Answer: A Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) Which statement about growth of long bones is false? A) The bone cannot grow longer once the epiphyseal plates are ossified. B) The diaphysis becomes progressively thinner as the bone lengthens. C) The epiphyses are pushed further from the center of the diaphysis. D) The epiphyseal plates remain a constant thickness during growth. Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) The cartilage of the epiphyseal plates is organized into zones based upon the unique processes occurring in each of these regions. Identify the correct sequence of these processes, from the epiphyseal end toward the diaphysis. A) calcification — hypertrophy — proliferation — resting — ossification B) ossification — calcification — hypertrophy — proliferation — resting C) resting — hypertrophy — proliferation — calcification — ossification D) hypertrophy — proliferation — resting — calcification — ossification E) resting — proliferation — hypertrophy — calcification — ossification Answer: E Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

54) The process of bone growth is regulated by several hormones throughout the lifetime of an individual. The hormone most influential in skeletal growth prior to adolescence is secreted from the A) parathyroid gland. B) pancreas. C) pituitary gland. D) adrenal gland. Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder in which cartilage proliferation is inhibited and the epiphyseal plates close early. What would be a consequence of early closure of the epiphysial plates? A) The limbs would be shorter than expected. B) The patient would be at greater risk of suffering an epiphyseal fracture. C) Bones would not form by intramembranous ossification. D) Appositional bone growth would not occur. Answer: A Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.14 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 56) Which of the following is true regarding bone remodeling? A) If osteoblasts are more active than osteoclasts, more bone will be resorbed than formed. B) Osteoblasts function to break down bone. C) Bone remodeling can occur to help us maintain adequate concentrations of calcium and phosphate in our blood. D) Bone remodeling occurs at the same rate in all bones of the body. Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

57) Osteoblasts originate from A) mesenchyme cells. B) osteoblasts. C) osteocytes. D) blood stem cells. Answer: A Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 58) A large, multinucleate cell with a ruffled border is an A) osteoclast. B) adipocyte. C) osteocyte. D) osteoblast. Answer: A Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 59) Which bone cell type secretes hydrochloric acid? A) osteoblast B) osteoclast C) osteocyte D) osteoprogenitor Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) A hormone that increases the bone-degrading activity of osteoclasts is A) an androgen (male sex hormone). B) an estrogen (female sex hormone). C) thyroid hormone. D) parathyroid hormone. Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

61) Which factor will decrease the rate of bone resorption? A) inadequate vitamin D intake B) long zero-gravity exposure C) mechanical stress D) prolonged bed rest Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 62) The benefits of weight-bearing exercise include stronger muscles A) but weaker bones. B) and stronger bones. C) but bones of the same strength. D) and stronger compact bone, but weaker spongy bone. Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 63) Repair of a simple fracture begins with A) calcification of dense connective tissue. B) granulation tissue formation. C) hyaline cartilage deposition. D) inflammation and hematoma formation. Answer: D Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) Which of the following is the correct progression in the healing of a skeletal fracture? A) bone remodeling, bony callus, hematoma, fibrocartilage callus B) fibrocartilage callus, bone remodeling, bony callus, hematoma C) hematoma, fibrocartilage callus, bony callus, bone remodeling D) hematoma, bony callus, bone remodeling, fibrocartilage callus Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

65) In the repair of a simple fracture, the step that follows formation of a hematoma is A) formation of a bony callus. B) inflammation. C) formation of fibrocartilaginous callus. D) bone remodeling. Answer: C Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) Comminuted fractures, in which the bone fragments into many pieces, are more common in the elderly. Anatomically, why would advanced age increase the risk for these kinds of fractures? A) The decrease in organic, living, components in bone makes it more brittle. B) Bone becomes more flexible with age. C) Elderly individuals tend to do more activities resulting in strong twisting forces on their bones. D) With age, bones acquire widespread microfractures that can result in fragmented fractures when excessive force is placed on the bone. Answer: A Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.13 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 67) Greenstick fractures are incomplete fractures in which only one side of the shaft breaks while the other side bends. Anatomically, why would these types of breaks be more common in children? A) A child's bones have less organic matrix, making them more brittle. B) A child's bones have more organic matrix, making them more flexible. C) A child's bones are more susceptible to excessive twisting forces. D) The epiphyseal plate makes a child's bones more brittle. Answer: B Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.13 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

68) Paget's Disease is characterized by excessive rates of bone deposition, and the medullary cavity may completely fill with bone. What would be a consequence of this? A) The bones would become heavier than usual. B) The bones would produce more blood cells. C) The bones would contain a greater amount of fat tissue than usual. D) The bones would require less calcium than usual. Answer: A Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 69) In osteoporosis, bone resorption occurs at faster rate than the deposition of new bone. Using your knowledge of bone cells, you reason that the cause of this must be an increase in activity and number of A) osteoblasts B) osteocytes C) osteoclasts D) osteoprogenitor cells Answer: C Section: 6.3 Book LO: 6.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 70) In osteoporosis, bone resorption occurs at faster rate than the deposition of new bone. All of these factors increase bone deposition and, therefore, help to prevent or treat osteoporosis except A) weight-bearing exercise B) adequate vitamin D intake C) adequate calcium intake D) parathyroid hormone replacement Answer: D Section: 6.3 Book LO: 6.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

71) Rickets is a condition resulting from inadequate intake of Vitamin D, which is required for absorption of calcium in the digestive tract. What consequences would this have on the bones? A) The bones would become thickened due to increased bone deposition B) The lack of calcium would cause the bones to be soft and weak. C) The epiphysial plates would close prematurely, leading to decreased limb length. D) The lack of vitamin D would cause the bones to become thicker and stronger. Answer: B Section: 6.3 Book LO: 6.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 72) The universal loss of skeletal mass that begins after age 40 A) is slower in women than in men. B) is absolutely uniform throughout the skeleton. C) reflects an imbalance in the bone-remodeling process. D) is due to increased blood flow to bones as individuals age. Answer: C Section: 6.4 Book LO: 6.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 73) Which of these is not a consequence of aging on bones and cartilage? A) thinning of the articular cartilage. B) decline in bone mass C) decrease in completely-formed osteons D) increase in chondroblast activity Answer: D Section: 6.4 Book LO: 6.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 74) Which of these is true regarding the skeleton of young children? A) Their bones contain many ridges and prominent features B) Their skeletons contain less hyaline cartilage than an adult. C) As they use their muscles, bony markings and prominences develop in response to the added stress on the bones. D) Their epiphysial plates were closed shortly after birth. Answer: C Section: 6.4 Book LO: 6.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

75) All of the following are true regarding the bones of an average, healthy 30-year-old adult except A) most if not all of their epiphysial plates have closed. B) their osteoblasts are equally as active as their osteoblasts. C) their bones contain many bony prominences and markings. D) they are resorbing bone faster than they are laying down new bone. Answer: D Section: 6.4 Book LO: 6.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 6.2 True/False Questions 1) Cartilage is strong in resisting twisting and bending but weak in resisting tension and compression. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 2) Microscopic inspection of hyaline cartilage would show prominent parallel bundles of collagen fibers. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Fibrocartilage is designed to withstand repeated compressive forces. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) In appositional growth, chondrocytes within cartilage divide and secrete new matrix. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

5) As cartilage ages, calcium salts are deposited and calcify the cartilage, turning it into bone. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 6) The bones of your hand and fingers would all be categorized as long bones. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) A long bone may be characterized by two diaphyses and one epiphysis. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) A sesamoid bone is a specialized short bone that develops within a tendon, such as the patella. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 9) Examples of flat bones include the ribs, sternum, the bones of the head surrounding the brain case, and the scapula. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 10) A tubercle is a very large, blunt process for muscle and ligament attachment. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

11) Osteocytes, residing within lacunae, are connected via canaliculi. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 12) Circumferential lamellae occur around the entire outer and inner surfaces of compact bone, and they are considered remnants of old osteons that have been disrupted by bone remodeling. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 13) Membranous bones form directly from mesenchyme without being modeled in cartilage. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Woven bone is involved in endochondral ossification. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.1 Book LO: 6.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Epiphyseal plates typically close at the time an infant learns to walk. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.2 Book LO: 6.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The perichondrium surrounding cartilage is composed of ________ connective tissue. Answer: dense irregular 2) The joint surface of each epiphysis is covered with a thin layer of hyaline cartilage called the ________. Answer: articular cartilage 3) ________ cartilage is able to withstand repeated bending and easily return to its normal shape. Answer: Elastic 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

4) In ________ growth, cartilage-forming cells from the perichondrium produce new cartilage tissue by actively secreting matrix. Answer: appositional 5) ________ secrete a hormone that causes reduced blood sugar levels and influences energy metabolism. Answer: Osteoblasts 6) The two primary minerals stored in bone are ________ and ________. Answer: calcium, phosphate 7) Stem cells that differentiate into osteoblasts are called ________. Answer: Osteoprogenitor cells 8) Vertebrae and hip bones are examples of ________ bones. Answer: Irregular 9) Bundles of collagen that attach the periosteum to bone are called ________. Answer: perforating collagen fiber bundles, Sharpey's fibers 10) The connective tissue membrane that lines the central canals and trabeculae is called the ________. Answer: endosteum 11) A ________ is a rounded articular projection that forms a joint with another bone. Answer: Condyle 12) ________ lamellae are incomplete lamellae located between the osteons. Answer: Interstitial 13) ________ canals lie perpendicular to the central, or Haversian, canals. Answer: Perforating or Volkmann's 14) The ________ delivers osteoblasts and osteoclasts to the primary center of ossification. Answer: periosteal bud

6.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the three types of cartilage and their defining characteristics. Answer: Hyaline cartilage is the most abundant. Unstained, it appears "glassy" under the microscope; collagen fibers are present in the matrix, providing strength and flexibility. Elastic cartilage contains many more dark-staining elastic fibers in the matrix, They allow this cartilage to readily deform and recoil. Fibrocartilage contains thicker collagen fibers, oriented between rows of chondrocytes, and is resistant to both compression and tension forces. 2) Explain how the epiphyseal plate remains a constant width until puberty is completed. Answer: Chondrocytes proximal to the medullary cavity of the long bone are relatively inactive and eventually are deprived of nutrients by calcification of the surrounding matrix. These dead chondrocytes are replaced by osteoclasts and osteoblasts. Meanwhile, the chondrocytes closer to the epiphyses rapidly undergo mitosis and are actively secreting additional cartilage matrix. These cells proliferate at about the same rate as others die. In this way, the plate maintains its thickness until the rate of proliferation slows as puberty is completed. 3) Explain the healing of a simple fracture. Answer: First, hematoma formation stops the flow of blood at the point of the break. Fibrocartilage callus formation is facilitated by the cells of the periosteum and endosteum, leading to a soft callus. Bony callus formation follows, by endochondral ossification, and the trabeculae span the break in the bone. Bone remodeling occurs over a number of months and includes removal of excess bony material and the appropriate addition of compact bone. 4) Osteoporosis occurs more commonly in the elderly and involves excessive bone loss. Explain why bone loss occurs with advancing age, and list factors that can reduce bone loss by promoting bone growth. Answer: With age, the function of osteoblasts is reduced, and osteoclasts become more active. Therefore, bone resorption outpaces bone formation, and bone mass declines. Blood supply to bones also diminish, resulting in an increase in non-living compact bone. Weight-bearing exercise and consuming a diet rich in calcium, vitamin D, and protein can promote bone growth. Therefore, these factors can work against bone resorption and help prevent osteoporosis.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 7 Bones, Part 1: The Axial Skeleton 7.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Which letter indicates a bony projection from the ethmoid bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

2) Which letter indicates the bone that forms the inferior part of the nasal septum? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.3 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which letter indicates the inferior orbital fissure? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which letter indicates the supraorbital foramen? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which letter indicates the mental foramen? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 6) Which letter indicates the mastoid process of the temporal bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which letter indicates the zygomatic bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) Which letter indicates the coronal suture? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which letter indicates the coronoid process of the mandible? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which letter indicates the styloid process of the temporal bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 11) Which letter indicates the palatine bone that forms part of the hard palate? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which letter indicates the jugular foramen? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

13) Which letter indicates the foramen magnum of the occipital bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which letter indicates the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Which letter indicates the occipital condyle of the occipital bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) On which of these bones would the mental foramen be found? A) mandible B) sphenoid C) occipital D) temporal E) ethmoid Answer: A Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

17) Which of these bones has a foramen that encircles the superior aspect of the spinal cord? A) mandible B) sphenoid C) occipital D) temporal E) ethmoid Answer: C Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of these bones has a squamous and petrous region? A) mandible B) sphenoid C) occipital D) temporal E) ethmoid Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of these bones together with the maxilla, functions in chewing? A) mandible B) sphenoid C) occipital D) temporal E) ethmoid Answer: A Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

20) Which of these bones forms part of the interior of the nasal cavity and the orbit for the eye? A) mandible B) sphenoid C) occipital D) temporal E) ethmoid Answer: E Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.3 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which of these bones has a ramus and angle? A) mandible B) sphenoid C) occipital D) temporal E) ethmoid Answer: A Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which of these bones has pterygoid processes and the optic canal? A) mandible B) sphenoid C) occipital D) temporal E) ethmoid Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which of these bones has a mastoid process and a styloid process? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

24) Which of these bones has both the cribriform plate and the crista galli? A) mandible B) sphenoid C) occipital D) temporal E) ethmoid Answer: E Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which of these bones has "wings" and a body? A) mandible B) sphenoid C) occipital D) temporal E) ethmoid Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) The superior and inferior nuchal lines are located on the ________ bone. A) frontal B) temporal C) parietal D) occipital Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which bony landmark below is most similar to a meatus? A) facet B) foramen C) groove D) suture Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

28) Which is not a region of the temporal bone? A) hypophyseal B) petrous C) squamous D) tympanic Answer: A Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which of the bones listed below does not contain air sinuses? A) the frontal bone B) the ethmoid C) the maxilla D) the mandible Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.3 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) The anterior cranial fossa is formed by the A) frontal bone. B) frontal and temporal bones. C) frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones. D) frontal, sphenoid, and temporal bones. Answer: C Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which of the bones listed below is not part of the orbit? A) the frontal B) the zygomatic C) the palatine D) the temporal Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.3 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

32) Which cranial bones meet at the lambdoid suture? A) frontal and parietal B) parietal and occipital C) frontal and nasal D) parietal and temporal Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) The bone of the skull that has pterygoid processes, greater wings, and a hypophyseal fossa is the A) ethmoid. B) palatine. C) sphenoid. D) temporal. Answer: C Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) The primary bone underlying the cheek is the A) maxillary. B) temporal. C) frontal. D) zygomatic. Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Whereas the inferior concha is a projection from the maxilla, the superior and middle nasal conchae are projections of the ________ bone. A) sphenoid B) vomer C) ethmoid D) palatine Answer: C Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

36) All of the bony landmarks listed below are found within the orbit except the A) superior orbital fissure. B) inferior orbital fissure. C) infraorbital foramen. D) optic canal. Answer: C Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.3 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 37) The lesser and greater wings of the sphenoid are in the ________ and ________ cranial fossae, respectively. A) anterior; posterior B) anterior; middle C) middle; posterior D) posterior; middle Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 38) The difference between cranium and skull is that A) the skull contains the hyoid bone but the cranium does not; otherwise they are the same. B) the skull contains facial bones and cranial bones. C) the cranium does not include the floor of the skull. D) the cranium contains the orbits, but the skull does not. Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) Which part of the temporal bone projects medially and contains organs of the inner ear? A) styloid B) petrous C) squamous D) zygomatic Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

40) Which bone listed below has cribriform foramina? A) concha B) ethmoid C) lacrimal D) nasal Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) The largest paranasal sinus is the A) frontal. B) maxillary. C) ethmoid. D) sphenoid. Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) Which of the bones listed below is not a facial bone? A) lacrimal B) zygomatic C) parietal D) mandible Answer: C Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which of the bones listed below does not articulate with the zygomatic bone? A) frontal B) maxilla C) temporal D) parietal Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

44) Which of the bones listed below is not part of the calvaria? A) mandible B) occipital C) parietal D) temporal Answer: A Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) The jugular foramen is located A) anterior to the foramen lacerum. B) between the temporal and occipital bones. C) posterior to the occipital condyles. D) within the greater wing of the sphenoid. Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone A) anchors the brain into the anterior cranial fossa. B) attaches neck muscles the skull. C) forms the superior portion of the nasal septum. D) holds the pituitary gland. Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) Which of the facial bones listed below is unpaired? A) palatine B) zygomatic C) lacrimal D) vomer Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

48) Which of the bones listed below is not part of the nasal cavity? A) temporal bone B) ethmoid bone C) inferior nasal concha D) palatine bone Answer: A Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.3 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) The external and internal acoustic meatuses are in the ________ and ________ regions of the temporal bone, respectively. A) squamous; mastoid B) tympanic; petrous C) mastoid; petrous D) squamous; sphenoid Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) Which of the bones listed below does not contribute to the cranial floor? A) occipital B) sphenoid C) frontal D) palatine Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) The sella turcica is a bony landmark of which bone listed below? A) parietal B) frontal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid Answer: C Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

52) Which bones are divided by the sagittal suture? A) occipital and parietal B) frontal and parietal C) temporal and parietal D) right and left parietal bones Answer: D Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) The alveolar regions of the mandible and maxillae are the A) glands (salivary glands). B) tooth sockets. C) lips. D) palate. Answer: B Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) Which bone articulates with the dens? A) atlas B) axis C) occipital D) temporal Answer: A Section: 7.2 Book LO: 7.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) When in life does the lumbar curvature of the vertebral column appear? A) in the 2-month embryo B) at the time of birth C) in the toddler (about 1 year old) D) in old age Answer: C Section: 7.2 Book LO: 7.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

56) The collagen-rich ________ limits expansion of the nucleus pulposus when the spine is compressed. A) annulus fibrosus B) costal cartilage C) lateral masses D) ligamentum flavum Answer: A Section: 7.2 Book LO: 7.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) The laminae of the vertebrae A) are major components of the vertebral arches. B) are where the ribs attach. C) lie ventral to the vertebral foramen. D) occur in two pairs, so there are four of them. Answer: A Section: 7.2 Book LO: 7.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) The function of the anterior longitudinal ligament on the vertebral bodies is A) to prevent hyperextension of the back. B) to allow for extensive lateral movement and rotation of adjacent vertebrae. C) to protect the spinal cord. D) to hold the vertebral laminae together. Answer: A Section: 7.2 Book LO: 7.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 59) Which type of movement is not possible between the lumbar vertebrae? A) flexion B) extension C) lateral flexion D) circumduction Answer: D Section: 7.2 Book LO: 7.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

60) The vertebra that lacks a body and helps allow one to nod the head is the A) axis. B) atlas. C) vertebra prominens. D) coccyx. Answer: B Section: 7.2 Book LO: 7.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 61) The most anterior ridge of the sacrum is the A) median sacral crest. B) sacral promontory. C) sacral hiatus. D) third dorsal sacral foramen. Answer: B Section: 7.2 Book LO: 7.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) Which type(s) of vertebrae have transverse processes and pedicles? A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) cervical, thoracic, and lumbar Answer: D Section: 7.2 Book LO: 7.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) Which of the vertebral characteristics described below, would not distinguish a lumbar vertebra from a thoracic vertebra? A) absence of costal facets B) posteromedial facing superior facets C) presence of an inferior vertebral notch D) triangular-shaped vertebral foramen Answer: C Section: 7.2 Book LO: 7.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

64) An example of a false rib that is also a floating rib is A) rib 11. B) rib 8. C) rib 1. D) rib 7. Answer: A Section: 7.3 Book LO: 7.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) The ribs that are attached posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae but are not attached anteriorly are known as A) the true ribs. B) the false ribs. C) the floating ribs. D) vertebrosternal ribs. Answer: C Section: 7.3 Book LO: 7.8 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) What does the costal tubercle of a rib articulate with? A) vertebral body of thoracic vertebrae B) transverse process of thoracic vertebrae C) vertebral lamina of thoracic vertebrae D) costal cartilage of thoracic cage Answer: B Section: 7.3 Book LO: 7.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) Which of the bones of the axial skeleton listed below is paired? A) fifth thoracic vertebra B) rib 3 C) the sacrum D) the sphenoid Answer: B Section: 7.3 Book LO: 7.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

68) The thoracic vertebrae articulate with ribs at the A) body and transverse processes. B) spinous processes. C) inferior and superior articular facets. D) head and articular tubercle. Answer: A Section: 7.3 Book LO: 7.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) The manubrium articulates with all of the bones listed below except A) rib 1. B) rib 2. C) the xiphoid. D) the clavicle. Answer: C Section: 7.3 Book LO: 7.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 70) The sternal angle is at the same level as rib number A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 5. Answer: B Section: 7.3 Book LO: 7.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) Swayback, which sometimes occurs in obese individuals, is also called A) lordosis. B) scoliosis. C) kyphosis. D) hunchback. Answer: A Section: 7.4 Book LO: 7.11 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

72) Quasimodo, the main character in Victor Hugo's The Hunchback of Notre Dame, suffered from A) rickets. B) scoliosis. C) lordosis. D) kyphosis. Answer: D Section: 7.4 Book LO: 7.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 73) The largest fontanelle, forming the largest soft spot on a baby's head, is the A) anterior. B) posterior. C) mastoid. D) sphenoidal. Answer: A Section: 7.5 Book LO: 7.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7.2 True/False Questions 1) The foramen ovale is anterior to the foramen spinosum, and is posterior to the foramen rotundum. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) The axial skeleton includes the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) The cranial vault forms the superior, inferior, and lateral aspects of the skull. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

4) The glabella is a region of the occipital bone. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) The vomer is an unpaired bone located superior to the palate. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) The superior orbital fissure is part of the sphenoid bone. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) The superior and inferior nasal conchae are part of the ethmoid bone. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) The teeth fit into the sockets of both the mandible and the maxilla. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) The bony framework of the face consists of 14 facial bones. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.1 Book LO: 7.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

10) The first 10 pairs of ribs are true ribs. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.3 Book LO: 7.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Scoliosis is an accentuated lumbar curvature of the spine. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.4 Book LO: 7.11 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Kyphosis is an exaggerated thoracic curvature of the spine. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.4 Book LO: 7.11 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 13) The cervical and thoracic curves are primary curves. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.2 Book LO: 7.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) The head of a rib articulates with the transverse process of the vertebra. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.3 Book LO: 7.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15) Osteoporosis of the spine often leads to kyphosis, often called the "dowager's hump" in elderly individuals. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.4 Book LO: 7.11 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

7.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Fatal whiplash involves what bony structure? Answer: the dens 2) The transverse costal facet articulates with this bony landmark on a rib. Answer: tubercle 3) If a vertebra has a spinous process that is rather slender and points inferiorly, it is most likely what type of vertebra? Answer: thoracic 4) Regarding the thoracic vertebrae, do the superior articular facets face anteriorly or posteriorly? Answer: posteriorly 5) Surgery to remove part of the cranium is referred to as ________. Answer: a craniotomy 6) What bony structure articulates with the inferior apex of the sacrum? Answer: the coccyx 7) What are the three regions of the sternum, listed from most superior to most inferior? Answer: manubrium, body, xiphoid process 8) The costal margin is formed by what structures? Be specific! Answer: the costal cartilages of ribs 7 through 10 9) This is the largest fontanelle of the skull. Answer: anterior fontanelle 10) This bone of the axial skeleton does not articulate with any other bone. Answer: hyoid 11) A nasal septum that is markedly off center is a(n) ________. Answer: deviated septum 12) What is the most common congenital abnormality of the skull? Answer: cleft palate 13) What is the term for the smooth, flat articular surface at which a vertebra attaches to the vertebra superior to it? Answer: superior articular facet 14) The bone that articulates with both the axis and the occipital bone is the ________ Answer: atlas

15) Name the four longest sutures of the skull. Answer: coronal, sagittal, squamous, and lambdoid 16) The ________ make up about 25% of the height of the vertebral column. Answer: intervertebral discs 17) The coccyx articulates with the ________. Answer: sacrum 7.4 Essay Questions 1) List the bones that articulate at each of the four major sutures of the skull. Answer: Coronal: frontal and parietal bones. Squamous: parietal and temporal bones. Sagittal: between the parietal bones. Lambdoid suture: parietal and occipital bones. 2) List the 14 bones of the face. Identify which are paired (with the letter P) and which are unpaired (using UP). Answer: Mandible (UP), maxillae (P), zygomatics (P), nasals (P), lacrimals (P), palatines (P), inferior nasal conchae (P), vomer (UP) 3) Describe how the longitudinal ligaments, ligamentum flavum, and intervertebral discs control the flexibility of the vertebral column. Answer: The intervertebral discs are located between adjacent vertebrae, giving the vertebral column the ability to stretch and compress. The anulus fibrosus places limits on these motions. The anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments prevent hyperextension and hyperflexion, respectively. The ligamentum flavum assists in recoil after anterior flexion of the vertebral column. 4) What bony structures form the nasal cavity? (Hint: there are seven separate bones, and the number of parts of these bones is greater than the number of bones; name the parts as best you can.) Answer: The cribriform plates and the superior and middle conchae of the ethmoid, the palatine and frontal processes of the maxillae, the horizontal plates and the perpendicular processes of the palatine bones, the nasal bones, and the inferior nasal conchae. 5) Name the four bones that contain the paranasal sinuses. What lines these sinuses? What is the primary function of the sinuses? Why are they called paranasal sinuses? Answer: The ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, and maxillary bones contain the sinuses. Mucous membranes line these cavities. They function in lightening the weight of the skull and in warming, moistening, and filtering inhaled air. They are called paranasal sinuses because they extensions of the nasal cavity.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 8 Bones, Part 2: The Appendicular Skeleton 8.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The pectoral girdle consists of A) a clavicle and scapula B) a scapula and humerus C) a clavicle and sternum D) a clavicle and humerus Answer: A Section: 8.1 Book LO: 8.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) All of the following are true regarding the pectoral girdle except A) it attaches the upper limb to the trunk. B) only the clavicle articulates with the axial skeleton. C) it is gives stability but restricts mobility of the upper limbs. D) its bones contain many attachment points for muscles of the upper extremity. Answer: C Section: 8.1 Book LO: 8.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) How is it possible to tell whether an isolated clavicle is the right or left one? A) The medial end is convex anteriorly, the lateral end is flat, and the inferior surface is ridged. B) The lateral end is flat, the medial end is cone-shaped, and the superior surface ridged. C) The medial end is S-shaped, the lateral end is straight, and the superior surface is ridged. D) The coronoid process is on the lateral end, the ridge is on the superior surface, and the socket is in the medial end. Answer: A Section: 8.1 Book LO: 8.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

4) Which of the bones listed below does not articulate with the clavicle? A) scapula B) rib 1 C) manubrium D) humerus Answer: D Section: 8.1 Book LO: 8.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) The clavicle functions to A) transmit compression forces from the upper limb to the axial skeleton. B) protect the lungs. C) allow the arm to extend further for reaching. D) provide balance for the scapula on the other side of the body. Answer: A Section: 8.1 Book LO: 8.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which border of the scapula is closest to the vertebral column? A) superior B) inferior C) lateral D) medial Answer: D Section: 8.1 Book LO: 8.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) The bony landmark at the lateral angle of the scapula is the A) suprascapular notch. B) glenoid cavity. C) spine. D) acromion. Answer: B Section: 8.1 Book LO: 8.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) At the shoulder joint, the head of the humerus articulates with the scapula at the A) glenoid cavity. B) coracoid process. C) subscapular fossa. D) acromion process. Answer: A Section: 8.1 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) The acromion of the scapula A) articulates with the humerus. B) attaches the biceps muscle of the arm. C) is an extension of the scapular spine. D) lies anterior to the coracoid process. Answer: C Section: 8.1 Book LO: 8.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) The supraspinous fossa is in the ________ region of the scapula. A) anterosuperior B) anteroinferior C) posterosuperior D) posteroinferior Answer: C Section: 8.1 Book LO: 8.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 11) Which letter indicates the greater tubercle of the humerus? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

12) Which letter indicates the fossa where the ulna articulates with the humerus? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) Which letter indicates the bony landmark of the humerus where the deltoid muscle attaches? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which letter indicates the bony landmark of the humerus that articulates with the head of the radius? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

15) Which letter indicates the anterior-most boundary of the intertubercular groove? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) The deltoid tuberosity is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus Answer: D Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) The rotator cuff muscles attach to the humerus at the A) deltoid tuberosity. B) epicondyles. C) supracondylar ridges. D) greater and lesser tubercles. Answer: D Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) The anatomical neck of the humerus lies A) proximal to the tubercles. B) distal to the tubercles. C) beside the deltoid tuberosity. D) near the radial groove. Answer: A Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

19) The olecranon process is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus Answer: C Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which of the bony landmarks listed below is not part of the distal end of the humerus? A) capitulum B) trochlea C) intertubercular sulcus D) olecranon fossa Answer: C Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) The coronoid fossa is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus Answer: D Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) The trochlear notch is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus Answer: C Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

23) The bone that has a trochlea, a capitulum, and a greater tubercle is the A) tibia. B) femur. C) humerus. D) fibula. Answer: C Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) The bone that has a trochlear notch, an olecranon process, and a coronoid process is the A) tibia. B) radius. C) ulna. D) femur. Answer: C Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) The coronoid process is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus Answer: C Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) The ulnar notch is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus Answer: A Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

27) The styloid process on lateral side of the antebrachium is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus Answer: A Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 28) The bone of the forearm that directly and functionally articulates with the carpals is the A) ulna. B) radius. C) humerus. D) lunate. Answer: B Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 29) In anatomical position A) the head of the radius is medial to the ulna. B) the radius is lateral to the ulna. C) the styloid process of the radius is medial to the ulna. D) the ulna is lateral to the radius. Answer: B Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of the bones listed below is not a carpal bone? A) cuboid B) triquetrum C) scaphoid D) hamate Answer: A Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

31) All of these bones are in the proximal row of four carpal bones except the A) scaphoid. B) triquetrum. C) pisiform. D) trapezoid. Answer: D Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) The carpal tunnel is formed by A) the anterior concave curve of the carpal bones and a superficial ligament crossing it. B) the posterior concave curve of the carpal bones and skin covering the posterior wrist. C) two bands of tissue creating a tunnel in the anterior wrist. D) the space between the proximal and distal roles of carpals. Answer: A Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) The bone of the palm that articulates with the shortest digit is A) metacarpal II. B) metacarpal III. C) metacarpal IV. D) metacarpal V. Answer: D Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) The pollex refers to the A) thumb B) 5th digit C) distal radius D) proximal row of tarsals Answer: A Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

35) All of the bones of the digits are collectively known as A) phalanges. B) tarsals. C) carpals. D) metacarpals. Answer: A Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 & 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) The bone in the upper limb that corresponds to the femur in the lower limb is the A) humerus. B) radius. C) ulna. D) ischium. Answer: A Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 37) Which letter indicates the bone that has tuberosities that are the strongest parts of the hip bones? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) Which letter identifies the anterior superior iliac spine? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

39) Which letter indicates a pad of a fibrocartilage known as the pubic symphysis? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) Which letter indicates the iliac crest? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) Which letter indicates a deep hemispherical socket where all three bones forming the os coxae intersect? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) The auricular surface of the ilium A) attaches gluteal muscles. B) forms the lateral borders of the false pelvis. C) forms the sacroiliac joint. D) lines the interior of the acetabulum. Answer: C Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

43) Which of these is not a feature of the ilium? A) anterior superior iliac spine B) posterior inferior iliac spine C) iliac fossa D) lesser sciatic notch Answer: D Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 44) Which of the following is true regarding the ilium. A) it contains the greater, lesser, and least gluteal lines B) it is the only bone that articulates with the femur C) it contains the greater sciatic notch D) the iliac crest extends between the anterior and posterior inferior iliac spines Answer: C Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) All of these statements regarding the acetabulum are true except A) The acetabulum is where the three bones of the os coxae intersect. B) The acetabulum participates in the hip joint. C) The acetabulum is cup-shaped. D) The acetabulum articulates with the sacrum. Answer: D Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) The ischium has all of these features listed below except the A) ischial tuberosity. B) ischial spine. C) body. D) superior ramus. Answer: D Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

47) The ischium joins the pubis in the acetabulum and at the A) superior pubic ramus. B) inferior pubic ramus. C) sacroiliac joint. D) pubic symphysis. Answer: B Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) The pubic bone is characterized by all of the following except that it A) forms part of the obturator foramen. B) forms part of the acetabulum. C) forms part of the greater sciatic notch. D) fuses with the ischium. Answer: C Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) Which of the appendicular foramina listed below is "closed up" and has very few vessels or nerves passing through it? A) obturator foramen B) olfactory foramen C) foramen lacerum D) foramen magnum Answer: A Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) All of these bony landmarks contribute to the pelvic inlet (brim) except the A) sacral promontory. B) ischial tuberosities. C) arcuate lines on the ilia. D) pubic crests. Answer: B Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

51) The area between the crest of the ilium and the arcuate line is called the A) false pelvis. B) pelvic inlet. C) pelvic outlet. D) true pelvis. Answer: A Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) The pelvic inlet (brim) is widest A) from anterior to posterior. B) from side to side. C) obliquely. D) superior to inferior. Answer: B Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) The boundaries of the pelvic outlet include all those listed below except the A) ischial tuberosity. B) sacrum. C) coccyx. D) gluteal tuberosity. Answer: D Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 54) Which of the following statements about the male pelvis is false? A) The bones are heavier and rougher than in the female. B) The male pelvis is narrow and deep. C) The male pubic arch is wider than that of the female. D) The cavity of the true pelvis is smaller in the female. Answer: C Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

55) Which of the bones listed below is not part of the appendicular skeleton? A) patella B) femur C) sacrum D) navicular Answer: C Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) By anatomical definition, the leg extends from the A) back (including the pelvis) to the tips of the toes. B) the top of the femur to the ankle. C) acetabulum to the metatarsals. D) knee to the ankle. Answer: D Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 57) Which letter indicates the groove that articulates with the patella? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

58) Which letter indicates the gluteal tuberosity of the femur? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 59) Which letter indicates the weakest region of the femur, which may be fractured in a fall? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 60) Which letter indicates a depression that is the site where a femoral ligament attaches to the acetabulum? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

61) Which letter indicates the greater trochanter of the femur? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) As it runs from the hip to the knee, the femur projects ________ as well as inferiorly. A) medially B) anteriorly C) laterally D) posteriorly Answer: A Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) The weakest part of the femur and, therefore, the most common location of fracture is the A) greater trochanter. B) diaphysis. C) area just inferior to the lesser trochanter. D) neck. Answer: D Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) Which of the following statements about the patella is false? A) It is roughly triangular in shape. B) It is a sesamoid bone. C) It acts to protect the knee joint anteriorly. D) It articulates with the femur, tibia, and fibula. Answer: D Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

65) The intercondylar eminence is found on which of the bones listed below? A) femur B) tibia C) fibula D) navicular Answer: B Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) The medial malleolus is found on which of the bones listed below? A) femur B) tibia C) fibula D) talus Answer: B Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) The bony landmark which is the attachment point for the patellar ligament is found on which of the bones listed below? A) femur B) tibia C) fibula D) ischium Answer: B Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 68) The fibula A) articulates with the femur. B) crosses the tibia when the leg is rotated. C) forms the lateral border of the knee joint. D) stabilizes the ankle joint. Answer: D Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

69) Which of the following statements concerning the fibula is false? A) It helps stabilize the ankle. B) It helps stabilize the knee. C) It is the thinnest of the two leg bones. D) It forms the lateral malleolus. Answer: B Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 70) The fibula has all of the following features except the A) head. B) inferior tibiofibular joint (facet). C) medial malleolus. D) lateral malleolus. Answer: C Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) Which of the bones listed below is the "heel" bone? A) hamate B) talus C) calcaneus D) cuboid Answer: C Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 72) Which tarsal bone lies directly anterior to the talus? A) lateral cuneiform B) navicular C) cuboid D) calcaneus Answer: B Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

73) These three tarsal bones lie just distal to the navicular are the A) cuneiforms. B) cuboids. C) trapezoids. D) naviculars. Answer: A Section: 8.6 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 74) Which of the following bones primarily bears the weight of the body? A) talus B) navicular C) cuboid D) cuneiforms Answer: A Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) Which of the statements below regarding the metatarsals is false? A) They are numbered 1-5 from lateral to medial, just like the metacarpals. B) They articulate proximally to the cuneiforms and cuboid. C) They contribute to the three arches of the feet. D) They support some of the body's weight. Answer: A Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 76) Which bone is the keystone of the medial arch of the foot? A) calcaneus B) cuboid C) navicular D) talus Answer: D Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

77) The tallest arch of the foot is the ________ arch. A) medial B) lateral C) transverse D) intermediate Answer: A Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 78) All of the following are true regarding changes in the appendicular skeleton throughout life except A) the upper-lower body ratio changes B) the lower limbs grow faster than the upper limbs C) the female pelvis broadens around the time of puberty D) the skeleton gains bone mass with time after middle age Answer: D Section: 8.6 Book LO: 8.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 8.2 True/False Questions 1) The coracoid process of the scapula articulates with the clavicle. Answer: FALSE Section: 8.1 Book LO: 8.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) The subscapular fossa lies inferior to the spine and faces posteriorly. Answer: FALSE Section: 8.1 Book LO: 8.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) The distal end of the ulna is the olecranon process. Answer: FALSE Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4) In the proximal row of carpals, there are the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform, from lateral to medial. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) The metacarpus is the palm of the hand. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) The thumb has no middle phalanx. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.2 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) The posterior inferior iliac spine is superior to the ischial spine. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) The ischium forms the posteroinferior region of the pelvic girdle. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) The pubic symphysis is a pad of hyaline cartilage between the two pubic bones. Answer: FALSE Section: 8.3 Book LO: 8.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

10) The greater and lesser tubercles are sites of muscle attachment on the proximal lateral aspect of the femur. Answer: FALSE Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) The tibia articulates distally with the trochlea of the talus. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 12) The proximal end of the fibula is the lateral malleolus. Answer: FALSE Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The calcaneal tuberosity is one region of the foot that makes contact with the ground while walking. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Book LO: 8.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Hip dysplasia involves either an incomplete acetabulum or loose hip ligaments. A consequence of these anatomical variations would be frequent dislocation or slipping of the femoral head from the acetabulum. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.5 Book LO: 8.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15) As one ages, the upper-lower (UL) body ratio changes from about 1.7:1 at birth to 1:1 at puberty. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.6 Book LO: 8.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

8.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The pectoral girdle consists of the clavicle and the ________. Answer: scapula 2) When examining the clavicle, one would find the ________ tubercle at the acromial end. Answer: conoid 3) At the distal humerus, the trochlea articulates with the ________. Answer: ulna 4) When the forearm is flexed at the elbow, the coronoid process of the ulna fits into the ________ fossa of the humerus. Answer: coronoid 5) In the wrist, lateral to the lunate is the scaphoid, and medial to the lunate is the ________. Answer: triquetrum 6) Most fingers and toes have a proximal, a middle, and a(n) ________ phalanx. Answer: distal 7) The pelvic girdle consists of the paired ________. Answer: coxal bones 8) When you sit cross-legged for a while on a hard surface, your "rear end" hurts because you have been distributing weight directly over your bony ________ tuberosities. Answer: ischial 9) The ________ spine lies between the greater and lesser sciatic notches. Answer: ischial 10) The ________ ligaments run from each lateral surface of the sacrum to the ischial tuberosities to hold the pelvis together. Answer: sacrotuberous 11) The head of the femur has a(n) ________, from which a ligament extends that attaches to the inner surface of the acetabulum. Answer: fovea capitis 12) The large processes on the proximal end of the humerus are called tubercles, but the similar landmarks on the femur are called ________. Answer: trochanters 13) In anatomical position, the ________ is the most lateral bone in the leg. Answer: fibula

14) An interosseous membrane is found between the tibia and the ________ in the lower extremity. Answer: fibula 15) The ________ is the tarsal bone lateral to the navicular. Answer: cuboid 8.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe two anatomical characteristics of the glenohumeral joint that contribute to the high degree of mobility at the shoulder. Answer: The scapula and upper limb are attached to the axial skeleton only by the clavicle; the scapula itself does not articulate with the axial skeleton. This allows the scapula to move freely over the thorax. Additionally, the humerus articulates with the essentially flat glenoid cavity, allowing for free rotation of the arm. 2) Identify the heads and all the notches of the radius and ulna and explain how these bones articulate with each other and with the humerus. Answer: The radius has an ulnar notch at its distal end that articulates with the head of the ulna. The proximal end of the ulna has a radial notch that articulates with the head of the radius. The head of the radius articulates with the capitulum of the humerus. The trochlear notch of the ulna articulates with the trochlea of the humerus. 3) Describe the carpal tunnel. How does the anatomy of the carpal tunnel contribute to carpal tunnel syndrome? Answer: The carpal tunnel is formed by the anterior concave curvature of the carpal bones and the flexor retinaculum, a ligamentous structure forming the roof of the carpal tunnel. Within this tunnel travels many tendons of the muscles that flex the fingers and move the thumb, and the retinaculum helps to hold these tendons close to the wrist and increase their efficiency. The median nerve also passes through this tunnel as it travels to muscles of the hand that act on the thumb and two fingers. This tunnel has limited space, and inflammation can cause compression of the median nerve. When it is compressed, numbness, tingling, and weakness of the fingers ensues. 4) Describe some of the anatomical characteristics of the female pelvis that are adaptations for childbearing. Answer: The female pelvis is typically wider, shallower, and lighter to provide more room in the true pelvis, through which the infant must pass during childbirth. The pubic arch is broader as well, reflecting the wider pelvis. The pelvis itself is tilted forward and has a larger enclosed cavity. 5) What are the anatomical differences between male and female athletes that result in a greater incidence of knee problems for women? Answer: The femur courses medially along its length toward the knee; because of the wider pelvis in women, this angle is even more pronounced. This results in a greater angle between the femur and the tibia, which is nearly vertical in position and leads to greater instability at the joint. 28 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 9 Joints 9.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) In syndesmoses, bones are connected exclusively by A) hyaline cartilage. B) ligaments. C) tendons. D) fibrocartilage. Answer: B Section: 9.2 Book LO: 9.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) When the fibrous tissue of sutures ossifies, the resulting joint is called a A) symphysis. B) synchondrosis. C) syndesmosis. D) synostosis. Answer: D Section: 9.2 Book LO: 9.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 3) A joint between a tooth and its socket is A) a suture. B) a gomphosis. C) an ankylosis. D) a synostosis. Answer: B Section: 9.2 Book LO: 9.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4) An example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint is the A) sagittal suture. B) interosseous membrane between the radius and the ulna. C) pubic symphysis. D) intervertebral discs. Answer: A Section: 9.2 Book LO: 9.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of these is not characteristic of a synchondrosis? A) absence of a joint cavity B) bone ends attached by collagen C) composed of hyaline cartilage D) not highly movable Answer: B Section: 9.3 Book LO: 9.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) An example of a diarthrotic synchondrosis A) is the epiphyseal plate. B) is the intertarsal joint. C) is the knee. D) does not exist. Answer: D Section: 9.3 Book LO: 9.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 7) An example of an amphiarthrotic cartilaginous joint is the A) epiphyseal plate. B) pubic symphysis. C) knee joint. D) sternocostal joint. Answer: B Section: 9.3 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) A pre-adolescent has more joints than an adult because of these immovable cartilaginous joints. A) sutures B) epiphyseal plates C) synovial joints D) gomphoses Answer: B Section: 9.3 Book LO: 9.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 9) Characteristics of a symphysis include A) the presence of fibrocartilage B) intracapsular ligaments C) an articular capsule D) an interosseous membrane Answer: A Section: 9.3 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 10) Cartilaginous joints A) allow free movement. B) allow movement in only one plane as a hinge. C) are seen in sutural lines. D) include symphyses. Answer: D Section: 9.3 Book LO: 9.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 11) Which letter indicates a ligament that is external to the joint capsule? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 12) Which letter indicates an articulating surface that is comprised of hyaline cartilage? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

13) Which letter indicates the fibrous layer of the articular capsule of this synovial joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which letter indicates the joint/articular cavity that contains a small amount of synovial fluid? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Which letter indicates the layer of the articular capsule that is the most highly vascularized? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

16) In pronation, A) abduction B) adduction C) extension D) flexion Answer: B Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) What type of excessive motion do anterior ligaments resist? A) abduction B) adduction C) extension D) flexion Answer: C Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.8 & 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 18) A joint capsule (articular capsule) has two layers. The function of the capsule's internal layer is to A) strengthen the joint against tension. B) produce synovial fluid. C) contain all of the nerves and blood vessels of the joint. D) act as a meniscus. Answer: B Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 19) Which letter indicates a synovial, diarthrotic, hinge type of joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which letter indicates the joint that is made more stable by the glenoid labrum? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

21) Which letter indicates the diarthrotic knuckle (metacarpophalangeal) joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which letter indicates the distal articulation between the radius and ulna? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which letter indicates a synovial, diarthrotic, saddle type of joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) The outer layer of the articular capsule in a synovial joint consists of ________ connective tissue. A) loose areolar B) dense irregular C) dense regular D) elastic Answer: B Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

