TEST BANK for The Environment and You 3rd Edition by Christensen Norm, Leege Lissa & St. Juliana. IS by StudyGuide

Chapter 1 Environment, Sustainability, and Science MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The law of energy and mass conservation states that A) energy can be created and matter destroyed B) both energy and matter can be created and destroyed C) energy and matter cannot be created or destroyed D) energy cannot be destroyed but matter can be created

2) Environmental science is best described as . A) focusing on renewable resource sustainability B) studying ecosystem sustainability and destruction C) focusing on organism relationships within an ecosystem D) studying all aspects of an environment E) studying the physical and chemical aspects of an environment 3) The 1987 UN Commission on Sustainability first introduced the concept of _ focus for maintaining sustainability. A) human well-being B) human population growth C) cultural services D) environmental sustainability E) renewable energy

_ as a necessary

4) What is one barrier that makes it difficult for scientists to forecast environmental changes? A) environmental conflict that leads to ecosystem sustainability B) the certainties of ecosystem function that humans ignore C) the diversity of views based on cultural and religious differences D) unpredictable behavior of ecosystems that cause unpredicted environmental changes E) simplicity of ecosystems

5) Resources are . A) infinite B) finite C) available in sufficient quantities to sustain all of our futures D) available in ample quantities E) used at a slow rate so that they will last forever

6) Which of the following is not an abiotic factor? A) sunlight B) temperature C) carbon and nitrogen levels D) bacteria E) rainfall

7) Throughout any introductory examination of ecosystems and environmental sustainability, the importance of human population numbers is cited. Currently, the world and U.S. populations are closest to _. A) 9 billion; 400 million B) 7 billion; 500 million C) 7 billion; 300 million D) 7 billion; 200 million E) 3.5 billion; 300 million

8) The current total world population has just passed A) 6 billion B) 7 billion C) 9 billion

. D) 5 billion

E) 8 billion

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying question(s). Sustainable management requires us to examine the "big picture" of an ecosystem's context, even though we may not understand every piece and process in that ecosystem. Systems thinking recognizes and addresses the essential connections between the pieces of any system to be analyzed. 9) Which of the following environmental examples represents systems thinking? A) emission control devices on California automobiles B) studying the behavior of a global invasive species C) planting grass for cattle to feed on in desert regions D) undertaking a long-term study of Lake Michigan ecology E) examining the beetle life cycle that is posing a threat to local forests

10) What is the end product of the scientific method for a particular question?

A) scientific observations B) hypothesis construction C) drawing conclusions D) peer review and publication E) hypothesis testing

10)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying question(s). Sustainable management requires us to examine the "big picture" of an ecosystem's context, even though we may not understand every piece and process in that ecosystem. Systems thinking recognizes and addresses the essential connections between the pieces of any system to be analyzed. 11) Ecosystem services are often classified into four different categories that include provisioning services (supplying us with food, air, and water), as well as . A) regulating, sustainable, and homeostatic services B) aesthetic, ecological, and regulating services C) aesthetic, spiritual, and recreational services. D) aesthetic, cultural, and sustainable services E) regulating, cultural, and supporting services

11)

12) What ecosystem services from U.S. national forests had the greatest demands placed on them following World War II and the country's rapid population growth? A) grazing and agriculture B) soil formation and wilderness protection C) grazing, recreation, and timber resources D) soil formation and agriculture E) food, fiber, and plant growth

12)

13) Which of the following is not a principle of Ecosystem function? A) Matter and energy are neither created nor destroyed. B) Ecosystems are always open to gains and losses of matter and energy. C) Ecosystem change is inevitable and essential. D) Ecosystems have distinct boundaries that are influenced by the abiotic factors in the ecosystem. E) Ecosystem's processes are self-regulated by interactions among their living and nonliving components.

13)

14) Regulating ecosystem services are ways that ecosystems control important conditions and/or processes such as . A) food, water, and fiber B) soil formation and nutrient cycles C) pollination and chlorophyll D) aesthetic beauty and recreation E) climate, water flow, and disease

14)

15) All the organisms and their physical and chemical environment within a specific area best describe . A) populations B) the biosphere C) biomes D) ecosystems E) ecological communities

15)

16) The ecosystem boundary of a drainage basin can be defined by . A) the streams that flow into the basin B) the rivers that divide the basins between counties, cities, and states C) mountains, hills, and valleys that determine where the water flows D) local legislative decisions designed to clarify jurisdiction of the ecosystem E) the amount of water flowing into the basin from a mountain

16)

17) Sustainable use of resources requires . A) knowledge of all finite resource locations B) knowledge of all nonrenewable resources C) an understanding of rate of resource renewal and ability to manage rate of use D) an understanding of ecosystem models E) a thorough understanding of the scientific method

17)

18) Which of the following is not considered biota? A) plants B) bacteria C) animals

18) D) water

E) fungi

19) At virtually any level of use, nonrenewable resources can be A) converted to nonmetallic minerals B) replenished once depleted C) recycled or reused D) exhausted or depleted E) converted to renewable ones 20) Negative feedback processes tend to function within ecosystems to A) cause further ecological destruction. B) cause ecological relationships to flourish C) reinforce harmful changes D) cause ecological relationships to disintegrate E) stabilize the ecosystem

19)

20)

21) What is required to be considered sustainable use of resources? A) understanding the rate of renewal and the ability to manage the rate of the use B) understanding ecosystem function in relation to resource use C) understanding the rate of exhaustion and the ability to manage the rate of the use D) understanding that resources are infinite E) understanding that resources are finite

21)

22) A cultural ecosystem service might be . A) the beauty or inspiration provided by a forest B) ensuring flow of traffic in and out of a city C) constructing a "green" building D) providing food to the malnourished E) good health access for populations in a community

22)

23) What are examples of provisioning ecosystem services? A) climate, water flow, and disease B) pollination and chlorophyll C) soil formation and nutrient cycles D) food, water, and fiber E) aesthetic beauty and recreation

23)

24) What makes up an ecosystem? A) living and nonliving parts and the processes that connect them B) living and nonliving parts and the processes that disconnect them C) living and nonliving parts and energy movement created by the sun D) energy and matter and the organisms competing for resources in the ecosystem E) energy and matter and the organisms functioning apart

24)

25) An ecosystem is best defined as . A) all the organisms and their physical and chemical environment within a specific area where energy and matter influence the distribution and abundance of organisms present B) a regional grouping of plants, animals, and abiotic factors C) the total population of a specific kind of plant, animal, or microbe and all members of which do or potentially can interbreed and produce young D) abiotic factors affecting a grouping or plants, animals, and organisms trying to survive in a given area E) a grouping of plants and animals that interacts with one another in a way that causes the grouping to die

25)

26) As human population and demands for resources have changed, our definition of sustainability has also changed. One hundred and fifty years ago, human resource use was largely determined by . A) the understanding of resource supply B) consideration of human justice C) human needs or desires D) the need for balancing multiuses/demands for a resource E) the necessity to avoid human conflict

26)

27) A hypothesis can best be described as . A) a comparison between groups with an explanation for differences B) a proposed explanation that can be tested C) the science of asking questions and finding concrete answers D) a proven fact E) an explanation that has been tested many times

27)

28) In human-dominated ecosystems, which of the following features is often lacking? A) an ecosystem's ability to grow sufficient food B) drought resistant regulation C) the presence of sufficient human infrastructure D) the presence of positive feedback systems E) homeostatic regulation

28)

29) Sustainable companies such as DIRTT measure success by the triple bottom line, which includes , people, and profit. A) popularity B) prosperity C) professionalism D) petroleum E) planet

29)

30) A key factor in the ability of ecosystems to provide ecosystem services is A) a sustainable energy cycle B) the maintenance of a high level of diversity of species C) the presence of essential abiotic factors D) a steady rate of growth of the ecosystem E) the presence of both renewable and nonrenewable resources

30)

31) Ecosystems are connected by . A) individual species competing for space with other species in the ecosystem B) energy cycling and nutrient flow C) the essential flow of water through the ecosystem D) the movement of pollutants between ecosystems E) the flow of energy and matter through the ecosystem

31)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 32) Match each term with the correct description.

32)

I. Ecosystem services II. Provisioning services III. Regulating services IV. Cultural services V. Supporting services A. B. C. D. E.

Basic ecosystem processes that are needed to maintain other services The multitude of resources that ecosystems supply to humans Food, water, and air we breathe Spiritual and recreational benefits that an ecosystem provides Ecosystem control of climate, flows of water, and absorption of pollutants

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 33) In the course of one day, a human experiences several dozen ecosystem services other than the essential provisioning services supplying us with food, water, and the air we breathe. Explain three additional ecosystem services that are essential to maintaining life on Earth. 34) Assuming that a city wishes to manage its water supply in a sustainable manner, describe/explain two specific factors that must be considered in order to accomplish this.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 01_3E

1) C 2) D 3) A 4) D 5) B 6) D 7) C 8) B 9) D 10) D 11) E 12) C 13) D 14) E 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) E 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) C 27) B 28) E 29) E 30) B 31) E 32) I. B, II. C, III. E, IV. A, V. D 33) One might begin with a focus on the ecosystem services that regulate climate (solar energy budget), the flow of water through ecosystems (water cycle), or the absorption of pollutants (microbial decomposition and the essential recycling of matter). One could also describe the basic ecosystem processes such as any of the nutrient cycles (N cycle, which provides the critical N-compounds to plants that humans consume in order to build their essential N-containing compounds of DNA/RNA, enzymes, and proteins). The carbon cycle, moving O2 and CO2 through the ecosystem via the processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration could also be described. 34) To be sustainable, actions must conform to the laws of mass and energy conservation. This is, something cannot be created from nothing, and everything goes somewhere. In order to manage a municipal water supply sustainably, one must understand the rate of renewal of the water source (is the source a mountain snowfield, constantly renewed, or is the source a more finite groundwater aquifer?). Secondly, one must have the ability and take the initiative to manage the rate of use of this water supply, based on changes in the area's population growth, also factoring in any new demands for this water supply with time (new land uses evolving, such as increased levels of agriculture).

Chapter 2 Environmental Ethics, Economics, and Policy MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Cost per unit of a good or services decline as the level of production increases. This is described as . A) opportunity cost B) profit C) discount rate D) economic value E) economy of scale

2) Individuals in Africa often share crop and livestock land with other families in their community. What happens to the land as a result of each family using an individual's approach to managing it? A) It is preserved as a result of the importance of cultural heritage. B) It is managed sustainably for future farming. C) It is preserved from family to family and generation to generation. D) It is protected by laws. E) It is often overexploited.

3) A subsistence economy is one that . A) purchases goods and services from others B) meets its environmental needs without accumulating wealth C) purchases resources for immediate use D) meets its environmental need by over fishing lakes and rivers E) meets is environmental needs while causing ecosystem destruction

4) Hetch Hetchy provides the residents of San Francisco with _ A) wilderness habitats B) water for drinking C) forest for recreation D) lakes for fishing E) miles of biking and hiking paths

5) Gross domestic product is . A) a measure of a country's economic standing B) all the resources necessary to produce the ecosystem services C) the willingness of consumers to pay for ecosystem services D) cost of services minus the economic value of enhancements or degradation to the environment E) the total economic value of goods and services produced by a country

6) Most environmental policy is set by _ A) Supreme Court rulings B) federal legislation C) state and local governments D) Congress E) the President

Read the scenario and answer the following questions. The widespread use of the pesticides DDT in the environment following World War II had major environmental impacts on the ecosystem. Human exposure to this pesticide continues today despite the ban of DDT use in the United States since the early 1970s. However, DDT continues to be manufactured in the U.S. and exported to many countries worldwide. 7) When analyzing the economic value of using DDT in the environment, the major criticism that environmentalists routinely cite is that _ costs have not been fully considered. A) hedonic valuation B) external C) contingent valuation D) internal E) subsistence

8) During the 19th century, as populations grew and urban environments expanded, humans had less exposure to _ . A) chemicals B) animals C) water D) natural environments E) air pollutants

9) When a commodity is in short supply, the cost A) is near the cost of production B) is lower in areas with better access C) remains the same D) goes up E) decreases

10) The Modern Era's views on the relationship of humans and the environment can be described as . A) opportunities for fewer connections between humans and nature B) evolutionary change that described the connections between organisms and their environment C) human impacts on ecosystems differ significantly from natural disturbances D) the obsession with material goods that broke the connection between humans and nature E) reconciliation of our activities with the inescapable laws of the natural world

10)

11) DDT was originally intended to kill A) plants B) birds C) aphids D) mosquitoes E) corn insects

11)

12) The difference between the cost to produce a commodity and its price in the marketplace is . A) economic value B) profit C) opportunity cost D) economy of scale E) discount rate

12)

13) What part of the policy-cycle determines who will deal with a particular issue and when? A) Implementation B) Setting the Agenda C) Problem Definition D) Formulating Policy E) Assessment

13)

14) Gifford Pinchot, first head of the U.S. Forest Service, advocated the conservationist view of nature. This view promoted . A) a wilderness and ecocentric approach to public resource use B) resource use in a sustainable manner with an ecocentric focus C) a biocentric approach to public resources D) resource use in a sustainable manner to provide the greatest benefit for the greatest number of people E) a deep ecology approach to public resource use

14)

15) The price consumers are willing to pay for a resource that may be limited depends on A) how much of the resource is remaining to purchase B) their perceived need for the resource C) how much they can afford at a time the resource is limited D) their access to the resource in their community E) their ability to pay more than someone else

15)

16) What part of the policy-cycle allows individuals or agencies to carry out the new activities and enforce the laws? A) Implementation B) Formulating Policy C) Setting the Agenda D) Problem Definition E) Assessment

16)

17) The animal rights movements in society evolved from A) anthropocentric ethics B) ecocentric ethics C) virtue ethics D) biocentric ethics E) environmental ethics

17)

18) The economic value of an ecosystem service can be measured by accessing the willingness to pay for the action to them. A) conserve B) preserve C) recirculate D) value E) monitor

18)

19) A subsistence farmer might _. A) buy commodities from others B) barter or trade goods they grow C) accumulate a surplus of goods to sell for financial gain D) allow production and consumption of goods and services to take place in a market system E) sell goods they catch and grow

19)

Read the scenario and answer the following questions. The widespread use of the pesticides DDT in the environment following World War II had major environmental impacts on the ecosystem. Human exposure to this pesticide continues today despite the ban of DDT use in the United States since the early 1970s. However, DDT continues to be manufactured in the U.S. and exported to many countries worldwide. 20) The approach to the manufacture and use of DDT worldwide is best described as A) focusing on economic externalities B) focusing on deep ecological principles C) biocentric D) anthropocentric E) ecocentric

20)

21) Environmental justice seeks to _ . A) ensure that anthropocentric ethics are applied to the environment B) ensure the sound management of the environment C) ensure that people are treated fairly regardless of race, gender, or economic status in the management of natural resources D) ensure that legal boundaries are adhered to when environmental disputes arise E) ensure that ecocentric ethics are applied to the environment

21)

22) Which of the following agencies has significant influence on international environmental policy but no government representation or participation? A) The European Environment Agency B) The Global Environmental Facility C) The World Trade Organization D) The United Nations E) The World Wildlife Fund

22)

23) Which of the ethical traditions best describes the building of the Hetch Hetchy Reservoir as right because it benefited a large number of people? A) consequence-based ethics B) virtue ethics C) duty-based ethics D) environmental ethics E) utilitarianism

23)

24) A grass root organization is attempting to preserve a stretch of forest that is being considered for purchase by a manufacturing plant. The organization's main strategy is to inform the nearby housing developments of the effect on their home values if the manufacturing plant goes versus the preserved forest. This approach is using . A) scare tactic valuation B) market valuation C) travel-cost valuation D) hedonic valuation E) contingent valuation

24)

25) Natural wilderness should be protected regardless of the needs of humans is an example of the point of view. A) conservationist B) environmentalist C) economist D) preservationist E) ecologist

25)

26) Environmental ethics is best defined as . A) the extrinsic value placed on people, organisms, and objects in the environment B) studying the moral relationships of humans to the environment and the environment's living organisms C) actions taken by humans in the environment in which they live that have impact D) studying the rightness and wrongness of human actions E) studying the economic value of all living things in their environment

26)

27) Natural capital is defined as all of Earth's resources that are necessary to produce A) environmental justice for all B) a sustainable market C) a safe habitat for endangered species D) the ecosystem services that we depend on E) a profit

27)

28) Which of the following issues would be addressed by a county's land use development office when making important environmental decisions? A) managing a national park B) building of a landfill C) storage of nuclear wastes D) building of a new gas station in the county E) controlling air pollution from automobiles

28)

29) Some groups state that the primate shown in this photograph has economic value for humans via ecotourism. This primate would be referred to as having .

A) instrumental value B) ecological value C) intrinsic value D) individual value E) theological value

29)

30) The domestication of plants and animals allowed humans to alter ecosystems for their benefits. Which of the following is an example of a human benefit that resulted from ecosystem change? A) Crop production increased as a result of more plants competing for the same land space. B) Crop production increased and more people had food to eat. C) Grasslands were destroyed and predator insects were destroyed. D) Crop production decreased as natural habitats were replaced. E) Grasslands were destroyed and replaced with forests.

30)

31) The constitutional basis for environmental justice is rooted in . A) public policy and governmental ethics B) ecological valuation of the ecosystem C) equal protection for all citizens D) environmental laws and legislative regulations E) compensation to a land owner by the government when their property is needed for public use

31)

32) U.S. environmental law and policy are influenced by the actions of _ A) all three branches of government B) the executive branch C) the judicial branch D) the legislative branch E) only the executive and legislative branches

32)

33) Rachel Carson's book, humans by pesticides. A) Walden B) The Population Bomb C) Nature D) Man and Nature E) Silent Spring

, pointed out the dangers posed to the natural environments and

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 34) Match each term with the correct description.

34)

I. Virtue ethics II. Anthropocentric ethics III. Biocentric ethics IV. Ecocentric ethics V. Duty-based ethics A. Rightness or wrongness of actions should be determined by a set of rules or laws. B. An action is right if it is motivated by virtues that include kindness, honesty, loyalty, and justice. C. Defines right actions in terms of outcomes for human beings D. Argues that the value of other living things is equal to the value of humans E. Places value on communities of organisms and ecosystems

33)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 35) There are often eight issues that can be debated when reflecting on environmental policy. They include: 1. government versus individual 2. competing public values 3. uncertainty and action 4. which level of government decides? 5. which government agency has jurisdiction? 6. protection against selfish actions 7. the best means to an end 8. political power relationships Discuss at least two of the above issues, describing the challenges that each brings to developing environmental policy. 36) Describe the three main environmental ethic approaches used to determine who or what has value in the Earth's biosphere. 37) Compare economic and ecological approaches to valuation of the environment. 38) When measuring the wealth of a nation, explain the difference between gross domestic product (GDP) and genuine progress indicator (GPI).

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 02_3E

1) E 2) E 3) B 4) B 5) E 6) C 7) B 8) D 9) D 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) E 23) E 24) D 25) B 26) B 27) D 28) B 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) A 33) E 34) I. B, II. C, III. D, IV. E, V. A 35) Individuals are often left to make their own decisions about how much they drive, how much energy they use, how much waste they generate, how much water is consumed. These things are hard to regulate from a governmental standpoint and are often regulated differently in each state and within each municipality. What is good for the government (a decrease in fossil fuel imports) is often not viewed as a positive for the individual (if it translates into less individual automobile use). Regarding a second issue, uncertainty and when to take definitive action on an environmental problem are debated for almost every environmental issue, especially early on. The precautionary principle approach says that when there is reasonable evidence that an action or policy may place human health or the environment at risk, precautionary measures should be taken, even if initial evidence seems inconclusive. This approach encapsulates the environmental debate over the global climate change issue, where energy companies might resist implementing controls over fossil fuel use, even though environmental change continues.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 02_2E

36) The three main ethical approaches used to determine environmental value are anthropocentric, biocentric, and ecocentric views. Anthropocentric ethics assigns intrinsic value only to humans and defines right actions only in terms of positive outcomes for humans. The conservationist view of environmental management is an example of this human-centered approach. Biocentric ethics takes into consideration the value of other living things and values them equally with humans. This biocentric ethic is often articulated by those in the animal rights movement. Ecocentric ethics places value on communities of organisms and ecosystems, and is the most expansive and "big picture" approach to determining environmental value. 37) Ecological value can be measured by looking at ecological services provided by ecosystems and measuring the possible loss of services as a result of human impacts. Often these costs do not come into play until long after the ecosystem has been compromised or lost, and the services or actions that were supported by that ecosystem are now missing. For example, the ecological costs of the degradation of a forest are often not realized until reforestation of that land is required (because of extensive soil erosion, flooding, or siltation damage downstream) and undertaken. 38) GDP is the total value of goods and services produced by the citizens of a country divided by its population size. It is a measure of a country's economic standing and is used by governments and international organizations for assigning financial aid and making loans to nations. Because some actions may increase a country's GDP but reduce its human and natural resources (overharvesting forests or fisheries), economists have more recently suggested an alternative measure of natural wealth, the genuine progress indicator (GPI). GPI is the GDP plus or minus the economic value of enhancements or degradations to the environment. For example, actions such as forest destruction would decrease a country's GPI, while implementing waste management protocols would improve sustainability and increase a country's GPI.

Chapter 3 The Physical Science of the Environment MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The first law of thermodynamics states that . A) all energy always has kinetic and potential characteristics B) energy is always degraded in a chemical reaction C) entropy always decreases in normal chemical reactions D) although energy can be transformed from one form to another, it cannot be created or destroyed in normal chemical reactions E) energy is always recycled in ecosystems

is the tendency toward a disordered state. A) Potential energy B) Kinetic energy C) Entropy D) Heat E) Convection

3) Molecules are . A) two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds B) a chemical that cannot be broken or separated C) atoms of an element D) positively charged particles E) basic subunits of elements

4) What makes up about 70% of the Earth's total volume, as it relates to the Earth's structure? A) crust B) oceanic crust C) magma D) lithosphere E) mantle

5) When the vase is sitting on top of the table, what type of energy exists? A) entropy B) heat energy C) potential energy D) kinetic energy E) work

6) What is the primary structural constituent in plant tissues? A) protein B) cellulose C) chlorophyll D) enzymes E) starch

7) Compounds are _. A) molecules that are made of more than one element B) atoms that are radioactive C) molecules that have mass D) molecules that are held together by atoms E) atoms that are electrically charged

8) Use the energy conversions table to determine how many joules (J) a 60-Watt light bulb uses in one hour.

A) 144,000 J

B) 72,000 J

C) 294,000 J

9) Which number indicates neutral on a pH scale? A) 3 B) 1 C) 5

D) 216,000 J

E) 252,000 J

D) 7

E) 9

10) The type of ocean current that is driven by differences in temperature and salinity is a circulation. A) thermohaline B) Hadley cell C) Coriolis effect D) gyre E) Ferrel cell

10)

11) The pH scale is a quantitative representation of the relative amounts of A) hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in solution B) hydrogen and polar water molecules in solution C) water and carbon dioxide molecules in solution D) hydrogen and oxygen ions in solution E) alkaline and basic ions in solution 12) What is the basic subunit of elements? A) molecules B) neutrons

11)

12) C) protons

D) atoms

E) electrons

13) The energy of light is called electromagnetic radiation. In the electromagnetic spectrum, photosynthesis makes use of which specific wavelengths? A) X-rays B) infrared radiation C) the entire electromagnetic spectrum D) ultraviolet radiation E) visible light

13)

14) When the vase falls to the floor, what happens to the energy in the system? A) The entropy within the system remains constant during the fall. B) The kinetic energy is converted to heat energy that causes the vase to break. C) The kinetic energy is converted into potential energy. D) The potential energy is converted into kinetic energy. E) The potential energy causes the entropy in the system to change causing disorder.

14)

15) _

15)

are synthesized in a two-step process: transcription and translation. A) Carbohydrates B) Proteins C) Lipids D) Nucleic acids E) Genes

16) Natural gas is primarily composed of A) oxygen B) methane C) carbon dioxide D) hydrogen E) nitrogen

16)

17) The Earth's atmosphere is mostly composed of A) water and carbon dioxide B) nitrogen and oxygen C) oxygen and carbon dioxide D) water and oxygen E) nitrogen and carbon dioxide

17)

18) What parts of the Earth's crust float on top of the mantle? A) tectonic plates B) lithosphere C) stratosphere D) oceans E) ozone layer

18)

19) What is an element? A) a chemical that cannot be separated, but is limited in supply B) a chemical that can be broken down or separated into other chemicals C) one or more molecules held together by chemicals D) two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds E) a chemical that cannot be broken down or separated into other chemicals

19)

20) Cells and tissues of all organisms are made primarily of A) hydrogen B) carbon dioxide C) salt D) water E) cellulose

20)

21) Where in the Earth's atmosphere are chemicals most likely to be dispersed and present for a long period of time?

A) mesosphere B) ozone layer C) stratosphere 8

21)

D) troposphere E) thermosphere 22) The unit that measures the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water 1°C is the . A) kilowatt-hour B) joule C) volt D) watt-hour E) calorie

22)

23) Most organic compounds are made up of _ . A) carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen atoms B) carbon, nitrogen, and water atoms C) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms D) nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide atoms E) carbon, nitrogen, and ozone atoms

23)

24) The type of tectonic plate boundary at the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is referred to as a A) transform fault B) divergent boundary C) seismic boundary D) convergent boundary E) subduction zone 25) The most essential compound needed to sustain life as we know it is _ A) water B) oxygen C) carbohydrates D) carbon dioxide E) ozone

24)

25)

26) Heat energy refers to the kinetic energy of molecules. Heat can move in a number of different ways: when warm air rises causing the gas or liquid to circulate, the process that is said to occur is . A) radiation B) convection C) conduction D) latent heat transfer E) evaporation

26)

27) The stratospheric ozone layer is important to ecosystems because it A) ensures lakes and oceans do not lose water B) provides the air we breathe C) keeps the temperature of Earth stable D) keeps atmospheric gases balanced E) absorbs and scatters UV light

27)

28) Light is a form of _ A) UV B) X-ray C) gamma D) infrared E) electromagnetic

_radiation.

