Test Bank for Human Resources in Healthcare: Managing for Success, 4th Edition by Bruce Fried Chapter 1 1. Why should healthcare organizations be concerned about integratingbusiness
strategies and HR? a. To better align the business strategies with each other b. To determine which HR functions should be done in-house andwhich
should be outsourced *c. To enhance organizational outcomes d. To ensure the organization is included in various lists of “best places to work”
2. Which of the following is an HR metric? a. Market share
*b. Cost per hire c. Profitability d. Competitive advantage
3. The number of HR staff members in most organizations a. continues to increase. b. is remaining the same. c. cannot be determined.
*d. continues to decline.
4. Which of the following is not part of a balanced scorecard? a. Short-term and long-term objectives b. Internal and external performance perspective c. Financial and nonfinancial metrics
*d. Measures of the internal and external environments
5. Competitive advantage in the workforce is challenging to achievebecause a. it is enduring and difficult for competitors to duplicate. b. it requires alignment of all HR systems.
*c. it takes time to do so. d. HR practices’ impact on it is not clear.
6. Human resource management includes a. financial management. b. strategic management. c. marketing.
*d. informal management of employees by all administrators.
7. In a study of HR leaders in 1,000 organizations, what percentagereported they
belonged to the executive team? a. 27 percent b. 37 percent
*c. 67 percent d. 74 percent
8. Minorities made up approximately what percentage of the US workforcein 2012? a. 30 percent b. 38 percent c. 22 percent
*d. 34 percent
9. The HR scorecard is a. a measurement instrument and control system that looks at amix of
quantitative and qualitative factors to evaluate organizational performance. b. HR’s role as a strategic partner. *c. a modified version of the balanced scorecard. d. a lagging indicator of organizational performance.
10. Understanding the significance of HR management is as relevant toline
managers as it is to HR managers. *a. True b. False
11. Increasing status distinctions and barriers is one of the seven HRpractices for
effective healthcare organizations. a. True
*b. False
12. HR is moving from appraisals with multiple inputs to supervisorinput only. a. True
*b. False
13. Implementation of an HR strategy requires management of internaland external
stakeholders. *a. True
b. False
14. The immediate goal of building a strong HR brand is to attract andretain the best
employees. *a. True b. False 15. HR practices are “lagging” performance indicators. a. True
*b. False
Chapter 2 1. What are three areas addressed by the original Fair Labor StandardsAct (FLSA)
passed in 1938? a. Overtime pay provisions, discriminatory hiring practices, timeoff for family
illness *b. Minimum wage, overtime pay provisions, child labor c. Discriminatory hiring practices, illegality of disparatetreatment, child labor d. Illegality of gender-based discrimination, child labor,employment-atwill
2. Which of the following was not a provision of the 2008 amendments tothe
Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)? a. Expanded definition of major life activities
*b. Further limited episodic conditions for ADA coverage c. Expanded the scope of “substantially limiting” major life activities d. Included “reading” as a major life activity 3. The concept of “disparate impact” was first established by
*a. Griggs v. Duke Power Co. b. Wards Cove Packing Co. v. Moody. c. Sutton v. United Airlines. d. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
4. Under the employment-at-will doctrine, a. an employer may fire an employee at any time but must give theemployee
timely notice as defined under the employment contract. b. an employer may fire an employee only with written justification. c. an employer may not fire an employee for an immoral reason. *d. an employee may quit a job at any time.
5. What are the three provisions of the Family and Medical Leave Act? a. Up to 6 months of leave for several medical and other family-related
reasons, continued compensation at a reduced rate duringthe leave period, guarantee of continuation of employer-paid health insurance during the leave period b. Up to 12 weeks of leave for several medical and other family-related reasons, continued compensation at a reduced rate duringthe leave period, guarantee of continuation of employer-paid health insurance during the leave period c. Up to 6 months of leave for several medical and other family-related
reasons, guarantee of continuation of employer-paid health insurance during the leave period, guarantee of a returnto work in the same or similar position *d. Up to 12 weeks of leave for several medical and other family-related reasons, guarantee of a return to work in the same or similar position, guarantee of continuation of employer-paid health insurance during the leave period
6. Lesbian, gay, or bisexual employees are covered by which of thefollowing? a. Fair Labor Standards Act b. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act c. Equal Pay Act
*d. None of the above
7. Which of the following employment interview questions are illegalunder federal
law? a. “Do you plan on having children?”
*b. “Are you disabled?” c. “What is your age?” d. All of the above are illegal.
8. The two main bases of employee discipline are a. employee behavior and insubordination. b. insubordination and absenteeism.
*c. job performance and employee behavior. d. failure to improve after a negative job evaluation andabsenteeism.
