TEST BANK FOR M ECONOMICS, THE BASICS, 4TH EDITION MIKE MANDEL CHAPTER 1-19 ANSWERS ARE AT THE END OF EACH CHAPTER
Test Bank For Leadership Enhancing the Lessons of Experience 10th Edition by Richard Hughes and Robert Ginnett and Gordon Curphy Chapter 1-18 Answer are at the End of Each chapter Chapter 1
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Leadership is a complex phenomenon involving the leader, the followers, and the situation. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) Successful managers spend a lot of their time in organizational socializing and politicking. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) Some managers are likely to be effective leaders without ever having taken a course or training program in leadership. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
Good leadership is all about calculation, planning, and following a checklist. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) The mere presence of a group can cause people to act differently than when they are alone.
⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Leaders have a short-term view, whereas managers have a long-term view in management. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Leaders tend to ask questions pertaining to the "how" and "when" of situations, whereas managers tend to ask questions pertaining to the "what" and "why" of things. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
One needs only common sense to be a good leader. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) Formal study and learning from experience are mutually exclusive when developing leadership skills. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Because followers are often at the levels where many organizational problems occur, they can give leaders relevant information so that good solutions are implemented. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) Leaders have considerably more influence with in-group followers than with out-group followers.
⊚ ⊚
true false
12) Out-group subordinates are distinguished from in-group subordinates by their high degree of loyalty, commitment, and trust felt toward their leader. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) When followers have a say in the selection or election of a leader, they are likely to have low expectations and make few demands. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) According to Robert Kelley, the best followers are self-starters who take initiative for themselves. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) According to Robert Kelley, alienated followers habitually point out all the negative aspects of an organization to others and leaders often see them as adversarial. ⊚ true ⊚ false
16) Pragmatist followers see themselves as mavericks who have a healthy skepticism of their organization. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) Unlike the constructionist approach, the role approach believes that leadership is cocreated through acts of leading and following, whoever may be performing those acts.
⊚ ⊚
true false
18) Research indicates that men tend to view leadership as an exchange with subordinates for services rendered. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) The glass cliff refers to the finding that female candidates for an executive position are more likely to be hired than equally qualified male candidates when an organization's performance is declining. ⊚ true ⊚ false
20) Hubristic leaders ignore the advice and criticism of others, almost drunk with their power and unconditional positive self-regard. ⊚ true ⊚ false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) According to leadership researchers, leadership
A) is an interpersonal relation in which others comply because they want to. B) is the study of leaders independent of the people they interact with. C) postulates that leaders administer rather than innovate. D) requires that leaders accept the status quo.
22)
Which of the following definitions of leadership is fairly comprehensive and helpful?
A) actions that focus resources to create desirable opportunities B) the process by which an agent induces a subordinate to behave in a desired manner C) directing and coordinating the work of group members D) the process of influencing an organized group toward accomplishing its goals
23) A key reason behind using the phrase "desirable opportunities" in a definition of leadership was precisely to distinguish between leadership and
A) tyranny. B) management. C) followership. D) situation.
24)
Which of the following words is most often associated with the word "management"?
A) dynamism B) risk taking C) efficiency D) creativity
25)
Leadership is most associated with words like
A) consistency. B) planning. C) control. D) vision.
26)
Which of the following is a conventional distinction between managers and leaders?
A) Managers administer, while leaders innovate. B) Managers challenge the status quo, while leaders accept it. C) Managers inspire, while leaders control. D) Managers originate, while leaders imitate.
27)
The interactional framework for analyzing leadership includes
A) followers, leaders, and situations. B) individuals, groups, and organizations. C) individual followers, groups, and leaders. D) first-level supervisors, mid-level managers, and top-level leaders.
28)
What is Hollander's approach to leadership called?
A) participative approach B) transformational approach C) charismatic approach D) transactional approach
29) According to Robert Kelley's basic styles of followership, _____ are the "yes people" of organizations and are very active at doing their organization's work.
A) pragmatist followers B) conformist followers C) alienated followers D) exemplary followers
30) According to Robert Kelley's basic styles of followership, which of the following statements is true about pragmatist followers?
A) They are mediocre performers. B) They usually point out all the negative aspects of their organization to others. C) They are the "yes people" of their organization. D) They apply their talents for the benefit of their organization.
31) According to Robert Kelley's basic styles of followership, who among the following presents a consistent picture to both leaders and coworkers of being independent, innovative, and willing to stand up to superiors? A) alienated followers B) conformist followers C) pragmatist followers D) exemplary followers
32) Craig, a marketing manager at HeliZone Inc., rarely takes initiative or suggests new ideas during project meetings. He does his work half-heartedly and needs to be guided by his manager on a regular basis. According to Robert Kelley's basic styles of followership, Craig most likely is a(n)
A) passive follower. B) alienated follower. C) conformist follower. D) pragmatist follower.
33) Identify a true statement about passive followers in the context of Robert Kelley's basic styles of followership.
A) They are the "yes people" of organizations. B) They are highly likely to become experts in mastering the bureaucratic rules that can be used to protect them. C) They require constant direction because they lack initiative and a sense of responsibility. D) They are often seen as cynical, negative, and adversarial by leaders.
34)
Unlike the role approach, the constructionist approach
A) stresses that a person's awareness of being judged by stereotypes has a deleterious impact on performance. B) views leadership as combined acts of leading and following by different individuals. C) emphasizes that leaders have more influence with out-group followers than with ingroup followers. D) states that female candidates are unable to deliver when an organization's performance is declining.
35) Most early research on leadership was based on the assumption that leadership is a general personal trait expressed independently of the situation in which the leadership is manifested. This view is commonly known as
A) the interactional framework. B) the role approach. C) the heroic theory. D) the glass ceiling effect.
36) In the context of the interactional framework, ideal followers are most likely to be described as
A) cooperative. B) forward-looking. C) inspiring. D) innovative.
37)
In a classic study of sex roles, Schein
A) evidenced the fact that being a woman and being a manager are contradictory. B) found a high correlation between the ways both male and female respondents perceived "females" and "managers." C) demonstrated how bias in sex-role stereotypes created problems for women moving up through managerial roles. D) found no correlation between the ways respondents perceived "males" and "managers."
38) Which of the following is a phenomenon that refers to situations in which people feel themselves at risk of being judged by others holding negative images about them?
A) the in-group B) the stereotype threat C) the glass cliff D) the role approach
39)
Which of the following statements is true of women in leadership positions?
A) Women's commitment to their organizations was less guarded than that of their male counterparts. B) Women were less likely than men to be willing to take career risks. C) Women were less analytical and forceful than men. D) Women had significantly lower well-being scores than men.
40) In survey research by Judith Rosener that identified several differences in how men and women described their leadership experiences, it was found that
A) men's trust in each other tended to decrease more than women when work situations became more professionally risky. B) men described their influence in terms of personal characteristics like charisma and interpersonal skill. C) women helped subordinates develop commitment to broader goals than their own self-interest. D) women influenced others primarily through their organizational position and authority.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Discuss how leadership is both an art and a science.
42)
Explain and illustrate the rational and emotional aspects of leadership.
43)
Compare and contrast leadership and management.
44) What are the advantages of formally studying leadership? What role do real-life experiences play in formal studies of leadership?
45)
Compare and contrast leadership and followership.
46)
Briefly discuss Rosener's concept of interactive leadership and explain its development.
47) How does the situation variable affect leadership? How does a leader's job differ in simple and complex situations?
48) How does a leader's history with an organization affect leadership effectiveness? Explain how the way in which leadership status was achieved impacts effectiveness.
49)
Identify and describe the five basic styles of followership as suggested by Robert Kelley.
50) What trends have contributed to the changing nature of the leader-follower relationship in organizations? How do these trends enable followers to take on leadership roles?
Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) A
27) A 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) C 38) B 39) D 40) C 41) Saying leadership is both a science and an art emphasizes the subject of leadership as a field of scholarly inquiry, as well as certain aspects of the practice of leadership. The scope of the science of leadership is reflected in a number of studies cited in an authoritative reference work. However, being an expert on leadership research is neither necessary nor sufficient for being a good leader. Some managers may be effective leaders without ever having taken a course in leadership, and some scholars in the field of leadership may be relatively poor leaders themselves. Nonetheless, knowing something about leadership research is relevant to leadership effectiveness. Scholarship may not be a prerequisite for leadership effectiveness, but understanding some of the major research findings can help individuals better analyze situations using a variety of perspectives. That, in turn, can give leaders insight about how to be more effective. Even so, because skills in analyzing and responding to situations vary greatly across leaders, leadership will always remain partly an art as well as a science.
42) Leadership involves both the rational and emotional sides of human experience. Leadership includes actions and influences based on reason and logic as well as those based on inspiration and passion. It would be undesirable to have leaders who only respond to all situations with logical and emotionless predictability. Good leadership is more than just calculation and planning, or following a checklist. People are both rational and emotional, so leaders can use rational techniques and emotional appeals to influence followers, but they must also weigh the rational and emotional consequences of their actions. Good leadership also involves touching others' feelings; emotions play an important role in leadership, too. One example is the civil rights movement of the 1960s. It was a movement based on emotions as well as on principles. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. inspired many people to action; he touched people's hearts as well as their minds.
43) To many people, the word "management" suggests words like efficiency, planning, paperwork, procedures, regulations, control, and consistency. Leadership, on the other hand, is more associated with words like risk taking, dynamic, creativity, change, and vision. Some people say leadership is fundamentally a value-choosing, and thus a value-laden, activity, whereas management is not. Leaders are thought to do the right things, whereas managers are thought to do things right. Other differences include the idea that managers administer, whereas leaders innovate; managers maintain, whereas leaders develop; managers control, whereas leaders inspire; managers have a short-term view, whereas leaders have a long-term view; managers imitate, whereas leaders originate; and managers accept the status quo, whereas leaders challenge it. Zaleznik suggests that by nature some people are managers, while others are leaders. It is probably best to think of leadership and management as closely related but distinguishable functions. Although some functions performed by leaders and managers may be unique, there is also an area of overlap.
44) Formal study and learning from experience complement each other. A formal study of leadership can help students learn to discern critical lessons about leadership from their own experience. Approaching the issue in such a way recognizes the vital role of experience in leadership development, but it also admits that certain kinds of study and training can improve a person's ability to discern important lessons about leadership from experience. One advantage of formally studying leadership is that formal study provides students with a variety of ways of examining a particular leadership situation. By studying the different ways researchers have defined and examined leadership, students can use these definitions and theories to better understand what is going on in any leadership situation. The leadership frameworks can similarly be applied to better understand the experiences one has as both a leader and a follower. Being able to analyze your experiences from multiple perspectives may be the greatest single contribution a formal course in leadership can give you.
45) Leadership is a social influence process shared among all members of a group. It is not restricted to the influence exerted by someone in a particular position or role. Thus, followers are part of the leadership process. In recent years both practitioners and scholars have emphasized the relatedness of leadership and followership. There is no simple line dividing them; they merge. This does not mean leadership and followership are the same thing. When top-level executives were asked to list qualities they most look for and admire in leaders and followers, the lists were similar but not identical. Ideal leaders were characterized as honest, competent, forward-looking, and inspiring. Ideal followers were described as honest, competent, independent, and cooperative. The differences could become critical in certain situations, as when a forward-looking and inspiring subordinate perceives a significant conflict between his own goals or ethics and those of his superiors. Such a situation could become a crisis for the individual and the organization, demanding a choice between leading and following.
46) Survey research by Judith Rosener identified several differences in how men and women described their leadership experiences. Men tended to describe themselves in somewhat transactional terms, viewing leadership as an exchange with subordinates for services rendered. They influenced others primarily through their organizational position and authority. The women, by contrast, tended to describe themselves in transformational terms. They helped subordinates develop commitment to broader goals than their own self-interest and described their influence more in terms of personal characteristics like charisma and interpersonal skill than mere organizational position. According to Rosener, such women leaders encouraged participation and shared power and information, but went far beyond what is commonly thought of as participative management. She called it interactive leadership. Their leadership self-descriptions reflected an approach based on enhancing others' self-worth and believing that the best performance results when people are excited about their work and feel good about themselves. Rosener concluded that this interactive leadership style developed due to these women's socialization experiences and career paths. The social role expected of women has emphasized that they be cooperative, supportive, understanding, gentle, and service-oriented. As they entered the business world, they still found themselves in roles emphasizing these same behaviors. They found themselves in staff, rather than line, positions and in roles lacking formal authority over others such that they had to accomplish their work without reliance on formal power. What they had to do, in other words, was employ their socially acceptable behavioral repertoire in order to survive organizationally.
47) The situation is the third critical part of the leadership equation. Even if we knew all we could know about a given leader and a given set of followers, leadership often makes sense only in the context of how the leader and followers interact in a particular situation. The situation variable may be the most ambiguous aspect of the leadership framework; it can refer to anything from the specific task a group is engaged in to broad situational contexts such as the remote predicament of the Andes survivors. In simple situations, a leader is expected to ensure that proper processes are in place, follow best practices, and communicate in clear and direct ways. In complex situations, the leader should create environments and experiments that allow patterns to emerge; increase levels of interaction and communication; and use methods that generate new ideas and ways of thinking among everyone.
48) A leader's experience or history in a particular organization is usually important to her or his effectiveness. For example, leaders promoted from within an organization, by virtue of being familiar with its culture and policies, may be ready to "hit the job running." In addition, leaders selected from within an organization are typically better known by others in the organization than are leaders selected from the outside. That is likely to affect, for better or worse, the latitude others in the organization are willing to give the leader; if the leader is widely respected for a history of accomplishment, she may be given more latitude than a newcomer whose track record is less well known. A leader's legitimacy also may be affected by the extent to which followers participated in the leader's selection. When followers have had a say in the selection or election of a leader, they tend to have a heightened sense of psychological identification with her, but they also may have higher expectations and make more demands on her. Another important aspect of the leader is how he or she achieved leader status. Leaders who are appointed by superiors may have less credibility with subordinates and get less loyalty from them than leaders who are elected or emerge by consensus from the ranks of followers.
49) Kelley has suggested five basic styles of followership: 1. Alienated followers habitually point out all the negative aspects of the organization to others. While alienated followers may see themselves as mavericks who have a healthy skepticism of the organization, leaders often see them as cynical, negative, and adversarial. 2. Conformist followers are the "yes people" of organizations. While very active at doing the organization's work, they can be dangerous if their orders contradict societal standards of behavior or organizational policy. 3. Pragmatist followers are rarely committed to their group's work goals, but they have learned not to make waves. Because they do not like to stick out, pragmatists tend to be mediocre performers who can clog the arteries of many organizations. 4. Passive followers rely on the leader to do all the thinking. Furthermore, their work lacks enthusiasm. Lacking initiative and a sense of responsibility, passive followers require constant direction. 5. Exemplary followers present a consistent picture to both leaders and coworkers of being independent, innovative, and willing to stand up to superiors. They apply their talents for the benefit of the organization even when confronted with bureaucratic stumbling blocks or passive or pragmatist co-workers.
50) There is an increasing pressure on all kinds of organizations to function with reduced resources. Reduced resources and company downsizing have reduced the number of managers and increased their span of control, which in turn leaves followers to pick up many of the functions traditionally performed by leaders. There is also a trend toward greater power sharing and decentralized authority in organizations, which create greater interdependence among organizational subunits and increase the need for collaboration among them. Furthermore, the nature of problems faced by many organizations is becoming so complex and the changes are becoming so rapid that more and more people are required to solve them. In addition to helping solve organizational problems, followers can contribute to the leadership process by becoming skilled at "influencing upward." Because followers are often at the levels where many organizational problems occur, they can give leaders relevant information so that good solutions are implemented. Still another way followers can assume a greater share of the leadership challenge in the future is by staying flexible and open to opportunities.
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The most productive way to develop as a leader is to travel along the spiral of experience. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
Experience is just a matter of what events happen to you. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) Studies indicate that perception is basically a passive activity suggesting that everyone attends to all aspects of a situation equally. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) The tendency to overestimate the dispositional causes of behavior and underestimate the environmental factors when others fail is called the fundamental attribution error. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) Although unaided learning from experience is difficult, it can be enhanced through the practice of after event reviews (AERs), which involve systematic reflection. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) According to the fundamental archetypes of leadership, the Visionary–Alchemist archetype refers to a leader who provides oversight, control, moral guidance, and caring protectiveness. ⊚ ⊚
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7) According to the fundamental archetypes of leadership, the Warrior–Knight archetype refers to a leader who challenges the status quo and guides adaptation. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) In single-loop learning, individuals tend to learn about subjects outside the comfort zone of their belief systems. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) The times when people most need to break out of the mold created by past learning patterns are the times when they are most unwilling to do so. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) With in-basket exercises, participants are given a limited amount of time to prioritize and respond to a number of notes, letters, and phone messages from an actual manager's inbox. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) Technology-based approaches to leader development, such as video games and virtual reality simulations, require speedy thought and action. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) A disadvantage of action learning is that it inherently involves time away from immediate job responsibilities. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1
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13) Useful information about a leader's strengths and development needs is most likely provided by 360-degree feedback. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) Leaders and followers use development plans as road maps for changing their own behaviors. ⊚ ⊚
15)
true false
Leadership practitioners tend to concentrate on coaching their solid or top followers. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) In mentoring, a mentor is the protégé's immediate supervisor and is necessarily a part of the organization. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) Good coaches not only discuss what needs to change but also make coachees practice targeted behaviors. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) Informal mentoring programs occur when an organization assigns a relatively inexperienced but high-potential leader to one of the top executives in the company. ⊚ ⊚
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19)
Mentoring is the same as coaching. ⊚ ⊚
true false
20) Research shows that "helicopter parenting" is positively linked to a young person's leadership development. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) Leadership development is enhanced when an experience involves three processes, which are
A) causation, vision, and listening. B) perception, attribution, and learning. C) action, observation, and reflection. D) action, behavior, and consequence.
22) People do not see everything that happens in a particular leadership situation, nor do they hear everything; instead they are selective in what they attend to and what they, in turn, understand. A phenomenon that demonstrates this selectivity is called
A) the stereotype threat. B) perceptual set. C) the glass cliff. D) action learning.
23) In the context of perception, which of the following terms is best described as the explanations people develop for the characteristics, behaviors, or actions to which they attend?
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A) attribution B) single-loop learning C) self-fulfilling prophecy D) fundamental attribution error
24) The tendency to overestimate the dispositional causes of behavior and underestimate the environmental causes when others fail is called
A) single-loop learning. B) the fundamental attribution error. C) the self-fulfilling prophecy. D) double-loop learning.
25) People who are observing an action are much more likely than the actor to make the fundamental attribution error. This is called
A) stereotyping. B) the self-serving bias. C) the ultimate attribution error. D) the actor/observer difference.
26) Kyra, a 16-year-old high school girl, is skeptical about her first day at a new school. She believes that nobody will talk to her and that her new teachers will be rude to her. She enters the class in a negative mood and speaks rudely to everyone. Eventually, she sees that her beliefs about the new school and teachers come true. Which of the following is most likely exemplified in this scenario?
A) the self-fulfilling prophecy B) the actor/observer difference C) the heroic theory D) the constructionist approach
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27) __________ occurs when people's expectations or predictions play a causal role in bringing about the events they predict.
A) Attribution B) Double-loop learning C) The self-fulfilling prophecy D) The fundamental attribution error
28)
Observing "with binoculars" involves
A) overcoming bias by looking at alternate perspectives. B) looking at a situation in an unrealistically favorable light. C) stepping back from a situation. D) being mindful when observing.
29) The tendency to make external attributions for one's own failures and internal attributions for one's successes is known as
A) the actor/observer difference. B) a self-serving bias. C) the self-fulfilling prophecy. D) the fundamental attribution error.
30) According to the fundamental archetypes of leadership, a __________ works on developing something that will benefit all the members in an organization.
A) Visionary–Alchemist B) Father–Judge C) Revolutionary–Crusader D) Warrior–Knight
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31) Simone, a senior sales manager at ReadMe Inc., cares about developing the skills of her teammates and works beside them as a role model. In the context of the five fundamental archetypes of leadership, she most likely belongs to the
A) Warrior–Knight archetype. B) Visionary–Alchemist archetype. C) Father–Judge archetype. D) Teacher–Mentor archetype.
32) Which of the following fundamental archetypes of leadership is most likely to take risks and action in a crisis?
A) The Teacher–Mentor archetype B) The Visionary–Alchemist archetype C) The Warrior–Knight archetype D) The Revolutionary–Crusader archetype
33) Which of the following terms describes a kind of learning between an individual and the environment in which learners seek relatively little feedback that may significantly confront their fundamental ideas or actions?
A) deutero-learning B) double-loop learning C) action learning D) single-loop learning
34) Which of the following involves a willingness to confront your own views and an invitation to others to do so, too?
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A) the fundamental attribution error B) double-loop learning C) the self-fulfilling prophecy D) single-loop learning
35) __________ describe leadership situations and are used as vehicles for leadership discussions.
A) In-basket exercises B) Simulations C) Case studies D) Games
36) Which of the following involves participants being given a limited amount of time to prioritize and respond to a number of notes, phone messages, and letters from a fictitious manager's in-basket?
A) virtual simulations B) role playing C) in-basket exercises D) case studies
37) Jonathan, a front desk executive at Read Books Inc., handled 40 customer calls per day. He was then sent to a training program last month to improve his communication skills, which cost the organization $500. This month, Read Books observes that his growth is positive and substantial and that he is able to handle 60 customer calls per day. His productivity has increased by $700. This scenario most likely exemplifies
A) action learning. B) return on investment. C) the constructionist approach. D) the heroic theory.
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38)
Unlike traditional training programs, action learning
A) inherently involves time away from immediate job responsibilities. B) makes transfer back to the actual work situation more difficult. C) requires personnel who participate in leadership development activities to attend classes for several weeks. D) often is conducted in teams of work colleagues who are addressing real company challenges.
39)
Which of the following statements is true of informal coaching?
A) It is unsuccessful in helping leadership practitioners diagnose why behavioral changes fail to occur. B) It takes place whenever a leader helps followers to change their behaviors. C) It is an inefficient model to be used by senior executives to develop the skills of their staff. D) It is more effective for high-performing followers than for low-performing followers.
40) A personal relationship in which a more experienced mentor (usually someone two to four levels higher in an organization) acts as a guide, role model, and sponsor of a less experienced protégé is known as
A) evaluating. B) consulting. C) mentoring. D) networking.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Discuss leadership development in terms of the action–observation–reflection model.
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42) Explain the role of perception in all three phases of the action–observation–reflection model. Provide examples to illustrate your response.
43) Differentiate between single-loop learning and double-loop learning. Which one is more difficult in terms of leadership development? Why?
44)
Explain the phrase "to go against the grain of one's personal historical success."
45) Explain role playing, in-basket exercises, and leaderless group discussions and describe how these enhance leadership training.
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46)
Discuss the components and effectiveness of action learning.
47)
Describe the arts-based approach to leader development.
48) What is the purpose of development planning? What are the components of an effective development plan?
49)
Describe the five steps of informal coaching.
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50)
Explain how mentoring differs from coaching.
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) A Version 1
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27) C 28) C 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) D 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) C 41) According to the action–observation–reflection model, leadership development is enhanced when an experience involves three different processes: action, observation, and reflection. If a person acts but does not observe the consequences of her actions or reflect on their significance and meaning, then it makes little sense to say she has learned from the experience. Because some people neither observe the consequences of their actions nor reflect on how they could change their actions to become better leaders, leadership development through experience may be better understood as the growth resulting from repeated movements through all three phases rather than merely in terms of some objective dimension like time. The most productive way to develop as a leader is to travel along the spiral of experience.
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42) Experience is not just a matter of what happens to you; it also depends on how you perceive those events. Perception affects all three phases of the action–observation–reflection model and thus plays an important role in what anyone will extract from a leadership course or from any leadership situation. Human beings are not passive recorders of experiences that happen to them; rather, people actively shape and construct their experiences. Observation and perception both deal with attending to events around us. Both seem to take place spontaneously and effortlessly, so it is easy to regard them as passive processes. Our usual mental images of the perceptual process reflect this implicit view. For example, it is a common misconception that the eye operates essentially like the film in a continuously running camera. The fallacy of this passive view of perception is that it assumes we attend to all aspects of a situation equally. However, we do not see everything that happens in a particular leadership situation, nor do we hear everything. Instead we are selective in what we attend to and what we, in turn, perceive. Perception influences the reflection stage because reflection deals with how we interpret our observations. Perception is inherently an interpretive activity. An important aspect of this is a process called attribution. For example, if you see Julie fail in an attempt to get others to form a study group, you are likely to attribute the cause of the failure to dispositional factors within Julie. Perception also affects the actions we take. For example, researchers have examined how perceptions and biases affect supervisors' actions in response to poorly performing subordinates. In general, these researchers found that supervisors were biased toward making dispositional attributions about a subordinate's substandard performance and, as a result of these attributions, often recommended that punishment be used to remedy the performance deficit. Version 1
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43) Single-loop learning describes a kind of learning between an individual and the environment in which learners seek relatively little feedback that may significantly confront their fundamental ideas or actions. There is relatively little public testing of ideas against valid information. Double-loop learning involves a willingness to confront one's own views and an invitation to others to do so, too. It springs from an appreciation that openness to information and power sharing with others can lead to better recognition and definition of problems, improved communication, and increased decision-making effectiveness. Double-loop learning is difficult because leadership experiences are often ambiguous, complex, and high on emotional stakes. This makes it difficult for a leader to determine causal relationships between his or her behavior and specific outcomes, or whether different behavior would have led to different outcomes. Learning about leadership from one's raw experience is not easy, not even for those deeply committed to doing so. 44) Bunker and Webb note that executives try to be successful without experiencing stress. They are most comfortable when they can draw on a proven repertoire of operating skills to tackle a challenge they have conquered in the past. Combined with the organizational pressure to have "proven performers" in important positions, there is a tremendous initial pressure to continue to do what these performers have always done. In stressful situations, this tendency may become even more powerful. The result is that the times when people most need to break out of the mold created by past learning patterns are the times when they are most unwilling to do so. Being able to go against the grain of one's personal historical success requires an unwavering commitment to learning and a relentless willingness to let go of the fear of failure and the unknown. Version 1
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45) In role playing, participants are assigned parts to play (such as a supervisor and an unmotivated subordinate) in a job-related scenario. Role playing has the advantage of letting trainees actually practice relevant skills and thus has greater transferability to the workplace than do didactic lectures or abstract discussions about leadership. With in-basket exercises, participants are given a limited amount of time to prioritize and respond to a number of notes, letters, and phone messages from a fictitious manager's in-basket. This technique is particularly useful in assessing and improving a manager's planning and time management skills. In leaderless group discussions, facilitators and observers rate participants on the degree of persuasiveness, leadership, followership, or conflict each member manifests in a group that has no appointed leader. These ratings are used to provide managers with feedback about their interpersonal and oral communication skills.
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46) Action learning refers to the use of actual work issues and challenges as the developmental activity itself. The basic philosophy of action learning is that for adults in particular, the best learning is "learning by doing." Furthermore, action learning often is conducted in teams of work colleagues who are addressing actual company challenges; the members of action learning teams are placed into problem-solving roles and are expected to reach team decisions concerning the challenge or problem, and formally present their analysis and recommendations to others. Importantly, action learning also involves built-in opportunities for feedback and reflection for the participants about the perceived quality of their analysis and recommendations as well as, ideally, about aspects of their respective individual strengths and weaknesses as leaders working on the collaborative project together. In the past 15 years or so, action learning has gone from being a relatively rare development vehicle to being found in many companies' internal portfolios of leader development opportunities. Unfortunately, however, its demonstrated effectiveness for leader development has not kept pace with its increasing popularity and widespread use. There are many reasons for this including the fact that the work pace of action learning leaves little time for reflection that is an important part of leader development.
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47) Some arts-based approaches may be described as "projective" because they involve some form of artistic creation or interpretation that allows participants to reveal inner thoughts and feelings. For example, visual images (such as photographs or artwork) can provide a stimulus for a person to elaborate on in describing some leadership theme. Another projective technique would be to use simple building materials (like Legos) and instruct participants to create some depiction (perhaps of their organizational structure or strategy). Critical skills such as demonstrating empathy can be learned with dramatic and theatrical training. And films, which often have high emotional impact, can be used to facilitate rich discussions of various leadership issues.
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48) The purpose of development planning is to enact and maintain behavioral change. Development planning is more than a plan—it is really a process. Good development plans are constantly being revised as new skills are learned or new opportunities to develop skills become available. Leaders who take the time to write out and execute bestpractice development plans usually report the most improvement in later 360-degree feedback ratings. Development planning provides a methodology for leaders to improve their behavior, and much of this development can occur as they go about their daily work activities. Leaders need to determine which new skills will have the highest personal and organizational payoffs and build development plans that address these needs. The development plan should be focused on only one or two needs; plans addressing more than this tend to be overwhelming. Development plans tend to be self-focused; leaders and followers use them as a road map for changing their own behaviors. When trying to change the behavior of followers, however, leaders can often do more than review followers' development plans or provide ongoing feedback. Good development plans use on-the-job experiences to hone needed leadership skills and include accountability, such as feedback from peers.
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49) Informal coaching takes place whenever a leader helps followers to change their behaviors. The best informal coaching generally consists of five steps: forging a partnership, inspiring commitment, growing skills, promoting persistence, and shaping the environment. 1. Forge a partnership: Coaching works only if there is a trusting relationship between the leader and his or her followers. In this step leaders also determine what drives their followers and where they want to go with their careers. 2. Inspire commitment: In this step leaders help followers determine which skills or behaviors will have the biggest payoff if developed. Usually this step involves reviewing the results of performance appraisals, 360-degree feedback, values, personality assessment reports, and so on. 3. Grow skills: Leaders work with followers to build development plans that capitalize on on-the-job experiences and create coaching plans to support their followers' development. 4. Promote persistence: Leaders meet periodically with followers to provide feedback, help followers keep development on their radar screens, and provide followers with new tasks or projects to develop needed skills. 5. Shape the environment: Leaders need to periodically review how they are role-modeling development and what they are doing to foster development in the workplace. Because most people want to be successful, doing this step well will help attract and retain followers to the work group.