29) Starch and cellulose are examples of A) proteins B) lipids C) nucleic acids D) carbohydrates E) sterols

28)

29)

Read the accompanying scenario and answer the following questions. The human body has the capacity to do work or engage in energy each day. Answer the following questions about the energy you have as you run a triathlon. 30) When the race begins and your body starts to move, the energy of allows you to run and complete the race. A) fission B) heat C) work D) motion E) fusion

30)

31) The most basic source of immediate energy for most organisms is A) lipids B) amino acids C) glucose D) water E) starches

31)

32) Which is the most important molecule in the ecosystem? A) water B) lead C) salt

32) D) oxygen

E) nitrogen

33) What are the three distinct layers of the earth? A) mantle, magma, crust B) core, mantle, magma C) oceanic crust, mantle, magma D) core, mantle, crust E) mantle, crust, oceanic crust

33)

34) What is something that you use almost every day that is a polymer? A) gas B) metal C) water D) wood 35) Energy is the . A) motion that moves things B) amount remaining to do work in the future C) work that has been done D) capacity to do work E) chemical bonds between atoms and molecules

34) E) plastic 35)

36) Which of the rays/waves along the wavelength contains the most energy?

36)

A) microwaves B) infrared rays C) X-rays D) gamma rays E) ultraviolet rays 37) Most ocean ridges coincide with A) oceanic plates B) divergent plate boundaries C) continental plates D) convergent plate boundaries E) transforming boundaries

37)

38) When you are resting at the top of a hill on a bicycle prior to racing down the hill you have energy for movement. A) chemical B) potential C) mechanical D) kinetic E) nuclear SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 39) Match each term with the correct description.

39)

I. Protons II. Neutrons III. Electrons IV. Isotopes V. Molecules A. B. C. D. E.

Negatively charged particles of the central nucleus of an atom Electrically neutral particles of the central nucleus of an atom Positively charged particles of the central nucleus of an atom Two or more atoms held together by a chemical bond Atoms of an element with different numbers of neutrons

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 40) Describe how heat moves as you boil a pot of water to cook spaghetti for dinner. 41) So far as we know, Earth is the only planet in our solar system that supports life. Describe/explain four major factors/characteristics unique to Earth, allowing for the evolution and support of life.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 03_3E

1) D 2) C 3) A 4) E 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) D 9) D 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) E 14) D 15) B 16) B 17) B 18) A 19) E 20) D 21) C 22) E 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) B 27) E 28) E 29) D 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) D 34) E 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) B 39) I. C, II. B, III. A, IV. E, V. D 40) Heat moves in four ways, conduction, convection, radiation, and latent. When water is boiling the source of conduction is the gas or electricity on the stove, it provides the heat that will help to allow the molecules of water to boil. Convection happens as the warm regions in the water become less dense and begin to rise, causing the boiling to begin. Radiation releases electromagnetic energy that is felt from the heat source and latent heat transfer occurs as the water evaporates as it boils, giving of steam that we might see.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 03_2E

41) The presence of water is often cited as the first critical factor, as all life we are familiar with requires water to live. The presence of water in a liquid state, especially in Earth's vast oceans, plays a central role in maintaining temperatures that support life, as these large liquid reservoirs help to moderate any extreme temperature fluctuations. Water vapor in the atmosphere also influences the extent of evaporation and precipitation, allowing water to cycle across the planet's surface. A second critical factor is our unique distance from the sun (93 million miles). At this distance, the sun's energy and resulting temperature are not extreme, allowing organic compounds to form and life to flourish. A third critical factor was the evolution of photosynthetic organisms, which ultimately decreased the original concentrations of carbon dioxide and increased oxygen concentrations in the atmosphere, allowing a great diversity of life to evolve over the past 3.8 billion years. A fourth unique factor is the magnetic field arising from convection currents in the Earth's core and the Earth's rotation. This magnetic field deflects the lethal ionizing radiation from solar winds, to which other planets in our solar system are regularly subjected.

Chapter 4 Organism and Population Ecology and Evolution MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) An organism's range of tolerance is best described as . A) the difference between the amount of sunlight tolerated and the amount of sunlight available B) the span between the minimum and maximum temperatures in which an organism flourishes C) the difference between the amount of food available and its consumption of that food D) the range of precipitation that falls on a given area E) the total amount of pollutants experienced by an organism

2) The species most likely to be affected if the water temperature increases from 74°F to 80°F would be . A) the rainbow trout B) neither the desert pupfish or the rainbow trout C) the desert pupfish D) the Antarctic ice fish, the rainbow trout, and the desert pupfish E) both the desert pupfish and the rainbow trout

3) The mating ritual of the blue-footed boobies in the Galapagos Islands includes a complex dance. The birds will not mate with other birds that do not know the dance. This is an example of . A) reproductive isolation B) mechanical isolation C) behavioral isolation D) structural isolation E) geographic isolation

4) An organism's range of tolerance is most closely related to an organism's A) temperature maximum B) habitat C) toxic chemical threshold D) ecological niche E) rainfall minimum

5) When populations approach their carrying capacity, their resources A) increase in supply but are less accessible B) increase because populations are decreasing C) decrease in supply but are more accessible to competitors D) become more scarce as growth rate becomes zero E) are not a concern as they are usually infinite in supply

6) If a population of lemmings grows fast during a productive winter and shoots beyond the carrying capacity the population will . A) slowly return to below the carrying capacity B) continue to grow just as quickly C) continue to grow but in an S shape D) revert to logistic growth E) quickly crash back below the carrying capacity

7) According to the figure, the specific location of photosynthesis is _

A) the chloroplast B) the atmosphere and the plant C) the plant D) the atmosphere E) the plant cell

8) In the hierarchical system of classification, a family can be defined as . A) a group of organisms that are very closely related to one another B) a group of individuals that are able to interbreed with one another C) a major subdivision of an order containing one or more genera D) an overall category containing organisms that share fundamental structures and functions E) a major subdivision of a phylum or a division containing one or more orders

9) In the hierarchical system of classification, species are defined as . A) an overall category containing organisms that share very similar fundamental structures and functions B) a group of individuals that are able to interbreed with one another, producing fertile offspring C) a major subdivision of a phylum or a division containing one or more orders of their subgroup D) a major subdivision of a family containing one or more related groups E) a major subdivision of an order containing one or more genera and their subgroups

10) In asexual reproduction, . A) the offspring have identical DNA B) the offspring are genetically related but also genetically distinct C) the offspring develop from a different zygote D) the offspring are made up of portions of each of the parent's DNA E) the offspring are genetically unique

10)

11) From what process do all organisms use energy to power their physical, behavioral, and reproductive functions? A) anaerobic respiration B) photosynthesis C) cell division D) chemosynthesis E) cellular respiration

11)

12) Use the pictures to determine what type of isolation might occur because of the type of organism shown.

A) behavioral isolation B) mechanical isolation C) structural isolation D) reproductive isolation E) geographic isolation

12)

13) The organism most likely to be vulnerable to global climate change is _ A) Antarctic ice fish B) desert pupfish and all its relatives C) rainbow trout D) rainbow trout and Antarctic ice fish E) desert pupfish 14) Assuming no migration, birth rate minus death rate is equal to A) the increase or decrease in different populations B) the cause of deaths in the population C) the proportions of fertile women in different populations D) a higher birth rate in a population E) the relative rates of immigration and emigration are increasing

13)

14)

15) In the process of natural selection, the organisms most likely to survive are . A) the organisms that can adapt to an extreme range of tolerance of precipitation B) the organisms that have a range of reproductive fitness C) the organisms that are very large and very small that outlive the average sized organisms D) the organisms that survive at various ranges of tolerance of temperature E) the organisms that are most reproductively fit

15)

16) The place where an organism lives is its A) community B) ecosystem C) biome D) niche E) habitat

16)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Today, finches occupy every continent except Australia, most eating seeds, a diet for which their bills are well-adapted. Over the past several million years, 13 Galapagos finches have come to occupy the varied Galapagos islands. Finches found on these islands have very different bill shapes and feeding behaviors than finches found on the nearby mainland. Darwin gathered a considerable amount of field data on these finches and their habitats in order to propose his findings. 17) Determining that there were 13 different species of finches, Darwin proposed that they arose by . A) natural selection B) genetic drift C) disruptive selection D) convergent evolution E) stabilizing selection

17)

18) How does generation time affect population growth rate? A) the shorter the generation time, the higher the population growth rate B) the longer the generation time, the more stabilized the population growth rate C) the longer the generation time, the shorter the population growth rate D) the shorter the generation time, the lower the population growth rate E) the longer the generation time, the higher the population growth rate

18)

19) The medium ground finches (normally distinguished by a range of beak sizes) that survive drought conditions in the Galapagos are able to eat the large and tough seeds from the fever plant. This survival can be described best as . A) the founder effect B) stabilizing selection C) disruptive selection D) directional selection E) genetic drift

19)

20) Total fertility rate refers to . A) the number of females giving birth during a given year B) the number of offspring born during a given year C) the number of offspring that survive to become reproductive adults D) the potential number of offspring born per female in her reproductive years E) the average age at which females become sexually active

20)

21) An organism's _ for many environmental factors determines where it can live. A) range of tolerance B) carrying capacity C) survivorship D) fitness E) adaptations

21)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Today, finches occupy every continent except Australia, most eating seeds, a diet for which their bills are well-adapted. Over the past several million years, 13 Galapagos finches have come to occupy the varied Galapagos islands. Finches found on these islands have very different bill shapes and feeding behaviors than finches found on the nearby mainland. Darwin gathered a considerable amount of field data on these finches and their habitats in order to propose his findings. 22) What major factors allowed the birds to adapt to their new environment? A) genetic drift followed by mutation B) mutation and increased reproductive fit of some offspring C) the founder effect followed by reproductive isolation D) mutation followed by reproductive isolation E) mutation and disruptive selection 23) Populations in which the probability of dying is constant at every age exemplify A) type II survivorship B) type I survivorship C) natural selection D) arithmetic growth E) type III survivorship

22)

24) What was one of the main causes of the Galapagos Island finches' death in 1977? A) a tropical storm B) a hurricane C) an earthquake D) a drought E) a tsunami 25) Which of the following is an example of a prokaryote? A) protozoa B) plants C) algae 26) What are the three requirements for photosynthesis? A) sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water B) sunlight, oxygen, and glucose C) sunlight, oxygen, and water D) sunlight, nitrogen, and water E) sunlight, carbon dioxide, and glucose

23)

24)

25) D) fungi

E) bacteria 26)

27) What does the figure illustrate?

27)

A) Fish have a decreased mortality rate at young age. B) Birds have an ever decreasing mortality rate. C) Birds have a constant mortality rate. D) Fish have a steady rate of mortality change. E) Humans have an increased mortality rate at a young age. 28) At fertilization, the egg and the sperm merge to form a zygote. The zygote contains DNA from both parents making the offspring . A) genetically unique B) haploid offspring C) inbred vigorous D) a clone E) sterile hybrid

28)

29) The scientific, two-part Latin name of a species _ . A) is always composed of two unique names for that species B) is always composed of a genus and species name C) is always composed of a family and genus name D) describes exactly to which phylum it belongs E) describes exactly to which kingdom it belongs

29)

30) Genetic drift refers to _ . A) a change in the overall distribution of a population B) a change in the frequency of genes in a population because of tectonic plate movement C) a change in the frequency of a species' occurrence D) a change in the frequency of a population's genes because of mutation E) a change in the frequency of a population's inherited trait brought about by a chance event

30)

31) The lowest fertility rates may be found in _ _. A) developing countries B) countries providing opportunities for women's education C) developed countries D) in places with poor health care systems E) where access to birth control is limited

31)

32) In meiosis are formed, which only have one set of chromosomes. A) spores B) somatic cells C) daughter cells D) gametes E) zygotes

32)

33) Population growth is determined by . A) birth, death, and environmental resistance B) birth, death, and total fertility C) birth, death, and emigration D) birth, death, and net migration E) birth, death, and doubling time

33)

34) An S-shaped population growth curve best describes A) exponential growth B) unlimited growth C) slow and constantly changing growth D) rapid and steady rate growth E) logistic growth

34)

35) Different insect species may not pollinate a plant because of the shape or color of its flowers. This is best described as . A) structural isolation B) behavioral isolation C) disruptive isolation D) reproductive isolation E) geographic isolation

35)

36) Scientists often depict their understanding of an organism's evolutionary ancestry in diagrams best by . A) ancestral trees B) taxonomic trees C) phylogenetic trees D) hierarchical trees E) classification trees

36)

37) If a tiger and a lion were to mate, what may be a result? A) Breeding barriers will not allow the mating to occur. B) A new species forms and replication allows the population to flourish. C) The chance of fertility in female offspring increases. D) Sterile or partially sterile offspring are produced. E) The species are genetically appropriate and contribute to the exponential growth in the population.

37)

38) A kingdom in the hierarchical system of classification can be defined as . A) a major subdivision of a phylum or a division containing one or more orders of their subgroup B) a group of similar individuals that are able to interbred with one another in the world C) a major subdivision of an order containing one or more genera and their subgroups D) a major subdivision of a family containing one or more species E) an overall category containing organisms that share fundamental structures and functions

38)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 39) Match the following terms with the correct definition.

39)

I. Death Rate II. Birth Rate III. Exponential Growth Rate IV. Total Fertility Rate V. Population Growth Rate A. The multiple by which an exponentially growing population increases B. The number of individuals dying per unit of time expressed as a percentage of the population size C. The number of births in the population expressed as a percentage of the population size D. The number of new individuals added to a population in each generation E. The potential number of offspring that an average female in a population can produce ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 40) How would Darwin explain the origin of over a dozen different species of finches on the Galapagos Islands, when it was thought that only one species was the original parent species for all? 41) Population growth rates of various key species are important to understand, as large growth rates of any one species can easily affect the natural resources within an ecosystem. Assume that a population of 200 exotic parrots (all of the same species) accidentally escaped from a Miami zoo during a recent hurricane. After intense efforts, 215 are recaptured one year later. Calculate the population growth rate of this parrot species, and based on this growth rate, explain how long it would have taken for this population to double in size, if they had not been recaptured.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 04_3E

1) B 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) D 6) E 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) E 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) E 16) E 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) A 24) D 25) E 26) A 27) C 28) A 29) B 30) E 31) B 32) D 33) D 34) E 35) A 36) C 37) D 38) E 39) I. B, II. C, III. D, IV. E, V. A 40) At the heart of Darwin's explanation is his theory of natural selection, which states that within any species there is a natural variation for any given trait (in this case, beak size and shape). Once the parent species began to populate the various islands in the Galapagos, there were different selective forces at work on the finches because each island had slightly different physical parameters (for example, different temperatures and precipitation resulting in different vegetation). In the process of natural selection, individuals in a population that are most fit for that particular condition survive and leave more offspring, causing their adaptations to become more common in the population. Therefore, on the more desert/dry islands where smaller seeds were prevalent, finches that had smaller beaks were better suited and flourished. After several generations, the population on this island became mostly small-beaked finches. On one island, a species of finch actually evolved to use small sticks or cactus spines to prod insects from crevices and holes in trees, as there were very few seeds on this island. 25

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 04_2E

41)

Final population - Initial population × 100 = population growth rate Initial population 215 - 200 × 100 = 7.5% growth rate 200 70 ÷ growth rate = doubling time in years 70 ÷ 7.5 = 9.3 years in order for population to double

Chapter 5 Human Population Growth MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Globally, what is the main reason that life expectancy has increased dramatically over the last five decades? A) improved health care, nutrition, and sanitation B) migration to cities C) improved clean water supplies D) more food to feed more people but distribution is poor so people still go hungry E) better family planning efforts in developed countries

2) Within a country, push factors are conditions characterized by _ A) religious and cultural freedoms B) drought, famine, or war C) overabundance of resources D) improved family planning E) government tax incentives

3) The extent to which you consume ecosystem goods and services is described in terms of your . A) age-structure B) fertility rate C) ecological footprint D) ecosystem function E) biocapacity

4) When considering the world population as a whole, birth rates and death rates enable one to calculate _ _. A) the proportions of fertile women in a population B) the increase or decrease in the population C) the causes of infant mortality in a population D) the causes of death in a population E) the relative rates of immigration and emigration

5) Which statement most accurately describes the population control efforts in India? A) Changing public attitudes about family size and timing through education and counseling. B) A one-child policy that is enforced through taxation works best for controlling population. C) Increasing child survival, elevating status and employment levels for women, and increasing literacy in the general population will decrease fertility rates. D) Lack of education and health care and improved opportunities for women decreases fertility rates E) There is little governmental financial support for birth control for all couples.

6) Which of the following is not a reason that poor families in developing countries might have many children? A) to assure care of parents in their old age B) Children are helpers for essential chores on the farm. C) Most children survive beyond one year. D) The more males born to a family, the better it is for managing the family farm or business. E) high mortality among the young

7) Which of the following best describes the human population from early times to the present? A) slow, uneven growth until the 1800s, then increasingly rapid growth B) early rapid growth, which has increased rapidly in the last 20 years C) slow, steady growth throughout the period D) early rapid growth, which has leveled off to a nearly constant rate in the last 20 years E) rapid, explosive growth throughout the period

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. In China, the one-child population policy has significantly diminished population growth rates, and zero-population growth effects are hoped for as soon as 2030. In various areas throughout the world different population control strategies are being implemented in an effort to reduce population growth and achieve replacement fertility. Use this information to answer the following questions. 8) Globally, which of the following population control strategies has the greatest impact on fertility rates? A) the rhythm method B) gifts as a reward for having only one child C) education for women D) health care for men E) immunizations for childbearing mothers

9) What population control strategy has a big impact on population growth without infringing on people's rights to reproduce? A) Mexico's taxation on large families B) immunizations for babies over age 2 C) China's one-child population policy D) India's family planning ministry E) sterilization

10) According to this figure depicting Niger's population transition, during which decade did the birth rate exceed the death rate? A) 1990-2000 B) 1970-1980 C) 1950-1960 D) That is not projected on this graph. E) 2010-2040

10)

11) In Latin America from 1600 to 1900 the vast majority of families lived on farms, people were very poor, and many were malnourished. The next stage of demographic transition should be followed by a period where _. A) population growth rates declined as people lived longer and were more wealthy, well-nourished and educated B) improved economic conditions relieve food shortages, health care and the death rate declines C) clean water, less disease, and higher literacy contributed to lower birth rates D) yellow fever and malaria are widespread and the survival ages is less than 30 years old E) the population stabilizes and the movement toward zero population growth continues

11)

12) By what percentage has the Earth's population grown in the last 20 years? A) 30% B) 40% C) 10% D) 20%

12)

E) 50%

13) The most serious problem caused by population growth is A) too few jobs B) increasing demand for all resources C) lack of farmland to meet food needs D) crowding E) inefficient food transportation 14) The lowest total fertility rates might be found in A) places with poor health care systems B) places with poor sanitation C) countries providing education for women D) developing countries E) countries where access to birth control is limited

13)

14)

15) According to this figure depicting Niger's population, when did the country enter the second stage of the demographic transition? A) 1950-1960

B) 1990-2000

C) 1960-1970

D) 1975-1980

E) 2000-2010

15)

16) In the early stages of fertility transition, what is happening with birth and death rates in this demographic transition graph?

16)

A) Birth rates are increasing and death rates are decreasing. B) Birth and death rates are decreasing. C) Birth rates are decreasing and death rates are increasing. D) Birth and death rates are stable. E) Birth and death rates are increasing. 17) It is estimated that the ratio of the population of developing countries to developed countries by 2050 will be _. A) 2:1 B) 1:2 C) 1:4 D) 6:1 E) 1:6

17)

18) The current total world population is A) 7 billion B) 9 billion

18)

. C) 8 billion

D) 5 billion

19) In order for a human population to be sustainable, its actual numbers must be A) below the carrying capacity B) above the carrying capacity C) above its biocapacity D) below its ecological footprint E) above its ecological footprint

E) 6 billion .

20) In the early part of the 20th century in the U.S., Margaret Sanger succeeded in making significant contributions toward _ by providing access to contraception to poor women. A) promoting the baby boom B) bringing attention to the problem of decreasing food supply C) family planning D) disease prevention E) bringing attention to the need for women's education in Africa

19)

20)

21) Based on information in this figure on birth rates and wealth, what can be inferred about a population's birth rate as it relates to the Gross Domestic Product in the country?

A) Wealthier countries have higher birth rates. B) Poorer countries have lower birth rates. C) Birth rates are higher in countries with lower wealth because the women are younger when they give birth. D) Wealthier countries have higher birth rates because people can afford more children. E) Birth rates are higher in countries with lower wealth because the women are older when they give birth.

21)

22) Which statement most accurately describes the population control efforts in China? A) Increasing child survival, elevating status and employment levels for women, and increasing literacy in the general population will decrease fertility rates. B) A one-child policy that requires all women to work and education for all decreases fertility rates. C) There is minimal governmental financial support for birth control for all couples. D) A one-child policy that is enforced through taxation and penalties works best for controlling population. E) Changing public attitudes about family size through communication, education, counseling, and contraceptives can reduce the population growth rates.

22)

23) Early in the 18th century, Thomas Malthus recognized the connection between human population growth and . A) increasing death rates because of the effects of Industrial Revolution B) resource availability C) increasing medical issues leading to high mortality D) decreasing birth rates E) the geographical size of the country

23)

24) In the demographic transition model, the highest growth rate in a country is likely to occur during . A) stage 1, the pretransition stage B) stage 2, the mortality transitional stage C) stage 3, the fertility transition stage D) stage 4, the postindustrial or modern stage E) stage 5, the stability transition stage

24)

25) The infant mortality rate is the percentage of children who die before the age of A) 1 year B) 1 month C) 2 years D) 6 months

25)

. E) 5 years

26) Innovations in agriculture have increased food supply. This has allowed human populations to grow to approximately _ by the end of the agriculture period. A) 1 million B) 500 million C) 1.5 billion D) 1 billion E) 100 million

26)

27) Which of the following countries created a policy aimed at stabilizing populations by urging couples to have only one child? A) Kenya B) Mexico C) India D) Russia E) China

27)

28) Approximately how many years ago did our species, Homo sapiens, begin to migrate out of Africa and settle in Europe, Asia, and Australia? A) 1,000 years B) 10,000 years C) 1 million years D) 100 million years E) 100,000 years

28)

29) The first stage of demographic transition is characterized primarily by _ A) first availability of medical care B) high food supplies C) high death rates D) over consumption of resources E) low birth rates

29)

30) In developing countries, a major characteristic of efforts to curb population growth that has been the most successful includes . A) improved health care for all employed workers B) increased education for women C) better health care for infants D) increased education for men E) knowledge of birth control

30)

31) In an age-structure pyramid, the most critical age span for women in order to determine the current fertility rate potential is _ . A) 25-45 B) 21-45 C) 15-49 D) 15-35 E) 25-49

31)

32) The term demographic transition refers to . A) the decline in death rates followed by decline in birth rates when a country develops a strong economy B) the decline in death rates followed by a decline in birth rates that occurred because sanitation levels in areas improved C) a requirement for a population to reach a specific size before it becomes stable D) the slowing down in the growth of a population as it approaches its biocapacity E) the slowing down in the growth of a population as it approaches the carrying capacity

32)

33) What is a result when birth rates and death rates reach equal numbers? A) biocapacity B) zero population growth C) changing demography D) demographic transition E) baby boom

33)

34) Zero population growth can be achieved in a population when . A) total fertility rate exceeds the average replacement rate B) ecological footprints are larger than carrying capacity C) carrying capacity is larger than ecological footprint D) birth rates equal death rates E) the approach is having as many children in the first five years of marriage

34)

35) If the total world population reaches 13 billion, what is one issue that consumers will need to address to maintain the population on Earth while considering carrying capacity of the Earth itself? A) Since biocapacity will be less than carrying capacity, consumption in developing countries can increase. B) Resource demand will need to be limited in only developed countries. C) Behavior, lifestyles, and expectations will need to follow a path of minimizing consumption of resources. D) Behavior, attitudes and lifestyles will need to follow a path of increasing consumption of resources. E) Resources will need to be limited in only developing countries.

35)

36) In using the IPAT equation, much of the impact of affluence and technology is associated with . A) sustainable development of goods and services B) producing more waste and dealing with water contamination C) consumption of water and production of waste D) consumer demand for technology E) use of energy to generate electricity and power cars

36)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 37) Match the following terms with the correct definition.

37)

I. Birth Rate II. Total Fertility Rate III. Death Rate IV. Infant Mortality Rate V. Age Specific Birth Rate A. The number of individuals dying per unit of time expressed as a percentage of the population size B. The number of children born in a year per 1,000 women in a defined age group C. The number of births in the population expressed as a percentage of the population size D. The potential number of offspring that an average female in a population can produce E. The percent of infants within a population that die before age one ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 38) The forecasts of world population growth made by population modelers Pearl and Gould in 1936 contrasted greatly with that of Meadows and Meadows made in 1972. Since all models are based on specific assumptions, explain the major differences in assumptions between these two models. Also include the major characteristics of the current UN population growth forecast. 39) The total fertility rate among Italian women in 2010 was 1.4, whereas it was nearly 4.5 for women in the African country of Ivory Coast. What do these numbers mean? How are they likely to relate to the actual number of children per woman in each country and why? How are they likely to change in the future?