10. A state that protects whistle blowers is likely relying on whattype of exception
to employment-at-will? a. Contractual employee exception b. Exception based on employees protected by federal employmentlaw c. Exception based on Title VII prohibitions against sexualharassment
*d. Public policy exception
11. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act covers discrimination againstpeople because
of their sexual preference. a. True
*b. False
12. Under the employment-at-will doctrine, it is legal to fire anemployee for a
reason that is unrelated to job performance. *a. True b. False
13. A person needs to have a visible disability to be covered under theAmericans with
Disabilities Act as amended. a. True
*b. False
14. Between 2006 and 2013, retaliation charges filed with the EEOCnearly
doubled. *a. True b. False
15. While obesity was treated as a disability under the ADA, the Americans with
Americans with Disabilities Act as amended exempted itfrom coverage. a. True
*b. False
Chapter 3 1. The development of healthcare professionals is related to all of thefollowing except
what? a. Supply and demand b. Healthcare financing and delivery
*c. Decreasing use of new technology due to cost d. Changes in disease and illness
2. Which of the following is not a primary role of a healthcareadministrator? a. Coordinate care
*b. Deliver care c. Manage care d. Organize care
3. According to the National Sample Survey of Registered Nurses (NSSRN), about
what percentage of RNs are not employed in healthcareorganizations? a. 4 percent b. 11 percent
*c. 15 percent d. 21 percent
4. What are five key roles of nursing? a. Diagnosis, prescribing, planning, strategic development, andevaluation b. Assessment, prescribing, planning, education, and evaluation c. Assisting physicians, diagnosis, planning, strategicdevelopment
*d. Assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, andevaluation
5. Interdisciplinary care teams include a. insurers, providers, and patients. b. providers, patients, and billing staff.
*c. practitioners/providers, patients, and their family members. d. patients, administrators, and pharmacists.
6. The future shortage of nurses will be impacted by all of thefollowing
except what? a. The aging nursing workforce
*b. The decrease in nursing salaries
c. The decline in educational resources d. The decline in nursing school enrollment
7. Which of the following is not a primary reason for the increasedsupply and
demand for healthcare professionals? a. Technological growth b. The aging population c. Increases in specialization
*d. Flexible work schedules
8. The healthcare industry constitutes what percentage of the US laborforce and gross
domestic product (GDP)? a. 9 percent of the labor force and 15.9 percent of GDP b. 9.9 percent of the labor force and 17.9 percent of GDP
*c. 9 percent of the labor force and 17.9 percent of GDP d. 8.9 percent of the labor force and 17 percent of GDP 9. In 2013, what percentage of the RN workforce held a bachelor’s
degree or higher? a. 32 percent b. 43 percent c. 49 percent
*d. 55 percent
10. A profession is a means of support, whereas an occupation requiresspecialization
and knowledge. a. True
*b. False
11. The US department of Labor recognizes 350 different job titles inthe healthcare
industry. a. True
*b. False
12. An art therapist is a type of allied health professional.
*a. True b. False
13. An impaired practitioner is a healthcare professional who is ableto carry out his
or her duties with reasonable skills and safety.
a. True
*b. False
14. Most healthcare professionals are employed by hospitals.
*a. True b. False
15. Many healthcare professionals are choosing to go into business ontheir own due
to the bureaucratic nature of healthcare organizations. *a. True b. False
Chapter 4 1. Which of the following does credentialing not involve? a. Collection b. Verification c. Assessment
*d. Communication
2. How many states have adopted a legal cause of action, or the rightof the patient to
sue the healthcare facility, over negligent credentialing or privileging? a. More than 20 b. More than 25
*c. More than 30 d. More than 35
3. Which professional is not subsumed in the credentialing and privileges of
independent practitioners or those who practice inhospitals under the guidance or supervision of physicians? a. Nurse anesthetist b. Midwife
*c. Physical therapist d. Psychologist
4. Which of the following is not among the origins of medical andsurgical
educational standards? a. American College of Surgeons b. American College of Physicians
*c. American Board of Medical Specialties d. American Medical Association
5. HITECH stands for
*a. Health Information Technology for Economic and ClinicalHealth. b. Health Information Technology for Economic and Client Health. c. Health Intelligence Technology for Economic and Client Health. d. Health Information Technology for Education and ClinicalHealth.
6. Which of the following is not an element of privileging? a. Licensure b. Association membership
*c. Medical education
d. Residency and training
7. Medical staff is ultimately responsible for the credentialing andprivileging of
medical staff. a. True
*b. False
8. With the advent of Medicare (in 1965) and Medicaid (in 1966) as funders of
medical care, the federal government entered the area ofcredentialing and privileging through the establishment of the Conditions of Participation. *a. True b. False
9. The Health Care Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA) established the immunity of
medical staff members engaged in peer review and credentialing matters, protecting them from lawsuits (i.e., legal actions) by physicians who are adversely affected by credentialing/privileging efforts as long as the peer reviewers actedin good faith. *a. True b. False
10. The Ongoing Professional Practice Evaluation (OPPE) requires each facility to
adopt a federal-specific process that continually monitorsand evaluates a physician’s pattern of practice from an outcomes perspective. a. True
*b. False
11. From a conceptual perspective, the healthcare facility is charged by federal and
state governments and by accrediting bodies, such as TheJoint Commission, with ensuring that its medical staff possess the requisite licensure, training, experience, certifications, and health status. *a. True b. False
Chapter 5 1. Which of the following approaches to diversity describes the beliefthat hard work,
personal merit, and winning a competition determine one’s success? a. Integrationist b. Seclusionist
*c. Meritocratist d. Transcendent
2. Social class is best characterized in what diversity category?
*a. Cultural diversity b. Human diversity c. Systems diversity d. All of the above
3. The idea that people tend to prefer to work with others from similarracial or ethnic
backgrounds is known as a. prejudice.
