TEST BANK for General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry 7th Edition by Stephen Stoker. ISBN 9781305 by StudyGuide

Chapter 01: Basic Concepts About Matter.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In which of the following pairs of properties are both properties chemical properties? a. Freezes at 10°C and is nonflammable b. Decomposes at 500°C and reacts with bromine c. Poor conductor of heat and is reddish brown in color d. Has a low density and is very hard 2. Which of the following statements concerning pure substances is correct? a. Elements, but not compounds, are pure substances. b. A pure substance can never be separated into simpler pure substances using chemical means. c. Pure substances cannot have a variable composition. d. More than one correct response e. No correct response 3. Give the classification of matter when two substances exist with three phases present. a. heterogeneous mixture b. homogeneous mixture c. compound d. element Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements is true. 4. Statements: (1) A basis for distinguishing between an element and a compound is whether the substance can be decomposed into other substances using chemical means. (2) Current chemical theory strongly suggests that all naturally occurring elements have been identified. (3) The elements silver, gold, and aluminum all have chemical symbols that start with the letter A. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 5. A substance reacts vigorously with chlorine. Choose the appropriate classification from the response list below: a. could be an element or a compound. b. could be an element but not a compound. c. could be a compound but not an element. d. can neither be an element nor a compound. 6. A substance that cannot be separated into two or more substances using physical means a. must be an element. b. could be a compound. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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c. must be a pure substance. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 7. Which one of the following statements about heteroatomic molecules is correct? a. Two atoms in a heteroatomic molecule may be the same. b. Upon chemical subdivision, heteroatomic molecules always yield two or more kinds of atoms. c. Heteroatomic molecules maintain the properties of their constituent elements. d. Molecules of certain elements are heteroatomic. 8. Which of the following is a correct description of a sample of ice cubes in water? a. One phase present, one substance present b. One phase present, two substances present c. Two phases present, one substance present d. Two phases present, two substances present 9. A pure substance F is found to change upon heating into two new pure substances M and Y. Both M and Y may be decomposed by chemical means. From this we may conclude that: a. F is an element, M and Y are compounds. b. F is a compound, M and Y are elements. c. F, M, and Y are all elements. d. F, M, and Y are all compounds. 10. A substance has a variable composition. Choose the appropriate classification from the response list below: a. could be an element or a compound. b. could be an element but not a compound. c. could be a compound but not an element. d. can neither be an element nor a compound. 11. Which of the following statements about heterogeneous and homogeneous mixtures is correct? a. It is possible to have heterogeneous mixtures in which all the components are liquids. b. A homogeneous mixture contains visibly different parts, or phases. c. All of the phases in a heterogeneous mixture must be in the same state. d. No two phases in a heterogeneous mixture can be in the same state. 12. For the elements silicon, sulfur, and tin; choose the appropriate characterization of the set's chemical symbols from the response list. a. All symbols have one letter. b. All symbols have two letters. c. All symbols start with the same letter. d. All symbols start with a letter not the first letter of the element's English name. 13. A substance will explode if exposed to light. The substance: a. could be an element or a compound. b. could be an element but not a compound. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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c. could be a compound but not an element. d. can neither be an element nor a compound. Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements is true. 14. Statements: (1) When the formula for a compound contains parentheses it is an indication that the compound is unstable and subject to decomposition. (2) The fact that an unknown substance reacts with chlorine is insufficient basis for classifying the unknown as a compound. (3) All chemical symbols use a two-letter notation to represent the name of an element. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 15. Give the classification of matter when two substances are present as a heteroatomic molecules. a. heterogeneous mixture b. homogeneous mixture c. compound d. element 16. Which of the following substances is both homoatomic and tetraatomic? a. HCN b. H2O2 c. P4 d. H2CO3 17. In which of the following sequences of elements do all members of the sequence have chemical symbols starting with the same letter? a. Sulfur, silicon, sodium b. Gold, silver, aluminum c. Potassium, phosphorus, lead d. More than one correct response e. No correct response 18. For the elements calcium, iron, and beryllium; choose the appropriate characterization of the set's chemical symbols from the response list. a. All symbols have one letter. b. All symbols have two letters. c. All symbols start with the same letter. d. All symbols start with a letter not the first letter of the element's English name. 19. In which of the following pairs of chemical formulas do both members of the pair have the same number of atoms per Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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molecule? a. NaSCN and H2CO3 b. CoCl2 and COCl2 c. O2N2 and NH3 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 20. For the elements gold, lead, and bromine; choose the appropriate characterization of the set's chemical symbols from the response list. a. All symbols have one letter. b. All symbols have two letters. c. All symbols start with the same letter. d. All symbols start with a letter not the first letter of the element's English name. 21. In which of the following sequences of chemical formulas do all members of the sequence fit the description “heteroatomic and triatomic”? a. HCN, H2O and O3 b. CO2, NO2 and N2O c. S2O, SO2, and SO3 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 22. Which of the following substances is both heteroatomic and triatomic? a. HCN b. H2O2 c. P4

d. H2CO3

23. Give the classification of matter when two substances exist with two phases present. a. heterogeneous mixture b. homogeneous mixture c. compound d. element Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements is true. 24. Statements: (1) The determination of a physical property of a substance causes no change in the identity of the substance. (2) Matter is anything that has mass, occupies space, and can be seen by the naked eye. (3) The two most abundant elements in the Earth's crust are oxygen and carbon. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true.

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c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 25. When substance A reacts with substance B, a new substance C is formed. Based on this information, we can say that: a. Both A and B are elements. b. B could be a compound. c. C must be a compound. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 26. A substance decomposes upon heating. Choose the appropriate classification from the response list below: a. could be an element or a compound. b. could be an element but not a compound. c. could be a compound but not an element. d. can neither be an element nor a compound. 27. When a substance undergoes a chemical change it is always true that a. it liquifies b. it changes from a solid to a gas c. it is converted to a new kind of matter with a different composition d. the temperature of the substance increases 28. Consider the chemical formulas CoI2 and COI2. It is true that they a. contain identical kinds of atoms. b. represent the same compound. c. contain different kinds and numbers of atoms. d. can be described by none of the above. Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements is true. 29. Statements: (1) A molecule is a group of two or more atoms that functions as a unit because the atoms are bound together by chemical forces. (2) The crushing of ice to make ice chips is a physical procedure that involves a chemical change. (3) Most naturally occurring samples of matter are mixtures rather than pure substances. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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30. For the elements iodine, fluorine, and nitrogen; choose the appropriate characterization of the set's chemical symbols from the response list. a. All symbols have one letter. b. All symbols have two letters. c. All symbols start with the same letter. d. All symbols start with a letter which is not the first letter of the element's English name. 31. Which of the following pairings of chemical formulas and "molecular descriptions" is incorrect? a. LiCN and "triatomic" b. KCl and "heteroatomic" c. N2 and "homoatomic" d. SiO2 and "diatomic" 32. Which of the following statements concerning the known elements is correct? a. No new elements have been identified within the last 40 years. b. Most elements occur naturally. c. 108 elements are known at present. d. Scientists have synthesized all possible non-natural elements. 33. In which of the following pairs of chemical formulas do the two members of the pair contain the same number of elements as well as the same number of atoms? a. Cs and CS b. CoBr2 and COBr2 c. CoCl2 and CoCl3

d. NH4Br and NiSO4

34. An element is a substance that a. can be broken down into simpler substances by physical means. b. cannot be broken down into simpler substances by physical means. c. can be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means. d. cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical or physical means. 35. Which of the following substances has the number of elements present and number of atoms present, which differ by a factor of two? a. HCN b. H2O2 c. P4

d. H2CO3

36. In which of the following pairs of properties are both properties physical properties? a. Melts at 73°C, decomposes upon heating b. Is a good reflector of light, is blue in color c. Has a high density, is very hard d. More than one correct response e. No correct response 37. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Elements, but not compounds, are pure substances. b. Compounds, but not elements, are pure substances. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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c. Both elements and compounds are pure substances. d. Neither elements nor compounds are pure substances. 38. In which of the following sequences of elements does each element have a one-letter chemical symbol? a. indium, carbon, silver b. iodine, boron, tungsten c. antimony, boron, nitrogen d. nitrogen, germanium, bromine 39. The total number of atoms present in one formula unit of Co2(SO4)3 is a. 14 b. 15 c. 16 d. 17 Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements is true. 40. Statements: (1) No more than two visibly distinct phases may be present in a homogeneous mixture. (2) Elements are chemically rather than physically combined in a compound. (3) A common characteristic for both solids and liquids is a definite volume. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 41. Which of the following pairings of terms/concepts is correct? a. Atom; limit of physical subdivision b. Molecule; limit of chemical subdivision c. Compound; homoatomic molecule d. More than one correct response e. No correct response Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements is true. 42. Statements: (1) A compound must always contain two or more types of atoms. (2) The description “one substance present, two phases present, all molecules are homoatomic” is consistent with a sample Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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that is an element. (3) The number of known elements is less than one hundred. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 43. Statements: (1) The first letter in a chemical symbol is always the same as the first letter in the element's name. (2) Two elements account for over 75 percent of the atoms in the Earth's crust. (3) The limit of chemical subdivision for a compound is a molecule. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 44. Which of the following is a property of both the liquid state and the solid state? a. a definite shape b. an indefinite volume c. an indefinite shape and a definite volume d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 45. A substance is silvery-gray in color. Choose the appropriate classification from the response list below: a. could be an element or a compound. b. could be an element but not a compound. c. could be a compound but not an element. d. can neither be an element nor a compound. 46. Which of the following statements concerning mixtures is correct? a. The composition of a homogeneous mixture cannot vary. b. A homogeneous mixture can have components present in two physical states. c. It is impossible for a mixture containing only one phase to be heterogenous. d. More than one correct response e. No correct response Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements is true. 47. Statements: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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(1) Temperature and pressure are the only major factors that determine the state of matter (solid, liquid, gas) observed for a particular substance. (2) The components of a mixture maintain their identity if the mixture is heterogeneous but lose their identity if the mixture is homogeneous. (3) No more than six atoms may be present in a heteroatomic molecule. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 48. The description “two substances present, two phases present” is correct for a. a mixture of ice and water b. a mixture of oil and water c. a mixture of milk and water d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 49. A substance is melted. Choose the appropriate classification from the response list below: a. could be an element or a compound. b. could be an element but not a compound. c. could be a compound but not an element. d. can neither be an element nor a compound. 50. The most abundant elements in the universe and in the Earth's crust are, respectively, a. oxygen and iron. b. hydrogen and helium. c. helium and carbon. d. hydrogen and oxygen. 51. A substance has a freezing point of -20°C. This is an example of a: a. physical property. b. chemical property. c. physical change. d. chemical change. 52. A substance has a high density. Choose the appropriate classification from the response list below: a. could be an element or a compound. b. could be an element but not a compound. c. could be a compound but not an element. d. can neither be an element nor a compound. 53. A substance is reacted with chlorine gas. The substance: a. could be an element or a compound. b. could be an element but not a compound. c. could be a compound but not an element. d. can neither be an element nor a compound. 54. Which of the following substances contains fewer atoms of one kind than other kinds? a. HCN b. H2O2 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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c. P4

d. H2CO3

55. Which of the following statements concerning the chemical symbols for the elements is correct? a. All chemical symbols start with the first letter of the element's English name. b. Most elements have two-letter chemical symbols. c. Synthetic elements have one-letter symbols and naturally-occurring elements have two-letter symbols. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 56. Which one of the following statements about atoms is incorrect? a. An atom is the smallest "piece" of an element that can exist and still have the properties of the element. b. Free isolated atoms are rarely encountered in nature. c. Atoms may be decomposed using chemical change. d. Only one kind of atom may be present in a homoatomic molecule. 57. For the elements silver, sodium, and potassium; choose the appropriate characterization of the set's chemical symbols from the response list. a. All symbols have one letter. b. All symbols have two letters. c. All symbols start with the same letter. d. All symbols start with a letter which is not the first letter of the element's English name. 58. Give the classification of matter when two substances exist with one phase present. a. heterogeneous mixture b. homogeneous mixture c. compound d. element 59. In which of the following sequences of elements does each element have a two-letter chemical symbol? a. barium, iron, nitrogen b. selenium, nickel, strontium c. silicon, zinc, hydrogen d. iodine, xenon, titantium Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements is true. 60. Statements: (1) The isolation of the metal iron from its ores involves a series of high temperature reactions in which carbon monoxide is one of the reactants. (2) Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins all contain the elements hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon. (3) Substances whose molecules are both diatomic and heteroatomic must be heterogeneous mixtures. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 61. In which of the following pairs of chemical formulas do both formulas represent compounds? b. CO2 and O2 a. O2 and O3 c. HCN and N2

d. N2O4 and NO2

62. The description "two substances present, two phases present" is correct for a. heterogeneous mixtures b. homogeneous mixtures c. elements d. compounds 63. Which of the following statements concerning elemental abundances in Earth's crust is correct? a. One element accounts for over one-half of all atoms present. b. Silicon and aluminum are the two most abundant elements in terms of atom percent. c. Elemental abundances in Earth's crust closely parallel elemental abundances in the universe as a whole. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 64. Which of the following is a property of both gases and liquids? a. Definite shape b. Indefinite shape c. Definite volume d. Indefinite volume 65. Which of the following statements about compounds and mixtures is correct? a. Both mixtures and compounds must contain two or more kinds of atoms. b. Mixtures must always contain at least one compound. c. Both mixtures and compounds can have a variable composition. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 66. Which of the following substances contains same number of elements as atoms? a. HCN b. H2O2 c. P4

d. H2CO3

Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements is true. 67. Statements: (1) The classification “triatomic molecule” denotes molecules in which three different elements are present. (2) Common physical properties for a substance include color, melting point, boiling point, flammability, and hardness. (3) The chemical formulas HN3 and NH3 represent two ways for denoting the same compound. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 68. Which of the following changes is a chemical change? a. Melting of ice b. Pulverizing of hard sugar cubes c. Rusting of iron d. More than one correct response e. No correct response 69. Give the classification of matter when two substances exist with two phases present and the substance cannot be decomposed by chemical means. a. heterogeneous mixture b. homogeneous mixture c. compound d. element 70. A substance is composed of diatomic molecules. Choose the appropriate classification from the response list below: a. could be an element or a compound. b. could be an element but not a compound. c. could be a compound but not an element. d. can neither be an element nor a compound.

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Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. b 8. c 9. d 10. d 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. d Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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26. c 27. c 28. c 29. b 30. a 31. d 32. b 33. d 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. c 38. b 39. d 40. b 41. e 42. b 43. c 44. e 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. a 50. d 51. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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52. a 53. a 54. d 55. b 56. c 57. d 58. b 59. b 60. b 61. d 62. a 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. d 70. a

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Chapter 02_ Measurements in Chemistry. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Statements:

(1) The answer to the calculation 12.00 × (6.00 × 1023) should contain three significant figures. (2) A meter is slightly larger than a yard, and a liter is slightly larger than a quart. (3) The numbers 3.30 × 10-1 and 3.30 × 101 both have a magnitude of less than one. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 2. In which of the following sequences of measured numbers do all members of the sequence contain three

significant figures? a. 3.03 and 3.30 and 0.033 b. 78,000 and 0.00780 and 780 c. 30.0 and 0.300 and 30,100 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 3. The correct answer obtained from adding the measurements 9.6, 4.79, and 5.352 contains a. two significant figures b. three significant figures c. four significant figures

d. five significant figures

4. According to dimensional analysis, which of the following is the correct setup for the problem "How many

milligrams are there in 85 kilograms?" a.

85 c.

85 d.

5. When expressed in scientific notation, the measured numbers 3200 and 3200.0 become, respectively, a. 3.2 × 103 and 3.200 × 103 b. 3.2 × 103 and 3.2000 × 103 c. 3.200 × 103 and 3.2000 × 103 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 6. Which of the following statements concerning the three major temperature scales is correct? a. Kelvin temperatures are always positive. b. The equation for converting from Celsius to Kelvin involves the number 273. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 02_ Measurements in Chemistry. c. The freezing point of water has a lower numerical value on the Kelvin scale than on the Fahrenheit

scale. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 7. Which of the following measured numbers has an uncertainty of 0.01 associated with it? a. 32.930 b. 3.02 × 106 c. 3.0 × 10–1 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 8. In which one of the following measure numbers are all of the zeros significant? a. 0.0705 b. 3,300,000 c. 0.000440

d. 3.945900

9. Statements:

(1) The answer to the addition problem 3.21 + 32 + 3.22 should have an uncertainty of hundredths. (2) The measurement 653,899, when rounded to five significant figures, becomes 65,390. (3) The higher the specific heat of a substance, the more its temperature will change when it absorbs a given amount of heat. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 10. Which of the following statements concerning conversion factors is incorrect? a. English-to-English conversion factors come from defined relationships b. Metric-to-metric conversions come from measured relationships c. English-to-English conversion factors always contain exact numbers d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 11. Statements:

(1) In outer space, an astronaut may be weightless but never massless. (2) The metric system prefixes milli and micro differ in mathematical meaning by a factor of 1000. (3) The addition of 273 to a Fahrenheit temperature reading will convert it to a Kelvin temperature reading. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 02_ Measurements in Chemistry. 12. In which of the following cases is the given measurement correctly rounded to three significant figures? a. 479,000 becomes 479 b. 0.02235 becomes 0.0223 c. 37.98 becomes 38.0

d. 49.400 becomes 49,400

13. If the temperature of an object is 435oC, what is the temperature on a Kelvin scale? a. 162 K b. 608 K c. 672 K

d. 708 K

14. In which of the following pairings of metric system prefix and power of ten is the pairing incorrect? a. kilo- and 10–3 b. micro- and 10–6 c. deci- and 101 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 15. The “mathematical meaning” associated with the metric system prefixes centi, milli, and micro is,

respectively, a. 10–2, 10–4, and 10–6

b. 10–2, 10–3, and 10–6

c. 10–3, 10–6, and 10–9

d. 10–3, 10–9, and 10–12

16. Which of the following comparisons of the size of a degree on the major temperature scales is correct? a. A Kelvin degree is larger than a Celsius degree. b. A Fahrenheit degree and a Celsius degree are equal in size. c. A Fahrenheit degree is larger than a Kelvin degree. d. A Celsius degree and a Kelvin degree are equal in size. 17. In which of the following pairs of units is the first listed unit 1000 times larger than the second? a. milligram and nanogram b. liter and centiliter c. kilometer and megameter d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 18. In which of the following pairs of temperature readings are the two members of the pair equivalent to each

other? a. 32°F and 273 K b. 0°C and 373 K c. 0°C and 40°F d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 02_ Measurements in Chemistry. 19. Statements:

(1) A deciliter is equal to 100 milliliters. (2) The Kelvin temperature scale is closely related mathematically to the Celsius temperature scale. (3) Measurements cannot be exact because two estimated digits are always recorded as part of any measurement. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 20. The measurement 8310.90 expressed in scientific notation becomes a. b. c.

21. Which of the following mathematical expressions is correctly evaluated? a. b. 103 × 104 = 1012 c.

d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 22. Which of the following conversion factors would limit a calculation to two significant figures? a. b. c. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 23. Statements:

(1) The size of the degree is the same on the Fahrenheit and Celsius temperature scales. (2) The measurement 62,300 has an uncertainty of ± 100. (3) The answer to the calculation 8.45 + 10.40 should contain four significant figures. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 02_ Measurements in Chemistry. d. None of the statements are true.

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Chapter 02_ Measurements in Chemistry.

24. In which of the following sequences are the metric system prefixes listed in order of decreasing size? a. kilo giga mega b. milli nano micro c. mega kilo micro

d. pico kilo deci

25. The correct answer obtained by dividing the measurement a. b. c.

by the measurement 2.876 x 10–9 is

26. Which of the following measured numbers contains three significant figures and has a magnitude of less

than one? a. 3.30 × 105 b. 3.00 × 10–3 c. 3.20 × 10–4 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 27. What is the mass, in grams, of 30.7 mL of a liquid if its density is 0.81 g/mL? a. 3.8 b. 25 c. 4

d. 249

28. Statements:

(1) The conversion factor 103 m/1 km contains an unlimited number of significant figures. (2) Density may be used as a conversion factor to convert from mass to volume. (3) The equation 2.33 lb = 625 g is a correct mathematical statement. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 29. The calculator answer obtained from multiplying the measurements 64.49 and 6.57 is 423.70. Given the

operational rules governing significant figures, this answer a. is correct as written b. should be rounded to 423.7 c. should be rounded to 424 d. could be written as 423 30. Statements:

(1) The meaning of a metric system prefix is independent of the base unit it modifies. (2) “Trailing zeros” at the end of a measured number are never significant. (3) The answer to the problem 105/10-3 is 102. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 02_ Measurements in Chemistry. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 31. To what decimal position should a measurement be recorded if the smallest markings on the measurement

scale are tenths of a centimeter? a. to the closest centimeter c. to the hundredths of a centimeter

b. to the tenths of a centimeter d. to the thousandths of a centimeter

32. Statements:

(1) The measured number 2.410 × 10-3 contains three significant figures. (2) The specific heat of water is higher than that of most other substances. (3) The equation 1 kg = 106 mg is a correct mathematical statement. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 33. Density can be used as a conversion factor to convert from a. mass to volume b. volume to mass c. metric unit mass to English unit mass d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 34. What is the uncertainty associated with the measurement of 6.02 x 104? a. 100 b. 10 c. 0.1

d. 0.01

35. Statements:

(1) The measured numbers 244,000 and 0.000244 contain the same number of significant figures. (2) One cubic centimeter is equal to ten milliliters. (3) The conversion factor 1 in/2.54 cm, when used as written, would decrease unit size. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 36. The density of an object is the ratio of its a. length to volume b. mass to height c. mass to volume

d. length to mass

37. Which of the following statements concerning the measured number 0.3030 is correct? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 02_ Measurements in Chemistry. a. Only one of the zeros in the number is significant. b. Rounded off to two significant figures the number becomes 0.30. c. Expressed in scientific notation the number becomes 3.03 × 10–2. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 38. In which of the following pairs of measured numbers does each member of the pair contain the same number

of significant figures? a. 10.3 and 10.30 c. 0.03330 and 0.0333

b. 800.0 and 80 d. 0.000096 and 960,000

39. If object A weighs 6.0 grams and has a volume of 3.0 mL and object B weighs 9.0 grams and has a volume

of 2.25 mL a. B is less dense than A. c. B is twice as dense as A.

b. A and B have equal densities. d. B is four times as dense as A.

40. How many conversion factors can be derived from the equality 60 seconds = 1 minute? a. two b. three c. four

d. an unlimited number

41. The density of table sugar is 1.59 g/mL. It is true that a. 2.00 g of table sugar occupies a volume of 1.17 mL. b. 3.00 g of table sugar occupies a volume of 1.97 mL. c. 5.00 g of table sugar occupies a volume of 3.14 mL. d. More than one correct response e. No correct response 42. Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of terminology? a. kilogram - metric unit of mass b. milliliter - metric unit of volume c. meter - metric unit of length d. cubic centimeter - metric unit of length 43. Which of the following would involve an exact number? a. the length of a table b. the mass of a bag of carrots c. the number of inches in a yard

d. the surface area of a quilt

44. Which of the following digits in the measurement 654,300 seconds is an estimated digit? a. the last digit b. the next to last zero c. the three d. more than one correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 02_ Measurements in Chemistry. e. no correct response

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Chapter 02_ Measurements in Chemistry. Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. d 9. d 10. c 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. d 15. b 16. d 17. e 18. a 19. b 20. d 21. a 22. e 23. b 24. c 25. b Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 02_ Measurements in Chemistry. 26. d 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. d 34. a 35. c 36. c 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. c 42. d 43. c 44. c

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Chapter 03_ Atomic Structure and the Periodic Table.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The elements in group IVA of the periodic table all have electron configurations ending in a. p2 b. p4 c. d4

d. s2

2. Which of the following elements is both a metal and a representative element? b. 50Sn a. 9F c. 79Au

d. 92U

3. Which of the following periodic table groups contains three or more nonmetallic elements? a. IIIA b. IVA c. VA d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 4. Which of the following statements correctly characterizes the subatomic particle called a neutron? a. Its mass is less than that of an electron. b. it has a negative charge. c. its mass is about that same as that of a proton. d. it contributes 25% of the mass of an atom. 5. Which of the following collections of subatomic particles possesses a net charge of +2? a. two neutrons and two electrons b. three protons and one electron c. three electrons and one proton d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 6. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status using the choices provided. (1) All of the major minerals in the human body are metals. (2) Iron is the most abundant transition metal in the human body. (3) Deuterium is an isotope of hydrogen in which two protons are present. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 7. Choose an appropriate pair of elements that are in the same group of the periodic table. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 03_ Atomic Structure and the Periodic Table. a. 37Rb and 38Sr c. 9F and 17Cl

b. 7N and 82Pb d. 42Mo and 75Re

8. Choose an appropriate pair of elements that have electron configurations ending in p5. b. 7N and 82Pb a. 37Rb and 38Sr c. 9F and 17Cl

d. 42Mo and 75Re

9. Element A exists in three isotopic forms with masses of 21.0, 25.0 and 26.0 amu, respectively. Element Q

also exists in three isotopic forms with masses of 20, 24.0 and 25.0 amu, respectively. It is true that: a. Element A has a lower atomic mass than element Q since it has the lightest isotope. b. Elements A and Q have identical atomic masses since the sums of their isotopic masses are equal. c. Element Q has a higher atomic mass than element A since its atomic masses are closer together. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 10. Choose the correct atom that has fewer neutrons than electrons. a. b. c.

11. Choose the correct atom that has a mass number of 17. a. b. c.

12. Choose the appropriate electron configuration for an element with no unpaired electrons. 2 2 6 2 6 b. 1s22s22p63s23p4 a. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p c. 1s22s22p63s1

d. 1s22s22p5

13. Choose the appropriate pair of atoms that contain the same number of nucleons. a. b. c.

14. Which of the following elements is a halogen? b. 50Sn a. 9F c. 79Au

d. 92U

15. Choose the appropriate pair of atoms that contain the same number of subatomic particles. a. b.

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Chapter 03_7e c.

16. Which of the following statements correctly describes the subatomic particle called a neutron? a. has a mass slightly less than that of a proton b. is not found in the nucleus c. has a positive charge d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 17. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status using the choices provided. (1) The maximum number of electrons that can occupy an electron shell is the same as the shell number. (2) A nucleus is the very small dense uncharged center of an atom. (3) The number of inner transition elements is greater than the number of transition elements. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 18. Choose the correct atom that has an atomic number of 17. a. b. c.

19. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status using the choices provided. (1) The shape of an s orbital is always spherical. (2) All naturally occurring atoms of an element must be identical to each other in terms of subatomic particle makeup. (3) The alkaline earth metals are the elements in group IA of the periodic table. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 20. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status using the choices provided. (1) The number of elements that are metals and nonmetals is approximately equal. (2) The number of orbitals present in an electron subshell is always six. (3) An atom as a whole is electrically neutral because all charged subatomic particles reside in the nucleus. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 03_7e d. None of the statements is true. 21. Which of the following statements concerning subatomic particles is correct? a. Four fundamental types exist, all of which are charged. b. Four fundamental types exist, two of which are charged. c. Three fundamental types exist, none of which are charged. d. Three fundamental types exist, two of which are charged. 22. Which of the following statements concerning the nucleus of an atom is correct? a. It accounts for almost all of the mass of an atom. b. It is always positively charged. c. It contains only neutrons. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 23. The modern periodic table arranges the elements in order of b. decreasing size of the nucleus a. the year of discovery c. increasing reactivity with oxygen 24. The nuclear charge for an atom of b. + 9 a. zero c. + 18

d. increasing number of protons

d. + 28

25. Choose an appropriate pair of elements that are in the d area of the periodic table. b. 7N and 82Pb a. 37Rb and 38Sr c. 9F and 17Cl

d. 42Mo and 75Re

26. Which of the following pairs of atoms, specified in terms of subatomic particle composition, are isotopes? a. (24p, 24e, 24n) and (25p, 25e, 25n) b. (24p, 24e, 24n) and (24p, 24e, 28n) c. (24p, 24e, 28n) and (25p, 25e, 28n) d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 27. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status using the choices provided. (1) The mass of an atom and the mass of its nucleus are essentially the same. (2) Two of the six electrons present in an atom of carbon are unpaired. (3) The element aluminum is located in the d area of the periodic table. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 03_7e d. None of the statements is true. 28. Which of the following statements is correct for a. contains more electrons than neutrons

b. contains no electrons c. contains an equal number of neutrons and electrons d. contains more neutrons than electrons 29. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status using the choices provided. (1) Electrons occupy the orbitals of a subshell such that each orbital acquires one electron before any orbital acquires a second electron. (2) The nucleus of an atom is always positively charged. (3) Both electrons and protons are massive particles when compared with neutrons. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 30. Which of the following elements is an inner-transition element? b. 50Sn a. 9F c. 79Au

d. 92U

31. Choose the appropriate pair of atoms that contain the same number of electrons. a. b. c.

32. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status using the choices provided. (1) Most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in its nucleus. (2) Sufficient information is present on a “standard” periodic table to determine the number of neutrons present in atoms of an element. (3) An atom whose electron configuration is 1s22s22p63s1 contains 12 electrons. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 33. In which of the following pairs of elements are both members of the pair metals? b. Al and Cl a. P and O c. Nb and Ar Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 03_7e 34. Choose the appropriate electron configuration for an element that has electrons in six orbitals. b. 1s22s22p63s23p4 a. 1s22s22p63s23p6 c. 1s22s22p63s1

d. 1s22s22p5

35. How many unpaired electrons are present in the orbital diagram for an atom whose electron configuration is

1s22s22p4? b. 1 a. 0 c. 2 d. 4 36. After the 4s subshell of an atom is filled with electrons, the next electron added will enter the b. 4p subshell a. 3d subshell c. 4d subshell

d. 5s subshell

37. Both a number and a letter are used in designating an electron subshell. The letter a. indicates the shell to which the subshell belongs b. may be s, p, d, or f c. gives information about the maximum number of electrons the subshell can contain d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 38. Chlorine, which exists in nature in two isotopic forms, has an atomic mass of 35.5 amu. This means that: a. All chlorine atoms have masses of 35.5 amu. b. More than half of all chlorine atoms have masses of 35.5. c. 35.5 amu is the upper limit for the mass of a chlorine atom. d. The mass of one isotope must be lighter than 35.5 amu while the mass of the other isotope is heavier

than 35.5 amu. 39. Two unpaired electrons are present in the orbital diagram of which of the following elements? a. 6C b. 10Ne c. 12Mg d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 40. Choose the appropriate electron configuration for an element whose third shell contains six electrons. b. 1s22s22p63s23p4 a. 1s22s22p63s23p6 c. 1s22s22p63s1

d. 1s22s22p5

41. Choose the correct atom that has an equal number of protons, neutrons, and electrons. a. b. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 03_7e c.

42. Which of the following statements is consistent with the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p6? a. There are six electrons present in a 3p orbital. b. There are six electrons present in a 3p subshell. c. There are two electrons present in a 2s shell. d. There are two electrons total in the second shell. 43. Which of the following electron configurations corresponds to an element in the same group of the periodic

table as the element whose electron configuration is 1s22s22p5? a. 1s22s22p4 b. 1s22s22p6 c. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d5 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 44. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status using the choices provided. (1) The sum of the mass number and the atomic number for an atom corresponds to the total number of subatomic particles present in the atom. (2) The element sulfur is both a nonmetal and a representative element. (3) Elements with electron configurations that end in p4 would be found in group VIA of the periodic table. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 45. Choose an appropriate pair of elements that have similar chemical properties. b. 7N and 82Pb a. 37Rb and 38Sr c. 9F and 17Cl

d. 42Mo and 75Re

46. Choose the appropriate electron configuration for an element that has five completely filled subshells. b. 1s22s22p63s23p4 a. 1s22s22p63s23p6 c. 1s22s22p63s1

d. 1s22s22p5

47. Which of the following statements concerning types of elements is correct? a. There are more noble gas elements than transition elements. b. There are more s-block elements than d-block elements. c. There are more nonmetals than metals. d. More than one correct response. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 03_7e e. No correct response. 48. Period number and group number in the periodic table are numerically equal for which of the following

elements? a. 13Al b. 33As c. 51Sb d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 49. Tin is element number 50. This means that all tin atoms have a. an atomic number of 50 b. 50 neutrons in the nucleus c. a total of 50 subatomic particles in the nucleus d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 50. In which of the following pairs of elements are both members of the pair in the same period in the periodic

table? a. Ne and Mg c. Ca and Se

b. Ni and Pd d. K and Rb

51. Choose the appropriate pair of atoms that contain the same number of neutrons. a. b. c.

52. Two naturally occurring isotopes exist for the hypothetical element dippium. 25.0 percent of dippium atoms

have a relative mass of 17.0 amu and 75.0 percent a relative mass of 21.3 amu. What is the atomic mass of dippium? b. 19.1 amu a. 18.1 amu c. 20.2 amu d. 38.3 amu 53. Choose the correct atom that has a nuclear charge of +17 a. b. c.

54. Which of the following statements about a d subshell is correct? a. It is found only in shells greater than 2. b. It contains 3 orbitals. c. It is found only in shells 2 and 3. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 03_7e d. It is found in all shells greater than 1. 55. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status using the choices provided. (1) An electron configuration specifies subshell occupancy for electrons. (2) The atomic number is double the mass number for atoms that contain an equal number of protons and neutrons. (3) All occupied orbitals are completely filled in atoms of the element neon, which contains a total of 12 electrons. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 56. An atom contains 33 protons, 35 neutrons and 33 electrons. The atomic number and mass number for this

atom are, respectively, b. 33 and 35 a. 35 and 33 c. 33 and 68 d. 35 and 68 57. Which of the following elements is a transition element? b. 50Sn a. 9F c. 79Au

d. 92U

58. Choose an appropriate pair of elements that are in the same period of the periodic table. b. 7N and 82Pb a. 37Rb and 38Sr c. 9F and 17Cl

d. 42Mo and 75Re

59. Which of the following characterizations for the element 23V is correct? a. a period 4 element b. electron configuration ends in d3 c. an inner-transition element d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 60. Isotopes of a given element a. have the same mass number but different numbers of protons b. have different mass numbers but identical numbers of protons c. have the same atomic number but different chemical properties d. have the same mass number but different chemical properties 61. The nucleus of an atom a. contains neutrons and electrons Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 03_7e b. has no charge because of the presence of neutrons c. repels the negatively charged electrons in an atom d. does not account for a large amount of the total volume of an atom 62. Choose the appropriate pair of atoms that contain the same number of protons. a. b. c.

63. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status using the choices provided. (1) All naturally occurring atoms of an element must have the same mass number. (2) Protons and electrons carry the same amount of charge. (3) An isotope of chlorine with A = 35 and Z = 17 contains more neutrons than protons. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements is true. 64. The quantity "A + Z" gives the number of b. neutrons in an atomic nucleus a. electrons in an atom c. nucleons in an atomic nucleus

d. all subatomic particles in an atom

65. Choose the appropriate electron configuration for an element that has two unpaired electrons. 2 2 6 2 6 b. 1s22s22p63s23p4 a. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p c. 1s22s22p63s1

d. 1s22s22p5

66. Which of the following characterizations for the element 52Te is correct? a. both a representative element and a metal b. electron configuration involves a partially filled s subshell c. electron configuration involves a total of 52 electrons d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 67. Which of the following statements is correct for a. atomic number = 27 and mass number = 14 b. contains 14 protons and 27 neutrons c. contains an equal number of protons and electrons d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 68. Which of the following elements is both a nonmetal and a representative element? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 03_7e a. 9F c. 79Au

b. 50Sn d. 92U

69. Which of the following element-classification pairings is incorrect? b. Xe noble gas element a. O representative element c. Cr transition element

d. Os inner transition element

70. The correct electron configuration for 17Cl is 2 2 5 b. 1s22s22p63s2 a. 1s 2s 2p c. 1s22s22p63s23p5

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d. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d5

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Chapter 03_7e Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. c 9. e 10. c 11. c 12. a 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. e 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. d 23. d 24. b 25. d Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 03_7e 26. b 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. d 31. d 32. c 33. d 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. d 38. d 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. b 43. e 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. e 48. d 49. a 50. c 51. c Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 03_7e 52. c 53. d 54. a 55. c 56. c 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. b 61. d 62. d 63. b 64. d 65. b 66. c 67. c 68. a 69. d 70. c

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Chapter 04_ Chemical Bonding: The Ionic Bond Model.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. How many total electrons are present in a N3– ion? a. 4 b. 7 c. 10

d. 12

2. Choose the polyatomic ion that contains the elements nitrogen and hydrogen. a. hydroxide ion b. ammonium ion c. nitrate ion

d. sulfate ion

3. Which of the following pairings of compound name and compound formula is incorrect? a. sodium oxide – Na2O b. magnesium sulfide – MgS2 c. potassium chloride – KCl d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 4. For the ion or element combinations of M2+ and X–, choose the correct formula for the compound produced. a. MX b. M2X c. MX2

d. M2X3

5. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Representative elements in the same group of the periodic table have the same number of valence electrons. (2) Discrete molecules do not exist in ionic compounds. (3) A sulfate ion has one less oxygen than a sulfite ion. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 6. Choose the correct formula of the compound formed when M, which has two valence electrons and X, which

has seven valence electrons are combined. a. MX b. M2X c. MX2

d. M2X3

7. In which of the following pairs of polyatomic ions do both members of the pair have the same charge? a. sulfate and phosphate b. carbonate and hydroxide c. ammonium and nitrate d. more than one correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 04_ Chemical Bonding: The Ionic Bond Model.

e. no correct response 8. The Roman numeral III in the name iron(III) oxide indicates that: a. there are three times as many iron atoms present as oxygen atoms. b. there are three iron atoms per formula unit. c. there are three oxygen atoms per formula unit. d. iron is present in the form of +3 ions. 9. Which of the following ionic compounds would have a name that contains the Roman numeral III? a. AlCl3 b. FeBr3 c. Cu3N d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 10. Which of the following ions is not isoelectronic with the noble gas neon? a. Na+ b. Fc. C4+

d. N3-

11. In which of the following compounds is there a one-to-two ratio between positive and negative ions? a. calcium sulfide b. magnesium bromide c. lead(IV) oxide d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 12. In the formation of which of the following ionic compounds is the number of electrons transferred per

formula unit equal to three? a. AlN b. K3N c. BaCl2 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 13. Elements in groups IA and VIIA of the periodic table possess, respectively, how many valence electrons? a. 1 and 1 b. 1 and 7 c. 7 and 1

d. 8 and 8

14. For the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p5, choose the appropriate number of valence electrons present

from the response list. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 04_ Chemical Bonding: The Ionic Bond Model.

a. 1 valence electron

b. 3 valence electrons

c. 5 valence electrons

d. 7 valence electrons

15. Choose the appropriate number of atoms contained in a formula unit of copper(I) sulfide. a. two atoms per formula unit b. three atoms per formula unit c. four atoms per formula unit d. five or more atoms per formula unit 16. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the number of electrons lost or gained by a

representative element during ion formation? a. The number is usually three or less. b. The number is governed by the octet rule. c. The number is related to the position of the element in the periodic table. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 17. In which of the following pairs of compounds are both members of the pair ionic compounds? b. H2S and NCl3 a. PI3 and HBr c. LiF and H2O

d. LiI and NiO

18. In which of the following pairs of ionic compounds do both members of the pair contain +1 ions? a. KCl and CaO b. Na3N and Li2S c. AlCl3 and MgF2 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 19. The correct name for the ionic compound Fe2Se3 is a. iron selenide b. iron(III) selenide c. iron triselenide

d. diiron triselenide

20. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Ionic bonds result from the sharing of one or more pairs of electrons. (2) The compound copper(II) phosphate contains eight oxygen atoms per formula unit. (3) Ionic compounds that contain fixed charge metals cannot contain polyatomic ions. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 04_ Chemical Bonding: The Ionic Bond Model.