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 05_3E

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) B 5) A 6) C 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) C 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) C 21) C 22) D 23) B 24) B 25) D 26) B 27) E 28) E 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) E 37) I. C, II. D, III. A, IV. E, V. B 38) Pearl and Gould's model was based on the very limited data available in the 1930s. This was a time of widespread economic depression, and demographers assumed that worldwide poverty would continue, decreasing birth rates and increasing death rates. Their model argued for a slowing global population growth and estimated the world carrying capacity at 2.6 billion. However, following World War II, high birth rates and declining death rates were experienced for the next several decades, and Meadows and Meadows predicted a world population surpassing 7.4 billion by the year 2000, and 15 billion people by 2050. Their model was based on the assumption that the birth rates and death rates of the 1960s would continue. The UN prediction is somewhere between these two estimates, predicting an ever-decreasing population growth rate, as people in many developing countries begin having children later in life and fewer children. The United Nations forecasts a world population reaching approximately 9.3 billion by the year 2050.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 05_2E

39) Total fertility rate refers to the hypothetical number of children that a woman would have if she survived her entire reproductive lifetime. In Italy, the TFR is very close to the actual average because medical care is good and most women survive through menopause (their reproductive lifetime). In Ivory Coast, the TFR is probably greater than the actual average for women because mortality among women is high during their reproductive lifetime. TFR will likely decrease in both countries in the future, especially in developing countries where women's education and opportunities are increasing.

Chapter 6 Communities and

Ecosystems

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Mutualism is _ . A) a relationship in which two species have a mutual predator B) a relationship between a beneficial predator and its prey C) a relationship between two species in which both benefit D) a relationship with no benefits to either species E) a relationship between two species in which only one benefits

2) Consumers are . A) organisms that feed on other living organisms B) organisms that feed on dead organic matter C) organisms that feed on soils and soil nutrients D) organisms that feed on one another E) organisms that feed on decomposers

3) The greatest terrestrial net primary production can be seen to occur A) in Africa B) in North America C) in South America D) in Eurasia E) in equatorial latitudes

4) One of the longest field studies of predator-prey population cycles has been of A) flying squirrels and grizzly bear B) bison and prairie grass C) lynx and snowshoe hares D) grizzly bear and humans E) moose and fox

5) Which of the following is an ecological legacy? A) water B) fire C) logging of forests D) woody debris left after a fire E) hurricane

6) Using only the information provided by this figure, which species of warbler appears to have the greatest competitive advantage?

A) black-throated warbler B) myrtle warbler C) bay Breasted warbler D) Blackburnian warbler E) Cape May warbler 7) Chipmunks and flying squirrels competing for truffles is an example of A) habitat competition B) interference competition C) interspecific competition D) intraspecific competition E) exploitation competition

9) What makes it possible for the coexistence of several warbler species that feed on the same insect larvae? A) Some of the warblers are diurnal and some nocturnal. B) The birds eat in the same area of different fir and spruce trees. C) The birds eat in the different portions of the forest canopy. D) The birds eat in the same portion of different evergreens. E) The warblers do not experience intraspecies competition.

10) Net ecosystem production values (NEP) will always be positive as a result of A) high levels of respiration B) low NPP C) high levels of photosynthesis D) high GPP and increases in biomass during succession E) high GPP and a constant biomass

10)

11) Demodex folliculorum are tiny mites that live in the pores of your face. Being that you were probably unaware they existed until now this would be an example of . A) assimilation B) predation C) parasitism D) mutualism E) commensalism

11)

12) The approximate transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level is . A) unable to be determined B) increasing, the higher one goes in the food web C) 10% D) a 50% decrease E) 1%

12)

13) During old-field succession, the graph clearly shows that the number of species increases with time. During what period of time is this rate of increase the greatest?

13)

A) 60-100 years B) 40-60 years C) 0-20 years D) 20-40 years E) cannot be determined from this data

14) Humans are a(n) A) phosphorus B) oxygen C) carbon D) nitrogen E) hydrogen 15) Fig species depend on A) bees B) ants C) mosquitoes D) butterflies E) wasps

-based life form.

14)

_ to transfer pollen from male to female flowers.

16) The symbiosis between a fungus and the roots of a tree is an example of A) commensalism B) trophic cascade C) mutualism D) mutual dependency E) succession

15)

17) Mutualistic relationships between bacteria and certain root nodules play an important role in the global cycling of . A) carbon B) water C) rock D) nitrogen E) phosphorus

16)

17)

18) This figure best depicts

18)

A) the energy implications of increasing energy for ecosystem utilization B) the energy implications of the 10% law C) the consequences of decomposers in an ecosystem D) the energy cycling consequences of the 10% law E) nutrient cycling in an ecosystem 19) Since the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, the increased flux of carbon into the atmosphere has been primarily because of . A) desertification B) burning of fossil fuels C) addition of phosphate in detergents D) deforestation E) addition of fertilizers to the soil

19)

20) What makes up an ecological community? A) all the plants, animals, and organisms in the ecosystem B) all the plants, animals, and organisms interacting in a specific area C) different species of the same type of animal within a specific area D) species that use the same resources E) all the plants, animals, and organisms in the biome

20)

21) The feeding interactions among species in a community are best described as a(n) A) trophic level B) trophic cascade C) food web D) succession E) energy flow 22) An organism occupying the 3rd trophic level is best described as a A) tertiary consumer B) predator C) secondary consumer D) top carnivore E) keystone species

21)

22)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. In the late 1800s the federal government began eradicating the grey wolf from Yellowstone because of fear that the wolf population would have a negative impact on the area's elk, which were considered a more desirable species at that time. The eradication of this keystone species continued until the 1930s, when wolves were effectively eliminated from the lower 48 states. In the absence of wolves, elk populations begin to explode and that, in turn, resulted in what has become known as a trophic cascade. Use this information to answer the following questions on the effects of keystone species eradication and the resulting trophic cascade. 23) What was the primary reason that the beaver and songbird populations were also diminished from the area? A) The plants that the beaver and songbirds ate were diminishing, because of the elk's increased herbivore pressure. B) The temperatures in the area were warming, making it difficult for the beavers and songbirds to survive in warmer weather. C) The rivers were full of sediment, making it difficult for beaver to swim and songbirds to drink water. D) The wolf population was feeding on the beaver and songbirds. E) The elk population was feeding on the beaver and songbirds.

23)

24) Why might there be a lot of spacing between the desert plants shown growing in this photo?

24)

A) The plants exploit water and nutrients preventing other shrubs from establishing in their area. B) The plants need room to grow and expand as they mature. C) The plants exploit the nitrogen produced in the atmosphere causing only stronger plants to survive the harsh desert-like environment. D) The roots of strong plants are established and force other plants out because they are more mature. E) The other plants around them have died because there is not enough space in the desert area where they grow. 25) Chestnut blight fungus kills U.S. chestnut trees because the trees . A) have not matured long enough to survive B) release the fungus in the leaves that fall to the ground and the fungus is absorbed in the soil C) release the fungus into the soil and it is drawn up in the roots D) are hosts to the vectors of the fungus E) have not coevolved with the fungus

25)

26) Several warbler species are able to coexist in the same forest because . A) they feed in different parts of the fir and spruce trees B) the water they drink is the food source for the plankton they eat C) different birds eat different larvae from the soil D) they feed on the same larvae E) season change within the forest causing certain species of the birds to fly south in the winter leaving more food for those that remain

26)

27) Which of the following is the best approach to minimize the spread of parasitic beetles in a pine-dominated forest? A) introducing maples, oaks, and other hardwood tree species B) planting additional pines once some trees die C) releasing sterile wasps into the forest D) using pesticides to kill the beetles

27)

28) In this grassland ecosystem, where is the most chemical energy located?

28)

A) decomposers B) 1st trophic level C) 2nd trophic level D) 3rd trophic level E) 4th trophic level 29) In succession, facilitation refers to . A) species sharing space, environment, and resources B) competition for space by different populations of species C) species creating competition for food and water making it harder for species succession D) species altering the environment around them in ways that make it more habitable for other species E) the migration of plant species

29)

30) The monarch butterfly-milkweed relationship is best described as an example of A) succession B) commensalism C) carnivory D) coevolution E) parasitism 31) Flying squirrels competing with each other for truffles is an example of A) interspecific competition B) habitat competition C) interference competition D) intraspecific competition E) exploitation competition

30)

31)

32) A vector is an organism that . A) preys upon vulnerable species B) is beneficial to parasitized organisms C) a host species vulnerable to infection D) carries a parasite but is never affected by it E) is always parasitic

32)

33) A large scale wildfire that clears a large area of forest would begin the process of _ succession. A) secondary B) tertiary C) primary D) climax E) restoration

33)

34) Tertiary consumers are usually in which trophic level? A) decomposers B) 1st trophic level C) 2nd trophic level D) 3rd trophic level E) 4th trophic level

34)

35) Animals such as earthworms and millipedes that feed on dead organic matter are A) decomposers B) producers C) carnivores D) consumers E) herbivores

36) The total amount of CO2 that photosynthetic organisms convert to organic carbon each year is called . A) organic carbon assimilation B) carbohydrate synthesis C) NEP D) NPP E) GPP

35)

36)

37) Which of the following are pioneer species on recently glaciated rock? A) lichens and mosses B) spruce and fir trees C) maples and redwoods D) evergreens and fir trees E) herbs and shrubs 38) Herbivores feed on A) parasites

. B) plants

37)

38) C) fungi

D) animals

E) bacteria

39) Primary producers transform energy from sunlight and certain inorganic chemicals into A) biomass fuel B) galactose C) low-energy carbohydrates D) high-energy carbohydrates E) biomass energy

39)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 40) Most organisms feed on something in their ecological community. Match the organism with what they feed on or live on in the ecosystem. I. II. III. IV. V.

Consumer Predator Herbivore Vector Parasite

A. B. C. D. E.

Carry a parasite to other organisms Feed on other living organisms Hunt and kill animals for food Live on plants and animals but usually do not kill them Feed on plants

40)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Describe the major factors that influence the process of change during primary succession on bare rock exposed by a retreating glacier. 42) The distinguished ecologist G. Evelyn Hutchinson provided one of the most important explanations for how competing species can coexist. Explain his fundamental niche concept, and how he would account for closely related species coexisting. 43) Explain the two major processes that drive the normal functioning of the carbon cycle, and then discuss two ways in which humans have negatively impacted this cycle.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 06_3E

1) C 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) D 6) B 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) D 11) E 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) E 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) A 24) A 25) E 26) A 27) A 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) A 34) E 35) A 36) E 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) I. B, II. C, III. E, IV. A, V. D 41) Primary succession will result where a major disturbance has removed virtually all life, such as occurs with a retreating glacier from bare rock. Within several years, pioneer species such as lichens and mosses are able to colonize the rock surface, since these species are easily dispersed and able to tolerate the harsh conditions of this initial environment. These pioneer species will release small amounts of organic matter as they grow and die, modifying the rock surface, making it more favorable for other more complex species. Herbaceous plants and small shrubs begin to replace the original lichens and mosses, out-competing them. These new species, too, modify the environment, and are likewise replaced by other species such as woody plants and trees. Eventually, species become established which create environments that favor their own survival, and are adapted to the specific temperature and rainfall in their region. These species are known as the climax community and will likely be maintained until a major disturbance (i.e. fire or flood) alters the community, possibly to an earlier stage of succession. 12

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 06_2E

42) Hutchinson suggested that each species has a fundamental niche, a range of environmental conditions (such as its requirement for temperature, food, and water), over which the species might possibly exist. Hutchinson noted that few species actually grow and reproduce in all parts of their theoretical range. Rather, each species usually exists only where they are able to compete effectively against other species: its realized niche. In the 1930s, the biologist G. F. Gause studied interspecific competition, ultimately postulating the competitive exclusion principle: when two species directly compete for essential resources, one species will eventually displace the other. In other words, Hutchinson explained that when the fundamental niche of two species significantly overlaps, these potential competitors are able to coexist because they divide up the fundamental niche, as no two species can occupy the same realized niche. 43) Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are the key processes involved in carbon's flux between the biosphere and the atmosphere. Normally carbon (C) contributes only a miniscule amount (0.032%) to the total mass of the lithosphere and atmosphere. During photosynthesis, CO2 is removed from the atmosphere by green plants, algae, and cyanobacteria, where it enters into a series of chemical reactions using light energy to add hydrogen ions and electrons, finally producing energy-rich carbohydrates. All organisms (photosynthetic as well as non-photosynthetic) access this energy through the process of cellular respiration, during which the carbohydrate is broken down, releasing CO2 back to the atmosphere. Deforestation and the burning of fossil fuels have greatly altered this dynamic that has existed between photosynthesis and cellular respiration. Scientists estimate that today, humans harvest approximately 32-40% of global NPP, having replaced natural ecosystems with farmland, cities, and suburbs. This has significantly diminished the amount of carbon stored in Earth's terrestrial ecosystems. For example, when a tropical forest is cleared and converted to pasture, a great amount of CO2 is released into the atmosphere. The burning of fossil fuels has also had a profound effect on Earth's carbon cycle. Between human land use and the burning of fossil fuels, human activities are raising the concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere by about 1% per year.

Chapter 7 The Geography of Life MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following best describes a marsh? A) wetland with peat deposits that support a variety of evergreen trees and shrubs B) wetlands that are fed primarily from lakes and rivers C) wetlands dominated by shrubs or trees that are fed by flowing water D) wetlands that are periodically or continuously flooded and are dominated by herbaceous plants E) wetlands that are fed primarily by groundwater

2) The area along seacoasts that are dominated by tidal activity and go through cycles of exposure and submergence are . A) littoral zone B) aphotic zone C) pelagic zone D) estuaries E) intertidal zone

3) Where is it likely that forest and woodland cover will increase?

A) South America B) Arctic C) Europe D) Asia E) North America

4) The biome with the greatest number of ecological niches and highest species diversity is A) chaparral B) boreal forest C) deciduous forest D) desert E) tropical rain forest 5) When is the dormant season for most plants in the temperate zone? A) fall B) late fall C) winter D) summer 6) Most of the tall grass prairie of North America has been converted to A) tropical rain forest B) savannas C) farmland D) desert E) tundra 7) Abundant light and constant nutrient input make on Earth. A) streams B) estuaries C) fens

5) E) spring .

among the most productive ecosystems

D) lakes

8) Natural bodies of fresh water that are flowing are described by scientists as A) aquifers B) estuaries C) tidal basins D) lentic E) lotic

E) bogs .

9) Where do most human populations live? A) in the temperate zone B) in the tropical zone C) in the desert D) in the savanna E) in the mountainous zone

10) Deforestation causes greenhouse gases to increase in the Earth's atmosphere of the release of . A) phosphorous B) silicon C) nitrous oxide D) carbon dioxide E) nitrogen

10)

11) Which biome is characterized by little rainfall, low grasses and shrubs, and cold temperatures? A) grasslands B) desert C) savanna D) deciduous forest E) tundra

11)

12) What one thing remains relatively constant through the seasons in tropical biomes? A) temperature B) precipitation C) sunlight D) greenhouse gas levels E) moisture

12)

13) In which biome are most succulents most likely to grow? A) tropical forest B) desert C) grasslands D) boreal forest E) chaparral

13)

14) Along coastlines, sand dunes will most often begin to form and grow when A) perennial grasses become established B) annual plants become established C) birds carry tree seeds to the area, which then become established D) diverse grasses and woody shrubs thrive E) erosion and subsequent deposition bring in the necessary sand 15) How much of Earth's surface is desert? A) 30% B) 40%

14)

15) C) 35%

D) 45%

E) 25%

16) Which biome has been degraded the most by humans? A) desert B) tropical rain forest C) tundra D) savannas E) temperate grasslands

16)

17) The biome that is increasing significantly in size because of negative human activities is the . A) evergreen forest B) desert C) savanna D) deciduous forest E) grassland

17)

18) The greatest threat to tropical rain forests is A) lack of rainfall B) birds feeding in canopies of many trees C) deforestation D) pesticide use E) high nitrogen levels in the soil

18)

19) Abandonment of croplands has resulted in more forests covering the States.

A) eastern

B) southern

C) western

D) northern

_ part of the United

19)

E) southwest

20) The landscape along interstate 70 was changed drastically over the last 175 years. What is now seen on the landscape that was not seen in the past? A) herbs B) dense woodlands C) bunchgrasses D) sagebrush E) grasslands

20)

21) Where are temperate rain forests most common? A) polar region B) mountain regions C) tropical regions D) desert regions E) coastal regions

21)

22) Agriculture and cattle grazing have altered over 90% of this biome. A) tropical forest B) chaparral C) temperate grasslands D) boreal forest E) deciduous forest 23) Communities of similar organisms found in a particular climate are called A) pools B) ecosystems C) biomes D) ecological communities E) habitats

22)

23)

24) What two main factors are most important in determining a particular biome? A) temperature and precipitation B) transpiration and soil type C) vegetation and animal distribution D) temperature and fire frequency E) temperature and soil type

24)

25) Mountains are a geographical feature found in many biomes. The rain shadow effect is where . A) rainfall fluctuates, arriving in equal amounts on both sides B) the wet region is determined by the location of jet stream C) rainfall fluctuates, but always falls in shadow areas D) the dry region is on the leeward side of the mountain E) the wet region is on the leeward side of the mountain

25)

26) The biome characterized by rapid nutrient cycling, high productivity, and very little organic matter in the soil is the _ . A) taiga B) tropical rain forest C) grassland D) tundra E) desert

26)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Scientists are currently using data from satellite images and climate simulation models to predict the effects of global warming on the distribution of biomes. Results from this research are being used by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change to predict how global warming will cause biomes to shift. On some continents, these scientists are predicting forests spreading; however, when it comes to deserts and tropical biomes, they are finding predictions much more challenging, as it is uncertain how warmer temperatures will affect rainfall. 27) Understanding the basics of global climate change effects, the findings of this research on shifting biomes is most likely to predict _ _. A) boreal forests shifting south B) boreal forests shifting north to tundra regions C) tundra regions shifting north to polar ice caps D) temperate deciduous forests moving south E) deserts shrinking globally

27)

28) Which biome is home to more plant and animal species than any other? A) tropical rain forest B) evergreen forest C) deciduous forest D) grassland E) savanna

28)

29) The United States is in the

29)

_ zone.

A) temperate B) continental C) tropical D) desert E) polar

30) Places on Earth that have similar climates often support plants and animals with similar physical and physiological traits. The best explanation of this phenomenon is . A) migration of species B) convergent evolution C) speciation D) natural selection E) divergent evolution

30)

31) The shallow, sloped area close to the shore of a lake that tends to be dominated by rooted plants is the . A) halocline B) littoral zone C) benthic zone D) thermocline E) aphotic zone

31)

32) Short grass prairie is being converted to

32)

along 1-70.

A) woodlands B) savanna C) tall-grass prairie D) desert E) mixed-grass prairie 33) Lakes and ponds are bodies of freshwater that are not moving and referred to as A) lotic B) eutrophic C) lentic D) stagnant 34) Which biome would be found primarily in the temperate zone? A) tundra B) deciduous forest C) desert D) boreal forest E) savanna

. E) open

33)

34)

35) Tropical savanna is being converted to erosion. A) taiga B) tundra C) paramo D) desert E) tropical rain forest

biome because of overgrazing, loss of grasses and

36) Which group of organisms has been most impacted by the loss of both deciduous and tropical forests? A) rabbits B) migratory birds C) spotted owls D) insects E) flying squirrels

35)

36)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Scientists are currently using data from satellite images and climate simulation models to predict the effects of global warming on the distribution of biomes. Results from this research are being used by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change to predict how global warming will cause biomes to shift. On some continents, these scientists are predicting forests spreading; however, when it comes to deserts and tropical biomes, they are finding predictions much more challenging, as it is uncertain how warmer temperatures will affect rainfall. 37) The satellite remote sensing involved in this biome project is most likely measuring what specific parameter of Earth's surface? A) sea-level rise B) extent of continental ice cover C) El Niño effects D) geology E) leaf cover

37)

38) The difference between the wetland category of marsh and swamp is A) the dominance of shrubs and trees in a swamp B) that water is much deeper in a marsh C) water flows in a swamp and not in a marsh D) the dominance of herbaceous plants in swamps E) water flows in a marsh and not in a swamp

38)

39) Which biome is diagrammed in the accompanying figure?

39)

A) desert B) tundra C) boreal forest D) tropical savanna E) chaparral SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 40) Match the forest with the description that best describes the biome.

40)

I. Tropical rain forest II. Temperate deciduous forest III. Temperate rain forest IV. Boreal forest V. Temperate evergreen forest A. Annual rainfall is greater than 80 inches; rainfall an warm climate support an enormous diversity of plants and animals. B. Coniferous forests that grow in a short season with long, dry and bitterly cold winter days C. Dominated by broad-leaved trees that lose their leaves in the fall and grow a new set in the spring D. Dominated by trees that keep their leaves throughout the year E. Lush evergreen forests where heavy rains and year round moisture provide ideal conditions along coastal areas ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Discuss three specific environmental consequences of tropical rain forest destruction. Be sure to include why we should be concerned about each of these environmental consequences. 42) Discuss the two factors that are most important in the distribution of biomes? Choose one biome and explain how these two factors impact the specific plants and animals found in this biome.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 07_3E

1) D 2) E 3) B 4) E 5) C 6) C 7) B 8) E 9) A 10) D 11) E 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) E 16) E 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) E 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) B 27) B 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) B 32) D 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) B 37) E 38) A 39) C 40) I. A, II. C, III. E, IV. B, V. D

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 07_2E

41) One environmental consequence of tropical rain forest destruction includes potential extinction of species. Much of the high species diversity in tropical rain forests is a consequence of evolution that has produced very specialized ecological niches. Many of these specialized species thrive within very restricted geographic ranges, making them extremely vulnerable to permanent elimination. Since many of these species have not been identified/studied, we are possibly eliminating species helpful to medicine and/or potential food sources. A second environmental consequence is the elimination of the natural nutrient cycling and productivity, which this great diversity of tropical forest plants represents. When forests are removed, the thin nutrient-poor tropical soils are exposed to the high levels of rainfall, and erosion results. The croplands that often replace the forests are able to grow food for only a short period of time, and when abandoned, results in even further soil erosion. A third consequence of tropical forest destruction is the elimination of their potential to take up and store carbon (in the form of CO2 during photosynthesis). This last concern is of particular issue for climate change, as deforestation is contributing to the increase in the greenhouse gas, CO2, in Earth's atmosphere. Increases in atmospheric CO2 have been directly linked with global temperature increases. 42) Temperature and precipitation are the two factors that determine the distribution of biomes. As average precipitation and temperature increase, the growing season is often longer, and with more water, photosynthetic rates increase, and vegetation becomes more lush and varied. For example, in the desert, with very little rainfall, the growing season is short, sometimes lasting less than a month. The plants that do thrive have evolved specialized adaptations to conserve water (reduced leaf surfaces, thorns/spines rather than leaves, and waxy leaf surfaces). Animal species have also evolved water conserving behaviors (nocturnal activity rather than diurnal feeding behavior and hibernation during the time of year with the highest temperatures). Many desert rodents also use water so efficiently that they are able to survive on the water generated from their food alone.