*b. comfort and risk. c. stereotypes. d. racial bias.
4. Which of the following is considered a key element when developing abusiness case
for diversity? a. Representation b. Inclusiveness c. Cultural competency
*d. All of the above
5. Which of the following was a finding of the 2011 study of diversityconducted by
the Health Research & Educational Trust? *a. Minorities account for 14 percent of hospital board members. b. Fewer than 50 percent of hospitals educate clinical staffabout cultural and linguistic factors affecting healthcare. c. Minorities represent 29 percent of patients nationally and about 30 percent of midlevel management positions, contrasted with only 14 percent of executive leadership positions. d. None of the above
6. Which of the following is a health-system-related factor thatinfluences
disparities in healthcare? *a. Cultural competence
b. The population’s socioeconomic status c. Patients’ health behaviors d. Knowledge of treatments and symptoms
7. Which of the following was not a finding of the 2011 Witt/Kiefferstudy of
diversity in healthcare organizations? a. Minority representation is weak, with only one quarter reporting that
minorities are well represented in executiveroles. b. Minority respondents indicated that lack of commitment fromtop management is the primary barrier to minority advancement. *c. Respondents agreed that there has been growth in the pool ofdiverse candidates for healthcare leadership in their organizations over the last five years, consistent with nationaltrends. d. Promoting minorities from within is an effective solution todiversity success.
8. An effective diversity program in a hospital can address which ofthe following
problems? a. Improving the rise of minorities in higher-level positions b. Reducing disparities between minorities and others regardingwhich
medical procedures they receive c. Improving the organization’s financial status *d. All of the above
9. In studies of minorities in healthcare management, which of thefollowing has
been found to be true? a. Women executives are perceived to be more likely to leave anexecutive
positon than males. b. Whites and nonwhites agree on the major barriers associatedwith the lack of minorities rising to executive positions. *c. African-American executives are tested more often than whiteexecutives to prove their competence. d. White executives see increasing diversity in their managementranks as “the right thing to do” but not as something that will improve their bottom line.
10. Which of the following is likely to be a contributing factor behindAfrican-
American patients’ preference for getting their care from African-American physicians? a. African-American physicians provide care at a lower cost thanother
physicians. *b. Many African-American physicians locate their practices inblack communities. c. African-American physician practices require less waiting timeto be seen.
d. All of the above
11. People have a natural tendency to want to work with people withsimilar racial
or ethnic backgrounds. *a. True b. False
12. Though the Affordable Care Act will increase the number of people with health
insurance, it is not expected to increase the diversity inpatient populations. a. True
*b. False
13. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 protects minorities from discrimination, but it
does not protect people with limited Englishlanguage proficiency. a. True
*b. False
14. A 2011 study of diversity in hospitals found that 61 percent ofhospitals
required their employees to attend diversity training. *a. True b. False
15. Though prejudice may exist in many organizations, research has found no
evidence that managers systematically give higher performanceratings to subordinates who belong to the same racial group that they do. a. True
*b. False
Chapter 6 1. Which of the following is not usually included in a jobspecification? a. Education
*b. Job duties and responsibilities c. Experience d. Physical demands
2. Which of the following is not usually included in a job description? a. Tasks b. Responsibilities c. Performance standards
*d. Performance appraisal
3. A future-oriented job analysis a. reduces the number of job titles. b. emphasizes “any other duty that may be assigned.”
*c. requires managers to assess how duties and tasks may berestructured. d. develops more general job descriptions.
4. The process of job design includes a. acknowledgment of the employee’s unique skills. b. a reduction in the flexibility in how the job is done. c. appropriate professional guidelines.
*d. changing, eliminating, modifying, and enriching duties andtasks.
5. Employee empowerment a. facilitates communication between employees. b. allows employees to achieve self-actualization.
*c. allows decisions to be made by those closest to the customer. d. encourages supervisors to listen to their subordinates.
6. Which of the following is not an obstacle to the effectivefunctioning of
teams? a. Lack of power b. Overly high expectations
*c. Lack of communication from top management d. Lack of team member training
7. Flexibility in work training a. is most relevant to patient care positions. b. may reduce customer service. c. is uncommon among employees.
*d. allows choice of daily starting and end times.
