TEST BANK for We The People 14th Edition (An Introduction to American Government) by Thomas E. Patte by StudyGuide

CHAPTER 1 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following best characterizes Americans' knowledge of public affairs today? A) Millennialsare better informed than older generations by a wide margin. B) Americans are consistently shown to be among the most well-informedcitizens when compared to other democracies. C) Most Americans today are far better informed than previous generations, though knowledge levels are still rather low. D) Misinformation is now at its highest level in the history of polling. E) Baby boomers have been shown to be the most well-informed generation, while younger generations know little about public affairs.

Critical thinking is best described as A) the process of forming an opinion after weighing the relevant facts. B) discounting the news from ordinary media outlets. C) rejecting the accounts of bureaucrats and finding alternative versions online. D) assuming that all news are lies until alternative truths present themselves. E) trusting your instincts on the way the world works.

3) Approximately what share of Americans refuses to believe that Russia interfered in the 2016 elections? A) 6 percent B) 13 percent C) 25 percent D) 33 percent E) 60 percent

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4) What type of government suppresses individuality, forcing people to think and act in prescribed ways or risk punishment? A) communist B) socialist C) authoritarian D) egalitarian E) republican

5) Which of the following has most recently proven to serve as a significant obstacle to critical thinking? A) changes in the media landscape B) political partisanship C) television D) newspapers E) the coastal elites

6) What do behavioral scientists Gordon Pennycook and David Rand call the habit of judging the accuracy of a claim on the basis of who's saying it or whether we've heard it before? A) "cognitive laziness" B) "cognitive disconnect" C) "cognitive bias" D) "the cult of personality" E) "cognitive dissonance"

In recent years,

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A) American politics has become more heated and divisive. B) Americans have become more tolerant of leaders slanting facts. C) American leaders have become more willing to lie. D) Americans have embraced more truthful politicians. E) our politics has become more divisive and heated, leaders have lied more readily, and we have come to tolerate it more.

Which of the following is an example of politicians' deliberate slanting of facts? A) calls for tax increases to fund infrastructure B) debates over immigration policy and amnesty for current undocumented immigrants C) the claim that free trade is the cause for the loss of millions of manufacturing jobs D) the insistence that President Barack Obama is a citizen and born in Hawaii E) the claim that Russia interfered in the 2016 U.S. elections

What is the likely result of spending hours listening to partisan talk shows? A) misinformation B) liberalism C) pragmatism D) well-rounded political views E) a distaste for politics

10)

Which of the following is NOT among the frameworks used in political science? A) rational choice theory B) liberalism C) institutional analysis D) historical reasoning E) behavioral studies

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11) Who among the following was the chief architect of the U.S. Constitution and also one of America's top political scientists? A) James Madison B) Andrew Jackson C) Woodrow Wilson D) Benjamin Franklin E) John Adams

12) Which important aspect of European thought had the greatest impact on the formation of the political culture of America? A) Romanticism B) the Reformation C) the Renaissance D) Rationalism E) the Enlightenment

13)

Which of the following is NOT one of the core values of American political culture? A) individualism B) equality C) cooperation D) liberty E) self-government

14) Which of the following statements about cultural or political beliefs in America is FALSE?

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A) America's origins as a wilderness society led to the belief that government is responsible for providing material assistance to its citizens. B) Americans believe that individuals should be free to act and think as they choose. C) Americans reject European notions of aristocratic privilege. D) America has a strongly individualistic culture. E) Americans generally believe that the people are the ultimate source of governing authority.

15) Which of the following best describes Americans' "unalienable rights," as described in the Declaration of Independence? A) freedoms belonging to every citizen that cannot be legally taken away by the government B) "God-given" rights that all people possess from birth C) freedom from government interference in any aspect of life D) freedom from religious persecution E) the freedoms necessary to become "a perfect nation"

16)

Individualism is the idea that A) individuals should be free to act and think as they choose. B) all individuals are equal in their moral worth. C) people are the ultimate source of governing authority. D) people should take initiative and be self-sufficient. E) there should be formal limits on citizens' power.

17) To what aspect of America were William Watts and Lloyd Free referring when they labeled it "the country of individualism par excellence"?

