TEST BANK FOR Technology for Success Computer Concepts 2e Campbell, Ciampa, Clemens, Freund, Ruffolo

Technology for Success Computer Concepts 2e Campbell, Ciampa, Clemens, Freund, Ruffolo, West (Test Bank All Chapters, 100% Original Verified, A+ Grade) Answers At The End Of Each Chapter Module 1 1. Digital literacy involves having a current knowledge and understanding of computers, mobile devices, the web, and related technologies. a. True b. False 2. Data is raw facts, such as text or numbers. a. True b. False 3. Wires, cases, switches, and electronic circuits are examples of a computer's ______ components. a. hardware b. software c. operating system d. networking 4. Software processes information into meaningful data. a. True b. False 5. The second generation of computers replaced transistors with vacuum tubes. a. True b. False 6. The parts of software that instruct the computer to perform tasks are the ______. Select all that apply. a. circuits b. programs c. memory d. apps 7. Bluetooth technology is a/n ______. a. delivery method of products and services using the Internet b. chip that contains a central processing unit c. wireless short-range radio connection used to communicate among Internet devices d. Internet-based system of messaging and communication apps 8. The ENIAC and the UNIVAC are examples of ______ generation computers. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth 9. A chip that contains a central processing unit and is the "brains" of a computer is called a/n ______. a. ALU b. transistor c. microprocessor Powered by Cognero

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Module 1 d. integrated circuit 10. A collection of two or more computers connected to share resources is called a/n ______. a. network b. integrated circuit c. cloud d. public computer 11. Cloud computing is an Internet-based delivery of computing services, including data storage and apps. You can save and share files over the cloud. a. True b. False 12. Sending and receiving messages and files using the Internet is called ______. a. snail mail b. email c. information transformation d. data exchange 13. Frieda controls her smart devices, such as her coffee maker and thermostat, using ______. a. cloud computing b. kiosks c. email d. the Internet of Things 14. A computer that functions as one component in a larger product that has a specific purpose, such as monitoring the ink levels in a printer, is a/n ______ computer. a. micro b. embedded c. internal d. sensor 15. The benefit of kiosks is that they enable self-service transactions. a. True b. False 16. Karl has recently replaced his credit card to improve his card security from one using a magnetic stripe to the more current ______ technology. a. chip-and-pin b. electronic stripe c. dynamic chip d. swipe-and-tap 17. The digital divide is the difference between the skills you need for your chosen profession and those you currently possess.

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Module 1 a. True b. False 18. Uday works as an advocate for people with visual impairments. Which laws does he rely on to provide technology for his clients? Select all that apply. a. ADA b. W3C c. Title IX d. IDEA 19. The practice of removing barriers that may prevent individuals with disabilities from interacting with data or an app is called ______. a. adaptation b. appropriation c. accessibility d. actualization 20. Brianna is visually impaired. She relies on screen reader technology to ______. a. print using a Braille printer b. read the contents of the screen with audio c. input data without using a keyboard d. create descriptive text for visual objects 21. Ruby relies on alt text to ______. a. add descriptive text to an object so the user understands the image and its purpose b. provide translations of idioms into other languages c. give font choices for websites so that they can be viewed on multiple devices d. use input methods other than keyboards or voice 22. Captioning software displays scrolling text for dialogue in a video. a. True b. False 23. Isaac has a learning disability. He uses a graphic organizer to ______. a. interpret visual images using words b. categorize the pictures he takes on his phone c. create stories using drawings instead of words d. create an outline or structure of information 24. Which of the following are alternatives to mouse buttons that can be used by people with limited hand mobility?

Select all that apply. a. a webcam b. a pneumatic instrument controlled by puffs of air c. a foot pedal d. sign language Powered by Cognero

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Module 1 25. Speech recognition programs are used to provide output to individuals who are blind. a. True b. False 26. The practice of green computing involves ______. a. providing users with disabilities with adaptive technologies b. preventing physical problems by using correct posture and computer setup c. reducing electricity consumed and environmental waste generated d. making a profit by encouraging the replacement of outdated devices 27. Which two U.S. government agencies developed the ENERGY STAR program? Select all that apply. a. Department of Energy b. Environmental Protection Agency c. Department of Justice d. Army Corps of Engineers 28. Suki purchases devices and appliances with the ENERGY STAR label to help bring awareness to the need for adaptive technologies. a. True b. False 29. Enterprise computing refers to the use of technology by ______. a. rental car agencies to monitor inventory by location b. astronauts and aerospace engineers to plan safe space travel c. a company's employees to meet the needs of a large business d. small business owners to connect multiple locations using a network 30. With enterprise computing, each department uses technology specific to its function. a. True b. False 31. Telecommuting refers to the use of a phone to conduct business. a. True b. False 32. A workplace that uses technology to enable workers to connect to the company's network, communicate with each other, use productivity software and apps and more is called a/n ______ workplace. a. intelligent b. smart c. collaborative d. digital 33. Workers in the software and apps field develop, manufacture, and support programs for computers, the web, and mobile devices.

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Module 1 a. True b. False 34. Isa's company recently adopted a BYOD policy, enabling her to ______. a. use productivity and collaboration apps on the company's network b. work remotely while traveling c. set up her workspace using ergonomics d. use her personal device to conduct business 35. Which of the following roles fall under the technology equipment field? Select all that apply. a. sales representatives who enable purchases of software and apps b. professionals who help employees troubleshoot technology issues c. manufacturers and distributors of computers and other hardware d. companies that manufacture chips, cables, and power supplies 36. Technical support and information security roles fall under a company's IT department. a. True b. False 37. Help desk specialists fall under the ______ field. a. technology education, training, and support b. IT consulting c. technology service and repair d. information security 38. System developers analyze and create software and apps. a. True b. False 39. SEO is a necessary skill for those in the ______ field. a. system development b. technology sales c. web marketing and social media d. training and support 40. Digital forensics falls under the ______ field. a. information and systems security b. IT consulting c. web marketing and social media d. data storage, retrieval, and analysis 41. When creating a professional online presence, use a humorous or informal name for your account profile to stand out to potential employers. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 1 42. A recommended strategy for creating an online presence is to enable privacy settings on your personal social media accounts. a. True b. False 43. LinkedIn is a website you can use for ______. a. professional networking b. personal social networking c. creating a website d. blogging 44. Most technology certifications require coursework assignments instead of an exam. a. True b. False 45. A classroom in which technology is used to facilitate learning and communication is called a/n ______ classroom. a. digital b. virtual c. intelligent d. smart 46. An LMS is used by ______. a. colleges and universities to set up web-based training sites b. cybersecurity specialists to set approval standards for network access c. healthcare specialists to track and protect patient data d. app and system developers to enter and document code 47. mHealth apps can track prescription information or contact a pharmacy to refill a prescription. a. True b. False 48. CAM is used by what industry and for what purpose? a. Medical professionals use CAM to interact with patients' wearable health monitors. b. Colleges and universities use CAM to scan students' work for potential plagiarism. c. CAM is used by cybersecurity experts to track and prevent hacking attempts. d. CAM is used by manufacturers to streamline production and ship products more quickly.

49. M2M communications refers to communication between ______. a. manufacturers b. machines c. mobile devices d. mHealth devices 50. In the transportation industry, drivers use ______ to navigate quickly and safely.

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Module 1 a. Bluetooth b. Wi-Fi c. CAM d. GPS 51. The parts of software that instruct the computer to perform tasks are the ______. Select all that apply. a. circuits b. programs c. memory d. apps

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Module 1 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. a 4. False 5. False 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. a 11. True 12. b 13. d 14. b 15. True 16. a 17. False 18. a, d 19. c 20. b 21. a 22. True 23. d 24. b, c 25. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 1 26. c 27. a, b 28. False 29. c 30. True 31. False 32. a 33. True 34. d 35. c, d 36. True 37. a 38. True 39. c 40. d 41. False 42. True 43. a 44. False 45. c 46. a 47. True 48. d 49. b 50. d 51. b, d Powered by Cognero

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Module 1

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Module 2 1. A collection of webpages makes up a website. a. True b. False 2. A webpage whose content doesn't change often is called ______. a. uniform b. static c. perpetual d. constant 3. Roxy is a web designer. She uses the concept of responsive web design to provide content that ______. a. enables interactivity, such as forms and queries b. collects data for marketing purposes c. displays content based on a visitor's location d. adapts to the size of the display of the device 4. The web is a global collection of millions of computers linked together to share information worldwide. a. True b. False 5. Which of the following are examples of browsers? Select all that apply. a. Google Chrome b. Microsoft OneDrive c. Apple Safari d. iOS 6. A browser is an app designed to display webpages. a. True b. False 7. The term home page can refer to which of the following? Select all that apply. a. the webpage that appears when you open a browser b. a webpage that you save as a favorite c. the main page in a website d. your own webpage you create 8. Hyperlinks enable you to pursue information in a non-linear fashion, clicking relevant links if and when their content appeals to you. a. True b. False 9. In the web address http://www.cengage.com/student/index.html, which part indicates the protocol? a. http:// b. www.cengage.com c. student/index.html Powered by Cognero

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Module 2 d. index.html 10. In the web address http://www.cengage.com/student/index.html, which part indicates the server address? a. http:// b. www.cengage.com c. student/index.html d. index.html 11. A URL is used to ______. a. determine the filename of a webpage b. assign a web protocol c. locate a website on the Internet d. transfer web content from a server 12. HTTP stands for ______ Transfer Protocol. a. Hypertext b. Hardware c. Hashtag d. High-speed 13. The role of a web server is to store webpages and deliver them to computers requesting the pages through a browser. a. True b. False 14. An IP address is used to identify the main page of websites on the Internet. a. True b. False 15. As you navigate websites, you browser keeps a cache, in which it stores ______. a. cookies b. breadcrumbs c. a copy of each page you view d. the domain names you visit 16. A modem is a communications device that ______. a. optimizes your Internet connection for high-speed access b. navigates to and from websites based on your actions c. enables messaging such as texting or email d. sends and receives data over phone or cable lines 17. Aria uses an ISP, which is a/n ______. a. computer connected to the Internet b. internal device that enables you to connect to Wi-Fi c. company that sells Internet access Powered by Cognero

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Module 2 d. information system that assigns protocols 18. A hot spot is a wireless network device that provides Internet connections to mobile computers and devices. a. True b. False 19. Which of the following are examples of TLDs? Select all that apply. a. .html b. .org c. .http d. .edu 20. An organization called Public Technical Identifiers (PTI) approves and controls TLDs. a. True b. False 21. Which of the following groups set web standards? Select all that apply. a. IETF b. IDEA c. W3C d. ADA 22. A site that gathers, organizes, and distributes web content is called a content ______. a. assembler b. assimilator c. aggregator d. adapter 23. A site with time-stamped articles, or posts in a journal format, is called a/n ______. a. web diary b. notebook c. chronicle d. blog 24. Terrence likes to share videos online. Which of the following are examples of mainly video media sharing sites Terrence might use? Select all that apply. a. Pinterest b. YouTube c. TikTok d. Tumblr 25. Terrence likes to share his ideas and interests online. Which of the following are examples of social network sites Terrence might use? Select all that apply. a. NewEgg b. Instagram Powered by Cognero

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Module 2 c. X d. Google 26. Marlin regularly visits a portal, which is a website that ______. a. combines pages from many sources and provides access to those pages b. enables him to search for websites and webpages c. he uses to communicate using posts or messaging d. provides access to blogs and blogging tools 27. Bing is an example of a general-purpose search site. a. True b. False 28. Justine wants to set up a collaborate website for her colleagues to publish and modify content. Justine should create a/n______. a. blog b. wiki c. portal d. X account 29. Slack is an example of a web app that includes productivity apps. a. True b. False 30. With web apps, your files are more vulnerable to security and privacy violations. a. True b. False 31. The main content area of a webpage is called the ______. a. body b. home screen c. banner d. header 32. When a website displays https instead of http, the "s" stands for ______. a. software b. static c. search d. secure 33. Cora uses a digital certificate on her website, which is technology that ______. a. contains the website's special key used for encryption b. enables third-party payment services c. downloads files on visitors' computers d. displays her credentials, similar to a resume Powered by Cognero

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Module 2 34. A security method that scrambles data so it is not readable while being transmitted is ______. a. encoding b. waffling c. cybersafety d. encryption 35. Market research websites are an example of C2C e-commerce sites. a. True b. False 36. Shopping websites are an example of B2C e-commerce sites. a. True b. False 37. Most e-commerce transactions are ______. a. C2C b. B2B c. B2C d. C2B 38. An e-commerce website that sells products or services is called a/n ______. a. digital marketplace b. virtual mall c. electronic storefront d. dynamic kiosk 39. Jagen uses cookies on his e-commerce website to store information such as ______ on his customers' computers. a. numbers of visits b. shopping cart item numbers c. electronic coupons d. credit card numbers 40. 3D Secure is a standard protocol for securing ______ over the Internet. a. personally identifiable information b. customer account history c. data encryption d. credit card transactions 41. TLS is used to protect consumers and businesses from which of the following threats when conducting e-commerce?