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a self-directedteam? a. Accountable for a whole work product
*b. Charged with improving quality c. Uses consensus decision making d. Deals with customers
10. A job consists of many positions. a. True
*b. False
11. A job specification is a written explanation of a job and theduties it
involves. a. True
*b. False 12. Today’s legal environment has created a need for more specific and
more job-related job descriptions. *a. True b. False
13. Job descriptions are generally updated as job duties orspecifications
change. a. True
*b. False
14. The most rapid growth in the healthcare workforce has been in newerjob
categories. *a. True b. False
15. The multiskilled health practitioner profession provides thatparallel or
higher-level new skills are added to an original professional job. a. True
*b. False
16. A self-directed work team selects its own leaders. a. True
*b. False
17. Most employers offer some type of compressed work week. a. True
*b. False
Chapter 7 1. Which of the following is not an advantage of internal recruitment? a. The applicant is known to management.
*b. Internal applicants do not have existing dysfunctionalrelationships in the organization. c. Internal recruitment may be faster than external recruitment. d. Internal recruitment may be a good motivator for employeeperformance.
2. The primary purpose of a realistic job preview is to a. evaluate an applicant’s qualifications. b. highlight the positive aspects of the job.
*c. provide an applicant with a true picture of the job. d. provide information for current employees to encourage them torefer their peers to the organization.
3. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the effectiveness ofrecruitment? a. Quantity of applicants b. Diversity of applicants c. Cost per applicant
*d. All of the above
4. In assessing person–job fit, one is interested in learning
*a. whether an applicant has the knowledge, skills, and abilitiesto do the job. b. whether an applicant’s beliefs align with those of the organization. c. whether an applicant will help the organization to achievediversity goals. d. whether an applicant’s method of work is consistent with the norms of the organization.
5. In hiring a physician practice office manager, a critical incidentsapproach to
selection is best used for a. understanding the financial skills required to do the job.
*b. understanding how the manager needs to communicate withstaff. c. checking references. d. None of the above
6. Which of the following is true about the use of reference checks forjob applicants?
*a. Reliability tends to be low. b. Reliability tends to be very high because previous employershave had experience working with the applicant. c. Reference checks are generally very good predictors of jobperformance. d. Reference checks are more valuable when the old and new jobsare different in content.
7. An applicant for a social work position in a hospital is asked by the interviewer to
describe a time when he had to give difficult newsto the family of a patient. This is known as what? a. A situational question
*b. An experience-based question c. An unstructured interview question d. A realistic job preview question
8. In hiring a nurse for a hospital position, which of the following questions would be
considered appropriate and likely defensible in a UScourt? a. What is your native language? b. When was your last physical exam? c. Will family responsibilities inhibit your ability to workdifferent shifts?
*d. Are you authorized to work in the United States?
9. The level of job dissatisfaction among nurses is a. lower when compared with other professional groups. b. about the same when compared with other professional groups.
*c. higher when compared with other professional groups. d. higher among male than female nurses.
10. Which of the following is likely to be included in an
organization’s recruiting message? a. Location of the work site b. Compensation c. Career advancement opportunities
*d. All of the above
11. Asking a job applicant about her ability to work effectively withteams is not a
job-related related question and is therefore illegal. a. True
*b. False
12. Unstructured job interviews are consistently more useful thanhighly
structured interviews. a. True
*b. False
13. Where multiple interviewers are used for job interviews, scoring ofanswers may
vary. *a. True b. False
14. Even for a job requiring considerable travel, it is inappropriate to ask whether a
job applicant would face any problems with traveling. a. True
*b. False
15. It is illegal to ask a female job applicant if she plans on havingchildren in the near
future. a. True
*b. False
Chapter 8 1. Which of the following is not an advantage of multisource appraisal?
*a. Because many people are involved in providing information,there is a high level of trust. b. Multisource appraisal takes into consideration organizationalgoals and values. c. It contributes to team development and improvement. d. It recognizes the importance of customer focus.
2. Subordinate appraisal is most useful for a. evaluating the quality of performance data. b. learning about how peers perceive one’s performance. c. organizations where there are not many managers.
*d. identifying managers’ blind spots.
3. A primary care physician practice has decided to base its evaluationof physician
performance solely on the volume of patients seen. What problem is most likely to result from such an approach? a. Halo effect
*b. Criterion deficiency c. Contrast effect d. Rating errors
4. In relation to performance management and performance measures,reliability
refers to a. whether an employee can be counted upon to perform at a highlevel.
*b. consistency with which two or more managers rate performancewhen presented with comparable information. c. whether a performance measure measures what it is intended tomeasure. d. the extent to which factors out of the employee’s control affect performance.
6. On a five-point rating form, a manager is asked to respond to the following
question: “How flexible is this person?” This is likely partof which type of performance management process? *a. Graphic rating scale b. Management by objectives c. Behavioral anchored rating scale d. None of the above
7. Which of the following is not an example of a rating error inperformance
management? *a. Forced ranking b. Halo effect c. Central tendency d. Contrast effect
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of management byobjectives? a. It establishes specific and measurable goals. b. It involves setting goals with employee input. c. It provides the opportunity to give objective feedback toemployees.