21. Which of the following statements is an accurate description of the structure of the ionic compound LiBr? a. Alternating layers of Li and Br atoms are present. b. Clusters of Li+ ions are balanced out by clusters of Br- ions. c. Individual molecules containing a Li+ ion and a Br- ion are present. d. Each cation present is surrounded by six anions in an extended array. 22. Which of the following elements would have a Lewis symbol that contains five electrons? a. nitrogen b. fluorine c. phosphorus d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 23. In which of the following ionic compounds are ions with a +1 charge present? b. Al2Te3 a. Li2Se c. Mg2Si

d. SrO

24. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The number of valence electrons possessed by an atom can never exceed four. (2) Binary ionic compounds containing two nonmetals do not occur. (3) The name of the ionic compound Cu2S is copper(II) sulfide. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 25. Which of the following compounds contains four atoms per formula unit? a. chromium(III) nitride b. tin(II) iodide c. magnesium fluoride

d. ruthenium(III) chloride

26. The formulas of the sulfate ion, the nitrate ion, and the phosphate ion are, respectively, 2– 2– 2– b. SO42–, NO42–, PO42– a. SO3 , NO3 , PO3 c. SO42–, NO 3–, PO 42–

d. SO42–, NO3–, PO 43–

27. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices: (1) If an atom loses one or more electrons, it becomes negatively charged because protons now outnumber electrons. (2) Nitrogen, a group VA element, possesses five valence electrons. (3) Polyatomic ions are generally not very stable and usually lose their identity during chemical reactions. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 04_ Chemical Bonding: The Ionic Bond Model.

a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 28. Choose the correct formula of the compound formed when M, which is a group IIIA element and X, which

is a group VIA element are combined. a. MX b. M2X c. MX2

d. M2X3

29. Choose the appropriate number of atoms contained in a formula unit of iron(II) hydroxide. a. two atoms per formula unit b. three atoms per formula unit c. four atoms per formula unit d. five or more atoms per formula unit 30. For the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p3, choose the appropriate number of valence

electrons present from the response list. a. 1 valence electron b. 3 valence electrons c. 5 valence electrons d. 7 valence electrons 31. Choose a formula from the response list with +1 charged monoatomic ions present. b. AlF3 a. K3N c. CaSO4

d. (NH4)2S

32. For the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s1, choose the appropriate number of valence electrons present

from the response list. a. 1 valence electron c. 5 valence electrons

b. 3 valence electrons d. 7 valence electrons

33. Which one of the following compounds has a formula that contains parentheses? a. barium carbonate b. lithium hydroxide c. strontium hydroxide

d. ammonium hydroxide

34. Choose the polyatomic ion that contains three oxygen atoms. a. hydroxide ion b. ammonium ion c. nitrate ion

d. sulfate ion

35. Choose a formula from the response list where two ions are present per formula unit. b. AlF3 a. K3N c. CaSO4 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 04_ Chemical Bonding: The Ionic Bond Model.

36. For the ion or element combinations of M2+ and X2–, choose the correct formula for the compound

produced. a. MX

b. M2X

c. MX2

d. M2X3

37. The mechanism for ionic bond formation always involves the transferring of: a. electrons from nonmetallic atoms to metallic atoms. b. protons from the nucleus of metallic atoms to the nucleus of nonmetallic atoms. c. sufficient electrons to produce ions of equal but opposite charge. d. more than one correct response. e. no correct response. 38. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The most abundant ion in hard water is usually Na+. (2) Fresh water purified for drinking purposes contains no ions. (3) Tooth enamel contains both monatomic and polyatomic ions. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 39. In which of the following pairings is the chemical formula not consistent with the ions shown? a. M2+, X3–, M3X2 2+

–

b. M , X , MX2 c. M+, X3–, MX3 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 40. Choose the polyatomic ion that contains a total of four atoms. a. hydroxide ion b. ammonium ion c. nitrate ion

d. sulfate ion

41. The correct name for the ionic compound Al2Se3 is a. aluminum selenide b. aluminum(III) selenide c. aluminum triselenide

d. dialuminum triselenide

42. Which of the following pairings of compound name and compound formula is incorrect? a. sodium acetate – NaC2H3O2 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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b. barium sulfate – BaSO4 c. magnesium nitrate – MgNO3 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 43. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) All ionic compounds that contain metal ions have names that contain Roman numerals. (2) Ionic compounds tend to have high melting points and tend to be good conductors of electricity when in the molten state. (3) Three ions are present in one formula unit of a compound that contains Na+ and O2- ions. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 44. How many electrons appear in the Lewis symbol for an element whose electron configuration is 1s22s22p4? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6

d. 8

45. Choose a formula from the response list where a greater number of negative ions are present than positive

ions. a. K3N c. CaSO4

b. AlF3 d. (NH4)2S

46. Choose a formula from the response list with where the positive and negative ions present carry the same

amount of charge. a. K3N c. CaSO4

b. AlF3 d. (NH4)2S

47. Elements in groups IIA and VIIA of the periodic table would, respectively, be expected to form ions with

charges of a. +2 and +7 c. +2 and +1

b. -2 and -7 d. +2 and -1

48. Which of the following compounds contain more than 10 atoms per formula unit? a. ammonium phosphate b. aluminum carbonate c. iron(III) cyanide d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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49. In which of the following pairs of ions are the two members of the pair isoelectronic? a. S2– and Cl– b. Na+ and K+ c. Al3+ and N3– d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 50. The correct formula for the ionic compound containing Tl3+ and Te2- ions would be a. TlTe b. Tl3Te2 c. Tl2Te3

d. Tl2Te

51. The correct formula for the ionic compound that might be formed between Na and As is b. NaAs3 a. Na3As c. Na2As3

d. Na3As2

52. For a group VA element, choose the appropriate number of valence electrons present from the response list. a. 1 valence electron b. 3 valence electrons c. 5 valence electrons

d. 7 valence electrons

53. For an element with the Lewis symbol

from the response list. a. 1 valence electron c. 4 valence electrons

, choose the appropriate number of valence electrons present

b. 3 valence electrons d. 7 valence electrons

54. Formation of a positive ion is the result of an atom: a. losing one or more protons. b. losing one or more electrons. c. gaining one or more protons.

d. gaining one or more electrons.

55. Choose the appropriate number of atoms contained in a formula unit of sodium oxide. a. two atoms per formula unit b. three atoms per formula unit c. four atoms per formula unit d. five or more atoms per formula unit 56. For representative elements, valence electrons are those electrons located a. closest to the nucleus. b. in the outermost subshell. c. in the outermost shell.

d. in s orbitals.

57. For the ion or element combinations of M3+ and X2–, choose the correct formula for the compound Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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produced. a. MX

b. M2X

c. MX2

d. M2X3

58. Choose the polyatomic ion that contains one hydrogen atom. a. hydroxide ion b. ammonium ion c. nitrate ion

d. sulfate ion

59. Choose a formula from the response list with -2 charged monoatomic ions present. b. AlF3 a. K3N c. CaSO4

d. (NH4)2S

60. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) An atom with the electron configuration 1s22s22p2 possesses two valence electrons. 2+ 3(2) The formula of the ionic compounds that contains Ba and N ions is Ba2N3. (3) The polyatomic ions nitrate and azide are both tetraatomic entities. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 61. Which of the following elements would be expected to form a monoatomic ion with a charge of +2? a. oxygen b. sulfur c. magnesium d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 62. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The octet rule is used to determine the number of valence electrons an atom possesses. (2) The formula for the compound sodium carbonate contains parenthesis. (3) Group IIA and VIA elements form ions that carry two units of charge. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 63. Choose the appropriate number of atoms contained in a formula unit of aluminum phosphate. a. two atoms per formula unit b. three atoms per formula unit Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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c. four atoms per formula unit d. five or more atoms per formula unit 64. For which of the following elements is the listed number of valence electrons correct? a. Al – 3 valence electrons b. Cl – 5 valence electrons c. Si – 2 valence electrons d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 65. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Calcium sulfide is a compound in which both types of ions present have the same electron configuration, that of the noble gas argon. (2) The charge on the positive ions present in the compound Al2S3 is +3. (3) The polyatomic ions ammonium and cyanide do not contain oxygen. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 66. Choose the appropriate number of atoms contained in a formula unit of calcium chloride. a. two atoms per formula unit b. three atoms per formula unit c. four atoms per formula unit d. five or more atoms per formula unit 67. Choose the polyatomic ion that has a negative two charge. a. hydroxide ion b. ammonium ion c. nitrate ion

d. sulfate ion

68. Which of the following statements about polyatomic ions is correct? a. All have names which end in -ate. b. All must contain one of the halogens. c. Negative ions are more common than positive ions. d. All carry a charge of two. 69. The "octet rule" relates to the number eight because: a. only atoms with eight valence electrons undergo chemical reaction. b. ions with charges of +8 and –8 are very stable. c. atoms, during compound formation, frequently obtain eight valence electrons. d. all electron subshells can hold eight electrons. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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70. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The ions O2– and S2– are isoelectronic. (2) The symbol for an atom of X that has lost two electrons is X2–. (3) In all ionic compounds the total charge of the ions present per formula unit must add up to zero. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true.

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Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. e 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. d 13. b 14. d 15. b 16. e 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. c 21. d 22. d 23. a 24. c 25. d Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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26. d 27. c 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. a 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. e 38. c 39. c 40. c 41. a 42. c 43. b 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. d 49. d 50. c 51. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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52. c 53. c 54. b 55. b 56. c 57. d 58. a 59. d 60. d 61. c 62. c 63. d 64. a 65. a 66. b 67. d 68. c 69. c 70. c

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Chapter 05_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following tetrahedral molecules is polar? a. CH4 b. CF4 c. CH3F d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 2. Which of the following compounds contains both ionic and covalent bonds? a. b. LiI

SiO2 c. LiCN

d. PCl3

3. Choose the correct number of nonbonding electrons in the Lewis structure for CN– ion. a. zero b. one c. four

d. eight

4. VSEPR theory predicts that the geometry of the AsH3 molecule is a. linear b. trigonal planar c. trigonal pyramidal

d. tetrahedral

5. Which of the following linear molecules is a nonpolar molecule containing polar bonds? a. b. O=C=O H–CN c. H–Cl

d. NN

6. An angular geometry is associated with molecules in which the central atom has a. two bonds and two nonbonding electron groups b. two bonds and one nonbonding electron group c. two bonds and no nonbonding electron groups d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 7. Characterize the bond that forms between C (2.5) and H (2.1). a. polar covalent bond b. nonpolar covalent bond c. coordinate covalent bond Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 05_7e 8. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices provided. (1) In the molecule SO2 both a single bond and a double bond are present.

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Chapter 05_7e

(2) A linear symmetrical triatomic molecule will always be nonpolar. (3) The total number of valence electrons in the Lewis structure of the polyatomic ion PO43- is 30. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 9. For which of the following pairs of compounds do both members of the pair have names that contain the

prefix di-? a. SCl2 and K2O b. CO2 and N2O c. N2O3 and H2S d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 10. Which of the following molecular compounds would have a Lewis structure that contains 10 electron dots? a. HCN b.

H2O

c. NH3

d. CO2

11. Compound that contains both polar and nonpolar bonds a. b. c.

12. Compound that has an angular geometry a. b. c.

13. Electronegativity is a concept that is useful along with other concepts in a. predicting the polarity of a bond b. deciding how many electrons are involved in a bond c. formulating a statement of the octet rule d. determining the charge on a polyatomic ion Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 05_7e 14. Characterize the bond that forms between Be (1.5) and C (2.5).

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Chapter 05_7e a. polar covalent bond

b. nonpolar covalent bond

c. coordinate covalent bond

d. ionic bond

15. Which of the following is a molecular compound that contains five atoms per molecule? a. germanium tetrabromide b. dinitrogen monoxide c. dinitrogen pentoxide

d. nitrogen diselenide

16. Which of the following statements concerning differences between ionic and molecular compounds is

correct? a. Molecular compounds contain two elements, and ionic compounds contain three or more elements. b. Ionic compounds contain oxygen, and molecular compounds do not. c. Molecular compounds possess a molecular structural unit, and ionic compounds do not. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 17. The number of nonbonding electrons exceeds the number of bonding electrons in the Lewis structure of

which of the following molecules? a. HCN b. NH3 c. H2O d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 18. What choice below best describes the polarity of the bonds and molecule in a linear A–A–A? a. polar molecule with polar bonds b. polar molecule with both polar and nonpolar bonds c. nonpolar molecule with polar bonds d. nonpolar molecule with nonpolar bonds 19. In which of the following molecular compounds are all the bonds single bonds? a. b. CS

CS2

c. NBr3

d. O2

20. A and X are different elements with different electronegativities. What choice below best describes the

polarity of the bonds and molecule in a linear A–X–A? a. polar molecule with polar bonds b. polar molecule with both polar and nonpolar bonds Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 05_7e c. nonpolar molecule with polar bonds d. nonpolar molecule with nonpolar bonds + 21. The Lewis structure for the polyatomic ion NO2 contains

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Chapter 05_7e a. two double bonds and eight nonbonding electrons b. one double bond, one single bond, and twelve nonbonding electrons c. two single bonds and twelve nonbonding electrons d. two triple bonds and four nonbonding electrons 22. If the electronegativity difference between two atoms X and Z is 1.0, the bond between the two atoms would

be a. ionic b. polar covalent c. coordinate covalent d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 23. For which of the following pairs of molecular compounds do both members of the pair contain the same

number of atoms per molecule? a. hydrogen peroxide and ammonia b. hydrazine and methane c. phosphine and ethane d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compounds, select from the response list the correct number of atoms present in a molecule of the compound. Responses on the right may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) contains three or fewer atoms b) contains four atoms c) contains five atoms d) contains six or more atoms 24. Select the correct number of atoms in one molecule of nitrogen dioxide. a. contains three atoms b. contains four atoms c. contains five atoms

d. contains six or more atoms

25. The total number of nonbonding electron pairs present in the Lewis structure of SiH4 is a. zero b. one c. two

d. four

26. A, X, and Z are different elements with different electronegativities. What choice below best describes the Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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polarity of the bonds and molecule in a linear Z–A–X? a. polar molecule with polar bonds b. polar molecule with both polar and nonpolar bonds c. nonpolar molecule with polar bonds

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Chapter 05_7e d. nonpolar molecule with nonpolar bonds 27. Which of the following statements concerning coordinate covalent bonds is correct? a. One of the atoms involved must be a metal and the other a nonmetal. b. Both atoms involved in the bond contribute three electrons to the bond. c. Once formed, they are indistinguishable from any other covalent bond. d. They occur only in molecules where all bonds are single bonds. 28. In which of the following molecules is a coordinate covalent bond present? a. H–CN b. O=C=O c. NN

d. NN–O

29. The correct name for the compound H2Te is a. hydrogen telluride b. dihydrogen telluride c. dihydrogen monotelluride

d. hydrogen monotelluride

30. In which of the following pairs of compounds are both members of the pair molecular compounds? a. PCl3 and LiBr b. CCl4 and KOH c. NaH and CaF2 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 31. Characterize the bond that forms between N (3.0) and Cl (3.0). a. polar covalent bond b. nonpolar covalent bond c. coordinate covalent bond

d. ionic bond

32. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices provided. (1) Nonbonding electron pairs are present on both the H and the F in the molecule HF. (2) The two atoms involved in a multiple covalent bond must always be atoms of the same element. (3) A molecule of hydrogen peroxide contains more atoms than does a molecule of ammonia. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 33. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices provided. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 05_7e

(1) A pentaatomic tetrahedral molecule may be polar or nonpolar depending on the identities of the atoms present. (2) A bond between atoms that differ in electronegativity by 2.1 units is classified as a polar covalent bond.

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Chapter 05_7e

(3) The sum of the number of valence electrons a nonmetallic atom has and the number of covalent bonds it “normally” forms is eight. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 34. In which of the following pairs of bonds is the first listed bond more polar than the second listed bond? a. N–N and N–F b. P–Cl and S–Cl c. C–N and C–F d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 35. Which of the following diatomic molecules contains the bond of greatest polarity? a. N2 b. Cl2 c. ClI

d. BrF

36. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices provided. (1) Both tetrahedral and trigonal pyramidal molecules have four VSEPR electron groups about the central atom. (2) The greater the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms the greater the polarity of the bond between the two atoms. (3) A double covalent bond between two atoms is approximately twice as strong as a single covalent bond between the same two atoms. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 37. A period 2 nonmetal, X, forms the molecular compound NX3. Which of the following are also correct

formulas for molecular compounds involving X? a. HX b. OX2 c. C2X d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 38. In which of the following pairs of triatomic species do both members of the pair have the same geometry? a. H2O and H2S Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 05_7e b. NO2+ and NO2–

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Chapter 05_7e c. HCN and FNO d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 39. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices provided. (1) Once a coordinate covalent bond is formed, there is no way to distinguish it from any of the other covalent bonds in a molecule. (2) The least electronegative elements are located to the far right in the periodic table. (3) The central concept of VSEPR theory is that the electron groups in the valence shell of a central atom in a molecule attract each other. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 40. Choose the correct number of double bonds in the Lewis structure for CH4. a. zero b. one c. four

d. eight

41. Choose the correct number of shared electrons contributed by oxygen to the coordinate covalent bond in

CO. a. zero

b. one

c. four

d. eight

42. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices provided. (1) A nitrogen-oxygen bond is more polar than a nitrogen-fluorine bond. (2) There are no nonbonding electron pairs present on the central atom in a trigonal planar molecule. (3) The “normal” number of covalent bonds that the element carbon forms is four. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 43. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices provided. (1) In the molecule N2 there are more bonding electron pairs than nonbonding electron pairs. (2) Electronegativity values for sequential period 2 elements differ by 0.5 units. (3) The octet rule does not apply to covalent compounds in which coordinate covalent bonding is present. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 05_7e c. Only one of the statements is true.

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Chapter 05_7e d. None of the statements are true. 44. Compound in which the arrangement of electron groups about the central atom is not tetrahedral a. b. c.

45. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices provided. (1) The predicted formula of the simplest molecular compound formed between nitrogen and fluorine is NF2. (2) The majority of compounds contain covalent bonds rather than ionic bonds. (3) In VSEPR theory, double bonds exert double the influence of single bonds in determining molecular geometry. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 46. Which of the following statements concerning molecular polarity is correct? a. All diatomic molecules are polar. b. All linear triatomic molecules are nonpolar. c. Triatomic molecules in which all bonds are polar must be polar. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 47. Which of the following statements concerning double covalent bonds is correct? a. They are found only in molecules that contain P or atoms in the third period or higher. b. They are only found in molecules that contain large atoms that can effectively overlap with each

other. c. They occur only between atoms containing 2 valence electrons. d. They always involve the sharing of 4 electrons. 48. Choose the correct number of shared electrons in the Lewis structure for H2O. a. zero b. one c. four

d. eight

Use the following to answer the questions below: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 05_7e

For each of the compounds, select from the response list the correct number of atoms present in a molecule of the compound. Responses on the right may be used more than once or need not be used at all.

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Chapter 05_7e

a) contains three or fewer atoms b) contains four atoms c) contains five atoms d) contains six or more atoms 49. Select the correct number of atoms in one molecule of hydrogen sulfide. a. contains three atoms b. contains four atoms c. contains five atoms

d. contains six or more atoms

50. Choose the correct number of electrons in the Lewis structure for NH3. a. zero b. one c. four

d. eight

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compounds, select from the response list the correct number of atoms present in a molecule of the compound. Responses on the right may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) contains three or fewer atoms b) contains four atoms c) contains five atoms d) contains six or more atoms 51. Select the correct number of atoms in one molecule of dichlorine monoxide. a. contains three atoms b. contains four atoms c. contains five atoms

d. contains six or more atoms

52. Coordinate covalent bonds differ from normal covalent bonds in that: a. One atom supplies more electrons to the bond than the other atom. b. The electrons of the bond move about in a coordinated pattern. c. Atoms involved must always also possess nonbonding electron pairs. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compounds, select from the response list the correct number of atoms present in a molecule of the compound. Responses on the right may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) contains three or fewer atoms b) contains four atoms c) contains five atoms d) contains six or more atoms 53. Select the correct number of atoms in one molecule of methane. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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b. contains four atoms d. contains six or more atoms

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Chapter 05_7e 54. A, X, and Z are different elements with different electronegativities. What choice below best describes the

polarity of the bonds and molecule in a linear A–X–Z? a. polar molecule with polar bonds b. polar molecule with both polar and nonpolar bonds c. nonpolar molecule with polar bonds d. nonpolar molecule with nonpolar bonds

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compounds, select from the response list the correct number of atoms present in a molecule of the compound. Responses on the right may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) contains three or fewer atoms b) contains four atoms c) contains five atoms d) contains six or more atoms 55. Select the correct number of atoms in one molecule of hydrazine. a. contains three or fewer atoms b. contains four atoms c. contains five atoms

d. contains six atoms

56. Which of the following sets of elements is arranged in order of decreasing electronegativity? a. O, S, As b. Cl, B, F c. Br, Cl, P

d. Be, C, O

57. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices provided. (1) The number of "electron dots" in the Lewis formula for the compound HNO3 is 24. (2) Atoms participating in coordinate covalent bonds generally do not form the “normal” number of covalent bonds expected for that element. (3) Some molecules are nonpolar even though all bonds within the molecules are polar. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 58. Sixteen electrons are present in the Lewis structure of which of the following molecules? a. CO2 b. N2O c. SO2 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 05_7e 59. Compound that is nonpolar

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Chapter 05_7e a.

60. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices provided. (1) An unpaired electron is present in the Lewis structure for the molecule NO. (2) The molecule nitric oxide is naturally present in the human body. (3) The acronym ORP stands for odor replication process. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 61. What is the geometry of the molecular compound formed by the reaction of sulfur with hydrogen? a. linear b. angular c. trigonal planar

d. tetrahedral

62. Characterize the bond that forms between N (3.0) and F (4.0). a. polar covalent bond b. nonpolar covalent bond c. coordinate covalent bond

d. ionic bond

63. A and X are different elements with different electronegativities. What choice below best describes the

polarity of the bonds and molecule in a linear A–A–X? a. polar molecule with polar bonds b. polar molecule with both polar and nonpolar bonds c. nonpolar molecule with polar bonds d. nonpolar molecule with nonpolar bonds 64. For which of the following pairs of elements would the compound formed between them most likely be a

molecular compound? a. Li and Br

b. Ba and O

c. N and S

d. Cs and F

65. Given the following electronegativities: Na = 0.9, H = 2.1, Cl = 3.0 which of the following statements is

true? a. H2, Cl2, and HCl are polar covalent molecules. b. NaCl is a polar covalent compound and HCl is an ionic compound. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 05_7e c. HCl is a nonpolar covalent compound and Cl2 is a polar covalent molecule. d. Cl2 is a nonpolar covalent molecule and HCl is a polar covalent molecule.

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Chapter 05_7e 66. Characterize the bond that forms between Li (1.0) and O (3.5). a. polar covalent bond b. nonpolar covalent bond c. coordinate covalent bond

d. ionic bond

67. Compound with a trigonal pyramidal geometry a. b. c.

68. In which of the following triatomic molecules or ions are both of the bonds multiple bonds? a. HCN b. CO2 c. NO2– d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 69. Which of the following statements contrasting covalent bonds and ionic bonds is correct? a. Covalent bonds usually involve two nonmetals and ionic bonds usually involve two metals. b. Covalent bonds usually involve two metals and ionic bonds usually involve a metal and a nonmetal. c. Covalent bonds usually involve a metal and a nonmetal and ionic bonds usually involve two

nonmetals. d. Covalent bonds usually involve two nonmetals and ionic bonds usually involve a metal and a

nonmetal. 70. In which of the following bonds is the bond polarity incorrect? a. b. c.

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Chapter 05_7e Answer Key 1. c 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. d 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. a 14. a 15. a 16. c 17. e 18. d 19. c 20. c 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. a 25. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 05_7e 26. a 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. e 31. b 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. d 36. a 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. a 41. c 42. b 43. b 44. b 45. c 46. e 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. d 51. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 05_7e 52. a 53. c 54. a 55. d 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. d 60. b 61. b 62. a 63. b 64. c 65. d 66. d 67. c 68. b 69. d 70. d

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Chapter 06_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In which of the following groups of substances do all members of the group have atomic masses that are

within 1.00 amu of each other? a. CH4, NH3, H2O b. CO, N2, NO c. C3H8, CO2, N2O d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 2. Which of the following quantities must be known before the percent yield of a product Q can be calculated? a. theoretical yield of Q b. actual yield of Q c. number of other products produced besides Q d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 3. Select the correct numerical value for the number of moles of O atoms in three moles of O2 a. 1 b. 2 c. 6

d. 12

4. Which of following statements concerning theoretical yield, actual yield, and percent yield is correct? a. Theoretical yield is a calculated number. b. Actual yield is a calculated number. c. A percent yield of greater than 50% is very difficult to obtain. d. Percent yield is calculated by dividing the theoretical yield by the actual yield. 5. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Two moles of O2 molecules contain twice Avogadro's number of atoms. (2) The actual yield of a product in a chemical reaction is a measured rather than calculated quantity. (3) In an equation-based “grams of A to grams of B” problem, equation coefficients become part of the first needed conversion factor. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e 6. Contrast the magnitudes, to three significant figures, (I) molecules in 28.0 g of N2, (II) molecules in 28.0 g of

O2, and then select an appropriate response from the response list. a. I is greater than II

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Chapter 06_7e b. I is equal to II c. I is less than II d. I and II cannot be compared because of insufficient information 7. Select the correct numerical value for the number of moles of H in one mole of (NH4)3PO4. a. 1 b. 2 c. 6

d. 12

8. How many molecules of CO2 are present in 33.6 g of CO2? a. 1.27 × 10–24 b. 4.60 × 1023 c. 8.90 × 1026

d. 7.22 × 1023

9. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) In the notation 2H2O, the 2 out in front is called a coefficient. (2) Atomic masses and formula masses are specified using the same units. (3) In a formula-based “grams of A to grams of B” problem, molar masses are needed in each of the first two conversion factors. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 10. Which of the following substances has a formula mass that is greater than 80.0 amu? a. Cl2O b. OF2 c. SO2 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 11. Select the correct numerical value for the mass, in grams, of 2.00 moles of CO2. a. 12.0 b. 24.0 c. 44.0

d. 88.0

12. Which of the following statements is true for all balanced equations? a. The total number of molecules on each side must be equal. b. The sum of the subscripts on each side must be equal. c. The sum of the coefficients on each side must be equal. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

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Chapter 06_7e 13. Contrast the magnitudes, to three significant figures, (I) molecules in two moles of CO, (II) molecules in two

moles of CO2, and then select an appropriate response from the response list. a. I is greater than II b. I is equal to II c. I is less than II d. I and II cannot be compared because of insufficient information 14. Which of the following samples has the largest mass, in grams? a. b. 6 moles of CN

5 moles of CO2

c. 7 moles of H2O

d. 8 moles of H2

15. Select the correct numerical value for the molar mass, in grams, of CO2. a. 12.0 b. 24.0 c. 44.0

d. 88.0 –2

16. For which of the following compounds does 1.9 g represent 4.3 × 10 a. CO2

moles of the compound?

b. C3H8 c. H2O2 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 17. Select the set of coefficients from the response list that correctly balances the equation.

N2 + O2 → NO a. 1, 1, 2

b. 1, 2, 1

c. 2, 1, 2

d. 3, 1, 2

18. The "setup" for the problem, "What is the mass, in grams, of 5.69 × 1019 atoms of Xe?" which follows is

correct, except numbers in the middle conversion factor have been replaced by the letters A and B. What are the numerical values of A and B, respectively?

1 and 6.02 × 1023

c. 6.02 × 1023 and 1

b. 1 and 131.29 d. 131.29 and 6.02 × 1023

19. Select the correct numerical value for the number of moles of S in two moles of H2SO4. a. 1 b. 2 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e c. 6 d. 12

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Chapter 06_7e 20. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The molar mass of an element, in the solid state, has the same numerical value as the element's atomic mass. (2) In a balanced chemical equation, the number of reactants must equal the number of products. (3) One mole of N2O4 contains six moles of atoms. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 21. Contrast the magnitudes, to three significant figures, (I) mass of one mole of CO2, (II) the mass of one mole

of NH3, and then select an appropriate response from the response list. a. I is greater than II b. I is equal to II c. I is less than II d. I and II cannot be compared because of insufficient information 22. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) In balancing an equation, formula subscripts are adjusted as needed to obtain the balance. (2) 1.00 mole of C contains the same number of atoms as does 12.0 g of C. (3) Both a microscopic and macroscopic levels of interpretation exist for a chemical formula with the former involving atoms and the latter involving molecules. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 23. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Avogadro's number is part of the conversion factor needed to solve a “moles of A to grams of A” problem. (2) The sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation for the production of water from hydrogen gas and oxygen gas is five. (3) 2.00 moles of NH3 molecules have a mass of 34.0 grams. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 24. Using the balanced equation for the combustion of ethane: 2C2H6 + 7 O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O, how many

moles of O2 that react with four moles of C2H6? a. 6 b. 7 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e c. 8

d. 14

25. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Carbon monoxide reacts with hemoglobin in red blood cells to produce carbon dioxide, which changes blood's acidity. (2) Sulfuric acid is the number two chemical in the United States in terms of production amount. (3) The raw materials needed for industrial sulfuric acid production are sulfur, air and water. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 26. In which of the following pairings of masses does the first listed mass contain more moles of substance than

the second listed mass? a. 18.02 g H2O and 18.02 g NH3 b. 44.01 g CO2 and 44.01 g CO c. 105 g CH4 and 105 g NO2 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 27. Which of the following is the correct "setup" for the problem "How many atoms are present in 10.4 g Ge?" a.

28. Using the balanced equation for the combustion of ethane: 2C2H6 + 7 O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O, how many

molecules of O2 that react with two molecules of C2H6? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 14 29. Select the correct numerical value for the formula mass, in amu, of CO2. a. 12.0 b. 24.0 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e c. 44.0 d. 88.0

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Chapter 06_7e

30. Select the correct numerical value for the number of moles of O2 molecules in two moles of O2. a. 1 b. 2 c. 6

d. 12

31. A compound with the formula TeCln has a formula mass of 269.41 amu. What is the value for n in the

formula TeCln? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 32. In which of the following molar quantities of sulfur would 5.95 × 1024 atoms of sulfur be present? a. 9.69 moles S b. 9.79 moles S c. 9.88 moles S

d. 9.99 moles S

33. In the following reaction, how many grams of H2O are produced if 6.13 g of N2H4 react? N2H4 + 3O2

2NO2 + 2H2O a. 1.72 g c. 12.3 g

b. 3.45 g d. 6.89 g

34. Select the correct numerical value for the atomic mass, in amu, of C. a. 12.0 b. 24.0 c. 44.0

d. 88.0

35. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Six mole-to-mole relationships are obtainable from a balanced chemical equation involving two reactants and two products. (2) The compound H2O has a greater formula mass than does the compound NH3. (3) The atomic mass unit (amu) and the gram unit (g) are related to one another through Avogadro's number. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 36. Select the set of coefficients from the response list that correctly balances the equation.

CO + O2 → CO2 a. 1, 1, 2

b. 1, 2, 1

c. 2, 1, 2

d. 3, 1, 2

37. Contrast the magnitudes, to three significant figures, (I) moles in 28.0 g of N2, (II) moles in 28.0 g of CO,

and then select an appropriate response from the response list. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e a. I is greater than II

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Chapter 06_7e b. I is equal to II c. I is less than II d. I and II cannot be compared because of insufficient information 38. Avogadro’s number is equal to the number of a. atoms in one mole of N2 b. molecules in one mole of N2O4 c. atoms in one-half mole of CO d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 39. Select the set of coefficients from the response list that correctly balances the equation.

SO2 + O2 → SO3 a. 1, 1, 2

b. 1, 2, 1

c. 2, 1, 2

d. 3, 1, 2

40. Select the correct numerical value for the mass, in grams, of 6.02 × 1023 atoms of C. a. 12.0 b. 24.0 c. 44.0

d. 88.0

41. One mole of H2SO4 contains a. two moles H atoms b. four moles S atoms c. seven moles of atoms d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 42. The atomic masses of He and Be are 4.00 and 9.01 amu, respectively. Which of the following statements are

true? a. A mole of Be contains more atoms than a mole of He. b. A mole of He is heavier than a mole of Be. c. A mole of Be contains the same number of atoms as a mole of He. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 43. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) 2.0 moles of NO contains the same number of oxygen atoms as 1.0 mole of CO2. (2) The coefficients in a balanced equation give the fixed molar ratios between reactants and products. (3) Avogadro's number is an experimentally determined quantity. a. All three statements are true.

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Chapter 06_7e b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 44. Using the balanced equation for the combustion of ethane: 2C2H6 + 7 O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O, how many

moles of O2 needed to produce 12 moles of H2O? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 14 45. Which of the following statements concerning Avogadro's number is correct? a. It has the value 6.02 × 10–23. b. It denotes the number of molecules in one mole of any molecular substance. c. It is the mass, in grams, of one mole of any substance. d. It denotes the number of atoms in one mole of any substance. 46. Which of the following equations is balanced? a. FeS + 2HBr → FeBr2 + 2H2S b. PbO2 + 2H2 → Pb + 2H2O c. Fe2O3 + 3H2 → 2Fe + 3H2O d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 47. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) 3.0 moles of CO has a greater mass, in grams, than does 2.0 moles of CO2. (2) In a balanced chemical equation, there must be the same total number of molecules on each side of the equation. (3) The molar mass and formula mass for a compound have different units but the same numerical value. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 48. The formula mass of ammonium phosphite, (NH4)3PO3, is a. 97.01 amu b. 125.01 amu c. 133.09 amu

d. 153.11 amu

49. Which set of coefficients balances the equation C4H10 + O2 → CO2 + H2O? a. 1, 6, 4, 5 b. 1, 7, 4, 5 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e c. 1, 3, 4, 5

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d. 2, 13, 8, 10

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Chapter 06_7e 50. Avogadro's number of sulfur (S) atoms would have a mass of a. 6.02 × 10-23 g b. 6.02 × 1023 g c. 16 g

d. 32 g

51. Select the correct numerical value for the number of moles of atoms in two moles of SO2. a. 1 b. 2 c. 6

d. 12

52. Which of the following is the correct "set-up" for the problem "How many grams of S are present in 29.3 g

of S4N4?" ? a.

53. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in an ordinary chemical reaction. (2) The mass of a mole of a substance depends on the identity of the substance. 23 (3) One mole of O2 molecules contains 6.02 × 10 molecules. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 54. A mole of a chemical substance represents a. the mass of the substance that will combine with 12.0 g of carbon b. the mass of the substance that will combine with 100.0 g of oxygen c. 6.02 × 1023 chemical particles of the substance d. 6.02 × 10–23 grams of the substance 55. Select the set of coefficients from the response list that correctly balances the equation.

H2 + N2 → NH3 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e a. 1, 1, 2

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b. 1, 2, 1

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Chapter 06_7e c. 2, 1, 2

d. 3, 1, 2

56. Select the set of coefficients from the response list that correctly balances the equation.

CH4 →

C3H8 + __ H2

a. 1, 1, 2

b. 1, 2, 1

c. 2, 1, 2

d. 3, 1, 2

57. A mole of a chemical substance represents a. the formula mass of that substance expressed in atomic mass units b. Avogadro's number of grams of that substance c. the mass of that substance that will combine with 1.00 gram of carbon d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 58. The balanced equation 2CO + O2 → 2CO2 tells us that: a. One gram of O2 will produce two grams of CO2. b. Two molecules of CO will react with one molecule of O2. c. One mole of CO will produce two moles of CO2. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 59. Which of the following samples has a mass greater than 50.00 grams? a. 6.02 × 1023 atoms of Fe b 3.01 × 1023 molecules of CH4 c. 9.03 × 1023 molecules of H2O d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 60. Contrast the magnitudes, to three significant figures, (I) atoms in three moles of CO, (II) atoms in two moles

of CO2, and then select an appropriate response from the response list. a. I is greater than II b. I is equal to II c. I is less than II d. I and II cannot be compared because of insufficient information 61. The balanced equation C + O2 → CO2 tells us that 24.02 g of C will exactly react with Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e a 32.00 g of O2 b 2.000 moles of O2 c 6.02 × 1023 molecules of O2

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Chapter 06_7e d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 62. In which of the following unbalanced equations are five moles of reactants required to produce two moles of

products? a. Na + N2 → NaN3 b. Al + S → Al2S3 c. N2 + H2 → NH3 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 63. To determine the formula mass of a compound you should: a. Add up the atomic masses of all the atoms present. b. Add up the atomic masses of all the atoms present and divide by the number of atoms present. c. Add up the atomic numbers of all the atoms present. d. Add up the atomic numbers of all the atoms present and divide by the number of atoms present. 64. Which one of the following conversion factors is not consistent with the equation:

4NH3 + 5 O2 → 4NO + 6H2O a.