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A) the majoritarian nature of the voting and election system B) the ability of any individual to aspire to high political office C) the judicial nature of American politics, in which any individual can challenge powerful interests D) the engrained nature of individualism, from freedom of expression to fair-trial protections E) the ability of the individual to join in labor unions and interest groups to pursue his or her political and financial self-interests

18)

Europeans have a greater acceptance than Americans of A) welfare policies that could relieve people of the responsibility to care for themselves. B) the strength of the executive branch of government. C) the majoritarian system of government. D) the influence of corporate special interests in the legislative process. E) the influence of corporate money in the election process.

19)

Which of the following is an example of an authoritarian regime? A) Great Britain B) France C) the United States D) China E) Canada

20)

According to the Declaration of Independence, governments get their "just powers" from A) "God Almighty." B) "the consent of the governed." C) "the various factions." D) "the teachings of Jesus Christ." E) "the benevolence of a just king."

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21) West Virginia, the state with the lowest percentage of college graduates in the United States, A) is indicative of Americans' relative indifference to higher education. B) is evidence of the general truth that the states with the highest percentage of college graduates are located between the Rockies and the Mississippi River. C) is one of seven U.S. states with fewer than five institutions of higher learning. D) demonstrates how closed higher education in the United States is compared to the rest of the world. E) has a higher proportion of college graduates than most European countries.

22) Which of the following is an accurate description of the prevalence of college education in the United States? A) Among adults 25 years of age and older, roughly half are college graduates. B) Among adults 25 years of age and older, nearly one in three is a college graduate. C) Every U.S. state has at least twenty colleges or universities within its borders. D) Despite having a much higher rate of colleges and universities per capita than European countries, the U.S. has a lower rate of college graduation per capita. E) Although the U.S. has a lower number of colleges and universities per capita than Europe, it has a much higher rate of college graduation per capita.

23) The process by which a society settles its conflicts and allocates the resulting benefits and costs is called A) politics. B) government. C) elitism. D) socialism. E) communism.

24) ________ is the ability of persons, groups, or institutions to influence political developments. Version 1

A) Apathy B) Politics C) Power D) Liberty E) Political culture

25)

French philosopher Michel Foucault referred to politics as "________." A) like making sausage B) the burden of citizens C) a means to an end D) war by other means E) a necessary evil

26)

The Greek words demos and kratis together mean A) majority rule is sacred. B) the people rule. C) government is good. D) politics is immoral. E) the king is good.

27)

In an oligarchy,

A) the state is run by corporate interests and companies instead of individuals. B) control rests with a small group of popularly elected individuals. C) control rests with a single individual, such as a dictator. D) control rests with a small group, such as military officers or a few wealthy families. E) the state controls all aspects of individuals' lives, including family relations and the practice of religion.

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28)

What has democracy come to mean in practice?

A) pluralistic government through the combination of popularly elected representatives and the influence of interest groups B) oligarchic government through a legislature chosen through popular election C) elitist control through interest group politics D) pluralism through the election of representatives and the influence of corporate interests E) majority rule through the free and open election of representatives

29) The United States has certain rules in place to keep politics within peaceful bounds. These rules include all of the following EXCEPT A) autocracy. B) democracy. C) constitutionalism. D) free markets. E) None of these answers are correct.

30)

What is a major limit on majoritarianism, as suggested by the text?

A) The public as a whole takes an interest in only a few of the hundreds of policy decisions that U.S. officials make each year. B) The public lacks access to the information required to take informed political action on most issues dealt with by the government each year. C) The actions of special interest groups are ultimately more influential than the voting power of the public. D) The rapid turnover of government officials and members of the legislature prevents the majority public from making a sustained effort for any single issue. E) The most power tends to reside with a wealthy minority of the voting public, preventing the majority public from setting the issue agenda.

31) The fact that farmers have more influence over agricultural price-supports than do other groups is an example of Version 1

A) majoritarianism. B) pluralism. C) elitism. D) constitutionalism. E) corporate power.