*d. The method is robust and equally applicable to all types ofjobs.
9. Which of the following performance appraisal methods is associatedwith reduced
employee defensiveness and conflict? a. Ranking methods b. Graphic rating scales c. Stack ranking
*d. Behavioral anchored rating scale
10. The performance management process has little impact on training inorganizations. a. True
*b. False
11. The annual review is generally not the time to deliver dramaticallynew information
to an employee. *a. True b. False
12. The multisource appraisal helps to reinforce the value of teamrelationships in
organizations. *a. True b. False 13. With forced ranking, employee evaluations are based on how each
employee’s performance compares with others. *a. True
b. False
14. Compared with other forms of performance measurement, the development of
graphic rating scales is difficult and time consuming. a. True
*b. False
15. To ensure equity and fairness among employees, a formal performanceappraisal
should be conducted once a year for all employees. a. True
*b. False
Chapter 9 1. A hospital in a rural community is having difficulty attracting radiation therapists. In
an effort to attract young, newly trained therapists, the department has decided to pay these newly graduated therapists at a pay rate equivalent to that of radiation therapists whohave been with the hospital for up to ten years. What compensation issue is relevant to this scenario? *a. Internal equity b. External competitiveness c. Extrinsic rewards d. Intrinsic rewards
2. Using a point system of job evaluation, which of the following isleast likely to be
used as a compensable factor? a. Educational requirements *b. Age and experience of the current employee c. Supervisory responsibilities d. Mental stress
4. Which of the following influences the pay structure of a particularorganization? a. The presence of a union in a competitor organization b. Prevailing wage rates in the local market c. Financial status of the organization
*d. All of the above
5. Which of the following is true about physician compensation? a. Quality-focused pay for performance is the most common methodof
compensation. b. There is strong evidence that quality-focused pay forperformance has been effective in improving quality. *c. Productivity-based compensation is the most common method of compensation. d. Research shows that implementing pay for performance forphysicians has reduced costs because unnecessary tests and procedures are avoided.
6. According to equity theory, a. employees use objective data in determining the fairness of areward system.
*b. if an employee perceives inequity in a reward system, theperson will seek to restore equity. c. managers are the best source of information about theperceived equity in an organization.
d. equity theory is more applicable to blue collar thanprofessional employees.
7. Broadbanding allows for a. managers to pay employees based on employee characteristicsand
performance. b. greater decentralization of decisions about salaries. c. managers to more easily change an individual’s compensation. *d. All of the above
8. The major challenge in compensation for an organization is a. balancing employee needs with compensation. b. responding to labor union demands for higher compensation.
*c. balancing internal equity with external competitiveness. d. ensuring that information about employee pay is not madepublic.
9. Which of the following is a result of reduced payments to academicmedical center
hospitals? a. Increased attention to research
*b. Increased demand to perform more clinical work c. Decreased attention to clinical work d. None of the above
10. Competency-based pay is an approach to compensation that
*a. rewards employees who develop new skills. b. bases employees’ compensation on the competency they have demonstrated on the job. c. is most appropriate in stable work environments. d. rewards an employee’s loyalty to the organization.
11. Using market comparisons to price jobs is one of the best ways tomaintain
stability in an organization’s compensation plan. a. True
*b. False
12. In a pay-for-performance system, there is the risk that physicianswill respond to
financial rewards at the expense of intrinsic motivations. *a. True b. False
13. An advantage of competency-based pay is that it may make employeesmore
adaptable to organizational changes. *a. True b. False
14. In their study of medical practice executives, Bokhour and colleagues (2006)
found that they believed physicians responded morefavorably to quality-oriented incentives than to productivity-based incentives. *a. True b. False
15. The most important aspect of point systems of job evaluation is that they focus on
the experience and performance record of the personholding the job under evaluation. a. True
*b. False
Chapter 10 1. Benefits provide additional compensatory value through all of thefollowing
except what: a. Leave time b. Insurance
*c. Training and development d. Tuition reimbursement
2. Average cost of fringe benefits in many healthcare systems is
*a. from 20 percent to 35 percent of salary. b. from 5 percent to 15 percent of salary. c. less than 5 percent of salary. d. greater than 35 percent of salary.
3. Human resources is responsible for the following when developing
compensation packages: a. Design b. Communication c. Monitoring of benefits
*d. All of the above
4. The rise in
led to the creation of disabilityinsurance.
a. mining b. lumber industries
*c. industrialization d. railroads 5. Which of these events led to the passage of the Social Security Act
and the government’s involvement in retirement protection? a. Military retirement protection b. Baylor University’s prepayment plan
*c. The Great Depression d. The wage freeze during World War II
6. All of the following are federal laws that affect benefit coverageand
administration except what: a. Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) b. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
*d. National Right to Work Act (NRWA)
7. Which of the following is an employer-funded account for medicalexpenses? a. Health savings account (HSA)
*b. Health reimbursement account (HRA) c. Flexible spending account (FSA) d. All of the above
8. Flexible spending accounts (FSA) a. are tax-advantaged medical savings accounts. b. are funded by employer only. c. hold funds that do not expire.