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50) Mentoring is a personal relationship in which a more experienced mentor (usually someone two to four levels higher in an organization) acts as a guide, role model, and sponsor of a less experienced protégé. Mentors provide protégés with knowledge, advice, challenge, counsel, and support about career opportunities, organizational strategy and policy, office politics, and other such issues. Although mentoring has a strong developmental component, it is not the same as coaching. One key difference is that mentoring may not target specific development needs. Protégés often meet with their mentors to get a different perspective of the organization or for advice on potential committee and task force assignments or promotion opportunities. Another difference is that this guidance is not coming from the protégé's immediate supervisor, but rather from someone several leadership levels higher in the organization. Protégés often do receive informal coaching from their boss, but may be more apt to seek career guidance and personal advice from their mentors. Another difference is that the mentor may not even be part of the organization. Some mentors may have retired from the organization, or may have been someone for whom the protégé worked a number of years earlier.
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) When new leaders meet with their entire teams the first day on the job, these initial meetings tend to have more interactive dialogue than one-way communication. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
The onboarding road map is focused on internal hires—those within an organization.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
3) New hires should check with their bosses to see if they can get copies of budget information. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) New leaders should minimize their personal interactions with direct reports during their first two months on the job. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) New leaders should avoid socializing and meeting their peers' families during the first two months on the job. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
New leaders should not meet their entire teams on the first day of the job. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Leadership practitioners can enhance the learning value of their experiences by taking a 10 percent stretch. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) Leaders who state that they have an open-door policy have clearly invited feedback and are open to discussing things.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
9) Keeping a journal is likely to increase the likelihood that leaders will be able to look at an event from a different perspective. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Individuals with high levels of technical competence are unlikely to belong to a leader's in-group. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) Having a high level of technical competence is important because many leaders, particularly the first-line supervisors, often spend considerable time training followers. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) The first step in building technical competence is to determine how one's job contributes to the overall success of his or her organization. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) Research has shown that some executives are derailed because they are unable or unwilling to adapt to superiors with leadership styles different from their own. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) The phrase "influence without authority" reflects the idea that few people are required to influence others in the workplace.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
15) Practicing a Theory Y attitude guarantees that you will always get along with your coworkers. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) The first phase of development planning involves periodically reviewing the plan, reflecting on learning, and modifying or updating the plan as appropriate. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) In the context of the perceptions quadrant of the GAPS (goals, abilities, perceptions, standards) analysis, a great way of obtaining information is through performance reviews or 360degree feedback instruments. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) The goals and standards quadrants of the GAPS (goals, abilities, perceptions, standards) analysis are focused on the present. ⊚ ⊚
19)
true false
The last phase in development planning concerns ongoing development. ⊚ ⊚
true false
20) The first way to transfer learning to new environments is to continually update one's development plan.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) In the context of the first day on the job, identify a true statement about the first meeting of the new leaders with their new bosses.
A) The meeting should happen in a small conference room. B) The meeting should avoid discussing the boss's view of team strengths and weaknesses. C) The meeting should end by arranging a follow-up meeting to review progress. D) The meeting should usually last for two to three hours.
22) When a team has fewer than 15 people, what should new leaders do during the first two weeks?
A) meet individually with everyone on the team B) schedule half-day one-on-one sessions with every team member C) identify major areas of improvement and restructure the whole group D) organize gatherings to learn personal information about team members
23) In the context of the new leader onboarding road map, which of the following statements is true of new leaders in the first two weeks?
A) They should avoid meeting individuals who were once part of the team but have taken positions in other parts of the organization. B) They should avoid meeting their team's stars to stay ahead of potential biases or conflicts. C) They should schedule one-on-one meetings with all their peers in peers' offices. D) They should try to maximize their personal interactions with direct reports.
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24) During the first two weeks on the job, a new leader should conduct in-person meetings with their peers. Which of the following issues should be discussed with the peers?
A) the style of socializing with others in the organization B) the best ways to communicate with clients C) the ways issues are raised and decisions made on their boss's team D) the opinions of the peers on former employees and leaders of the organization
25) In the context of the new leader onboarding road map, when should a new leader gather benchmarking information from other organizations, connect with the key external suppliers and customers, and if appropriate, meet with the former leader of the team?
A) on the first day B) during the third month C) after the first two weeks D) before joining the organization
26)
What is the fastest way to alter the culture and norms of a team?
A) change the people in the team B) revise the organizational mission C) modify the corporate strategy D) implement new team rules
27) Task forces that are formed to work on key change initiatives should be staffed by stars because
A) this will minimize the need to outsource tasks. B) this will ensure that key players earn promotions. C) this will establish an effective and reasonable time schedule. D) this will improve the odds of good recommendations being made.
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28) Which of the following is most likely an outcome of regularly practicing a 10 percent stretch?
A) strengthening essential technical skills B) engaging in more effective two-way communication C) decreasing apprehensions about doing something new or different D) providing encouragement to followers who are struggling
29)
Which of the following is most likely a benefit of keeping a journal?
A) providing information for key followers B) quantifying important strategic decisions C) cnsidering actions in a subjective way D) documenting ideas for future speeches
30)
Technical competence is especially important for first-line supervisors because they
A) need to stimulate followers to engage in a 10 percent stretching. B) spend considerable time training their followers. C) are frequently promoted to executive positions. D) are required to provide 360-degree feedback.
31)
Why do followers most likely need to have a high level of technical competence?
A) Technical competence decreases the pressure to belong to a leader's in-group. B) Technical expertise enables a follower to implement a relevant development plan. C) Technical competence increases a follower's channel power and situational control. D) Technical expertise plays a key role in supervisors' performance appraisal ratings of subordinates.
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32) Which of the following statements is true of individuals with high levels of technical competence?
A) They are highly likely to be members of their leaders' out-groups. B) They are highly likely to be delegated tasks. C) They are highly unlikely to be asked to participate in decisions. D) They are highly unlikely to wield more influence in their groups than their leaders.
33) Which of the following statements is true of leaders with high levels of technical competence?
A) They are unable to reduce the level of role ambiguity and conflict in their groups. B) Followers are generally more satisfied with them rather than leaders with average levels of technical competence. C) They are highly unlikely to have satisfied and happy followers. D) Managers are usually more likely to have them as members of their out-groups than leaders with average levels of technical competence.
34) Which of the following leadership styles are supervisors most likely to use when interacting with subordinates with poor technical skills?
A) a close, directive leadership style B) a friendly, supportive leadership style C) a participative leadership style D) an achievement-oriented leadership style
35) Which statement is most likely true about followers having a good working relationship with their superiors?
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A) Followers accomplish less work when they have a good working relationship with their superiors. B) Superiors and followers with good relationships tend to experience less conflict. C) Followers who have good relationships with their superiors advance quickly in their careers. D) Superiors give fewer performance appraisals to followers with whom they have good relationships.
36) Which of the following statements is true about building effective relationships with superiors?
A) Followers should think of their own and their superior's success as interdependent. B) Followers should be evaluated on the basis of their own success rather than on their team's success. C) Followers should take the blame solely on themselves for their teams' failures. D) Followers should play politics and distort information to make superiors look good, if required.
37) Which of the following is one of the best ways to establish and maintain good peer relationships?
A) adopt the norms of the group B) acknowledge common interests and goals C) practice a theory z attitude to gain perspective D) take control of problems that peers are unable to solve
38) Which of the following is the first step while conducting a GAPS (goals, abilities, perceptions, standards) analysis?
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A) to identify the standards one's boss or one's organization has for one's career objectives B) to obtain information about one's strengths and development needs by asking others for feedback C) to write a journal that includes specialized knowledge or a number of skills that have helped one succeed in one's previous jobs D) to clearly identify what one wants to do or where one wants to go with one's career over the next year or so
39)
When building a development plan, one's career objective comes directly from
A) the goals quadrant of the GAPS (goals, abilities, perceptions, standards) analysis. B) the abilities quadrant of the GAPS (goals, abilities, perceptions, standards) analysis. C) one's gaps-of-the-GAPS (goals, abilities, perceptions, standards) analysis. D) a force field analysis.
40) Which of the following statements is true of a gaps-of-the-GAPS (goals, abilities, perceptions, standards) analysis?
A) It builds in reflection time so that people can periodically review progress. B) It helps leadership practitioners identify high-priority development needs. C) It states career objectives indicating where one wants to be in one's career a year or so in the future. D) It clearly spells out what leaders need to do to meet their development needs.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Describe what activities a new leader's first day should entail. Also discuss what should occur during each of these activities according to the new leader onboarding road map.
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42) Explain the third month, which is one of the steps in the onboarding road map for helping people make successful transitions into new leadership positions.
43) According to the new leader's onboarding road map, new leaders should hold off-site meetings with their direct reports during their third month of tenure if their team is large. Discuss the four major issues to work through these off-site meetings.
44) What should a person wanting to move into a leadership role with another organization do before joining the organization?
45)
Why is it important for followers to have a high level of technical competence?
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46)
How do leaders benefit from having high levels of technical competence?
47)
Discuss the three steps to improve technical competence.
48)
Discuss any two ways to establish and maintain good peer relationships.
49) Discuss the five interrelated phases of the development planning process as described by Peterson and Hicks.
50)
Describe the steps for creating a high-impact development plan.
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) A Version 1
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27) D 28) C 29) D 30) B 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) B
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41) New leaders have two critical tasks the first day on the job: to meet their new boss and new team. The first meeting should happen in the boss's office and be about an hour long. Here are some key topics to discuss in this meeting: • Identifying the team's key objectives, metrics, and important projects. • Understanding the boss's view of team strengths and weaknesses. • Working through meeting schedules and communication styles. (How, when, and on what does the boss want to be kept informed?) • Sharing plans for the day and the next several weeks. New hires should end the discussion by arranging a follow-up meeting with their bosses to review progress and asking whether weekly or monthly one-on-one meetings would be helpful. New leaders should also meet with their entire teams the first day on the job. Depending on the size of the team, this meeting could be held in a small conference room or it could be in a large auditorium with Webcasts or conference calls to remote sites. It usually takes new leaders about an hour to share their backgrounds, the attributes and values they feel are important to success, expectations for themselves and employees, work habits and preferred ways of interacting, family and recreational activities, and what they plan on doing over the next few weeks. After sharing this information, new leaders should ask team members whether they have any questions but should not expect many takers. Because team members do not know new leaders well, these initial meetings tend to have more one-way communication than interactive dialogue.
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42) At this point in a new leader's tenure, he or she has developed a vision of the future and can articulate how the team will win; identified the what, why, and how of any needed changes; and defined a clear set of expectations for team members. The two major events for the third month are meeting with the entire team and meeting off-site with direct reports (if the team is large). The purpose of the first team meeting is for the new leader to share what he or she learned from whom during the information gathering process, his or her vision of the future, the new team structure and staffing model, his or her expectations for team members, and the rationale for any team changes. New leaders need to tie their changes to the attributes and values they shared during their first day on the job. Change is not about a new leader's PowerPoint presentation, but instead involves the tangible actions taken. And the actions team members pay the most attention to are the hiring, firing, promotion, restructuring, and staffing decisions made by new team leaders. One of the fastest ways to change the culture and norms of a team is to change the people in it.
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43) If the group being led is large, new leaders will want to have a separate second meeting with direct reports. This meeting may last one to two days and should be held off-site to minimize interruptions. The key issues to work through off-site include these: • Get agreement on the critical attributes and values of team members. Although new leaders will have clear ideas about the values and attributes they are looking for in team members, they cannot be sure direct reports have fully bought in to this set of attributes. New leaders should set aside time during the off-site meeting to finalize and clearly define the positive and negative behaviors for all the attributes and values they want to see in team members. • Create a team scorecard. The new leader will paint a vision and some overall objectives for the future, but the direct report team needs to formulate a set of concrete, specific goals with timelines and benchmarks for measuring success. • Establish an operating rhythm. Once the direction and goals have been clarified, the team will need to work on its meeting cadence and rules of engagement. The new leader and the direct report team need to determine how often they will meet, when they will meet, the purpose and content of the meetings, meeting roles and rules (sending substitutes to meetings, showing up to meetings on time, taking calls during meetings, and the like). This new meeting schedule should be published in a one-year calendar and sent to everyone in the group. • Establish task forces to work on key change initiatives. In all likelihood a number of issues will need to be addressed by the team. Some of these issues can be discussed and resolved during the offsite meeting, whereas task forces might be a better venue for resolving other issues. The task forces should be staffed by stars, which will both
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improve the odds that good recommendations are made and allow the new leader to see the stars in action. 45) There are many reasons why followers need to have a high level of technical competence. First, performance is often a function of technical competence. Relatedly, research has shown that technical expertise plays a key role in supervisors' performance appraisal ratings of subordinates. Second, followers with high levels of technical competence have a lot of expert power and at times can wield more influence in their groups than the leader does. Third, individuals with high levels of technical competence may be more likely to be a member of a leader's in-group and are more likely to be delegated tasks and asked to participate in decisions.
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46) There are also many reasons why it benefits leaders to have high levels of technical competence. First, technical competence has been found to be consistently related to managerial promotion rates. Managers having higher levels of technical competence were much more likely to rise to the top managerial levels at AT&T than managers with lower levels of technical competence. Second, having a high level of technical competence is important because many leaders, particularly first-line supervisors, often spend considerable time training followers. Perhaps nowhere is the importance of technical competence in training more readily apparent than in sports coaching; little is as frustrating as having a coach who knows less about the game than the team members. Third, leaders with high levels of technical competence seem to be able to reduce the level of role ambiguity and conflict in their groups, and followers are generally more satisfied with leaders who have high rather than average levels of technical competence. Finally, leaders who have a high level of technical competence may be able to stimulate followers to think about problems and issues in new ways, which in turn has been found to be strongly related to organizational climate ratings and followers' motivation to succeed.
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47) The first step in building technical competence is to determine how one's job contributes to the overall success of the organization. By taking this step, individuals can better determine what technical knowledge and which behaviors are most strongly related to job and organizational success. People should evaluate their current level of technical skills by seeking verbal feedback from peers and superiors, reviewing past performance appraisal results, or reviewing objective performance data. A second method is becoming an expert in the job. Becoming an expert in your primary field is often the springboard for further developmental opportunities. There are a number of ways in which you can become an expert in your field, and these include enrolling in formal education and training programs, watching others, asking questions, and teaching others. The third method is to seek opportunities to broaden experiences. Just as a member of a sports team should try to play a variety of positions to better appreciate the contributions of other team members, so should a person try to perform the tasks associated with the other positions in his or her work group to better appreciate how the work contributes to organizational success. Similarly, people should visit other parts of the organization to understand its whole operation. Moreover, by working on team projects, people get to interact with members of other work units and often can develop new skills. Volunteering to support school, political, or community activities is another way to increase one's organization and planning, public speaking, fund-raising, and public relations skills, all of which may be important aspects of technical competence for certain jobs.
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48) One of the best ways to establish effective working relationships with peers is to acknowledge shared interests, values, goals, and expectations. To acknowledge shared aspirations and interests, however, one must know what peers' goals, values, and interests actually are. Establishing informal communication links is one of the best ways to discover common interests and values. A second way to establish peer relationships is to understand the nature of each other's work. Building a cooperative relationship with others depends, therefore, on knowing the sorts of tasks others perform in the organization. It also depends on understanding their problems and rewards. With the former, one of the best ways to establish strong relationships is by lending a hand whenever peers face personal or organizational problems. With the latter, it is especially important to remember that people tend to repeat behaviors that are rewarded and are less likely to repeat behaviors that go unrewarded. Another way is to view peers from a Theory Y perspective. When a person assumes that others are competent, trustworthy, willing to cooperate if they can, and proud of their work, peers will view that person in the same light.
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49) Development planning is the systematic process of building knowledge and experience or changing behavior. Peterson and Hicks have done a considerable amount of cutting-edge research in the development planning process and believe that it consists of five interrelated phases. The first phase of development planning is identifying development needs. Here leaders identify career goals, assess their abilities in light of career goals, seek feedback about how their behaviors are affecting others, and review the organizational standards pertaining to their career goals. Once this information has been gathered, the second phase consists of analyzing these data to identify and prioritize development needs. The prioritized development needs in turn are used to create a focused and achievable development plan, the third phase of this process. The fourth phase in development planning is periodically reviewing the plan, reflecting on learning, and modifying or updating the plan as appropriate. As you might expect, the action–observation–reflection (AOR) model is a key component during this phase of the development planning process. The last phase in development planning is transferring learning to new environments. Just because a leader can successfully delegate activities to a three-person team may not mean he will effectively delegate tasks or use his staff efficiently when he is leading 25 people. In that case the leader will need to build and expand on the delegation skills he learned when leading a smaller team.
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50) The specific steps for creating a high-impact development plan are as follows: Step 1: Career and development objectives. Your career objective comes directly from the goals quadrant of the GAPS analysis; it is where you want to be or what you want to be doing in your career a year or so in the future. The development objective comes from your gaps-of-the-GAPS analysis; it should be a high-priority development need pertaining to your career objective. People should be working on no more than two to three development needs at any one time. Step 2: Criteria for success. What would it look like if you developed a particular skill, acquired technical expertise, or changed the behavior outlined in your development objective? This can be a difficult step in development planning, particularly with "softer" skills such as listening, managing conflict, or building relationships with others. Step 3: Action steps. The focus in the development plan should be on the specific, on-the-job action steps leadership practitioners will take to meet their development need. However, sometimes it is difficult for leaders to think of appropriate on-the-job action steps. Step 4: Whom to involve and when to reassess dates. This step in a development plan involves feedback—whom do you need to get it from, and how often do you need to get it? This step in the development plan is important because it helps keep you on track. Are your efforts being noticed? Do people see any improvement? Are there things you need to do differently? Do you need to refocus your efforts? Step 5: Stretch assignments. When people reflect on when they have learned the most, they often talk about situations where they felt they were in over their heads. These Version 1
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situations stretched their knowledge and skills and often are seen as extremely beneficial to learning. If you know of a potential assignment, such as a task force, a project management team, or a rotational assignment, that would emphasize the knowledge and skills you need to develop and accelerate your learning, you should include it in your development plan. Step 6: Resources. Often people find it useful to read a book, attend a course, or watch a recorded program to gain foundational knowledge about a particular development need. These methods generally describe the how-to steps for a particular skill or behavior. Step 7: Reflect with a partner. In accordance with the action–observation–reflection model, people should periodically review their learning and progress with a partner. The identity of the partner is not particularly important as long as you trust his or her opinion and the partner is familiar with your work situation and development plan.
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Power is defined as the ability of an individual to produce effects on others. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) Influence tactics refer to one person's actual behaviors designed to change another person's attitudes, beliefs, values, or behaviors. ⊚ ⊚
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3) The amount of power followers have in work situations is always less than the amount of power held by their group's leader. ⊚ ⊚
4)
Choice of clothing can affect one's power and influence. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
true false
Leaders usually can exert more power during periods of relative calm than during a crisis. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Referent power refers to the potential influence one has due to the strength of the relationship between the leader and the followers. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Followers with relatively more referent power than their peers have little opportunity to deviate from group norms. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) Reward power involves the potential to influence others due to one's control over desired resources. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) The potential to influence others through the ability to administer rewards is a joint function of the leader, the followers, and the situation. Version 1
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⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Coercive power is the potential to influence others through the administration of negative sanctions. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) High degrees of reciprocal influence between leaders and followers characterize the most effective organizations. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) Power distance is defined as the degree to which the less powerful members of a society accept and expect that power is distributed unequally. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) A high need for power or motivation to manage necessarily guarantees leadership success. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) The overall composite Miner's Sentence Completion Scale (MSCS) score has consistently been found to predict leadership success in hierarchical organizations. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) Leaders require a high need for socialized power and a low level of activity inhibition to be successful in the long term.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
16) Ingratiation occurs when an agent uses logical arguments or factual evidence to influence others. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) Threats or persistent reminders used to influence targets are known as legitimizing tactics. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) Research shows that a leader's power decreases when symbols like diplomas, awards, and titles are displayed prominently to followers. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) In the context of leader motives, individuals who have a high need for socialized power are more selfish, uninhibited, impulsive, and lacking in self-control than individuals with a high need for personalized power. ⊚ ⊚
true false
20) Studies show that female managers are less likely than male managers to compromise or negotiate during their influence attempts. ⊚ ⊚
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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) __________ means the status differential between members of a group.
A) Legal power B) Power distance C) Ingratiation D) Pecking order
22)
Influence is best described as the
A) potential to manipulate others. B) capacity to produce an effect on others. C) degree of actual change in a target person's values. D) status differential between the members of a group.
23)
Which of the following statements is true of coercive power?
A) It refers to the ability of an individual to influence others through his or her relative expertise in particular areas. B) It refers to the potential to influence others due to one's control over desired resources. C) It has the possibility to be used by followers to influence their leader's behavior. D) It is directly proportional to the strength of the relationship between leaders and followers.
24) A leader who has developed close interpersonal relationships with followers generally uses his or her __________ power to influence them.
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A) legitimate B) referent C) coercive D) reward
25) __________ power is a function of the amount of knowledge one possesses relative to the rest of the members of a group.
A) Reward B) Referent C) Coercive D) Expert
26) When students respond positively to requests from teachers who are well-liked and respected, it most likely illustrates that the teachers have
A) expert power. B) referent power. C) legitimate power. D) coercive power.
27)
Which of the following statements is true of legitimate power?
A) It is a function of the amount of knowledge one possesses relative to the rest of the members of the group. B) It is the potential to influence others through the administration of negative sanctions or the removal of positive events. C) It states that leaders have potential influence on their followers because of the strength of the relationship between them. D) It means that a leader has authority because she or he has been assigned a particular role in an organization.
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28)
Which of the following is an intrinsic reward?
A) compensation B) praise C) personal growth D) time off
29) The ability to control others through the fear of punishment or the loss of valued outcomes is known as
A) expert power. B) reward power. C) legitimate power. D) coercive power.
30)
A police officer giving a speeding ticket to a driver is most likely using his or her
A) referent power. B) reward power. C) coercive power. D) expert power.
31) Followers are highly likely to use __________ power to change their leader's behavior if they have a relatively high amount of referent power with their fellow coworkers.
A) reward B) coercive C) legitimate D) expert
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32) __________ is most likely to be associated with the role friendships play in making things happen.
A) Referent power B) Reward power C) Expert power D) Legitimate power
33)
People in societies exhibiting a large degree of power distance
A) strive to equalize the distribution of power. B) accept a hierarchical order in which everybody has a place and that needs no further justification. C) tend to communicate in a direct and participative style. D) are likely to experience referent power between the less powerful and the more powerful members of a society.
34)
Identify a true statement about socialized power.
A) It is a key characteristic of individualistic cultures. B) It is characterized by impulsiveness and a lack of self-control. C) It often involves an empowering, rather than an autocratic, style of management and leadership. D) It involves individuals exercising power for their own needs rather than for the good of their group.
35)
Unlike consultation, coalition tactics are most likely used when agents
A) make proposals that are designed to arouse enthusiasm or emotions in targets. B) attempt to get targets in a good mood before making requests. C) use threats or persistent reminders to influence targets. D) seek the aid or support of others to influence their targets.
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36)
__________ occurs when agents ask targets to participate in planning an activity.
A) Rational persuasion B) Ingratiation C) Consultation D) Personal appeal
37) Craig, a high school student, wakes up early on a Sunday morning and makes his mother's favorite chocolate cake and butterscotch cookies. He wants to seek permission for a week-long trekking trip and is sure that the cake and cookies will get his mother in a good mood. This scenario most likely exemplifies
A) legitimizing tactics. B) coalition tactics. C) ingratiation. D) consultation.
38) Sean, a market manager at Pebble Deco Inc., asks his subordinate, Natalie, to work on a high-priority marketing campaign for the next quarter. She is hesitant to take up the assignment but is unable to refuse because of Sean's position and authority. In this scenario, Sean is most likely using
A) inspirational appeals. B) personal appeals. C) coalition tactics. D) legitimizing tactics.
39)
Legitimizing tactics most likely occur when agents
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A) make requests based on their position or authority. B) use threats or persistent reminders to influence targets. C) seek the aid or support of others to influence targets. D) make requests designed to arouse enthusiasm or emotions.
40)
People tend to use rational tactics when
A) both parties are unlikely to be benefitted. B) parties are relatively equal in power. C) parties anticipate resistance. D) an influencer has the upper hand.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) What is the difference between power, influence, and influence tactics? What is the relationship between the three concepts in terms of leadership?
42)
Discuss expert power and provide examples to illustrate.
43)
Briefly outline French and Raven's five bases of social power.
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44) What is legitimate power? How does legitimate authority differ from leadership? Provide examples to illustrate your response.
45) What is coercive power? How can followers use coercive power to influence a leader's behavior? Provide examples to illustrate your response.
46) What is the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)? What does the TAT measure? Briefly describe the components of the test.
47) Differentiate between individuals who have personalized power and leaders who have socialized power.
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48)
How does the need for power differ from the motivation to manage?
49) What are the six composites used by Miner to describe motivation to manage? How has Miner's research contributed to leadership studies?
50) The Influence Behavior Questionnaire (IBQ) is designed to assess nine types of influence tactics. Describe at least four of these influence tactics.
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) B Version 1
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27) D 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) C 37) C 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) Many people use the terms power, influence, and influence tactics synonymously, but it is useful to distinguish among them. Power has been defined as the capacity to produce effects on others or the potential to influence others. Influence can be defined as the change in a target agent's attitudes, values, beliefs, or behaviors as the result of influence tactics. Influence tactics refer to one person's actual behaviors designed to change another person's attitudes, beliefs, values, or behaviors. Leadership practitioners can improve their effectiveness by reflecting on the types of power they and their followers have and the types of influence tactics that they may use or that may be used on them. Whereas power is the capacity to cause change, influence is the degree of actual change in a target person's attitudes, values, beliefs, or behaviors. Influence can be measured by the behaviors or attitudes manifested by followers as the result of a leader's influence tactics.
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42) Expert power is the power of knowledge. Some people can influence others through their relative expertise in particular areas. Legislators who are experts in the intricacies of parliamentary procedure, athletes who have played in championship games, and soldiers who have been in combat before are valued for the lessons learned and wisdom they can share with others. Because expert power is a function of the amount of knowledge one possesses relative to the rest of the members of the group, it is possible for followers to have considerably more expert power than leaders in certain situations. For example, new leaders often know less about the jobs and tasks performed in a particular work unit than the followers do, and in this case the followers can potentially wield considerable influence when decisions are made regarding work procedures, new equipment or the hiring of additional workers. Probably the best advice for leaders in this situation is to ask a lot of questions and perhaps seek additional training to help fill this knowledge gap. So long as different followers have considerably greater amounts of expert power, it will be difficult for a leader to influence the work unit on the basis of expert power alone.
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43) French and Raven identified five sources, or bases, of power by which an individual can potentially influence others. These five sources include one that is primarily a function of the leader; one that is a function of the relationship between the leader and followers; one that is primarily a function of the leader and the situation; one that is primarily a function of the situation; and finally, one that involves aspects of all three elements. Understanding these bases of power can give leadership practitioners greater insight about the predictable effects—positive or negative—of various sorts of influence attempts. Expert power is the power of knowledge. Referent power refers to the potential influence one has due to the strength of the relationship between the leader and the followers. Legitimate power depends on a person's organizational role. It can be thought of as one's formal or official authority. Reward power involves the potential to influence others due to one's control over desired resources. Coercive power, the opposite of reward power, is the potential to influence others through the administration of negative sanctions or the removal of positive events.
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44) Legitimate power depends on a person's organizational role. It can be thought of as one's formal or official authority. Some people make things happen because they have the power or authority to do so. The boss assigns projects; the coach decides who plays; the colonel orders compliance with uniform standards; the teacher assigns homework and awards grades. Individuals with legitimate power exert influence through requests or demands deemed appropriate by virtue of their role and position. In other words, legitimate power means a leader has authority because she or he has been assigned a particular role in an organization. Legitimate authority and leadership are not the same thing. Holding a position and being a leader are not synonymous, despite the relatively common practice of calling position holders in bureaucracies the leaders. The head of an organization may be a true leader, but he or she also may not be. Effective leaders often intuitively realize they need more than legitimate power to be successful. It is also possible for followers to use their legitimate power to influence leaders. In these cases, followers can actively resist a leader's influence attempt by doing only work specifically prescribed in job descriptions, bureaucratic rules, or union policies. For example, many organizations have job descriptions that limit both the time spent at work and the types of tasks and activities performed.
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45) Coercive power is the potential to influence others through the administration of negative sanctions or the removal of positive events. In other words, it is the ability to control others through the fear of punishment or the loss of valued outcomes. Examples of coercive power include police giving tickets for speeding, the army court-martialing AWOL soldiers, a teacher detaining disruptive students after school, employers firing lazy workers, and parents reprimanding children. It is possible for followers to use coercive power to influence their leader's behavior. For example, a leader may be hesitant to take disciplinary action against a large, emotionally unstable follower. Followers can threaten leaders with physical assaults, industrial sabotage, or work slowdowns and strikes, and these threats can modify a leader's behavior. Followers are more likely to use coercive power to change their leader's behavior if they have a relatively high amount of referent power with their fellow coworkers. This may be particularly true for threats of work slowdowns or strikes. 46) The TAT assesses the need for power. It is a projective personality test consisting of pictures such as a woman staring out a window or a boy holding a violin. Subjects are asked to make up a story about each picture, and the stories are then interpreted in terms of the strengths of various needs imputed to the characters, one of which is the need for power. Since the pictures are somewhat ambiguous, the sorts of needs projected onto the characters are presumed to reflect needs (perhaps at an unconscious level) of the storyteller. Stories concerned with influencing or controlling others would receive high scores for the need for power.
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47) Two different ways of expressing the need for power have been identified: personalized power and socialized power. Individuals who have a high need for personalized power are relatively selfish, impulsive, uninhibited, and lacking in self-control. These individuals exercise power for their own self-centered needs, not for the good of the group or the organization. Socialized power, on the other hand, implies a more emotionally mature expression of the motive. Socialized power is exercised in the service of higher goals to others or organizations and often involves self-sacrifice toward those ends. It often involves an empowering, rather than an autocratic, style of management and leadership.