65. Which of the following is the correct "setup" for the problem "How many grams of H2O will be produced

from 2.1 moles of O2 and an excess of H2S?" according to the reaction 2H2S + 3O2

2H2O + 2SO2

66. Which of the following chemical equations is balanced? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e a. 2H2 + O2 → H2O

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b. 2SO2 + 2 O2 → 3 SO3

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Chapter 06_7e c. KClO3 → KCl + 3 O2

d. N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

67. Using the balanced equation for the combustion of ethane: 2C2H6 + 7 O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O, how many

molecules of CO2 produced when four molecules of C2H6 react? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 14 68. Which of the following samples contains the greatest number of atoms? a. b. 10 moles of Xe

9 mole of CO2

c. 11 moles of N2O

d. 12 moles of CO

69. Using the balanced equation for the combustion of ethane: 2C2H6 + 7 O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O, how many

moles of CO2 produced at the same time nine moles of H2O are produced? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 14 70. Potassium forms an oxide with the formula K2O. What is the coefficient of oxygen in the balanced equation

for the reaction of potassium with oxygen to form this oxide? a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

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Chapter 06_7e Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. d 12. e 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. a 22. c 23. b 24. d 25. c Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e 26. c 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. b 31. d 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. c 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. d 47. c 48. c 49. d 50. d 51. c Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 06_7e 52. b 53. a 54. c 55. d 56. d 57. e 58. b 59. a 60. a 61. b 62. a 63. a 64. c 65. c 66. d 67. c 68. c 69. a 70. a

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Chapter 07_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In which of the following pairs of state changes is the final state (solid, liquid, gas) the same for both

members of the pair? a. sublimation and evaporation b. condensation and freezing c. deposition and melting d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 2. Which of the following is not a factor in determining the magnitude of the vapor pressure of a liquid? a. the temperature of the liquid b. the strength of the attractive forces between molecules of the liquid c. the size of the container for the liquid d. the type of forces between molecules within the liquid 3. In which of the following liquids would London forces be the predominant intermolecular force? a. HCN b. N2 c. H2S

d. IF

4. For the following intermolecular force descriptions, select the correct name from the response list: Weakest

of all intermolecular forces. a. London force b. hydrogen bond c. covalent bond d. dipole-dipole interaction Use the following to answer the questions below: Characterize the effect that each of the changes will have on the vapor pressure and boiling point of a liquid using the response list. Responses on the right may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) v.p. decreases b) p. decreases b) v.p. decreases b.p. does not change c) v.p. does not change b.p. does not change d) v.p. does not change b.p. decreases 5. Characterize the effect that changes will have on the vapor pressure and boiling point of a liquid when the

liquid is moved to a higher elevation at constant temperature. a. v.p. decreases, b.p. decreases b. v.p. decreases, b.p. does not change Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e c. v.p. does not change, b.p. does not change d. v.p. does not change, b.p. decreases 6. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The ideal gas law involves the variables P, V, T, and R, and the constant n. (2) Boiling is a special form of evaporation that occurs when atmospheric pressure exceeds the vapor pressure of the hot liquid. (3) The two requirements for hydrogen bond formation are molecular polarity and the presence of covalentlybonded hydrogen atoms. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 7. A volatile liquid would a. have weak attractive forces between molecules b. evaporate "slowly" at room temperature c. have a low vapor pressure at room temperature d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 8. In which of the following pairs of physical changes are both changes exothermic? a. sublimation, evaporation b. freezing, melting c. freezing, condensation

d. melting, sublimation

Use the following to answer the questions below: Characterize the effect that each of the changes will have on the vapor pressure and boiling point of a liquid using the response list. Responses on the right may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) v.p. decreases b) p. decreases b) v.p. decreases b.p. does not change c) v.p. does not change b.p. does not change d) v.p. does not change b.p. decreases 9. Characterize the effect that changes will have on the vapor pressure and boiling point of a liquid by

decreasing the temperature of the liquid by 20° C at constant pressure. a. v.p. decreases, b.p. decreases b. v.p. decreases, b.p. does not change Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e c. v.p. does not change, b.p. does not change d. v.p. does not change, b.p. decreases 10. The correct form of the equation for the ideal gas law is a. PV = nRT b. PT = nRV c. P/V = nRT

d. PV = n/RT

11. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Dipole-dipole interactions occur only between nonpolar molecules. b. A hydrogen bond is an extremely weak dipole-dipole interaction. c. London forces are "instantaneous" dipole-dipole interactions. d. Hydrogen bonding occurs anytime a hydrogen-containing molecule is present in a liquid. 12. A liquid is placed in a closed container. Equilibrium is reached when a. all of the liquid evaporates b. when the rate of condensation equals the rate of evaporation c. when the rate of condensation exceeds the rate of evaporation d. when molecules cease to pass from the liquid state to the vapor state 13. Considering change of state descriptions, select the name of the change of state for an endothermic change a. sublimation b. condensation c. deposition

d. freezing

14. What is the volume, in liters, occupied by 2.12 moles of N2 gas at 0.745 atm pressure and a temperature of

55°C? a. 42.5 L

b. 89.4 L

c. 76.6 L

d. 12.8 L

15. The phrases "particles close together and held in fixed positions" and "completely fills the container" apply,

respectively, to a. liquids and solids c. gases and liquids

b. solids and gases d. liquids and gases

16. Consider the mathematical expressions for gas laws listed, select the correct name for the law from the

response list: P1V1T2 = P2V2T1. a. Avogadro's law b. Boyle's law c. Charles's law d. combined gas law 17. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The destructive power of industrial explosives comes from the high-temperature generation of large volumes of gaseous substances. (2) Ideally, the dietary Na+/K+ ratio should be less than one. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e

(3) Popcorn pops because of the difference in density of liquid and gaseous water. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Use the following to answer the questions below: Characterize the effect that each of the changes will have on the vapor pressure and boiling point of a liquid using the response list. Responses on the right may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) v.p. decreases b) p. decreases b) v.p. decreases b.p. does not change c) v.p. does not change b.p. does not change d) v.p. does not change b.p. decreases 18. Characterize the effect that changes will have on the vapor pressure and boiling point of a liquid when the

liquid surface area is increased at constant temperature and pressure. a. v.p. decreases, b.p. decreases b. v.p. decreases, b.p. does not change c. v.p. does not change, b.p. does not change d. v.p. does not change, b.p. decreases 19. For each of the physical state characterizations, select from the response list the physical state or states to

which the characterizations apply: definite volume. a. liquid state only b. solid state only c. both liquid and solid states d. both gaseous and liquid states 20. For the following intermolecular force descriptions, select the correct name from the response list:

“Instantaneous” electrostatic interaction between polar molecules. a. London force b. hydrogen bond c. covalent bond d. dipole-dipole interaction 21. Which of the following pressure relationships is correct? a. 760 torr = 760 mm Hg b. 1 atm = 15.8 psi c. 650 torr = 1 atm d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e 22. Charles's law involves which of the following? a. an indirect proportion b. a fixed quantity of gas c. constant temperature d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 23. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Macroscopic properties of the liquid state include a definite shape and a definite volume. (2) A condition of physical equilibrium is associated with the measurement of vapor pressure. (3) Boyle's law involves a direct proportionality relationship between pressure and volume. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 24. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices: (1) The potential energy of greatest importance when considering the states of matter is that associated with electrostatic interactions between particles. (2) The pressure exerted by each gas in a mixture of gases is the same as it would be if the gas were alone under the same conditions. (3) London forces are instantaneous dipole-dipole interactions whose strength depend on the ease with which molecular electron distributions can be distorted. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 25. For each of the physical state characterizations, select from the response list the physical state or states to

which the characterizations apply: particles are relatively close together. a. liquid state only b. solid state only c. both liquid and solid states d. both gaseous and liquid states 26. For the following intermolecular force descriptions, select the correct name from the response list:

“Instantaneous” electrostatic interaction between nonpolar molecules. a. London force b. hydrogen bond c. covalent bond d. dipole-dipole interaction 27. Considering change of state descriptions, select the name of the change of state that involves both the liquid

and solid state. a. sublimation th

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Chapter 07_7e c. deposition

d. freezing

Use the following to answer the questions below: Characterize the effect that each of the changes will have on the vapor pressure and boiling point of a liquid using the response list. Responses on the right may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) v.p. decreases b) p. decreases b) v.p. decreases b.p. does not change c) v.p. does not change b.p. does not change d) v.p. does not change b.p. decreases 28. Characterize the effect that changes will have on the vapor pressure and boiling point of a liquid by

decreasing the external pressure on the surface of a liquid at constant temperature. a. v.p. decreases, b.p. decreases b. v.p. decreases, b.p. does not change c. v.p. does not change, b.p. does not change d. v.p. does not change, b.p. decreases 29. The boiling point of a liquid is a. the temperature at which the rate of evaporation and sublimation are equal b. always 200°C or greater c. the temperature at which the pressure over the liquid equals the vapor pressure of the liquid d. the temperature at which liquid-vapor equilibrium is reached 30. Considering change of state descriptions, select the name of the change of state for the opposite of

evaporation. a. sublimation c. deposition

b. condensation d. freezing

31. Indicate what the missing words are in the following statement of Charles's law: At constant pressure, the

volume of a gas sample is proportional to its a. directly; Celsius b. directly; Kelvin c. inversely; Celsius d. inversely; Kelvin

temperature.

32. In the liquid state, disruptive forces are a. roughly of the same magnitude as cohesive forces b. very weak compared to cohesive forces c. dominant over cohesive forces Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e d. unimportant 33. Considering change of state descriptions, select the name of the change of state for when energy is absorbed. a. sublimation b. condensation c. deposition

d. freezing

34. Boyle's law involves which of the following? a. a direct proportion b. a constant volume c. a constant pressure

d. a constant temperature

35. Which of the following is a correct equation for the combined gas law? a.

d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 36. Consider the mathematical expressions for gas laws listed, select the correct name for the law from the

response list:

a. Avogadro's law

b. Boyle's law

c. Charles's law

d. combined gas law

37. In which of the following groupings are the three terms closely related? a. kinetic energy, energy of motion, cohesive forces b. potential energy, energy of attraction, disruptive forces c. kinetic energy, electrostatic interactions, disruptive forces d. potential energy, electrostatic interactions, cohesive forces 38. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the temperature of the liquid equals a. 100° C if the liquid is at sea level b. the boiling point of the liquid c. the normal boiling point of the liquid d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e 39. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

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Chapter 07_7e

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Both dipole-dipole interactions and hydrogen bonds are stronger than most single covalent bonds. (2) The value of the ideal gas constant is the same for all gases under ordinary conditions of P, V, and T. (3) Both condensation and freezing are endothermic changes of state. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 40. A 1.00 mole sample of a gas would have a volume of 0.821 L at which of the following temperature and

pressure conditions? a. 300 K and 30.0 atm b. –123° C and 15.0 atm c. 300° C and 10.0 atm d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 41. If some of the vapor is allowed to escape from a sample where liquid and vapor are in equilibrium, the

immediate result is a. an increase in intermolecular force strength b. a decrease in condensation rate c. a decrease in evaporation rate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 42. Liquids will boil at lower temperatures at higher elevations because: a. The intermolecular attractions are weaker. b. Atmospheric pressure increases. c. It is harder to transfer heat to the liquid. d. The vapor pressure at which boiling occurs is lower. 43. For the following intermolecular force descriptions, select the correct name from the response list:

“Permanent” electrostatic interaction between polar molecules in which no hydrogen is present. a. London force b. hydrogen bond c. covalent bond d. dipole-dipole interaction 44. Consider the mathematical expressions for gas laws listed, select the correct name for the law from the

response list: V1T2 = V2T1. a. Avogadro's law b. Boyle's law c. Charles's law d. combined gas law 45. Which of the following statements about intermolecular forces is incorrect? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e a. They must be overcome in order for molecules to escape from the liquid state into the vapor state. b. They are much weaker than intramolecular forces. c. They are electrostatic in origin. d. They occur within molecules rather than between molecules. 46. Which of the following descriptions apply to matter in the gaseous state? a. Definite shape and definite volume. b. Disruptive and cohesive forces are about equal. c. Pressure change significantly influences the volume. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 47. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Sublimation and deposition are "opposite" changes of state. (2) A pressure of one atmosphere is greater in magnitude than a pressure of 720 torr. (3) The boiling point of a liquid can be increased by heating the liquid to a higher temperature. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 48. Considering change of state descriptions, select the name of the change of state for that involves both the

liquid and gaseous state. a. sublimation b. condensation c. deposition d. freezing Use the following to answer the questions below: Characterize the effect that each of the changes will have on the vapor pressure and boiling point of a liquid using the response list. Responses on the right may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) v.p. decreases b) p. decreases b) v.p. decreases b.p. does not change c) v.p. does not change b.p. does not change d) v.p. does not change b.p. decreases 49. Characterize the effect that changes will have on the vapor pressure and boiling point of a liquid by

decreasing the amount of liquid at constant temperature and pressure. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e a. v.p. decreases, b.p. decreases b. v.p. decreases, b.p. does not change c. v.p. does not change, b.p. does not change d. v.p. does not change, b.p. decreases 50. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The process of breathing is readily explained using Charles's law. (2) In a molecular system, kinetic energy is considered to be a disruptive force. (3) A pressure of 200 mm Hg and a pressure of 200 torr are equal. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 51. For each of the physical state characterizations, select from the response list the physical state or states to

which the characterizations apply: potential energy dominates over kinetic energy. a. liquid state only b. solid state only c. both liquid and solid states d. both gaseous and liquid states 52. For each of the physical state characterizations, select from the response list the physical state or states to

which the characterizations apply: indefinite shape. a. liquid state only b. solid state only c. both liquid and solid states d. both gaseous and liquid states 53. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) For molecules of similar molecular mass, nonpolar molecules have higher vapor pressures than polar molecules. (2) Temperature values must be expressed on the Kelvin scale when using all gas laws except the ideal gas law. (3) The average kinetic energy of a system of molecules decreases as temperature increases. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 54. In which of the following pairs of molecules would the first listed member of the pair have a higher boiling

point than the second listed member of the pair? a. HF and HBr b. F2 and Cl2 c. O2 and NO d. more than one correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e e. no correct response 55. Which of the following descriptions apply to matter in the liquid state? a. Temperature change significantly influences the volume. b. Particles are less free to move about than in the solid state. c. Particles transfer energy from one to another through collisions. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 56. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Associated with Charles's law is the concept that if the temperature of a gas increases the volume of the gas also increases. (2) Liquids show little change in volume with changes in temperature. (3) Dipole-dipole interactions are examples of intramolecular forces and hydrogen bonds are examples of intermolecular forces. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 57. Consider the mathematical expressions for gas laws listed, select the correct name for the law from the

response list: P1V1 = P2V2. a. Avogadro's law b. Boyle's law c. Charles's law d. combined gas law 58. Which of the following statements concerning evaporation is incorrect? a. Molecules with energies considerably above average are those that escape from the liquid. b. Increasing the surface area of the liquid decreases the rate of evaporation. c. Increasing the temperature of the liquid increases the rate of evaporation. d. Evaporation causes the liquid temperature to decrease. 59. Intermolecular forces differ from intramolecular forces in that: a. They occur only in liquids. b. They are much stronger. c. They occur only when hydrogen atoms are present. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 60. For each of the physical state characterizations, select from the response list the physical state or states to

which the characterizations apply: cohesive forces dominate over disruptive forces. a. liquid state only b. solid state only Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e c. both liquid and solid states

d. both gaseous and liquid states

61. A gas has a volume of 2.60 liters at a temperature of 87°C and pressure of 1.30 atm. What is the volume of

the gas, in liters, at a temperature of 367°C and a pressure of 4.70 atm? a. 0.782 L b. 1.28 L c. 0.405 L d. 1.72 L 62. Which of the following descriptions apply to matter in the solid state? a. definite shape and high density b. cohesive forces dominate over disruptive forces c. kinetic energy dominates over potential energy d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 63. Which of the following samples of gas would have a new volume of 3.00 liters if the pressure is decreased

from 3.00 atm to 1.00 atm at constant temperature? a. 1.00 L He b. 5.00 L CO2 c. 9.00 L H2S d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 64. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Water's boiling point is much lower than expected, based on comparison with other substances, because of hydrogen bonding. (2) In the gaseous state, disruptive forces and cohesive forces are of about the same magnitude. (3) As liquid surface area increases, the rate of evaporation of a liquid increases because molecules encounter less external pressure. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 65. A gaseous mixture at a total pressure of 1.50 atm contains equal molar amounts of He, Ne, and Ar. At

constant temperature CO2 gas is added to the mixture until the total pressure is 3.00 atm. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning partial pressures after the CO2 addition? a. The partial pressure of Ar has doubled. b. The partial pressure of CO2 is three times that of Ne. c. All four gases have equal partial pressures. d. More than one correct response. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e e. No correct response. 66. The partial pressure of helium in a gaseous mixture of helium and nitrogen trifluoride is a. the pressure that the helium would exert in the absence of the nitrogen trifluoride b. the percentage of the total pressure of the mixture that is contributed by helium c. equal to the total pressure divided by helium's molar mass d. equal to the total pressure divided by the number of helium atoms present 67. How many times larger in size is the atmosphere pressure unit than the mm Hg pressure unit? a. 100 b. 325 c. 760

d. 1000

68. Which of the following statements is not a part of kinetic molecular theory? a. Matter is composed of particles that are in constant motion. b. Particle velocity increases as the temperature increases. c. Particles in a system cannot transfer energy to each other. d. Particle interactions involve electrostatic attractions and repulsions. 69. For the following intermolecular force descriptions, select the correct name from the response list: Strongest

of all intermolecular forces. a. London force b. hydrogen bond c. covalent bond d. dipole-dipole interaction

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Chapter 07_7e Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. c 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. c Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e 26. a 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. a 34. d 35. e 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. d 41. b 42. d 43. d 44. c 45. d 46. c 47. b 48. b 49. c 50. b 51. b Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 07_7e 52. d 53. c 54. a 55. c 56. b 57. b 58. b 59. e 60. b 61. b 62. d 63. a 64. d 65. b 66. a 67. c 68. c 69. b

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Chapter 08_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In which of the following pairs of properties are both members of the pair colligative properties? a. density, boiling point b. vapor pressure, osmotic pressure c. solubility, freezing point d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 2. A 0.300 M solution of LiOH that contains 0.500 mole of solute would have a volume, in milliliters, of a. 30.0 mL b. 60.0 mL c. 6.00 × 102 mL

d. 1.67 × 103 mL

3. A solution may contain a. only one solvent but many solutes b. many solvents but only one solute c. only one solvent and one solute d. many solvents and many solutes 4. Choose the correct numerical value for the molarity from the response list for a solution prepared from 0.40

mole solute in 2.0 L of solution. a. 0.10 M b. 0.20 M c. 1.0 M d. 2.0 M 5. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) A saturated solution always contains excess undissolved solute. 2+ (2) In aqueous solution, Ba ion combines with NO3 ion to produce an insoluble salt. (3) Addition of a nonvolatile solute to a solvent produces a solution with lower vapor pressure, freezing point, and boiling point than that of pure solvent. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 6. Calculate the grams of NaOH present in 9.0 mL of a 8.0% (m/v) NaOH solution. a. 0.72 g b. 0.80 g c. 7.2 g

d. 8.0 g

7. Particles of the dispersed phase in a colloidal dispersion are a. small enough that they cannot be seen by the naked eye b. large enough that they settle out under the influence of gravity Stoker 7th Edition Test Bank

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Chapter 08_7e c. small enough that they cannot be filtered out using filter paper d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 8. Which of the following amounts of solution contain 20.0 g of solute? a. 100.0 g of 20.0% (m/m) NaCl solution b. 500.0 g of 4.00% (m/m) NaCl solution c. 200.0 g of 10.0% (m/m) NaCl solution d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 9. Which of the following types of interparticle attractions must be overcome in order for a solute to dissolve in

a solvent? a. solute-solute b. solvent-solvent c. solute-solvent d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 10. For the set of ionic compounds, CaSO4, CaBr2, CaCO3, choose the correct characterization of their

solubilities in water from the response list. a. All three salts are soluble. b. Two of the three salts are soluble. c. One of the three salts is soluble. d. None of the three salts are soluble. 11. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) To find the molarity of a solution, both solution volume and the number of moles of solute must be known. (2) Osmosis involves the passage of solvent from a dilute solution (or pure solvent) into a more concentrated solution. (3) 5.0 %(m/v) glucose solution and 0.9 %(m/v) sodium chloride solution have the same osmolarity and are hypotonic relative to red blood cells. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 12. Consider the following substances and their polarities: A – polar, B – polar, C – nonpolar, D – nonpolar. It is

true that: a. A is more soluble in C than in B. b. C is more soluble in D than in A. Stoker 7th Edition Test Bank

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Chapter 08_7e c. D is more soluble in B than in C. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 13. Calculate the concentration in % (m/m) of a solution containing 20.5 g of LiF dissolved in 340.0 g of H2O. a. 1.14% (m/m) b. 5.69% (m/m) c. 6.03% (m/m)

d. 6.42% (m/m)

14. For the set of ionic compounds, LiCl, AgCl, MgCl2, choose the correct characterization of their solubilities

in water from the response list. a. All three salts are soluble. b. Two of the three salts are soluble. c. One of the three salts is soluble. d. None of the three salts are soluble. 15. Which of the following solutions is hypertonic with respect to blood? a. 0.5% (m/v) NaCl b. 0.7% (m/v) NaCl c. 4.5% (m/v) glucose

d. 7.6% (m/v) glucose

16. Compared to pure water, a 1 M sugar-water solution will have a a. lower vapor pressure, lower boiling point and lower freezing point b. higher vapor pressure, higher boiling point and higher freezing point c. lower vapor pressure, higher boiling point and lower freezing point d. lower vapor pressure, lower boiling point and higher freezing point 17. A colloidal dispersion differs from a suspension in that colloidal particles a. tend to settle at an appreciable rate b. are large enough to scatter light c. are large enough to be seen with the naked eye d. are large enough to be seen with a microscope 18. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) A colloidal dispersion is a homogeneous mixture and a suspension is a heterogeneous mixture. (2) The selectivity of a semipermeable membrane is based on polarity differences among molecules. (3) For dilute aqueous solutions, %(m/m) and %(m/v) concentration units have almost the same magnitude because the density of water is 1.00 g/mL and the solution is almost entirely water. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th Edition Test Bank

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Chapter 08_7e 19. For a solution composition of 5.00 mL solute in enough solvent to give 100.0 mL solution; choose the

correct numerical concentration of % (v/v). a. 1.00 b. 5.00 c. 10.0 d. 11.1 20. Which of the following statements concerning a saturated solution is incorrect? a. Undissolved solute must be present. b. Undissolved solute may or may not be present. c. Undissolved solute, if present, is continually dissolving. d. Undissolved solute, if present, is in equilibrium with dissolved solute. 21. Which of the following solutions has an osmolarity of 3.0? a. 4.0 M glucose b. 2.0 M NaCl c. 1.0 M Na3PO4 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 22. A crystal of solid NaCl is placed into an aqueous NaCl solution. It is observed that most, but not all, of the

crystal dissolves. This means the original solution was a. supersaturated b. unsaturated c. dilute d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 23. For a solution composition of 10.0 g solute in 100.0 g solution; choose the correct numerical concentration

of % (m/m). a. 1.00 c. 10.0

b. 5.00 d. 11.1

24. Which of the following solute amounts, when dissolved in 1.00 kg of water, would produce a solution with a

freezing point of –1.86oC? a. 0.500 mole NaCl b. 1.00 mole glucose c. 2.00 mole KBr d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 25. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The osmolarity of a 3.0 M NaCl solution is greater than the osmolarity of a 2.0 M Na2SO4 solution. Stoker 7th Edition Test Bank

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(2) A solution with just two components must always be a liquid. (3) Red blood cells will shrink in size when placed in an isotonic solution. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 26. Which of the following statements concerning factors that affect solute solubility is incorrect? a. Most solid solutes become more soluble in water with increasing temperature. b. Most solid solutes become less soluble in water with decreasing pressure. c. Gaseous solutes become less soluble in water with increasing temperature. d. Gaseous solutes become more soluble in water with increasing pressure. 27. What is the molarity of a solution containing 16.7 grams of NH3 in 1.50 liters of solution? a. 0.0653 M b. 0.653 M c. 1.53 M

d. 11.1 M

28. What volume, in milliliters, of 4.0 M NaOH is needed to prepare 145 mL of 0.15 M NaOH by dilution? a. 3.9 × 103 mL b. 5.4 mL c. 2.6 × 10–4 mL

d. 0.18 mL

29. For a solution composition of 5.00 g solute in enough solvent to give 50.0 g solution; choose the correct

numerical concentration of % (m/m). a. 1.00 b. 5.00 c. 10.0 d. 11.1 30. In which of the following pairings are the terms closely related? a. hemolysis, hypotonic solution b. hypertonic, higher osmotic pressure than within cells c. isotonic solution, crenation d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 31. If 145 mL of 2.00 M KOH is diluted to 1.15 L, the resulting solution contains a. 0.29 moles of KOH b. 2.30 moles of KOH c. 3.34 moles of KOH

d. 23.0 moles of KOH

32. Using the response list, characterize the osmotic pressure for a 5.0% (m/v) NaCl with respect to cells. a. isotonic solution b. hypertonic solution c. hypotonic solution

d. saturated solution

33. What is the freezing point for a solution containing 1.00 mole of NaCl (an ionic component) dissolved in Stoker 7th Edition Test Bank

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1.00 kg of water? a. +1.86oC

b. -1.86oC

c. +3.72oC

d. -3.72oC

34. For the set of ionic compounds, BaSO4, BaCO3, Ba(OH)2, choose the correct characterization of their

solubilities in water from the response list. a. All three salts are soluble. b. Two of the three salts are soluble. c. One of the three salts is soluble. d. None of the three salts are soluble. 35. Choose the correct numerical value for the molarity from the response list for a solution prepared from 0.10

mole solute in 1.0 L of solution. a. 0.10 M b. 0.20 M c. 1.0 M d. 2.0 M 36. If two solutions with concentrations of 0.4 M sugar and 0.7 M sugar respectively are separated by a

semipermeable membrane, during osmosis there is a net flow of a. sugar molecules from the concentrated to the dilute solution b. sugar molecules from the dilute to the concentrated solution c. water molecules from the concentrated to the dilute solution d. water molecules from the dilute to the concentrated solution 37. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) A solution of concentration 7.6 %(m/m) contains 7.6 grams of solute per 1 liter of solution. (2) The use of antifreeze in car radiators in the winter and the use of rock salt in making homemade ice cream are based on the same chemical principle. (3) One mole of any molecular solute raises the boiling point of one kilogram of water by 1.86oC.. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 38. Using the response list, characterize the osmotic pressure for a 5.0% (m/v) glucose with respect to cells. a. isotonic solution b. hypertonic solution c. hypotonic solution

d. saturated solution

39. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) 2.0 liters of a 6.0 M solution would contain 12.0 moles of solute, independent of the identity of the solute. (2) For liquid-liquid solutions, volume of the solution is always greater than the sum of the volumes of solute and solvent because of solute-solvent repulsion effects. Stoker 7th Edition Test Bank

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Chapter 08_7e

(3) Osmotic pressure is the amount of pressure needed to prevent the process of osmosis from occurring. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 40. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Fat-soluble vitamins have polar molecular structures. (2) Increased temperature decreases gas solubility, and increased pressure increases gas solubility. (3) The mechanism for controlled-release medications involves encapsulation with particle coatings of varying thickness. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 41. Choose the correct numerical value for the molarity from the response list for a solution using 50.0 mL of

0.40 M solution diluted to a final volume of 0.20 L. a. 0.10 M b. 0.12 M c. 0.25 M d. 0.30 M 42. Which of the following statements about solutions is correct? a. A solution is a homogeneous mixture. b. It is possible to have solutions in which both solute and solvent are solids. c. Solutions readily separate into solute and solvent if left undisturbed for 24 hours. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 43. For the set of ionic compounds, AlPO4, Al(OH)3, Al(NO3)3, choose the correct characterization of their

solubilities in water from the response list. a. All three salts are soluble. b. Two of the three salts are soluble. c. One of the three salts is soluble. d. None of the three salts are soluble. 44. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Equal volumes of two solutions of the same molarity contain the same number of grams of solute. (2) Hemolysis and crenation are “opposite” processes. (3) The solubility rule “like dissolves like” is not adequate for predicting the solubility of ionic compounds in water. a. All three statements are true. Stoker 7th Edition Test Bank

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Chapter 08_7e b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 45. Which of the following solutions will have a molarity of less than 1.0 after 50.0 mL of solvent is added to it? a. 50.0 mL of 3.0 M solution b. 10.0 mL of 5.0 M solution c. 575 mL of 1.2 M solution d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 46. In which of the following pairs of ionic compounds are both members of the pair soluble in water? b. LiOH and Li2SO4 a. AgNO3 and AgCl c. PbSO4 and BaCO3

d. NH4I and Sn3(PO4)2

47. Which of the following solutions has a molarity of 1.0? a. 0.050 mole of solute in 25.0 mL of solution b. 2.0 moles of solute in 500.0 mL of solution c. 3.0 moles of solute in 1.5 L of solution d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 48. Choose the correct numerical value for the molarity from the response list for a solution prepared from 0.25

mole solute in 2500 mL of solution. a. 0.10 M b. 0.20 M c. 1.0 M d. 2.0 M 49. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The Tyndall effect involves light-scattering by colloidal-sized particles. (2) Aqueous solutions of 0.1 M KCl and 0.1 M glucose would have the same freezing point because the solvent is water in both cases. (3) Percent by volume is a concentration unit used when both solute and solvent are liquids. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 50. Crenation of red blood cells occurs when the cells are placed in a(n) a. hypotonic solution b. isotonic solution c. hypertonic solution Stoker 7th Edition Test Bank

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Chapter 08_7e 51. For a solution composition of 10.0 g solute in 100.0 g solution; choose the correct numerical concentration

of % (m/m). a. 1.00 c. 10.0

b. 5.00 d. 11.1

52. In which of the following sets of ionic compounds are all members of the set insoluble in water? a. AgCl, PbCl2, NH4Cl b. CuCO3, CaCO3, MgCO3 c. PbSO4, FeSO4, BaSO4 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 53. For a solution composition of 10.0 g solute and 90.0 g solvent; choose the correct numerical concentration

of % (m/m). a. 1.00 c. 10.0

b. 5.00 d. 11.1

54. Using the response list, characterize the osmotic pressure for a 0.80% (m/v) MgCl2 with respect to cells. a. isotonic solution b. hypertonic solution c. hypotonic solution

d. saturated solution

55. For which of the following types of ionic compounds are most examples insoluble in water? a. nitrates b. sulfates c. hydroxides

d. chlorides

56. For the set of ionic compounds, NaNO3, KNO3, NH4NO3, choose the correct characterization of their

solubilities in water from the response list. a. All three salts are soluble. b. Two of the three salts are soluble. c. One of the three salts is soluble. d. None of the three salts are soluble. 57. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Addition of 40.0 mL of water to 10.0 mL of 8.0 M NaOH would produce a 2.0 M NaOH solution. (2) Henry's law is a pressure-solubility relationship for gases in liquids. (3) Boiling points are the basis for the solubility rule “like dissolves like.” a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th Edition Test Bank

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Chapter 08_7e 58. Which of the following solutions would always contain 10.0 g of solute per 40.0 g of solvent? a. 20.0% (m/m) solution b. 25.0% (m/v) solution c. 25.0% (v/v) solution d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 59. Choose the correct numerical value for the molarity from the response list for a solution using 50.0 mL of a

0.30 M solution to which 75.0 mL of solvent has been added. a. 0.10 M b. 0.12 M c. 0.25 M d. 0.30 M 60. Using the response list, characterize the osmotic pressure for a 2.0% (m/v) glucose with respect to cells. a. isotonic solution b. hypertonic solution c. hypotonic solution

d. saturated solution

61. For a solution composition of 10.0 g solute in enough solvent to give 1.00 L solution; choose the correct

numerical concentration of % (m/v). a. 1.00 b. 5.00 c. 10.0 d. 11.1 62. The solubility rule “like dissolves like” is not adequate for predicting solubilities when the solute is a(n) a. nonpolar gas b. ionic compound c. nonpolar liquid

d. polar gas

63. In a solution, the solvent is a. the substance being dissolved b. always a liquid c. the substance present in the greatest amount d. always water 64. Choose the correct numerical value for the molarity from the response list for a solution using 10.0 g of

solute whose molar mass is 50.0 g in 100.0 mL solution. a. 0.10 M b. 0.12 M c. 0.25 M d. 0.30 M 65. Choose the correct numerical value for the molarity from the response list for a solution using 75.0 mL of

0.20 M solution that has been concentrated to 60.0 mL. a. 0.10 M b. 0.12 M c. 0.25 M d. 0.30 M 66. A solution is made by dissolving 0.35 mole of LiI in enough water to give a final volume of 260.0 mL. What

is the molarity of the solution? Stoker 7th Edition Test Bank

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Chapter 08_7e a. 0.091 M

b. 0.67 M

c. 1.3 M

d. 2.6 M

67. Which of the following statements is correct for 25.0 mL of 3.0 M NH3 solution? (NH3 has a molar mass of

17.0 g.) a. 25.0 mL of solvent is present. b. 0.75 moles of solute is present. c. 1.3 grams of solute is present. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 68. Using the response list, characterize the osmotic pressure for a 0.50% (m/v) NaCl solution with respect to

cells. a. isotonic solution

b. hypertonic solution

c. hypotonic solution

d. saturated solution

69. Choose the correct numerical value for the molarity from the response list for a solution prepared from 0.50

mole solute in 500.0 mL of solution. a. 0.10 M b. 0.20 M c. 1.0 M d. 2.0 M

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Chapter 08_7e Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. d 9. d 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. b 14. b 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. e 22. b 23. c 24. d 25. d Stoker 7th Edition Test Bank

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Chapter 08_7e 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. b 33. d 34. c 35. a 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. d 43. c 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. e 48. a 49. c 50. c 51. c Stoker 7th Edition Test Bank

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Chapter 08_7e 52. b 53. c 54. b 55. c 56. a 57. c 58. a 59. b 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. c 64. d 65. c 66. c 67. c 68. c 69. c

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Chapter 09_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following statements about activation energy is correct? a. It is the same for all reactions. b. It is low for reactions that take place rapidly. c. It is the maximum energy a reacting molecule may possess. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 2. Consider the following redox equation: SO2 + NO2 → SO3 + NO.

Choose an appropriate chemical formula from the list that identifies the substance oxidized. a. SO2 c. NO

b. SO3 d. NO2

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) A chemical system reaches equilibrium at the instant when the rate of formation of products becomes zero. (2) One reactant and two or more products is a general characteristic of decomposition reactions. (3) Catalysts increase reaction rate by providing an alternate reaction pathway with a higher activation energy. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 4. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The square brackets associated with a general equilibrium constant expression mean that concentrations must be expressed in terms of molarity. (2) Pressure changes affect all chemical systems at equilibrium in which gaseous reactants or products are present. (3) In the compound KMnO4, the oxidation number of Mn is +3. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 09_7e 5. For the indicated element, select the correct oxidation number from the response list: oxidation number of Cr

in Cr2O72–. a. +2 b. +3 c. +4 d. +6 6. CO2 and H2 are allowed to react until equilibrium is established as follows:

Which of the following changes will cause the equilibrium position to shift to the right? a. increase in the concentration of H2 b. decrease in the concentration of CO c. decrease in the concentration of CO2 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 7. Whether a reaction is exothermic or endothermic is determined by a. the activation energy b. the physical state of the reactants c. how reactant and product potential energies compare d. whether a catalyst is present 8. For the indicated element, select the correct oxidation number from the response list: oxidation number of Mn

in Mn3+. a. +2 c. +4

b. +3 d. +6

9. Chemical equilibrium is reached in a system when a. complete conversion of reactants to products has occurred b. reactant and product concentrations are equal c. reactants are being consumed at the same rate they are being produced d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 10. Which substance functions as a reducing agent in the following redox reaction?

CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2H2O a. CH4 c. CO2

b. O2 d. H2O

11. For the indicated element, select the correct oxidation number from the response list: oxidation number of C

in KHCO3. a. +2 b. +3 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 09_7e c. +4

d. +6

12. Consider the following equilibrium:

Determine the effect on the position of equilibrium when some H2 is added. a. shifts to the right b. shifts to the left c. does not shift d. shifts to both the left and the right Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 13. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Oxidation and reduction are complementary processes that always occur together. (2) For a system at chemical equilibrium, decreasing the concentration of a reactant will always shift the equilibrium to the right. (3) The reactants in a combination reaction must be elements. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 14. The proper assignment of oxidation numbers to the elements in the compound LiAsO3 would be a. +1 for Li, +5 for As and -2 for O b. +1 for Li, +5 for As and -6 for O c. +1 for Li, +1 for As and -2 for O d. +2 for Li, +4 for As and -6 for O 15. For a collision between molecules to result in reaction, the molecules must possess a certain minimum

energy and a. exchange electrons b. interact with a catalyst for at least one second c. have a favorable orientation relative to each other when they collide d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 16. For the indicated element, select the correct oxidation number from the response list: oxidation number of

Fe in Fe2O3. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 09_7e a. +2

b. +3

c. +4

d. +6

17. Most reactions are carried out in liquid solution or in the gaseous phase because in such situations a. activation energies are higher. b. it is easier for reactants to come in contact with each other. c. kinetic energies of reactants are lower. d. products are less prone to decomposition when compared to the solid phase. 18. Assign the following reaction to one of the reaction classifications given in the response list: 2NO2 + H2O2

→ 2HNO3 a. decomposition c. displacement

b. combination d. exchange

19. In writing an equilibrium constant expression, which of the following is incorrect? a. Concentrations are always expressed in molarities. b. Product concentrations are always placed in the numerator of the expression. c. Concentrations of pure solids and pure liquids are always placed in the denominator of the

expression. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 20. For the indicated element, select the correct oxidation number from the response list: oxidation number of S

in H2SO4. a. +2 c. +4

b. +3 d. +6

21. Increasing the temperature at which a chemical reaction occurs a. will lower the activation energy b. causes more reactant collisions to take place in a given time c. decreases the reaction rate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 22. Assign the following reaction to one of the reaction classifications given in the response list: Mg + 2HCl →

MgCl2 + H2 a. decomposition c. displacement

b. combination d. exchange

23. Combustion reactions are characterized by a. oxygen always being one of the reactants Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 09_7e b. water always being one of the products c. carbon dioxide always being one of the products d. both reactants always being elements 24. According to Le Chatelier's principle, which of the following changes will shift the position of the

equilibrium to the left for the reaction a. double the concentration of N2 c. increase the concentration of H2

? b. decrease the concentration of NH3 d. triple the temperature

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Decomposition reactions and addition reactions are two terms that describe the same type of reaction. (2) Orientation relative to one another, at the moment of collision, is always a factor in determining whether a collision is effective. (3) An increase in temperature will always cause an endothermic reaction at equilibrium to shift in the direction that produces more products. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 26. In which of the following sequences of sulfur-containing ions are the ions arranged in order of decreasing

oxidation number for S? a. SO32–, SO42–, S2– 2–

2–

b. SO4 , S2O3 , S

c. S2O32–, SO32–, SO42– d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 27. Assign the following reaction to one of the reaction classifications given in the response list: K2CO3 → K2O

+ CO2 a. decomposition c. displacement Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 09_7e 28. Consider the following redox equation: SO2 + NO2 → SO3 + NO.

Choose an appropriate chemical formula from the list that identifies the oxidizing agent. a. SO2 c. NO

b. SO3 d. NO2

29. Which of the following statements concerning types of reactions is correct? a. The reactant in a decomposition reaction must be a compound. b. The reactants in a combination reaction must be elements. c. The reactants in a displacement reaction could be two compounds. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 30. In the redox reaction 2MnBr3 + SnBr2 → 2MnBr2 + SnBr4 a. SnBr2 is the oxidizing agent b. MnBr3 is the substance oxidized c. Sn undergoes an oxidation number change of two units d. Mn undergoes an oxidation number change of six units 31. Consider the following equilibrium:

Determine the

effect on the position of equilibrium when a catalyst is added. a. shifts to the right b. shifts to the left c. does not shift d. shifts to both the left and the right 32. Consider the following equilibrium:

Determine the

effect on the position of equilibrium when the temperature is decreased. a. shifts to the right b. shifts to the left c. does not shift d. shifts to both the left and the right Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 33. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) All chemical systems will reach equilibrium if enough time elapses. (2) A substance that functions as a reducing agent is, itself, oxidized. (3) In a slow reaction, the activation energy is far greater than the average energy content of the reacting particles. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 09_7e a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 34. For a system at chemical equilibrium: a. Forward and reverse reaction rates are equal. b. Forward and reverse reaction rates are zero. c. Reactant and product concentrations are equal. d. Reactant and product concentrations are zero. 35. Consider the following redox equation: SO2 + NO2 → SO3 + NO.

Choose an appropriate chemical formula from the list that identifies the reducing agent. a. SO2 c. NO

b. SO3 d. NO2

36. According to Le Chatelier's principle, which of the following effects will occur if NH3 is removed from an

equilibrium mixture governed by the equation: ? a. Concentration of N2 will increase. b. Heat will be generated. c. Concentration of H2 will decrease. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 37. a.

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Chapter 09_7e 38. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The collision between two reactant molecules does not always result in the formation of reaction products. (2) The substance oxidized in a reaction may be either a reactant or a product. (3) At chemical equilibrium, the concentrations of reactants and products cease to change. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 39. Le Chatelier's principle states that: a. Only exothermic reactions can reach chemical equilibrium. b. Only reactions in which a catalyst is present can reach chemical equilibrium. c. If a chemical equilibrium is disturbed, the system will try and reestablish equilibrium. d. If a chemical equilibrium is disturbed, the temperature of the system will always decrease. 40. Which of the following statements concerning redox reactions is incorrect? a. The oxidizing agent is the substance reduced. b. The reducing agent is the substance oxidized. c. The oxidizing agent loses electrons. d. The substance oxidized loses electrons. 41. Which of the following statements concerning oxidation and reduction is correct? a. They cannot occur independently of each other. b. They accompany all chemical changes. c. They describe, respectively, the gain and loss of electrons. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 42. Assign the following reaction to one of the reaction classifications given in the response list: KCN + HCl →

HCN + KCl a. decomposition c. displacement

b. combination d. exchange

43. Which element is oxidized in the following redox reaction?

2H2S + O2 → 2H2O + S b. hydrogen in H2S a. sulfur in H2S c. oxygen in O2

d. oxygen in H2O

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Chapter 09_7e

a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 44. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Of the known atmospheric greenhouse gases, CO2 is both the most abundant and also the most efficient at preventing heat loss from the Earth. (2) Ozone is a form of oxygen in which there are three atoms per molecule. (3) A decrease in body temperature slows down the rate of chemical reactions. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 45. Which of the following general reaction types is characterized by there being a single reactant? a. combination b. decomposition c. displacement

d. exchange

46. In the redox reaction 4Fe + 3 O2 + 12HCl → 4FeCl3 + 6H2O a. HCl is the reducing agent. b. O2 is the substance oxidized. c. Fe undergoes an oxidation number decrease of three units per atom. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 247. The proper assignment of oxidation numbers to the elements in the polyatomic ion SO3 would be a. +6 for S and -6 for O b. +6 for S and -2 for O

c. +4 for S and -6 for O

d. +4 for S and -2 for O

48. Consider the following redox equation: SO2 + NO2 → SO3 + NO.

Choose an appropriate chemical formula from the list that identifies the substance that loses electrons. a. SO2 c. NO

b. SO3 d. NO2

49. The minimum combined kinetic energy reactant particles must possess in order for their collision to result in

a reaction is called the a. dissociation energy c. activation energy

b. collision energy d. orientation energy

50. Consider the following equilibrium: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 09_7e

effect on the position of equilibrium when the volume of the container is increased (pressure decrease). a. shifts to the right b. shifts to the left c. does not shift d. shifts to both the left and the right 51. Consider the following equilibrium:

Determine the effect on the position of equilibrium when some CO2 is removed. a. shifts to the right b. shifts to the left c. does not shift d. shifts to both the left and the right 52. What is the change in oxidation number for cobalt in the redox reaction 2Co2O3 + 3C → 4Co + 3CO2 a. +4 to -4 b. +2 to 0 c. +3 to +4

d. +3 to 0

53. In which of the following compounds does Cl have an oxidation number of +5? a. HClO b. KClO2 c. Ca(ClO3)2 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Electron loss is always associated with an increase in oxidation number. (2) An exothermic reaction occurs when the energy required to break bonds in reactants is less than the energy released by bond formation in the products. (3) The concentrations of pure liquids and pure solids are never included in an equilibrium constant expression because such concentrations never change. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 55. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 09_7e a.