*d. allow employees to tax defer via payroll deduction.
9. All of the following are types of life insurance plans except what: a. Permanent b. Universal
*c. Accumulated d. Split dollar
10. Experienced professionals qualified to design benefits are skilledin
*a. accounting, audits, and tax filing. b. generational differences, demographic and economic trends, andbudgeting. c. negotiating, laws and regulations, and organizing. d. communication, budgets, and quality.
11. Labor costs are the smallest line item in operational budgets inmost healthcare
organizations. a. True
*b. False
12. Family and medical leave is a mandatory benefit. a. True
*b. False
13. The Mental Health Parity Act requires the same level of coveragefor mental
illness as for a physical condition. *a. True
b. False
14. Defined benefit plans are group plans, not individual plans.
*a. True b. False
15. When designing a benefit plan, one must consider only federal laws,not state laws. a. True
*b. False
Chapter 11 1. The primary function of organizational development is a. increasing an organization’s profits. b. decreasing an organization’s turnover.
*c. increasing an organization’s effectiveness. d. increasing an organization’s morale.
2. Organizational development can result in all of the following exceptwhat? a. Increased productivity
*b. Increased workload c. Increased return on investment d. Increased employee satisfaction
3. The five steps of the ADDIE model of training are a. assessment, design, determination, impediment, and expansion. b. analysis, design, development, implementation, and expansion.
*c. analysis, design, development, implementation, andevaluation. d. assessment, development, determination, impediment, andevaluation.
4. The critical tasks in training design include all of the followingexcept what? a. Accurately outline objectives b. Communicate objectives
*c. Authoritatively enforce objectives d. Ensure understanding of objectives
5. Which of the following is employee-centered information? a. Policies the employee must adhere to b. Safety precautions for the employee
*c. Sick leave that the employee is entitled to d. Sponsored events that the employee is expected to attend 6. The “eating of the apple” method refers to a. focusing orientation on the core of the organization.
*b. breaking up orientation into brief sessions over a period ofdays or weeks. c. spreading “apple seeds” of organizational information in theemployee’s mind. d. focusing orientation on juicy office gossip.
7. What is the correct order of the succession planning process? a. Identify critical positions, review mission, provide professional
development, identify potential successors, reviewthe plan, update the plan. b. Review the plan, review mission, identify potential successors, identify critical positions, provide professionaldevelopment, update the plan. c. Identify potential successors, identify critical positions,provide professional development, review the plan, review mission, update the plan. *d. Review mission, identify critical positions, identify potential successors, provide professional development, reviewthe plan, update the plan.
8. What is the main challenge of operational development? a. To remain relevant
*b. To remain flexible c. To become more effective d. To become less tedious
9. Which of the following is not a service of OD? a. Learning management systems b. Instructional design consultation
*c. Strategic human resource management d. Leadership coaching
10. Which of the following is not a strategy to enhance employeeengagement? a. Employee recognition
*b. Employee motivation c. Alignment d. Accountability
11. A new-employee orientation should include which of the following? a. Job-specific information b. Departmental information c. Organization-related information
*d. All of the above
12. The ADDIE model of training is the most common model of training.
*a. True
b. False
13. The step in which information is collected to determine whetherobjectives
have been met is called training expansion. a. True
*b. False
14. Lecture is the most effective training method for small groups ofemployees. a. True
*b. False
15. Succession planning usually focuses on all positions in anorganization. a. True
*b. False
Chapter 12 1. In collective bargaining under the National Labor Relations Act,what are the
three types of bargaining issues? a. Recognition, union organizing, negotiation b. Union organizing, employer resistance, negotiation c. Union organizing, negotiation, bargaining
*d. Recognition, negotiation, administration
2. In 1989, a National Labor Relations Board ruling established
units for the purpose of collective bargaining in acute care hospitals. a. 6
*b. 8 c. 5 d. 10
3. Which of the following is considered a mandatory bargaining issueunder the
National Labor Relations Act? a. Pension plan b. Hours of work c. Sick leave
*d. All of the above
4. The primary intent of the Taft-Hartley Amendments to the NationalLabor
Relations Act was to a. expand coverage of the NLRA to acute care hospitals.
*b. enhance the rights of employers in union–managementrelations. c. outlaw “right-to-work” laws. d. All of the above
5. The grievance procedure is a mechanism that allows for a. identifying mandatory issues for negotiations. b. determining whether the employer used unfair labor practicesduring the
unionization drive. *c. implementing and interpreting the contract. d. employees to protest the contract signed by the employer andthe union.
6. The 1974 Health Care Amendments to the Taft-Hartley Act a. make strikes by healthcare workers illegal. b. outlaw pickets by healthcare workers.