25) A bursa differs from the synovial cavity of a joint in that it A) contains no synovial fluid. B) is not involved in lubrication. C) has no synovial membrane. D) need not be attached to any bone. Answer: D Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Pulling your shoulders back, or squaring them, involves which motion of the scapula? A) abduction B) pronation C) retraction D) opposition Answer: C Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) All of the following can be performed at the wrist except A) flexion and extension of the hand. B) circumduction of the hand. C) rotation of the hand. D) abduction and adduction of the hand. Answer: C Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 28) Which of the following movements is not possible at the condyloid metacarpophalangeal joints of fingers 2-5? A) flexion B) circumduction C) adduction D) rotation Answer: D Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

29) An example of a multiaxial joint is A) the proximal radioulnar joint. B) an intervertebral joint, between the articular processes. C) the hip. D) the pubic symphysis. Answer: C Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) The only category of articulations with a joint cavity is a A) fibrous joint. B) cartilaginous joint. C) synovial joint. D) synostosis. Answer: C Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) Biaxial joints cannot A) abduct. B) adduct. C) flex. D) rotate. Answer: D Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) The lateral movement of the arms away from the body is called A) abduction. B) adduction. C) flexion. D) extension. Answer: A Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

33) Expansion of the rib cage during inhalation is possible because the costovertebral joints are A) amphiarthrotic. B) biaxial. C) synchondroses. D) synovial. Answer: D Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which of these statements about menisci is false? A) They contain fibrocartilage. B) They are found in all synovial joints. C) They can divide the joint cavity. D) They can allow two movements at a single joint. Answer: B Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 35) Synovial fluid is A) identical to blood plasma. B) an extract from the bone marrow. C) a filtrate of the blood, with added glycoproteins. D) fluid from edema. Answer: C Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) Tendon sheaths A) surround all tendons. B) contain articular cartilages. C) differ from bursae in that they are not lubricating in function. D) wrap the tendons that are crowded in the carpal tunnel. Answer: D Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

37) An example of a pivot joint is the A) atlantoaxial joint. B) distal tibiofibular joint. C) sagittal suture. D) suture. Answer: A Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 38) An example of a saddle-shaped synovial joint is the A) radioulnar joint. B) temporomandibular joint. C) carpometacarpal of digit 1. D) glenohumeral joint. Answer: C Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) Synovial joint cavities are the only important exceptions to the rule that cavities in the body are always lined with epithelia. The synovial membrane consists of A) loose areolar connective tissue. B) muscle tissue. C) nervous tissue. D) dense irregular connective tissue. Answer: A Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 40) The main function of synovial fluid is A) cooling. B) nourishing bone. C) removing metabolic wastes. D) lubrication. Answer: D Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

41) In abduction of the fingers, the fifth finger moves medially, and the second finger moves A) anteriorly. B) laterally. C) medially. D) by flexing toward the palm. Answer: B Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) By hyperextending a thigh at the hip joint, you could A) hit your chin with your knee. B) perform the same movement as circumduction. C) squeeze both thighs together. D) bring your knee and leg to a position posterior to the thorax. Answer: D Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) The largest ball-and-socket joint in the body is the A) hip. B) shoulder. C) knee. D) interphalangeal joint. Answer: A Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 44) Articular cartilages are found both in symphyses and in A) sutures. B) synovial joints. C) synchondroses. D) syndesmoses. Answer: B Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

45) Capsular ligaments A) are covered by synovial membrane. B) are located outside the joint capsule. C) are thickened parts of the joint capsule itself. D) separate the synovial cavity into compartments. Answer: C Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) What movement occurs when one moves the foot from the anatomical position to point the toes laterally, with the foot flat on the floor? A) eversion B) lateral rotation C) inversion D) plantar flexion Answer: B Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) Articular discs are found in all of the following joints except the A) sternoclavicular. B) temporomandibular. C) tibiofemoral. D) vertebrocostal. Answer: D Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 48) By plantar flexing your feet at the ankle joints, you will A) stand on your toes. B) stand back on your heels. C) stand on the medial margins of your feet. D) turn your big toes laterally. Answer: A Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 49) Which letter indicates an example of an interphalangeal joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

50) Which letter indicates a cartilaginous, amphiarthrotic, symphysis type of joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) Which letter indicates the proximal articulation between the tibia and fibula and is a diarthrotic plane joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) Which letter indicates an articulation that, in addition to the pubic symphysis, becomes slightly amphiarthrotic during pregnancy? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

53) Which letter on the diagram indicates a modified hinge joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) Trauma at which of these joints is more likely to result in a bone fracture than a dislocation? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint Answer: C Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) Which of these joints is stabilized by an iliofemoral ligament, a pubofemoral ligament, and an ischiofemoral ligament? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint Answer: D Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

56) Which of these joints is a hinge joint, primarily involved in articulation with the ulna rather than the radius? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint Answer: A Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) Which of these joints utilizes the acetabulum? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint Answer: D Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) Which of these joints incorporates two bones, the first costal cartilage, and an articular disc? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint Answer: C Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

59) Which of these joints is one of the most freely moving joints of the body, but requires the stability provided by the rotator cuff muscles to keep it in place? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint Answer: B Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) Which of these joints is stabilized by glenohumeral ligaments? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint Answer: B Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) Which of these joints is stabilized with an anular ligament? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint Answer: A Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) Which structure(s) directly secures the humerus to the glenoid cavity? A) the rotator cuff B) the glenohumeral ligaments C) the coracohumeral ligament D) the tendon of the biceps brachii muscle Answer: D Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

63) What structures are most important in keeping the knee from moving medially to laterally? A) the collateral ligaments B) the menisci C) the patellar ligament D) the oblique popliteal ligaments Answer: A Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) The condition in which the synovial cavity becomes inflamed is called A) chondromalacia. B) ankylosing spondylitis. C) arthroplasty. D) synovitis. Answer: D Section: 9.6 Book LO: 9.11 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) A condition that commonly leads to neck pain, ear problems, and pain when opening the mouth is A) osteoarthritis. B) temporomandibular disorder. C) sutural disorders. D) gout. Answer: B Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) Besides helping to "lock" the knee, the posterior cruciate ligament A) prevents posterior sliding of the tibia when the leg is flexed at the knee. B) holds the patella to the tibia. C) prevents all medial rotation on the femoral condyles. D) breaks more frequently than the anterior cruciate ligament. Answer: A Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

67) As an essential stage in the locking mechanism of the knee, A) both cruciate and collateral ligaments tighten. B) the popliteal muscle contracts. C) the fibula is pulled out of the way. D) the femur rotates laterally on the tibial condyles. Answer: A Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 68) Of the joints listed below, the only joint with a relatively shallow or flat articular surface is the A) ankle joint. B) hip joint. C) shoulder joint. D) elbow joint. Answer: C Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 69) The main movements occurring at the ankle joint are A) plantar flexion and dorsiflexion. B) inversion and eversion. C) abduction and adduction. D) supination and pronation. Answer: A Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 70) Gliding movements occur between all these joints except A) adjacent carpals. B) adjacent phalanges. C) articular processes of vertebrae. D) temporomandibular joints. Answer: B Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

71) All of these stabilizing structures provide structural support to the hip joint except the A) iliofemoral ligament. B) ischiofemoral ligament. C) pubofemoral ligament. D) ligament of the head of the femur. Answer: D Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.8 & 9.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 72) Based on the definition of luxation, a subluxation must be A) a mild case of Lyme disease. B) rheumatoid arthritis on one side of the body only. C) reduction of a joint. D) a partially dislocated joint. Answer: D Section: 9.6 Book LO: 6.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 73) A chronic disorder of joints in which the articular cartilages degenerate and bony spurs form is A) rheumatoid arthritis. B) osteoarthritis. C) gout. D) Lyme disease. Answer: B Section: 9.6 Book LO: 9.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 74) Student's elbow is an example of A) tendonitis. B) bursitis. C) osteoarthritis. D) gout. Answer: B Section: 9.6 Book LO: 9.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

9.2 True/False Questions 1) Synarthroses are freely movable joints. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.1 Book LO: 9.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Amphiarthroses are more movable than diarthroses. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.1 Book LO: 9.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) The interosseous membrane is a type of syndesmosis. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.2 Book LO: 9.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 4) One type of cartilage, fibrocartilage, characterizes all cartilaginous joints. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.3 Book LO: 9.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) The term synovial joint contains the root word ov, referring to ovum, or egg, because the synovial fluid is viscous like the white of the egg. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 6) Intracapsular ligaments, such as the cruciate ligaments, are covered with a synovial membrane. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

7) The elbow joint has intracapsular ligaments and menisci. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Typical synovial joints are supplied by blood vessels and nerve fibers. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Hyaline cartilage forms many menisci, such as are found in the temporomandibular joint and the knee joint. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) The sternoclavicular joint (SC) is a modified hinge joint. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.5 Book LO: 9.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) One could characterize a bursa as a sac of synovial fluid. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) A tendon sheath is an elongated membranous sac filled with synovial fluid that wraps around a tendon. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

13) Moving a limb toward the body's midline is abduction. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) A person who states that they are "double-jointed" is capable of joint hyperextension and has more phalangeal joints than the average person. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15) The atlantoaxial joint is a saddle joint. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.4 Book LO: 9.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 16) Arthroplasty is the process of replacing a diseased joint with an artificial joint. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.7 Book LO: 9.13 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 9.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The glenohumeral joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. Answer: ball-and-socket 2) This kind of joint is composed of very short connective tissue fibers that are continuous with the periosteum of the flat bone. Answer: suture 3) This joint is structurally reinforced by talofibular and tibiofibular ligaments. Answer: ankle joint 4) An important factor in joint stabilization is ________, which is exerted by muscles even when there is no movement at that joint. Answer: muscle tone 5) A(n) ________ is a specialized bursa that wraps around a tendon to reduce friction. Answer: tendon sheath 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

6) Perhaps the simplest synovial joint, a(n) ________ joint occurs when two flat surfaces of bones move over each other. Answer: gliding 7) This is the action by which the thumb touches the tips of the other fingers. Answer: Opposition 8) ________ causes the forearm to rotate laterally. Answer: Supination 9) The sternoclavicular joint is a(n) ________ joint. Answer: saddle 10) The most freely moving large joint of the body is the ________ joint. Answer: shoulder (glenohumeral) 11) Baseball players often damage the ________ cuff at the shoulder region. Answer: rotator 12) To ________ the foot, move the plantar surface laterally. Answer: evert 13) Tipping your head back to look up at the ceiling is ________ of the neck. Answer: extension 14) This is a type of arthritis in which crystals of urate accumulate in the synovial membranes. Answer: gout (gouty arthritis) 15) Synovial joints form from ________ tissue that fills the spaces between the cartilaginous bone models in the late embryo. Answer: mesenchymal

9.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the joint-associated problems that can occur as normal changes to the articular cartilage as an individual ages. Answer: Osteoarthritis to some degree, will typically affect most individuals as they grow older. Damage done to joints when an individual is young can cause problems as a person ages. Metalloproteinase enzymes released during joint damage may break down the matrix of the articular cartilage. As time goes by, recurring microdamage diminishes the thickness of the articular cartilage and ultimately results in chronic inflammation and diminished mobility at the joint(s). Regular exercise and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can minimize inflammation, alleviating some of the symptoms of osteoarthritis. 2) Describe the three types of fibrous joints, including examples of each. Answer: Sutures are located between many of the bones of the skull, with fibers of the joint continuous with the periosteum of the adjacent bones. Syndesmoses are connected by long fibrous ligaments, such as those found at the distal tibiofibular articulation. Considerable motion is possible at these types of joints, even though there is no synovial capsule. Gomphoses are found between the roots of the teeth and the tooth sockets of the mandible and maxilla. The teeth are held in place with numerous, short periodontal ligaments. 3) Compare the structure and function of the two major joint surfaces of the wrist. Answer: The radiocarpal joint is a condyloid joint between the radius and the scaphoid and lunate. This joint allows for movements of flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction. The intercarpal joints between adjacent carpals are planar joints, which allow for gliding movements. 4) Characterize articular cartilages. Answer: Articular cartilages are found at diarthrotic synovial joints. They cover the ends (epiphyses) of articulating bones and minimize friction and enhance resistance to compressive forces within the joint capsule. Articular cartilage is hyaline cartilage. 5) Describe the four functional categories of synovial joints, and give an example of each type. Answer: Nonaxial joints do not move around any specific axis. Examples include the intervertebral joints. Uniaxial joints have movement along a single axis, and an example is the atlanto-occipital joint. Biaxial joints allow movement on two axes; an example is the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. Multiaxial joints allow movement along all three axes and in all three body planes; an example is the shoulder joint.

Human Anatomy, 9e Marieb Test Bank Chapter 10 Skeletal Muscle Tissue 10.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Muscle tissue is endowed with all of the following properties except A) excitability. B) contractibility. C) extensibility. D) transmissibility. Answer: D Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of these correctly matches the property of muscle tissue with its definition? A) Contractility — the ability to recoil after stretching B) Excitability — the ability to shorten with contraction C) Extensibility — the ability to be stretched D) Elasticity — the ability to conduct an impulse Answer: C Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) All of these are functions of muscle tissue except A) production of movement B) maintain posture C) generate heat D) line surfaces in the body Answer: D Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) This type of muscle attaches to bone, but may also attach to skin, cartilage, fascia or a raphe. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle Answer: A Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) This type of muscle composes the largest share of muscle weight in the human body. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle Answer: A Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 6) Contractions of these muscles are under voluntary control. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle Answer: A Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) This type of muscle includes the fast oxidative fibers. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle Answer: A Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) This type of muscle is found in the heart. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle Answer: C Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

9) This type of muscle contains intercalated discs. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle Answer: C Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G21 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) A cell of this type of muscle is striated and can be uninucleated or binucleated. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle Answer: C Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Both single-unit smooth muscle and this type of muscle have gap junctions. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle Answer: C Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) The only muscle cells that branch are ________ muscle cells. A) skeletal B) smooth C) cardiac D) red Answer: C Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

13) Visceral muscle refers to A) skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle. B) cardiac muscle and smooth muscle. C) skeletal muscle and smooth muscle. D) smooth muscle only. Answer: B Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) This type of muscle makes up the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach and uterus. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle Answer: B Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) This type of muscle is found in large blood vessels leading to and from the heart. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle Answer: B Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) Both cardiac muscle and this type of muscle are called involuntary. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle Answer: B Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

17) Which type of muscle fiber has no myofibrils? A) skeletal B) smooth C) cardiac D) red Answer: B Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which type of muscle fiber has caveolae but no T tubules? A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth D) white Answer: C Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) A common characteristic of the three types of muscle tissue is that A) they all have striations. B) contraction is triggered by the release of calcium. C) they all contain sarcomeres. D) they can all use aerobic and anaerobic methods to utilize energy. Answer: B Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 20) This structure is composed entirely of dense regular connective tissue and connects bone to muscle. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) Identify the letter that indicates the endomysium. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

22) Identify the letter that indicates the epimysium. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Identify the letter that indicates the muscle fiber. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) This letter indicates an individual fascicle. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) Much of the natural elasticity of skeletal muscle tissue is provided by A) actin. B) myosin. C) tendons. D) connective tissue sheaths. Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

26) The layer of connective tissue that surrounds the whole skeletal muscle is the A) epimysium B) perimysium C) endomysium D) exomysium Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) All of following are true regarding blood and nerve supply to muscles except A) Vessels and nerves enter a muscle near the middle of its length. B) Generally, a muscle is supplied by one nerve and one artery. C) Nerves and vessels branch and travel within the connective tissue in the muscle. D) Muscles have low need for nutrients and oxygen, so they have few blood vessels. Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 28) A muscle fascicle is A) a bundle of cells. B) a single muscle cell. C) a bundle of myofilaments. D) a tendon. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which statement about muscle attachments is false? A) An insertion can be at either attachment point of a muscle, depending on body position and the movement being performed. B) At least one joint is present between an origin and insertion. C) Insertions are usually distal to the origin. D) Upon contraction, the origin is pulled toward the insertion. Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

30) The type of attachment in which the muscle fibers seem to attach directly to a bone is A) a tendon. B) an aponeurosis. C) an insertion. D) a fleshy attachment. Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) An aponeurosis is A) a large muscle. B) a nerve to a muscle. C) clinical pain in a muscle. D) a sheet of dense connective tissue. Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) In limbs, the insertions of muscles almost always lie ________ to their origins. A) proximal B) distal C) lateral D) posterior Answer: B Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 33) Identify the letter that indicates the thick (myosin) filament. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) This structure is the basic unit of contraction. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

35) Identify the letter that indicates the titin filament. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) Identify the letter that indicates the thin (actin) filament. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) Identify the letter that indicates the I band. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) A skeletal muscle fiber A) is a relatively small, short cell. B) contains a single myofibril. C) contains a single nuclei, like most cells. D) is a cylindrical cell formed by the fusion of many embryonic cells. Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

39) Which of these is not in direct contact with thick myofilaments? A) myosin B) actin C) ATPase D) synaptic vesicles Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) The area that contains no thin filaments is known as the A) H zone. B) I band. C) intercalated disc. D) A band. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) In skeletal muscle fibers, which band or zone contains both thick and thin myofilaments? A) A B) H C) I D) Z Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) In striated muscle, the I band is where A) only thick filaments occur. B) thin filaments occur. C) H zones occur. D) thick and thin filaments occur. Answer: B Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

43) Titin A) connects myosin to actin. B) forms the Z disk to which actin attaches. C) limits the degree to which a muscle may contract. D) prevents a muscle from being overstretched. Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 44) The sleeve-like tubular network within skeletal muscle cells is the A) sarcoplasmic reticulum. B) rough endoplasmic reticulum. C) myofibril. D) T tubule. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) Sarcoplasmic reticulum lies A) between fibers but in myofilaments. B) between myofibrils but in fibers. C) between fascicles but outside fibers. D) between muscles but in myofilaments. Answer: B Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) stores A) calcium. B) sodium. C) ATPase. D) myosin. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

47) In striated muscle cells, which of these structures stores calcium ions that trigger contraction? A) the internal surface of the plasma membrane B) the terminal cisterns C) T tubules D) the myofibrils Answer: B Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) Which of the following correctly defines a triad of the sarcomere? A) a T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisterns B) actin, myosin, and titin C) an axon terminal, synaptic cleft, and sarcolemma D) actin, troponin, and tropomyosin Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) After a muscle fiber has contracted, the calcium A) is destroyed. B) is chemically bound to the myofilaments. C) is secreted by the Golgi apparatus. D) is actively transported into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) The ability of the sarcolemma of muscle cells to conduct an impulse is an example of A) contractility. B) excitability. C) extensibility. D) elasticity. Answer: B Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

51) Which region of the sarcomere does not change in length during contraction? A) A band B) H zone C) I band D) Z disk to Z disk Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) As a muscle is stretched, the Z discs move further apart, and the I band increases in size. What is the role if titin in this situation? A) It prevents the sarcomere from being pulled apart as this stretching occurs. B) It prevents the thick filaments from sliding over the thin filaments. C) It moves the tropomyosin molecule from the actin filament. D) It is required for the release of ATP in this process. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 53) When the distance between two adjacent Z disks grows shorter, the muscle fiber is experiencing A) concentric contraction. B) eccentric contraction. C) isometric contraction. D) relaxation. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 54) Eccentric contraction A) generates force as the muscle lengthens. B) generates force without changing the length of the muscle. C) pulls the insertion toward the origin. D) shortens the muscle. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

55) Acetylcholine A) binds to the myosin head, enabling it to form cross-bridges with actin. B) binds to the sarcolemma and initiates an impulse in the muscle fiber. C) breaks down the neurotransmitter that activates muscle fibers. D) is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and binds to actin. Answer: B Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) All of the following are true regarding innervation of skeletal muscle except A) A single muscle fiber is innervated by many different neurons. B) The neuromuscular junction is the point where the muscle fiber and nerve ending meet. C) The nerves that innervate muscle fibers are called motor neurons. D) The nervous impulse stimulates initiates the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) Terminal boutons A) are the small areas at the end of motor dendrite processes. B) store hormones that influence muscular contraction. C) make a direct connection with the muscle fiber, with no space in between. D) sit within depressions in the sarcolemma. Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) Each nerve impulse to a muscle fiber is able to create just one twitch of that fiber because A) acetylcholine is a weak neurotransmitter only capable of generating one twitch at a time. B) Acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine immediately after the contraction is signaled. C) The sarcolemma is only able to release calcium once per millisecond. D) The muscle fiber is easily fatigued, so it can only twitch once before needing an interval of rest. Answer: B Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

59) A motor unit includes A) a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates. B) a muscle fiber and the single neuron that innervates it. C) all of the motor neurons and fibers within a single fascicle. D) all of the muscle fibers within a single muscle. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) All of the following are true regarding motor units except A) Muscles in the fingers have a small number of muscle fibers per motor unit. B) If needed, additional motor units can be recruited to accomplish a movement. C) A muscle can produce more force if more motor units are recruited. D) A single motor unit only innervates muscle fibers in a small area of a muscle. Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) Myoglobin A) binds and stores oxygen for ATP production. B) is found within the T tubules. C) is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) provides energy for contraction. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) Of the various types of skeletal muscle fibers, the type with the most mitochondria is A) slow oxidative fibers. B) fast glycolytic fibers. C) fast oxidative fibers. D) slow glycolytic fibers. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

63) Of the various types of skeletal muscle fibers, the fibers most resistant to fatigue are A) slow oxidative fibers. B) fast glycolytic fibers. C) fast oxidative fibers. D) slow glycolytic fibers. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) Of the various types of skeletal muscle fibers, the ones supplied by the most capillaries are A) slow oxidative fibers. B) fast glycolytic fibers. C) fast oxidative fibers. D) slow glycolytic fibers. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) Of the various types of skeletal muscle fibers, the ones with the thinnest myofibrils, and, therefore, the ones that generate the least amount of power, are A) slow oxidative fibers. B) fast glycolytic fibers. C) fast oxidative fibers. D) slow glycolytic fibers. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 66) Of the various types of skeletal muscle fibers, the type that produces the most power is A) slow oxidative fibers. B) fast glycolytic fibers. C) fast oxidative fibers. D) slow glycolytic fibers. Answer: B Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

67) Of the various types of skeletal muscle fibers, the type containing the most glycogen granules is A) slow oxidative fibers. B) fast glycolytic fibers. C) fast oxidative fibers. D) slow glycolytic fibers. Answer: B Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 68) Of the various types of skeletal muscle fibers, the fibers that experience fatigue sooner are A) slow oxidative fibers. B) fast glycolytic fibers. C) fast oxidative fibers. D) slow glycolytic fibers. Answer: B Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) As skeletal muscles enlarge in a weight lifter, all of the following occur except A) muscle cells divide mitotically. B) muscle cells grow larger. C) myofilaments become more abundant in the muscle cells. D) myofibrils become more abundant in the muscle cells. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.10 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 70) With intense resistance training, A) fast glycolytic fibers can convert to fast oxidative fibers. B) fast oxidative fibers can convert to fast glycolytic fibers. C) slow oxidative fibers can convert to fast glycolytic fibers. D) slow oxidative fibers can convert to fast oxidative fibers. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

71) One of the largest and strongest muscles in the body is the gluteus maximus in the buttocks, which is important in these diverse muscular activities: walking, running, and jumping. It must consist of A) slow oxidative fibers only. B) fast glycolytic fibers only. C) fast oxidative fibers only. D) a mixture of fiber types. Answer: D Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 72) In muscular dystrophy, the protein dystrophin, which strengthens the sarcolemma by connecting the cytoskeleton with the extracellular matrix, is missing. What would be a consequence of these fibers lacking this important sarcolemma strengthening protein? A) The sarcolemma would be weak and tear, allowing extracellular substances, including calcium ions, into the cell and disrupting muscle function. B) The sarcolemma would become thick and fibrous, impeding ion exchange across it. C) The sarcolemma would function normally, as this protein isn't important to muscle function. D) The sarcolemma would shrink, compressing the contents of the muscle fiber and disrupting muscle function. Answer: A Section: 10.3 Book LO: 10.11 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 73) The embryonic origin of muscle tissue is from A) endoderm. B) mesoderm. C) ectoderm. D) epidermis. Answer: B Section: 10.4 Book LO: 10.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

74) Sarcopenia is a condition that occurs in muscle tissue with aging. As a person ages, their muscle tissue A) decreases overall, leading to a decrease in strength. B) decreases due to the muscle's need for greater energy. C) increases due to an increased amount of actin in the muscle fiber. D) increases due to increased blood flow to the muscles. Answer: A Section: 10.4 Book LO: 10.13 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 75) Age-related loss of muscle mass may be influenced by all of these except A) an increase in the relative proportion of connective tissue to number of muscle fibers. B) decrease in the level of testosterone. C) degeneration of muscle fibers because of accumulation of calcium in the sarcoplasm. D) exhaustion of the supply of muscle satellite cells. Answer: C Section: 10.4 Book LO: 10.13 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 10.2 True/False Questions 1) Muscle tissue can be characterized as being excitable and elastic, but not extensible. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Skeletal muscle is responsible for movements of the appendages, but not the abdomen. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.1 Book LO: 10.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Of the surrounding connective tissues of the muscle, the endomysium is the most superficial. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4) Fascicles are bundles of muscle fibers wrapped together within perimysium. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) The origin of a muscle can also be an insertion, depending on the position of the body and the movement being performed. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 6) The repeating segments seen in a skeletal muscle fiber are the T tubules. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) The Z disks, sometimes referred to as Z lines, define each sarcomere at both ends. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) T tubules are tubes of connective tissue between the fascicles. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Contraction of a muscle cell requires the influx of calcium into the sarcoplasm. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

10) During contraction, the A band of a sarcomere shortens. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 11) Actin and myosin shorten while the muscle is contracting. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) The synaptic cleft is the space between the terminal bouton and the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) Without the strengthening protein dystrophin, which is missing from diseased fibers in muscular dystrophy, extracellular calcium ions leak through the torn wall of the fiber and compromise the muscle fiber's function. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.11 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Skeletal muscle fibers are multinucleate, because they arose from a number of embryonic cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.2 Book LO: 10.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Skeletal muscles never undergo mitosis after they are fully formed. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.4 Book LO: 10.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

10.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Within a fascicle, every muscle fiber is surrounded by the ________. Answer: endomysium 2) Typically, each skeletal muscle is supplied by one ________ and one ________. Answer: artery, nerve 3) Muscles in the appendages typically have their origins ________ to the insertion. Answer: proximal 4) The ________ filament is composed of myosin. Answer: thick 5) During contraction, there is no change in the length of the ________ region of the sarcomere. Answer: A band 6) During contraction, the ________ shortens, and the ________ disappears completely. Answer: I band, H zone 7) This protein adds to muscle elasticity. Answer: titin 8) ________ is a specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum found in muscle fibers. Answer: Sarcoplasmic reticulum 9) The mechanism for muscle contraction is the ________. Answer: sliding filament mechanism 10) How do muscles enlarge when undergoing athletic training? Answer: by increasing the number and diameter of contractile proteins; myofibrils, and myofilaments 11) Most muscles that are involved in maintaining posture contain high percentages of ________ fibers. Answer: slow oxidative 12) The difference in color between skeletal muscle fibers is caused by the abundance of ________. Answer: myoglobin 13) Muscle cells that produce ATP aerobically are called ________. Answer: oxidative fibers 14) Muscle cells that produce ATP anaerobically via glycolysis are called ________. Answer: glycolytic fibers 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

15) Fusion of embryonic ________ cells from the mesoderm creates multinucleated skeletal muscle fibers. Answer: myoblast 10.4 Essay Questions 1) Name four functions of muscle tissue and describe each. Answer: Movement: Skeletal muscles attach to bones and cross joints, causing movement at those joints when the muscle contracts. Maintenance of posture: Muscles can contract for long periods of time continuously, which allows the body to maintain a specific position and posture (e.g. standing, sitting, etc.) Joint stabilization: Constant muscle tone from low levels of muscle contraction helps to stabilize joints. Open and close many body passageways: Muscles that encircle body openings are called sphincters. These sphincters contract to close the opening and regulate the passage of substances from one area to another. Heat generation: Contraction of muscles generates heat, which helps maintain normal body temperature. 2) List the arrangement of muscle fibers in a muscle and their connective tissue layers. Answer: Each muscle fiber is covered by the endomysium, and fibers are bundled into fascicles, which are covered with perimysium. The fascicles together compose the muscle itself, which is covered with the epimysium. 3) Describe the relationship between the connective tissue coverings over muscles and the way in which muscles attach to bones. Answer: The three connective tissue layers within or around a muscle, the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium, converge to form the tendon of the muscle. The tendons contain strong fibrous connective tissues that extend into the periosteum of the bone. 4) Describe how the components of a sarcomere change during contraction. Answer: The distance between the Z discs shortens. The I bands narrow and H zones disappear because of the greater amount of overlap between the thin and thick filaments. The length of A bands during contraction does not change. 5) Describe the differences in the mixture of fiber types that are present in the calf muscles of a sprinter compared to those of a long-distance runner. Explain the anatomical basis for the differences between these fiber types. Answer: A sprinter might have a higher proportion of fast glycolytic fibers, whereas the longdistance runner might have relatively more fast-oxidative fibers. Both fiber types generate forces quickly, and their large diameters, which are proportional to the number of myofibrils, enable them to produce substantial forces for the race. The glycolytic fibers have fewer mitochondria and less myoglobin, so they are prone to fatigue more quickly than the oxidative fibers and, therefore, are better suited for short sprints.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 11 Muscles of the Body 11.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Identify the letter that indicates the linea alba. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

2) Identify the letter that indicates the internal oblique. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Identify the letter that indicates the serratus anterior. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Identify the letter that indicates the rectus abdominis. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Identify the letter that indicates the aponeurosis of the external oblique. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 6) Identify the letter that indicates the masseter. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

7) Identify the letter that indicates the orbicularis oris. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Identify the letter that indicates the temporalis. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Identify the letter that indicates the epicranial aponeurosis. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) Identify the letter that indicates the zygomaticus major and minor. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 11) Identify the letter that indicates the sternocleidomastoid. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Identify the letter that indicates the pectoralis minor. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

13) Identify the letter that indicates the deltoid. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Identify the letter that indicates the pectoralis major. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Identify the letter that indicates the serratus anterior. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) The muscle fascicle arrangement of the orbicularis oris is best characterized as A) parallel. B) bipennate. C) convergent. D) unipennate. E) circular. Answer: E Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

17) The pectoralis major is an example of a muscle with this type of fascicle arrangement, that tends to be triangular in shape. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular Answer: C Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) The fascicles of the biceps brachii muscle have this type of arrangement. A) bipennate B) convergent C) fusiform D) multipennate Answer: C Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which type of fascicle arrangement shortens the least? A) bipennate B) circular C) fusiform D) parallel Answer: A Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) The rectus femoris demonstrates this type of muscle fascicle arrangement. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular Answer: B Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

21) A muscle with fascicles that insert into only one side of the tendon is categorized as A) parallel. B) bipennate. C) convergent. D) unipennate. E) circular. Answer: D Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) This arrangement of fascicles tends to provide the greatest range of motion (shortening distance), though not the greatest power. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular Answer: A Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) The biceps brachii has this fascicle arrangement, which maximizes the range of motion possible. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular Answer: A Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

24) The arrangement of muscle fascicles in a sphincter is A) parallel. B) bipennate. C) convergent. D) unipennate. E) circular. Answer: E Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) The muscles in the anterior compartment of the arm are innervated by the ________ nerve. A) median B) musculocutaneous C) radial D) ulnar Answer: B Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) The extensor muscles of the upper limb lie almost exclusively in the ________ region of that limb. A) posterior B) anterior C) medial D) lateral Answer: A Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) The biceps brachii operates in a ________-class lever system. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth Answer: C Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

28) Based on their embryonic origin, which set of muscles is most closely related? A) chewing muscles—tongue muscles B) extrinsic eye muscles—pharyngeal constrictors C) suprahyoid muscles—infrahyoid muscles D) trapezius—erector spinae Answer: B Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.4 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 29) The gastrocnemius operates in a ________-class lever system. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth Answer: B Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) The muscles in the ________ compartment of the thigh are innervated by the femoral nerve. A) anterior B) posterior C) medial D) lateral Answer: A Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) Visceral muscle differs in its embryonic origin from skeletal muscle because it is derived from A) myotomes. B) myotomes and somitomeres. C) somitomeres. D) splanchnic mesoderm. Answer: D Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.4 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

32) The muscles in the medial compartment of the thigh A) extend the leg B) flex the leg C) abduct the thigh D) adduct the thigh Answer: D Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which set correctly matches the function of the designated muscle compartment? A) anterior thigh—thigh extension B) lateral leg—foot eversion C) medial thigh—thigh abduction D) posterior leg—dorsiflexion Answer: B Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) The prime mover for trunk flexion when doing a sit-up is the A) rectus abdominis. B) erector spinae. C) splenius capitis. D) splenius cervicis. Answer: A Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) A prime mover of arm abduction is the A) sternocleidomastoid B) deltoid C) trapezius D) pectoralis major Answer: B Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

36) Shin splints result from damage to which muscle or muscle group? A) soleus B) hamstrings C) tibialis anterior D) adductors of the thigh Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) The main "swallowing" muscles are the A) esophageal muscles. B) pharyngeal constrictors. C) buccinators. D) masseters. Answer: B Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) When the diaphragm contracts, it A) opens a hole in its center through which air flows. B) aids in expiration. C) becomes flatter. D) becomes more dome-shaped. Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) The tongue muscles are innervated by the ________ nerve. A) facial B) trigeminal C) hypoglossal D) vagus Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

40) A prime mover for flexion of the arm at the shoulder is the A) pectoralis major. B) deltoid. C) latissimus dorsi. D) coracobrachialis. Answer: A Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 41) A prime mover for extension of the forearm at the elbow is the A) brachialis. B) triceps brachii. C) biceps brachii. D) anconeus. Answer: B Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) A prime mover for flexing the forearm at the elbow is the A) triceps brachii. B) brachialis. C) brachioradialis. D) anconeus. Answer: B Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) An important function of the soleus muscle is to A) extend the leg at the knee. B) evert the foot. C) invert the foot. D) plantar flex the foot. Answer: D Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

44) A muscle that originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus is the A) flexor carpi radialis. B) short head of the triceps. C) brachioradialis. D) extensor digitorum. Answer: A Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) The muscle that originates on the anterior superior iliac spine is the A) rectus femoris. B) sartorius. C) pectineus. D) psoas major. Answer: B Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) A muscle that originates on the lateral surfaces of the superior eight ribs is the A) rectus abdominis. B) subclavius. C) serratus anterior. D) subscapularis. Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) The prime movers of jaw closure and biting are the A) temporalis and buccinator muscles. B) masseter and temporalis muscles. C) buccinator and masseter muscles. D) temporalis and lateral pterygoid muscles. Answer: B Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

48) A muscle that attaches to the skeleton at the pubic crest and the xiphoid process and costal cartilages of ribs 5-7 is the A) rectus abdominis. B) external oblique. C) transversus abdominis. D) internal intercostal. Answer: A Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) A muscle that originates along most of the shaft of the femur is the A) iliopsoas. B) adductor magnus. C) vastus intermedius. D) semitendinosus. Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) Which muscle inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus? A) subscapularis B) supraspinatus C) biceps brachii D) deltoid Answer: A Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) The main function of the flexor retinaculum in the wrist is to A) reduce friction. B) hold blood vessels. C) bind the radius, ulna, and carpals together. D) prevent the flexor tendons from moving anteriorly when all fingers are flexed. Answer: D Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

52) A synergist muscle can do all of the following except A) add extra force to a movement. B) hold a bone in place to create a stable base for the prime mover. C) prevent inappropriate extra movements that might otherwise be produced. D) reverse a particular movement caused by the prime mover. Answer: D Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Which of these is not a criterion for naming a muscle? A) action B) color C) location D) shape Answer: B Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. This muscle is the A) platysma. B) buccinator. C) zygomaticus. D) masseter. Answer: B Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) The deepest muscle of the anterior abdominal wall is the A) external oblique. B) transversus abdominis. C) internal oblique. D) rectus abdominis. Answer: B Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

56) The agonist for jaw closure is the A) digastric (posterior head). B) digastric (anterior head). C) medial pterygoid. D) masseter. Answer: D Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 57) A muscle inserting on the pisiform bone of the wrist is A) the flexor carpi ulnaris. B) a lumbrical. C) the extensor digitorum. D) the pronator teres. Answer: A Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 58) A muscle that originates on both the spine of the scapula and the clavicle is the A) pectoralis major. B) trapezius. C) deltoid. D) subclavius. Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) An individual with damage to the radial nerve would be unlikely to contract the A) biceps brachii. B) coracobrachialis. C) extensor digitorum. D) pronator teres. Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

60) A muscle that opens the mouth is the A) orbicularis oculi. B) buccinator. C) orbicularis oris. D) digastric. Answer: D Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) The latissimus dorsi originates primarily on the A) linea alba. B) humerus. C) vertebral column. D) clavicle. Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) A muscle that inserts on the lesser trochanter of the femur is the A) iliopsoas. B) adductor magnus. C) vastus intermedius. D) semitendinosus. Answer: A Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) A prime mover for extending the arm at the shoulder is the A) latissimus dorsi. B) pectoralis major. C) triceps brachii. D) serratus anterior. Answer: A Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

64) A prime mover for leg extension at the knee is the A) rectus femoris. B) sartorius. C) semimembranosus. D) biceps femoris. Answer: A Section: 11.3 Book LO: 10.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) A prime mover of foot inversion is the A) flexor accessorius. B) abductor hallucis. C) tibialis posterior. D) soleus. Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) A prime mover for lateral rotation at the shoulder is the A) pectoralis major. B) supraspinatus. C) teres major. D) teres minor. Answer: D Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) Which forearm muscle is absent in about 30% of individuals? A) extensor pollicis B) flexor carpi ulnaris C) palmaris longus D) pronator quadratus Answer: C Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

68) This muscle inserts into the central tendon of the perineum. A) bulbospongiosus B) coccygeus C) levator ani D) superficial transverse perineal Answer: D Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) Which of the following statements concerning surface anatomy is false? A) It studies internal organs as they relate to surface landmarks. B) It serves as a basis for a standard physical examination. C) It is best studied in cadavers. D) It is used to take pulses, insert tubes, make surgical incisions, and perform other clinical procedures. Answer: C Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 70) The spine of which vertebra is most prominent in the posterior midline of the neck? A) C1 B) C2 C) C7 D) T2 Answer: C Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) Which vertebra lies at the intersection of the supracristal lines and is used as the site to insert a needle to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A) C7 B) T12 C) L1 D) L4 Answer: D Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

72) The best site to listen to lung sounds is A) the triangle of auscultation. B) the anterior triangle. C) the posterior triangle. D) over the xiphoid process. Answer: A Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 73) To avoid damaging important structures in the lower limbs of infants, intramuscular injections are administered into the A) gluteus maximus. B) gluteus medius. C) gluteus minimus. D) vastus lateralis. Answer: D Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 74) The lateral border of the cubital fossa is formed by the A) brachioradialis. B) pronator teres. C) tendon of the biceps brachii. D) median nerve. Answer: A Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) Which of the following structures is not used to define the borders of femoral triangle? A) the anterior superior iliac spine B) the sartorius C) the inguinal ligament D) the adductor longus Answer: A Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

76) The popliteal fossa is located A) posterior to the knee. B) anterior to the knee. C) in the groin. D) in the groove between the big toe and the second metatarsal. Answer: A Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 77) When you stand on your tiptoes, the lateral and medial bulges seen in your calf are the A) soleus. B) heads of the gastrocnemius. C) hamstrings. D) Achilles tendon. Answer: B Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 78) Which of the following structures does not lie within the anterior triangle of the neck? A) submandibular gland B) infrahyoid muscles C) subclavian artery D) suprahyoid muscles Answer: C Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 79) Which of the following structures does not lie in the posterior triangle of the neck? A) accessory nerve B) cervical plexus C) trunks of the brachial plexus D) external carotid artery Answer: D Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

80) The jugular notch is a notch in the A) clavicle. B) manubrium. C) common carotid artery. D) hyoid bone. Answer: B Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 81) By palpation, one locates the temporomandibular joint A) directly anterior to the external auditory opening. B) by feeling the pulse of the facial artery. C) directly posterior to the last upper molars (wisdom teeth). D) by feeling the pulse of the superficial temporal artery. Answer: A Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 82) The medial border of the triangle of auscultation is formed by the A) medial border of the scapula. B) spinous process of the seventh thoracic vertebra. C) trapezius. D) seventh rib. Answer: C Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 83) Which blood vessel lies deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A) axillary artery B) common carotid artery C) subclavian artery D) thoracoacromial trunk Answer: B Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

84) The phrenic nerve can be located by this surface landmark. A) along the midclavicular line B) anterior triangle C) fifth intercostal space, one hand width lateral to the sternum D) posterior triangle Answer: D Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 85) Pain associated with the anatomical snuffbox may indicate A) dislocation of the elbow joint. B) dislocation of the shoulder joint. C) fracture of the scaphoid bone. D) inflammation of the carpal tunnel. Answer: C Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 86) The groove on the skin running from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the pubic tubercle is the A) femoral triangle. B) inguinal ligament. C) linea semilunaris. D) midclavicular line. E) anatomical snuffbox. Answer: B Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 87) Site of intravenous catheter insertion and blood draws. A) femoral triangle B) posterior triangle C) medial bicipital furrow D) cubital fossa E) supracristal line Answer: D Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

88) Marks the lateral margin of the rectus abdominis. A) femoral triangle B) inguinal ligament C) linea semilunaris D) midclavicular line E) anatomical snuffbox Answer: C Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 89) Ischial tuberosities lie just above the medial aspect of this landmark. A) posterior triangle B) ventral gluteal site C) gluteal fold D) posterior median fossa E) cubital fossa Answer: C Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 90) Depression defined by the inguinal ligament, sartorius, and adductor longus muscles. A) femoral triangle B) inguinal ligament C) linea semilunaris D) midclavicular line E) anatomical snuffbox Answer: A Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 91) A horizontal line on the back used for locating the fourth lumbar vertebra. A) femoral triangle B) posterior triangle C) medial bicipital furrow D) cubital fossa E) supracristal line Answer: E Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

92) A triangular depression on the anterior surface of the elbow. A) femoral triangle B) posterior triangle C) medial bicipital furrow D) cubital fossa E) supracristal line Answer: D Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 93) Palpation of this landmark may help diagnose a fracture of the scaphoid or radius. A) femoral triangle B) inguinal ligament C) linea semilunaris D) midclavicular line E) anatomical snuffbox Answer: E Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 94) A depression on the posterior of the knee. A) femoral triangle B) posterior triangle C) medial bicipital furrow D) popliteal fossa E) supracristal line Answer: D Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

95) Intramuscular injections in adults are often given in this region to avoid the sciatic nerve. A) posterior triangle B) ventral gluteal site C) gluteal fold D) posterior median fossa E) cubital fossa Answer: B Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11.2 True/False Questions 1) The elbow joint is an example of a fulcrum as the biceps brachii flexes the forearm. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) In both parallel and unipennate muscles, the muscle fibers extend the length of the muscle, from origin to insertion. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) A lever system operating at a mechanical advantage can move a large load a short distance with a small amount of effort. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) The mechanics of the musculoskeletal system are that muscle contraction provides the effort, joints are the levers, and the bones are the fulcrums. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

5) All three types of lever systems by which skeletal muscle operate provide a mechanical advantage. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 6) Third-class lever systems, like most skeletal muscles, enable great strength but sacrifice speed and distance of movement. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.1 Book LO: 11.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 7) The prime mover is also known as the antagonist. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) When a prime mover is contracted, the antagonists are stretched, but typically relaxed. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Interestingly, some synergists may act by cancelling out some of the actions of a prime mover. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 10) Muscles arise from the mesoderm in the embryo. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.2 Book LO: 11.4 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

11) Muscles of the pharyngeal arch muscle group include muscles of facial expression and chewing muscles. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.4 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) In anatomical position, the pronator teres, the brachioradialis, and the extensor carpi radialis all lie on the anterior surface of the forearm. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The hamstrings consist of the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) The erector spinae, each consisting of three muscle columns, are the prime movers of back extension. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The external and internal intercostals are the prime movers of respiration. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) The respiratory diaphragm is the prime mover in inspiration. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

17) The common origin for many of the extensor muscles of the forearm is the medial epicondyle of the humerus. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) The pelvic diaphragm consists of the levator ani, coccygeus, and transverse perineal muscles. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.3 Book LO: 11.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 19) The posterior triangle of the neck is bordered by the sternocleidomastoid, the trapezius, and the clavicle. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) The triangle of auscultation in the back is bordered by the latissimus dorsi, teres major, and medial border of the scapula. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) The elbow has dislocated if the olecranon is not in a horizontal line with the epicondyles of the humerus. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.0 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) The supracristal line is used to determine the location of a lumbar puncture. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.0 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

23) The dimple indicating the posterior superior iliac spine is a landmark for the sacroiliac joint. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) The femoral triangle is formed by the inguinal ligament, sartorius, and gracilis muscles. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) The head of the radius is felt by pressing into the dimple on the posterior lateral surface of the elbow while extending and rotating the forearm. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 26) Intramuscular injections in the deltoid should be given about 1 inch superior to the greater tubercle. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 27) The external carotid arteries and the carotid pulse can be palpated just posterior to the sternocleidomastoid. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 28) In lean, muscular individuals, the linea semilunaris marks the lateral borders of the rectus abdominis. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

29) You can locate the iliac crests by resting your hands on your hips. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.4 Book LO: 11.10 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The ________ muscle compresses the abdominal contents. Answer: transversus abdominis 2) The ________ muscle helps to stabilize and depress the clavicle. Answer: subclavius 3) The ________ muscle is the prime mover of head flexion, as well as rotation. Answer: sternocleidomastoid 4) The temporalis and ________ muscles are the prime movers of jaw closure as they elevate the mandible. Answer: masseter 5) The three extrinsic muscles of the tongue are ________. Answer: genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus 6) The four suprahyoid muscles are ________. Answer: digastric, stylohyoid, mylohyoid, and geniohyoid 7) The psoas major and ________ muscles are the prime movers in thigh flexion. Answer: iliacus 8) The ________ is the longest muscle in the body, spanning two joints. Answer: sartorius 9) The four muscles of the quadriceps femoris are ________. Answer: rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and the vastus intermedius 10) The ________ and gluteus maximus muscles insert on the iliotibial tract. Answer: tensor fasciae latae 11) The elbow joint serves as a(n) ________ as the biceps brachii muscle flexes the forearm. Answer: fulcrum 12) Most skeletal muscles are ________-class lever systems. Answer: third

13) The three hamstrings are ________. Answer: biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus 14) The ________ is composed of the iliocostalis, longissmus, and spinalis. Answer: erector spinae 15) The rhomboids are acting as a(n) ________ when they stabilize the scapula, holding it in place as the arm moves. Answer: fixator 16) Contraction of the ________ muscle wrinkles the forehead. Answer: Frontal belly of epicranius 17) The deltoid muscle is an example of a(n) ________ fascicle arrangement. Answer: multipennate 18) Another name for the pharyngeal arch muscles is ________. Answer: branchiomeric muscles 19) Muscles that oppose or reverse a particular movement act as ________. Answer: antagonists 20) The seven criteria used in naming muscles are ________. Answer: location, shape, size, direction of fascicles, location of attachments, number of origins, and action. 21) Gluteal intramuscular injections must occur superior to the midpoint of a line extending from the posterior superior iliac spine to the ________. Answer: greater trochanter 22) The ________ is a broad sheet of connective tissue that slides freely over the superior skull. Answer: epicranial aponeurosis 23) The anterior border of the posterior triangle of the neck is formed by the ________ muscle. Answer: sternocleidomastoid 24) The ________ muscle is the prime mover of dorsiflexion. Answer: tibialis anterior 25) To which three bones does the sternocleidomastoid muscle attach? Answer: the sternum, clavicle, and temporal bones 26) The four rotator cuff muscles are ________. Answer: the subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor. 27) The muscle which raises the corners of the mouth into a smile is the ________. Answer: zygomaticus major 33 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

28) You would expect that a muscle that acts to ________ a joint crosses that joint on its lateral side. Answer: abduct 11.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the diaphragm. Answer: The diaphragm is the most important muscle in respiration. It is dome-shaped when in the relaxed condition; in the center is the central tendon. During contraction, it flattens, and inspiration occurs. When it relaxes, expiration occurs. It can also be contracted to produce pressure on the abdominal organs and can aid in evacuating the bladder or large intestine or in giving birth. 2) Compare and contrast the function of the muscles contained in the anterior and posterior compartments of the upper and lower limbs. Explain the embryological reason for the differences. Answer: The anterior compartments of the upper limbs contain flexor muscles, whereas the anterior compartments of the lower limbs contain extensor muscles. Similarly, the posterior compartments contain extensor muscles in the upper limbs but flexor muscles in the lower limbs. The reason for these differences in muscle location is that during embryo development, the upper and lower limbs rotate in opposite directions from each other. 3) Describe the functions of the retinaculae found at the wrist and ankle joints. Answer: These hold the tendons of muscles attaching either to the hand or to the foot, and if they were not present, these tendons would "bowstring" out. They prevent this from happening when the hand or foot is being extended or flexed. 4) What muscles are important in mastication (excluding the muscles of the tongue)? Answer: Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid, and buccinator 5) Describe the range of movements that can be accomplished by the quadriceps. Describe their common insertion. Answer: Extends leg at the knee, flexes thigh at the hip, stabilizes knee, stabilizes patella. They come together as the quadriceps tendon, named as such because these four muscles merge into this one tendon, which encloses the patella. Distal to the patella, it is called the patellar ligament, connecting bone to bone (the tibial tuberosity). 6) Describe how one could locate the acromion and acromioclavicular joint. Answer: The acromion is located by following the spine of the scapula to its lateral end. Then the clavicle can be palpated anterior and medially. When the arm is thrust anteriorly, movement can be detected at the acromioclavicular joint.

