Test Bank For Managing Organizational Change A Multiple Perspectives Approach 4th Edition By Ian Palmer and Richard Dunford and David Buchanan Chapter 1-12 Answers are at the End of Each Chapter Chapter 1
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Process theories lack the ability to reveal the mechanisms or logics behind a sequence of events. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) Changing organizations is as messy as it is exhilarating, as frustrating as it is satisfying, as muddling-through and creative a process as it is a rational one. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) When Mike Duggan was elected as the mayor of Detroit in 2013, the city had stark racial, economic, and social divisions. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Eddie Lampert, the chairman of Sears Holdings Corporation, restructured the company as a classic retailer. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) The reorganization of Sears Holdings Corporation under its chairman, Eddie Lampert, resulted in better collaboration and cooperation among various department heads. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6)
Most estimates put the failure rate of planned changes at around 98 percent. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Accounts of how other organizations have handled change can be a rich source of ideas that can be adapted creatively to address similar problems in other settings. ⊚ ⊚
8)
Change is a political process because there are often "winners and losers." ⊚ ⊚
9)
true false
true false
It is best to use shallow changes to address strategic challenges. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Deep change in an organization involves tightening up documentation and reporting and reallocating resources. ⊚ ⊚
11)
Tension exists when two or more apparently correct ideas contradict each other. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
true false
Paradoxes occur when two or more ideas are in opposition to each other.
⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 13) Which of the following statements is a characteristic of process narratives?
A) They are based on quantitative and statistical research methods. B) They have a narrow frame of reference. C) They lack the ability to express complexity within a coherent sequence of events. D) They expose the nature and significance of the causal factors acting on events.
14) Stories that not only describe change but also provide an explanation of the results of change initiatives are called _____.
A) moral tales B) process narratives C) learnt lessons D) experienced fables
15)
_____ occurs when events are understood through the stories that are shared about them.
A) Moral understanding B) Fabled wisdom C) Parable knowledge D) Narrative knowing
16)
Stories are considered process theories because _____.
A) their narrative patterns stay close and loyal to individual cases B) they conceal the nature and significance of the causal factors acting on events C) they can uncover the mechanisms behind a sequence of events D) they enable the reader to adopt a neutral or an external stance
17) Which of the following major problems did Starbucks face when Roz Brewer joined the business as chief operating officer in 2017?
A) The baristas outnumbered the customers, resulting in losses. B) Sales had stalled after five years of exceptional growth. C) The new mobile order and pay system did not succeed. D) Employees in stores were spending too much time with customers as opposed to on tasks.
18) Identify the major problem faced by Sears Holdings Corporation two years after the merger of Kmart and Sears Roebuck. A) A lawsuit alleging environmental damage was filed by regulators. B) A lawsuit to dissolve the merger was filed. C) Profits were down by 45 percent. D) Problems existed with the quality of customer care.
19) Which of the following is one of the steps taken by Eddie Lampert in response to the problems faced by Sears Holdings Corporation?
A) He published performance data on his public blog. B) He implemented a business model in which all the department heads had the same financial goals. C) He downsized the company. D) He implemented a decentralized organizational structure.
20) Which of the following was the outcome of the new organizational model implemented by Eddie Lampert, the chairman of Sears Holdings Corporation?
A) It improved performance. B) It encouraged the divisions to turn against each other. C) It resulted in several hundred job losses across the organization. D) It encouraged the department heads to focus on the welfare of the company as a whole.
21) Which of the following features of the literatures on change management makes it difficult to access and to absorb?
A) All the literatures on change management share the same perspective. B) Recent research on change management has made previous commentary irrelevant. C) The literatures on change management lacks variety in terms of methodologies. D) The concepts that are used vary widely in scale.
22)
Which of the following is a characteristic of organizational change?
A) It is a completely irrational process. B) From a management perspective, it is easy to implement. C) From a management perspective, it is seen as problematic. D) It is a process that lacks creativity.
23) Which of the following properties of the literature on organizational change management is usually seen as a problem, something that the experts cannot agree upon?
A) blurred boundaries B) many perspectives C) range of concepts D) varied settings
24) The varied settings property of the literature on organizational change management means _____.
A) evidence and examples come from a range of organizational types and contexts, using different methodologies B) there are contributions from different academic disciplines and theoretical perspectives C) the concepts that are used vary in scale, from schools of thought or perspectives on change, through methodologies, to single tools D) recent research in the field has made the previous commentary irrelevant
25) Which of the following is most likely an advantage of adopting a multiple perspectives approach to the management of organizational change?
A) It results in the easy access to the change literature. B) It encourages the search for creative solutions. C) It overcomes the issue of fragmented advice. D) It provides solutions that are agreed upon by all the experts.
26) Which of the following reasons makes it difficult for a practicing manager who is less interested in theoretical perspectives to know what works in the management of organizational change?
A) The impact of change is unidimensional. B) The cause and effect across complex processes that unfold over time is difficult to establish. C) The stakeholders affected by change share the same view. D) Recent research on change management has made previous commentary irrelevant.
27)
Which of the following statements is true of organizational change?
A) Minor changes are less valuable. B) The importance of minor changes is overstated in organizations. C) The implementation of minor changes is relatively expensive. D) Shallower changes can facilitate and complement the deeper initiatives.
28) Unlike Starbucks' founder Howard Schultz, its chief operation officer Roz Brewer's management style focused on _____.
A) evidence, data, and the numbers B) a combination of instinct and intuition C) innovating complex beverages with fancy ingredients D) prioritizing corporate projects
29) In the context of different cultures in organizations, skilled change agents are most likely to struggle in _____.
A) casual style-based organizations B) responsive organizations C) agile organizations D) rules-based organizations
30)
Which of the following statements is true of active learning?
A) It occurs only in organizations with rules-based, top-down management. B) It refers to implementing changes. C) It automatically follows the process of identifying lessons after a crisis. D) It occurs only when change is a solo performance.
31) In the context of assessing the depth of change, which of the following is an example of change that is categorized as "off the scale"?
A) improving efficiencies B) changing the way in which business transactions are conducted C) dramatically redrawing organization and sector boundaries D) relocating resources
32) In the context of assessing the depth of change, which of the following is an example of deeper change?
A) identifying new ways of doing business B) resolving an organization's minor problems C) cutting costs D) improving efficiencies
33) In the context of assessing the depth of change, which of the following is an example of "not on the scale" changes?
A) the processes for relocating resources B) strategic changes C) minor problems D) the processes for cutting costs
34) In the context of assessing the depth of change, _____ involves improving on current practices in organizations.
A) frame-breaking change B) disrupting innovation C) sustaining innovation D) shallow change
35) In the context of assessing the depth of change, which of the following changes falls at the top of the scale?
A) paradigm shift B) sustaining innovation C) disruptive innovation D) strategic change
36) In the context of assessing the depth of change, _____ involves radically new business models and working methods.
A) deep change B) sustaining innovation C) shallow change D) disruptive innovation
37)
Which of the following statements is true of transformational "off the scale" changes?
A) They are usually easier to implement than deep changes. B) They are more challenging than shallow changes. C) When assessing the depth of change, they fall in the middle of the scale. D) When assessing the depth of change, they are at the bottom of the scale.
38) Which of the following changes is most likely to create the most resistance in an organization?
A) transformational "not on the scale" changes B) deep changes C) shallow changes D) transformational "off the scale" changes
Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) D 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) B 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) B
27) D 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) C 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) C 36) D 37) B 38) D
Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The image of management as a controlling function has deep historical roots, based on the work of Henri Fayol and his contemporaries who described what managers do, captured by the acronym POSDCoRB. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) The image of management as a shaping function, enhancing both individual and organizational capabilities, has deep roots, based on the "human relations" school of management from the 1930s and on the organization development movement. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) Power-coercive strategies rely on achieving the intended outcomes through the compliant behavior of those who have less power. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Power-coercive strategies of change assume that changes occur when people abandon their old orientations and commit to new ones. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) Both intended and unintended consequences may emerge from the actions of change managers. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) There has been less attention paid to the images of intended change outcomes in commentary on change management than to unintended change outcomes.
⊚ ⊚
true false
7) According to the life-cycle theory, maturity is the final stage of the natural development cycle of an organization. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Population ecology theory draws on biology and neo-Darwinism. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) According to population ecology theory, organizational variation occurs as the result of random chance. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) In general, the implication of population ecology theory is that managers have little sway over change where whole populations of organizations are affected by external forces. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) The caretaker and nurturer images are more frequently discussed in relation to change management and are more widely accepted in domains of organization theory where there is more practice orientation. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 12) According to John Kotter, which of the following statements is true of change in organizations?
A) Small-scale transformations are more valuable than large-scale transformations. B) Organizations need more change leadership. C) Change management and change leadership are indistinguishable. D) Change leadership refers to the basic tools and structures with which small-scale changes are controlled.
13) A _____ is most likely to help managers be aware of potential component breakdowns and see their role in terms of maintenance and repair.
A) machine image B) microculture image C) political image D) macroculture image
14)
According to Palmer and Dunford, the first dimension of change _____.
A) concerns choice of change management approach B) concerns expectations concerning the outcomes of the change process C) is intended D) is unintended
15) In partially intended change outcomes, with regard to the controlling function and shaping function, the change manager has the image of _____ and _____, respectively.
A) director; coach B) navigator; interpreter C) guide; teacher D) caretaker; nurturer
16) In unintended change outcomes, with regard to the controlling function and shaping function, the change manager has the image of _____ and _____, respectively.
A) guide; teacher B) director; coach C) caretaker; nurturer D) navigator; interpreter
17) In _____ change outcomes, it is assumed that some, but not all, change outcomes are achievable.
A) intended B) partially intended C) unintended D) partially completed
18) In _____ change outcomes, the dominant assumption is that intended change outcomes can be achieved as planned.
A) intended B) partially intended C) unintended D) partially unintended
19) Which of the following images of change outcomes recognizes that managers often have great difficulty in achieving the change outcomes that were intended?
A) intended change outcomes B) partially intended change outcomes C) unintended change outcomes D) partially unintended change outcomes
20) text?
Which of the following is not one of the images of change outcomes discussed in the
A) intended change outcomes B) partially intended change outcomes C) unintended change outcomes D) partially completed change outcomes
21) The internal forces that can push change in unplanned directions include all of the following except
A) interdepartmental politics. B) long-established working practices that are difficult to dislodge. C) deep-seated perceptions and values that are inconsistent with desired changes. D) industry-wide trends affecting an entire sector.
22) The external forces that can push change in unplanned directions include all of the following except
A) long-established working practices that are difficult to dislodge. B) confrontational industrial relations. C) legislative requirements. D) industry-wide trends affecting an entire sector.
23) Which of the following images is most likely to view management as controlling and change outcomes as being achievable as planned?
A) the director image B) the navigator image C) the caretaker image D) the coach image
24) In the _____ image, control is at the heart of management action, although a variety of external factors mean that, although change managers may achieve some intended change outcomes, they may have little control over other results.
A) director B) navigator C) caretaker D) coach
25) In the _____ image, the management role is still one of control, although the ability to exercise that control is severely constrained by a range of internal and external forces that propel change relatively independent of management intentions.
A) nurturer B) caretaker C) coach D) interpreter
26) In the _____ image, the assumption is that change managers can intentionally shape an organization's capabilities in particular ways.
A) navigator B) caretaker C) coach D) director
27) A change manager as _____ has the task of creating meaning for others, helping them to make sense of events and developments that, in themselves, constitute a changed organization.