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) When reactants are in the solid state, reaction rate increases as temperature increases and decreases as state of subdivision increases. (2) An oxidizing agent causes oxidation by providing electrons for the other reactant to accept. (3) The numerical value of an equilibrium constant must always be greater than one. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 57. Which of the following reactions is a non-redox reaction? a. CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 b. 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3 O2 c. SO3 + H2O → H2SO4 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 58. For which of the following equilibrium systems will the equilibrium position shift to the left when a stress of

increased pressure (from a volume decrease) is applied? a. b. c. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 09_7e 59. CO2 and H2 are allowed to react until an equilibrium is established as follows:

What will be the effect on the equilibrium of removing CO from the equilibrium mixture? a. The equilibrium will favor the the side of the reactant molecules. b. H2 concentration will double c. CO and CO2 concentrations will double d. H2 concentration will decrease and H2O concentration will increase 60. For the following general reaction equation, choose the correct form of the equilibrium constant expression

from the response list: a.

61. In a redox reaction, the oxidizing agent is the substance a. that is oxidized b. that loses electrons c. that contains an element that undergoes a decrease in oxidation number d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 62. Which of the following changes is most likely to decrease reaction rate for the chemical reaction 2CO + O2

→ 2CO2? a. adding twice as much O2 to the reaction mixture b. tripling the temperature of the reaction mixture c. adding a catalyst to the reaction mixture d. removing some CO from the reaction mixture 63. Which of the following reactions is a nonredox decomposition reaction? b. 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3 O2 a. 2CuO → 2Cu + O2 c. CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

d. SO2 + H2O → H2SO3

64. Consider the following redox equation: SO2 + NO2 → SO3 + NO.

Choose an appropriate chemical formula from the list that identifies the substance reduced. a. SO2

b. SO3

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Chapter 09_7e c. NO

d. NO2

65. Catalysts are correctly characterized by each of the following statements except one. The exception is: a. They can be either solids, liquids or gases. b. They lower the activation energy for a reaction. c. They do not actively participate in a reaction. d. They are not consumed in a reaction.

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The only information needed to write an equilibrium constant expression is a balanced chemical equation with physical state information for the reaction of concern. 2(2) The oxidation number of sulfur is the same in the species H2SO4 and SO4 . (3) Increasing the concentration of a reactant makes collisions between the reactant and other reactants less likely because of “more crowded conditions.” a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 67. Which of the following is the correct equilibrium constant expression for the reaction a.

68. Assign the following reaction to one of the reaction classifications given in the response list: 4PH3 +

Ni(CO)4 → 4CO + Ni(PH3)4 a. decomposition b. combination c. displacement d. exchange

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Chapter 09_7e Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. d 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. c 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. d 25. c Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 09_7e 26. b 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. a 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. a 42. d 43. a 44. b 45. b 46. e 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. b 51. b Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 09_7e 52. d 53. b 54. a 55. b 56. d 57. d 58. e 59. d 60. d 61. c 62. d 63. c 64. d 65. c 66. b 67. c 68. c

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Chapter 10_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts? a. NaCl and NaOH b. KNO3 and K2SO4 c. H3PO4 and (NH4)3PO4 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 2. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Both members of a Brønsted-Lowry conjugate acid-base pair must contain the element hydrogen. (2) The larger the value of the acid ionization constant for an acid, the weaker the acid is. (3) Weak acids cannot completely neutralize strong bases. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 3. Which of the following statements concerning Arrhenius acids and Arrhenius bases is incorrect? a. In the pure state, Arrhenius acids are covalent compounds. b. In the pure state, Arrhenius bases are ionic compounds. c. Dissociation is the process by which Arrhenius acids produce H+ ions in solution. d. Arrhenius bases are also called hydroxide bases. 4. If a solution is buffered at a pH of 9.5, then the addition of a small amount of acid will cause the solution to

have a pH of approximately a. 7.5 b. 8.5 c. 9.5 d. 10.5 5. A solution with a pH of 13.3 is a. strongly acidic b. weakly acidic c. weakly basic

d. strongly basic

6. Characterize the following solution using the response list: aqueous HCl solution. a. an acidic solution b. a basic solution c. a neutral solution

d. a buffer solution

7. Which of the following is not a conjugate acid/base pair? b. OH–/O2– a. NH4+/NH3 c. H3PO4/H2PO4– Stoker 7th E Test Bank

d. CO2/CO3– Page 1

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Chapter 10_7e 8. The Ca2+ ion concentration, in Eq/L, in a solution that contains one mole of Ca2+ ion and two moles of Cl–

ion is a. 0.5 Eq/L

b. 1 Eq/L

c. 2 Eq/L

d. 3 Eq/L

9. Which of the following indicates an acidic solution? a. pH = 7.5 +

–5

b. [H3O ] = 5.0 × 10

c. [OH–] = 2.0 × 10–8 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 10. Which of the following statements is correct for the Brønsted-Lowry acid-base reaction a. HCO3– is the conjugate base of HCN. –

b. HCN is the conjugate acid of HCO3 . c. HCO3– and CN– are a conjugate acid-base pair. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 11. Which of the following is a correct statement for a solution with a pH of 8.00? a. The hydroxide ion concentration is greater than the hydronium ion concentration. b. The hydronium ion concentration is 8.0 M. c. The hydroxide ion concentration is 1.0 × 10–8 M. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 12. Characterize the following solution using the response list: aqueous NaCN solution. a. an acidic solution b. a basic solution c. a neutral solution

d. a buffer solution

13. In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids? b. HI and HNO3 a. H3PO4 and H2SO4 c. H2CO3 and HI

d. HC2H3O2 and HI

14. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Formation of a coordinate covalent bond is always part of a Brønsted-Lowry acid-base reaction. (2) The compound H2CO3 is both a strong acid and a diprotic acid. (3) The pH of a solution with [OH-] = 1 X 10-8 is 6.0. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 10_7e a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 15. In the neutralization reaction between 0.6 M Ba(OH)2 and 0.6 M HNO3, the base and acid will react in a

molar ratio of a. one to one c. two to one

b. one to two d. two to two

16. Which of the following equations represents an acid-base neutralization reaction? a. H2SO4 + Zn ZnSO4 + H2 b. HNO3 + KOH

KNO3 + H2O c. Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaOH d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 17. Select from the response list the compound that best fits the description: a salt whose dissociation produces

equal amounts of two ions. a. KOH b. NaNO3 c. H3PO4

d. K3PO4

18. For the solution description, select a correct characterization from the response list:

pH = 2.30. a. an acidic solution c. a neutral solution

b. a basic solution d. a buffer solution

19. Acid ionization constants give information about a. the equilibrium constants for the reaction of weak acids with water b. the number of reactive hydrogens present in acids c. whether acids are polyprotic d. whether acids can neutralize bases 20. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) In aqueous solution, Arrhenius acids undergo ionization and Arrhenius bases undergo dissociation. (2) Production of the salt NaNO3 through a neutralization reaction involves the reaction of a weak acid with a strong base. (3) The ion product constant for water, at 24oC, has the numerical value 1.0 x 10-14. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 10_7e c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 21. Select from the response list for the acid that best fits the description: an acid that completely dissociates in

solution to produce negative ions with a charge of one. a. HCl b. HC2H3O2 c. H2C3H2O2

d. H2SO4

22. Which of the following does not describe an acidic solution? a. The pH is less than 7.0 b. The [OH–] is greater than 1.0 × 10–7 c. The [H3O+] is greater than the [OH–] d. The [OH–] is 6.0 × 10–10 23. In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids? a. HNO3 and HNO2 b. H2SO4 and H2SO3 c. HCl and HClO4 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 24. In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts? a. H2SeO4 and SrSeO4 b. NaBr and NaOH c. NH4F and CsF

d. HNO3 and NaOH

25. If the pH of a solution increases from 3.1 to 5.1 the hydronium ion concentration a. increases by a factor of 1.6 b. increases by a factor of 100 c. decreases by a factor of 1.6

d. decreases by a factor of 100

26. For the solution description, select a correct characterization from the response list:

[OH–] = 3.0 10–-6 M. a. an acidic solution c. a neutral solution

b. a basic solution d. a buffer solution

27. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) All rainfall, even in unpolluted areas, is acidic. (2) Blood plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid, the three general types of body fluids, all contain electrolytes. (3) Blood plasma is slightly acidic because ions it contains undergo hydrolysis. a. All three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 10_7e b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 2– 28. Select from the response list the compound or ion that best fits the description: conjugate acid of HPO4 . b. H2PO4– a. H3PO4

c. HPO42–

d. PO43–

29. For the solution description, select a correct characterization from the response list:

[H3O+] = 2.0 10–8 M. a. an acidic solution c. a neutral solution

b. a basic solution d. a buffer solution

30. Select from the response list the compound or ion that best fits the description: conjugate base of H3PO4. b. H2PO4– a. H3PO4 c. HPO42–

d. PO43– –

31. In the reaction N3 + H2O b. H2O. a. N3–. c. HN3.

HN3 + OH–, the Brønsted-Lowry base is

d. OH–.

32. Select from the response list for the acid that best fits the description: an acid that has two nonacidic

hydrogens. a. HCl c. H2C3H2O2

b. HC2H3O2 d. H2SO4

33. For the solution description, select a correct characterization from the response list:

[H3O+] is twice the [OH–]. a. an acidic solution b. a basic solution c. a neutral solution d. a buffer solution 34. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) In Arrhenius acid-base theory, the acidic species is the hydronium ion and the basic species is the hydroxide ion. (2) An amphiprotic substance can function as either a Brønsted-Lowry acid or a Brønsted-Lowry base. (3) All soluble salts are strong electrolytes. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 10_7e d. None of the statements are true. 35. Which of the following statements concerning acid-base definitions is incorrect? a. All Arrhenius acids are Brønsted-Lowry acids. b. All Brønsted-Lowry bases are Arrhenius bases. c. Brønsted-Lowry acid-base definitions are independent of the solvent water. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 36. In which of the following pairings of compounds are both members of the pair strong electrolytes? a. NaCN and LiI b. NH3 and HI c. NaOH and H2CO3

d. KBr and HBr

37. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The result of salt hydrolysis in aqueous solution is always a basic solution. (2) Arrhenius acids are ionic compounds and Brønsted-Lowry acids are covalent compounds. (3) Each successive step in the dissociation of a polyprotic acid occurs to a greater extent than the previous step. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 38. Select from the response list for the acid that best fits the description: a diprotic weak acid. a. HCl b. HC2H3O2 c. H2C3H2O2

d. H2SO4 +

39. Select from the response list the compound or ion that best fits the description: reacts with H3O to form

HPO42–. b. H2PO4–

a. H3PO4 c. HPO42–

d. PO43– –

40. The H2PO4 ion has both a conjugate acid and a conjugate base. It is true that a. H3PO4 is the conjugate acid. b. HPO4

2–

is the conjugate base.

–

c. H2PO3 is the conjugate base. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 41. Which of the following pairings of molar amounts and equivalents is correct? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 10_7e a. 1 mole of Cl– ion = 1 equivalent Cl– ion b. 2 moles Ca2+ ion = 2 equivalents Ca2+ ion c. 1 mole PO43– ion = 3 equivalents PO43– ion d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 42. Which of the following statements about weak acids is correct? a. Weak acids always contain C atoms. b. The percentage dissociation for weak acids is usually in the range of 40-60 percent. c. Weak acid molecules readily lose only a small percentage of their acidic hydrogen atoms. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 43. A buffer solution could be prepared from a. RbI and HI b. NaOH and HI c. KC2H3O2 and HC2H3O2

d. LiCN and NaCN

44. Characterize the following solution using the response list: aqueous NaCl solution. a. an acidic solution b. a basic solution c. a neutral solution

d. a buffer solution

45. Select from the response list the compound that best fits the description: a substance produced when HNO3

neutralizes NaOH. a. KOH b. NaNO3 c. H3PO4

d. K3PO4

46. Select from the response list the compound that best fits the description: a substance that reacts with H2SO4

to produce K2SO4. a. KOH b. NaNO3 c. H3PO4

d. K3PO4

47. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The terms proton and hydrogen ion are used interchangeably in acid-base discussions. (2) Some hydroxide ion is present in all acidic solutions. (3) The two active species in a buffer are a strong acid and its conjugate base. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 10_7e 48. In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair polyprotic? b. HNO3 and H2C4H4O6 a. H2SO4 and HC2H3O2 c. HC2H3O2 and H3C6H5O7

d. H3PO4 and H2C4H4O7

49. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The total number of hydrogen atoms present in one molecule of an acid is the basis for classifying it as monoprotic, diprotic, triprotic, etc. (2) In all Brønsted-Lowry acid-base reactions, the acidic species reacts with the basic species to produce water. (3) A buffer is a solution that experiences zero change in pH when a small amount of acid or base is added to it. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 50. Characterize the following solution using the response list: aqueous NH4Cl solution. a. an acidic solution b. a basic solution c. a neutral solution

d. a buffer solution

51. If the pH of a salt solution is 5.3, the salt must be one which could be formed from the neutralization of a. a strong acid and a strong base b. a weak acid and a strong base c. a strong acid and a weak base

d. HI and NaOH

52. Select from the response list the compound that best fits the description: a salt whose dissociation produces

more positive ions than negative ions. a. KOH b. NaNO3 c. H3PO4

d. K3PO4

53. Select from the response list for the acid that best fits the description: a monoprotic strong acid. a. HCl b. HC2H3O2 c. H2C3H2O2

d. H2SO4

54. For the solution description, select a correct characterization from the response list:

pH = 7.00. a. an acidic solution c. a neutral solution

b. a basic solution d. a buffer solution

55. According to the Brønsted-Lowry theory, a base is a(n) a. proton donor b. proton acceptor c. electron donor d. electron acceptor Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 10_7e 56. Which of the following species is formed in the second step of the ionization of the triprotic acid H3PO4? a. H3O+ b. H2PO4– c. HPO42– d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 57. Characterize the following solution using the response list: aqueous NaOH solution. a. an acidic solution b. a basic solution c. a neutral solution

d. a buffer solution

58. In which of the following pairs of salts will both members of the pair hydrolyze in water to give solutions

that are basic? a. LiCl and NaCN c. NaC2H3O2 and NaF

b. NH4Cl and NH4NO3 d. KNO3 and Li2SO4

59. A buffer is a substance or combination of substances whose presence in an aqueous solution will a. maintain a constant salt concentration b. convert all weak acids to strong acids c. keep the solution neutral d. more than one correct response e. no correct response –

60. Select from the response list the compound or ion that best fits the description: reacts with OH to form

HPO42–. a. H3PO4 c. HPO42–

b. H2PO4– d. PO43–

61. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) A Bronsted-Lowry base must contain an atom that can accept a proton. (2) Both acidic and nonacidic hydrogen atoms may be present in an acid molecule. (3) The molar hydronium ion concentration in a solution of pH 6.0 is 1 ? 10-6. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 62. The pH of a buffered solution a. always equals 7.0 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 10_7e b. may be acidic or basic depending on the buffer present c. changes drastically when a small amount of acid is added d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 3–

63. Select from the response list the compound or ion that best fits the description: will form a buffer with PO4

. a. H3PO4 c. HPO42–

b. H2PO4– d. PO43–

64. Select from the response list for the acid that best fits the description: an acid that has more nonacidic

hydrogens than acidic hydrogens. a. HCl b. HC2H3O2 c. H2C3H2O2

d. H2SO4

65. In which of the following salts would both the positive ion and the negative ion hydrolyze when the salt is

dissolved in water? a. NaCl b. NaCN c. NH4Cl d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 66. Determining the concentration of an acid using an acid-base titration always involves completely reacting a

measured volume of the acid with a known volume of a. base of known concentration b. 1.0 M base c. indicator of known concentration d. 1.0 M indicator 67. Select from the response list the compound that best fits the description: a substance that reacts with NaOH

to produce Na3PO4. a. KOH b. NaNO3 c. H3PO4

d. K3PO4

68. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The two members of a Brønsted-Lowry conjugate acid-base pair will always differ from each other by one unit of charge. (2) An equivalent of an ion is the molar amount of that ion needed to supply one mole of positive or negative charge. (3) In an acid-base titration, the indicator changes color when the reaction between it and added acid is complete. a. All three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 10_7e b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 69. Which of the following statements concerning electrolytes is correct? a. All strong acids are strong electrolytes. b. Some salts are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes. c. Some molecular substances are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 70. Which of the following is produced in the first step of the dissociation of the acid H3PO4? b. H2PO4– a. H3PO3 c. HPO42–

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d. PO43–

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Chapter 10_7e Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. d 10. e 11. a 12. b 13. b 14. b 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. a 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. c 25. d Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 10_7e 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. d 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. d 41. d 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. a 47. b 48. d 49. d 50. a 51. c Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 10_7e 52. d 53. a 54. c 55. b 56. d 57. b 58. c 59. e 60. b 61. a 62. b 63. c 64. b 65. e 66. a 67. c 68. a 69. d 70. b

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Chapter 11_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. For the following nuclear reaction, select the correct reaction type from the response list. a. bombardment

b. decay

c. fission

d. fusion

2. Which of the following would produce the most ion pairs as it interacts with matter? a. alpha particle b. beta particle c. gamma radiation

d. neutron

3. For the following small particle, select the correct mass-charge characterization from the response list: alpha

particle. a.

4. For the following nuclear reaction, select the correct reaction type from the response list. a. bombardment

b. decay

c. fission

d. fusion

5. A Geiger counter operates on the principle that radiation a. exposes photographic film b. ionizes atoms and molecules c. causes the temperature of water to increase d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 6. The most recently produced synthetic elements have half-lives of the order of a. years b. days c. hours

d. seconds

7. The mass number remains constant during which of the following modes of decay? a. alpha b. beta c. gamma d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 8. For the following nuclear reaction, select the correct reaction type from the response list.

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Chapter 11_7e a. bombardment

b. decay

c. fission

d. fusion

9. Identify the missing reactant or product in the following nuclear equation using the response list. a. alpha particle

b. beta particle

c. neutron

d. proton

10. Identify the missing reactant or product in the following nuclear equation using the response list. a. alpha particle

b. beta particle

c. neutron

d. proton

11. For the following radiation characterization, choose the correct type of radiation from the response list: is

stopped by 1-cm thick aluminum. a. alpha particle b. beta particle c. gamma radiation d. both alpha and beta particles 12. Identify the missing reactant or product in the following nuclear equation using the response list. a. alpha particle

b. beta particle

c. neutron

d. proton

13. For the following small particle, select the correct mass-charge characterization from the response list:

neutron. a.

14. For the following radiation characterization, choose the correct type of radiation from the response list:

readily penetrates all layers of skin. a. alpha particle b. beta particle c. gamma radiation d. both alpha and beta particles 15. For the following radiation characterization, choose the correct type of radiation from the response list: is

stopped by a thick sheet of paper. a. alpha particle b. beta particle c. gamma radiation d. both alpha and beta particles 16. Which of the following statements about synthetically produced radionuclides is incorrect? a. Synthetic radionuclides outnumber naturally-occurring nuclides by a 7 to 1 ratio. b. At least one synthetic radionuclide of every naturally-occurring element has been produced. c. Significant uses in the field of medicine exist for several synthetic radionuclides. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 11_7e d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 17. The loss of an alpha particle by a radioactive nuclide causes a. no change in mass number b. the atomic number to decrease by four c. the mass number to decrease by two d. the atomic number to decrease by two and the mass number to decrease by four 18. Which of the following is the best definition for the term radionuclide? a. the nucleus of any atom b. the nucleus of an atom that contains more than 75 neutrons c. an atom whose nucleus absorbs radiation d. an atom whose nucleus is unstable 19. The loss of a beta particle by a radionuclide causes a. the atomic number to decrease by one. b. the mass number to decrease by two. c. more than one correct response d. no correct response 20. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) In alpha particle decay the product nucleus has the same atomic number as the parent nucleus. (2) Nuclear fission is the process by which the sun generates its energy. (3) All laboratory-produced radionuclides have half-lives of less than one hour. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 21. Which of the following types of radiation is composed of particles with a charge and mass identical to that

of an electron? a. alpha particles c. gamma radiation

b. beta particles d. X-rays

22. Which of the following sets of data is consistent with a half-life of 5.0 days for a radionuclide sample? a. time elapsed = 20.0 days; fraction of nuclides decayed = 7/8 b. time elapsed = 15.0 days; fraction of nuclides undecayed = 1/16 c. time elapsed = 10.0 days; fraction of nuclides decayed = 1/4 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 11_7e 23. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Atoms with unstable nuclei are called nuclides and atoms with stable nuclei are called isotopes. (2) In radioactive decay, a radionuclide is transformed into the nuclide of another element. (3) The magnitude of the decay rate for a radionuclide is a function of the nuclide's temperature. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 24. For the following small particle, select the correct mass-charge characterization from the response list: beta

particle. a.

25. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) All nuclides of all the transuranium elements are radioactive. (2) Alpha particles are the most massive and the slowest of the three types of naturally-occurring radioactive emissions. (3) Four grams of an eight-gram sample of a radioactive nuclide will not have decayed after the elapse of one half life. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 26. After three half-lives have elapsed, the amount of an 8.0 g sample of a radionuclide that a. remains undecayed is 1.0 g b. has decayed is 7.0 g c. remains undecayed is one-third the original amount d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 27. The term nuclear energy is most closely associated with which one of the following processes? a. nuclear fusion b. nuclear fission c. radioactive decay

d. bombardment reactions

28. Which of the following statements about natural radioactive emissions is incorrect? a. Beta particles are emitted from nuclei at speeds up to 0.9 the speed of light. b. Alpha particles cannot penetrate the body's outer layers of skin. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 11_7e c. A piece of aluminum foil will stop gamma radiation. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 29. If 6.00 grams of an 8.00 gram sample of a radioactive substance undergoes decay in 180 minutes, then the

half-life of the substance is a. 45 minutes b. 90 minutes c. 360 minutes d. 720 minutes 30. In which of the following decay processes is the daughter nuclide an isotope of 82Pb? a. b. c. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 31. For the following small particle, select the correct mass-charge characterization from the response list:

gamma radiation. a.

32. Which of the following statements concerning nuclear fission is correct? a. Neutrons are both reactants and products in the fission process. b. Uranium-238 is the most important fissionable radioisotope. c. A number of diagnostic procedures in nuclear medicine are now based on nuclear fission. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 33. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) In a radioactive decay process, the parent nuclide is always unstable and the daughter nuclide is always stable. (2) A free radical is a highly reactive piece of a molecule that contains an unpaired electron. (3) An older name for the energy produced by nuclear fission is atomic energy. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 34. Identify the missing reactant or product in the following nuclear equation using the response list. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 11_7e

a. alpha particle

b. beta particle

c. neutron

d. proton

35. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Radioactive nuclides are not known for any of the naturally-occurring elements. (2) The amount of charge on an alpha particle is twice of that on a beta particle. (3) The largest single contributor to radiation exposure for the "average" American is the nuclide radon-222. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 36. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Radioisotopes used in diagnostic medicine are usually gamma emitters. (2) Ion pair formation involves the nonchemical removal of electrons from atoms to form ions. (3) In beta decay the parent and daughter nuclides have the same mass number. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 37. Radioisotopes used in diagnostic medical procedures are usually a. alpha emitters b. beta emitters c. gamma emitters

d. radionuclides with long half-lives

38. Alpha, beta, and gamma radiation are called ionizing radiation because, as they travel through matter, they a. cause ion pair formation b. cause free radical formation c. decay into ions d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 39. For the following nuclear reaction, select the correct reaction type from the response list. a. bombardment

b. decay

c. fission

d. fusion

40. Which of the following statements concerning the nature of emissions from naturally radioactive materials is

incorrect? a. Alpha particles carry a negative charge. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 11_7e b. Beta particles have a mass less than that of alpha particles. c. Gamma rays have a mass of 1 amu. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 41. Which of the following statements concerning nuclear fusion is correct? a. It is the process by which the sun generates its energy. b. It is the basis for the generation of electrical energy in nuclear power plants. c. It occurs at lower temperatures than does nuclear fission. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 42. In which of the following nuclear equations is the missing product an alpha particle? a. b. c. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 43. In terms of subatomic particles, the composition of an alpha particle is a. three neutrons and a proton b. two neutrons and two protons c. one neutron and three protons

d. one neutron and two protons

44. In which of the following pairs of chemical species are both members of the pair free radicals that are often

produced by ionizing radiation? a. H2O+ and H3O+ c. H2O+ and OH

b. OH and OH– d. H3O+ and OH–

45. After 3 half-lives have elapsed, the amount of a radioactive sample that has not decayed is a. 1/3 the original amount b. 1/6 the original amount c. 1/8 the original amount

d. 1/16 the original amount

46. Which of the following is not a balanced nuclear equation? a. b. c.

47. Which of the following is a transmutation process? a. alpha particle decay b. bombardment reaction Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 11_7e c. fission reaction d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 48. Which of the following statement concerning the penetrating power into matter of various types of radiation

is correct? a. Alpha and beta particles penetrate to the same degree as gamma radiation. b. Beta particles penetrate deeper than gamma radiation. c. Beta particles and gamma radiation penetrate equally. d. Gamma radiation penetrates deeper than both alpha and beta particles. 49. Identify the missing reactant or product in the following nuclear equation using the response list. a. alpha particle

b. beta particle

c. neutron

d. proton

50. During a bombardment reaction, the particles colliding with target nuclei are a. small and traveling very fast b. small and traveling slowly c. large and traveling very fast

d. large and traveling slowly

51. The half-life of a radionuclide is a. the time it takes for half of a given quantity of the radionuclide to decay b. half the time it takes for all of a given quantity of the radionuclide to decay c. twice the time it takes for one quarter of a given quantity of the radionuclide to decay d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 52. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Radioactive nuclides produced by bombardment reactions obey the same laws as naturally-occurring radioactive nuclides. (2) The penetrating power of beta particles exceeds that of gamma rays. (3) After three half-lives have elapsed, three-fourths of a radioactive sample would have decayed. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 53. For the following radiation characterization, choose the correct type of radiation from the response list:

travels at speeds up to 0.9 the speed of light. a. alpha particle b. beta particle c. gamma radiation d. both alpha and beta particles Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 11_7e 54. For the following nuclear reaction, select the correct reaction type from the response list. a. bombardment

b. decay

c. fission

d. fusion

55. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The final product in a radioactive decay series is always a stable nuclide. (2) The most important fissionable radionuclide is uranium-238. (3) Beta particles have a charge of -1 and have no mass. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 56. For the following small particle, select the correct mass-charge characterization from the response list:

electron. a.

57. Which of the following nuclear equations has an incorrect characterization? a. b. c. d. 58. The daughter isotope produced by the beta decay of a. b. c.

59. Which intermediate in the uranium-238 decay series constitutes the major source of radiation exposure for

the average American? a. thorium-234 b. radon-222 c. lead-214 d. lead-210 60. For the following radiation characterization, choose the correct type of radiation from the response list: most

massive type of naturally occurring radioactive emission. a. alpha particle b. beta particle c. gamma radiation d. both alpha and beta particles

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Chapter 11_7e 61. The bombardment reaction involving

and

gives two products, one of which is

. The other

product is a.

62. The explanation for how a beta particle is produced in the nucleus of a radionuclide and then ejected

involves the conversion (in a complex series of steps) of a a. proton to a neutron b. neutron to a proton c. proton to an electron d. neutron to an electron 63. If the half-life of a 4 gram sample of a radionuclide is 11 hours, then the half-life of a 2 gram sample of the

same radionuclide would be a. 5.5 b. 11 c. 22 d. 44 64. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) For the “average” American, exposure to natural radiation sources exceeds that of exposure to human-made radiation sources. (2) The highest-atomic-numbered element for which stable nuclides exist is bismuth. (3) The mechanism by which beta particles are generated involves the conversion of a proton into a neutron. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 65. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The most used radionuclide in diagnostic nuclear medicine is 99Mo. (2) The gaseous state distinguishes Rn-222 from other U-238 decay series products. (3) The sale of irradiated foods has not yet been approved by the FDA. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true.

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Chapter 11_7e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. d 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. c 11. d 12. a 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. e 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. d 21. b 22. e 23. c 24. a 25. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 11_7e 26. d 27. b 28. c 29. b 30. d 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. c 38. d 39. d 40. d 41. a 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. c 46. c 47. d 48. d 49. a 50. a 51. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 11_7e 52. c 53. b 54. c 55. c 56. a 57. a 58. b 59. b 60. a 61. c 62. b 63. b 64. b 65. c

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Chapter 12_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In which of the following alkanes are two secondary carbon atoms present? a. b. c.

2. Select from the response list a compound that has two secondary carbon atoms present. a. b.

3. From the response list, select the correct molecular formula for 3-ethylhexane. a. C6H12 b. C6H14 c. C8H16

d. C8H18

4. For the pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list: 1,2-dichlorocyclobutane

and 1-bromo-2-chlorocyclopentane. a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. both exist in cis-trans forms d. one but not the other exists in cis-trans forms 5. Which of the following statements concerning saturated hydrocarbons is incorrect? a. Every carbon atom present has four bonds. b. All bonds present are single bonds. c. Every carbon atom present must be bonded to at least two hydrogen atoms. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 6. Which of the following cycloalkanes or cycloalkane derivatives contains 10 hydrogen atoms? a. methylcyclobutane b. 1,2-dimethylcyclobutane c. 1,2-dichlorocyclohexane d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 7. When the molecular formulas for cyclic and noncyclic alkanes with the same number of carbon atoms are Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e

compared, it is always found that the cycloalkane has a. two more hydrogen atoms. b. the same number of hydrogen atoms. c. two less hydrogen atoms. d. four less hydrogen atoms. 8. In which of the following pairs of alkanes are the two members of the pair constitutional isomers? a. hexane and 3-methylhexane b. 2,4-dimethylhexane and 2,4-dimethylheptane c. ethane and propane d. 3-methylnonane and 3,4-dimethyloctane 9. What is the common name for the halogenated hydrocarbon whose IUPAC name is 2-chloropropane? a. sec-propyl chloride b. ethyl chloride c. propyl chloride

d. isopropyl chloride

10. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Methane, the simplest alkane, is a major component of the atmospheres of Jupiter and Saturn but only a minor component of Earth's atmosphere. (2) Some solid-state alkanes find use as skin-softeners and skin-protectors. (3) HFO's are fluorinated hydrocarbons in which a carbon-carbon double bond is present. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 11. Which of the following is a general physical property of alkanes? a. Low solubility in water. b. Less volatile than water. c. More dense than water.

d. More polar than water.

12. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Cis-trans isomers have the same molecular formula and also the same structural formula. (2) Molecules of the compound 1,3-dichlorocyclohexane contain 12 hydrogen atoms. (3) The product from the reaction of one molecule of ethane with one molecule of Br2 is 1,2-dibromoethane. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 13. In which of the following alkanes are 13 covalent bonds present? a. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e b. c.

d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 14. For the following compound, which is denoted using skeletal structural formulas, select from the response

list the number of hydrogen atoms present in the compound.

a. 8 H atoms

b. 10 H atoms

c. 12 H atoms

d. 16 H atoms

15. For which of the following alkanes are the products of complete combustion CO2 and H2O? a. cyclobutane b. octane c. 2,3,3,4,4-pentamethylheptane d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 16. From the response list, select the correct molecular formula for 2,3,4-trimethylpentane. a. C6H12 b. C6H14 c. C8H16

d. C8H18

17. How many hydrogen atoms are present in the molecule 2,5-dimethyloctane a. 18 b. 20 c. 22

d. 24

18. For the pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list: chlorocyclobutane and 1,

2-dichlorocyclopropane. a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. both exist in cis-trans forms d. one but not the other exists in cis-trans forms 19. For which of the following halogenated cycloalkanes is cis-trans isomerism possible? a. 1,1-dichlorocyclobutane b. 1-bromo-1-chlorocyclobutane c. 1-bromo-2-chlorocyclobutane d. more than one correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e e. no correct response 20. Which of the following statements concerning the boiling points of specific alkanes is correct? a. Hexane has a higher boiling point than heptane. b. Pentane has a higher boiling point than 2-methylbutane. c. Butane has a higher boiling point than cyclobutane. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 21. For the following compound, which is denoted using skeletal structural formulas, select from the response

list the number of hydrogen atoms present in the compound. a. 8 H atoms

b. 10 H atoms

c. 12 H atoms

d. 16 H atoms

22. Which of the following statements concerning cycloalkanes is correct? a. Molecular formula always fits the general formula CnH2n+2. b. All are hydrocarbons. c. Each exists in two or more isomeric forms. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 23. For the following compound, which is denoted using skeletal structural formulas, select from the response

list the number of hydrogen atoms present in the compound.

a. 8 H atoms

b. 10 H atoms

c. 12 H atoms

d. 16 H atoms

24. Select from the response list a compound that has two alkyl groups present. a. b.

25. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) IUPAC names for cycloalkanes that have one substituent do not have any numbers in them. (2) Both propane and cyclopropane are gases at room temperature and pressure. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e

(3) Halogenation of an alkane is an example of a substitution reaction.

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Chapter 12_7e a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 26. There are three 5-carbon alkane constitutional isomers. Their molecular formulas are, respectively, a. C5H11, C5H12, C5H13 b. C5H10, C5H12, C5H14 c. C5H12, C5H13, C5H14

d. C5H12, C5H12, C5H12

27. The number of constitutional isomers possible for alkanes of a given molecular formula a. is the same as the number of hydrogen atoms present b. is double the number of carbon atoms present c. cannot be calculated in a simple way from the molecular formula d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 28. From the response list, select the correct number of constitutional isomers that exist for a four-carbon

cycloalkane. a. two b. three c. four d. five 29. Which of the following is a correct structural formula for an alkane? a. b.

d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 30. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) All halogenated hydrocarbons have densities that are greater than that of water. (2) Substituents are present in some, but not all, branched chain alkane molecules. (3) There are four four-carbon branched-chain alkane constitutional isomers. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e 31. For the following compound, which is denoted using skeletal structural formulas, select from the response

list the number of hydrogen atoms present in the compound.

a. 8 H atoms

b. 10 H atoms

c. 12 H atoms

d. 16 H atoms

32. For the following compound, which is denoted using skeletal structural formulas, select from the response

list the number of hydrogen atoms present in the compound.

a. 8 H atoms

b. 10 H atoms

c. 12 H atoms

d. 16 H atoms

33. The representation a. a molecular formula c. an expanded structural formula

for the alkane propane is an example of b. a condensed structural formula d. a skeletal structural formula

34. The distinction between a saturated hydrocarbon and an unsaturated hydrocarbon relates to a. boiling points b. volatility c. number of carbon atoms present d. the number of multiple bonds present in the molecule 35. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Both 3-ethyl-2-methylnonane and 3-propyl-2-methylnonane are correct IUPAC names for alkanes. (2) CFCs are halogenated hydrocarbons in which both Cl and F are present. (3) The simplest family of unsaturated hydrocarbons is the alkanes. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 36. From the response list, select the correct number of constitutional isomers that exist for

dichlorocyclopentanes. a. two b. three c. four d. five 37. Which of the following could not be the molecular formula for an alkane molecule? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e a. C4H10

b. C5H14

c. CH4

d. C24H50

38. Select from the response list a compound that has both primary and quaternary carbon atoms present. a. b.

39. Which of the following alkanes has an IUPAC name that contains the word butane? a.

d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 40. Constitutional isomerism is possible in alkanes only if the number of carbon atoms present is a. four or more b. five or more c. an even number

d. an odd number

41. In which of the following alkanes are 10 carbon atoms present? a. 2,3-dimethyloctane b. 3-ethyl-2,4-dimethylpentane c. 3,4-diethylhexane d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 42. For which of the following cycloalkanes is cis-trans isomerism possible? a. isopropylcyclopropane b. propylcyclobutane c. 1-methyl-1-propylcyclopropane

d. 1-ethyl-2-methylcyclodecane

43. Which of the following statements concerning organic compounds is correct? a. Organic compounds are found only in non-living systems. b. Organic compounds are always soluble in water. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e c. Organic compounds cannot be found in nature; they must be synthesized in a laboratory.

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Chapter 12_7e d. Organic compounds always contain the element carbon. 44. From the response list, select the correct molecular formula for cyclohexane. a. C6H12 b. C6H14 c. C8H16

d. C8H18

45. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) A minimum of four carbon atoms is required in a cycloalkane. (2) The molecules 2,4-dimethylpentane and 2,4-dimethylhexane are constitutional isomers. (3) As a result of rotation about single bonds, all alkane molecules, except methane, can exist in an infinite number of conformations. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 46. Which of the following compounds is a constitutional isomer of CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3? a. 2-methylpentane b. 2-methylbutane c. 2,2-dimethylbutane d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 47. Which of the following is an incorrect IUPAC name for a cycloalkane? a. cyclobutane b. propylcyclopentane c. 1,2-cyclopentane

d. 3,3-cyclopentane

48. Select from the response list a compound that has three kinds of carbon atoms present. a. b.

49. From the response list, select the correct molecular formula for 1,2-dimethylcyclobutane. a. C6H12 b. C6H14 c. C8H16

d. C8H18

50. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Alkanes have limited solubility in water and are less dense than water. (2) Propane is an alkane in which both 1o and 2o carbon atoms are present. (3) Some, but not all cycloalkanes, can exist is cis-trans isomeric forms. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 51. For the pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list: cyclohexane and

methylcyclopentane. a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. both exist in cis-trans forms d. one but not the other exists in cis-trans forms 52. Which of the following alkane structures contain both secondary and tertiary carbon atoms? a. b.

c. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 53. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The names propyl bromide and 1-bromopropane denote the same compound. (2) Compounds with the molecular formula C5H10 are alkanes and those with the formula C5H12 are cycloalkanes. (3) Alkanes readily undergo combustion when ignited to form H2 gas and elemental carbon. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 54. From the response list, select the correct molecular formula for 2,2-dimethylbutane. a. C6H12 b. C6H14 c. C8H16

d. C8H18

55. Which of the following is a correct pairing of common and IUPAC names for halogenated hydrocarbons? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e a. ethyl chloride and dichloromethane b. isopropyl chloride and 1-chloropropane c. tert-butyl chloride and 2-chloro-2-methylpropane d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 56. From the response list, select the correct number of constitutional isomers that exist for a five-carbon alkane. a. two b. three c. four

d. five

57. Which of the following is a correct alkane structural formula? a. CH3–CH2–CH3 b. CH3–CH3–CH2 c. CH2–CH2–CH2

d. CH2–CH3–CH2

58. The most important chemical use for alkanes relates to their chemical reaction with a. hydrogen b. oxygen c. chlorine

d. bromine

59. For the pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list: pentane and 2, 2-

dimethylpropane. a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. both exist in cis-trans forms d. one but not the other exists in cis-trans forms 60. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Natural gas and petroleum constitute the largest and most important sources of both alkanes and cycloalkanes. (2) The number of hydrogen atoms present in an alkane is always twice the number of carbon atoms plus two more. (3) The boiling points of unbranched alkanes decrease as carbon chain-length increases. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 61. The minimum number of carbon atoms required to form a branched-chain alkane and a branched-chain alkyl

group are, respectively, a. three and three. c. three and four.

b. four and four. d. four and three.