Select all that apply. a. fraud b. hacking c. viruses d. identity theft Powered by Cognero

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Module 2 42. Which of the following are examples of deal-of-the-day websites? Select all that apply. a. PriceGrabber b. Groupon c. PayPal Honey d. NewEgg 43. Which of the following are types of software that comb the web to find webpages and add new information about them to a database? Select all that apply. a. spiders b. crawlers c. grasshoppers d. toddlers 44. When you enter a query in a general search engine, it refers to its database index and lists results that match your search term. a. True b. False 45. Darryck is a website creator. He uses SEO in order to ______. a. secure his data through encryption b. create input forms to gather information from visitors c. allow search engines to better find his website d. adapt content to meet visitors' accessibility requirements 46. A human editor creates the index for a web directory. a. True b. False 47. When using a search engine, the descriptive words you enter to obtain a list of results are called ______. a. keywords b. hits c. query language d. wildcards 48. When refining a search, using quotation marks means the search engine will ______. a. find webpages within a range of numbers b. eliminate webpages that contain the word or phrase within the quotation marks c. find webpages with the exact words in the same order d. substitute a placeholder for the characters within the quotation marks 49. When refining a search, using #...# means the search engine will ______. a. find webpages within a range of numbers b. eliminate webpages that contain the word or phrase within the hashtags c. find webpages with the exact words in the same order Powered by Cognero

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Module 2 d. substitute a placeholder for the characters within the hashtags 50. To broaden a search, you can use a word stem, which is a wildcard character. a. True b. False 51. When net neutrality is enforced, ______. a. website content that is biased is not allowed b. web creators who provide inaccurate information are subject to fines c. search engines remove sponsored links and ads from search results d. ISPs must provide the same level or service to all websites 52. Bandwidth is a term commonly used to describe the ______ a. size of a website's files and media b. capacity of a communication channel c. ability of a browser to play music and sound d. limits placed on a user's data usage by an ISP 53. Much of the information on the web is stored in databases. a. True b. False 54. To attach a copyright to your work, you must apply for it or your work can be used without your permission. a. True b. False 55. Elements of the CARS checklist include which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Credibility b. Accuracy c. Research d. Sustainability 56. DRM refers to a collection of technologies used to ______. a. fight software piracy and prevent unauthorized copying of digital content b. violate intellectual property rights of digital creators c. determine if written content has been plagiarized or paraphrased without citation d. license digital work in order to allow creators to profit from selling their work 57. The fair use doctrine allows you to ______. a. use works that are in the public domain b. paraphrase works without citing your source c. use a sentence without permission if you include a citation d. copy digital content that is posted without a credit line Powered by Cognero

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Module 2 58. The CC is a U.S. nonprofit organization that is used by content creators to ______. a. prosecute violators of their intellectual property rights b. license and share their work by providing copyright licenses c. create watermarked versions of their work to avoid copying d. use encryption to prevent downloading of their digital content 59. Paraphrasing is legal, because you are restating an idea using words different from those used in the original text. a. True b. False 60. MLA, APA, and Chicago are examples of different ______. a. copyright licenses b. web file formats c. blog platforms d. citation styles

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Module 2 Answer Key 1. True 2. b 3. d 4. False 5. a, c 6. True 7. a, c 8. True 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. a 13. True 14. False 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. True 19. b, d 20. True 21. a, c 22. c 23. d 24. b, c 25. b, c Powered by Cognero

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Module 2 26. a 27. True 28. b 29. False 30. True 31. a 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. False 36. True 37. b 38. c 39. b 40. d 41. a, d 42. b, d 43. a, b 44. True 45. c 46. True 47. a 48. c 49. a 50. False 51. d Powered by Cognero

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Module 2 52. b 53. True 54. False 55. a, b 56. a 57. c 58. b 59. False 60. d

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Module 3 1. An input device communicates instructions and commands to a computer. a. True b. False 2. On a computer, the most common input device might be a ______. a. keyboard b. printer c. touchscreen d. webcam 3. Which of the following are examples of output devices? Select all that apply. a. speaker b. display device c. microphone d. scanner 4. In a binary system, the 0 and 1 represent the presence or absence of a/n ______. a. bit or byte b. text code c. electronic charge d. data pulse 5. A byte is the smallest unit of data a computer can process. a. True b. False 6. Most computers use a binary system to operate. a. True b. False 7. Which of the following are examples of text coding schemes? Select all that apply. a. HTML b. bitcode c. ASCII d. Unicode 8. ASCII supports more than 65,000 symbols and characters, including Chinese, Japanese, Arabic, and other pictorial characters. a. True b. False 9. Mobile devices are not computers. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 3 10. A laptop that weighs less than a traditional laptop, and is usually less powerful is a/n ______ laptop. a. peripheral b. minitop c. convertible d. ultrathin 11. Forrest chooses an all-in-one computer because_____. a. he gets the computing power of a desktop with the portability of a tablet b. the monitor and system unit are housed together c. he has more options when choosing a monitor d. the operating system and software comes preloaded 12. The primary input method for a tablet is using a fingertip, digital pen, microphone, or stylus. a. True b. False 13. Bei is purchasing a new tablet. She knows that which of the following are popular tablet types? Select all that apply. a. slate b. one-piece c. adaptive d. convertible 14. A peripheral device is used to ______. a. extend the capability of a computer or mobile device b. connect devices to a wireless network c. protect a computer or device from attacks d. interpret data into information 15. Peripheral devices can only be used for input. a. True b. False 16. Grayson wants to connect a device to his computer. He uses a port, which is a/n ______. a. external device that attaches using wires b. internal device that you install on the motherboard c. slot on the computer where you can attach a peripheral device d. device that can handle many USB-compatible devices at once 17. Grayson wants to connect devices to his computer. He uses a USB hub, which is a/n ______. a. wireless device that can be paired with devices in its vicinity b. external device that contains many USB ports c. slot on the computer where you can attach a USB device d. wired device that enables cloud connectivity 18. Which of the following are types of hard drives? Select all that apply.

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Module 3 a. external b. magnetic c. solid state d. static 19. SSDs often are used on mobile devices such as laptops and tablets. a. True b. False 20. An external hard drive typically connects to your computer using a/n ______. a. USB cable b. wireless signal c. magnetic cable d. internal port 21. Geena stores her data "in the cloud," which means her data is stored ______. a. in a folder in her company's wired network b. in encrypted format that only she has the key to access c. on the Internet on a remote server d. on her internal hard drive 22. Which of the following are examples of cloud storage? Select all that apply. a. Box b. Firefox c. OneDrive d. Google Chrome 23. Ari uses flash memory, which is a type of memory that is ______. a. stored on remote servers anywhere in the world b. nonvolatile and can be erased electronically and rewritten c. stored on discs that use laser technology for storage and playback d. permanent and includes the system's startup instructions 24. Which of the following are other terms for a USB flash drive? Select all that apply. a. pencil drive b. jump drive c. optical d. thumb drive 25. What is one reason why optical media is no longer widely used for storage? a. Saving files to optical media requires special software. b. They are expensive and their capabilities vary. c. The materials used to create them are hazardous to the environment. d. They are small and easily lost.

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Module 3 26. The responsibility of the CPU is to ______. a. monitor internal processes b. manage memory usage c. convert input into meaningful output d. connect devices to wireless networks 27. Data travels in and out of the CPU on embedded wires collectively called a hub. a. True b. False 28. Sadie is purchasing a new computer. For what reason should she choose a multi-core processor? a. It performs better. b. It is less expensive. c. It includes network connectivity. d. It can be upgraded easily.

29. The purpose of a processor cache is to ______. a. convert storage into virtual memory if necessary b. create a log of actions and instructions for a device c. store frequently used data so it can be easily retrieved d. convert information into machine language 30. The purpose of the ALU is to ______. a. increase performance by using virtual memory b. create a log of actions and instructions for a device c. store frequently used data so it can be easily retrieved d. perform arithmetic operations in the CPU 31. The purpose of the control unit is to ______. a. manage the flow of instructions within the processor b. create a log of actions and instructions for a device c. temporarily store open apps and document data d. perform arithmetic operations in the CPU 32. Which of the following are steps in the machine cycle? Select all that apply. a. submit b. fetch c. decode d. process 33. ROM is permanently installed on your computer and is attached to the motherboard. a. True b. False 34. The ROM chip contains the BIOS, which tells the computer or device ______.

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Module 3 a. which instructions to complete first b. where storage is located c. how to power off d. how to start 35. At startup, the BIOS performs a POST, which ______. a. instructs the computer to load the operating system b. tests all components for proper operation c. assesses available memory and makes adjustments d. requires users to authenticate themselves 36. Firmware is another word for the instructions on the ______. a. operating system b. motherboard c. ROM chip d. hard drive 37. Which of the following files contain the area of the hard drive that cannot fit in RAM? Select all that apply. a. buffer file b. virtual file c. swap file d. paging file 38. For what purpose does an operating system use virtual memory capability? a. temporarily storing data on a storage medium until it can be swapped into RAM b. creating a backup of data to upload to a remote cloud storage server c. process data received from other computers or devices d. rewrite storage devices periodically to update their data 39. Which of the following RAM types are nonvolatile? Select all that apply. a. DRAM b. Flash memory c. SRAM d. MRAM 40. Myles is purchasing a new computer. He is considering different platforms, which are the _____ the device uses. a. Internet connection hardware b. operating systems c. form factors d. add-on devices 41. Chrome books are more expensive and have more advanced features than computers running Windows or macOS. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 3 42. Myles is purchasing a new computer. He is considering the form factor, which is the _____ of the device. a. performance measurement b. operating system c. shape and size d. display screen 43. Which of the following are examples of pointing devices? Select all that apply. a. mouse b. touchpad c. trackball d. touchscreen 44. A trackball is a flat surface that is touch-sensitive. a. True b. False 45. What is the main difference between a stylus and a digital pen? a. A stylus is more capable than a digital pen. b. Only a stylus works on a touchscreen. c. A digital pen has programmable buttons. d. A digital pen can create input and output.

46. A scanner is an input device that ______. a. is motion-sensitive and captures images through a webcam b. uses voice recognition to verify a user c. created 3D objects d. converts a paper image into an electronic file 47. A QR code is easy and free to generate. a. True b. False 48. Joysticks and wheels are types of ______. a. digital pens b. output devices c. game controllers d. motion-sensitive devices 49. Projectors display output from a computer on a large surface, such as a wall or screen. a. True b. False 50. A voice synthesizer converts text to speech. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 3 51. Jessie is researching printers for her business. She is looking into a MFD, because it can _____. a. create objects based on computer models b. be used for mobile printing c. serve as both an input and output device d. produce high-quality drawings such as blueprints 52. Jessie is researching printers for her business. She is looking into a plotter, because it can _____. a. create objects based on computer models b. be used for mobile printing c. serve as both an input and output device d. produce high-quality drawings such as blueprints 53. A 3D printer creates solid objects one horizontal layer at a time using a process called _______. a. integral building b. additive manufacturing c. systematic construction d. connective fabrication 54. What is the advantage of a plug-and-play device? a. It works for multiple platforms and form factors. b. It can enhance your gaming experience by including virtual reality. c. It begins functioning properly as soon as you connect it to your computer. d. It can easily be updated and modified to serve different purposes.

55. A device driver is a program that ______. a. is used in self-driving cars b. controls a device attached to your computer c. can be used to enhance or upgrade an app d. can easily be updated and modified 56. Megahertz specifies billions of cycles per second. a. True b. False 57. A processor's clock speed measures the speed at which it ______. a. can execute instructions b. transfers data to the bus c. converts storage to memory d. adapts to different global locations 58. Bus width measures the speed at which ______. a. output is produced b. information travels across the Internet Powered by Cognero

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Module 3 c. storage is converted to memory d. data in a computer travels 59. The efficiency of a CPU is measured by IPC. a. True b. False 60. A benchmark test is performed to ______. a. create a baseline performance factor b. test an operating system's capabilities c. determine processor speed and other performance factors d. verify or authenticate users are real people, not robots 61. Laptops often come with adapters, which are ______. a. troubleshooting apps b. manufacturer guarantees c. external batteries d. dual operating systems 62. A video card is a circuit board that processes image signals. a. True b. False 63. The function of a UPS is to ______. a. prevent power fluctuations from damaging electronic components b. maintain power to equipment in case of an interruption in the primary electrical source c. optimize memory and storage for faster data transmission speeds d. monitor changes in temperature and moisture and alert the user before damage is done 64. The function of a surge suppressor is to ______. a. prevent power fluctuations from damaging electronic components b. maintain power to equipment in case of an interruption in the primary electrical source c. optimize memory and storage for faster data transmission speeds d. monitor changes in temperature and moisture and alert the user before damage is done 65. When you restore an operating system, which of the following might occur? Select all that apply. a. All settings revert back to their default. b. You convert or upgrade to a new version or different system. c. The device becomes capable of running two different operating systems. d. The system migrates back to its previous version.

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Module 3 Answer Key 1. True 2. a 3. a, b 4. c 5. False 6. True 7. c, d 8. False 9. False 10. d 11. b 12. True 13. a, d 14. a 15. False 16. c 17. b 18. a, b, c 19. True 20. a 21. c 22. a, c 23. b 24. b, d 25. a Powered by Cognero

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Module 3 26. c 27. False 28. a 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. b, c 33. True 34. d 35. b 36. c 37. c, d 38. a 39. b, d 40. b 41. False 42. c 43. a, b, c 44. False 45. c 46. d 47. True 48. c 49. True 50. True 51. c Powered by Cognero

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Module 3 52. d 53. b 54. c 55. b 56. False 57. a 58. d 59. True 60. c 61. c 62. True 63. b 64. a 65. a, d

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Module 4 1. The software that runs a computer is called the ______ software. a. system b. function c. productivity d. action 2. An operating system also is called a/n ______. a. firmware b. platform c. embedded app d. director 3. Yuri can use his computer or device without installing an operating system. a. True b. False 4. GUI is a collective term for ______. a. the hardware and apps used to start a computer or device b. adaptive technologies required for users with disabilities c. all the ways you interact with a device d. the apps that run in the foreground of a computer or device 5. Why would Robin choose to use a NUI? a. It optimizes your network connection to handle large file transfers. b. It controls the tasks required to create new documents and files. c. It enables you to run apps developed for other operating systems. d. It learns as you work with it, enabling you to be more efficient.