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48) An individual’s motivation to influence or control others is called the need for power. Individuals with a high need for power derive psychological satisfaction from influencing others. These people seek positions where they can influence others, and they are often involved concurrently in influencing people in many different organizations or decision-making bodies. In such activities they readily offer ideas, suggestions, and opinions, and also seek information they can use in influencing others. They are often astute at building trusting relationships and assessing power networks, though they can also be quite outspoken and forceful. They value the tangible signs of their authority and status as well as the more intangible indications of others' deference to them. Miner described the motivation to manage in terms of six composites: maintaining good relationships with authority figures; wanting to compete for recognition and advancement; being active and assertive; wanting to exercise influence over subordinates; being visibly different from followers; being willing to do routine administrative tasks. Individuals who maintained respect for authority figures, wanted to be recognized, acted assertively, actively influenced subordinates, maintained "psychological distance" between themselves and their followers, and readily took on routine administrative tasks were more apt to be successful in bureaucratic organizations.
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49) Motivation to manage has six composites: maintaining good relationships with authority figures, wanting to compete for recognition and advancement, being active and assertive, wanting to exercise influence over subordinates, being visibly different from followers, and being willing to do routine administrative tasks. The overall composite MSCS score (though not component scores) has consistently been found to predict leadership success in hierarchical or bureaucratic organizations. Thus individuals who maintained respect for authority figures, wanted to be recognized, acted assertively, actively influenced subordinates, maintained "psychological distance" between themselves and their followers, and readily took on routine administrative tasks were more apt to be successful in bureaucratic organizations. However, Miner claimed that different qualities were needed in flatter, non-bureaucratic organizations, and his review of the MSCS supports this view.
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50) The IBQ is designed to assess nine types of influence tactics, and its scales give us a convenient overview of various methods of influencing others. Rational persuasion occurs when an agent uses logical arguments or factual evidence to influence others. Agents make inspirational appeals when they make a request or proposal designed to arouse enthusiasm or emotions in targets. Consultation occurs when agents ask targets to participate in planning an activity. Ingratiation occurs when an agent attempts to get you in a good mood before making a request. Agents use personal appeals when they ask another to do a favor out of friendship. Influencing a target through the exchange of favors is labeled exchange. Coalition tactics differ from consultation in that they are used when agents seek the aid or support of others to influence the target. Threats or persistent reminders used to influence targets are known as pressure tactics. Finally, legitimizing tactics occur when agents make requests based on their position or authority. In practice, of course, actual tactics often reflect combinations of these different approaches. Rarely, for example, effective appeal purely inspirational without any rational elements.
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Leaders ultimately must be judged on the basis of a framework of values, not just in terms of their effectiveness. ⊚ ⊚
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2) Managers with Theory Y orientation rely heavily on coercive, external control methods such as pay, disciplinary techniques, punishments, and threats to motivate workers ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) Gen Xers tend to be more committed to a specific organization than to their vocation because they believe in job security. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
Baby Boomers came of age during the Great Depression and World War II. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, an individual at the postconventional level believes that a particular behavior is "bad" only if it is punished. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Instrumental values refer to modes of behavior, and terminal values refer to desired end states. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Millennials share an optimism born, perhaps, from having been raised by parents devoted to the task of bringing their generation to adulthood. ⊚ ⊚
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8) Gen Xers have been a stabilizing force in organizations for decades, even if they are prone to digressions about "the good old days." ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) In the context of the ethical dilemmas identified by Kidder, a parent choosing to spend more time at work to earn overtime pay for his or her children's future is a short term versus long term dilemma. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Ends-based thinking is consistent with Kantian philosophy and is characterized colloquially as "following the highest principle or duty." ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) According to the dual-process theory, moral judgments dealing primarily with "rights" and "duties" are made by automatic emotional responses. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) Rule-based thinking, known as utilitarianism in philosophy, is premised on the idea that right and wrong are best determined by considering the consequences or results of an action. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) In-group favoritism occurs when people overrate the quality of their work and their contributions to the groups and teams to which they belong. ⊚ ⊚
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14) Through a distortion of consequences, people minimize the harm caused by their behavior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) Advantageous comparison refers to the process of using cosmetic words to defuse or disguise the offensiveness of otherwise morally repugnant or distasteful behavior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) In the context of moral potency, moral ownership is best described as the fortitude to face risk and overcome fears associated with taking ethical action. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) The study of authentic leadership has gained considerable momentum in the last decade because of the belief that enhancing self-awareness can help people in organizations find more meaning and connection at work. ⊚ ⊚
18)
true false
Servant leadership puts an emphasis on listening effectively to others. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) Authentic leaders behave as they do to attain status, rewards, and other advantages rather than to achieve personal conviction. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1
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20) The ultimate test of a servant leader's work is whether those served develop toward being more responsible, caring, and competent individuals. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) What are the four qualities of leadership that engender trust according to Bennis and Goldsmith?
A) values, loyalty, consistency, and integrity B) honesty, values, loyalty, and creativity C) creativity, honesty, consistency, and vision D) vision, empathy, consistency, and integrity
22) Leaders who pull people together on the basis of shared beliefs and a common sense of organizational purpose and belonging are most likely the ones
A) who are consistent. B) who demonstrate empathy. C) who create a compelling vision. D) whose integrity is strong.
23)
Which of the following best describes ethics?
A) an appreciation of laws B) principles of right conduct C) a sense of organizational purpose D) modes of intrapersonal behavior
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24)
Which of the following statements is true of managers with the Theory Y orientation?
A) They reflect a view that most people are intrinsically motivated by their work. B) They believe that people need to be coaxed or coerced to work productively. C) They tend to maximize workers' sense of responsibility by closely overseeing their work. D) They rely on pressure tactics to motivate their workers.
25) Hall and Donnell reported findings of five separate studies involving over 12,000 managers that explored the relationship between managerial achievement and attitudes toward subordinates. Overall, they found that managers who strongly subscribed to Theory X beliefs
A) were unlikely to have a pessimistic view of others. B) were unlikely to rely on coercive, external control methods to motivate workers. C) were highly likely to believe that workers were naturally motivated to work. D) were highly likely to be in their lower-achieving group.
26)
Values are most likely
A) shared by all human beings. B) learned through the socialization process. C) based on the principles of law. D) demonstrated through empathy.
27) According to Zemke's four generations of workers, which of the following statements is most likely true of the Veterans?
A) They are most likely latchkey kids. B) They represent a wealth of lore and wisdom. C) They are entrepreneurial, and they embrace change. D) They tend to be more committed to their vocation than to any specific organization.
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28) According to Zemke's four generations of workers, which of the following statements is most likely true of the Baby Boomers?
A) They are loyal to their organization when it comes to work ethics. B) They came of age during the Great Depression and World War II. C) They usually think of themselves as "the problem" in their workplace. D) They seek constant feedback but dislike close supervision by their superiors.
29) Which of the following generation of workers tends to be technologically savvy, independent, and skeptical of institutions and hierarchy?
A) the Millennials B) the Veterans C) the Baby Boomers D) the Gen Xers
30)
According to Zemke's four generations of workers, the Millennials
A) doubt the wisdom of traditional racial and sexual categorizing. B) have been a stabilizing force in organizations for decades. C) have a work ethic characterized by organizational loyalty. D) tend to be uncomfortable with transparency of action in workplaces.
31) Dr. Jonathon realizes that his patient is suffering from a highly contagious disease that is likely to pose a threat to the entire city. However, he is uncertain about sharing this information with city officials to protect his patient's privacy. In this scenario, which of the following ethical dilemmas does the doctor most likely face?
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A) truth versus loyalty B) individual versus community C) short-term versus long-term D) justice versus mercy
32)
Ends-based thinking is often characterized as
A) "doing what you want others to do to you." B) "following the highest principle or duty." C) "do what's best to get my desired end results." D) "do what's best for the greatest number of people."
33) Terrorists may call themselves "freedom fighters," and firing someone may be referred to as "letting him or her go." These are both examples of
A) moral justification. B) diffusion of responsibility. C) euphemistic labeling. D) advantageous comparison.
34) __________ involves reinterpreting otherwise immoral behavior in terms of a higher purpose.
A) Advantageous comparison B) Moral justification C) Displacement of responsibility D) Euphemistic labeling
35)
Which of the following best describes the term "attribution of blame"?
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A) using cosmetic words to defuse the offensiveness of distasteful behavior B) justifying immoral behavior by claiming it was caused by someone else's actions C) avoiding self-contempt for personal behavior by comparing it to the more heinous actions of others D) minimizing the harm caused by immoral actions by blaming the behavior on low societal standards
36) In the context of moral potency, the belief or confidence in one's capability to mobilize various personal, interpersonal, and other external resources to persist despite moral adversity is referred to as
A) moral ownership. B) moral efficacy. C) moral justification. D) moral courage.
37)
An authentic leader will most likely
A) manage impressions and actions. B) have a realistic self-perception. C) exaggerate strong emotions. D) foster in-group exclusivity.
38)
Which of the following statements is most likely true of servant leaders?
A) They rely on positional authority to influence others. B) They fail to foster each person's emotional and spiritual health and wholeness. C) They tend to overlook their own values, feelings, strengths, and weaknesses. D) They need to integrate present realities and future possibilities.
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39) Leadership behavior enacted by individuals who take action to maintain ethical standards in the face of questionable moral behaviors by higher-ups is referred to as
A) compelling vision. B) charismatic leadership. C) servant leadership behavior. D) upward ethical leadership.
40) Which of the following is an approach, developed and popularized by Covey, which postulates a fundamental interdependence between the personal, the interpersonal, the managerial, and the organizational levels of leadership?
A) principle-centered leadership B) upward ethical leadership C) the constructionist approach D) the role approach
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Describe the four qualities of leadership that engender trust according to Bennis and Goldsmith.
42) Describe the differences between instrumental and terminal values and give examples of each. What role do values play in work settings?
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43)
Discuss how the values of Gen Xers affect the leadership process in the workplace.
44)
Identify and describe the four generations of workers as illustrated by Zemke.
45) What are the three principles for resolving ethical dilemmas according to Kidder? How does Kidder suggest using these principles?
46) When good people do bad things, what are the different methods they use in minimizing personal moral responsibility? Briefly describe at least four such methods.
47)
What is authentic leadership? What are the characteristics of authentic leaders?
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48)
Discuss the characteristics of servant leaders.
49) Leaders create and sustain ethical climates in organizations through five "fronts" of leadership. Identify and describe these fronts and discuss how they relate to an ethical climate in an organization.
50) Individuals in a formal leadership role face unique ethical responsibilities and challenges. What are the six responsibilities that formal leaders face more than followers?
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) B Version 1
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27) B 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) B 32) D 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) B 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) Bennis and Goldsmith describe four qualities of leadership that engender trust. These qualities are vision, empathy, consistency, and integrity. First, people tend to trust leaders who create a compelling vision: who pull people together on the basis of shared beliefs and a common sense of organizational purpose and belonging. Second, people tend to trust leaders who demonstrate empathy with the followers—who show they understand the world as the followers see and experience it. Third, people trust leaders who are consistent. This does not mean that people only trust leaders whose positions never change, but that changes are understood as a process of evolution in light of relevant new evidence. Fourth, people trust leaders whose integrity is strong, who demonstrate their commitment to higher principles through their actions.
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42) Instrumental values refer to modes of behavior, whereas terminal values refer to desired end states. Examples of instrumental values include being courageous, helpful, honest, imaginative, logical, or responsible. Examples of terminal values include an exciting life, a sense of accomplishment, family security, inner harmony, social recognition, or friendship. Values play a central role in one's overall psychological makeup and can affect behavior in a variety of situations. In work settings, values can affect decisions about joining an organization, organizational commitment, relationships with co-workers, and decisions about leaving an organization. 43) Some research has looked at how the values of Gen Xers impact the leadership process at work. One clear finding from this research involved the distinctively different view of authority held by Xers than previous generations. While past generations might have at least acknowledged positional authority, this new generation has little respect for and less interest in leaders who are unable to demonstrate that they can personally produce. This generation does not define leading as sitting in meetings and making profound vision statements, but instead as eliminating obstacles and giving employees what they need to work well and comfortably. Gen Xers expect managers to "earn their stripes," and not be rewarded with leadership responsibilities merely because of seniority. Often that attitude is interpreted as an indication of disrespect toward elders in general and bosses in particular. It may be more accurate, however, to characterize the attitude as one of skepticism rather than disrespect.
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44) Zemke is a researcher who has looked at differences in values across generations and how those value differences affect their approaches to work and leadership. Following is his delineation of four generations of workers, each molded by distinctive experiences during critical developmental periods: The Veterans (1922–1943): Veterans came of age during the Great Depression and World War II, and they represent a wealth of lore and wisdom. They've been a stabilizing force in organizations for decades, even if they are prone to digressions about "the good old days." The Baby Boomers (1942–1960): These were the postwar babies who came of age during violent social protests, experimentation with new lifestyles, and pervasive questioning of establishment values. Boomers still have passion about bringing participation, spirit, heart, and humanity to the workplace and office. The Gen Xers (1961–1980): Gen Xers grew up during the era of the Watergate scandal, the energy crisis, high divorce rates, MTV, and corporate downsizing; many were latchkey kids. As a group they tend to be technologically savvy, independent, and skeptical of institutions and hierarchy. They are entrepreneurial and they embrace change. Having seen so many of their parents work long and loyally for one company only to lose their job to downsizing, Xers don't believe much in job security; to an Xer, job security comes from having the kinds of skills that make you attractive to an organization. Hence, they tend to be more committed to their vocation than to any specific organization. In fact, the free-agency concept born in professional sports also applies to Xers, who are disposed to stay with an organization until a better offer comes along. Among the challenges they present at work is how to meet their need for feedback despite their dislike of close supervision. Xers also seek balance in their lives more than preceding generations; they work to live rather than live to work. Version 1
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Millennials (1982–2005): In general, Millennials share an optimism born, perhaps, from having been raised by parents devoted to the task of bringing their generation to adulthood; they are the children of soccer moms and Little League dads. They doubt the wisdom of traditional racial and sexual categorizing, perhaps not unexpected from a generation rich with opportunities like having Internet pen pals in Asia whom they can interact with any time of the day or night.
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45) Kidder offers three principles for resolving ethical dilemmas: endsbased thinking, rule-based thinking, and care-based thinking. Ends-based thinking is often characterized as "do what's best for the greatest number of people." It is also known as utilitarianism in philosophy, and it is premised on the idea that right and wrong are best determined by considering the consequences or results of an action. Rule-based thinking is consistent with Kantian philosophy and can be colloquially characterized as "following the highest principle or duty." This is determined not by any projection of what the results of an act may be but rather by determining the kinds of standards everyone should uphold all the time, whatever the situation. Care-based thinking describes what many think of as the Golden Rule of conduct common in some form to many of the world's religions: "Do what you want others to do to you." In essence, this approach applies the criterion of reversibility in determining the rightness of actions. Kidder does not suggest that any one of these principles is always best. Rather, he proposes that it would be a wise practice when considering the rightness of an action to invoke them all and reach a decision only after applying each to the specific circumstances one is facing and weighing the collective analyses. In other words, one principle may provide wise guidance in one situation whereas a different one may seem most helpful in a different one. There can be such critical yet subtle differences across situations that all three principles should be applied tentatively before any final course of action is chosen.
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46) Bandura has pointed out several ways people with firm moral principles nonetheless may behave badly without feeling guilt or remorse over their behavior. Moral justification involves reinterpreting otherwise immoral behavior in terms of a higher purpose. Euphemistic labeling involves using cosmetic words to defuse or disguise the offensiveness of otherwise morally repugnant or distasteful behavior. Advantageous comparison lets one avoid self-contempt for one's behavior by comparing it to even more heinous behavior by others. Through displacement of responsibility people may violate personal moral standards by attributing responsibility to others. With diffusion of responsibility, reprehensible behavior becomes easier to engage in and live with if others are behaving the same way. Through disregard or distortion of consequences, people minimize the harm caused by their behavior. Dehumanization is still another way of avoiding the moral consequences of one's behavior. Finally, people sometimes try to justify immoral behavior by claiming it was caused by someone else's actions. This is known as attribution of blame.
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47) Authentic leadership is grounded in the principle found in the familiar adage "to thine own self be true." Its roots are also in various expressions of the humanistic movement in psychology including Maslow's theory of self-actualization and Carl Rogers's concept of the fully functioning person. Central to both Maslow's and Rogers's theories is the idea that individuals can develop modes of understanding and interacting with their social environments so as to become more truly independent of others' expectations of them and guided more by the dictates of universal truths and imperatives. Such individuals manifest congruence between how they feel on the inside and how they act, between what they say and what they do. They have realistic self-perceptions, free from the blind spots and misperceptions of self that are common to most people. At the same time, they are accepting of themselves, their nature and that of others too. Authentic leaders have strong ethical convictions that guide their behavior not so much to avoid doing "wrong" things as to always try to do the "right" things, including treating others with respect and dignity. They know where they stand on fundamental values and key issues. Authentic leaders behave the way they do because of personal conviction rather than to attain status, rewards, or other advantages. The study of authentic leadership has gained considerable momentum recently because of beliefs that: (a) enhancing self-awareness can help people in organizations find more meaning and connection at work; (b) promoting transparency and openness in relationships—even between leader and followers—builds trust and commitment; and (c) fostering more inclusive structures and practices in organizations can help build more positive ethical climates.
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49) Several "fronts" of leadership action are needed to establish an ethical organizational climate: • Formal ethics policies and procedures. It's sometimes said that "you can't legislate morality," and the same may be said about legislating an ethical climate. Nonetheless, certain formal policies and procedures are probably necessary if not sufficient conditions for creating an ethical climate. These include formal statements of ethical standards and policies, along with reporting mechanisms, disciplinary procedures, and penalties for suspected ethical violations. • Core ideology. A core ideology is basically an organization's heart and soul. It represents the organization's purpose, guiding principles, basic identity, and most important values. Starbucks is a good example. Starbucks's guiding principles include: (1) respect and dignity for partners (employees); (2) embracing diversity; (3) applying the highest standards of excellence to the business; (4) developing "enthusiastically satisfied customers;" (5) contributing positively to local communities and to the environment more generally; and (6) maintaining profitability. • Integrity. The core ideology cannot be a mere set of boardroom plaques or other exhortations to behave well. The core ideology must be part of the fabric of every level and unit in the organization. Just as personal integrity describes an individual whose outward behavior and inward values are congruent and transparent, organizational integrity describes an organization whose pronouncements are congruent with its public and private actions at every level and in every office. • Structural Reinforcement. An organization's structure and systems can be designed to encourage higher ethical performance and discourage unethical performance. Performance evaluation systems that provide opportunities for anonymous feedback increase the likelihood that "dark side" behaviors would be reported, and thus discourage their enactment. Reward systems can promote honesty, fair treatment of customers, Version 1
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courtesy, and other desirable behaviors. • Process Focus. There also needs to be explicit concern with process, not just the achievement of tangible individual, team, and organizational goals. How those goals are achieved need to be a focus of attention and emphasis too. When senior leaders set exceptionally high goals and show that they expect goals to be achieved no matter what it takes, employees may be tempted to engage in unethical behavior. And when leaders turn a blind eye even to seemingly small organizational transgressions, it can lead one down a slippery slope of moral disengagement that enables larger transgressions later on. 50) Being in a formal leadership role imposes unique ethical responsibilities and challenges. Leaders more than followers (1) possess unique degrees of both legitimate and coercive power; (2) enjoy greater privileges; (3) have access to more information; (4) have greater authority and responsibility; (5) interact with a broader range of stakeholders who expect equitable treatment; and (6) must balance sometimes competing loyalties when making decisions.
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Strong situations that are governed by clearly specified rules, demands, and organizational policies maximize the effects that traits have on behavior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) The strength of the relationship between personality traits and leadership effectiveness is often inversely related to the relative strength of the situation. ⊚ ⊚
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3) Research has shown that openness to experience is an important component of leadership effectiveness and seems particularly important at higher organizational levels or for success in overseas assignments. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Leaders who score low in conscientiousness tend to be more spontaneous, creative, and impulsive. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
Leaders tend to have higher extraversion scores than nonleaders. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Behavioral manifestations of personality traits are often exhibited with conscious thought rather than automatically. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) In the context of the building blocks of skills, knowledge and experience are easier components to change than intelligence and personality traits. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
An advantage of the OCEAN model is that it is a useful method for profiling leaders. ⊚ ⊚
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9) According to Robert Hogan, the term personality has two meanings, one involves a person's public reputation and the other involves a person's identity. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) The Forer effect occurs when people give high accuracy ratings to descriptive statements that are personally flattering but so vague that they could apply to virtually anyone. ⊚ ⊚
11)
true false
It is seen that leaders are good at double-loop learning but not single-loop learning. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) Analytic intelligence is general problem-solving ability and can be assessed using standardized mental abilities tests. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) Analytic intelligence is much more concerned with knowledge and experience than is practical intelligence. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) Smart but inexperienced leaders tend to be more effective in stressful situations than less intelligent, experienced leaders. ⊚ ⊚
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15) With respect to creative intelligence, perhaps the most important point leaders should remember is that their primary role is not so much to be creative themselves as to build an environment where others can be creative. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) Tests of divergent thinking usually have a single best answer, whereas tests of convergent thinking have many possible answers. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) Stress is often defined as the result of conflicts with superiors or the apprehension associated with performance evaluation. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) Most emotional intelligence (EQ) researchers agree that emotional intelligence cannot be developed. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) Leaders who can empathize and get along with others are often more successful than those who cannot. ⊚ ⊚
true false
20) Ability-based EQ training programs make extensive use of videos and role plays to help participants better recognize, exhibit, and regulate emotion.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) "I remain calm in pressure situations." This statement most likely corresponds to which of the following OCEAN personality dimensions?
A) openness to experience B) neuroticism C) extraversion D) conscientiousness
22) In the OCEAN model, the personality dimension that is concerned with curiosity, innovative thinking, and assimilating new information is known as
A) openness to experience. B) extraversion. C) conscientiousness. D) neuroticism.
23) According to the Five Factor Model (FFM) or OCEAN model of personality, leaders who score high in openness to experience tend to
A) be tactical and practical. B) be big-picture thinkers. C) avoid taking a strategic approach to solving problems. D) prefer doing things using tried-and-true ways.
24) Unlike leaders who score low in conscientiousness, those who score high in conscientiousness
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A) rarely get into trouble. B) tend to be more creative. C) are highly spontaneous. D) rarely prefer structure.
25) According to the Five Factor Model (FFM) or OCEAN model of personality, which of the following dimensions primarily involves behaviors that are highly likely to be exhibited in group settings and are generally concerned with getting ahead in life?
A) agreeableness B) conscientiousness C) extraversion D) neuroticism
26) Unlike individuals who score low in extraversion, individuals who score high in this dimension
A) generally prefer to work by themselves. B) have relatively little interest in influencing or competing with others. C) tend to take others' inputs into consideration when making decisions. D) come across to others as decisive and opinionated.
27) According to the OCEAN model, individuals who appear as insensitive, socially clueless, pessimistic, cold, and grumpy are most likely to score low in
A) leadership competence. B) agreeableness. C) neuroticism. D) charisma.
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28) According to the Five Factor Model (FFM) or OCEAN model of personality, which of the following statements is most likely true about agreeableness?
A) It essentially concerns one's need for approval. B) It involves behaviors that are generally concerned with getting ahead in life. C) It primarily concerns those behaviors related to people's approach to work. D) It is primarily concerned with curiosity and innovative thinking.
29) According to the Five Factor Model (FFM) or OCEAN model of personality, the dimension of neuroticism is most likely
A) concerned with curiosity, innovative thinking, and assimilating new information. B) concerned with those behaviors related to people's approach to work. C) concerned with how one gets along with, as opposed to gets ahead of, others. D) concerned with how people react to stress, change, failure, or personal criticism.
30)
Leaders who score low in neuroticism tend to
A) take mistakes personally. B) lose their temper when stressed. C) hide their emotions. D) be moody.
31) The _____ states that if one simply works hard and achieves superior results, then good things will happen.
A) constructionist approach B) dual-process theory C) just world hypothesis D) heroic theory
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32) One of the earliest leadership theories, the _____, stated that leaders and followers are fundamentally different from each other.
A) trait approach B) Great Man theory C) five-factor model D) neuroleadership approach
33)
Individuals who score low on openness to experience tend to be _____.
A) strategic B) curious C) imaginative D) tactical
34) Emmanuel feels more comfortable when working alone. He is not very competitive at work and does not like to influence his team. According to the five-factor model of personality, Emmanuel is low on _____.
A) conscientiousness B) agreeableness C) neuroticism D) extraversion
35) Which of the following theories explains the interesting relationships between leader intelligence and experience levels, and group performance in stressful versus nonstressful conditions?
A) the strategic contingencies theory B) the hierarchical trait theory C) the leader–member exchange theory D) the cognitive resources theory
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36) In the context of Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence, leaders and followers who possess high levels of analytic intelligence
A) fail to see connections between issues. B) tend to be quick learners and do well in school. C) are unable to make accurate assumptions with relatively unfamiliar information. D) are primarily concerned with knowledge and experience.
37) Raymond scores high on practical intelligence and has extensive knowledge and experience in leading a pharmaceutical research team. He is likely to feel uncomfortable and unprepared when asked to organize a major fund-raising activity for a charitable institution. This example illustrates that practical intelligence is most likely
A) concerned with knowledge and experience. B) the ability to produce work that is novel. C) the ability to learn new information. D) domain specific.
38)
According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence, creative intelligence is
A) general problem-solving ability. B) the ability to make accurate inferences with relatively unfamiliar information. C) assessed using standardized mental abilities tests. D) the ability to produce work that is both novel and useful.
39) According to Goleman's conceptualization of emotional intelligence (EQ), the "change catalyst" attribute most likely corresponds to the _____ dimension of the OCEAN model.
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A) extraversion B) agreeableness C) openness to experience D) neuroticism
40) Which of the following terms is most likely defined as the ability to intentionally pay attention to the present moment while letting go of judgment?
A) conscientiousness B) mindfulness C) assertiveness D) mobilization
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Explain the two meanings of personality.
42) Write a description of the five-factor model (FFM) or OCEAN model of personality. Explain each of the five personality dimensions.
43) In the context of the OCEAN model, what is meant by conscientiousness? What leader behaviors are associated with conscientiousness? What types of jobs or tasks are best for those who have high levels of conscientiousness?
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44) What is the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)? What are its four basic dimension preferences?
45)
What is intelligence? What is the relationship between intelligence and leadership?
46) Provide a brief description of the components of Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence. How does each component relate to leadership?
47) What are the two major predictions made by the cognitive resources theory with respect to intelligence, experience, stress, and group performance?
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48) How was emotional intelligence defined by Salovey and Mayer? What does an ability model focus on?
49)
What are the implications of emotional intelligence (EQ)?
50)
Explain ability-based EQ training programs.
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) B 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) D Version 1
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27) B 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) D 35) D 36) B 37) D 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) Robert Hogan noted that the term personality is fairly ambiguous and has at least two quite different meanings. One meaning refers to the impression a person makes on others. This view of personality emphasizes a person's public reputation and reflects not only a description but also an evaluation of the person in the eyes of others. The second meaning of personality is concerned with identity. Whereas public reputation can be defined as how others perceive a particular individual, identity is concerned with how people see or define themselves.
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42) At its core, the FFM or OCEAN model of personality is a categorization scheme. Most, if not all, of the personality traits that you would use to describe someone else could be reliably categorized into one of the five OCEAN personality dimensions. The five major dimensions include openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. Openness to experience is concerned with curiosity, innovative thinking, assimilating new information, and being open to new experiences. Conscientiousness concerns those behaviors related to people's approach to work. Extraversion involves behaviors that are more likely to be exhibited in group settings and are generally concerned with getting ahead in life. Agreeableness concerns how one gets along with, as opposed to gets ahead of, others. Neuroticism is concerned with how people react to stress, change, failure, or personal criticism. 43) Conscientiousness concerns those behaviors related to people's approach to work. Leaders who score high in conscientiousness tend to be planful, organized, and earnest, take commitments seriously, and rarely get into trouble. Those who score low in conscientiousness tend to be more spontaneous, creative, impulsive, rule bending, and less concerned with following through with commitments. Research shows that individuals with high conscientiousness scores are more likely to be effective leaders than those with low scores. Conscientiousness seems to be a particularly good predictor of leadership success in jobs that put a premium on following procedures, managing budgets, coordinating work schedules, monitoring projects, and paying attention to details. People having higher scores on conscientiousness would probably do well in the production foreman, store manager, and platoon leader jobs. Version 1
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44) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is the most popular measure of preferences and one of the most popular psychological tests. According to Myers and Myers, there are four basic preference dimensions in which people can differ. These four dimensions include extraversion–introversion, sensing–intuition, thinking–feeling, and judging–perceiving. These four dimensions are bipolar, meaning that individuals generally prefer being either, say, extraverted or introverted. 45) Intelligence is defined as a person's all-around effectiveness in activities directed by thought. Research has shown that more intelligent leaders are faster learners; make better assumptions, deductions, and inferences; are better at creating a compelling vision and developing strategies to make their vision a reality; can develop better solutions to problems; can see more of the primary and secondary implications of their decisions; and are quicker on their feet than leaders who are less intelligent. To a large extent people get placed into leadership positions to solve problems, whether they are customer, financial, operational, interpersonal, performance, political, educational, or social in nature. Therefore, given the behaviors associated with higher intelligence, it is easy to see how a more intelligent leader will often be more successful than a less intelligent leader in influencing a group to accomplish its goals. Like personality traits, however, intelligence alone is not enough to guarantee leadership success. Plenty of smart people make poor leaders, and plenty of dumb people make poor leaders too. Nevertheless, many leadership activities seem to involve some degree of decisionmaking and problem-solving ability, which means a leader's intelligence can affect the odds of leadership effectiveness in many situations.
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46) One of the most comprehensive and compelling theories of intelligence developed and tested over the past 30 years is Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence. It also offers some of the most significant implications for leadership. The triarchic theory focuses on what a leader does when solving complex mental problems, such as how information is combined and synthesized when solving problems, what assumptions and errors are made, and the like. According to this theory, there are three basic types of intelligence. Analytic intelligence is general problem-solving ability and can be assessed using standardized mental abilities tests. Analytic intelligence is important because leaders and followers who possess higher levels of this type of intelligence tend to be quick learners, do well in school, see connections between issues, and have the ability to make accurate deductions, assumptions, and inferences with relatively unfamiliar information. Practical intelligence is also known as "street smarts." People with street smarts know how to adapt to, shape, or select new situations to get their needs met better than people lacking street smarts. In other words, practical intelligence involves knowing how things get done and how to do them. For leaders, practical intelligence is important because it involves knowing what to do and how to do it when confronted with a particular leadership situation, such as dealing with a poorly performing subordinate, resolving a problem with a customer, or getting a team to work better together. Creative intelligence is the ability to produce work that is both novel and useful. Using both criteria (novel and useful) as components of creative intelligence helps to eliminate outlandish solutions to a potential problem by ensuring that adopted solutions can be realistically implemented or have some type of practical payoff.