32)

Pluralism contends that, on most issues,

A) corporate elites have more control over economic policy than do "the politicians in the visible government." B) the will of the majority of the voting public determines government policy. C) it is the preferences of special interests that largely determine what government does. D) true authority lies with the elected politicians, and not with the public that put them in office. E) the diverse nature of the citizenry enhances the democratic process in policymaking.

33)

A government's authority A) is evidenced when government officials use their right to exercise power. B) is by definition not coercive. C) does not include the power to arrest and imprison. D) ensures that lawlessness prevails most of the time. E) is based on pluralism.

34)

What era in American politics is notable for a high level of bipartisanship? A) 1945–1960 (post-WWII) B) 1865–1877 (Reconstruction) C) 1992–2000 (Clinton era) D) 1900–1917 (pre-WWI) E) 2016–present (Trump era)

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35)

The Bill of Rights A) reduced the restrictiveness of constitutionalism. B) enhanced the powers of the executive. C) further checked the power of the majority. D) enhanced the majoritarian nature of government. E) restricted the power of corporate influence in the government.

36)

The Bill of Rights added to the Constitution, among other things, A) a guarantee of freedom of speech. B) a division of governmental authority into three branches. C) checks and balances among the three branches of government. D) restrictions against the power of corporations to influence the election process. E) term limits for elected officials to reduce their power.

37)

In a constitutional system,

A) there are no restrictions on the lawful uses of power, as long as this power is obtained by majority rule. B) there are lawful restrictions on a government's power. C) the economy is based on the free enterprise system. D) officials govern according to the traditions established by their predecessors. E) all citizens have absolute free speech rights.

38) What new policy was established by the U.S. Supreme Court's landmark Gideon v. Wainwright ruling?

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A) the right to trial by jury B) the need to charge an arrested suspect with a specific crime within 24 hours of arrest C) the requirement that police read a suspect his or her rights before or during arrest D) government provision of free legal counsel to the accused if they are too poor to hire a lawyer E) the practice of allowing a suspect out on bail until the time of the trial

39) Which of the following is a difference between communism and socialism, as described by the text? A) Under socialism, the government owns some firms, but under communism the government does not own any major assets. B) Under communism, the government assumes total management of the economy, whereas under socialism, the government does not try to manage the overall economy. C) Under socialism, the economy operates mainly through private transactions, but under communism, the government owns a number of major industries and tries to provide for people's basic economic needs. D) Under communism, the government manages the economy completely but does not attempt to provide for people's basic needs; under socialism, the government does not manage the economy completely, but does attempt to provide for people's basic needs. E) Under socialism, the government owns more industries than a communist government does, but it provides less direct benefit for individuals' welfare.

40)

Which of the following describes socialism as practiced today in Sweden?

A) The government does not attempt to manage the overall economy but owns a number of major industries and provides for people's basic economic needs. B) The government manages the overall economy through ownership of most major industries, and it does not allow private property. C) The economy operates almost exclusively on private transactions. D) The government does little to manage the economy and owns no major industries, serving mainly to provide for people's basic economic needs. E) Firms are largely free to make their own production, distribution, and pricing decisions, and individuals depend largely on themselves for economic security.

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41)

The United States' economy operates primarily as a A) free-market system. B) free-market system with major elements of socialism. C) socialist system with some free-market elements. D) socialist system. E) None of these answers are correct.

42) In which of the following ways is the U.S. free-market system distinct from European economies? A) its lack of regulatory intervention B) its lack of intervention through taxation C) its lack of intervention through spending policies D) the extent to which private transactions determine the allocation of economic costs and benefits E) the extent to which it exercises regulatory intervention by altering interest rates

43)

Roughly two-thirds of all lobbyists in the nation's capital represent A) activist organizations. B) labor unions. C) business firms. D) foreign-based political action groups. E) nonprofit organizations.

44) U.S. firms have greater power than firms in other Western democracies over which of the following?

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A) wages and working conditions B) stock market fluctuations C) interest rates D) bond market rates E) greenhouse gas emissions

45) The average incomes of minimum-wage workers in the United States and Europe reflect a greater influence of which of the following in the United States, when compared to Europe? A) majoritarianism B) elitism C) corporate power D) judicial action E) constitutionalism

46)

Sociologist C. Wright Mills was a proponent of the theory of A) pluralism. B) elitism. C) majoritarianism. D) bureaucratic rule. E) None of these answers are correct.