A) navigator B) caretaker C) director D) interpreter
28) The image of change manager as _____ assumes that even small changes can have a large impact on organizations and that managers may be unable to control the outcomes of these changes.
A) nurturer B) navigator C) director D) caretaker
29) Which of the following argues that organizational change is nonlinear, is fundamental rather than incremental, and does not necessarily entail growth?
A) Confucian theory B) chaos theory C) Taoist theory D) institutional theory
30) In _____, change is regarded as cyclical, processual, journey-oriented, based on maintaining equilibrium, observed and followed by those who are involved, and normal rather than exceptional.
A) Confucian/Taoist theory B) chaos theory C) population ecology theory D) institutional theory
31) Which of the following images is most likely associated with the image of a manager being able to shape change?
A) the director image B) the navigator image C) the caretaker image D) the coach image
32) Which of the following images is most likely associated with the image of a manager being able to control change?
A) the director image B) the coach image C) the interpreter image D) the nurturer image
33) _____ argue that organizational changes unfold over time in a messy and iterative manner, and thus rely on the image of change manager as navigator.
A) Processual theories B) Contingency theories C) Taoist and Confucian theories D) Institutional theories
34) Which of the following theories does not reinforce the caretaker image of managers of change?
A) life-cycle theory B) population ecology theory C) chaos theory D) institutional theory
35) _____ views organizations passing through well-defined stages from birth to growth, maturity, and then decline or death.
A) Life-cycle theory B) Population ecology theory C) Chaos theory D) Institutional theory
36) According to life-cycle theory, the second stage of the natural developmental cycle of an organization is _____.
A) birth B) growth C) maturity D) death
37) _____ focuses on how the environment selects organizations for survival or extinction, drawing on biology and neo-Darwinism.
A) Life-cycle theory B) Population ecology theory C) Chaos theory D) Institutional theory
38) _____ argues that change managers take broadly similar decisions and actions across whole populations of organizations.
A) Life-cycle theory B) Population ecology theory C) Chaos theory D) Institutional theory
39) According to DiMaggio and Powell, which of the following is not one of the pressures associated with the similarities in the actions of organizations that result from the interconnectedness of organizations that operate in the same sector or environment?
A) coercive pressure B) mimetic pressure C) normative pressure D) ethical pressure
40) According to DiMaggio and Powell, government-mandated changes are an example of _____ pressure.
A) coercive B) mimetic C) normative D) initiated
41) According to DiMaggio and Powell, when organizations imitate the structures and practices of other organizations in their field, they succumb to _____ pressure.
A) coercive B) mimetic C) normative D) replicated
42) _____ occurs when there is professionalization of work such that managers in different organizations adopt similar values and working methods that are similar to each other.
A) Coercive pressure B) Mimetic pressure C) Normative pressure D) Replicated pressure
43) By stressing the importance of values such as humanism, democracy, and individual development, organization development (OD) theory reinforces the image of a change manager as _____.
A) coach B) interpreter C) nurturer D) caretaker
Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) B 26) C
27) D 28) A 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) A Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Organizational change can occur as a simple response to the latest management fad or fashion. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) Evidence suggests that about 70 percent of planned change programs fail to meet their objectives. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) Organizational politics is mostly played in the management boardroom, and almost always results in loss of profit and reputation. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) As compared to external drivers of organizational change that arise from trends and developments in the wider environment, internal drivers are far more powerful. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) Since 2016, the external environment for most organizations, consisting of social, financial, technological, economic, political, and geopolitical conditions has become much more turbulent and unpredictable. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Managers face a decision paradox as, on the one hand, they are advised to change rapidly or perish and on the other, they are advised to avoid the risks of implementing too many changes at the same time. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Organizations and human systems can be reduced to a single objective of maximizing shareholder value. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Change is simply a matter of reacting to events. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) According to London and Lund, the trade intensity of manufactured goods is falling globally. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) According to Edmondson, for effective post-incident change, those who report failures— the "messengers"—should be penalized, rather than praised. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) According to Kanter, which of the following is an advantage that "new broom" top executives have over their predecessors? A) They create energy for change within an organization. B) They strictly adhere to past organizational practices. C) They tackle customer problems with credibility because of their associations with previous problems. D) They focus on an organization's "dogs" rather than its unresolved "cash cows."
12) According to Kanter, which of the following is an advantage that "new broom" top executives have over their predecessors?
A) They strictly adhere to established business practices. B) They can confront the organization's unresolved, long-running problems. C) They focus on an organization's "dogs" rather than its unresolved "cash cows." D) They initiate change through politics and power wars.
13)
Which of the following is true of organizational politics and power struggles?
A) Board-level power struggles are usually documented in detail. B) They typically occur in upper management circles. C) They can often generate positive benefits. D) More often than not, they result in loss of profitability.
14) According to the _____ perspective of organizational change, firm survival depends on satisfying shareholders.
A) economic B) organizational learning C) political D) control
15) According to the _____ perspective of organizational change, organizations and human systems are complex and evolving and cannot be reduced to a single objective of maximizing shareholder value.
A) economic B) organizational learning C) political D) control
16)
Which of the following is an internal organizational change driver?
A) high employee morale and performance B) new service and product delivery innovations C) low employee stress and turnover D) stable and established allocation of responsibilities
17)
Which of the following is an example of change as a response to geopolitics?
A) change as a response to the latest management fad B) change as a response to the preferences of Generation C C) change as a response to consumer demand D) change as a response to a country's emission regulations
18) When managers respond to the latest management fad in an attempt to be seen as professional and progressive, the organizational change is a response to _____.
A) fashion B) demography C) geopolitics D) hypercompetition
19) Coca-Cola and ChevronTexaco were under court orders to build on their record on diversity management. These are real-life examples of change as a response to _____. A) brief fad or fashion B) external regulation or legislation C) product and service innovations D) social pressure
20) The changes that organizations made after the terrorist attacks on New York on September 11, 2001 and the outbreak of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) were a response to _____.
A) fashion B) hypercompetition C) demographics D) geopolitics
21) Which of the following does NOT exemplify geopolitical pressures that impact organizations?
A) the terrorist attacks on New York on September 11, 2001 B) the outbreak of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) C) the political instability in Egypt since 2011 D) the latest management fad, such as big data and data analytics
22) In the context of environmental pressures for organizational change, robotics, automation, and artificial intelligence pertain to _____.
A) demographics B) globalization C) climate change D) technology
23) In the context of environmental pressures for organizational change, an ageing and multigenerational workforce pertains to _____.
A) demographics B) changing expectations C) climate change D) globalization
24) In the context of globalization as an environmental pressure for organizational change, trade in physical goods is _____ while cross-border data flows are _____.
A) flattening; soaring B) unpredictable; steady C) stable; fluctuating D) increasing; dropping
25) In the context of climate change as an environmental pressure for organizational change, identify an example of the transition type of business risk.
A) a coconut-processing facility submerged in water due to rising sea levels B) an automobile plant being abandoned due to updated pollution regulations C) a bottling factory being shut down due to prolonged disputes between management and union D) an apparel factory equipment destroyed in an earthquake
26) In the context of climate change as an environmental pressure for organizational change, identify an example of the physical type of business risk. A) a hurricane destroying a part of an auto-parts manufacturing facility B) a food-processing unit going out of business due to new regulations regarding ingredient safety and purity C) equipment in a mobile phone factory being damaged by striking workers D) a bottling factory being shut down due to prolonged disputes between management and union
27) According to population statistics, by 2035, _____ of the world’s population will be over 65 years of age.
A) 13 percent B) 23 percent C) over 25 percent D) less than 10 percent
28) According to a study of 3,000 workers in 93 companies in Germany, which of the following is true of older employees?
A) They were less resistant to organizational change than their younger colleagues. B) They were seen as the least talented and employable of all underrepresented groups in the workforce. C) They lacked the strategies required to cope and adapt to changing environments. D) They typically were not well-connected in their areas of work.
29) For which of the following generations in the workforce is flexibility and work-life balance more important than pay?
A) Veterans B) Baby Boomers C) Millennials D) Generation Alpha
30) Which of the following generations is computerized, content-centric, connected, communicating, community-oriented, and always clicking?
A) Generation Y B) Generation X C) Baby Boomers D) Generation Z
31)
Which of the following is true of cobots?
A) They do not require specialist programming skills. B) They cannot handle jobs that need human dexterity and eyesight. C) They cannot be used by small organizations as they are too expensive. D) They replace workers that are age 50 and above.
32) According to Frey and Osborne, which of the following professions has the most automation potential?
A) set designers B) school teachers C) recreational therapists D) insurance underwriters
33) According to Frey and Osborne, which of the following professions has the least automation potential?
A) airline pilots B) surgeons C) embalmers D) legal secretaries
34) According to Frey et al., the skill of sensemaking, or _____ will continue to be important and in demand in spite of increasing work computerization.
A) understanding the deeper meaning of what is being shown B) understanding how to use mobile, multimedia, online information C) understanding different cultural norms and expectations D) the ability to apply machine learning methods creatively
35) According to Frey et al., the skill of new media literacy, or _____ will continue to be important and in demand in spite of increasing work computerization.
A) understanding different cultural norms and expectations B) understanding the deeper meaning of what is being expressed C) understanding how to use online information and digital technologies D) understanding concepts across several different disciplines
36) According to Frey et al., the skill of design mindset, or _____ will continue to be important and in demand in spite of increasing work computerization.
A) the ability to decide which information is important B) the ability to develop tasks and processes to achieve desired results C) understanding others and the effect one may have on them D) understanding how to use mobile, multimedia, online information
37) According to Brian Toft and Simon Reynolds, which of the following statements is true of passive learning?
A) It refers to implementing changes. B) It refers to identifying lessons. C) It is overlooked in many organizations. D) It is viewed as difficult to achieve in many organizations.
38)
According to Buchanan and Moore, changes following extreme events _____.
A) have defensive agendas B) have progressive agendas C) are exciting for change agents D) are aimed at taking risks
39) Which of the following is a feature of change with a progressive and developmental agenda?
A) reiteration of existing practices B) prevention of mistakes C) analysis of failure D) process redesign
40)
Which of the following is a feature of change with a defensive and preventive agenda?
A) avoidance of past mistakes B) restructuring of processes C) cost reduction D) development of new products
41) Which of the following is true when a manager is influenced by the Director image of managing change?
A) Change is a result of strategic pressure, correcting an internal problem to improve efficiencies, or entering new markets. B) The pressures for change arise from the need to coordinate teamwork, values, and mindsets that leads to improved organizational outcomes. C) Change results from strategic threats and opportunities and from the need to deal with internal problems. D) Change pressures are continuous and help to shape the organization’s capabilities to respond to further change and to further improve performance.
42) How are the pressures for change understood when the image of change is that of a Coach?
A) Change occurs as a result of strategic pressure, entering new markets, or correcting an internal problem to improve efficiencies. B) Change pressures are continuous and developmental and help to shape the organization’s capabilities to respond to change and to improve performance. C) The pressures for change may not all be rational but may instead be chaotic and difficult to coordinate. D) Given the many internal and external pressures for change, staff members need management to provide meaning, to help understand "what is going on."
Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) A 25) B 26) A
27) A 28) A 29) C 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) B 38) A 39) D 40) A 41) A 42) B Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Diagnosis with regard to organizational change is going to happen whether or not explicit diagnostic tools are used. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
In the 7-S framework, "strategy" refers to an organization's vision. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) According to the star model, for an organization to be effective, its strategy, structure, processes, rewards, and people practices have to be in alignment.