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47) Fiedler and Garcia developed the cognitive resources theory (CRT) to explain the interesting relationships between leader intelligence and experience levels, and group performance in stressful versus nonstressful conditions. CRT makes two major predictions with respect to intelligence, experience, stress, and group performance. First, because experienced leaders have a greater repertoire of behaviors to fall back on, leaders with greater experience but lower intelligence are hypothesized to have higher-performing groups under conditions of high stress. Experienced leaders have "been there before" and know better what to do and how to get it done when faced with high-stress situations. Leaders' experience levels can interfere with performance under low-stress conditions, however. That leads to a second hypothesis. Because experience leads to habitual behavior patterns, leaders with high levels of experience tend to misapply old solutions to problems when creative solutions are called for. Experienced leaders rely too much on the tried and true when facing new problems, even under relatively low stress. Thus, leaders with high levels of intelligence but less experience are not constrained by previously acquired behavior patterns and should have high performing groups under low-stress conditions. In other words, experience is helpful when one is under stress but can hinder performance in the absence of stress.
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48) The term emotional intelligence can be attributed to two psychologists, Peter Salovey and John Mayer, who studied why some bright people fail to be successful. Salovey and Mayer discovered that many of them run into trouble because of their lack of interpersonal sensitivity and skills, and defined emotional intelligence as a group of mental abilities that help people to recognize their own feelings and those of others. According to Caruso, Mayer, and Salovey, some leaders might be good at perceiving emotions and leveraging them to get results through others but have difficulties regulating their own emotions. Or they could be good at understanding the causes of emotions but not as good at perceiving others' emotions. An ability model focuses on how emotions affect how leaders think, decide, plan, and act. This model defines emotional intelligence as four separate but related abilities, which include (1) the ability to accurately perceive one's own and others' emotions; (2) the ability to generate emotions to facilitate thought and action; (3) the ability to accurately understand the causes of emotions and the meanings they convey; and (4) the ability to regulate one's emotions. The ability model is not intended to be an all-encompassing model of leadership, but rather supplements the OCEAN and triarchic models of intelligence.
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49) Aberman maintained that people can be extremely ineffective when their thoughts, feelings, and actions are misaligned. It seems likely that leaders who are thinking or feeling one thing and actually doing something else are probably less effective in their ability to influence groups toward the accomplishment of their goals. The EQ literature should be credited with popularizing the idea that noncognitive abilities, such as stress tolerance, assertiveness, and empathy, can play important roles in leadership success. Today many organizations are using both cognitive and noncognitive measures as part of the process of hiring or promoting leaders. Finally, the EQ literature has also helped to bring emotion back to the workplace. Human emotions are important aspects of one-on-one interactions and teamwork, but too many leadership practitioners and researchers have chosen to ignore the role they play. When recognized and leveraged properly, emotions can be the motivational fuel that helps individuals and groups to accomplish their goals. When ignored or discounted, emotions can significantly impede a leader's ability to build teams or influence a group. 50) An ability-based EQ training program would focus on improving participants' ability to accurately perceive one's own and others' emotions, generate emotions to facilitate thought and action, accurately understand the causes of emotions and the meanings they convey, and regulate one's emotions. These programs make extensive use of videos, role plays, and other experiential exercises in order to help people better recognize, exhibit, and regulate emotion. Because the mixed model of EQ encompasses such a wide array of attributes, virtually any leadership development program could be considered an EQ training program.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Leadership behaviors are a function of intelligence, personality traits, emotional intelligence, values, attitudes, interests, knowledge, and experience. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) Executive presence is, in general, concerned with a person's ability to radiate confidence, poise, and authority. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) Leader support is a job-centered dimension of behavior and is similar to the initiating structure dimension of the various Ohio State questionnaires. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) The Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire (LBDQ)-XII assesses behaviors such as being able to tolerate uncertainty and acting as a representative for a group. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) Researchers at the University of Michigan considered job-centered and employeecentered behaviors to be at opposite ends of a single continuum of leadership behavior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) According to the Leadership Grid, authoritarian leaders are most likely to have a positive impact on their subordinates' job performance, organizational commitment, and intentions to stay.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
7) A leadership skill consists of three components: a well-defined body of knowledge, a set of related behaviors, and clear criteria of competent performance. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) The leadership behavior dimensions studied by the researchers at the University of Michigan were initiating structure and consideration. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) In the context of the leadership grid, the context and style of leaders' behavior are important factors that affect the leadership dimensions of concern for people and concern for production. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Intrapersonal skills are leadership competencies and behaviors having to do with adapting to stress, goal orientation, and adhering to rules. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) According to Boris Groysberg's, produce skills refer to skills that involve setting goals, establishing metrics, creating processes, executing plans, and holding people accountable. ⊚ ⊚
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12) The Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire (LBDQ) was developed by researchers at the University of Michigan to study the four dimensions of leadership behaviors identified by them. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) The Leadership Pipeline provides a useful framework for thinking about how leadership competencies change as people are promoted through organizations. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) According to the Leadership Pipeline, people who skip organizational levels often turn out to be effective leaders. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) Organizations usually offer on-boarding programs to help internal candidates move into top managerial roles, which help them figure out how to operate at this leadership level. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) The three components of community leadership include mobilization, framing, and building social capital. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) One of the advantages of 360-degree feedback systems is that they can be used for both performance appraisal and leadership development purposes. ⊚ ⊚
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18) Walker and Smither reported that managers who shared their 360-degree feedback results with their followers and worked on an action plan to improve their ratings had a dramatic improvement in others' ratings over a five-year period. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) According to a comprehensive study by Mount, Sytsma, Hazucha, and Holt, white peers and subordinates generally gave about the same level of ratings for both Black and white peers and bosses. ⊚ ⊚
true false
20) Research on 360-degree feedback shows that those individuals who work for superiors receiving above-average ratings from others were more likely to receive above-average ratings themselves. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) Which of the following terms refers to how friendly and supportive a leader is toward subordinates?
A) goal emphasis B) consideration C) initiating structure D) work facilitation
22) Which of the following terms refers to how much a leader emphasizes meeting work goals and accomplishing tasks?
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A) consideration B) initiating structure C) interaction facilitation D) mobilization
23) The _____ asked leaders to indicate the extent to which they believed different consideration and initiating behaviors were important to leadership success.
A) Leadership Opinion Questionnaire (LOQ) B) Supervisory Behavior Description Questionnaire (SBDQ) C) Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire (MLQ) D) Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire (LBDQ)
24) Which of the following leadership questionnaires measured the extent to which leaders in industrial settings exhibited consideration and initiating structure behaviors?
A) the Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire (LBDQ) B) the Leadership Opinion Questionnaire (LOQ) C) the LBDQ (Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire)-XII D) the Supervisory Behavior Description Questionnaire (SBDQ)
25)
Goal emphasis and work facilitation are _____ dimensions of leadership behavior.
A) job-centered B) interpersonal C) employee-centered D) intrapersonal
26) Behaviors that are concerned with motivating subordinates to accomplish the task at hand are called _____ behaviors.
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A) interaction facilitation B) work facilitation C) goal emphasis D) leader support
27)
Work facilitation behaviors are concerned with
A) acquiring and allocating resources. B) motivating subordinates to work hard. C) showing concern for subordinates. D) minimizing conflicts among followers.
28) Researchers at the University of Michigan concluded that there are four categories of leadership behaviors related to effective group performance. Identify a true statement about one of the four categories, interaction facilitation.
A) It is a job-centered dimension of behavior. B) It is similar to initiating structure, an Ohio State dimension. C) It includes those behaviors where leaders act to smooth over and minimize conflicts among followers. D) It includes those behaviors that are primarily concerned with motivating subordinates to accomplish the task at hand.
29)
The Leadership Grid profiles leader behavior on two dimensions, which are
A) communication skills and cognitive skills. B) concern for people and concern for production. C) leader support and interaction facilitation. D) the introversion–extroversion dimension and the thinking–perceiving dimension.
30)
According to the Leadership Grid, 9,9 leaders
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A) tend to have low concern for people. B) tend to have low concern for production. C) are the most effective leaders. D) are most likely to be authoritarian leaders.
31) Identify a true statement about leadership skills according to Hogan and Warrenfelz's four major categories of skills and behaviors found in virtually every organizational competency model.
A) They are skills and behaviors concerned with building teams and getting results through others. B) They are difficult to develop when compared to the skills and behaviors associated with interpersonal skills. C) They are the primary focus of MBA programs and are among the easiest to learn of the four categories. D) They are skills and behaviors that involve direct interaction, such as communicating and building relationships with others.
32) According to Hogan and Warrenfelz, competencies concerned with analyzing issues, making decisions, and strategic thinking fall into the _____ category.
A) intrapersonal skills B) leadership skills C) interpersonal skills D) business skills
33)
Which of the following concepts was most likely promoted by Boris Groysberg?
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A) The difference between consideration and initiating structure. B) The profiling of leader behavior on two dimensions, concern for people and concern for production. C) The categorization of the skills and behaviors found in competency models into four categories. D) The difference between portable and nonportable skills.
34)
Community leaders are most likely to
A) have significant position power. B) go through formal selection processes. C) have fewer resources than most other leaders. D) use coercive power to discipline followers.
35) The leadership competency of helping a group or community recognize and define its opportunities and issues in ways that result in effective action is known as
A) framing. B) building social capital. C) mobilizing followers. D) facilitating interaction.
36)
Building social capital
A) involves helping a community decide what needs to be done. B) is the leadership competency of developing and maintaining relationships that allow people to work together. C) involves motivating followers to accomplish their short-term and long-term goals. D) is the leadership competency of helping a group determine how something needs to be accomplished.
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37)
Mobilization is best described as
A) allowing individuals to make personal choices about what they would want to achieve. B) maintaining relationships that allow people to work together despite their differences. C) helping a group define its opportunities and issues in ways that result in effective action. D) engaging a critical mass to take action to achieve a specific outcome or set of outcomes.
38) In the _____, 10–15 superiors, peers, and direct reports are asked to share a target individual's strengths and areas of improvement as a leader in phone or face-to-face interviews.
A) leadership virtues questionnaire B) competency-based 360-degree questionnaires C) verbal 360-degree technique D) leadership versatility approach
39) In _____, superiors, peers, and direct reports provide ratings on the extent to which target individuals demonstrate too much, just the right amount, or too little strategic, operations, enabling, or forcing leadership behavior for a particular position.
A) the leadership virtues questionnaire B) a leadership versatility approach C) competency-based 360-degree questionnaires D) the verbal 360-degree technique
40)
Which of the following statements about 360-degree feedback is most likely true?
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A) Most firms use 360-degree feedback as a development tool rather than for performance appraisal purposes. B) Few global firms use 360-degree feedback because of its mixed development results. C) 360-degree feedback should be built around a competency model. D) Research shows that 360-degree feedback ratings change significantly over time.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) In the context of the Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire (LBDQ), explain the two independent dimensions of behavior called consideration and initiating structure that are used to describe leaders when analyzing questionnaires.
42) Compare and contrast the leader behavior research conducted by the Ohio State University and the University of Michigan.
43) Describe the Leadership Grid and explain why it can be considered an extension of the Ohio State and University of Michigan studies.
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44) How do leadership behaviors and leadership skills differ? Provide examples to illustrate your response.
45) What are competency models? How do organizations benefit from developing these models?
46)
Compare and contrast intrapersonal skills with interpersonal skills.
47) What is community leadership? How does community leadership differ from leadership in other organizations, such as private firms or the military?
48)
What is framing in terms of community leadership? Why is framing important?
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49) What role does societal or organizational culture play in the accuracy and utility of the 360-degree feedback process? Provide examples to illustrate your response.
50)
What are the important gender issues related to 360-degree feedback?
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) B 22) B 23) A 24) D 25) A 26) C Version 1
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27) A 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) D 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) Consideration refers to how friendly and supportive a leader is toward subordinates. Leaders high in consideration engage in many different behaviors that show supportiveness and concern, such as speaking up for subordinates' interests, caring about their personal situations, and showing appreciation for their work. Initiating structure refers to how much a leader emphasizes meeting work goals and accomplishing tasks. Leaders high in initiating structure engage in many different task-related behaviors, such as assigning deadlines, establishing performance standards, and monitoring performance levels.
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42) Much of the initial leader behavior research was conducted at Ohio State University and the University of Michigan. Collectively, the Ohio State University studies developed a series of questionnaires to measure different leader behaviors in work settings. Like the researchers at Ohio State, those at the University of Michigan also developed a questionnaire, to assess the degree to which leaders exhibit these four dimensions of leadership behaviors. Although the behaviors composing the task-oriented and peopleoriented leadership dimensions were similar across the two research programs, there was a fundamental difference in assumptions underlying the work at the two institutions. Researchers at the University of Michigan considered job-centered and employee-centered behaviors to be at opposite ends of a single continuum of leadership behavior. Leaders could theoretically manifest either strong employee- or jobcentered behaviors, but not both. By contrast, researchers at Ohio State believed that consideration and initiating structure were independent continua. Thus leaders could be high in both initiating structure and consideration, low in both dimensions, or high in one and low in the other. The key assumption underlying both research programs was that certain behaviors could be identified that are universally associated with a leader's ability to successfully influence a group toward the accomplishment of its goals. The kinds of questions in which researchers were interested were: • From the University of Michigan perspective, who tends to be more effective in helping a group to accomplish its goals—job- or employeecentered leaders? • From the Ohio State perspective, are leaders who exhibit high levels of both task- and people-oriented behaviors more effective than those who exhibit only task or people behaviors? Version 1
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• What role do situational factors play in leadership effectiveness? Are employee-centered leadership behaviors more important in nonprofit organizations or downsizing situations, whereas job-centered behaviors are more important in manufacturing organizations or start-up situations? 43) One popular conceptualization of leadership is really an extension of the findings reported by the University of Michigan and Ohio State leadership researchers. The Leadership Grid profiles leader behavior on two dimensions: concern for people and concern for production. The word concern reflects how a leader's underlying assumptions about people at work and the importance of the bottom line affect leadership style. In that sense, then, the Leadership Grid deals with more than just behavior. Leaders can get scores ranging from 1 to 9 on both concern for people and concern for production, depending on their responses to a leadership questionnaire. These two scores are then plotted on the Leadership Grid, and the two score combinations represent different leadership orientations. Each orientation reflects a unique set of assumptions for using power and authority to link people to production. Amid the different leadership styles, the most effective leaders are claimed to have both high concern for people and high concern for production, and Leadership Grid training programs are designed to move leaders to a 9,9 leadership style.
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44) Leadership behaviors differ somewhat from leadership skills. A leadership behavior concerns a specific action, such as "setting specific performance goals for team members." A leadership skill consists of three components, which include a well-defined body of knowledge, a set of related behaviors, and clear criteria of competent performance. Leadership skills may be better understood by using a basketball analogy. People differ considerably in their basketball skills; good basketball players know when to pass and when to shoot and are adept at making layups, shots from the field, and free throws. Knowing when to pass and when to shoot is an example of the knowledge component, and layups and free throws are examples of the behavioral component of skills. In addition, shooting percentages can be used as one criterion for evaluating basketball skills. Leadership skills, such as delegating, can be seen much the same way. Good leaders know when and to whom a particular task should be delegated (knowledge); they effectively communicate their expectations concerning a delegated task (behavior); and they check to see whether the task was accomplished in a satisfactory manner (criteria). Thus, a leadership skill is knowing when to act, acting in a manner appropriate to the situation, and acting in such a way that it helps the leader accomplish team goals.
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45) Competency models describe the behaviors and skills managers need to exhibit if an organization is to be successful. Just as leaders in different countries may need to exhibit behaviors uniquely appropriate to each setting to be successful, different businesses and industries within any country often emphasize different leadership behaviors. Therefore, it is not unusual to see different organizations having distinct competency models depending on the nature and size of each business, its business model, its level of globalization, and the role of technology or teams in the business. Many of the best organizations now have competency models for different levels of management. These models help to clarify expectations of performance for people in different leadership positions and describe the skills necessary for promotion. They also help human resource professionals design selection, development, performance management, and succession planning programs so that organizations have a steady supply of leadership talent. 46) Intrapersonal skills are leadership competencies and behaviors having to do with adapting to stress, goal orientation, and adhering to rules. These skills and behaviors do not involve interacting with others, and they are among the most difficult to change. Interpersonal skills are those that involve direct interaction, such as communicating and building relationships with others. These skills are somewhat easier to develop.
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47) Community leadership is the process of building a team of volunteers to accomplish some important community outcome and represents an alternative conceptualization of leadership behavior. Examples of community leadership might include forming a group to raise funds for a new library, gathering volunteers for a blood or food drive, or organizing a campaign to change immigration or health care laws. Thus community leadership takes place whenever a group of volunteers gets together to make something happen (or not happen) in their community. But leading a group of volunteers is very different from being a leader in a publicly traded company, the military, or a nongovernment organization. For one thing, community leaders do not have any position power; they cannot discipline followers who do not adhere to organizational norms, get tasks accomplished, or show up to meetings. They also tend to have fewer resources and rewards than most other leaders. And because there is no formal selection or promotion process, anyone can be a community leader. 48) Framing is the leadership competency of helping a community recognize and define its opportunities and issues in ways that result in effective action. Framing helps the community decide what needs to be done, why it is important that it be done, and how it is to be done, and communicate that in clear and compelling ways. Any community could take on myriad potential projects, but many of these projects never get off the ground because the person "in charge" never framed the project in such a way that others could understand the outcome, how they would benefit by the outcome, and what they must do to achieve the outcome.
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49) Research has explored whether there are important cultural, racial, or gender issues with 360-degree feedback. In terms of cultural issues, some countries, such as Japan, do not believe peers or followers should give leaders feedback. Other countries, such as Saudi Arabia, tend more to avoid conflict and provide only positive feedback to leaders. The latter phenomenon also appears in the United States, where researchers working in small organizations or in rural communities often report similar findings. People seem more hesitant to give leaders constructive feedback if they have to deal with the consequences of this feedback both at and away from work. These findings further support the notion that 360-degree feedback is not a management panacea; societal or organizational culture plays a key role in the accuracy and utility of the 360-degree feedback process. 50) Research has explored whether there are important cultural, racial, or gender issues with 360-degree feedback. With respect to gender issues, research indicates that there are some slight gender differences. Female managers tend to get higher ratings on the majority of skills, yet their male counterparts are generally perceived as having higher advancement potential. There does not appear to be any same-sex bias in 360-degree feedback ratings, and female managers tend to be lower selfraters than male managers. Male managers tend to have less accurate self-insight and more blind spots when compared to their female counterparts. In summary, male and female 360-degree feedback ratings are similar, and any differences are of little practical significance.
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Employees working for leaders they think are credible are highly likely to work long hours.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
2) Credibility is made up of three components, which are expertise, commitment, and relationships. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) Leadership credos are personal and are closely linked with a leader's values—a credo should describe what the leader believes in and will or will not stand for. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Leaders in the second quadrant of the credibility matrix are most likely people who have joined the company from an entirely different industry. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) In the context of credibility, a leader should build trust by clarifying and communicating his or her values to the followers. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) The last stage in the systems view of communication is the interpretation of the message by the receiver. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Informal, personal communication is enhanced when leaders communicate across their desks to followers.
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⊚ ⊚
8)
A particularly destructive form of incongruent verbal and nonverbal signals is sarcasm. ⊚ ⊚
9)
true false
true false
The best listeners are passive listeners because they do not interrupt the speaker. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) While listening, a valuable way to actively interpret what the sender is saying is to paraphrase the sender's message. ⊚ ⊚
11)
The Abilene paradox occurs when leaders are assertive with friends and peers. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
Meetings should only be called if the potential benefits outweigh the costs. ⊚ ⊚
13)
true false
true false
Stress has only negative implications on an individual's health and work. ⊚ ⊚
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14) The A-B-C model is one of the simplest approaches with the goal of changing a person's thoughts, or self-talk, about stressful events. ⊚ ⊚
15)
true false
The first stage of problem solving is to analyze the causes of a problem. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) A force field analysis is an idea-generating activity conducted in a group setting to enhance the creative potential of any group trying to solve a problem. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) In a procedure called nominal group technique (NGT), group members write down their ideas on individual slips of paper, which are later transferred to a whiteboard or flipchart for the entire group to work with. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) Leaders are likely to encourage creativity in their organizations by delegating authority and empowering followers to take risks. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) A technique for increasing diversity and creativity in problem-solving groups involves the use of the four preference dimensions of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI). ⊚ ⊚
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20) According to R. T. Hogan and J. Morrison, leaders should recognize that creativity is revolutionary, not evolutionary. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) Which of the following statements is true about leaders who are in the first quadrant of the credibility matrix?
A) They have had little time to build relationships with co-workers. B) They are new college hires. C) They have a high level of trust and a high level of expertise. D) They are promoted from among peers.
22) Which of the following is a key developmental objective of leaders in the second quadrant of the credibility matrix?
A) developing leadership knowledge and skills B) building expertise and technical competence C) building relationships with co-workers D) sharing personal mission statements
23) The degree to which someone tells others something and ensures that they understand what was said is called
A) active communication. B) expression effectiveness. C) the intention component. D) communication effectiveness.
24)
In a systems view of communication, identify the immediate next step after "expression."
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A) intention B) reception C) interpretation D) feedback
25) In the context of choosing an appropriate context and medium, oral communication is ideal when
A) the personalized aspect needs to be ignored. B) leaders need to share their transitory feelings with subordinates. C) communication needs to be two-way. D) leaders need a record of the communication.
26) Which of the following most likely makes up the evaluative component of listening skills?
A) knowing how well one can paraphrase a sender's message B) knowing what nonverbal signals to send C) correctly interpreting a sender's nonverbal signals D) identifying individuals who are likely to send nonverbal signals
27)
Which of the following statements is most likely true about defensiveness?
A) It discourages subordinates to act like a leader. B) It occurs when someone feels threatened. C) It strengthens a person's ability to constructively use information. D) It helps leaders empathize with how they and their policies are seen by subordinates.
28) The _____ component of assertiveness skills concerns knowing where and when not to behave assertively.
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A) evaluative B) behavioral C) knowledge/judgement D) self-assessment
29) Which of the following terms is best described as avoiding interpersonal conflict entirely either by giving up and giving in or by expressing one's needs in an apologetic, self-effacing way?
A) mindfulness B) agreeableness C) acquiescence D) introversion
30)
_____ is an effort to attain objectives by attacking or hurting others.
A) Acquiescence B) Aggression C) Autonomy D) Assertiveness
31)
Which of the following statements is true about assertive people?
A) They take responsibility for what they say. B) They have self-talk that is doubtful and questioning. C) They are likely to become irritated, angry, and loud when sticking to their guns. D) They avoid interpersonal conflict entirely by expressing their needs in a self-effacing way.
32)
Which of the following is the most important step in conducting a meeting?
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A) listing the objectives for the meeting B) determining if the meeting is necessary C) developing a plan for attaining goals D) making the meeting convenient for all participants
33)
A way to maximize the benefits of a meeting is to
A) pick a time and place as convenient as possible for all participants. B) encourage participation. C) stick to the agenda. D) provide pertinent reports and support materials to all participants.
34) _____ is defined as the process by which we perceive and respond to situations that challenge or threaten us.
A) Performance B) Depression C) Emotion D) Stress
35)
Which of the following would most likely result from too much stress?
A) low employee turnover B) inadequate communication C) reduced job performance D) increased level of passive listening
36)
Which of the following would be best for managing stress?
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A) trying to breathe in a shallow manner B) using progressive muscle relaxation techniques C) consuming regular amounts of alcohol with peers D) avoiding discussions about work with family members
37) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events that take place in stress management according to the A-B-C model?
A) triggering event, feelings and behaviors B) triggering event, your self-talk, feelings and behaviors C) triggering event, feelings and behaviors, your thinking D) triggering event, self-talk, group brainstorming for a solution
38) _____ use a graphic approach to depict systematically the root causes of a problem, the relationships between different causes, and potentially a prioritization of which causes are most important.
A) Cause analysis approaches B) Force field analyses C) Cause-and-effect diagrams D) Root-cause diagrams
39)
Which of the following statements is true about force field analysis?
A) It is also called a "fishbone" diagram because of its shape. B) It is similar to brainstorming in that it is an idea-generating activity conducted in a group setting. C) It is used to depict a stable situation as an equilibrium. D) It is usually referred to as an Ishikawa diagram after the person who developed it.
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40) Which of the following is a good way to generate ideas pertinent to a problem and is similar to brainstorming?
A) a cause-and-effect diagram B) force field analysis C) nominal group technique (NGT) D) the A-B-C model
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) C 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) A Version 1
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27) B 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) A 34) D 35) C 36) B 37) B 38) C 39) C 40) C Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Studies suggest that if firms could get almost 4 percent more work out of each employee, the GDP in the United States would increase by $355 billion. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) Volunteering to help another employee with a task or project is an example of organizational citizenship behavior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) The concept of motivation helps explain differences seen among people in terms of the energy and direction of their behavior.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Performance differs from effectiveness in that performance generally involves making judgments about the adequacy of behavior with respect to certain criteria such as work group or organizational goals. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) Job satisfaction is not how hard one works or how well one works, but rather how much one likes a specific kind of job or work activity. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Employee engagement is the extent to which people enjoy coming to work or are happy with their pay and benefits, and job satisfaction is the extent to which people are absorbed with, committed to, and enthusiastic about their assigned work tasks. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Companies that spend a considerable amount of time and effort attracting, developing, and retaining the best people often report superior financial results. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) Motivation can be defined as anything that provides direction, intensity, and persistence to behavior. ⊚ ⊚
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9) Organizational citizenship behaviors can be defined as those behaviors that are directly related to a person's job but not helpful to others at work. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) According to research, a strong correlation exists between the amount of money an organization spends on motivational programs and motivational speakers and its revenues, profitability, and market share. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) According to McClelland, differences in achievement orientation are a key reason why people differ in the levels of effort they exert to accomplish assignments, objectives, or goals. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) Leaders that use operant principles to motivate workers should limit themselves to administering organizationally sanctioned rewards and punishments. ⊚ ⊚
13)
true false
Worker productivity and job dissatisfaction in the United States are at an all-time high. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) According to Daniel Pink, the three fundamental needs that drive employees who create new products or services or perform complex, non-routine work are autonomy, mastery, and meaning. ⊚ ⊚
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15) According to Daniel Pink, rewards and punishment are unhelpful in motivating employees doing routine, assembly line work but work well when it comes to performing complex tasks or creating new products. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) According to the Pygmalion effect, leaders who have little faith in their followers' ability to accomplish a goal are rarely disappointed. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) In the context of the operant approach, noncontingent rewards or punishments are administered as consequences of a particular behavior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) Motivation, learning, and stress are the three macro psychological components of empowerment. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) In the context of approaches to motivation, an empowered worker will have fewer choices in how and when to accomplish high work demands and as such will suffer from more stress than will an unempowered worker. ⊚ ⊚
true false
20) According to Daniel Pink, mastery involves being involved in something bigger than oneself.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) Performance is best described as
A) the likelihood that behaviors will be repeated without reward. B) judgments about the adequacy or inadequacy of behavior. C) behaviors directed toward an organization's mission. D) how much an individual enjoys a work activity.
22) Which of the following involves making judgments about the adequacy of behavior with respect to certain criteria such as work group or organizational goals?
A) reliability B) responsiveness C) performance D) effectiveness
23) In terms of the underlying causes of performance problems, leaders seem to have the most difficulty in recognizing and rectifying
A) motivation problems. B) unclear expectations. C) employee skill deficits. D) resource shortages.
24)
One limitation of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is that it fails to
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A) consider an individual's higher-order needs. B) place enough emphasis on an individual's lower-order needs. C) address the general nature of the various types of basic human needs. D) make specific predictions on what an individual will do to satisfy a particular need.
25) An individual's tendency to exert effort toward task accomplishment depends partly on the strength of his or her motivation to achieve success. This concept is called
A) problem solving. B) customer orientation. C) relationship building. D) achievement orientation.
26) Which of the following is the most powerful determinant of task behavior according to Locke and Latham?
A) values B) goals C) abilities D) needs
27) Which of the following would most likely result in consistently higher effort and performance?
A) assigning goals that are both specific and difficult B) having goals that are very difficult to achieve C) assigning "do your best" goals D) having multiple goals
28)
Which of the following statements about goals is most likely false?
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A) Determining just how challenging to make goals creates a dilemma for many leaders. B) Goal commitment is likely to increase with follower participation in goal setting. C) Followers exert the greatest effort when goals are accompanied by feedback. D) Easily attainable goals result in higher levels of effort and performance.
29) Which of the following most likely occurs when leaders articulate high expectations for followers?
A) the Hawthorne effect B) the Pygmalion effect C) the Golem effect D) the Hierarchy effect
30)
Which of the following is most likely an example of a noncontingent reward?
A) performance bonus B) annual salary C) monthly commission D) stock options
31) Which statement best summarizes the components of empowerment as defined by the authors?
A) Leaders delegate leadership and decision making down to the lowest level possible and equip followers with the resources, knowledge, and skills necessary to make good decisions. B) Leaders articulate a vision and specific goals and hold followers responsible for achieving them. C) Followers act as entrepreneurs and owners who question rules and make intelligent decisions. D) Empowerment is a bottom-up approach that focuses on intelligent risk taking, growth, change, trust, and ownership.
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32) Which of the following is not a macro psychological component that underlies empowerment?
A) motivation B) influence C) learning D) stress
33) In the context of factors that affect worker motivation, which of the following is a macro psychological component that underlies empowerment?
A) meaning B) influence C) learning D) competence
34)
Which statement about empowerment and the operant approach is most likely true?