47)

As described in the text, ________ is a defining characteristic of America politics. A) the widespread sharing of power B) the supremacy of the elite C) a continual striving for equality D) a resistance to all forms of socialism E) an unequal distribution of power

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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 48) What are some of the barriers to critical thinking in the United States?

49) Describe the differences between how Americans define themselves and how other, older nations define what it means to be a part of their nations' political identity.

50)

Define politics, power, and authority.

51)

How could one argue that America is not run by a small power elite?

52) To what degree is American democracy majoritarian, and what are the limits to that majoritarianism?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_14e 1) D 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) A 6) A 7) E 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) E 13) C 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) D 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) E 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) B Version 1

27) D 28) E 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) C 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) A 41) A 42) D 43) C 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) A major barrier to critical thinking is the unwillingness of citizens to make the effort to educate themselves. Democratic government works best if the citizenry works to develop critical thinking, but most individuals do not make the effort. Another major barrier is the changing nature of media. The rise of talk radio, cable television news networks, and Internet blogs have provided many of those individuals that do pay close attention to the news with faulty information and analysis. In addition, deliberate misinformation campaigns are a serious barrier to sound judgement. Version 1

49) Other people take their identity from the common ancestry that led them gradually to gather under one flag. Long before there was a France or a Japan, there were French and Japanese people, each a kinship group united through ancestry. Even today, it is kinship that links them. There is no way to become fully Japanese except to be born of Japanese parents. On the other hand Americans are a multitude of people from different lands. Thus, Americans are linked not by a shared ancestry but by allegiance to a common set of ideals. 50) Politics is the means by which society settles its conflicts and allocates the resulting benefits and costs. Those factions or people who prevail in getting their values accepted are said to have power. When power is exercised through the laws and institutions of government, authority is involved. Authority is defined as the recognized right of an official or institution to exercise power. 51) One could argue that due to the diversity of group structures in America and the fierce competition over whose values will emerge victorious on any particular issue, it would be difficult for one homogeneous group to consistently control policies and all other competing political forces in the United States. Power in America is also dynamic; whereas once women and minorities were severely restricted from the exercise of power, many of those barriers have been removed, and the influence of women and minorities has grown considerably.

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52) Majoritarianism exists where the majority effectively determines what government does. The American democratic system of government is designed to give the people, through popular election of their representatives, control over the issues dealt with by the government and how the government responds to those issues. There are, however, limits to majoritarianism; the larger public takes an interest in only a few of the many issues dealt with by the government. Most policies result from pressure by the few groups that are directly affected by that issue. Also, elected leadership can choose to make decisions that are unpopular with the majority.

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CHAPTER 2 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The idea that government should be restricted in its lawful uses of power and hence in its ability to deprive people of their liberty is expressed by the term A) federalism. B) self-government. C) judicial review. D) limited government. E) natural rights.

________ was the primary author of the Declaration of Independence. A) John Locke B) Thomas Jefferson C) James Madison D) George Washington E) Alexander Hamilton

Early Americans' preference for limited government was strengthened by

A) their exposure to life under the British Parliament and some of the "rights of Englishmen." B) Lockean philosophy. C) Britain's treatment of the colonies after the French and Indian War. D) taxation without representation. E) All these answers are correct.

Which of the following chronologies correctly lists events from first to last?

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A) Boston Tea Party; First Continental Congress; beginning of the American Revolution B) Shays' Rebellion; Annapolis Convention; Declaration of Independence C) Declaration of Independence; Stamp Act; constitutional convention in Philadelphia D) the Three-Fifths Compromise; Declaration of Independence; The Federalist Papers E) Declaration of Independence; Articles of Confederation; ratification of the Constitution; Federalist No. 48

5) The European philosopher whose concept of natural rights had a great impact on American politics is A) Montesquieu. B) Locke. C) Hobbes. D) Aristotle. E) Burke.

The words of the Declaration of Independence reflected A) Aristotle's conception of democracy. B) Montesquieu's view of constitutionalism. C) Hobbes's idea of the state of nature. D) Locke's philosophy of inalienable rights. E) Madison's view of factions.