62. From the response list, select the correct number of constitutional isomers that exist for dichloroethanes Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e a. two

b. three

c. four

d. five

63. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Sixteen carbon atoms are present in the alkane 3-ethyl-4,5-dipropyloctane. (2) Two three-carbon alkyl groups and three four-carbon branched-chain alkyl groups exist. (3) A condensed structural formula shows all atoms in a molecule but not all bonds in the molecule. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 64. How many carbon atoms are present in the alkane whose IUPAC name is 2,2,4-trimethylpentane? a. five b. seven c. eight

d. nine

65. Select from the response list a compound that has two substituents present. a. b.

66. The four hydrogen atoms bonded to the central carbon atom in methane lie at the corners or apexes of a a. rectangle b. tetrahedron c. square

d. parallelogram

67. Which of the following alkanes has the IUPAC name 2-methylbutane? a. b.

68. From the response list, select the correct number of constitutional isomers that exist for C3H6Cl2. a. two b. three c. four

d. five

69. For the pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list: butane and cyclobutane. a. are constitutional isomers Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e b. have the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. both exist in cis-trans forms d. one but not the other exists in cis-trans forms

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Chapter 12_7e Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. d 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. e 21. c 22. b 23. d 24. c 25. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e 26. d 27. c 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. c 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. d 40. a 41. d 42. d 43. d 44. a 45. c 46. b 47. d 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 12_7e 52. b 53. c 54. b 55. c 56. b 57. a 58. b 59. a 60. b 61. d 62. a 63. b 64. c 65. c 66. b 67. a 68. c 69. b

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Chapter 13_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following reactions involving benzene require the presence of an AlCl3 catalyst? a. alkylation b. bromination c. chlorination d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 2. The bonding in benzene differs from that of other unsaturated hydrocarbons in that each carbon atom

participates in a. one single bond and three double bonds. b. three single bonds and three double bonds. c. one single bond and one "delocalized" bond. d. three single bonds and one "delocalized" bond. 3. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Ethene is both a plant hormone and a high-volume industrial chemical. (2) Carotenoids, compounds which give odor to flowers and plants, have a system of conjugated double bonds as a structural feature. (3) The process of vision in the human eye involves changes in which carbon-carbon double bonds are converted to carbon-carbon triple bonds. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 4. Which of the following is a correct IUPAC name for a substituted cycloalkene? a. 1-methyl-2-cyclopentene b. 2-methyl-1-cyclopentene c. 2-methylcyclopentene d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 5. Markovnikov's rule is needed to predict the organic product in which of the following reactions? a. 2-butene + HCl b. 1-butene + H2 (Ni catalyst) c. cyclobutene + H2O (H2SO4 catalyst) d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 13_7e 6. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Alkenes with two to four carbon atoms are gases at room temperature and pressure. (2) Aromatic hydrocarbons do not readily undergo addition reactions. (3) HDPE, LDPE, and Teflon are all ethene-based addition polymers. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 7. Which of the following compounds contains three carbon atoms? a. allyl bromide b. vinyl chloride c. acetylene d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 8. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The molecule 1,3-butadiene contains eight hydrogen atoms. (2) Two carbon rings that share a pair of carbon atoms are said to be fused. (3) The prefix para- is used to indicate 1,3-disubstitution on a benzene ring. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 9. For the following reaction situation, select a correct product characterization using the response list: 1,4-

hexadiene + two Cl2 a. monochlorinated hydrocarbon c. trichlorinated hydrocarbon

b. dichlorinated hydrocarbon d. tetrachlorinated hydrocarbon

10. For the following reaction situation, select a correct product characterization using the response list: 1-

hexyne + one Cl2 a. monochlorinated hydrocarbon c. trichlorinated hydrocarbon

b. dichlorinated hydrocarbon d. tetrachlorinated hydrocarbon

11. From the response list, select the correct molecular formula for 3-heptyne. b. C7H10 a. C7H8 c. C7H12

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d. C7H14

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Chapter 13_7e

12. The correct IUPAC name for

a. 1-methyl-2-cyclohexene

b. 2-methyl-1-cyclohexene

c. 1-methylcyclohexene

d. 3-methylcyclohexene

13. Which of the following addition polymers contains only carbon and hydrogen? a. polystyrene b. PVC c. Teflon

d. saran

14. For the pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list: 2-pentene and 2-butene. a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. both exist as cis-trans isomers d. one but not the other exists in cis-trans forms 15. For the following reaction, select a correct product characterization from the response list. a. An alkane is formed. b. An alkene is formed. c. An aromatic hydrocarbon is formed. d. Markovnikov's rule is needed to predict the major organic product. 16. Cis-trans isomerism is possible for which of the following alkenes? b. CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH3 a. CH2=CH–CH2–CH2–CH3 c. CH3–CH=CH2

d. CH2=CH–CH2–CH3

17. From the response list, select the correct molecular formula for 1,3-heptadiene. b. C7H10 a. C7H8 c. C7H12

d. C7H14

18. A cycloalkene having only one carbon-carbon double bond will have the general formula b. CnH2n a. CnH2n+2 c. CnH2n-2

d. CnH2n-4

19. For the following polymer, select a correct polymer characterization using the response list: saran. a. polymer in which all attachments to the carbon chain are identical b. polymer in which two different monomers are involved c. polymer in which the monomer is a substituted diene d. polymer in which the monomer is a monosubstituted ethene Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 13_7e 20. The IUPAC name for the hydrocarbon

a. 3-benzylhexane

b. 4-benzylhexane

c. 3-phenylhexane

d. 4-phenylhexane

21. With the catalyst AlCl3 present, which reactant is needed to convert benzene to ethylbenzene? b. CH3–CH2–Cl a. CH3–CH3 c. CH3–CH2–OH

d. CH2=CH2

22. Which of the following alkenes is/are paired with an incorrect IUPAC name? a. CH2=CH–CH2–CH3; 1-butene b. CH3–CH=CH–CH3; 2-butene c. CH3–CH2–CH=CH2; 3-butene d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 23. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Terpenes are alkenes that contain five double bonds. (2) A vinyl group is formed when a hydrogen atom is removed from propylene. (3) Commonly used catalysts for the hydrogenation of an alkene are the metals nickel and platinum. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 24. The bond angles associated with a carbon-carbon double bond in an alkene are a. 18° b. 120° c. 109°

d. 90°

25. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Ethene and ethane molecules have the same geometrical shape. (2) Two double bonds are present in the compound allyl chloride. (3) Cis-trans isomerism is possible in both 1-butene and 2-butene. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 13_7e c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 26. For the following reaction, select a correct product characterization from the response list. a. An alkane is formed. b. An alkene is formed. c. An aromatic hydrocarbon is formed. d. Markovnikov's rule is needed to predict the major organic product. 27. Which of the following statements about the chemical properties of benzene is correct? a. It readily undergoes both substitution reactions and addition reactions. b. It readily undergoes substitution reactions but not addition reactions. c. It readily undergoes addition reactions but not substitution reactions. d. It does not undergo either substitution reactions or addition reactions. 28. For the following reaction, select a correct product characterization from the response list. a. An alkane is formed. b. An alkene is formed. c. An aromatic hydrocarbon is formed. d. Markovnikov's rule is needed to predict the major organic product. 29. Which of the following reactions involving benzene produces a disubstituted benzene as the organic

product? a. alkylation b. bromination c. chlorination d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 30. Which of the following alkynes goes by the common name of acetylene? a. ethyne b. propyne c. 1-butyne

d. 2-butyne

31. Which of the following is/are example(s) of an alkenyl group? a. ethenyl group b. phenyl group c. methylene group d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 13_7e 32. For the following reaction situation, select a correct product characterization using the response list: 1,3-

cyclohexadiene + one Cl2 a. monochlorinated hydrocarbon c. trichlorinated hydrocarbon

b. dichlorinated hydrocarbon d. tetrachlorinated hydrocarbon

33. For the following reaction, select a correct product characterization from the response list. a. An alkane is formed. b. An alkene is formed. c. An aromatic hydrocarbon is formed. d. Markovnikov's rule is needed to predict the major organic product. 34. Which of the following reactants can be used to convert an alkene to an alkane? b. Cl2 a. H2 c. HCl

d. H2O

35. Which of the following molecular formulas could not represent an alkene with one double bond? a. C6H12 b. C6H6 c. C5H10 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 36. For the pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list: cyclohexene and benzene. a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. both exist as cis-trans isomers d. one but not the other exists in cis-trans forms 37. Which of the following addition polymers contain only two elements? a. polyethylene b. Teflon c. PVC d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 38. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) The aluminum chloride catalyzed reaction between benzene and ethyl chloride produces chlorobenzene. (2) The compound 2-methyl-1,3-cyclopentadiene has the molecular formula C6H8. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 13_7e

(3) The biochemical activity of pheromones is highly dependent on whether the carbon-carbon double bonds present are in cis- or trans- configurations. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 39. Which of the following is/are not a constitutional isomer(s) of 1-pentene? a. 2-pentene b. 2-methyl-2-butene c. cyclopentane d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 40. From the response list, select the correct molecular formula for 2-methylcyclohexene. b. C7H10 a. C7H8 c. C7H12

d. C7H14

41. Which of the following benzene derivatives is a monosubstituted benzene? a. 4-butyltoluene b. 1,2-diisopropylbenzene c. 2-phenyl-2-hexene

d. 1,4-diphenylbenzene

42. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) o-xylene is a benzene derivative with two methyl substituents. (2) A number is not needed to specify double bond position in the IUPAC names of ethene and propene. (3) Hydrohalogenation is a symmetrical addition reaction. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 43. The classification unsaturated hydrocarbon includes within it a. both alkenes and cycloalkenes b. both alkenes and alkynes c. both cycloalkenes and aromatic hydrocarbons d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 44. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Four double bonds are present in 1,6-heptadiyne. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 13_7e

(2) Markovnikov's rule is needed to predict the major product formed in the reaction between water and 2butene. (3) The compound benzene contains both localized and delocalized bonds. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 45. For which of the following types of substituted benzenes is the specified number of constitutional isomers

correct? a. dichlorobenzenes; 3 isomers b. trichlorobenzenes; 4 isomers c. tetrachlorobenzenes; 4 isomers d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 46. For which of the following halogenated hydrocarbons is cis-trans isomerism possible? a. 1,1-dichloroethene b. 1,2-dichloroethene c. 1,2-dichloroethyne d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 47. For the following reaction situation, select a correct product characterization using the response list:

Cyclohexene + one Cl2 a. monochlorinated hydrocarbon c. trichlorinated hydrocarbon

b. dichlorinated hydrocarbon d. tetrachlorinated hydrocarbon

48. The "building block" for terpene compounds is the a. 4-carbon pheromone unit b. 5-carbon isoprene unit c. 5-carbon pheromone unit d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 49. For the following reaction, select a correct product characterization from the response list. a. An alkane is formed. b. An alkene is formed. c. An aromatic hydrocarbon is formed. d. Markovnikov's rule is needed to predict the major organic product. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 13_7e 50. For the pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list: 1-butyne and 1,3-

butadiene. a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. both exist as cis-trans isomers d. one but not the other exists in cis-trans forms 51. For the following polymer, select a correct polymer characterization using the response list: polyethylene. a. polymer in which all attachments to the carbon chain are identical b. polymer in which two different monomers are involved c. polymer in which the monomer is a substituted diene d. polymer in which the monomer is a monosubstituted ethene 52. The common feature found in all unsaturated hydrocarbons is: a. one or more carbon-carbon double bonds. b. one or more carbon-carbon triple bonds. c. one or more carbon-carbon multiple bonds. d. one or more rings of carbon atoms. 53. For the following polymer, select a correct polymer characterization using the response list:

poly(vinyl chloride). a. polymer in which all attachments to the carbon chain are identical b. polymer in which two different monomers are involved c. polymer in which the monomer is a substituted diene d. polymer in which the monomer is a monosubstituted ethene 54. Another name for p-diisopropylbenzene is a. 1,2-diisopropylbenzene b. 1,3-diisopropylbenzene c. 1,4-diisopropylbenzene

d. 1,5-diisopropylbenzene

55. For the pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list: o-diethylbenzene and 1,3-

diethylbenzene. a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. both exist as cis-trans isomers d. one but not the other exists in cis-trans forms 56. The correct IUPAC name for CH2=CH–CH=CH2 is a. 1,4-butene b. 1,3-butadiene c. 1,3-dibutene

d. 1,4-dibutene

57. For the following polymer, select a correct polymer characterization using the response list: natural rubber. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 13_7e a. polymer in which all attachments to the carbon chain are identical b. polymer in which two different monomers are involved c. polymer in which the monomer is a substituted diene d. polymer in which the monomer is a monosubstituted ethene 58. From the response list, select the correct molecular formula for 2,3-dimethyl-2-pentene. b. C7H10 a. C7H8 c. C7H12

d. C7H14

59. For the following polymer, select a correct polymer characterization using the response list: Teflon. a. polymer in which all attachments to the carbon chain are identical b. polymer in which two different monomers are involved c. polymer in which the monomer is a substituted diene d. polymer in which the monomer is a monosubstituted ethene 60. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Unsaturated hydrocarbons have physical properties similar to those of saturated hydrocarbons. (2) The catalyst in the alkylation of benzene is sulfuric acid. (3) PVC and Saran Wrap are both addition polymers in which the element chlorine is present. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 61. The correct IUPAC name for

is a. 2-methylpentene

b. 2-methyl-3,4-pentene

c. 2-methyl-3-pentene

d. 4-methyl-2-pentene

62. Which of the following is/are incorrect IUPAC name(s) for a disubstituted benzene? a. 2,3-dichlorobenzene b. 1-bromo-4-chlorobenzene c. 1-bromo-3-methylbenzene d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 63. Which of the following addition polymers is produced from a diene monomer? a. polyethylene b. polypropylene Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 13_7e c. PVC

d. natural rubber

64. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) An allyl group contains three carbon atoms. (2) Alkenes with one double bond have two fewer hydrogen atoms than their alkane counterparts. (3) Both toluene and o-xylene are monosubstituted benzene derivatives. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 65. From the response list, select the correct molecular formula for toluene. b. C7H10 a. C7H8 c. C7H12

d. C7H14

66. For the following reaction situation, select a correct product characterization using the response list:

Benzene + two Cl2 a. monochlorinated hydrocarbon c. trichlorinated hydrocarbon

b. dichlorinated hydrocarbon d. tetrachlorinated hydrocarbon

67. Markovnikov's rule is needed to predict the product in the reaction between HCl and b. CH3–CH=CH–CH3 a. CH2=CH2 c. CH2=CH–CH3

d. CH3–CH3

68. How many total atoms are present in a molecule of benzene? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12

d. 14

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Chapter 13_7e Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. e 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. d 10. b 11. c 12. c 13. a 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. c 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. d Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 13_7e 26. d 27. b 28. b 29. e 30. a 31. d 32. b 33. d 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. e 40. c 41. c 42. b 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. b 47. b 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 13_7e 52. c 53. d 54. c 55. a 56. b 57. c 58. d 59. a 60. b 61. d 62. d 63. d 64. b 65. a 66. b 67. c 68. c

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Chapter 14_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Match the following alcohol characteristic(s) with names in the response list: contains two carbons and one –

OH group. a. drinking alcohol c. glycerin

b. rubbing alcohol d. ethylene glycol

2. Match the following structural formula with compound types in the response list: CH3–S–CH3. a. thioether b. disulfide c. diol

d. thiol

3. For the following pair of compounds, select a correct structural characterization from the response list: 1-

methoxypropane and ethoxyethane. a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms and the same number of oxygen atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. have the same number of carbon atoms but a different number of oxygen atoms d. have the same number of oxygen atoms but a different number of carbon atoms 4. For the following hydrocarbon derivative, select from the response list the correct molecular formula: 1,3-

butanediol. a. C4H10O

b. C4H12O

c. C4H10O2

d. C4H12O2

5. Which of the following is a secondary alcohol? a. b.

6. Match the following alcohol characteristic(s) with names in the response list: contains isopropyl alcohol. a. drinking alcohol b. rubbing alcohol c. glycerin

d. ethylene glycol

7. The correct IUPAC name for a. isopropyl alcohol

b. 2-methyl ethanol

c. 2-propanol

d. hydroxypropane

8. For the following set of reactants and reaction conditions, select a correct product characterization from the

response list: secondary alcohol, sulfuric acid 140°C. a. alkene b. aldehyde Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 14_7e c. ether

d. ketone

9. For the following set of reactants and reaction conditions, select a correct product characterization from the

response list: secondary alcohol, sulfuric acid 180°C. a. alkene b. aldehyde c. ether d. ketone 10. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) 2-Propanol is a secondary alcohol. (2) Methylphenols are also called catechols. (3) The compound 4-methoxy-2-butanol is both an alcohol and an ether. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 11. Match the following structural formula with compound types in the response list: HO–CH2–CH2–OH. a. thioether b. disulfide c. diol

d. thiol

12. For the following hydrocarbon derivative, select from the response list the correct molecular formula: 1,2-

dimethoxyethane. a. C4H10O c. C4H10O2

b. C4H12O d. C4H12O2

13. For the following set of reactants and reaction conditions, select a correct product characterization from the

response list: primary alcohol, sulfuric acid, 180°C. a. alkene b. aldehyde c. ether d. ketone 14. Ethers may be viewed as derivatives of water in which both hydrogen atoms have been replaced with a. hydrocarbon groups b. hydroxyl groups c. alkoxy groups

d. more than one correct response

e. no correct response 15. Which of the following is an incorrect IUPAC name for a phenol derivative? a. 1-chlorophenol b. 2,5-dibromophenol c. 3-methylphenol

d. more than one correct response

e. no correct response 16. Match the following structural formula with compound types in the response list: CH3–S–S–CH. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 14_7e a. thioether

b. disulfide

c. diol

d. thiol

17. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Glycerin, a three-carbon diol, has a great affinity for moisture (water vapor). (2) Oxidation of a thiol produces a disulfide. (3) MTBE is a water-soluble polymeric alcohol. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 18. Oxidation of a secondary alcohol produces a(n) a. ketone b. aldehyde c. carboxylic acid

d. ether

19. Match the following alcohol characteristic(s) with names in the response list: obtained from fermentation of

grain products. a. drinking alcohol c. glycerin

b. rubbing alcohol d. ethylene glycol

20. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Intramolecular alcohol dehydration converts an alcohol to an alkene. (2) An aryl group is an aromatic carbon-ring system from which one hydrogen atom has been removed. (3) Unlike alcohols, phenols are weak acids in solution. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 21. For the following pair of compounds, select a correct structural characterization from the response list: 3-

chlorophenol and o-cresol. a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms and the same number of oxygen atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. have the same number of carbon atoms but a different number of oxygen atoms d. have the same number of oxygen atoms but a different number of carbon atoms 22. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Denatured alcohol is ethyl alcohol that has been rendered unfit to drink. (2) The functional group present in the compound 2-butanethiol is the sulfhydryl group. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 14_7e

(3) The simplest phenol, phenol itself, is a colorless solid with a medicinal odor. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 23. The correct IUPAC name for

a. hexyl dialcohol

b. 2,6-dihydroxyhexane

c. 2,6-hexanediol

d. 1,5-hexanediol

24. All of the following general formulas except one represent an ether. The exception is a. R-O-R b. R-O-Ar c. H-O-R

d. Ar-O-Ar

25. For the following set of reactants and reaction conditions, select a correct product characterization from the

response list: secondary alcohol, mild oxidizing agent. a. alkene b. aldehyde c. ether d. ketone 26. For the following set of reactants and reaction conditions, select a correct product characterization from the

response list: primary alcohol, mild oxidizing agent. a. alkene b. aldehyde c. ether d. ketone 27. Which of the following is the structure for 1-propanethiol? a. b.

28. Which of the following conditions for an alcohol condensation reaction with H2SO4 as the catalyst will

produce an ether? a. 1° alcohol, 180°C c. 1° alcohol, 140°C e. no correct response

b. 2° alcohol, 140°C d. more than one correct response

29. Which of the following compounds contains two oxygen atoms? a. 1,3-dimethoxybenzene b. methoxycyclohexane c. 2-ethoxy-1-propanol

d. more than one correct response

e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 14_7e 30. In a secondary alcohol, the hydroxyl-bearing carbon atom a. is always involved in a double bond. b. is attached to two other carbon atoms. c. cannot be bonded to hydrogen atoms. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 31. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Isopropyl alcohol and 1-propanol are two names for the same compound. (2) Ether molecules cannot hydrogen bond to one another. (3) Alcohol molecules have both polar and nonpolar character. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 32. Match the following structural formula with compound types in the response list: CH3–CH2–S–CH3. a. thioether b. disulfide c. diol

d. thiol

33. Which of the following is a characteristic property of thiols? a. extremely strong odors b. abnormally high boiling points c. strong resistance to oxidation

d. more than one correct response

e. no correct response 34. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Common names for alcohols have two words and IUPAC names for alcohols are only one word. (2) Mild oxidizing agents readily oxidize tertiary alcohols. (3) Cyclic ethers are examples of heterocyclic organic compounds. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 35. For the following hydrocarbon derivative, select from the response list the correct molecular formula: 2-

methyl-1-propanol. a. C4H10O c. C4H10O2

b. C4H12O d. C4H12O2

36. For the following pair of compounds, select a correct structural characterization from the response list: 1,3Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 14_7e

butanediol and methyl isopropyl ether. a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms and the same number of oxygen atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. have the same number of carbon atoms but a different number of oxygen atoms d. have the same number of oxygen atoms but a different number of carbon atoms 37. Which of the following statements concerning common alcohols is correct? a. Wood alcohol and grain alcohol are the same substance. b. Rubbing alcohol is pure ethyl alcohol. c. Absolute alcohol is pure isopropanol. d. Ethanol can be produced by fermentation. 38. In which of the following pairs of names do both names represent the same ether? a. diethyl ether and 1,2-diethoxyethane b. methyl isopropyl ether and 1-methoxypropane c. ethyl isopropyl ether and 2-ethoxypropane d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 39. Intramolecular dehydration of an alcohol produces a(n) a. alkane b. alkene c. ether

d. thiol

40. Match the following alcohol characteristic(s) with names in the response list: contains two –OH groups. a. drinking alcohol b. rubbing alcohol c. glycerin

d. ethylene glycol

41. Which of the following pairings of names and general formulas is incorrect? a. dithiol and HS–R–SH b. thioether and R–S–R c. disulfide and R–S–S–R

d. more than one correct response

e. no correct response 42. Which of the following statements concerning phenols is incorrect? a. They are generally low-melting solids or oily liquids. b. Most of them are easily soluble in water. c. Phenols can undergo halogenation. d. Phenols have acid ionization constants lower than most weak inorganic acids. 43. Match the following structural formula with compound types in the response list: CH3–CH2–SH. a. thioether b. disulfide c. diol th

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Chapter 14_7e 44. For the following hydrocarbon derivative, select from the response list the correct molecular formula:

ethoxyethane. b. C4H12O

a. C4H10O c. C4H10O2

d. C4H12O2

45. Which of the following general types of compounds is always a heterocyclic compound? a. a substituted phenol b. a cyclic ether c. a cyclic compound with both hydroxy and alkoxy substituents on the ring d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 46. In which of the following pairs of alcohols do both members of the pair contain two or more hydroxyl

groups? a. 2-methyl-2-propanol and propylene glycol b. ethylene glycol and glycerol c. butyl alcohol and propylene glycol d. butanol and tert-butyl alcohol 47. How many hydrogen bonds can form between a methanol molecule and other methanol molecules? a. one b. two c. three

d. four

48. What is the IUPAC name for the ether whose common name is phenyl propyl ether? a. propoxybenzene b. 2-propoxybenzene c. 1-phenoxypropane

d. 2-phenoxypropane

49. Match the following alcohol characteristic(s) with names in the response list: contains three –OH groups. a. drinking alcohol b. rubbing alcohol c. glycerin

d. ethylene glycol

50. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Propyl alcohol and methoxyethane are constitutional isomers. (2) Zaitsev's rule is used in predicting the major organic product from intermolecular alcohol dehydration. (3) An older name for methyl alcohol is grain alcohol. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 51. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Alcohols have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molecular mass because of hydrogen bonding. (2) Ethylene glycol contains two carbon atoms and two hydroxyl groups. (3) Primary and secondary alcohols give the same type of product when subjected to mild oxidizing agents. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 52. Which of the following is a correct name-composition pairing for an alcohol? a. 2-methylpentanol; six carbon atoms and two OH groups b. ethylene glycol; three carbon atoms and two OH groups c. glycerol; three carbon atoms and three OH groups d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 53. For the following pair of compounds, select a correct structural characterization from the response list:

cyclohexanol and phenol. a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms and the same number of oxygen atoms but are not constitutional isomers c. have the same number of carbon atoms but a different number of oxygen atoms d. have the same number of oxygen atoms but a different number of carbon atoms 54. In which of the following pairs of compounds are the two members of the pair constitutional isomers? a. methoxymethane and ethoxyethane b. butanol and butanediol c. isopropyl alcohol and diisopropyl ether d. isobutyl alcohol and diethyl ether 55. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Long-chain alcohols are generally more soluble in water than short-chain alcohols. (2) The compound ethyl methyl ether contains two alkoxy groups. (3) Rubbing alcohol is a 50-50 mixture by volume of isopropyl alcohol and water. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 56. For the following hydrocarbon derivative, select from the response list the correct molecular formula:

tertiary-butyl alcohol. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 14_7e a. C4H10O c. C4H10O2

b. C4H12O d. C4H12O2

57. Characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective

true-false status of the statements using the choices. (1) Menthol is a naturally occurring terpene alcohol with a minty odor. (2) THC, the active ingredient in marijuana, contains phenol, cyclic ether, and halogen functional groups. (3) Ether-type anesthetics in use today are usually halogenated compounds. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 58. The solubility of alcohols in water a. decreases as the carbon chain length increases b. decreases as the number of –OH groups present increases c. increases with increasing molecular mass d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 59. The simplest alcohol, from a structural standpoint, contains how many carbon atoms and how many oxygen

atoms? a. one carbon atom and one oxygen atom b. one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms c. two carbon atoms and one oxygen atom d. two carbon atoms and two oxygen atoms

60. The correct IUPAC name for

a. 1,5-dibromophenol

b. 2,5-dibromophenol

c. 2,6-dibromophenol

d. 1,5-dibromophenol

61. Alcohols have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molecular mass because: a. Alcohols are ionic compounds and alkanes are covalent compounds. b. Alkane molecules are polar and alcohol molecules are not. c. Hydrogen bonding occurs between alcohol molecules but not between alkane molecules. d. Alcohols are acidic and alkanes are not. 62. For the following pair of compounds, select a correct structural characterization from the response list: 1-

butanol and 2-butanol. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 14_7e a. are constitutional isomers b. have the same number of carbon atoms and the same number of oxygen atoms but are not

constitutional isomers c. have the same number of carbon atoms but a different number of oxygen atoms d. have the same number of oxygen atoms but a different number of carbon atoms 63. For which of the following alcohol oxidations is the listed oxidation product incorrect? a. primary alcohol; aldehyde b. secondary alcohol; ketone c. tertiary alcohol; carboxylic acid

d. more than one correct response

e. no correct response 64. The sulfhydryl functional group is found in a. thiols b. disulfides c. both thiols and disulfides

d. neither thiols nor disulfides

65. Which of the following molecules contains both an alkoxy group and a hydroxy group? a. b. c.

66. A general method for preparing alcohols is the a. hydration of alkenes b. combustion of alkanes c. combustion of ethers

d. hydrogenation of alkenes

67. For which of the following intramolecular alcohol dehydrations is Zaitsev's rule needed to predict the

structure of the alkene formed in the greatest amount? a. 1-propanol b. 2-propanol c. 1-butanol d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 68. In chemical reactivity, ethers resemble a. alkanes b. alkenes c. alcohols

d. phenols

69. Which of the following compounds is not a constitutional isomer of 1-butanol? a. diethyl ether b. 2-methyl-2-propanol c. 2-methoxypropane

d. more than one correct response

e. no correct response 70. In which of the following pairs of names do both names represent the same alcohol? a. 2-propanol and propyl alcohol b. 1-propanol and isopropyl alcohol c. 2-methyl-2-propanol and isobutyl alcohol Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 14_7e d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

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Chapter 14_7e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. c 13. a 14. a 15. d 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. a 21. d 22. a 23. d 24. c 25. d Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 14_7e 26. b 27. c 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. c 39. b 40. d 41. e 42. b 43. d 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. a 49. c 50. c 51. b Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 14_7e 52. c 53. b 54. d 55. d 56. a 57. b 58. a 59. a 60. c 61. c 62. a 63. c 64. a 65. c 66. a 67. e 68. a 69. e 70. e

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Chapter 15_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In which of the following pairs of compounds does the first listed compound have a greater water solubility

than the second listed compound? a. butanal, methanal b. propanone, 2-pentanone c. hexanal, 2-butanone d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 2. The simplest aldehyde and ketone each contain how many carbon atoms, respectively? a. one and one b. one and three c. two and two d. two and three 3. Oxidation of which of the following alcohols will produce a ketone? a. b.

d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

4. The IUPAC name for the compound

a. acetaldehyde b. propionaldehyde c. 1-ethanal d. propanal 5. In which of the following pairings of compound types does the first listed compound type contain more

alkoxy groups than the second listed compound type? a. acetal, hemiacetal b. hemiacetal, acetal c. aldehyde, hemiacetal d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 15_7e 6. Which of the following statements concerning a carbonyl group is incorrect? a. It is polar. b. It contains two oxygen atoms and one carbon atom. c. It is present in both aldehydes and ketones. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 7. What is the IUPAC name of the aldehyde whose common name is acetaldehyde? a. ethanal b. methanal c. propanal d. 1-methylethanal 8. What two functional groups are never found at the end of a carbon chain? a. alcohol and aldehyde b. ether and aldehyde c. alcohol and ketone d. ether and ketone 9. Which of the following statements concerning aldehydes and ketones is correct? a. No cyclic ketones exist. b. No cyclic aldehydes exist. c. Both cyclic aldehydes and cyclic ketones exist. d. Neither cyclic aldehydes nor cyclic ketones exist.

(1) Cyclic hemiacetals are usually more stable than noncyclic hemiacetals. (2) A carbonyl group consists of a carbon atom and an oxygen atom joined by a double bond. (3) The compound benzaldehyde contain six carbon atoms. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 15_7e 11. Which of the following compounds is a constitutional isomer of 2-pentanone? a. 3-methyl-2-pentanone b. 3-methyl-2-butanone c. isopropyl methyl ketone d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 12. Which of the following structural features is common to both aldehydes and ketones? a.

b. c. d.

(1) In a “dial” two aldehyde groups are present. (2) Formaldehyde readily participates in polymer formation. (3) Primary alcohol oxidation is a method for producing ketones. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 14. Which of the following types of compounds contains a carbon-sulfur double bond? a. a thial (thioaldehyde) b. a thione (thioketone) c. a sulfoxide d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

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Chapter 15_7e

(1) Butanal and butanone are both correct IUPAC names. (2) The two alcohol molecules produced when an acetal molecule undergoes hydrolysis are always identical. (3) Aldehydes and ketones are both classified as carbonyl-containing compounds. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 16. Which of the following pairings of aldehyde common and IUPAC names of aldehydes is correct? a. acetaldehyde and methanal b. 2-methylbutyraldehyde and 2-methylbutanal c. formaldehyde and ethanal d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) The simplest aldehyde is formaldehyde, and the simplest ketone is acetone. (2) Carbonyl group polarity makes dipole-dipole interactions between like aldehyde molecules or like ketone molecules possible. (3) Reaction of a hemiacetal with an alcohol produces an acetal. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 18. Which of the following pairings of ketone IUPAC and common names of ketones is correct? a. 2-methyl-3-pentanone and methyl propyl ketone Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 15_7e b. 3-methyl-2-pentanone and isopropyl methyl ketone c. propanone and dimethyl ketone d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 19. Which of the following is a product of the acid hydrolysis of the following compound?

a. methyl alcohol b. ethyl alcohol c. propanone d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 20. Which of the following compounds would be resistant to oxidation with a mild oxidizing agent? a. b.

d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 21. The structural difference between a hemiacetal and an acetal is the replacement of a. a –OH group with an –OR group b. an H atom with an –OR group c. an H atom with a –OH group d. a –OR group with a –OH group 22. Two other acceptable names for the compound acetone are a. propanone and diethyl ketone b. ethanone and methyl ethyl ketone c. propanone and dimethyl ketone d. ethanone and diethyl ketone

23. The IUPAC name for the compound

a. 2-methyl-2-pentanone b. 2-methyl-4-pentanone Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 15_7e c. 4-methyl-2-pentanone d. 2-methyl-4-pentaketone 24. Which of the following is a correct notation for the aldehyde functional group? a. b. c. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 25. A hemiacetal is a compound in which: a. A hydroxy group and an alkoxy group are attached to the same carbon atom. b. A hydroxyl group and an alkoxy group are attached to adjacent carbon atoms. c. Two alkoxy groups are attached to the same carbon atom. d. Two alkoxy groups are attached to adjacent carbon atoms. 26. Which of the following structural features is possessed by aldehydes but not ketones? a. At least one hydrogen atom is bonded to the carbonyl carbon atom. b. At least one hydroxyl group is bonded to the carbonyl carbon atom. c. The carbonyl carbon atom is bonded to two other carbon atoms. d. The carbonyl carbon atom is part of a ring structure. 27. How many saturated noncyclic six-carbon ketones are there? a. two b. four c. six d. eight

(1) The lachrymator in wood smoke is formaldehyde. (2) The skin pigment melanin is a polymeric substance containing many interconnected aldehyde units. (3) Benedict's test can be used to detect glucose in urine (diabetes) because glucose contains an aldehyde group. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 15_7e a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 29. Which of the following compounds contains seven carbon atoms? a. benzaldehyde b. acetophenone c. benzophenone d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 30. Comparison of the boiling points of aldehydes and ketones with those of other compounds of similar

molecular mass shows that they are a. lower than those of alkanes and alcohols b. higher than those of alcohols c. about the same as those of alkanes and alcohols d. higher than those of alkanes Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 31. Statements:

(1) Aldehydes and ketones readily undergo oxidation to carboxylic acids. (2) Propanone and dimethyl ketone are two names for the same compound. (3) The “silver mirror test” distinguishes between aldehydes and ketones. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 32. Hydrogenation, with a catalyst, of which of the following compounds would produce a four-carbon alcohol? a. butanal b. 2-butanone c. diethylketone d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 15_7e 33. Which of the following aldehydes is paired with an incorrect IUPAC name? a. b. c. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) The compound 4-oxopentanal contains both an aldehyde and an ether functional group. (2) An alkoxy group and a hydroxy group attached to the same carbon atom are present in both hemiacetals and acetals. (3) Cyclic aldehyde structures are possible but cyclic ketone structures are not possible. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 35. Hydrolysis of an acetal in an acid solution would yield a. an aldehyde, a ketone, and one alcohol b. an aldehyde, a ketone, and two alcohols c. an aldehyde or a ketone and one alcohol d. an aldehyde or a ketone and two alcohols 36. Which of the following statements concerning hydrogen bonding is correct? a. Ketone molecules can hydrogen bond to each other. b. Aldehyde molecules can hydrogen bond to each other. c. Both ketone molecules and aldehyde molecules can hydrogen bond to each other. d. Aldehyde molecules cannot hydrogen bond to other aldehyde molecules. 37. Ketones may be prepared by the oxidation of a. primary alcohols Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 15_7e b. secondary alcohols c. tertiary alcohols d. aldehydes

(1) Acetals contain three oxygen atoms, and hemiacetals contain two oxygen atoms. (2) Reduction of an aldehyde, using hydrogen gas, produces a primary alcohol. (3) In an aldehyde, the carbonyl group can be located on either carbon 1 or carbon 2. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 39. Statements:

(1) Butanal and 2-butanone are constitutional isomers. (2) The linear notation for an aldehyde is RCOH and that for a ketone is RCOR. (3) Water molecules can hydrogen bond with aldehyde and ketone molecules. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 40. Which of the following compounds would be named as a ketone? a. b. c. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

41. What is the product when Stoker 7th E Test Bank

is reduced using H2 gas and an Ni catalyst? Page 9

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Chapter 15_7e a. b.

c. d. 42. When an alcohol molecule adds across a carbon-oxygen double bond of an aldehyde or ketone, the a. H atom from the alcohol bonds to the carbonyl carbon atom b. OH portion from the alcohol bonds to the carbonyl oxygen atom c. OR portion from the alcohol bonds to the carbonyl carbon atom d. OH portion from the alcohol bonds to the carbonyl carbon atom 43. Which of the following statements concerning the oxidation of aldehydes and ketones is correct? a. Aldehydes readily undergo oxidation and ketones are resistant to oxidation. b. Ketones readily undergo oxidation and aldehydes are resistant to oxidation. c. Both aldehydes and ketones readily undergo oxidation. d. Both aldehydes and ketones are resistant to oxidation.

(1) In the IUPAC nomenclature system, an aldehyde group has priority over a ketone group. (2) Addition of an alcohol molecule across the carbon-oxygen double bond of an aldehyde produces a compound in which the carbonyl carbon atom bears both an alkoxy group and a hydroxyl group. (3) 2-propenal contains two fewer hydrogen atoms than propionaldehyde. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 45. The oxidizing agent in the Tollen's test for the presence of an aldehyde is a. Ag+ b. Ag Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 15_7e c.

Cu2+ d. Cu2O Enter the appropriate value to answer the question or solve the problem. Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compound characterizations, select from the response list the number of constitutional isomers that exist. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) two b) three c) four d) five 46. Saturated four-carbon monochloroaldehyde 47. Saturated noncyclic five-carbon ketone

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each set of reactants, select a correct product characterization from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) hemiacetal b) acetal c) alkene d) alcohol 48. Aldehyde, alcohol, acid catalyst

Use the following to answer the questions below: Characterize each compound in terms of functional groups present using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) one aldehyde functional group b) two aldehyde functional groups c) one ketone functional group d) one aldehyde and one ketone functional group 49. Pentanedial

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) have the same molecular formula but are different compounds b) both contain a carbon ring system c) contain the same number of carbon atoms but have different molecular formulas d) two names for the same compound Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 15_7e 50. 2,2-Dimethylbutane Cyclohexanone 51. Acetone Propanal

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compound characterizations, select from the response list the number of constitutional isomers that exist. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) two b) three c) four d) five 52. Methylcyclohexanone

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the reaction types, select from the response list the type of organic compound produced. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) carboxylic acid b) ketone c) alcohol d) no reaction occurs 53. Oxidation of

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Chapter 15_7e

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each set of reactants, select a correct product characterization from the response list. Responses may be Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 15_7e

used more than once or need not be used at all. a) hemiacetal b) acetal c) alkene d) alcohol 60. Aldehyde, hydrogen, Ni catalyst

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Chapter 15_7e

64. Oxidation of

65. Reduction of

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Chapter 15_7e

d) two names for the same compound 69. Diethylketone Pentanal 70. Acetaldehyde Ethanal

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Chapter 15_7e Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. b 11. d 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. a 22. c 23. c 24. a 25. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 15_7e 26. a 27. c 28. b 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. a 44. a 45. a 46. d 47. b 48. a 49. b 50. c 51. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 15_7e 52. b 53. a 54. d 55. c 56. b 57. d 58. a 59. d 60. d 61. c 62. b 63. c 64. b 65. c 66. b 67. c 68. a 69. a 70. d

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Chapter 16_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following statements concerning the acid strength of carboxylic acids is correct? a. All are weak acids. b. All are strong acids. c. Aromatic acids are strong and nonaromatic acids are weak. d. Unbranched acids are weak and branched acids are strong. 2. Which of the following compounds is a constitutional isomer of ethyl ethanoate? a. methyl methanoate b. ethyl propanoate c. butanoic acid d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 3. The general structural difference between a carboxylic acid and an ester is the same as that between an a. alcohol and an ether b. aldehyde and a ketone c. alkane and an alkene d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 4. Which of the following statements concerning carboxylate ions is correct? a. They may be negatively or positively charged. b. Carboxylate ions formed from dicarboxylic acids carry a -2 charge. c. They contain more carbon atoms than their parent acids. d. They are mostly positively charged. 5. Which of the following polyfunctional carboxylic acids is incorrectly characterized? a. tartaric acid, C4 dihydroxydiacid b. malic acid, C4 hydroxydiacid c. pyruvic acid, C3 ketoacid d. acrylic acid, C3 ketodiacid 6. Which of the following is a general structural representation for an ester? a. b.

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Chapter 16_7e c.

7. Which of the following esters is paired with an incorrect IUPAC name for it? a. b. c.

d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) Structurally, the difference between malonic acid and succinic acid is a -CH2- grouping. (2) A carboxylic acid salt is generally more soluble in water than the carboxylic acid from which it is obtained. (3) Ester hydrolysis and ester saponification are "reverse" reactions of each other. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 9. The common names for the C2 mono- and dicarboxylic acids are, respectively, a. formic acid and acetic acid b. acetic acid and formic acid c. oxalic acid and acetic acid d. acetic acid and oxalic acid

Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 16_7e

TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 10. Statements:

(1) "Pleasant odor" is a general characteristic of esters. (2) Citric acid is both a tricarboxylic acid and a ketoacid. (3) Esters and carboxylic acids with the same number of carbon atoms and the same degree of saturation are constitutional isomers. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 11. In which of the following pairs of compounds does the first listed compound have a greater solubility in

water than the second listed compound? a. hexanoic acid, methanoic acid b. sodium butanoate, butanoic acid c. pentanoic acid, potassium pentanoate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 12. The ester obtained by reacting methanol and ethanoic acid is called a. methyl ethane b. methyl ethanoate c. ethyl methanoate d. ethane methanoate 13. Which of the following is a correct notation for the carboxylic acid functional group? a. b. c. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 14. Which of the following carboxylic acids is paired with its correct IUPAC name? a.