7) Briefly describe the landmarks used in making a gluteal intramuscular injection. Answer: A line is drawn from the posterior superior iliac spine to the greater trochanter of the femur. The posterior superior iliac spine is located by a dimple that is two to three finger widths lateral to the midline of the back. The greater trochanter is palpated on the lateral hip just anterior to a hollow about a hand breadth inferior to the iliac crest. The injection should occur 2 inches superior to the midpoint of this line. 8) Describe the boundaries of the triangle of auscultation, and explain how a clinician can take advantage of this anatomical feature. Answer: The triangle of auscultation is found between the trapezius muscle, the latissimus dorsi muscle, and the medial border of the scapula. When the clinician directs the patient to flex the trunk and fold the upper limbs across the chest, the scapula is moved anteriorly to maximize the area of this triangle. Doing so will expose a region of the rib cage that is not covered by superficial muscles and allows the clinician to better listen to pulmonary sounds.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 12 Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue 12.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of these is not a function of the nervous system? A) sensory input B) motor innervation to muscles or glands C) integration of motor and sensory information D) secreting hormones into the bloodstream to affect far-away organs Answer: D Section: 12.1 Book LO: 12.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following is true regarding the basic divisions of the nervous system? A) The nerves in our arms and legs are part of the central nervous system. B) The brain and spinal cord are part of the peripheral nervous system. C) The central nervous system is in charge of integrating incoming sensory information with past experiences and dictating motor responses. D) The central nervous system includes the spinal nerves and cranial nerves. Answer: C Section: 12.1 Book LO: 12.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following is not considered a special somatic sense? A) smell B) taste C) pain D) equilibrium Answer: C Section: 12.1 Book LO: 12.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4) The peripheral nerve fibers that measure the degree of stretch in the biceps brachii muscle and its tendons are classified as A) general somatic sensory. B) general somatic motor. C) special visceral sensory. D) general visceral motor. Answer: A Section: 12.1 Book LO: 12.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 5) An example of proprioception is A) the contraction of the triceps brachii. B) the contraction of pharyngeal arch muscles used in chewing. C) sensing a feather touch the skin. D) the sensation you feel during a wake-up stretch. Answer: D Section: 12.1 Book LO: 12.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 6) A somatic motor neuron carries A) information that signals muscle contraction in the organs in the ventral cavity. B) information, such as pain, from the viscera in the ventral cavity to the CNS. C) motor commands to the skeletal musculature. D) information from the skin to the CNS. Answer: C Section: 12.1 Book LO: 12.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) The peripheral nerve fibers that speed up the movement of the digestive tract are classified as A) general visceral sensory (afferent). B) special visceral sensory. C) general visceral motor (efferent). D) special somatic motor. Answer: C Section: 12.1 Book LO: 12.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) A nerve cell is the same as a A) nerve. B) nerve fiber. C) neurilemmocyte. D) neuron. Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which of the following is not a characteristic of neurons? A) longevity B) inability to divide C) high metabolic rate D) ability to survive without oxygen Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram pictured above to answer the following questions. 10) Identify the letter that indicates the region of a neuron from which the axon leaves the cell body. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Identify the letter that indicates the region of a neuron where neurotransmitters are released. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

12) Identify the letter that indicates a Schwann cell. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) Identify the letter that indicates the gaps between Schwann cells that are known as myelin sheath gaps (nodes of Ranvier). A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Axodendritic synapses occur between letter "E" on the diagram and this region on a proximal neuron. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

15) This region of the neuron contains a single nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm. A) synapse B) axon terminal C) axon D) cell body E) dendrite Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) This region of a neuron contains chromatophilic substance or Nissl bodies. A) synapse B) axon terminal C) axon D) cell body E) dendrite Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) Neurofibrils A) form synapses with axons of postsynaptic neurons. B) help circulate cerebrospinal fluid. C) prevent the neuron from being pulled apart when subjected to tensile forces. D) receive incoming stimuli and pass the signal toward the cell body. Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) Ganglia represent A) groups of axons in the PNS. B) groups of dendrites in the CNS. C) groups of neuron cell bodies in the PNS. D) groups of synapses in the CNS. Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

19) Of the following, which is the only structure that is in the PNS, as opposed to the CNS? A) a tract B) white matter C) a ganglion D) gray matter Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) This region of a neuron is characterized by numerous, short cytoplasmic extensions and is often referred to as receiving regions. A) synapse B) axon terminal C) axon D) cell body E) dendrite Answer: E Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) All of the following are characteristics of dendrites except that they A) are more extensive branching than axons. B) always conduct action potentials. C) conduct signals toward the cell body. D) typically occur as more than one per cell. Answer: B Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 22) This neuronal region transmits electrical impulses away from the cell body. A) synapse B) axon terminal C) axon D) cell body E) dendrite Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

23) Which of the following statements about an axon is false? A) It is also referred to as a nerve fiber. B) It has branches. C) It carries nerve impulses toward the cell body. D) It has a uniform diameter. Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) This tends to be the longest cytoplasmic projection from a neuron. A) synapse B) axon terminal C) axon D) cell body E) dendrite Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) In this part of a neuron, neurofilaments, actin microfilaments, and microtubules are particularly abundant, providing structural support and a transport network. A) synapse B) axon terminal C) axon D) cell body E) dendrite Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Action potentials travel along the A) axon membrane. B) dendrite membrane. C) cell body. D) myelin. Answer: A Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

27) This part of the neuron may have branching collaterals. A) synapse B) axon terminal C) axon D) cell body E) dendrite Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 28) Mitochondria are particularly abundant here. A) synapse B) axon terminal C) axon D) cell body E) dendrite Answer: B Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 29) This is the site of communication between neurons. A) synapse B) axon terminal C) axon D) cell body E) dendrite Answer: A Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) Most synapses transmit communicating signals using A) chemical signaling molecules-neurotransmitters. B) electrical impulses travelling through gap junctions. C) physical contact between adjacent neurons. D) chemical signaling molecules released from neuroglia. Answer: A Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

31) In an axodendritic synapse, the region of the postsynaptic neuron that binds the released neurotransmitter is the A) synapse. B) axon terminal. C) axon. D) cell body. E) dendrite. Answer: E Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 32) The ________ of a presynaptic neuron associates with the dendrite of a postsynaptic neuron. A) synapse B) axon terminal C) axon D) cell body E) dendrite Answer: B Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) An axosomatic synapse occurs between the axon terminals of one neuron and the ________ of a proximal neuron. A) synapse B) axon terminal C) axon D) cell body E) dendrite Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

34) The chemical substance that is released at axon terminals is called a A) hormone. B) neurotransmitter. C) synaptic vesicle. D) Nissl body. Answer: B Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Vesicles containing neurotransmitters are located in A) a synaptic cleft. B) axon terminals. C) the postsynaptic region of dendrites. D) the nodes of Ranvier. Answer: B Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) Which of the following is the correct path an impulse takes across a synapse? A) axon of postsynaptic neuron, dendrite of presynaptic neuron, synaptic cleft B) dendrite of presynaptic neuron, synaptic cleft, axon of postsynaptic neuron C) axon of presynaptic neuron, synaptic cleft, dendrite of postsynaptic neuron D) synaptic cleft, dendrite of postsynaptic neuron, axon of presynaptic neuron Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 37) Which of the following statements about neurotransmitters is false? A) They alter the charge of the postsynaptic neuron membrane. B) They are waves of positive charges that travel down axons. C) They are released from synaptic vesicles. D) They diffuse across the synaptic cleft. Answer: B Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

38) The majority of neurons in the body are A) multipolar. B) bipolar. C) unipolar. D) pseudounipolar. Answer: A Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) Which relatively rare type of neuron has two processes extending from opposite sides of the cell body? A) bipolar B) multipolar C) pseudounipolar D) unipolar Answer: A Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) Which of the following statements concerning sensory neurons is incorrect? A) Most are pseudounipolar. B) Most have their cell bodies in ganglia outside the CNS. C) They have peripheral and central processes. D) They contain only dendrites. Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) Interneurons are found A) only in the visceral nervous system. B) only in the CNS. C) only in the PNS. D) only in the autonomic nervous system. Answer: B Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagrams above to answer the following questions. 42) Identify which diagram represents a microglial cell. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) Identify which diagram represents a cell that produces a myelin sheath in the central nervous system. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

44) Identify which letter represents the most abundant category of glial cells in the CNS. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) Identify which letter represents an oligodendrocyte. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) Identify which diagram represents cells that produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) Astrocytes perform all of the following functions except A) regulating levels of neurotransmitters around the neurons B) controlling ion levels in the environment around neurons C) help with synapse formation in the developing nervous system D) produce cerebrospinal fluid Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

48) Which cells are the macrophages of the CNS? A) ependymal cells B) microglial cells C) satellite cells D) Schwann cells Answer: B Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) These glial cells arise from embryonic white blood cells. A) ependymal cells B) microglia C) oligodendrocytes D) satellite cells Answer: B Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 50) Ciliated neuroglial cells that form an epithelium and play an active role in forming and moving cerebrospinal fluid are A) ependymal cells. B) Schwann cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) astrocytes. Answer: A Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) These glial cells surround the cell bodies of sensory neurons within ganglia of the PNS. A) astrocytes B) microglia C) satellite cells D) Schwann cells Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

52) Most tumors in the brain originate from glial cells, but not neurons. What characteristic of glial cells make them the most likely source of tumors in the brain? A) Glial cells are able to divide, while neurons are not. B) Glial cells naturally release a tumor-promoting factor. C) Glial cells carry a neuronal signal, making them vulnerable to abnormal replication. D) Glial cells are easily damaged by the electrical signal carried on the neurons. Answer: A Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Which cells provide the myelin sheath for neurons in the CNS? A) Schwann cells B) astrocytes C) microglial cells D) oligodendrocyctes Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) Which cells provide the myelin sheath for neurons in the PNS? A) astrocytes B) microglial cells C) Schwann cells D) oligodendrocytes Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) Myelin on axons functions to A) make the axons live longer. B) store nutrients (fat) for use by the neurons. C) cover nodes of Ranvier. D) speed the rate of impulse conduction and insulate neighboring axons from one another. Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

56) A node of Ranvier (myelin sheath gap) A) occurs only in ganglia. B) is one segment of the myelin sheath. C) occurs in the PNS but not in the CNS. D) is a bare region of axonal membrane in myelinated axons only. Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) Nonmyelinated axons A) are thicker than myelinated axons. B) are not associated with any Schwann cells. C) conduct impulses more slowly than myelinated axons. D) occur in the PNS, but not in the CNS. Answer: C Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 58) The difference between myelinated and unmyelinated axons in the PNS is that A) Schwann cells are not associated with unmyelinated axons. B) Schwann cells form more widely spaced nodes of Ranvier in unmyelinated axons. C) Schwann cells simultaneously surround multiple axons in myelinated axons. D) Schwann cells wrap around myelinated axons in concentric layers. Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 59) The type of axon that conducts impulses most slowly is A) thick, myelinated. B) thick, unmyelinated. C) thin, myelinated. D) thin, unmyelinated. Answer: D Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

60) Gray matter in the CNS contains all of the following except A) neuron cell bodies. B) neuroglia. C) dendrites. D) fiber tracts. Answer: D Section: 12.3 Book LO: 12.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) In the spinal cord, the cell bodies of most interneurons lie in A) sensory ganglia. B) the PNS. C) the dorsal half of the gray matter. D) the ventral half of the white matter. Answer: C Section: 12.3 Book LO: 12.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) White matter represents A) aggregations of neuron cell bodies in the brain. B) aggregations of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord. C) myelinated axons traveling together in the CNS. D) dendrites traveling together in the ANS. Answer: C Section: 12.3 Book LO: 12.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) Which of the following most immediately encases the smallest component of a nerve? A) endoneurium B) epineurium C) fascicle D) perineurium Answer: A Section: 12.3 Book LO: 12.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

64) The covering of a fascicle within a nerve is the A) endoneurium. B) perineurium. C) ectoneurium. D) epineurium. Answer: B Section: 12.3 Book LO: 12.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) The entire nerve is surrounded by a tough fibrous sheath called the A) endoneurium. B) perineurium. C) ectoneurium. D) epineurium. Answer: D Section: 12.3 Book LO: 12.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) Which term is correctly matched with its definition? A) neuron — collection of axons in the PNS B) nerve fiber — a long axon C) nerve — a nerve cell D) neuron — a long axon Answer: B Section: 12.3 Book LO: 12.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) Interneurons A) carry incoming information from sensory receptors to the CNS. B) carry outgoing motor information to effectors in the PNS. C) sense information from the stimulus in the periphery D) take in sensory information, direct it to specific CNS locations, and initiate the appropriate response Answer: D Section: 12.4 Book LO: 12.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

68) Which of the following is the correct arrangement of a reflex arc? A) receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, effector B) integration center, receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, effector C) effector, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, receptor D) receptor, motor neuron, integration center, effector, sensory neuron Answer: A Section: 12.4 Book LO: 12.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) When the doctor uses a reflex hammer on your patellar ligament and you experience a "knee jerk" this is an example of a A) polysynaptic withdrawal reflex B) monosynaptic stretch reflex C) monosynaptic withdrawal reflex D) polysynaptic stretch reflex Answer: B Section: 12.4 Book LO: 12.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 70) A man walking barefoot stepped on a piece of glass. His foot jerked upward in which type of reflex? A) somatic, polysynaptic withdrawal reflex B) visceral, monosynaptic stretch reflex C) somatic, monosynaptic withdrawal reflex D) visceral, polysynaptic withdrawal reflex Answer: A Section: 12.4 Book LO: 12.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) A monosynaptic reflex arc is an example of A) a converging circuit. B) parallel processing. C) a reverberating circuit. D) serial processing. Answer: D Section: 12.4 Book LO: 12.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

72) An axon collateral from one neuron that circles back and synapses with a previous neuron describes A) a converging circuit. B) parallel processing. C) a reverberating circuit. D) serial processing. Answer: C Section: 12.4 Book LO: 12.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 73) In MS, the immune system attacks and breaks down the myelin sheath surrounding CNS axons. What could be a consequence of this? A) Conduction along the axon would be disrupted, interfering with the function of the neuron. B) Conduction would be faster along the neuron without the myelin. C) The neuron would not be able to generate a new action potential. D) There would be no consequence, as myelin is not important to the function of the neuron. Answer: A Section: 12.5 Book LO: 12.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 74) Regeneration of peripheral axons requires A) construction of a collateral that branches from the point of damage. B) deposition of neurofilaments to bridge the gap between the original axon fragments. C) formation of a tube by Schwann cells to guide growth. D) migration of neural stem cells from the hippocampus. Answer: C Section: 12.5 Book LO: 12.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) Motor neurons arise primarily from the A) alar plate. B) basal plate. C) ependyma. D) neural crest. Answer: B Section: 12.6 Book LO: 12.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

76) Sensory neurons arise primarily from the A) neural crest. B) alar plate. C) basal plate. D) neural tube. Answer: A Section: 12.6 Book LO: 12.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 77) During embryo development, neurons that make "bad" connections A) are inhibited by chemicals released from astrocytes. B) are turned off by inhibitory synapses in reverberating circuits. C) develop collaterals that seek out appropriate target cells. D) die by apoptosis. Answer: D Section: 12.6 Book LO: 12.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12.2 True/False Questions 1) The somatic motor subdivision of the peripheral nervous system is considered to be an involuntary nervous system. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.1 Book LO: 12.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Special somatic senses have receptors that are located mostly in the head, including hearing and balance and vision. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.1 Book LO: 12.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 3) General visceral sensory impulses include pain, temperature, nausea, and hunger. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.1 Book LO: 12.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

4) A neuron is a collection of nerve fibers in the PNS. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) All of the neuron's organelles are localized to the cell body. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Any long axon is called a nerve fiber. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Chromatophilic bodies are clusters of rough ER and free ribosomes that produce the large amount of proteins needed by a neuron. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Most neurons in the body are multipolar neurons. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Less than 15% of all neurons are interneurons. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

10) Microglia are ciliated to help circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Answer: FALSE Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells myelinate neurons within the peripheral nervous system. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.2 Book LO: 12.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) The supporting cells of the nervous system that surround and wrap neurons are derived from embryonic neuroepithelial cells from the ectoderm. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.6 Book LO: 12.6 & 12.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 13) The white matter is the site where neuron cell bodies are clustered. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.4 Book LO: 12.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) The PNS and CNS are structurally linked together within the gray matter of the CNS. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.4 Book LO: 12.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) In a converging circuit, one presynaptic neuron synapses with many other neurons. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.4 Book LO: 12.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

12.3 Short Answer Questions 1) ________ components of the PNS regulate contraction of smooth and cardiac muscle. Answer: Visceral motor 2) Cytoplasm, organelles, and neurotransmitters move through the cytoplasm of the axon by a mechanism called ________. Answer: axonal transport 3) Neurotransmitters are found packaged inside ________ in the axon terminal. Answer: synaptic vesicles 4) Nearly all somatic sensory neurons are of this type, based on the classification of the type and number of processes. Answer: pseudounipolar 5) Nearly all motor neurons are of this type, based on the classification of the type and number of processes. Answer: multipolar 6) These neurons reside only in the CNS and connect motor and sensory neurons. Answer: interneurons, or association neurons 7) ________ are the neuroglial cells with cilia. Answer: Ependymal cells 8) ________ form the myelin sheaths in the brain and spinal cord. Answer: Oligodendrocytes 9) The ________ matter of the spinal cord forms a butterfly-shaped structure. Answer: gray 10) White matter is white in color because of ________. Answer: myelinated axons 11) The simplest of all reflexes, involving just two neurons, is the ________ reflex. Answer: monosynaptic 12) A ________ circuit occurs when many neurons synapse onto one neuron. Answer: converging 13) ________ processing occurs when information from a single neuron is sent along two or more pathways traveling in the same direction. Answer: Parallel 14) ________ are chemicals that control the growth of newly forming neurons. Answer: Neurotrophins 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

15) ________ neurons develop from neural crest cells. Answer: Sensory 12.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the myelin sheath. Answer: Schwann cells in the PNS and oligodendrocytes in the CNS produce the myelin sheath. These cells wrap around the larger axons of the body. They function as an insulating layer that prevents the electrical current from diminishing in strength as it travels the length of the axon This results in extremely efficient transmission of neuronal impulses to the target tissue. 2) Name four characteristics that distinguish neuroglial cells from neurons. Answer: Glial cells are smaller, they have a very darkly staining nucleus, they can divide throughout life, and they greatly outnumber neurons. 3) Describe layers of myelin and connective tissue surrounding a nerve. Answer: The axon is myelinated by Schwann cells, with each individual axon covered with a loose connective tissue layer called the endoneurium. Groups of these axons are found in bundles, called fascicles, surrounded by the perineurium. These fascicles are held together by an outer fibrous connective tissue layer — the epineurium, which collectively is the nerve. Embedded in the connective tissue layers are blood vessels which provide oxygen and nutrients to all of the cells enclosed by the epineurium. 4) Distinguish monosynaptic reflexes from polysynaptic reflexes. Answer: Monosynaptic reflexes involve a single sensory neuron, with the cell body in the dorsal root ganglion and the axon forming a synapse with the motor neuron in the ventral horn of the gray matter of the spinal cord. The axon of the motor neuron (somatic or visceral) exits the gray matter and directs the motor impulse towards skeletal muscle or glandular tissue. Polysynaptic reflexes have more than one synapse and include interneurons, which may be localized to the same level of the spinal cord but most commonly involve multiple synapses, and neural connections may run to other levels of the spinal cord, as well as to the brain. 5) Distinguish between converging, diverging, and reverberating neuronal circuits. Identify the role of axon collaterals and terminal branches in these circuits. Answer: In converging circuits, a single neuron receives stimuli from multiple neurons. The target neuron must integrate the multiple incoming signals. In diverging circuits, a single neuron synapses with multiple target cells through many terminal branches of its axon. In reverberating circuits, a postsynaptic neuron will branch, and its axon collateral will synapse with one of its presynaptic neurons and alter the activity of that neuron.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 13 The Central Nervous System 13.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Which letter indicates the primary visual cortex, which receives information from neurons in the retina of the eye? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

2) Which letter indicates Broca's area, which controls the motor movements necessary for speaking? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which letter indicates Wernicke's area, which is important for understanding spoken words? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which letter indicates an area that is characterized by huge neurons known as pyramidal cells? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

5) Which letter indicates the primary somatosensory cortex? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 6) Which letter indicates the corpora quadrigemina, meaning "four bodies"? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

7) Which letter indicates the medulla oblongata, the functional neural connection between the pons and the spinal cord? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which letter indicates the region of the brain that has the greatest surface area due to the numerous surface convolutions? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which letter indicates a choroid plexus, which produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in all four ventricles of the brain? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

10) Which letter indicates the corpus callosum, which is an area of white matter where axons from one cerebral hemisphere cross the midline to the opposite hemisphere? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 11) Which letter indicates the falx cerebri? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

12) Which letter indicates the periosteal layer of the dura mater? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) Which letter indicates the superior sagittal sinus? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which letter indicates the meningeal layer of the dura mater? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The hindbrain of the embryo develops into the pons, the medulla oblongata, part of the spinal cord, and what other structure? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: C Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

16) The telencephalon develops into what adult brain structure? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) The diencephalon develops into the thalamus, the epithalamus, and what other structure? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) pons Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) During the human embryonic and fetal periods, the brain grows rapidly, especially the A) hypothalamus. B) cerebrum. C) cerebellum. D) thalamus. Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of these regions of the brain regulates body temperature, hunger, and thirst? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

20) Which of these regions of the brain, besides the cerebrum, has an outer cortical layer of gray matter? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: C Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which of these regions has two hemispheres connected by the corpus callosum? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which of these brain region's most superior aspect is found in close proximity to the fourth ventricle, and lies just posterior to the pons? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: C Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which of these regions of the brain has frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

24) The insula is considered to be part of the A) hypothalamus. B) cerebrum. C) cerebellum. D) thalamus. Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which of these regions of the brain contains the basal forebrain nuclei in the deep gray matter? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which of these regions is the largest part of the diencephalon and forms the upper and lateral walls of the third ventricle? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which of these regions functions to direct nearly all sensory input, except olfactory impulses, to the cerebral cortex? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

28) Which of these regions of the brain regulates hormonal secretions from the pituitary gland (hypophysis)? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which of these regions lies between the optic chiasma and the posterior border of the mammillary bodies? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 30) A "motor homunculus" can be visualized as an overlay on the precentral gyrus. The reason the facial region of this homunculus covers such a large surface area is that A) our ears are large for hearing. B) our eyes are large for seeing. C) we have very expressive faces. D) we have very sensitive lips. Answer: C Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) It is easy to confuse the terms sulcus and gyrus (on the cerebral cortex). The difference between these two terms is that A) a sulcus corresponds to a folia on the cerebellum, whereas a gyrus corresponds to a fissure. B) a sulcus is the same as a fissure on the cerebral cortex, whereas a gyrus is a lobe. C) a sulcus is a groove, and a gyrus is a deeper groove. D) a gyrus is a ridge, and a sulcus is a groove. Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

32) The axons in the inferior olivary nuclei relay sensory impulses for A) vision. B) proprioception. C) sound. D) smell. Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 33) The visual association area of the cerebral cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe. B) insula. C) parietal lobe. D) occipital lobe. Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) The fluid-filled ventricles within the cerebrum are similar in function to the ________ of the spinal cord. A) subarachnoid space B) central canal C) pia mater D) dura mater Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) The function of the blood-brain barrier is to A) keep neurons from innervating blood vessels. B) prevent all contact between bloodborne molecules and brain tissue. C) help protect the central nervous system. D) provide an impenetrable barrier between blood and brain, because the brain gets all its nourishment from the cerebrospinal fluid. Answer: C Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

36) Three "seeing/vision" nuclei that occupy the midbrain of humans are the A) red nucleus, substantia nigra, and cerebral peduncle. B) inferior colliculi, reticular formation, and periaqueductal gray. C) lateral geniculate, red nucleus, and visual association area. D) superior colliculi, motor nucleus for oculomotor nerve, and motor nucleus for trochlear nerve. Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 37) Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by choroid plexuses in all the following locations except the A) central canal. B) fourth ventricle. C) lateral ventricle. D) third ventricle. Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) Which of these lobes of the cerebrum lies anterior to the central sulcus? A) occipital lobe B) cerebellum C) temporal lobe D) frontal lobe Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) Which region of the cerebellum functionally sequences complex voluntary muscle contractions to adjust posture as body position changes? A) the deep cerebellar nuclei B) white matter C) the cortex D) the flocculonodular lobes Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

40) The second largest region of the brain is the A) cerebrum. B) brain stem. C) diencephalon. D) cerebellum. Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) The sheet of dura mater that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres is the A) falx cerebri. B) tentorium cerebri. C) falx cerebelli. D) superior sagittal sinus. Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.13 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) The calcarine sulcus contains which functional area? A) primary somatosensory B) auditory association C) frontal eye field D) primary visual Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 43) A lesion to the inferior olivary nucleus in the medulla would interfere with the function of which other structure(s)? A) spinal motor neurons B) the limbic system C) the reticular formation D) the cerebellum Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.6 & 13.7 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

44) Cerebrospinal fluid is located within the A) subarachnoid space. B) orbits. C) cerebral cortex. D) superior sagittal sinus. Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.14 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) The only one of the meninges that follows the brain surface into a cerebral sulcus is the A) dura mater. B) arachnoid mater. C) pia mater. D) alma mater. Answer: C Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.13 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) All of the following can lead to hydrocephalus except A) meningitis that scars the arachnoid mater. B) an overactive choroid plexus. C) blockage of the cerebral aqueduct by a small brain tumor. D) Alzheimer's disease. Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) Which areas of the brain are most likely to process and store motor skill memories? A) the ependymal cells and ventricles B) the amygdala and cingulate gyrus C) the thalamus and hypothalamus D) the premotor cortex, basal ganglia, and cerebellum Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.7 & 13.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

48) Which of the following grooves separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum? A) lateral sulcus B) central sulcus C) longitudinal fissure D) transverse cerebral fissure Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) After someone faints, smelling salts of ammonia may be placed under the person's nose. The person breathes the ammonia vapors, which deliver a sharp jolt to the nasal membranes, and the person wakes up. This illustrates A) how smells bring about emotions. B) the function of the hypothalamus in controlling sleep. C) the function of sensory input to the reticular activating system. D) how smells elicit memories of being awake, causing the person to awaken. Answer: C Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 50) Two parts of the brain that are most involved in emotions are the A) medulla and cerebellum. B) cingulate gyrus and hypothalamus. C) superior and inferior colliculi. D) red nucleus and substantia nigra. Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 & 13.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) A cerebrovascular accident patient who is unable to recognize faces and objects but can still visually perceive spatial arrangement of objects most likely has damage to A) the primary visual cortex. B) the occipital lobe. C) the posterior association area. D) the temporal lobe. Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

52) The main visceral control center of the brain is the A) cerebral cortex. B) thalamus. C) reticular formation. D) hypothalamus. Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Sleep-wake cycles are controlled by the pineal gland and the A) hypothalamus. B) medulla oblongata. C) thalamus. D) visual cortex. Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) If the most caudal part of the CNS is the conus medullaris, then the most rostral part is/are the A) prefrontal lobes. B) hypothalamus. C) precentral and postcentral gyri. D) cauda equina. Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) Which of the following is not part of the basal ganglia? A) putamen B) Wernicke's area C) globus pallidus D) caudate nucleus Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

56) Which of the following is not a midbrain structure? A) third ventricle B) cerebral peduncles C) corpora quadrigemina D) red nucleus Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) The brain stem consists of the A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla. B) midbrain, medulla, and pons. C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain. D) midbrain only. Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) Neural centers that control heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the A) thalamus. B) medulla. C) midbrain. D) cerebrum. Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) A shallow groove on the surface of the cerebral cortex is called a A) sulcus. B) fissure. C) gyrus. D) furrow. Answer: A Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

60) All of the following are structures of the limbic system except the A) hippocampus. B) cingulate gyrus. C) amygdaloid nucleus. D) caudate nucleus. Answer: D Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) Which of these is NOT a function of the brainstem? A) passageway for all fiber tracts between spinal cord and cerebrum B) innervation of face and head via cranial nerves C) retention of learned motor skills D) control of programmed, automatic survival responses Answer: C Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 62) Which of the following is NOT a function of nuclei within the reticular formation? A) adjust respiratory and cardiovascular functions B) consolidate and store memories C) coordinate cranial nerve reflexes D) maintain consciousness and alertness Answer: B Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 63) The cell bodies located in the most anterior region of the spinal cord's gray matter belong to this group. A) somatic motor B) somatic sensory C) visceral motor D) visceral sensory Answer: A Section: 13.2 Book LO: 13.17 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

64) At what vertebral level does the spinal cord terminate (inferiorly) in the average adult? A) S5 B) between L1 and L2 C) between L5 and S1 D) C3 Answer: B Section: 13.2 Book LO: 13.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) The cell bodies located in the most posterior region of the spinal cord's gray matter belong to this group. A) somatic motor B) somatic sensory C) visceral motor D) visceral sensory Answer: B Section: 13.2 Book LO: 13.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) Which of the following is a descending motor spinal tract? A) dorsal column pathway B) pyramidal pathway C) spinocerebellar pathway D) spinothalamic pathway Answer: B Section: 13.3 Book LO: 13.18 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in A) the dorsal root ganglia external to the spinal cord. B) the posterior gray horn of the spinal cord. C) the thalamus. D) nuclei of the cranial nerves. Answer: A Section: 13.2 Book LO: 13.17 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

68) Posterior gray horns of the spinal cord consist of A) cell bodies of interneurons. B) dorsal roots. C) sensory ganglia. D) motor neurons. Answer: A Section: 13.2 Book LO: 13.17 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) The cauda equina A) consists of hair like the tail of a horse. B) describes the radiating patterns of projection fibers. C) is a series of nerve roots in the lumbar and sacral region. D) is confined to the thoracic and cervical segments of the spinal cord. Answer: C Section: 13.2 Book LO: 13.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 70) Of the following locations in the spinal cord, the one most likely to result in paralysis if it were damaged would be the A) spinothalamic pathway. B) ventral horn. C) spinocerebellar pathway. D) central canal. Answer: B Section: 13.2 Book LO: 13.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) What types of sensory information are conveyed toward the brain in the lateral spinothalamic tracts? A) discriminative touch B) equilibrium C) pain and temperature D) visual senses Answer: C Section: 13.3 Book LO: 13.18 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

72) Which of these is not among the mechanisms by which a TBI (traumatic brain injury) can damage neural tissue? A) bruising B) bleeding C) agnosia D) tearing of axons Answer: C Section: 13.4 Book LO: 13.20 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 73) Which of the following is associated with Alzheimer's disease? A) accumulation of protein plaques around neurons B) cerebral ischemia C) deterioration of the substantia nigra of the midbrain D) inadequate vitamin B Answer: A Section: 13.5 Book LO: 13.21 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13.2 True/False Questions 1) The hypothalamus, in addition to the cerebral cortex, is in control of emotional responses. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) The pituitary gland (hypophysis) is connected to the hypothalamus and receives regulatory impulses that control the secretion of hormones. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) The ventral portion of the cerebral peduncles connects the midbrain to the cerebellum and contains the pyramidal (corticospinal) motor tracts descending to the spinal cord. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

4) The vasomotor center of the medulla regulates blood pressure. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) In the olivary nuclei in the medulla, mostly proprioceptive sensory impulses are relayed to the cerebellum. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) The medullary respiratory center controls the rhythm and rate of breathing. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) The term caudal indicates a more anterior location. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) The cerebellum has an outer cortex of gray matter, internal white matter, and areas of gray matter embedded in the white matter. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Cerebrospinal fluid passes through choroidal villi to enter the superior sagittal sinus. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

10) The reticular activating system (RAS) contains structures that regulate and cause emotional responses. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) The amygdala is part of the limbic system and has neurons that process the emotions and reactions to fear. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) The limbic system has neural ties to the autonomic nervous system, the hypothalamus, and the reticular formation. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The meninges of the brain differ from those of the spinal cord in that the dura mater of the brain splits into two layers and that there is no epidural space. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) The surface of the cerebellum is folded into ridges called folia. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.1 Book LO: 13.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Damage to the ventral root causes spastic paralysis, whereas damage to the descending tracts causes flaccid paralysis. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.2 Book LO: 13.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

16) The white matter of the spinal cord contains ascending and descending pathways known as tracts. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.3 Book LO: 13.18 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13.3 Short Answer Questions 1) This is a term for neural pathways crossing from one side of the CNS to the other. Answer: decussation 2) The white matter on both sides of the spinal cord is divided into three white columns, also known as ________. Answer: funiculi (singular: funiculus) 3) This ascending pathway of the spinal cord carries neural impulses generated from sensory receptors sensitive to fine touch, pressure, and some parts of proprioception. Answer: dorsal column pathway 4) What is another term for the descending pyramidal tracts that relay motor impulses from the brain and down the spinal cord? Answer: corticospinal tracts 5) The internal white matter of the cerebellum is called the ________, or "tree of life." Answer: arbor vitae 6) Cerebrovascular accident is a long name for what type of brain injury? Answer: stroke 7) The pineal gland secretes the hormone ________, which signals the body to prepare for sleep. Answer: melatonin 8) This type of spinal cord damage is due to severe damage to the anterior horn or ventral motor roots. Answer: flaccid paralysis 9) The most common form of spina bifida is ________. Answer: spina bifida cystica 10) ________ is a common CNS-related congenital condition in which the affected person has difficulty throughout life controlling voluntary muscles and which may be due to infection of the placenta. Answer: Cerebral palsy

11) Hyperactivity in the amygdala and dysfunction in the limbic association area and the hippocampus are involved in the extreme response to triggered memory experienced by individuals suffering from ________. Answer: post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) 12) The ________ can be thought of as the "gateway" to the cerebral cortex. Answer: thalamus 13) Long-term storage of memories involves the ________ of the limbic system. Answer: hippocampal formation (hippocampus) 14) The massive development of the ________ distinguishes the human brain from many other vertebrate species. Answer: cerebrum 15) There are three types of white matter in the cerebrum. These include the association fibers, projection fibers, and ________. Answer: commisural fibers 13.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the difference between the primary sensory areas of the cerebrum and their corresponding association areas. Answer: The primary sensory regions of the cerebral cortex receive impulses initiated from peripheral sensory receptors. For example, the primary auditory area receive impulses from the cochlea that convey the pitch and loudness of a sound. The auditory association areas allow multiple neuronal circuits to compare and integrate incoming impulses. Simultaneously, previously inactive neural circuits are re-activated resulting in coordination of memory, interpretation and execution of cognitive or motor action plans. In this example, would allow one to give meaning to words spoken by another. 2) Briefly describe the three types of cerebral white matter and their functions. Answer: Commissures connect corresponding gray areas of the right and left hemispheres, association fibers connect neuron to neuron in the same hemisphere, and projection fibers connect the cerebrum to distal/caudal regions of the brain and spinal cord and vice versa. 3) Describe the structure and functions of the thalamus. Answer: The thalamus makes up most of the diencelphalon and encloses much of the third ventricle. The right and left half are connected by the interthalamic adhesion. Overall, the thalamus processes and relays impulses to and from the cerebral cortex. There are about 12 different major nuclei, and their functions vary. Some are relay nuclei for sensory impulses to the rest of the brain; these include nuclei that receive and pass on impulses from the retina of the eye and the cochlea of the inner ear. All sensory impulses that are relayed to the cerebrum are routed through the thalamus; thus, the thalamus is a "relay center." It can also be thought of as a sensory impulse filter, because it may amplify or diminish the "strength"/frequency of the original impulse. 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

4) Briefly identify the role of the following structures in controlling voluntary skeletal movement: cerebellum, primary motor cortex, premotor cortex, pyramidal tracts, inferior olivary nucleus, and cerebral and cerebellar peduncles. Answer: The premotor cortex and primary motor cortex of the frontal lobe of the cerebrum sequence and coordinate voluntary contraction of skeletal muscles. Pyramidal neurons of the cortex relay impulses to specific muscle groups. These pyramidal tracts (axons) descend through the brain stem and continue down the spinal cord. However, in the midbrain, these tracts will pass through the cerebral peduncles, which will simultaneously relay descending impulses to the cerebellum. Then the superior cerebellar peduncles will direct impulses in the reverse direction, back toward the pre-motor cortex of the cerebrum. At the same time the cerebellum also receives proprioceptive sensory information via the inferior olivary nucleus of the medulla, and it compares actual body movements to the intended movement generated by the cerebrum. The cerebellum is responsible for constantly refining the actual movement to achieve the intended movement. 5) Describe the three meninges of the brain. Answer: The dura mater is the outer membrane and is extremely thick and inelastic. It is composed of two layers around the brain. The outermost layer, the periosteal layer, is continuous with the periosteum of the skull bones. The innermost layer of the dura mater is the meningeal layer. The dura mater has three distinct regions the falx cerebri, the falx cerebelli, and the tentorium cerebelli. The middlemost meninx is the arachnoid mater. Supporting trabeculae from the arachnoid layer raise this membrane above the innermost layer—the pia mater. In the space between these two deeper meninges, the subarachnoid space, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) circulates. The most delicate membrane is the pia mater, which adheres tightly to the cortical surface of the brain, covering every sulcus and gyrus. This inner meninx also carries microscopic blood vessels.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 14 The Peripheral Nervous System 14.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is true regarding the peripheral nervous system? A) It only involves efferent, motor neurons. B) It only involves somatic neurons. C) It includes the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. D) It includes neurons carrying the sense of touch but not special senses, such as taste or vision. Answer: C Section: 14.1 Book LO: 14.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following subcategories of the peripheral nervous system is correctly matched with its description? A) somatic sensory — innervation to skeletal muscles B) visceral sensory — includes the sense of touch and proprioception C) somatic motor — awareness of nausea, hunger, and chemical changes in the body D) autonomic (visceral motor) — innervation of smooth and cardiac muscle Answer: D Section: 14.1 Book LO: 14.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Motor neurons to skeletal muscle belong to the ________ division of the peripheral nervous system. A) somatic B) autonomic C) afferent D) visceral Answer: A Section: 14.1 Book LO: 14.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4) Structures that pick up environmental changes from inside or outside of the body are called A) sensory receptors B) nerves C) ganglia D) motor endings Answer: A Section: 14.1 Book LO: 14.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Ganglia A) sense information and initiate impulses in sensory neurons. B) are bundles of peripheral axons. C) are clusters of peripheral cells. D) are terminal boutons of motor neurons. Answer: C Section: 14.1 Book LO: 14.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 6) Which letter indicates a tactile corpuscle (Meissner's corpuscle) that is responsive to light pressure? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

7) Which letter indicates a lamellar corpuscle (Pacinian corpuscle) that rapidly adapts to deep pressure stimuli? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which letter indicates receptors that respond chiefly to pain and temperature? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which letter indicates a bulbous corpuscle (Ruffini ending) that slowly adapts to deep pressure stimuli? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

10) Which letter indicates epithelial tactile complexes (Merkel discs), light pressure receptors found in the epidermis? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) A receptor that monitors stretch of the patellar tendon can be classified as a A) mechanoreceptor and interoceptor. B) mechanoreceptor and proprioceptor. C) nociceptor and exteroceptor. D) baroreceptor and proprioceptor. Answer: B Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 12) A receptor that monitors stretch of the stomach can be classified as a A) mechanoreceptor and interoceptor. B) mechanoreceptor and proprioceptor. C) nociceptor and exteroceptor. D) baroreceptor and proprioceptor. Answer: A Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 13) Tactile corpuscles (Meissner's corpuscles) A) occur in hairy skin. B) occur in dermal papillae. C) are nociceptors. D) are free unencapsulated dendritic endings. Answer: B Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

14) An example of an encapsulated receptor is A) a hair follicle receptor. B) a tendon organ. C) a tactile epithelial cell (Merkel disc). D) a lamellar corpuscle (Pacinian corpuscle). Answer: D Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Which of these receptors would not be found within a synovial joint capsule? A) free nerve endings B) tactile corpuscles (Meissner's corpuscles) C) lamellar corpuscles (Pacinian corpuscles) D) bulbous corpuscles (Ruffini endings) Answer: B Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 16) Extrafusal muscle fibers that surround a muscle spindle and resist excessive muscle stretching are innervated by A) primary sensory endings. B) secondary sensory endings. C) α efferent neurons. D) γ efferent neurons. Answer: C Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 17) Which letter indicates the cranial nerve with nerve fibers that pass through the hypoglossal canal? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which letter indicates the cranial nerve that has three major branches? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

19) Which letter indicates the cranial nerve that transmits olfactory impulses? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which letter indicates the structure where cranial nerve fibers from the retina cross to the opposite side of the brain? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which letter indicates the cranial nerve that has motor fibers that innervate muscles of facial expression? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