⊚ ⊚
true false
4) According to the star model, misalignment between the structure of an organization and its strategy leads to friction. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) According to the star model, processes and lateral capability relate to how performance is measured and compensated, in ways that align individual actions to organizational objectives. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) According to the four-frame model, without the capacity to use multiple frames, managers may become locked into their one favored way of seeing the world—and their organization—and then fail to see other critical aspects or issues. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Gap analysis is usually criticized as being overly complex in terms of reviewing an organization's position. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Strategy is often considered to be at the heart of change. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) According to Hambrick and Fredrickson, misalignment of the five elements—arenas, vehicles, differentiators, staging, and economic logic—indicates a potential need for change.
⊚ ⊚
true false
10) The strategic inventory involves a much less sophisticated analysis than that provided by the widely used SWOT approach to understanding an organization's strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) According to the receptive organizational context, organizational receptiveness is likely to be high when there is no pressure for change. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) The built-to-change organization uses design principles that assume the need for a planned organizational transition from one state to another. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 13) According to Burke, which of the following is a way in which organizational models can be useful?
A) By reducing the manageability of a complex situation B) By helping to prioritize the issues that need most attention C) By providing specific languages for different stakeholder groups to discuss organizational properties D) By minimizing the interconnectedness of various organizational properties
14) According to Burke, which of the following is NOT a way in which organizational models can be useful?
A) By identifying key organizational interdependencies B) By offering guidance about the appropriate sequence of actions in a change process C) By providing a common language with which different stakeholder groups can discuss organizational properties D) By predicting the magnitude of change
15)
Which of the following is NOT a part of Weisbord's six-box organizational model?
A) Purposes B) Structure C) Rewards D) Bureaucracy
16) According to Weisbord's six-box organizational model, the question "Do all tasks have incentives?" is associated with _____.
A) rewards B) helpful mechanisms C) relationships D) leadership
17) According to Weisbord's six-box organizational model, the question "Have we adequate coordinating technologies?" is associated with _____.
A) structure B) rewards C) helpful mechanisms D) leadership
18) Which of the following is based upon the proposition that organizational effectiveness is influenced by many factors, and that successful change depends on the relationships between those factors?
A) The six-box organizational model B) The 7-S framework C) The star framework D) The four-frame model
19)
Which of the following is NOT a factor identified in the 7-S framework?
A) Strategy B) Support C) Systems D) Style
20)
According to the 7-S framework, _____ refers to the formal organization design.
A) structure B) strategy C) staff D) style
21)
According to the 7-S framework, _____ refers to how managers are developed.
A) structure B) staff C) strategy D) style
22)
According to the 7-S framework, _____ refer to an organization's vision.
A) systems B) skills C) strategies D) superordinate goals
23) According to the 7-S framework, _____ refers to patterns of management actions, how managers spend their time, what they pay attention to, the signals that they send about priorities, and attitude to change.
A) strategy B) support C) staff D) style
24)
Which of the following is NOT a component of the star model?
A) Strategy B) Structure C) Reward systems D) Technology practices
25)
Which of the following is NOT a component of Bolman and Deal's four-frame model?
A) The structural frame B) The economical frame C) The political frame D) The symbolic frame
26) According to the four-frame model, the _____ frame concerns how power and conflict are dealt with, and how coalitions are formed.
A) structural B) human resource C) political D) symbolic
27) According to the four-frame model, the _____ frame relates to how an organization builds a culture that gives purpose and meaning to work and builds team cohesion.
A) structural B) human resource C) political D) symbolic
28) The technique in which people are asked to describe their organization and how it works using an image or a simile is known as _____.
A) metaphorical diagnostics B) organizational restructuring C) extrapolation by analysis D) meta-analysis
29) According to the PESTLE framework, which of the following factors is concerned with inflation and interest rates?
A) political B) economic C) social D) legal
30) According to the PESTLE framework, which of the following factors is concerned with demographic trends?
A) Political B) Environmental C) Social D) Economic
31) Which of the following involves the imaginative development of one or more likely pictures of the characteristics of the possible futures for an organization sometimes, but not necessarily, considering "best-case/worst-case" possibilities?
A) Gap analysis B) The cultural web C) The PESTLE framework D) Scenario planning
32) Which of the following is NOT one of the questions asked when performing gap analysis?
A) Where are we now? B) How did we get here? C) Where do we want to get to? D) What do we need to do in order to get there?
33)
What does the "S" stand for in the PESTLE framework?
A) Social B) Skills C) Support D) Staff
34)
According to Johnson, which of the following is NOT an element of the cultural web?
A) The paradigm B) Stories C) Symbols D) Attitude
35) According to the cultural web, which of the following concerns the most influential management groups in an organization?
A) Organizational structures B) Power structures C) Control systems D) Symbols
36) Which of the following dimensions of absorptive capacity is defined as the ability to find and to prioritize new knowledge and ideas quickly and efficiently?
A) Acquisition B) Assimilation C) Transformation D) Exploitation
37) Which of the following change diagnostics was developed by Kurt Lewin and involves identifying the forces that are respectively driving and restraining movement toward a given set of outcomes, called the "target situation"?
A) gap analysis B) 7-S analysis C) stakeholder analysis D) force-field analysis
38) According to Rafferty et al., which of the following is an example of an internal context enabler that influences individual change readiness?
A) dispositional resistance to change and technology changes B) new regulations C) professional group memberships D) change participation and communication processes
39)
According to Kanter, integrative organizations are characterized by _____.
A) openness to innovation and change B) stability in business practices C) predictability in policies D) traditionalism in hierarchy
Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) D 24) D 25) B 26) C
27) D 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) D 39) A Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) In practice, the ripples from even simple changes in an organization can be difficult to predict, and thus difficult to manage. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
First-order changes are radical and fundamentally alter core assumptions. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) The management of shallow change requires more management capability and resources than implementing frame-breaking initiatives. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Change management experience and capability have become "core selection factors" for candidates seeking promoted positions in many organizations. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
Innovations that are disruptive do not necessarily involve chaos and upheaval. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Deal-making or new technology is not as glamorous, or as easily understood, as an operational innovation. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Disruptive innovations are introduced more often by large, dominant incumbents rather than by smaller new entrants. ⊚ ⊚
8)
Organizational culture is important because it influences organizational effectiveness. ⊚ ⊚
9)
true false
true false
Failure to manage organizational culture costs lives, reputations, careers, and money. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Social media could be central in encouraging more open, communicative, egalitarian, collaborative, and responsive organizational cultures. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) Beltip Corp. was forced to shut its operations in a country due to the outbreak of a civil war in that country. The change in operations experienced by Beltip is most accurately termed as a(n) _____.
A) emergent change B) first-order change C) incremental change D) shallow change
12) HomeCare Corp. is a manufacturer of household utilities. A recent fire at one of its production units caused HomeCare to reduce its production. This change in production is known as a(n) _____.
A) first-order change B) second-order change C) incremental change D) emergent change
13) Owing to a recent legislation requiring game developers to restrict the amount of violence in their video games, DynaPlay Inc. removed certain violent elements from its upcoming line of games. This change is most accurately termed as a(n) _____.
A) emergent change B) planned change C) second-order change D) transformational change
14) _____ are those that are implemented in anticipation of, or in response to, known trends and developments.
A) Planned changes B) Adaptive changes C) Reorientation changes D) Emergent changes
15) _____ are those that just happen, or have to happen, in response to unforeseen events, such as the sudden opening of new market opportunities, or accidents and failures.
A) Timed changes B) Emergent changes C) Planned changes D) Adaptive changes
16)
Incremental change differs from transformational change in that incremental change is:
A) resisted exclusively by the management, whereas transformational change is resisted exclusively by consumers. B) gradual and small scale, whereas transformational change is radical and groundbreaking. C) restricted to small industries, whereas transformational change is restricted to large industries. D) aimed at increasing turnover rates, whereas transformational change is aimed at increasing employee attrition.
17) _____ involves a specific initiative that solves a problem, and/or makes improvements, in ways that do not present a challenge to current methods and thinking.
A) First-order change B) Second-order change C) Transformational change D) Radical change
18)
Which of the following statements is true of first-order change?
A) It alters current core assumptions. B) It implies a degree of continuity and order. C) It is disruptive and discontinuous. D) It is rapid and groundbreaking.
19) GoFire Inc., a manufacturer of sportswear, starts adding sweat resistant padding to its football helmets to enhance their comfort. This addition is most accurately termed a(n) _____.
A) incremental change B) inconsequential change C) second-order change D) transformational change
20) SonoTech Corp., a headphones manufacturer, adds a noise-cancelling option to its existing line of headphones. This is a(n) _____.
A) first-order change B) second-order change C) transformational change D) deep change
21) TrebleTip Corp., a producer of musical instruments, decides to start manufacturing personal computers that are compatible with its amplifiers and effects processors. This change by TrebleTip is a(n) _____.
A) shallow change B) incremental change C) first-order change D) second-order change
22) _____ leads to organizational transformation, by introducing new products, services, and ways of doing business, based on creative lateral thinking that alters current core assumptions.
A) Incremental change B) First-order change C) Second-order change D) Continuous change
23)
Which of the following statements is true of second-order change?
A) It is disruptive and discontinuous. B) It implies a degree of continuity and order. C) It primarily makes minor improvements to an existing structure. D) It is based on traditional thinking that upholds current core assumptions.
24)
Which of the following is an operational innovation?
A) A pharmaceutical company introducing a new car into the market B) An automobile company reducing the assembly time for its cars by reducing the cars' parts C) A business consulting firm launching a new clothing line for children D) A mobile phone manufacturer launching a new smartphone
25) Which of the following is a difference between sustaining innovations and disruptive innovations?
A) Sustaining innovations are discontinuous, whereas disruptive innovations are continuous in nature. B) Sustaining innovations challenge current core assumptions, whereas disruptive innovations uphold traditional assumptions. C) Sustaining innovations improve existing products and processes, whereas disruptive innovations introduce wholly new processes and services. D) Sustaining innovations are product innovations, whereas disruptive innovations are operational innovations.
26)
Which of the following statements is true of disruptive innovations?
A) They always involve chaos and upheaval. B) They introduce wholly new processes and services. C) They primarily improve existing products and services. D) They imply shallow incremental change.
27)
Which of the following statements is true of operational innovations?
A) They are less difficult to implement than product innovations. B) They have to be implemented before anyone can really see how they are going to work. C) They are regarded by most companies as the most important source of competitive advantage. D) They are overvalued by the current business culture.
28) According to Everett Rogers, who among the following are usually the first in their social grouping to adopt new approaches and behaviors?
A) Late majority B) Early majority C) Laggards D) Innovators
29) _____ are opinion leaders who evaluate ideas carefully, take risks, help to adapt new ideas to local settings, and have effective networking skills.
A) Late adopters B) Innovators C) Early adopters D) Laggards
30) According to Everett Rogers, who among the following take longer to reach a decision to change, but are still ahead of the average?
A) Innovators B) Early majority C) Late majority D) Laggards
31) According to Everett Rogers, who among the following are skeptical and risk averse and wait for most of their colleagues to adopt new ideas first?
A) Early majority B) Innovators C) Late majority D) Early adopters
32) According to Everett Rogers, who among the following are viewed negatively by others and are the last to adopt new ideas, even for reasons that they believe to be rational?
A) Early majority B) Innovators C) Late majority D) Laggards
33)
The probability of an innovation being accepted increases when it is _____.
A) incompatible with existing practices B) untestable C) complex D) observable in demonstration sites
34) Which of the following is a suggestion for organizations seeking to develop the capabilities for handling disruptive innovation?