Chapter 8 Biodiversity Conservation MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Forest songbirds have been declining for the past century in the United States. Evidence is accumulating and pointing to as the most likely reason. A) population viability B) endemic species vulnerability C) habitat fragmentation D) migration corridor implementation E) island biogeography

2) This graph depicting island diversity predicts that

A) large islands far away from the mainland will have the least species B) large islands close to the mainland will have the most species C) small islands close to the mainland will have the least species D) size and distance to the mainland do not matter for island species E) small islands close to the mainland will have the most species 3) The greatest concern for the worldwide loss of species is _ A) habitat destruction B) decreased soil nutrients C) air pollution D) anthropogenic activities E) water pollution

4) What percentage of Earth's land surface is legally designated as preserves? A) 31% B) 1% C) 12% D) 22%

4) E) 7%

5) Within populations of individual species, biodiversity is measured as A) population viability B) ecosystem diversity C) genetic diversity D) species richness E) species evenness

6) Biodiversity is _ . A) the relative abundance of the different species in a community B) the total number of species in a location C) difference in variety and abundance of species from place to place D) the three dimensional distribution of species and biological features E) the variety of life in all its forms and combinations and at all levels of organization

7) Most of the 80% of animals that live on land are A) birds B) horses C) insects

8) Of all the threats to biodiversity, the single greatest threat is A) invasive species B) habitat fragmentation C) overharvesting species D) pollution E) habitat destruction

D) cattle

E) fish

9) Which biome has the greatest biological diversity? A) deserts B) temperate deciduous forest C) oceans D) tropical rain forest E) grassland

10) Air and water pollution are directly responsible for the loss of some species. In their studies of these pollution effects, biologists have determined that are especially sensitive to air pollution, and are now being used as an index of urban air quality. A) warblers B) deciduous trees C) lichens D) evergreen trees E) songbirds

10)

11) Overharvesting is a serious threat to _ A) songbirds B) wheat C) fisheries D) deer E) insect pollinators

11)

12) Habitat fragmentation has been an important factor in the decline of States. A) manatee B) shad and salmon C) Kirtland's warbler D) eastern hemlock E) coral reef

species in the United

13) According to the Endangered Species Act, species whose population is reduced to near critical levels but is not on the brink of extinction is said to be . A) threatened B) endangered C) replaceable D) extinct E) critical

12)

13)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. In the 2001 regular session of the Oregon Legislative Assembly, House Bill 3564 was enacted by the people of the State of Oregon to encourage private landowners to manage their land for the purposes of maintaining the long-term ecological, economic, and social values of the land. The lands will be managed sustainably through tax policy, land use planning, education, and technical and financial incentives. The Act does discourage from imposing additional taxes on property, commodities, or income if the landowner voluntarily foregoes, limits, or postpones economic uses of private land for conservation. 14) What might a private landowner do with land that they want to conserve and support the Oregon Act for sustainable land management? A) convert the land to a prairie or a grassland B) use the land for farming C) build an industrial facility on the land site D) convert the land to a nature preserve for visitors to enjoy E) turn the site into a landfill

14)

15) Do connections between habitat patches actually increase their diversity? Evidence from current field research involving plants is determining that . A) no, corridors connecting habitat patches have yet to make a difference B) only if adequate fertilizers and pesticides are applied to the habitats C) no, corridors connecting habitat patches actually decrease diversity D) only if migrating animals and birds carry seeds between patches E) yes, corridors connecting habitat patches do increase species diversity

15)

16) The total number of plant and animal species that a field biologist identifies along a mountain trail is an example of . A) species evenness B) genetic diversity C) species composition D) species richness E) structural diversity

16)

17) What two factors largely determine the diversity of species on an island? A) viability and extinction B) migration and replication C) immigration and replication D) migration and extinction E) replication and extinction

17)

18) How is genetic variation maintained in most populations? A) through cloning B) through sexual reproduction C) through biotechnology D) through inbreeding E) through asexual reproduction

18)

19) Biodiversity is partially influenced by net primary productivity. The highest rates of NPP can be found in . A) deserts B) polar regions C) deciduous forests D) tropical rain forests E) tundra

19)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. In the 2001 regular session of the Oregon Legislative Assembly, House Bill 3564 was enacted by the people of the State of Oregon to encourage private landowners to manage their land for the purposes of maintaining the long-term ecological, economic, and social values of the land. The lands will be managed sustainably through tax policy, land use planning, education, and technical and financial incentives. The Act does discourage from imposing additional taxes on property, commodities, or income if the landowner voluntarily foregoes, limits, or postpones economic uses of private land for conservation. 20) What would be a major incentive for a landowner to practice private land conservation? A) tax incentives such as reduced property taxes B) higher taxations on the conserved land C) mandatory land conservation laws D) conservation land certification for their property E) pride in knowing they are contributing to land degradation

20)

21) After collecting the evidence on these 22 Minnesota prairie plots, one could conclude that A) species diversity does not really influence drought resistance B) species diversity is a positive feature; however, it is most likely not related to drought resistance C) species diversity and drought resistance are positively correlated D) this data shows no discernable pattern from which to make conclusions E) species diversity and drought resistance are inversely correlated

21)

22) Many species have provided medicines and products demonstrating that biodiversity has value and should therefore be preserved. A) economic B) aesthetic C) entertainment D) religious E) ethical

22)

23) This study of Minnesota prairie plots and drought resistance indicates that the highest resistance to drought was experienced when . A) there were over 20 species per plot B) plant diversity exceeded 0.2 C) plant diversity attained 0.2 D) there were between 10 and 20 species per plot E) there were at least 5 species per plot

23)

24) In Hawaii, the extinction rate of bird species is one species every 10-12 years. By comparison, bird species worldwide are being lost at a rate of approximately per year. A) 100 B) 0.1 C) 1000 D) 1 E) 10

24)

25) What percentage of North America's deciduous forests has been logged or cleared for agriculture? A) 22% B) 95% C) 76% D) 3% E) 15%

25)

26) The important general conclusion that can be made from this data on herbivory is that A) herbivory increases tropical tree diversity B) more field studies are needed before any conclusion can be made C) herbivory decreases tropical tree diversity D) controlled herbivory can be beneficial during field studies E) herbivory is in equilibrium at distance represented by dotted line

26)

27) Of the estimated 7-15 million eukaryotic species that Earth supports, biologists have described and assigned scientific names to about of these species. A) 500,000 B) 5 million C) 1 million D) 3 million E) 1.5 million

27)

28) Experimental studies have demonstrated that there are a high number of herbivores near the largest individual tree species on which that herbivore feeds. According to the data shown, the probability that seeds from that tree species will successfully germinate and grow is . A) lowest near adult trees of that species B) dependent on how the local wind and weather affects seed dispersal C) highest near that tree species D) highest near the herbivore's watering hole E) dependent on how far the herbivore migrates

28)

29) Species that are found only in specific environments or have restricted localities are said to be . A) evenness B) endemic C) rich D) structurally complex E) diverse

29)

30) Species richness is affected by many variables. As one travels to higher latitudes, one would expect . A) the number of species to be maintained B) population viability to increase C) the number of species to decrease D) other factors to be more important than latitude E) the number of species to increase

30)

31) Non-native invasive species have been found to negatively influence biodiversity. A well-known example would include . A) the Jack Pine's Kirtland warbler B) the monarch butterfly C) Mexico's jaguar D) the prairie bison E) the hemlock adelgid

31)

32) How can viable genetic diversity be restored when a population becomes very small? A) through asexual reproduction B) through captive breeding programs C) through inbreeding D) through sterile breeding techniques E) through hybridization with another species

32)

33) The equilibrium theory of island biogeography has become a fundamental principle in conservation biology. The principles of this theory are being applied to _. A) determining equilibria for ecosystem management B) island species as a source for captive breeding C) setting regulations for national parks D) managing island endangered species E) managing isolated habitat patches

33)

34) Biodiversity is highest at A) cyclical B) high C) fluctuating D) intermediate E) low

34)

levels of disturbance.

35) Conservation biologists define a region as a biodiversity hotspot if . A) there is an endemic species protected by a captive breeding program B) there is an unusually large number of endemic species thriving C) species richness is unusually high and protection is required D) there is an unusually large number of endemic species threatened by humans E) there is at least one umbrella species to be protected

35)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 36) Match the terms with the appropriate description.

36)

I. Biodiversity II. Landscape Diversity III. Structural Complexity IV. Endemic V. Genetic Diversity A. The three-dimensional distribution of species and the biological features that affects community biodiversity B. The variety of life in all forms and combinations and at all levels of organization C. The differences in the variety and abundance of species from place to place D. Species that are found only in specific environments or restricted localities E. Genetic variation among individuals ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 37) Describe three strategies to encourage biodiversity conservation on private lands.

38) Policies for conserving biodiversity have been set aside in a number of important pieces of specific U.S. legislation. Explain two pieces of legislation that directly address biodiversity preservation issues, making sure to discuss how the legislation attempts to accomplish its goals.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 08_3E

1) C 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) C 6) E 7) C 8) E 9) D 10) C 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) E 16) D 17) D 18) B 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) A 23) A 24) D 25) B 26) A 27) E 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) E 32) B 33) E 34) D 35) D 36) I. B, II. C, III. A, IV. D, V. E 37) Conserving biodiversity on private lands can be done in a variety of ways; zoning laws exist to help encourage conservation, tax exemption, or incentive-based programs, and nonprofit organizations exist that are dedicated to conserving land for the protection of biodiversity and ecosystem services. Conservation easements, land trust options, and greenspace zoning are additional strategies that can be used to protect private land areas.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 08_2E

38) The Wilderness Act of 1964 and the Endangered Species Act of 1973 are two pieces of legislation designed specifically to preserve biodiversity. The Wilderness Act created a category of federal lands in which "the Earth and its community of life are untrammeled by man." This act prohibits logging, mining, and limits new road construction in these areas. The current wilderness system is extremely important to the conservation of biodiversity. In fact, these lands form the core habitat of over 40% of the species that are listed as threatened or endangered in the United States. The Endangered Species Act was intended "to provide a means whereby the ecosystems upon which endangered and threatened species depend may be conserved, and to provide a program for the conservation of such species." This act prohibits the taking (no capturing, hunting, collection, or harassing) of any threatened or endangered species, regardless of land ownership. The ESA has played a significant role in slowing or halting declines in populations of many species (for example, bald eagle); however, its major criticism by environmentalists is that no action to conserve or restore habitat is actually mandated until a species is listed as threatened or endangered. Often times, this may be too late.

Chapter 9 Climate Change and Global Warming MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Photovoltaic cells are . A) devices that directly convert fuel to electrical currents B) devices that derive energy from plant material C) batteries that fuel automobiles and buses D) batteries that derive energy from plant material E) devices that directly convert sunlight to electrical currents

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. The trapping of heat in the lower atmosphere (the troposphere), referred to as the greenhouse effect, is a natural process that helps regulate the temperature of our planet, allowing for life on Earth to exist and flourish. Nitrogen and oxygen molecules make up 99% of Earth's atmosphere, with water and carbon dioxide accounting for less than 0.5%. This natural greenhouse effect is the result of heat absorption by H2O and CO2 molecules in the lower atmosphere, and re-radiation of this trapped heat back to Earth's surface. Without the natural greenhouse effect, Earth's temperature would be 0°F instead of its present 57°F. The question for some is whether human activities are causing an increase of the greenhouse effect, and thus global climate change. Scientific data collected in the past 50 years indicates that the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere has been increasing. 2) Which greenhouse gas is most abundant naturally? A) carbon dioxide B) methane C) trace gases D) water vapor E) nitrous oxide

3) What is the average annual air temperature near the Earth's surface? A) 57°F B) 76°F C) 63°F D) 82°F

4) When volcanoes erupt, they emit planet. A) particulates B) water vapor C) nitrous oxide D) methane E) sulfur dioxide

E) 42°F

_ into the atmosphere, resulting in a cooling effect on the

5) Transportation efficiency refers specifically to _ _. A) improving fuel efficiency in electric power plants B) increasing fuel conservation measures C) employing more hybrid vehicle technology D) using carbon capture and storage (CCS) technology E) employing more renewable fuels

6) The _ is the current interglacial period and began about 10,000 years ago. A) Pleistocene B) Cretaceous C) Jurassic D) Triassic E) Holocene

7) Which of the following will have the least impact on rising sea level? A) melting of North America's continental glaciers B) the Antarctic ice shelf collapse C) melting of the floating polar ice cap D) melting of Greenland's ice sheet E) melting of Eurasia's continental glaciers

8) Which of the following global warming mitigation efforts generates more emotion than any others? A) reducing fossil fuel use B) using more renewable energy C) installing scrubbers on industrial plants D) biostorage absorption E) increasing nuclear energy use

9) Biofuels are _. A) devices that directly convert fuel to electrical currents B) batteries that fuel automobiles and buses C) batteries that derive energy from plant material D) fuels that use electrical currents to power automobiles E) fuels that are derived from plant material

10) What are some of the consequences of global warming? A) increasing heat B) drier conditions and drought C) changing storm patterns D) increased rainfall and flooding E) all of the above

10)

11) The major source(s) of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in the atmosphere was/were A) refrigerants, solvents, and spray propellants B) emissions from automobile exhaust and chemical fertilizers C) combustion of fossil fuels D) microbial fermentation of organic matter in coal mines, oil wells, and livestock E) burning of fossil fuels and coal 12) Which of the following is the least abundant natural greenhouse gas? A) chlorofluorocarbons B) water vapor C) oxygen D) nitrogen E) methane

11)

12)

13) Which of the following is a cause of natural climate change? A) glacial melting B) forest fires C) tornadoes D) volcanic eruptions E) sea levels increasing

13)

14) What may be an ecological implication of global warming? A) In general, plants and animals will probably benefit from warmer temperatures. B) Plants and animals may not be able to move to a suitable habitat quickly enough. C) Since biodiversity is usually higher in warmer, milder climates, there will be little or no ecological implications. D) Since farmland may be lost, the habitats of plants and animals will increase in area. E) Plants and animals will adjust quickly to the changes in temperature and begin to replicate and reproduce in new areas.

14)

15) What is a growing concern related to sea level rise? A) fish migrating earlier than usual B) eroding shorelines in coastal areas C) migrating birds as salt in the atmosphere increases D) vanishing land near lakes and rivers E) deforestation as salt in the atmosphere increases

15)

16) Which of the following is the most abundant natural greenhouse gas? A) methane B) oxygen C) water vapor D) carbon dioxide E) nitrogen

16)

17) Global temperature trends can be inferred from changes in and _ A) fossils; hydrogen and oxygen isotopes found in sediments and glacial ice B) volcanic eruptions; fossils C) volcanic eruptions; isotope ratios in glacial ice D) fossils; isotope ratios in glacial ice E) fossils; chemical isotopes found in sediments and glacial ice 18) Impacts of global warming include all of the following except A) more extreme weather B) decrease in mortality because winter is warmer C) more human illness D) rising sea levels E) earlier migration of fish and birds

17)

18)

19) Based on the information provided in the diagram, when have the warmest years on Earth occurred?

A) 1940-1960

B) 1975-1985

C) 1999-2009

D) 1920-1940

20) The Neutral Gator Initiative is a nonprofit organization that works to reduce Florida. A) acid rain B) carbon C) nitrogen D) silicon E) nitrogen dioxide

19)

E) 1960-1980 emissions in

20)

21) The Kyoto Protocol was ratified by 130 countries in 2004 and became international law in 2005. What is the goal of the Kyoto protocol? A) reduction of air pollutants from nuclear power plants B) reduction of emissions of nitrous oxide to control acid rain C) reduction of greenhouse gas emissions D) reduction of emissions from scrubbers used in industrial plants E) reduction of chlorofluorocarbon emissions

21)

22) The Earth has for the past 2 million years. A) gradually cooled B) slowly frozen then quickly thawed C) stayed the same temperature D) cycled between hot and cold E) gradually warmed

22)

23) The consequences of the Kyoto Protocol are pictured in the accompanying figure. Which category or group of countries experienced substantial emissions reductions because of improved energy technologies?

23)

A) China B) poorest countries C) United States D) developed countries E) developing countries 24) The best description of anthropogenic activities is . A) human activities that increase greenhouse gases in the atmosphere B) human activities that reduce carbon emissions through tax credits for reducing automobile emissions C) human activities that reduce carbon emissions through taxing fuel used for automobiles D) human activities that decrease greenhouse gases in the atmosphere E) all activities by humans affecting the Earth and its biosphere

24)

25) What has contributed to the loss of polar bears in arctic areas? A) the decline of lemmings; the primary food of the polar bear B) the tundra shifting northward C) decline in sea ice D) hunting of the polar bear by the Inuit people E) fires in the taiga and tundra

25)

26) When examining the Keeling Curve in the accompanying graph, one notices a "zigzag" upward-moving curve. What do these small up and down movements indicate?

26)

A) latitudinal differences in CO2 concentrations B) weather-related factors affecting CO2 C) seasonal cycles in CO2 concentrations D) uncertainty in the CO2 conditions E) O2 versus CO2 concentrations 27) Which of the following sources contributes the least to the emission of greenhouse gases? A) agriculture B) power station operation C) transportation D) waste disposal E) fossil fuel mining

27)

28) Since the Industrial Revolution, climate change data shows that . A) rainfall has increased significantly in eastern North and South America B) rainfall has decreased significantly in North America and Europe C) glacial regions are decreasing while forestry areas are expanding D) desert and glacial regions are increasing E) glacial regions are increasing while more forestry areas are expanding

28)

29) Which of the following gases has the greatest global warming potential (GWP)? A) CH4 B) O3 C) CO2 D) CFC

29) E) N2O

30) What is the current regulatory standard for gasoline mileage of automobiles in the United States? A) 35 miles per gallon B) 33 miles per gallon C) 22 miles per gallon D) 27.5 miles per gallon E) 30.5 miles per gallon

30)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. The trapping of heat in the lower atmosphere (the troposphere), referred to as the greenhouse effect, is a natural process that helps regulate the temperature of our planet, allowing for life on Earth to exist and flourish. Nitrogen and oxygen molecules make up 99% of Earth's atmosphere, with water and carbon dioxide accounting for less than 0.5%. This natural greenhouse effect is the result of heat absorption by H2O and CO2 molecules in the lower atmosphere, and re-radiation of this trapped heat back to Earth's surface. Without the natural greenhouse effect, Earth's temperature would be 0°F instead of its present 57°F. The question for some is whether human activities are causing an increase of the greenhouse effect, and thus global climate change. Scientific data collected in the past 50 years indicates that the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere has been increasing. 31) The greenhouse gas that has been the most directly connected to the combustion of fossil fuels is and the greenhouse gas that has stabilized in the lower atmosphere is . A) H2O; CH4 B) CO2; CH4

31)

C) CO2; CFC D) N2O; H2O E) CH4; CFC 32) In Brazil, what is the primary cause for increase in CO2 in the atmosphere? A) automobile use B) burning wood for fuel C) deforestation D) volcano eruptions E) acid deposition

32)

33) Which of the following is a synthetic greenhouse gas? A) nitrogen B) oxygen C) water vapor D) methane E) chlorofluorocarbons

33)

34) Compared to the five-year period 1971-75, approximately how much warmer has the Earth's temperature become during the more recent 2001-2005 five-year period? A) 3.0°F B) 5.2°F C) 1.5°F D) 4.0°F E) 0.92°F

34)

35)

is what scientists refer to the warming that would still occur even if all emissions would immediately cease. A) Heat capacity B) Thermal inertia C) Latent heat D) Committed warming E) ENSO

36) Total Annual CO2e emissions are greatest in

35)

36)

A) Brazil B) European Union C) Indonesia D) China E) India 37) A cooling of surface ocean waters in the eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean is known specifically as . A) the Little Ice Age B) El Niño C) La Niña D) Antarctic bottom water E) the ENSO effect

37)

38) Scientists use to forecast climate change. A) CO2 concentrations

38)

B) historical data C) computer simulation models D) statistics E) political mandate 39) By 2020 what will the regulatory standard for gasoline mileage of automobiles in the United States be? A) 35 miles per gallon B) 30.5 miles per gallon C) 27.5 miles per gallon D) 22 miles per gallon E) 33 miles per gallon

39)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 40) Match each term with its definition.

40)

I. Global Warming II. Greenhouse Effect III. Greenhouse Gases IV. Global Circulation Model V. Global Warming Potential A. The measure of an individual molecule's long-term impact on atmospheric temperature B. The increase in atmospheric temperature since the late 1800s C. The absorption of radiation by greenhouse gases and trapping of that heat in the troposphere D. Gases that efficiently capture heat E. The use of basic physical principles to forecast future climate change ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Discuss how global circulation models (GCMs) use processes involved in the Earth's energy budget to understand impacts of global warming. Which specific processes are manipulated in these computer simulations? 42) Scientists predict that even if atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations were to remain at current levels, additional warming of Earth is unavoidable. Explain two mitigation approaches (one regulatory and one economic incentivee) that are currently being employed. 43) Over the past 50 years the average rate of sea level rise has been 1.8 mm per year. Explain the two primary factors responsible for this rise in sea level. 44) Many scientific advances have been made toward accurately collecting evidence for global climate change. Explain one technique used: (1) to measure changes that have occurred in atmospheric CO2 over the past 500,000 years; and (2) to measure the long-past temperatures over this same period of time.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 09_3E

1) A 2) D 3) A 4) A 5) C 6) E 7) C 8) E 9) E 10) E 11) A 12) E 13) D 14) B 15) B 16) C 17) E 18) B 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) D 23) B 24) E 25) C 26) C 27) D 28) A 29) D 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) E 34) E 35) D 36) D 37) C 38) C 39) A 40) I. B, II. C, III. D, IV. E, V. A 41) The most useful tools for gauging future changes in a climate are global circulation models. They use mathematical equations to simulate the physical processes of absorption and reflection of sunlight by the atmosphere, the heating of the land and ocean, the circulation of heat from the equator to the poles, and when relevant, changes in the global ocean current patterns. Scientists vary the global circulation models to simulate different scenarios. The scenarios differ in the assumptions about economic growth, fossil fuel consumption and use, government policies that affect energy use and human actions that increase greenhouse gas emissions. All these factors analyzed together produce different climate interactions, producing different climate change forecasts.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 09_2E

42) Regulations currently in place involve the U.S. government regulations for automobile mileage, known as the CAFÉ standards. The current CAFÉ standard for automobiles is 27.5 mpg. Since these standards are aimed at reducing fuel use, it has had a significant effect on CO2e emissions. European Union countries are regulating a diminishing dependence on fossil fuels, with an increasing proportion coming from renewable sources. Economic incentives have been demonstrated by the current European Union cap-and-trade policy regulating greenhouse gas emissions from electric utilities. In this approach, after the regulatory cap has been determined for each electric utility, the utility manager may choose to reduce their emissions to meet this standard, or alternatively, they may purchase credits from other utilities whose CO2 emissions are below the cap. Gasoline taxes being employed by most industrial countries are another example of an economic incentive approach to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. 43) The expansion of water (in this case ocean water) as it warms is an important factor. Surface ocean waters have warmed as much a 0.9°F during the past 50 years. Also, the warming of the atmosphere has led to the melting of continental ice sheets and alpine glaciers, both of which increase the amount of water in ocean basins, causing sea level to rise. The melting of Arctic ice does not cause sea level to rise, as this ice is already floating on the surface of ocean water (just as an ice cube melting in a glass of water will not increase the volume of water in the glass). 44) (1) Atmospheric CO2 has been measured for time-frames going back 500,000 years by analyzing bubbles of air trapped in Antarctic ice cores. It has been found that CO2 concentrations were low during cold glacial period and high during warm interglacial periods; however, overall CO2 levels remained below 300 ppm throughout this time, until the Industrial Revolution, when CO2 began to increase to its current level of 388 ppm. (2) Temperature measurements have been estimated by examining deep-sea sediment cores and measuring the relative amounts of hydrogen and oxygen isotopes in these cores. The same isotope ratios are reflected in the fossilized bodies (shells) of organisms found in these sediments. Using established relationships between isotope ratios and water temperature, temperature changes over a 300,000 period have been able to be determined.

Chapter 10 Air Quality MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Stratospheric ozone depletion is currently most serious A) over North America B) over tropical latitudes C) over the most populated and urbanized regions D) over New Zealand and Australia E) over the Arctic Ocean 2) Radon is an indoor air pollutant that has been linked to A) skin cancer B) kidney failure C) liver cancer D) liver failure E) lung cancer

3) Which of the following pesticides was used to kill termites and treat wood between 1948 and 1988? A) Chlordane B) Lindane C) Atrazine D) DDT E) PCB

4) Which of the following health problems associated with UV exposure is also associated with thinning of Earth's ozone layer? A) skin cancer B) heart disease C) skin irritations D) headaches E) gastrointestinal disease

pollutants are chemicals or particles that are directly emitted from identifiable sources. A) Natural B) Man-made C) Secondary D) Primary E) Tertiary

6) Where in the United States is the risk of radon exposure lowest?

A) North Dakota B) Florida C) New Mexico D) Alabama E) Michigan 7) Acid rain is an example of A) dry B) aerosol C) photochemical D) industrial E) wet

deposition.

8) The primary sources of the acidity in acid rain are the gases A) NOx and N2O B) O3 and VOCs

C) O3 and SO2 D) SO2 and NOx E) H2SO4 and NO 9) A temperature inversion can adversely affect air quality and is characterized by A) a layer of cold air forming above warmer air B) air masses in which primary and secondary air pollutants are inverted C) a layer of warm air forming above the stratosphere D) a layer of warm air forming above colder air E) inverted air masses with particulates held at altitude 10) In many developing countries a primary indoor air pollutant is A) smoke from wood-fueled stoves B) cigarette smoke C) radon D) VOCs E) asbestos

10)

11) According to the graph, what year was the Montreal Protocol most likely to have been enacted?

A) 1984

B) 1987

C) 1990

D) 2000

E) 1982

11)

12) You go onto the AirNow website, enter your zipcode, and receive your local AQI for the EPA's criterion pollutants. Your AQI is 136. You spent about an hour outside today doing yardwork. Based on these graphs, you should be most concerned about your exposure to .

12)

A) lead B) nitrogen dioxide C) ozone D) particulate matter E) none of these, as you are a very healthy person 13) Which of the following acts set new standards to reduce automobile emissions along with establishing a cap-and-trade program for reducing sulfur dioxide emissions? A) the Motor Vehicle Air Pollution Control Act of 1965 B) the Air Quality Act of 1967 C) the Clean Air Act Amendment of 1990 D) the Clean Air Act Amendment of 1970 E) the Clean Air Act of 1963

13)

14) The Donora killer smog of 1948 was primarily a consequence of A) emissions from automobiles B) climate change C) emissions from home furnaces D) emissions from the steel mill E) meteorological conditions

14)

15) Which of the following is not an aerosol? A) methane B) pollen

15) C) dust

D) sea salt

E) smoke

16) Rowland and Molina's work showed that ultraviolet light in the stratosphere causes CFCs to release atoms. A) chlorine B) carbon C) mercury D) hydrogen E) fluoride

16)

17) All of the following pollutants were targeted for reduction by 2010, according to The 1999 Protocol, except . A) sulfur dioxide B) CFCs C) nitrous oxide D) VOCs E) ammonia

17)

18) Stratospheric ozone destruction involves a complex series of reactions. These reactions begin with . A) O3 reacting with industrial sulfuric acid

18)

B) O3 reacting directly with CFCs C) UV from sunlight being trapped in the troposphere D) UV from sunlight reacting directly with O3 E) UV from sunlight causing Cl atoms to break free from CFCs 19) Air pollution is best defined as . A) organic chemicals that can vaporize into the air B) small particles in the atmosphere arising from volatile organic compounds C) any gases in Earth's atmosphere in trace amounts D) suspended particles of gases that contain small amounts of solids and liquids E) gases or particles present in high enough concentrations in the atmosphere to harm humans, other organisms and structures

19)

20) Which of the following heavy metals is/are associated with damage to the human nervous system? A) radon B) lead C) mercury and lead D) mercury E) mercury, lead, and radon

20)

21) Scrubbers remove 90% of A) nitrogen oxides B) CFCs C) sulfur oxides D) acid deposition E) greenhouse gases

21)

22) Where are deaths from indoor smoke most likely?