22) Sensory fibers of which cranial nerve pair pass through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone? A) I B) II C) IV D) V E) VIII Answer: A Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Damage to which cranial nerve pair may result in anosmia, or a partial or total loss of the sense of smell? A) I B) II C) IV D) V E) VIII Answer: A Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) All of the following are mixed cranial nerves, which contain both motor and sensory fibers, except the A) facial. B) optic. C) trigeminal. D) vagus. Answer: B Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

25) Which cranial nerve pair is characterized by somatic sensory fibers crossing at the ventral midline of the brain? A) I B) II C) IV D) V E) VIII Answer: B Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Of the cranial nerve pairs listed below, which nerve, along with XI and XII, relays only somatic motor impulses? A) I B) II C) IV D) V E) VIII Answer: C Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 27) Which of these cranial nerve pairs do not pass through the superior orbital fissure? A) abducens B) oculomotor C) optic D) trochlear Answer: C Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

28) Which of the cranial nerves listed below provides innervation to one of the extrinsic eye muscles? A) trigeminal B) trochlear C) optic D) facial Answer: B Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 29) To avoid double vision, which of the following groups of cranial nerves must be functioning correctly? A) I, IX, and X B) VII, VIII, and XII C) V, XI, and XII D) III, IV, and VI Answer: D Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 30) The abducens nerve (CN VI) A) innervates the lateral rectus muscle of the eye. B) relays sensory information from the taste buds on the tongue. C) exits from the medulla. D) if paralyzed, results in Bell's palsy. Answer: A Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) The trigeminal nerve contains which class(es) of nerve fibers? A) somatic sensory only B) somatic motor and general somatic sensory C) somatic sensory, visceral sensory, and visceral motor D) somatic motor only Answer: B Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

32) Which cranial nerve pair has three major branches, the maxillary, mandibular, and ophthalmic divisions? A) IV B) V C) VIII D) XI E) XII Answer: B Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which of the cranial nerve listed below is the largest in diameter? A) IV B) V C) VIII D) XI E) XII Answer: B Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which foramen does not include a branch of the trigeminal nerve? A) mandibular B) ovale C) rotundum D) spinosum Answer: D Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 35) A person who cannot blink or smile could have damage to which cranial nerve? A) I B) III C) V D) VII Answer: D Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

36) Which cranial nerve, along with cranial nerve pair II, relays special somatic sensory impulses? A) I B) II C) IV D) VII E) VIII Answer: E Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which of the cranial nerves listed below is a special somatic sensory nerve? A) facial B) vestibulocochlear C) accessory D) trochlear Answer: B Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) Which cranial nerve pair has two sensory branches which both pass through the internal acoustic meatus? A) I B) II C) IV D) V E) VIII Answer: E Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

39) Damage to which cranial nerve pair can cause deafness and problems with equilibrium? A) IV B) V C) VIII D) XI E) XII Answer: C Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) Which cranial nerves have fibers that relay somatic motor impulses to pharyngeal muscles during swallowing? A) I and II B) V and XII C) VI and VII D) IX and X Answer: D Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) The only cranial nerve that travels into the abdomen is the A) vagus. B) hypoglossal. C) glossopharyngeal. D) vestibulocochlear. Answer: A Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) The spinal root of which cranial nerve pair innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles? A) IV B) V C) VIII D) XI E) XII Answer: D Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

43) Which cranial nerve pair along with the vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves, exits through the jugular foramen? A) IV B) V C) VIII D) XI E) XII Answer: D Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 44) What is the only cranial nerve that has fibers that enter and leave the skull through different foramina? (Hint: It enters through the foramen magnum and leaves through the jugular foramen.) A) VI B) XII C) XI D) I Answer: C Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) Which cranial nerve pair is comprised of ventral rootlets from C1-C5? A) abducens B) accessory C) glossopharyngeal D) hypoglossal Answer: B Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

46) Which cranial nerve, similar to cranial nerve II, runs through a canal with the same name? A) IV B) V C) VIII D) XI E) XII Answer: E Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) Damage to which cranial nerve pair can cause difficulties in speech and swallowing? A) IV B) VI C) VIII D) XI E) XII Answer: E Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 48) The cranial nerves innervate the tongue (sensory or motor) include all of the following except the A) trigeminal. B) facial. C) glossopharyngeal. D) accessory. Answer: D Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 49) Sensory impulses from the skin would be transmitted into the spinal cord on the A) ventral root. B) dorsal root. C) sympathetic nerve pathway. D) pathway of parasympathetic neurons. Answer: B Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

50) If one likens a spinal nerve to the trunk of a tree, then the two roots of this tree are the dorsal and ventral roots. What would represent the two large branches of this tree? In other words, moving away from the spinal cord, the spinal nerve branches into the A) rami communicantes. B) dorsal and ventral root ganglia. C) ventral and dorsal rami. D) the brachial plexus. Answer: C Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) Spinal nerves are A) present in 31 pairs. B) located exclusively in the vertebral canal. C) present only in the thoracic region where plexuses are absent. D) purely sensory nerves. Answer: A Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) Which of these statements about intercostal nerves is true? A) They are part of a nerve plexus. B) They innervate only the intercostal muscles. C) They are the ventral rami of T1-T11 spinal nerves and lie just inferior to ribs 1-11. D) They consist of 9 pairs. Answer: C Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Contraction rate of the diaphragm is controlled by which nerve? A) phrenic B) vagus C) trigeminal D) trochlear Answer: A Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

54) The phrenic nerve receives fibers from A) C3-C5. B) T1-T7. C) CN X. D) CN XI. Answer: A Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) Which of the following correctly matches the nerve of the cervical plexus with its function? A) lesser occipital — innervates the skin of the shoulder and clavicular region B) ansa cervicalis — innervates the infrahyoid muscles of the neck C) greater auricular — innervates the skin of the posterolateral neck D) supraclavicular — innervates the deep muscles of the neck Answer: B Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) The major nerve plexus to the upper limbs is the A) brachial plexus. B) sacral plexus. C) cervical plexus. D) lumbar plexus. Answer: A Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) Starting at the spinal cord and proceeding distally, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are A) rami, trunks, divisions, cords. B) rami, divisions, cords, trunks. C) divisions, rami, trunks, cords. D) trunks, divisions, cords, rami. Answer: A Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

58) The lateral cord of the brachial plexus forms directly from A) the upper, middle, and lower trunks. B) the posterior divisions of the middle and lower trunks. C) the anterior divisions of the upper and middle trunks. D) roots C7-T1. Answer: C Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) Which of these nerves does not arise primarily from the brachial plexus? A) median B) phrenic C) radial D) ulnar Answer: B Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) The muscles that initiate flexion at the elbow joint (biceps brachii and brachialis) are innervated by what nerve from the lateral cord? A) radial B) median C) ulnar D) musculocutaneous Answer: D Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) The nerve that forms from fibers of both the medial and lateral cords of the brachial plexus is the A) median. B) axillary. C) ulnar. D) musculocutaneous. Answer: A Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

62) An injury to the ulnar nerve causes A) weakness in hand movement and a lack of sensation long the medial aspect of the hand. B) significant weakness with wrist flexion and movement of the thumb. C) a lack of sensation along the lateral aspect of the forearm. D) weakness with extension of the forearm and arm. Answer: A Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) Which spinal nerve relays motor impulses to the muscles of the posterior forearm? A) ulnar B) median C) axillary D) radial Answer: D Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) Which of these nerves arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus? A) median B) musculocutaneous C) radial D) ulnar Answer: C Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) A lesion/injury to the radial nerve causes A) footdrop, or an inability to dorsiflex the foot B) claw hand, or flexion of the fingers due to lack of innervation of the interossei muscles. C) an inability to flex the wrist. D) wrist-drop, or an inability to extend the wrist. Answer: D Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

66) Spinal nerves found at the level of L4 to about S4 form the A) lumbar plexus. B) femoral plexus. C) sacral plexus. D) thoracic plexus. Answer: C Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) The tibial and common fibular nerves branch from the ________ nerve. A) sciatic B) pudendal C) axillary D) femoral Answer: A Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 68) The gastrocnemius muscle is innervated by the ________ nerve. A) obturator B) common peroneal C) tibial D) femoral Answer: C Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) A lesion to the common fibular nerve causes A) footdrop, or the inability to dorsiflex the foot B) paralysis of the peroneal muscles. C) an inability to flex the great toe. D) an inability to plantarflex the foot. Answer: A Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

70) Anesthetic injection to which nerve may block pain in the perineum during childbirth? A) sciatic B) femoral C) pudendal D) obturator Answer: C Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) Which of the following regions is not innervated by nerves of the sacral plexus (L4 - S4)? A) posterior thigh B) medial thigh muscles C) foot D) external genitalia Answer: B Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 72) The primary nerve to muscles of the anterior thigh is the A) sciatic. B) obturator. C) sural. D) femoral. Answer: D Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 73) Hiltons law states that a joint is innervated by A) any nerve that innervates the muscles that move it or skin over it. B) a branch of the spinal nerve that travels directly to the joint. C) no nerves, as joints aren't innervated. D) branches of efferent nerves only. Answer: A Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

74) A dermatome is A) the muscles innervated by a single spinal nerve. B) the region of skin innervated by a single terminal branch of the brachial plexus. C) all organs innervated by a single spinal nerve. D) the region of skin innervated by a single spinal nerve. Answer: D Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) What specific dermatome lies at the level of the navel? A) C2 B) S4 C) T10 D) T1 Answer: C Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 76) In shingles, the virus lies within the cell bodies of a dorsal root (sensory) ganglion. When the virus is active, it causes painful blisters along a strip of skin on the trunk. Knowing your anatomy, why does it only affect a thin strip of skin? A) The virus follows the dermatome associated with the spinal nerve connected to the affected dorsal root ganglion. B) The virus only affects the skin of the back near the affected dorsal root ganglion. C) The virus follows the lines of cleavage of the skin. D) The virus only travels vertically along the trunk due to gravity. Answer: A Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.9 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 77) The peripheral nerves reach the organs or structures that they innervate during week ________ of development. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 8 Answer: C Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

14.2 True/False Questions 1) When you contract your Biceps brachii muscle, you are utilizing the somatic sensory portion of the nervous system. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.1 Book LO: 14.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions are part of the somatic motor nervous division. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.1 Book LO: 14.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) All of the special senses, taste, smell, vision, hearing, and equilibrium, are part of the afferent division of the peripheral nervous system. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.1 Book LO: 14.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Exteroceptors process information from visceral organs. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) All of the following are exteroceptors: tactile corpuscles, lamellar corpuscles, and tactile epithelial cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

6) Of the exteroceptors, only tactile corpuscles, lamellar corpuscles, and bulbous corpuscles are encapsulated. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) An interoceptor receives information from receptors in the skin, such as temperature, pressure, and pain. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) The primary proprioceptors are muscle spindles, tendon organs, and joint kinesthetic receptors. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.2 Book LO: 14.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) The accessory nerve (cranial nerve CN XI) contains fibers that assist the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). Answer: FALSE Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) The vagus nerve (CN X) is the only cranial nerve pair found inferior to the diaphragm. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.3 Book LO: 14.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) A nerve plexus is formed by interconnected dorsal and ventral rami of spinal nerves. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

12) The ulnar nerve innervates most of the muscles of the anterior forearm. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the skin of the medial aspect of the arm and forearm. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) The largest branch of the sacral plexus is the sciatic nerve. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15) A dermatome is an area of skin that is innervated by the cutaneous branches from one spinal nerve pair. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.4 Book LO: 14.8 Global LO: G21 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) Peripheral neuropathies that affect only one nerve are called mononeuropathies. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.5 Book LO: 14.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) Even though muscles and skin may move a long distance in development, they always keep their original nerve supply. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.6 Book LO: 14.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

14.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The portion of the nervous system that does not include the brain and spinal cord is the ________ nervous system. Answer: peripheral 2) This term refers to clusters of peripheral cell bodies outside the CNS. Answer: ganglia 3) The capsules of tactile and lamellar corpuscles consist of layer(s) of ________ wrapped by connective tissue. Answer: Schwann cells 4) This category of receptors elicit a response of "Ouch!" Answer: nociceptors 5) These sensory receptors are found not only on your tongue and nose, but also internally so your body can respond to changes in blood chemistry. Answer: chemoreceptors 6) The ________ and optic nerves are the only cranial nerves that do not have nuclei within the brain. Answer: olfactory 7) Damage to this nerve may cause difficulties in swallowing, decrease in saliva production and some difficulties in tasting, in particular sour and bitter substances. Answer: glossopharyngeal 8) Damage to this nerve would lead to significant difficulty with breathing. Answer: phrenic 9) Ventral rami from all spinal nerves except numbers ________ contribute to nerve plexuses. Answer: T2-T12 10) The cervical plexus is found deep in the neck region covered by what superficial muscle? Answer: sternocleidomastoid 11) Nerves from the ________ cords of the brachial plexus innervate the anterior flexor muscles of the upper limb. Answer: lateral and medial 12) A nerve from the ________ cord of the brachial plexus innervates the posterior extensor muscles of the upper limb. Answer: posterior 13) Damage to this nerve would cause a person to have difficulty flexing their wrist and fingers. Answer: median nerve 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

14) The obturator nerve is part of which nerve plexus? Answer: lumbar 15) The spinal nerves begin to develop during the ________ week of development. Answer: fourth 14.4 Essay Questions 1) List and describe the four types of joint kinesthetic receptors. Answer: Lamellar corpuscles (Pacinian corpuscles ) are stretch receptors measuring acceleration and rapid movement of the joints. Bulbous corpuscles (Ruffini endings) are slower-adapting stretch receptors than the lamellar corpuscles. They measure the positions of nonmoving joints and the stretch of joints that undergo slow sustained movements. Free nerve endings are pain receptors. Receptor tendon organs are also found, but their function is not known. 2) Describe the action and innervation of the six extrinsic muscles/ extraocular muscles of the eyeball. Answer: (1) The medial rectus muscle, (2) superior rectus, (3) inferior oblique muscle, and (4) inferior rectus are all innervated by cranial nerve pair III—the oculomotor nerves. The muscles with the name rectus move the eye in that same direction. For example, the superior rectus muscle moves the eyeball superiorly. The inferior oblique moves the eye up and out or superolaterally, (5) the superior oblique muscle is innervated by the trochlear muscle and acts to move the eye down and out or inferolaterally, and (6) the lateral rectus abducts/moves the eye laterally and is innervated by the abducens nerve. 3) Name the three divisions of the trigeminal nerve and the foramina through which they run. Answer: (1) The ophthalmic division runs from the forehead and upper eyelid to the pons via superior orbital fissures and the supraorbital foramina; (2) the maxillary division runs from the skin, gums and lips superficial to the maxilla to the pons via the foramen rotundum and the infraorbital foramina; and (3) the mandibular division passes through the foramen ovale, the mandibular foramen, and the mental foramen. 4) Distinguish the trunks, roots, and divisions of the brachial plexus, and identify their relationship to the flexor and extensor muscle groups of the upper limb. Answer: S some ventral rami of spinal nerves C5-T1 combine, resulting in three trunks: upper, middle, and lower. Each of these trunks branches into an anterior and posterior division. The divisions recombine to form cords, from which the terminal branches arise. The nerves that innervate the flexor muscles of the upper limb (median, musculocutaneous, ulnar) arise from the anterior divisions, whereas those that innervate the extensor muscles (radial) arise from the posterior division.

5) Describe the ventral rami, the terminal branches and the pathway of the sciatic nerve. Answer: The sciatic nerve is the largest branch of the sacral plexus, and it is the largest and longest nerve in the body. It is comprised of ventral rami from L4 to S3. It innervates nearly all of the lower limb except the anterior and medial regions of the thigh. This nerve is actually two nerves (tibial and common fibular nerves) in a common sheath. It passes through the greater sciatic notch, then moves deep to the gluteal muscles before descending into the posterior compartment of the thigh. The upper fibers innervate the hamstring muscles. Just superior to the popliteal fossa it branches into the tibial and common fibular nerve. The tibial nerve provides innervation to the posterior calf muscles—plantar flexors and flexors of the toes. The common fibular nerve innervates muscles of the anterolateral leg, providing dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot and extension of the toes.

Human Anatomy, 9e Marieb Test Bank Chapter 15 The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral Sensory Neurons 15.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Which letter indicates the celiac ganglion and plexus? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

2) Which letter indicates the aortic plexus? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which letter indicates the left vagus nerve? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which letter indicates the cardiac plexus? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which letter indicates the pelvic sympathetic trunk? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G1 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which of these is not innervated by the ANS? A) cardiac muscle B) smooth muscle C) skeletal muscle D) glands Answer: C Section: 15.1 Book LO: 15.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Another name for the ANS is the A) general visceral motor system. B) general somatic motor system. C) branchial motor system. D) general peripheral nervous system. Answer: A Section: 15.1 Book LO: 15.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which of these characteristics definitively distinguishes the autonomic nervous system from the somatic motor system? A) cell bodies outside the CNS B) cell bodies within the CNS C) cholinergic fibers D) myelinated axons Answer: A Section: 15.1 Book LO: 15.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which of these is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation? A) production of goose bumps B) constriction of the pupils C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera D) contraction of the bladder wall in urination Answer: A Section: 15.1 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

10) The trunk ganglia contain what kind of cell bodies? A) preganglionic parasympathetic B) postganglionic parasympathetic C) preganglionic sympathetic D) postganglionic sympathetic Answer: D Section: 15.1 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Cell bodies of the preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located within the A) dorsal root ganglia. B) intramural ganglia. C) lateral gray horns of the spinal cord. D) sympathetic trunk. Answer: C Section: 15.1 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which autonomic division increases heart rate? A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) cranial Answer: A Section: 15.1 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) In which autonomic division do nerve cell bodies lie closest to the organs being innervated? A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) visceral sensory D) somatic motor Answer: B Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

14) Postganglionic neurons in the pterygopalatine ganglion A) are very active when you cry. B) are adrenergic. C) run from the head to the abdomen. D) are primarily sympathetic fibers. Answer: A Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15) The preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system originate in the A) thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord. B) higher brain centers. C) chain and prevertebral ganglia. D) brain stem and the sacral region of the spinal cord. Answer: D Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) Which of these is not a characteristic of the parasympathetic division? A) branched fibers B) cholinergic fibers C) intramural ganglia D) myelinated fibers Answer: A Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) The ________ division of the ANS is responsible for the fight-or-flight response. A) parasympathetic B) sympathetic C) autonomic D) somatic Answer: B Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

18) The ________ division of the ANS is most active during vigorous exercise. A) parasympathetic B) sympathetic C) autonomic D) somatic Answer: B Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) Division of the ANS most active when the body is at rest describes the A) parasympathetic division. B) sympathetic division. C) autonomic nervous system. Answer: A Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) This division can also be called the craniosacral division. A) parasympathetic division B) sympathetic division C) autonomic nervous system Answer: A Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) Division that is dominant during rest, digestion, and excretion. A) parasympathetic B) enteric C) hypogastric D) sympathetic E) cholinergic Answer: A Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

22) All of the following, except for the ________, have only sympathetic innervation. A) blood vessels. B) sweat glands. C) arrector pili. D) salivary glands. Answer: D Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) The ________ nerve provides the main parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lungs, and abdominal viscera. A) trigeminal B) celiac C) vagus D) phrenic Answer: C Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which of the following cranial nerves does not supply parasympathetic fibers to the head? A) oculomotor B) facial C) vagus D) glossopharyngeal Answer: C Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) A descriptive term that identifies the type of neurotransmitter released by sympathetic postganglionic fibers. A) postganglionic neuron B) adrenergic C) medulla D) cholinergic E) cortical Answer: B Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

26) Two of the named parasympathetic ganglia are the A) celiac and superior mesenteric. B) inferior and superior hypogastric. C) ciliary and pterygopalatine. D) chain and prevertebral. Answer: C Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) Parasympathetic postganglionic fibers of the head travel within the A) accessory nerve. B) facial nerve. C) trigeminal nerve. D) vestibulocochlear nerve. Answer: C Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 28) Parasympathetic ganglia that are located within the walls of the innervated organs are called A) collateral ganglia. B) dorsal root ganglia. C) intramural ganglia. D) paravertebral ganglia. Answer: C Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 29) Cranial parasympathetic outflow is contained in all of the following cranial nerves except the A) accessory. B) facial. C) glossopharyngeal. D) vagus. Answer: A Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

30) Sacral nerves carrying parasympathetic innervation to the pelvic organs are called A) pelvic splanchnic nerves. B) sacral splanchnic nerves. C) thoracic splanchnic nerves. D) vagus nerve. E) enteric nervous system. Answer: A Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 31) All of the following plexuses contain fibers from the vagus nerve except the A) otic. B) esophageal. C) celiac. D) superior mesenteric. Answer: A Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 32) Over 90% of all preganglionic parasympathetic fibers are in cranial nerve A) III. B) V. C) VII. D) X. Answer: D Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) The parasympathetic nervous system is characterized by A) peripheral ganglia near the organs, and short postganglionic fibers. B) peripheral ganglia near the organs, and long postganglionic fibers. C) peripheral ganglia near the spinal cord, and short postganglionic fibers. D) peripheral ganglia near the spinal cord, and long postganglionic fibers. Answer: A Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

34) Which division of the autonomic nervous system has preganglionic fibers within the facial nerve? A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) CNS Answer: B Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Parasympathetic impulses to the stomach pass through the A) celiac plexus. B) esophageal plexus. C) inferior hypogastric plexus. D) superior mesenteric plexus. Answer: B Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) A class of preganglionic fibers present in both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. A) celiac B) adrenergic C) medullary D) cholinergic E) cortical Answer: D Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) What is the effect of parasympathetic stimulation of respiratory bronchioles in the lungs? A) constriction B) dilation C) decreased secretion of mucus D) no effect Answer: A Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

38) Focusing the eye on a nearby object in the field of vision is a function of which division of the ANS? A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) cranial Answer: B Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) The cell bodies of postganglionic neurons that stimulate secretion of the parotid gland are in the A) superior cervical ganglion. B) submandibular ganglion. C) otic ganglion. D) sphenopalatine ganglion. Answer: C Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) Which one of these is solely innervated by the parasympathetic division? A) adipose tissue B) arrector pili muscle of the hair follicle C) ciliary muscle of the eye D) sweat glands Answer: C Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) Sympathetic fibers leave the spinal cord in the A) craniosacral regions, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine. B) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine. C) craniosacral regions, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine. D) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine. Answer: D Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

42) Where would you not find an autonomic ganglion? A) in the head B) in the cervical region C) in the armpit D) alongside the vertebral column Answer: C Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all of the following except A) constriction of most blood vessels. B) dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles. C) increase in heart rate and force. D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera. Answer: D Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 44) Which division of the nervous system is characterized by highly branched postganglionic fibers that innervate multiple organs? A) parasympathetic B) somatic motor C) sympathetic D) visceral sensory Answer: C Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) The sympathetic system causes A) decreased blood glucose and peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure. B) increased blood glucose and peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure. C) increased blood glucose, heart rate, and blood pressure, and decreased peristalsis. D) decreased blood glucose, heart rate, and blood pressure, and increased peristalsis. Answer: C Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

46) Which of these statements concerning gray rami communicantes is incorrect? A) They carry postganglionic fibers to peripheral structures. B) Their fibers are unmyelinated. C) They contain all the preganglionic fibers traveling to the sympathetic chain. D) They are associated with sympathetic trunk ganglia. Answer: C Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) Which of these statements concerning the glossopharyngeal nerve is incorrect? A) The preganglionic fibers originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus. B) The pre- and postganglionic fibers travel in this nerve. C) The pre- and postganglionic fibers synapse in the otic ganglion. D) Stimulation induces secretion from the parotid gland. Answer: B Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 48) What stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete its excitatory neurohormones? A) postganglionic sympathetic neurons B) preganglionic sympathetic neurons C) preganglionic parasympathetic neurons D) postganglionic parasympathetic neurons Answer: B Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) Short nerve branches that connect the ventral rami or spinal nerves to the sympathetic ganglia. A) hypothalamus B) medulla C) medulla oblongata D) rami communicantes E) sympathetic trunk Answer: D Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

50) The adrenal medulla is comprised of modified sympathetic neurons which secrete the excitatory hormones A) acetylcholine and epinephrine. B) epinephrine and norepinephrine. C) acetylcholine and norepinephrine. D) ADH and aldosterone. Answer: B Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 51) The adrenal medulla is stimulated by preganglionic neurons localized to gray matter of the spinal cord in the A) cervical region. B) upper thoracic region. C) lower thoracic region. D) lower lumbar region. Answer: C Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.8 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) Cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located within the A) dorsal root ganglia. B) intramural ganglia. C) lateral horns of the gray matter of the spinal cord. D) sympathetic trunk. Answer: C Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Network of autonomic axons giving rise to nerves of the pelvic organs. A) aortic plexus B) pulmonary plexus C) inferior hypogastric plexus D) stellate ganglion E) dorsal root ganglion Answer: C Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

54) Identify the pathway that correctly traces the movement of preganglionic sympathetic fibers. A) dorsal root to gray ramus communicans to sympathetic trunk ganglion B) dorsal root to sympathetic trunk ganglion to gray ramus communicans C) ventral root to sympathetic trunk ganglion to white ramus communicans D) ventral root to white ramus communicans to sympathetic trunk ganglion Answer: D Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 55) Another name for a chain ganglion is ________ ganglion. A) collateral B) paravertebral C) prevertebral D) intramural Answer: B Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) The ANS stimulates cardiac muscle as well as smooth muscle and glands. Which of the following nerves carries autonomic fibers that increase the rate of cardiac muscle contraction? A) phrenic nerves B) sympathetic nerves from the thoracolumbar spinal cord C) vagus nerves D) sympathetic nerves from the middle and inferior cervical ganglion Answer: D Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of A) parasympathetic innervation. B) sympathetic stimulation. C) vagus nerve activity. D) reflex control. Answer: B Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.8 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

58) Which division of the autonomic nervous system innervates the sweat glands in the skin? A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) integumentary Answer: A Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) Which of these statements concerning the sympathetic division is incorrect? A) The preganglionic cell bodies form the lateral gray horn in some areas of the spinal cord. B) It does not include the collateral ganglia. C) There is approximately one chain ganglion for each spinal nerve. D) It is more complex than the parasympathetic system because it supplies more structures than the parasympathetic system does. Answer: B Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) Which of these statements is not a characteristic of collateral ganglia of the sympathetic division? A) They lie in the abdomen and pelvis. B) They are paired and segmented. C) They lie anterior to the vertebral column. D) They are located mostly on the abdominal aorta. Answer: B Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) Adrenergic hormones are secreted into the bloodstream in this region of the adrenal gland. A) hypothalamus B) medulla C) cortex D) rami communicantes E) sympathetic trunk Answer: B Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

62) This structure contains modified sympathetic postganglionic neurons that lack nerve processes. A) adrenal medulla B) collateral ganglion C) stellate ganglion D) sympathetic chain ganglion Answer: A Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) Which of the following autonomic plexuses does not lie on the aorta or on the main branches of the aorta? A) celiac B) superior mesenteric C) inferior mesenteric D) inferior hypogastric Answer: D Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) Visceral pain results from all the following except A) cutting of an organ. B) chemical irritation of an organ. C) excessive stretch of an organ. D) inflammation of an organ. Answer: A Section: 15.4 Book LO: 15.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) Three-neuron reflex arcs that exist entirely within the walls of the digestive tract. A) rami communicantes B) enteric nervous system C) inferior hypogastric plexi D) sympathetic trunks E) cholinergic fibers Answer: B Section: 15.4 Book LO: 15.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

66) The defecation and urination reflexes are integrated in the A) brain stem. B) cerebral cortex. C) hypothalamus. D) spinal cord. Answer: D Section: 15.4 Book LO: 15.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) A nurse encountered a patient 3 months after the patient had sustained a crushing injury to his cervical spinal cord at the level of C6. Although the patient was paralyzed, his limbs were thrashing, his face was bright red, and he was sweating profusely. What was happening? A) Horner's syndrome B) vagotomy C) mass reflex D) Raynaud's disease Answer: C Section: 15.4 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 68) The micturition (urination) reflex is controlled by a parasympathetic reflex pathway in which A) the preganglionic neurons are in the dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus in the brain. B) the preganglionic cell bodies are in the wall of the bladder. C) the preganglionic axons occur in pelvic splanchnic nerves. D) the postganglionic axons occur in the celiac plexus. Answer: C Section: 15.4 Book LO: 15.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 69) The overall integrating center for the ANS. A) hypothalamus B) medulla C) medulla oblongata D) rami communicantes E) sympathetic trunk Answer: A Section: 15.5 Book LO: 15.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

70) Location in the brain of the cardiorespiratory and vasomotor control centers. A) hypothalamus B) medulla C) medulla oblongata D) rami communicantes E) sympathetic trunk Answer: C Section: 15.5 Book LO: 15.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) The part of the brain that exerts the most control over autonomic functioning is the A) hypothalamus. B) thalamus. C) cerebral cortex. D) cerebellum. Answer: A Section: 15.5 Book LO: 15.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 72) Control of temperature, of autonomic nervous reflexes, of hunger, and of sleep are functions associated with the A) medulla. B) cerebellum. C) hypothalamus. D) thalamus. Answer: C Section: 15.5 Book LO: 15.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 73) Which of the following disorders of the sympathetic division does not involve a problem with blood vessels? A) mass reflex reaction B) congenital megacolon C) Raynaud's disease D) hypertension Answer: B Section: 15.6 Book LO: 15.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

74) Disease or infection which causes damage to the sympathetic trunk on one side of the inferior neck can result in A) Hirschsprung's disease. B) mass reflex. C) Horner's Syndrome. D) Raynaud's disease. Answer: C Section: 15.7 Book LO: 15.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15.2 True/False Questions 1) Preganglionic fibers are myelinated, whereas postganglionic fibers are unmyelinated. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.1 Book LO: 15.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Parasympathetic stimulation of blood vessels causes vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Fibers from the cranial and sacral regions of the spinal cord contribute to the sympathetic division. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Postganglionic sympathetic fibers are relatively long compared to those of the parasympathetic division. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

5) The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions can be distinguished by the amount of branching of the post-ganglionic fibers. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Parasympathetic stimulation of the pelvic organs causes defecation, voiding of urine, and erection. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Postganglionic sympathetic fibers release norepinephrine and are called cholinergic fibers. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Adrenergic postganglionic neurons release the hormones norepinephrine and epinephrine. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) All parasympathetic postganglionic fibers of the head travel through the trigeminal nerve (V) to their final destinations. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.2 Book LO: 15.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 10) The cardiac center of the medulla oblongata regulates the diameter of blood vessels. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

11) Vagal stimulation of the heart decreases heart rate, resulting in a drop in blood pressure. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Sympathetic trunk ganglia contain the cell bodies of sensory neurons and are located in the dorsal root of the spinal cord. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 13) Because the fibers of the sympathetic division arise from the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord, they cannot innervate structures of the head or pelvis. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Parasympathetic fibers innervate the sweat glands, arrector pili, and smooth muscles of the arteries. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.3 Book LO: 15.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The main integration center of the ANS is the amygdala. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.5 Book LO: 15.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Vasoconstriction and bronchodilation result from stimulation by the ________ division. Answer: sympathetic 2) Autonomic fibers emerging from the craniosacral region of the spinal cord belong to the ________ division. Answer: parasympathetic 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

3) Postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic system are called ________ because they release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Answer: cholinergic 4) The ________ nervous system consists of complete three-neuron reflex arcs that exist entirely within the wall of the digestive tube. Answer: enteric 5) During development, all neurons with cell bodies in the PNS derive from the ________. Answer: neural crest 6) The cell bodies of postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the pupil and lens of the eye are located in the ________ ganglion. Answer: ciliary 7) The ________ plexus is a network through which branches of the vagus pass to the intestines and liver. Answer: celiac 8) Autonomic fibers to the pelvic organs pass through the pelvic plexus, also known as the ________ plexus. Answer: inferior hypogastric 9) Visceral reflexes that do not involve the CNS but instead synapse in sympathetic ganglia are called ________ reflex arcs. Answer: peripheral 10) Sympathetic preganglionic fibers leaving the thoracic spinal nerves may ascend within the ________ before synapsing so that they can exit near the head. Answer: sympathetic trunk 11) Gray rami communicantes contain ________ sympathetic fibers that travel to peripheral structures. Answer: postganglionic 12) The sensation of pain from a visceral organ that is perceived in the skin or outer body is the phenomenon called ________. Answer: referred pain 13) The primary integrating center of the ANS is the ________ of the diencephalon. Answer: hypothalamus 14) The adrenal medulla is comprised of modified sympathetic ________ neurons which secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine. Answer: adrenergic or post-ganglionic

15) Congenital megacolon, or Hirschsprung's disease, is a birth defect in which the ________ innervation of the distal region of the large intestine fails to develop normally. Answer: parasympathetic 16) The sympathetic division of the ANS arises from the ________ region of the spinal cord. Answer: thoracolumbar 15.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast the structure of the somatic and autonomic motor neurons. Answer: The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in the number of efferent motor fibers and in their diameter and presence of myelin. In both systems, the cell bodies of the somatic motor neuron and the autonomic preganglionic neuron are located within the CNS. The axons of these neurons are myelinated. Those of the somatic division are thicker in diameter. The preganglionic motor neurons of the ANS synapse with postganglionic neurons in a ganglion external to the CNS. The postganglionic fibers are thin and unmyelinated. 2) Identify three anatomical differences that distinguish the sympathetic division from parasympathetic division. Answer: The two subdivisions of the ANS can be distinguished by (1) the location where the fibers leave the CNS, (2) the length of the postganglionic fibers and location of the ganglia, and (3) the degree of branching of the fibers. First, the sympathetic division arises from the thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord, whereas the parasympathetic arises from the cranial and sacral regions. Second, the postganglionic sympathetic fibers are longer than those of the parasympathetic division. The sympathetic fibers run from the sympathetic ganglia near the vertebral column to distant target tissues. The parasympathetic ganglia are often within the walls of the target tissue, giving rise to very short postganglionic fibers. Third, the fibers of the sympathetic division branch, allowing for innervation of multiple target tissues and simultaneous activation by the same preganglionic fiber. 3) The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions differ markedly in the branching of the postganglionic fibers. Explain the anatomical difference and its significance. Answer: The postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division are short and often enclosed within the tissues they innervate. In contrast, the postganglionic sympathetic fibers are highly branched and innervate multiple tissues; nerve impulses from one fiber will simultaneously activate multiple target tissues. The simultaneous activation of wide-ranging tissues and organs is necessary for a fight-or-flight response. 4) Explain the relationship between the vagus and pelvic splanchnic nerves, the cardiac and pulmonary plexus, celiac plexus, and hypogastric plexus. Answer: Some parasympathetic preganglionic fibers exit the CNS through the vagus nerve (CN X). Additional fibers exit the spinal cord as the pelvic splanchnic nerves at the level of the sacrum. These preganglionic fibers branch and interconnect to formplexuses. The cardiac, pulmonary, and celiac plexuses are derived from these pre-ganglionic vagus nerve fibers. The hypogastric plexus arises from thoracic, lumbar, pelvic and sacral splanchnic nerves. These plexuses contain both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers. 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

5) Describe the correct pathway that a nerve impulse to blood vessels and hair follicles (glands and arrector pili muscles) in the dermis must travel using the following structures: ventral ramus, dorsal root, ventral root, sympathetic trunk, gray ramus communicans, white ramus communicans, and spinal nerve. Answer: Efferent impulses leave the spinal cord through the ventral root to merge with a spinal nerve. The spinal nerve branches to form a dorsal and ventral ramus. Either the ventral ramus of the spinal nerve, or the spinal nerve itself connects to the sympathetic trunk via a white ramus communicans. Sympathetic impulses move through preganglionic fibers within the sympathetic trunk. These fibers may either project inferiorly or superiorly through the chain ganglia. Within the ganglia, these preganglionic fibers synapse with postganglionic fibers that exits via gray rami communicantes. These postganglionic fibers will then proceed through the dorsal rami of spinal nerves to the skin on the posterior torso or through the ventral rami to the skin covering the rest of the body.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 16 The Special Senses 16.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Microvilli from gustatory cells project through this structure. A) taste bud B) taste pore C) tongue papilla D) olfactory bulb E) gustatory epithelial cells Answer: B Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) The sensation of taste involves A) bending of cilia. B) chemicals binding to microvilli. C) movement of crystals embedded in gelatinous masses. D) photons altering pigment molecules. Answer: B Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Sensory receptors for taste are called A) taste buds. B) taste pores. C) tongue papillae. D) olfactory bulbs. E) gustatory epithelial cells. Answer: E Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4) Gustatory cells are located in all of the following areas except A) on the apical surface of vallate papillae on the tongue. B) on the fungiform papillae of the anterior tongue. C) on the inner surface of the cheeks. D) on the posterior wall of the pharynx. Answer: A Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of the following is not part of the flow of taste sensation along the gustatory pathway to the cerebral cortex? A) hypothalamic appetite centers B) solitary nucleus of the medulla oblongata C) thalamic nuclei D) vagus nerve Answer: A Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 6) The nerve carrying taste information from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is the A) hypoglossal. B) glossopharyngeal. C) olfactory. D) facial. Answer: D Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Scientists who are trying to find a way to make neurons divide to heal nerve injuries often study the body's few mitotic neurons. These neurons include the A) photoreceptors. B) olfactory stem cells. C) basal cells in the taste buds. D) auditory hair cells. Answer: B Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) Filaments of the olfactory nerve synapse with these cells of the olfactory tract. A) mitral cells B) glomeruli C) support epithelial cells D) olfactory stem cells E) cells in the lamina propria Answer: A Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Filaments that pass through the olfactory foramina of the cribriform plate belong to A) axons of the olfactory sensory neurons. B) dendrites of the olfactory sensory neurons. C) axons of the olfactory bulb mitral cells. D) dendrites of the olfactory bulb mitral cells. Answer: A Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 10) Region of the forebrain overlying the cribriform plate of the ethmoid. A) olfactory epithelium B) temporal lobe C) olfactory bulb D) thalamus E) insula Answer: C Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) The eyelids house all of the following except the A) tarsal glands. B) superior tarsal muscle. C) orbicularis oculi muscles. D) lacrimal sac. Answer: D Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

12) The muscle that opens the eye is the A) superior rectus. B) orbicularis oculi. C) frontalis on forehead. D) levator palpebrae superioris. Answer: D Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The oil component found in tears is produced by the A) lacrimal glands. B) tarsal glands. C) conjunctiva. D) endocrine glands. Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Transparent mucous membrane covering the inner surface of the eyelid. A) palpebrae B) tarsal glands C) lacrimal apparatus D) conjunctiva E) lacrimal caruncle Answer: D Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Of the following glands, which does not help keep the anterior part of the eye from drying out? A) lacrimal caruncle B) tarsal glands C) goblet cells in the conjunctiva D) lacrimal gland Answer: A Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

16) Where do tears drain? A) into the Eustachian tube B) into the nasal cavity C) into the lacrimal gland D) into the pharynx Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) Which cranial nerve does not innervate the extrinsic eye muscles? A) abducens B) facial C) oculomotor D) trochlear Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of the following would not be associated with strabismus, or double vision that occurs because the eyes do not move together to view the same point in the visual field? A) damage to the oculomotor nerve B) paralysis of the extrinsic muscles of the eye C) damage to the optic nerve D) damage to the abducens nerve Answer: C Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.4 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 19) The superior oblique muscle turns the eye both laterally and A) medially. B) superiorly. C) inferiorly. D) laterally. Answer: C Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 20) Identify the letter that indicates the transparent portion of the fibrous layer. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) Identify the letter that indicates the portion of the fibrous layer known as the sclera. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

22) Identify the letter that indicates the anterior segment, which is filled with aqueous humor. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Identify the letter that indicates the ciliary body. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) Identify the letter that indicates the region of the retina that contains only cones and provides maximal visual acuity. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which of the following lies closest to the anterior pole of the eye? A) center of the lens B) center of the cornea C) tip of an eyelash D) sclera Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

26) Transparent structure of the eye containing regularly aligned collagen fibers. A) sclera B) choroid C) ciliary body D) cornea E) lens Answer: D Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) Ordinarily, it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another without rejection, yet corneas can be transplanted without risk of rejection. This is because the cornea A) is not a human structure. B) has no nerve supply. C) has no blood supply, except around the periphery. D) is exposed and easily accessible. Answer: C Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 28) Another name for the ciliary zonule is A) olfactory glomerulus. B) cochlear duct. C) the bitter taste zone on the tongue. D) the suspensory ligament of the lens. Answer: D Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 29) The melanin-containing layer of the eye's vascular tunic is called the A) sclera. B) choroid. C) ciliary body. D) cornea. E) lens. Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

30) Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the eye? A) ciliary muscle B) dilator/sphincter pupillae muscles C) levator palpebrae D) medial rectus Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) Fluid filling the posterior segment of the eye. A) aqueous humor B) vitreous humor C) synovial fluid D) serous fluid E) endolymph Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) There are three layers of neurons in the retina. Which of the following neurons have axons that form the optic nerves? A) bipolar cells B) ganglion cells C) cone cells D) rod cells Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which of the following structures in the eye are pigmented? A) the cornea B) sclera C) the retina D) lens Answer: C Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

34) The ora serrata is a A) type of papilla that houses taste buds. B) part of the modiolus. C) part of the choroid layer. D) part of the retina. Answer: D Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which of the following areas has the highest concentration of cones? A) the optic disc B) the macula lutea C) the fovea centralis D) the ora serrata retinae Answer: C Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) Each of the following structures participates in bending of light entering the eye except the A) cornea. B) iris. C) lens. D) vitreous humor. Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) In cataracts, the lens becomes cloudy and cannot function normally. What would be a consequence of this? A) Vision would be distorted and unclear. B) The retina wouldn't receive its nutrients. C) The lens would not be able to accommodate for near or far vision. D) The eye could not accommodate for bright or dim lighting. Answer: A Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

38) What axons decussate in the optic chiasma? A) the fibers in the optic radiation of white matter B) all fibers from both eyes C) those from the lateral half of each retina D) axons from the medial half of each eye Answer: D Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) Nerve axons from the lateral portion of each retina A) cross over to the opposite side of the retina. B) pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma. C) branch at the chiasma, some branches crossing and some not crossing. D) carry information from the lateral half of the visual field. Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) The first "way station" (relay nucleus) in the visual pathway from the eye, after there has been partial crossover of the fibers in the optic chiasma, is the A) superior colliculi. B) lateral geniculate nucleus. C) primary visual cortex. D) temporal lobe. Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) The center for vision in the cerebral cortex is located in the A) temporal lobe. B) frontal lobe. C) occipital lobe. D) parietal lobe. Answer: C Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

42) The sclera of the eye develops from A) the lens placode. B) head mesenchyme. C) the optic cup. D) the optic stalk. Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) During embryonic development, the retina of the eye develops from A) the surface ectoderm. B) an outpocketing of the diencephalon. C) the mesoderm. D) the mesoderm and the endoderm. Answer: B Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 44) Identify the letter that indicates the structure that is important in equalizing air pressure on both sides of the eardrum. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 16.3 Book LO: 6.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) Identify the letter that indicates the structure that is the boundary between the external and middle ear. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 16.3 Book LO: 6.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

46) Identify the letter that indicates the middle ear ossicle that is known as the stirrup. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 16.3 Book LO: 6.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) Identify the letter that indicates the structure that contains receptors for rotational acceleration. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) Identify the letter that indicates the structure that is called the cochlea. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

49) Abraham spoke so softly that Jason rolled a piece of paper into a funnel shape and put one end into his external auditory canal to signal Abraham to speak up. Abraham then shouted that a certain anatomical structure serves exactly the same function as Jason's paper funnel. That structure is the A) round window. B) pinna. C) pharyngotympanic tube. D) mastoid antrum. Answer: B Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) The transmission of sound vibrations through the external acoustic meatus occurs chiefly through A) nerve fibers. B) air. C) fluid. D) bone. Answer: B Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) The external ear consists of each of the following structures except the A) auricle. B) helix. C) lobule. D) vestibule. Answer: D Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) The middle ear cavity is normally filled with A) perilymph. B) endolymph. C) air. D) mucus. Answer: C Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

53) The ossicle that is shaped like the stirrup of a saddle is the A) tympanic membrane. B) incus. C) malleus. D) stapes. Answer: D Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) The stapes attaches to a membrane called the A) tympanic membrane B) pharyngotympanic C) oval window D) round window E) tectorial membrane Answer: C Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) The bony labyrinth is located in which portion of the temporal bone? A) mastoid B) petrous C) squamous D) tympanic Answer: B Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) Endolymph is made A) from perilymph. B) from the dura mater. C) in the scala vestibuli. D) in the stria vascularis. Answer: D Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

57) Which of the following membranes is not part of the cochlea? A) basilar B) tectorial C) tympanic D) vestibular Answer: C Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) The oval window of the ear is connected directly to which passageway? A) pharyngotympanic tube B) external auditory canal C) scala vestibuli D) scala tympani Answer: C Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) Of the following structures, which is the only one that contains perilymph (instead of endolymph)? A) scala media B) saccule C) scala tympani D) semicircular ducts Answer: C Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) Endolymph-filled structure containing receptors for hearing. A) vestibule B) saccule C) utricle D) cochlear duct E) semicircular canals Answer: D Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