6. The main workspace of an operating system is called the ______. Select all that apply. a. desktop b. home screen c. landing page d. start menu 7. When working with his GUI, Isaak uses icons, which are ______. a. rectangular work areas that display an app or a collection of files, folders, and tools b. lists of related items, including folders, applications, and commands c. small pictures that represent an app, file, or peripheral device d. windows with controls that tell the system how to complete a command 8. In a GUI, a dialog box is a/n ______. a. rectangular work area that displays an app or a collection of files, folders and tools b. list of related items, including folders, applications, and commands c. small picture that represents an app, file, or peripheral device Powered by Cognero

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Module 4 d. window with controls that tell the system how to complete a command 9. In a GUI, a button is an icon you tap or click to execute commands you need to work with an app. a. True b. False 10. SaaS software is distributed ______. a. online for a subscription or fee b. on optical discs c. for devices that have limited capabilities d. with enhancements for users with disabilities 11. Microsoft Windows is a popular operating system. a. True b. False 12. An open source operating system ______. a. is distributed on the cloud and provides automatic updates b. has no restrictions regarding modification and redistribution c. keeps the code hidden, enabling developers to control the program d. enables collaboration such as file sharing and productivity apps 13. Examples of closed source operating systems include ______. Select all that apply. a. Unix b. Android c. Microsoft Windows d. macOS 14. Aly is receiving a laptop through her workplace, so she likely will have a choice in the operating system. a. True b. False 15. A multi-user operating system is typically what is installed on your computer or device. a. True b. False 16. Operating systems provide apps or programs called utilities that ______. a. enable you to perform maintenance-type tasks b. provide connection to a network c. allow multiple users to issue commands at once d. allow multiple versions of an OS to run on the same device 17. A PC operating system is installed on a single laptop or desktop computer. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 4 18. Linux is distributed under the terms of a GPL, which allows you to ______. a. install it on multiple devices, but only run one version at a time b. provide it as a cloud service to those with authorization c. copy the OS for your own use, or give or sell it to others d. manage the resources of the system and your device 19. ChromeOS primarily runs web apps. a. True b. False 20. Examples of mobile operating systems include the following. Select all that apply. a. iOS b. UNIX c. Linux d. Android 21. A server operating system supports ______. a. gaming controllers and video cards b. individual users of mobile operating systems c. many users on networked computers d. super computers used for complex calculations 22. Norah's operating system supports virtualization, which means that she can ______. a. use collaborative apps and file sharing to work remotely b. share computing resources with other devices on her network c. run artificial intelligence programs to make her work efficient d. replicate her desktop apps, files, and settings on her mobile device 23. Unless you are a network administrator, you likely will not directly interact with a server operating system. a. True b. False 24. One function of an operating system is to manage interactions between hardware and software. a. True b. False 25. A data file contains ______. a. the instructions needed to run a program or app b. related documents, such as spreadsheets or graphics c. words, numbers, and pictures that you can manipulate d. machine code that can be used to produce output 26. An executable file contains ______. a. the instructions needed to run a program or app Powered by Cognero

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Module 4 b. related documents, such as spreadsheets or graphics c. words, numbers, and pictures that you can manipulate d. machine code that can be used to produce output 27. A folder catalogs specific files in a central location, regardless of where the items actually are stored on your device. a. True b. False 28. Common Microsoft Office file extensions include which of the following? Select all that apply. a. .css b. .pptx c. .xls d. .txt 29. Shane is a web designer. Which types of file extensions is he likely to use for his work? Select all that apply. a. .rtf b. .docx c. .xml d. .aspx 30. File format determines the ______. a. saved location of the file on your computer or on the cloud b. type or types of apps that you can use to work with a file c. layout and style of a document or other file d. type of machine language used to input the needed data 31. Masha's operating system uses RAM to ______. a. locate and run the bootstrap program and start the operating system b. manage access to server resources, such as a network printer c. run a second type of operating system on the same computer d. temporarily store open apps and data while they are being processed 32. Every program or app, including the operating system, requires RAM. a. True b. False 33. Virtual memory ______. a. temporarily stores data in an area of the hard drive until it can be swapped into RAM b. is used to run artificial intelligence programs that enhance productivity and efficiency c. creates a partition in a hard drive that can be used to host another operating system d. relies on cloud storage services to manage memory resources and make processes faster 34. In terms of computer memory, a page is the ______. a. file in which the locations of all data, information, files, and folders is stored Powered by Cognero

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Module 4 b. alert that the operating system sends to RAM when it is nearing capacity c. set of instructions that allocates and prioritizes resources and procedures d. amount of data and program instructions the operating system can swap at a given time 35. Tierney's computer goes through the boot process when it ______. a. shuts down b. starts up c. swaps memory and storage d. prevents a hacking event 36. What is a kernel? a. The program that executes a series of steps to check the components during the startup process. b. A location on a network that identifies a single resource, such as a computer or printer. c. The core of an operating system, which manages memory, runs programs, and assigns resources. d. A version of an SaaS program that is initially available to subscribers, but then can be updated.

37. A buffer typically is used for input and output processes. a. True b. False 38. CJ's computer is spooling, which means that it is ______. a. loading a program or app b. experiencing a failure c. operating in low power mode d. placing data into a buffer 39. To customize the operating system on a Windows computer, you use the Customize dialog box. a. True b. False 40. When customizing a desktop on a computer, which of the following is true about shortcuts? Select all that apply. a. Shortcuts are used to create links to files and apps. b. You can only create shortcuts for open or frequently used objects. c. The object created as a shortcut remains in the location where it is saved. d. Shortcuts only are available on computers that run macOS. 41. A toggle key is used to ______. a. turn a feature on or off each time a user clicks or presses it b. move between open files, folders, and apps c. instruct a computer or device to shut down or enter sleep mode d. start frequently used programs or apps, or access pinned files 42. Ramon uses the Restore Down button to ______. a. reset his operating system to the previous version Powered by Cognero

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Module 4 b. reduce an open window to its last non-maximized size c. navigate to the next open program window d. minimize an open window to an icon on the taskbar 43. The types of windows include ______. Select all that apply. a. file b. system c. program d. folder 44. An operating system controls the resources of a device, which are the ______. a. set of data and information in storage b. components required to perform work c. peripheral devices attached d. available troubleshooting tools 45. Priya opens the Windows Task Manager dialog box on her PC in order to view ______. a. a log of recent actions, including changes to files and folders b. the names and identities of authorized users on her computer c. a list of available utilities and tools d. running programs and see the percentage of RAM being used 46. When you send a file or folder to the Recycle Bin or Trash folder, it is permanently removed from the device. a. True b. False 47. An operating system's Sleep option is used to shut down the computer. a. True b. False 48. Kelly uses a VM in order to ______. a. create a replica of their computer's settings and transfer it to another device b. allow their computer to run another operating system in addition to the one installed c. optimize their computer to handle complex graphics and media applications d. establish their computer as a network component and connect to the server 49. A section of a hard disk that functions like a separate disk is called a/n ______. Select all that apply a. subdivision b. external hard drive c. partition d. volume 50. The resources Jana can access when working with her computer is identified by her ______. a. user account Powered by Cognero

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Module 4 b. biometrics c. password d. task manager 51. Every computer, including a computer you use at home, has a separate administrator account. a. True b. False 52. A hard drive is less susceptible to loss due to physical damage than a cloud folder. a. True b. False 53. When a file size is measured in gigabytes, it is measured in ______ bytes of data. a. thousands b. millions c. billions d. trillions 54. When a file size is measured in kilobytes, it is measured in ______ bytes of data. a. thousands b. millions c. billions d. trillions 55. Sally creates a new file in Google Docs, which is automatically saved once she starts it, but she still will need to name it. a. True b. False 56. Microsoft OneDrive is an example to an app used to access a cloud storage location. a. True b. False 57. The operating system updates file properties such as date, size, and location. a. True b. False 58. Not all files have names. a. True b. False 59. Tools you can use to locate a file on a computer include ______. Select all that apply. a. File Explorer b. Discover c. Finder Powered by Cognero

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Module 4 d. Data Tracker 60. Copying a file moves it to a new location and removes it from the current location. a. True b. False

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Module 4 Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. False 4. c 5. d 6. a, b 7. c 8. d 9. True 10. a 11. True 12. b 13. c, d 14. False 15. False 16. a 17. True 18. c 19. True 20. a, d 21. c 22. b 23. True 24. True 25. c Powered by Cognero

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Module 4 26. a 27. False 28. b, c 29. c, d 30. b 31. d 32. True 33. a 34. d 35. b 36. c 37. True 38. d 39. False 40. a, c 41. a 42. b 43. c, d 44. b 45. d 46. False 47. False 48. b 49. c, d 50. a 51. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 4 52. False 53. c 54. a 55. True 56. True 57. True 58. False 59. a, c 60. False

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Module 5 1. All software programs are apps. a. True b. False 2. A native app is one that is ______. a. written for a specific OS and installed on a computer or device b. a single-user app delivered exclusively over the cloud c. portable and available for multiple users at once d. a web app used for both Android and iOS 3. Web apps often offer collaboration features. a. True b. False 4. Portable apps run from a/n ______. a. internal hard drive b. removable storage device c. mobile device d. web browser 5. Some apps are available as both a web app and a native app. a. True b. False 6. Sheree ensures her Gmail account on her smartphone and tablet have the same settings by ______ them. a. partitioning b. virtualizing c. synchronizing d. accompanying 7. Many on-screen keyboards assist you by predicting words and phrases based on context. a. True b. False 8. Harry uses Bluetooth to connect his smartphone to a portable keyboard. a. True b. False 9. Judson uses Venmo, which is a type of ______ app. a. calendar b. mapping/GPS c. messaging d. banking and payment 10. Waze is a type of news and information app.

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Module 5 a. True b. False 11. Mobile apps are faster and have more features than native or desktop apps. a. True b. False 12. Most mobile apps are platform-specific, which means that they are ______. a. designed for a specific operating system b. only run when connected to the Internet c. can be used only in certain geographic areas d. learning from your language and writing patterns 13. Video conferencing apps are a type of communications app. a. True b. False 14. File managers and screen savers are examples of ______ apps. a. system utility b. operations directory c. program administration d. device management 15. A collection of productivity apps is called a productivity ______. a. suite b. assembly c. cluster d. bundle 16. Prezi is an online presentation app. a. True b. False 17. Which of the following are examples of productivity suites? Select all that apply. a. Box b. Zoho Writer c. Apache OpenOffice d. Apple iWork 18. Which of the following are examples of messaging tools used for collaboration? Select all that apply. a. Zoom b. Microsoft Teams c. Zoho d. Slack Powered by Cognero

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Module 5 19. Ruby is using a word processing app. In her document, the insertion point indicates ______. a. the name, title, and saved location of the file b. the names of collaborators and a record of their edits c. where new text or an object will be inserted d. when there is too much text to be read on the screen at once 20. Formatting is the process of changing the appearance of text and objects. a. True b. False 21. A font is a/n ______. a. document setting that determines the margins, columns, and layout of a document b. pre-designed document that you can use as a starting point c. set of letters, numbers, and symbols that have the same style and appearance d. app that translates word processing documents into HTML 22. Page orientation options include ______. Select all that apply. a. portrait b. forward facing c. landscape d. upright 23. India wants to format all of her headings with Calibri font, size 16, blue text color, and left justified. She does this by creating a/n ______. a. template b. font c. theme d. style 24. Desktop publishing programs combine word processing with graphics and advanced layout capabilities. a. True b. False 25. When sharing a document, you can restrict access by providing ______ access. Select all that apply. a. view-only b. read-only c. no-edit d. collaboration-proof 26. A worksheet is a collection of related workbooks contained within a single file. a. True b. False 27. A cell is ______. a. a spreadsheet graphic showing trends or percentages Powered by Cognero

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Module 5 b. the box on the toolbar in which you enter or edit a formula c. formed by the intersection of a column and row d. a named group of cells to be used in a calculation 28. In a spreadsheet, cell K11 is located at the intersection of column K and row 11. a. True b. False 29. In a worksheet calculation, operators are ______. a. numeric values b. cell references c. simple formulas d. mathematical symbols 30. Gia uses macros in her spreadsheet app, which are ______. a. pre-defined formulas that perform complex calculations b. small programs created to perform repetitive tasks c. ranges of cells that spread across multiple columns and rows d. large worksheets that contain a vast amount of data 31. In a worksheet calculation, an argument is ______. a. a set of rules regarding data formats and types needed b. information necessary for a formula to calculate an answer c. the name of the function, such as SUM d. a symbol such as +, =, -, *, and /.

32. Muhammed is creating a formula in his worksheet. He uses an absolute cell reference to refer to ______. a. the top left cell in a range of numbers, such as A1 for the worksheet b. a cell or cells that are used in a calculation referenced in another worksheet c. a reference to information embedded from another location d. a specific cell and does not change if you copy the formula to a new location 33. Conditional formatting is applied ______. a. when a formula that contains the cell is viewed b. to identify the current cell c. if values meet specified criteria d. when a formula contains an error 34. Filtering data organizes it in ascending or descending order based on criteria. a. True b. False 35. Elena is preparing a report of sales data. She uses a sparkline to show ______. a. data trends Powered by Cognero

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Module 5 b. changing input values c. a summary of table data d. relationships between worksheets columns 36. A pivot table is designed to summarize data from a range or table. a. True b. False 37. Presentations also are called slide shows. a. True b. False 38. When Ben applies transitions in his presentation, he is specifying ______. a. the time between slides for an automatic presentation b. how a slide appears on the screen in place of the previous slide c. formatting options for sections of his presentation d. speaker notes to prompt him during delivery of the presentation 39. When Ben applies animations in his presentation, he is specifying ______. a. the time between slides for an automatic presentation b. how a slide appears on the screen in place of the previous slide c. effects applied to objects, such as having a photo fade in d. media added to background for slides in his presentation 40. It is recommended that when delivering a presentation, you should simply read the information on the slides. a. True b. False 41. What kind of sofware is SQL? a. word processing b. spreadsheet c. presentation d. database 42. A RDBMS is a database that consists of ______. a. information such as a query, which provides structure b. a collection of tables, where items are organized in columns and rows c. data that is stored in ROM and only temporarily available d. values that change rapidly in real-time, such as stock prices 43. Big data refers to large and complex data sources. a. True b. False 44. Which of the following represents a complete set of field values for a specific person, place, or object?

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Module 5 a. table b. record c. field d. column 45. Which of the following contains a specific property for a person, place, or object? a. table b. record c. field d. column 46. A query is used to ______. a. provide ways for end-users to locate data through forms b. apply formatting to fields that contain a specific value c. verify that data being entered matches the value of the field d. extract data based on specific criteria or conditions 47. Shira is creating a database form. She uses controls to ______. a. provide access only to authorized and verified users b. limit the size of the database by restricting the number of tables c. specify where content is placed and how it is formatted d. show relationships between fields to make data entry easier 48. Digital images based on a grid of square colored dots are called ______. Select all that apply. a. formulaic b. bitmap c. pixelated d. raster 49. Vector graphics consist of ______. a. picture elements (pixels) b. shapes, curves, lines, and text c. compressed color values d. high quality photographs 50. Emma uses clip art in her electronic documents to ______. a. insert premade pictures and symbols b. compress large image files c. reorder segments of video or audio d. cut and paste art from other locations 51. GIMP is an example of a free paint app. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 5 52. In a video editing app, a segment of a video is called a clip. a. True b. False 53. Examples of photo and image editing apps include ______. Select all that apply. a. Adobe Photoshop b. Google Photos c. Lightroom d. FilmoraGo 54. In contrast to paint apps, drawing apps generally create raster images. a. True b. False 55. Adobe Illustrator is an example of a popular drawing app. a. True b. False

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Module 5 Answer Key 1. False 2. a 3. True 4. b 5. True 6. c 7. True 8. True 9. d 10. False 11. False 12. a 13. True 14. d 15. a 16. True 17. c, d 18. b, d 19. c 20. True 21. c 22. a, c 23. d 24. True 25. a, b Powered by Cognero

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Module 5 26. False 27. c 28. True 29. d 30. b 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. False 35. a 36. True 37. True 38. b 39. c 40. False 41. d 42. b 43. True 44. b 45. c 46. d 47. c 48. b, d 49. b 50. a 51. True Powered by Cognero

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Module 5 52. True 53. a, c 54. False 55. True

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Module 6 1. Cybersecurity refers to the ways you protect your devices and data. a. True b. False 2. Identity theft is a crime in which ______. a. personal information is used to commit financial fraud b. someone impersonates a celebrity in order to cause embarrassment c. a user creates a fake social networking or dating profile d. a hacker steals a company's proprietary information 3. One reason it is so difficult to prevent cybersecurity is that some attack tools can attack without human help. a. True b. False 4. A script kiddie is an attacker who ______. a. sells stolen data to other attackers or governments b. downloads automated attack software to perform attacks c. create sophisticated scripts that can be embedded into websites d. causes large-scale disruption to government agencies 5. A hacktivist is an attacker who targets businesses or government agencies with which they disagree. a. True b. False 6. A broker sells ______. a. simple scripts used by unsophisticated cybercriminals b. fixes and patches to individual users c. knowledge of hardware or software vulnerabilities d. anti-malware software 7. Today, hacker is the formal term used to describe an individual responsible for cyberattacks. a. True b. False 8. Attackers whose targets are national networks or computer infrastructures are called ______. a. threat actors b. malware specialists c. virtual criminals d. cyberterrorists 9. State actors are employed by governments to ______. a. distribute information regarding cyber threats b. locate and fix infrastructure vulnerabilities c. launch attacks against the government's foes Powered by Cognero

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Module 6 d. investigate citizens suspected of cyberattacks 10. The term malware combines two words, malfeasance and software. a. True b. False 11. Avilla is a victim of a ransomware attack. Which of the following might have occurred? a. Her computer was locked and will not function until she pays a fee. b. An attacker stole her physical device and has sold it to another person. c. Her password was stolen after a program captured her entering it in. d. She was given a virus that replicated itself to her entire address book.