A) A concerning situation can almost always be fixed, and followers are the only variable important in the performance equation. B) By changing a particular situation, leaders can enhance followers' motivation, performance, and satisfaction. C) Restructuring work processes and procedures generally has little effect on follower's motivational levels. D) Most followers enjoy the challenge of doing things in new ways and feel immediately empowered.
35) _____ are internal states of tension or arousal, or uncomfortable states of deficiency that people are motivated to change.
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A) Motives B) Needs C) Goals D) Punishments
36)
Which of the following is the major theme of characteristics of the operant approach?
A) setting goals to change behavior B) satisfying needs to change behavior C) giving people autonomy and latitude to increase their motivation for work D) changing rewards and punishments to change behavior
37) In the context of the fundamental needs that affect motivation, which of the following statements is true of the work of Daniel Pink?
A) Pink believed that followers need to be paid lower than market rates. B) Millennials, Gen Yers, Gen Xers, and Baby Boomers have nothing in common when it comes to autonomy, mastery, and meaning. C) Pink maintained that rewards and punishment work well for motivating employees doing routine and assembly line work. D) One critical aspect of autonomy is providing followers with feedback on skill development or task progress.
38) In the context of the factors affecting motivation at work, which of the following statements is true of the operant approach?
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A) A shortcoming of the operant technique is that situational factors can overwhelm the effectiveness of a reward program. B) In the operant technique, noncontingent rewards and punishments are associated with particular behaviors. C) Leadership practitioners should create perceptions of inequity when administering individually tailored rewards. D) Leadership practitioners should limit themselves to administering organizationally sanctioned rewards and punishments.
39) In the context of factors affecting motivation at work, which of the following statements is true of empowerment?
A) An empowered worker will have fewer choices in how and when to accomplish high work demands and will suffer from more stress than will an unempowered worker. B) Delegating leadership and decision making down to the lowest level possible is a component of empowerment. C) Leaders should select only followers who both possess the right skills and have a higher level of a personality trait called achievement orientation. D) Empowered employees lack the latitude to make decisions and are uncomfortable making these decisions.
40)
According to Daniel Pink, autonomy refers to
A) being able to make choices. B) helping others. C) doing something meaningful. D) making an impact on others.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Differentiate between motivation, performance, and effectiveness. Discuss the relationship between the three concepts.
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42) What are organizational citizenship behaviors? Provide examples to illustrate your response.
43) How can leaders benefit from studying the different motivational theories and approaches? What should leaders keep in mind when applying these theories?
44)
Explain Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory.
45) What is achievement orientation? How do people with high achievement orientation scores most likely differ from those with low scores?
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46) What is the goal setting approach of motivation? How can leaders apply this method successfully?
47) What are the components of the operant approach of motivation? According to research, what are the effects of this approach?
48) What are the fundamental needs described by Daniel Pink that drive employees who create new products or services or perform complex, non-routine work?
49) What are the steps a leader should take in order to design and implement an operant system for improving followers' motivation and performance levels?
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50) What is empowerment? How can the psychological components of empowerment be examined at the macro and micro levels?
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) D 26) B Version 1
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27) A 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) D 37) C 38) A 39) B 40) A 41) Most researchers define motivation as anything that provides direction, intensity, and persistence to behavior. Thus motivation comes into play whenever someone chooses an activity or task to engage in, puts forth a certain level of effort toward this activity, and persists with this effort for some time. Performance, on the other hand, concerns behaviors directed toward the organization's mission or goals or the products and services resulting from those behaviors. Performance differs from effectiveness, which generally involves making judgments about the adequacy of behavior with respect to certain criteria such as work group or organizational goals. Performance is affected by a variety of factors. Intelligence, skill, and the availability of key resources can affect a follower's behavior in accomplishing organizational goals (that is, performance) independently of that person's level of motivation. Thus an adequate level of motivation may be a necessary but insufficient condition of effective performance.
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42) Research has shown that people who are more satisfied with their jobs are more likely to engage in organizational citizenship behaviors— behaviors not directly related to one's job that are helpful to others at work. Organizational citizenship behaviors make for a more supportive workplace. Examples might include volunteering to help another employee with a task or project or filling in for another employee when asked. 43) Motivational theories and approaches give leaders a number of suggestions to get followers to engage in and persist with different behaviors. However, some motivational theories are particularly useful in certain situations but not as applicable in others. Just as a carpenter can build better wooden structures or furniture by having a larger set of tools, so can leaders solve a greater number of motivational problems among followers by becoming familiar with different motivational theories and approaches. People who have only hammers in their toolkits are likely to see every problem as a nail needing hammering, and it is not unusual for less effective leaders to call on a limited number of approaches to any motivational problem. Leaders who know about different motivational theories are more likely to choose the right theory for a particular follower and situation and often have higher-performing and more satisfied employees as a result.
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44) According to Maslow, people are motivated by five basic needs. These include the need to survive physiologically, the need for security, the need for affiliation with other people, the need for self-esteem, and the need for self-actualization. Maslow's conceptualization of needs is usually represented by a triangle with the five levels of needs arranged in a hierarchy called the hierarchy of needs. According to Maslow, any person's behavior can be understood primarily as the effort directed to satisfy one particular level of need in the hierarchy. Which level happens to be motivating a person's behavior at any time depends on whether or not lower needs in the hierarchy have been satisfied. According to Maslow, lower-level needs must be satisfied before the next higher-level need becomes salient in motivating behavior. Maslow believed higherlevel needs would not become salient until lower-level needs were satisfied.
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45) Atkinson has proposed that an individual's tendency to exert effort toward task accomplishment depends partly on the strength of his or her motivation to achieve success, or as Atkinson called it, achievement orientation. Individuals with a strong achievement orientation strive to accomplish socially acceptable endeavors and activities. These individuals also prefer tasks that provide immediate and ample feedback and are moderately difficult (that is, tasks that require a considerable amount of effort but are accomplishable). Additionally, individuals with a strong need to achieve feel satisfied when they successfully solve work problems or accomplish job tasks. Individuals with a relatively low need to achieve generally prefer easier tasks and do not feel satisfied by solving problems or accomplishing assigned tasks. McClelland maintained that differences in achievement orientation are a primary reason why people differ in the levels of effort they exert to accomplish assignments, objectives, or goals. People with more achievement orientation are likely to set higher personal and work goals and are more likely to expend the effort needed to accomplish them. People with low levels of achievement motivation tend to set lower personal and work goals and are less likely to accomplish them.
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46) Goal setting involves setting high goals and helping people to accomplish them. Research has shown that goals that are both specific and difficult result in consistently higher effort and performance when contrasted to "do your best" goals. Second, goal commitment is critical. Merely having goals is not enough. Although follower participation in setting goals is one way to increase commitment, goals set either by leaders unilaterally or through participation with followers can lead to necessary levels of commitment. Commitment to assigned goals was often as high as commitment to goals followers helped to set, provided the leader was perceived to have legitimate authority, expressed confidence in followers, and provided clear standards for performance. Third, followers exerted the greatest effort when goals were accompanied by feedback; followers getting goals or feedback alone generally exerted less effort.
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47) One popular way to change the direction, intensity, or persistence of behavior is through rewards and punishments. A reward is any consequence that increases the likelihood that a particular behavior will be repeated. Punishment is the administration of an aversive stimulus or the withdrawal of something desirable, each of which decreases the likelihood that a particular behavior will be repeated. Contingent rewards or punishments are administered as consequences of a particular behavior. Noncontingent rewards and punishments are not associated with particular behaviors. Finally, behaviors that are not rewarded may eventually be eliminated through the process of extinction. When properly implemented, there is ample evidence to show that the operant approach can be an effective way to improve follower motivation and performance. Some of this research has also shown that rewards work better than punishments, particularly if administered in a contingent manner. When comparing the relative impact of different types of rewards, incentive pay targeted at specific follower behaviors was the most effective, followed by social recognition and performance feedback, for improving follower performance in credit card processing centers. Although some may argue otherwise, the research clearly shows that leaders who properly design and implement contingent reward systems do indeed increase follower productivity and performance.
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48) The fundamental needs described by Daniel Pink include autonomy, mastery, and meaning. Autonomy is concerned primarily with making choices: Do followers have the freedom to work on things they find interesting, or are they given the latitude to get things done in ways that make sense to them? Examples of autonomy in the workplace include flexible work hours, allowing employees to work at home or bring their pets to work, or letting sales representatives pick the customers they will pursue in an assigned geographic territory. Mastery is concerned with helping followers develop those skills that will enable them perform at higher levels. This means that leaders need to set clear expectations for job performance, assess the capabilities of followers to meet these expectations, and then provide the support, coaching, and training needed to acquire and improve critical skills. One critical aspect of mastery is providing followers with feedback on skill development or task progress. The more followers can see that they are making progress, the more they will stay motivated to keep developing skills or do those activities associated with task accomplishment. Meaning is the notion of doing something that matters, having an impact, or being a part of something bigger than oneself. Many knowledge workers want to work on things that make a difference, so one of the critical responsibilities of leaders is pointing out how the tasks and activities performed by followers help customers, the team, or the organization to be more successful.
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49) Using operant principles properly to improve followers' motivation and performance requires several steps. First, leadership practitioners need to clearly specify what behaviors are important. Second, leadership practitioners need to determine if those behaviors are currently being punished, rewarded, or ignored. Third, leadership practitioners need to find out what followers actually find rewarding and punishing. Leaders should not make the mistake of assuming that all followers will find the same things to be rewarding or punishing. Fourth, leadership practitioners need to be wary of creating perceptions of inequity when administering individually tailored rewards. Fifth, leadership practitioners should not limit themselves to administering organizationally sanctioned rewards and punishments. Finally, because the administration of noncontingent consequences has relatively little impact, leadership practitioners should administer rewards and punishments in a contingent manner whenever possible.
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Dysfunctional turnover occurs when experienced executives retire or substandard performers are fired. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) In surveys of job satisfaction, a facet satisfaction item asks about particular aspects of the job such as pay or working conditions. ⊚ true ⊚ false
3) The hierarchy effect occurs when upper-level employees have higher global and facet satisfaction ratings than lower-level employees in an organization.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Job satisfaction survey results are most useful when compared with those from a dissimilar reference group, such as an organization of a different size or one in another industry. ⊚ true ⊚ false
5) Perceptions of procedural justice involve the process by which rewards or punishments are administered. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Employee satisfaction surveys tend to focus on the attitudes of followers about the tasks and activities they do at work. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Research shows that workers who are satisfied with their jobs tend to stay longer in their organizations. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) Employees who are satisfied with their jobs are more likely to work on reducing the stress of their co-workers. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) Most of the causes of employee satisfaction or dissatisfaction are within a leader's immediate control.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
10) In the context of organizational justice theory, distributive justice reflects the degree to which people are given information about different reward procedures and are treated with dignity and respect. ⊚ true ⊚ false
11) Herzberg's two-factor theory is based on the premise that people who are treated unfairly are less productive, less satisfied, and less committed to their organizations than people who are treated fairly. ⊚ true ⊚ false
12) In the context of organizational justice theory, perceptions of distributive justice involve the process by which rewards or punishments are administered. ⊚ true ⊚ false
13) According to Brockner, fairness in the workplace makes intuitive sense and is present in most organizations. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, factors that lead to satisfaction at work are called motivators and factors that lead to dissatisfaction at work are known as hygiene factors. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) According to Herzberg's theory, followers will exert additional effort if leaders improve working conditions and pay.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
16) According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, job security is a motivator that leads to job satisfaction. ⊚ true ⊚ false
17) Role conflict occurs whenever leaders or followers are unclear about what they need to do and how they should do it. ⊚ true ⊚ false
18) In the context of job dissatisfaction at work, role ambiguity occurs when leaders and followers are given incompatible goals to accomplish. ⊚ true ⊚ false
19) In the context of understanding and improving employee engagement, presenteeism is the notion of being at work while one's brain is not fully engaged. ⊚ true ⊚ false
20) According to the engagement–shareholder value chain, high employee engagement drives high customer satisfaction, which in turn results in high customer loyalty, sales, profitability, and share price. ⊚ true ⊚ false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) What is the main reason for people staying with organizations?
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A) job evaluations based on 360-degree feedback B) frequent development opportunities C) use of pay-for-performance systems D) promises of long-term employment
22) In the context of a job satisfaction survey, which of the following assesses the overall degree to which employees are satisfied with their organization and their job? A) hygiene factors B) facet satisfaction item C) global satisfaction item D) motivators
23) In the context of job satisfaction surveys, _____ assess the degree to which employees are satisfied with different aspects of work, such as pay, benefits, promotion policies, working hours and conditions, and the like.
A) global satisfaction items B) facet satisfaction items C) motivators D) hygiene factors
24) In the context of understanding follower satisfaction, the tendency for people with longer tenure or in higher positions to have higher global and facet satisfaction ratings than those newer to or lower in the organization is known as the
A) Pygmalion effect. B) contagion effect. C) glass ceiling effect. D) hierarchy effect.
25)
Which of the following factors causes an employee to leave an organization?
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A) challenging work B) collegial relationships C) scope for long-term employment D) compensation
26)
In the context of employee turnover, identify a true statement about functional turnover.
A) It occurs when followers retire or leave because they do not fit into an organization. B) It occurs when the best followers leave an organization. C) It increases when the economy of the area is good and there are plenty of jobs available. D) It is not healthy for an organization to have functional turnover.
27)
Which of the following statements about job satisfaction is true?
A) Employees tend to stay in organizations when they have limited authority. B) Employees tend to leave an organization when their work is challenging. C) Employees tend to stay in companies that encourage collegial relationships. D) Employees tend to leave organizations when their managers are too supportive.
28) In the context of the seven theories of job satisfaction, which of the following is the underlying principle of the theory of organizational justice?
A) treating people fairly B) giving people meaningful work C) securing needed resources D) giving people decision-making authority
29) Which of the following reflects the degree to which people are given information about different reward procedures and are treated with dignity and respect?
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A) decentralization B) interactional justice C) empowerment D) distributive justice
30) In the context of organizational justice, which of the following is concerned with followers' perceptions of whether the level of reward or punishment is commensurate with an individual's performance or infraction?
A) interactional justice B) role ambiguity C) role conflict D) distributive justice
31) In the context of organizational justice, perceptions of _____ involve the process by which rewards or punishments are administered.
A) interactional justice B) work facilitation C) procedural justice D) interaction facilitation
32)
According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, which of the following is a hygiene factor?
A) recognition B) responsibility C) supervision D) advancement
33) Which of the following is one of the motivators described in Herzberg's two-factor theory?
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A) working conditions B) the work itself C) co-workers D) job security
34) In the context of job satisfaction, which of the following occurs when leaders or followers are unclear about what they need to do and how they should do it?
A) role ambiguity B) rater bias C) role conflict D) the contagion effect
35)
In the context of job satisfaction, which of the following is true of role conflict?
A) It occurs when leaders or followers are unclear about what they need to do and how they should do it. B) It concerns followers' perceptions of whether the level of reward or punishment is commensurate with an individual's performance or infraction. C) It occurs when leaders and followers are given incompatible goals to accomplish. D) It pertains to followers' attitudes about the organization and their work activities.
36) According to the seven theories of satisfaction, which of the following theories or approaches focuses on giving employees work that they find meaningful?
A) achievement orientation B) herzberg's two-factor theory C) empowerment D) organizational justice
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37) In the context of job satisfaction, which of the following best defines the term "employee engagement"?
A) It is an evaluation of a follower's immediate promotability. B) It pertains to followers' attitudes about the organization and their work activities. C) It is the notion of being at work while one's brain is not fully engaged. D) It is a follower's capacity to advance one or more levels within the organization.
38) In the context of job satisfaction, the notion of being at work while one's brain is not fully engaged is referred to as
A) on-boarding. B) facet satisfaction. C) presenteeism. D) dysfunctional turnover.
39) In the context of job satisfaction, which of the following methods are most commonly used to assess followers' engagement levels?
A) introspection B) case studies C) interviews D) surveys
40) Which of the following is seen as the biggest obstacle to improving employee engagement in an organization?
A) employee benefits and perks B) frequency of surveys C) incompetent management D) employee's tenure in the organization
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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Why is dysfunctional turnover unhealthy for an organization?
42) What are some of the direct and indirect costs of employee dissatisfaction to an organization?
43)
What actions should a leader take to improve scores on follower satisfaction surveys?
44)
What role does the hierarchy effect play in job satisfaction?
45)
Briefly describe Herzberg's two-factor theory.
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46)
Describe the three components of organizational justice.
47)
What is employee engagement, and how is it assessed?
48) In the context of understanding and improving employee engagement, what are some of the obstacles to improving employee engagement scores obtained from surveys? Discuss some of the reasons that employee engagement levels have remain unchanged.
49) Discuss any three issues concerning interpreting data received from employee satisfaction surveys.
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50)
How does the fundamental attribution error play a role in employee dissatisfaction?
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) D 25) D 26) A Version 1
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27) C 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) C 45) The two-factor theory was developed from a series of interviews in which workers were asked what satisfied them about their work. Rather than assuming that what dissatisfied people was always just the opposite of what satisfied them, respondents were asked what dissatisfied them about their jobs. The list of satisfiers and dissatisfiers represented entirely different aspects of work. These factors were labeled work motivators and hygiene factors, and they are found on two separate continuums. The most common motivators are supervision, working conditions, coworkers, pay, policies and procedures, and job security. The most common hygiene factors are achievement, recognition, the work itself, responsibility, and advancement and growth.
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46) Answer: Organizational justice is made up of three related components. Interactional justice reflects the degree to which people are given information about different reward procedures and are treated with dignity and respect. Distributive justice concerns followers' perceptions of whether the level of reward or punishment is commensurate with an individual's performance or infraction. Dissatisfaction occurs when followers believe someone has received too little or too much reward or punishment. Perceptions of procedural justice involve the process by which rewards or punishments are administered. If someone is to be punished, then followers will be more satisfied if the person being punished has been given adequate warnings and has had the opportunity to explain his or her actions and if the punishment has been administered in a timely and consistent manner.
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47) Employee engagement pertains to followers' attitudes about the organization and their work activities. Fully engaged followers are believed to be more committed to team and organizational success, put forth more work directed effort, and put in the hours necessary to complete assigned tasks; disengaged followers do not care about organizational success and are more interested in collecting paychecks than completing work assignments. Surveys are used to assess followers' engagement levels. These surveys are typically administered every year or two to all employees in an organization, and the results are analyzed to determine what percentage of people are actively engaged, engaged, disengaged, or actively disengaged. The use of common surveys has allowed organizations to benchmark themselves over time, against competitors, or against other organizations of similar size. Geographic regions, industry sector, economic conditions, leader effectiveness, job types, and engagement definitions all affect the percentage of followers falling into each of the four categories, and some interesting findings have been reported over the years.
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48) There are several obstacles to improving employee engagement scores. First, some organizations feel obligated to survey employees but not compelled to improve engagement scores. They do the surveys because other organizations are doing them, and this "keeping up with the Joneses" approach only serves to turn off employees who begin to believe that nothing will change because of the survey results. Second, some followers feel entitled and will never be engaged, and some jobs are almost impossible to make more engaging. Third, some organizations erroneously believe perks cause employee engagement. Perhaps the biggest reason employee engagement levels have remained unchanged is incompetent management. Some leaders have no idea how followers feel about work; others mistreat their followers and could not care less whether they are engaged. Other leaders simply do know what followers want from work or how to make things better. If leaders believe that employee engagement is important to team or organizational effectiveness, they should take the results of engagement surveys seriously and work collaboratively with followers to devise and implement engagement improvement programs.
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) In the context of the what and the how of performance, task and goal accomplishment are important criteria to understand the "how" of a follower's performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false
2) In the context of the what and the how of performance, the "how" examines the behaviors exhibited by a follower in accomplishing team or organizational goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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3) Absentee leaders tend to assign to the followers many tasks that are detrimental to the overall performance of the team. ⊚ true ⊚ false
4) The term "cookie licking" refers to the time-wasting leaders’ behavior of spending time on actions and decisions that can be delegated to the followers. ⊚ true ⊚ false
5) During the planning stage of a performance management cycle, it is necessary for a leader to differentiate between the aspects of a follower's role that require high levels of performance and the aspects that need to be done only well enough. ⊚ true ⊚ false
6) In context of the components of a performance management cycle, monitoring involves providing feedback to a follower about his or her progress toward a set goal. ⊚ true ⊚ false
7) According to Groysberg, employees who are considered the high flyers of a team should be micromanaged or they may leave the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false
8) In the context of the performance management cycle, it is seen that high-performing organizations tend to engage in talent hoarding more than poor-performing organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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9) The evaluation phase is the most time-consuming component of the performance management cycle. ⊚ true ⊚ false
10) Research shows that meritocracy does not work when a person's performance at work is directly linked to the organizational outcomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false
11) Performance appraisals provide a documentation of a follower's overall performance over a defined period. ⊚ true ⊚ false
12) One of the contentious issues involved in the evaluation of a follower's performance is the difficulty faced by a leader in evaluating a follower when clear goals and expectations are not set for the follower in the planning phase of the performance management cycle. ⊚ true ⊚ false
13) In context of the performance management cycle, absentee leaders are more likely to base the evaluations of their followers on their performance than on their loyalty to the leader. ⊚ true ⊚ false
14) The Dunning–Kruger effect refers to how people systematically overestimate their own performance in areas where they don’t have competency and readily disregard any information to the contrary. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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15) Criterion contamination occurs when the effectiveness measures implemented by leaders in an organization are affected by factors related to follower performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false
16) In the context of managing team effectiveness, team scorecards usually provide feedback on goal progress on a monthly or quarterly basis, whereas balanced scorecards provide feedback on a daily, weekly, or monthly basis. ⊚ true ⊚ false
17) In the context of team effectiveness, a team killer is an individual makes the rest of the team look better. ⊚ true ⊚ false
18)
Leadership potential is an evaluation of a follower’s immediate chances of promotability. ⊚ true ⊚ false
19) According to the 9-box matrix, a "key player" is someone who is a moderate performer and has moderate potential. ⊚ true ⊚ false
20) Research shows that the likelihood of survival of a family-owned business in the second generation is as high as 70 percent. ⊚ true ⊚ false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) _____ refers to what individual followers achieve and the behaviors displayed to achieve results. Version 1
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A) Performance B) Team effectiveness C) Potential D) Meritocracy
22)
Which of the following is true of absenteeism leadership?
A) These leaders tend to set rules and assign tasks that are detrimental to the team. B) It occurs when leaders engage in idle conversations with their followers, but the followers consider it as a task being assigned to them. C) These leaders expect their followers to spend long hours in office. D) It occurs when leaders are unable to spend enough time with their followers as they are busy with other tasks.
23)
Which of the following is a consequence of absenteeism leadership? A) leaders disregarding requests of their followers B) followers having to regularly adapt to new tasks C) followers spending long hours at work without being productive D) leaders engaging in unnecessary conversations with their followers
24)
_____ occurs when leaders insist that the followers spend long hours at work. A) Cookie licking B) Differentiation C) Presenteeism D) Executive magnification
25) Roger, the chief executive officer of Exta Corp., tends to engage in idle conversations with his employees. The employees misinterpret them as work assignments. Which of the following time-wasting leaders behaviors is Roger displaying?
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A) presenteeism B) cookie licking C) dunning–Kruger effect D) executive magnification
26) Which of the following components of the performance management cycle involves gaining an in-depth understanding of a team or an organization's goals, the role of the followers in the goal accomplishment, and the context in which the followers operate? A) Planning B) Monitoring C) Evaluating D) Differentiating
27) Which of the following activities is common to the monitoring and evaluating components of the performance management cycle? A) Understanding the team's goals B) Identifying the roles of the followers in achieving organizational goals C) Sharing feedback with the followers D) Providing resources to the followers to help them accomplish the goals
28) Which of the following is a useful tool to determine how an organization defines winning? A) Balanced scorecards B) 9-box matrices C) Calibration meetings D) Replacement tables
29) In the context of team effectiveness, who among the following team members in an organization would be considered a force multiplier?
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A) Kayla, who criticizes the work done by others in the team B) Milo, who is difficult to get along with C) Jim, who does lesser work than assigned to him D) Tina, who is always ready to help others
30) _____ can be defined as a follower’s ability to move forward one or more levels within an organization. A) Readiness B) Leadership potential C) Succession planning D) Presenteeism
31)
Which of the following statements defines the term "succession planning"?
A) It is the procedure organizations employ to make leadership potential and readiness decisions about followers. B) It is the method organizations use to standardize ratings across leaders with similar groups of followers. C) It is what individual followers accomplish at work and the behaviors they display to achieve results. D) It is the reluctance of leaders to either let go of high performers in the team or let others know about their exceptional performance.
32) Which of the following methods of succession planning involves leaders providing performance and potential ratings for their followers? A) 9-box matrices B) replacement tables C) balanced scorecards D) executive magnification
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33) According to the 9-box matrix, the term used for employees who are low performers but have high potential is _____. A) talent risk B) inconsistent player C) rough diamond D) future star
34) In terms of the 9-box matrix, an employee who has high potential but is a moderate performer is called a A) current star. B) future star. C) key player. D) inconsistent player.
35) In the 9-box matrix, an employee who is termed as a "solid professional" is someone who has shown A) high potential. B) low performance. C) high performance. D) low potential.
36) After evaluating Michika's performance and leadership potential, her manager has rated her as a high performer with high potential. This means that Michika is most likely a _____ according to the 9-box matrix. A) current star B) high professional C) consistent star D) solid professional
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37) Which of the following is included in the traditional approach for determining the leadership potential of an employee? A) personality traits B) team effectiveness C) boss ratings D) intelligence
38) Which of the following is an advantage of the traditional method of determining leadership potential which involves using only boss ratings to determine a subordinate's leadership potential? A) It gives better prediction for leadership effectiveness and derailment. B) This method is fairer to employees as they work in proximity with their boss. C) Bosses can tell if candidates have the potential capability to build teams. D) Bosses have complete control in determining the leadership potential of the employees.
39) One of the disadvantages of using the better approach of including boss ratings, personality traits, and intelligence in determining the leadership potential of an employee is that A) it cannot state if the employee can build an effective team. B) bosses have complete control over the evaluation. C) too many candidates get added to the pool for evaluation. D) there is a high chance that an employee's evaluation will be affected by politics.
40) _____ is a person’s ability to build a group of followers who are loyal and work effectively together to achieve team goals. A) Talent hoarding B) Team effectiveness quotient C) Meritocracy D) Executive magnification
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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Discuss the various aspects of follower performance.
42) Explain the various behaviors exhibited by the time-wasting leaders that have a detrimental effect on the performance of their followers.
43) What are the various steps that an employee can take to cope with an absentee or timewasting leader?
44) Discuss the tasks that a leader should focus on during the planning stage of a performance management cycle.
45)
Why is evaluation an important component of the performance management cycle?
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46)
How is the measurement of team and unit effectiveness useful for a leader?
47) In the context of unit or team effectiveness, differentiate between force multipliers and team killers.
48)
Why are replacement tables used by organizations?
49) What is the importance of high-potential programs in an organization's succession planning?
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50) How can an organization benefit from including boss ratings, personality traits, intelligence, and team effectiveness quotient while determining the leadership potential of its employees?
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) A Version 1
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27) C 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) C 37) C 38) D 39) A 40) B Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Groups are characterized by mutual interaction and reciprocal influence. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
Social contact is better satisfied by organizations than by groups. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) Leaders with a large span of control tend to display more consideration and use more personal approaches when influencing followers. ⊚ ⊚
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211
4)
Task-oriented behavior is never adequate for accomplishing short-term objectives. ⊚ ⊚
5)
With role ambiguity, the problem is lack of clarity about just what the expectations are. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
true false
An outsider to a group often is able to learn more about norms than is an insider. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Highly cohesive groups are likely to be characterized by low absenteeism and low turnover. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) A symptom of groupthink is an illusion of invulnerability, which leads to unwarranted optimism and excessive risk taking by a group. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) In the context of group size, leaders with a small span of control tend to be more directive, spend less time with individual subordinates, and use more impersonal approaches when influencing followers than do leaders with a large span of control. ⊚ true ⊚ false
10)
Norms can be imported from an organization existing outside a team.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
11) In the Team Leadership Model (TLM), the four process measures of effectiveness are good leverage points for fixing a problem. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
Design is often the most frequently omitted step in teamwork in traditional organizations. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) Using instruments such as the Campbell Interest and Skills Survey to select personnel may help a team's effort level from an individual perspective. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) Leaders can influence team effectiveness by providing frequent coaching while their team is performing its task. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) In the context of team effectiveness, the individuals composing a team must sometimes not maximize their individual effort. This is referred to as subsystem nonoptimization. ⊚ true ⊚ false
16) A virtual team is highly susceptible to "focus drift" and fragmentation and needs to be constantly reminded of the team's purpose and objectives.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
17) According to Terence Brake's guidelines for the leadership of virtual teams, leaders should focus on completing tasks before developing relationships in order to enhance their team's sense of accomplishment. ⊚ true ⊚ false
18) Research indicates that the distance between virtual teams is geographical, organizational, temporal, and cultural. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) Research suggests that e-mail and video conferencing are the best forms of communication for virtual teams. ⊚ ⊚
20)
true false
Clusters are intact, self-managed teams that strive to achieve their organization's goals. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) In comparing teams and group members, which statement is most likely true?
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A) Team members can readily identify who is and who is not on the team; identifying members of a group may be more difficult. B) Group members have common goals; teams may not have the same degree of consensus about goals. C) Group members often have more differentiated and specialized roles than do team members. D) Task interdependence typically is greater with groups than with teams.
22)
The inefficiencies created by more and more people working together are called A) groupthink. B) social loafing. C) process losses. D) deindividuation.
23) Which of the following is a term that refers to the phenomenon of reduced effort by people when they are not individually accountable for their work?
A) overbounding B) social loafing C) ollieism D) punctuated equilibrium
24) role?
In the context of group roles, which of the following is an example of a dysfunctional
A) dominating B) gatekeeping C) information seeking D) routinization
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25) In the context of the developmental stages of groups, which of the following stages is characterized by intragroup conflict, heightened emotional levels, and status differentiation? A) norming B) storming C) forming D) performing
26) In the context of the developmental stages of groups, which of the following is a characteristic of the norming stage?
A) clear emergence of a leader B) heightened emotional level C) polite conversation D) status differentiation
27) Functional, interdependent roles that are focused on the performance of group tasks are characteristic of which stage of group development?