A) Organizations should consider acquiring an organization that already has the required capabilities. B) Organizations should eliminate new structures such as dedicated, cross-functional teams. C) Organizations should ensure that the disruptive innovation is complex and untestable. D) Organizations should ensure that the disruptive innovation is less advantageous when compared with existing practice.
35)
Which of the following is a habit of disruptive innovators?
A) Disruptive innovators ensure that their innovations do not challenge current core assumptions. B) Disruptive innovators focus on making minor improvements to existing products and services. C) Disruptive innovators are good at seeing connections between things that do not appear to be related. D) Disruptive innovators seek to reduce the number of second-order changes in companies.
36) Which of the following statements implies that it would be a mistake to think that disruptive innovation is the solution to most current organizational problems?
A) Considerable business benefit can be achieved through small-scale initiatives and sustaining innovations. B) Most organizations have highly profitable businesses based on unconventional, radical products. C) New technology simply displaces old technology. D) The appeal of old technologies is short-lived.
37)
Which of the following statements is true of organizational culture?
A) The public image of an organization is shaped by its organizational culture. B) Weak organizational culture suggests strong emotional attachment to an organization. C) Organizations with a strong organizational culture have higher turnover rates than do organizations with weak culture. D) Organizations with a weak culture tend to have lower absenteeism rates than do organizations with a strong organizational culture.
38) An environment in which any online activity can be public, influencing actions, solving problems, innovating, and creating new types of organizations that are not constrained by traditional boundaries is termed a(n) _____.
A) social matrix B) low-friction community C) disruptive social order D) modern collective
39)
Which of the following is a valuable property of social media?
A) They provide static "one-way" communication from conventional web pages. B) They prevent users from developing connections across boundaries such as organizational silos. C) They require specialized equipment. D) They are pervasive "low friction" tools.
40) Which of the following is the reason for the slow progress with internal corporate uses of social media?
A) Social media provides static "one-way" communication from conventional web pages. B) Collaboration across organizational silos is prevented by social media. C) The acquisition of specialized equipment is required for the use of social media. D) There is a lack of clear return on the investment in social media.
Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) A 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) A 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) B
27) B 28) D 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) D 40) D Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A lack of vision is associated with organizational decline and failure. ⊚ true ⊚ false
2) According to the coach image of change, vision emerges from the clash of chaotic and unpredictable change forces. ⊚ true ⊚ false
3) According to John Kotter, effective visions are focused enough to guide decision-making yet are flexible enough to accommodate individual initiative and changing circumstances. ⊚ true ⊚ false
4) Many employees—not just Gen Z and Millennials—want to work for organizations whose missions and business philosophies resonate with them intellectually and emotionally. ⊚ true ⊚ false
5)
The meaning-based system of using language relies on image-based rhetoric. ⊚ true ⊚ false
6) According to Holpp and Kelly's approaches to developing vision, the benchmarking approach is more internally focused, whereas the intuitive and analytical approaches have an external focus. ⊚ true ⊚ false
7) While some visions stand the test of time and remain applicable and adaptable to new situations and environments, others need to be overhauled in order to remain relevant. ⊚ true ⊚ false
8) According to Gardner and Avolio's dramaturgical perspective of the processes used by leaders to enact their visions, "staging" refers to the final enactment of a vision. ⊚ true ⊚ false
9)
Core values are durable guiding principles. ⊚ true ⊚ false
10) It is more important to create an organization with a vision than to have a charismatic chief executive with a personal vision. ⊚ true ⊚ false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) According to the _____ image of change, vision is something that is essential to producing successful organizational change and must be articulated at an early stage by the leaders of an organization. A) director B) navigator C) interpreter D) coach
12) According to the _____ image of change, external forces shape the change process, and missions/visions rarely have a major influence. A) director B) nurturer C) caretaker D) interpreter
13) According to the _____ image of change, vision articulates the core values and ideology that underpin an organization's identity. A) director B) nurturer C) coach D) interpreter
14) According to Blount and Leinwald, _____ is the key to motivation and motivated employees are the key to realizing an organization's objectives.
A) process B) navigation C) nurturance D) purpose
15) According to Malnight et al., _____ plays two strategic roles for an organization— redefines the playing field and reshapes its value proposition. A) profit B) purpose C) revenue D) process
16) Securitas AB, a traditional security guard service started using electronic security systems resulting in stronger client relations and higher margins. According to the ways of growth of organizations suggested by Malnight et al., this example best illustrates _____. A) responding to trends B) building on trust C) focusing on pain points D) gazing into the future
17) In search of other ways to “create a better world for pets,” Mars Petcare has developed ways of diagnosing and preventing pet health problems. According to the ways of growth of organizations suggested by Malnight et al., this example best illustrates _____. A) milking the cash cows B) building on trust C) focusing on pain points D) responding to trends
18) Which of the following is true of the retrospective approach to defining corporate purpose?
A) It is based on an organization’s current reason for being. B) It redefines an organization’s purpose by looking forward. C) It provides an answer to “Where do we go from here?” D) It takes an external perspective of the organization.
19)
Identify a true statement about the prospective approach to defining corporate purpose. A) It is based on an organization's past history. B) It is based on an organization’s current reason for being. C) It provides an answer to “How did we get here?” D) It redefines an organization’s purpose by looking forward.
20) According to research by management consulting firm Deloitte, purpose-driven companies -_____. A) are limited by existing market structures B) do not focus on pain points C) have a restless workforce D) experience strong gains in market share
21) Identify an example of a mission statement that uses imagery, not abstract, conceptual terms. A) To create a better future every day B) To create a better everyday life for many people C) To be the recognized performance leader D) To make people laugh
22)
According to Kimberly Boal and Robert Hooijberg, effective visions have:
A) an affective and a cognitive component. B) a positive and a negative correlation. C) a general and a specific component. D) no relationship to organizational change.
23) According to Kimberly Boal and Robert Hooijberg, the _____ component of vision is based on information and expresses outcomes. A) emotional B) affective C) cognitive D) visceral
24) According to Kimberly Boal and Robert Hooijberg, the _____ component of vision appeals to values and beliefs, and thus underpins the motivation and commitment that are key to the implementation of the vision. A) rational B) affective C) intellectual D) cognitive
25) In the context of a vision statement that motivates organizational change, the “burning platform” theory implies _____. A) the value of reassurance and continuity B) breaking from the past with promises of a bright new future C) the value of coherence and continuity D) a future consisting of uncertainty and resistance to change
26)
Venus et al. advocate an organizational vision that _____.
A) enables initiative and response to changing environments B) reflects what makes the organization different C) involves shared beliefs that influence behavior and attitudes D) provides a clear sense of continuity of organizational identity
27)
Carton and Lucas advocate an organizational vision that _____. A) mirrors the past as well as current challenges. B) provides a clear sense of continuity of organizational identity. C) uses image-based rhetoric to paint a concrete picture of the future. D) reflects what makes the organization different from the competition.
28) One of the characteristics of effective organizational visions that Kotter advocated in 2012 was _____, which means that the vision must embody realistic, attainable goals. A) communicability B) desirability C) flexibility D) feasibility
29) One of the characteristics of effective organizational visions that Kotter advocated in 2012 was _____, which means that the vision must appeal to stakeholder interests. A) feasibility B) desirability C) flexibility D) communicability
30) According to Carlton and Lucas, the use of abstract rhetoric while creating organizational vision leads to _____.
A) unique and achievable goals B) blurry vision bias C) a purpose-driven statement D) swift decision-making
31) In the context of processing sensory information about the world, which of the following is most likely to have the maximum impact? A) seeing a measuring cup containing the amount of sugar in a soda B) reading about people who benefited tremendously from charity C) statistics about thousands of villagers affected by severe famine D) reading about the advances in cancer treatment research
32) In the context of approaches to vision-crafting, the sell approach is used when the chief executive _____. A) wants to see which aspects of the vision find support B) is attracted to the vision and wants the staff to adopt it C) does not deem involvement as important to the process D) needs help to develop the vision
33) According to Holpp and Kelly, the _____ approach to developing vision relies on the use of imagination and imagery to encourage staff to participate in vision development. A) intuitive B) analytical C) benchmarking D) participative
34) According to Holpp and Kelly, the _____ approach to developing vision requires focusing on the actions and standards utilized by the organization's toughest competitors.
A) intuitive B) analytical C) benchmarking D) participative
35) According to Holpp and Kelly, the _____ approach to developing vision is the most externally focused. A) intuitive B) analytical C) benchmarking D) inverted
36)
A vision is most likely to fail if it is _____. A) too relevant B) too realistic C) too adequate D) too complex
37) According to Lipton, which of the following is NOT a key way in which skillful visions can benefit organizations? A) Enhancing performance B) Recruiting talent C) Focusing on decision-making D) Causing employees to lose faith in their leader
38) According to Gardner and Avolio, _____ is the art of managing that includes influencing others to accept a leader's interpretation of the vision by stressing its importance and aligning it with their values.
A) framing B) scripting C) staging D) performing
39) According to Gardner and Avolio, _____ is the selection of symbols, artifacts, props and settings to reinforce a vision. A) framing B) scripting C) staging D) performing
40)
_____ statements define the reason for the existence of an organization. A) Core value B) Core purpose C) Turnover vision D) Contingency plan
Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) D 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) D
27) C 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) C 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) B Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Men are more likely to downplay their certainty, and women are more likely to minimize their doubts. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
Women are more likely to ask questions than men. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) When male change managers wish to communicate change using a style that is not direct, competitive, confrontational, and authoritative, they can be seen as "going soft," and becoming "touchy-feely."
⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Humor can reduce the gap, and tension, between manager and staff while packaging a message. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) Information overload can be problematic in organizations where employees are already in receipt of a high volume of other information. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
The "spray and pray" strategy is also known as the "communication clutter" approach. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) The withhold and uphold strategy of communication focuses on fundamentals, but engages employees in dialogue to identify obstacles and misunderstandings that need to be addressed. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Incremental transitions seek to de-emphasize face-to-face communication. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) In the inspirational style of leadership, leaders develop a vision of the future and seek to encourage cohesion, and their communication style involves creating trust and mobilizing people around the change program.
⊚ ⊚
true false
10) According to Lengel and Daft, nonroutine, difficult communications preferably need to be performed through the face-to-face communication format. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) The _____ image of managing change argues that the purpose of communication is to ensure that people understand what is going to happen and what is required of them.
A) director B) navigator C) caretaker D) coach
12) The _____ image of managing change argues that the purpose of communication is to let people know the "why" of changes, their inevitability, and how best to cope and survive them.
A) director B) navigator C) caretaker D) interpreter
13) The _____ image of change views the purpose of communication as a way to ensure that people share similar values and are aware of what actions are appropriate to those values.
A) director B) navigator C) caretaker D) coach
14) _____ occurs when more new information is provided more quickly than recipients can process.
A) Message overload B) Message distortion C) Message ambiguity D) Message perception
15) Which of the following communication methods is most likely to result in message overload and distortion?
A) underscore and explore B) spray and pray C) tell and sell D) identify and reply
16)
Which of the following statements is true of change-related communication?
A) It is important throughout the change process, not just at the beginning. B) It needs to be free from feedback in order to be effective. C) It is unaffected by perceptual filters. D) It fails whenever transmitters and receivers have the same frame of reference.
17) Which of the following should be the purpose of communication when the change image is that of a “Coach”?
A) to let people know the “why” of the changes, their inevitability, and how best to cope and survive B) to outline the nature of the change, power relationships, and actions that could disrupt the change C) to ensure that people share similar values and model consistency in actions and words D) to give employees a sense of “what is going on” through storytelling and metaphors
18) In organizational communication, _____ includes coding and decoding problems and errors, perceptual filters, and any other distractions that damage the integrity of the communication channel.