According to John Locke, inalienable rights in a social contract A) belong to the government only. B) belong to individuals but can be denied by government. C) belong to individuals and cannot be denied by government. D) cannot be guaranteed by any governmental body. E) are no longer as important to the individual as in a state of nature.

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The inalienable rights enumerated in the Declaration of Independence are A) life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. B) liberty, equality, and fraternity. C) life, liberty, and property. D) life and property. E) equality and liberty.

The first plan of government for the United States was a A) confederation. B) federalist system. C) unitary form of government. D) monarchy. E) theocracy.

10)

Which of the following was NOT provided for by the Articles of Confederation? A) a national Congress B) each state having one vote in Congress C) unanimous approval by the states to amend the Articles D) a federal government subordinate to the states E) an independent federal executive

11)

Under the Articles of Confederation, Congress had the power to A) regulate commerce between states. B) regulate commerce between states and foreign countries. C) tax individual citizens. D) tax individual states. E) amend the Articles of Confederation.

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12)

Shays' Rebellion A) was a successful revolt. B) convinced many political leaders that the national government was too powerful. C) convinced many political leaders that the national government was too weak. D) reinforced public support for the Articles of Confederation. E) occurred after the Philadelphia convention of 1787.

13)

The Annapolis Convention A) produced several amendments to the Articles of Confederation. B) was convened to fix problems that arose with the United States Constitution. C) officially ratified the Bill of Rights. D) was attended by less than half the thirteen states. E) was a crucial step that led to the United States declaring independence from Britain.

14)

Under the Virginia Plan

A) the new Constitution would be only marginally stronger than the Articles of Confederation. B) slaves would count as four-fifths of a person when apportioning legislative representatives. C) large states would have more representatives in both chambers of Congress. D) Congress could not regulate either interstate trade or international trade. E) two of the northern states would have no representatives at all in Congress.

15)

Under the New Jersey Plan, each state would have ________ vote(s) in Congress.

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A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

16)

The Great Compromise produced A) checks and balances. B) the abolition of slavery. C) a bicameral Congress. D) separation of powers. E) federalism.

17)

The Three-Fifths Compromise was a response to A) conflict over the institution of slavery. B) the concerns of small states. C) apportionment in the U.S. Senate. D) the Electoral College. E) the demands of large states.

18)

Under the original Constitution, Congress could not ban the slave trade until ________. A) 1808 B) 1828 C) 1848 D) 1865 E) 1887

19)

Which of the following states had the lowest percentage of African Americans in 1790?

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A) Georgia B) Pennsylvania C) South Carolina D) North Carolina E) Virginia

20)

The Constitution was ratified by A) the people. B) local referendums. C) the states. D) the Supreme Court. E) the Continental Congress.

21) In order for the Constitution to go into effect, at least ________ states would need to ratify it. A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) 11 E) 13

22)

Most Anti-Federalists feared that the new government would be dominated by A) political elites. B) farmers. C) clergymen. D) political "factions." E) debtors.

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23)

Under the new constitution, presidents would be A) directly selected by the people. B) selected by votes of the state legislatures. C) selected by electors appointed by the states. D) subject to recall elections. E) subject to confidence votes by Congress.

24)

The Federalist Papers were written by A) Washington, Adams, and Jefferson. B) Franklin, Washington, and Lee. C) Jefferson, Locke, and Montesquieu. D) Madison, Hamilton, and Jay. E) Marshall, Jefferson, and Adams.

25)

The document explaining the ideas of the Constitution and urging its ratification is A) the Mayflower Compact. B) the Declaration of Independence. C) The Anti-Federalist Papers. D) The Federalist Papers. E) the Declaration of Conscience.

26) During the debates over the ratification of the Constitution, most people assumed that ________ would be the first president. A) James Madison B) George Washington C) Thomas Jefferson D) Alexander Hamilton E) Benjamin Franklin

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27)

________ presided over the Philadelphia convention of 1787. A) Benjamin Franklin B) Gouverneur Morris C) Edmund Randolph D) James Madison E) George Washington

28) The Federalists finally gained the votes of New York and Virginia for ratification of the Constitution when they promised A) a bill of rights to be quickly added to the Constitution. B) a ban on the slave trade after 1808. C) the right of states to disobey any national law they didn't like. D) that James Madison would be the first president. E) a Supreme Court with the right of judicial review.