A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing
28) In the context of the nature of groups, _____ are the informal rules groups adopt to regulate and regularize group members' behaviors.
A) task roles B) norms C) process measures D) clusters
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29) A manager makes the following statement to a subordinate: "I need this report back in five minutes, and it better be perfect." Which term best describes this type of role conflict? A) interrole conflict B) intrasender role conflict C) person–role conflict D) intersender role conflict
30) In the context of group roles, which of the following occurs when someone receives inconsistent signals from several others about expected behavior?
A) intersender role conflict B) intrasender role conflict C) role overload D) role ambiguity
31) A store manager asks his employee to keep the outdated stocks of a product at the front of the shelf so that they can be sold. However, the employee is unwilling to mislead customers as this deception is inconsistent with the employee's values and beliefs. In this scenario, the employee is most likely to experience A) role overload. B) an intrasender role conflict. C) role ambiguity. D) a person–role conflict.
32) Molly, a member of a product development team, is most likely experiencing _____ if she wonders, "Just what am I supposed to be doing?"
A) role ambiguity B) role conflict C) role overload D) role insufficiency
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33) In the context of group cohesion, which of the following occurs when illegal actions are taken by overly zealous and loyal subordinates who believe that what they are doing will please their leaders? A) social loafing B) ollieism C) role conflict D) overbounding
34) The sum of the forces that attract members to a group, provide resistance to leaving it, and motivate them to be active in it is called
A) group polarization. B) social facilitation. C) group cohesion. D) punctuated equilibrium.
35)
Which of the following is a possible solution for groupthink?
A) increasing group cohesiveness and engaging in more overbounding techniques B) isolating the group from outside sources that might bias decision making C) establishing an independent subgroup to make recommendations D) using mindguards to screen negative input from the group
36) In the context of group size, which of the following defines subgroups of individuals who often share the same goals, values, and expectations?
A) social facilitators B) cliques C) social loafers D) clusters
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37) In the context of group size, which of the following is a phenomenon in which working in the presence of others increases effort or productivity?
A) subsystem nonoptimization B) social facilitation C) process loss D) role conflict
38) Which term refers to interactions among team members, such as how they communicate with each other, express feelings toward each other, and deal with conflict with each other? A) punctuated equilibrium B) organizational shells C) group polarization D) group dynamics
39) At the organizational level, the Team Leadership Model (TLM) suggests that leaders examine the _____ that may be impacting their team.
A) motivations B) creative skills C) reward systems D) interpersonal behaviors
40)
What is the least likely way that a leader could improve team effectiveness?
A) putting subtle pressure on dissenting members of the team to ensure concept cohesiveness B) designing input-stage variables at the individual, organizational, and team design levels C) ensuring that the team has a clear sense of purpose and performance expectations D) providing coaching while the team is performing its task
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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) What is a group? How does a group differ from an organization as a whole?
42)
Discuss how group size affects group effectiveness.
43)
Describe the four stages of group development as identified by Tuckman.
44)
What is role conflict? Describe at least three types of role conflict.
45) What are group norms? What are the functions of group norms? According to Hackman, what are the two core norms that can enhance performance?
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46)
Describe two benefits and two drawbacks of greater group cohesion.
47) Define group cohesion. Discuss the phenomenon of groupthink as a disadvantage of highly cohesive groups.
48) Describe the task accomplishment related factors that distinguish successful teams, as outlined by the Center for Creative Leadership.
49) Using the Team Leadership Model (TLM), a leader can implement three functions for team leadership. Describe the three functions.
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50)
What guidelines are recommended for effectively leading virtual teams?
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) A Version 1
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27) D 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) B 38) D 39) C 40) A 41) A group is two or more persons who are interacting with one another in such a manner that each person influences and is influenced by each other person. Organizations can be so large that most members do not know most of the other people in the organization. In such cases there is relatively little intermember interaction and reciprocal influence. Similarly, organizations typically are just too large and impersonal to have much effect on anyone's feelings, whereas groups are small and immediate enough to impact both feelings and self-image.
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42) Group size affects group effectiveness in a number of ways. The answer to the question of appropriate group size seems to be "just big enough to get the job done." Obviously, the larger the group, the more likely it is that it will involve differentiated skills, values, perceptions, and abilities among its members. Also, more "people power" will certainly be available to do the work as group size increases. The size of any group has implications for both leaders and followers. An additive task is one where the group's output simply involves the combination of individual outputs. Process losses can be thought of as the inefficiencies created by more and more people working together. As group size increases, the diminishing returns of larger work groups may be due to social loafing, which is the phenomenon of reduced effort by people when they are not individually accountable for their work. 43) The first stage, forming, was characterized by polite conversation, the gathering of superficial information about fellow members, and low trust. A group's rejection of emerging potential leaders with negative characteristics also took place during the forming stage. The second stage, storming, usually was marked by intragroup conflict, heightened emotional levels, and status differentiation as remaining contenders struggled to build alliances and fulfill the group's leadership role. The clear emergence of a leader and the development of group norms and cohesiveness were the key indicators of the norming stage of group development. Finally, groups reached the performing stage when group members played functional, interdependent roles that were focused on the performance of group tasks.
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44) Role conflict involves receiving contradictory messages about expected behavior and can in turn adversely affect a person's emotional well-being and performance. When the same person sends mixed signals, it is called intrasender role conflict. Intersender role conflict occurs when someone receives inconsistent signals from several others about expected behavior. Interrole conflict occurs when someone is unable to perform all of his roles as well as he would like. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium 45) Norms are the informal rules groups adopt to regulate and regularize group members' behaviors. Although norms are only infrequently written down or openly discussed, they nonetheless often have a powerful and consistent influence on behavior. Hackman recommends that a leader has a responsibility to focus the team outwardly to enhance performance. Specifically, he suggests two core norms be created to enhance performance: 1. Group members should actively scan the environment for opportunities that would require a change in operating strategy to capitalize upon them. 2. The team should identify the few behaviors that team members must always do and those they should never do to conform to the organization's objectives.
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46) Highly cohesive groups interact with and influence each other more than less cohesive groups do. Furthermore, a highly cohesive group may have lower absenteeism and lower turnover than a less cohesive group, and low absenteeism and turnover often contribute to higher group performance; higher performance can, in turn, contribute to even higher cohesion, thus resulting in an increasingly positive spiral. However, greater cohesiveness does not always lead to higher performance. A highly cohesive but unskilled team is still an unskilled team, and such teams will often lose to a less cohesive but more skilled one. Additionally, a highly cohesive group may sometimes develop goals that are contrary to the larger organization's goals. 47) Group cohesion is the glue that keeps a group together. Group cohesion is the sum of the forces that attract members to a group, provide resistance to leaving it, and motivate them to be active in it. People in a highly cohesive group often become more concerned with striving for unanimity than objectively appraising different courses of action. This phenomenon is known as groupthink. Cohesive groups tend to evolve strong informal norms to preserve friendly internal relations. Preserving a comfortable, harmonious group environment becomes a hidden agenda that tends to suppress dissent, conflict, and critical thinking. Unwise decisions may result when concurrence seeking among members overrides their willingness to express or tolerate deviant points of view and think critically. Some symptoms of groupthink are an illusion of invulnerability, an illusion of unanimity, self-censorship by group members, and mindguards.
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48) First, effective teams had a clear mission and high performance standards. Everyone on the team knew what the team was trying to achieve and how well he or she had to perform in order to achieve the team's mission. Second, leaders of successful teams often took stock of their equipment, training facilities and opportunities, and outside resources available to help the team. Leaders of effective teams spent a considerable amount of time assessing the technical skills of the team members. After taking stock of available resources and skills, good leaders would work to secure those resources and equipment necessary for team effectiveness. Moreover, leaders of effective teams would spend a considerable amount of time planning and organizing in order to make optimal use of available resources, to select new members with needed technical skills, or to improve needed technical skills of existing members. The last two characteristics of effective teams were concerned with the group maintenance or interpersonal aspects of teams. High levels of communication were often associated with effective teams. High levels of communication also helped to minimize interpersonal conflicts on the team, which often drained energy needed for team success and effectiveness.
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49) Dream: The team needs to have clear vision. If the team has a challenging and demanding goal, teamwork may be necessary to accomplish the task. In highly effective work teams, the leader ensures that the team has a clear vision of where they are going. Design: Designing the team is critical. It is also often the most frequently omitted step. Senior-level leaders may resist changing the organizational systems for a number of reasons, including having a vested interest in maintaining the status quo. While individual team leaders may have little control over the organizational context and systems, they always have the opportunity for making an impact in their own team's design. Development: If the leader finds that the team has a clear sense of direction and vision and the input variables at the individual, organizational, and team levels are contributing positively to team effectiveness, then she can turn her attention to the development level. Development is the ongoing work done with the team at the process level to continue to find ways to improve an already well-designed team. 50) Virtual team leaders should understand the potential challenges and take proactive measures to increase team confidence. Leaders should focus on relationships before tasks and invest up-front time in clarifying the team's purpose and roles. Leaders should create a sense of order and predictability, be objective problem solvers, and develop shared operating agreements. They should give team members personal attention, respect the challenges of the virtual environment, recognize the limitations of technology, and stay focused on the notion that virtual team members are people.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) General goals work better than specific goals because they often provide enough information regarding which behaviors are to be changed or when a clear end state has been attained. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
Setting easy goals rarely leads to high levels of performance. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) Organizational goals are most likely to be achieved if there is commitment at both the top and the bottom of the organization. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Giving constructive feedback involves sharing information or perceptions with another about the nature, quality, or impact of that person's behavior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) Subordinates can usually tell whether or not they are doing a good job even without feedback. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Some supervisors hesitate to use positive feedback because they believe subordinates may see it as politically manipulative, ingratiating, or insincere.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
7) To maximize the impact of feedback, people should provide feedback to large groups instead of specific individuals. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) When providing evaluative feedback, it is inappropriate and ineffective to compare a subordinate's behavior with the behavior of peers or co-workers. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) An issue related to impressions and evaluative feedback concerns the distinction between job-related feedback and more personal or discretionary feedback. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Giving positive feedback to followers helps them in understanding how to change their behavior to improve their performance. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) In the context of team-building interventions, highly effective facilitators help the participants make the links back to team dynamics that occur on the manufacturing floor or in the boardroom. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) The Rocket Model of Team Effectiveness tells leaders what steps to take and when to take them when building new teams. Version 1
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⊚ ⊚
true false
13) According to the Rocket Model, after team norms and buy-in issues have been addressed, leaders should work with team members to sort out mission and talent issues. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) In the context of the Rocket Model, teams with low levels of buy-in have team members who believe in what the team is trying to accomplish and will enthusiastically put forth the effort needed to complete their assigned tasks and make the team successful. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) The context component of the Rocket Model is concerned with setting a common direction for a team. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) Research shows that followers are significantly happier when their leaders frequently delegate tasks. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) Leaders often avoid delegation when a task is a desirable one that could generate power or prestige. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) In the context of effective delegation, the first step leaders should take when deciding what to delegate is to identify all their present activities. Version 1
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⊚ ⊚
19)
true false
Forging a partnership is the first step in informal coaching. ⊚ ⊚
true false
20) According to Peterson and Hicks, good coaches orchestrate rather than dictate development. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) Identify a true statement about goal setting.
A) Worker acceptance and satisfaction tend to decrease when workers are allowed to participate in setting goals. B) Follower participation in goal setting often leads to higher levels of commitment and performance if the leader is perceived to be incompetent. C) General goals work better than specific goals because they provide enough information regarding which behaviors are to be changed. D) General goals lead to higher levels of effort and performance than specific goals.
22)
It is most likely important to have specific goals for the purpose of
A) eliminating competition. B) encouraging teamwork. C) measuring progress. D) delegating tasks.
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23)
Which of the following statements about feedback is most likely false?
A) Sometimes supervisors hesitate to use positive feedback because they believe subordinates will view it as insincere. B) Leaders may give positive feedback infrequently if they believe good performance is expected. C) Research shows that subordinates believe their leaders give more feedback than their leaders think they do. D) Followers will most likely perform at a higher level if they are given accurate, frequent feedback.
24)
Which of the following would least likely improve a leader's feedback skills?
A) being flexible B) being critical C) being descriptive D) being specific
25)
Identify a true statement about providing constructive feedback.
A) Constructive feedback should focus more on inferences and less on facts. B) Leaders should avoid being assertive and critical when providing constructive feedback. C) An issue related to impressions and evaluative feedback concerns the distinction between job-related feedback and more discretionary feedback. D) A common mistake in giving feedback is addressing it to specific individuals rather than to large groups.
26) Which of the following components of feedback concerns knowing what kind of feedback is to be given?
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A) behavior B) knowledge C) evaluation D) cognition
27)
The first requirement for a team intervention to be successful is
A) brainstorming a range of positive feedback techniques. B) raising awareness about how teams really work. C) providing instrument-based team feedback. D) practicing behaviors with team role-play.
28)
Which of the following is a component of the Rocket Model of Team Effectiveness?
A) power B) morale C) vision D) buy-in
29) In the context of the Rocket Model, a critical first step to building a high-performing team is to
A) gain alignment on team context. B) clarify the team's purpose and goals. C) ensure the team has the necessary resources. D) establish expected norms.
30) Based on the norms component of the Rocket Model, which statement is most likely false?
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A) If a team or team leader is not explicit about setting the rules that govern team behavior, norms will simply evolve over time. B) Norms about how often and how long a team meets should be driven by the team's purpose and goals. C) The most important team norms relate to decision making, communication, and accountability. D) Leaders should address norms before discussing the context or mission components.
31) In the context of the Rocket Model, which of the following is a way team leaders are most likely to build buy-in?
A) by developing a compelling team vision B) by maintaining a low level of credibility C) by avoiding the involvement of team members in the rule-setting process D) by questioning the agendas of untrustworthy team members
32) In the context of the Rocket Model, which of the following is most likely true of the power component?
A) It is concerned with setting a common direction for a team. B) It is about having the right number of people in the right organizational roles. C) It deals with having a compelling team vision that matches up to the team's personal values. D) It concerns the decision-making latitude and resources a team has to accomplish its goals.
33)
Which statement about delegation is most likely false?
A) Delegation is a simple way for leaders to free themselves of time-consuming chores. B) Delegation is an overused management option that frustrates most followers. C) Delegation increases the number of tasks accomplished by work groups. D) Delegation gives followers developmental opportunities.
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34)
Which of the following statements is most likely true of delegation.
A) Delegation costs time for a leader in the long run, but it saves the leader time in the short run. B) Delegation gives the responsibility for decisions to those individuals least likely to implement the decision. C) Leaders who delegate authority more frequently often have low-performing businesses. D) Leaders may feel threatened when delegating an important task because it reduces direct personal control over the work.
35) In the context of delegation, a common reason why a leader avoids delegating a task is that the
A) task is a source of power or prestige. B) task requires significant effort. C) leader is indecisive about whom to delegate the task to. D) subordinates are too unskilled.
36) In the context of the principles of effective delegation, which of the following is the first step of deciding what to delegate?
A) providing a brief explanation of the task B) identifying all the present activities C) indicating how the task needs to be accomplished D) choosing an individual for the assignment
37)
Which of the following statements best exemplifies effective delegation?
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A) A leader always assigns all assignments to the best worker in the team. B) A leader always provides a brief explanation of the task to be delegated. C) A leader delegates the most time-consuming recurring activities to one person. D) A leader must give subordinates the freedom to make certain kinds of mistakes.
38) When giving performance feedback privately to a subordinate, what should a leader most likely emphasize?
A) positive behaviors and results B) developmental opportunities C) inadequacies and misbehaviors D) necessary changes for the future
39) According to Peterson and Hicks, which of the following is the first step in informal coaching?
A) building a coaching plan and providing feedback B) identifying a coachee's development needs C) helping followers in remaining persistent D) establishing a relationship based on trust
40)
What should a coach most likely do to help a follower stick to a development plan?
A) conduct a GAPS analysis B) establish long-term objectives C) schedule regular reflection sessions D) delegate simple and challenging tasks
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) What are the characteristics of effective goals? How can leaders and organizations improve the chances that followers will accomplish their goals?
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42) What is involved in providing constructive feedback? Why is constructive feedback important for subordinates?
43) Why is it important to provide timely feedback? Why should a leader give both positive and negative feedback?
44)
Why do leaders use the Rocket Model? What information can the model provide?
45)
Briefly describe the components of the Rocket Model of Team Effectiveness.
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46)
Define the term "delegation."
47)
What are the three reasons that delegation is important?
48) Many leaders avoid delegation and coaching because of the assumption that such activities are time consuming. Are these concerns valid? Why, or why not?
49)
Discuss the steps and principles of effective delegation.
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50)
Describe the five steps of coaching.
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 13 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) B Version 1
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27) B 28) D 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) C 41) Goals should be specific and observable, attainable and challenging, based on top-to-bottom commitment, and designed to provide feedback to personnel about their progress toward them. Research provides strong support for the idea that specific goals lead to higher levels of effort and performance than general goals. General goals do not work as well because they often do not provide enough information regarding which particular behaviors are to be changed or when a clear end state has been attained. To be useful, goals must be realistic. Goals need to be challenging but attainable to get the best out of ourselves. Unless supported by real human commitment, goal statements are mere words. Organizational goals are most likely to be achieved if there is commitment to them at both the top and the bottom of the organization. One of the most effective ways to improve any kind of performance is for leaders to provide feedback about how closely a person's behavior matches some criterion.
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42) Giving constructive feedback involves sharing information or perceptions with another about the nature, quality, or impact of that person's behavior. It can range from giving feedback pertaining specifically to a person's work (performance feedback) to impressions of how aspects of that person's interpersonal behavior may be pervasively affecting relationships with others. Getting helpful feedback is essential to a subordinate's performance and development. Without feedback, a subordinate will not be able to tell whether she's doing a good job or whether her abrasiveness is turning people off and hurting her chances for promotion. Besides fostering growth, effective supervisory feedback also plays a major role in building morale. 43) Feedback usually is most effective when it is given soon after the behavior occurs. The context and relevant details of recent events or behaviors are more readily available to everyone involved, thus facilitating more descriptive and helpful feedback. Giving both positive and negative feedback is more helpful than giving only positive or negative feedback alone. Positive feedback tells the other person or the group only what they are doing right, and negative feedback tells the other person or group only what they are doing wrong. Providing both kinds of feedback is the best. 44) The Rocket Model of Team Effectiveness provides both prescriptive and diagnostic advice for building high-performing teams. The model is prescriptive in that it tells leaders what steps to take and when to take them when building new teams. The model can also be used as a diagnostic tool for understanding where existing teams are falling short and what leaders need to do to get them back on track.
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45) The mission component of the Rocket Model is concerned with setting a common direction for the team. Selecting the right kind of people and continuously developing those skills needed to achieve team goals are two key leadership activities in the talent component of the Rocket Model. Once team members are selected and clearly understand the team's purpose and goals, leaders need to address the norms component of the Rocket Model. Norms are the rules that govern how teams make decisions, conduct meetings, get work done, hold team members accountable for results, and share information. Just because team members understand the team's purpose and goals and the rules by which the team operates does not necessarily mean they will automatically be committed to them, which refers to the buy-in component. Teams with high levels of buy-in have team members who believe in what the team is trying to accomplish and will enthusiastically put forth the effort needed to make the team successful. The power component of the Rocket Model concerns the decision-making latitude and resources the team has to accomplish its goals. Teams that report high levels in the morale component tend to effectively deal with interpersonal conflict and have high levels of cohesion. The morale components of the Rocket Model describe the "how" of team building. In other words, these components tell team leaders what they specifically need to do to improve team mission, norms, and so forth. The results component of the Rocket model describes the "what" of team building—what did the team actually accomplish? Like morale, results are a symptom or an outcome of the other components of the Rocket Model. High-performing teams get superior results because they have attended to the other six components of the Rocket Model. Those teams achieving suboptimal results can improve their performance by focusing on problematic components of the Rocket Model.
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46) Delegation implies that someone has been empowered by a leader, boss, or coach to take responsibility for completing certain tasks or engaging in certain activities. Delegation gives the responsibility for decisions to those individuals most likely to be affected by or to implement the decision, and delegation is more concerned with autonomy, responsibility, and follower development than with participation. 47) Delegation frees time for other activities. The essence of leadership is achieving goals through others, not trying to accomplish them by oneself. Second, delegation develops followers. Developing subordinates is one of the most important responsibilities any leader has, and delegating significant tasks to them is one of the best ways to support their growth. It does so by providing opportunities for initiative, problem solving, innovation, administration, and decision making. By providing practical experience in a controlled fashion, delegation allows subordinates the best training experience of all: learning by doing. Third, delegation strengthens the organization. An organization that uses delegation skillfully will be a motivating one to work in. Delegation sends an organizational signal that subordinates are trusted and their development is important. Skillful delegation inherently tends to increase the significance and satisfaction levels of most jobs, thus making subordinates' jobs better. Delegation also can be seen as a way of developing the entire organization, not just the individuals within it, to the extent that a whole organization systematically develops its personnel using delegation, its overall experience level, capability, and vitality increase. Finally, delegation stimulates innovation and generates fresh ideas and new approaches throughout the whole organization.
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48) Delegation saves time for the leader in the long run, but it costs the leader time in the short run. It takes time to train a subordinate to perform any new task, so it often really does take less time for a leader to do the task herself than to put in the effort to train someone else to do it. When a task is a recurring or repetitive one, however, the long-term savings will make the additional effort in initial training worth it—both for the leader and for the subordinate. Perhaps one of the greatest misperceptions of coaching, and the primary reason why leaders state that they do not coach others, is that it takes a lot of time. In reality, nothing could be further from the truth. Leaders are working to build credibility, build relationships with followers, and understand followers' career aspirations and views of the world. Although these take time, they are also activities leaders should be engaged in even if they are not coaching followers. Coaching really takes little additional time; it is more a function of changing how you spend time with followers so you can maximize their development.
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49) The first step leaders should take when deciding what to delegate is to identify all their present activities. Next leaders should estimate the actual time spent on these activities. After collecting this information, leaders need to assess whether each activity justifies the time they are spending on it. Next, decide whom to delegate the task to. There might be one individual whose talent and experience make her the logical best choice for any assignment. As with setting goals, leaders delegating an assignment must be sure the subordinate understands what the task involves and what is expected of her. Indicate what is to be accomplished, not how the task is to be accomplished. End results are usually more important than the methods. Effective delegation is neither micromanagement of everything the subordinate does nor laissez-faire indifference toward the subordinate's performance. Leaders need to give subordinates a degree of autonomy (as well as time, resources, and authority) in carrying out their new responsibilities, and this includes the freedom to make certain kinds of mistakes. Whenever leaders delegate, they must give subordinates authority along with responsibility. In the final analysis, however, leaders always remain fully responsible and accountable for any delegated task. If things should go wrong, the leaders should accept responsibility for failure fully and completely and never try to pass blame on to subordinates. On the other hand, if things go well, as they usually will, leaders should give all the public credit to the subordinates. Also, when providing performance feedback privately to a subordinate, emphasize what went right rather than what went wrong.
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50) The first step in informal coaching involves establishing a relationship built on mutual trust and respect with a follower. Next, the coach should inspire commitment and conduct a GAPS analysis. Once the coachee's development needs are identified and prioritized, the coachee will need to build development plans to overcome targeted needs. Having development and coaching plans in place is no guarantee that development will occur. Coaches need to promote persistence. This step in the coaching process is designed to help coachees "manage the mundane." To build bench strength, leaders need to create a learning environment so that personal development becomes an ongoing process rather than a one-time event and skills get transferred.
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Leaders and followers often overlook how changing the situation can help them to change their behavior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) In the context of situational factors affecting leaders' behaviors, Hunt and Osborn's multiple-influence model distinguished between microvariables and macrovariables. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) Task autonomy is the degree to which a job provides individuals with some control over what they do and how they do it. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
Solving a morale problem exemplifies a structured task.
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⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
With the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, judgers prefer activities that are unstructured. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Tasks with high levels of interdependence require leaders to use their organizing, planning, directing, and communication skills. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) According to Heifetz, technical problems can only be solved by changing the system itself, while adaptive problems can be resolved without changing the nature of the social system within which they occur. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) In the context of organizational structure, horizontal complexity refers to the number of hierarchical levels appearing on an organizational chart. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) Competitive advantage in one generation of a product's life is no guarantee of success for future generations of that product. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Leaders at higher organizational levels spend most of their time and effort implementing policies and procedures.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
11) Greater horizontal complexity is associated with an increased likelihood for communication breakdowns between subunits. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) In the context of formal organizations, organizations having written job descriptions and standardized operating procedures for each position have a low degree of formalization. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) Spatial complexity makes it easier for leaders to have face-to-face communication with subordinates and to provide personal support and encouragement. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) Kerr and Jermier proposed that certain situational or follower characteristics may effectively neutralize or substitute for leaders' task or relationship behaviors. ⊚ ⊚
15)
true false
Organizational climate is partly a function of organizational culture. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) In general, job satisfaction has more to do with nontask perceptions of work, such as feelings about co-workers, while organizational climate relates to perceptions of workload and the nature of the tasks performed.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
17) Organizational culture can be better understood by considering an organization's symbols, rituals, and language. ⊚ ⊚
18)
true false
Leaders can change an organization's culture by attending to or ignoring problems. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) Market cultures are characterized by a high degree of flexibility and discretion and a focus on the internal environment. ⊚ ⊚
true false
20) Societal culture refers to those learned behaviors that characterize the total way of life of members within any given society. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) Role theory clarifies how situational demands and constraints cause
A) vertical complexity. B) horizontal complexity. C) role overload. D) role conflict.
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22) Jeff is a self-employed consultant. He has complete control over his job. He schedules his work and decides what procedures to adopt to meet deadlines at work. In this scenario, Jeff's job provides him with a high degree of
A) task autonomy. B) task interdependence. C) task structure. D) task feedback.
23) In the context of organizational tasks, which of the following best describes task interdependence?
A) It concerns the degree to which a job provides an individual with some control over what he does and how he does it. B) It refers to the degree to which a person accomplishing a task receives information about performance from performing the task itself. C) It refers to the degree to which an unstructured task differs from a structured task. D) It concerns the degree to which tasks require coordination and synchronization for work groups or teams to accomplish desired goals.
24) Which of the following terms is defined as the degree to which a person accomplishing a task receives information about performance from performing the task itself?
A) task autonomy B) vertical complexity C) task feedback D) horizontal complexity
25)
Which of the following statements about unstructured tasks is most likely false?
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A) Unstructured tasks are by nature somewhat ill defined. B) Reducing the ambiguity of an unstructured situation is a leadership behavior appreciated by followers. C) While it is easier for a leader to give instruction in unstructured tasks, it is not necessarily the most helpful thing to do. D) Subordinates need help when a task is unstructured.
26)
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an adaptive problem?
A) The problem can only be solved by changing the system itself. B) It may be difficult to reach a consensus on what the problem really is. C) The problem may be complex, but there is an expert solution to solve it. D) Current resources and ways of thinking may be insufficient to solve the problem.
27) The information age organization operates with integrated business processes that cut across traditional business functions. This concerns which operating assumption underlying the information age?
A) links to customers and suppliers B) cross functions C) global scales D) knowledge workers
28) Industrial age companies prospered by offering low-cost but standardized products and services. This pertains to
A) customer segmentation. B) links to customers and suppliers. C) innovations. D) cross functions.
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29) An organization that has all its people in one location is typically _____ than an organization that is dispersed around the country or around the world.
A) more horizontally complex B) more vertically complex C) less vertically complex D) less spatially complex
30)
Typically, greater horizontal complexity is associated with
A) the number of hierarchical levels appearing on an organizational chart. B) an increased likelihood for communication breakdowns between subunits. C) the degree of standardization in an organization. D) the diffusion of decision making throughout an organization.
31) Which of the following is an advantage of decentralized organizations over centralized organizations?
A) uniform policies and procedures that are strictly enforced B) minimal participation in the decision process C) greater acceptance of decision outcomes D) clearer coordination procedures
32)
Which of the following best describes the term "organizational climate"?
A) It is related to how well organizational members get along with each other. B) It refers to the number of hierarchical levels appearing on an organizational chart. C) It is related to the task of resolving a morale problem on a team, committee, or work group when there is no clear-cut method for solving it. D) It refers to the diffusion of decision making throughout an organization.
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33) In the context of informal organizations, which of the following concerns members' subjective reactions to the organization?
A) organizational structure B) formalization C) organizational climate D) centralization
34) In the context of organizational cultures, identify a true statement about organizations with a hierarchy culture.
A) They have leaders who place premium on aggressiveness, decisiveness, and productivity. B) They emphasize having a high degree of flexibility and discretion. C) They tend to have formalized rules and procedures. D) They focus their attention primarily on the external environment.
35) Which of the following is a type of culture that has roots in a phrase that means "temporary or specialized"?
A) adhocracy culture B) hierarchy culture C) clan culture D) market culture
36)
Which of the following statements concerning societal culture is most likely false?
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A) Societal culture is comprised of the learned behaviors characterizing the total way of life of members within any given society. B) The beliefs and myths of a culture that provide context to manifest behaviors are generally hidden from view. C) To most outsiders, the most salient and visible aspect of any culture is the values. D) Becoming aware of cultural perspectives is critical for leaders in the global context.
37)
Unlike societies higher on collectivism, societies higher on individualism tend to
A) have a slower pace of life. B) assign less weight to love in marriage decisions. C) have higher heart attack rates. D) have fewer but longer and more intimate interactions.
38) GLOBE (Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness) researchers identified six cultural dimensions that were determined to be applicable across all global cultures for assessing culturally endorsed implicit theories of leadership (CLTs). Which of the following reflects the degree to which managers involve others in making and implementing decisions?
A) team-oriented leadership B) humane-oriented leadership C) autonomous leadership D) participative leadership
39) According to the GLOBE (Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness) study, which of the following is universally viewed as a positive leader attribute and behavior?
A) nonexplicit B) domineering C) decisive D) loner
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40) According to the GLOBE (Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness), which of the following behaviors is culturally contingent?
A) asocial B) dynamic C) ambitious D) insensitive
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Briefly explain the fundamental premises of Hunt and Osborn's multiple-influence model.
42)
Discuss task autonomy and task feedback.
43)
What is adaptive leadership?