A) feedback B) ambiguity C) overload D) noise
19)
According to Deborah Tannen, _____.
A) men tend to claim credit through the use of the word "I" in instances where women are more likely to use the word "we." B) women tend to claim credit through the use of the word "I" in instances where men are more likely to use the word "we." C) language has little effect on social relationships. D) men are better managers than women.
20) According to Eddie Erlandson, many senior managers are _____, in that they are fast thinkers who have opinions on every topic and are analytical, data-driven, impatient, and think that they are smarter than most other people.
A) subservient princes B) "alpha" males C) "theta" geniuses D) introverted men
21)
Which of the following statements is true of alpha males?
A) They are good listeners. B) They miss subtleties. C) They reduce the pressure on others to perform. D) They are patient and unambitious.
22)
Which of the following is a power tell of dominant individuals?
A) Using open postures B) Smiling a lot C) Using a higher vocal register D) Hesitating more frequently
23)
Which of the following is a power tell of submissive individuals?
A) Using a lower vocal register, and speaking more slowly B) Modifying speech style to sound more like the person they are talking to C) Adopting open postures D) Speaking first, and influencing the conversation thereafter
24) Change managers are most likely to avoid the situation of negative emotions and a loss of trust in management by _____ which involves self-evaluation to reduce the emergence of negative emotions and to identify corrective actions where necessary.
A) taking others' perspective into consideration B) exhibiting threat-reducing behavior C) using reflection D) undergoing internal therapy
25)
_____ is thinking about how others are likely to think and feel about a change.
A) Perspective taking B) Desiccation C) Regression D) Internal therapy
26) A person exhibits _____ by engaging in intentional, interpersonal interactions with staff to minimize their perceptions that changes are likely to lead to harm for them.
A) perspective taking B) threat-reducing behavior C) reflection D) internal therapy
27) Which of the following statements signals higher status of the person uttering the statement, perhaps indicating anger, and informal conversation is not appropriate?
A) "I would be honored if you sit down." B) "You must be so tired. Why don't you sit down?" C) "Sit down!" D) "Have you considered sitting down?"
28) According to Joseph Daly, which of the following will NOT make managers more trusted by staff during times of change?
A) Providing accurate information about the change B) Providing accurate feedback about the process C) Adequately explaining the basis for decisions during the process D) Leaking information regarding the change using the informal communication process
29) Under the communication strategy of _____, employees are showered with a wide variety of information.
A) tell and sell B) spray and pray C) underscore and explore D) identify and reply
30) Under the communication strategy of _____, information that is limited to core organizational issues is quickly provided to staff who are passive recipients.
A) tell and sell B) spray and pray C) underscore and explore D) withhold and uphold
31) Under the communication strategy of _____, fundamental issues remain the focus, but management engages employees in a dialogue about the change process and seeks to identify obstacles and misunderstandings that need to be addressed.
A) tell and sell B) spray and pray C) underscore and explore D) identify and reply
32) Under the communication strategy of _____, a defensive approach is used to detect and respond to employee rumors and innuendos regarding changes.
A) tell and sell B) spray and pray C) identify and reply D) withhold and uphold
33) According to Stace and Dunphy, _____ transitions aim for widespread involvement and emphasize face-to-face communication as well as the use of change teams to identify initiatives and broaden commitment.
A) developmental/incremental B) task-focused C) charismatic D) turnaround
34) According to Stace and Dunphy, _____ tend to follow from organizational crises and draw on formal, top-down modes of communication that attempt to force people to comply with the new direction.
A) developmental or incremental transitions B) task-focused transitions C) charismatic transformations D) turnarounds
35) According to Kathleen and Kevin Reardon, in the _____ style of leadership, leaders are performance- and results-oriented and their communication style is directive.
A) commanding B) logical C) inspirational D) supportive
36) According to the Kathleen and Kevin Reardon, in the _____ style of leadership, leaders explore strategic options through analysis and reasoning.
A) commanding B) logical C) inspirational D) supportive
37) Which of the following is NOT a stage of change identified by Kathleen and Kevin Reardon?
A) The planning stage B) The enabling stage C) The launching stage D) The floating stage
38) According to Lengel and Daft, which of the following media is the lowest in the media richness hierarchy?
A) impersonal media B) Personal static media C) Interactive media D) Physical presence
39)
Which of the following statements is true of face-to-face communication?
A) It lacks nonverbal information cues. B) It provides a personal focus. C) It is characterized by delayed feedback. D) It is most suited to the communication of routine issues.
40) With regard to change communication, Bill Quirke suggests that the _____ type of target audience know that they will be affected by a change and are interested and concerned about the change.
A) waking up B) engaging C) educating D) reassuring
Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) B
27) C 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) D 38) A 39) B 40) B Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A change is more likely to be supported by the employees of an organization if it results in lower remuneration. ⊚ true ⊚ false
2) Different people interpret change, and therefore respond to change, in different ways, at different times, depending on their current role and past experience. ⊚ true ⊚ false
3)
Employees' personal lives do not affect their readiness for organizational change. ⊚ true ⊚ false
4) There are many reasons organizations may experience complacency. These include a track record of success and the absence of a visible crisis. ⊚ true ⊚ false
5) People may resist change, not always because they think that the proposed change is wrong, but because they believe the timing to be wrong. ⊚ true ⊚ false
6) One form of excessive change is when an organization is pursuing several change initiatives at once, and these are perceived by people in the organization as unrelated or, even worse, in conflict. ⊚ true ⊚ false
7) The least reliable predictor of how people will interpret the implications of an announcement of change is their experience of previous organizational changes. ⊚ true ⊚ false
8) Where the past experience with change in an organization has been positive, cynicism is likely to result, which in turn reduces willingness to engage in future change efforts. ⊚ true ⊚ false
9) The symptoms identified with passive resistance to change include being critical, ridiculing, and sabotaging. ⊚ true ⊚ false
10) It is important not to assume that the only ones who may not respond positively to proposals for change are "the managed" and not the managers.
⊚ ⊚
true false
11) The stance of middle managers in particular can have a critical effect on the outcome of change initiatives because they are often responsible for implementation. ⊚ true ⊚ false
12) Individual reactions to change typically involve working through a series of natural psychological stages. ⊚ true ⊚ false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 13) Which of the following reasons is NOT cited in the text as a cause of resistance that a change manager will have to diagnose before taking action? A) innate dislike of change B) low tolerance of uncertainty C) perceived ethical conflict D) belief that the proposed changes are appropriate
14)
People find it easier to support changes when A) their organization communicates them exclusively through impersonal bulletins. B) they have a high dispositional resistance to change. C) their interests are not threatened. D) they have a low tolerance of uncertainty.
15) Which of the following factors is most likely to make the people in an organization lose conviction that a change is necessary?
A) a past track record of success B) the presence of a visible crisis C) consistent top management comments D) the use of change-related communication that is rich in media
16) Which of the following is the most likely negative consequence of excessive change in an organization? A) staff being asked to do too much B) staff being restricted to a single activity C) the operation of the organization at less than capacity D) the establishment of a system for prioritizing projects
17) Being critical, finding fault, ridiculing, or using facts selectively are _____ signs of resistance to change. A) active B) passive C) submissive D) compliant
18) Agreeing in person but not following through, procrastinating, or dragging one's feet are _____ signs of resistance to change. A) active B) passive C) tireless D) diligent
19)
Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of active resistance to change?
A) being critical B) finding fault C) ridiculing D) agreeing in person but not following through
20)
Which of the following statements is true of resistance to change?
A) Overt resistance is less important to an organization than is covert resistance. B) Resistance has emotional, cognitive, and behavioral components. C) Detecting resistance is straightforward as long as organizations use impersonal media to communicate changes. D) Resistance to change is likely to be the least when there is an absence of a visible crisis.
21) In the context of resistance to change in an organization, which of the following statements is true of the role of change managers? A) Managers can also resist change. B) Managers are most likely to facilitate acceptance of change when the organization operates at close to capacity. C) Managers need to present change proposals in a manner that maximizes challenges to the current order. D) Middle managers have the least influence on the change process.
22) In the context of resistance to change in an organization, which of the following is the difference between employee resistance and management resistance?
A) Management resistance is overt, whereas employee resistance is always covert. B) Management resistance is more likely to occur at the conceptualization and planning stage, whereas employee resistance is more likely to arise at the point of implementation. C) Management resistance is most likely to occur when the change is perceived as unnecessary, whereas employee resistance is most likely to occur when the change is perceived as necessary. D) Management resistance is passive, whereas employee resistance is always active in nature.
23) According to Cynthia Scott and Dennis Jaffe's stages of coping with change in an organization, at the last stage of the cycle, individuals A) refuse to recognize the situation. B) demonstrate active and passive forms of resistance. C) show preparedness to explore the possibilities of the new situation. D) focus attention on new courses of action.
24) According to Cynthia Scott and Dennis Jaffe's stages of coping with change in an organization, at the first stage of the cycle, individuals A) let go of the past and become more confident in their ability to deal with the future. B) show preparedness to explore the possibilities of the new situation. C) refuse to believe that they need to behave differently. D) focus attention on new courses of action.
25)
When change managers try to induce acceptance of an organizational change, _____. A) their focus should lie on changing the behavior of individuals in an existing system B) they should actively curb any active resistance to the change C) they should communicate the information for nonroutine tasks by using bulletin
boards D) their focus should lie with system changes and improvements
26) Which of the following statements is true of managing resistance to change in an organization? A) When managing resistance, the focus should be on changing the behavior of individuals in an existing system. B) Action to deal with resistance should be based on a diagnosis of the causes. C) Overt resistance should be actively discouraged as it is harmful. D) Contingency approaches to managing resistance are more effective than are attraction strategies in all situations.
27) Which of the following is NOT a part of Kotter and Schlesinger's strategies for managing resistance to change? A) participation and involvement B) negotiation and agreement C) manipulation and co-optation D) investigation and deception
28) According to Kotter and Schlesinger's contingency approach to managing resistance to change in an organization, change managers should move quickly if A) there is a crisis affecting performance or survival. B) information and commitment from others will be needed to design and implement change. C) the change manager has less organizational power than those who will resist change. D) resistance will be intense and extensive.
29) According to Kotter and Schlesinger's contingency approach to managing resistance to change in an organization, change managers should move slowly if
A) the change manager has more organizational power than those who will resist the change. B) the resistance to change is intense and extensive. C) there is a crisis affecting performance or survival. D) information and commitment from others is not required to design and implement change.
30) According to Cynthia Scott and Dennis Jaffe's stages of coping with change, the _____ stage involves a refusal to recognize the situation being faced. A) denial B) resistance C) exploration D) commitment
31) According to Cynthia Scott and Dennis Jaffe's stages of coping with change, attention is focused on new courses of action during the _____ stage. A) shock B) exploration C) resistance D) commitment
32) In the context of individual resistance and management responses, which of the following statements would be considered "the stall"? A) I don't want to. B) I'll check the report first thing next week. C) I think that the change would be better if it were implemented first in X division. D) See what you're making me do.
33) In the context of individual resistance and management responses, which of the following statements would be considered "the projected threat"?
A) Tell me exactly what you want me to do. B) Wow, what a great idea! C) X isn't going to like this. D) You owe me one.
34) According to Karp, which of the following statements would be considered "the guilt trip"? A) But we've always done it the other way. B) See what you're making me do. C) You owe me one. D) I don't want to.