61) Receptors for hearing are located in the A) cochlear duct. B) middle ear. C) semicircular canals. D) tympanic membrane. Answer: A Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) The basilar membrane supports the A) spiral lamina. B) modiolus. C) spiral ganglion. D) bony labyrinth. E) spiral organ. Answer: E Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) The gel-like structure embedded with the tips of cochlear hair cells is called the A) basilar membrane. B) tectorial membrane. C) tympanic membrane. D) scala tympani. E) scala vestibule. Answer: B Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) Which of the following statements does not correctly describe the spiral organ? A) High-frequency sounds stimulate hair cells at the basal end of the basilar membrane. B) The "hairs" of the receptor cells are embedded in the tectorial membrane. C) The spiral organ is part of the cochlear duct, which is also called the scala media. D) The tectorial membrane bends with vibrations, whereas the basilar membrane is rigid and fixed. Answer: D Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

65) The bony labyrinth structure containing the utricle and saccule is called the A) vestibule B) macula lutea C) macula densa D) ora serrate E) scala vestibule Answer: A Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) Along with the saccule, this structure senses linear acceleration. A) vestibule B) spiral organ C) utricle D) cochlear duct E) semicircular canals Answer: C Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) The calcium carbonate crystals of the macula are called the A) stapedius B) modiolus C) otoliths D) helicotrema E) scala tympani Answer: C Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 68) An essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium is/are the A) spiral organ. B) cupula. C) scala media. D) otoliths. Answer: D Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

69) The cristae ampullares in the inner ear are located in the A) saccule. B) utricle. C) semicircular ducts. D) cochlear duct. Answer: C Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 70) The cristae in the inner ear contain the receptors for A) rotational equilibrium. B) all aspects of hearing. C) all aspects of equilibrium. D) static equilibrium. Answer: A Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) The difference between the membranous ampulla and cupula of the ear is that A) the ampulla contains the crista ampullaris, which consists of hair cells and a cupula. B) the ampulla contains the utricle and saccule, whereas the cupula contains the crista ampullaris. C) the ampulla is the enlargement at the base of the semicircular canals, whereas the cupula is encrusted with otoliths and lies within the vestibule. D) the ampulla is the opening to the cochlea, whereas the cupula is found within the vestibule. Answer: A Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 72) Hair cells are receptor cells for A) fine touch. B) both hearing and equilibrium. C) taste. D) vision. Answer: B Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

73) Which of these is true regarding the development of the ear? A) The internal aspect of the ear forms from the otic placode, a thickening of the surface ectoderm. B) The ear begins to form in the 8th week of development. C) The external acoustic meatus develops from mesoderm. D) The auricle develops from the otic pit. Answer: A Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.13 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 74) In Chapter 12 on the CNS, we learned that the inferior olivary nucleus and medial lemniscus are a relay nucleus and a fiber tract in general somatic sensory pathways in the brain. The superior olivary nucleus and the lateral lemniscus are entirely different structures belonging to what sensory pathway? A) taste B) olfactory C) visual D) auditory Answer: D Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.14 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 75) Which of these is true regarding the equilibrium pathway? A) Equilibrium information travels on the cochlear nerve. B) Most equilibrium information travels to the lower brain reflex centers rather than the cerebral cortex. C) Vestibular nuclei are located in the midbrain and thalamus. D) The superior olivary nuclei are a key relay point for equilibrium information. Answer: B Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.14 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

76) In Meniere's syndrome, excessive endolymph distorts the membranous labyrinth. Using your understanding of the anatomy of the inner ear, which of these would be true in Meniere's syndrome? A) Vestibulation would be unaffected. B) Hearing would be diminished or obstructed by a ringing or buzzing sound. C) Hearing would remain intact but vestibulation would be severely affected. D) The vestibulocochlear nerve would be damaged. Answer: B Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.15 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 77) In conduction deafness, sound vibrations cannot travel from the external ear to the internal ear. Knowing the pathway of sound through the ear, which of these could cause conduction deafness? A) damage to the tympanic membrane B) loss of otoliths in the utricle and saccule C) loss of hair cells in the cochlea D) damage to the spiral organ Answer: A Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.15 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 78) Which of these is true regarding the chemical senses, olfaction and taste, throughout life? A) Children have more taste buds than adults. B) The number of olfactory cells increases throughout life, so the elderly have an exceptionally good sense of smell. C) The sense of smell is very weak in young children. D) The number of taste receptors stays constant throughout life. Answer: A Section: 16.4 Book LO: 16.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

79) All of these are true regarding the development of vision except A) the cones and rods are fully formed by 25 weeks after conception. B) the visual pathways are formed very early in prenatal development. C) the lens becomes discolored and scatters light more as a person ages. D) The dilator muscles in the iris become overactive with age, keeping the pupils partially dilated. Answer: D Section: 16.4 Book LO: 16.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 16.2 True/False Questions 1) Most of the special sensory receptors are free nerve endings. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Gustatory epithelial cells can be replaced if they are burned or scraped off during eating. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Taste sensation is carried by the facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Bipolar olfactory sensory neurons undergo continual renewal and replacement. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.1 Book LO: 16.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

5) Lacrimal fluid is produced by the lacrimal sac in the medial canthus of the eye. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) The superior oblique muscle of the eye enables the eye to look upward and laterally. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) The transparency of the cornea is due to the presence of air-filled corneal epithelial cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) The cone-filled region of the retina surrounding the fovea centralis is called the macula lutea. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Light entering the eye passes first to the rod and cone cells, then to bipolar cells, and finally to ganglion cells adjacent to the pigmented retina. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.2 Book LO: 16.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) The incus bridges the gap between the stapes connected to the oval window and the malleus connected to the tympanic membrane. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

11) The scala vestibuli is adjacent to the round window, whereas the scala tympani is adjacent to the oval window. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) The tips of cochlear hair cells are embedded in the basilar membrane. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The vestibule of the ear lies between the semicircular canals and the cochlea. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Sensorineural deafness, in which the hair cells or auditory pathway are disrupted, could be caused by damage to the cochlear nerve. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.3 Book LO: 16.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The hair cells of the inner ear are gradually lost with advancing age and do not regenerate. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.4 Book LO: 16.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The special sense most like gustation (taste) in terms of type of receptor is ________. Answer: olfaction (smell) 2) The synapse between an olfactory neuron and a mitral cell occurs in ________. Answer: glomeruli

3) Smell is closely associated with the ________ region of the brain, which controls emotional responses. Answer: limbic 4) The lens of the eye is attached to string like ________, which are anchored by ciliary bodies attached to the sclera. Answer: ciliary zonules 5) The ability of the eye to focus on nearby objects is a process called ________. Answer: accommodation 6) The posterior segment of the eye contains ________ humor. Answer: vitreous 7) The sensory ________ of the eye consists of an outer pigmented layer and an inner neural layer. Answer: retina 8) The tensor tympani and ________ are skeletal muscles that limit the vibrations of the ear ossicles to protect them from damage. Answer: stapedius 9) The ________ links the middle ear to the pharynx and is important in equalizing air pressure on both sides of the eardrum. Answer: pharyngotympanic tube 10) The cochlear duct lies between two ________-filled chambers known as the scala vestibuli and scala tympani. Answer: perilymph 11) The ________ and saccule contain sensory organs of the vestibule that monitor static equilibrium and linear acceleration. Answer: utricle 12) The crista ampullaris contains the jellylike ________, in which are embedded hair cells. Answer: cupula 13) The three ________ are bony structures involved in the sense of rotational equilibrium. Answer: semicircular canals 14) The otic vesicle changes shape and develops into the ________. Answer: membranous labyrinth 15) Damage to the hair cells or any part of the auditory pathway to the brain results in ________ deafness. Answer: sensorineural 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

16.4 Essay Questions 1) Identify the relationship between olfactory receptor cells, glomeruli, and mitral cells. Then explain how odor signals are amplified to the mitral cells. Answer: Odor molecules bind to olfactory receptor cells within the olfactory epithelium. These cells synapse with mitral cells located within the olfactory bulb. The synapse is called a glomerulus. Considering that many olfactory receptor cells converge and synapse with one mitral cell, the mitral cell receives a much stronger stimulus than it would if there were a one-to-one ratio of receptor and mitral cell. 2) Describe the production of aqueous and vitreous humors of the eye, and identify the structures involved in drainage. Answer: The vitreous humor is produced during embryo development and lasts a lifetime. The aqueous humor is a filtrate of the blood and is produced in the ciliary processes. The fluid exits the posterior chamber through the pupil into the anterior chamber of the eye. It drains via the scleral venous sinus. 3) Describe the structure of photoreceptor cells and their arrangement within the retina. Answer: Photoreceptors consist of an outer segment containing disks of visual pigments. These rod- or cone-shaped segments are embedded in a pigmented epithelium of the retina. They are posterior to the inner segments. The inner segments are continuous with the cell body and synaptic endings of the cell that project anteriorly. 4) Identify the routes by which middle ear infections can easily spread beyond the petrous region of the temporal bone. Answer: Infections can spread to the brain through the superior wall and the jugular vein through the floor, or inferior wall. A small canal, called the mastoid antrum, allows infections to spread to the mastoid air cells of the mastoid process. Infections can also spread from the pharynx to the middle ear through the pharyngotympanic tube. 5) Describe the anatomical similarities between the sensory organs of the vestibule (utricle and saccule) and semicircular canals. Answer: The sensory receptors in both the vestibule and semicircular canals are hair cells. In both cases, the tips of these cells are embedded within a gel-like structure. This structure is called the otolith membrane in the maculae of the sensory organs of the vestibule. This structure is called the cupula of the crista ampullaris in the semicircular canals. Movement of the gelatinous mass, either by fluid waves or gravity pulling on otoliths, causes the hair cells to depolarize and relay neural impulses to the brain.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 17 The Endocrine System 17.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Identify the letter indicating a gland which secretes a hormone controlling basal metabolic rate. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.1 & 17.8 Global LO: G1 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Identify the letter indicating a gland which secretes corticosteroids. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.1 & 17.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Identify the letter indicating a "master gland" which secretes at least nine hormones. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.1 & 17.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Identify the letter indicating an organ which secretes hormones that control blood sugar levels. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.1 & 17.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Identify the letter which indicates an immune organ that also secretes hormones. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.1 & 17.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 6) Identify the letter which indicates a gland that secretes melatonin. A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.1 & 17.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Identify the letter which indicates a commissure connecting the left and right cerebral hemispheres. A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

8) Identify the letter which indicates the hypophysis. A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Identify the letter which indicates a gland that regulates circadian rhythms. A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.1 & 17.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) Identify the letter which indicates the brain region where releasing and inhibiting hormones are secreted. A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: D Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Which of the following statements concerning the endocrine glands is incorrect? A) They are a group of ductless glands. B) They secrete messenger molecules called hormones. C) The hormones they secrete travel more quickly than nerve impulses. D) The hormones they secrete regulate processes such as growth and metabolism. Answer: C Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.1 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

12) Which arrangement of endocrine cells does not allow for maximum contact with blood capillaries? A) branching networks B) clusters C) cords D) ducts Answer: D Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) Compared to most other organs in the body, endocrine organs are A) well vascularized. B) poorly vascularized. C) have an average amount of vascularization. D) mainly epithelial cells. Answer: A Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Endocrine cells that secrete steroids have all of the following cytoplasmic features except A) abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum. B) secretion via diffusion. C) lipid droplets. D) secretory granules. Answer: D Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The major stimulus for the release of thyroid hormone is A) hormonal. B) humoral. C) nervous. D) calcium. Answer: A Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

16) The major stimulus for the release of the amine hormones of the adrenal gland is A) hormonal. B) humoral. C) nervous. D) adrenaline. Answer: C Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) Which of the following hormones is secreted by neurons? A) oxytocin B) thyroid hormone C) growth hormone D) insulin Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) The anatomical stalk of the pituitary is also known as the A) tuber cinerum. B) neurohypophysis. C) infundibulum. D) pars tuberalis. E) adenohypophysis. Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) This region of the hypophysis releases hormones stored in neurosecretory bodies in axon terminals. A) tuber cinerum B) neurohypophysis C) infundibulum D) pars tuberalis E) adenohypophysis Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.7 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) Largest purely endocrine gland in the body. A) pancreas B) hypophysis C) adrenal gland D) thyroid gland E) thymus gland Answer: D Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) Hormone that inhibits osteoclast activity in children. A) parathyroid hormone B) calcitonin C) thyroxine D) catecholamines E) oxytocin Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) Pyramid-shaped gland consisting of neural crest-derived cells and endocrine secretory cells. A) thyroid gland B) thymus gland C) ovaries/testes D) adrenal gland E) pancreas Answer: D Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Class of hormones secreted during chronic stress that depress immune function. A) mineralocorticoids B) glucocorticoids C) androgens D) gonadotrophins 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

E) amino acid-based hormones Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) Pancreatic cell type that produces insulin. A) alpha cells B) beta cells C) delta cells D) gamma cells E) PP cells Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) The primary capillary plexus of the hypophyseal portal system is located in A) the hypothalamus. B) the infundibular stalk. C) the median eminence. D) the pars tuberalis. Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 26) The artery that supplies most of the pituitary gland (but not the pars nervosa) is the A) primary plexus of the hypophyseal portal system. B) basilar artery on the brain stem. C) superior hypophyseal artery. D) hypophyseal branch of the external carotid artery. Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) Pancreatic cell type that produces glucagon. A) alpha cells B) beta cells 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

C) delta cells D) gamma cells E) PP cells Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 28) Endocrine gland of the thorax that is also important in immune function. A) neurohypophysis B) adneohypophysis C) pineal gland D) thymus gland E) parathyroid gland Answer: D Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 29) Region of the adrenal cortex that secretes DHEA. A) zona glomerulosa B) zona fasiculata C) zona reticularis D) tuber cinerum E) chrommafin cells Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) Class of hormones that regulates secretions of other endocrine glands. A) acidophilic B) basophilic C) tropic D) atrial naturetic peptide E) renin Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

31) Jellylike substance found in the thyroid follicles which contains high concentrations of stored thyroglobulin. A) brain sand B) colloid C) acinar D) cortisol Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which of the following hormones secreted by the pars distalis does not regulate the function of other endocrine glands? A) MSH B) TSH C) ACTH D) FSH Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary? A) LH B) ADH C) glucagon D) adrenaline Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which endocrine gland stores enough of its hormone extracellularly to last several months? A) the pituitary B) the thyroid C) the pancreas D) the ovary Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.8 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) The secretion of hormones by the anterior lobe of the pituitary is controlled by the A) pars distalis. B) pancreatic islets. C) hypothalamus. D) atria of the heart. Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) Cells that manufacture and secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone are located in the A) thyroid gland. B) hypothalamus. C) pars distalis. D) adrenal cortex. Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) DHEA is secreted by the adrenal gland, and then converted to estrogens and testosterone by the A) pituitary gland. B) peripheral reproductive cells. C) gonadotropic cells. D) interstitial cells. Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 38) The action of parathyroid hormone is counteracted by A) thyroxin. B) calcitonin. C) oxytocin. D) GH. Answer: B Section: 17.2 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Book LO: 17.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 39) The adrenal medulla secretes A) aldosterone. B) cortisol. C) epinephrine and norepinephrine. D) glucocorticoids. Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) Which of the following is not part of the anterior lobe of the pituitary? A) pars distalis B) pars intermedia C) pars tuberalis D) pars nervosa Answer: D Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) Which endocrine gland stands out in X-ray images and helps radiologists orient within the brain? A) the pineal gland B) the pituitary gland C) the hypothalamus D) the thyroid gland Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.12 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) Which cells produce the thyroid hormone precursor thyroglobulin? A) parathyroid cells B) follicular cells C) oxyphil cells D) parafollicular cells Answer: B 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) The beta type endocrine cells in the pancreatic islets secretes a hormone that A) lowers blood sugar levels. B) raises blood sugar concentrations. C) targets liver cells. D) inhibits secretion by the exocrine pancreas. Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 44) Parathyroid hormone causes all of the following except A) activation of vitamin D. B) decreased secretion of calcium by the kidney. C) increase in plasma calcium. D) inhibition of osteoclasts. Answer: D Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 45) Cells of the adrenal medulla are most closely allied with A) the exocrine acinar cells of the pancreas. B) the pinealocytes. C) the sympathetic neurons. D) the T lymphocytes of the immune system. Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) Which of the following hormones secreted by the pars distalis is a tropic hormone? A) MSH B) LH C) prolactin D) growth hormone Answer: B 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) The thyroid gland is located A) anterior to the aortic arch. B) immediately inferior to the larynx. C) on the superior aspect of the kidneys. D) posterior to the sternum. Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the pars intermedia of the pituitary gland? A) melatonin B) melanocyte-stimulating hormone C) prolactin-inhibiting hormone D) oxytocin Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) Which of the following minerals is essential for the formation of thyroid hormone? A) iodine B) calcium C) iron D) copper Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) Which of the following is not part of the posterior lobe of the pituitary? A) infundibular stalk B) median eminence C) pars intermedia D) pars nervosa Answer: C 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) Which of the following hormones is secreted into the primary capillary plexus of the hypophyseal portal system? A) growth hormone-releasing hormone B) growth hormone C) ADH D) oxytocin Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) The hypophyseal portal veins are primarily located in the A) pars nervosa. B) infundibulum. C) tuber cinereum. D) pars intermedia. Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Cells that manufacture and secrete aldosterone are located in the A) zona glomerulosa. B) renal cortex. C) pars distalis. D) pars nervosa. Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) Cells that manufacture and secrete ACTH are located in the A) adrenal cortex. B) adrenal medulla. C) pituitary gland. D) heart. 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) is produced by ________ cells. A) corticotropic B) gonadotropic C) somatotropic D) thyrotropic Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) Which region of the adrenal cortex consists of cells arranged in parallel cords? A) zona fasciculata B) zona glomerulosa C) zona pellucia D) zona reticularis Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) Target organs for the hormone oxytocin include the uterus and the A) lungs. B) mammary glands. C) biceps brachii muscle. D) thyroid gland. Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) Which of the following endocrine glands is capable of storing its hormones extracellularly and then slowly releasing them? A) thyroid gland B) pituitary gland C) adrenal gland 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

D) pancreas Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) The posterior lobe of the pituitary produces two hormones, ________ and ________. A) ADH and MSH B) FSH and LH C) oxytocin and ADH D) PRL and oxytocin Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) Calcitonin, which lowers blood calcium levels, is produced by the ________ gland. A) adrenal B) thyroid C) pituitary D) parathyroid Answer: B Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) Somatostatin A) increases the release of insulin. B) increases the release of glucagon. C) inhibits the secretion of insulin and glucagon. D) inhibits the exocrine activity of the pancreas. Answer: C Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) Which of the following is/are a major source of steroid hormones in the body? A) gonads B) adrenal medulla C) thyroid 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

D) pituitary Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) The target of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is/are the A) gonads. B) parathyroid. C) thymus. D) thyroid. Answer: A Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) Which of the following statements concerning the supraoptic nucleus is false? A) It is part of the hypothalamus. B) It gets its name because it is superior to the optic chiasma. C) It is a brain nucleus. D) It produces the hormone oxytocin. Answer: D Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) The hormone produced by the heart A) decreases urine output. B) increases calcium levels in the blood. C) is secreted in response to low blood volumes. D) increases the excretion of sodium in the urine. Answer: D Section: 17.3 Book LO: 17.13 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) Which of the following hormones is secreted by cardiac muscle cells? A) ADH B) FSH C) atrial natriuretic hormone 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

D) epinephrine Answer: C Section: 17.3 Book LO: 17.13 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) Which of the following hormones indirectly increases the secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex? A) ACTH B) renin C) TSH D) corticotropin-releasing hormone Answer: B Section: 17.3 Book LO: 17.14 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 68) Erythropoietin is produced in the A) kidney. B) heart. C) bone marrow. D) thymus. Answer: A Section: 17.3 Book LO: 17.14 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) Vitamin D is synthesized and secreted by A) bone cells. B) the brain. C) the epithelium of the small intestine. D) the epidermis. Answer: D Section: 17.3 Book LO: 17.14 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 70) Which of the following hormones is not produced by the placenta? A) estrogens B) testosterone 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

C) progesterone D) hCG Answer: B Section: 17.3 Book LO: 17.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) Prolactinoma is the most common tumor of the A) pineal gland. B) thyroid. C) adrenal medulla. D) pituitary gland. Answer: D Section: 17.4 Book LO: 17.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 72) The condition in which a neoplasm leads to hypersecretion of amine hormones by the adrenal medulla is called A) Graves' disease. B) pheochromocytoma. C) myxedema. D) acromegaly. Answer: B Section: 17.4 Book LO: 17.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 73) Individuals with type 2 diabetes A) have an absolute requirement for insulin injections. B) have normal concentrations of glucose in their blood. C) may often control their disease by diet and exercise. D) have pancreases that produce and secrete very little insulin. Answer: C Section: 17.4 Book LO: 17.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 74) Diabetes insipidus can be caused by trauma to the A) posterior pituitary gland. 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

B) pancreas. C) gonads. D) kidney. Answer: A Section: 17.4 Book LO: 17.15 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) Which of the following endocrine glands develop(s) primarily from the endoderm of the pharynx? A) anterior and posterior lobes of the pituitary B) thyroid and parathyroids C) pineal D) adrenal medulla Answer: B Section: 17.5 Book LO: 17.16 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 76) Pituitary disorders include all of the following except A) gigantism. B) acromegaly. C) pituitary dwarfism. D) Graves' disease. Answer: D Section: 17.5 Book LO: 17.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 77) Region of the hypophysis that contains secretory endocrine cells derived from the oral ectoderm. A) tuber cinerum B) neurohypophysis C) infundibulum D) pars tuberalis E) adenohypophysis Answer: E Section: 17.5 Book LO: 17.16 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

78) Of the following endocrine organs, which does not migrate away from its original site of formation in the embryo? A) thymus B) parathyroid glands C) thyroid gland D) posterior lobe of the pituitary gland Answer: D Section: 17.5 Book LO: 17.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17.2 True/False Questions 1) All endocrine glands secrete their hormones into the bloodstream. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Steroid hormones are synthesized from cholesterol. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) An endocrine cell that secretes its hormone in response to the presence of another hormone is said to be controlled by humoral stimuli. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.1 Book LO: 17.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) The main mineralocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex is cortisol. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

5) Gonadotropic cells of the anterior lobe of the pituitary secrete prolactin. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Gonadotropic cells of the pars distalis are the only class of cells there that produce more than one hormone. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Thyroglobulin is produced by follicular cells of the thyroid gland, bound to thyroid hormone, and stored inside the follicle. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Melatonin production by the pineal gland involves signals transmitted by thoracic and cervical nerves. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 9) The adrenal medulla consists of three distinct zones and secretes steroid hormones. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) The endocrine cells of the pancreas are present in islets, whereas the exocrine cells are in acini. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.12 Global LO: G2 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Releasing hormones from the hypothalamus diffuse from the secondary capillary plexus to activate target cells in the pars distalis. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.2 Book LO: 17.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) The heart contains endocrine cells that secrete atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). Answer: TRUE Section: 17.3 Book LO: 17.13 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) In diabetes mellitus, the posterior lobe of the pituitary does not produce sufficient antidiuretic hormone. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.4 Book LO: 17.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Hypersecretion of glucocorticoid hormones leads to Cushing's disease. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.4 Book LO: 17.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15) Grave's disease, which causes symptoms such as rapid heart rate and weight loss, is the most common type of hypothyroidism. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.4 Book LO: 17.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) The pituitary gland atrophies with age and by age 80 is replaced by adipose tissue. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.5 Book LO: 17.17 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) Only GH, DHEA, and the sex hormones show marked decline in secretion with age. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.5 Book LO: 17.17 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The parathyroid glands lie on the ________ surface of the thyroid gland. Answer: posterior 2) The ability of a target tissue to respond to a particular hormone depends on the presence of a specific ________ that will bind the hormone on or inside the target cell. Answer: receptor 3) Changing levels of ions or nutrients in the blood are examples of ________ stimuli that cause changes in endocrine secretion. Answer: humoral 4) Cells of the kidney produce the hormone ________, which stimulates red blood cell production. Answer: erythropoietin 5) Releasing and inhibiting hormones travel from the hypothalamus through a vascular ________ portal system to the anterior lobe of the pituitary. Answer: hypophyseal 6) The ________ hormone aldosterone is produced by the adrenal cortex to increase blood volume. Answer: mineralocorticoid, or corticosteroid 7) The pineal gland is readily observed on X-ray images because of the presence of radiopaque ________, or calcium particles. Answer: pineal sand 8) The ________ consists of four endocrine cell types: A, B, D, and PP. Answer: pancreas 9) The thymic hormones are structurally ________ molecules. Answer: peptide 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

10) The release of PTH by the parathyroid glands is triggered by a ________ stimulus. Answer: humoral 11) Growth hormone is produced by ________ cells of the adenohypophysis. Answer: somatotropic 12) The endocrine cells of the pancreas are located within spherical bodies called ________. Answer: pancreatic islets 13) ________ produces contraction of the smooth musculature of the male and female reproductive tracts. Answer: Oxytocin 14) The three layers of the adrenal cortex, from external to internal, are the zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and zona ________. Answer: reticularis 15) The diffuse ________ system consists of endocrine cells scattered throughout the visceral organs. Answer: neuroendocrine 17.4 Essay Questions 1) Explain what is meant by the term neuroendocrine, and give an example of a neuroendocrine gland. Answer: A neuroendocrine gland is an endocrine gland that contains a significant number of cells belonging to another organ system, specifically cells of the nervous system. The hypothalamus is a neuroendocrine gland because the neurohypophysis consists of neurons that store and release endocrine hormones. 2) Contrast the major differences between the two anatomical divisions of the pituitary gland. Answer: The anterior lobe of the pituitary, or adenohypophysis, consists of several types of endocrine cells, all of which are epithelial in origin. These cells secrete their endocrine products in response to hormones released from the hypothalamus. Hypothalamic signaling molecules reach the adenohypophysis via a portal blood system. The posterior lobe of the pituitary, or neurohypophysis, consists of the axons and axon terminals of neurons whose cell bodies exist in the hypothalamus. Endocrine hormones are stored and released from their axon terminals. 3) Two distinct endocrine glands are each a combination of two different embryonic tissues. Identify these glands, and describe their embryonic origins. Answer: Both the pituitary and adrenal glands are composed of two different embryonic tissues. The pituitary gland derives from projections from the roof of the mouth and the floor of the brain, the future anterior lobe, and the future posterior lobe, respectively. The adrenal gland 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

consists of the cortex and medulla. The cortex derives from somatic mesoderm of the dorsal abdominal wall, whereas cells of the medulla are neural crest derivatives. The dual origin of these endocrine glands reflects the distinct function of their respective subdivisions. 4) Contrast the two anatomical regions of the adrenal glands. Answer: The adrenal gland consists of a superficial adrenal cortex and a deep adrenal medulla. The adrenal medulla consists of modified neural ganglia that release catecholamine neurotransmitters. In contrast, the adrenal cortex, consisting of three distinct layers or zones, secretes steroid hormones. These include the mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and a weak androgen DHEA. 5) Distinguish the anatomical causes of diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus. Answer: Diabetes insipidus results when the posterior lobe of the pituitary produces insufficient antidiuretic hormone. One result is the production of large volumes of urine. In diabetes mellitus, the problem is that the pancreatic islet cells produce insufficient insulin, or that the tissues themselves don't respond to insulin. The production of large quantities of urine is also one sign of diabetes mellitus.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 18 Blood 18.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) An average female has approximately ________ of blood. A) 0.5 liter B) 1 liter C) 4 liters D) 8 liters Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) When centrifuged, blood separates into the following sequence of layers, from lightest to heaviest A) buffy coat, hematocrit, plasma. B) buffy coat, plasma, hematocrit. C) hematocrit, plasma, buffy coat. D) plasma, buffy coat, hematocrit. Answer: D Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Hematocrit measures the percentage of blood volume that consists of A) neutrophils. B) erythrocytes. C) platelets. D) plasma. Answer: B Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4) Most abundant formed element in the blood is the A) erythrocyte. B) myeloid. C) eosinophil. D) monocyte. E) basophil. Answer: A Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) The percentage of erythrocytes in a normal volume of blood is about A) 10%. B) 30%. C) 45%. D) 90%. Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Together, leukocytes and platelets constitute roughly which percentage of whole blood volume? A) 45% B) 55% C) 1% D) 10% Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Blood plasma A) is approximately 90% water. B) is only 3 different molecules. C) is considered a formed element of blood. D) plays an important role in carrying oxygen through the blood. Answer: A Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) A plasma protein involved in blood clotting is A) a platelet. B) globulin. C) fibrin (and fibrinogen). D) albumin. Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) The blood's globulins include A) albumin. B) antibodies. C) fibrinogen. D) hemoglobin. Answer: B Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) Plasma is called ________ when the clotting factors have been removed. A) hematocrit B) buffy coat C) serum D) albumin E) myeloid Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) The blood protein that contributes osmotic pressure, keeping water from leaking out of the vessels, is called the A) hematocrit. B) buffy coat. C) serum. D) albumin. E) myeloid. Answer: D Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

12) Erythrocytes A) are over 97% hemoglobin. B) contain an abundance of mitochondria. C) can survive for years in the blood. D) function to fight against foreign antigens in the blood. Answer: A Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) Which of the following cells lack mitochondria? A) neutrophils B) platelets C) basophils D) erythrocytes Answer: D Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) The unusual shape of the erythrocyte is important because A) It is the best shape for preventing clotting of blood cells in arteries. B) It allows each cell to hold a maximum amount of hemoglobin. C) It increases surface area for respiratory exchange across the plasma membrane. D) It reflects the fact that erythrocytes are degenerating. Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) In the body, erythrocytes are red because of the oxidized iron they contain. In stained blood smears, erythrocytes are A) also red from iron. B) light blue from methylene blue. C) purple from hematoxylin stain. D) pink from eosin. Answer: D Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

16) The formed element that is flattened, circular, lacks a nucleus, lacks mitochondria or ribosomes, and is red because of the presence of hemoglobin is A) an eosinophil. B) a basophil. C) an erythrocyte. D) a lymphocyte. Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 17) Identify the letter that indicates the formed element of the blood that is packed with molecules of hemoglobin. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

18) Identify the letter that indicates the most abundant class of leukocyte. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) Identify the letter that indicates the formed element of the blood that develops into phagocytic cells called macrophages. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) Identify the letter that indicates the formed element of the blood that produces antibodies. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

21) Identify the letter that indicates formed elements of the blood that are important in blood clotting. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 22) Identify the letter that indicates the fraction of leukocytes that represents lymphocytes. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

23) Identify the letter that indicates the fraction that of leukocytes that represents monocytes. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) Identify the letter that indicates the fraction of leukocytes that represents neutrophils. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) Identify the letter that indicates the fraction of leukocytes that represents eosinophils. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Identify the letter that indicates the fraction of leukocytes that represents basophils. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

27) Which of the following groups of cells are most structurally related? A) basophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes B) eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils C) lymphocytes, erythrocytes, and basophils D) monocytes, platelets, and macrophages Answer: B Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which of the following statements concerning the various leukocytes is false? A) All perform diapedesis. B) All are active in connective tissues but not in blood. C) All fight disease. D) All have distorted, lobed nuclei. Answer: D Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 29) Diapedesis is A) the process by which eosinophils attack worms. B) the ingestion of bacteria by macrophages. C) the exit of leukocytes from capillaries. D) amoeboid motion. Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of the following is the correct ranking of formed elements of blood by longevity (life span), from longest-lived to shortest-lived? A) neutrophils, basophils, erythrocytes B) basophils, erythrocytes, eosinophils C) erythrocytes, platelets, neutrophils D) monocytes, neutrophils, erythrocytes Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

31) Leukocytes, ordered from most to least abundant, are the A) basophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, and neutrophils. B) basophils, eosinophils, monocytes, lymphocytes, and neutrophils. C) neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils. D) neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and lymphocytes. Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) The least abundant white blood cell type is the A) monocyte. B) eosinophil. C) basophil. D) lymphocyte. Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) The most abundant white blood cell type is the A) neutrophil. B) monocyte. C) eosinophil. D) lymphocyte. Answer: A Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) Leukocyte primarily responsible for destroying bacteria. A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) neutrophil E) basophil Answer: D Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

35) An eosinophil can be distinguished from a basophil because the eosinophil A) has a lobed (versus nonlobed) nucleus. B) contains cytoplasmic granules. C) has pink (versus dark purple) granules. D) is smaller. Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) What type of white blood cell increases dramatically during parasitic infections or allergic reactions? A) neutrophil B) monocyte C) basophil D) eosinophil Answer: D Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which white blood cells contain granules of histamine? A) eosinophils B) basophils C) neutrophils D) lymphocytes Answer: B Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) This leukocyte is a cell mediator of inflammation. A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) neutrophil E) basophil Answer: E Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

39) Which of the following is not phagocytic? A) lymphocyte B) neutrophil C) eosinophil D) basophil Answer: A Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) Cell containing a large, dark purple-staining spherical nucleus that almost completely fills the cell volume. A) myeloid B) eosinophil C) reticulocyte D) lymphoid E) lymphocyte Answer: E Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 41) Which of the following is true regarding T cells and B cells? A) T cells are lymphocytes while B cells are neutrophils. B) B cells are directly attack bacteria while T cells attack parasites only. C) B cells have no nucleus while T cells have a large nucleus. D) T cells directly attack foreign cells while B cells produce antibodies. Answer: D Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) T cells function to A) produce antibodies. B) destroy body cells infected with viruses. C) respond primarily to bacteria and bacterial toxins in body fluids. D) phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes. Answer: B Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

43) B cells fight infections by A) acting as killer cells. B) engulfing foreign pathogens. C) killing off body cells. D) producing antibodies. Answer: D Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 44) Which of the following cells develop into macrophages? A) monocytes B) neutrophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes Answer: A Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) Megakaryocytes A) circulate freely in the blood. B) give rise to platelets. C) are small compared to erythrocytes. D) are phagocytic. Answer: B Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) Along with leukocytes, these contribute less than 1% of whole blood. A) reticulocytes B) erythrocytes C) albumin D) platelets E) lymphocytes Answer: D Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

47) Cell fragments, also called thrombocytes, involved in clotting are called A) basophils B) globulins C) fibrinogen D) albumin E) platelets Answer: E Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) The functions of platelets include all of the following except A) secretion of chemicals that call more platelets to the site of injury. B) formation of a temporary patch in the walls of damaged blood vessels. C) release of chemical signals that trigger the immune response. D) release of molecules that initiate clotting. Answer: C Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) In adults, blood cells are manufactured in the marrow of all of the following bones except the A) pelvis. B) forearm bones (radius and ulna). C) clavicle. D) sternum. Answer: B Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 50) The replacement of red bone marrow with yellow bone marrow in the limbs occurs A) in fetal life. B) by 2 years of age. C) before 8 years of age. D) between 8 and 18 years of age. Answer: D Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

51) Yellow bone marrow gets its color from A) the bone trabeculae in the center of this colorless marrow. B) the early stages of red blood cells being made there. C) low densities of red blood cells. D) fat cells. Answer: D Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) Which type of connective tissue occurs in the bone marrow? A) cartilage B) loose areolar C) dense irregular D) reticular Answer: D Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Which of the following do not remain in red bone marrow after hematopoiesis? A) lymphoid stem cells B) fat cells C) myeloid stem cells D) reticulocytes Answer: D Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) All of the following are true regarding the anatomy of red bone marrow except A) It contains sinusoids that carry new blood cells out of the marrow and into the rest of the blood stream. B) It contains macrophages that remove antigens in the blood sinusoids. C) It contains mesenchymal stem cells. D) it contains an abundance of adipose cells. Answer: D Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

55) Hemopoiesis is A) different from hematopoiesis. B) a disease of erythrocytes. C) a stain for blood smears. D) blood cell production. Answer: D Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) Which of the following is not a committed cell in a blood cell line? A) hemopoietic stem cell B) proerythroblast C) myeloblast D) megakaryoblast Answer: A Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) The stem cell from which eosinophils and basophils develop is called a(n) A) erythrocyte. B) myeloid. C) eosinophil. D) monocyte. E) basophil. Answer: B Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) All blood cells arise from ________ stem cells. A) hemopoietic B) lymphoid C) myeloid D) mesenoid Answer: A Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

59) Which of the following is not a phase of erythropoiesis? A) production of ribosomes B) synthesis of hemoglobin C) ejection of the erythrocyte's nucleus D) production of vacuoles Answer: D Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 60) In the cell line that forms erythrocytes in red bone marrow, all of the following occur except that A) the cytoplasm goes from basophilic (blue-staining) to eosinophilic (pink-staining). B) the nucleus is lost. C) hemoglobin accumulates in the cells. D) lysosome-like granules accumulate. Answer: D Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) The defining characteristic of a reticulocyte in the blood is A) collagen (reticular) fibers. B) dark-staining nucleus. C) numerous endocytic vesicles. D) dark staining masses that represent degrading ribosomes. Answer: D Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) A young erythrocyte is called a A) myeloid. B) eosinophil. C) reticulocyte. D) lymphoid. E) lymphocyte. Answer: C Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.9 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

63) Oxygen levels are lower at higher altitudes. Why would you expect to see increased numbers of reticulocytes in the blood at high altitudes? A) Erythrocyte production is being stimulated to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. B) More reticulocytes would increase the capacity of blood to fight infections, which are common at high altitude. C) Monocyte production is being stimulated in order to deal with the low oxygen levels. D) Reticulocytes become megakaryocytes, which produce more platelets for clotting at high altitudes. Answer: A Section: 18.3 Book LO: 18.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 64) The precursors of neutrophils, listed in their proper order from the least to the most differentiated cells, are A) band cell, myeloblast, and myelocyte. B) metamyelocyte, myeloblast, and neutrophil. C) myeloblast, metamyelocyte, and band cell. D) metamyelocyte, neutrophil, and band cell. Answer: C Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) In the differentiating cell line that leads to neutrophils, which of the following events occurs? A) The nucleus assumes a horseshoe shape. B) Hemoglobin accumulates in the cytoplasm. C) Metamyelocytes become myeloblasts. D) The cells temporarily have the specific granules of eosinophils. Answer: A Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

66) All of the following cell types are derived from the same precursor cell that generates neutrophils except the A) blood stem cell. B) plasma cell. C) myeloblast. D) myelocyte. Answer: B Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) Giant cells located just outside of marrow sinusoids are called A) megakaryocytes. B) monoblasts. C) myeloblasts. D) reticulocytes. Answer: A Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 68) Disorders of red blood cells can be detected by obtaining counts of these immature erythrocytes. A) myeloid B) eosinophil C) reticulocyte D) lymphoid E) lymphocyte Answer: C Section: 18.3 Book LO: 18.10 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 69) In polycythemia, there is an abnormal excess of erythrocytes in the blood. What could be a consequence of having two many red blood cells in the blood? A) The blood is more viscous, and the red blood cells could block flow through small vessels. B) Less oxygen could be carried in the blood. C) The body would be better able to fight infection. D) The blood would be come thinner, increasing the risk for excessive bleeding. Answer: A Section: 18.3 Book LO: 18.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

70) Anemia is a condition in which the blood's capacity for carrying oxygen is diminished. Which type of blood cell would be affected in anemia? A) Monocyte B) Neutrophil C) Erythrocyte D) Basophil Answer: C Section: 18.3 Book LO: 18.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) Leukemia can be divided into two subtypes based on the stem cell line it originates from. All of the following cells could be involved in myeloblastic leukemia (from the myeloid stem cell line) except A) monocytes B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) lymphocytes Answer: D Section: 18.3 Book LO: 18.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 72) Thrombocytopenia is a condition in which there is an abnormally low concentration of platelets in the blood. What would be a consequence of this condition? A) increased viscosity of the blood B) reduced oxygen-carrying capacity C) increased risk of infection D) diminished clot formation Answer: D Section: 18.3 Book LO: 18.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

73) Blood cells form from A) mesoderm B) ectoderm C) endoderm D) myeloderm Answer: A Section: 18.4 Book LO: 18.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 74) Throughout embryonic development, nearly all blood cells are formed in the A) yolk sac B) liver C) spleen D) bone marrow Answer: A Section: 18.4 Book LO: 18.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) Which of the following organs does not form blood cells in the fetus? A) liver B) lung C) spleen D) yolk sac Answer: B Section: 18.4 Book LO: 18.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18.2 True/False Questions 1) Hematocrit is the percentage of blood consisting of erythrocytes. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

2) Blood serum is plasma from which albumin has been removed. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Leukocytes function primarily within the bloodstream. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) All granulocytes have lobed nuclei and are phagocytic in function. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 5) The most abundant type of leukocyte is the neutrophil. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Mast cells and basophils both release histamine at the site of inflammation. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) B lymphocytes attach to non-self cells and cause them to lyse. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) The least abundant type of leukocyte is the monocyte. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.1 Book LO: 18.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Platelets are cell fragments arising from megakaryocytes located just outside the sinusoids. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) In adults, red bone marrow occurs in the skull, girdles, and diaphysis of the long bones. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) The reticulocytes secrete the reticular fiber network of bone marrow. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 12) Erythrocytes and neutrophils both arise from myeloid stem cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) Erythrocytes eject their nuclei and other organelles prior to maturity. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.2 Book LO: 18.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

14) Elevated numbers of band cells in differential WBC counts is considered an indicator of infection. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.3 Book LO: 18.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The liver and spleen are the major blood-producing organs between the second and the seventh month of fetal development. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.4 Book LO: 18.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The ________ is the fraction of blood made up of leukocytes. Answer: buffy coat 2) Blood clots are formed when cells become trapped among a tangle of the activated plasma protein ________ along with other clotting factors. Answer: fibrinogen/fibrin 3) Plasma minus clotting factors is called ________. Answer: serum 4) The absence of a nucleus, mitochondria, and ribosomes is a telltale characteristic of ________. Answer: erythrocytes 5) Leukocytes can exit the blood vessels through a process called ________. Answer: diapedesis 6) ________ turn off allergic responses by phagocytizing allergens and degrading histamine. Answer: Eosinophils 7) The presence of dark purple-stained granules along with a two-lobed nucleus is indicative of a(n) ________. Answer: basophil 8) Monocytes develop into ________, which are phagocytic cells that ingest foreign cells and debris. Answer: macrophages

9) ________ are cell fragments that initiate a blood clot formed of blood cells trapped in a network of fibrin protein. Answer: Platelets 10) The formation of blood is called ________. Answer: hematopoiesis, or hemopoiesis 11) Newly developed blood cells enter the circulatory system by blood ________, or wide capillaries, within the marrow. Answer: sinusoids 12) Eosinophils develop from the progenitor cells called ________ stem cells. Answer: myeloid 13) Large cells that form platelets are called ________. Answer: megakaryocytes 14) During embryonic development, blood cells form in the ________ of the yolk sac. Answer: blood islands 15) For the majority of fetal development, blood formation occurs primarily in the ________ and later in the bone marrow. Answer: liver and spleen 18.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe how the structure of erythrocytes is advantageous for their function as oxygen transporters. Answer: Erythrocytes consist of hemoglobin molecules surrounded by a plasma membrane. They lack a nucleus and organelles. Therefore, the cells have little oxygen demand themselves, making them ideal for transporting oxygen to tissues. The biconcave shape enhances their ability to exchange gases by increasing their surface area. This shape is flexible, allowing the cells to deform slightly as they pass through capillaries that are not much wider than the cells. 2) Describe the conclusions that can be drawn from a "CBC with diff" that comes back showing (a) elevated neutrophils, (b) with elevated eosinophils. Answer: (a) A complete blood count with differential white blood cell count that shows elevated neutrophils would suggest the presence of a bacterial infection. Neutrophils are primarily phagocytic against bacteria. (b) A test that reported elevated eosinophils would suggest either an allergic reaction or the presence of a parasitic infection.