44) Define task interdependence, and describe the leadership style for jobs with high interdependence.
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45)
Explain how level of authority affects leaders' and followers' behavior.
46) Define the term "organizational structure" and the three dimensions based on which it can be measured
47) Define formalization, and discuss its advantages and disadvantages for leaders and followers.
48)
Differentiate between organizational culture and organizational climate.
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49)
Discuss centralization in the context of formal organizations.
50) GLOBE (Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness) researchers identified six dimensions that were determined to be applicable across all global cultures for assessing culturally endorsed implicit theories of leadership (CLTs). Identify and discuss five of these dimensions and how they are used to categorize societies.
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 14 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) C Version 1
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27) B 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) C 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) C 38) D 39) C 40) C 41) Hunt and Osborn distinguished between microvariables (such as task characteristics) and macrovariables (such as the external environment) in a situation. Although most researchers looked at the effects tasks had on leader behaviors, Hunt and Osborn believed macrovariables have a pervasive influence on the ways leaders act. Both role theory and the multiple-influence model highlight a major problem in addressing situational factors, that situations can vary in countless ways. Because situations can vary in so many ways, it is helpful for leaders to have an abstract scheme for conceptualizing situations. This would be a step in knowing how to identify what may be most salient or critical to pay attention to in any particular instance.
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42) Task autonomy is the degree to which a job provides an individual with some control over what he does and how he does it. Someone with considerable autonomy would have discretion in scheduling work and deciding the procedures used in accomplishing it. Autonomy often covaries with technical expertise, that is, workers with considerable expertise will be given more latitude, and those with few skills will be given more instruction and coaching when accomplishing tasks. Moreover, responsibility and job satisfaction often increase when autonomy increases. Task feedback refers to the degree to which a person accomplishing a task receives information about performance from performing the task itself. In this context, feedback is received not from supervisors but rather from what is intrinsic to the work activity itself. Leaders should understand that followers may eventually become dissatisfied if leaders provide high levels of feedback for tasks that already provide intrinsic feedback. 44) Task interdependence concerns the degree to which tasks require coordination and synchronization in order for teams to accomplish desired goals. Tasks with high levels of interdependence place a premium on leaders' organizing and planning, directing, and communication skills.
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45) Level of authority concerns one's hierarchical level in an organization. The types of behaviors most critical to leadership effectiveness can change substantially as one moves up an organizational ladder. First-line supervisors, lower-level leaders, and coaches spend a considerable amount of time training followers, resolving work unit or team performance problems, scheduling practices or arranging work schedules, and implementing policies. Leaders at higher organizational levels have more autonomy and spend relatively more time setting policies, coordinating activities, and making staffing decisions. Moreover, leaders at higher organizational levels often perform a greater variety of activities and are more apt to use participation and delegation. 46) Horizontal, vertical, and spatial elements make up organizational complexity. When looking at an organizational chart, horizontal complexity refers to the number of "boxes" at any particular organizational level. The greater the number of boxes at a given level, the greater the horizontal complexity. Typically, greater horizontal complexity is associated with more specialization within subunits and an increased likelihood for communication breakdowns between subunits. Vertical complexity refers to the number of hierarchical levels appearing on an organizational chart. A vertically simple organization may only have two or three levels from the highest person to the lowest. A vertically complex organization, on the other hand, may have 10 or more. Vertical complexity can affect leadership by impacting other factors such as authority dynamics and communication networks. Spatial complexity describes geographical dispersion. An organization that has all of its people in one location is typically less spatially complex than an organization that is dispersed around the country or around the world.
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47) Formalization describes the degree of standardization in an organization. The degree of formalization in an organization poses both advantages and disadvantages for leaders and followers. Whereas formalizing procedures clarifies methods of operating and interacting, it also may constitute demands and constraints on leaders and followers. Leaders may be constrained in the ways they communicate requests, order supplies, or reward or discipline subordinates. If followers belong to a union, then union rules may dictate work hours, the amount of work accomplished per day, or who will be the first to be laid off. 48) Organizational culture has been defined as a system of shared backgrounds, norms, values, or beliefs among members of a group. Organizational climate concerns members' subjective reactions about the organization. These two concepts are distinct in that organizational climate is partly a function of, or reaction to, organizational culture; one's feelings about an organization are probably affected by the degree to which a person shares the prevailing values, beliefs, and backgrounds of organizational members.
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49) Centralization refers to the diffusion of decision making throughout an organization. An organization that allows decisions to be made by only one person is highly centralized. When decision making is dispersed to the lowest levels in the organization, the organization is very decentralized. Advantages of decentralized organizations include increased participation in the decision process and, consequently, greater acceptance and ownership of decision outcomes. These are both desirable outcomes. There are also, however, advantages to centralization, such as uniform policies and procedures (which can increase feelings of equity) and clearer coordination procedures. The task of balancing the degree of centralization necessary to achieve coordination and control, on the one hand, and gaining desirable participation and acceptance, on the other, is an ongoing challenge for the leader.
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50) • Charismatic/value-based leadership reflects the ability to inspire, motivate, and expect high performance from others on the basis of firmly held core values. • Team-oriented leadership emphasizes effective team building and implementation of a common purpose or goal among team members. • Participative leadership reflects the degree to which managers involve others in making and implementing decisions. • Humane-oriented leadership reflects supportive and considerate leadership as well as compassion and generosity. • Autonomous leadership refers to independent and individualistic leadership. • Self-protective leadership focuses on ensuring the safety and security of the individual or group member. After analyzing the data from all the societies in the study, GLOBE researchers categorized them into 10 different societal clusters (such as Eastern Europe, Nordic Europe, Latin America, Southern Asia, and Anglo). Societies were included in a cluster based on criteria of relative similarity of values and beliefs within each cluster and differentiation from other societal clusters. Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) In the routinization stage of development of the leader–member exchange theory, similarities (for the in-group) and differences (often accentuated for the out-group) become cemented. ⊚ true ⊚ false
2) In the role-taking stage of development of the leader–member exchange theory, a role is created based on a process of trust building.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
3) A model that is parsimonious is the one which has the greatest explanatory power on using the fewest predictor variables as possible. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) According to the situational leadership model, relationship behaviors involve how a leader tells the followers what to do and how to do it. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) According to the situational leadership model, follower readiness involves an assessment of an individual’s personality, intelligence, and values. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) With Situational Leadership, follower readiness refers to a follower's ability and willingness to accomplish a particular task. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) According to Hershey, leaders should implement a series of developmental interventions in order to increase follower readiness levels for particular tasks by first assessing a follower's current level of readiness and then determining the leader behavior that best suits that follower in that task. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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8) Situational Leadership is a useful way of getting leaders to think about how leadership effectiveness may depend on being flexible with different subordinates. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) The contingency model of leadership maintains that leaders are extremely flexible in their behavior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) In the context of contingency theory, the least preferred coworker (LPC) score is intended to represent follower behaviors and situational factors. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) Low-LPC leaders will focus on improving their relationships with followers after they are assured that assigned tasks are being satisfactorily accomplished. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) The highest levels of situational favorability occur when leader–member relations are good, the task is structured, and the position power is high. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) According to Fiedler's contingency model, the content of leadership training should emphasize behavioral flexibility in leaders rather than situational engineering. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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14) Position power is not a characteristic of leaders but of the situations that leaders find themselves in. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) The path–goal theory assumes that leaders use the same styles with different subordinates. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) According to the path–goal theory, followers will actively support a leader as long as they view the leader's actions as a means for increasing their own levels of satisfaction. ⊚ true ⊚ false
17) According to the path–goal theory, follower satisfaction is directly related to the degree of participative behaviors manifested by a leader. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) The path–goal theory considers three situational factors that moderate the effects of leader behavior on follower behavior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) Both leader behaviors and follower characteristics are important in determining outcomes in the path–goal theory. ⊚ ⊚
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20) According to the path–goal theory, a leader should assess a situation and select a leadership behavior appropriate to situational demands. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) In the context of the leader–member exchange (LMX) theory, which of the following statements is true of the role-taking stage of development?
A) A role is created based on a process of trust building. B) A leader offers opportunities and evaluates a follower's performance and potential. C) It is a fragile stage that occurs late in a follower's work experience. D) Similarities (for the in-group) and differences (often accentuated for the out-group) become cemented.
22) In the context of the leader–member exchange theory, which of the following stages of development in the process of relationship development occurs early in a subordinate's work?
A) role-making B) routinization C) role-taking D) rationalization
23) In the context of the leader–member exchange theory, which of the following statements is true of the routinization stage of development of a relationship?
A) A follower's performance and potential is evaluated by the leader in this stage. B) A follower is assigned either to the in-group or the out-group in this stage. C) The stage involves the process of trust-building between the leader and the follower. D) The relationship becomes well established in this stage.
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24)
The normative decision model is limited only to
A) decision making. B) task behaviors. C) goal accomplishment. D) goal expectancy.
25) According to the situational leadership model, which of the following behaviors is a task behavior?
A) listening B) telling C) facilitating D) clarifying
26) Which two broad categories of leader behaviors did the Situational Leadership model originally identify?
A) directive and supportive B) transformational and transactional C) behavior-oriented and cognitively-oriented D) initiating structure and consideration
27) In the context of the Situational Leadership model, which of the following was defined as the extent to which a leader spells out the responsibilities of an individual or group? A) relationship behaviors B) rhetorical skills C) developmental interventions D) task behaviors
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28) In the context of the Situational Leadership model, which of the following best defines follower readiness?
A) a follower's ability and willingness to accomplish a particular task B) the extent to which followers engage in two-way communication C) the extent to which followers spell out responsibilities of an individual or group D) a follower's reaction to certain leadership styles
29)
What should leaders first assess in order to apply the Situational Leadership model?
A) the level of task and relationship behavior that will likely produce successful outcomes B) the readiness level of a follower relative to the task to be accomplished C) a leader's behavior that best suits the current situation and task D) the historical behavior patterns of a leader and follower
30) In the context of the Situational Leadership model, which of the following is a relationship behavior?
A) telling people what to do B) spelling out how to do a task C) telling who is to do a task D) explaining why a task is important
31) In the context of the Situational Leadership model, which of the following depicts selling as a leadership behavior?
A) high task behavior, low relationship behavior B) low task behavior, low relationship behavior C) high task behavior, high relationship behavior D) low task behavior, high relationship behavior
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32)
Which of the following statements is true of the Situational Leadership model?
A) It considers situational favorability, which is the amount of control a leader has over his or her followers, an important variable. B) It maintains that leaders who correctly base their behaviors on follower maturity will be highly effective. C) It states that leader effectiveness depends on changing a situation to fit a particular leader's style. D) It believes that leader effectiveness depends on selecting the right kind of leader for a certain situation.
33) Which of the following instruments does Fiedler's contingency theory use to determine the relevant characteristics of a leader?
A) the Myers–Briggs Type Indicator B) the California Psychological Inventory C) the least preferred co-worker scale D) the Five-Factor Personality Inventory
34)
Which of the following statements about high-LPC leaders is most likely true?
A) If tasks are being accomplished in an acceptable manner, they will move to their secondary level of motivation, which is forming and maintaining relationships with followers. B) They focus on improving their relationships with followers after they are assured that assigned tasks are being satisfactorily accomplished. C) They are primarily satisfied by establishing and maintaining close interpersonal relationships. D) They primarily gain satisfaction from task accomplishment.
35) In the context of the contingency model, which of the following is the most powerful element of situational favorability?
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A) effort-to-performance expectancy B) lader–member relation C) task structure D) position power
36)
The highest levels of situational favorability most likely occur when
A) leader–member relations are good, the task is structured, and position power is high. B) there are high levels of leader–member conflict, the task is unstructured, and the leader uses reward power. C) leader–member relations are good, the task is unstructured, and position power is low. D) there are high levels of leader–member conflict, the task is structured, and the leader uses coercive power.
37) In the context of the four types of leader behavior in the path–goal theory, which leadership behavior is most likely characterized by telling followers what they are expected to do, how to do it, when it is to be done, and how their work fits in with the work of others? A) achievement-oriented leadership B) directive leadership C) participative leadership D) supportive leadership
38) In the context of the four types of leader behavior in the path–goal theory, which of the following is most likely a characteristic of achievement-oriented leadership?
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A) Leaders tell followers what they are expected to do, how to do it, when it is to be done, and how their work fits in with the work of others. B) Leaders have courteous and friendly interactions, express genuine concern for followers' well-being and individual needs, and remain open and approachable to followers. C) Leaders support follower behaviors by exhibiting a high degree of confidence so that subordinates can put forth the necessary effort. D) Leaders tend to share work problems with followers and solicit their suggestions, concerns, and recommendations.
39)
Which of the following statements about the path–goal theory is most likely false?
A) The three sub-elements in situation favorability are the task, the formal authority system, and the primary work group. B) Redundant leader behaviors might be interpreted by followers as a lack of understanding. C) If a task is very structured, informal authority decreases follower motivation levels. D) It maintains that follower and situational variables can impact each other.
40) In terms of the path–goal theory, which of the following is considered a situational factor?
A) the decision quality B) leader–member relations C) position power D) the task
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Discuss how the Leader–Member Exchange (LMX) theory has changed over the years.
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42)
Discuss the similarities among the various contingency theories of leadership.
43) How do follower readiness levels combine with leader behaviors in the situational leadership model?
44) Differentiate between task behaviors and relationship behaviors in the Situational Leadership model. Provide examples of each.
45)
What is follower readiness? Provide an example.
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46) What is the least preferred co-worker (LPC) scale? What can be learned from LPC scores?
47) Describe the primary difference between Fiedler's contingency model and the other contingency theories presented. What are the implications of this difference in an organizational setting?
48)
Why have researchers criticized the contingency model?
49) Describe a situation where the variables from the path–goal theory would make certain leader behaviors redundant.
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50) Illustrate how a leader might use the path–goal theory to improve leadership effectiveness.
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 15 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) D Version 1
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27) D 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) B rev: 02_25_2019_QC_CS-160556 38) C 39) C 40) D 41) There has been considerable evolution in leader–member exchange research and thinking over time. These relationships were originally described as vertical dyad linkages but have developed over time into what is most often referred to today as leader–member exchanges (LMXs). The focus was on stages of development as the process of the relationship developed over time. These stages typically were roletaking, role-making, and routinization. Perhaps the biggest leap forward in LMX came 25 years after its introduction, in an article by Graen and Uhl-Bien. In this publication, the authors expanded the descriptive portion of the model, which continued to focus on the dyadic processes between the leader and followers. However, the model also changed from merely describing the process to proposing a prescriptive process that would enhance organizational effectiveness. Now the model suggests behaviors that a leader should engage in to actively develop relationships and build more in-group relations across the follower pool. Version 1
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44) Task behaviors are defined as the extent to which a leader spells out the responsibilities of an individual or group. Task behaviors include telling people what to do, how to do it, when to do it, and who is to do it. Relationship behaviors refer to how much the leader engages in two-way communication. Relationship behaviors include listening, encouraging, facilitating, clarifying, explaining why a task is important, and giving support. 45) In Situational Leadership, follower readiness refers to a follower's ability and willingness to accomplish a particular task. Readiness is not an assessment of an individual's personality, traits, values, age, etc. It's not a personal characteristic, but rather how ready an individual is to perform a particular task. Any given follower could be low on readiness to perform one task but high on readiness to perform a different task. An experienced emergency room physician would be high in readiness on tasks like assessing a patient's medical status, but could be relatively low on readiness for facilitating an interdepartmental team meeting to solve an ambiguous and complex problem like developing hospital practices to encourage collaboration across departments. 46) The least preferred co-worker scale instructs a leader to think of the single individual with whom he has had the greatest difficulty working and then to describe that individual in terms of a series of bipolar adjectives. Those ratings are then converted into a numerical score. In thinking about such a procedure, many people assume that the score is determined primarily by the characteristics of whatever particular individual the leader happened to identify as his least preferred coworker. In the context of contingency theory, however, it is important to understand that the score is thought to represent something about the leader, not the specific individual the leader evaluated.
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47) Because leaders develop their distinctive motivation hierarchies and dominant behavior tendencies through a lifetime of experiences, Fiedler believed these hierarchies and tendencies would be difficult to change through training. Fiedler maintained it was naive to believe that sending someone to a relatively brief leadership training program could substantially alter any leader's personality or typical way of acting in leadership situations; after all, such tendencies had been developed over many years of experience. Instead of trying to change the leader, training would be more effective if it showed leaders how to recognize and change key situational characteristics to better fit their personal motivational hierarchies and behavioral tendencies. Thus, the content of leadership training should emphasize situational engineering rather than behavioral flexibility in leaders. Organizations could become more effective if they matched the characteristics of the leader with the demands of the situation than if they tried to change the leader to fit the situation. These suggestions imply that high- or low-LPC leaders in mismatched situations should either change the situation or move to jobs that better match their motivational hierarchies and behavioral patterns. 48) A review of the studies conducted in field settings yielded only mixed support for the model. Moreover, researchers have criticized the model for the uncertainties surrounding the meaning of LPC scores, the interpretation of situational favorability, and the relationships between LPC scores and situational favorability.
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49) If a task is very structured and routine, the formal authority system has constrained followers' behaviors, and the work group has established clear norms for performance, then leaders would be serving a redundant purpose by manifesting directive or achievement-oriented behaviors. Everything a follower needs in order to understand the effort-toperformance and performance-to-reward links is provided by the situation. Thus, redundant leader behaviors might be interpreted by followers as either a complete lack of understanding or empathy by the leader or an attempt by the leader to exert excessive control. Neither of these interpretations is likely to enhance the leader's acceptance by followers or increase their motivation.
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50) The path–goal theory maintains that leaders should first assess the situation and select a leadership behavior appropriate to situational demands. By manifesting the appropriate behaviors, leaders can increase followers' effort-to-performance expectancies, performance-to-reward expectancies, or valences of the outcomes. These increased expectancies and valences will improve subordinates' effort levels and the rewards attained, which in turn will increase subordinates' satisfaction and performance levels and the acceptance of their leaders. Suppose we have a set of followers who are in a newly created work unit and do not have a clear understanding of the requirements of their positions. In other words, the followers have a reasonably high level of role ambiguity. According to the path–goal theory, leaders should exhibit a high degree of directive behaviors in order to reduce the role ambiguity of their followers. The effort-to-performance link will become clearer when leaders tell followers what to do and how to do it in ambiguous situations, which in turn will cause followers to exert higher effort levels. Because role ambiguity is assumed to be unpleasant, these directive leader behaviors and higher effort levels should eventually result in higher satisfaction levels among followers. Similarly, leaders may look at the leadership situation and note that followers' performance levels are not acceptable. The leader may also conclude that the current situation offers few, if any, incentives for increased performance. In this case, the leader may use directive behaviors to increase the value of the rewards, which in turn will increase followers' effort levels and performance.
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) In Beer's formula for organizational change, C stands for challenge.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
2) It is significantly easier to drive change when followers are satisfied than when they are dissatisfied. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) The four key components of the model (M) variable in Beer's change formula are the environmental scanning, vision, setting of new goals to support the vision, and needed system changes. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) A leader views the organization as an interlocking set of processes and procedures when using a systems thinking approach. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) In siloed thinking, leaders act to optimize their part of the organization at the expense of suboptimizing the organization's overall effectiveness. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) The dissatisfaction (D) and model (M) components of the rational change model are most difficult for leadership practitioners to alter. ⊚ ⊚
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7) In the context of the rational approach to organizational change, the difference between initial expectations and reality resulting from a temporary drop in performance or productivity as followers learn new systems and skills is called the expectation–performance gap. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) Charismatic leaders are thought to possess superhuman qualities or powers of divine origin that set them apart from ordinary mortals. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) In the charismatic authority system, the unwritten laws of society dictate who has authority and how this authority can be used. ⊚ ⊚
10)
true false
Transactional leadership is very common but tends to be transitory. ⊚ true ⊚ false
11) The locus of authority in the charismatic authority system rests with the individual possessing unusual qualities and is not derived from birthright or laws. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) Charismatic leaders recognize the shortcomings of a present order and offer an imaginative vision to overcome them. ⊚ ⊚
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13) Charismatic leaders make extensive use of abstract and colorless rational discourse rather than metaphors, analogies, and stories to reframe issues and make their points. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) A personalized leadership style seems to be responsible for the feelings of empowerment notable among followers of charismatic or transformational leaders. ⊚ ⊚
15)
true false
Charismatic leaders tend to be emotionally expressive through nonverbal channels. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) Charisma is probably more a function of a leader's personal characteristics than of followers' reactions to the leader. ⊚ ⊚
17)
Emotions are often the fuel driving large-scale initiatives for change. ⊚ ⊚
18)
true false
Compliance occurs when followers embrace change requests as their own. ⊚ ⊚
19)
true false
true false
A crisis tends to reduce the likelihood for charismatic leadership to emerge.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
20) According to Bass's theory of transformational and transactional leadership, transformational leadership perpetuates the status quo. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) The formula for the rational approach to change is
A) C = D × O × T > R. B) C = D × M × P > R. C) C = M × R × D > P. D) C = D × O × L × T.
22) In the context of Beer's model of a rational approach to organizational change, which of the following will most likely result in increasing the amount of change (C)?
A) increasing the amount of resistance in followers B) dictating authority and how it can be used C) followers being content with status quo D) increasing the clarity of vision
23) Which of the following is a key component to the model (M) variable in Beer's model for organizational change?
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A) resistance B) type of coordination C) environmental scanning D) process
24) Which of the following leader actions would least likely increase follower dissatisfaction levels?
A) lowering employee performance standards B) comparing benchmarks against other organizations C) capitalizing on some type of financial or political crisis D) talking about potential competitive threats against the organization
25)
Which of the following statements about a company's vision is most likely false?
A) A vision helps the organization make choices about what it should and should not do. B) A vision statement should provide guidance for an organization's actions. C) Leaders often work with a team of followers to craft a vision statement. D) The final destination for an organization is identified in its vision.
26) Which of the following is an approach that asks leaders to think about their organization as a set of interlocking systems and explains how changes in one system can have intended and unintended consequences for other parts of the organization?
A) critical thinking approach B) leadership-versatility approach C) viable systems approach D) systems thinking approach
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27) In the context of the rational approach to organizational change, which of the following occurs when leaders act to optimize their part of the organization at the expense of suboptimizing the organization's overall effectiveness?
A) reframing B) learning agility C) expectation–performance gap D) siloed thinking
28)
What is the underlying cause for a huge percentage of failed change initiatives?
A) The leader is unable or unwilling to address organizational culture and capabilities issues. B) The leader optimizes one part of the organization at the expense of the firm's stockholders. C) The leader lacks a compelling vision for the financial strength of the organization. D) The leader fails to demonstrate empathy and listening skills with key followers.
29) The _____ component of the change model is where a change initiative becomes tangible and actionable because it consists of the development and execution of the change plan.
A) structural system B) dissatisfaction C) resistance D) process
30)
The "S" in the SARA model refers to
A) stress. B) shock. C) situation. D) systems.
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31) In the _____ stage of coping with change, you start to question whether the company really knew what it was doing by letting you go and perhaps rationalize that they will probably be calling you back.
A) acceptance B) rejection C) anger D) shock
32) In the context of the emotional approach to organizational change, identify a true statement about the charismatic authority system.
A) The unwritten laws of society dictate who has authority and how this authority can be used. B) The transfer of authority in such systems is based on traditions, such as passing power to the first-born son of a king after the king dies. C) The power is in the position itself rather than in the person who occupies the position. D) The locus of authority in this system rests with the individual possessing certain unusual qualities.
33) In the context of the emotional approach to organizational change, which of the following is defined as a particularly strong emotional reaction to, identification with, and belief in some leaders by some followers?
A) follower readiness B) siloed thinking C) charisma D) routinization
34)
Transformational leadership
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A) occurs when a person possesses authority not because of tradition but because of the laws that govern the position occupied. B) serves to change the status quo by appealing to followers' values and their sense of higher purpose. C) occurs when the traditions of society dictate who has authority and how this authority can be used. D) occurs when leaders and followers are in some type of exchange relationship in order to get needs met.
35) According to Burns, _____ occurs when leaders and followers are in some type of exchange relationship to get needs met.
A) transformational leadership B) transactional leadership C) facilitative leadership D) laissez-faire leadership
36)
Which of the following statements about transformational leaders is most likely true?
A) They are inherently future-oriented. B) Their vision is based solely on their own values. C) They struggle with reframing issues and concepts. D) They are rarely controversial or emotionally expressive.
37) Which of the following is the most important situational factor associated with charismatic leadership?
A) technological innovation B) task interdependence C) organizational downsizing D) presence or absence of a crisis
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38) In the context of Bass's theory of transformational and transactional leadership, which of the following statements is true of transformational leaders?
A) They possess impression management skills. B) They are unable to develop strong emotional bonds with followers. C) They promise rewards for desired performance. D) They are primarily concerned with perpetuating the status quo.
39) Which of the following was developed by Bass to assess the extent to which leaders exhibited transformational or transactional leadership and the extent to which followers were satisfied with their leader and believed their leader was effective?
A) Geographically dispersed teams (GDTs) B) Least-preferred co-worker scale (LPC) C) Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire (MLQ) D) Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire (LBDQ)
40) In the context of the Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire (MLQ), which of the following is assessed by the five transformational leadership factors?
A) the degree to which leaders fail to make decisions B) the extent to which leaders avoid responsibilities C) the degree to which a leader instills pride in others D) the extent to which leaders set goals
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) How can the C = D × M × P > R model help leadership practitioners?
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42) What are the four key components of the model (M) variable in the rational approach to change? Explain how you would use these components to drive change at your school. Apply the components to a specific example at your school, such as using alternative energy sources to provide power to dormitories, reducing the fats/sugars in cafeteria food, etc.
43)
Discuss how a leadership practitioner can utilize the SARA model.
44) Compare the traditional authority system with the legal–rational authority system. Provide examples of where they can be seen in organizations today.
45)
How did Conger and Kanungo differentiate charismatic from noncharismatic leaders?
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46) Use the emotional approach to outline a major change of your choice. If you were the leader of the change initiative, then what would you specifically need to do or attend to in order to drive your initiative? Be specific.
47)
What are the common characteristics of charismatic and transformational leadership?
48)
Differentiate between transformational and transactional leadership.
49)
Discuss the main ideas of Bass's theory of transformational and transactional leadership.
50) More than 350 studies have used the Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire (MLQ) to investigate transformational and transactional leadership in various situations. What have researchers learned about these two leadership styles?
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 16 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) D Version 1
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27) D 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) B 32) D 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) C 41) Leadership practitioners can use the C = D × M × P > R model as a roadmap for creating a new vision and goals, changing the products and services their organizations provide, or changing the IT, financial, operations, maintenance, or human resource systems used to support organizational goals. Likewise, leadership practitioners can also use this model as a diagnostic tool to determine where their change initiatives have fallen short—perhaps followers were reasonably satisfied with the status quo, did not buy-in to the new vision and goals, critical systems changes were not adequately identified, or change plans were incomplete or not properly implemented. Given the explanatory power of the model, the rational approach to change provides leaders and leaders-to-be with a useful heuristic for driving organizational and community change.
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42) Student responses may vary. The four components of "model" include environmental scanning, a vision, setting new goals to support the vision, and identifying needed system changes. You would begin by doing an environmental scan of the school, what sources of energy does it currently use, how much does it use, where does it get its energy, what alternative sources are available, what do these sources cost or require, etc.? You would then use your environmental scan to develop a compelling new vision about alternative energy use at the school. You would set clear, measurable goals for alternative energy use and identify the system and infrastructure changes needed to support the new vision and goals. 43) The first step is to simply recognize the four reactions to change. Second, leaders need to understand that individual followers can take more or less time to work through the four stages. Leaders can, however, accelerate the pace in which followers work through the four stages by maintaining an open door policy, demonstrating empathy, and listening to concerns. Third, it is important to note that people are not likely to take any positive action toward a change initiative until they reach the acceptance stage. This does not mean they are happy with the change, only that they accept the inevitability of the change. Fourth, they also need to understand that where people are in the SARA model often varies according to organization level. Usually the first people to realize that a change initiative needs to be implemented are the organization's top leaders. Like everyone else, they go through the four stages, but they are the first to do so. The next people to hear the news are middle managers, followed by first-line supervisors and individual contributors. These three groups also go through the emotional stages of the SARA model, but do so at different times.
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44) In the traditional authority system, the traditions or unwritten laws of society dictate who has authority and how this authority can be used. Examples include Ford, Marriott, Anheuser-Busch, Cargill, MolsonCoors, Amway, and Carlson Companies. In the legal–rational authority system a person possesses authority not because of tradition or birthright, but because of the laws that govern the position occupied. For example, elected officials and most leaders in nonprofit or publicly traded companies are authorized to take certain actions because of the position they occupy. 45) Conger and Kanungo used a stage model to differentiate charismatic from noncharismatic leaders. Charismatic leaders begin by thoroughly assessing the current situation and pinpointing problems with the status quo. They then articulate a vision that represents a change from the status quo. This vision represents a challenge to and is a motivating force for change for followers. The vision must be articulated in a way that increases dissatisfaction with the status quo and compels followers to take action. In the final stage, leaders build trust in their vision and goals by personal example, risk taking, and their total commitment to the vision.
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46) Students should outline the need to develop a clear and compelling vision that is aligned with followers' values. They will also need good rhetorical skills to communicate the vision and focus on building their image and trust with their followers. They will also need to build strong personal relationships with their followers. If they are able to do these four things, then they should have followers who willingly identify with and are subordinate to the leader, have heightened emotional levels, and experience strong feelings of empowerment. Leaders can increase the odds of being seen as transformational by creating a crisis and by leading a team whose members have to depend on each other to achieve results. 47) There are several common threads in the behavior and style of both charismatic and transformational leaders. These include their vision and values, rhetorical skills, ability to build a particular kind of image in the hearts and minds of their followers, and personalized styles of leadership. Both transformational and charismatic leaders are inherently future oriented. They involve helping a group move "from here to there." Charismatic and transformational leaders have superb rhetorical skills that heighten followers' emotional levels and inspire them to embrace the vision. One of the most important aspects of charismatic and transformational leadership is the personal nature of the leader's power. These leaders share strong, personal bonds with followers, even when the leader occupies a formal organizational role. It is this personalized leadership style that seems to be responsible for the feelings of empowerment notable among followers of charismatic or transformational leaders.