29) In which of the following states was the vote for the ratification of the Constitution very close? A) Maryland B) Georgia C) Pennsylvania D) New York E) New Jersey

30)

Through the grants of power in the Constitution, the framers sought to

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A) strictly define the powers of state governments. B) create a government in which sovereignty was invested in the national government only. C) both empower government and limit it. D) enumerate the rights of individuals. E) abolish slavery.

31) The Constitution guarantees individuals the right to a writ of habeas corpus, meaning that the government cannot A) prosecute persons for acts that were legal at the time they were committed. B) establish a state religion based on Christian beliefs. C) enact laws that would legalize the practice of indentured servitude. D) jail a person indefinitely without a court hearing to determine the legality of his or her imprisonment. E) silence freedom of the press.

32)

The Constitution forbids Congress from A) proposing constitutional amendments. B) passing ex post facto laws. C) declaring war. D) proposing the repeal of constitutional amendments. E) creating a national university.

33)

Where is the Bill of Rights found in the Constitution? A) Article I, Section 8 B) Article II C) the first ten amendments D) Amendments 17 through 26 E) Article III

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34)

In Federalist No. 10, James Madison argued that

A) government is most dangerous when a single faction is powerful enough to gain full political control. B) monarchies are preferable to democracies. C) America was not diverse enough to prevent powerful interest groups from exercising too much political power. D) interest groups should be heavily regulated in America. E) interest groups are less troublesome than political parties.

35)

The origin of the concept of separation of powers is most associated with A) Montesquieu. B) Aristotle. C) Hobbes. D) Locke. E) Jefferson.

36) The framers' most significant modification of the traditional doctrine of the separation of powers was to A) include federalism. B) include a two-chamber legislature. C) define legislative power precisely, while defining executive and judicial power only in general terms. D) ensure that the powers of the separate branches overlap, so that each could better act as a check on the others. E) grant the power of judicial review to the judiciary.

37)

The principle of checks and balances is based on the notion that

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A) leaders are the trustees of the people. B) a weak government is always preferable to a strong government. C) all legislative and executive action should be controlled through judicial power. D) power must be used to offset power. E) legislators and executives cannot be trusted, but judges are trustworthy.

38)

Judicial review is the power of the American courts to A) declare a law unconstitutional. B) suspend the writ of habeas corpus. C) impeach the president. D) give advisory opinions to Congress. E) give advice and counsel to the president.

39)

Which of the following is an example of checks and balances? A) the veto B) the impeachment process C) approval of treaties D) judicial review E) All these answers are correct.

40) The presidential power to make treaties and appoint high-ranking individuals is subject to approval by A) Congress. B) only the president. C) the Senate. D) the Supreme Court. E) the secretary of state.

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41)

Which of the following is NOT among the checks Congress has on the executive? A) power to ratify treaties B) power to approve executive appointments C) power to appropriate funding D) power to impeach E) power to declare an executive action unlawful

42)

In practice, the most significant restraint imposed by Congress on the president is its

A) ability to override presidential vetoes. B) power of impeachment. C) power to make the laws and appropriate money, for these determine the programs the executive can implement. D) power to approve presidential appointees. E) power to investigate presidential activities.

43) Which of the following nations is often noted as an example of a government that has a system of checks and balances but is often plagued by political extremes? A) France B) Japan C) Mexico D) Great Britain E) Canada

44)

The Bill of Rights was added to the Constitution

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A) by the framers during the Philadelphia convention. B) in stages, from 1789 to 1798. C) in response to the freeing of the slaves during the Civil War. D) in response to the ideals of Jacksonian democracy. E) None of these answers are correct.

45)

Marbury v. Madison is a landmark Supreme Court decision because it A) established national supremacy. B) set the precedent for judicial review. C) defined the scope of state powers under the Tenth Amendment. D) affirmed the necessary and proper clause. E) helped to end Thomas Jefferson's political career.