12. Avilla is a victim of a keylogger attack. Which of the following might have occurred? a. Her computer was locked and will not function until she pays a fee. b. An attacker stole her physical device and sold it to another person. c. Her password was stolen after a program captured her entering it in. d. She was given a virus that replicated itself to her entire address book.

13. A computer Trojan is malware that ______. a. attracts other malware programs b. exposes a user's personal information c. protects against other cyberattacks d. pretends to be a program performing a normal activity 14. A computer virus is designed to copy itself into other programs. a. True b. False 15. Examples of social engineering attacks include ______. Select all that apply. a. hacktivism b. ransomware c. typo squatting d. phishing 16. Frances was a victim of a phishing attack, which occurred when they entered personal information after they ______. a. misspelled the web address of their bank, and instead were directed to a fraudulent website b. interacted with a contact on a social network who was actually someone pretending to be a friend c. received an email that looked like it came from their bank with a link to update their password d. clicked on a pop-up message from an unknown source telling them their computer was infected 17. Frances was a victim of a typo squatting attack, which occurred when they entered personal information after they ______. a. misspelled the web address of their bank, and instead were directed to a fraudulent website b. interacted with a contact on a social network who was actually someone pretending to be a friend c. received an email that looked like it came from their bank with a link to update their password Powered by Cognero

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Module 6 d. clicked on a pop-up message from an unknown source telling them their computer was infected 18. Your data trail is a/n ______. a. list of passwords and user names b. record of your technology activity c. collection of your personal information d. grouping of your online contacts 19. The average app does not have any trackers that allow third parties to collect data from your interactions. a. True b. False 20. Adware is harmful, as well as annoying. a. True b. False 21. Dawood has an RSI, which is a/n _____. a. behavioral addiction to technology b. ergonomic chair designed to prevent physical issues c. injury associated with repeated usage of devices d. virus that is replicating without his knowledge.

22. Technology addiction occurs when a user cannot walk away from their device without feeling extreme anxiety. a. True b. False 23. Many websites consider cyberbullying to be free speech and will not censor it. a. True b. False 24. When an electronic device reaches the end of its useful life, it is estimated that the percentage of devices that are recycled is ______. a. 2% b. 12% c. 50% d. 85% 25. It is estimated that about 40 million tons of e-waste are generated each year worldwide. a. True b. False 26. Authentication is the process of ______. a. setting up levels of access for users based on their needs b. storing your passwords in an encrypted file c. determining the security vs. convenience of cybersecurity measures Powered by Cognero

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Module 6 d. ensuring the person requesting access to a computer is not an imposter 27. The use of passwords is considered strong protection. a. True b. False 28. Most security experts recommend that a secure password be a minimum of 20 characters in length. a. True b. False 29. Password managers store all of your strong passwords in a single user file called a/n ______. a. vault b. encryptobox c. safety net d. secure folder 30. Truman uses MFA to secure his devices by ______. a. using voice or speech recognition b. storing his passwords in an encrypted file c. using easy-to-remember passwords such as his birth date d. combining a password with a code sent to his smartphone 31. Examples of biometrics include ______. Select all that apply. a. fingerprint b. eye c. Social Security number d. strong password 32. When a person's face is used for authentication, the software creates a numerical code based on facial landmarks called ______. a. faceprints b. skin tags c. nodal points d. mirror images 33. Marleigh received a patch from Apple macOS. The patch is intended to ______. a. upgrade to the latest release version b. fix a vulnerability in the program c. register her software version d. survey her system for vulnerabilities 34. It is recommended that you configure your devices to wait for your authorization to download and install patches. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 6 35. Conor is deciding how to backup his data. He decides to choose the most comprehensive backup solution, which is ______. a. delayed deletion b. automatic continuous c. universal access d. continuous cloud 36. Files backed up through online services can be made available to another computer. a. True b. False 37. In a social engineering attack, the attacker presents themselves as someone who can be trusted. a. True b. False 38. Microsoft Edge browser security modes include ______. Select all that apply. a. Loose b. Balanced c. Comprehensive d. Strict 39. Antivirus software is a more complete security solution than antimalware software. a. True b. False 40. Antimalware software often includes reputation protection, which ______. a. classifies apps as risky or safe based on their attributes b. monitors installed apps for suspicious activity c. prevents threats from entering a computer from a network d. alerts you to threats against your personal identifiable information 41. Antimalware software often includes intrusion protection, which ______. a. classifies apps as risky or safe based on their attributes b. monitors installed apps for suspicious activity c. prevents threats from entering a computer from a network d. alerts you to threats against your personal identifiable information 42. Antimalware software often includes behavioral protection, which ______. a. classifies apps as risky or safe based on their attributes b. monitors installed apps for suspicious activity c. prevents threats from entering a computer from a network d. alerts you to threats against your personal identifiable information 43. To verify that a web address that is asking for sensitive information is secure, verify that it starts with ______. a. www Powered by Cognero

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Module 6 b. safe c. shtml d. https 44. The most secure shredder is a micro-shredder device. a. True b. False 45. Kelvin makes sure he follows ergonomics, which means that he is ______. a. following best practices for keeping his personally identifiable information secure b. specifying the design and arrangement of items so he can work efficiently and safely c. learning how to protect a computer network so he can enter the cybersecurity field d. creating a behavioral digital use plan so that he can avoid technology addiction 46. Dark characters on a light background will produce a minimal amount of screen glare. a. True b. False 47. Proper posture when sitting at a computer includes setting your arms ______. a. above your head b. in your lap c. parallel to the floor d. at a 45 degree angle 48. Proper posture when sitting at a computer means that your feet should be flat on the floor. a. True b. False 49. Which of the following are action steps of SEM? Select all that apply. a. buy green b. donate c. discard d. recycle 50. The SEM initiative stands for ______ Electronics Management a. Smart b. Salvageable c. Systematic d. Sustainable

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Module 6 Answer Key 1. True 2. a 3. True 4. b 5. True 6. c 7. False 8. d 9. c 10. False 11. a 12. c 13. d 14. True 15. c, d 16. c 17. a 18. b 19. False 20. False 21. c 22. True 23. True 24. b 25. True Powered by Cognero

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Module 6 26. d 27. False 28. True 29. a 30. d 31. a, b 32. c 33. b 34. False 35. d 36. True 37. True 38. b, d 39. False 40. a 41. c 42. b 43. d 44. True 45. b 46. False 47. c 48. True 49. a, b, d 50. d

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Module 7 1. Characteristics of bitmap graphics include ______. Select all that apply. a. a grid of pixels that forms an image b. groups and layers simple objects c. becomes more complex as it includes more colors d. appropriate for simple drawings, such as for fonts 2. 2D graphics refer to the dimensions of ______. Select all that apply. a. depth b. height c. length d. volume 3. A wireframe drawing is a/n ______. a. 2D drawing for a simple animation b. single frame in a stop motion animation video c. outline for a video that organizes it into clips d. 3D object composed of individual lines 4. Within an animation, each individual image is called a frame. a. True b. False 5. 3D objects can rotate 360 degrees. a. True b. False 6. With stop motion animation, animators ______. a. use 2D drawings in a series of frames set to motion rapidly b. move real-life objects through a sequence of poses c. break up videos into small clips in order to edit them d. capture still objects from moving objects and animate them 7. Full-length films can be entirely shot and edited using an iPhone. a. True b. False 8. VR is the use of computers to ______. a. digitize print images into machine language b. share resources, such as printers, on a network c. simulate a real or imagined 3D environment d. create 2D graphics, animations, or videos 9. Vector graphics also are called raster graphics. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 7 10. To a computer, a bitmap image is a list of the ______. a. color numbers for all the pixels it contains b. binary digits in black or white mode c. shapes and lines used to create the image d. metadata, including date and location of creation 11. Vector graphics consist of instructions that define the shape, size, position, and color of each object in an image. a. True b. False 12. In most color systems, black has the binary value ______. a. 01 b. 00 c. 10 d. 11 13. Computers are binary machines because they are electronic devices, and electricity has two states: on and off. a. True b. False 14. Bytes appear in groups of 8, called bits. a. True b. False 15. A bit can have the value of ______. a. Yes or No b. True or False c. 0 or 1 d. A or B 16. Resolution refers to an image's ______. a. file size b. compression rate c. number of colors d. clarity or sharpness 17. Bitmap graphics' image quality does not deteriorate as their dimensions increase. a. True b. False 18. On Stephanie's digital camera, resolution is typically measured in megapixels, or _______ of pixels. a. hundreds b. thousands c. millions Powered by Cognero

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Module 7 d. billions 19. Image compression methods include ______. Select all that apply. a. lossy b. lossless c. cropping d. expanding 20. Hana makes her digital media files by compressing them, which ______. a. crops the files to a smaller size b. converts them to black and white c. significantly reduces their quality d. reduces the amount of data in the files 21. Examples of analog devices include ______. Select all that apply. a. digital camera b. synthesizer c. musical instruments d. tape player 22. Analog devices are machines that read or produce physical signals in their original form. a. True b. False 23. Kaspar is digitizing audio. He is ______. a. interpreting the binary code of the data b. converting analog data to digital data c. improving the quality of the sound d. compressing the file size of the audio clip 24. Isa is a drummer. She wants to convert her music into digital sound, so she uses a/n ______ app. a. sampling b. conversion c. translation d. adaptation 25. An audio file's quality is determined by its ______. a. definition b. bit rate c. pixel depth d. binary resolution 26. Digital video resolution categories include ______. Select all that apply. a. VRQ Powered by Cognero

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Module 7 b. SD c. UHD d. VCR 27. Digital video resolution is given as width x depth. a. True b. False 28. File format refers to a file's ______. a. saved name and location on a device b. quality and file size c. organization and layout of data d. level of compression 29. For digital media files, the format determines which apps or devices you can use to open or edit the file. a. True b. False 30. Jess is a graphic designer. They can save their bitmap graphics as ______. Select all that apply. a. GIF b. EPS c. SVG d. JPEG 31. Jess is a graphic designer. They can save their vector graphics as ______. Select all that apply. a. GIF b. EPS c. SVG d. JPEG 32. Jess is a graphic designer. They want to choose a graphic type that discards some data as it is compressed, so they save their file as a ______. a. GIF b. JPEG c. TIF d. PNG 33. MP3 is a type of audio file format. a. True b. False 34. Taylor is producing an audio clip of her latest song. She wants to save the file with a compression method that discards some of the original data, so she saves her file as a/n ______. Select all that apply. a. M4P b. AIFF Powered by Cognero

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Module 7 c. AAC d. WAV 35. Aaron is creating a digital video for his graphics art class. His digital video file will have two parts ______. Select all that apply. a. coefficient b. codec c. composer d. container 36. A codec is short for compressor/decompressor. a. True b. False 37. Aaron is creating a digital video for his graphics art class. His digital video files might use the codec ______. Select all that apply. a. WMA b. DivX c. H.265 d. AIFF 38. Halo and Overwatch are examples of large-scale multiplayer games. a. True b. False 39. A hologram is a/n _____. a. 2D image in the background of a video b. projected image that appears 3D c. augmented environment d. mixed reality game 40. Jade enjoys playing mixed reality games, which use _____ reality. Select all that apply. a. augmented b. virtual c. hybrid d. 2D 41. AR uses an image of an actual place or thing and adds digital information to it. a. True b. False 42. Simulations are simple animations, such as those used in transitions in PowerPoint or Google Slide presentations. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 7 43. Adobe Flash no longer is used in graphics because it ______. a. cannot be used for 3D images b. was replaced by web apps c. doesn't support VR or AR d. required users to download a plug-in 44. HTML4 is the latest version of HTML. a. True b. False 45. In computer games, the 3D animation is called ______ animation. a. live action b. real-time c. stop motion d. free range 46. A meme is spread by Internet users and often contains humorous text, and can be a/n ______. Select all that apply. a. simulation b. logo c. animated GIF d. video clip 47. The Creative Commons website is a source to download graphics. a. True b. False 48. Sakina likes to watch content on her smart TV as it arrives, using ______. a. streaming b. live animation c. real-time video d. simulcast 49. Naveen is looking to purchase a set top box for her TV. She researches her options, including ______. Select all that apply. a. Apple Box b. Roku c. Microsoft SmartTV d. Google Chromecast 50. Most laptops, tablets, and smartphones require you to purchase a separate media player. a. True b. False 51. Content that is said to have gone viral has ______. a. been shared millions of times in a short period Powered by Cognero

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Module 7 b. been hacked and corrupted with malware c. received only negative attention d. caused embarrassment to its subject 52. A NFT is a/n ______. a. non-functional transistor b. identifier assigned to a digital graphic to certify authenticity c. video created for training purposes d. database file that is converted to a new file 53. A blockchain is a/n ______. a. encryption key used for secure file transfer b. license agreement type for digital media c. record of transfer of a file, including digital video d. database that includes a list of ordered records 54. CAD apps are used to create ______. a. manufactured products using robots b. highly detailed and technically accurate drawings c. sophisticated AI programs d. creative output for animated design 55. Yvette uses ML, a branch of AI that uses ______. a. mechanical linguistics to inform AI systems of a series of options b. technical processes to enhance a machine's production capabilities c. statistics to help machines learn from data and improve their performance d. external data and information to determine the best outcome 56. Uday's digital camera can identify the location of the pictures he takes using a feature called _____. a. locoshare b. identifying c. digital placement d. geotagging 57. Scanners work by dividing the image into a grid of tiny cells and assigning colors to each cell. a. True b. False 58. Barney is looking into purchasing a scanner so he can convert paper to digital images. He researches scanner types including ______. Select all that apply. a. sheet-fed b. inkjet c. laser d. flatbed Powered by Cognero

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Module 7 59. Drawing apps let you create simple 2D images. a. True b. False 60. Eva is a graphic designer. She uses in-betweening in her animations, a technique in which ______. a. each frame contains the same basic data and changes are made to the top layer only b. a sequence of images are used in which one or more objects are changed slightly c. the beginning and last frames of the animation are the same and can be played on a loop d. highlights and shadows are applied to give the impression of depth 61. Eva is a graphic designer. She uses rendering in her animations, a technique in which ______. a. each frame contains the same basic data and changes are made to the top layer only b. a sequence of images are used in which one or more objects are changed slightly c. the beginning and last frames of the animation are the same and can be played on a loop d. highlights and shadows are applied to give the impression of depth 62. When creating a 3D object, a keyframe is used to ______. a. determine its colors, size, and location b. set the starting position for how it moves c. encrypt the object before sharing d. add a background image to prevent illegal copying 63. The ability to process sound relies on a sound card, a/n ______. a. circuit board b. USB drive c. CPU d. external chip 64. Wally likes to listen to music on his smartphone. His audio app has skins, which are ______. a. libraries that categorize his music by genre or artist b. visual images that go along with the sounds being played c. features that create playlists based on his favorite songs d. buttons he can use to remove the vocals so he can sing karaoke 65. Synthesized music is created as a digital file. a. True b. False 66. MIDI is a file protocol used for ______ files. a. graphic b. analog c. music d. video 67. Today, voice recognition and speech recognition mean the same thing.