35) Which of the following strategies for dealing with resistance to change is most appropriate when the resistance is caused by a fear of the unknown? A) participation and involvement B) manipulation and co-optation C) explicit and implicit coercion D) negotiation and agreement
36) The explicit and implicit coercion strategy for dealing with resistance to change is most appropriate when the resistance to change is caused by A) fear of the unknown. B) anxiety over personal impact. C) misunderstanding and lack of information. D) deep disagreements and little chance of consensus.
37) Which of the following statements is true of the explicit and implicit coercion strategy for dealing with resistance to change?
A) It takes an excessive amount of time. B) It requires the change agent to have power. C) It is most effective when resistance is caused by misunderstanding and lack of information. D) It increases commitment and reconciles opposing views.
38) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the facilitation and support strategy to deal with resistance to change? A) It encourages future problems from those who feel they were manipulated. B) It takes time and can be expensive. C) It requires the change agent to have power over the employees of an organization. D) It overpowers resistance through force.
39) Which of the following is an advantage of using the manipulation and co-optation strategy to deal with resistance to change? A) It increases commitment of employees to an organization. B) It increases awareness and understanding. C) It is quick and inexpensive. D) It encourages all employees to strike deals to accept changes.
40) According to the _____ perspective on resistance to change, resistance is a sign that not everybody is on board in terms of making the change and resistance can and must be overcome in order to move change forward. A) director B) navigator C) coach D) nurturer
41) According to the _____ perspective on resistance to change, resistance is possible but likely to be short lived and ultimately futile. According to this perspective, at best, resistance might temporarily delay change rather than halt its inevitable impact. A) director B) navigator C) caretaker D) nurturer
42) According to the _____ perspective on resistance to change, resistance needs to be recognized and expected as change takes people out of their comfort zones. A) navigator B) caretaker C) nurturer D) coach
Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) B
27) D 28) A 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) A 36) D 37) B 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) D Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) There is no single, underlying theory that unifies the field of organization development (OD) as a whole. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) Central to the traditional organization development (OD) approach is the role of the OD practitioner, who may be either internal or external to an organization. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) The three-stage model for change that includes the processes of unfreezing, changing, and refreezing was developed by Joseph Juran. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) One of the biggest strengths of the traditional organization development (OD) field was that it was well suited to handle large-scale organizational change. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) According to the organization development (OD) approach, it is the bottom rung of an organization that is committed to the change process. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Under dialogic organization development (OD), the role of the OD consultant moved from being the provider of data for fact-driven decision making to being the facilitator of processes that encouraged "conversations" around change issues. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) The dialogic organization development (OD) approach holds that "real change" only occurs when mindsets are altered and that this is more likely to occur through "generative conversations" than persuasion by "facts." ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) According to Bean and Hamilton, after the downsizing at Telenor, some staff accepted the corporate "alignment" frame, while others adopted an "alienated" frame and felt marginalized and feared for their job security.
⊚ ⊚
true false
9) The ability of a powerful actor to project sense-making onto a situation, shaping the interpretations of others, is known as projective sense-making. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Animation is one of the four drivers of organizational change whereby people remain in motion and may experiment. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) Of the six images of managing change, the _____ and _____ images have their foundations in the field of organization theory.
A) director; coach B) navigator; interpreter C) caretaker; nurturer D) interpreter; caretaker
12) Of the six images of managing change, the _____ and _____ images of managing change assume that change managers receive rather than initiate change.
A) director; coach B) navigator; interpreter C) caretaker; nurturer D) interpreter; caretaker
13) Underpinned by the _____ image, the organizational development (OD) approach is one where its adherents present their developmental prescriptions for achieving change as being based, at least traditionally, upon a core set of values, values that emphasize that change should benefit not just organizations but the people who staff them.
A) director B) navigator C) caretaker D) coach
14) Underpinned by the _____ image, the sense-making approach maintains that change emerges over time and consists of a series of interpretive activities that help to create in people new meanings about their organizations and about the ways in which they can operate differently in the future.
A) director B) navigator C) nurturer D) interpreter
15) According to Beckhard, which of the following is true of the classic organizational development approach?
A) It is short term, typically needs six months to achieve effective change. B) Business policies and practices form the key focus for change. C) It is unplanned and involves case-by-case diagnosis and solution. D) Changing attitudes and behavior is a focus of the change effort.
16) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Beckhard's classic organization development (OD) approach?
A) It is spontaneous and requires compartmental diagnosis. B) The top of the organization is committed to the change process. C) Changing attitudes and behavior is a focus of the change effort. D) It is action-oriented.
17) Which of the following is NOT a core set of values contained in the organization development (OD) field?
A) humanistic values B) democratic values C) economic values D) developmental values
18) In the context of the core set of values of the organization development (OD) field, _____ values relate to openness, honesty, and integrity.
A) humanistic B) democratic C) economic D) developmental
19) In the context of the core set of values of the organization development (OD) field, _____ values relate to social justice, freedom of choice, and involvement.
A) humanistic B) democratic C) economic D) developmental
20)
The first step in action research is ________.
A) data gathering B) problem diagnosis C) problem identification D) feedback
21) The introduction of and transition to new techniques and behaviors occur during the _____ phase of action research.
A) problem identification B) joint problem diagnosis C) joint action planning D) change actions
22) According to Cummings and Worley, which of the following is NOT a skill needed by an organization development (OD) practitioner?
A) intrapersonal skills B) interpersonal skills C) technical skills D) general consultation skills
23)
Which of the following is NOT a part of Kurt Lewin's three-stage model of change?
A) pouring B) unfreezing C) changing D) refreezing
24)
Which of the following is NOT a criticism of organization development (OD)?
A) internal validity problems B) external validity problems C) problems arising due to too much theory D) problems with measuring attitude changes
25) The approach and the values underpinning organization development (OD) were predominantly developed in _____.
A) the United States B) the European Union C) South America D) Japan
26) According to Lewinian/OD views of organizational change, organization development (OD) is linear in that it
A) has a constant ebb and flow. B) has movement from past to present to future. C) is heavily reliant on mathematics. D) is based on symmetrical change and equilibrium.
27) In the context of the core set of values of the organization development (OD) field, _____ values relate to authenticity, growth, and self-realization.
A) humanistic B) democratic C) economic D) developmental
28) According to Cummings and Worley, organization development (OD) practitioners need _____ skills, which include having a well-developed set of values and personal integrity and the ability to retain their own health in high-stress organizational situations.
A) intrapersonal B) interpersonal C) consultation D) physical
29) Which of the following is NOT a technique designed to work with large groups of people at a time?
A) whole-system design B) participative design C) fast-cycle full participation D) spatial participation design
30) Which of the following is a difference between dialogic organizational development (OD) and diagnostic organizational development (OD)?
A) Dialogic OD uses the processes of unfreeze, change, and freeze to manage change, whereas diagnostic OD uses no systematic steps to manage change. B) The practitioners of dialogic OD carry out diagnosis of the organizational situation before intervening, whereas the practitioners of diagnostic OD work with people in a way that creates new knowledge and awareness. C) A consultant is an involved facilitator in dialogic OD, whereas he or she is a neutral facilitator in diagnostic OD. D) Central to the diagnostic approach is the view that "real change" only occurs when mindsets are altered, whereas the dialogic approach focuses on making changes at the management level.
31)
Which of the following is NOT a component of appreciative inquiry (AI)?
A) discovering the best of what is currently practiced B) designing what should be C) sustaining an organization's future D) communicating to the world
32)
According to Fuller et al., which of the following is true of appreciative inquiry?
A) It releases an outpouring of new constructive conversations. B) It controls self-sustaining learning capacity outside of an organization. C) It does not create the conditions necessary for self-organizing to flourish. D) It provides a reservoir of strength for negative change.
33) Which of the following has been dubbed as a "new movement in organizational science" since its emergence in the early 2000s?
A) appreciative inquiry B) organizational development C) positive organizational scholarship D) taoist strategies
34) Which of the following approaches is NOT encompassed in positive organizational scholarship (POS)?
A) appreciative inquiry B) positive psychology C) community psychology D) organizational sociology
35) Which of the following is NOT an issue that Fineman raises in question of whether positive organizational scholarship (POS) can really live up to its "positive" aims?
A) He questions whether we can really agree on which behaviors are positive. B) He questions whether the positive can be separated from the negative. C) He suggests that there is an unarticulated dark side to positiveness. D) He suggests that negative aspects frequently outweigh the positive.
36) The _____ is an assumption that planned, intended change is necessary in order to disrupt the forces that contribute to a lack of change in an organization so that there is a lag between environmental change and organizational adaptation.
A) assumption of inertia B) assumption that a standard change program is needed C) assumption of animation D) assumption of unfreezing
37)
According to Kurt Lewin, removing blockages in the adaptive processes is termed _____.
A) freezing B) rebalancing C) thawing D) unfreezing
38)
The best change sequence in the event of ineffectiveness in the system is:
A) unfreeze, rebalance, and freeze. B) freeze, rebalance, and unfreeze. C) unfreeze, unbalance, and freeze. D) freeze, unfreeze, and balance.
39) According to the text, which of the following is NOT a major organizational change experienced by Nova Scotia Power from 1982 to 2002?
A) privatization B) downsizing C) the introduction of a cultural change program D) expropriation
40) According to the sense-making framework, _____ is the notion that people make sense of their actions in hindsight.
A) social sense-making B) extracted cues of sense-making C) retrospection D) plausibility
Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) C 12) C 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) A 26) B
27) D 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) A 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) A 37) B 38) B 39) D 40) C Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Contingency approaches are still underpinned by the director image, but they do not claim to have discovered "the one best approach" for all types of organizational change. ⊚ true ⊚ false
2)
The primary role of a change manager is to direct staff during complex situations. ⊚ true ⊚ false
3) The focus of the awareness, desire, knowledge, ability, and reinforcement (ADKAR) change model lies with the individuals who will be involved in and affected by change. ⊚ true ⊚ false
4) Checklist approaches to change management assume that the process is logical and linear, and can therefore be controlled by planning and then following the correct set of steps. ⊚ true ⊚ false
5) There is a high likelihood that even if a change manager does not follow most of the advice in checklists, organizational transformation can still be achieved. ⊚ true ⊚ false
6) The first step in Kotter's eight-stage model of transformational change is to develop the vision for change. ⊚ true ⊚ false
7) According to John Kotter, transformational changes often fail because the changes are not embedded and because victory is declared too soon. ⊚ true ⊚ false
8) Andrew Pettigrew cautioned against looking for single causes and for simple explanations for change; he instead pointed to the individual, group, organizational, social, and political factors that can affect the nature and outcomes of change. ⊚ true ⊚ false
9) The disadvantage of the "tell" management style is that it does not use staff experience and ideas. ⊚ true ⊚ false
10) The Hope Hailey-Balogun change kaleidoscope is a context-sensitive approach to the design and implementation of change.
⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) _____ change theorists and practitioners take an "it depends" approach in which the style of change, especially the style of leadership, is dependent on the scale of the proposed change and the readiness of the staff to receive it. A) Compulsion B) Contingency C) Processual D) None of these answers is correct.
12) The contingency change management approach is underpinned by the _____ image of managing change. A) director B) follower C) interpreter D) caretaker
13) Process theories see change unfolding over time in a messy and iterative way and thus rely more heavily on the image of a change manager as a(n)_____. A) director B) navigator C) interpreter D) caretaker
14) According to Kotter, if the mistake that caused the failure of transformation efforts is a lack of coalition, management should remedy the situation by _____.