*c. required that unions give a ten-day notice to the employer ofa strike. d. make strikes legal only during contract negotiations.
7. Physicians who practice as independent contractors are restrictedfrom
participating in collective bargaining by what? *a. The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 b. The Hippocratic Oath c. Boards of most acute care hospitals d. The American Medical Association
8. Distributive bargaining is characterized by a. a “winner take all” outcome. b. a “win-win” outcome. c. concessionary bargaining.
*d. a “win some-lose some” outcome.
9. The Affordable Care Act may lead to an increase in physicianunionization
because *a. it promotes accountable care organizations, which may lead tophysicians being employed by organizations. b. it reverses earlier NLRB rulings against physician unionization. c. it requires that hospitals bargain with physicians. d. it places greater restrictions on physicians’ professional judgement.
10. The primary role of the National Labor Relations Board is to a. work with the Department of Labor to implement the NationalLabor
Relations Act. *b. oversee implementation of the National Labor Relations Act. c. work with Congress to suggest changes to the National LaborRelations Act. d. ensure that companies abide by provisions of the Fair LaborStandards Act.
11. The physician unionization movement in the 1990s hastened thespread of
managed care. a. True
*b. False
12. Since 2000, the NLRB has generally engaged in developing union-friendly
policies.
*a. True b. False
13. Under the National Labor Relations Act, all labor contracts mustaddress all
mandatory bargaining issues. a. True
*b. False 14. An important principle of negotiations is to focus on people’s
positions, not on their interests. a. True
*b. False
15. Where a union and employer cannot agree on the terms of a contract,an arbitrator
must be brought in to resolve the outstanding issues. a. True
*b. False
16. Unions have tended to be more successful organizing workers in thepublic sector
than in the private sector. *a. True b. False
Chapter 13 1. Which of the following factors may affect future health workforceneeds? a. Changes in health insurance coverage b. Changes in how patients seek healthcare services c. Demographic changes in the population
*d. All of the above
2. Which of the following is an important factor in finding data on thecurrent
workforce? a. The larger the geographic area, the more difficult it is tofind reliable data. b. Finding regional data is easier than finding national data.
*c. The smaller the geographic area, the more difficult it is tofind reliable data. d. National data are superior to state-level data because national data can easily be extrapolated to multiple states.
3. Because health professionals work different hours at differentpoints in their
careers, a. counting by head count is the most accurate way to determineworkforce
supply. b. healthcare organizations need to standardize working hours. c. we can accurately predict changes in work hours in differentprofessions and use this information for planning. *d. using full-time equivalent data is more accurate than headcounts for planning purposes.
4. Which of the following is not true about retirements from healthcarecareers? a. Practitioners delay retirement when the economy is strongbecause
wages are higher. b. Data are limited on retirements from the profession. *c. Practitioners delay retirement when the economy is weak. d. Serial retirement makes it difficult to project futureworkforce supply.
5. Health professionals
professionals
are more likely to move thanhealth .
*a. with higher levels of education; from community colleges b. from community colleges; with more specialized training c. from community colleges; with higher levels of education d. who enter the workforce directly from high school; with morespecialized training
6. Patient-centered medical homes (PCMHs) tend to employ a. fewer case managers than non-PCMHs. b. more case managers but fewer pharmacists than non-PCMHs. c. fewer social workers but more case managers than non-PCMHs.
*d. more nutritionists than non PCMHs.
7. Which of the following factors may have an impact on workforceprojections? a. Changes in clinical practice b. Changes in technology c. Use of electronic health records
*d. All of the above
8. Which of the following workforce planning methods takes into
consideration how services are utilized in a particular area? *a. Plasticity b. Benchmarking c. Population-based methods d. Key informant surveys
9. A healthcare organization would logically consider increasing the number of
hours worked by a particular professional group in responseto a. a surplus of that professional group.
*b. a shortage of that professional group. c. a surplus or shortage of that professional group. d. its status as a highly specialized professional groupregardless of a surplus or shortage situation. 10. In health workforce planning, a “backcast” is used to a. make mid-course corrections in planning strategies. b. look into the future to determine health workforce supply. c. determine projections for future demand for health workers.
*d. compare what happened with what was projected.
11. Modifying the behavior of providers may result in more immediatechanges in
workforce supply than increasing training capacity. *a. True b. False
12. Projections about workforce supply and demand are more accurate inthe long term
than in the short term because we may not be aware of events that may happen shortly after the projections are calculated. a. True
*b. False
13. Because of the rapid and widespread adoption of patient-centeredcare reforms
in the health system, policy makers and planners have great certainty in the positive impact of these changes. a. True
*b. False
14. In the healthcare workforce, an example of vertical integration isthe shifting of
work from specialists to primary care physicians. a. True
*b. False
15. Under the assumption that not all healthcare workers will work fulltime, it can be
concluded that more healthcare workers will be needed than would be indicated by a head count of workers. *a. True b. False
Chapter 14 1. Which of the following is not a problem for healthcare managers? a. Recurring nursing shortages b. Nursing morale and turnover
*c. Increasing the supply of nursing personnel d. How to employ nurses considering quality and costs
2. Nurse workload means a. the number of nurses employed. b. the average hours per week worked by nurses. c. the process by which appropriate numbers of nursing personalare
deployed. *d. the nurse-to-patient ratio.