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Module 7 a. True b. False 68. Text-to-speech also is called ______ technology. a. read aloud b. digital speech c. virtual language d. audio input 69. Apps such as Skype and Zoom use a webcam for video communications. a. True b. False 70. Ari uses Apple GarageBand to mix, or ______, music and sounds. a. edit b. compose c. record d. combine 71. Audio-editing apps and features often are integrated into video editing apps. a. True b. False 72. Quimby takes an image of a computer screen, called a screenshot, to include it in a digital file. a. True b. False 73. Oliver is a photographer. He has uploaded an image to his website with a watermark, which is a/n ______. a. purposely blurry portion of the image to deter illegal copying b. separate piece of the image that can be reassembled once posted c. semi-transparent text or graphic that appears in front or back of the image d. disclaimer listing the restrictions for copying or pasting the image 74. Oliver is a photographer. He has uploaded an image to his website with tiles, which is a/n ______. a. purposely blurry portion of the image to deter illegal copying b. separate piece of the image that can be reassembled once posted c. semi-transparent text or graphic that appears in front or back of the image d. disclaimer listing the restrictions for copying or pasting the image 75. The DCMA is a law protecting digital intellectual property. a. True b. False

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Module 7 Answer Key 1. a, c 2. b, c 3. d 4. True 5. True 6. b 7. True 8. c 9. False 10. a 11. True 12. b 13. True 14. False 15. c 16. d 17. False 18. c 19. a, b 20. d 21. c, d 22. True 23. b 24. a 25. b Powered by Cognero

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Module 7 26. b, c 27. False 28. c 29. True 30. a, d 31. b, c 32. b 33. True 34. a, c 35. b, d 36. True 37. b, c 38. True 39. b 40. a, b 41. True 42. False 43. d 44. False 45. b 46. c, d 47. True 48. a 49. b, d 50. False 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Module 7 52. b 53. d 54. b 55. c 56. d 57. True 58. a, d 59. True 60. b 61. d 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. True 66. c 67. False 68. a 69. True 70. d 71. True 72. True 73. c 74. b 75. True

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Module 8 1. Development is the process of creating apps from the idea stage to distribution to users. a. True b. False 2. In development, the programmer is the person who ______. a. creates app code b. conducts testing c. manages the budget d. oversees the project team 3. In development, the systems analyst is the person who ______. a. creates and tests code b. makes the proposal and vendor requests c. designs and develops the system d. oversees the project team 4. Sara is the project leader on a new app development project. She identifies the scope of the project, which is its ______. a. budget and schedule b. management and project team c. goals, objectives, and expectations d. design and code 5. On a development team, the project manager is the person who develops the program's user interface. a. True b. False 6. A product's UX refers to the focus on the _____. a. input needed and output desired b. unicode and other machine codes c. reasons for development d. user's reaction to and interaction 7. Coral is a designer. She uses wireframes to indicate ______. a. which aspects of the design are in 3D b. how a user gets from one area of the program to another c. the expected end result when using the app d. what platforms the app will be able to be run on 8. A project request is the first item of documentation for a project. a. True b. False 9. A project's documentation is the ______. a. collection and summary of data, information, and deliverables b. combination of individual sections of code Powered by Cognero

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Module 8 c. section of the project plan that covers the schedule and budget d. marketing material used to attract customers to purchase the app 10. A project's deliverables are ______. a. the target demographic of users b. any tangible item such as a chart or report c. items needed from vendors for development d. the compilation of all notes and data 11. When one activity has led to another that was not planned originally, it is called ______ creep. Select all that apply. a. deliverable b. quality c. feature d. scope 12. Rishi needs some hardware and software for the project he's developing. He solicits vendors to submit an RFQ in order to ______. a. identify for the vendor the products that meet the specified requirements and have the vendor quote the prices b. fill out an informal standard form to request information about a product or service c. have the vendor identify the required product and quote a price for the listed products d. request that the vendor purchase and deliver the required products and then submit a bill 13. Rishi needs some hardware and software for the project he's developing. He solicits vendors to submit an RFP in order to ______. a. identify for the vendor the products that meet the specified requirements and have the vendor quote the prices b. fill out an informal standard form to request information about a product or service c. have the vendor identify the required product and quote a price for the listed products d. request that the vendor purchase and deliver the required products and then submit a bill 14. A systems analyst can solicit information using an RFI (Request for Inventory). a. True b. False 15. Saul is a systems analyst. He relies on a VAR for some of his needs. A VAR ______. a. provides consulting and technical expertise for virtual and augmented reality apps b. purchases products from manufacturers and resells them offering additional services c. is a coding environment that uses a natural language interface to make coding easy d. is a third-party code testing company used by systems and app developers 16. Typically, the decision to accept a vendor proposal is the responsibility of the systems analyst alone. a. True b. False 17. In the SDLC, the "S" stands for ______. Select all that apply. a. software Powered by Cognero

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Module 8 b. systems c. script d. server 18. The planning phase is the initial phase of the SDLC. a. True b. False 19. During the analysis phase of the SDLC, activities that occur include ______. a. reviewing and approving requests, and forming a team b. the preliminary investigation and performing detailed analysis c. development, and installation and testing of the product d. determining the technical specifications and creating a prototype 20. During the design phase of the SDLC, activities that occur include ______. a. reviewing and approving requests, and forming a team b. the preliminary investigation and performing detailed analysis c. development, and installation and testing of the product d. determining the technical specifications and creating a prototype 21. During the implementation phase of the SDLC, activities that occur include ______. a. reviewing and approving requests, and forming a team b. the preliminary investigation and performing detailed analysis c. developing, installing, and testing of the product d. determining the technical specifications and creating a prototype 22. Gus is working on a new app. He needs to conduct a feasibility study in order to determine ______. a. what technical requirements need to be outsourced or purchased b. if the app meets the initial goals and objectives outlined c. how effective and easy-to-use the app is d. the suitability of the development process to the project 23. The purpose of a system proposal is to use the data gathered during the feasibility study to present a solution to the need or request. a. True b. False 24. A prototype is a/n ______. a. 3D wireframe drawing that reflects the design of an app b. simple outline of the steps a user will take while using an app c. list of the technical requirements, including any consulting needs d. working model that demonstrates the functionality of an app 25. When converting to a new system, in a direct conversion ______. a. the old and new products are run together for a specified time Powered by Cognero

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Module 8 b. on a certain date the user stops using the old product and begins using the new product c. each location converts at a separate time d. only one location uses the new product so it can be tested 26. When converting to a new system, in a phased conversion ______. a. the old and new products are run together for a specified time b. on a certain date the user stops using the old product and begins using the new product c. each location converts at a separate time d. only one location uses the new product so it can be tested 27. When a system is converted to a new system, options include ______. Select all that apply. a. parallel b. one-to-one c. serial d. pilot 28. Methodologies that guide the SDLC process include ______. Select all that apply a. flow b. direct c. predictive d. agile 29. Wesley is a developer who follows the waterfall method to guide the SDLC, meaning that he ______. a. uses a condensed or shortened development process to produce a quality product b. overlaps phases of the project when possible to ensure the process goes quickly c. takes each step individually and completes it before continuing to the next phase d. reverses the typical steps in the SDLC in an effort to streamline the process 30. Wesley is a developer who follows the RAD method to guide the SDLC, meaning that he ______. a. uses a condensed or shortened development process to produce a quality product b. overlaps phases of the project when possible to ensure the process goes quickly c. takes each step individually and completes it before continuing to the next phase d. reverses the typical steps in the SDLC in an effort to streamline the process 31. The DevOps method of the SDLC ______. a. separates the development and operations roles so they can work simultaneously b. optimizes development by requiring members of the project team to serve multiple roles c. uses multiple programming languages and takes the best of each d. produces programs quickly and then offers continuous updates 32. A Gantt chart analyzes the time required to complete a task and identifies the minimum time required for an entire project. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 8 33. Popular tools used to plan and schedule the time relationships among project activities include ______ charts. Select all that apply. a. Gantt b. PMDL c. SDLC d. PERT 34. Mimei is an IT professional working on developing an app. She uses JAD sessions to ______. a. present periodic updates on the schedule, budget, and progress to the management team b. include end-users during the testing phase to give feedback on the app c. conduct a series of meetings in which users and IT professionals work to design the app d. review and complete the project's documentation and deliverables 35. Developers should consider the devices on which the app will run as some platforms have limited languages and tools available. a. True b. False 36. Programming languages use syntax, which are the ______. a. methods to interpret binary code b. platforms upon which the code will run c. restrictions on coordinating with other languages d. rules for writing instructions 37. Machine languages are high-level, fourth generation programming languages. a. True b. False 38. With an assembly language, the programmer uses ______. a. a series of binary digits (0s and 1s) b. symbolic instruction codes, such as A for add c. English-like instructions and symbols d. tags to determine the layout of content 39. With a procedural language, the programmer uses ______. a. a series of binary digits (0s and 1s) b. symbolic instruction codes, such as A for add c. a series of English-like words d. tags to determine the layout of content 40. 4GLs use a graphical environment. a. True b. False 41. Examples of 4GLs include ______. Select all that apply.

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Module 8 a. Fortran b. Python c. Ruby d. C 42. The goal of 5GLs is to solve problems using _____. a. a NUI b. VR c. HTML5 d. AI 43. A source code editor is a/n ______. a. graphical user interface for programming b. app that converts a source program into machine language c. text editor designed for programming d. tool that tests code in one section to determine any errors 44. A debugger is a/n ______. a. graphical user interface for programming b. app that converts a source program into machine language c. text editor designed for programming d. tool that tests code in one section to determine any errors 45. To convert source code into machine language, you can use a/n ______. Select all that apply. a. translator b. adapter c. compiler d. interpreter 46. A compiler translates and executes one statement at a time. a. True b. False 47. Raquelle is a programmer. She uses an IDE, which is an app that ______. a. interprets machine language and saves it into object code b. stops running when an issue is detected until it is fixed c. translates code to another language to adapt if for a separate platform d. provides multiple programming tools in one environment 48. Code repositories are web-based tools that programmers use to ______. a. encrypt proprietary code b. archive and host source code c. store program documentation d. list the programming language used Powered by Cognero

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Module 8 49. In OOP, an object is a/n ______. a. item that can contain both data and procedures that read data b. article that defines the format and actions that can be performed c. rule that determines the hierarchy, color, and format of code d. guideline that determines the methods and actions of a class 50. In OOP, each object in a class has the same format and can be used in the same way. a. True b. False 51. One disadvantage of OOP is that you cannot reuse existing objects. a. True b. False 52. Via uses a mobile first strategy when designing apps. She places content first and provides a simplified user experience. a. True b. False 53. An example of a technology that influences app designs, beacons are ______. a. high-speed connections that facilitate communications and streaming b. devices that analyze biological functions, such as blood pressure or heartbeats c. systems that create output such as text or images based on user input d. in-store technology that allows stores to compile and analyze customers' movements 54. An example of a technology that influences app designs, AI ______. a. is a high-speed connection that facilitates communications and streaming b. analyzes biological functions, such as blood pressure or heartbeats c. enables apps to create output such as text or images based on user input d. uses past behavior to build a profile or preferences to customize the app experience 55. Xavier has developed an app. He decides to grant permission to use his app using an EULA, which ______. a. allows an organization to provide network access to the app b. lets a specified number of users access the app c. grants permission for one installation d. makes the code available to developers to download and manipulate 56. Xavier has developed an app. He decides to grant permission to use his app using a site license, which ______. a. allows an organization to provide network access to the app b. lets a specified number of users access the app c. grants permission for one installation d. makes the code available to developers to download and manipulate 57. Registering an app you developed with an app store can help prevent piracy. a. True Powered by Cognero

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Module 8 b. False 58. Freeware apps are available and accessible to the public without requiring permission to use. a. True b. False 59. If a product does not have a patent, copyright, or trademark it is in the public domain. a. True b. False 60. Shareware is copyrighted and distributed for free for a trial period. a. True b. False 61. A patch is an update to an app that ______. a. contains a collection of updates b. is requested by the user to increase functionality c. addresses a single issue d. includes a new release of the app 62. A patch is an update to an app that ______. a. contains a collection of updates b. is requested by the user to increase functionality c. addresses a single issue d. includes a new release of the app 63. App manufacturers sometimes use activation to ______. a. collect user information, such as name, email, and password b. allow users to opt in or out of data collection and tracking c. limit or stop an app's functionality after a trial period d. ensure users don't install the app on more devices than they've paid for 64. Auditing tools are a troubleshooting tool that ______. a. track memory usage, status, and errors of currently running apps b. analyzes security, performance, and network connections c. compare the app versions you are running with the latest versions d. restore your computer or software settings 65. Process managers are a troubleshooting tool that ______. a. track memory usage, status, and errors of currently running apps b. analyzes security, performance, and network connections c. compare the app versions you are running with the latest versions d. restore your computer or software settings

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Module 8 Answer Key 1. True 2. a 3. a 4. c 5. False 6. d 7. b 8. True 9. a 10. b 11. c, d 12. a 13. c 14. False 15. b 16. False 17. a, b 18. True 19. b 20. d 21. c 22. d 23. True 24. d 25. b Powered by Cognero