A) creating a team with the expertise and the power to make it happen B) communicating the desired vision repeatedly, in words and actions C) creating a sense of urgency D) confronting and removing obstacles
15) Which of the following companies developed the awareness, desire, knowledge, ability, and reinforcement (ADKAR) model of change? A) Prosci B) Apple C) McKinsey D) Gartner
16) Identify the meaning of the duration factor in the DICE Model developed by the Boston Consulting Group. A) the effort required that is over and above the usual demands on employees B) the project team’s performance integrity; its ability to complete the initiative on time, which depends on members’ skills relative to the project’s requirements C) the time span until the program is completed if it has a short life; if not short, the amount of time between reviews or milestones D) the commitment displayed by top management and employees who are affected
17)
Identify the question that corresponds to Aspire in the McKinsey 5A model. A) What must we do get there? B) How ready are we to go there? C) How do we manage the journey? D) Where do we want to go?
18) Which of the following is one of the four factors in the DICE model developed by the Boston Consulting Group as part of the change by checklist approach?
A) commitment B) innovation C) diligence D) efficiency
19) Which of the following is a probable reason for the popularity of the checklist approach with professional bodies and management consultancies? A) the lack of criticisms faced by this "rational linear" model of change B) the codification of an otherwise messy and iterative management process C) the monopoly exercised by a change manager in determining the chances of success D) the non-linear nature of the checklist approach
20) Which of the following is a true statement about the duration, integrity, commitment, and effort (DICE) model developed by the Boston Consulting Group? A) It advises change managers to calculate scores for any two of the four DICE factors. B) It provides reassurance that change can be controlled and managed effectively in a logical and predictable manner. C) It includes as a factor the amount of time between reviews or milestones. D) It reveals whether a project is in the win zone, the worry zone, or the woe zone depending on a single factor's score.
21)
What is the first step in Kotter's eight-stage model of transformational change? A) establishing a sense of urgency B) ensuring there is a powerful change group to guide the change C) institutionalizing new approaches D) empowering staff to act on a vision
22) In the context of Lewin's three-stage model of change management, which of the following is involved in the unfreezing stage?
A) changing attitudes by making people feel uncomfortable about the way things are because they could be improved B) embedding or institutionalizing the new behaviors to prevent people from drifting back to previous ways of doing things C) implementing the change to move to the desired new state D) preparing ground for change to take over through extensive communication
23)
What is the final step in Kotter's eight-stage model of transformational change? A) empowering staff to act on a vision B) ensuring there are short-term wins C) consolidating gains and producing more change D) institutionalizing new approaches
24) In the context of Kurt Lewin's stage model of change management, embedding or institutionalizing the new behaviors to prevent people from drifting back to previous ways of doing things is called _____. A) moving B) approaching C) unfreezing D) refreezing
25) Which of the following laws that states that change often looks like a failure in the middle is invoked by Kurt Lewin's second stage of change? A) Aitken's law B) Kanter's law C) Benford's law D) Gossen's law
26) In Kotter's eight-stage model of transformational change, the stage of empowering others to act on the decided vision involves _____.
A) encouraging risk taking and unconventional thinking B) communicating thoroughly the vision and strategies C) identifying and discussing crises and opportunities D) examining the market and competitive realities
27) According to Kotter's eight-stage model of transformational change, during the stage in which management would ensure that there is a strong change group to guide the change, the actions taken would include _____. A) performing market analysis B) forming a powerful guiding coalition C) removing organizational policies and structures that inhibit achievement of the vision of an organization D) rewarding "wins" to help provide motivation
28)
Which of the following is a limitation of the process perspective of change?
A) It tends to overly focus on individuals as proactive "movers and shakers" rather than on organizational processes. B) It involves the danger of change being presented as overly simple. C) It offers advice that covers only those issues to which change management should be sensitive. D) It recognizes change as a static or time-bound event and not a dynamic one.
29) According to the text, which of the following is a strength of the process perspective on change?
A) It recognizes the complexity of change, draws attention to the interaction between many factors at different levels, and shapes the nature, direction, and consequences of change. B) It recognizes change as a static or time-bounded event or as a discrete series of events. C) It highlights the personal nature of organizations and change and emphasizes the importance of the personal skill of the change manager. D) It portrays individuals involved in change as proactive "movers and shakers" in a broad sequence of events.
30) Andrew Pettigrew, one of the architects of the processual perspective, cautioned against _____. A) looking for single causes and simple explanations for change B) adopting the relentless communication approach with employees C) looking at change as a process and not an event D) expecting and planning for delays in the change process
31) In the process perspective, Dawson and Andriopoulos advocate _____, challenging taken-for-granted assumptions, which may be desirable if it subverts a weak initiative. A) leveraging of influence B) energy generation C) critical reflection D) employee empowerment
32) According to Patrick Dawson and Andriopoulos, to understand change, organizations must consider _____. A) replacing old staff with new ones B) only the future context in which organizations are expected to function C) the substance of the change and its scale and scope D) only the present context in which organizations function
33) Which of the following is NOT one of Dawson and Andriopoulos's "general lessons" concerning change management practice? A) Change leaders need to be politically sensitive and astute as change is a political process. B) It is important to learn from both positive and negative experiences. C) Communication is fundamentally important in steering processes in desired directions. D) Many assumptions can be taken for granted, and time should not be wasted questioning these assumptions.
34) Which of the following pairs of researchers have developed a contingency matrix approach that begins by establishing a scale of change from "fine-tuning" to "corporate transformation"? A) Drucker and Deming B) Mento, Jones and Dirndorfer C) Dunphy and Stace D) Ghoshal and Bartlett
35) According to Dunphy and Stace, the disadvantage of the tell and sell change management style is that it _____. A) conflicts with the concept of management accountability B) may be time consuming C) can cause resentment D) can be seen as cosmetic
36) According to Dunphy and Stace, the style of change adopted when an organization needs major adjustments to meet environmental conditions, where there is little time for participation, and where there is support for radical change is called _____.
A) forced evolution B) focused transition C) charismatic transformation D) participative evolution
37)
According to Marco Gardini et al., change is said to be successful if
A) there is hiring of new talent that can contribute to the change process. B) there is a change in the organization's management once the need for change is realized. C) it starts with a fresh set of already existing staff who are remotely associated with the activities that need to be improved. D) a comprehensive program with clear and meaningful goals that links those in pivotal roles with the changes that the rest of the organization has to make is designed.
38) Which of the following is a disadvantage of the change management style of inviting participation? A) It normally leads to poorer decisions than does deciding on one's own. B) It tends to conflict with the concept of management accountability, and the management loses some control over outcomes. C) It uses little of the available information to manage change. D) It leads to lower commitment from staff who share ownership of the decisionmaking process.
39) In the context of the scale of change identified by the Stace-Dunphy contingency matrix, corporate transformation refers to
A) strategic change throughout an organization, to structures, systems, procedures, mission, values, and power distribution. B) refining methods, policies, and procedures, typically at the level of the division or department. C) distinct modifications to strategies, structures, and management processes, but not radical enough to be described as strategic. D) restructuring departments and divisions, potentially radical, but at the level of parts of the organization and not the whole.
40)
One of the main criticisms of the contingency approach is that
A) it may lead to resentment and rarely produces lasting behavior. B) it is more ambiguous and difficult to explain than the simpler "off the shelf" competition from checklists and stage models. C) it may not encourage collaboration and spread of change across business units. D) it may lead to over-focusing on individual work groups rather than on how they may operate as part of a larger, corporate collective.
Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) B 26) A
27) B 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) D 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) A 40) B Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Sustainability implies that new practices and processes are routinized until they become obsolete. ⊚ true ⊚ false
2) Changes tend to "stick" to an organization when new structures, processes, and working practices are no longer seen as "change". ⊚ true ⊚ false
3) There is likely to be nothing more damaging to the credibility of a change program than for the actions of the change advocates to be consistent with what they espouse. ⊚ true ⊚ false
4) Staff selection, and promotion processes, can be subtle but powerful ways to change and to maintain an organization's culture. ⊚ true ⊚ false
5) David Nadler argues that at the very least, an organization should conduct a full-scale assessment within twenty-four months of the initiation of major change activities, and then biannually thereafter. ⊚ true ⊚ false
6) Preventive maintenance involves action to sustain the status quo, to keep new working practices operating as intended, and to meet predetermined targets and objectives. ⊚ true ⊚ false
7) Measuring the overall success of a change initiative should be related to the timescale over which benefits are expected to be delivered. ⊚ true ⊚ false
8) The J-curve does not help in managing the expectations of others with regard to justifying a deterioration in performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false
9) Unanticipated outcomes are not a sign of management failure; in complex change processes, the unexpected is to be expected. ⊚ true ⊚ false
10) Even in the best-managed situation, not all change outcomes are controllable or predictable. ⊚ true ⊚ false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) According to the _____ image of managing change, with respect to sustaining change, it is the responsibility of the change manager to design the change process and direct others to comply to ensure that planned objectives are achieved. A) director B) navigator C) caretaker D) coach
12) According to the _____ image of managing change, with respect to sustaining change, the change manager designs the change process to fit the context, recognizing that modifications will be required and that the outcome may not be as intended. A) director B) navigator C) caretaker D) coach
13) According to the _____ image of managing change, with respect to sustaining change, change outcomes will be determined primarily by contextual factors and not by management intervention. A) caretaker B) coach C) interpreter D) nurturer
14) According to the _____ image of managing change, with respect to sustaining change, the change manager's main role is to help others to develop the capabilities necessary to achieve the intended outcomes of the change. A) caretaker B) coach C) interpreter D) nurturer
15) According to the _____ image of managing change, with respect to sustaining change, the change manager develops understanding of the meaning and significance of the changes and what will count as successful outcomes. A) caretaker B) coach C) interpreter D) nurturer
16) According to the _____ image of managing change, with respect to sustaining change, change outcomes are in constant flux and are largely beyond management control. A) caretaker B) coach C) interpreter D) nurturer
17) According to the text, which of the following was NOT a problem faced by the U.S. Postal Service in 2001? A) The indifference of senior managers, who regarded some aspects of strategy as a distraction B) Low morale and performance of the staff C) The inability to steer funding through a budget process that favored traditional initiatives over innovations D) Rapidly rising fuel costs that made operation unprofitable
18)
A problem associated with sustaining change is: A) assuming that successful changes will automatically be sustained. B) de-escalation of commitment. C) recognizing success. D) inflated expectations of competitors.
19) According to David Buchanan et al., which of the following is the main threat to the sustainability of change in an organization? A) Accountability for development being unclear B) The effective replacement of knowledge during staff turnover C) Appointment of sustainable managers by organizations D) The visibility of issues and pressures that triggered an initiative
20) In the context of praiseworthy and blameworthy failures, Marks and Shaw argue that a firm may gain more in the long term from a(n) _____. A) productive failure B) non-goal-oriented change C) unproductive failure D) unproductive success
21) _____ treats occasional failure as natural and as an opportunity to develop better understanding and to improve future performance. A) A traditional organization B) An inverted organization C) A learning organization D) A matrix organization
22) Which of the following was NOT a problem faced by McDonald's when launching hotels in Switzerland?
A) The interior design of the structures B) The use of the phrase "golden arches" in German C) The application of the brand name "McDonald's" to a four-star hotel D) The protests in Europe based on alleged adverse health effects of food at McDonald's
23)
Which of the following illustrates a praiseworthy failure?
A) Mark chooses to violate a prescribed process or practice. B) Lia takes seemingly reasonable actions that produce undesirable results due to uncertainty of future events. C) Paula inadvertently deviates from project specifications. D) Sam does not have the skills, conditions, or training to execute the task of maintaining customer relations in his organization.