22)

A) South America B) North America C) Australia D) Africa E) Asia 23) All of the following are considered indoor air pollutants except A) pesticides B) asbestos C) cigarette smoke D) radon E) sodium chloride 24) The most common human health response to air pollution is A) heart disease B) circulatory ailments C) lung cancer D) blindness caused by deteriorating eye tissues E) eye and respiratory irritation 25) Trace gases make up A) less than 5% B) more than 10% C) less than 10% D) less than 1% E) 0%

of the Earth's atmosphere.

23)

24)

25)

26) Indoor air is likely to be contaminated by all of the following except A) volatile organic compounds B) microorganisms C) radon D) particulate matter E) mercury 27) The best way to address outdoor air pollution is to _ A) use less polluting energy sources B) install scrubbers on smoke stacks C) use high sulfur content coal D) build high smoke stacks E) use automobiles without catalytic converters

27)

28) Photochemical smog is formed when primary air pollutants interact with A) water B) gases C) sunlight D) moisture 29) CFCs were primarily used in A) refrigeration B) aerosols C) power plants D) automobiles E) factories

26)

28) E) air

29)

30) Which step would be most likely to have the greatest effect on improving outdoor air pollution? A) drastic reduction in radon emissions B) drastic reduction in the use of aerosol cans C) significant reduction in automobile use D) drastic reduction in burning firewood E) drastic reduction in cigarette smoking

30)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Acid deposition can be decreased by reducing industrial fossil fuel combustion. In accomplishing this, the amount of carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, particulates, and mercury produced would also be lowered. 31) The major acid resulting from these industrial sources is A) sulfuric acid B) carbonic acid C) tropospheric acid D) nitric acid E) mercuric acid 32) Students at MIT developed a method to produce safer indoor fuel for use in developing countries. A) biodiesel B) ethanol C) wood

31)

from agricultural wastes, resulting in a D) charcoal

E) fuel cells

32)

33) Carbon dioxide released by automobiles is an example of a _ A) multi-point B) non-point C) volatile D) aerosol E) point

source of pollution.

33)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Acid deposition can be decreased by reducing industrial fossil fuel combustion. In accomplishing this, the amount of carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, particulates, and mercury produced would also be lowered. 34) What is the current best strategy, resulting in the greatest decline, for reducing sulfur dioxide from these industrial emission? A) catalytic converters B) tall smokestacks C) cap-and-trade programs D) smoking bans E) atmospheric dilution of pollutants

34)

35) All of the following are major steps to controlling air pollution except A) identification of the pollutants B) implementing strategies to meet the air pollution standards C) finding cures for the diseases caused by air pollutants D) developing agreements among countries to limit air pollution E) determination of major sources of pollutants

35)

36) Which naturally emitted gas, accumulating in indoor spaces, has been linked with lung cancer in humans? A) ozone B) radon C) mercury D) carbon monoxide E) asbestos

36)

37) Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant? A) ozone B) chlorofluorocarbons C) carbon monoxide D) mercury E) sulfur dioxide

37)

38) An aerosol mixture of particulates and sulfur compounds forms a grayish-colored substance that is called . A) sulfuric aerosols B) photochemical fog C) industrial fog D) industrial smog E) inversion smog

38)

39) Aerosols of sulfur compounds affect climate in what way? A) They have no effect on climate. B) They destroy the ozone layer. C) They have different effects depending on their source. D) They absorb sunlight and cause the Earth's surface to warm. E) They reflect sunlight and cool the Earth's surface.

39)

40) The EPA regulates the demolition and renovation of older buildings because they may contain . A) hydrocarbons B) radon C) plywood D) asbestos E) VOCs

40)

41) Which of the following particles is likely to fall out of the air faster?

41)

A) viruses

B) pollen

C) fog/smog

D) bacteria

E) salt-algae

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 42) Match the term with the correct definition.

42)

I. Air Pollution II. Air Quality III. Volatile Organic Compounds IV. Particulate Matter V. Photochemicals A. Secondary chemicals whose formation is facilitated by sunlight B. Gases or particles that are present in high enough concentrations to harm humans, other organisms, and buildings and other structures C. Amount of gases and small particles in the atmosphere that influence ecosystem or human well-being D. Organic chemicals that can vaporize into the air E. Very small solid and liquid particles suspended in the air ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 43) How does acid deposition form, and what are three important impacts that it has on the environment? 20

44) Discuss the specific actions that the EPA has taken to minimize the automobile emissions of lead, nitrogen oxide, and carbon monoxide.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 10_3E

1) D 2) E 3) A 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) E 8) D 9) D 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) E 19) E 20) C 21) C 22) D 23) E 24) E 25) D 26) E 27) A 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) E 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) A 38) D 39) E 40) D 41) B 42) I. B, II. C, III. D, IV. E, V. A

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 10_2E

43) Acid deposition is a secondary pollutant, formed in the atmosphere when sulfur and nitrogen oxides dissolve in water to produce sulfuric acid and nitric acid. Acid deposition can affect both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems, in addition to human-made structures. Aquatic ecosystems: Acid rainfall can dissolve aluminum and other toxic metals from soil. High levels of aluminum clog the gills of fish and also inhibit development of their skeletons. Terrestrial ecosystems: Forests are negatively impacted by acid deposition when acidic rainwater leaches nutrients and minerals necessary for plant growth from the soils. Human-made structures: Dry acid deposition is damaging to stone structures, gradually eroding buildings and historic architecture. 44) In 1976 the EPA began regulating lead emitted from automobiles, particularly after it was found to deactivate the catalysts in automobile catalytic converters. All automobiles manufactured after 1975 had to have a catalytic converter installed in order to help reduce the emissions of carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, and nitrogen oxides. Since 1980, the use of leaded gasoline has now been banned in most countries, and global emissions of lead have decreased by 90% since 1970.

Chapter 11 Water MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) In 1848, San Francisco Bay looked much different than it does today. At one time, the largest part of this estuary had an area defined by approximately .

A) 30 × 80 km B) 15 × 40 km C) 20 × 40 km D) 40 × 150 mi E) 40 × 50 mi 2) An important characteristic of aquatic dead zones is a . A) low concentration of nitrogen and phosphorus nutrients B) low concentration of keystone species C) high concentration of organisms resulting in extreme competition and finally the death of most D) low concentration of oxygen E) high concentration of urban development

3) Which of the following is an example of a non-point source of pollution? A) industrial facilities B) municipal sewage treatment plant C) water released from a paint manufacturer D) nuclear power plants E) fertilizer-enriched runoff

4) The maximum amount of a pollutant that a body of water can support without reducing water quality below acceptable levels is represented by _ _. A) total minimum daily loads B) water quality C) total maximum daily loads D) total minimum daily levels E) total maximum daily levels

5) Dams provide an important source of _. A) renewable energy B) stabilization for migrating fish to reproduce C) water flowing into lakes D) nonrenewable energy E) electricity

6) The first comprehensive national law to manage water quality was the A) Clear Drinking Water Act B) Oil Pollution Control Act C) Safe Drinking Water Act D) Water Pollution Control Act E) Clean Water Act 7) The entire flux of water into the atmosphere is represented by A) evapotranspiration B) evaporation C) runoff D) transpiration E) percolation 8) The hydrologic cycle is driven by A) gravity and solar energy B) gravity C) water D) solar energy E) water and solar energy 9)

is/are formed during primary wastewater treatment. A) Bacteria B) Inorganic nutrients C) Toxins D) Sludge E) Gray water

10) What percentage of groundwater drawn from aquifers each year is used for irrigation? A) 3% B) 38% C) 11% D) 21% E) 68%

10)

11) The rapid sinking of a large area of land above an aquifer is known as A) a recharge zone B) a sinkhole C) saltwater intrusion D) a discharge zone E) subsidence 12) An artesian well is created when the well is drilled into A) a confined aquifer under great pressure B) an unconfined aquifer under great pressure C) an unconfined aquifer under little pressure D) any groundwater source E) a confined aquifer under little pressure 13) Eutrophication is caused by A) high turbidity B) mercury C) low pH D) low dissolved oxygen E) high levels of phosphorus

11)

12)

13)

14) Based on this data, which country or countries would you expect to have an economy highly dependent upon industry?

A) United States and France 4

14)

B) France and Mali C) Mali D) United States E) France 15) When considering using gray water, you might use the water for _ A) filling swimming pools B) washing hands C) taking baths D) flushing toilets E) washing clothes

15)

The following is some information and finding on The State on California's salt water marshes. Review this information below before answering the questions on California's wetlands quality. · 85% of the State's salt marshes were in good to very good health; 35% of salt marsh acreage reflected very good hydrology and marsh plant community structure; 65% had large, intact buffers. · Salt marsh health generally declined from Northern to Southern California, consistent with a trend in increasing urbanization. · Dikes and levees were among the most frequent and most severe physical stressors. · California has 2.9 million acres of wetlands. · Estimates of total historical wetland loss vary for California. Some regional studies have reported loss rates up to 90%. Some wetland types, such as vernal pools, riparian habitat, and coastal wetlands have experienced disproportionately higher rates of loss. Wetland loss has occurred as land was converted from natural habitat to urban and agricultural land uses. · California has made substantial progress over the last 10 years in identifying, acquiring, restoring, and enhancing wetlands. 16) As of this study, approximately how many million acres of wetlands in California are in good to very good health? A) 2.2 million acres B) 1.6 million acres C) 2.5 million acres D) 2.9 million acres E) cannot be determined

16)

17) What is the major deterrent to the widespread use of desalination? A) lack of an energy source B) lack of a water source C) expense D) taste E) lack of technology

17)

18) The underground depth where rock and sediment are completely saturated with water is referred to as the . A) discharge zone B) recharge zone C) water table D) unconfined aquifer E) confined aquifer

18)

19) Where in this household septic system are the dissolved organic chemicals broken down by microbes?

19)

A) gravel or crushed stone field B) leach field C) drain field D) septic tank E) distribution box 20) A specific example of nonconsumptive use of water is A) cattle grazing operations on federal lands B) agriculture C) industrial cooling processes D) disposal of sewage wastewater E) commercial forestry 21) Solids in wastewater treatment are removed in A) pretreatment B) secondary treatment C) primary treatment D) tertiary treatment E) sludge digestion

22) The specific aquifer on which most of the U.S. midwestern agriculture depends is known as the . A) Artesian Aqueduct project B) Trans Dakota-Texas aquifer C) Colorado water project D) Illinois aquifer E) Ogallala aquifer

20)

21)

22)

23) Which of the following actions should you avoid if you want to decrease the severity of flooding? A) using permeable pavers B) planting trees C) converting agricultural fields to residential areas D) installing green roofs E) converting meadows into agricultural areas

23)

24) What percentage of Earth's surface is covered with water? A) 70% B) 80% C) 42%

24) D) 23%

E) 56%

25) Which water molecule has the longest residence time? A) a molecule in the ocean B) a molecule in snow C) a molecule in a river D) a molecule in the atmosphere E) All water molecules have equal residence times.

25)

26) The purpose of an Eco-Machine is to A) treat wastewater B) simulate photosynthesis C) create graywater D) reduce municipal water use E) treat saltwater

26)

27) Which of the following is not considered wastewater? A) sewage B) water used in manufacturing C) storm water runoff D) water from sinks E) groundwater

27)

28) According to this data, which impairment should be of most concern?

28)

A) mercury B) pathogens C) pH D) algal growth E) trash 29) In the United States, which of the following consumes the greatest amount of water? A) industry B) U.S. government C) power plant cooling D) agriculture E) domestic

29)

30)

are human-made lakes and reservoirs that store water for irrigation, flood control, or energy generation. A) Aquifers B) Watersheds C) Impoundments D) Channels E) Levees

31) The year that Boston was able to reduce its water consumption to below 275 millions of gallons per day was .

A) 2009

B) 1994

C) 1998

D) 1985

E) 1992

32) Which country would you expect to be most likely to see conflicts over access to water?

A) Russia

B) India

C) Brazil

D) Canada

33) Which Act requires the EPA to regulate the discharge of pollutants into waterways? A) Safe Drinking Water Act B) Oil Pollution Control Act C) Clean Water Act D) Water Pollution Control Act E) Clear Drinking Water Act

31)

32)

E) Australia 33)

34) Which of the following methods has the highest irrigation efficiency? A) drip irrigation B) flooding fields C) low-energy precision application sprinklers D) aerial sprinkler systems E) surge irrigation

34)

35) People who rely on wells for drinking water are likely concerned about all of the following except . A) pollutants B) faulty septic systems C) overdrawing water D) saltwater intrusion E) flooding

35)

36) The Red River of the North flows into Hudson Bay, part of the North Atlantic Ocean. What kind of watershed does the Red River drain? A) open B) small C) oceanic D) large E) closed

36)

37) The Aral Sea is shrinking due to . A) diversion of the rivers that flow into it B) a large number of dams C) saltwater intrusion D) subsidence E) overdrawing the aquifer it is located upon

37)

38) Bioassessment uses A) turbidity B) dissolved oxygen C) pH D) living organisms E) conductivity

to determine water quality.

38)

39) Most of the water supplied to homes is used . A) for recreation B) to water house plants C) for cooking D) for drinking E) to wash, clean, and flush away undesirable materials

39)

40) The main conclusion from this graph on soil and vegetation change after wetland restoration is .

40)

A) soils are more important to wetlands restoration than are plants B) plant biomass recovers relatively rapidly in restored wetlands C) that it takes at least 10 years for wetlands restoration to be completed D) soil organic matter is initially the most rapid category to recover E) soil organic matter and nutrient absorption are much easier to accomplish than improvements in biomass 41) Secondary sewage treatment is designed primarily to . A) pretreat wastewater on its way to tertiary treatment B) remove all bacteria and microorganisms C) remove hazardous chemicals such as pesticides and heavy metals D) remove the solids E) remove the dissolved organic matter

41)

The following is some information and finding on The State on California's salt water marshes. Review this information below before answering the questions on California's wetlands quality. · 85% of the State's salt marshes were in good to very good health; 35% of salt marsh acreage reflected very good hydrology and marsh plant community structure; 65% had large, intact buffers. · Salt marsh health generally declined from Northern to Southern California, consistent with a trend in increasing urbanization. · Dikes and levees were among the most frequent and most severe physical stressors. · California has 2.9 million acres of wetlands. · Estimates of total historical wetland loss vary for California. Some regional studies have reported loss rates up to 90%. Some wetland types, such as vernal pools, riparian habitat, and coastal wetlands have experienced disproportionately higher rates of loss. Wetland loss has occurred as land was converted from natural habitat to urban and agricultural land uses. · California has made substantial progress over the last 10 years in identifying, acquiring, restoring, and enhancing wetlands. 42) From the data provided, approximately how many acres of wetlands did California originally have? A) 1.5 million acres B) 5 million acres C) 90 million acres D) 3.2 million acres E) 10 million acres

42)

43) A/An is a series of large tanks that begin with anaerobic treatment and follows with plants and biological life forms that would live in various wetland areas. A) septic field B) septic tank C) eco-machine D) leach field E) wastewater treatment plant

43)

44) A watershed is . A) the water held in the atmosphere prior to returning to Earth in the form of rainfall B) the area of land from which rainfall drains into rivers or lakes C) an inland basin that connects to another inland basin D) a river that drains into the sea E) a term used to describe water stored underground

44)

45) Ocean acidification is a consequence of what other environmental problem? A) acid precipitation B) eutrophication C) biodiversity loss D) saltwater intrusion E) climate change

45)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 46) Match the description with the appropriate term.

46)

I. II. III. IV. V.

Runoff Groundwater Aquifer Transpiration Evapotranspiration

A. B. C. D. E.

Water that percolates through the soil and into the rock below Rainwater that falls on land and flows across the surface Layer of soil or rock that is saturated with water Represents the entire flux of water into the atmosphere Evaporation from leaves

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 47) It is estimated that by 2035, half of the people in the world will live under severe water shortages. Discuss three specific strategies for conserving water in the United States. 48) Differentiate between point source and non-point source pollution. Give an example of each and describe a current piece of legislation or policy designed to control each type of pollution.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 11_3E

1) A 2) D 3) E 4) C 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) E 11) B 12) A 13) E 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) C 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) E 23) E 24) A 25) A 26) A 27) E 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) E 36) A 37) A 38) D 39) E 40) B 41) E 42) D 43) C 44) B 45) E 46) I. B, II. A, III. C, IV. E, V. D

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 11_2E

47) Since approximately 70% of the water that humans use goes to irrigate agricultural crops, improved technologies that can reduce evaporation and runoff from agricultural lands are essential. Drip irrigation, a process of delivering water to the roots of individual plants through a network of perforated tubes at the soil surface, has made a significant impact in reducing evaporation and runoff. A second strategy might be to reuse municipal waste water, recycling it to irrigate crops and/or for landscape watering. An essential consideration is to ensure that this wastewater is not contaminated with industrial by-products (heavy metals) if it is to be reused for human agriculture. Since wastewater is naturally high in nitrogen and other nutrients, using it to irrigate crops reduces the need for additional fertilizers. A third strategy is simple and focused personal water conservation approaches. Reducing shower time, using a low-flow shower head, and for home yards, using native plants that are adapted to the region where one lives, rather than exotic grasses that require large amounts of water in order to thrive. 48) Point source pollution can be defined as pollution that comes from a specific location, often indicated by an actual outflow pipe entering a body of water. Most point sources are industrial facilities and sewage treatment facilities. The 1972 Clean Water Act requires the EPA to regulate the discharge of pollutants into waterways. Non-point sources of water pollution include fertilizer-enriched runoff from farms and golf courses. Since its original passage, the Clean Water Act has been modified/amended in recent years to accommodate new knowledge, especially as it has related to the significance and impact of non-point water pollution. There is now specific language in the CWA, requiring management and minimization of non-point sources of water pollution.

Chapter 12 Agriculture and the Ecology of Food MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1)

is defined as physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet dietary needs and food preferences needed for an active and healthy lifestyle. A) Ecological eating B) Sustainable agriculture C) World hunger D) The food footprint E) Food security

2) People living in the Andes Mountains approximately 5,000 years ago domesticated _ . A) wheat B) barley C) potatoes D) chickpeas E) corn

3) Soil texture refers to the relative amounts of A) detritus and humus B) mineral content and water saturation C) organic matter and minerals D) water, organic matter, and minerals E) sand, silt, and clay

in soil.

4) The major conclusion that can be drawn from the U.S. data presented is A) fewer and bigger farms were the norm in 1950 B) larger and a greater number of large farms are the norm in 2010 C) fewer and smaller farms are the norm in 2010 D) farm size and number are in equilibrium in 1950 E) fewer and bigger farms are the norm in 2010 5) In which horizon is subsoil located? A) E B) O

5) C) C

D) B

E) A

6) Soil texture influences _ A) bedrock geology B) pH C) tilth D) nutrient content E) color

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Climate change presents agriculture with challenges and uncertainties. In most of the middle and higher latitudes, global warming will impact the length of the potential growing season. This seasonal change could possibly allow for earlier planting in the spring as well as earlier harvesting, with the possibility of completing two harvests in one season. However, most climate models indicate that conditions for agriculture will worsen in tropical latitudes, as a result of increasing temperatures. 7) The process that is most likely to be affected by increasing temperatures, thereby influencing tropical croplands is _ . A) evapotranspiration B) tropical pest increase C) salinization D) genetic diversity E) soil nutrient content

is an example of a pesticide that qualifies as a form of biological pest control. A) Lindane B) Carbamate C) Organophosphates D) DDT E) Pheromones

9) In which region of the world would you expect irrigation to be most critical? A) PET is higher than rainfall. B) PET is lower than rainfall. C) Rainfall is high. D) PET is equal to rainfall. E) Rainfall is low.

10) Which of the following is not a reason for the origins of agriculture? A) population growth B) shortages of wild food C) newly evolved plant adaptations D) climate change E) improved quality of human life

10)

11) Water diversion and irrigation has allowed humans to grow crops in areas where natural supplies have been limited. A major challenge that exists in these regions has been . A) high pesticide use B) soil erosion C) high trophic-level efficiency D) low crop diversity E) salinization of soils

11)

12) According to this data depicting the climate limits of specific crops, corn, an important food crop, grows best in the _ _ biome.

12)

A) chaparral/grassland B) temperate forest C) tropical rain forest D) taiga E) tropical savanna 13) Agrosystems are prone to nutrient losses because of all the following reasons except A) the water cycle breaks down B) plants are harvested C) leaching as a result of irrigation D) low crop biodiversity in a given field E) plowing of crops

13)

14) In developed countries, the most recent increases in agricultural productivity have come from . A) new crop varieties and polyculture techniques B) clearing grasslands and savannas C) irrigation in arid areas D) extensive drip irrigation use in farming E) clearing rainforests

14)

15) The primary reasons agricultural productivity increased during the Green Revolution was been a combination of fertilizers, crop breeding, pest control, and _. A) irrigation improvements B) genetically modified organisms C) increased rainfall D) organic farming techniques E) less overgrazing

15)

16) An ideal pesticide would be characterized by _ . A) persistence B) allowing the development of genetic resistance C) being of equal value to the damage the pest would have caused D) broad spectrum in its target E) not leaching into water supplies in the ground

16)

17) Which of the following is a benefit of perennial wheat over annual wheat? A) There is less risk due to weather conditions. B) There is less use of fossil fuels. C) There is less soil erosion. D) There is more permanent storage of carbon. E) All of these are benefits.

17)

18) People around the world have become more dependent on global markets for their food. As a result, recent U.S. government policies encouraging _ have had a major negative effect on food availability. A) organic farming B) permaculture techniques C) ethanol production D) integrated pest management E) increased herbicide use

18)

19) Most crops cannot grow in . A) warm climates B) areas with seasonal temperature and rainfall patterns C) water logged soil D) soil containing good oxygen levels E) nutrient rich soil

19)

20) One of the most important insect pollinators has been A) wasps B) hummingbirds C) honeybees D) fruit-eating bats E) hornets

21)

20)

21) Vegetarians function as

in agricultural ecosystems.

A) omnivores B) secondary consumers C) decomposers D) primary consumers E) primary producers 22) Which of the following is a concern people have about genetically modified organisms? A) It can result in livestock that produce less manure. B) It can increase the nutritional value of food. C) It can allow farmers to kill weeds without harming the crop. D) It can lead to reduced use of pesticides. E) It can lead to herbicide resistance.

22)

23) Which of the following is not required for plant growth? A) light B) nutrients C) carbon dioxide D) water E) oxygen

23)

24) Sustainable agriculture has many goals. One of the primary goals is best described as . A) encouraging the growth of large-scale agribusiness because it is the most economically viable form of agriculture B) converting forestland into productive cropland C) converting desert land into productive cropland because of the growth in desalinization technology D) increasing the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides E) making an effort to maintain productive topsoil

24)

25) The move from hunter-gatherers to purposefully planning cultivation of crops first began in . A) Llano Estacado B) Mesopotamia C) Africa D) New Mexico E) Europe

25)

26) Humus is . A) partially decomposed organic matter B) light colored or nearly white C) poisonous to soil microorganisms D) a mixture of living organisms and their waste products E) an indicative of poor soils

26)

27) The primary cause of soil erosion is A) strip cropping B) over cultivation C) crop rotation D) no-till agriculture E) use of crop cover

27)

28)

28) The increase in American consumption of organic foods has increased approximately from 2004 to 2006.

A) 30%

B) 20%

C) 80%

D) 4%

E) 10%

29) Mercury is known to biomagnify in food chains, in the same manner as DDT. Based on your knowledge of biomagnification of DDT, which organism would you expect to contain the most mercury in a contaminated lake? A) small fish B) large fish C) algae and plants D) fish-eating birds E) aquatic insects

29)

30) The process by which the concentration of a pesticide increases through a food chain is called . A) broad-spectrum effect B) pesticide treadmill effect C) biological concentration D) bioaccumulation E) biomagnification

30)

31) A pheromone is a . A) predator used to manage a pest naturally B) chemical that travels in the bloodstream and controls an organism's growth and development C) new form of chemical insecticide waiting FDA approval D) strong herbicide E) species-specific chemical attractant

31)

32) Managing crop competitors and pests have been challenging to agronomists for centuries. One approach, integrated pest management, _ . A) combines chemical pesticides with biological control techniques B) uses only chemical pesticides C) uses only pheromones D) combines a variety of pesticides to combat the pest E) uses no pesticides of any kind

32)

33) Which of the following is a recent human impact on the nitrogen cycle? A) biological nitrogen fixation B) the Haber-Bosch process C) introducing legumes into plant rotation D) bacterial nitrification E) nitrogen mining

33)

34) For most domestic animals, trophic-level efficiency is usually A) greater than 10% B) approximately 20% C) dependent on what the animals were fed D) approximately 30% E) less than 10%

34)

35) Which crop was one of the first to be domesticated? A) sorghum B) corn C) chickpeas

D) soybeans

E) rice

36) The average size of U.S. farms in 2000 was approximately A) 1,000 B) 550 C) 4,000

acres. D) 100

E) 7,000

35)

36)

37) You want to reduce your food footprint. You are at the grocery store and deciding what to have for dinner. Based on the graph shown, what is your best option?

37)

A) vegetable omelet B) chicken noodle soup C) hamburger and fries D) bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich E) cereal and milk 38) Which of the following may not be a good choice when eating sustainably? A) choosing vegetarian foods B) choosing organic foods C) choosing seasonal foods D) choosing natural foods E) choosing local foods 39) Beginning over 5,000 years ago, corn (maize) was first domesticated in A) Mexico B) Spain C) Brazil D) Portugal

38)

39) E) China

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Climate change presents agriculture with challenges and uncertainties. In most of the middle and higher latitudes, global warming will impact the length of the potential growing season. This seasonal change could possibly allow for earlier planting in the spring as well as earlier harvesting, with the possibility of completing two harvests in one season. However, most climate models indicate that conditions for agriculture will worsen in tropical latitudes, as a result of increasing temperatures. 40) Agriculture production may possibly move northward in latitude due to increased warming. However, agriculture will only be successful if . A) appropriate soils are found at these latitudes B) polyculture techniques are available C) climate change eventually reverts its current trends D) appropriate farming technology is available E) pesticides are acceptable for use

40)

41) Which of the following did not contribute to the collapse of agricultural ecosystems during the Dust Bowl? A) plowing practices B) burning of fields C) drought conditions D) shelterbelt planting E) lack of cover crops

41)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 42) Match the description with the appropriate term.