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Module 8 26. c 27. a, d 28. c, d 29. c 30. a 31. d 32. False 33. a, d 34. c 35. True 36. d 37. False 38. b 39. c 40. True 41. b, c 42. d 43. c 44. d 45. c, d 46. False 47. d 48. b 49. a 50. True 51. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 8 52. True 53. d 54. c 55. c 56. a 57. True 58. False 59. False 60. True 61. c 62. a 63. d 64. b 65. a

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Module 9 1. Paola is a web designer. She specifies the content, such as headings and paragraphs in her website using ______. a. HTML b. XML c. CSS d. JavaScript 2. Paola is a web designer. She specifies the format and appearance of content in her website using ______. a. HTML b. XML c. CSS d. JavaScript 3. A webpage is a document that contains codes called tags, written in HTML. a. True b. False 4. Using JavaScript you can define styles to specify how your webpages will appear on devices with different screen sizes. a. True b. False 5. JavaScript is a popular language for writing scripts that run in your browser, called ______ scripts. a. server-hosted b. client-side c. home base d. end user 6. A static website provides content that ______. a. is interactive b. contains flashing lights c. requires a high speed Internet connection d. is unlikely to change frequently 7. Blogs and online shopping sites are examples of static websites. a. True b. False 8. Dynamic webpage scripts are coded using a scripting language such as ______. Select all that apply. a. CSS b. Fortran c. Python d. PHP 9. Dynamic websites often run server-side scripts. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 9 10. A URL also is called a/n ______. a. style sheet b. web address c. IP address d. server-side script 11. Masha is a web designer. She uses responsive design to ______. a. create interactivity, such as a form, or content specific to a user b. ensure her webpages meet the latest accessibility standards c. automatically adjust webpage content to display on different screen sizes d. enable real-time communication using a chat feature 12. Masha is a web designer. She uses a CMS to ______. a. add interactivity, such as forms or chat features b. check the website content for accessibility issues c. enable customization of webpages by users d. build her website using templates and themes 13. A website builder allows you to create websites by dragging and dropping predefined elements onto the page. a. True b. False 14. Examples of website builders include ______. Select all that apply. a. Wix b. WordPerfect c. WebConstruct d. Weebly 15. A plug-in for a webpage is a/n ______. a. location on the host server that the webpage builder interacts with b. third-party program that extends the built-in functionality of a browser c. tool that can optimize the experience of users with disabilities d. backup of webpage content that is used in case of a power failure 16. A CMS dashboard has options to add new pages, blog posts, images, or other content. a. True b. False 17. WordPress and Drupal are examples of a/n ______. a. scripting language b. ISP c. plug-in Powered by Cognero

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Module 9 d. CMS 18. Ellis is a web designer. They use an IDE, which ______. a. automatically creates separate versions of the website for users with disabilities b. combines advanced code editing, debugging, file management, and publishing tools. c. is like a word processing app, but it lacks most text formatting features d. requires a separate plug-in to correctly interpret HTML and CSS 19. An IDE stores the files and folders relating to a website being developed in a/n ______. a. catalog b. library c. project d. index 20. A domain registrar is an organization that sells and manages web domain names. a. True b. False 21. Olive is researching web hosts. She is concerned about potential hosts' uptime, which is _______. a. the average time webpage content takes to deliver to a browser b. a measure of the percent of time a website is online c. whether the host charges more during times of high traffic d. the amount of bandwidth you need to run your website 22. Kavi manages a large website. He uses website analytics to ______. a. help understand how people use the website b. address issues with the web host c. collect and process sales transactions d. communicate directly with users 23. Website analytic data can include a heat map, which ______. a. determines the geographic locations where most visitors reside b. counts the number of unique visitors and repeat visitors c. shows locations on pages that are clicked most often d. measures the length of time users stay on the site 24. XML uses customized tags to ______. a. apply formatting b. calculate uptime c. track unique visitors d. describe data 25. E-commerce suppliers use XML-formatted data to represent their products. a. True Powered by Cognero

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Module 9 b. False 26. Jan is getting ready to publish his website. He uses an FTP client to ______. a. check the website meets accessibility and responsive standards b. upload files from his computer to a remove web server c. encrypt the files before posting them to the server d. optimize the website by compressing files as necessary 27. An HTML closing tag begins with ______. a. = b. { c. ! d. / 28. HTML tags are enclosed within ______. a. [...] b. {...} c. <....> d. /..../ 29. An HTML opening tag contains the tag name followed by any attributes, or ______. a. a bracket followed by the closing tag b. information needed to completely specify the tag c. the target and link text d. any comments, which use !-- after the opening bracket 30. The webpage title appears in the head section of an HTML page. a. True b. False 31. A webpage named index.html usually indicates______. a. the website structure b. the keywords for the website c. that it is the home page d. it is a static webpage 32. In an HTML document, the <p> and </> tags identify the beginning and ending of a page. a. True b. False 33. A website's banner is ______. a. the area that contains navigation links b. any graphic that appears on a webpage c. the title that appears in the browser's title bar Powered by Cognero

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Module 9 d. a graphic that identifies the website 34. An example of a one-sided tag is ______. Select all that apply. a. <h1> b. <img> c. <br> d. <title> 35. The items between the <ul> and </ul> tags ______. a. are preceded by the bullet symbol b. appear indented under the line above them c. have ascending numbers assigned d. have underlining applied 36. The items between the <ol> and </ol> tags ______. a. are preceded by the bullet symbol b. are displayed as a numbered list c. have normal, or ordinary, font styles applied d. have highlighting applied 37. The <a> tag specified information about hyperlinks to display on a website. a. True b. False 38. A relative web reference identifies the location of webpages and files in the current website. a. True b. False 39. When using the <audio> or <video> tags, you should include the "controls" attribute ______. a. in order to specify the source of the media. b. to display buttons such as play, pause, and volume c. to define the height and width of the player d. so that you can compress the file for low bandwidth visitors 40. The <iframe> tag is used for ______. a. large graphics that need compression b. specifying a caption for a photo or image c. determining the size of the webpage border d. including media sharing site content 41. The W3C oversees the specifications of HTML standards. a. True b. False 42. An HTML tag that is deprecated ______.

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Module 9 a. can work with multiple platforms b. only has an ending tag c. enables multimedia elements to be embedded d. has been replaced with a newer technology 43. Tina is creating a website for her blog. She wants to use the Calibri font. She should specify the font _____. a. in CSS b. using the <font>...</font> tags c. applying it to the text in the HTML document d. in the document header 44. FileZilla is an example of an FTP client. a. True b. False 45. Tina applies an embedded style on her webpage, which appears ______. a. specified as a style attributed of most HTML tags within the body section b. as a separate style sheet document c. within <style> and </style> tags in the head section of the HTML document d. directly on the affected text in the HTML document 46. Tina applies an inline style on her webpage, which appears ______. a. specified as a style attributed of most HTML tags within the body section b. as a separate style sheet document c. within <style> and </style> tags in the head section of the HTML document d. directly on the affected text in the HTML document 47. You should specify a font family so that ______. a. you can be sure that the font you choose will be portrayed the same on all browsers b. the data needed to display the font is embedded into the HTML document c. effects and styles can be attached to a specific font, such as bold or red. d. the browser will choose an installed font that most closely matches the specified font family 48. In a webpage, "rgb (128, 128, 128)" is used to specify a ______. a. font b. background c. color d. theme 49. In a webpage, #808080 is used to specify a specific ______. a. font b. background c. color d. theme Powered by Cognero

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Module 9 50. JavaScript lets your visitors change the webpage's font size with the click of a button. a. True b. False

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Module 9 Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. True 4. False 5. b 6. d 7. False 8. c, d 9. True 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. True 14. a, d 15. b 16. True 17. d 18. b 19. c 20. True 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. d 25. True Powered by Cognero

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Module 9 26. b 27. d 28. c 29. b 30. True 31. c 32. False 33. d 34. b, c 35. a 36. b 37. True 38. True 39. b 40. d 41. True 42. d 43. a 44. True 45. c 46. a 47. d 48. c 49. c 50. True

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Module 10 1. A network only requires hardware to operate. a. True b. False 2. On a network, a node is ______. a. a device b. cables attached to the server c. a central port d. a wireless connection 3. A network switch is a device that connects computers by ______. a. enabling a home network to connect to the Internet b. providing a central point of connection for cables c. directing the flow of information along the network d. establishing a dedicated communications channel.

4. A router is a device that connects networks by ______. a. encrypting the data that flows in and out b. providing a central point of connection for cables c. directing the flow of information along the network d. providing a dedicated communications channel.

5. A home router can connect to a modem, which provides Internet connectivity. a. True b. False 6. An ISP is used to ______. a. set up a large network b. connect two devices c. share files with others in proximity d. connect to the Internet 7. VoIP is used to ______. a. set up a large network b. connect two devices c. provide voice communication d. set up IoT devices 8. Broadband connectivity can transfer large amounts of data at high speeds. a. True b. False 9. A NIC is used to ______. a. provide voice communications channels b. connect a computer to a wired or wireless network Powered by Cognero

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Module 10 c. encrypt network data transfers d. authorize users on a network 10. Common types of digital modems include ______. Select all that apply. a. DSL b. fiber-optic c. cable d. smartTV 11. DSL modems use existing standard copper telephone wiring. a. True b. False 12. A network's topology refers to the ______. a. physical arrangement of devices b. type of Internet connection c. number of computer and peripheral devices d. presence of physical cables to connect devices 13. Alfie is setting up a bus network for his office, which has about 12 computers and devices to connect. The network set up will ______. a. enable data to travel from one device to the next in a sequential fashion b. connect all devices to a central device, such as a server or switch c. attach all devices to a central cable, which carries the data d. connect devices directly to each other, either completely or partly 14. Alfie is setting up a ring network for his office, which has about 12 computers and devices to connect. The network set up will ______. a. enable data to travel from one device to the next in a sequential fashion b. connect all devices to a central device, such as a server or switch c. attach all devices to a central cable, which carries the data d. connect devices directly to each other, either completely or partly 15. Alfie is setting up a mesh network for his office, which has about 12 computers and devices to connect. The network set up will ______. a. enable data to travel from one device to the next in a sequential fashion b. connect all devices to a central device, such as a server or switch c. attach all devices to a central cable, which carries the data d. interconnect devices directly to each other, either completely or partly 16. When two or more star networks are joined together using a bus, it is called a mega network. a. True b. False 17. On a client/server network, a server is ______.

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Module 10 a. the host of all of the data stored in the cloud b. accessed directly by all users c. a computer that controls access to hardware and other resources d. a peripheral device, such as a printer 18. Clients on a client/server network always have equal permissions. a. True b. False 19. On a P2P network, ______. a. one device controls all of the access to hardware and software b. computers communicate directly with each other and can share each other's resources c. two computers share a resource, such as a printer, but do not share software or other resources d. a central node connects every device, which also are directly connected to each other 20. In a P2P network, the "P" stands for "peripheral." a. True b. False 21. Internet P2P file sharing networks are illegal. a. True b. False 22. An advantage of cloud computing is that files don't take up space on your computer or device. a. True b. False 23. Network types with a geographic footprint larger than a single building include ______. Select all that apply. a. PAN b. WAN c. MAN d. BAN 24. Network types with a geographic footprint of approximately 30 feet include ______. Select all that apply. a. PAN b. WAN c. MAN d. BAN 25. A LAN connects devices in a limited area, such as a home or small office complex. a. True b. False 26. Sadie uses a VPN when she works at home to ______.

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Module 10 a. connect to her home network wirelessly using broadband b. synchronize her home computer with her work laptop c. access company data posted on webpages d. access her company's network using encryption to secure the data 27. Sadie uses an intranet when she works at home to ______. a. connect to her home network wirelessly using broadband b. synchronize her home computer with her work laptop c. access company data posted on webpages via a VPN d. access her company's network using encryption to secure the data 28. Computers and devices on a network do not have to support the same network standards to successfully communicate. a. True b. False 29. Ethernet is a/n ______. a. portal that allows outside access to network resources b. common standard for wired networks c. type of copper wire cable used to connect networks d. limited broadband connection available by subscription 30. On a network, a protocol is a/n _____. a. authentication key used for decrypting data b. direct connection between two devices c. set of rules for exchanging information on a network d. network language used to connect to the Internet 31. TCP/IP is a set of rules used by all computers and devices to communicate on the Internet. a. True b. False 32. Common network standards include ______. Select all that apply. a. PoE b. Wi-Fi c. LTE d. ISP 33. The IPv6 protocol was developed because ______. a. the Powerline network standard needed a new system b. the W3C wanted to limit Internet traffic to recognized devices c. wireless networking far outpaced wired networking d. of the growing number of devices connected to the Internet 34. Stanley has been studying close-distance wireless network protocols. He knows that Bluetooth is used for ______.

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Module 10 a. devices communicating with each other over a short range b. radio signals transmitted through antennas c. credit cards, smartphones, and event or service tickets d. remote controls or other close proximity data transmissions 35. Stanley has been studying close-distance wireless network protocols. He knows that NFC is used for ______. a. devices communicating with each other over a short range b. radio signals transmitted through antennas c. credit cards, smartphones, and event or service tickets d. remote controls or other close proximity data transmissions 36. Stanley has been studying close-distance wireless network protocols. He knows that IrDA is used for ______. a. devices communicating with each other over a short range b. radio signals transmitted through antennas c. credit cards, smartphones, and event or service tickets d. remote controls or other close proximity data transmissions 37. Mali is setting up a Wi-Fi network. She is deciding on the type of radio frequency to use. She knows common Wi-Fi frequencies include ______. Select all that apply. a. 1.21 GHz b. 2.4 GHz c. 5 GHz d. 8 GHz 38. IoT networks use wireless technologies, such as Bluetooth to connect smart devices to a hub. a. True b. False 39. For access to high-bandwidth content, you should choose a 3G cellular network. a. True b. False 40. Broadband connections usually are "always-on" connections. a. True b. False 41. A wireless network key is used to ______. a. encrypt and decrypt network transfers b. establish a connection to a network c. validate a user's request to join a network d. transform a wired network to wireless 42. A mobile hot spot uses your phone to create a wireless hot spot. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 10 43. A rootkit is a type of software tool that ______. a. provides step-by-step guidelines to setting up a home network b. can help identify sharable resources available on a large network c. prevents unauthorized users from accessing a network or computer d. gains administrator-level access to a computer or network undetected.

44. Spyware software can change your computer settings without your consent. a. True b. False 45. A DOS attack ______. a. tracks and transmits your personal information, such as your credit card numbers b. is meant to overload the server with network traffic so it cannot provide services c. uses multiple computers to attack a single computer, making it difficult to secure d. controls and manipulates a user's computer settings without their knowledge.