24) Which of the following is NOT one of the "four hard lessons" identified by Robert Reisner for organizations undertaking a major change initiative in a turbulent economic environment? A) Don't miss your moment B) Connect change initiatives to your core business C) Don't mistake incremental improvements for strategic transformation D) Don't make private enterprises compete with government enterprises
25) The commitment of resources to an initiative in such a way that to withdraw would be extremely costly conveys _____. A) the act of celebrating en route B) unambiguous management support C) fine-tuning of resources D) burning of bridges
26)
A focus on measurement of progress is important because:
A) it can assist in making important decisions about downsizing. B) it is a means of monitoring change and is likely to have a significant impact on how people act. C) it can justify managerial decisions and explain failure of managerial efforts. D) it provides information from an organization's historical perspective.
27) Gordon Bethune, the chief executive officer of Continental Airlines, changed the core metric used by the airline to _____. A) off-time performance B) fuel costs C) amount of beverage consumed D) on-time performance
28) _____ measures are those that reveal the immediate results of a new initiative, such as changes in processing time, or time-to-market for new products. A) Leading B) Lagging C) Internal D) External
29) _____ measures, such as financial performance and corporate image, can take time to become apparent. A) Leading B) Lagging C) Internal D) External
30)
_____ measures are directly financial.
A) Leading B) Lagging C) Cost-based D) Internal
31)
Which of the following is NOT an action employed to sustain change? A) Redesigning roles B) Redesigning reward systems C) Linking selection decisions to change objectives D) Avoiding consistency in advocated actions
32) According to Kanter et al., which of the following is NOT a component of helpful metric measures? A) Results measures B) Process measures C) Social measures D) All of these
33) Federal Express abandoned its new aircraft routing system after the implementation caused difficulties with the union. The difficulties included all of the following EXCEPT: A) a wage increase. B) a demand for fewer flying hours. C) a demand for improved retirement benefits. D) a wildcat strike.
34) Anne Fisher uses the term _____ to describe those who display support in public but are resentful of the change and are waiting for the opportunity to return to the "old ways" of working to which they remain committed.
A) "vicious compliance" B) "two-faced subordinates" C) "covert insubordination" D) "duality of compliance"
35) Which of the following is NOT one of Barry Staw and Jerry Ross's factors that lead to escalation? A) Project determinants B) Psychological determinants C) Economic determinants D) Social determinants
36) According to Barry Staw and Jerry Ross, the factor that leads to escalation resulting from self-justification biases in which having been personally responsible for a decision can lead to continued commitment in order to try to avoid being associated with losses is known as a(n): A) project determinant. B) psychological determinant. C) social determinant. D) organizational determinant.
37) According to Barry Staw and Jerry Ross, the factor that leads to escalation resulting from an attempt to save face by committing more resources at a project in an attempt to revive it and avoid being associated with failure is known as a(n): A) project determinant. B) psychological determinant. C) social determinant. D) organizational determinant.
38) Which of the following is NOT one of Mark Keil and Ramiro Montealegre's practices to avoid escalation of commitment?
A) Don't ignore negative feedback or external pressure. B) Hire an internal assessor to provide an independent view on progress. C) Manage impressions by framing de-escalations in a way that saves face. D) Prepare stakeholders to avoid resistance.
39) According to Barry Staw and Jerry Ross, _____ leads to escalation of commitment where the lack of progress is considered to be due to a temporary problem, or where additional funding is considered likely to be effective. A) organizational determinants B) psychological determinants C) project determinants D) social determinants
40)
The benefits of change may result in the J-curve, in which: A) the initial performance may deteriorate before it improves. B) the initial performance may increase before it becomes negative. C) it is impossible to tell about a company's success without additional information. D) None of these
Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) B
27) D 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) C 40) A Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A middle manager's understanding of frontline operations and issues is usually much better than that of senior management. ⊚ true ⊚ false
2) Joseph Bower was one of the first to recognize the importance of chief executive officers (CEOs) as change managers. ⊚ true ⊚ false
3) Change managers are more successful where they hold lower level positions in the organization's informal network, regardless of their roles in the formal hierarchy. ⊚ true ⊚ false
4)
Change managers are superheroes who do not have a dark side. ⊚ true ⊚ false
5) Given the pressure, pace, stress, risks, and vulnerability of the role, change managers ideally need to be resilient. ⊚ true ⊚ false
6) Issue-selling refers to packaging, presenting, and promoting plans and ideas in ways that make them more appealing to the target audience. ⊚ true ⊚ false
7) The statement "I pay close attention to people's facial expressions" is a sample inventory item that shows apparent sincerity. ⊚ true ⊚ false
8)
Interpersonal influence can be developed by imposing one's ideas on others. ⊚ true ⊚ false
9)
Being political and manipulative are desirable characteristics of change managers. ⊚ true ⊚ false
10) Most of the actions required to develop change management capabilities are not necessarily costly. ⊚ true ⊚ false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) According to Stjernberg and Philips, which of the following words used for change managers, meaning "souls of fire," comes from the Swedish word meaning "driven by burning enthusiasm"? A) eldsjälar B) tidoptimist C) sommarmorgon D) mobildägis
12) As per Bass and Avolio's transformational leadership involving "the Four Is," which of the following means intellectual stimulation? A) Motivate others to put organizational interests before self-interest. B) Develop others to higher levels of ability. C) Encourage others to see what they are doing from various perspectives. D) Articulate the mission or vision of the organization.
13) According to Vergauwe et al., which of the following is a personality tendency of charismatic leaders? A) They are bold. B) They are unimaginative. C) They dislike mischief. D) They are staid.
14) According to Ashford and Detert, which of the following questions should middle management using the "tailor your pitch" tactic ask to attract senior executive attention and resources?
A) How can I highlight an opportunity for the organization? B) How can I use emotions to generate positive and not negative responses? C) Can I "catch the wave" by tapping into a trend in the outside world? D) What does my audience find most convincing or compelling?
15) According to Ashford and Detert, which of the following questions should middle management using the "involve others" tactic ask to attract senior executive attention and resources? A) How can I highlight an opportunity for the organization? B) Where does my audience stand on this issue? C) Which allies from my network can aid me sell my issue? D) What is the best moment to be heard?
16) According to Donald Kuratko and Michael Goldsby, which of the following discourages the entrepreneurial middle manager from taking risks and innovating? A) systems and policies that encourage bold, spontaneous behavior B) controls that discourage micromanagement C) simplified approval cycles with no documentation D) top-down management and lack of delegated authority
17) In which of the following types of networks are members connected indirectly by their link to the change manager? A) divergent network B) adhesive network C) convergent network D) cohesive network
18) As per Bass and Avolio's transformational leadership involving "the Four Is," individualized consideration means
A) developing others to their highest levels of ability. B) encouraging others to see what they are doing from new perspectives. C) articulating the mission or the vision of the organization. D) motivating others to put organizational interests before self-interest.
19)
Change managers were found to be more successful where A) the nature of their network matched the type of change that they were pursuing. B) they held lower positions in the organization's informal network. C) they had good relationships with those who were indifferent to changes. D) the number of staff per team was higher.
20) According to Thomas Davenport et al., when idea practitioners read a lot, explore interdisciplinary perspectives, and attend conferences, they are working in the _____ stage. A) packaging B) scouting C) implementing D) advocating
21) According to Thomas Davenport et al., when idea practitioners sell, run marketing campaigns, persuade other managers to join, and find early adopters, they are working in the _____ stage. A) advocating B) implementing C) scouting D) packaging
22) Change managers should ideally be _____, which is defined as the successful adaptation to life tasks when faced with highly adverse conditions or social disadvantage.
A) resilient B) mischievous C) thick-skinned D) aggressive
23) In the context of the qualities required of change managers, the successful adaptation to life tasks in the face of social disadvantage or highly adverse conditions is called _____. A) fragility B) indolence C) obduracy D) resilience
24) In the context of images of change and key competencies, identify the caretaker's approach to change. A) Develop resilience, and encourage involvement, continuous learning, and selforganizing. B) Plan with care, but expect the unexpected. C) Shape systemic capabilities—values, skills, drills—to respond effectively to change. D) Accept the force of external context and adapt as required.
25) In the context of the great intimidators, which of the following refers to calculated loss of temper? A) porcupine power B) coercive power C) reward power D) referent power
26) In the context of images of change and key competencies, the interpreter's key competency is _____.
A) facilitation B) strategic thinking C) communication D) project management
27)
Which of the following is true of packaging moves? A) It concerns the ways in which relationships can be exploited to build support for
ideas. B) It concerns the ways in which ideas are "wrapped" to make them more appealing and urgent. C) It concerns the groundwork that may need to be done in advance of selling the issues. D) It concerns assessing top team support in an organization.
28) According to the text, a study that used university staff and students as participants found that political skill A) correlates with general intelligence. B) correlates with measures of self-monitoring and emotional intelligence. C) makes stressful events more threatening. D) is not related to social astuteness.
29) In the context of political skill and the change manager, apparent sincerity refers to _____. A) the ability to engage and influence others in a compelling way B) the ability to tactfully get subordinates to do things C) building a variety of relationships across and outside an organization D) being seen as forthright, open, honest, and genuine
30)
In which of the following ways can a change manager best develop social awareness?
A) by focusing on how his or her proposal can help others meet their goals B) by using the method of self-disclosure C) by playing down power differences D) by revealing confidential information to the staff
31) In which of the following ways can a change manager best develop interpersonal influence? A) by revealing his or her emotions and vulnerabilities B) by justifying his or her actions irrespective of their reasonability C) by playing down power differences D) by asking few questions
32)
In which of the following ways can a change manager best develop networking abilities? A) by asking few questions B) by refraining from using self-disclosure C) by sticking to intra-team rather than inter-team communications D) by taking time to maintain those relationships already established
33) In the context of categories of political behaviors by change managers, _____ refers to switching and choosing roles where one is successful and visible. A) scapegoating B) networking C) issue selling D) positioning
34) Which of the following is a micro practice that was adopted by "The Gang of Four" in the claims handling division of a Nordic insurance company?
A) obeying management decisions about project representation B) handpicking loyal and skilled people to fill project roles C) disclosing and distributing information generously D) producing a memo supporting the management's position and aims
35) Which of the following is part of the six-step approach that is used to develop change management expertise? A) developing apolitical skills B) making oneself rigid in the event of change C) refraining from preparing a personal action plan D) identifying and filling personal gaps, if any
36)
David Hutton argues that change management is not a job for everyone because it A) is relaxing in nature. B) is low on action. C) is less satisfying in general. D) is demanding in nature.
37)
Which of the following is a consequence of a deep change in an organization?
A) It normally causes lesser failures than do shallow or mixed changes. B) It causes interview panels and promotion boards to be less impressed by a change manager's involvement in a successful deep change. C) It reduces the potential for personal development. D) It increases the visibility and reputation of the change managers responsible.
38)
Which of the following is a desirable characteristic in a change manager?
A) high need for praise and recognition B) high politicization and manipulation C) flexibility and resourcefulness D) secretiveness and persistence
39) According to the text, the personal action plan prepared by a change manager must cover the issue of A) allowable weaknesses. B) amendments to the company clause. C) market fluctuations. D) selective manipulation.
40)
Which of the following is an undesirable characteristic of a change manager? A) inability to convey enthusiasm B) ability to not get easily intimidated C) ability to deal with politics D) inability to sense others' feelings
Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) C
27) B 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) D 34) B 35) D 36) D 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) A