3) Explain how platelets are involved in stopping blood flow through a wound. Answer: Platelets attach themselves only to damaged blood vessels or those roughened by scarring, inflammation, or atherosclerosis. By adhering to a ruptured vessel, they form a temporary plug in the opening. Upon attaching to the collagen fibers, they release chemicals that attract additional platelets to the area and other chemicals that initiate a clotting cascade. This cascade involves the accumulation of fibrin protein in a mesh-like plug that traps blood cells and platelets and seals the opening in the vessel wall. 4) Polycythemia is a condition in which there is an abnormal excess of erythrocytes in the blood. Describe potential consequences of polycythemia. Answer: . An excess amount of red blood cells in the blood would cause the blood to be thicker than normal. This could make it more difficult for the blood to pass easily through the blood vessels. The blood would move more slowly, and the excess red blood cells could cause blockages in small vessels. 5) Describe the difference between myeloblastic and lymphoblastic leukemias, and identify the types of cells that might be abnormal in each disease. Answer: Myeloblastic leukemia is an abnormal proliferation of leukocytes derived from the myeloid stem cells. These would include the neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils. In contrast, lymphoblastic leukemia is an abnormal proliferation of lymphocytes (B and T cells). In both cases, the bloodstream may have an abundance of these cells, the presence of abnormal leukocytes, and, in late stages, a decline in erythrocytes.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 19 The Heart 19.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Identify the letter that indicates the left common carotid artery. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

2) Identify the letter that indicates the left auricle. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Identify the letter that indicates the ligamentum arteriosum. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Identify the letter that indicates the left coronary artery. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Identify the letter that indicates the aortic arch. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 6) Identify the letter that indicates anchor points for chordae tendineae, composed of cells from the myocardium. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Identify the letter that indicates the tissue layer of the heart known as the epicardium. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) Identify the letter that indicates the left atrioventricular valve. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Identify the letter that indicates the location of the bundle branches. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 10) The region between the right and left pleural cavities is the A) pulmonary cavity. B) peritoneal cavity. C) pericardial cavity. D) vertebral cavity. E) mediastinum. Answer: E Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) The heart chamber that pumps oxygenated blood to the systemic circuit is the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) right ventricle. D) left ventricle. Answer: D Section: 19.1 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

12) The accumulation of pericardial fluid due to inflammation, or the accumulation of blood in the pericardial cavity, can lead to A) pericarditis. B) pleuritis. C) cardiac tamponade. D) fasciae adherens. E) mitral valve prolapse. Answer: C Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The pericardial cavity lies between A) the fibrous pericardium and the parietal pericardium. B) the parietal pericardium and the visceral pericardium. C) the serous pericardium and the epicardium. D) the fibrous pericardium and the diaphragm. Answer: B Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) A penetrating stab wound to the heart wall that causes blood to leak into the pericardial cavity would result in A) cardiac tamponade. B) myocardial infarction. C) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. D) endocarditis. Answer: A Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.2 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The inner endothelial layer that lines the heart is the A) epicardium. B) pericardium. C) myocardium. D) endocardium. Answer: D Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

16) Internal C-shaped crest of the right atrium, which indicates the openings for the superior and inferior vena cavae. A) ligamentum arteriosum. B) crista terminalis. C) trabeculae carneae. D) pectinate muscles. E) fossa ovalis. Answer: B Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) Threadlike structures of the endocardium that prevent prolapse of the atrioventricular valves. A) ligamentum arteriosum B) pectinate muscles C) trabeculae carneae D) chordae tendineae E) fossa ovalis Answer: D Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) The auricles are A) earlike flaps on the surface of the ventricles. B) earlike flaps on the surface of the atria. C) projections of the endothelium into the ventricles. D) modifications of the pectinate muscles on the inner surface of the atria. Answer: B Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of the following structures is not found in the left ventricle? A) pectinate muscles B) mitral valve C) trabeculae carneae D) papillary muscles Answer: A Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

20) The right ventricle pumps blood into the A) aorta. B) pulmonary vein. C) pulmonary trunk. D) superior vena cava. Answer: C Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) Of the three layers of the heart wall, the layer that contains cardiac muscle is the A) epicardium. B) visceral layer of serous pericardium. C) myocardium. D) endocardium. Answer: C Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) A drop of blood returning to the heart from the head region would enter the heart through which vessel? A) a pulmonary vein B) the inferior vena cava C) the superior vena cava D) the coronary sinus Answer: C Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) The crista terminalis can be used to locate all of the following structures except the A) opening of the coronary sinus. B) opening of the inferior vena cava. C) opening of the pulmonary veins. D) opening of the superior vena cava. Answer: C Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

24) Pericarditis can lead to all of the following except A) excess fluid in the pericardial cavity. B) pericardial friction rub. C) adhesions. D) a myocardial infarction. Answer: D Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) The "heartstrings" are the A) cusps of the atrioventricular valves. B) chordae tendineae. C) trabeculae carneae. D) papillary muscles. Answer: B Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Cardiac muscle cells are bound by connective tissue into long circular and spiral networks called A) branches. B) auricles. C) chordae tendinae. D) bundles. Answer: D Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) The epicardium is the same as the A) visceral layer of serous pericardium. B) pericardium. C) endocardium. D) fibrous pericardium. Answer: A Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

28) The ________ lies directly deep to the fibrous pericardium. A) pericardial cavity B) visceral layer of the serous pericardium C) parietal layer of the serous pericardium D) epicardium Answer: C Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 29) Valve responsible for preventing backflow of blood from the lungs into the heart. A) tricuspid B) bicuspid C) aortic semilunar D) pulmonary semilunar E) pectinate Answer: D Section: 19.3 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) The superior corner of the right atrium of the heart is located at the A) costal cartilage of the sixth rib, a finger's width lateral to the sternum. B) costal cartilage of the third rib where it attaches to the sternum. C) fifth intercostal space along a line extending inferiorly from the midpoint of the clavicle. D) midpoint of the jugular notch. Answer: B Section: 19.3 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 31) Heart valve with two cusps. A) mitral B) pulmonary semilunar C) aortic semilunar D) fossa ovalis E) crista terminalis Answer: A Section: 19.3 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

32) The cusps of the valves of the heart are covered by A) epicardium. B) myocardium. C) endocardium. D) modified pericardium. Answer: C Section: 19.3 Book LO: 19.2 & 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) At which corner point of the heart does one listen for the sound of the closing aortic semilunar valve? A) superior right B) inferior right C) superior left D) inferior left Answer: A Section: 19.3 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 34) Semilunar valves are located A) between the atria and the ventricles. B) between the ventricles and the great arteries. C) between the great veins and the atria. D) only between the left ventricle and the aorta. Answer: B Section: 19.3 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) If "lub-dup" describes a heartbeat, the "dup" part of the sound is caused by A) the apex of the heart hitting the anterior chest wall. B) a stenotic atrioventricular valve. C) the large force of the contracting ventricles. D) vibrations that result from the semilunar valves slamming shut. Answer: D Section: 19.3 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

36) Stenosis of the mitral valve may cause blood to back up into the A) venae cavae. B) pulmonary circulation. C) right ventricle. D) coronary circulation. Answer: B Section: 19.3 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 37) Contraction of these structures tightens the chordae tendineae, preventing valve prolapse. A) trabeculae carneae B) pectinate muscles C) crista terminalis D) papillary muscles E) atrioventricular bundle Answer: D Section: 19.3 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) To listen for the aortic semilunar valve on the chest wall, one would place the stethoscope in the A) second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. B) second intercostal space to the left of the sternum. C) fifth intercostal space inferior to the left nipple. D) fifth right intercostal space. Answer: A Section: 19.3 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 39) The ________ returns most of the venous blood from the heart to the right atrium. A) great cardiac vein B) coronary sinus C) anterior cardiac vein D) posterior interventricular vein Answer: B Section: 19.4 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

40) The tricuspid valve is closed A) while the ventricle is in diastole. B) by movement of blood from atrium to ventricle. C) while the atrium is contracting. D) when the ventricle is in systole. Answer: D Section: 19.4 Book LO: 19.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) The semilunar valves are closed when the A) ventricles are contracting. B) ventricles are relaxed. C) atrioventricular valves are closed. D) blood moves into the aorta and pulmonary trunk. Answer: B Section: 19.4 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 42) Oxygen-poor blood returning to the heart enters the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) left ventricle. D) right ventricle. Answer: A Section: 19.4 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) During ventricular systole, blood is A) flowing from the systemic and pulmonary circuits into both the atria and ventricles. B) forced from the atria into the ventricles. C) forced from the ventricles into the aorta and pulmonary trunk. D) not flowing into or out of the heart. Answer: C Section: 19.4 Book LO: 19.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

44) Blood in the pulmonary veins returns to the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) right ventricle. D) left ventricle. Answer: B Section: 19.4 Book LO: 19.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) During left ventricular systole, blood enters the A) aorta. B) pulmonary trunk. C) pulmonary vein. D) venae cavae. Answer: A Section: 19.4 Book LO: 19.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) The ________ receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins. A) right atrium B) right ventricle C) left atrium D) left ventricle E) right auricle Answer: C Section: 19.4 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) The ________ receives blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae and the coronary sinus. A) right atrium B) right ventricle C) left atrium D) left ventricle E) left auricle Answer: A Section: 19.4 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

48) Which of the following vessels does not carry oxygen-poor blood to the heart? A) the superior vena cava B) the inferior vena cava C) the pulmonary vein D) the coronary sinus Answer: C Section: 19.4 Book LO: 19.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) The desmosome-like structures that attach adjacent cardiac muscle cells are called A) fasciae adherens. B) gap junctions. C) intercalated disks. D) T tubules. Answer: A Section: 19.5 Book LO: 19.8 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) Which heart chamber is most affected by hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? A) right atrium B) right ventricle C) left ventricle D) left atrium Answer: C Section: 19.5 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) The heart chamber with the thickest wall is the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) right ventricle. D) left ventricle. Answer: D Section: 19.5 Book LO: 19.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

52) The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right ventricular wall, so it can A) accommodate a greater volume of blood. B) expand the thoracic cage during diastole. C) pump blood with greater pressure. D) pump blood through a smaller valve. Answer: C Section: 19.5 Book LO: 19.7 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 53) Cells of the subendocardial conducting network A) are larger and have fewer myofilaments than other cardiac cells. B) are nonconducting cells that electrically insulate the bundle branches of the interventricular septum. C) are pacemaker cells located in the SA node that initiate each heartbeat. D) are sensory cells that monitor the stretch of the myocardium to prevent overexpansion by high blood pressure. Answer: A Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 54) The cardiac centers that control heart rate are located in the A) cerebral cortex of the temporal lobe. B) medulla oblongata of the brain stem. C) pituitary gland of the diencephalon. D) thoracic segments of the spinal cord. Answer: B Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) Cells of the conducting system located between the AV node and bundle branches. A) trabeculae carneae B) pectinate muscles C) crista terminalis D) papillary muscles E) atrioventricular bundle Answer: E Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

56) The parasympathetic fibers of the vagus nerve A) speed up the heartbeat. B) increase the force of cardiac contractions. C) slow the heartbeat. D) decrease the force of cardiac contractions. Answer: C Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) Large cardiac cells of the conducting system embedded in the ventricular walls between the endocardium and myocardium. A) atrioventricular bundle B) atrioventricular branches C) subendocardial conducting network (Purkinje fibers) D) sinoatrial node E) atrioventricular node Answer: C Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) Parasympathetic impulses to the SA node are transmitted on this cranial nerve. A) Glossopharyngeal B) Accessory—spinal part C) Vagus D) Trigeminal E) Hypoglossal Answer: C Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) The atrioventricular node is located in the A) right atrium, just inferior to the opening of the superior vena cava. B) inferior part of the interatrial septum. C) interventricular septum, near the heart base. D) walls of the ventricles, with the other Purkinje fibers. Answer: B Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

60) Destruction of which structure will result in electrical signals traveling to only one ventricle? A) atrioventricular bundle B) bundle branch C) internodal pathway D) sinoatrial node Answer: B Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) Clinically, the posterior interventricular artery is referred to as the A) left artery ascending. B) left artery descending. C) posterior descending artery. D) posterior ascending artery. Answer: C Section: 19.7 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) Which of these blood vessels is located in the anterior interventricular sulcus? A) anterior cardiac vein B) great cardiac vein C) middle cardiac vein D) small cardiac vein Answer: B Section: 19.7 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) The small cardiac vein lies on the A) right ventricle. B) left ventricle. C) right atrium. D) left atrium. Answer: A Section: 19.7 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

64) The ________ artery nourishes the walls of the left atrium. A) anterior interventricular. B) circumflex. C) posterior interventricular. D) right coronary. Answer: B Section: 19.7 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) A specific coronary vessel that lies in the coronary sulcus is the A) posterior interventricular artery. B) right coronary artery. C) small cardiac vein. D) right marginal artery. Answer: B Section: 19.7 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) Which of the following veins does not deliver blood directly to the right atrium? A) superior vena cava B) inferior vena cava C) coronary sinus D) the great cardiac veins Answer: D Section: 19.7 Book LO: 19.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) Death of heart musculature due to lack of oxygen. A) cardiac tamponade B) valve insufficiency C) heart block D) myocardial infarction E) ventricular fibrillation Answer: D Section: 19.8 Book LO: 19.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

68) Enlargement of the heart with progressive decline in pumping efficiency. A) cardiac tamponade B) congestive heart failure C) heart block D) myocardial infarction E) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy Answer: B Section: 19.8 Book LO: 19.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) In atrial fibrillation, random waves of impulses within the atrial myocardium cause irregular stimulation of the ________, leading to irregular ventricular systole. A) AV node B) cardiac skeleton C) SA node D) AV valves Answer: A Section: 19.8 Book LO: 19.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 70) Condition in which the ventricles are unable to pump blood efficiently because of rapid, random contraction of cardiac muscle fibers is called A) atrial fibrillation. B) ventricular fibrillation. C) pulmonary arterial hypertension. D) congestive heart failure. Answer: B Section: 19.8 Book LO: 19.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) The term for pain caused by deficient blood delivery to the heart wall is A) ischemia. B) angina pectoris. C) myocardial infarct. D) pericarditis. Answer: B Section: 19.8 Book LO: 19.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

72) Insertion of a stent to treat coronary artery disease (CAD) A) involves grafting a portion of the saphenous vein that contains the stent into the occluded artery. B) is accomplished by laparoscopic incision at the jugular notch. C) occurs through a catheter inserted in the femoral artery. D) requires open heart surgery. Answer: C Section: 19.8 Book LO: 19.11 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 73) The ________ develops from the embryological chamber called the sinus venosus. A) sinoatrial (SA) node B) right ventricle C) left atrium D) pulmonary trunk Answer: A Section: 19.9 Book LO: 19.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 74) The foramen ovale in the fetal heart gives rise to the A) openings between the atria and ventricles. B) openings between the ventricles. C) fossa ovalis. D) aortic semilunar valve. Answer: C Section: 19.9 Book LO: 19.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) Which structure develops from the embryological chamber called the bulbus cordis? A) the left atrium B) the right ventricle C) the left ventricle D) the sinoatrial node Answer: B Section: 19.9 Book LO: 19.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

76) Which of the following statements about fetal heart development is false? A) The four heart chambers first develop during the third trimester. B) The heart begins as a pair of tubes in the midline of the thorax. C) The heart develops from mesodermal mesenchyme. D) The two atria are connected by a foramen ovale until birth. Answer: A Section: 19.9 Book LO: 19.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 77) The most common congenital heart defects occur during the ________ month of development. A) first B) second C) third D) sixth Answer: B Section: 19.9 Book LO: 19.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 78) Which of the following is not an age-related change in the heart? A) thinning of the valve cusps B) decline in cardiac reserve C) fibrosis of cardiac muscle D) atherosclerosis Answer: A Section: 19.9 Book LO: 19.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 19.2 True/False Questions 1) The correct sequence of heart wall layers from superficial to deep is epicardium, endocardium, and myocardium. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

2) Papillary muscles are horizontal ridges in the walls of the atrium. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.2 Book LO: 19.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Sounds of the aortic semilunar valve are heard in the second intercostal space at the right sternal margin. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.3 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 4) Prolapse of the atrioventricular valves is prevented by the chordae tendineae. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.3 Book LO: 19.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Oxygen-rich blood returning from the lungs enters the left atrium through two right and two left pulmonary veins. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.4 Book LO: 19.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Contraction of the heart proceeds first on the right side of the heart and second on the left. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.4 Book LO: 19.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Heart block interferes with the ability of the ventricles to receive the pacing impulses of the conducting system. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) The electrical event that begins each heartbeat occurs at the sinoatrial (SA) node. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Contraction of the ventricles begins at the apex and proceeds superiorly. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) The fibrous skeleton of the heart forces the transmission of electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles via the atrioventricular bundle. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Parasympathetic fibers innervate the SA node, AV node, and cardiac musculature. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.6 Book LO: 19.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 12) The right and left coronary arteries arise from the descending aorta. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.7 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The middle cardiac vein lies alongside the anterior interventricular artery. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.7 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

14) Atherosclerosis in the marginal artery may cause ischemia in the left side of the heart. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.8 Book LO: 19.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The heart lies on the superior surface of the diaphragm, with its ________ anterior to the rest of the heart and just to the left of the midline. Answer: apex 2) Inflammation of the heart's myocardium is called ________. Answer: myocarditis 3) The sequence of pericardial layers from superficial to deep is the fibrous, ________, and visceral pericardium. Answer: parietal 4) The right atrium receives blood from the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and ________. Answer: coronary sinus 5) A heart valve that fails to close properly is considered to be ________ or to exhibit insufficiency. Answer: incompetent 6) Irregular ridges in the walls of the ventricles are called ________. Answer: trabeculae carneae 7) The ________ valve prevents backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium. Answer: mitral, left atrioventricular, or bicuspid 8) The atrioventricular valves cannot be inverted because of the attachment of ________. Answer: chordae tendineae 9) The first part of the heart sound "lub-dup" is produced by the closing of the right and left ________. Answer: atrioventricular valves 10) The ________ of the heart prevents overdilation of the valve openings. Answer: cardiac skeleton 11) The ________ are subdivisions of the atrioventricular bundle located within the upper half of the interventricular septum. Answer: bundle branches or crura 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

12) The ________ artery supplies the left atrium and the posterior part of the left ventricle. Answer: circumflex artery 13) Adjacent cardiac muscle cells are joined by intercalated discs, which have desmosome-like ________ to help bind the cells together. Answer: fasciae adherens 14) Intercalated discs contain ________ which allow ions to pass between cells, allowing the direct transmission of impulses. Answer: gap junctions 15) The technique called ________ uses a balloon catheter to expand stenotic coronary arteries. Answer: angioplasty 16) Uncoordinated contractions of the ventricle, known as ________, result from irregularities in conducting system behavior. Answer: fibrillation 17) The congenital heart defect in which the pulmonary trunk is narrowed, the right ventricle is hypertrophied, the interventricular septum is incomplete, and the aorta is connected to both ventricles is called ________. Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot 19.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe how the arrangement of cardiac muscle bundles "squeezes" the blood from the heart. Answer: The muscle bundles of the atria are circular. Contraction of these bundles forces the blood inferiorly through the AV valves into the ventricles. The bundles of the ventricles are arranged as a spiral. These bundles contract in a twisting fashion, beginning at the apex and wringing the blood superiorly through the semilunar valves of the pulmonary trunk and aorta. 2) Compare the difference between incompetent and stenotic heart valves. Answer: Incompetent heart valves are valves that do not close properly and allow blood to leak past the cusps. In contrast, stenotic heart valves do not open properly because they have become stiff and rigid as a result of accumulation of calcium deposits. Although both conditions differ in their cause, their common effect is to weaken the heart and diminish its efficiency. 3) Describe the function of the cardiac skeleton of the heart. Answer: The cardiac skeleton of the heart anchors the heart valves in position and prevents their openings from overdilating as blood flows through. The skeleton also anchors the cardiac muscle bundles and keeps the heart from tearing itself apart as different chambers contract. Finally, the cardiac skeleton serves as an electrical insulator that limits spread of the electrical depolarizations of the atria to the ventricles.

4) Identify the change in blood flow through the heart in the condition of a ventricular septal defect. Answer: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to flow directly from the right to left ventricles. When this happens, some of the blood from the right atrium has bypassed the pulmonary circuit and therefore remains deoxygenated. This means that blood pumped from the left ventricle through the systemic circuit consists of both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. 5) Describe the histological features of cardiac cells that allow for coordinated contractions. Answer: Individual cells of the myocardium are connected by intercalated disks. These disks have fingerlike projections that interlock with those of the adjacent cell. Within these interlocking disks, fasciae adherens are desmosome-like structures that transmit the contractile force of one cell to another. Additionally, gap junctions in the disks allow for the flow of activating ions (calcium and sodium) between cells so that synchronized contractions occur.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 20 Blood Vessels 20.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The layer of blood vessels innervated by sympathetic vasomotor fibers is called the A) tunica intima B) subendothelial layer C) tunica media D) tunica externa E) vasa vasorum Answer: C Section: 20.1 Book LO: 20.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which layer of blood vessels contains smooth muscle tissue? A) tunica intima B) tunica media C) tunica externa D) tunica adventitia Answer: B Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 3) Identify the letter that is indicating the lumen. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 20.1 Book LO: 20.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Identify the letter that indicates a connective tissue layer consisting of longitudinal collagen fibers. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 20.1 Book LO: 20.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

5) Identify the letter that indicates the blood vessel layer that is comprised of circular and longitudinal smooth muscle. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 20.1 Book LO: 20.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Identify the letter that indicates the layer common to all blood vessels regardless of their size. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 20.1 Book LO: 20.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Identify the letter that indicates the subendothelial layer associated with larger blood vessels. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 20.1 Book LO: 20.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) The vasa vasorum A) supply the outer half of the walls of larger arteries and veins with oxygen and nutrients. B) are located in the tunica media. C) disrupt the collagen and weaken the walls of large vessels. D) are only found in small blood vessels. Answer: A Section: 20.1 Book LO: 20.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

9) Microvasculature that provides nourishment to the outer walls of the aorta is called the A) tunica intima B) subendothelial layer C) tunica media D) tunica externa E) vasa vasorum Answer: E Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) A blood vessel that ranges from 0.3 mm to about 1 cm in diameter and has a large tunica media relative to the size of the lumen is A) an elastic artery. B) a muscular artery. C) an arteriole. D) a capillary. Answer: B Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Which of the following statements about arterioles is false? A) They regulate the flow of blood to capillary beds through contraction and relaxation of the tunica media. B) They redirect blood flow to skeletal muscle in a sympathetic response. C) They can lead into metarterioles. D) They have the largest content of smooth muscle in their tunica media. Answer: D Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Blood pressure is highest in the A) elastic arteries. B) arterioles. C) veins. D) capillaries. Answer: A Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

13) Capillaries consist of only this layer. A) tunica intima B) subendothelial layer C) tunica media D) tunica externa E) vasa vasorum Answer: A Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) The diameter of a typical capillary is similar to that of A) a venule. B) a sinusoid. C) an erythrocyte. D) a fat cell. Answer: C Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Vessels of the small intestines, renal glomerulus, and synovial membranes that allow passage of fluid and solutes through "windows" in the endothelium. A) sinusoids B) fenestrated capillaries C) continuous capillaries D) metarterioles E) none of the above Answer: B Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) Fenestrated capillaries A) are located in the central nervous system. B) have pores in their walls. C) permit the movement of very few molecules. D) occur in most of the organs of the body. Answer: B Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

17) Wide leaky capillaries found in bone marrow and spleen. A) sinusoids B) fenestrated capillaries C) continuous capillaries D) metarterioles E) none of the above Answer: A Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) Most small molecules pass through a capillary wall through which route? A) via direct diffusion through the endothelium B) via pinocytotic vesicles C) through intercellular clefts D) through tight junctions Answer: C Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) The largest molecules that pass through the walls of typical capillaries are thought to use which route? A) direct diffusion through the endothelium B) pinocytotic vesicles C) intercellular clefts D) tight junctions Answer: B Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 20) Present in most capillaries, these structures are absent in those of the blood-brain barrier. A) tight junctions B) endothelial cells C) basement membrane D) intercellular clefts E) pericytes Answer: D Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Part 1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

21) In a capillary bed, relaxation of the precapillary sphincters causes more blood to flow A) into the thoroughfare channels. B) into the arterioles. C) through the true capillaries. D) through the metarterioles. Answer: C Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) Precapillary sphincters allow blood to leave this structure and enter true capillaries. A) sinusoids B) fenestrated capillaries C) continuous capillaries D) metarterioles E) none of the above Answer: D Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Structure that regulates blood flow into true capillaries. A) metarteriole B) thoroughfare channel C) precapillary sphincter D) sinusoids E) fenestrations Answer: C Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which of the following statements about arteries is false? A) Arterial walls are thicker than venous walls. B) Arteries have a smaller lumen than veins of similar size. C) Arteries carry oxygenated blood to the heart. D) Arteries have more elastin than veins. Answer: C Section: 20.1 Book LO: 20.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

25) By definition, veins are A) vessels that carry blood toward the heart. B) vessels that always carry nutrient-poor blood. C) the only vessels that lead from capillaries. D) vessels that carry oxygen-poor blood. Answer: A Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Functionally, there are no valves in arteries (as opposed to in veins) because A) valves direct blood only toward the heart and arterial blood passes away from the heart. B) valves would tear apart from the high arterial pressure. C) arteries get more atherosclerosis, so valves would cause lethal blood clotting. D) the blood pressure in arteries is high enough that there is no backflow of blood. Answer: D Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) What prevents the backflow of blood in veins? A) valves B) the narrowed lumen C) thick smooth muscle and elastic layers D) increased blood pressure Answer: A Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 28) A "coming together" of alternate pathways of blood vessels. A) thoroughfare channel B) vasa vasorum C) metarterioles D) vascular anastomosis E) converging veins Answer: D Section: 20.3 Book LO: 20.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

29) The pulmonary circuit A) supplies oxygenated blood to the brain. B) supplies deoxygenated blood to the abdominal organs C) supplies oxygenated blood to the lung tissue. D) supplies deoxygenated blood to the lungs so it can become oxygenated. Answer: D Section: 20.4 Book LO: 20.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) The systemic circuit supplies all of the following except A) oxygenated blood to the brain. B) oxygenated blood to the tissue of the lungs. C) oxygenated blood to the muscles of the upper extremity. D) deoxygenated blood to the lungs for gas exchange. Answer: D Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) Why do the arteries and veins of the pulmonary circuit have thinner walls than arteries and veins of the systemic circuit? A) The pressure against the walls of the vessels is much lower in the pulmonary circuit than the systemic circuit. B) The pulmonary arteries lack a tunica externa. C) The systemic arteries have fewer elastic fibers than the pulmonary arteries. D) The tunica media is significantly thinner in the systemic circuit than the pulmonary circuit. Answer: A Section: 20.3 Book LO: 20.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) In the pulmonary circuit A) the right and left pulmonary arteries carry blood directly from the right ventricle. B) the pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood. C) the pulmonary veins drain into the right ventricle. D) the pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood. Answer: D Section: 20.3 Book LO: 20.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 33) Identify the letter that indicates the brachial artery. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

34) Identify the letter that indicates the ulnar artery. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Identify the letter that indicates the common carotid arteries. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) Identify the letter that indicates the renal artery. A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) Identify the letter that indicates the common iliac artery. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

38) What artery enters the skull through the foramen spinosum and supplies the inner surface of the parietal bone, dura mater, and parts of the temporal bone? A) internal carotid artery B) middle cerebral artery C) middle meningeal artery D) basilar artery Answer: C Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) The correct proximal to distal sequence of the three vessels branching from the aortic arch is A) brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian. B) brachiocephalic, left subclavian, left common carotid. C) left common carotid, left subclavian, brachiocephalic. D) left subclavian, left common carotid, brachiocephalic. Answer: A Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) The cerebral arterial circle forms a loop around which structures? A) the great vessels at the base of the heart B) the internal and external carotid arteries C) the cerebellum D) the pituitary gland and the optic chiasma Answer: D Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.3 Part 2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) The internal carotid artery branches to form the A) anterior cerebral, middle cerebral, and ophthalmic arteries. B) facial, maxillary, and superficial temporal arteries. C) middle meningeal and middle cerebral arteries. D) posterior cerebral and posterior communicating arteries. Answer: A Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

42) Which arteries connect the basilar artery and the internal carotid artery forming the posterior aspect of the cerebral arterial circle? A) genicular arteries that encircle the knee B) posterior communicating arteries C) ulnar artery that encircles the elbow joint D) anterior communicating arteries Answer: B Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) The ________ delivers arterial blood to the rotator cuff muscles and thyroid gland. A) axillary artery B) costocervical trunk C) thyrocervical trunk D) vertebral artery Answer: C Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 44) The extensor muscles of the forearm are supplied by which artery? A) radial B) posterior interosseous C) ulnar D) deep palmar arch Answer: B Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) Which of the following is not a branch of the celiac trunk? A) left gastric artery B) common hepatic artery C) sigmoidal artery D) splenic artery Answer: C Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

46) Which branch (or branches) of the abdominal aorta supplies the stomach? A) celiac trunk B) superior mesenteric artery C) inferior phrenic arteries D) suprarenal arteries Answer: A Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) Which artery arises from the inferior part of the abdominal aorta and supplies the distal half of the large intestine? A) gonadal artery B) median sacral artery C) superior phrenic artery D) inferior mesenteric artery Answer: D Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) The abdominal aorta divides at its distal end into which arteries? A) the femoral arteries B) the internal iliac arteries C) the external iliac arteries D) the common iliac arteries Answer: D Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) The main arteries of the sole of the foot—the medial and lateral plantar arteries—arise behind the ankle from which artery? A) posterior tibial B) fibular C) saphenous D) dorsalis pedis Answer: A Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

50) Two large arteries that have relatively superficial locations and are, therefore, vulnerable to injury the A) aorta and the popliteal artery. B) right and left coronary arteries. C) brachial artery and posterior intercostal arteries. D) common carotid artery and the femoral artery (in the superior thigh). Answer: D Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.10 & 20.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 51) The pulse of the facial artery is palpated A) anterior to the auricle of the ear near the temple. B) anterior to the masseter muscle at the inferior margin of the mandible. C) anterior to the sternocleidomastoid. D) in the anterior triangle of the neck. Answer: B Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 52) If a physician cannot feel a pulse in the popliteal fossa, the ________ artery is most likely narrowed by atherosclerosis. A) dorsalis pedis B) femoral C) fibular D) greater saphenous Answer: B Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 53) The dorsalis pedis artery pulse is located by A) finding the head of the fibula and palpating inferior to its neck. B) palpating between the first and second metatarsal. C) placing the fingers behind the knee. D) placing a finger behind the medial malleolus. Answer: B Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 54) Identify the letter that indicates the vessel that arises from the union of the left and right brachiocephalic veins. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

55) Identify the letter that indicates the internal jugular vein. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) Identify the letter that indicates the vessel that is easy to find in most people and is used to obtain blood. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) Identify the letter that indicates the cephalic vein. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

58) Identify the letter that indicates the longest vein in the body. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) The collective name for the structures that drain the cranium is A) vascular anastomosis B) dural sinuses C) internal jugular vein D) cavernous sinuses E) inferior vena cava Answer: B Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) Of the following, the only unpaired dural sinus is the A) cavernous sinus. B) superior sagittal sinus. C) transverse sinus. D) carotid sinus. Answer: B Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) Which vessel is missing in the following statement? "Tracing venous blood from the inferior left side of the posterior abdominal wall to the heart, we find that blood enters the posterior intercostal veins, the hemiazygos vein, the superior vena cava, and the right atrium." A) the azygos vein B) the hepatic portal vein C) the inferior vena cava D) the right brachiocephalic vein Answer: A Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

62) A dural sinus that contains a major artery and some cranial nerves within it is the A) superior sagittal. B) inferior sagittal. C) cavernous. D) transverse. Answer: C Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) Systemic venous blood that is oxygen-poor but contains the lowest concentration of nitrogenous wastes occurs in the A) renal veins. B) hepatic portal vein. C) pulmonary veins. D) umbilical veins of the fetus. Answer: A Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 64) The right suprarenal and gonadal veins drain into the inferior vena cava, whereas the left suprarenal and gonadal veins drain into the A) superior vena cava. B) other side of the inferior vena cava. C) hepatic portal system. D) left renal vein. Answer: D Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 65) The lumbar veins drain the inferior posterior abdominal wall and direct oxygen-poor blood into the A) superior vena cava. B) internal iliac vein. C) external iliac vein. D) inferior vena cava. Answer: D Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

66) Which vessel is most commonly used to bypass a damaged coronary artery in coronary bypass surgery? A) azygos vein B) great saphenous vein C) femoral artery D) internal carotid artery Answer: B Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) Which of the following is most likely to become a varicose vein? A) the femoral vein B) the saphenous vein C) the popliteal vein D) the fibular (peroneal) vein Answer: B Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 68) The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver is called A) coronary circulation. B) pulmonary circulation. C) hepatic portal circulation. D) cerebral circulation. Answer: C Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

69) Which vessel is missing from the following statement? "Tracing blood that drains from the large intestine, we find that blood drains from the distal colon is collected in the inferior mesenteric vein, merges with the splenic vein then directed to the hepatic portal vein, the liver sinusoids, and the inferior vena cava." A) celiac vein B) umbilical vein C) hepatic vein D) azygos vein Answer: C Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 70) The hepatic portal system has two distinct capillary beds separated by a portal vein. What are the functions of these two capillary beds? A) The first picks up digested nutrients, and the second delivers these nutrients to liver cells. B) The first nourishes the digestive tube, and the second picks up nutrients from the digestive tube. C) The first provides oxygen to the liver, and the second picks up nutrients from the liver. D) The first picks up toxins from the liver, and the second delivers them to the digestive tube for detoxification. Answer: A Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) Most systemic venous blood is both oxygen-poor and nutrient-poor. However, systemic venous blood that is nutrient-rich occurs in A) the renal vein. B) superficial veins of the limbs. C) the hepatic portal vein. D) the pulmonary veins. Answer: C Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

72) Why are aneurisms, or a sac-like outpocketing of a vessel wall, much more common in arteries than veins? A) Pressure against the walls of arteries is higher than the pressure against the walls of veins. B) Arteries have a thicker tunica media, making them more vulnerable than veins. C) Arteries have a thinner tunica externa than veins. D) Arteries have more vasa vasorum than veins, making the tunica externa weaker in arteries. Answer: A Section: 20.6 Book LO: 20.17 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 73) In atherosclerosis, the walls of arteries become thicker, stiffer, and can protrude into the lumen. Why would this lead to an increase in blood pressure? A) The loss of recoil of the arterial wall due to hardening makes it more difficult for the arteries to help blood move downstream away from the heart. B) The artery lumen becomes wider, making it harder for the blood to move away from the heart. C) The hardened artery wall itself requires less blood supply, which increases the amount of blood in the lumen and increases the blood pressure. D) The thickened, hard artery recoils stronger than a normal artery, increasing the blood pressure. Answer: A Section: 20.6 Book LO: 20.17 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 74) The foramen ovale in the heart normally closes A) in the 2-month fetus. B) in the 7-month fetus. C) shortly after birth. D) never. Answer: C Section: 20.7 Book LO: 20.18 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

75) What vessel in the fetus connects the pulmonary trunk to the aortic arch so that most of the blood bypasses the immature lungs? A) ductus venosus B) foramen ovale C) ductus arteriosus D) umbilical vein Answer: C Section: 20.7 Book LO: 20.18 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 76) In the adult, the hepatic portal system carries nutrients absorbed from the digestive tract to the liver. In the fetus, nutrients are absorbed at the placenta, and the vessel that carries these nutrients to the liver is the A) hepatic portal vein. B) placental vein. C) umbilical vein. D) internal iliac vein. Answer: C Section: 20.7 Book LO: 20.18 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 77) Blood passing through the fetal ductus arteriosus bypasses the A) lungs, left atrium, and ventricle. B) pulmonary trunk and lungs. C) right atrium and ventricle. D) right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, and lungs. Answer: A Section: 20.7 Book LO: 20.18 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

78) With aging of the vascular system A) the arteries walls tend to harden and thicken. B) blood pressure tends to decrease. C) the tunica media becomes stronger. D) the endothelium facing the lumen becomes smoother. Answer: A Section: 20.7 Book LO: 20.19 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20.2 True/False Questions 1) All types of blood vessels contain a tunica intima. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.1 Book LO: 20.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Arterioles and venules have a vasa vasorum to provide nutrients to their outer walls, whereas the inner walls receive nutrients from blood in the lumen. Answer: FALSE Section: 20.1 Book LO: 20.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) The elastic arteries are the largest arteries near the heart. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Muscular arteries regulate blood flow to organs and groups of organs. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

5) Systemic blood pressure is regulated by adjusting the diameter of arterioles. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) In metabolically active tissues, blood is present in metarterioles, and precapillary sphincters are constricted. Answer: FALSE Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Postcapillary venules function much like true capillaries. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Veins have less elastin in their walls than do arteries. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.2 Book LO: 20.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) All arteries carry oxygen-rich blood, whereas veins carry oxygen-poor blood. Answer: FALSE Section: 20.1 Book LO: 20.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) The middle and posterior cerebral arteries are connected by the posterior communicating arteries. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

11) The internal iliac arteries supply blood both to the pelvic organs and to the lower limbs. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) The pulse of the posterior tibial artery is palpated behind the knee. Answer: FALSE Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The inferior vena cava ascends on the left side of the vertebral bodies and to the left of the abdominal aorta. Answer: FALSE Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.15 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) The saphenous vein is not paired with an artery with the same name. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.5 Book LO: 20.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Paired fetal umbilical veins carry blood from the fetus to the placenta, whereas the unpaired umbilical artery returns blood from the placenta to the fetus. Answer: FALSE Section: 20.7 Book LO: 20.18 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The largest blood vessels near the heart have their own blood supply network called the ________. Answer: vasa vasorum 2) Capillaries that allow a high degree of flow between the blood and tissue fluid usually have pores called ________ in their membranes. Answer: fenestrations 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

3) The blood-brain barrier consists of capillaries with complete ________ and no intercellular clefts. Answer: tight junctions 4) In a capillary bed, blood enters by a terminal arteriole, continues through a metarteriole, and exits to a venule by means of a(n) ________. Answer: thoroughfare channel 5) The presence of ________ in the veins and the action of skeletal muscle pressing on the walls ensure that blood return to the heart is in one direction. Answer: valves 6) ________ channels, also known as arterial anastomoses, provide alternative pathways of blood to joints. Answer: Collateral 7) Blood flow to the posterior brain follows the following sequence: subclavian artery, vertebral artery, ________, posterior cerebral arteries. Answer: basilar artery 8) The ________ vein descends through the transverse foramina of the first six cervical vertebrae. Answer: vertebral 9) The ________ branches to form the right subclavian and right common carotid arteries. Answer: brachiocephalic trunk 10) The ________ artery descends along the arcuate line of the ilium and passes below the inguinal ligament. Answer: external iliac 11) The ________ pulse can be palpated near the temple anterior to the auricle of the ear. Answer: temporal 12) The ________ vein is the superficial vein running along the medial aspect of the forearm and arm. Answer: basilic 13) Venous blood from the right posterior intercostal veins (except the first intercostal space) flows to the unpaired ________ vein and on to the superior vena cava. Answer: azygos 14) Cirrhosis of the liver causes backup of blood in the sinusoids and in the vessels supplying them, resulting in increased blood pressure in the ________, the major vessel carrying blood from the digestive tract to the liver. Answer: hepatic portal vein 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

15) Varicose veins can occur when ________ are no longer functioning, allowing blood to flow backwards and pool in the veins of the limbs. Answer: valves 20.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe how blood flow is regulated (a) to whole organs, (b) within tissues, and (c) to capillary beds. Answer: Blood flow to groups of organs or to individual organs is regulated by the muscular arteries. Sympathetic vasomotor fibers innervating their walls constrict or dilate the arteries to divert or enhance blood flow. A similar regulatory system occurs within tissues via vasoconstriction of arterioles. Sympathetic stimulation can cause vasoconstriction of arterioles to increase systemic blood pressure. Alternatively, local chemical conditions within metabolically active tissues can cause local vasodilation of the arterioles. These chemical factors also cause relaxation of the precapillary sphincters allowing greater perfusion of capillary beds within the tissues. 2) Define and explain the significance of vascular anastomoses. Answer: A vascular anastomosis is a "coming together" of either arteries or veins. Vascular anastomoses are alternative pathways for blood flow. These pathways are called collateral channels. Arterial anastomoses often occur around joints providing alternative pathways for blood to flow when movement of a joint impinges upon flow through other vessels. The anastomosis ensures adequate perfusion of the tissue. Venous anastomoses provide multiple pathways for drainage. Blockage of a single vein rarely blocks blood flow or leads to tissue death. 3) Identify the superficial veins of the forearm and arm, and describe their anatomical location. Answer: The superficial veins include the cephalic, basilic, median, and median cubital veins. The cephalic vein and basilic veins arise from the dorsal venous network. The cephalic ascends the lateral forearm, whereas the basilic ascends the medial aspect. The median cubital vein bridges these two veins; it runs obliquely across the cubital fossa from the cephalic to a more proximal union with the basilic vein. The median vein ascends the center of the forearm before passing the medial side of the cubital fossa. 4) Define the term portal system, and describe the significance of portal-systemic anastomoses. Answer: A portal system consists of two separate capillary beds between the arterial and venous ends of the circuit. The capillary beds are joined to each other in sequence by a portal vein. In the hepatic portal system, destruction of the hepatic sinusoids can lead to blockage of blood flow through the liver, resulting in increased blood pressure throughout the liver and GI tract. Venous anastomoses along the GI tract provide a "safety valve" through which venous blood can drain, bypassing the blocked liver and relieving the hypertension.

5) Describe the function of the fetal shunts from the pulmonary circuit. Answer: The foramen ovale is a shunt between the right and left atria of the heart. This shunt allows blood to bypass the entire pulmonary circuit. Only about half of the blood entering the right atrium is diverted through the foramen ovale. Much of the remainder of the blood that proceeds through the right ventricle and into the pulmonary trunk then enters the second shunt. This ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary trunk directly to the arch of the aorta. This blood then continues to the systemic circuit. Only a small quantity of the initial blood entering the heart goes to the developing lungs.