3. Which of the following is not identified as a question thathealthcare
managers struggle with? a. The number of nursing staff b. Types of nursing staff c. Numbers, type, and mix of staff the organization can afford
*d. Diversity of the nursing staff
4. Which of the following is not a primary reason to measure the nurseworkload? a. To inform the development, improvement, and evolution ofstaffing
plans *b. To assess the quality of care c. To inform the budgeting process d. To meet regulatory and accreditation requirements
6. Which of the following is not a key issue in managing nursestaffing? a. Workforce diversity b. Nurse–nurse conflict c. Workforce stress
*d. Work–family conflict
7. Which of the following is not an outcome of higher nurse turnover? a. Negative effect on quality of care and patient safety
*b. Higher quality nursing staff c. Cost of advertising for a replacement d. Costs 1.3 times the departing nurse salary
8. LPNs are not generally required to pass a state examination. a. True
*b. False
9. RNs must be supervised by other MDs or RNs. a. True
*b. False
10. New York was the first state to pass nurse staffing legislation. a. True
*b. False
11. Measurement outcomes have been deployed to assess nurse workload indifferent
settings. *a. True b. False
12. For the first time in history, three generations of nurses areworking side by
side. a. True
*b. False
13. An increase in patient needs has created more physical stress andburnout for
nurses. *a. True b. False
14. The presence of unions has no effect on nurse staffing. a. True
*b. False
15. A negative nurse–physician relationship negatively affects thequality of
patient care. *a. True
b. False
16. Increasing RN hours only without increasing the total hours of licensed
nursing staff is associated with a net reduction in costs. *a. True b. False
Chapter 15 1. According to the Institute of Medicine, a. high-quality care will follow naturally from an environmentwhere
patients are safe. *b. patient safety is indistinguishable from the delivery ofhigh-quality care. c. quality is a universal construct irrespective of one’s role in the organization. d. the most important quality metric is the patient’s belief about quality of care received.
2. What is the major rationale for using teams in quality improvementefforts? a. Teams are empowering and can motivate employees to take
responsibility for quality. b. Teams are an important source of job satisfaction. *c. Employees frequently have the best insights into problemcausation and the feasibility of alternative solutions. d. Teams form naturally in healthcare organizations and maytherefore be delegated responsibility for quality.
3. Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) is most closely associated with
*a. the Model for Improvement. b. Six Sigma. c. Lean. d. the Institute of Medicine.
4. The Toyota Production System provided the foundation for a. Six Sigma.
*b. Lean. c. Total Quality Management. d. All of the above
5. Which of the following is true of psychological safety inorganizations
and teams? a. Managers can provide the most accurate perspective on
psychological safety. b. Psychological safety is ideally assessed through a cause-and-effect diagram. *c. Psychological safety is a subjective phenomenon. d. A lower level of psychological safety is always associatedwith power differentials in organizations.
6. Antecedents of team effectiveness occur at
*a. the individual, team, and organizational levels. b. the behavioral, social, and psychological levels. c. the team and organizational levels. d. the behavioral, social, and macro-organizational levels.
7. Which of the following is true about quality improvement teamleaders? a. Team leaders must ensure that team discussions always flow ina logical
data-driven direction. b. Team leaders are responsible for conducting quality improvement training for team members. *c. Team leaders may lack formal authority over team members. d. All of the above
8. Organizations may adopt a quality improvement model a. to achieve process improvements. b. to gain a competitive advantage in the marketplace. c. to conform to regulations and requirements.
*d. All of the above
9. Which of the following is true about reward systems and qualityimprovement? a. Since quality and patient safety are central to healthcare, additional rewards
for achieving quality and patient safety goalsare inappropriate. *b. Acknowledgement at a staff meeting may be rewarding toemployees. c. Extrinsic rewards are more effective than intrinsic rewards. d. Intrinsic rewards are more effective than extrinsic rewards.
10. Which of the following may be associated with patient safety andquality? a. Overuse of procedures b. Underuse of procedures c. Misuse of procedures
*d. All of the above
11. Reducing variation is a goal of quality improvement activities.
*a. True b. False
12. A contingency model of team leadership requires that managers adapttheir style to
the situation. *a. True b. False
13. The level of psychological safety is best evaluated through ameeting of
team members. a. True
*b. False
14. Since quality is a key part of providing healthcare, staff shouldbe expected to
understand quality principles prior to employment. a. True
*b. False
15. It is acceptable for the leader of a quality improvement team to belower in the
organization’s hierarchy than some team members. *a. True b. False