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Chapter 16_7e b.

d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 15. Which of the following is the general formula for a phosphate monoester? a. b.

16. The common name for the C6 unbranched dicarboxylic acid is a. pimelic acid b. adipic acid c. oxalic acid d. succinic acid

(1) Hydrogen bonding is not possible between carboxylic acid molecules. (2) The alpha-carbon atom in a carboxylic acid is the carbon atom to which the carboxyl group is attached. (3) Sodium butanoate and ethyl butanoate are both examples of esters. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 16_7e c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 18. Which of the following statements concerning the boiling points of carboxylic acids is correct? a. They are higher than those of corresponding alcohols. b. They are lower than those of corresponding alkanes. c. They are lower than those of corresponding aldehydes. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

19. The IUPAC name for the ester

a. butyl methanoate b. methyl butanoate c. methyl butyl ester d. methyl carboxybutane

20. The IUPAC name for the compound

a. 2-methyl-4-butanoic acid b. 2-methyl-4-pentanoic acid c. 3-methylbutanoic acid d. 3-methylpentanoic acid 21. When an ester undergoes saponification, one reaction product is a. water b. a carboxylic acid c. a ketone d. a carboxylic acid salt 22. Which of the following statements concerning acid anhydrides is incorrect? a. They undergo hydrolysis to produce the parent carboxylic acid. b. They are generally less reactive than the corresponding acid chloride. c. They have structures in which three oxygen atoms are present. d. They are produced by reacting two carboxylic acids with each other.

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Chapter 16_7e

c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 23. Statements:

(1) The compound 4-oxobutanoic acid contains both a carboxyl group and a carbonyl group. (2) Aldehyde oxidation is a method for preparing a carboxylic acid. (3) Both IUPAC and common names for esters consist of two words. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 24. For which of the following biochemically important polyfunctional carboxylic acids is its accompanying

characterization correct? a. fumaric acid; a keto acid b. pyruvic acid; an unsaturated acid c. lactic acid; a dihydroxy acid d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 25. Statements:

(1) The boiling points of esters are much higher than those of corresponding carboxylic acids. (2) The compound benzoic acid is a heterocyclic compound. (3) In linear form, the ester functional group can be represented as -COOR. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 26. Carboxylic acid salts may be converted to their "parent" carboxylic acids by reacting them with a. a weak base such as ammonia b. a strong acid such as HBr c. an alcohol such as ethanol d. a phenol 27. Which of the following pairings of ester common and IUPAC names is correct? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 16_7e a. ethyl propionate and propyl ethanoate b. propyl acetate and propyl ethanoate c. ethyl butyrate and butyl ethanoate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 28. Which of the following acids would produce a carboxylate ion with a minus-two charge? a. b. c.

29. Which of the following functional groups is always found at the end of a carbon chain? a. aldehyde b. carboxylic acid c. ketone d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 30. Carboxylic acids may be prepared by oxidation of a. ketones b. secondary alcohols c. primary alcohols d. tertiary alcohols 31. For which of the following types of carboxylic acid derivatives is the parent carboxylic acid(s) a product of

the derivative's hydrolysis? a. acid anhydride b. acid chloride c. ester d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 32. Statements:

(1) A carboxylic acid and its corresponding carboxylate ion differ in the number of oxygen atoms they contain. (2) In ester hydrolysis, the carbon-oxygen double bond breaks, producing an alcohol and a carboxylic acid. (3) The acronym PET stands for polyester(terephthalate). a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 33. The functional group present in carboxylic acids is called a a. carbonyl group b. carboxyl group c. carboxylate group d. carbohydroxyl group 34. Which of the following statements concerning the properties of carboxylic acids is incorrect? a. Short-chain monocarboxylic acids are liquids at room temperature. b. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than alcohols of similar molecular mass. c. Carboxylic acids cannot hydrogen bond to water. d. Carboxylic acids can hydrogen bond to each other. 35. Which of the following carboxylic acids possesses two acidic hydrogen atoms? a. butanedioic acid b. 2-methylbutanoic acid c. succinic acid d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 36. Esters are produced through the reaction of a. a ketone and an ether b. an alcohol and a carboxylic acid c. a carboxylic acid and an aldehyde d. a ketone and an alcohol 37. Which of the following compounds could not be oxidized to a carboxylic acid? a. propanal b. 2-methyl-1-propanol c. 2-methyl-2-propanol Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 16_7e d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 38. In which of the following pairs of types of compounds is the first member of the pair classified as an acyl

compound and the second member of the pair classified as a carbonyl compound? a. carboxylic acid, ester b. ester, acid chloride c. aldehyde, ketone d. ketone, carboxylic acid Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 39. Statements:

(1) The compound ethanoic acid contains two carbon atoms and two oxygen atoms. (2) Unsubstituted short-chain monocarboxylic acids are completely miscible with water. (3) The two reactants in an esterification reaction are a carboxylic acid and an aldehyde. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 40. Statements:

(1) Hydrolysis of a mixed acid anhydride produces two different carboxylic acids as products. (2) Short-chain unsubstituted monocarboxylic acids are strong acids, while their longer-chain counterparts are weak acids. (3) The parent alcohol for the ester methyl acetate is methyl alcohol. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 41. Statements:

(1) Pyruvic acid is the keto acid. (2) Reaction of a carboxylic acid with a thiol produces a thioester, a compound containing two carbon atoms attached to a sulfur atom via single bonds. (3) One of the products of an esterification reaction is water. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 16_7e c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 42. Which of the following types of inorganic esters would contain two oxygen-carbon single bonds? a. diphosphate monoester b. phosphate triester c. diphosphate diester d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 43. The monomers for the formation of a polyester are a. a dicarboxylic acid and a monoalcohol. b. a dicarboxylic acid and a dialcohol. c. two diesters. d. two monoesters. 44. In which of the following pairs of carboxylic acids are both members of the pair dicarboxylic acids? a. malonic acid and succinic acid b. glutaric acid and butyric acid c. oxalic acid and acetic acid d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) Nitroglycerin is an example of a phosphate triester. (2) In the body, aspirin is converted to salicylic acid, which is the "active" ingredient. (3) Both ibuprofen and aspirin are propanoic acid derivatives. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Enter the appropriate value to answer the question or solve the problem. Use the following to answer the questions below: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 16_7e

Identify the missing reactant in each of the reactions using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) water b) base in water c) alcohol d) carboxylic acid +

46. Acid + ? → carboxylate ion + H3O

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) have the same molecular formula but are different compounds b) both contain a carbon ring system c) contain the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers d) two names for the same compound 47. Butanedioic acid, Butanoic acid

Use the following to answer the questions below: Identify the missing reactant in each of the reactions using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) water b) base in water c) alcohol d) carboxylic acid 48. Acid + ? → acid salt + H2O

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each pair of carboxylic acids, select a correct characterization from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) Both are dicarboxylic acids. b) Both are C3 acids. c) Both are monohydroxy acids. d) Both are unsubstituted monocarboxylic acids. 49. Acrylic acid, Pyruvic acid

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b) both contain a carbon ring system c) contain the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers d) two names for the same compound 50. Benzoic acid, Propyl butanoate

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the inorganic esters, select from the response list the combination of reactants needed to produce the ester. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) one acid molecule, one alcohol molecule b) one acid molecule, two alcohol molecules c) two acid molecules, one alcohol molecule d) three acid molecules, one alcohol molecule 51.

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c) d)

two acid molecules, one alcohol molecule three acid molecules, one alcohol molecule

54.

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list. Responses may be used Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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more than once or need not be used at all. a) have the same molecular formula but are different compounds b) both contain a carbon ring system c) contain the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers d) two names for the same compound 58. Acetic acid, Ethanoic acid

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) have the same molecular formula but are different compounds b) both contain a carbon ring system c) contain the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers d) two names for the same compound 61. 2-Methylpentanoic acid, β-Methyl valeric acid

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62.

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each pair of compounds, select a correct characterization from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) have the same molecular formula but are different compounds b) both contain a carbon ring system c) contain the same number of carbon atoms but are not constitutional isomers d) two names for the same compound 65. Methyl propanoate, Propyl methanoate

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Chapter 16_7e Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. c 7. d 8. b 9. d 10. b 11. b 12. b 13. d 14. b 15. c 16. b 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. d 22. d 23. a 24. e 25. c Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 16_7e 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. c 31. d 32. d 33. b 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. c 48. b 49. b 50. c

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Chapter 16_7e 51. d 52. d 53. c 54. b 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. d 59. a 60. a 61. d 62. a 63. c 64. d 65. a

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Chapter 17_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The monomers involved in the production of polyamides are a. dialcohols and dicarboxylic acids b. diamines and dicarboxylic acids c. dialcohols and diamines d. diesters and diamines

2. The IUPAC name for the compound

a. 2-methylpentanamine b. 4-methylpentanamine c. 2-methyl-4-pentanamine d. 4-methyl-2-pentanamine

(1) Unsubstituted amines are carbon-hydrogen-nitrogen compounds. (2) Amides, like amines, exhibit basic properties in aqueous solution. (3) In a quaternary ammonium ion, all four groups attached to the nitrogen atom are organic groups. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 4. Statements:

(1) The compound ethylammonium chloride is an amine salt. (2) Amides, like amines, can be classified as primary, secondary, and tertiary. (3) The methylamines are gases at room temperature and pressure, and have “fishy” odors. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 5. The organic products from the basic hydrolysis of an amide are a. an amine salt and a carboxylic acid Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 17_7e b. an amide and an amide salt c. an amide and a carboxylic acid d. an amine and a carboxylic acid salt

6. The IUPAC name for the compound

a. 1-amino-4-chlorobenzene b. p-aminochlorobenzene c. 4-chloroaniline d. 1-amino-4-chloroaniline

(1) Tert-butylamine is a primary amine. (2) Most unsubstituted amides are solids at room temperature. (3) Several important neurotransmitters in the human body are primary amines. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 8. The amine salt produced from the reaction of ethyl amine with HCl would have the formula a. b. c. d. 9. What is the IUPAC name for the amide whose common name is formamide? a. methylamide b. ethanamide Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 17_7e c. ethylamide d. methanamide

10. The IUPAC name for the compound

a. methylbutanamide b. methylpropanamide c. 1-methylaminopropanamide d. N-methylpropanamide 11. Which of the following amines is paired with an incorrect IUPAC name? a. b. c. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 12. A disubstituted amide is also called a a. primary amide b. tertiary amide c. quaternary amide d. secondary amide 13. Which of the following statements characterizes amine salt solubility in water? a. greater solubility than the parent amine b. lower solubility than the parent amine c. identical solubility as the parent amine d. not soluble in water 14. The simplest amine and the simplest amide contain, respectively, how many total atoms? a. Four and five b. Five and four c. Seven and six d. Seven and nine

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a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 15. Statements:

(1) The boiling points of amines are lower than those of corresponding alcohols because N-H hydrogen bonds are stronger than O-H hydrogen bonds. (2) The “parent” amine for the amide N,N-diethylbenzamide is diethylamine. (3) Cyclic amides are called lactams. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 16. Statements:

(1) The reaction of an amine with water produces a basic solution. (2) Acetamide is a one-carbon amide, and ethanamide is a two-carbon amide. (3) The most common type of polyamide is a polyurethane. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 17. The word amino would be present in the IUPAC name of which of the following compounds? a. b. c. d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 18. Amines have basic properties because of the presence of a. a carboxyl group in such compounds b. a lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom c. a positive charge on the nitrogen atom d. acidic hydrogen atoms on the nitrogen atom 19. The common name for the compound CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2 is a. propylamine Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 17_7e b. N-propylamine c. aminopropane d. N-aminopropane 20. Which of the following statements concerning cyclic amines is correct? a. They are always heterocyclic compounds. b. They are always aromatic compounds. c. They can be tertiary but never primary or secondary amines d. They are never encountered as naturally-occurring compound 21. Which of the following statements about nylon polymers is correct? a. They are condensation polymers. b. They are polyamines. c. Monomers for their production are diamines and dialcohols. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 22. Which of the following pairings of amine classification and amine name is correct? a. monosubstituted amino group; diisopropylamine b. disubstituted amino group; ethylmethylamine c. primary amine; tert-butylamine d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 23. For which of the following pairs of molecules does the first listed molecule possess more hydrogen-bonding

sites than the second listed molecule? a. ethanamide and propanamide b. propanamide and N-methylpropanamide c. N,N-dimethylpropanamide and N-methylpropanamide d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 24. Statements:

(1) Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant whose mode of action is enzyme inhibition. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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(2) Theobromine is an alkaloid found in chocolate. (3) Acetaminophen is a substituted acetamide whose structure includes a benzene ring. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 25. Which of the following statements concerning the basic behavior of amines and amides is correct? a. Amines but not amides exhibit basic behavior. b. Both amines and amides exhibit basic behavior. c. Amides do not exhibit basic behavior. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

(1) In the presence of a strong base, a primary amine can be converted to a secondary amine by reaction with an alkyl halide. (2) Morphine, codeine, and heroin are all naturally-occurring alkaloids. (3) Two -NH2 groupings are present in each of the compounds 1,4-butanediamine and 3-aminobutanamide. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 27. How many potential hydrogen bonding sites are present in a secondary amide? a. one b. two c. three d. four 28. Alkylation of a primary amine, under basic conditions, will produce a. a primary amine b. a secondary amine c. a primary ammonium salt Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 17_7e d. an amide 29. Under which of the following conditions would hydrolysis of an amide produce an amine as one of the

products? a. acidic conditions b. basic conditions c. neutral conditions d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 30. Which of the following is not an alkaloid? a. quinine b. codeine c. histamine d. heroin 31. The compound CH3–CH2–NH–CH3 is an example of a a. primary amine b. secondary amine c. tertiary amine d. primary amide 32. Many amines, in the liquid state, have odors resembling that of a. garlic b. raw fish c. roses d. skunks

(1) The compounds 1-butanamine and butanamide are constitutional isomers. (2) The reaction of an alkyl halide with ammonia in the presence of a base produces a primary amine. (3) In the hydrolysis of an amide, a carbon-nitrogen single bond is broken. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 17_7e c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 34. Which of the following sets of reactants could be used to produce an amine salt? a. ammonia and hydrochloric acid b. diethylammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide c. aniline and sulfuric acid d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 35. The boiling points of amines are lower than those of alcohols of similar molecular mass because: a. Amines do not contain oxygen. b. Amines cannot hydrogen bond to each other. c. N–H hydrogen bonds are weaker than O–H hydrogen bonds. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 36. Which of the following sets of reactants could be used to produce a secondary amine? a. alkyl halide + primary amine + NaOH b. disubstituted ammonium salt + NaOH c. monosubstituted amine + NH3 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 37. In which of the following amides is a –NH2 group present? a. acetamide b. N-methylpropanamide c. 2-methylbutanamide d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 38. Which of the following compounds contains two nitrogen atoms? a. 1,4-butanediamine b. 2,N-dimethyl-3-pentanamine c. aniline d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

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a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 39. Statements:

(1) Reaction of an amine with water produces a substituted ammonium ion. (2) Aniline and m-chloroaniline contain the same number of hydrogen atoms. (3) The monomers needed to produce a polyamide are a diacid and a diamine. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 40. Statements:

(1) Acidic hydrolysis of an amide produces an acid salt and an amine. (2) The amide urea contains more nitrogen atoms than carbon atoms. (3) All cyclic amines are heterocyclic compounds that are either 10 or 20 amines. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 41. The structure of urea, the simplest naturally-occurring amide, is a.

42. The elements present in a primary amine are a. carbon and nitrogen b. carbon, nitrogen, and hydrogen c. carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen d. carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen, and oxygen 43. Constitutional isomerism is possible between members of which of the following types of compounds? a. amines and amides Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 17_7e b. amides and carboxylic acids c. primary amines and secondary amines d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 44. Which of the following general types of compounds cannot exist? a. cyclic amine b. aromatic amine c. cyclic amide d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

Enter the appropriate value to answer the question or solve the problem. Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compounds, choose from the response list a correct comment concerning the compound's structure. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) contains a nitrogen atom bonded to two carbon atoms b) contains three carbon atoms c) contains the same number of carbon and nitrogen atoms 45. N-methylformamide

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compound types, select from the response list the number of carbon atoms present in the simplest compound of that type. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) one carbon atom b) two carbon atoms c) three carbon atoms d) four carbon atoms 46. 3° amine 47. 2° amide

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each set of reactants, select from the response list a product of the reaction. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) amide b) amine c) amine salt d) quaternary ammonium salt 48. Primary amine, Carboxylic acid Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compounds, choose from the response list a correct comment concerning the compound's structure. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) contains a nitrogen atom bonded to two carbon atoms b) contains three carbon atoms c) contains the same number of carbon and nitrogen atoms 49. Methanamine

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compounds, choose from the response list a correct comment concerning its IUPAC name. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) name ends in diamine b) name contains the term amino c) name contains no numbers d) name contains one number 50. 51. 52.

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compounds, select a correct classification from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) primary amine Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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b) secondary amine c) primary amide d) secondary amide 55.

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Chapter 17_7e

58.

Use the following to answer the questions below: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 17_7e

For each of the compounds, select a correct classification from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) primary amine b) secondary amine c) primary amide d) secondary amide 62.

Use the following to answer the questions below: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 17_7e

For each set of reactants, select from the response list a product of the reaction. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) amide b) amine c) amine salt d) quaternary ammonium salt 66. Amine salt, Sodium hydroxide

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Chapter 17_7e Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. d 10. d 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. d Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 17_7e 26. b 27. c 28. b 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. b 43. c 44. e 45. a 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. b 51. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 17_7e 52. c 53. a 54. a 55. b 56. b 57. d 58. c 59. c 60. a 61. d 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. d 66. b 67. d 68. a 69. c

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Chapter 18_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 1. Statements:

(1) Complete hydrolysis of an oligosaccharide produces only monosaccharides. (2) Fructose, galactose, and ribose are all hexoses. (3) Both amylopectin and glycogen are branched glucose polymers. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 2. Which of the following types of monosaccharides have cyclic forms that involve a 5-membered ring? a. ketopentoses and aldopentoses b. ketohexoses and aldopentoses c. ketopentoses and aldohexoses d. aldohexoses and ketohexoses 3. Which of the following monosaccharides has an open chain form that is a ketose? a. b.

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d) None of the statements are true. 4. Statements:

(1) Enantiomers with more than three carbon atoms must have the same handedness. (2) The molecules glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyketone each contain one chiral center. (3) Glucose contain one more -OH group than does galactose. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 5. In which of the following pairs of carbohydrates are both members of the pair polysaccharides? a. cellulose and cellobiose b. starch and glycogen c. amylose and lactose d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 6. Which of the following carbohydrates will give a positive Benedict's test? a. galactose b. sucrose c. starch d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) The term sugar is a general designation for both monosaccharides and disaccharides. (2) The “highest-numbered” chiral center in a monosaccharide is used to determine D- or L-configuration. (3) Sucrose is a reducing sugar and lactose is a nonreducing sugar. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 8. Which of the following structures represents a β-monosaccharide? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 18_7e a.

9. Which of the following statements concerning the positioning of –OH groups in the Haworth projection for

α–D–glucose is correct? a. up at carbons 1, 3, and 5 b. down at carbons 2, 3, and 4 c. up at carbons 1 and 3, and down at carbons 2 and 4 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 10. The left- and right-handed forms of a monosaccharide with a single chiral center are a. enantiomers b. diastereomers c. epimers d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 11. Which of the following statements concerning chiral centers in specific monosaccharides is incorrect? a. Glyceraldehyde has one chiral center. b. Dihydroxyacetone has two chiral centers. c. Mannose has four chiral centers. d. Tagatose has three chiral centers. 12. In which of the following sugars is the bonding between monosaccharide units “head-to head” rather than

“head-to-tail”? a. cellobiose b. maltose c. lactose d. sucrose 13. Which of the following structures is that of an L-monosaccharide?

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Chapter 18_7e a.

14. Which of the following is not a reducing sugar? a. xylulose b. glucose c. sucrose d. maltose 15. In which of the following pairs of monosaccharides do the members of the pair contain different numbers of

carbon atoms? a. tagatose and lyxose b. ribulose and arabinose c. altrose and talose d. dihydroxyacetone and glyceraldehyde Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 16. Statements:

(1) Mirror images of an achiral molecule are identical. (2) All cyclic monosaccharides can exist in alpha- and beta-configurations. (3) Reaction of an alcohol with a cyclic monosaccharide produces a glycoside. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 18_7e c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 17. In which of the following pairs or carbohydrates are both members of the pair disaccharides? a. allose and idose b. lactose and arabinose c. sucrose and maltose d. cellobiose and cellulose 18. Which of the following monosaccharides are aldohexoses? a. glucose b. fructose c. ribose d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) Cellulose and amylose are glucose polymers that differ in the type of glycosidic linkage present. (2) All monosaccharides are either aldoses or ketoses. (3) Enantiomers can never be epimers. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 20. Which of the following disaccharides does not have two cyclic forms (alpha and beta)? a. sucrose b. lactose c. maltose d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 21. Which of the following structures is a representation of a cyclic form of D-glucose?

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Chapter 18_7e a.

22. In which of the following disaccharides is a β (1 → 4) glycosidic linkage present? a. lactose b. sucrose c. maltose d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) Diastereomers are stereoisomers whose molecules are mirror images of each other. (2) Both cyclic forms of glucose contain a six-membered carbon ring. (3) Complete hydrolysis of both maltose and cellobiose produce the same molecule. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 24. In which of the following polysaccharides are all glycosidic linkages of the â (1→ 4) type? a. starch b. cellulose c. glycogen d. amylopectin 25. Which of the following structures is that of D-mannose? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 18_7e a.

(1) A positive Tollen's test classifies a monosaccharide as a reducing sugar. (2) The bond that links the two monosaccharides of a disaccharide together is a carbon-oxygen-carbon bond. (3) Monosaccharides cannot be broken down into simpler units by hydrolysis reactions. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 27. Which of the following substances will produce both glucose and fructose when hydrolyzed? a. lactose b. maltose c. sucrose d. glycogen 28. The structure of D-galactose differs from that of D-talose at which carbon atom? a. carbon #3 b. carbon #4 c. carbon #2 d. carbon #5

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Chapter 18_7e

In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 29. Statements:

(1) The biochemical basis for different types of blood is a system of polysaccharide markers attached to red blood cell membranes. (2) Lactose intolerance is a genetic condition caused by excessive amounts of the enzyme lactase. (3) Aspartame, the most used artificial sweetener, is an indigestible trisaccharide. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 30. Which of the following properties would be the same for a pair of enantiomeric monosaccharides? a. interaction with plane-polarized light b. boiling point c. solubility in water d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 31. In which of the following carbohydrates are two different types of glycosidic linkages present? a. glycogen b. lactose c. amylose d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 32. Which of the following statements concerning the D- and L- forms of a monosaccharide is incorrect? a. They have structures that are nonsuperimposable mirror images of each other. b. They must contain the same number of chiral centers. c. They are enantiomers. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 33. Which of the following is a correct pairing of terms? a. heteropolysaccharide and starch b. homopolysaccharide and chitin c. branch-chain polysaccharide and cellulose d. unbranched-chain polysaccharide and glycogen Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 18_7e 34. The major structural difference between cellulose and starch is found in the a. identity of the monosaccharide units present b. ring size of the monosaccharide units present c. linkages between the monosaccharide units present d. handedness of the monosaccharide units present

(1) A Fischer projection is a three-dimensional notation for showing the spatial arrangements of groups of atoms about chiral centers in a molecule. (2) Cyclic forms of aldoses result from intermolecular hemiacetal formation. (3) All physical properties of enantiomers are the same. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 36. Which of the following monosaccharides has a structure in which two or more chiral centers are present? a. glyceraldehyde b. dihydroxyacetone c. glucose d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 37. Which of the following terms correctly describes the relationship between D-fructose and L-fructose? a. enantiomers b. epimers c. diastereomers d. cis-trans isomers 38. Which of the following statements concerning the positioning of –OH groups in the Fischer projection for L-

glucose is correct? a. right on both carbons 2 and 3 b. right on both carbons 3 and 4 c. left at carbon 3 and right at carbon 5 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 18_7e d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 39. Which of the following is a correct pairing of terms? a. storage polysaccharide and cellulose b. structural polysaccharide and starch c. acidic polysaccharide and glycogen d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 40. Which of the following properties would be the same for D-ribulose and L-ribulose? a. interaction with plane polarized light b. solubility in chiral solvent c. melting point d. reaction with (+)-2,3-pentanediol 41. Which of the following monosaccharides has cyclic forms that involve a 6-membered ring? a. fructose b. galactose c. ribose d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) Glucose is both a hexose and a ketose. (2) There can never be more than two enantiomers for a molecule. (3) All common disaccharides have beta-one-four linkages. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 43. Which of the following compounds is both an aldose and a hexose?

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Chapter 18_7e a.

44. Which of the following statements concerning carbohydrates is correct? a. They are the most abundant type of biochemical substance in the human body. b. They are all polyhydroxy aldehydes, polyhydroxyketones, or substances that yield such upon

hydrolysis. c. They can exist in left-handed and right-handed forms, with the left-handed form being dominant in nature. d. They all have a sweet taste and therefore are also called sugars. 45. Which of the following disaccharides produces two different monosaccharides upon hydrolysis? a. maltose b. sucrose c. cellobiose d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

Enter the appropriate value to answer the question or solve the problem. Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the disaccharides or polysaccharides, select from the response list the correct hydrolysis products. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) glucose only b) glucose and galactose c) glucose and fructose d) glucose and ribose 46. Cellulose Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 18_7e

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compound characterizations, select an appropriate structural formula from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all.

47. A glycoside

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the compound characterizations, select from the response list an appropriate structural formula. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all.

48. Eight stereoisomers exist for this compound.

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Chapter 18_7e

For each of the compound characterizations, select an appropriate structural formula from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all.

49. Open-chain form is a ketohexose

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the disaccharides or polysaccharides, select from the response list the correct characterization of the type of glycosidic linkages present in the compound. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) α(1 → 4) only b) β(1 → 4) only c) α (1 → 4) and α (1 → 6) d) α, β(1 → 2) only 50. Chitin 51. Lactose

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the disaccharides or polysaccharides, select from the response list the correct hydrolysis products. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 18_7e

a) glucose only b) glucose and galactose c) glucose and fructose d) glucose and ribose 52. Starch

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the stereochemical descriptions, select from the response list an appropriate set of structural formulas. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all.

53. Mirror images

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Chapter 18_7e

c) α (1 → 4) and α (1 → 6) d) α, β(1 → 2) only 54. Sucrose

56. Four different L-stereoisomers exist for this compound.

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Chapter 18_7e

57. D-glucose

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Chapter 18_7e

59. Epimers 60. Optical isomers

62. A chiral compound with one chiral center

Use the following to answer the questions below: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 18_7e

For each of the disaccharides or polysaccharides, select from the response list the correct characterization of the type of glycosidic linkages present in the compound. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) α(1 → 4) only b) β(1 → 4) only c) α (1 → 4) and α (1 → 6) d) α, β(1 → 2) only 63. Cellulose

64. Enantiomers 65. Diastereomers

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the disaccharides or polysaccharides, select from the response list the correct hydrolysis products. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 18_7e

Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) glucose only b) glucose and galactose c) glucose and fructose d) glucose and ribose 66. Lactose

67. A chiral compound with two chiral centers

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Chapter 18_7e

68. Open-chain form is an aldopentose

69. A compound that has five achiral centers

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Chapter 18_7e

70. A beta monosaccharide

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Chapter 18_7e Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. e 10. d 11. b 12. d 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. b Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 18_7e 26. a 27. c 28. c 29. d 30. d 31. a 32. e 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. e 39. e 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. c 44. b 45. b 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. b 51. b Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 18_7e 52. a 53. a 54. d 55. a 56. c 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. b 67. d 68. c 69. d 70. a

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Chapter 19_7e

(1) The “head group” in sphingolipids can be a small carbohydrate molecule. (2) Biological waxes have structures in which an amide linkage is present. (3) An 18:3 fatty acid contains more unsaturation than a 20:2 fatty acid. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 2. Statements:

(1) Structurally, fats contain three ester linkages and oils contain only two ester linkages. (2) Hormones, many of which are steroids, are chemical messengers produced by ductless glands. (3) The configuration of double bonds in naturally occurring unsaturated fatty acids is almost always trans. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 3. Which of the following types of lipids contains a long-chain amino dialcohol as a component? a. sphingoglycolipids b. glycerophospholipids c. prostaglandins d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 4. Which of the following types of lipids are fatty acid derivatives? a. estrogens b. leukotrienes c. prostaglandins d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 5. Which of the following fatty acids is both monounsaturated and an omega-6 fatty acid? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 19_7e a. CH3–(CH2)18–COOH b. CH3–(CH2)7–CH=CH–(CH2)7–COOH c. CH3–(CH2)4–CH=CH–(CH2)2–(CH2)6–COOH d. CH3–CH2–(CH=CH–CH2)4–(CH2)2–COOH 6. Eicosanoids are oxygenated derivatives of a. cholesterol b. glycerophospholipids c. polyunsaturated 20-carbon fatty acids d. saturated fatty acids with less than 18 carbon atoms 7. In a glycerophospholipid, glycerin's three –OH groups are esterified, respectively, with a. one fatty acid and two phosphoric acid molecules b. two fatty acid and one phosphoric acid molecules c. three phosphoric acid molecules d. one fatty acid, one phosphoric acid, and one amino alcohol molecules

(1) Cholesterol is both a steroid and a membrane lipid. (2) Sphingoglycolipids are components of cell membranes. (3) Sphingosine, the “platform” for sphingolipids, is an amino dialcohol. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 9. Statements:

(1) Triacylglycerols can be hydrolyzed under acidic conditions to produce salts of fatty acids. (2) Hydrogenation of a fat or oil increases its degree of unsaturation. (3) Eicosanoids are oxygenated derivatives of polyunsaturated 18-carbon fatty acids. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 19_7e 10. Which of the following types of lipids is a steroid? a. androgens b. prostaglandins c. thromboxanes d. leukotrienes 11. Which of the following statements concerning the molecule sphingosine is correct? a. Its carbon chain is saturated. b. Its carbon chain contains 20 carbon atoms. c. Two amino groups and one hydroxyl group are present. d. One amino group and two hydroxyl groups are present. 12. How do simple triacylglycerols (STAGs) differ from mixed triacylglycerols (MTAGs)? a. STAGs contain short-chain fatty acids and MTAGs contain long-chain fatty acids. b. STAGs contain unbranched fatty acids and MTAGs contain branched fatty acids. c. STAGs contain saturated fatty acids and MTAGs contain unsaturated fatty acids. d. STAGs contain only one kind of fatty acid and MTAGs contain more than one kind of fatty acid. 13. Which of the following is the correct representation for the structure of a lipid bilayer? a. b.

14. Based on function, phospholipids are a. energy-storage lipids b. membrane lipids c. emulsification lipids d. messenger lipids 15. Which of the following types of lipids has a “block diagram” structure that involves five components? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 19_7e a. triacylglycerol b. glycerophospholipid c. biological wax d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 16. Which of the following types of lipids would be soluble in water? a. phospholipids b. sphingolipids c. steroids d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 17. The products of the hydrolysis of an oil are three fatty acids and a. a long-chain alcohol b. glycerol c. phosphoric acid d. an amino alcohol 18. How many different triglyceride molecules can be produced that contain glycerol, myristic acid, arachidic

acid, and linoleic acid residues? a. two b. three c. four d. five Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 19. Statements:

(1) Fats and oils have the same general chemical structure. (2) Biological waxes have a three-component “block diagram.” (3) In facilitated transport, a substance crosses a cell membrane with the help of a protein “pump.” a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 19_7e 20. In which of the following “head-and-two-tail” type lipids are both “tails” fatty acids? a. glycerophospholipid b. sphingophospholipid c. sphingoglycolipid d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 21. Which of the following types of lipids have structures that contain the fused-ring steroid nucleus? a. bile acids b. estrogens c. glucocorticoids d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 22. Which of the following statements concerning eicosanoids is correct? a. The precursor of most eicosanoids is cholesterol. b. Eicosanoids are hormones transported in the blood to their site of action. c. Both thromboxanes and leukotrienes are types of eicosanoids. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 23. Partial hydrogenation of a fat or oil a. produces fatty acid salts b. increases the degree of fatty acid unsaturation c. increases the melting point d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) In active transport, a substance crosses a cell membrane against a concentration gradient. (2) Fatty acid melting point decreases with increasing degree of unsaturation. (3) Complete hydrolysis of a TAG produces four product molecules, all of which must be different from each other. a. All three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 19_7e b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 25. Unsaturated fatty acids are structural components of a. both fats and oils b. neither fats nor oils c. fats but not oils d. oils but not fats 26. Which of the following lipids is classified as a sphingoglycolipid? a. cephalin b. lecithin c. sphingomyelin d. cerebroside 27. In which of the following pairs of lipids are both members of the pair membrane lipids? a. triacylglycerols and glycerophospholipids b. glycerophospholipids and sphingophospholipids c. sphingophospholipids and sphingoglycolipids d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 28. Which of the following statements concerning lipid bilayers is correct? a. Both the exterior and interior surface of a lipid bilayer contain groups that are nonpolar. b. The interior of a lipid bilayer is polar. c. The two layers of molecules in a lipid bilayer are present in a “tail-to-tail” arrangement. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

(1) Steroids have structures based on a fused-three-ring system. (2) Glycerophospholipids and sphingophospholipids both have “head-and-two-tails” structures. (3) Both fats and oils are TAG mixtures. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 19_7e a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 30. Statements:

(1) Bile acids are cholesterol oxidation products. (2) Glycerophospholipids differ structurally from fats in the number of ester linkages present. (3) Stearic acid and linolenic acids are the two essential fatty acids. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 31. Which of the following statements concerning cholesterol is correct? a. Its core ring structure is based on a set of four fused six-membered rings. b. Its core ring structure contains 17 carbon atoms. c. Attachments to the core ring structure are located on carbons 3, 10, 12, and 15. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 32. Which of the following statements concerning the complete hydrolysis of fats and oils is correct? a. Fats produce more fatty acids per molecule than do oils. b. Oils produce more glycerol per molecule than do fats. c. Fats produce only saturated fatty acids and oils produce only unsaturated fatty acids. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 33. In which of the following types of lipids are two ester linkages and one amide linkage present? a. glycerophospholipids b. sphingophospholipids c. sphingoglycolipids d. triacylglycerols

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Chapter 19_7e 34. Statements:

(1) Omega-3 fatty acids are unsaturated fatty acids containing three double bonds. (2) Prostaglandins and thromboxanes are classes of eicosanoids. (3) In general, lipids are substances that are only sparingly soluble in water. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 35. Which of the following statements concerning fatty acids is incorrect? a. Some fatty acids needed in the human body must be obtained from food because they cannot be

synthesized with the body. b. Fatty acids are rarely found in the free state in nature. c. At least 16 carbon atoms must be present in the carbon chain of a fatty acid. d. Double bonds present in fatty acids are almost always in a cis-configuration. 36. The most abundant steroid in the human body is a. progesterone b. testosterone c. estradiol d. cholesterol 37. In which of the following types of lipids are both ester and amide linkages present? a. sphingophospholipids b. glycerophospholipids c. sphingoglycolipids d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 38. Which of the following types of compounds are expected products from the saponification of an oil? a. glycerol and fatty acids b. glycerol and fatty acid salts c. fatty acid salts and fatty acids d. fatty acids and glycine 39. Which of the following statements concerning fats and oils is incorrect? a. They are also called triacylglycerols. b. They are also called triglycerides. c. They are glycerol triesters. d. They are fatty acid salts. 40. The designation “polyunsaturated” applies to which of the following fatty acids? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 19_7e a. oleic acid (18:1) b. palmitic acid (16:0) c. arachidonic acid (20:4) d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) Olestra, a calorie-free fat substitute, is an indigestible sucrose polyester. (2) “Trans-fats” affect blood cholesterol levels in a manner similar to that of unsaturated fatty acids. (3) Anabolic steroids, banned by many sports organizations, have several important medical uses. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 42. Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic between fats and oils? a. physical state at room temperature b. alcohol component present in their structures c. type of linkage between fatty acids and the alcohol present d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 43. The “steroid nucleus” common to all steroid structures involves a fused-ring system involving a. four six-membered rings b. four five-membered rings c. three six-membered rings and one five-membered ring d. two six-membered rings and two five-membered rings 44. A lipid is any substance of biochemical origin that is a. insoluble in nonpolar solvents but soluble in water b. insoluble in both water and nonpolar solvents c. insoluble in water but soluble in nonpolar solvents d. soluble in both water and nonpolar solvents

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Chapter 19_7e 45. In which of the following pairs of fatty acids does the first listed acid have a higher melting point than the

second listed acid? a. 16:2 acid and 16:0 acid b. 21:0 acid and 17:0 acid c. 17:3 acid and 17:0 acid d. 17:3 acid and 20:0 acid Enter the appropriate value to answer the question or solve the problem. Use the following to answer the questions below: Classify each of the lipid types in terms of its biochemical function using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) energy-storage lipid b) membrane lipid c) emulsification lipid d) messenger lipid 46. Triacylglycerols

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the fatty acid characterizations, select from the response list the structure of the correct fatty acid. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all.

47. Cis-9-octadecenoic acid

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the classes of lipids, select from the response list the number of “structural components” that are present in molecules of the lipid. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) two b) three c) four d) five 48. Biological waxes

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Chapter 19_7e

a) fats but not oils b) oils but not fats c) both fats and oils d) neither fats nor oils 49. Glycerol is a structural component of.

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the reaction characterizations, select from the response list the type of reaction of fats and oils that will produce the indicated effect. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) hydrogenation b) rancidity c) saponfication d) hydrolysis 50. Produces fatty acid salts

51. Polyunsaturated fatty acid 52. An 18:1 fatty acid

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the structural characterizations, select a correct response from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) fats but not oils b) oils but not fats c) both fats and oils d) neither fats nor oils 53. Saturated fatty acids may be structural components. 54. Three ester linkages are present in the molecule.

Use the following to answer the questions below: Classify each of the lipid types in terms of its biochemical function using the response list. Responses may be Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 19_7e

used more than once or need not be used at all. a) energy-storage lipid b) membrane lipid c) emulsification lipid d) messenger lipid 55. Sphingoglycolipids 56. Glycerophospholipids

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the structural characterizations, select a correct response from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) fats but not oils b) oils but not fats c) both fats and oils d) neither fats nor oils 57. Are also known as triacylglycerols and triglycerides 58. Unsaturated fatty acids may be structural components.

Use the following to answer the questions below: Classify each of the lipid types in terms of its biochemical function using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) energy-storage lipid b) membrane lipid c) emulsification lipid d) messenger lipid 59. Bile acids

60. Omega-6 fatty acid

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Chapter 19_7e

For each of the classes of lipids, select from the response list the number of “structural components” that are present in molecules of the lipid. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) two b) three c) four d) five 61. Cerebrosides

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Chapter 19_7e

d) five 65. Triacylglycerols 66. Glycerophospholipids

70. Saturated fatty acid

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Chapter 19_7e Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. a 4. d 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. b 16. e 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 19_7e 26. d 27. d 28. c 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. e 33. b 34. b 35. c 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. d 40. c 41. b 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. c 50. c 51. d Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 19_7e 52. c 53. c 54. c 55. b 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. c 60. d 61. b 62. a 63. c 64. a 65. c 66. d 67. b 68. a 69. d 70. a

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Chapter 20_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Parallel polypeptide chains in a beta-pleated sheet conformation are held together by a. R-group interactions b. covalent bonding c. hydrogen bonding d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 2. Which of the following amino acids would be classified as a polar neutral amino acid? a.