42)

I. Agriculture II. Agronomy III. Agroecosystem IV. Harvest Index V. Green Revolution A. A recent period where global agriculture has increased several fold B. Crops, domestic animals, and the physical environments in which they grow C. The fraction of total crop production that people can use D. The science that applies genetics, physiology, chemistry, and ecology to agriculture E. The system of land management used to grow plants and animals for food, fiber, or energy

43) Match the description with the appropriate term.

43)

I. Gravitational Water II. Hygroscopic Water III. Capillary Water IV. Field Capacity V. Soil Wilting Point A. B. C. D. E.

There is no longer enough water in the soil for plants to replace transpiration water loss Amount of water that a given volume of soil can hold against the force of gravity Water held in micropores by water-to-water hydrogen bonds Water bound to soil particles Water flowing through the soil

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 44) Discuss how integrated pest management differs from historical pest management practices. 45) Discuss two major environmental impacts of producing and managing large numbers of domestic animals for food.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 12_3E

1) E 2) C 3) E 4) E 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) E 9) A 10) E 11) E 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) E 17) E 18) C 19) C 20) C 21) D 22) E 23) E 24) E 25) B 26) A 27) B 28) A 29) D 30) E 31) E 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) E 38) D 39) A 40) A 41) D 42) I. E, II. D, III. B, IV. C, V. A 43) I. E, II. D, III. C, IV. B, V. A.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 12_2E

44) Integrated pest management is the effective combination of chemical, biological, and cultural means to manage pests. It is not the goal of IPM to completely eradicate pests, but the focus is to keep pest populations low enough to minimize crop loss. This approach requires extensive knowledge of pest life cycles and the interaction of pests with other organisms in the ecosystem. Less exposure of chemicals to the environment is a major IPM strategy. Using crop rotation, natural enemies, tilling of the soil to control weed growth, biological controls (pheromones), as well as using chemicals that have low impact on humans and other pests are some of the varied strategies used by IPM. Historically, farmers have used various measures to control insect pests. However, in the mid-20th century, powerful chemical pesticides including DDT and other broad-spectrum pesticides were used almost exclusively to control pests. These pesticides have been found to disturb agroecosystems by killing helpful insects (pollinators as well as pest predators) as well as the harmful ones. Before the use of DDT, farmers had little appreciation for the role played by the natural predators of insect pests or the long-term persistence of these nondegrading chemicals in the environment. This began to slowly change with the publication of Rachel Carson's Silent Spring, and the subsequent 1972 ban of DDT use in the United States. Use of chemical pesticides continues; however, the knowledge and benefits of IPM and organic farming practices are increasing. 45) The major issues related to dealing with large numbers of domestic animals are focused on the great volume of animal wastes produced and the dramatic changes in land use required for raising these animals. When exposed to weather, animal wastes release inorganic nutrients such as nitrates, ammonia, and phosphates that can pollute surface waters and nearby streams. These excess nutrients often lead to eutrophication and depletion of dissolved oxygen in aquatic ecosystems, with the subsequent death of aquatic species. Also, methane gas is a by-product of the digestion of nearly all herbivores. Since methane is a powerful greenhouse gas, the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change has estimated that methane emissions from livestock is accounting for more than 5% of current global warming. A second important environmental effect of domestic livestock operations is the major changes in land use. In many developing countries, forests are being cleared to create pasture land, thereby resulting in subsequent herbivore overgrazing and soil erosion. Removal of forests also reduces watershed protection, threatens biodiversity, and contributes to increased climate change, in that photosynthetic potential is reduced when vegetation is removed.

Chapter 13 Forest Resources MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is a way in which humans pay directly for the ecosystem services forests provide? A) carbon storage B) biodiversity C) water purification D) ecotourism E) flood prevention

2) Accounting for over half of all deforestation in tropical regions is the A) need for agricultural expansion B) harvesting of natural forest products for food C) need for urban development D) unlimited supply of land E) highly productive nature of tropical soils

3) Wood consumption by humans in developing countries is primarily used for A) solid wood products B) building C) fuel D) manufacturing homes E) making paper

4) Field experiments studying the effects of increased CO2 on forest growth have shown A) increased net primary productivity only when nitrogen and water are abundant B) decreased net primary productivity C) there is no real effect on net primary productivity D) increased net primary productivity under all circumstances E) increased net primary productivity only when phosphorus and iron are abundant

5) Which of the following continents is using the least harvested wood for fuel? A) Europe B) Asia C) South America D) North America E) Africa

6) Life of a single tree begins with a(n) A) flower B) seed C) cone D) conifer E) angiosperm

7) Which tree species is most widely used for the purpose of making paper? A) cedar B) redwood C) pine D) maple

7) E) ash

8) Which of the following continents is using the majority of wood for fiber to produce paper? A) Asia B) North America C) Europe D) Africa E) South America

9) Which of the following is a consequence of clearing forests for agriculture purposes? A) Soil erosion is increased. B) Crop productivity is greatly increased because of the rich soil. C) CO2 levels remain appropriate within the atmosphere. D) Water runoff is decreased. E) Biodiversity is increased.

10) The best approach for slowing worldwide deforestation will require A) focus on soil erosion issues B) limiting biodiversity losses C) focus on charcoal use in developed countries D) multiple strategies E) focus on limiting consumption in developing countries

10)

11) Which of the following continents is using the majority of harvested wood for lumber or solid wood products? A) North America B) Europe C) South America D) Africa E) Asia

11)

Use the following information to answer the accompanying questions. When tropical storm Jeanne hit Haiti and the Dominican Republic in September, 2004, there was over 20 inches of rainfall in 24 hours–more than a third of the rain that typically falls during an entire year. Forestry practices in these two tropical countries have been quite different, with most of Haiti's forests having been removed by 1990, and the rapidly growing population becoming increasingly dependent on subsistence farming in mountainous regions of the island. Tropical storm Jeanne created a national disaster for Haiti with over 3,000 lives lost, but the Dominican Republic experienced very short-lived effects. 12) One possible approach to remediating the above scenario might be . A) sustainable harvesting of agricultural crops B) increasing education of the populous so that more urban technology can occur C) employing even-aged forestry management practices D) increasing agricultural output of the country so that starvation is reduced E) community-based programs coupling forest restoration with economic development

12)

13) Rationing is . A) intensively managing forests for human benefit B) intensively managing forests for plant and animal benefit C) the process of determining how old a forest is D) the process of managing the forest using selective cutting E) the process of determining the amount of forests goods and services to be used by humans

13)

14) Primary forests . A) have been cleared by not degrading it B) have grown back from disturbance C) have been largely unaffected by humans D) have been impacted by fire E) have been compromised because of the introduction of non-nature species

14)

Use the following information to answer the accompanying questions. When tropical storm Jeanne hit Haiti and the Dominican Republic in September, 2004, there was over 20 inches of rainfall in 24 hours–more than a third of the rain that typically falls during an entire year. Forestry practices in these two tropical countries have been quite different, with most of Haiti's forests having been removed by 1990, and the rapidly growing population becoming increasingly dependent on subsistence farming in mountainous regions of the island. Tropical storm Jeanne created a national disaster for Haiti with over 3,000 lives lost, but the Dominican Republic experienced very short-lived effects. 15) After tropical storm Jeanne, one immediate consequence of Haiti's forestry practices was to . A) increase volume and speed of rainfall runoff B) reduce NPP values that affected food growing potential C) pollute tropical oceans decreasing tourism D) decrease important sediments brought to cropland E) increase the demand for wood products from forests

15)

16) Primary plant/tree growth is characterized mainly by . A) development of leaves that are essential to photosynthesis B) upward and downward growth due to cell division at tips of roots and shoots C) change in diameter of the stem/trunk D) seed germination E) growth and production of wood

16)

17) The area necessary to maintain all different patch types and populations of their associated species, given the typical patterns of disturbance, is defined as the . A) establishment stage B) secondary growth C) old-growth area D) primary growth E) minimum dynamic area

17)

18) High grading can be defined as _ . A) the loss of biodiversity of forest areas B) the natural frequency and severity of fires in a forest C) artificially or naturally reforested areas D) removal of particular species of trees for fuel and construction E) a forest that has been largely unaffected by humans 19) The seeds of conifer trees are found in A) tissue B) cones 20) Complete removal of the forest canopy is A) uneven aged management B) forest rotation C) rationing D) clear-cutting E) selective harvesting

. C) shoots

18)

19) D) flowers

E) roots

20)

21) Sustainable forest management . A) includes varied uneven-aged management approaches B) is the most efficient way to harvest valuable small timber without disturbing the larger early successional trees C) includes even-aged management D) is the most efficient, cheapest harvesting method E) is the most effective way to harvest all trees in a given location

21)

22) What percentage of wood harvested in Africa is consumed for fuel? A) 10% B) 90% C) 20% D) 40%

22) E) 60%

23) Forests provide habitat for A) 40-60% B) 20-40%

E) 80-100%

of all terrestrial species. C) 60-80%

23) D) 0-20%

24) Among non-wood forest products, markets.

has/have the highest economic value on world

24)

A) mushrooms and truffles B) gums and resins C) pharmaceuticals D) wild nuts and fruit E) ginseng 25) Rotation time in a forest depends on _. A) topography and location of the forest B) extraction of the wood for building homes C) trees produced in the forest D) heterogeneous age structure of the forest E) forest management goals

25)

26) Allocation is _ . A) naturally reforesting specific areas B) the loss of biodiversity of forest areas C) the creation of even-aged stands for greater biodiversity D) the creation of agricultural lands E) the management of the location and relative amounts of different forest uses

26)

27) Currently, the most economically valuable non-wood commodity to be harvested from forests is . A) pharmaceuticals B) gums and resins for industry C) wild nuts and fruits for human food D) mushrooms and truffles E) high protein foods for malnourished populations

27)

28) What do the light green lines within this forestry area represent?

28)

A) strip cropping B) nature hiking paths C) shade tree lines that help with coffee growing D) alley cropping E) road development in the forest 29) Rotation time is _. A) the average interval between successive cuts B) intended use of wood C) the average interval between types of forests: evergreen or deciduous D) intensively managing forests for plant and animal benefit E) intensively managing forests for human benefit

29)

30) Deforestation can be slowed by which of the following? A) practicing shifting agriculture on forest land B) building new roads and homes in forest areas C) growing more timber on short rotations D) practicing clear cutting E) recycling more paper to reduce the need for pulpwood

30)

31) Ten thousand years ago, forests covered approximately 50% of Earth. Today, forests cover approximately of the Earth's land area. A) 15% B) 70% C) 50% D) 30% E) 5%

31)

32) The establishment stage of forest development following disturbance can be described as A) large trees continuing to grow with the biomass of the forest increasing B) tree seedlings germinating on the recently cleared ground C) very large, old trees that are abundant D) tree seedlings becoming established in the gaps in the forest E) trees becoming much larger and more widely spaced in the forest

32)

33) Which of the following forest products would you expect to have the best potential for sustainable use? A) paper B) pharmaceuticals C) firewood D) building materials E) garden mulch

33)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 34) Match the description with the appropriate term.

34)

I. Allocation II. Harvest III. Clear-Cutting IV. Even-Aged Management V. Uneven-Aged Management A. B. C. D. E.

The management of the location and relative amount of different forest uses Produces a more heterogeneous age structure The extraction of goods or services from a forest Produces trees of uniform age The complete removal of forest canopy trees 35)

35) Match the description with the appropriate term. I. Seed II. Conifer III. Angiosperm IV. Phloem V. Xylem A. Tree whose seeds grow in flowers B. Tree whose seeds grow in cones C. Transports carbohydrates down stems to roots D. Embryo embedded in nutritive tissue and surrounded by a protective coat E. Transports nutrients and water from the roots up the stems ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

36) With only 7.3 million mi2 of primary forests remaining worldwide, 23,000 mi2 of these forests continue to be cut on an annual basis. Discuss three major environmental concerns with this continual loss of primary forest land. 37) On July 4-5, 1999 a derecho (widespread wind storm) resulted in damage to 370,000 acres (out of 1 million total acres) and the loss of 25 million trees in the Boundary Water Canoe Area Wilderness (BWCAW) in northern Minnesota. Explain what you expect will happen to the forest stand in the BWCAW as a result of this disturbance.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 13_3E

1) D 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) B 7) C 8) E 9) A 10) D 11) B 12) E 13) E 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) E 18) D 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) E 26) E 27) A 28) E 29) A 30) E 31) D 32) B 33) A 34) I. A, II. C, III. E, IV. D, V. B 35) I. D, II. B, III. A, IV. C, V. E 36) Firstly, biologists estimate that forests contain over 75% of the world's biodiversity in the form of microbes, plants, and animals. In addition to its intrinsic value, this biodiversity provides humans with an array of foodstuffs, clothing, pharmaceuticals, and building materials. The world's forests also provide an immense array of ecosystem services, especially pertaining to the normal functioning of the hydrologic cycle and providing an extensive carbon storage potential in the face of global warming. The roots of trees absorb large amounts of water, which eventually evaporates from leaves into the atmosphere, recondensing as rain. When forests are removed over a large area, rainfall in that area often declines. The volume and flow rate of rainfall runoff is also dramatically reduced by the presence of plants and leaf litter. Finally, forests store large amounts of carbon that they take in during the process of photosynthesis, storing this carbon in the form of carbohydrates in their tissues. Deforestation reduces total global forest carbon storage each year, and it is estimated that this CO2 increase accounts for about 15-20% of the anthropogenic carbon emissions that are currently contributing to global climate change.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 13_2E

37) After a disturbance such as this windstorm (or fire or logging), a forest goes through four stages of succession. The forest first enters the establishment stage, when tree seedlings germinate on the newly cleared forest floor. Due to the loss of old-growth trees, these seedlings have abundant light and little competition for nutrients and water, and quickly grow into saplings. As these saplings grow, competition for light, nutrients, and water intensifies, leading to the next stage of succession. In the thinning stage, the largest trees continue to grow, but the total number of trees declines from several thousand per acre to several hundred, due to intense competition for resources. At the end of the thinning stage, large trees begin to die and leave gaps in the forest canopy. This leads to the transition stage, where seedlings can become established in these gaps. If there are no further disturbances, the forest will finally enter the old-growth stage, which is characterized by a mixture of large old trees and woody debris. Minnesota is a colder climate, so this recovery may take several hundred years.

Chapter 14 Nonrenewable Energy and Electricity MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) In which situation would you expect to be closest to peak load? A) in the middle of a spring night B) on a cool, sunny day C) on an extremely hot day D) on a windy day E) Peak load is always the same, regardless of time or weather.

2) Proved reserves of a nonrenewable energy source are . A) the extent of known energy reserves B) refined and captured but not able to be reused C) quantities of fuel that can be recovered using current technology and prices D) measures of useful energy produced E) reserves that will be exhausted due to overuse by humans

3) Tar sand deposits are examples of A) unconventional oil reservoirs B) clean coal systems C) liquefied natural gas D) conventional oil reservoirs E) peak oil

4) When coal is burned to generate electricity, 70% of the primary energy in the coal is transformed into unused heat. This means that the energy conversion efficiency from chemical to electrical energy is . A) 0% B) 100% C) 70% D) 30% E) cannot be determined

5) Which of the following represents the greatest electric power? A) low potential and low current B) high potential and high current C) low potential and high current D) high potential and low current E) no potential and high current

6) Currently, which of the following primary energy sources accounts for the least global consumption?

A) nuclear B) wood C) gas D) hydropower E) renewable energy 7) Currently, fossil fuels meet A) 5% B) 70% 8) Electric power is measured in A) base load B) peak load C) volts D) amperes E) kilowatt hours

of the global energy needs. C) 79% D) 57%

7) E) 35%

9) Many oil reserves are located far away from the urban areas requiring these reserves. A major oil spill associated with the transporting of oil was _. A) America Trader B) Alaska Monitor C) Exxon Valdez D) Prestige E) Deepwater Horizon

10) Keeping energy prices artificially low . A) encourages use of renewable energy sources B) has no effect on the amount of air pollution in the United States C) encourages waste and rapid depletion of energy resources D) will reduce inflation E) prevents manufacturing from wasting energy in production of good

10)

11) Knowing the importance of assessing coal reserves in terms of energy content per unit weight, which region has the most valuable coal reserves?

11)

A) Europe B) Africa C) South America D) Asia E) Australia 12) The presence of specific polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) in the red blood cells of seagulls indicates . A) nothing of concern as PAHs are normally present in red blood cells B) recent exposure to pollutants from nuclear waste C) recent exposure to pollutants from oil spills D) long-term exposure to pollutants from nuclear waste E) long-term exposure to pollutants from oil spills

12)

13) Energy consumption can be reduced by all of the following except A) purchasing only energy-efficient lighting B) turning off unused lights C) using your car instead of mass transit D) purchasing energy-efficient light bulbs E) buying a more energy-efficient furnace for your home

13)

14) Proven environmental impacts of the transmission of electricity have been associated with intermittent _ . A) air pollution surrounding coal mining B) use of PCBs in transformers C) use of heavy metals in transmission lines D) electromagnetic fields E) radioactive effects of electricity

14)

15) The Kern River Oil Field in California has remained active because A) the demand for oil has increased B) the price of oil has increased C) new extraction technologies have been developed D) both the demand and price for oil has increased E) All of these answers are correct.

16) Proven uranium reserves are found in many continents; of the countries listed below, the country with the least known reserves is .

15)

16)

A) Uzbekistan B) Brazil C) Namibia D) Canada E) Kazakhstan 17) The Hudson River has been polluted with _ transformers. A) PCBs B) DDT C) coolants D) peat E) solid waste

_ from a facility that manufactures electrical

18) A measure of the useful energy produced divided by the amount of energy it takes to obtain it, is known as . A) the energy conversion efficiency B) the energy return on investment (EROI) C) a measure of intrinsic value D) a measure of secondary energy E) the proven reserves

17)

18)

19) One hundred units of coal energy are converted to electricity, which is then used to power an incandescent light bulb that produces 1.2 units of light energy. This results in a 1.2% . A) energy conversion B) energy end-use efficiency C) energy conversion efficiency D) consumption E) energy return on investment

19)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Electrical current is the flow of electrons through a wire and is measured in amperes (amps). The voltage (volts) is a measure of the electric force required to keep electrons flowing through a wire. Power is the rate at which electricity does work, or provides energy, and is measured in watts (W). The current and voltage are related to electric power by the following equation: Power = volts × amps. Large amount of electric power is measured in kilowatts (kW). An electric bill reflects the total amount of electrical energy (expressed in kilowatt-hours, kWh), used by all electric appliances for the duration of the time (in hours) they were being used. Thus: kWh = (W × h) ÷ 1000. 20) If a household appliance is operating on 110 volts and electricity is flowing with a current of 0.2 amperes in this appliance, how many watts are consumed? A) 55 watts B) 22 watts C) 220 watts D) 550 watts E) cannot be determined with information provided

20)

21) Fossil fuels are best described as a(n) A) renewable B) clean C) environmentally friendly D) efficient E) nonrenewable

21)

22) The source of energy for nuclear power is _ A) nuclear reaction B) breeder reactions C) natural gas D) nuclear fission E) nuclear fusion 23) In the United States, oil production is A) slightly greater than B) slightly less than C) significantly greater than D) equal to E) significantly less than

energy source.

oil consumption.

22)

23)

24) Which of the following primary energy sources is currently most consumed by humans? A) oil B) coal C) nuclear power D) natural gas E) wood

24)

25) For the last 100 years, our primary energy source has been A) natural gas B) fuel wood C) fossil fuels D) hydropower E) nuclear energy

25)

26) Natural gas is mainly consumed by A) households B) agriculture C) transportation D) industry E) nuclear power

26)

27) Which of the following is a benefit of using nuclear power? A) few greenhouse gases are emitted B) increasing costs of nonrenewable energy sources C) mining activities D) core meltdown of reactors E) using nuclear power causes more use of fossil fuels

27)

28) A/An _ is a device designed to remove particles and pollutant gases. A) tall stack B) coal washer C) scrubber D) air filter E) boiler

28)

29) Renewable energy includes all of the following except A) rain B) the sun C) the wind D) geothermal heat E) natural gas

29)

30) All of the following except _ would result in improved energy-use efficiency. A) tax credits for installing geothermal heating in your home B) tax credits for insulating and putting double pane windows in existing buildings C) buying more SUV motor vehicles D) rebates for building energy-efficient buildings E) buying high-efficiency appliances

30)

31) Using high pressure liquids to extract oil from rocks such as oil shale is known as A) internal combustion B) outflow washing C) hydraulic fracturing D) primary oil recovery E) scrubber technology 32) Mine tailings contain A) nitrogen

, which harms fish and other aquatic organisms. B) sulfide C) lignite D) fly ash

32) E) oxygen

33) Using the natural built-up pressure in a reservoir to extract crude oil is known as recovery. A) solitary B) quaternary C) primary D) tertiary E) secondary 34) A major concern with natural gas demand is A) lack of appropriate storage B) transportation C) limited use of the fossil fuel D) lack of greenhouse gas emission E) low supply

31)

oil

33)

34)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Electrical current is the flow of electrons through a wire and is measured in amperes (amps). The voltage (volts) is a measure of the electric force required to keep electrons flowing through a wire. Power is the rate at which electricity does work, or provides energy, and is measured in watts (W). The current and voltage are related to electric power by the following equation: Power = volts × amps. Large amount of electric power is measured in kilowatts (kW). An electric bill reflects the total amount of electrical energy (expressed in kilowatt-hours, kWh), used by all electric appliances for the duration of the time (in hours) they were being used. Thus: kWh = (W × h) ÷ 1000. 35) If an electrical tea kettle requires 1500 watts to heat, how many kilowatts does this equal? A) 1.5 × 103 kw B) 15,000 kw C) 1.5 kw D) 1,500,000 kw E) cannot be determined from the data provided

35)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 36) Match the description with the appropriate term.

36)

I. Fuel Cell II. Transformer III. Electric Power Grid IV. Electric Generator V. Electromagnetic Field A. B. C. D. E.

Converts chemical energy into electricity through a reaction with oxygen Reduces amperage and increases voltage Network of transmission lines and transformers Dynamo Area of electromagnetic force 37)

37) Match the description with the appropriate term. I. II. III. IV. V.

Primary Energy Secondary Energy Nonrenewable Energy Renewable Energy Energy Conversion

A. B. C. D. E.

The process of changing one form of energy into other forms of energy Energy contained in natural resources Energy sources that have been converted from other energy sources Sources of energy that exist in limited quantities Sources of energy that are not depleted when they are used

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 38) Identify specific ways in which the transportation and electricity generating sectors could reduce and/or conserve energy in an effort to become more sustainable. 39) Even without the possibility of a nuclear accident, no primary energy source seems to generate more controversy and debate in the United States than nuclear power. Discuss three important environmental impacts that are a result of the normal operation of a nuclear power plant.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 14_3E

1) C 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) E 9) C 10) C 11) D 12) C 13) C 14) B 15) E 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) E 22) D 23) E 24) A 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) E 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) I. A, II. B, III. C, IV. D, V. E 37) I. B, II. C, III. D, IV. E, V. A 38) Transportation: Currently, the combustion of oil-derived fuels accounts for 31% of all human-caused greenhouse gas emissions. The use of electric or hybrid cars, and increasing the opportunities for buses and other mass transit options that are more energy efficient, are options moving us in the direction of a more sustainable transportation future. With higher gasoline prices and more stringent regulatory standards being instituted worldwide, incentives are being created for the production of more fuel-efficient vehicles and vehicles powered by alternative energy sources. Electricity: The existing system of demand-driven generation and distribution of electricity is generally agreed to be wasteful and inefficient. Newer smart grid systems in which real-time pricing is employed (based on consumer high-demand times) and consumers are alerted to when "rush hour" demand periods are occurring, allows consumers to curtail their use and actually consider their electricity consumption in a more realistic manner. With smart grid systems, homes with solar panels would be able to sell their excess solar power back to the grid, or use batteries to store electricity purchased during slack hours for use at peak times.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 14_2E

39) In order to extract uranium ore from the ground, large quantities of rock must be removed and processed. This mining process disturbs large areas of land and leaves extensive mine tailings behind. These tailings are often acidified by rainfall, and have had severe negative impacts on nearby streams and lakes. Secondly, all nuclear power plants generate an extensive amount of heat from the normal fission process of the U235 atoms. In some cases, this heat is dissipated into nearby rivers, lakes, or ocean waters. Elevated temperatures in waters near nuclear power plants can alter the quality of the aquatic or marine habitats and diminish biodiversity. A third environmental impact has to do with the ultimate fate of the nuclear waste generated by nuclear power. To date, no permanent safe storage facility has been designated, and most spent nuclear fuel rods are currently stored on-site, at the over 100 U.S. plants. This spent nuclear fuel must be kept separate from the environment to avoid radioactive contamination of the environment. At present, there are no nuclear repositories in operation, and this continues to pose a potential environmental risk due to the long-term nature (over a million years) that safe storage requires.