Human Anatomy, 9e Marieb Test Bank Chapter 21 The Lymphatic and Immune Systems 21.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Identify the letter that indicates the unique arrangement of endothelial cells that make up lymphatic capillaries. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Identify the letter that indicates collagen fibers that anchor lymphatic capillaries to surrounding connective tissue. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

3) Identify the letter indicating the smallest lymphatic vessel that collects lymph in the peripheral tissue. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Identify the letter indicating a vessel which carries oxygenated blood to peripheral tissues. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Identify the letter indicating where most nutrient and waste exchange occurs between the tissue and blood. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use this illustration to answer the following questions. 6) Identify the letter indicating lymph nodes that direct lymph fluid to the jugular trunks. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

7) Identify the letter indicating the large lymph vessel that drains three-quarters of the body. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Identify the letter indicating where lymph collected from the right arm enters the bloodstream. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Identify the letter indicating inguinal lymph nodes that filter lymph from the lower limbs. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

10) Identify the letter indicating the structure located on the surface of L1 and L2 vertebrae, which is the first to receive lymph from both the lumbar and intestinal trunks. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) ________ are structures comprised of endothelial cells separated by flaplike minivalves, which open as fluid accumulates in peripheral tissue. A) blood capillaries. B) lymph nodes. C) lymph capillaries. D) cisterna chyli. E) thoracic ducts. Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Set of lymphatic capillaries that collect fat-laden fluids from the intestinal tract. A) lumbar trunks B) subclavian trunks C) bronchomediastinal trunks D) lacteals E) intestinal trunk Answer: D Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

13) Begins at the cisterna chyli. A) thymic corpuscle B) aggregated lymphoid nodule C) thoracic duct D) MALT E) inguinal lymph node Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 14) Small, bean-shaped organs abundant in the cervical, axillary, and inguinal regions. A) lymphatic capillaries B) afferent lymphatic vessels C) lymphatic ducts D) lymph nodes E) lacteals Answer: D Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Large lymphatic vessel that, if present, is comprised of the right subclavian trunk, right jugular trunk and right bronchomediastinal trunk. A) cisterna chyli B) MALT C) spleen D) thoracic duct E) right lymphatic duct Answer: E Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

16) Masses of lymphoid tissue within a lymph node. A) trabeculae B) aggregated lymphoid nodules C) lymphoid follicles D) white pulp E) subcapsular sinuses Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17) The lymphatic capillaries are A) more permeable than blood capillaries. B) less permeable than blood capillaries. C) as permeable as blood capillaries. D) completely impermeable. Answer: A Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) Duct of the lymphatic system that drains the body's entire lower half. A) lumbar trunk B) intestinal trunk C) bronchomediastinal trunk D) thoracic duct E) right lymphatic duct Answer: D Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of these statements regarding lymph capillaries is false? A) They begin as closed-ended tubes. B) They have precapillary sphincters that regulate drainage of lymph from tissues. C) They lack barriers to stop cancer cells from entering the lymphatic system. D) They unite with each other to form collecting vessels. Answer: B Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

20) The sinuses within lymph nodes A) are separated from the bloodstream by a blood-node barrier. B) consist of star-shaped epithelial cells that secrete immune-boosting hormones. C) contain macrophages living along a reticular fiber network. D) surround clumps of lymphoid tissue called white pulp. Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) Lymphatic vessels in the ________ collect cerebrospinal and interstitial fluid from the subarachnoid space. A) pia mater B) dura mater C) dural sinuses D) brain Answer: B Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) The largest type of lymphatic vessel is a lymphatic A) duct. B) trunk. C) sinus. D) capillary. Answer: A Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Lymph capillaries differ from blood capillaries in all of the following ways except that A) they are more permeable than most blood capillaries. B) they carry lymph instead of blood. C) they are blind-ended. D) their walls consist of endothelial cells. Answer: D Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

24) The lymph trunk that contains chyle and is unpaired is the A) intestinal. B) subclavian. C) jugular. D) right lymph trunk. Answer: A Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which of the following statements about the right lymph duct is false? A) Not all people have one. B) This duct and its tributaries drain the superior right quarter of the body. C) It empties into the thoracic duct. D) It forms from the union of a jugular, subclavian, and bronchomediastinal trunk. Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Blockage of the ________ would prevent drainage from both the intestinal and lumbar trunks. A) right lymphatic duct B) left lymphatic duct C) thoracic duct D) bronchiomediastinal trunks Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 27) The bulges that give lymph vessels a string-of-beads appearance are really A) lymph nodes. B) pockets for valves. C) weakened areas in the walls of the vessels. D) temporary constrictions caused by bulging skeletal muscles that squeeze the lymph vessel. Answer: B Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

28) Clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following sites except A) along the aorta. B) in the mediastinum. C) in bones and bone marrow. D) in the inguinal region. Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 29) In lymph nodes, follicles are always located A) in the cortex. B) near the hilum. C) in the lymph sinuses. D) in the medullary cords. Answer: A Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) In a histological cross section through an artery, a vein, and a lymphatic vessel, one can recognize the lymphatic vessel because it A) has the fewest valves. B) has the thinnest walls. C) has the thickest tunica media. D) always lies closest to the artery, which has the thinnest walls. Answer: B Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) Edema is A) a form of cancer. B) an infection of the lymphatic vessels. C) an infection of the lymph nodes. D) the accumulation of excess tissue fluid in loose connective tissue. Answer: D Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

32) The muscular ________of the lymphatic vessels contract(s) to help propel the lymph. A) endothelial cells B) trabeculae C) tunica media D) minivalves Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 33) The lymph trunk that drains the thoracic organs is called the A) posterior intercostal trunk. B) great cardiac trunk. C) bronchomediastinal trunk. D) azygos trunk. Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) The paired lymph trunks that carry lymph from the lower limbs are the A) cisterna chyli. B) iliac trunks. C) lumbar trunks. D) femoral trunks. Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Lymphatic vessels perform all of the following functions except A) returning excess tissue fluid to the bloodstream. B) returning leaked blood proteins to the bloodstream. C) transporting digested fats. D) carrying blood. Answer: D Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

36) A bubo is A) an infected lymph node containing a large number of pathogens that are trapped in the node but not destroyed. B) a cancer-infiltrated lymph node. C) any enlarged lymph node. D) a structure that is unrelated to lymph nodes. Answer: A Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph? A) water B) plasma proteins C) red blood cells D) ions Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb? A) lumbar trunk B) thoracic duct C) right subclavian duct D) cisterna chyli Answer: C Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) Lymph leaves a lymph node via A) afferent lymphatic vessels. B) efferent lymphatic vessels. C) the cortical lymph sinus. D) the subcapsular sinus. Answer: B Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

40) By secreting hormones, the thymus causes which cells to become immunocompetent? A) T lymphocytes B) B lymphocytes C) macrophages D) monocytes Answer: A Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) In humans, B lymphocytes originate in A) the thymus. B) the appendix. C) all lymphoid tissue. D) the bone marrow. Answer: D Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) Any molecule that induces an immune response from a lymphocyte is called a(n) A) pathogen. B) antigen. C) antibody. D) bubo. Answer: B Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) Lymphoid tissue is basically ________ connective tissue. A) adipose B) areolar C) dense irregular D) reticular Answer: D Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

44) Two-lobed lymphoid organ located posterior to the sternum. A) cisterna chyli B) thymus C) MALT D) lacteals E) crypts Answer: B Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) Which of the following recycle(s) red blood cells and initiates immune responses? A) tonsils B) lymph nodes C) MALT D) spleen E) thymus Answer: D Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) Lymphoid organs located in the mucosal lining of the pharynx. A) tonsils B) salivary glands C) uvulas D) pharygotympanic tubes E) aggregated lymphoid nodules Answer: A Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

47) Lymph vessels drain lymph from all the lymphoid organs, as they do from almost all organs of the body. However, afferent lymph vessels enter (empty into) only one type of lymphoid organ, the A) lymph node. B) spleen. C) appendix. D) thymus. Answer: A Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.4 & 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) The distal region of the small intestine contains clumps of lymph follicles called A) pancreatic islets. B) aggregated lymphoid follicles. C) rugae. D) villi. Answer: B Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) T cells gain immunocompetence in this lymphoid organ. A) thymus B) tonsils C) spleen—red pulp D) lymph nodes E) spleen—white pulp Answer: A Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.5 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 50) The largest lymphoid organ is the A) thymus. B) palatine tonsil. C) Peyer's patch. D) aggregated lymphoid nodule. E) spleen Answer: E Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

51) The lymphoid organ that atrophies with age. A) thymus B) tonsils C) aggregated lymphoid nodules D) lymph nodes E) spleen Answer: A Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 52) Lymphoid tissue associated with the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts. A) aggregated lymphoid nodules B) tonsils C) MALT D) lacteals E) crypts Answer: C Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Blind-end invaginations of tonsil epithelium that trap bacteria and particulate matter. A) aggregated lymphoid nodules B) tonsils C) MALT D) lacteals E) crypts Answer: E Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

54) A germinal center arises from a single activated lymphocyte; how many different kinds of antibodies are secreted by a single germinal center and by the plasma cells it produces? A) none; T cells do not produce antibodies B) one C) several dozen D) thousands Answer: B Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.5 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 55) Lymphocytes attack antigens mostly in lymphoid organs (except the thymus) and in A) loose connective tissue. B) the bloodstream. C) cartilage. D) the thyroid. Answer: A Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) The appendix is a narrow tube which traps microorganisms from the digestive tract, and these microorganisms enter its wall and activate memory lymphocytes for long-term immunity. Another immune organ that traps microorganisms is the A) thymus. B) bone marrow. C) palatine tonsil. D) the spleen. Answer: C Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) The immune system cell type that is preferentially destroyed by the AIDS virus is the A) B lymphocyte. B) cytotoxic T lymphocyte. C) helper T lymphocyte. D) helper B lymphocyte. Answer: C Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

58) Which of the following lymphoid organs does not directly fight antigens? A) tonsil B) spleen C) the thymus D) aggregated lymphoid nodules Answer: C Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 59) Which cell secretes cytokines that will stimulate the proliferation of other types of immune cells? A) cytotoxic CD8+ T lymphocyte B) dendritic cell C) helper CD4+ T lymphocyte D) natural killer cell Answer: C Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) Macrophages that destroy aged and defective blood cells are present in the ________ of the spleen. A) hilum B) splenic cords C) venous sinuses D) white pulp Answer: B Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) A lymphoid nodule is A) a small lymph node. B) a type of lymphoma. C) a bulge in a lymphatic collecting vessel. D) a cluster of densely packed lymphocytes. Answer: D Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

62) The crypts of the tonsils A) are filled with lymphoid tissue. B) are specialized lymphatic capillaries. C) contain all the progeny of a single activated B lymphocyte. D) trap bacteria and particulate matter. Answer: D Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) This organ has a superficial cortex filled with lymphocytes and an inner medulla with few lymphocytes and a sizable number of degenerating epithelial reticular cells. A) lymph node B) spleen C) thymus D) tonsil Answer: C Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 64) In the spleen, lymphoid tissue is confined to the A) red pulp. B) white pulp. C) trabeculae. D) hilus. Answer: B Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) Is it possible for lymphocytes to gain immunocompetence in the thymus of an 82-year-old person? A) Yes, but the thymus has shifted to the production of B lymphocytes. B) Yes, but fewer than in youth. C) No, because the thymus has completely degenerated. D) No, because all lymphocytes have turned into thymic corpuscles. Answer: B Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

66) Which of the following cells are the largest producers of antibodies? A) B lymphocytes B) T lymphocytes C) plasma cells D) macrophages Answer: C Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) Which of the following is not a part of MALT? A) lymphoid tissue in the appendix B) lymphoid tissue in the tonsils C) aggregated lymphoid nodules D) lymphocytes in the spleen Answer: D Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 68) In humans, T lymphocytes originate in A) the spleen. B) the thymus. C) the red bone marrow. D) the lymph nodes. Answer: C Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) The lymph organ that lies in the superior part of the thoracic mediastinum is the A) cervical lymph node. B) spleen. C) tonsil. D) thymus. Answer: D Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

70) Which of the following is not classified as a lymphoid organ? A) liver B) spleen C) tonsils D) aggregated nodules in the intestine Answer: A Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) The thymus is most active during A) fetal development. B) adolescence. C) old age. D) childhood. Answer: D Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 72) The tonsil located on the posterior surface of the tongue is the ________ tonsil. A) palatine B) pharyngeal C) tubal D) lingual Answer: D Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 73) The ________ stores blood platelets. A) lymph node B) thymus C) tonsil D) spleen Answer: D Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

74) One location where lymphoid tissue is found is "in the frequently infected mucous membranes of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts." This description refers specifically to A) intestinal and bronchomediastinal lymph trunks. B) the intestinal and tracheobronchial lymph nodes. C) the cisterna chyli and lacteals. D) MALT. Answer: D Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) B lymphocytes are to ________ as T lymphocytes are to ________. A) antibodies; antigens B) antibodies; programmed cell death C) antigens; antibodies D) programmed cell death; antibodies Answer: B Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 76) Which cell type has the responsibility of presenting foreign antigens to lymphocytes? A) cytotoxic CD8+ T lymphocyte B) dendritic cell C) helper CD4+ T lymphocyte D) natural killer Answer: B Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 77) The Epstein-Barr virus (which causes mononucleosis) preferentially destroys which of these cell types? A) B lymphocytes. B) cytotoxic T lymphocytes. C) helper T lymphocytes. D) macrophages. Answer: A Section: 21.3 Book LO: 21.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

78) A person with many enlarged lymph nodes that do not feel tender or sore is most likely to have A) lymphangitis. B) mononucleosis. C) Hodgkin's lymphoma. D) buboes. Answer: C Section: 21.3 Book LO: 21.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 79) A patient with lymphangitis presents with visible red lines on the skin that are tender to the touch. The best explanation for this sign is that A) lack of movement has caused pooling of lymph in the vessels, which compromised the lymphatic valves, resulting in varicose lymph vessels. B) red blood cells have infiltrated the lymphatic system. C) the spleen has degraded too many red blood cells, releasing iron into the lymphatic system. D) the vasa vasorum of the infected lymph vessels has become inflamed. Answer: D Section: 21.3 Book LO: 21.8 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 80) Which of the following would best explain why most people are sick more often as children than as adults in their 20s through 50s? A) The immune system does not appear until the preteen years. B) In children, the thymus is so active in fighting bacteria that it produces stronger symptoms of disease. C) Because of their small size, children's bodies cannot contain as much lymphoid tissue as those of adults. D) During childhood, we build up many varieties of memory lymphocytes, which provide immunity to more and more antigens during adulthood. Answer: D Section: 21.4 Book LO: 21.5 & 21.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

21.2 True/False Questions 1) Lymph is propelled through the lymph vessels by the force of the heartbeat. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) If lymphatic vessels are surgically removed, the resulting edema is permanent because these vessels cannot regenerate. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) The thoracic duct is present in only about 20% of people. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) The subclavian trunks drain lymph from the brain, head, and neck. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 5) Lymph transports fats absorbed from the small intestine to the vena cava. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 6) Deep lymphatic collecting vessels of the abdominal cavity travel alongside deep arteries. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

7) Lymph capillaries have minivalves which prevent pathogens from entering the lymphatic circulation. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 8) Lacteals are the micro-valves present in lymph collecting vessels. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.1 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) The spleen atrophies during adulthood. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) Epithelial cells within the thymus secrete hormones that are important to lymphocyte development. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) The thymus increases in mass through childhood and then atrophies during adulthood. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) The thymus is the only lymphatic organ that does not directly fight antigens. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

13) In order to activate lymphocytes, bacteria must penetrate the epithelium of tonsils. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 14) Vaccination mimics acquired immunity. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.2 Book LO: 21.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Lymphangitis is inflammation of a lymphatic vessel. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.3 Book LO: 21.8 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The tonsils located just behind the openings of the pharyngotympanic tubes in the pharynx are the ________ tonsils. Answer: tubal 2) The ________ is the site of T cell maturation. Answer: thymus 3) Tumor-like lesions of the skin and some internal organs caused by a type of herpesvirus describes ________. Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma 4) Lymphatic capillaries are located near blood capillaries in the ________ connective tissue. Answer: loose areolar 5) The lumbar and intestinal trunks unite at the ________ of the thoracic duct. Answer: cisterna chyli 6) ________ are lymphatic structures that collect fat-laden fluids from the intestinal tract. Answer: Lacteals 7) The HIV that causes AIDS infects immune cells that have the surface protein called ________. Answer: CD4 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

8) The ________ prevents premature activation of immature thymic lymphocytes. Answer: blood-thymus barrier 9) Congestion of the tonsils with bacteria results in ________. Answer: tonsillitis 10) The ________ tonsils are the ones most often infected and removed during a tonsillectomy. Answer: palatine 11) The paired ________ drain lymph from the head and neck. Answer: jugular trunks 12) The main function of the lymphatic system is to return excess ________ back into the blood vascular system. Answer: tissue fluid 13) Lymphocyte ________ results in immune cells that have gained the ability to attack specific antigens. Answer: activation 14) Lymphoid tissues that enclose the central arteries of the spleen are collectively called ________. Answer: white pulp 15) Aggregated lymphoid nodules and the ________ contain dense concentrations of lymphoid tissue and are associated with the distal structures of the digestive tract. Answer: appendix 21.4 Essay Questions 1) Explain why lymph from the right upper limb is drained into vessels on the right side of the neck, whereas lymph from the right lower limb is drained into vessels on the left side of the neck. Answer: Lymph from the right upper limb drains into the right subclavian trunk, which may then empty into the right lymphatic duct. These lymphatic vessels often return lymph fluid to the venous blood proximal to the union of the right internal jugular vein and right subclavian vein. In contrast, lymph from both lower limbs drains into the lumbar trunks, which empty into the thoracic duct at the cisterna chyli. In this manner, lymph from the right lower limb will drain, along with that from the entire left side of the body, into the vessels of the left side of the neck. 2) Identify and describe the functions of the lymphatic system. Answer: The lymphatic system recovers tissue fluid and leaked plasma proteins and returns them to the bloodstream. By doing so, the system eliminates local variations in the chemical composition and volume of tissue fluid. The lymphatic system also distributes hormones, antibodies and cells of the immune system. Lastly, it picks up dietary fats from the intestines and transports them into the bloodstream. 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

3) How does the structure and the function of lymph-collecting vessels compare to those of veins? What tunics do they have in common? Answer: Lymph-collecting vessels transport fluids toward the heart in the same manner as veins. Both structures have three tunics, but the walls of the lymphatic vessels are thinner. Both structures transport low-pressure fluids and consequently have one-way pocket valves to prevent retrograde flow, although valves are more numerous in lymphatic vessels. They both rely on movement of the skeletal muscles to help propel their respective fluids. 4) Patients often complain to their physician of "swollen glands" in their neck. What is the proper name of these "glands," and what is the significance of their swelling? Answer: These structures are properly known as lymph nodes, specifically cervical lymph nodes if they are located in the neck. The nodes contain large numbers of macrophages and lymphocytes. Large numbers of pathogens trapped in the lymph nodes can cause the node to enlarge and become tender. 5) Describe the process of T cell activation and the significance of the blood-thymus barrier. Answer: Immature lymphocytes that originate in the bone marrow, travel to the thymus, where they mature into T lymphocytes. In the thymus they develop immunocompetence, the ability to recognize a specific antigen. These naive cells however, only become fully activated when they experience an antigen challenge. In this process the T cell is presented with its specific antigen by a macrophage or dendritic cell.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 22 The Respiratory System 22.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Of the following, which is the only organ that is not an upper respiratory structure? A) bronchi B) oropharynx C) vestibule of the nose D) nasal cavity Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which structure is both a lower respiratory structure and in the conducting zone? A) the laryngopharynx B) a respiratory bronchiole C) any bronchus D) an alveolus Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following puts the pathway air travels to the alveoli in the correct order? A) larynx — trachea — primary bronchi — lobar bronchi — segmental bronchi — bronchioles B) trachea — larynx — segmental bronchi — primary bronchi — lobar bronchi — bronchioles C) larynx — primary bronchi — trachea — lobar bronchi — bronchioles — segmental bronchi D) larynx — trachea — lobar bronchi — primary bronchi — bronchioles — segmental bronchi Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4) Most foreign substances in inspired air fail to reach the lungs because of the A) ciliated epithelium and mucus that line the respiratory passages. B) abundant blood supply to the nasal mucosa. C) porous structure of the nasal conchae. D) action of the epiglottis. Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of these does not act as a protective mechanism in the respiratory system? A) ciliated epithelium lining the respiratory tract B) mucous lining the respiratory tract C) alveolar macrophages in the lungs. D) acidic secretions from the lining of the trachea Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which part of the nose is composed of dense fibrous connective tissue? A) the apex B) the border where the nostril attaches to the maxilla C) the nasal septum D) the surface connecting to the nasal bones Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which portion of the nasal cavity is lined with sebaceous and sweat glands and numerous hair follicles? A) hard and soft palate B) nasal conchae C) roof (ceiling) D) vestibule Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) Anatomical region of the nasal cavity containing nose hairs. A) nasal septum B) olfactory mucosa C) nasal conchae D) vestibule E) uvula Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Vibrissae are A) specialized cells in the larynx that react to vibrations of air. B) large hair-like projections on epithelial cells that line the trachea. C) nose hairs. D) the sensory organs of the inner ear. Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) What type of epithelium occurs in the respiratory mucosa? A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium B) simple squamous epithelium C) simple columnar epithelium D) stratified squamous epithelium Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) The main function of the elaborate venous plexus in the nasal mucosa is A) diapedesis of leukocytes. B) to replace vessels broken in nose bleeds. C) to supply extra blood to the brain and supplement the dural sinuses. D) to warm and moisten inhaled air. Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

12) Which of the following is not a function of the nasal conchae? A) They deflect particulates to the mucosa. B) They help warm the air. C) They decrease the turbulence in the flow of air through the nasal cavity. D) They moisten the air. Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The superior and middle nasal conchae are bony projections from the A) vomer. B) ethmoid bone. C) sphenoid bone. D) maxillary bone. Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) The paranasal sinuses A) are located in the frontal, sphenoid, zygomatic, and palatine bones. B) are lined by simple squamous epithelium. C) help to warm and moisten the inhaled air. D) drain into the oropharynx. Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 15) Identify the letter that indicates structures that assist in filtering, heating, and humidifying inspired air. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) Identify the letter that indicates the opening of the pharyngotympanic tube. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

17) Identify the letter that indicates the uvula. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) Identify the letter that indicates a muscular tube that serves as a common passageway for food and air. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) Identify the letter that indicates a flexible tube that has C-shaped cartilaginous rings that keep it from collapsing. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

20) Which structure is not located within the nasopharynx? A) opening of the pharyngotympanic tube B) palatine tonsil C) pharyngeal tonsil D) tubal tonsil Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21) The pharyngeal tonsil is A) scattered throughout the pharynx. B) in the fauces. C) the largest tonsil. D) also called the adenoids and located in the roof of the nasopharynx. Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) The passageway between the nasopharynx and the middle ear is the A) oval window. B) internal acoustic meatus. C) mastoid sinus. D) pharyngotympanic tube. Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 23) Identify the letter that indicates the cartilage that has a laryngeal prominence that is also known as the "Adam's apple." A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) Identify the letter that indicates the vocal fold, or true vocal cord. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

25) Identify the letter that indicates the cartilage that folds over the opening of the larynx that function to prevent aspiration of foods and liquids into the lower respiratory tubes. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Identify the letter that indicates the vestibular fold, or false vocal cord. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) Identify the letter that indicates the cartilage that anchors the vocal cords posteriorly. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 28) The ________ flaps over the glottis when we swallow food. A) uvula B) epiglottis C) palate D) vocal fold Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

29) The vocal ligaments attach between the thyroid cartilage and the A) arytenoid cartilage. B) corniculate cartilage. C) cricoid cartilage. D) cuneiform cartilage. Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) The medial opening between the vocal folds through which air passes. A) glottis B) vestibule C) rima glottidis D) thyrohyoid membrane E) cricothyroid ligament Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) The ability to vary the pitch of the voice results from varying A) the force of air passing over the vocal folds. B) the tension in the vocal folds. C) the size of the laryngeal cartilages. D) the shape of the cricoid cartilage. Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) An aortic aneurysm that presses on the left recurrent laryngeal nerve could lead to A) paralysis of the diaphragm. B) hoarse speech. C) complete loss of speech. D) inability of the carotid sinus to monitor blood gases. Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

33) In a runner who is breathing heavily during a race, the rima glottidis is A) half closed. B) half open. C) open as far as possible. D) all the way closed. Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 34) Identify the letter that indicates the ciliated pseudostratified epithelium of the trachea. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

35) Identify the letter that indicates a muscular tube that propels swallowed food to the stomach. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) Identify the letter that indicates the fibromusculocartilaginous layer with hyaline cartilaginous rings that allow the trachea to bend and elongate but not collapse. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) Identify the letter that indicates the trachealis muscle. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

38) Identify the letter that indicates the soft portion of the wall of the trachea that allows the esophagus to expand anteriorly. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) The trachealis muscle A) constricts the trachea. B) controls the length and tension of the vocal cords. C) initiates the cough reflex. D) raises the larynx when swallowing. Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) Of the three different layers of tissue in the wall of the trachea, the outermost layer is the A) adventitia. B) lamina propria. C) submucosa. D) muscularis. Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) In the wall of the trachea and bronchi, the cartilage rings lie within which tissue layer? A) inner epithelium B) mucosa C) submucosa D) fibromusculocartilaginous layer Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

42) The respiratory mucosa is present throughout each of the following areas except the A) bronchi. B) nasal cavity. C) nasopharynx. D) superior laryngopharynx. Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which of the following changes does not occur as the conducting tubes of the respiratory tree become smaller? A) Cartilage rings are replaced by irregular plates of cartilage. B) The lining epithelium thins. C) Elastin in the walls disappears. D) Cartilage disappears in the bronchioles. Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 44) The smallest airway of the bronchial tree that is primarily responsible for creating bronchoconstriction. A) primary bronchi B) bronchopulmonary segment C) lobe of lung D) bronchiole E) alveoli sac Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 45) Specific location within the lungs where gas exchange occurs. A) terminal bronchioles B) carina C) bronchopulmonary segments D) alveoli E) respiratory membrane Answer: E Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

46) Alveolar cells that allow rapid diffusion of respiratory gases. A) Type I B) Type II C) alveolar macrophages D) endothelial cells E) pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) Which cells produce surfactant? A) Type I cells B) Type II cells C) alveolar macrophages D) chondrocytes Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) The detergent-like molecule that keeps the alveoli from collapsing between breaths is called A) bile. B) hemoglobin. C) surfactant. D) oxygen. Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) Alveolar pores A) allow gases to transfer from the alveoli to the blood. B) allow pleural fluid to enter the alveoli and keep their walls from sticking together. C) are the openings between the alveolar duct and the alveolus. D) equalize air pressure throughout the lung. Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

50) Some bronchi have names such as the "right upper-lobe bronchus," "left lower-lobe bronchus," and "right middle-lobe bronchus." These are ________ bronchi. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) very small (about fifteenth-order) Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) The correct definition of bronchopulmonary segments is A) arbitrary subdivisions of a lung, about as large as a fist (0.3 liter). B) parts of the lung that are easy to remove during surgery. C) parts of the lungs that are separated by the oblique and horizontal fissures. D) parts of the lung that are supplied by a single tertiary bronchus (and its branches). Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) The region of the lung served by secondary, or lobar, bronchi. A) bronchopulmonary segment B) lobe C) lobule D) lingular E) cardiac notch Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 53) Supportive cartilage disappears from the bronchial tree at the level of the A) alveolar duct. B) bronchioles. C) lobar bronchi. D) respiratory bronchiole. Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

54) Sympathetic stimulation of terminal bronchioles causes A) bronchoconstriction. B) a decrease in blood supply to the bronchioles. C) bronchodilation. D) secretion of less surfactant. Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) Lung cancer occurs slightly more frequently in the right lung than in the left lung (about 53% versus 47% of the time). The most logical explanation for this is that A) the tissue of the right lung is more susceptible to carcinogens. B) the right nostril is closed more often than the left one, so it blocks the exhalation of cigarette smoke and causes smoke to back up into the right lung. C) most people are right-handed, so everything affects the right side of the body more intensely. D) the right primary bronchus is wider than the left one (and the right lung is larger than the left lung), so the right lung receives slightly more carcinogenic cigarette smoke with each puff. Answer: D Section: 22.3 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 56) The lungs are located in the A) mediastinum. B) abdominopelvic cavity. C) thoracic cavity. D) pleural cavity. Answer: C Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 57) The left lung A) has three lobes. B) is supplied entirely by a secondary bronchus. C) receives oxygenated blood from the heart via the left pulmonary artery. D) has a cardiac notch. Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

58) The lobes of a lung are easy to recognize and distinguish from one another because A) they all have slightly different colors. B) they are separated by fissures. C) each is supplied by a primary bronchus, and the primary bronchi are easy to find. D) carbon from the air accumulates between and outlines the lobes in most people (even if they breathe almost-unpolluted air). Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) The fissure separating the upper and middle lobes of the right lung is the ________ fissure. A) horizontal B) oblique C) carina D) superior E) inferior Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) In a preserved cadaver, the first rib is likely to form a groove on which surface of the lung? A) basal B) mediastinal C) inferior costal D) apical (apex) Answer: D Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 61) Which structure does not enter or exit from the hilum of a lung? A) bronchial vein B) phrenic nerve C) pulmonary artery D) pulmonary plexus Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

62) The serous membrane lining of the wall of the thoracic cavity. A) visceral pleura B) parietal pleura C) mucous membrane D) parietal pericardium E) visceral pericardium Answer: B Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) The pleura A) contains fluid between the two layers, which allows the lungs to glide over the thoracic wall with each breath. B) includes the parietal pleura, which is directly connected to the lungs. C) is located solely in the mediastinum. D) secretes pleural fluid, which lubricates the alveoli and prevents them from collapsing. Answer: A Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) When the diaphragm contracts, the size of the thoracic cavity ________, the pressure inside the thoracic cavity ________, and air flows ________ the lungs. A) decreases; rises; into B) increases; drops; into C) decreases; drops; out of D) increases; drops; out of Answer: B Section: 22.2 Book LO: 22.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 65) Which muscle contracts during forced expiration? A) internal oblique B) serratus anterior C) sternocleidomastoid D) pectoralis major Answer: A Section: 22.2 Book LO: 22.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

66) Which muscle is used for both quiet inspiration and forced expiration? A) external intercostals B) internal intercostals C) latissimus dorsi D) scalenes Answer: B Section: 22.2 Book LO: 22.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 67) How does pulmonary surfactant keep the alveoli open at all times? A) It reduces the surface tension between the walls of the alveoli. B) It increases the water content in the lungs. C) It reduces friction within the alveoli. D) It actively pulls the alveoli open as we inhale. Answer: A Section: 22.2 Book LO: 22.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 68) The ventral respiratory group (VRG), a group of neurons that generates the basic respiratory rhythm, is located within the A) forebrain. B) medulla oblongata. C) midbrain. D) pons. Answer: B Section: 22.2 Book LO: 22.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) These are peripheral chemoreceptors that monitor changes in respiratory gasses and blood acidity levels. A) ventral respiratory center B) vagus nerve C) reticular activating system D) carotid bodies E) medulla oblongata Answer: D Section: 22.2 Book LO: 22.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

70) The aortic bodies A) sense the concentration of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood. B) give rise to the pulmonary arteries. C) are innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. D) are in the hilum of the lung. Answer: A Section: 22.2 Book LO: 22.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) In emphysema, the alveoli become enlarged due to deterioration of the alveolar walls. How does this lead to a lack of oxygen? A) The surface area for exchange of oxygen is reduced due to the breakdown of the walls and increased size of the alveoli. B) The alveolar walls thicken, making exchange more difficult. C) The enlarged alveoli put pressure on the capillaries in the lung, causing them to break down. D) The alveoli walls become impermeable to oxygen as they enlarge. Answer: A Section: 22.3 Book LO: 22.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 72) Embryologically, the nasal cavity develops from A) invagination of the ectoderm of the olfactory placode. B) the nasopharynx. C) a cranial extension of the mouth. D) the early precursor of the paranasal sinuses. Answer: A Section: 22.4 Book LO: 22.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 73) Embryologically, the lower respiratory organs develop from the A) olfactory pits. B) laryngotracheal bud. C) respiratory placode. D) splanchnic ectoderm Answer: B Section: 22.4 Book LO: 22.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

74) The alveoli continue to form until A) birth. B) early childhood. C) late childhood. D) young adulthood. Answer: D Section: 22.4 Book LO: 22.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) Which of the following us true about the lungs in elderly individuals? A) Their elasticity declines. B) They have greater capacity to fill due to increased flexibility of the thoracic wall. C) Their protective mechanisms increase, reducing the risk of illness. D) They produce more alveoli. Answer: A Section: 22.4 Book LO: 22.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22.2 True/False Questions 1) The trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles are all located within the lungs. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) The respiratory zone begins at the large bronchioles. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) The groove through which air passes between nasal conchae is called a choana. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4) The only laryngeal cartilage to form a complete ring is the cuneiform. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) The vocal ligaments are attached between the cricoid and arytenoid cartilages. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 6) The mucosal epithelium transitions from pseudostratified columnar to simple cuboidal along the path to the respiratory bronchioles. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 7) Gas exchange occurs across the bronchi, bronchioles, and terminal bronchioles. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Type II alveolar cells produce surfactant to keep the walls of the alveoli from collapsing or adhering together. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) The number of secondary, or lobar, bronchi is a distinguishing characteristic of the right and left lungs. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

10) The left lung has both a horizontal fissure and oblique fissure. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) The pleural cavities extend two ribs below the inferior border of the lungs. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.1 Book LO: 22.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 12) Changes in the size of the thoracic cavity bring about inspiration and expiration. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.2 Book LO: 22.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The external intercostal muscles are involved in active inspiration. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.2 Book LO: 22.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) When the diaphragm contracts, it raises the floor of the thoracic cavity upward. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.2 Book LO: 22.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The scalene muscles are involved in deep inspiration. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.2 Book LO: 22.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

22.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The ________ is a groove inferior to the nasal conchae through which air passes. Answer: meatus 2) The ________ sinuses drain into the nasal cavity. Answer: paranasal 3) The ________ tonsils, or adenoids, are located on the wall of the nasopharynx. Answer: pharyngeal 4) The ________ is the portion of the soft palate that prevents food from entering the nasal cavity. Answer: uvula 5) The ________ cartilages are the posterior anchor of the vocal cords. Answer: arytenoid 6) The soft ________ muscle of the trachea allows the esophagus to expand anteriorly during swallowing. Answer: trachealis 7) The ________ marks the point where the trachea branches into the two main bronchi. Answer: carina 8) Fusion of the alveolar and capillary membranes creates a(n) ________ membrane, or air-blood barrier. Answer: respiratory 9) The function of type II alveolar cells is to produce ________. Answer: surfactant 10) The subdivisions of the lung from largest to smallest are the lobe, the segment, the ________, the alveolus. Answer: lobule 11) The presence of a(n) -________ in its medial aspect is unique to the left lobe. Answer: cardiac notch 12) ________ fluid helps keep the lungs expanded against the thoracic walls. Answer: Pleural 13) The ________ intercostal muscles are involved in (forced) expiration. Answer: internal

14) In emphysema, an increase in the size of the alveoli due to a breakdown in the alveolar walls causes a decrease in ________, reducing the ability for the lungs to exchange gasses. Answer: surface area 15) In bronchial asthma, inflammation-mediating chemicals stimulate ________, which means they cause contraction of the smooth muscle in the bronchi, decreasing their diameter. Answer: bronchoconstriction 22.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the anatomical changes to the larynx that account for the deeper voice of men compared to women. Answer: The thyroid cartilage of males grows larger than in females, and its laryngeal prominence protrudes further anteriorly. The vocal ligaments, which stretch from the arytenoid cartilage to the thyroid cartilage, are therefore longer in males. Longer cords vibrate more slowly than do shorter cords, resulting in a deeper voice. 2) Describe the histological changes that occur in the walls of bronchial tree, beginning with the trachea and proceeding to the alveoli. Answer: (1) The supportive cartilaginous rings of the trachea are replaced with irregular plates in the primary bronchi and eliminated altogether in the bronchioles. (2) The respiratory epithelium transitions from pseudostratified ciliated columnar cells to simple cuboidal cells in the bronchioles and simple squamous cells in the alveoli. (3) Goblet cells are present in the bronchi but absent elsewhere. (4) A layer of smooth muscle appears in the walls of the bronchi and is present throughout the tree to the respiratory bronchioles. 3) Describe the structure and function of the pleural cavity. Answer: The pleural cavity is a fluid-filled space between the parietal and visceral serous membranes of the thoracic cavity. These membranes, the pleurae, create pleural fluid that lubricates the contact between opposing surfaces of the lungs and thoracic cavity wall. This fluid prevents friction during inspiration and expiration. The surface tension of the fluid also keeps the lungs expanded against the thoracic walls, preventing collapse of the lung. 4) Explain the difference in muscles used for active inspiration and expiration. Answer: Active inspiration involves the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles. Additionally, the scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, and pectoralis minor may also be involved. Active expiration involves relaxation of the diaphragm and contraction of the internal intercostals, oblique and transverse abdominis muscles, and, in certain circumstances, the latissimus dorsi. 5) Describe the effects of smoking on (a) alveolar structure, (b) cilia and alveolar macrophages, and (c) the bronchial epithelium. Answer: Components of tobacco smoke lead to destruction of alveolar walls. The resulting loss of surface area for gas exchange is a condition known as emphysema. Smoking also slows the activity of cilia and macrophages of the respiratory mucosa. This leads to accumulation of mucus, irritants, and carcinogens. The carcinogens lead to cancer growth in the bronchial epithelium and mucosal glands. 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 23 The Digestive System 23.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Identify the letter that indicates the cardia of the stomach. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Identify the letter that indicates the region of the stomach which regulates the passage of chyme into the small intestine. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.12 Global LO: G2 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Identify the letter that indicates folds which allow for expansion of the stomach. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Identify the letter that indicates the curvature where the greater omentum attaches. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Identify the letter that indicates the fundus of the stomach. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 6) Identify the letter that indicates the cystic duct. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Identify the letter that indicates the hepatic ducts as they exit the porta hepatis. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

8) Identify the letter indicating the duct which carries digestive enzymes from acinar cells in the pancreas. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 9) Identify the letter indicating the bulb through which digestive enzymes and bile flow to the duodenum. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) Identify the letter indicating the duct formed by the union of the right and left hepatic ducts. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 11) Identify the letter that indicates the root canal. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Identify the letter that indicates the crown. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

13) Identify the letter that indicates the root. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Identify the letter that indicates the hardest substance in the body. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Identify the letter that indicates the neck of the tooth. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) The vermiform appendix lies within the ________ region of the abdomen. A) right lateral (lumbar) B) left lateral (lumbar) C) right inguinal D) left inguinal Answer: C Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

17) The ________ attaches the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach. A) haustra B) hepatopancreatic ampulla C) porta hepatis D) greater omentum E) lesser omentum Answer: E Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) Attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm. A) greater omentum B) lesser omentum C) falciform ligament D) ligamentum teres E) porta hepatis Answer: C Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) Another name for the serosa covering many organs of the digestive system is A) parietal peritoneum. B) serous gland. C) visceral peritoneum. D) mucosa. Answer: C Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) The splenic (left colic) flexure of the colon is located within the A) left hypochondriac region. B) left lateral (lumbar) region. C) right hypochondriac region. D) right lateral (lumbar) region. Answer: A Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.2 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

21) The mesentery that suspends the small intestine is the A) falciform ligament. B) lesser omentum. C) greater omentum. D) mesentery proper. Answer: D Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which of the following correctly describes a function of the greater omentum? A) It is a vestigial structure that has no known function. B) It stores fat. C) It absorbs heat from the digestive process and radiates it to the outside of the body. D) It wraps around most of the large intestine and anchors it to the anterior abdominal wall. Answer: B Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 23) Which of the following is not an accessory digestive organ? A) teeth B) salivary gland C) liver D) spleen Answer: D Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which of the following is a secondarily retroperitoneal organ? A) descending colon B) ileum C) sigmoid colon D) transverse colon Answer: A Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

25) Of the basic digestive processes, the one in which nutrients enter capillaries is called A) ingestion. B) propulsion. C) mechanical digestion. D) absorption. Answer: D Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the rectum? A) lacks tenia coli B) has longitudinal folds called columns C) is secondarily retroperitoneal D) has transverse folds called rectal valves Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 & 23.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) Retroperitoneal organs have a serosa facing the peritoneal cavity and a(n) ________ on the posterior side embedded in the abdominal wall. A) mesothelium B) adventitia C) muscularis externa D) vasa vasorum E) caveolae Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 28) Infoldings of the sarcolemma of smooth muscle fibers are called A) mesothelium. B) adventitia. C) muscularis externa. D) vasa vasorum. E) caveolae. Answer: E Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

29) Junction of the transverse and ascending colon. A) splenic flexure B) cecum C) hepatic flexure D) ileocecal valve E) haustra Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) Smooth muscle constriction between the ileum and cecum. A) splenic flexure B) cecum C) hepatic flexure D) ileocecal valve E) haustra Answer: D Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) Layer of the GI tract responsible for segmentation. A) muscularis mucosae B) muscularis externa C) lamina propria D) submucosa E) serosa Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) Bulblike union of the main pancreatic duct and bile duct. A) cystic duct B) hepatic duct C) porta hepatis D) hepatopancreatic ampulla E) accessory pancreatic duct Answer: D Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 & 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

33) Three strips of longitudinal muscles of the colon's muscularis, which cause it to pucker into sacs. A) ileocecal junction B) haustra C) teniae coli D) muscularis mucosae E) pyloric sphincter Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which layer of the digestive tract is responsible for the peristaltic waves that propel materials from one portion to another? A) muscularis externa B) serosa C) submucosa D) mucosa Answer: A Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which of the following choices correctly pairs a type of cell in the stomach with its secretion? A) parietal cell; pepsinogen B) chief cell; pepsinogen C) parietal cell; mucus D) enteroendocrine; hydrochloric acid Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

36) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the large intestine? A) It includes the ascending, transverse, and descending colon. B) It contains an abundant bacterial flora. C) It is the main site of nutrient absorption. D) It absorbs much of the water and salts remaining in the wastes. Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 37) The digestive organ primarily responsible for the absorption of water is the A) ileum. B) duodenum. C) anus. D) large intestine. Answer: D Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) To say someone is "tongue-tied" means that the A) lips are exceptionally immobile. B) tongue muscles are weak. C) salivary glands produce little lubricant. D) lingual frenulum is short. Answer: D Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) Which of the following is not contained in saliva? A) enzymes that begin the digestion of proteins B) enzymes that initiate the digestion of carbohydrates C) bicarbonate buffer D) bactericidal enzymes Answer: A Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

40) How many deciduous teeth are there? A) 18 B) 20 C) 32 D) It varies from person to person. Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) is primarily located within the A) lamina propria. B) muscularis mucosa. C) serosa. D) submucosa. Answer: A Section: 23.2 Book LO: 22.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) What is the function of the hepatopancreatic sphincter? A) It controls the entry of bile and pancreatic juices into the alimentary canal. B) As it contracts, it squeezes pancreatic secretions into the duodenum. C) It inhibits defecation in the upper alimentary canal while the anal sphincters do the same in the lower regions. D) It prevents the movement of bile into the gallbladder. Answer: A Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) Secretions of the parotid gland empty A) anterior to the frenulum of the tongue. B) between the lingual tonsil and epiglottis. C) lateral to the upper molars. D) through 10 ducts on the floor of the oral cavity. Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

44) Why are bacteria abundant in the large intestines but not in the stomach? A) Food enters the stomach first and does not spend much time there. B) The intestine is much warmer and moister, encouraging bacterial growth. C) The stomach wall contains so much lymphoid tissue that it destroys all bacteria there. D) Secretions of parietal cells kill bacteria in the stomach. Answer: D Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 45) The layer of the digestive tube that contains abundant elastin plus blood vessels, lymphoid nodules, and deep glands is the A) adventitia. B) submucosa. C) muscularis. D) serosa. Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 22.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) Which of the following are the only mucosal folds that do not flatten out at all when the organ stretches? A) longitudinal folds in the esophagus B) rugae in the stomach C) circular folds in the small intestine D) mucosal folds in the gallbladder Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 47) The largest salivary gland is the A) intrinsic. B) submandibular. C) sublingual. D) parotid. Answer: D Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

48) Which of the following statements about the large intestine is false? A) It has no villi. B) It exhibits external muscular bands called the taeniae coli. C) It is longer than the small intestine. D) It has haustra. Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 49) Which of the following applies to the small intestine? A) It is where foodstuffs first encounter protein-splitting enzymes. B) Its walls secrete most of the digestive enzymes that are active in its lumen. C) It is where carbohydrates and fats but not proteins are digested. D) Breakdown products of fats enter its lacteals. Answer: D Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) All of the following structures have four tissue layers in their walls except the A) esophagus. B) mouth. C) stomach. D) sigmoid colon. Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 51) The duodenum contains these structures whose products neutralize the acidic chyme. A) duodenal glands B) gastric glands C) intestinal glands D) Peyer's patches Answer: A Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

52) In mastication, the relative roles of an incisor versus a molar are A) piercing versus tearing. B) chewing versus holding food in the mouth. C) biting off pieces of food versus grinding. D) only incisors function in mastication. Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 53) Which of the following statements about the duodenum is false? A) It receives chyme from the stomach. B) It is the site of action of liver and pancreas secretions. C) It is shorter than either the ileum or jejunum. D) It is more movable than the ileum or jejunum, which are retroperitoneal. Answer: D Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 & 23.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) Which of the following layers is present in the mucosa of the stomach and intestines, but not in the mucosa of the mouth and pharynx? A) lining epithelium B) lamina propria C) muscularis mucosae D) lumen Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 55) Which of the following is true of the pectinate line of the anal canal? A) It lies just below the level of the rectal valves. B) It is also called the anal column. C) It divides regions of somatic and visceral innervation. D) All hemorrhoids occur there. Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.9 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

56) Which of the following is not a characteristic of enteroendocrine cells? A) They are scattered throughout the lining epithelium of the stomach and intestines. B) They secrete hormones that help signal the events of digestion. C) They never secrete their product into the lumen of the digestive canal. D) They are scattered throughout the lining of the rectum. Answer: D Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.13 & 23.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 57) The splenic flexure is the boundary between the A) spleen and stomach. B) transverse and descending colon. C) transverse and ascending colon. D) descending colon and sigmoid colon. Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) The terminal portion of the small intestine is the A) duodenum. B) ileum. C) jejunum. D) pyloric sphincter. Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) The correct sequence of layers in the wall of the alimentary canal, from internal to external, is A) mucosa, muscularis, serosa, submucosa. B) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa. C) serosa, muscularis, mucosa, submucosa. D) submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscularis. Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 22.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

60) In the stomach, the undifferentiated epithelial stem cells lie near the junction of the gastric pits and gastric glands. In the intestine, the corresponding stem cells occur A) on the tips of the villi. B) where the intestinal crypts meet the villi. C) in the duodenal (Brunner's) glands. D) deep within the intestinal glands (crypts of Lieberkühn). Answer: D Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 61) Which of the following is a role of the levator ani muscle in defecation? A) It pushes down on the feces. B) It has no role in defecation, only in inhibiting defecation (it is the external sphincter muscle). C) It lifts the anal canal superiorly around the feces. D) Its stretch and proprioception properties initiate the defecation reflex. Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 & 23.15 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) Disease of which structure is the most common cause of tooth loss in adults? A) periodontal ligament B) crown C) enamel D) dentin Answer: A Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 63) Most of the gastrointestinal tract is innervated by the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the nervous system. Which parts are innervated by the somatic nervous system? A) esophagus and stomach B) pharynx and anal canal C) pyloric, ileocecal, and internal anal sphincters D) small and large intestines Answer: B Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 & 23.14 Global LO: G2 & G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

64) The parietal cells in the stomach produce A) mucin. B) pepsin. C) intrinsic factor and HCl. D) secretin. Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 65) Smooth muscle fibers have ________ which allow entry of Ca2+ from the extracellular fluid, and ________, which allow impulses to spread between adjacent fibers. A) cytoskeleton; desmosomes B) tight junctions; varicosities C) caveolae; gap junctions D) varicosities; caveolae Answer: C Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) Which of the following structures neither enters nor leaves the porta hepatis? A) hepatic veins B) branches of hepatic portal vein C) branches of hepatic artery D) hepatic ducts Answer: A Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 67) What is the function of the gallbladder? A) secretion of bile B) production of cholesterol C) secretion of gastrin D) storage of bile Answer: D Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

68) Union of the cystic and common hepatic ducts. A) accessory pancreatic duct B) main pancreatic duct C) hepatopancreatic ampulla D) common bile duct E) bile canaliculi Answer: D Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) The pancreas contains all of the following regions except a A) head. B) tail. C) hilum. D) body. Answer: C Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 70) Which of the following is not a function of hepatocytes? A) producing digestive enzymes B) picking up and processing nutrients from the portal blood C) storing some vitamins D) detoxifying poisons Answer: A Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) Digestion of which of the following would be affected the most if the bile-secreting liver were severely damaged? A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) nucleic acids Answer: B Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

72) Some bacteria from the intestinal microbiota work their way into the intestinal wall and start to spread through the circulation. Many of these bacteria are stopped by MALT, while many more are destroyed by A) hepatocytes. B) hepatic macrophages. C) the walling-off action of the greater omentum. D) megakaryocytes. Answer: B Section: 23.3 Book LO: 12.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 73) What is the distinction between Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis? A) Although both diseases are caused by inflammation, Crohn's disease occurs only in the small intestine, whereas ulcerative colitis occurs only in the large intestine. B) Crohn's disease is caused by the bacterium H. pylori, whereas ulcerative colitis results from the failure of acid to be neutralized before it reaches the colon. C) Crohn's disease produces deeper erosions of the mucosa and occurs throughout the intestines, whereas ulcerative colitis occurs mostly in the rectum. D) Crohn's disease results in diverticula, caused by insufficient dietary fiber, whereas ulcerative colitis is caused by the bacterium H. pylori. Answer: C Section: 23.4 Book LO: 23.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 74) The lamina propria and submucosa of the stomach both derive from which embryonic layer? A) ectoderm B) intermediate mesoderm C) splanchnic mesoderm D) somatic mesoderm Answer: C Section: 23.5 Book LO: 23.18 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