46. A zombie is a/n ______. a. network device that has failed, causing issues with the entire network b. device infected with malware that an attacker uses to control a device remotely c. malware program that powers down a computer unexpectedly d. app that runs in the background of another app, decreasing its functionality 47. Priya was hacked after connecting to a Wi-Fi network that looked legitimate but was fraudulent, called a/n ______. a. evil twin b. ghost net c. Wi-Fi troll d. jester 48. Ursula sets up a firewall in order to ______. a. create a blockade between her personal network and the Internet b. prevent damage from natural disasters, such as floods and storms c. encrypt or scramble data before it can be transmitted d. use biometrics to authenticate users requesting network access 49. A NAS device is used to ______. a. prevent unauthorized traffic b. store data on a network c. encrypt network data d. require user authentication 50. A MAC address is ______. a. the location on a cloud server where your files are backed up b. used to assign privileges to devices on a network Powered by Cognero

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Module 10 c. an encrypted communications portal d. a unique hardware address for your computer or device

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Module 10 Answer Key 1. False 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. True 6. d 7. c 8. True 9. b 10. a, c 11. True 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. d 16. False 17. c 18. False 19. b 20. False 21. False 22. True 23. b, c 24. a, d 25. True Powered by Cognero

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Module 10 26. d 27. c 28. False 29. b 30. c 31. True 32. a, b, c 33. d 34. a 35. c 36. d 37. b, c 38. True 39. False 40. True 41. c 42. True 43. d 44. True 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. d

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Module 11 1. The principles of netiquette help you make online interactions civil and productive. a. True b. False 2. A file, such as a photo or document, that you send with an email message is called an email ______. a. attachment b. enhancement c. traveler d. accessory 3. The purpose of an email server is to ______. a. decrypt email messages once they arrive on your computer or device b. route email messages through the Internet or a network c. help you manage your inbox by filtering out unwanted email d. provide you with an interface with which you can compose and read emails 4. Parts of an email address include ______. Select all that apply. a. password b. www. c. @ d. domain name 5. outlook.com is an example of a/n ______. a. user name b. domain name c. ISP d. email address 6. Gmail is an example of a webmail email system. a. True b. False 7. An email client is a/n ______. a. server that stores your email until it can be delivered b. app that lets you create, store, and delete email messages c. unique user name and address to which your email is sent d. private email service that focuses on internal emails for an organization 8. Jose wants to copy his boss on an email to a client but doesn't want the client to see that his boss is copied. Jose should use the ______ option. a. BCC b. Reply All c. CC d. Incognito Powered by Cognero

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Module 11 9. It is considered unprofessional to not Reply All when an email contains a long list of participants, as everyone should always be included on all replies. a. True b. False 10. Messages you send to your Trash or Deleted Items are not recoverable. a. True b. False 11. Archiving email is the practice of ______. a. automatically moving email addresses from a certain sender or domain to the Trash folder b. prioritizing email messages by adding flags and colors to indicate importance c. creating a task or calendar event based on the contents of an email message d. moving email messages older than a specific date to a separate folder from your active email 12. A blog is a website that contains ______. a. a human-curated directory of other websites b. a compilation of public domain media c. date- or time-stamped articles d. content gathered from several news sources 13. Tumblr is an example of a/n ______. a. content aggregator b. messaging app c. blogging network d. email client 14. A vlog is a virtual blog. a. True b. False 15. Ruby is setting up a wiki for her company so that ______. a. the company can aggregate all of its social media b. she can post files that other employees can download c. users can create, all to, change, or delete content d. all email messages are archived and sorted by content 16. Typically, anyone can contribute to any wiki. a. True b. False 17. Two people using a chat messaging app are online at the same time. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 11 18. Sending photos, videos, or links to websites is called ______ messaging. a. advanced b. virtual c. enhanced d. multimedia 19. A form of voice messaging where a short audio recording is created in a messaging app instead of sending a text is called voice ______. Select all that apply. a. memos b. text c. notes d. email 20. Examples of podcasts include lectures, radio shows, news stories, and commentaries. a. True b. False 21. The term podcast is sometimes called Internet telephony. a. True b. False 22. VoIP refers to ______. a. virtual reality text or multimedia messaging b. webcasts transmitted over the Internet c. voice communications over the Internet d. podcasts that mostly consist of videos 23. Facebook Messenger and Amazon Alexa are examples of popular video chat apps. a. True b. False 24. Raisa is participating in a web conference. She wants to send a message using the conference software to other participants, so she uses a/n ______. a. voicemail b. chat window c. text message d. email 25. Examples of blogging and microblogging social media sites include ______. Select all that apply. a. Substack b. WordPress c. Reddit d. Digg

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Module 11 26. Examples of social curation or bookmarking social media sites include ______. Select all that apply. a. Substack b. WordPress c. Reddit d. Digg 27. On a media sharing site, you can add tags to photos in order to include ______. a. the GPS location coordinates b. a list of authorized viewers c. your photos automatically to social media d. descriptive text to categorize them 28. LinkedIn is a professional networking website. a. True b. False 29. Aisha routinely interacts with a message board, which is a/n ______. a. website that hosts consumer reviews b. personal social network c. example of an email app d. online discussion site 30. Aisha routinely interacts with a message board, where she upvotes answers, or ______. a. flags them for inappropriate content b. adds them to her personal social network c. promotes them if she finds them useful d. responds, edits, or deletes them 31. Iggy uses a social bookmarking site to ______. a. share news stories on a particular topic b. mark websites to which he wants to return c. keep track of his social media profiles d. share his resume with potential employers 32. Iggy uses a social curation site to ______. a. share news stories on a particular topic b. mark websites to which he wants to return c. keep track of his social media profiles d. share his resume with potential employers 33. You can use Grammarly to help identify errors in your messages before sending them. a. True b. False 34. "Hijacking a thread" occurs when someone ______.

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Module 11 a. uses social media to track someone's activities or location b. posts harassing or threatening messages on social media c. overshares personal information with those whom they don't know well d. takes an online discussion in an unrelated direction 35. A symbol or image that expresses emotions or ideas is called a/n _______. Select all that apply. a. emophase b. emoji c. emoticon d. emopic 36. When interacting with a blog, flaming is when someone ______. a. uses a pseudonym or alias to hide their identity b. posts hostile or insulting comments about another participant c. raves or acts enthusiastically about a post or comment d. floods the comments section with unwanted solicitation offers 37. Blogroll.org is an example of a blogging platform. a. True b. False 38. On his microblog, Xander uses hashtags to ______. a. keep track of his followers b. post videos from his smartphone c. describe or categorize a post d. repost content from another user 39. On an Internet forum, a thread is a/n ______. a. listing of all current and trending topics b. community of people with similar interests or activities c. personal message that you send to one or a few users at a time d. conversation that consists of an original message and all replies 40. In IM messaging, the "I" stands for ______. a. instant b. Internet c. information d. individual 41. Blogware is classified as a/n ______. a. ISP b. IM c. CMS d. TCP/IP Powered by Cognero

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Module 11 42. Oliver uses labels on his blog posts in order to indicate ______. a. the title and date of the post b. a description of himself and his experiences c. key terms associated with a post d. any sources he needs to cite 43. A blog's About page indicates the number of times your blog has been viewed in a browser. a. True b. False 44. On an online social network, your updates, likes, and posts appear in your account's ______. a. inbox b. homepage c. profile d. activity stream 45. Examples of social shopping networks include ______. Select all that apply. a. Pinterest b. Etsy c. Groupon d. Digg 46. In a sharing economy network, people rent out things they own. a. True b. False 47. Popular video interviewing programs include ______. Select all that apply. a. VidCruiter b. Weebly c. Breezy HR d. HireMe 48. Naomi uses crowdsourcing to ______. a. obtain funding and support for a project she is hoping to launch b. communicate with others who share her special interest c. share information with a large audience about things of general public interest d. put out a request on the Internet to ask for responses on how to solve a problem 49. Disinformation is intended to influence or harm the reputation of others. a. True b. False 50. The record of everything you do online is called your ______. a. digital footprint b. online persona Powered by Cognero

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Module 11 c. user account d. activity log

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Module 11 Answer Key 1. True 2. a 3. b 4. c, d 5. b 6. True 7. b 8. a 9. False 10. False 11. d 12. c 13. c 14. False 15. c 16. False 17. True 18. d 19. a, c 20. True 21. False 22. c 23. True 24. b 25. a, b Powered by Cognero

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Module 11 26. c, d 27. d 28. True 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. True 34. d 35. b, c 36. b 37. False 38. c 39. d 40. a 41. c 42. c 43. False 44. d 45. b, c 46. True 47. a, c 48. d 49. True 50. a

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Module 12 1. Cloud computing refers to providing and using technology tools via the Internet. a. True b. False 2. A public cloud does not use the Internet. a. True b. False 3. When files, databases, or apps are hosted on your hardware in your office, it is called ______ hosting. a. on-premises b. home base c. intranet d. unshared 4. Cloud computing makes it difficult for small businesses and startups to successfully compete with large corporations. a. True b. False 5. The terms "cloud computing" and "the Internet" mean the same thing. a. True b. False 6. The NIST has identified the essential characteristics of cloud technology, including ______. Select all that apply. a. on-demand self-service b. resricted network access c. one-level billing d. resource pooling 7. The NIST cloud characteristic of measured service means that ______. a. a single server runs services for multiple cloud subscribers at the same time b. the cloud customer can configure cloud services at any time c. usage of cloud resources is tracked so customers are billed for the resources they use d. a cloud resource can be scaled up or down on demand 8. The NIST cloud characteristic of broad network access means that ______. a. cloud services are available anywhere on the Internet and can be configured using almost any device b. the cloud customer can configure cloud services at any time c. usage of cloud resources is tracked so customers are billed for the resources they use d. a cloud resource can be scaled up or down on demand 9. The NIST cloud characteristic of rapid elasticity means that ______. a. a single server runs services for multiple cloud subscribers at the same time b. the cloud customer can configure cloud services at any time c. usage of cloud resources is tracked so customers are billed for the resources they use d. a cloud resource can be scaled up or down on demand Powered by Cognero

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Module 12 10. Distributed computing is a way to design a system so that ______. a. resources are shared and accessed equally among each computer or device on a network b. various components run on multiple computers but work together as a single system c. services are available on demand or by a monthly or annual subscription d. companies locate their data and resources on multiple servers in case one fails 11. A benefit of distributed computing is that it places data and computer processes closer to the users who need them. a. True b. False 12. Marisol relies on SaaS in order to ______. a. increase the storage on her device by using cloud folders b. enable security measures that prevent unauthorized access c. share system resources on her home network d. access software that is distributed online for a fee 13. In RaaS, the "R" stands for "Resources." a. True b. False 14. The application called a FWaaS stands for Firewall as a ______. a. System b. Syntax c. Service d. Software 15. Marisol relies on PaaS in order to ______. a. increase the storage on her device by using cloud folders b. enable security measures on her personal device that prevent unauthorized access c. configure routing, servers, and an operating system to run over the cloud d. run her own apps without having to manage underlying servers 16. Marisol relies on IaaS in order to ______. a. increase the storage on her device by using cloud folders b. enable security measures on her personal device that prevent unauthorized access c. configure routing, servers, and an operating system to run over the cloud d. run her own apps without having to manage underlying servers 17. Examples of CRM services include ______. Select all that apply. a. marketing b. customer loyalty programs c. human resources d. app development Powered by Cognero

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Module 12 18. HIPAA is a legal act that impacts the cloud storage of ______. a. proprietary information b. stock transactions c. medical data d. school records 19. E-business refers to businesses that use cloud services. a. True b. False 20. An omnichannel strategy refers to ______. a. when a business uses a mix of onsite and cloud servers b. a retailer using multiple types of contact to reach customers c. how e-commerce companies control inventory d. the pooling of network resources 21. Sarita runs an e-commerce company. She uses a USP to ______. a. code and track products for inventory and shipping purposes b. create a platform on which to sell and market the products c. keep track of customer service and sales interactions to track progress d. emphasize how the company and its products are better than the competition 22. B2C transactions drive a major percentage of global commercial activity. a. True b. False 23. Which of the following involves the sale of goods and services to the general public? a. C2C b. C2B c. B2C d. B2B 24. Examples of C2C commerce include ______. Select all that apply. a. bn.com b. target.com c. eBay d. Facebook Marketplace 25. Examples of online marketplaces include ______. Select all that apply. a. Amazon b. T-Mobile c. Etsy d. Krispy Kreme 26. Application and web developers are one of the growth areas in employment due to e-commerce.

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Module 12 a. True b. False 27. The 3Cs of e-commerce include ______. Select all that apply. a. creativity b. content c. community d. context 28. The PCI DSS is a set of standards that _______. a. applies to merchants using credit card services b. encourages honesty in e-commerce product descriptions c. is used by customers to verify and authenticate e-commerce merchants d. online marketplaces use to verify buyers and sellers 29. VR is the use of computers to ______. a. the use of holograms to add images or text to a real space b. play video games with multiple players over the cloud c. access online videos to stream and share d. simulate a real or imagined environment as a 3D space 30. AR is a type of VR that uses an image of an actual place or thing and adds digital information to it. a. True b. False 31. AI technology ______. a. uses logic and prior experience to simulate human intelligence b. blends AR and VR into a hybrid system c. uses robots to perform difficult tasks d. is used to create and secure complex application information systems 32. Chatbots are an example of AI technology. a. True b. False 33. Digital assistants include _______. Select all that apply. a. Siri b. MyBuddy c. Alexa d. E-admin 34. NLP is a form of data input in which _______. a. content, such as text messages, is read aloud for those with visual impairments b. computers interpret and digitize spoken words or commands Powered by Cognero

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Module 12 c. social media posts are aggregated and summarized d. algorithms are used to make decisions about the data 35. Examples of generative AI tools include _______. Select all that apply. a. Chatmagine b. ImageCr8r c. ChatGPT d. DALL-E 36. AI can be used to track your data and provide targeted ads to your personal interests. a. True b. False 37. Kelley relies on AI to help with data analytics by _______. a. providing a form to make queries b. automating common tasks c. responding to your voice queries d. managing data to detect patterns 38. Paul's business relies on RPA for _____. a. providing employees with robotic personal assistants to increase efficiency b. automatic processes running on servers that input or transfer data c. monitoring employees' activities to analyze their productivity d. securing and encrypting sensitive customer data 39. A defining characteristic of AI is that it improves over time. a. True b. False 40. An AI system needs a dataset for _______. a. the input of data to learn from b. creating a structure for output c. controlling its internal systems d. enhancing machine learning 41. Arthi is a developer. She uses an ANN, which is a/n _______. a. system used to provide sample data to test the output b. program that measures user experience and satisfaction c. combination of artificial and natural intelligence functions d. network of processors that function similarly to the human brain 42. A high percentage of chatbots are designed to support employees and management rather than customers. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 12 43. Smart devices are considered "smart" because they can make decisions without human intervention. a. True b. False 44. To alert a personal assistant on a smart speaker to record and interpret what you say, use a/n _______. a. wake word b. user name c. password d. alarm clock 45. AI text generation tools are able to understand the context of what it is being asked to write. a. True b. False 46. When AI hallucinates, it ______. a. accurately predicts what the user wants b. generates text that is not true c. asks additional questions to narrow the request d. pulls content from websites without citing the sources 47. When you generate content using AI, you own the copyright of the content. a. True b. False 48. When using an AI-powered content generator, Lucy uses prompt engineering to ______. a. analyze the accuracy of the output generated b. create and design a prompt to get the desired result c. select the data sources to suggest to the tool d. verify that the text was not taken from another source 49. A benefit of AI-generated text is that you do not have to edit it. a. True b. False 50. To pass the Turing Test, an AI system must _______. a. have an accuracy rate of between 85 and 99%. b. be able to distinguish between multiple spoken languages c. learn a system or pattern ten times faster than a human d. trick a human evaluator for at least five minutes