Chapter 15 Renewable Energy and Energy Conservation MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Compared to the global demand for energy, renewable energy sources can _ A) exceed the demand B) meet only the demand for electricity C) meet all of the demand D) only meet a small percentage of the demand E) meet about half of the demand

2) The primary advantage of hydropower is that it . A) is the oldest of the renewable energy resources B) produces no environmental effects C) is the most economically feasible of all the renewable energy resources D) is widely available to all countries E) does not rely on fossil fuel to generate electricity

3) Tidal power does not . A) generate electricity using tidal turbines B) operate much like wind turbine electricity generation, except underwater C) generate electricity when high tides revert to low tides. D) convert tides into the potential energy needed for electricity generation E) convert the kinetic energy of tides to electricity

4) Cellulosic ethanol is not produced from A) wood B) wheat straw C) corn D) oat straw E) switchgrass

5) Which of the following renewable energy power sources makes up 50% of the renewable energy currently consumed? A) biomass B) hydropower C) solar D) geothermal E) wind

6) Passive solar technologies _ . A) use the energy of sunlight without relying on electrical or mechanical devices B) use silicon wafers to generate light energy C) use mirrors to concentrate the sun's rays on a tower or a series of pipes holding water D) use photovoltaic cells to produce light energy E) use mechanical devices to heat water and buildings or electrical devices to generate electricity

7) Currently, approximately what percentage of renewable energy consumption is represented by solar power in the world? A) 20% B) 5% C) 2% D) 10% E) 50%

8) Before the completion of the Three Gorges Dam, the world's largest producer of hydroelectricity was .

A) Brazil B) China C) United States D) Russia E) Canada 9)

use mirrors to concentrate the sun's rays on a series of pipes, which heats fluid inside the pipes to boiling, producing steam. The steam is then used to spin a turbine and generate electricity. A) Passive solar technologies B) Solar photovoltaic farms C) Concentrating solar power systems D) Photovoltaic cells E) Biofuels

10) What percentage of energy comes from renewable energy sources besides wood and charcoal burning? A) 10% B) 6% C) 2% D) 14% E) 20%

10)

11) Currently, which of the following renewable energy sources has the highest per kilowatt hour (kWh) cost? A) hydropower B) geothermal power C) solar power D) coal E) wind power

11)

12) Recent U.S. legislation has mandated increased use of biofuels, and the number of ethanol refineries is growing rapidly. It is now predicted that by 2015, as much as of the U.S. corn crop could go toward ethanol production. A) 90% B) 75% C) 20% D) 50% E) 10%

12)

13) Photovoltaic (PV) technology is best described as _ . A) trapping sun's heat and storing it for many varied uses B) using mirrors to concentrate sunlight, in order to heat water and produce steam for electricity generation C) passive solar technology D) using sunlight to generate electricity E) using sun's energy to warm a room without mechanical devices

13)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Data for energy consumption is available for the residential, commercial, and industry sectors in Arizona. In 2010, energy consumption consisted of: 27% for residential energy uses; 15% for industry; 24% for commercial; and 34% for transportation. 14) Which of the following personal actions could have the greatest impact in reducing greenhouse gas emissions? A) switching to all compact fluorescent bulbs for lighting B) driving a hybrid car using ethanol C) recycling aluminum to the nearest industry D) eating organically E) increasing home insulation

14)

15) Which of the following is not a major challenge to the widespread use of renewable energy? A) There are many concerns about the environmental risks associated with these technologies. B) The cost of production of these new technologies is high. C) There are uncertainties and risk associated with investing in new technologies. D) Consumers often have limited knowledge about the source of their electricity. E) Government subsidies for fossil fuels reduce incentives for the use of renewable energy.

15)

16) Energy efficiency is . A) reducing energy wastes B) increasing demand but decreasing accessibility of various energy sources C) the process of using less energy to obtain goods and services D) the amount of energy used per dollar of economic output E) a measurement of overall energy use

16)

17) Geothermal energy is . A) based on nuclear reactions in the Earth's core B) only able to be used during the day C) energy originating from the sun and slowly released from Earth's core D) geographically limited E) intermittent

17)

18) Lake Crystal MN recently experienced a 20% increase in electricity rates. What action would you recommend residents take to use electricity more efficiently? A) Install light-emitting diode (LED) light bulbs. B) Install incandescent light bulbs. C) Purchase a gasoline-electric hybrid car. D) Install compact fluorescent (CFL) light bulbs. E) Purchase a plug-in hybrid car.

18)

19) The fastest growing source of electricity in the world today is from A) wind power B) solar power C) hydropower D) nuclear power E) biomass

19)

20) What region of the United States is best suited for producing wind used for energy?

20)

A) Northeast B) Southwest C) Northwest D) Southeast Mountains E) Western Mountains 21) Which of the following types of vehicles would have the lowest tailpipe emissions? A) fully electric B) high-efficiency diesel C) plug-in hybrid D) gasoline-electric hybrid E) gas-powered conventional

21)

22) Ground-source heat pumps use the difference in temperature between the air and soil to warm and cool buildings. The upper 10 ft of the Earth is always at a constant temperature of _ , which is ideal for warming buildings in the winter and cooling them in summer. A) 50-60°F B) 70-80°F C) over 360°F D) 225-60°F E) 100-20°F

22)

23)

is a government mandate that a certain percentage of energy use come from renewable energy resources. A) Impoundment power practice B) Economies of scale C) Cost of saved energy D) Economic energy intensity E) Renewable portfolio standards

23)

24) "Vampire" power is . A) energy used when appliance is turned off, but in "standby" mode B) the hidden cost of energy C) power that is stored in an electrical system for use later D) when electric currents pass through silicone-rich materials E) when the majority of the energy produced is converted to kinetic energy that can be used later

24)

25) In California, Oregon, and Washington, development of hydropower is limited by potential impacts of facilities on . A) lack of water sources B) already existing fossil fuel plants in the area C) timber harvesting facilities D) endangered fish E) agriculture demand for the land

25)

26) Biomass energy is energy contained in A) the sun B) wind C) water D) firewood and other plant material. E) the Earth's heat

26)

27) Which of the following is not a benefit of the OMEGA (offshore membrane enclosures for growing algae) system? A) It produces freshwater. B) It produces a biodiesel fuel. C) It cleans municipal wastewater. D) It does not lead to deforestation. E) It does not take up valuable land space.

27)

28) A radio ad is promoting the increased use of E85 fuel as being economically and environmentally beneficial. There is no mention of disadvantages. You should be skeptical of this ad because . A) it may take more energy to produce the ethanol than it contains B) ethanol fuel may lead to an increase in food prices C) fossil fuels are required to produce the ethanol required for this blend D) only certain cars are designed to run on this fuel blend E) All of these are reasons to be skeptical.

28)

29) Renewable primary energy sources include all of the following except A) natural gas B) ocean tides C) sunlight D) wind E) biomass

29)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Data for energy consumption is available for the residential, commercial, and industry sectors in Arizona. In 2010, energy consumption consisted of: 27% for residential energy uses; 15% for industry; 24% for commercial; and 34% for transportation. 30) Which of the following energy sources has environmental impacts that could reduce greenhouse gases immediately, and thus have great potential for Arizona? A) tidal power B) hydropower C) solar power D) ocean-grown biofuel E) geothermal energy

30)

31) Which of the following energy sources accounts for more than half of the renewable energy consumed?

31)

A) wind energy B) biomass C) geothermal D) hydroelectric power E) solar energy

32) Burning ethanol derived from sugarcane produces at least burning an equivalent amount of gasoline. A) 66% B) 99% C) 32%

less greenhouse gases than D) 15%

33) Undammed rivers in Colorado tend to experience higher flows in

A) June

B) September

C) October

32)

E) 87% .

D) May

33)

E) April

34) Why is biomass energy renewable? A) Once plants are harvested, they can grow again if proper conditions are provided and rate of harvest does not exceed rate of planting. B) Once forest wood is burned, the forest is not replanted. C) There are always more plants growing somewhere on Earth. D) Once plants are harvested, the soil in no longer fertile for replanting and regrowth. E) Any living organism is considered renewable.

34)

35) The greatest rate of increase in the price of corn ($/bushel) was experienced during

35)

A) 2007-2008

B) 2009-2010

C) 1996-1997

D) 2005-2006

E) 2000-2001

36) Hydroelectric plants using impoundments generate electricity when water is released from a . A) pipe B) turbine C) dam D) powerhouse E) generator

36)

37) What part of the United States is best for capturing solar energy? A) Northwest B) Midwest C) Northeast D) Southeast

37) E) Southwest

38) In order to make use of most renewable energy resources, we must . A) further explore the tropical rainforests for natural products that will aid in these new technologies B) persuade government officials of their abundance C) convert the concentrated nature of these natural resources to more usable forms D) capture and convert these diffuse energy sources into more concentrated forms E) solve the negative environmental impacts of these renewable energy resources

38)

39) One limitation of wind power is that it A) produces water pollution B) involves mining C) uses fossil fuels to generate electricity D) produces radioactive wastes E) is intermittent

39)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 40) Match the term with the appropriate description.

40)

I. Biomass Energy II. Geothermal Energy III. Solar Energy IV. Ocean Energy V. Renewable Energy A. B. C. D. E.

Energy that takes advantage of tides, waves, and differences in water temperatures Energy contained in firewood and other plant matter Heat energy that is generated and stored in the Earth itself Energy from wind, biomass, solar, hydro, and geothermal sources The radiant energy of the sun used to heat and light homes

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 41) Biomass energy represents a potential energy source that offers a number of obvious environmental advantages over other forms of energy sources. However, there are growing concerns over a number of possible negative impacts associated with bioenergy. Discuss two of these specific concerns. 42) Knowing that the fastest growing source of electricity in the world currently is wind power, what is the main environmental advantage and environmental concern to be considered by any community considering wind power's future for their area?

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 15_3E

1) A 2) E 3) D 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) D 8) A 9) C 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) E 21) A 22) A 23) E 24) A 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) E 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) E 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) C 37) E 38) D 39) E 40) I. B, II. C, III. E, IV. A, V. D 41) Using bioenergy offers a number of obvious environmental advantages over other forms of energy; however, it is the possible negative impacts associated with bioenergy attracting so much attention. Although the use of bioenergy is theoretically carbon neutral, in reality the use of many biofuels is not, as greenhouse gas emissions occur at many points in the biofuel production cycle. Significant quantities of fossil fuels are consumed in growing, shipping, and processing crops for biofuel. This specifically includes fossil fuels used by farm machinery, in the production of fertilizers and pesticides, and in pumping water for irrigation. A second concern regarding the use of corn and soybeans for biofuel has been the possible impact on the world economy, increasing the cost of food and even possibly causing food shortages. When land that normally is used to grow food is then transferred into fuel production, less land available for food production would be the issue. As world population continues to grow, this change in land use could have a significant effect. 57

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 15_2E

42) The major environmental advantage for wind power is that it requires no fuel to generate electricity. Therefore, there is no need for mining, drilling, no radioactive wastes, no need for water in cooling towers, or any water pollution effects. Because there is no fuel to burn, there is no release of air pollutants or greenhouse gases produced with wind turbine generation of electricity. On the negative side, some biologists acknowledge that there is a risk of bird and bat mortality associated with wind farms, but note that this impact is very small compared to the millions of birds that are killed annually by domestic house cats or by flying into cell phone towers.

Chapter 16 Urban Ecosystems MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Parts of a metropolitan area outside the central city is a(n) A) exurb B) suburb C) metropolis D) town E) rural community 2) Urban sprawl is a result of people moving away from A) city centers B) current residences C) rural communities D) suburbs E) natural resources

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. The following are examples of renewable energy sources–wind, flowing water, solar, and geothermal processes. These types of energy are often described as green and clean because there is minimal environmental impact from their uses compared to the environmental impacts from using fossil fuels. Using renewable energy resources in the creation of sustainable cities and green infrastructures have been increasing across the United States. 3) Which of the following is not an advantage of using renewable energy sources? A) Renewable resources can be used over and over again. B) fewer health impacts on humans C) There are no pollutants emitted. D) Greenhouse gas emissions continue to be a significant factor. E) fewer environmental impacts on plants and animals

4) Which of the following is the biggest megacity in the World?

A) Sao Paolo

B) Delhi

C) Seoul

D) Tokyo

E) New York

5) A greenway . A) is a waterway within a city park B) prohibits hiking and biking or recreational opportunities C) contains parks that are large enough to harbor populations of exotic flora and fauna D) gives humans access to exercise E) is the link that provides pathways for wildlife to travel between parks and preserves

6) Cities tend to require very waste. A) large; large B) large; small C) small; large D) similar; similar E) small; small

inputs of energy and materials resulting in _

7) What proportion of people live in urban areas in the United States? A) 83% B) 79% C) 53% D) 29%

outputs of

7) E) 70%

8) Urban growth boundaries _ . A) are radial patterns of building cities outward from the city center B) separate neighborhoods from high-density commercial developments C) determine where there will be cities and where there will be rural landscapes D) are grid patterns where streets and alleys are laid out at right angles and buildings are grouped into rectangular blocks E) determine specific areas of land for different uses

9) Increased dependence on the automobile results in _ A) shorter wait times on roads and highways B) greater pedestrian-oriented cities C) fewer concerns with gasoline costs D) fewer pollution concerns E) increased parking space required in urban areas

10) Congestion pricing passes externalized costs of auto dependency on to the _ . A) residents of the city/state through taxation regardless of automobile ownership B) automobile driver C) car manufacturer D) car sales person E) the city/state that licenses the automobile

10)

11) Which of the following human health concerns is a possible consequence of urban sprawl? A) nutritional deficiencies B) lower blood pressure C) cancer D) skin disorders E) obesity

11)

12) Green building approaches do not reduce the ecology footprint of buildings through use of . A) materials with low embodied energy B) infill sites C) LEED certification D) greenfield sites E) building orientation to take advantage of solar radiation

12)

13) Which of the following is an inflow to an urban ecosystem? A) natural resources B) heat C) polluted water D) polluted air E) solid waste

13)

14) In 1950, 29% of the world population lived in urban areas. Today, with that number growing annually. A) 35% B) 67% C) 75% D) 45%

live in urban areas, E) 53%

14)

15) Ninety percent of Earth's garbage is generated in/on A) cities B) rural landscapes C) farms D) industrial facilities E) suburbs

15)

16) After an economic recession in the 1980s, the city of A) Toronto, Canada B) Port Au Prince, Haiti C) Malmo, Sweden D) Los Angeles, California E) Oslo, Norway

renewed itself as a sustainable city.

16)

17) Which of the following statements is false regarding urban ecosystems? A) They are dependent on interactions among living and nonliving components. B) They rely on a constant input of energy and materials. C) They are regions that support the commerce, industry, and community interactions of many humans. D) They do not include wildlife living in the city and surrounding areas. E) They include the physical environment of the city and surrounding areas.

17)

18) When completed, benefits of Atlanta's BeltLine include all of the following except A) parks B) unremediated brownfields C) affordable housing D) pedestrian-friendly rail transit E) multiuse trails

18)

19) Urban is defined by the U.S. Census Bureau as _ . A) an area where the average population density is at least 500 people per square mile B) an area with more than 10 million inhabitants C) the parts of a metropolitan area located outside the central city D) a large central city and adjacent communities E) areas where patches of commercial and residential developments are interspersed in a matrix of rural land

19)

20) A habitat generalist is a species . A) that has highly specialized prey B) that relies on rural settings for survival C) with a specific niche D) that can take advantage of habitats that may have no counterpart in nature E) that cannot survive in a city or suburban area

20)

21) Which of the following is not one of the credit categories for points in LEED certification? A) water efficiency B) materials and resources C) sustainable sites D) outdoor environmental quality E) energy and atmosphere

21)

22) In urban areas, an increase in impervious surfaces will cause A) more precipitation to fall B) a decrease in runoff C) an increase in runoff D) does not influence water flow or precipitation E) less precipitation to fall

23) The amount of gasoline used by each person generally increases with per capita land consumption. However, this graph shows that gasoline consumption is much lower in Australia than in the United States. Why is this the case?

22)

23)

A) Australia has better public transportation. B) Australia is a smaller country. C) Australia has a better road system. D) Australia has fewer major cities. E) Australia is located in the Southern Hemisphere. 24) Suburban living encourages A) walking B) increased use of farming C) increased use of automobiles D) driving electric cars E) riding bicycles

24)

25) The average late afternoon temperature in downtown areas is approximately than rural areas.

A) 2.5°F 26)

B) 10°C

C) 90°F

D) 10°F

warmer

25)

E) 5°F

is a prime example of an integrated network of urban green spaces, woodlands, waterways, public spaces, and transportation corridors. A) Los Angeles Riverway, CA B) Boston Harbor, MA C) Yellowstone NP, WY D) Central Park, NY E) San Antonio Riverway, TX

26)

27) Urbanization is . A) cities that serve as centers of commerce and governance of humans B) the development of technologies, market economies, and social and government structures C) settlements that support societies with governments, public buildings, laws, and taxes D) the centralization of human populations living in densely populated cities E) growth of populations in rural communities with the focus on growing your own food and supporting less technological advancements

27)

28) A specific example of an urban habitat generalist would be the A) Eastern hemlock tree B) dandelion C) American bald eagle D) white-tail deer E) American chestnut tree

28)

29) Imagine that you are an urban planner working in the New England area. What recommendation would you make, based on the Staffordshire University study, to increase the size of bird populations? A) Keep walls bare of vegetation. B) Keep walls covered with vegetation in the winter only. C) Keep walls covered with deciduous vegetation. D) Keep walls covered with evergreen vegetation. E) Keep walls covered with vegetation in the summer only.

29)

30) In urban planning, is the designation of specific areas for different categories of land use. A) green space designation B) new urbanism C) zoning D) urban renaissance E) urban growth boundary

30)

31) In a study of London gardens and their biodiversity, their distance from St. Paul's Cathedral, in downtown London was _ .

31)

A) not a factor in level of biodiversity B) negative up to a distance of 10 km, then the influence diminished C) a direct relationship with biodiversity D) erratic in influence, and no conclusion could be made E) an inverse relationship to biodiversity Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. The following are examples of renewable energy sources–wind, flowing water, solar, and geothermal processes. These types of energy are often described as green and clean because there is minimal environmental impact from their uses compared to the environmental impacts from using fossil fuels. Using renewable energy resources in the creation of sustainable cities and green infrastructures have been increasing across the United States. 32) Which of the following renewable energy source seems to have the greatest potential for creating sustainable cities, especially as it relates to urban electricity production? A) geothermal processes B) tidal power C) compact fluorescent technology D) solar PV E) biofuels

32)

33) About half of urban sprawl is due to . A) increased per capita land use in urban areas B) an increase in urban population C) less people living in cities D) highway/road expansion E) residential development

33)

34) A country's level of wealth is not the only factor determining the degree of automobile dependency in cities. _ is also an important factor. A) Availability of transportation alternatives B) Extent of urban decay C) Whether a country is developed or developing D) Availability of hybrid vehicles E) Access to freeways

34)

35) Urban planning involves all the following disciplines except A) history B) architecture C) engineering D) sociology E) ecology

35)

36) Megacities are urban areas with more than A) 1 B) 100 C) 20

million inhabitants. D) 10

37) Where are temperatures highest in an urban heat island?

36) E) 5 37)

A) parks B) urban residential C) suburban residential D) commercial areas E) downtown 38) Which of the following would not be a part of new urbanism? A) encouraging compact developments embedded in natural landscapes B) creating walk able neighborhoods C) encouraging community neighborhoods D) razing buildings and neighborhoods that are "old" E) promoting mix land uses

38)

39) Which of the following is most important to urban biodiversity and ecosystem services? A) trees and forested parks B) window-box gardening C) beaches D) urban rooftops E) greenhouses

39)

40) A decline in economic and community and deterioration of infrastructure is known as urban . A) death B) sprawl C) decay D) growth E) planning

40)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 41) Match the term with the appropriate description.

41)

I. Urban II. Urban Ecosystem III. Metropolitan Area IV. Suburb V. Exurb A. Region of Earth that supports a large number and high density of humans B. Population density of at least 500 people per square mile C. Located outside of the central city D. Large central city and the adjacent communities E. Area where patches of commercial and residential development are interspersed with rural land ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 42) Why are cities usually warmer than surrounding rural areas? 43) Modern cities that are incorporating sustainability as a guiding principle have realized that by mimicking important features of natural ecosystems, their city is at the forefront of today's urban planning. At the center of this sustainability design is the efficient capture and use of energy and matter. Describe and explain three specific ways in which a city can incorporate aspects of this ecosystem principle that focuses on matter and energy use.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 16_3E

1) B 2) A 3) D 4) D 5) E 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) E 10) B 11) E 12) D 13) A 14) E 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) A 20) D 21) D 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) E 26) D 27) D 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) D 37) E 38) D 39) A 40) C 41) I. B, II. A, III. D, IV. C, V. E 42) The transition from rural landscape to city areas is often correlated with significant climate changes. Cities tend to be warmer than rural areas causing what is called an urban heat island. There are four reasons that might contribute to the heat island effect: 1. Cities have less vegetation than rural areas. 2. Rock, concrete, and asphalt often replace soil and naturally porous landscapes. 3. Buildings and other structures trap heat closer to the city. 4. Buildings, factories, and automobiles release pollutants and gaseous substances as well as generate waste heat.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 16_2E

43) Efficient capture and use of energy and matter require that cities use and recycle the large input of energy and material resources in a more circular manner, rather than the linear approach that results in large outputs of waste. For example, requiring residents to put all wastes into one central collection area where recyclables can be separated from organic and other wastes. Recyclables could be sold to factories that use them for manufacturing of new products, and the combustible wastes could be burned, generating heat that could be used to generate electricity and hot water. The hot water can then be used for residential heating. Secondly, stormwater can be collected from green roofs, where it is purified for residential use. Finally, wastewater, including human waste is kept separate from stormwater and treated so that methane can be captured and used as a source of energy for the urban area. In this circular approach, very little waste results, as much of the original waste is recycled or captured in a usable form.

Chapter 17 Waste Management MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Leachate is collected from landfills because it A) is flammable and explosive B) attracts rodents C) is a source of noxious odors D) may contaminate groundwater E) can be used to generate energy 2) In Japan, recycling rates exceed A) 50% B) 30%

of the waste generated. C) 20% D) 10%

2) E) 40%

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. In the Philippines, much of the country's municipal solid waste is disposed of in open dumps or in bodies of water near urban areas. As a result, the environment surrounding the dumpsites is heavily impacted and a source of concern for human and environmental health. Often, over half of the waste is organic, and another significant portion is composed of material resources that could be recycled. 3) Given the above method of waste management in the Philippines, the most productive overall approach might be . A) developing an industrial waste management policy B) charging appropriate pricing of disposing of wastes C) establishing central transfer stations where waste types could be separated for more efficient and potential use D) developing intensive organic farming across the country E) charging the individuals that dump wastes onto the land

4) In closed loop recycling, . A) materials are recycled an infinite number of times B) the product is made from another type of material and discarded after use C) materials are incinerated without first recovering what is recyclable D) a material is recycled into a different product E) the product is reused to produce a similar product

5) According to the data shown here, which piece of paper is most likely going to be recycled?

A) both of the cut sheets B) a sheet cut into 16 pieces C) an uncut sheet D) a sheet cut into 8 pieces E) They are all equally likely. 6) Which of the following Acts prohibited dumping of waste materials into rivers without permits? A) 2006 REACH Act B) 1899 Rivers and Harbors Act C) 1965 Solid Waste Disposal Act D) 1970 Resource Recovery Act E) 1980 CERCLA Act

7) During the first 20 years of recycling (from 1960 to 1980), the average annual increase in recycling was approximately . A) 8.0 million tons/year B) 80 million tons/year C) 10 million tons/year D) 1 million tons/year E) 20 million tons/year

8) Which of the following actions is not allowed as part of the EPA's Sustainable Materials Management (SMM) Electronics Challenge? A) sending parts to refiners for recovery of precious metals B) refurbishing and reselling devices C) processing of waste in facilities outside of the United States D) recycling of nonelectronic waste, such as cardboard and plastic E) selling of individual components stripped from devices

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. In the Philippines, much of the country's municipal solid waste is disposed of in open dumps or in bodies of water near urban areas. As a result, the environment surrounding the dumpsites is heavily impacted and a source of concern for human and environmental health. Often, over half of the waste is organic, and another significant portion is composed of material resources that could be recycled. 9) Knowing that the Philippines has a growing population that is proving difficult to adequately feed, what waste management approach could help in this problem? A) recycling all of the glass and aluminum products B) composting organic material to increase agricultural productivity C) reducing the over-consumption that is prevalent in the Philippines D) initiating incineration to remove the health hazards from the open pit dumping E) decreasing the amount of land for landfill space so that more is available for growing food

10) Over 100 years ago, nearly 75% of waste made up from residential homes in New York City was . A) wood B) paper C) plastics D) food waste E) coal ash

10)

11) One proposed site for a permanent geologic repository for nuclear waste was A) Chicago, Illinois B) Manhattan, Kansas C) Fargo, North Dakota D) San Diego, California E) Yucca Mountain, Nevada

11)

12) Biomedical waste is mostly disposed of through A) incinerating B) landfilling C) composting D) recycling E) reusing

13) How much waste sent to a landfill does the EPA estimate to be reuseable? A) 6-8% B) 2-5% C) 7-10% D) 10-12%

12)

13) E) 14-16%

14) The belief that those who make a product should assume responsibility for that product throughout its life cycle is the basis for . A) life cycle assessment B) take back regulations C) design for disassembly D) extended product responsibility E) industrial ecology

14)

15) Hazardous wastes are characterized by being mainly A) composed of hazardous heavy metals B) corrosive, flammable, and explosive C) dangerously radioactive D) wastes that are not able to undergo bioremediation E) composed of non-degradable materials

15)

16) Mining of aluminum-rich bauxite ore contributes to A) coastal degradation B) desertification C) soil fertility D) deforestation E) soil erosion

16)

17) In the United States today, the approach that best reduces the volume and weight of municipal solid waste is . A) composting B) incineration C) municipal sewage treatment D) in open pits E) sanitary landfills

17)

18) Why have the number of landfills remained constant in recent years?