3. Which of the following statements concerning standard amino acids is incorrect? a. There are four main categories of amino acids. b. They are all alpha-amino acids. c. None of the standard amino acids are chiral. d. Each of them has an amino group and a carboxyl group. 4. Which of the following statements concerning the tripeptide Val–Ala–Gly is correct? a. The C-terminal amino acid residue is Val. b. The N-terminal amino acid residue is Gly. c. Three peptide linkages are present. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e

(1) In the tripeptide Gly-Ala-Ser, the amino acid at the N-terminal end is Ser. (2) More than one polypeptide chain may be present in a conjugated protein but not in a simple protein. (3) In solution at physiological pH, the side chain of a polar basic amino acid bears a negative charge. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 6. Which of the following is an incorrect characterization for the protein hemoglobin? a. multimeric protein b. globular protein c. simple protein d. conjugated protein 7. Interactions between amino acid R groups is responsible for which of the following levels of protein

structure? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. both secondary and tertiary 8. How many different tripeptides can be formed from two molecules of leucine (Leu) and one molecule of

glutamic acid (Glu)? a. two b. three c. four d. five 9. R-group interaction between which of the following pairs of amino acids produces a disulfide bond? a. cysteine-cysteine b. proline-proline c. alanine-glycine d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e 10. The complete hydrolysis of a protein produces a mixture of a. polypeptides b. free amino acids c. polypeptides and free amino acids d. dipeptides and free amino acids 11. In a solution that is highly acidic (low pH), which of the following forms of the amino acid alanine (Ala)

would predominate? a.

12. Glycine, the simplest amino acid, is different from all of the other standard amino acids in that it a. does not have a chiral center b. has a side chain that does not contain carbon c. occurs naturally as a D-isomer rather than as a L-isomer d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 13. Which of the following forms of the amino acid alanine (Ala) is the zwitterion form of this amino acid? a.

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Chapter 20_7e c.

14. Which of the following statements concerning protein structure is correct? a. Amino acids are connected to each other through peptide bonds. b. At least one unit of each of the 20 standard amino acids musts be present. c. More than one chain of amino acids may be present. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

(1) The antirejection drug cyclosporine is structurally a small cyclic peptide. (2) The chemical basis for a hair permanent is reversible denaturation in which peptide linkages are broken and reformed. (3) Immature human milk (colostrum) does not contain protein. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 16. Which of the following biochemically important small peptides functions as an antioxidant? a. oxytocin b. vasopressin c. Met-enkephalin d. glutathione 17. How do the standard amino acids differ from one another? a. in whether or not the amino group is chiral b. in whether or not the carboxyl group is chiral Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e c. in the number of chiral carbon atoms between the carboxyl group and the amino group d. in the identity of the R group (side chain) 18. In a solution of high pH, all of the acidic and basic sites in an amino acid are a. protonated b. deprotonated c. negatively charged d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 19. How many peptide linkages are present in a tripeptide? a. two b. three c. four d. five 20. Which of the following statements concerning proteins is incorrect? a. The amino acids in a protein can be polar, nonpolar, or neutral in nature. b. All proteins contain the elements C, H, O, and N. c. All proteins are made of amino acids. d. The amino acids in a protein are linked by ionic bonds. 21. Which of the following elements is present in some of the standard amino acids but not all of them? a. oxygen b. sulfur c. phosphorus d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) In a peptide, the number of amino acids and the number of peptide bonds are always equal. (2) HDL and LDL are examples of lipoproteins. (3) Tertiary structure interactions in proteins always involve amino acid R groups. a. All three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 23. Which of the following levels of protein structure is not disrupted when protein hydrolysis occurs? a. primary structure b. secondary structure c. tertiary structure d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) Partial hydrolysis of the tripeptide Ala-Gly-Cys produces three different dipeptides. (2) The number of standard amino acids is 23. (3) Enkephalins are peptides that bind at receptor sites in the brain to reduce pain. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 25. Statements:

(1) For a tripeptide in which the three amino acids are different, six isomeric forms are possible. (2) The “backbone” of a protein is an alternating sequence of C and N atoms. (3) Both alpha-helix and beta-pleated sheet configurations can be present in the same protein. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 26. Statements:

(1) Collagen, the most abundant protein in humans, is both a fibrous protein and a glycoprotein. (2) Quaternary structure, the highest level of protein organization, is found in all proteins in which 80 or more amino acids are present. (3) A protein chain lacks directionality because its two ends always involve the same amino acid. a. All three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 27. Which of the following sets of elements is a possible composition for a standard amino acid? a. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and sulfur b. carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and sulfur c. carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen d. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur 28. In which of the following pairs of proteins are both members of the pair fibrous proteins? a. alpha-keratin and collagen b. collagen and hemoglobin c. hemoglobin and myoglobin d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 29. A total of six isomeric tetrapeptides can be made from which of the following combinations of amino acids? a. Ala, Ala, Val, and Val b. Val, Val, Val, and Ala c. Ala, Ala, Val, and Gly d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) The major force responsible for protein secondary structure is hydrogen bonding. (2) Amino acids found in proteins are almost always L-isomers. (3) Conjugated proteins always contain one or more prosthetic groups. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 31. Statements:

(1) Some tertiary-structure interactions involve covalent bonding. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e

(2) Nonpolar amino acids contain one amino group, one carboxyl group, and a nonpolar side chain. (3) The two amino acids present in a dipeptide are linked via an amide linkage. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 32. Which of the following types of interactions contribute to protein tertiary structure? a. hydrophobic interactions between nonpolar R groups b. hydrogen bonds between polar neutral R groups c. hydrogen bonds between C=O and N–H groups d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 33. In the tetrapeptide Phe-Gln-Trp-His, the C-terminal amino acid is a. Phe b. Gln c. Trp d. His 34. Which of the following would be a correct representation of a portion of a protein “backbone”? a.

35. Which of the following terms describes a protein secondary structure? a. alpha helix b. globular shape c. fibrous shape d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 36. Quaternary structure is possible for a protein only when: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e a. The amino acid cysteine is present. b. All amino acids have nonpolar R groups. c. Two or more protein chains are present. d. A protein chain bends back on itself. 37. Which of the following statements concerning proteins is correct? a. Some, but not all, multimeric proteins are also conjugated proteins. b. All monomeric proteins are also simple proteins. c. Some, but not all, globular proteins are also multimeric proteins. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 38. The non-amino acid portion of a conjugated protein is called a(n) a. side chain b. prosthetic group c. R group d. secondary structure 39. Which of the following types of standard amino acids exist as zwitterions in the solid state? a. polar neutral amino acids b. polar acidic amino acids c. nonpolar amino acids d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 40. The joining together of two amino acids to form a dipeptide involves the reaction between a. two amide groups b. an amino group and an alpha-carbon c. an amino group and a carboxyl group d. an alpha-carbon and a hydroxyl group 41. Which of the following tripeptides is a possible product from the partial hydrolysis of Ala–Val–Gly–Gly–

Ala–Val? a. Gly–Gly–Ala b. Ala–Val–Ala c. Ala–Val–Val d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e

(1) In pure form, amino acids are white crystalline solids with limited solubility in water. (2) In an alpha-helix structure, all of the amino acid side chains lie outside the helix. (3) Protein denaturation affects all four levels of protein structure. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 43. To which of the following levels of protein structure is the sequence of amino acids in a protein directly

related? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 44. Statements:

(1) For neutral amino acids, three different forms can exist, with the form found dependent of solution pH. (2) Hydrophobic interactions are the strongest of the tertiary-structure interactions. (3) Protein digestion is an enzyme-catalyzed hydrolysis reaction. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 45. Proteins are polymers in which: a. Unbranched chains of amino acids are present. b. Branched chains of amino acids are present. c. Both unbranched and branched chains of amino acids are present. d. Alternating amino acid and glucose monomer units are present. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e

Enter the appropriate value to answer the question or solve the problem. Use the following to answer the questions below: Determine the structural level (primary, secondary, etc.) associated with each of the protein characteristics using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) primary structure b) secondary structure c) tertiary structure d) quaternary structure 46. Alpha-helix configuration

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the amino acids, choose a correct classification from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) nonpolar amino acid b) polar neutral amino acid c) polar acidic amino acid d) polar basic amino acid 47.

Use the following to answer the questions below: Determine the structural level (primary, secondary, etc.) associated with each of the protein characteristics using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) primary structure b) secondary structure c) tertiary structure d) quaternary structure 48. Sequence of amino acids in a protein chain

Use the following to answer the questions below: Use the response list to answer the following questions concerning the pentapeptide Gly–Ala–Gly–Gly–Ala. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) zero b) two c) three d) four 49. Number of different amino acids produced by complete hydrolysis Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e

Use the following to answer the questions below: Identify the standard amino acid with each of the characteristics using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) proline b) cysteine c) glycine d) alanine 50. Only standard amino acid that participates in disulfide bonds

Use the following to answer the questions below: Aspartic acid, an acidic amino acid, can have four different forms in solution. These four forms are given in the response list. For each of the conditions or characterizations, select from the response list the form of aspartic acid that will be dominant. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all.

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Chapter 20_7e 52. Form in a solution of pH 1

Use the following to answer the questions below: Identify the standard amino acid with each of the characteristics using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) proline b) cysteine c) glycine d) alanine 55. Only standard amino acid whose side chain does not contain carbon

Use the following to answer the questions below: Identify the standard amino acid with each of the characteristics using the response list. Responses may be used Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e

more than once or need not be used at all. a) proline b) cysteine c) glycine d) alanine 57. Only standard amino acid that is achiral

Use the following to answer the questions below: Use the response list to answer the following questions concerning the pentapeptide Gly–Ala–Gly–Gly–Ala. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) zero b) two c) three d) four 60. Number of possible different dipeptides produced by partial hydrolysis

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Chapter 20_7e

61. Positively-charged form

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Chapter 20_7e

63. Form in which no net charge is present 64. Zwitterion form

Use the following to answer the questions below: Identify the standard amino acid with each of the characteristics using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) proline b) cysteine c) glycine d) alanine 65. Only standard amino acid with a cyclic side chain

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Chapter 20_7e 66. Form in a solution of pH 13

Use the following to answer the questions below: Identify the standard amino acid with each of the characteristics using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) proline b) cysteine c) glycine d) alanine 68. Only standard amino acid with a methyl group attached to its alpha carbon atom

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Chapter 20_7e Answer Key 1. c 2. c 3. c 4. e 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. b 11. a 12. d 13. b 14. d 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. d 21. b 22. b 23. e 24. c 25. b Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e 26. c 27. d 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. d 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. d 40. c 41. a 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. d 48. a 49. b 50. b 51. b Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 20_7e 52. b 53. b 54. d 55. c 56. c 57. c 58. b 59. b 60. c 61. b 62. a 63. c 64. c 65. a 66. a 67. c 68. d

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Chapter 21_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following pairings of terms is correct? a. A kinase is a transferase b. A mutase is a ligase c. A synthase is a lyase d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 2. The major function for B vitamins within the human body is as a. antioxidants b. components of coenzymes c. regulators of cell differentiation d. regulators of calcium ion and phosphate ion concentrations in blood 3. Which of the following would be the name for an enzyme? a. succinate dehydrogenase b. pyruvate c. pepsin d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 4. Which of the following enzyme properties is explained by the lock-and-key model for enzyme action? a. high turnover rate b. absolute specificity c. susceptibility to denaturation d. susceptibility to deactivation 5. Which of the following could be a component of a conjugated enzyme? a. coenzyme b. cofactor c. apoenzyme d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 6. Which of the following statements concerning sources for B vitamins is correct? a. Most fruits are poor sources. b. Most vegetables are good sources. c. Meat and dairy products are good sources. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 21_7e 7. Which of the following statements concerning enzyme active sites is incorrect? a. They generally involve only a small portion of the enzyme. b. Noncompetitive inhibitors can change active site shape. c. The lock-and-key model of enzyme activity assumes that an active site has a fixed, rigid geometrical

conformation. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 8. In which of the following pairs of terms do the two terms have the same meaning? a. holoenzyme and conjugated enzyme b. coenzyme and simple enzyme c. apoenzyme and cofactor d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 9. A plot of enzyme activity (y-axis) versus pH (x-axis) with other variables constant is a a. straight line with an upward slope b. line with an upward slope and a long flat top c. line with an upward slope followed by a downward slope d. straight horizontal line

(1) A substrate is the substance upon which an enzyme “acts.” (2) Competitive enzyme inhibition is a reversible process. (3) Vitamin C is necessary for the formation of the structural protein collagen. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 11. Statements:

(1) The active site of an enzyme always contains one or more metal atoms. (2) The water-soluble vitamins are the B vitamins and vitamins A and C. (3) An enzyme's turnover number is the rate at which it is degraded and resynthesized within the human body. a. All three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 21_7e b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 12. In which of the following pairs of enzymes is the first listed enzyme more limited in its scope than the

second listed enzyme? a. linkage-specific enzyme, absolute-specific enzyme b. stereochemical-specific enzyme, linkage-specific enzyme c. group-specific enzyme, stereochemical-specific enzyme d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 13. The number of known vitamins is a. 10 b. 13 c. 15 d. 20 14. Enzymes have names that a. always end with -ise b. always end with -in c. can end with either -ase or -in d. can end with either -ase or -ogen 15. The protein portion of a conjugated enzyme is called a(n). a. apoenzyme b. coenzyme c. holoenzyme d. cofactor 16. All of the B vitamins, except one, contain heterocyclic nitrogen ring systems as part of their structure. The

exception is a. riboflavin b. thiamin c. pantothenic acid d. biotin Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 17. Statements:

(1) The primary function of vitamin D in the body is that of an antioxidant. (2) Holoenzymes are conjugated enzymes. (3) An increase in enzyme activity is always associated with an increase in the temperature of an enzymecontaining system. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 18. The number of substrate molecules acted upon per minute by one molecule of enzyme is called the a. active site number b. enzyme activity number c. turnover number d. optimum number

(1) An apoenzyme, by itself, has no biochemical activity. (2) Urease is an example of an enzyme with absolute specificity. (3) All enzymes have names that end in -ase. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 20. A plot of enzyme activity (y-axis) versus substrate concentration (x-axis) with other variables constant is a a. straight line with an upward slope b. line with an upward slope and a long flat top c. line with an upward slope followed by a downward slope d. straight horizontal line 21. Which of the following binds to an enzyme at a location other than the active site? a. substrate Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 21_7e b. irreversible inhibitor c. reversible competitive inhibitor d. reversible noncompetitive inhibitor

(1) The process of enzymatic browning requires the presence of oxygen. (2) The mode of action of penicillin drugs is selective competitive reversible inhibition. (3) Bergamottin exerts its effect on enzymes by a process called suicide inactivation. a. all three statements are true b. two of the three statements are true c. only one of the statements is true d. none of the statements are true 23. In which of the following pairs of vitamins are both members of the pair water-soluble? a. vitamin E and thiamin b. vitamin A and vitamin K c. vitamin E and vitamin B6 d. niacin and pantothenic acid

(1) Activation of a zymogen produces a proteolytic enzyme. (2) An enzyme-substrate complex is the final product in most enzyme-catalyzed reactions. (3) Three forms of vitamin A are active in the human body. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 21_7e 25. Statements:

(1) The enzyme lactase catalyzes the hydrolysis of lactose. (2) The spent form of vitamin E is regenerated by vitamin C. (3) All coenzymes are cofactors but not all cofactors are coenzymes. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 26. Which of the following statements concerning a competitive enzyme inhibitor is correct? a. It resembles the substrate in charge distribution. b. It forms a strong covalent bond to an amino acid side-chain group at a site other than the active site. c. Its effect is never reversible. d. Its effect can be overcome by increasing the inhibitor concentration. 27. In which of the following is the pairing between enzyme type and enzyme function incorrect? a. carbohydrases - hydrolysis of glycosidic bonds in carbohydrates b. oxidase - oxidation of a substrate c. mutase - conversion of one structural isomer into another d. dehydrogenase - removal of water from substrate

(1) Enzymes undergo all of the reactions of proteins including denaturation. (2) Vitamin E, a cholesterol derivative, can be synthesized in the skin by sunlight irradiation. (3) The optimum pH for enzyme activity within the human body is always within the physiological pH range of 7.0 to 7.5. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 29. Statements:

(1) The B vitamins serve as precursors for enzyme cofactors. (2) Associated with allosteric enzyme action are substances known as regulators. (3) Kinases belong to the class of enzymes called isomerases. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 21_7e a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 30. Which of the following B vitamins has a structure in which a metal atom is present? a. folate b. biotin c. vitamin B12 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 31. Which of the following statements about a competitive inhibitor is correct? a. It must resemble the substrate in general shape. b. Its effect can be diminished by increasing substrate concentration. c. It simultaneously occupies the active site along with the normal substrate. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 32. Which of the following pairings of vitamins and functions is correct? a. vitamin E; an antioxidant b. vitamin C; a coenzyme c. vitamin D; maintenance of mucous membranes d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 33. Which of the following is not a water-soluble vitamin? a. vitamin C b. vitamin A c. vitamin D d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 34. An enzyme active site is the location in an enzyme where substrate molecules a. are made unreactive b. become catalysts c. undergo change d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 35. An enzyme that catalyzes the oxidation of only one kind of alcohol would be described as showing Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 21_7e a. group specificity b. stereochemical specificity c. linkage specificity d. absolute specificity 36. The final product of a series of enzyme-catalyzed reactions causes the enzyme that catalyzes the first

reaction of the series to be inhibited. This is an example of a. positive regulator control b. substrate control c. feedback control d. competitive control 37. Which of the following binds to an enzyme at its active site? a. irreversible inhibitor b. reversible competitive inhibitor c. reversible noncompetitive inhibitor d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 38. Which of the following substance is a zymogen? a. angiotensin b. pepsin c. pepsinogen d. elastase 39. An enzyme active site is the location in the enzyme where: a. The actual catalysis occurs. b. The side groups of the protein interact with the catalyst. c. The catalyst creates the substrate molecules. d. The substrate molecules are created. 40. Which of the following statements concerning the effect of temperature change on an enzyme-catalyzed

reaction is incorrect? a. An increase in temperature can stop the reaction by denaturing the enzyme. b. An increase in temperature can increase the reaction rate by increasing the speed at which molecules move. c. An increase in temperature to the optimum temperature maximizes reaction rate. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 41. Which of the following is always present in both conjugated enzymes and simple enzymes? a. protein Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 21_7e b. a vitamin c. a cofactor d. a coenzyme

(1) All of the B vitamins are water-soluble. (2) The induced-fit model for enzyme action allows for small changes in active-site geometry. (3) Noncompetitive enzyme inhibitors bind to an enzyme at sites other than the active site. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 43. In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair zymogens? a. pepsin and pepsinogen b. proelastase and elastase c. prothrombin and pepsinogen d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 44. What is the function of enzymes within living systems? a. structural elements b. neurotransmitters c. catalysts d. hormones 45. Vitamins C and E are important, respectively, in a. bone formation and antioxidant activity b. bone formation and proper use of calcium and phosphorus c. vision and blood clotting d. vision and proper use of calcium and phosphorus

Enter the appropriate value to answer the question or solve the problem. Use the following to answer the questions below: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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For each of the descriptions of a vitamin, select from the response list the name of the vitamin. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) vitamin D b) vitamin C c) vitamin K d) vitamin B12 46. Structural derivative of cholesterol 47. Cosubstrate in the formation of the structural protein collagen

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the descriptions of “enzyme action,” choose from the response list the type of inhibitor or regulator that is involved. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) reversible competitive inhibitor b) reversible noncompetitive inhibitor c) irreversible inhibitor d) positive regulator 48. Mode of action of penicillins

Use the following to answer the questions below: Below are descriptions of the variables needed to plot a graph on which enzyme activity is the y-axis. For each description choose from the response list the “shape” of the resulting graph. Choices may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) line with an upward slope b) line with a downward slope c) line with an upward slope and a long flat top d) line with an upward slope followed by a downward slope 49. Increase in pH with all other variables constant

Use the following to answer the questions below: Match each of the enzyme descriptions with an appropriate characterization from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) component of all conjugated enzymes b) component of some conjugated enzymes c) has both protein and nonprotein parts d) inactive precursor of an enzyme 50. Apoenzyme

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the descriptions of “enzyme action,” choose from the response list the type of inhibitor or regulator Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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that is involved. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) reversible competitive inhibitor b) reversible noncompetitive inhibitor c) irreversible inhibitor d) positive regulator 51. Decreases enzyme activity by binding at a site other than the active site

Use the following to answer the questions below: Below are descriptions of the variables needed to plot a graph on which enzyme activity is the y-axis. For each description choose from the response list the “shape” of the resulting graph. Choices may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) line with an upward slope b) line with a downward slope c) line with an upward slope and a long flat top d) line with an upward slope followed by a downward slope 52. Increase in substrate concentration with all other variables constant

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the descriptions of a vitamin, select from the response list the name of the vitamin. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) vitamin D b) vitamin C c) vitamin K d) vitamin B12 53. Structure contains a cobalt atom

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the enzyme actions, choose the general enzyme type from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) lyase b) isomerase c) transferase Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 21_7e

d) oxidoreductase 55. Transfer of an amino group between substrates 56. Introduction of a double bond by removal of hydrogen from a substrate

Use the following to answer the questions below: Below are descriptions of the variables needed to plot a graph on which enzyme activity is the y-axis. For each description choose from the response list the “shape” of the resulting graph. Choices may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) line with an upward slope b) line with a downward slope c) line with an upward slope and a long flat top d) line with an upward slope followed by a downward slope 57. Increase in temperature up to the optimum temperature with all other variables constant 58. Increase in enzyme concentration with all other variables constant 59. Increase in temperature beginning at the optimum temperature with all other variables constant

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Chapter 21_7e

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Chapter 21_7e

a) reversible competitive inhibitor b) reversible noncompetitive inhibitor c) irreversible inhibitor d) positive regulator 69. Mode of action of nerve gases

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Chapter 21_7e Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. d 7. e 8. a 9. c 10. a 11. d 12. b 13. b 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. b 21. d 22. b 23. d 24. b 25. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 21_7e 26. a 27. d 28. c 29. b 30. c 31. d 32. a 33. d 34. c 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. c 39. a 40. e 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. a 51. b Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 21_7e 52. c 53. d 54. c 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. a 61. d 62. c 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. c 67. c 68. b 69. c 70. b

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Chapter 22_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules in that they a. are single stranded rather than double stranded b. contain four different bases instead of three c. have a greater polarity d. contain 2-dexoyribose rather than 2-deoxyglucose 2. In which of the following pairs of nucleic acid bases are both members of the pair “single ring” bases? a. A and C b. G and T c. T and U d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 3. Which of the following statements concerning codons is incorrect? a. They are found within mRNA molecules. b. They are sequences of three nucleotides. c. There are 64 of them. d. They are short segments of a gene.

(1) Nucleotides are related to nucleic acids in the same way that amino acids are related to proteins. (2) Associated with the structure of tRNA molecules are “hairpin loops.” (3) The bases A, G, and U are found in both DNA and RNA molecules. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 5. Statements:

(1) In general, RNA molecules are much smaller than DNA molecules. (2) Recombinant DNA molecules contain DNA segments from two different organisms. (3) In DNA replication, the action of the enzyme DNA helicase causes the DNA double helix to unwind. a. All three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 6. Statements:

(1) The acronym PCR stands for protein condensation reaction. (2) A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides in an mRNA molecule that codes for a specific amino acid. (3) Most of the mass of a chromosome is protein material rather than DNA. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 7. Statements:

(1) In nucleotide formation, the base always attaches to the sugar at the sugar's C-1' position. (2) The genetic code is based on the concept that a single codon exists for each of the 20 standard amino acids. (3) Codons are found in tRNA molecules and anticodons are found in mRNA molecules. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 8. Which of the following types of RNA has a “cloverleaf shape” with three hairpin loops? a. mRNA b. rRNA c. hnRNA d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 9. Which of the following statements concerning the codons of the genetic code is correct? a. The total number of codons is 48. b. All codons are specific for a particular amino acid. c. Codons that specify the same amino acid are called polysomes. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 10. The role of E. coli plasmids in recombinant DNA work is to a. splice DNA strands together to form circular DNA molecules b. cleave double-stranded DNA molecules c. provide the restriction enzymes needed for repairing defective DNA d. serve as a host for a “foreign” gene Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e 11. Which of the following statements concerning tRNA molecules is incorrect? a. They are carriers of the amino acids needed for protein synthesis. b. They have a “cloverleaf” shape with four hairpin loops. c. They interact with mRNA at the site of protein synthesis. d. An anticodon is present within their structure. 12. In which of the following sets of nucleic acid “building blocks” are all members of the set possible

components of a DNA molecule? a. phosphate, ribose, and thymine b. adenine, ribose, and 2-deoxyribose c. cytosine, guanine, and uracil d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 13. Which of the following statements concerning the double helix structure present in DNA molecules is

correct? a. The two nucleotide strands are mirror images of each other. b. Hydrogen bonds between sugar units hold the two nucleotide strands together. c. Base pairing between strands always involves one pyrimidine base and one purine base. d. Base pairing combinations are always A-G and C-T. 14. The number of structural subunits present in a nucleoside and a nucleotide are, respectively a. two and two b. three and three c. two and three

d. three and four

15. The number of different kinds of nucleotides present in any RNA molecule is a. four b. five c. six d. two

(1) The complementary base-pair sequence for the DNA strand 5' ACGTAT 3' is 3' TGCATA 5'. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e

(2) The only difference between DNA and RNA molecules is the identity of the sugar unit present in their nucleotides. (3) Both strands of a daughter DNA molecule are formed through the linking of previously formed Okazaki fragments. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 17. Which of the following is not necessary for protein synthesis at the time and place where synthesis occurs? a. mRNA b. tRNA c. ribosomes d. DNA 18. Associated with the process of DNA transcription is the formation of a. two DNA molecules from one DNA molecule and amino acids b. one DNA molecule from a number of shorter RNA molecules c. an mRNA molecule that is then “edited” to form an mRNA molecule d. an mRNA molecule that contains several genes 19. The “backbone” of a nucleic acid molecule consists of an alternating sequence of a. sugar and phosphate groups b. sugar and base groups c. phosphate and base groups d. sugar, phosphate, and base groups 20. In DNA replication the unwinding of the double helix a. begins at the 5' end and continues to the 3' end b. begins at the 3' end and continues to the 5' end c. occurs at a single point along the length of the double helix d. is governed by the enzyme DNA ligase 21. Any given nucleotide in a nucleic acid contains a. two bases and a sugar b. one sugar, two bases, and one phosphate c. two sugars and one phosphate d. one sugar, one base, and one phosphate 22. Which of the following enzymes associated with DNA replication is paired with its correct function? a. DNA helicase; unwinding of the DNA helix b. DNA polymerase; formation of phosphodiester linkages Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e c. DNA ligase; connection of Okazaki fragments d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 23. Which of the following events occurs during the transcription phase of protein synthesis? a. A partial unwinding of a DNA double helix occurs. b. hnRNA is edited and becomes snRNA. c. tRNAs carry amino acids to the site for protein synthesis. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

(1) The variable portion of a nucleic acid molecule is the sequence of bases attached to the nucleic acid “backbone.” (2) A polysome is a complex containing several mRNA molecules that simultaneously participate in protein synthesis. (3) T, A, and G are all fused-ring nucleotide bases. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 25. Statements:

(1) Ribosomes, which contain rRNA, serve as sites for protein synthesis. (2) In genetic engineering, one of the functions of restriction enzymes is to cleave the double-stranded DNA of a circular plasmid. (3) The nucleotide units within a nucleic acid are linked to each other through sugar-base bonds. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 26. In DNA replication the two strands of the double helix separate, and each strand a. serves as a template for the construction of its own complement b. forms an exact duplicate of itself Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e c. serves as a site for the formation of Okazaki fragments, which are then connected together to give the

new DNA molecule d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 27. Statements:

(1) DNA nucleotides contain three subunits, and RNA nucleotides contain four subunits. (2) Complementary base pairing in DNA involves the base combinations (A and T) and (G and C). (3) The interaction between anticodon and codon governs the proper placement of amino acids in a protein. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 28. Replication of DNA produces two daughter DNA molecules in which: a. One daughter molecule contains both parent strands and one daughter molecule contains both newly

synthesized strands. b. Each daughter molecule contains one parent strand and one newly synthesized strand. c. Each daughter molecule contains two newly synthesized strands. d. each daughter molecule contains a segment of both parent strands. 29. Which of the following is a correct structural characteristic of a nucleotide? a. The base unit is bonded to the phosphate unit. b. The phosphate unit is bonded to the sugar unit. c. The sugar unit is bonded to the base unit. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 30. Which one of the following types of RNA molecules contains exons and introns? a. mRNA b. tRNA c. hnRNA d. snRNA 31. Which of the following is a correct base pairing sequence between a codon and anticodon? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e a.

b. c. d.

32. Which of the following statements concerning genes and chromosomes is correct? a. A gene is a segment of a DNA molecule that contains instructions for the synthesis of one or more

proteins. b. A chromosome contains several DNA molecules bound to protein. c. Genes directly interact with amino acids during protein synthesis. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 33. Which of the following is a valid set of mRNA codons? a. GGG, CCC and AAA b. GGC, GGT and GGU c. GAC, ACG and ACT d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 34. Which of the following events occurs during the translation phase of protein synthesis? a. mRNA interacts with a chromosome. b. Codon-anticodon base pairing occurs. c. rRNAs carry amino acids to the site for protein synthesis. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 35. 35 percent of the bases in a certain DNA molecule are found to be A. What percent of the bases in this same

molecule are G? a. 15 percent b. 30 percent c. 35 percent d. 70 percent 36. Which of the following sets of base composition data is consistent with the double helix nature of DNA

molecules? Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e a. 35% T and 15% C b. 35% A and 35% G c. 15% C and 15% G d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 37. Which of the following changes is associated with the post-translation processing of a protein? a. Protein folding is completed. b. Disulfide bridges are often formed. c. The Met residue that initiated protein synthesis is removed. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 38. Which of the following types of RNA is paired with a correct piece of information about that type of RNA? a. tRNA; contains exons b. mRNA; contains codons c. rRNA; contains anticodons d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 39. The genetic code is a listing that gives relationships between codons and a. anticodons b. amino acids c. exons d. genes 40. In a dinucleotide the phosphate linkage between nucleotide units involves a. carbon 3' of a sugar b. carbon 5' of a sugar c. both carbons 2' and 3' of a sugar d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 41. The region of a DNA strand carrying the information needed for synthesis of a specific protein is called a a. codon b. chromosome c. gene d. complementary base pair 42. Which of the following are the three “single ring” bases that occur in nucleic acids? a. adenine, guanine, and uracil Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e b. adenine, cytosine, and uracil c. cytosine, thymine, and uracil d. cytosine, guanine, and thymine

(1) Several drugs containing synthetically modified nucleic acid bases block DNA synthesis as a means of blocking cancer cell replication. (2) The mode of action for some antibiotics is inhibition of protein synthesis within bacteria. (3) Antimetabolites are drugs that are DNA-replication inhibitors. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 44. Which of the following statements concerning ribosomes is incorrect? a. By mass, ribosomes are mostly protein. b. A ribosome's active site is located in its large subunit. c. mRNA binds to a ribosome's smaller subunit. d. rRNA molecules are predominant at a ribosome's active site.

(1) The type of DNA that contains exons and introns is rRNA. (2) A “free” phosphate group is associated with the 5' end of a nucleic acid. (3) AMP and dAMP nucleotides differ in the sugar subunit that is present. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e d. None of the statements are true.

Enter the appropriate value to answer the question or solve the problem. Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the nucleic acid situations, select the process with which it is associated using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) translation phase of protein synthesis b) transcription phase of protein synthesis c) replication of DNA d) post-transcription phase of protein synthesis 46. Okazaki fragments are formed.

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the base-pairing situations, select a correct possible base-pairing sequence from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all.

47. Base pairing between a DNA and RNA segment

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the di- or tri-nucleotides, select a correct characterization from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) found in DNA but not RNA b) found in RNA but not DNA c) found in both DNA and RNA d) not found in DNA nor RNA 48. 5' dAMP–dAMP 3'

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Chapter 22_7e

49. Base pairing between a codon and anticodon 50. Base pairing between two RNA segments

Use the following to answer the questions below: Match the RNA-related items with the various types of RNA given in the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) mRNA b) hnRNA c) rRNA d) tRNA 51. Anticodon

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the heterocyclic bases, choose a correct characterization from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) base found only in DNA b) base found only in RNA c) “single ring” base found in both DNA and RNA d) “double ring” base 52. Cytosine 53. Thymine

Use the following to answer the questions below: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e

For each of the base-pairing situations, select a correct possible base-pairing sequence from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all.

55. Base pairing between two DNA segments

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the nucleic acid situations, select the process with which it is associated using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) translation phase of protein synthesis b) transcription phase of protein synthesis c) replication of DNA d) post-transcription phase of protein synthesis 58. Partial unwinding of a DNA molecule occurs.

Use the following to answer the questions below: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e

Match the RNA-related items with the various types of RNA given in the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) mRNA b) hnRNA c) rRNA d) tRNA 59. Intron

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Chapter 22_7e

64. Base pairing between an Okazaki fragment and a DNA segment

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Chapter 22_7e 70. 5' TCA 3'

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Chapter 22_7e Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. e 9. e 10. d 11. b 12. e 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. a 21. d 22. d 23. a 24. c 25. b Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e 26. a 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. d 37. d 38. b 39. b 40. d 41. c 42. c 43. a 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. a 49. c 50. c 51. d Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 22_7e 52. c 53. a 54. d 55. b 56. d 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. d 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. b 65. d 66. d 67. a 68. b 69. c 70. a

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Chapter 23_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In which of the following pairs of metabolic carboxylate ions are both members of the pair derivatives of

succinic acid? a. malate, fumarate b. oxaloacetate, citrate c. fumarate, α-ketoglutarate d. α-ketoglutarate, citrate 2. How many ATP molecules result from the "processing" of 10 acetyl CoA molecule through the common

metabolic pathway? a. 20 b. 80 c. 100 d. 240 3. Which of the following statements about mitochondria is correct? a. The outer membrane of mitochondria is not permeable to any molecules. b. The interior region of a mitochondrion is the intermembrane space. c. The folds of the outer membrane are called cristae. d. Mitochondria are located within the cellular cytosol. 4. Which of the following electron carriers is not part of a membrane-bound protein complex in the electron

transport chain? a. FeSP b. CoQ c. cyt c1 d. cyt a3 5. Which of the following citric acid cycle intermediates is decarboxylated during the operation of the cycle? a. oxaloacetate b. isocitrate c. succinate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 6. The correct notation for the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide is a. NAD+ b. NAD c. NADH d. NADH2 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 23_7e

Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 7. Statements:

(1) In the last step of the ETC, molecular oxygen is converted to water. (2) The B vitamin portion of the structure of coenzyme A, which involves riboflavin, is the reactive site in the molecule. (3) All of the reactions of the CAC take place in the mitochondrial matrix. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 8. At which protein complex site in the electron transport chain does proton pumping occur? a. protein complex I b. protein complex II c. protein complex III d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) Both ribosomes and mitochondria are examples of organelles. (2) Cytochromes are heme-containing proteins that can undergo reversible oxidation and reduction. (3) The electrons that pass through the various steps of the ETC lose some energy with each transfer along the chain. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 23_7e 10. Statements:

(1) Some, but not all, protein complex sites associated with the ETC serve as proton pumps. (2) The rate at which the CAC operates is controlled by the body's need for ATP. (3) Anabolic reactions usually require energy input in order to proceed. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 11. The “fuel” for the citric acid cycle is a. acetyl CoA b. citric acid c. citrate ion d. oxaloacetate ion 12. At which step in the electron transport chain does O2 participate? a. first step b. second step c. next to last step d. last step 13. Which of the following carriers transports electrons from protein complex I to protein complex III during

operation of the electron transport chain? a. cyt a3 b. cyt c1 c. FMN d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 14. Which of the following is a correct general description of the reaction that occurs in the first step of the citric

acid cycle? a. C2 + C4 → C6 b. C3 + C3 → C6 c. C2 + C2 + C2 → C6 d. C4 + C4 → C6 + C2 15. Which of the following citric acid intermediates is not a C4 species? a. malate b. succinate c. isocitrate

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Chapter 23_7e d. fumarate 16. In which of the following listings of citric acid cycle intermediates are the compounds listed in the order in

which they are encountered in a turn of the cycle? a. citrate, oxaloacetate, fumarate b. isocitrate, succinyl CoA, oxaloacetate c. fumarate, malate, alpha-ketoglutarate d. oxaloacetate, succinate, citrate Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 17. Statements:

(1) Two ribose subunits are present in the coenzyme flavin adenine dinucleotide. (2) In the common metabolic pathway, 10 molecules of ATP are produced per acetyl CoA catabolized. (3) The purpose of step 2 in the CAC is to convert a secondary alcohol to a tertiary alcohol. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 18. Which of the following statements concerning citric acid cycle reactions is correct? a. Two secondary alcohol oxidations occur. b. Water adds to a carbon-carbon double bond once. c. Two phosphorylation reactions occur. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

(1) High-energy phosphate compounds contain one or more strained bonds that release above-average amounts of energy when broken. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 23_7e

(2) In the ETC, NADH is oxidized to NAD+. (3) The “fuel” for the CAC is acetyl CoA. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 20. Which of the following substances does not contain a B vitamin as a structural subunit? a. flavin adenine dinucleotide b. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide c. coenzyme A d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 21. Which of the following substances contains three or more high energy phosphate bonds? a. ATP b. ADP c. AMP d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) The CO2 molecules produced in the citric acid cycle are the CO2 molecules we exhale in the process of respiration. (2) The oxidized form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide is NAD+ and the reduced form is NADH2. (3) During ETC operation, a buildup of protons occurs on the matrix side of the inner mitochondrial membrane. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 23. The number of membrane-bound protein complexes associated with the electron transport chain is a. one b. two Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 23_7e c. three d. four 24. Which of the following sequence of electron carriers is associated with the electron transport chain reactions

that occur at protein complex I? a. CoQ, FeSP, cyt b, cyt c b. NADH, FMN, FeSP, CoQ c. cyt c, cyt a, cyt a3 d. FADH2, FeSP, CoQ Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 25. Statements:

(1) In the first step of the CAC, a C2 molecule and a C4 molecule combine to produce a C6 molecule. (2) ATP, ADP, and AMP differ from each other in the number of adenine subunits present. (3) The process by which ATP is produced during the operation of the ETC is called oxidative phosphorylation. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 26. Which of the following is a correct letter designation for the reduced form of a coenzyme? a. NAD+ b. FADH2 c. NADH2 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 27. In which two steps of the citric acid cycle are molecules of carbon dioxide produced? a. steps two and five b. steps three and five c. steps three and four d. steps four and six 28. The missing structural subunit in the following diagram for flavin adenine dinucleotide is Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 23_7e

a. phosphate b. ribose c. ribitol d. deoxyribose 29. Which of the following is a correct skeletal equation for a hydrolysis reaction involving adenosine

phosphates? a. ATP → ADP + 2Pi b. ADP → AMP + 2Pi c. ATP → AMP + PPi d. ATP → ADP + PPi Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 30. Statements:

(1) FADH2 is the oxidized form of the coenzyme flavin adenine dinucleotide. (2) All of the electron carriers of the ETC contain iron, and one of them also contains copper. (3) One turn of the CAC generates two CO2 molecules, two NADH molecules, and two FAD2 molecules. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 31. Oxidative phosphorylation is the process in which ATP is synthesized a. from ATP synthase b. from ADP c. using energy from the dissipation of a “proton gradient” d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 32. Which of the following substances is both a reactant and a product in the operation of the electron transport Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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chain? a. O2 b. FADH2 c. CoQ d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) Inhibition of the ETC is the mechanism by which cyanide exerts its deadly effect. (2) Brown fat cells contain the uncoupling agent thermogenin, a protein that creates a proton channel through the outer mitochondrial membrane. (3) One of the body's mechanisms for adaptation to cold is the production of brown fat tissue. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 34. In a mitochondrion: a. The inner membrane separates the matrix from the intermembrane space. b. The inner membrane is more permeable than the outer membrane. c. ATP-synthase complexes are found on the folds of the outer membrane. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 35. In which of the following citric acid cycle reactions does the coenzyme FAD participate? a. citrate → isocitrate b. succinate → fumarate c. malate → oxaloacetate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 36. Which of the following are products of the citric acid cycle? a. acetyl CoA and NAD+ b. acetyl CoA and CO2 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 23_7e c. CO2 and NADH d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 37. Which of the following carry electrons from the citric acid cycle to the electron carriers of the electron

transport chain? a. CoA b. NAD+ c. FADH2 d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 38. Which of the following substances has two unsubstituted ribose molecules as structural subunits? a. FADH2 b. NAD+ c. CoA d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 39. ATP synthesis via oxidative phosphorylation depends on the passage of which of the following species

through membrane-bound ATP synthase? a. NADH b. FADH2 c. H+ d. NAD+ 40. How many moles of ATP result from the entry of 2 moles of FADH2 into the electron transport chain? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 41. How many NADH and FADH2 molecules are produced, respectively, during one turn of the citric acid

cycle? a. two, two b. three, one c. one, three d. two, three

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Chapter 23_7e

In each of the following multiple-choice questions characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 42. Statements:

(1) Mitochondria contain a multifolded outer membrane and an inner membrane. (2) Two of the electron carriers of the ETC transport chain are “mobile,” moving between protein complex sites. + (3) The NADH and FAD2 formed during the CAC carry electrons and H ions to the ETC. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 43. Which of the following citric acid cycle intermediates is a C4 species? a. fumarate b. citrate c. malate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 44. Which of the following diagrams gives the correct identities and arrangement of the structural subunits in

coenzyme A?

a. A b. B c. C d. D 45. Which of the following statements about metabolism is correct? a. Metabolism is the sum total of all the biochemical reactions that take place in a living organism. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 23_7e b. Anabolic reaction sequences usually produce energy. c. A metabolic pathway may only be cyclic in which a series of reaction regenerates the first reactant. d. The process of polysaccharide digestion is an anabolic process.