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48) Burns believed that leadership could take one of two forms. Transactional leadership occurred when leaders and followers were in some type of exchange relationship to get needs met. The exchange could be economic, political, or psychological, and examples might include exchanging money for work, votes for political favors, loyalty for consideration, and so forth. Transactional leadership is common but tends to be transitory in that there may be no enduring purpose to hold parties together once a transaction is made. Burns also noted that while this type of leadership could be quite effective, it did not result in organizational or societal change and instead tended to perpetuate and legitimize the status quo. The second form of leadership is transformational leadership, which changes the status quo by appealing to followers' values and their sense of higher purpose. Transformational leaders articulate the problems in the current system and have a compelling vision of what a new society or organization could be. This new vision of society is intimately linked to the values of both the leader and the followers; it represents an ideal that is congruent with their value systems. According to Burns, transformational leadership is ultimately a moral exercise in that it raises the standard of human conduct. This implies that the acid test for transformational leadership might be the answer to the question "Do the changes advocated by the leader advance or hinder the development of the organization or society?" Transformational leaders are also adept at reframing issues; they point out how the problems or issues facing followers can be resolved if they fulfill the leader's vision of the future. These leaders also teach followers how to become leaders in their own right and incite them to play active roles in the change movement.
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49) According to Bass, transformational leaders possess good vision, rhetorical, and impression management skills and use them to develop strong emotional bonds with followers. Transformational leaders are believed to be more successful at driving organizational change because of followers' heightened emotional levels and their willingness to work toward the accomplishment of the leader's vision. In contrast, transactional leaders do not possess these leader characteristics, nor are they able to develop strong emotional bonds with followers or inspire followers to do more than followers thought they could. Instead, transactional leaders believe in motivating followers by setting goals and promising rewards for desired performance. Avolio and Bass maintained that transactional leadership could have positive effects on follower satisfaction and performance levels, but they also stated that these behaviors were often underutilized because of time constraints, a lack of leader skills, and a disbelief among leaders that rewards could boost performance. Bass also maintained that transactional leadership only perpetuates the status quo; a leader's use of rewards does not result in the long-term changes associated with transformational leadership.
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50) Transformational leadership can be observed in all countries, institutions, and organizational levels, but it was more prevalent in public institutions and at lower organizational levels. Second, there is overwhelming evidence that transformational leadership is a significantly better predictor of organizational effectiveness than transactional or laissez-faire leadership. Transformational leaders, whether they are U.S. presidents, CEOs, school administrators, or plant managers, seem to be more effective than transactional leaders at driving organizational change and getting results. Laissez-faire leadership was negatively correlated with effectiveness. Research provided strong evidence that it is possible for leaders to systematically develop their transformational and transactional leadership skills. Despite this evidence that it may be possible to select and train transformational leaders, the fact remains that charisma ultimately exists in the eye of the beholder. Thus there can be no guarantee that leaders who have the right stuff and are schooled in the appropriate techniques will be seen as charismatic by followers.
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Destructive leadership can occur at different levels in organizations. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) Destructive leadership is associated with leaders who use morally or ethically questionable methods to achieve results. ⊚ ⊚
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3)
The base rate of managerial incompetence is estimated at 25 to 30 percent. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) The root cause of most major industrial accidents and incidents can be traced back to management cost-cutting initiatives. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) The Dr. Gordy test is used to determine the level of incompetence among persons in positions of authority. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
A vast majority of people in positions of authority are competent. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) One of the reasons a leader is unable to build teams is because of dark-side personality traits. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) A derailed manager exhibiting an inability to build relationships with co-workers is insensitive to the needs and plights of followers and is often overly competitive, demanding, and domineering. ⊚ ⊚
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9) The increasing pressure on organizations to find good leaders quickly tends to cause leaders to fail because of inadequate preparation for promotion. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) The term "managerial derailment" is used for individuals who are unable to engage with followers, build teams, and achieve results as a team. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) A manager's intelligence is directly related to his or her ability to make decisions as well as his or her ability to build cohesive teams and get results. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) People in positions of authority can leverage the intelligence and experience of their staffs to develop solutions that help their teams succeed. ⊚ ⊚
13)
Criticizers tend to do all they can to get out of work. ⊚ ⊚
14)
true false
Everyone has at least one dark-side personality trait. ⊚ ⊚
15)
true false
true false
Dark-side traits are usually apparent when leaders are attending to their public image.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
16) People who possess bold, mischievous, colorful, and imaginative dark-side traits often do well in interviews and get hired as a result. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) Episodic managerial incompetence occurs when taxing situational or follower events permanently disrupt a person's ability to build teams or get results. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) Competent managers have a highly active reality distortion field, where they only take in information that is aligned with their self-perceptions and discount any evidence to the contrary. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) Dark-side personality traits are a cause of managerial incompetence and involve irritating, counterproductive behavioral tendencies that interfere with a leader's ability to build cohesive teams and cause followers to exert less effort toward goal accomplishment. ⊚ ⊚
true false
20) In the context of the root causes of managerial incompetence and derailment, dark-side traits have a lower influence on performance for people in leadership versus followership roles. ⊚ ⊚
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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) According to research, between 50 and 90 percent of all new businesses fail within five years because of
A) insufficient investment capital. B) managerial incompetence. C) unethical business practices. D) poor target marketing.
22) Which of the following individuals are good at building teams and getting results through others?
A) cheerleaders B) taskmasters C) competent managers D) figurehead managers
23) In the context of managerial incompetence, which of the following is used to determine the level of incompetence among people in positions of authority?
A) the least preferred co-worker scale B) the balanced scorecard C) the Dr. Gordy test D) the Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire
24) In the context of the dark side of leadership, which of the following describes the common reasons why people in positions of authority have difficulty engaging followers, building teams, or getting results through others?
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A) situational awareness B) managerial derailment C) narcissism D) reality distortion field
25) Which of the following most likely underlies the management derailment pattern of being unable to lead and build a team?
A) the presence of dark-side traits B) inadequate distribution channels C) poor product development decisions D) lying about business and financial results
26) Managers who derail because of an inability to build relationships with co-workers are most likely
A) overly sensitive. B) domineering. C) self-conscious. D) lazy.
27) When people in positions of authority face extremely tough situational or follower events that temporarily interfere with their ability to build teams and get results, the situation is known as
A) chronic managerial incompetence. B) authoritarian management. C) impoverished management. D) episodic managerial incompetence.
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28) In the context of the root causes of managerial incompetence and derailment, which of the following occurs when taxing situational or follower events permanently disrupt a person's ability to build teams or get results?
A) episodic managerial incompetence B) managerial derailment C) moronization of management D) chronic managerial incompetence
29)
_____ is defined as the relevant knowledge a person can leverage to solve a problem.
A) Managerial competence B) Technical expertise C) Subject matter expertise D) Team-building know-how
30) _____ are followers who seek forgiveness rather than permission and offer alternative solutions.
A) Slackers B) Brown-nosers C) Criticizers D) Self-starters
31) Which of the following is a root cause of managerial incompetence and involves irritating, counterproductive behavioral tendencies that interfere with a leader's ability to build cohesive teams and cause followers to exert less effort toward goal accomplishment?
A) low levels of situational awareness B) poor followership C) dark-side personality traits D) highly active reality distortion field
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32) In the context of dark-side personality traits, which of the following is most likely true of leaders who are dutiful?
A) These leaders become extremely withdrawn and are uncommunicative during times of stress. B) These leaders are constantly questioning the motives and challenging the integrity of their followers. C) These leaders lack spines and are unwilling to refuse unrealistic requests. D) These leaders think in eccentric ways and make strange or odd decisions.
33) In the context of the root causes of management incompetence and derailment, which of the following is most likely true of leaders with a bold dark-side personality trait?
A) These leaders think in eccentric ways, often change their minds, and make strange or odd decisions. B) These leaders have a tendency to blame their mistakes on others, and they are unable to learn from experience. C) These leaders tend to be quite charming but take pleasure in seeing if they can get away with breaking commitments. D) These leaders frustrate and disempower their staffs through micromanagement.
34) In the context of dark-side personality traits in leaders, which trait is associated with an unhealthy mistrust of others, constant questioning of the motives and integrity of followers, and vigilance for signs of disloyalty?
A) diligent B) reserved C) skeptical D) cautious
35)
Diligent leaders are most likely to
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A) blame others for their mistakes. B) deal with stress by trying to gain favors from superiors. C) frustrate their staffs through micromanagement. D) be unconcerned about the welfare of their staff.
36) In the context of the root causes of management incompetence and derailment, which of the following is most likely true of leaders with a reserved dark-side personality trait?
A) These leaders have difficulties building teams because of their dramatic mood swings. B) These leaders deal with stress by becoming extremely withdrawn and uncommunicative. C) These leaders have an unhealthy mistrust of others and are vigilant for signs of disloyalty. D) These leaders deal with stress by showing ingratiating behavior to superiors.
37) In the context of the root causes of management incompetence and derailment, identify a true statement about dark-side traits?
A) They are easy to detect in interviews or assessment centers or with bright-side personality inventories. B) They have a bigger influence on performance for people in followership versus leadership roles. C) They are usually apparent only when leaders are attending to their public image. D) They usually emerge during crises or periods of high stress and serve as coping mechanisms.
38) Which of the following managerial types have most likely gained insight into their darkside traits and found ways to negate the debilitating effects of these traits on followers?
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A) competent managers B) taskmasters C) cheerleaders D) figureheads
39) In the context of leadership motivation, which of the following statements is true of successful leaders?
A) They spend a lot of time managing their people, teams, and business results. B) They move through the ranks quickly and are motivated by promotion. C) They spend relatively little time networking and stay away from office politics. D) They engage in securing needed resources, building high-performing teams, and driving results.
40) Jim Collins' study of highly successful companies that subsequently failed indicated that these firms went through a five-stage process toward failure. What is the first stage of the process?
A) Leaders focus on succession planning initiatives, and firms expand globally. B) Firms focus on external factors such as competitors and changing technologies. C) Leaders strive to merge with successful companies to gain more market share. D) Firms become insulated by success, and leaders adopt an entitlement mentality.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Differentiate between destructive leadership and managerial incompetence.
42)
Briefly contrast managerial incompetence with managerial derailment.
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43)
Explain the Dr. Gordy test.
44)
Name and briefly describe the four managerial derailment patterns.
45)
Contrast episodic managerial incompetence and chronic managerial incompetence.
46)
Discuss the idea of organizational fit and how it can affect leadership success.
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47) What are dark-side personality traits, and how might they come into play with college athletic coaches?
48) How do dark-side traits have a bigger influence on performance for people in leadership versus followership roles?
49) How does the lack of situational and self-awareness lead to management incompetence and derailment?
50) According to Jim Collins, what are the stages that companies that were once highly successful but subsequently failed go through?
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 17 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) B Version 1
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27) D 28) D 29) C 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) D 38) A 39) B 40) D 41) Destructive leadership is associated with individuals who are effective at building teams and getting results through others, but who obtain results that are morally or ethically challenged. Unlike destructive leadership, managerial incompetence concerns a person's inability to build teams or get results through others. A majority of people in positions of authority can have difficulties in one or both these areas. 42) Managerial incompetence concerns a person's inability to engage followers, build teams, or get results through others. It turns out that a majority of people in positions of authority can have difficulties in one, two, or all three of these areas. Managerial derailment describes the common reasons why people in positions of authority have difficulty engaging followers, building teams, or getting results through others. Knowing the six root causes of managerial derailment and what to do to avoid these pitfalls can help one be more effective as a leader.
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43) One easy way to determine the level of incompetence among persons in positions of authority is to do the Dr. Gordy test. To use the test, begin by counting the total number of people you have been led by in the past. This total should include anyone with whom you played a more formal followership role. Once you have arrived at a total, you should then count the number of people in this group that you would willingly play, sing, or work for again. How many of these people would you play a followership role for again if given a choice? Now calculate the percentage of competent leaders out of the total group of leaders. When health care, education, business, military, and community leaders are asked the same question, most only need the digits on a single hand to count the number of leaders they would willingly work for again. The percentage of competent leaders people would willingly work for again varies dramatically across individuals, but the percentage seems to hover between 25 and 40 percent. This means that most people would not work for a majority of leaders they have been exposed to.
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44) 1. A failure to meet business objectives: Although both successful and derailed managers experience business downturns, the two groups handle setbacks quite differently. Successful managers take personal responsibility for their mistakes and seek ways to solve the problem. Derailed managers tend to engage in finger-pointing and blame others for downturns. As long as things are going well, it is difficult to differentiate these two groups on this factor. Some of these managers are untrustworthy. They blatantly lie about business results, cook the books, or fail to keep promises, commitments, or deadlines. Others fail because they are not particularly smart or do not have an in-depth understanding of the business and as a result exercise poor judgment. 2. An inability to build and lead a team: Some high-potential candidates derail because they simply do not know how to build teams. Others fail by hiring staff members that are just like themselves, which only magnifies their own strengths and weaknesses. Some want to stay in the limelight and hire staff less capable than they are. Still others micromanage their staffs and want their followers to "check their brains at the door" before coming to work, even when they lack relevant subject matter expertise. 3. An inability to build relationships with co-workers: The derailed managers exhibiting this pattern of behavior are insensitive to the needs and plights of their followers and co-workers, and they are often overly competitive, demanding, and domineering. They embrace the "my way or the highway" school of management, and many can be categorized as results-only managers. 4. A leader's inability to adapt to new bosses, businesses, cultures, or structures: Business situations require different leadership behaviors and skills, and some derailed managers cannot adapt or adjust their styles to changing bosses, followers, and situations. They persist in acting the same way when it is no longer appropriate to new circumstances. Version 1
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45) Episodic managerial incompetence occurs when people in positions of authority face extremely tough situational or follower events that temporarily interfere with their ability to build teams and get results. However, once they have reflected upon and taken action to cope with the event, they quickly regain their ability to successfully build teams and get results. Chronic managerial incompetence occurs when taxing situational or follower events permanently disrupt a person's ability to build teams or get results. All competent managers experience occasional episodic managerial incompetence; the trick is to limit the frequency and duration of these occurrences. But given their preferred ways of dealing with challenging events, cheerleaders, results-only managers, and in-nameonly managers seem to exemplify chronic managerial incompetence. 46) Organizational culture is not one of those pervasive situational factors that doom managers to fail, but a person's fit with an organization's culture can cause him or her to be seen as incompetent. Organizational fit can be defined as the degree of agreement between personal and organizational values and beliefs. If a person does not share the values or beliefs of the majority of members, then in all likelihood this person will be a poor fit with the organization. Many times people who do not fit with an organization's culture wield diminishing levels of influence, which interferes with their ability to build teams and get results.
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47) Dark-side personality traits are irritating, counterproductive tendencies that interfere with a leader's ability to build cohesive teams and cause followers to exert less effort toward goal accomplishment. There are 11 common dark-side traits, and they are more likely to surface during times of high stress or in a crisis, when leaders are focused on task accomplishment or multitasking, or when leaders feel comfortable enough around others to let their guard down. Since coaches work closely with the players and operate during times of high stress and focused task accomplishment, the dark side of college basketball coaches often manifest during games and can easily be observed by players and fans. 48) Dark-side traits have a bigger influence on performance for people in leadership versus followership roles. An individual contributor might have leisurely or cautious tendencies, but because they do not have to get work done through others these tendencies have less of an impact on their work units than if these same individuals were first-line supervisors or business unit leaders. These individual contributors may not be fun to work with, but their counterproductive tendencies will not be as debilitating to their teams as they would if these people were leading their teams.
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49) Situational awareness refers to the accurate reading of situational and follower factors affecting teams and remaining vigilant for changes. People in positions of authority must also have a high degree of situational awareness if they want to be seen as competent managers. Competent managers also have high levels of self-awareness. They are keenly aware of their own strengths and shortcomings and often find ways to either manage or staff around their personal knowledge and skill gaps. In contrast, incompetent managers can have major situational and self-awareness blind spots. There appear to be two reasons why some leaders lack situational and self-awareness. First, some incompetent managers are self-deluding, and the most incompetent managers may be those who are the most selfdeluding. These managers suffer from having a highly active reality distortion field, where they only take in information that is aligned with their self-perceptions and discount any evidence to the contrary. Second, some incompetent managers lack situational and self-awareness because they fail to heed direct report feedback. Incompetent leaders may spend considerably more time paying attention to and developing relationships with those who control their fate (that is, superiors) than with team members. They are also in a position where they can and often do ignore any feedback from their staff, even when this information would help them build teams and get results through others. And by regularly shooting the messenger, incompetent leaders dampen any additional feedback that would make them more effective and push self-starters over to the dark side of followership.
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50) Jim Collins believed that companies that stumble go through the following five-stage process: 1. Stage 1—hubris born of success: Great businesses become insulated by success, and leaders with strong business results often become arrogant, adopt an entitlement mentality, and lose sight of what made their companies successful. 2. Stage 2—undisciplined pursuit of more: Because of the arrogance in stage 1, top leaders focus on growth, acclaim, and whatever those in charge deem as "success" and pursue ideas that are unrelated to the core business. 3. Stage 3—denial of risk and peril: As the warning signs from stage 2 begin to emerge, companies place the blame for their lack of success on external factors rather than on their own risky decisions to expand. In this stage vigorous, fact-based discussions disappear, and top leaders explain away or discount negative information. 4. Stage 4—grasping for salvation: As the warning signs translate to actual business results and companies begin to drown in red ink, they often grasp at anything that will save them. This salvation sometimes comes from outside charismatic leaders, bold but untested strategies, hoped-for blockbuster products, or game-changing acquisitions. 5. Stage 5—capitulation to irrelevance or death: Accumulated setbacks and the continuous erosion of financial performance cause top leaders to lose hope and sell out; and the longer companies remain in stage 4, the more likely they will be declared bankrupt or be acquired by their competitors.
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A leadership vision consists of six related components.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
2) The idea component of a leader's vision is more likely to gain follower commitment if it is a solo effort by the leader. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) A leader's credibility erodes if the team members are not held accountable for behavior that is misaligned with the team's operating principles. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Leaders should focus primarily on developing edge before defining their team's core values. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) In the context of developing a leadership vision, the components of ideas and expectations are concerned more with the delivery of the content than with the content itself. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Conflict resolution will become a less essential skill as management practices shift away from authoritarian directives and toward cooperative approaches. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) In the context of managing conflict, a zero-sum situation is one in which intermediate degrees of satisfaction are possible but increases in one party's satisfaction inherently decrease the other party's satisfaction, and vice versa. Version 1
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⊚ ⊚
true false
8) In the context of general approaches to conflict resolution as described by Thomas, accommodation is an approach that represents a compromise between domination and appeasement. ⊚ ⊚
9)
Increased effort and stimulated critical thinking are potential benefits of conflict. ⊚ ⊚
10) gain.
true false
true false
Winning a negotiation at your counterpart's expense will usually result in a long-term
⊚ ⊚
true false
11) Compromising is most likely the best approach to conflict management when opponents with equal power are committed to mutually exclusive goals. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) When a leader wants to allow subordinates to learn from their mistakes, then compromising is the best conflict-management approach. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) The negative effects of conflicts include a decrease in communication and an increase in negative feelings among team members.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
14) One of Fisher and Ury's main tips on successful negotiation is to focus on positions, not on interests. ⊚ ⊚
15)
true false
In general, leaders will be only as effective as the followers and teams they lead. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) In terms of a model of performance, the two components that make up capabilities are training and goal setting. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) In the context of team building, catalyzing real team performances at the top means replacing executive leadership with executive teams. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) In the context of team building, managers should be unapologetic and insistent about exercising their authority over direction and over outer-limit constraints on team behavior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) Research suggests that groups with appropriate structures tend to develop healthy internal processes, whereas groups with insufficient or inappropriate structures tend to have process problems.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
20) A strictly hands-off managerial stance tends to improve a team's effectiveness, particularly when members are inexperienced in teamwork because team members are forced to work collaboratively. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) People most likely get more involved in a leader's vision when _____ are used.
A) lengthy, formal speeches B) PowerPoint presentations C) personal experiences D) current statistics
22)
Which of the following is not a component of a leadership vision?
A) ideas B) edge C) policies D) expectations
23) In the context of leaders creating a compelling vision, which of the following components pertains to lessons of leadership learned through personal experience that are related to a team's future picture and core values?
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A) idea B) edge C) expectation D) emotional energy
24) Which of the following components of a leadership vision involve setting up operating principles and performance standards for the team?
A) ideas B) edge C) expectations D) emotional energy
25)
Which of the following would least likely cause a conflict in a work group?
A) group members competing for rewards B) group members facing uncertain demands C) group members having similar short-term goals D) group members having strong differences in values
26)
Researchers have found that conflict can most likely cause a radical change in
A) perception. B) political power. C) task delegation. D) negotiation terms.
27) In the context of the five general approaches to managing conflict as described by Thomas, which conflict resolution approach is known as the win–lose orientation?
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A) the avoidance approach B) the competition approach C) the collaboration approach D) the sharing approach
28) Which of the following is not one of the five general approaches to managing conflict as described by Thomas?
A) avoidance B) sharing C) negotiation D) competition
29) Two parties in conflict arrive at a compromise between domination and appeasement. In the context of the general approaches to managing conflict as described by Thomas, which of the following resolution approaches does this refer to?
A) the sharing approach B) the competition approach C) the collaboration approach D) the accommodation approach
30) In order to resolve a conflict, one party entirely gives in to the other party's concerns without making any effort to achieve its own ends. In the context of the five general approaches to conflict resolution as described by Thomas, which of the following resolution approaches does this refer to?
A) The avoidance approach B) The sharing approach C) The collaboration approach D) The accommodation approach
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31) In the context of the five general approaches to managing conflict between two parties as described by Thomas, which of the following is a characteristic of the collaboration approach?
A) It involves indifference to the concerns of both parties. B) It represents a compromise between domination and appeasement. C) It reflects a desire to achieve one's own ends at the expense of someone else. D) It reflects an effort to fully satisfy both parties.
32)
Which of the following is a positive effect of conflict within a team?
A) increased stress B) political backstabbing C) surfacing of key issues D) decreased communication
33)
Identify a true statement about negotiation as a technique to resolve conflicts.
A) Negotiators should treat people and problems as the same. B) Win–win negotiation is always the best technique. C) Negotiation should primarily focus on interests and not on positions. D) Minimal amount of time should be spent in preparing for a negotiating session.
34)
Which equation represents the model of performance?
A) Expectations = f (Performance × Capabilities × Opportunities × Motivation) B) Performance = f (Expectations × Capabilities × Opportunities × Motivation) C) Capabilities = f (Expectations × Performance × Opportunities × Motivation) D) Performance = f (Expectations × Capabilities × Programs × Rewards)
35)
What is the main purpose of using the model of performance?
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A) identifying job satisfaction levels in the industry B) benchmarking the organizational climate C) initiating performance appraisals D) managing problem performers
36) What should a leader do if the model of performance reveals that expectations for compliance are causing performance problems?
A) provide training opportunities B) utilize reward power C) clarify team goals D) delegate tasks
37) In the context of diagnosing performance problems, which of the following statements is most likely true of the expectations component of the performance model?
A) Problems occur when teams are unclear about their objectives. B) Lack of financial resources and necessary equipment leads to performance problems. C) Problems are resolved by sending people who lack abilities for training. D) Abilities and skills are the components that make up expectations.
38) In the context of performance problems, which of the following should leaders do to resolve motivation problems in followers and teams?
A) They should ensure that followers wait for proper instructions. B) They should reallocate and redesign tasks to improve skill variety. C) They should select followers with low levels of intrinsic motivation. D) They should obtain all necessary equipment required for a task.
39)
Which statement about executive teams is most likely false?
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A) Executive teams are often bogged down while making operational decisions. B) Executive teams have the opportunity to change organizational systems. C) All the work that is done at the executive level requires all of the team members to be present. D) Because of their level in the organization, most executive teams are shielded from many of the resource constraints other teams face.
40)
Which of the following is a team trip wire presented by Hackman?
A) create an inappropriate authority balance in the group B) define tasks for which members are collectively responsible C) specify simple team objectives and provide adequate resources D) provide organizational support for task-performing teams and work groups
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) What are the characteristics of a compelling leadership vision? What questions should such a vision address?
42) A leadership vision consists of four related components. List and discuss each of these components and how they contribute to the vision.
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43) Briefly define conflict, and describe several aspects of conflict that can have an impact on the resolution process.
44)
Identify the positive and negative effects of conflict in a team or organization.
45) Name and describe the five general approaches to managing conflict that were described by Thomas.
46) Describe at least three situations in which collaborating is the best conflict-management approach to use.
47) Fisher and Ury offered several tips for successful negotiation. Name and briefly describe those tips.
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48)
Name and describe the components of the model of performance.
49) What are two ways in which executive teams differ from other kinds of work teams in an organization?
50)
In the context of team building in executive teams, discuss any three tripwire lessons.
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Answer Key Test name: chapter 18 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) B Version 1
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27) B 28) C 29) A 30) D 31) D 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) People don't get particularly excited about a leader's vision by sitting through lengthy PowerPoint presentations or formal speeches. People tend to get more involved when leaders use stories, analogies, and personal experiences to paint compelling pictures of the future. As such, a leader's vision should be a personal statement that should help listeners answer the following questions: • Where is the team going, and how will it get there? • How does the team win, and how does it contribute to the broader organization's success? • How does the speaker define leadership? • What gets the speaker excited about being a leader? • What are the speaker's key values? In other words, what are the leader's expectations for team members, and what will she or he not tolerate as a leader?
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42) The four components of leadership vision are ideas, expectations, edge, and emotional energy. The idea component of a leader's vision begins with an honest assessment of the current situation facing the team. Leaders need to clearly identify what the team is doing well, what it is not doing well, how it is performing compared with the competition, and what challenges it faces. Ideas should also describe what changes the team must make to accomplish its major goals, explain why these changes are necessary, and give listeners hope for the future. A leader's vision also needs to clearly describe her or his expectations for team member behavior. Because values and operating principles play such an important role in defining team member expectations, leaders should spend time identifying the team's core values and the positive and negative behaviors associated with these values. Emotional energy is the level of enthusiasm that leaders use to convey the future vision and the team's operating principles. If leaders are not excited about where the team is going and how it will get there, it will be difficult to get others to join the effort. Edge pertains to lessons of leadership learned through personal experience that are related to the team's future picture and core values. Edge includes personal stories and examples that can help color a team's future picture.
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43) Conflict occurs when opposing parties have interests or goals that appear to be incompatible. There are several aspects of conflict that can have an impact on the resolution process. First, the size of an issue (bigger issues are more difficult to resolve), the extent to which parties define the problem egocentrically (how much they have personally invested in the problem), and the existence of hidden agendas (unstated but important concerns or objectives) can all affect the conflict resolution process. Second, seeing a conflict situation in win–lose or either–or terms restricts the perceived possible outcomes to either total satisfaction or total frustration. A similar but less extreme variant is to see a situation in zero-sum terms. A zero-sum situation is one in which intermediate degrees of satisfaction are possible, but increases in one party's satisfaction inherently decrease the other party's satisfaction, and vice versa. Still another variant can occur when parties perceive a conflict as unresolvable. In such cases neither party gains at the expense of the other, but each continues to perceive the other as an obstacle to satisfaction. 44) Possible positive effects of conflict include increased effort, feelings get aired, better understanding of others, impetus for change, better decision making, key issues surface, critical thinking stimulated. Possible negative effects of conflict include reduced productivity, decreased communication, negative feelings, stress, poorer decision making, decreased cooperation, political backstabbing.
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45) 1. Competition reflects a desire to achieve one's own ends at the expense of someone else. This is domination, also known as a win–lose orientation. 2. Accommodation reflects a mirror image of competition—entirely giving in to someone else's concerns without making any effort to achieve one's own ends. This is a tactic of appeasement. 3. Sharing is an approach that represents a compromise between domination and appeasement. Both parties give up something, yet both parties get something. Both parties are moderately, but incompletely, satisfied. 4. Collaboration reflects an effort to fully satisfy both parties. This is a problem-solving approach that requires the integration of each party's concerns. 5. Avoidance involves indifference to the concerns of both parties. It reflects a withdrawal from or neglect of any party's interests. 46) Collaborating is the best conflict-management approach to use in the following situations: 1. To find an integrative solution when both sets of concerns are too important to be compromised 2. When one's objective is to learn 3. When one has to merge insights from people with different perspectives 4. When has to gain commitment by incorporating concerns into a consensus 5. When one has to work through feelings that have interfered with a relationship
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47) Prepare for the Negotiation: To successfully resolve conflicts, leaders may need to spend considerable time preparing for a negotiating session. Leaders should anticipate each side's key concerns and issues, attitudes, possible negotiating strategies, and goals. Separate the People from the Problem: Fisher and Ury also advised negotiators to separate the people from the problem. Because all negotiations involve substantive issues and relationships between negotiators, it is easy for these parts to become entangled. Focus on Interests, Not Positions: Focusing on interests depends on understanding the difference between interests and positions. 48) 1. Expectations: Performance problems often occur because individuals or groups do not understand what they are supposed to do. In many instances talented, skilled groups accomplish the wrong objective because of miscommunication or sit idly while waiting for instructions that never arrive. It is the leader's responsibility to ensure that followers understand their roles, goals, performance standards, and the key metrics for determining success. 2. Capabilities: Just because followers understand what they are supposed to do does not necessarily mean they can do it. Sometimes followers and teams lack the capabilities needed to achieve a goal or perform above expectations. 3. Opportunities: Performance can also be limited when followers lack the resources needed to get the job done. At other times followers may lack the opportunity to demonstrate acquired skills. 4. Motivation: Many performance problems can be attributed to a lack of motivation. The critical issue here is whether followers or groups choose to perform or exhibit the level of effort necessary to accomplish a task. If this does not occur, the leader should first try to learn why people are unmotivated.
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49) As opposed to other kinds of work teams, not all the work at the executive level requires all (or even any) of the team to be present. Many top leadership challenges do not require teamwork at all. Furthermore, many top leadership challenges that do constitute real team opportunities do not require or warrant full involvement by everyone who is officially on the team. In fact, an official "team at the top" rarely functions as a collective whole involving all the formal members. The second difference with executive teams is that they have an opportunity to enhance teamwork throughout their organization that few others have. Only the executive team can change organizational systems.
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