18)

A) Composting rates are increasing. B) Recycling rates have leveled off. C) People are buying fewer things. D) Incineration is becoming more popular. E) Reusing rates are decreasing.

19) Why is data on industrial solid waste (ISW) difficult to find? A) ISW is generated in small amounts. B) ISW is not disposed of properly. C) ISW is usually managed by the private sector. D) ISW data is readily available. E) ISW is not separated from MSW.

19)

20) You just purchased a new cell phone. Why is it a bad idea to throw the old one in the trash? A) It contains radioactive elements. B) It contains heavy metals. C) It contains plastic. D) It is compostable. E) It contains PCBs.

20)

21) The average person in which of the following countries produces the least amount of MSW per year? A) India B) United States C) Mexico D) France E) People generate the same amount of MSW in all these countries.

21)

22) Recycling programs, especially for aluminum cans, have become very successful because it requires only of the energy needed to make a can from bauxite ore. A) 5% B) 40% C) 10% D) 55% E) 20%

22)

23) The most efficient way to generate electricity from MSW is through the use of A) recycling B) waste-to-energy facilities C) sanitary landfills D) bioreactor landfills E) composting

23)

24) The Superfund, established to clean up hazardous waste sites in the United States, is a part of the . A) Superfund Authority Act B) Superfund Management and Liability Act C) Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act D) Hazardous Waste Management Act E) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

24)

25) After examining the graph depicting total MSW generation and per capita generation, the main conclusion one can make is _.

25)

A) recycling of e-waste is having an effect B) humans are not recycling as much as they did previously C) MSW generation continues to grow exponentially D) personal reuse and recycling efforts are having an effect E) per capita generation continues to grow exponentially 26) The environmental impact of a product throughout all the stages of its life can be determined through a . A) design for disassembly B) take-back regulation C) industrial ecology analysis D) extended product responsibility E) life-cycle assessment

26)

27) In preparation for moving you help your parents clean out their garage, where you find several cans of leftover paint. How should you dispose of this paint? A) Take it to a household hazardous waste collection center. B) Pour it down the storm sewers. C) Throw it in the trash. D) Pour it down the drain. E) Burn it.

27)

28) Recycling rates have changed over the years since municipal solid waste recycling was initiated in the early 1960s. During what time period were these rates the highest? A) 1985-1990

B) 1960-1970

C) 1980-1985

29) The greenhouse gas produced from most landfills is A) nitrogen B) water vapor C) methane D) ozone E) carbon dioxide

D) 1990-1995

E) 1995-2000

29)

30) There are a variety of ways to approach waste reduction, with the exception of A) buying individual items, not in bulk B) purchasing items that are reusable C) recycling the waste D) reducing the amount a consumer purchases E) reduced packaging 31) The average American generates about lbs.) A) 350 kg B) 625 kg

of municipal solid waste each year. (1 kg = 2.2 C) 725 kg

D) 400 kg

32) The most common use of bioremediation has been to assist in the cleanup of A) oil spills B) non-biodegradable chemicals C) heavy metal contamination sites D) herbicide and pesticide over-application E) PCBs

28)

30)

31)

E) 550 kg .

32)

33)

constitutes the largest portion of the municipal solid waste stream.

33)

A) Paper B) Food waste C) Yard waste D) Wood E) Plastics 34) Most hazardous wastes come from A) common manufacturing B) industrial processes C) chemical and petroleum industries D) pesticide production E) pharmaceutical production

34)

35) Which Act provided funding for the development of state and local waste management programs? A) 1965 Solid Waste Disposal Act B) 1980 CERCLA Act C) 1899 Rivers and Harbors Act D) 1970 Resource Recovery Act E) 2006 REACH Act

35)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 36)

36) Match the term with the appropriate description. I. Municipal Solid Waste II. Industrial Solid Waste III. Waste-to-Energy Facility IV. Sanitary Landfill V. Compost A. Waste produced in industrial processing before the finished product reaches the consumer B. Storage areas for waste that are designed to prevent groundwater contamination, odors, and aesthetic problems C. Materials that are discarded from homes, small businesses, and institutions D. Decayed organic matter that can improve the fertility and water-holding capacity of soil E. Incinerators that use the heat produced by burning waste to produce electricity ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

37) Over the past 50 years, the total amount of waste generated by each person in the United States has nearly doubled, primarily because of increased affluence. Discuss three specific actions that an American citizen could take in order to promote a more environmentally sound waste management lifestyle. 38) Nuclear power, with its radioactive waste production, presents unique environmental challenges for waste management. Discuss the two most critical considerations required to safely manage this type of waste.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 17_3E

1) D 2) A 3) C 4) E 5) C 6) B 7) D 8) C 9) B 10) E 11) E 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) D 17) B 18) B 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) E 27) A 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) A 36) I. C, II. A, III. E, IV. B, V. D 37) First, reducing the amount of waste generated should be the focus. This can be accomplished by purchasing items in reusable containers, or if this is not possible for some items, then to choose items with as little packaging as possible. Packaging waste (paper and plastic) accounts for a significant amount of waste entering the municipal waste stream. Second, increasing the amount of recycling one participates in would be a significant action. Although the current rate of recycling in the United States is just over 30%, in Japan and many European countries it exceeds 50%. Finally, one could consider reusing some wastes, particularly paper and plastic bags used to carry purchased food and material goods. Never using another paper or plastic bag (using cloth, reusable bags instead) would be a significant action, especially if practiced by every U.S. citizen.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 17_2E

38) First, nuclear power plants primarily generate high-level radioactive wastes, mostly in the form of spent fuel rods. With over 100 nuclear power plants in the United States, these sites are spread over vast regions of the country. They are currently the storage site for their own spent fuel rods: initially in wet storage (to dissipate the extreme heat) and finally in stainless steel casks for dry, longer-term storage. Because spent fuel rods still contain high levels of radioactive material, this waste must be kept away from groundwater, soil, humans, and the environment, even in the short term. Second, because the very long half-life of the radioactive isotopes making up the spent fuel, the safe storage and management requirements are much more comprehensive than on-site storage will allow. Permanent longterm storage continues to be an issue for the United States, as there has not been a central site licensed for this highlevel radioactive waste. Although Yucca Mountain, Nevada was proposed, the uncertainties presented by this site, and the nearby community concerns, have resulted in the government's failure to successfully identify a site that will meet all the criteria necessary for permanent storage.

Chapter 18 The Environment

and Human Health

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Where in South America is the risk of an earthquake higher?

A) North

B) West coast

C) South

D) East coast

E) Northeast

2) Which of the following is considered a biological human health hazard? A) malaria exposure B) collisions C) pollutant D) cigarette smoking E) earthquake

3) Human vulnerability to toxins is varied; however, the main influences determining the effects of toxic substances on different individuals are genetics, socioeconomic status, general health, and . A) global geography B) urban or rural residency C) age D) profession E) ethnicity

4) Which of the following is considered a physical human health hazard? A) pollutant B) malaria exposure C) cigarette smoking D) earthquake E) collisions

5) In toxicity testing, the dose of a chemical above which there is a measurable decline in the health of the organism being tested is referred to as . A) median lethal dose B) chronic exposure C) the toxicity threshold D) acute exposure E) the dose-response

6) A _ _ can be defined as the likelihood of a particular factor impairing health or causing deaths. A) control point B) disaster C) risk D) hazard E) toxic

7) What pesticide has been primarily used to control mosquito populations? A) DDT B) mercury C) PCB D) lead E) synthetic estrogens

8) Worldwide, death rates from weather hazards have A) doubled B) increased C) remained the same D) decreased E) tripled

9) In toxicology studies, LD50 can be best described as the dose _

A) in which more than 50% of the population dies as a result of the toxicant development B) at which 50% of an exposed population develops disease C) at which 50% of an exposed population is killed or displays a specific symptom D) at which 50% of an exposed population develops a chronic effect from the toxicant E) in which at least 50% of the exposed population is not affected by the toxicant 10) An integrated approach involving ecology, epidemiology, and education has been used to reduce the threat of in sub-Saharan Africa. A) malaria B) schistosomiasis C) Ebola D) Lyme disease E) avian flu

10)

11) Bioaccumulation is . A) the chemical change that occurs when substances alter the growth and development of humans B) the total amount of chemicals stored in the tissues of living organisms C) the process by which chemicals are stored in the tissues of living organisms D) average length of time a molecule of a substance spends in the environment E) the chemical change that occurs when substances are altered by the sun or metabolized by microorganisms

11)

12) Globally, 80% of all infectious diseases are caused by _ A) HIV/AIDS B) tick-borne pathogens C) mosquito-borne pathogens D) water-borne diarrheal pathogens E) avian and swine influenza viruses

12)

13) Residence time is . A) the chemical change that occurs with time, when substances alter the growth and development of humans B) the length of time it takes for chemicals to be stored in the tissues of living organisms C) the chemical change that occurs with time, when substances are altered by the sun or metabolized by microorganisms D) the length of time it takes to produce toxic chemicals in the environment E) average length of time a molecule of a substance spends in the environment

13)

14) Teratogens are often times also A) asphyxiants B) carcinogens C) neurotoxins D) endocrine disrupters E) allergens

14)

15) Building codes in many earthquake prone areas require homes and apartments to be designed to withstand a Richter magnitude quake. A) 5.2 B) 9.3 C) 6.0 D) 2.1 E) 7.8

15)

16) At a toxicant dose of 27 mg, what would be the expected mortality for this chemical substance?

A) 80%

B) 50%

C) 90%

D) 100%

17) Toxicology is the study of . A) toxin effects on human health B) risks and hazards C) the relationship between chemical exposure and disease development D) the relationship between toxin exposure and disease development E) toxin effects on the environment

16)

E) 75% 17)

18) Which of the following images shows a cultural environmental hazard?

18)

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) None of the above 19) Which of the following influences perceptions of risk? A) public awareness B) the myth of zero risk C) risk-risk tradeoffs D) control over the risk E) These all influence risk perceptions.

19)

20) The H1N1 flu virus is common in A) pigs B) poultry C) waterfowl D) mosquitoes E) birds

20)

_ but rarely transmitted to humans until recently.

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. As has been well-documented in recent years, certain populations and geographic regions can be much more vulnerable to environmental health issues like malaria and the use of DDT. Growing populations, with over 20-30% infected with HIV/AIDS, global climate change, and an environment that has experienced DDT applications for over 50 years, have led to increased outbreaks of malaria in the tropical regions of Africa. 21) How could global climate change be connected with an increase in malaria cases? A) All diseases are more prevalent in tropical areas. B) Humans are more susceptible when they experience temperature extremes. C) Temperature increases improves mosquito breeding conditions. D) Mosquito abatement programs do not work well when temperature increases. E) Temperature increases promote immigration, a percentage of who are already infected with malaria.

21)

22) In recent years in Africa, more individuals have waterways. A) dengue fever B) HIV C) Lyme Disease D) schistosomiasis E) malaria

22)

_ as a result of parasitic worms in

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. As has been well-documented in recent years, certain populations and geographic regions can be much more vulnerable to environmental health issues like malaria and the use of DDT. Growing populations, with over 20-30% infected with HIV/AIDS, global climate change, and an environment that has experienced DDT applications for over 50 years, have led to increased outbreaks of malaria in the tropical regions of Africa. 23) Which of the following nonhuman-related causes has most likely contributed the most to the increase in malaria in Africa? A) increased insecticide resistance B) increased difficulty in treating malaria with antibiotics C) less money for mosquito abatement programs D) growing urban populations E) increased vulnerability of HIV-infected humans to malaria

23)

24) Which of the following diseases is transmitted by an insect vector? A) sickle-cell B) SIV C) schistosomiasis D) malaria E) HIV

24)

25) Toxicologists designate particularly long-lived and widely dispersed organic chemicals as persistent organic pollutants (POPs). Which of the following chemicals are in this category? A) lead B) cadmium C) carbon monoxide D) U235

25)

E) PCB 26) Which of the following is an example of an indirectly transmitted anthroponosis? A) Lyme disease B) Ebola C) malaria D) avian flu E) HIV/AIDS

26)

27) There are significant differences in the leading causes of death between developed and developing regions of the world. The biggest difference is in the category of frequency of .

27)

A) childhood diseases B) lung diseases C) cancer D) E. coli illnesses E) cardiovascular diseases 28) Bisphenol A is most often found in A) metals B) wood

. C) materials

28) D) plastics

E) cosmetics

29) Toxicologists refer to the total amount of a chemical present in the tissues of an organism as . A) biomagnification B) toxic content C) bioaccumulation D) body burden E) threshold content

29)

30) In 1950 the global infant mortality was _ A) 4 B) 1/2

30)

times higher than it is today. C) 10 D) 1

E) 2

31) Tropical storms and associated floods have greater impacts in poor countries that have experienced . A) hurricanes B) deforestation C) desertification D) soil erosion E) forest fires

31)

32) What neurotoxin is of greatest concern for children's health? A) ethylene B) benzene C) acetone

32) D) lindane

E) lead

33) Where are hurricanes and typhoons most likely to hit the coast of North America?

A) North

B) Southwest

C) East

34) As a result of air pollution in urban areas, more children have A) asthma B) malaria C) sickle-cell D) emphysema E) schistosomiasis

D) West

E) South

35) Seventy five percent of weather-related deaths since 1990 have been associated with A) tropical storms B) blizzards C) volcanic eruptions D) wind storms E) tornadoes

33)

34)

35)

36) As a result of rapid changes in the development of forest landscapes, increasing. A) dengue fever B) Lyme Disease C) malaria D) schistosomiasis E) HIV

incidence is rapidly

36)

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 37) Match the term with the appropriate description.

37)

I. Toxicity Threshold II. Bioaccumulation III. Biomagnification IV. Carcinogens V. Teratogens A. Chemicals that cause or support cancer B. Substances that cause mutations and birth defects C. The dose of a chemical above which there is a measurable decline in the health measure D. The process by which chemicals are stored in the tissues of living organisms E. Concentrations of a chemical increase at each higher level of the food web ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 38) Discuss three of the most important factors influencing a person's vulnerability to environmental toxins. 39) Debate over the use of DDT to control malaria is likely to continue. However, over the past several decades, much has been learned about how this insecticide works, and why its extensive use poses an environmental concern. Discuss three characteristics of this chemical that cause it to be problematic.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 18_3E

1) B 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) E 14) B 15) E 16) C 17) A 18) D 19) E 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) E 26) C 27) E 28) D 29) D 30) A 31) B 32) E 33) C 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) I. C, II. D, III E, IV. A, V. B 38) The effect of toxic substances on humans varies considerably, depending on the factors of genetic makeup, age, health, and socioeconomic status. Firstly, one's genetic makeup plays an important role in susceptibility to chemicals. There is a growing body of evidence showing that humans vary in the ability of their DNA to be altered by toxic chemicals, thus equal toxicant exposures can result in quite a difference in susceptibility to cancer. Age particularly influences vulnerability because the young and developing, human nervous system undergoes enormous changes during the first decade of life, making children particularly vulnerable to neurotoxins. Finally, there is a growing body of evidence showing that socioeconomic status affects vulnerability to toxicants. Not only do poor people have more limited access to health care, they are also much more likely to live in environments that increase their risk of exposure. Living in older homes with lead paint, or living closer to industrial and waste facilities, are often considered normal living conditions for lower socioeconomic groups.

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 18_2E

39) DDT is a synthetic chemical, developed in the mid-1940s as an insecticide to be used against malaria. This chemical has many of the critical characteristics that cause it to be particularly harmful to a wide array of warm-blooded organisms, including humans. Its persistence, transport in the environment, and uptake by many non-target organisms contribute significantly to its environmental health concerns. DDT is not easily broken down in the environment, and even its by-products are toxic. DDT's environmental persistence is estimated to vary between 30 and 100 years. Because it is sprayed over wide areas, it easily gets into water supplies and affects aquatic food webs. Because it is taken up by insects and other small organisms found in lower trophic levels, its ability to bioaccumulate in higher organisms in the food chain is dependent on its fat solubility characteristic. That is, DDT is able to be stored in the tissues of living organisms without breaking down, and this characteristic leads to its biomagnification in the food web. Organisms that feed on other organisms whose tissues have stored DDT, are likely to store an even higher concentration. Some of the most well-documented environmental effects of DDT have been egg-shell thinning in birds of prey; however, cancer and developmental abnormalities have also been documented in amphibians and other higher vertebrates.

Chapter 19 The Environment and You MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Sustainable living involves . A) avoiding recycling but taking into consideration reusing items B) reducing your ecological footprint C) only living for today D) not considering your daily actions and the impact they have on the environment E) only learning what you need to know now

2) For ecosystems, what specific step can reduce the impact of global temperature increase? A) Conservation of wetlands and biodiversity B) Develop drought-hardy plants. C) Implement immunization programs to prevent spread of diseases. D) Improve coastal dikes and canals. E) Establish efficient irrigation systems.

3) Total world population is A) 4 B) 3

billion. C) 9

D) 7

E) 5

4) If no action is taken to limit greenhouse gas emissions over the next century, sea level is predicted to rise by approximately meters. A) 1.5 B) 0.5 C) 1.0 D) 3.0 E) 0.3

5) If greenhouse emissions continue to accumulate in the atmosphere at the current rate over the next century, it is predicted that global temperatures will rise by . A) 10°C B) 1°C C) 5°C D) 8°C E) 3°C

6) The Sustainable Duke program, begun in 2007 in order to reduce Duke University's net greenhouse gas emissions, was able to accomplish an approximate _ reduction by the end of 2009. A) 20% B) 50% C) 1% D) 0% E) 10%

7) Which of the following actions would put us on the path towards a sustainable future?

A) increased use of renewable energy sources B) increased energy efficiency C) diminished reliance on fossil fuels D) increased energy conservation E) All of these actions are necessary. 8) An effective water conservation strategy that you could take would be A) washing dishes in a half-full dishwasher B) to repair dripping faucets C) running the water while you brush your teeth D) taking longer showers E) doing very small loads of laundry 9) Ecological footprints of American and Europeans are countries. A) 2-4 B) 20-25 C) 10-15

_ times larger than those in poor D) 15-20

E) 5-10

10) To determine your specific impacts on the environment, one can . A) determine your current water pollution impact B) calculate your ecological footprint C) measure local air pollution and its impacts on your health D) measure the volume and type of all the wastes you contribute to the municipal waste stream E) calculate the biodiversity of your local community

10)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Many important life-sustaining resources and ecosystem services are predicted to become scarcer in the next 50 years. Two of the best-known examples of this trend involve water and oil consumption. Although a daily dependence on both is a fact of human existence in the 21st century, these resources differ in very basic ways: renewability. Although not the only effective approach, increased conservation is recommended as a central focus for managing both resources, in order to accelerate the transition to a more sustainable future. 11) Increased water stewardship requires that we stop using Earth's surface and groundwater as . A) sources of electrical energy B) waste disposal systems C) a source of recreation for boating D) a way to raise agricultural crops E) important ecosystem services

11)

12) What part of the IPAT equation does providing contraceptive and reproductive health fall under?

12)

A) population B) impact C) technology D) affluence E) none of the above

13) Leadership is . A) based on your own values and visions without focusing on outcomes or diversity B) considering knowledge and technologies to show environmental trends C) actions by you without input from others D) action by you that changes the behavior of others E) based on your own values while focusing on outcomes that cause little environmental change

13)

14) Since 1970 the rate of new discovery of oil that we can tap using available technologies has declined by . A) 35% B) 85% C) 55% D) 75% E) 65%

14)

15) Water stewardship requires _ . A) maintaining and repairing water systems B) that we stop using surface water and groundwater as waste disposal systems C) full cost pricing in the cost of water to consumers D) water conservation E) all of the above

15)

16) Earth's biodiversity remains a reservoir for A) pests and disease B) oil and coal C) habitat extinction and species destruction D) foods and medicines E) water and waste production by humans

16)

17) Reducing population growth rates in poor countries can be accomplished by A) economic disasters B) education of women C) valuing the birth of a son D) illness in infants E) reproducing beyond replacement fertility

17)

18) Which of the following is not a renewable energy source? A) solar B) wind C) heat from the sun D) water E) oil

18)

19) Which of the following practices will help reduce greenhouse gas emissions? A) using technologies that capture carbon for later release into the atmosphere B) reducing energy efficiency C) using technologies that increase carbon in the environment D) using renewable energy sources E) using nonrenewable energy sources

19)

Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions. Many important life-sustaining resources and ecosystem services are predicted to become scarcer in the next 50 years. Two of the best-known examples of this trend involve water and oil consumption. Although a daily dependence on both is a fact of human existence in the 21st century, these resources differ in very basic ways: renewability. Although not the only effective approach, increased conservation is recommended as a central focus for managing both resources, in order to accelerate the transition to a more sustainable future. 20) The primary reason for a conservation approach for remaining oil reserves is . A) developing countries are using less, making a greater resource available for the industrialized nations B) the rate at which we are extracting oil is thousands of times faster than the rate of its formation C) the ever-increasing higher costs of oil D) industry is taking an ever-increasing share of these resources E) these resources are very hard to mine

20)

21) This graph shows that above

21)

there is no correlation between happiness and wealth.

A) $80,000 per year B) $40,000 per year C) $0 per year D) $20,000 per year E) $10,000 per year

22) According to the greenhouse gas emissions data collected by Duke University, the year that Duke's rate of emissions increased the most dramatically was _. A) 2006-2007 B) 1990-1991 C) 2009-2010 D) 1995-1996 E) 1999-2000

22)

23) Deforestation . A) minimizes the flow of water, but increases the quality of the water we drink B) fosters replication of endangered species C) increases greenhouse gases D) diminishes the trees' ability to purify water E) increases the availability of resources to humans

23)

24) Since 1900, greenhouse gas emissions associated with burning fossil fuels and deforestation have warmed Earth's atmosphere by approximately . A) 0°C B) 1°C C) 5°C D) 3°C E) 8°C

24)

25) IPAT stands for . A) impact, population, attitude, and technology B) impact, people, affluence, and technology C) industry, people, attitude, and teaching D) impact, population, affluence, and technology E) industry, population, attitude, and teaching

25)

26) Which of the following environmental changes is most certain to occur? A) Already scarce resources will be replenished. B) The Earth's atmosphere will become warmer. C) The population will decrease. D) Biodiversity will increase. E) The Earth's atmosphere will cool down.

26)

27) If deforestation and fossil fuel burning continue to increase at their current rates, greenhouse gasses in the atmosphere are predicted to by 2050. A) increase 20% B) double C) triple D) decrease by 50% E) increase 30%

27)

28) Effective environmental leaders believe that their actions A) are superior to others B) have no impact on the environment C) can do nothing because they are only one person D) matter E) cannot be changed

28)

29) In order to reduce your waste disposal footprint, you might A) use organic fertilizers instead of manure or recycled sludge B) consider purchasing disposable items C) throw away everything D) give attention to reuse, recycle, and reduce E) recycle nothing

29)

30) Per capita oil demand is going to increase worldwide because of . A) more need for oil in producing paint B) less advancement in developing countries for oil-dependent technologies C) greater access to automobiles in developing countries D) less access to oil in the Earth's crust E) more need for oil in producing plastics

30)

31) Poverty encourages . A) low population growth rates B) low birth rates C) low death rates D) low fertility rates E) high population growth rates

31)

32) How many plants, animals, and microorganisms became extinct in 2011? A) 1,000 B) 20,000 C) 100 D) 10,000

32)

E) 100,000

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 33)

33) Match the term with the appropriate description. I. Sustainable Living II. Environmental Leadership III. Give Wisely IV. Sustainable Waste Disposal V. Sustainable Energy Use A. Give attention to reusing items, recycling as much as possible and composting organic wastes B. Action by you that can change others' environmental behaviors C. Reducing your ecological footprint D. Choosing energy efficient lighting and appliances; being mindful of heating and cooling practices E. Involvement in volunteer efforts can have significant impacts on the environment you live in ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

34) The question of whether we have passed the peak of availability for oil continues to be debated among energy experts. However, if we define availability to mean oil that can be extracted by conventional technologies and low prices, there is no debate. With this knowledge, discuss three specific oil- use strategies that could be employed to move toward a more sustainable lifestyle. 35) Calculate your ecological footprint by going to www.ecologicalfootprint.com. Once you determine the factors that evaluate your use of water, energy, waste disposal, transportation, and food consumption, use the results of your specific ecological footprint to decide upon three specific actions which you can take to reduce the size of your ecological footprint. Make sure that your specific actions each fit into a different category (water, energy, waste, transportation, and food).

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 19_3E

1) B 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) D 6) E 7) E 8) B 9) E 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) E 16) D 17) B 18) E 19) D 20) B 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) B 27) B 28) D 29) D 30) C 31) E 32) B 33) I. C, II. B, III. E, IV. A, V. D 34) First, to reduce one's individual use of oil, one could focus on utilizing public transportation, walking, bicycling, and driving more fuel-efficient vehicles. Putting a greater emphasis on any of these approaches would lessen the amount of oil needed to be refined for transportation purposes. Second, incorporating all of the external costs of producing oil should be factored into the cost of gasoline at the pump. The consumer cost of gasoline would then be much higher and might further encourage consumers to drive less and use more public transportation. Third, on a more comprehensive scale, one could advocate and promote local governments investigating the use of more renewable energy sources (wind turbines and Eco-Machines) for the running of town facilities such as wastewater and drinking water treatment plants. 35) The answers will vary based on results of individual student lifestyle. Students can reflect on their results and could then consider making lifestyle adjustments that support a greater environmental sustainability.