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Module 12 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. a 4. False 5. False 6. a, d 7. c 8. a 9. d 10. b 11. True 12. d 13. False 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. a, b 18. c 19. False 20. b 21. d 22. False 23. c 24. c, d 25. a, c Powered by Cognero

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Module 12 26. True 27. b, c, d 28. a 29. d 30. True 31. a 32. True 33. a, c 34. b 35. c, d 36. True 37. d 38. b 39. True 40. a 41. d 42. True 43. True 44. a 45. False 46. b 47. False 48. b 49. False 50. d

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Module 13 1. Both spreadsheets and databases can be used to show relationships between data. a. True b. False 2. Databases can handle vastly more data than spreadsheets. a. True b. False 3. In a database, a relationship is an association that shows ______. a. how data in one table relates to data in another table b. the connection established when you link content to another source c. the account privileges of everyone authorized to interact with the database d. all of the database's objects and their names and file sizes 4. SQL stands for ______ Query Language. a. Syntax b. Structured c. System d. Symbol 5. The ACID model is used to ensure that ______. a. users are authorized and certified to use the database b. data is validated as it is entered c. each database transaction is reliably processed d. the database meets accessibility standards 6. In the ACID model, the A stands for Atomic, which means that ______. a. no processed transactions can change the database's design in a way that impacts its integrity b. each transaction is handled independently of all other transactions c. even if the database fails, all completed transactions will survive the failure d. once a transaction is started, it is either completed or the database is reverted back to its previous state 7. In the ACID model, the C stands for Consistent, which means that ______. a. no processed transactions can change the database's design in a way that impacts its integrity b. each transaction is handled independently of all other transactions c. even if the database fails, all completed transactions will survive the failure d. once a transaction is started, it is either completed or the database is reverted back to its previous state 8. In the ACID model, the I stands for Isolated, which means that ______. a. no processed transactions can change the database's design in a way that impacts its integrity b. each transaction is handled independently of all other transactions c. even if the database fails, all completed transactions will survive the failure d. once a transaction is started, it is either completed or the database is reverted back to its previous state 9. NoSQL databases resolve many of the weaknesses of relational databases.

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Module 13 a. True b. False 10. A non-relational database can be stored among several servers. a. True b. False 11. Tushar relies on nonrelational databases because they offer high availability, which means that ______. a. even during some types of hardware and software failure, users can still access the database b. a large number of users can access, manipulate, and query the database at the same time c. Big Data and other issues related to massive amounts of data are handled with ease d. they employ the latest technologies and are constantly updated to increase usability 12. The BASE model is used to ensure that ______. a. data of the same type is grouped together b. data is available even during a failure c. the database is encrypted and secure d. users have the least amount of access needed 13. Kaya follows the BASE model for her nonrelational database. She uses the Basically Available principle to ______. a. take time to copy data to other hosts, during which time the hosts have different data available b. ensure that a level of data is available to all users to view, but not able to edit c. spread copies of new data across multiple hosts so that if one fails, other hosts have the data d. provide forms for users to input data at any point in time 14. Kaya follows the BASE model for her nonrelational database. She uses the Soft State principle to ______. a. take time to copy data to other hosts, during which time the hosts have different versions of data available b. ensure that a level of data is available to all users to view, but not able to edit c. spread copies of new data across multiple hosts so that if one fails, other hosts have the data d. provide forms for users to input data at any point in time 15. Examples of cloud-based web services that might be used for database storage include ______. Select all that apply. a. AWS b. NoSQL c. CloudFolder d. Microsoft Azure 16. With a serverless cloud database service, the customer ______. a. hosts the database on a standalone computer, not a web server b. only pays for the resources they use and the time they spend interacting with the data c. can only interact with the database when geographically near the database host d. has unlimited access and distribution rights to the database as long as the host is available 17. One benefit of cloud-based database services is scalability, which means that ______.

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Module 13 a. it can handle vast amounts of data, such as with Big Data needs b. a cloud host and the local computer on which the database resides are in sync c. the delay between when a request is made and the response is receive is shortened d. the resource can increase in size as the demand increases 18. One benefit of cloud-based database services is latency, which means that ______. a. it can handle vast amounts of data, such as Big Data needs b. a cloud host and the local computer on which the database resides are in sync c. the delay between when a request is made and the response is received is shortened d. the resource can increase in size as the demand increases 19. Cloud database services typically have faster access speeds to customers around the world. a. True b. False 20. Examples of an RDBMS include ______. Select all that apply. a. Relational Service b. Microsoft Access c. Oracle Database d. MySQL 21. Asher uses Amazon's Aurora, a DBaaS, which means that the database ______. a. can only be accessed using a local computer for security reasons b. runs on servers owned by a cloud provider, and is accessed using a web browser c. has an interface that is controlled by a system engineer d. uses a large amount of resources to accommodate Big Data.

22. Data in a database is stored in tables, which consist of ______. Select all that apply. a. reports b. fields c. records d. worksheets 23. Jenny relies on data validation to ensure that only authorized users can enter and manipulate data in her database. a. True b. False 24. Devan is a database manager. They use the presence check to ensure that ______. a. the right type of data is entered in the field b. the field is not left blank c. users must enter unique information d. numbers must be within a certain range 25. Devan is a database manager. They use the format check to ensure that ______.

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Module 13 a. the right type of data is entered in the field b. the field is not left blank c. users must enter unique information d. data is properly formatted in a field 26. A primary key is a/n ______. a. connection between fields in two tables b. example of a text data type c. unique identifier for each record d. type of table that contains records from multiple sources 27. A database's index is _______. a. a list of authorized users and their privileges b. created based on a field or combination of fields c. the navigation area from which you can open objects d. metadata such as file size, last date modified, and creation date 28. Juanita uses a foreign key to ______. a. translate data imported from another language b. convert source code into binary code c. indicate outlier data that falls outside of the range d. establish a relationship between two tables 29. Juanita uses a one-to-one relationship to create a relationship between two tables ______. a. using a common field to link them b. in which each record in one table matches at most one record in the other table c. where the data in each table (including fields and records) matches exactly d. in order to combine them into one table to reduce redundancy 30. Juanita uses a one-to-many relationship to create a relationship between two tables ______. a. using a common field to link them b. in which each record in one table matches at most one record in the other table c. where the data in each table (including fields and records) matches exactly d. in order to combine them into one table to reduce redundancy 31. Typically, a table is sorted by its primary key. a. True b. False 32. You can filter a database table in order to ______. a. organize data in ascending or descending order b. discard obsolete or inaccurate data to reduce file size c. ensure that all fields have the correct data type d. hide some records while you work with selected records Powered by Cognero

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Module 13 33. Bei uses a query in her database in order to ______. a. present information in a professional format b. organize data in a table in ascending or descending order c. extract data based on specified criteria d. create a smaller version of the database with only a few tables 34. Common SQL operations include ______. a. sort, filter, query b. SELECT, DELETE, INSERT c. validate, authenticate, encrypt d. ADD, SUM, DELETE 35. Interacting with a database's front-end requires technical skills and an understanding of the database's structure. a. True b. False 36. A database back end contains ______. Select all that apply. a. the host server b. some aspects of the DBMS c. a user interface d. the database itself 37. A DBA ______. a. works with the back-end components b. analyzes data to come up with patterns c. is a robust form of Microsoft Access for Big Data d. can be used to host multiple databases on the cloud 38. Each user should be given the minimum access to a database required to do their jobs according to the principle of ______. a. restricted entry b. least privilege c. limited capability d. closed doors 39. All data in a database should be encrypted. a. True b. False 40. The CIA triad is a security model for databases. a. True b. False 41. In the CIA triad, the "C" stands for ______. a. Computer Powered by Cognero

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Module 13 b. Critical c. Consistency d. Confidentiality 42. In the CIA triad, the "A" stands for ______. a. Accuracy b. Authentication c. Availability d. Accessibility 43. Big Data often is identified by the three Vs ______. Select all that apply. a. Volume b. Variety c. Velocity d. Virtual 44. Anya uses BI tools to ______. a. increase her control over authorized users to secure the database b. analyze data to answer sophisticated business questions c. enter data into the database using a back-end interface d. encrypt and decrypt sensitive data in a database 45. A data warehouse is a type of database. a. True b. False 46. A data warehouse is designed primarily for ______. a. storing data b. combining databases c. hosting large databases d. analyzing data 47. A data lake is a collection of ______. a. data warehouses b. a company's multiple databases c. structured and unstructured data d. cloud database servers 48. The benefit of a data lake is that it allows for more diverse data formats. a. True b. False 49. Trena relies on a dashboard in order to provide her with ______. a. a list of all current users and their activities Powered by Cognero

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Module 13 b. visuals of data and key performance indicators c. a navigation area from which she can open objects d. a professional report she can share with business partners 50. Veracity and Value are two additional characteristics of Big Data beyond the three Vs. a. True b. False

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Module 13 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. a 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. b 9. True 10. True 11. a 12. b 13. c 14. a 15. a, d 16. b 17. d 18. c 19. True 20. b, c, d 21. b 22. b, c 23. False 24. b 25. d Powered by Cognero

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Module 13 26. c 27. b 28. d 29. b 30. a 31. True 32. d 33. c 34. b 35. False 36. a, b, d 37. a 38. b 39. False 40. True 41. d 42. c 43. a, b, c 44. b 45. True 46. d 47. c 48. True 49. b 50. True

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Module 14 1. Digital literacy refers to the ethical, legal, and productive use of technology. a. True b. False 2. Distracted driving means driving a vehicle while focusing on other activities. a. True b. False 3. The European Union's GDPR is a regulation that states that ______. a. individuals have the right to request their personal data be erased b. cyberbullying, or bullying using technology, is illegal c. a person's right to free speech overrides others' rights to privacy d. government agencies using AI must create a policy 4. An AUP is a document that ______. a. gives a user permission to install a program or app on their personal device b. lists guidelines and repercussions of use of the Internet and digital resources c. states that companies are responsible for monitoring employees' technology use d. identifies the expectations and measures of digital literacy 5. A code of conduct is a document that ______. a. gives a user permission to install a program or app on their personal device b. includes rules against causing harm to others, or protection of intellectual property c. outlines the types of laws governments should pass to protect citizens d. identifies the expectations and measures of digital literacy 6. Citizen journalism is the illegal reporting and sharing of information by non-journalists. a. True b. False 7. Sarla has been learning about how to protect herself from deceptive practices. She knows that catfishing occurs when ______. a. a photo or video is altered or created to digitally replace one person with another b. apps or websites attempt to unknowingly have a user sign up for or buy something c. someone creates a fake profile in order to mislead others about their identity d. web designers add unnecessary keywords to increase their search engine results 8. Sarla has been learning about how to protect herself from deceptive practices. She knows that deep fakes occur when ______. a. a photo or video is altered or created to digitally replace one person with another b. apps or websites attempt to unknowingly have a user sign up for or buy something c. someone creates a fake profile in order to mislead others about their identity d. web designers add unnecessary keywords to increase their search engine results 9. Techniques used in app and web design to get a user to unknowingly sign up for or buy something are called ______.

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Module 14 Select all that apply. a. duplicitous design b. deceit plans c. deceptive design d. dark patterns 10. SEO is the use of tools to ______. a. allow search engines to better find or index a website b. protect your identity from fraud or theft c. create deceptive techniques to mislead or trick someone d. guide employees towards ethical and legal practices 11. Search engines create and determine the order of search results using algorithms, which are ______. a. keywords and metatags b. human-curated lists c. numerical codes d. processes or sets of rules 12. A primary key is the search term users are most likely to use to find a webpage. a. True b. False 13. Meta tags are used to ______. a. identify a website's name b. tell a search engine what data to use c. list search results by priority d. pinpoint a target audience by demographic 14. As a web designer, LeVon avoids using keyword stuffing, which is ______. a. creating misleading content, such as deep fakes b. writing invisible content that does not display c. using irrelevant words in meta tags and other content d. paying a search engine to be a paid result for all users 15. Front-loading ads at the top of a webpage is illegal. a. True b. False 16. The goal of digital inclusion is to ensure ______. a. all websites are treated the same by ISPs b. websites meet accessibility standards c. everybody has access to the resources online d. all users have a laptop, smartphone, or device 17. Addison is a web designer and she uses alt text on her webpages to ______.

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Module 14 a. enable users to translate content into the language of their choice b. reduce the amount of content on the screen for mobile users c. ensure her website can be found easily by search engines d. provide descriptions for all visual or non-text elements 18. When designing an accessible app, keep the options such as font, font size, and screen orientation the same for all users. a. True b. False 19. Because technology deals with numbers and codes, it is unbiased. a. True b. False 20. A data pool is ______. a. a database that stores alt text b. a variety of input methods used by voice recognition c. the source of values used by a technology d. the limits of a database in size and function 21. Ensuring better representation in data pools is one way to reduce bias. a. True b. False 22. An RSI is a/n ______. a. symptom of technology addiction b. physical risk of using technology c. deceptive SEO practice d. example of content bias 23. Examples of PII include ______. Select all that apply. a. retail business b. phone number c. email address d. student database 24. A data breach is any unauthorized access or collection of data. a. True b. False 25. A digital detox is recommended after you've been subject to having your information stolen. a. True b. False

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Module 14 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. a 4. b 5. b 6. False 7. c 8. a 9. c, d 10. a 11. d 12. False 13. b 14. c 15. False 16. c 17. d 18. False 19. False 20. c 21. True 22. b 23. b, c 24. True 25. False Powered by Cognero

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Module 14

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1 There are no printable questions.

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2 There are no printable questions.

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3 There are no printable questions.

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4 There are no printable questions.

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5 There are no printable questions.

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6 There are no printable questions.

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7 There are no printable questions.

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8 There are no printable questions.

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9 There are no printable questions.

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10 There are no printable questions.

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11 There are no printable questions.

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12 There are no printable questions.

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13 There are no printable questions.

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14 There are no printable questions.

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