75) The liver and pancreas form as part of the embryonic A) foregut. B) midgut. C) hindgut. D) the hindgut and midgut. Answer: A Section: 23.5 Book LO: 23.18 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 76) The lining epithelium of the developing digestive tract (pharynx through anal canal) comes from A) ectoderm. B) mesoderm. C) endoderm. D) neural crest. Answer: C Section: 23.5 Book LO: 23.18 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23.2 True/False Questions 1) Some mesenteries are named "ligaments" (i.e., the falciform ligament) because they are comprised of dense regular connective tissue. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) The pancreas and duodenum are secondarily retroperitoneal organs. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.4 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Most of the ascending colon lies between the subcostal and transtubercular planes. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.1 Book LO: 23.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

4) From the lumen outward, the layers of the gastrointestinal tract are mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) The most superficial layer of the esophagus is the serosa. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 6) The vermiform appendix is suspended from the cecum. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) The terms taste bud and papillae are synonymous. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.10 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Smooth muscle fibers differ from skeletal muscle in that they do not contain contractile myofilaments. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Stretching of the anal sphincter initiates the defecation reflex. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.14 & 23.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

10) Villi are cytoplasmic projections on the surface of intestinal absorptive cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Chief cells of the gastric glands secrete pepsinogen. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) The small intestines contain bacteria that synthesize some essential vitamins. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.2 Book LO: 23.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 13) In the liver, hepatic portal blood mixes with blood from the hepatic artery. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 14) A gallstone lodged in the cystic duct may also cause blockage of the pancreas. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 15) The sinusoids of a liver lobule receive blood from the portal arteriole and deliver blood to the portal venule. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.3 Book LO: 23.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

16) Hepatitis A, B, and C are bacterial infections for which no effective vaccines or treatments are available. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.4 Book LO: 23.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The ________ is connective tissue whose capillaries nourish the epithelium of the mucosa. Answer: lamina propria 2) The right and left hepatic ducts join to form the ________ duct. Answer: common hepatic 3) Blood flowing through a liver lobule enters from a portal venule, flows through ________ to the central vein, and finally leaves the liver via the hepatic vein. Answer: sinusoids 4) The transverse colon bends inferiorly at the ________ to become the descending colon. Answer: splenic flexure 5) The ________ region of the stomach is closest to the esophagus. Answer: cardiac 6) The process of ________ in the intestine mixes food with digestive juices and increases the efficiency of nutrient uptake. Answer: segmentation 7) The porta hepatis contains the hepatic arteries, hepatic ducts, and ________. Answer: hepatic portal veins 8) The region between your teeth and lips is called the ________. Answer: oral vestibule 9) Thin myofilaments of smooth muscle fibers are anchored to intermediate filaments by ________. Answer: dense bodies 10) The distal sigmoid colon is located within the ________ region of the abdominal pelvic cavity. Answer: hypogastric 11) ________ is a dangerous inflammation of herniations in the colonic wall. Answer: Diverticulitis 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

12) ________ is a condition in which inflammation of the intestines causes deep ulcers and fissures. Answer: Crohn's disease 13) "Baby" teeth are more properly called ________ teeth. Answer: deciduous 14) The external muscle layer of the pharynx consists of three ________ muscles, which are voluntary skeletal muscle. Answer: pharyngeal constrictor 15) Longitudinal folds of the stomach mucosa are called ________. Answer: rugae 16) In the smooth muscle layers of the digestive tract, only a few muscle fibers per sheet are directly innervated; this arrangement is termed ________ Answer: single unit innervation 23.4 Essay Questions 1) Explain the relationships and distinguish among the following structures of the small intestine: villi, microvilli, and circular folds. Answer: Plicae circulares or circular folds are large, 1-cm-high transverse folds of the small intestine. The surface of these folds has fingerlike projections called villi. They are approximately 1-mm-tall extensions of the mucosa that contain blood vessels and lacteals. The epithelial layer covering these villi consists of columnar absorptive cells each having microvilli extensions on their apical surface. 2) Describe the structure and function of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue. Answer: The intrinsic muscles are confined within the tongue and are not attached to bone. They are responsible for changing the shape of the tongue but not its position in the mouth. This latter function belongs to the extrinsic muscles that are attached to bone. The genioglossus is responsible for protracting, retracting, and lateral movements of the tongue. The intrinsic muscles are arranged in transverse, longitudinal, and vertical layers, allowing the tongue to change shape while chewing and speaking. 3) Describe the structure of a mesentery, and then identify and describe the location of two ventral and two dorsal mesenteries. Answer: A mesentery consists of two serous membranes that sandwich blood vessels and nerves in between. The mesentery extends from the abdominal wall to intraperitoneal organs, supporting the organs and fixing them to the wall. The two ventral mesenteries are the falciform ligament, which attaches the liver to the anterior wall and diaphragm, and the lesser omentum, which attaches the lesser curvature of the stomach to the liver. The dorsal mesenteries include the greater omentum, mesentery proper, transverse mesocolon, and sigmoid mesocolon. The greater omentum attaches the greater curvature of the stomach to the posterior abdominal wall. The mesentery proper connects the jejunum and ileum to the posterior abdominal wall. The two mesocolons attach to the region of the colon for which they are named. 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

4) Identify the location and function of the enteric nerve plexus. Answer: The enteric nerve plexus consists of neurons located entirely within the walls of the GI tract. These neurons form reflex arcs that can function independently from the central nervous system. The enteric plexus includes neurons from both the submucosal and myenteric plexuses. The submucosal nerve plexus, located in the submucosa, innervates the secretory glands of the mucosa. It also causes some movements of the mucosa. The myenteric nerve plexus lies in the muscularis layer of the tract. It controls peristalsis and segmentation. 5) Explain the relationship between a hiatal hernia and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Answer: In a hiatal hernia, the cardiac region of the stomach pushes superiorly through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm and into the thoracic cavity. Without the reinforcement of the surrounding diaphragmatic muscles, the effectiveness of the cardiac sphincter declines, and digestive juices are able to regurgitate from the stomach into the esophagus. This regurgitation and the associated inflammation and pain are called gastroesophageal reflux disease.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 24 The Urinary System 24.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The descriptive term for the location of the kidneys relative to the abdominal cavity. A) retroperitoneal B) intraperitoneal C) extra abdominal D) supraperitoneal E) subcapsular Answer: A Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Based on what you know about the location of the kidneys in the posterior abdominal wall, the hilum of the kidney must be at the level of which vertebra? A) T11 or T12 B) L1 or L2 C) L4 D) T8 Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 3) Which gland sits atop each kidney? A) pancreas B) pituitary C) adrenal D) interlobar gland Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

4) The medial concave cleft in which vessels, ureters, and nerves enter/leave the kidney. A) cortex B) hilum C) renal corpuscle D) renal capsule E) sinus Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of the following supportive tissues is most superficial? A) fibrous capsule B) pararenal fat C) perirenal fat D) renal fascia Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which structure(s) is (are) most important for holding the kidney in place in the abdomen? A) renal vessels B) renal ligaments C) perirenal and pararenal fat layers and renal fascia D) the diaphragm, through its muscle tone Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 7) Identify the letter that indicates the major calyx. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Identify the letter that indicates the blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood to the kidney. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

9) Identify the letter that indicates the blood vessels that delineate the cortex from the medulla. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) Identify the letter that indicates a cortical radiate artery. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Identify the letter that indicates the renal pelvis. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) The most superficial layer of the kidney is the A) cortex. B) medulla. C) renal pyramids. D) renal papilla. Answer: A Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

13) A large fat-filled space within the kidney that also contains the renal pelvis, blood vessels, and nerves. A) sinus B) convoluted tubules C) renal corpuscle D) renal pyramids E) cortical columns Answer: A Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Cup-shaped tubes that enclose the papillae of the pyramids. A) major calyx B) minor calyx C) renal sinus D) renal pelvis E) cortical columns Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Before it enters the ureter, urine collects in the A) renal sinus. B) renal pelvis. C) renal cortex. D) renal pyramids. Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) Which vessels lie within the renal columns? A) arcuate arteries B) cortical radiate arteries C) interlobar arteries D) segmental arteries Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

17) The left renal vein ________ the right renal vein. A) is shorter than B) is the same length as C) is longer than D) carries less blood than Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which off the following puts the flow of blood through the kidney in the correct order? A) segmental artery — interlobar artery — arcuate artery — cortical radiate artery B) segmental artery — arcuate artery — interlobar artery — cortical radiate artery C) interlobar artery — segmental artery — cortical radiate artery — arcuate artery D) interlobar artery — arcuate artery — segmental artery — cortical radiate artery Answer: A Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of the following processes does not participate in the production of urine in the kidney? A) filtration B) secretion C) evaporation D) resorption Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which of the following structures are most numerous within a kidney? A) cortical radiate arteries B) minor calyces C) renal corpuscles D) renal papillae Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

21) When Melinda was asked to identify a "mystery" slide on a histology test, she immediately identified it as renal cortex because of the presence of scattered A) renal corpuscles. B) thin segments. C) renal papillae. D) vasa recta. Answer: A Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which of the following is not found in the renal corpuscle? A) the glomerulus B) the nephron loop C) glomerular capsule D) podocytes Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) Knot of capillaries that directs blood into the efferent arteriole. A) arcuate arteries B) cortical radiate arteries C) glomerulus D) afferent arterioles E) peritubular capillaries Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) The layer of podocytes is the same as the A) parietal layer. B) glomerulus. C) visceral layer of glomerular capsule. D) capsular space. Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

25) Which of the following is not part of the filtration membrane? A) basement membrane B) capillary endothelium C) filtration slit diaphragm D) granular cells Answer: D Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) The part of the nephron whose epithelial cells are most responsible for resorption and secretion is the A) glomerular capsule (podocytes). B) proximal tubule. C) thin segment. D) distal tubule. Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) The parts of the nephron whose epithelial cells contain the most mitochondria are the A) renal corpuscle and distal convoluted tubule. B) proximal and distal convoluted tubules. C) thin segment and glomerular capsule. D) vasa recta and collecting tubules. Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 28) An important difference between a cuboidal epithelial cell of the proximal versus the distal convoluted tubules is that A) the former only secretes, the latter only filters. B) one lies in the renal cortex, the other in the medulla. C) only one has a folded basolateral membrane containing enzymes for ion transport. D) the proximal tubule cells have long microvilli that are fewer than or absent from the distal tubule cells. Answer: D Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

29) Which segment of the nephron has a simple squamous epithelium? A) collecting duct B) descending limb of the nephron loop C) distal convoluted tubule D) proximal convoluted tubule Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of the following regions of the nephron is most likely to be found in the renal medulla? A) glomerulus B) proximal convoluted tubule C) distal convoluted tubule D) collecting duct Answer: D Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) The function of the collecting duct is to A) contract its muscular walls to expel urine from the cortex. B) determine the final volume and concentration of urine. C) drain blood from the kidney and deliver it to the renal vein. D) transport resorbed water back into the cardiovascular system. Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) If you looked closely at the tip of a renal papilla with a hand lens, the hundreds of little openings you would see on its surface are A) minor calyces. B) renal sinuses. C) openings of papillary ducts. D) glomeruli. Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

33) An increase in the permeability of collecting tubule cells to water is due to A) a decrease in the production of antidiuretic hormone. B) an increase in the production of antidiuretic hormone. C) a decrease in the concentration of solutes in the blood plasma. D) the presence of a salty urine in the bladder. Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) 85% of nephrons are described by this term that relates to their location in the kidney. A) sinusoidal B) trabecular C) medullary D) cortical E) extrinsic Answer: D Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Cortical nephrons are different from juxtamedullary nephrons in that A) they are much less abundant. B) they produce urine, whereas juxtamedullary nephrons do not. C) their nephron loop is shorter, with a shorter thin segment. D) they do not have a proximal convoluted tubule. Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) Which of the following is found exclusively in the renal medulla? A) nephron loop of juxtamedullary nephrons B) cortical radiate arteries C) peritubular capillaries D) proximal convoluted tubules Answer: A Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

37) In the juxtaglomerular apparatus, the macula densa is part of the A) terminal nephron loop. B) glomerulus. C) efferent arteriole. D) visceral layer of the glomerular capsule (podocytes). Answer: A Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) The region of the distal tubule that monitors concentration of the filtrate is called the A) vasa recta B) collecting duct C) macula densa D) mesangial E) extraglomerular Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 39) Identify the letter that indicates the region of the nephron with receptors sensitive to antidiuretic hormone (ADH). A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

40) Identify the letter that indicates the glomerulus. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 41) Identify the letter that indicates the afferent arteriole. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) Identify the letter that indicates blood vessels that absorb solutes from the convoluted tubules. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

43) Identify the letter that indicates the vasa recta. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 44) Identify the letter that indicates the proximal convoluted tubule. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

45) Identify the letter that indicates the parietal layer of glomerular capsule. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) Identify the letter that indicates the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) Identify the letter that indicates the efferent arteriole. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) Identify the letter that indicates blood vessels covered by podocytes. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

49) Arteries that branch to form the afferent arterioles to the glomeruli are A) segmental arteries. B) arcuate arteries. C) cortical radiate arteries. D) interlobar arteries. Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) How much of the fluid filtered by the kidney actually becomes urine? A) 1% B) 10% C) 50% D) 99% Answer: A Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) Ladderlike looping blood vessels within the medulla. A) vasa vasorum B) peritubular capillaries C) cortical radiate D) vasa recta E) interlobular Answer: D Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) An important difference between the peritubular capillaries and the vasa recta in the kidney is that A) only the vasa recta are supplied by efferent arterioles. B) the vasa recta drain into arterioles, whereas the peritubular capillaries drain into venules. C) the vasa recta are involved in filtration, whereas the peritubular capillaries are involved in resorption. D) the vasa recta are in the medulla, whereas the peritubular capillaries are in the cortex. Answer: D Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

53) Blood vessel that contains granular cells involved in blood pressure regulation. A) afferent arteriole B) efferent arteriole C) segmental artery D) macula densa E) extraglomerular mesangial Answer: A Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) Renin is produced in A) the glomerulus. B) the renal medulla. C) the granular cells. D) glomerular capsules. Answer: C Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) Urine passes through the A) kidney hilum to the bladder to the ureter. B) renal pelvis to the ureter to the bladder to the urethra. C) glomerulus to the ureter to the nephron. D) hilum to the urethra to the bladder. Answer: B Section: 24.2 Book LO: 24.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) During a dissection, Arnie saw the ureters entering the lateral corners of the bladder but found the internal openings of the ureters in the trigone near the midline of the bladder. His observation necessarily means that A) the ureters run medially for some distance within the posterior bladder wall. B) the ureters and urethra are really the same tube. C) each ureter must have four distinct openings into the bladder. D) this bladder had a congenital defect. Answer: A Section: 24.2 Book LO: 24.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

57) The ureters A) are lined by stratified squamous epithelium. B) contain only an inner circular layer in their muscularis. C) do not have an adventitia layer. D) have a muscularis layer that is stimulated to contract by the stretching of their walls as urine enters them. Answer: D Section: 24.6 Book LO: 24.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) Which of the following statements about the urinary bladder is false? A) In females, the bladder lies posterior to the uterus but anterior to the rectum. B) The ureters attach to the bladder through oblique posterolateral orifices. C) Two ureteral openings and the internal urethral orifice bound the trigone of the bladder. D) When empty, the bladder lies inferior to the abdominal cavity. Answer: A Section: 24.3 Book LO: 24.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) The neck, or inferior angle, of the bladder drains into the A) ureters. B) urachus. C) urethra. D) trigone. Answer: C Section: 24.3 Book LO: 24.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) The epithelium lining the urinary bladder that permits distension is A) stratified squamous. B) transitional. C) simple squamous. D) pseudostratified columnar. Answer: B Section: 24.3 Book LO: 24.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

61) The mucosal folds in the bladder (rugae) A) act to increase the surface area for absorption. B) thicken the bladder wall so that it does not burst. C) are not present in life, only in cadavers. D) have the same basic function as transitional epithelium—accommodating stretch as the bladder fills. Answer: D Section: 24.3 Book LO: 24.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) Contraction of this muscle forces urine from the bladder. A) cremaster B) detrusor C) diaphragm D) vesicular E) dartos Answer: B Section: 24.3 Book LO: 24.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) The name of the inferior of the three openings in the trigone of the bladder is the A) ureteric orifice. B) urachus opening. C) internal urethral orifice. D) detrusor. Answer: C Section: 24.4 Book LO: 24.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) Of the following, the only epithelial type that does not line the urethra is A) simple squamous. B) pseudostratified columnar. C) stratified squamous. D) stratified columnar. E) transitional. Answer: A Section: 24.4 Book LO: 24.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

65) Which of the following statements about the internal urethral sphincter is false? A) It is a thickening of the detrusor muscle. B) It is located superior to the prostatic urethra in males. C) It is not consciously controlled. D) It is surrounded by the urogenital diaphragm. Answer: D Section: 24.4 Book LO: 24.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 66) The external urethral sphincter is located A) at the external urethral orifice. B) at the junction of the bladder wall and urethra. C) at the ureteral orifice. D) at the urogenital diaphragm. Answer: D Section: 24.4 Book LO: 24.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) The longest of the three parts of the male urethra is the A) prostatic. B) membranous. C) spongy urethra. D) neck. Answer: C Section: 24.4 Book LO: 24.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 68) The micturition center is located in the A) cerebellum. B) detrusor muscle layer of the bladder wall. C) pons of the brain stem. D) sacral spinal cord. Answer: C Section: 24.5 Book LO: 24.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

69) Which of the following would not inhibit micturition? A) stimulation of the somatic motor neurons to the external urethral sphincter B) activation of the sympathetic pathways C) relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter D) relaxation of the detrusor muscles Answer: C Section: 24.5 Book LO: 24.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 70) In the micturition reflex, the detrusor muscle is stimulated to contract by A) sphincter neurons from the brain. B) sympathetic fibers. C) parasympathetic fibers. D) visceral sensory fibers from the vagus. Answer: C Section: 24.5 Book LO: 24.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) What anatomical difference makes urinary tract infections more common in females than in males? A) In males the urethra is made up of three regions, whereas in females it is made of only one. B) In females the urethra is attached to the anterior vaginal wall by connective tissue. C) In females the urethra is shorter than in males. D) In males the urethra is shared by the both the reproductive and the urinary systems, whereas in females it is part of the urinary system only. Answer: C Section: 24.6 Book LO: 24.9 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 72) Kidney stones, or renal calculi, tend to lodge most often in places where their pathway out of the body tends to narrow. All of these are regions where the ureter narrows and kidney stones may lodge except A) where the renal pelvis narrows into the ureter. B) at the urachus of the ureter. C) at the point where the ureters enter the bladder. D) where the ureters enter the true pelvis, passing by the sacroiliac joint. Answer: B Section: 24.6 Book LO: 24.9 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

73) The only embryonic kidney that survives into adulthood is the A) pronephros. B) mesonephros. C) metanephros. D) paranephros. Answer: C Section: 24.7 Book LO: 24.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 74) From which embryonic tissue layer(s) does the kidney arise? A) ectoderm B) mesoderm C) endoderm D) all three layers Answer: B Section: 24.7 Book LO: 24.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) The condition in which the metanephros has failed to ascend is A) horseshoe kidney. B) polycystic renal disease. C) hydronephrosis. D) pelvic kidney. Answer: D Section: 24.7 Book LO: 24.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 76) The embryonic urogenital sinus A) derives from the cloaca. B) gives rise to the anus. C) gives rise to the rectum. D) gives rise to the ureters. Answer: A Section: 24.7 Book LO: 24.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

77) All of the following changes to the anatomy of the kidneys occur with advanced age except A) the kidneys atrophy. B) the number of nephrons in the kidneys decreases. C) the proximal and distal convoluted tubules become less efficient at secretion and reabsorption. D) the renal arteries supply a greater amount of blood to the kidneys, increasing the rate of filtration. Answer: D Section: 24.6 Book LO: 24.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24.2 True/False Questions 1) The kidneys are located just below lumbar vertebrae L2 and L3. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 2) The correct sequence of arterial blood flow is the renal artery to the segmental arteries to the interlobar arteries. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Venous structures of the kidney mirror those of the arterial circuit, except for the absence of segmental veins. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) A network of peritubular capillaries surrounds the convoluted tubules and nephron loop for the purpose of filtration. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

5) The glomerular capsule and the glomerular capillaries together make up the renal corpuscle. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6) The epithelial cells of the distal convoluted tubule have an abundance of absorptive microvilli. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) The descending thin limb of the nephron loop consists of a simple squamous epithelium. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) Cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons can be distinguished by the absence of a vasa recta in the cortical nephrons. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Urine drains from the kidney in the following sequence: from the collecting duct to the minor calyx to the major calyx to the renal pelvis and then to the ureter. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.1 Book LO: 24.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 10) Urine flows from the kidney to the bladder by gravity and peristalsis. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.2 Book LO: 24.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

11) The ureters enter the bladder obliquely at the anterolateral corners. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.2 Book LO: 24.5 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) In females, the urinary bladder lies anterior to the vagina and uterus. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.3 Book LO: 24.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 13) The urinary bladder, when empty, lies within both the abdominal and pelvic cavities. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.3 Book LO: 24.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) The internal urethral sphincter is composed of smooth muscle and is under involuntary control. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.5 Book LO: 24.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) The location and length of the urethra are two factors that contribute to the high incidence of urinary tract infections in women. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.6 Book LO: 24.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Between the fibrous renal capsule and the renal fascia is a cushioning and supportive ________ fat capsule. Answer: perirenal 2) The calyces and renal pelvis are all flared branches off the ________, which is an organ that transmits urine to the bladder. Answer: ureter 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

3) Five ________ arteries branch from the renal artery and enter the hilum. Answer: segmental 4) The ________ artery is located between the interlobar and cortical radiate arteries. Answer: arcuate 5) ________ are large cells with complex "footlike" processes that wrap around the glomerular capillaries. Answer: Podocytes 6) The U-shaped ________ is located between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules. Answer: nephron loop 7) Adjacent collecting ducts join to form larger ________ that drain into the minor calyx. Answer: papillary ducts 8) Glomeruli arise from branches off the ________ arterioles of the cortex. Answer: afferent glomerular 9) Most water and solutes are resorbed from the convoluted renal tubules into the ________. Answer: peritubular capillaries 10) Blood pressure is regulated by a specialized structure, known as the ________, that contacts both the afferent arteriole and the terminal end of the nephron loop. Answer: juxtaglomerular apparatus 11) ________ cells are modified smooth muscle cells of the afferent and efferent arterioles that secrete the hormone renin. Answer: Granular (or Juxtaglomerular) 12) The ________ layer of the ureters propel urine to the bladder by peristalsis. Answer: muscularis 13) The ________, a clinical landmark in the urinary bladder, is bounded by the two ureteric openings and the internal urethral orifice. Answer: trigone 14) The ________ urethral sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle and under voluntary control. Answer: external 15) Voiding of urine, known as ________, involves sympathetic, parasympathetic, and somatic fibers. Answer: micturition

24.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the structure and function of the filtration slit and membrane. Answer: Blood is filtered through filtration slits in the glomerular capillaries. The slits consist of three layers. The fenestrations in the endothelium of the capillaries create large pores through which the blood filtrate passes. A basement membrane superficial to the endothelium provides a second layer of the barrier. It prevents most large proteins from passing. Finally, the pedicles of the podocytes form the third layer of the membrane. These also prevent proteins from passing through the slits. 2) Describe how the structure of the proximal convoluted tubule walls reflects its function in filtrate processing. Answer: The walls of the proximal tubule are simple cuboidal epithelium. The luminal surface of the cells is covered by microvilli. These structures increase the surface area of the proximal tubule thereby greatly enhancing the resorption of water, electrolytes, and other solutes from the filtrate. 3) Explain the significance of the intimate anatomical relationship between the nephrons and the peritubular capillaries and vasa recta. Answer: The vast majority, 99%, of the filtrate that is removed from the blood must be resorbed from the nephrons. If this fluid were not resorbed, the body would quickly dehydrate. All ions, solutes, and water that are resorbed from the nephron pass into the surrounding peritubular capillaries and return to the cortical radiate vein. Sodium and water resorbed from the nephron loop are picked up by the vasa recta and returned to the cortical radiate vein. 4) Compare and contrast the construction of the bladder and ureter walls. Answer: The walls of both the bladder and ureter consist of three layers: a mucosa of transitional epithelium, a muscularis layer, and an external adventitia. The muscularis of the ureter consists of two layers of smooth muscle, circular and inner longitudinal, for most of its length, then adds a third external longitudinal layer at its distal end. The bladder has all three layers of smooth muscle. The middle layer of the bladder is thick, and it is called the detrusor muscle. The adventitia of the bladder is replaced with parietal peritoneum on its superior surface. 5) Describe the structure, function, and control of the internal and external urethral sphincters in micturition. Answer: The internal urethral sphincter is composed of smooth muscle and is under involuntary control. In contrast, the external urethral sphincter is skeletal muscle that can be voluntarily controlled. The internal sphincter prevents leakage of urine between voiding, and the external sphincter prevents urination until consciously desired.

Human Anatomy, 9e, Marieb Test Bank Chapter 25 The Reproductive System 25.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Identify the letter indicating the ejaculatory duct. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Identify the letter indicating the site of sperm maturation and storage. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

3) Identify the letter indicating the organ that directs sperm toward the seminal vesicles during ejaculation. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) Identify the letter indicating the gland that secretes neutralizing mucus prior to ejaculation. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Identify the letter indicating the common passageway for semen and urine in men. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 6) Identify the letter indicating the cervix. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Identify the letter indicating where fertilization normally occurs. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

8) Identify the letter indicating the region of the uterus known as the fundus. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Identify the letter indicating the tissue layer which is shed during menstruation. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 10) Identify the letter indicating the site where ectopic pregnancies most commonly occur. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 11) Identify the letter indicating the "neck" of the uterus. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 12) Identify the letter indicating the infundibulum. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

13) Identify the letter indicating the female erectile tissue homologous to the male penis. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) Identify the letter indicating the gland that secretes lubricating mucus into the vaginal orifice. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) Identify the letter indicating the organ commonly referred to as the birth canal. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) Tubular organ that is transected during a vasectomy. A) epididymis B) rete testis C) ductus deferens D) spermatic cord E) pampiniform plexus Answer: C Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

17) All of the following are adaptations for keeping the testes cool except the A) descent of the testes into the scrotum before birth. B) pampiniform plexus of veins. C) cremaster and dartos muscles. D) testicular artery. Answer: D Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 18) The correct sequence of sperm-transporting tubules that transport spermatozoa to the epididymis is A) seminiferous tubule to efferent ductule to straight tubule to rete testis. B) seminiferous tubule to rete testis to straight tubule to efferent ductule. C) seminiferous tubule to rete testis to efferent ductule to straight tubule. D) seminiferous tubule to straight tubule to rete testis to efferent ductule. Answer: D Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 19) Sperm become motile in the A) ductus deferens. B) epididymis. C) seminiferous tubules. D) prostate. Answer: B Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which of the following is the primary sex organ in the male? A) prostate B) testis C) epididymis D) penis Answer: B Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.1 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

21) Inguinal hernias A) always reach the scrotum. B) always enter the inguinal canal. C) occur with equal frequency in males and females. D) are signs of old age and almost never congenital. Answer: B Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 22) Involuntary contraction of this smooth muscle layer wrinkles and thickens the walls of the scrotum to prevent heat loss. A) tunica albuginea B) tunica vaginalis C) dartos muscle D) cremaster muscle E) internal spermatic fascia Answer: C Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23) The function of the pampiniform plexus of veins is to A) help prevent hernias. B) help cool blood. C) form the outer wall of the spermatic cord. D) form hydroceles. Answer: B Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 24) The seminal vesicles A) store sperm. B) are glands that secrete most of the volume of the semen. C) secrete digestive enzymes when cancerous. D) empty into the epididymis. Answer: B Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

25) Tubules that connect testicular lobules with the efferent ductules of the epididymis. A) seminiferous tubules B) rete testis C) pampiniform plexus D) ductus deferens E) straight tubules Answer: B Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which testicular cells help deliver sperm to the epididymis by contracting rhythmically? A) interstitial B) myoid C) sustentocytes D) type A spermatocytes Answer: B Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 27) Erection is caused by A) a jointed bone in the penis that unfolds. B) the penis filling up with semen that is about to be ejaculated. C) erectile bodies filling with blood. D) impulses from the sympathetic nervous system. Answer: C Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.3 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 28) Sperm are moved from the testis into the epididymis by A) swimming under their own power. B) gravity. C) suction. D) testicular fluid moved by cilia and smooth muscle cells. Answer: D Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

29) The deep inguinal ring is formed by the A) extension of the external oblique muscle. B) extension of the internal oblique muscle. C) fascia layer deep to the transversus abdominis muscle. D) cremaster muscle. Answer: C Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of the following is not contained in the fluid secreted by the seminal glands? A) a fluorescent pigment B) fructose C) macrophages D) prostaglandins Answer: C Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 31) The function of the cremaster muscle is to A) squeeze semen from the urethra during ejaculation. B) maintain erection in both sexes. C) increase intra-abdominal pressure during childbirth. D) alter the position of the testes in the scrotal sac with increases in ambient temperature. Answer: D Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 32) By undergoing meiosis, each primary spermatocyte ultimately gives rise to how many sperm cells? A) two B) four C) eight D) billions Answer: B Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

33) The structural basis of the blood-testis barrier is A) the basal lamina around the seminiferous tubules. B) the endothelial cells of the continuous (non-fenestrated) capillaries that supply the seminiferous tubules. C) the tight junctions between sustentocytes. D) the thick basal lamina around the capillaries that supply the seminiferous tubules. Answer: C Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 34) Of the following tubular structures, which is the only one that lies partly outside the testis? A) tubulus rectus B) seminiferous tubule C) rete testis D) efferent ductule Answer: D Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which of the following organs does not contribute secretion(s) during the male sexual response? A) prostate B) seminal vesicles C) bulbourethral glands D) corpus cavernosum Answer: D Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 36) All of the following are functions of the sustentocytes in the seminiferous tubules except A) secretion of androgen-binding protein. B) secretion of testicular fluid. C) secretion of testosterone. D) phagocytosis of excess cytoplasm from spermatids during spermiogenesis. Answer: C Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

37) The typical (diploid) cells of the body have 46 chromosomes; how many chromosomes does each gamete have? A) 23 B) 46 C) 46 pairs D) 184 Answer: A Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.3 & 25.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 38) All of the following are located within the spermatic cord except the A) superficial inguinal ring. B) ductus deferens. C) pampiniform plexus. D) testicular artery. Answer: A Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 39) The epithelium lining the vagina is A) simple columnar. B) stratified squamous. C) pseudostratified columnar. D) simple squamous. Answer: B Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 40) The cells that secrete estrogens in females are A) oocytes. B) cells in the pituitary gland. C) granulosa cells. D) germinal epithelium of the ovary. Answer: C Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

41) In which part of the uterine tube does fertilization usually occur? A) ampulla B) isthmus C) infundibulum D) It doesn't occur in the uterine tubes. Answer: A Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.6 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 42) Most support of the uterus is provided by the A) mesometrium. B) round ligament. C) transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament. D) muscles of the pelvic floor. Answer: D Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 43) The vaginal fornix A) is in the superior part of the vestibule. B) surrounds the tip of the cervix. C) is in the middle layer of the vaginal wall. D) surrounds the external vaginal orifice. Answer: B Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.10 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 44) In an adult woman who has never been pregnant, the breasts have poorly developed or no A) lobules of acini/alveoli. B) lactiferous sinuses. C) suspensory ligaments. D) areolar glands. Answer: A Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

45) The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is the A) uterus. B) peritoneal cavity. C) vagina. D) uterine tube. Answer: D Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 46) During the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle, these vessels grow and proliferate. A) arcuate arteries B) radial arteries C) spiral arteries D) straight arteries Answer: C Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 47) Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is incorrect? A) It can lead to sterility. B) It is usually caused by chlamydia or gonorrhea. C) It includes salpingitis. D) It inhibits ovulation. Answer: D Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 48) The ________ phase of the uterine cycle occurs after ovulation. A) proliferative B) secretory C) luteal D) menstrual Answer: B Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

49) Which of the following anchors the uterus into its anteverted position in the pelvis? A) broad ligament B) ovarian ligament C) round ligament D) suspensory ligament Answer: C Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.7 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 50) The ovarian cortex consists of A) follicles and connective tissue. B) the largest blood vessels of the ovary. C) the hilus of the ovary. D) the mesovarium. Answer: A Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.5 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 51) The female uterine cycle begins A) at ovulation. B) on the first day of menstruation. C) at the end of menstruation. D) every six weeks. Answer: B Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.9 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 52) The ________ is the fluid-filled cavity in a mature ovarian follicle. A) zona pellucidum B) antrum C) corona radiate D) follicular theca E) granulosa Answer: B Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

53) The opening of the oviduct is surrounded by these structures. A) internal os B) external os C) fimbriae D) isthmus E) transverse cervical (cardinal) ligaments Answer: C Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 54) One factor that propels an oocyte through the uterine tube is A) pressure exerted by ovarian fluid. B) smooth muscle contraction (peristalsis). C) secretions of the non-ciliated cells. D) amoeboid motion of the oocyte. Answer: B Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.6 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 55) A woman has developed a cancerous lump in each breast, and the skin of the breasts is dimpled. What structure(s) is/are causing the dimpling? A) pectoralis major muscle B) pectoralis minor muscle C) smooth muscle cells around the ducts of the large glands in the breast D) suspensory ligaments of the breast Answer: D Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.12 & 25.16 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 56) In addition to the remaining granulosa cells, which of the following cell types make up the corpus luteum? A) oocyte B) theca cells C) cells of the corona radiata D) interstitial cells Answer: B Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

57) The largest region of the uterus is its A) fundus. B) body. C) cervix. D) fornix. Answer: B Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 58) The zona pellucida is A) the portion of the placenta in which maternal blood contacts fetal tissues. B) a protective shell around the oocyte that sperm must penetrate for fertilization to occur. C) the region of the uterine tube where fertilization occurs. D) the remnant of the vesicular follicle that becomes the corpus luteum. Answer: B Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 59) The prepuce of the clitoris is formed by the A) fourchette. B) hymen of the vagina. C) labia minora. D) the mons pubis. Answer: C Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 60) The milk-producing cells in the breast are A) adipose cells (because milk contains 4% fat). B) columnar epithelial cells in lobules. C) simple cuboidal epithelial cells in alveoli. D) endocrine cells. Answer: C Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.12 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

61) The female homologue of the male scrotum is the A) ovary. B) labia majora. C) penile urethra. D) bulb of the vestibule. Answer: B Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.11 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 62) A difference between a primary follicle and a primordial follicle is that A) one has an antrum and the other does not. B) the oocyte is larger in the primordial follicle. C) the primary follicle is an earlier stage than the primordial follicle. D) the primordial follicle has only a single layer of flat follicular cells, whereas the primary follicle is comprised of cuboidal follicle cells which multiply. Answer: D Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 63) The acrosomal reaction occurs A) just before fertilization. B) during meiosis of the sperm. C) during spermiogenesis. D) during placentation. Answer: A Section: 25.3 Book LO: 25.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 64) Which structure develops into the umbilical cord? A) body stalk B) chorionic villi C) decidua capsularis D) placenta Answer: A Section: 25.3 Book LO: 25.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

65) The placenta consists of which two structures? A) chorionic villi and amnion B) chorionic villi and decidua basalis C) cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast D) decidua basalis and decidua capsularis Answer: B Section: 25.3 Book LO: 25.13 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 66) This layer of the uterus contracts during parturition to expel the baby. A) perimetrium B) stratum functionalis C) stratum basalis D) myometrium E) endometrium Answer: D Section: 25.3 Book LO: 25.7 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 67) This multinucleate embryonic structure invades the uterus, digesting cells and maternal blood vessels to make way for development of the placenta. A) syncytiotrophoblast B) morula C) inner cell mass D) decidua basalis E) decidua capsularis Answer: A Section: 25.3 Book LO: 25.13 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing

68) Fingerlike placental structures where oxygen and nutrients from the maternal blood supply diffuse into the embryonic blood. A) syncytiotrophoblast B) allantois C) amnion D) chorionic villi E) extraembryonic membranes Answer: D Section: 25.3 Book LO: 25.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 69) The usual site of embryo implantation is the A) uterus. B) peritoneal cavity. C) vagina. D) uterine tube. Answer: A Section: 25.3 Book LO: 25.13 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 70) At what point during fetal development are the decidua basalis and chorionic villi collectively referred to as the placenta? A) the first month B) the ninth month C) the start of fourth month D) the end of second month Answer: C Section: 25.3 Book LO: 25.13 Global LO: G7 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 71) In the early fetus, all of the following are parts of the chorionic villi except the A) syncytiotrophoblast. B) cytotrophoblast. C) extraembryonic mesoderm. D) decidua. Answer: D Section: 25.3 Book LO: 25.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

72) The capillaries within a chorionic villus of the placenta contain blood A) from the fetus. B) from the mother. C) from both the fetus and the mother. D) from the ovarian artery. Answer: A Section: 25.3 Book LO: 25.14 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 73) An episiotomy during childbirth is performed to A) save the baby's life. B) minimize tearing of the central tendon and muscles of the pelvic floor. C) prevent the anal canal from being crushed. D) eliminate the pain to the mother. Answer: B Section: 25.3 Book LO: 25.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 74) In breast cancer, the cancer cells usually originate from the A) lactiferous ducts. B) cuboidal acinar cells. C) fat cells in the breast. D) endothelium of the lymph vessels in the breasts. Answer: A Section: 25.4 Book LO: 25.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 75) Hypospadias A) never occurs in females. B) is characterized by the absence of a urethra. C) cannot be detected through an examination of the outside of a baby's body. D) has no effects until puberty, when males start producing sperm. Answer: A Section: 25.5 Book LO: 25.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

76) In females, the paramesonephric ducts give rise to the A) ovaries. B) vestibule in the vulva. C) corpora cavernosa (erectile bodies). D) uterine tubes and uterus. Answer: D Section: 25.5 Book LO: 25.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 77) Which of the following occurs when the testes do not descend into the scrotum before birth? A) Male sex hormones will not circulate in the body. B) Sperm will have no route of exit from the body. C) Inadequate blood supply will retard the development of the testes. D) Viable sperm will not be produced. Answer: D Section: 25.5 Book LO: 25.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 78) Which of the following pairs of structures is not derived from the same embryonic tissues? A) ductus deferens, uterine tube B) penis, clitoris C) spongy urethra, labia minora D) testes, ovaries Answer: A Section: 25.5 Book LO: 25.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 79) Which structure is not derived from the embryonic paramesonephric ducts? A) cervix B) clitoris C) upper vagina D) uterine tube Answer: B Section: 25.5 Book LO: 25.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

80) A hydrocele A) occurs in females only. B) is a series of varicosities of the pampiniform plexus. C) is an outpocketing of peritoneum and intestines that have pushed through the abdominal wall. D) is excess serous fluid in the scrotum. Answer: D Section: 25.4 Book LO: 25.16 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 25.2 True/False Questions 1) The spermatic cord is another name for the ductus deferens. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G1 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 2) Sustentocytes support developing sperm and form a blood-testis barrier. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.1 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 3) Spermatogonia are located near the lumen of seminiferous tubules. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.4 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 4) The ejaculatory ducts are formed by the union of the ductus deferens and urethra. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 5) Seminiferous tubules are the site of sperm storage. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.1 Book LO: 25.2 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education Ltd.

6) Breast milk collects in the lactiferous sinus when a woman breastfeeds her infant. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 7) Primordial follicles develop into primary oocytes within the germinal epithelium of the ovary. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 8) During the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, a single primordial follicle develops, and the oocyte within it completes meiosis. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 9) Although the ovaries and uterine tubes are retroperitoneal, oocytes are ovulated into the peritoneal cavity. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 10) Granulosa cells of a maturing ovarian follicle convert androgens to estrogens that will stimulate proliferation of the endometrium. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 11) Oogenesis takes years to complete. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.8 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding

12) Lobules and alveoli of the breast develop during puberty. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.2 Book LO: 25.12 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 13) Cryptorchidism is a congenital condition in which one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.5 Book LO: 25.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 14) The ductus deferens and uterine tube are homologous structures, each deriving from the same embryonic duct. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.5 Book LO: 25.17 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 15) In females, the first sign of puberty is usually the onset of menarche, the first menstruation. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.5 Book LO: 25.11 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Understanding 16) The epididymis, ductus deferens, and seminal vesicles are all derived from mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.5 Book LO: 25.15 Global LO: G2 Bloom's Level: Applying/Analyzing 25.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The ________ is formed by the union of the ductus deferens and seminal vesicles. Answer: ejaculatory duct 2) The ________ of the female genitalia is a central space surrounded by the labia minora. Answer: vestibule

3) The bulb of the vestibule and the ________ are erectile bodies in females. Answer: clitoris 4) The uterus consists of the fundus, body, cervix, and ________. Answer: isthmus 5) Ovarian follicles contain ________ and thecal cells which, after ovulation, differentiate into the corpus luteum Answer: granulosa cells 6) An ovulated oocyte swept into the oviduct via fimbriae moves from the ________ of the oviduct to the ampulla, then the isthmus, and finally into the uterus. Answer: infundibulum 7) Contraction of the ________ in the wall of the spermatic cord raises the testes closer to the body cavity. Answer: cremaster muscle 8) The uterus is composed of three basic layers. The innermost layer is the ________. Answer: endometrium 9) The first menstruation is called ________. Answer: menarche 10) Testes descend through the ________ into the scrotum. Answer: inguinal canal 11) Contraction of the fibromuscular ________ of the prostate squeezes prostatic secretions into the urethra during ejaculation. Answer: stroma 12) During the menstrual phase of the uterine cycle, the inner ________ of the endometrium is shed. Answer: functional layer 13) The crura are extensions of the ________, the paired erectile bodies of the penis, and attach the penis to the pubic arch. Answer: corpora cavernosa 14) The uterus is anchored to the lateral walls of the pelvic cavity by the ________, the largest section of the broad ligament. Answer: mesometrium 15) The most effective way to detect cervical cancer in its earliest stage is by a(n) ________. Answer: Papanicolaou (Pap) smear

25.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the structures involved in the descent of the testes. Answer: The testes descend from the lumbar region of the abdominal cavity to the pelvic region. The vaginal process, an extension of the parietal peritoneum, protrudes through an opening in the muscles of the anterior abdominal wall to create the inguinal canal. The testes descend through this canal into the scrotum during the seventh month of fetal development. The mechanism for the descent of the testes is not known, however their movement from the abdominopelvic cavity is guided by a fibrous cord called the gubernaculum. This cord connects from the scrotal floor to the testis. As it shortens, the testes move through the inguinal canal. 2) Describe the mechanisms of propulsion by which sperm are transported from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis and, during ejaculation, from the epididymis out of the body. Answer: Sperm are carried to the epididymis on a current of testicular fluid that is being continuously produced by sustentocytes. The positive pressure of the fluid production forces the nonmotile sperm forward. Additionally, myoid cells that surround the seminiferous tubules rhythmically contract, helping to squeeze the sperm out of the testes. During ejaculation, smooth muscle cells in the epididymis and ductus deferens propel sperm by strong peristaltic contractions. Finally, the bulbospongiosus muscle covering the bulb of the penis contracts, propelling semen through the spongy urethra. 3) Identify the space into which an oocyte is ovulated, and describe the structures and mechanisms involved in transporting it to the uterus. Answer: The oocyte is ovulated into the peritoneal cavity. Currents, created by the motion of the fimbriae of the oviduct, draw the oocyte into the infundibulum. Ciliated columnar cells lining the oviduct create currents that move the oocyte through the ampulla, to the isthmus, and into the uterus. The journey of the oocyte is assisted by peristaltic contractions of the smooth muscle in the oviduct walls. 4) Menstruation occurs as a result of the absence (or low level) of a particular hormone. Identify (a) this hormone, (b) the specific arteries of the uterine lining that collapse/fracture, and (c) the specific layer of the uterus that is shed. Answer: Menstruation, or shedding of the endometrium, occurs due to the rapid decline of progesterone. Without progesterone, the spiral arteries of the endometrium (located in the functional layer) spasm, collapse, and degenerate. 5) Describe the structures involved in the transfer of nutrients and wastes between the fetal and maternal bloodstreams. Answer: Nutrients and wastes cross the placenta, which consists of both embryonic and maternal tissues. Extensions of the embryonic tissue are called chorionic villi. These extensions protrude into lacunae, or cavities in the endometrium, which contain maternal blood. Adjacent to these lacunae are maternal blood vessels located in a region called the decidua basalis. Together, the decidua basalis and chorionic villi, when fully established at the fourth month of fetal development, are called the placenta.