Enter the appropriate value to answer the question or solve the problem. Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the ETC electron carrier characterizations, select the electron carrier's name using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) CoQ b) cyt a3 c) FMN d) FeSP 46. Interacts with molecular O2

Use the following to answer the questions below: Characterize each of the citric acid cycle reactions as to type of reaction using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) oxidation of a 2° alcohol b) oxidation with FAD as the oxidizing agent c) hydration reaction d) hydrolysis reaction 47. Succinate → fumarate

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the molecular structural characteristics, select the correct molecule from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) ATP b) CoA c) FAD d) NAD+ 48. Does not contain a B vitamin as part of its structure

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the ETC electron carriers, select the number of ETC protein complexes with which it is associated using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) one protein complex b) two protein complexes c) three protein complexes d) four protein complexes Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 23_7e 49. CoQ

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the citric acid cycle reactions, select the type of molecules involved (in terms of number of carbon atoms present) using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) C6 → C6 b) C6 → C5 c) C5 → C4 d) C4 → C4 50. Malate → oxaloacetate

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the ETC electron carrier characterizations, select the electron carrier's name using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) CoQ b) cyt a3 c) FMN d) FeSP 51. Contains Fe and Cu 52. Interacts with FADH2

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Chapter 23_7e 54. Contains Fe but not Cu

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Chapter 23_7e

Characterize each of the citric acid cycle reactions as to type of reaction using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) oxidation of a 2° alcohol b) oxidation with FAD as the oxidizing agent c) hydration reaction d) hydrolysis reaction 59. Succinyl CoA → succinate

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b) c) d)

oxidation with FAD as the oxidizing agent hydration reaction hydrolysis reaction

63. Isocitrate → α-ketoglutarate

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Chapter 23_7e 67. Contains a ribitol subunit 68. Reactive site in the molecule is a –SH group

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Chapter 23_7e Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. d 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. e 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. c 18. d 19. a 20. e 21. a 22. c 23. d 24. b 25. b Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 23_7e 26. b 27. c 28. c 29. c 30. d 31. d 32. c 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. b 41. b 42. b 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. b 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. d Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 23_7e 51. b 52. d 53. b 54. d 55. a 56. b 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. d 61. b 62. a 63. a 64. b 65. d 66. c 67. c 68. b 69. a 70. a

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Chapter 24_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following C6 stage glycolysis intermediates is paired with the correct type of enzyme needed for

its production? a. glucose 6-phosphate; kinase b. fructose 6-phosphate; dehydrogenase c. fructose 1,6-bisphosphate; mutase d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following multiple-choice questions, characterize EACH of the three given statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status of the statements using the choices. a) All three statements are true. b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 2. Statements:

(1) Gluconeogenesis is a process through which glucose can be synthesized from noncarbohydrate materials. (2) The process of glycolysis takes place in the cytosol of a cell. (3) Insulin's function is to increase blood glucose levels by speeding up the conversion of glycogen to glucose. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 3. Which of the following substances are participants in the reactions encompassed by the Cori cycle? a. pyruvate and acetyl CoA b. pyruvate and lactate c. lactate and acetyl CoA d. pyruvate, lactate and acetyl CoA

(1) The first step of glycolysis involves the phosphorylation of glucose to produce glucose 1-phosphate. (2) The processing of one glucose molecule via glycolysis produces two acetyl CoA molecules and two carbon Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 24_7e

dioxide molecules. (3) The majority of ATP molecules produced during the complete oxidation of glucose form during the glycolysis phase of oxidation. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 5. The primary site within the human body where carbohydrate digestion occurs is the a. mouth b. stomach c. small intestine d. membranes of intestinal mucosal cells 6. The regeneration of NAD+ from NADH occurs during the conversion of pyruvate to a. lactate b. ethanol c. acetyl CoA d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 7. In two of the first three steps of glycolysis: a. Phosphorylation reactions occur. b. Isomerization reactions occur. c. ATP is converted to ADP. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 8. Accumulation of which of the following substances is the cause of stiff and sore muscles after vigorous

exercise? a. lactate b. pyruvate c. acetyl CoA d. glycerate 9. The compound glucose 1-phosphate is encountered in which of the following processes? a. glycogenesis and glycogenolysis b. glycolysis and gluconeogenesis c. glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis d. more than one correct response e. no correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 24_7e 10. Which of the following hormones increases blood glucose levels? a. insulin and glucagon b. insulin and epinephrine c. glucagon and epinephrine d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 11. Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is incorrect? a. It is an oxidation process in which no molecular oxygen is used. b. All reactions take place in the cytosol of a cell. c. There are two stages, each of which involves a series of five reactions. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

(1) All intermediates in the C3 stage of glycolysis are phosphorylated derivatives of either glycerol or acetone. (2) The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth, continues in the stomach, and is completed in the small intestine. (3) The storage form for excess glucose in the body is glycogen produced by glycogenesis. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 13. In which of the following processes is glucose 6-phosphate the end product? a. glycogenesis b. glycogenolysis c. glycolysis d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 14. How many steps in the glycolysis pathway have a C3 molecule as the reactant? a. two b. four Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 24_7e c. six d. eight 15. The first two intermediates in the process of glycolysis are, respectively, a. glucose 6-phosphate and glucose 1-phosphate b. glucose 1-phosphate and glucose 6-phosphate c. glucose 6-phosphate and fructose 6-phosphate d. glucose 1-phosphate and fructose 1-phosphate 16. Which of the following statements concerning the pentose phosphate pathway is incorrect? a. it is an alternate pathway to glycolysis for the degradation of glucose b. the coenzyme NADH is a major product of this pathway c. pentose derivatives needed for the production of nucleic acids are products of this pathway d. glucose 6-phosphate is converted to ribulose 5-phosphate in the first stage of this pathway 17. How many glycolysis intermediates are molecules that contain one or more phosphate groups? a. two b. four c. six d. nine 18. The compound oxaloacetate is an intermediate in the conversion of a. glycogen to glucose b. pyruvate to glucose c. pyruvate to acetyl CoA d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) The three major monosaccharide products from carbohydrate digestion are glucose, galactose, and ribose. (2) In glycolysis, two ATP molecules are consumed and four ATP molecules are produced. (3) The Cori cycle is a process in which glucose is converted to pyruvate, which is then converted back to glucose. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 24_7e c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 20. Which of the following is a product of the first stage of the pentose phosphate pathway? a. carbon dioxide b. a phosphorylated version of the coenzyme NADH c. ribose 5-phosphate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 21. In which of the following steps of glycolysis does substrate-level phosphorylation occur? a. production of phosphoenolpyruvate b. production of pyruvate c. production of 2-phosphoglycerate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 22. Which of the following intermediates is not involved in glycolysis but is in gluconeogenesis? a. fructose 6-phosphate b. pyruvate c. oxaloacetate d. acetyl CoA 23. Which of the following C3 stage glycolysis intermediates undergoes an isomerization reaction? a. dihydroxyacetone phosphate b. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate c. 3-phosphoglycerate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 24. Which of the following conversions is accomplished by the process of glycolysis? a. glucose to glycogen b. glucose to pyruvate c. starch to glucose d. pyruvate to glucose 25. The compound glucose 6-phosphate is not encountered in which of the following processes? a. conversion of pyruvate to glucose b. conversion to glucose to pyruvate c. conversion of glycogen to glucose d. more than one correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 24_7e e. no correct response

(1) Glycogenesis and glycolysis are “opposite” processes. (2) The focal point for carbohydrate metabolism is the molecule glucose. (3) Production of 30 ATP molecules accompanies the complete oxidation of a glucose molecule. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 27. Which of the following is a reactant in the first step of gluconeogenesis? a. carbon dioxide b. GTP c. glucose d. phosphoenolpyruvate 28. The name of the process in which glucose 6-phosphate is converted to glycogen is a. gluconeogenesis b. glycogenesis c. glycogenolysis d. glycolysis 29. Adding 10 glucose units to a growing glycogen chain a. requires the investment of 20 ATP molecules b. results in the production of 10 ATP molecules c. requires 10 times as many triphosphate molecules d. requires NAD+ as an oxidizing agent 30. Carbon dioxide is a product when pyruvate is converted to a. lactate b. ethanol c. acetyl CoA d. more than one correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 24_7e e. no correct response 31. The transition from the C6 stage of glycolysis to the C3 stage involves the conversion of the molecule

fructose 1,6-bisphosphate into the C3 species a. dihydroxyacetone and glyceraldehyde b. dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate c. glyceraldehyde and 3-phosphoglycerate d. 3-phosphoglycerate and 2-phosphoglycerate 32. How many total steps are there in the process of glycolysis? a. six b. eight c. ten d. twelve 33. The net yield of ATP from the complete oxidation of 3 molecules of glucose is a. 36 b. 72 c. 90 d. 108 34. Glycogen is converted to glucose in which of the following processes? a. gluconeogenesis b. glycogenesis c. glycogenolysis d. glycolysis 35. In the human body, under aerobic conditions and anaerobic conditions, respectively, pyruvate is converted

to a. lactate and ethanol b. lactate and acetyl CoA c. ethanol and lactate d. acetyl CoA and lactate

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Chapter 24_7e 36. Statements:

(1) Absorption of monosaccharides through the intestinal wall into the bloodstream involves passive transport. (2) In the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA, a carbon dioxide molecule is produced. (3) Glucose degradation occurs in both glycolysis and the pentose phosphate pathway. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 37. Statements:

(1) Glucose 1-phosphate is an intermediate in both glycogenesis and glycogenolysis. (2) Conversion of ATP to ADP occurs in both steps one and three of glycolysis. (3) In the oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway, a hexose phosphate is converted to a pentose phosphate and carbon dioxide. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 38. Statements:

(1) Lactate accumulation is the cause of muscle pain and cramping during prolonged, strenuous exercise. (2) Lactate production during exercise lowers blood pH, which triggers faster breathing. (3) The effects of both type 1 and type 2 diabetes are the same: inadequate glucose uptake by cells. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 39. The net yield of ATP when 18 glucose molecules are metabolized during the process of glycolysis is a. 36 b. 72 c. 144 d. 216 40. Which of the following hormones promotes the uptake and use of glucose by cells? a. insulin b. glucagon c. epinephrine d. adrenaline 41. Intermediates in the glycolysis pathway include a. two glucose derivatives b. three glycerate derivatives Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 24_7e c. two pyruvate derivatives d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) The process of glycolysis converts a C6 molecule into three C2 molecules. (2) The primary location where gluconeogenesis occurs is the liver. (3) Pyruvate reduction to lactate occurs under aerobic conditions, and pyruvate oxidation to acetyl CoA results from anaerobic conditions. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 43. Statements:

(1) The conversion of glucose 6-phosphate to glucose does not occur in muscle and brain cells. (2) The two triose phosphates initially formed in glycolysis are dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. (3) ATP production during glycolysis occurs via substrate-level phosphorylation. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 44. Which of the following processes requires UTP molecules? a. formation of glycogen from glucose 6-phosphate b. degradation of glycogen to glucose 6-phosphate c. both the formation and degradation of glycogen d. formation of glucose 1-phosphate from glucose 6-phosphate 45. Which of the following is a three-step process? a. conversion of pyruvate to glucose b. conversion of glucose to glycogen c. conversion of glycogen to glucose d. more than one correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 24_7e e. no correct response

Enter the appropriate value to answer the question or solve the problem. Use the following to answer the questions below: How many steps in glycolysis have the characteristics listed? Respond using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) one step b) two steps c) three steps d) four steps 46. A glycerate derivative is formed.

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the chemical changes, choose from the response list a correct name for the process or the conditions under which it occurs. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) Cori cycle b) an aerobic process c) oxidative stage of pentose phosphate pathway d) nonoxidative stage of pentose phosphate pathway 47. Pyruvate to acetyl CoA 48. Glucose 6-phosphate to ribulose 5-phosphate

Use the following to answer the questions below: How many steps in glycolysis have the characteristics listed? Respond using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) one step b) two steps c) three steps d) four steps 49. An isomerization reaction occurs.

Use the following to answer the questions below: What is the ATP yield per glucose molecule in each of the following processes? Respond using the list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) 2 ATP b) 4 ATP c) 10 ATP d) 30 ATP 50. Glycolysis Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 24_7e 51. Glycolysis plus reduction of pyruvate to ethanol 52. Glycolysis plus oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

Use the following to answer the questions below: Assign each of the characterizations to one of the metabolic pathways listed in the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) gluconeogenesis b) glycogenesis c) glycogenolysis d) glycolysis 53. Glucose is synthesized from pyruvate.

Use the following to answer the questions below: Assign each of the reaction characterizations to one of the metabolic pathways listed in the responses. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) gluconeogenesis b) glycogenesis c) glycogenolysis d) glycolysis 54. Glucose 6-phosphate is converted to glucose 1-phosphate as part of this process.

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Chapter 24_7e

Use the following to answer the questions below: Assign each of the reaction characterizations to one of the metabolic pathways listed in the responses. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) gluconeogenesis b) glycogenesis c) glycogenolysis d) glycolysis 57. Two trioses combine to form fructose 1,6-bisphosphate as part of this process.

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b) glycogenesis c) glycogenolysis d) glycolysis 61. Oxaloacetate is the product formed in the first step of this process.

Use the following to answer the questions below: Assign each of the reaction characterizations to one of the metabolic pathways listed in the responses. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) gluconeogenesis b) glycogenesis c) glycogenolysis d) glycolysis 63. Fructose 6-phosphate is the product formed in the second step of this process.

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Chapter 24_7e

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the chemical changes, choose from the response list a correct name for the process or the conditions under which it occurs. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) Cori cycle b) an aerobic process c) oxidative stage of pentose phosphate pathway d) nonoxidative stage of pentose phosphate pathway 67. Glucose to pyruvate to lactate to pyruvate to glucose

Use the following to answer the questions below: Assign each of the reaction characterizations to one of the metabolic pathways listed in the responses. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) gluconeogenesis b) glycogenesis c) glycogenolysis d) glycolysis 68. Formation of UDP-glucose is part of this process.

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Chapter 24_7e

a) one step b) two steps c) three steps d) four steps 70. ATP is converted to ADP.

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Chapter 24_7e Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. d 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. c 11. c 12. b 13. b 14. c 15. c 16. b 17. d 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. d 24. b 25. e Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 24_7e 26. b 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. a 45. d 46. c 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 24_7e 52. a 53. a 54. b 55. c 56. a 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. d 61. a 62. b 63. d 64. a 65. a 66. d 67. a 68. b 69. d 70. b

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Chapter 25_7e

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following compounds is a ketone body? a. acetoacetate b. oxaloacetate c. acetyl CoA d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 2. Which of the following relationships involving "turns" in the β-oxidation pathway are correct? a. 8 turns; 9 acetyl CoA molecules b. 7 turns; 8 NADH molecules c. 6 turns; 7 FADH2 molecules d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 3. How many "turns" in the β-oxidation pathway are needed to "process" a C20 fatty acid molecule? a. 9 b. 10 c. 18 d. 20 4. Which of the following is an intermediate in the process of lipogenesis? a. isopentenyl pyrophosphate b. malonyl ACP c. oxaloacetate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 5. How many FADH2 and NADH molecules are produced, respectively, after 6 "turns" of the β-oxidation

pathway? a. 6, 6 b. 6, 12 c. 12, 6 d. 6, 18 6. Which of the following pairings of terms is correct for reactions in the β-oxidation pathway? a. alkene functional group; dehydrogenation b. ketone functional group; thiolysis c. alkane functional group; hydration d. more than one correct response Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 25_7e e. no correct response 7. Which of the following chemical changes is not possible within the human body? a. pyruvate to acetyl CoA b. acetyl CoA to pyruvate c. fatty acid to CO2 and H2O via acetyl CoA, the CAC, and the ETC d. glucose to fatty acid via acetyl CoA

(1) Initial triacylglycerol digestion usually produces monoacylglycerols rather than glycerol itself. (2) Fatty acids are the preferred fuel for “running” the heart (cardiac muscle) and the brain. (3) The ketone body acetoacetate is the “parent” compound for the other four ketone bodies. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 9. Which of the following compounds is an intermediate in the conversion of glycerol to dihydroxyacetone

phosphate? a. acetoacetate b. acetone c. 3-phosphoglycerate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 10. Which of the following enzymes are required for processing unsaturated fatty acids through the β-oxidation

pathway but not for processing saturated fatty acids through the pathway? a. an epimerase to change a D-isomer to a L-isomer b. an isomerase to change a cis (3, 4) bond to a trans (2, 3) bond c. a transferase to change a β-hydroxyacyl CoA to a á-hydroxyacyl CoA d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 11. Which of the following is a possible fate for the acetyl CoA produced from the degradation of a fatty acid? a. conversion to pyruvate Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 25_7e b. ketone body formation c. cholesterol biosynthesis d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 12. Which of the following is a lipoprotein? a. chylomicrons b. fatty acid micelles c. adipocytes d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 13. What is the net ATP production for the complete degradation of a C20 fatty acid molecule to CO2 and H2O? a. 134 b. 148 c. 162 d. 176

(1) When the amount of acetyl CoA is excessive compared with the amount of oxaloacetate available to react with it, ketone body formation occurs. (2) The transport stage of fatty acid oxidation involves the shuttle molecule acyl carnitine. (3) As a part of digestion of lipids, enzymes in bile help “solubilize” the lipids. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 15. Statements:

(1) The functional group change sequence “alkane-alkene-primary alcohol-ketone” occurs during each "turn" of the β-oxidation pathway. (2) Squalene and lanosterol, intermediates in cholesterol biosynthesis, contain more carbon atoms than does cholesterol. (3) The acetyl CoA needed for lipogenesis is shuttled from mitochondria to the cytosol via a citrate shuttle. a. All three statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 25_7e b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 16. Statements:

(1) The process by which ketone bodies are produced from acetyl CoA is called ketosis. (2) The number of "turns" in the β-oxidation pathway needed to process an 18-carbon saturated fatty acid is nine. (3) Glycerol metabolism involves production of dihydroxyacetone phosphate, which then enters the glycolysis pathway. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 17. The starting material for the process of ketogenesis is a. acetyl CoA b. oxaloacetate c. pyruvate d. citrate 18. Which of the following pairings of information about intermediates in the biosynthesis of cholesterol is

correct? a. mevalonate; a C5 molecule b. squalene; a C20 molecule c. lanosterol; a C30 molecule d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 19. How many times do dietary triacylglycerols undergo hydrolysis before they become available for use by

cells? a. one b. two c. three d. four 20. Which of the following statements concerning the chain elongation phase of fatty acid biosynthesis is

correct? a. Step 1 involves a condensation reaction. b. Step 2 involves a hydration reaction. c. Step 3 involves a dehydrogenation reaction. d. More than one correct response. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 25_7e e. No correct response. 21. Before a fatty acid can undergo β-oxidation, it must be activated and then shuttled across the inner

mitochondrial membrane. The activating agent and shuttle molecule are, respectively, a. CoA and carnitine b. CoA and citrate c. acetyl CoA and carnitine d. acetyl CoA and citrate 22. The correct sequence for the four reactions of the β-oxidation pathway in terms of “functional group acted

upon” is a. alkene, alkane, ketone, 2° alcohol b. alkane, alkene, 2° alcohol, ketone c. alkane, ketone, 2° alcohol, alkene d. ketone, 2° alcohol, alkene, alkane 23. Which of the following statements concerning "fuel usage" in the human body is incorrect? a. Skeletal muscle in a resting state uses glucose. b. Cardiac muscle depends first on fatty acids and secondarily on ketone bodies. c. Brain function is maintained primarily by glucose. d. The liver uses fatty acids as the primary fuel. 24. The molecule carnitine is involved in a. glycerol catabolism b. fatty acid activation c. a shuttle system for acyl CoA d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 25. The major function for bile released during the digestion of triacylglycerols is to a. facilitate the formation of chyme b. act as an enzyme c. act as an emulsifier d. hydrolyze ester linkages within triacylglycerols

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Chapter 25_7e 26. Statements:

(1) The number of acetyl CoA molecules produced in the β-oxidation pathway is equal to half the number of carbon atoms in the fatty acid that is processed. (2) A fatty acid micelle is a lipoprotein that transports TAGs from the intestinal walls to the bloodstream. (3) Associated with the conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA, in lipogenesis, is the production of a carbon dioxide molecule. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 27. Three of the following four compounds are classified as ketone bodies. The one that is not is a. acetoacetate b. β-hydroxybutyrate c. acetobutyrate d. acetone 28. The first stage of glycerol metabolism involves a two-step process in which the glycerol is converted to a. glycerol 3-phosphate b. dihydroxyacetone phosphate c. 3-phosphoglycerate d. 2-phosphoglycerate 29. Which of the following statements concerning digestion of dietary triacylglycerols in adults is correct? a. Triacylglycerol digestion begins in the mouth. b. Triacylglycerol digestion occurs to a small extent (10%) in the stomach. c. Triacylglycerol digestion occurs only in the small intestine. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

(1) The products of the first two stages of cholesterol biosynthesis are, respectively, mevalonate (C6) and isopentenyl pyrophosphate (C5). (2) Over 90 percent of total dietary lipids are triacylglycerols. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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(3) The activation stage of fatty acid oxidation involves both CoA and ATP. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 31. The notation ACP stands for a. acyl carnitine pyruvate b. acyl carrier protein c. acetyl carnitine pyruvate d. acetyl carrier protein 32. Lipoproteins that transport triacylglycerols from intestinal cells to the bloodstream are called a. chylomicrons b. fatty acid micelles c. adipocytes d. chymes 33. Which of the following statements concerning lipogenesis is correct? a. It occurs in the cytosol of a cell. b. It involves a multienzyme complex rather than a series of individual enzymes. c. It is dependent on the oxidizing agents FAD and NAD+. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

(1) The β-oxidation pathway involves a repetitive series of four reactions. (2) Triacylglycerol mobilization is a hydrolysis process that occurs in adipose tissue. (3) ATP and ACP have similar functions within the human body. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 25_7e 35. Statements:

(1) The ketone body acetoacetate lowers blood pH because of the presence of a carboxyl (acid) group in its structure. (2) Two products of the initial "turn" in the β-oxidation pathway are acetyl CoA and a fatty acid that contains two more carbon atoms than the reactant fatty acid. (3) Fatty acids produced through lipogenesis cannot contain more than 14 carbon atoms. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 36. Which of the following processes requires molecular O2 as a reactant? a. saturated fatty acid degradation to acetyl CoA b. saturated fatty acid biosynthesis c. unsaturated fatty acid degradation to acetyl CoA d. unsaturated fatty acid biosynthesis 37. The carrier of the “two carbon units” used to biosynthesize a fatty acid is a. acetyl CoA b. acetyl ACP c. malonyl CoA d. malonyl ACP 38. One "turn" in the β-oxidation pathway produces a. an acetyl CoA molecule b. two molecules of ATP c. an acyl CoA molecule that has been shortened by two carbon atoms d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) Both TAG emulsification and TAG digestion occur in the small intestine. (2) On an equal-mass basis, fatty acids produce more than twice as much ATP per gram as carbohydrates (glucose). (3) The “opposite” processes of lipogenesis and fatty acid oxidation cannot occur at the same time. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 25_7e a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 40. The correct sequence for the four reactions of the β-oxidation pathway in terms of “type of reaction

occurring” is a. dehydrogenation, dehydrogenation, hydration, thiolysis b. dehydrogenation, hydration, dehydrogenation, thiolysis c. thiolysis, hydration, dehydration, dehydrogenation d. thiolysis, dehydration, hydration, dehydration 41. Which of the following is a correct ordering of cholesterol intermediates as they are encountered during the

biosynthesis of cholesterol? a. isopentenyl pyrophosphate, mevalonate, squalene b. isopentenyl pyrophosphate, squalene, mevalonate c. mevalonate, isopentenyl pyrophosphate, squalene d. mevalonate, squalene, isopentenyl pyrophosphate 42. The two major products of triacylglycerol digestion in the small intestine are fatty acids and a. glycerol b. monoacylglycerols c. diacylglycerols d. acetyl CoA

(1) The human body, in the resting state, burns more fat than carbohydrate. (2) The initial stages of exercise are fueled primarily by glucose. (3) Statins lower plasma concentrations of LDL by inhibiting cholesterol synthesis in the liver. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 44. The reducing agent needed in the process of lipogenesis is Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 25_7e a. NADPH b. NADH c. FADH2 d. ADP 45. Which of the following generalizations about “fuel” use in the human body is incorrect? a. Skeletal muscle in an active state uses fatty acids. b. Skeletal muscle in a resting state uses glucose. c. Heart muscle uses glucose as a preferred fuel. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

Enter the appropriate value to answer the question or solve the problem. Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the substances, which are associated with the biosynthesis of cholesterol, select the number of carbon atoms present in the substance using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) C5 molecule b) C6 molecule c) C27 molecule d) C30 molecule 46. Mevalonate

Use the following to answer the questions below: The following questions relate to the degradation of a 16-carbon saturated fatty acid through the β-oxidation pathway to acetyl CoA and the further degradation of the acetyl CoA to carbon dioxide and water. For each question select an appropriate response from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) 7 b) 8 c) 106 d) 108 47. What is the net ATP production for complete degradation of the fatty acid to CO2 and H2O?

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the substances, select from the response list the process with which it is associated. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) ketogenesis b) lipogenesis Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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c) β-oxidation pathway d) glycerol degradation 48. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the substances, which are associated with the biosynthesis of cholesterol, select the number of carbon atoms present in the substance using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) C5 molecule b) C6 molecule c) C27 molecule d) C30 molecule 49. Squalene

Use the following to answer the questions below: The following questions relate to the degradation of a 16-carbon saturated fatty acid through the β-oxidation pathway to acetyl CoA and the further degradation of the acetyl CoA to carbon dioxide and water. For each question select an appropriate response from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) 7 b) 8 c) 106 d) 108 50. How many "turns" in the β-oxidation pathway are needed? 51. How many FADH2 are produced?

Use the following to answer the questions below: On the left are characteristics of various reactions that occur in the chain elongation phase of fatty acid biosynthesis. Identify the step (1 through 4) of the chain elongation process to which each characterization applies using the response list on the right. Responses on the right may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) step 1 b) step 2 c) step 3 d) step 4 52. A dehydration reaction occurs.

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the substances, which are associated with the biosynthesis of cholesterol, select the number of Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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carbon atoms present in the substance using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) C5 molecule b) C6 molecule c) C27 molecule d) C30 molecule 53. Isopentenyl pyrophosphate

Use the following to answer the questions below: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 25_7e

Identify the step (1 through 4) in a "turn" in the β-oxidation pathway at which each of the compounds would be encountered as a reactant using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) step 1 b) step 2 c) step 3 d) step 4 57.

58.

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d) C30 molecule 61. Cholesterol

Use the following to answer the questions below: Identify the step (1 through 4) in a "turn" in the β-oxidation pathway at which each of the compounds would be encountered as a reactant using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) step 1 Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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b) step 2 c) step 3 d) step 4 66.

69.

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Chapter 25_7e 70. CO2 is a product.

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Chapter 25_7e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. e 10. d 11. d 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. c 25. c Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 25_7e 26. c 27. c 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. b 47. c 48. d 49. d 50. a 51. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 25_7e 52. c 53. a 54. c 55. d 56. a 57. c 58. b 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. a 63. b 64. b 65. a 66. d 67. d 68. c 69. a 70. a

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Chapter 26_7e

(1) The source for both nitrogen atoms in a urea molecule is carbamoyl phosphate. (2) In the second stage of amino acid degradation, ammonium ion is liberated from glutamate through oxidative deamination. (3) Dietary protein intake and protein turnover are the body's only sources for providing amino acids for the amino acid pool. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 2. In the urea cycle, the urea-producing step involves the reaction of water with a. aspartate b. arginine c. argininosuccinate d. carbamoyl phosphate 3. The nitrogen-containing product of oxidative deamination is a. ammonium ion b. carbamoyl phosphate c. isopentenyl pyrophosphate d. FADH2 4. The citric acid cycle and the urea cycle are “linked” through the substance a. malate b. fumarate c. oxaloacetate d. ornithine

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b) Two of the three statements are true. c) Only one of the statements is true. d) None of the statements are true. 5. Statements:

(1) Each of the 20 standard amino acid carbon skeletons undergoes a different degradation process. (2) The net effect of the urea cycle is the production of urea from ammonium ions and acetyl CoA. (3) In transamination, the amino group of an amino acid is interchanged with the acid group of an alpha-keto acid. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 6. Which of the following substances is a reactant in the formation of carbamoyl phosphate? a. carbon dioxide b. water c. ATP d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 7. A derivative of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is required as a coenzyme in a. transamination b. oxidative deamination c. the urea cycle d. carbamoyl phosphate formation 8. Which of the following is a reactant in oxidative deamination? a. water b. ammonium ion c. NADH d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 9. Carbon-containing amino acid degradation products can be converted to a. glucose b. ketone bodies c. fatty acids d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 10. In the first step of the degradation of the heme portion of hemoglobin: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 26_7e a. Molecular O2 is needed as a reactant. b. Carbon monoxide is a product. c. Ring opening with the release of an iron atom occurs. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response. 11. Which of the following is a product in oxidative deamination of glutamate? a. oxaloacetate b. water c. pyruvate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 12. The net effect of transamination is to a. collect the amino groups from a variety of amino acids into a single compound b. convert all nonessential amino acids into essential amino acids c. convert all alpha-amino acids into beta-amino acids d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 13. As dietary protein materials leave the stomach, they a. are approximately 50 percent free amino acids b. are approximately 90 percent free amino acids c. are a mixture of large polypeptides d. have been denatured, but no peptide bond cleavage has occurred

(1) Stercobilin, a bile pigment, is the substance that gives fecal matter its brown color. (2) Glycolysis and citric acid cycle intermediates are the starting materials for amino acid biosynthesis. (3) The urea cycle participants arginine and citrulline are both nonstandard amino acids. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 26_7e d. None of the statements are true.

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Chapter 26_7e 15. Which of the following compounds is a urea cycle intermediate? a. carbamoyl phosphate b. aspartate c. ornithine d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 16. The net overall effect of transamination reactions in the human body is to collect the amino groups from a

variety of amino acids into a single compound, which is a. a keto acid b. an amino acid c. acyl carrier protein d. carbamoyl phosphate 17. One of the products in a transamination reaction is a. a ketoacid b. glycerol c. ammonia d. acetyl CoA 18. The most abundant amino acid in the amino acid pool is a. alanine b. aspartate c. cysteine d. glutamate 19. One of the reactants in a transamination reaction is a. an amino acid b. glycerol c. ammonia d. ammonium ion 20. Which of the following conversions could occur as part of a transamination reaction? a. pyruvate to alanine b. alanine to pyruvate c. oxaloacetate to glutamate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 21. The dominant use for the amino acids of the amino acid pool is the synthesis of a. protein Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 26_7e b. nonprotein nitrogen compounds c. nonessential amino acids d. pyruvate for energy production 22. The two nitrogen atoms in a urea molecule have as their biosynthetic source a. two ammonium ions b. two aspartate ions c. an ammonium ion and an aspartate ion d. two acetyl CoA molecules 23. Which of the following urea cycle intermediates is incorrectly characterized relative to its nitrogen content? a. citrulline; N3 molecule b. arginine; N4 molecule c. ornithine; N2 molecule d. argininosuccinate; N3 molecule 24. The "fuel" for the urea cycle is a. ammonium ion b. bicarbonate ion c. carbamoyl phosphate d. acetyl CoA 25. A urea molecule contains a. two nitrogen atoms b. two carbon atoms c. two hydrogen atoms d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 26. If aspartate is a reactant in a transamination reaction, one of the products of the reaction must be a. alanine b. oxaloacetate c. asparagine d. pyruvate 27. Which of the following statements concerning the degradation of amino acid carbon “skeletons” is correct? a. Each of the 20 standard amino acids gives a different degradation product. b. Each of the 20 standard amino acids gives the same degradation product. c. All final degradation products are citric acid cycle intermediates. d. Some, but not all, final degradation products are citric acid cycle intermediates. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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(1) Properties of the compound urea include yellow color, strong odor, and high solubility in water. (2) The amino group acceptor in most transamination reactions is oxaloacetate. (3) Absorption of amino acids through the intestinal wall requires active transport. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 29. Amino acid metabolism differs from that of carbohydrates and triacylglycerols in that: a. There is no storage form for amino acids in the body. b. Amino acids cannot be used for energy production. c. Amino acids cannot be converted to acetyl CoA. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

(1) Citric acid cycle intermediates are often the products from amino acid carbon skeleton degradation. (2) The net effect of transamination is to collect the amino groups from a variety of amino acids into the amino acids glutamate and aspartate. (3) All of the reactions of the urea cycle occur within mitochondria. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 31. Which of the following substances is a possible reactant in a transamination reaction? a. amino acid Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 26_7e b. secondary alcohol c. saturated carboxylic acid d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 32. Which of the following processes supplies amino acids to the amino acid pool? a. protein digestion b. protein turnover c. amino acid biosynthesis d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 33. Which of the following statements concerning amino acid biosynthesis is incorrect? a. Glutamate is one of the three amino acids produced by transamination of the appropriate alpha-keto

acid. b. The essential amino acids require seven to ten steps for biosynthesis in microorganisms. c. All but six of the standard amino acids can be biosynthesized in the human body. d. The nonessential amino acid tyrosine is obtained from the essential amino acid phenylalanine. 34. Substances to which amino acid carbon "skeletons" may be degraded include a. acetyl CoA b. citrate c. succinate d. more than one correct response e. no correct response 35. Amino acids with carbon "skeletons" that are degraded to pyruvate are classified as a. glucogenic b. ketogenic c. both glucogenic and ketogenic d. neither glucogenic nor ketogenic 36. In the degradation of heme, which of the following substances is produced in the second step of the

degradation process? a. bilirubin b. biliverdin c. urobilin d. molecular oxygen 37. Bile pigments produced from the degradation of the heme portion of hemoglobin are responsible for a. the yellow color of urine Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 26_7e b. the reddish-brown color of feces c. the yellow skin color associated with the jaundice condition d. more than one correct response e. no correct response

(1) Excess amino acids are stored in the body for later use in the form of tetra- and pentapeptides. (2) The ultimate product of all transamination reactions is the amino acid glutamate. (3) The oxygen atom in urea comes from a water molecule that participates in a hydrolysis reaction. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 39. With a normal diet, the percentage of daily calories that come from proteins is about a. 10 percent b. 20 percent c. 30 percent d. 40 percent

(1) A reactant and a product in the first step of the urea cycle are, respectively, ornithine and citrulline. (2) Degradation of heme begins with a ring-opening reaction in which carbon monoxide is produced. (3) With a normal diet, only about 10 percent of our total calories come from protein. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 26_7e d. None of the statements are true. 41. In the degradation of heme, which of the following substances is produced at the same time that carbon

monoxide is produced? a. bilirubin b. biliverdin c. urobilin d. stercobilin 42. Which of the following statements concerning the compound urea is incorrect? a. It is a white solid in the pure state. b. It is very soluble in water. c. It gives urine its odor and color. d. More than one correct response. e. No correct response.

(1) Protein digestion begins in the stomach rather than the small intestine. (2) In the second step of heme degradation, biliverdin is converted to bilirubin. (3) In the oxidative deamination of glutamate, alpha-ketoglutarate is one of the products. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 44. Statements:

(1) The net effect of protein digestion is the release of the protein's constituent amino acids. (2) Ammonium ions enter the urea cycle in the form of carbamoyl phosphate. (3) Glycogenic amino acids have carbon skeletons that are degraded to glucose. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 45. Statements: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 26_7e

(1) The major organic and inorganic solutes in urine are, respectively, urea and chloride ion. (2) Nitric oxide is an extremely reactive gaseous chemical messenger in cells that is produced from the reaction of oxygen with the amino acid arginine. (3) The action of nitroglycerin, as a heart medication, is related to NO production. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. Enter the appropriate value to answer the question or solve the problem. Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the urea cycle characterizations, select a correct response from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) ornithine b) citrulline c) argininosuccinate d) arginine 46. Reacts with H2O to produce urea

Use the following to answer the questions below: Following are reactants and the type of reaction they undergo. From the response list, select the product to which each reactant is converted. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) alanine b) aspartate c) glutamate d) α-ketoglutarate 47. Transamination involving α-ketoglutarate

Use the following to answer the questions below: In each of the following reactant-product combinations associated with the production of urea, contrast the nitrogen content of the two compounds using the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) Nitrogen content remains the same. b) Nitrogen content increases by one atom. c) Nitrogen content increases by two atoms. d) Nitrogen content decreases by two atoms. 48. Arginine-ornithine

Use the following to answer the questions below: Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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For each of the urea cycle characterizations, select a correct response from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) ornithine b) citrulline c) argininosuccinate d) arginine 49. Is one of the standard amino acids 50. Reacts with aspartate

Use the following to answer the questions below: For the degradation products found for a particular amino acid carbon skeleton, use the response list to characterize the amino acid in terms of ketogenicity and glucogenicity. a) ketogenic but not glucogenic b) glucogenic but not ketogenic c) both ketogenic and glucogenic d) neither ketogenic nor glucogenic 51. Succinyl CoA only

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the heme degradation characterizations, select a correct degradation product from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) bilirubin b) biliverdin c) stercobilin d) urobilin 52. CO is produced at the same time as this substance.

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the urea cycle characterizations, select a correct response from the response list. Responses may be Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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used more than once or need not be used at all. a) ornithine b) citrulline c) argininosuccinate d) arginine 55. Fumarate is a product of its "breakup"

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the heme degradation characterizations, select a correct degradation product from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) bilirubin b) biliverdin c) stercobilin d) urobilin 56. Substance that gives urine its characteristic color

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b) glucogenic but not ketogenic c) both ketogenic and glucogenic d) neither ketogenic nor glucogenic 60. Both acetyl CoA and acetoacetyl CoA

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the urea cycle characterizations, select a correct response from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) ornithine b) citrulline c) argininosuccinate d) arginine 61. Reacts with carbamoyl phosphate

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the heme degradation characterizations, select a correct degradation product from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) bilirubin b) biliverdin c) stercobilin d) urobilin 62. Substance that gives feces its characteristic color

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Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the heme degradation characterizations, select a correct degradation product from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) bilirubin b) biliverdin c) stercobilin d) urobilin 65. Buildup of this substance in the blood produces jaundice.

Use the following to answer the questions below: For each of the heme degradation characterizations, select a correct degradation product from the response list. Responses may be used more than once or need not be used at all. a) bilirubin b) biliverdin c) stercobilin d) urobilin 67. Molecular O2 is required as a reactant to produce this substance.

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Chapter 26_7e Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. d 11. e 12. a 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. a 21. a 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. a Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 26_7e 26. b 27. d 28. c 29. a 30. b 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. a 35. c 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. c 48. d 49. d 50. b 51. b Stoker 7th E Test Bank

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Chapter 26_7e 52. b 53. a 54. b 55. c 56. d 57. d 58. d 59. a 60. a 61. a 62. c 63. a 64. c 65. a 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. d 70. b

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