46) Who was serving as chief justice of the Supreme Court when it decided the case of Marbury v. Madison? A) John Marshall B) Thomas Jefferson C) John Adams D) James Madison E) Edmund Burke

47) How did Congress retaliate to the Supreme Court's reprimand, in Marbury v. Madison, that it had passed legislation that exceeded its constitutional authority? A) It passed legislation to reduce the power of judicial review. B) It forced the Court to accept the power to issue writs of mandamus. C) It voted to impeach the chief justice. D) It completely disregarded the Court's ruling. E) Congress had no effective way to retaliate.

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48)

Marbury v. Madison was an ingenious decision because it A) turned a case that involved the issue of states' rights into one that asserted national

power. B) redefined the constitutional relationship between the president and Congress. C) asserted the power of the judiciary without creating the possibility of its rejection by either the executive or the legislative branch. D) turned a case that involved the issue of states' rights into one that asserted judicial power over the institutions of society. E) gave more power to the presidency, at the expense of Congress.

49)

To the framers, the great danger of democratic government was the risk of A) tyranny of the majority. B) elite rule. C) special-interest politics. D) a weak presidency. E) judicial imperialism.

50)

The framers of the Constitution preferred which of the following political arrangements? A) a republic as opposed to a pure democracy B) a monarchy as opposed to a constitutional system C) a pure democracy over a republic D) a pure democracy over a representative democracy E) socialism over capitalism

51) The writers of the Constitution used the term ________ for a form of government that consists of carefully designed institutions that are responsive to the majority but not captive to it.

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A) democracy B) republic C) federalism D) majoritarianism E) separation of power

52)

The framers entrusted the selection of U.S. senators to A) specially chosen electors. B) state legislatures. C) direct vote of the people. D) state governors. E) federal magistrates.

53) The writers of the Constitution devised the Electoral College as the method of choosing presidents because A) direct election was impractical, due to the poor systems of communication and transportation that existed in the late 1700s. B) that method would shield executive power from direct linkage to popular majorities. C) that method guaranteed a majority winner. D) that method would give weight to the preferences of ordinary people. E) the framers had a great deal of faith in the wisdom of the masses.

54) The term of office for a U.S. senator is ________ years, while that of a member of the U.S. House is ________ years. A) six; two B) four; two C) six; four D) four; four E) eight; four

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55) The writers of the Constitution justified different methods of selection and varying terms of office for the president, Senate, and House as a means of A) increasing popular influence. B) protection against rapid control by an impassioned majority. C) preventing elite control of government. D) maintaining experienced leadership. E) increasing voter turnout.

56)

All but one of the state constitutions formed after the American Revolution

A) provided for choosing governors in direct annual elections. B) provided for a less direct form of self-government than the national-level framers intended. C) provided for annual legislative elections. D) included more severe checks and balances than the U.S. Constitution. E) drastically limited the power of the executive in comparison to the legislature.

57)

President John Adams publicly indicated that

A) the federal government would not use force against common people that were simply seeking their inalienable rights. B) the Constitution was designed for a governing elite. C) dissent against the federal government would be welcomed as part of the birthing pangs of a republic. D) he disagreed with the concept of a republic and preferred more direct democratic rule. E) he felt he was the president of the "common folk."

58)

________ referred to his victory in the presidential election as the "Revolution of 1800."

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A) John Adams B) Andrew Jackson C) John Marshall D) Thomas Jefferson E) James Madison

59) Which of the following developments in the national political system did NOT provide for more popular control? A) primary elections B) direct election of U.S. senators C) the biennial election of representatives D) initiative E) judicial review

60)

Andrew Jackson persuaded the states to choose their presidential electors A) on the basis of the popular vote. B) by a vote of the state legislature. C) by a vote of Congress. D) by a presidential convention. E) on the basis of one state, one elector.

61)

Progressive reforms included A) primary elections. B) direct election of U.S. senators. C) the initiative. D) the direct primary. E) All these answers are correct.

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62)

The direct election of U.S. senators came about due to A) passage of the Second Amendment. B) political pressure from the Progressives. C) Jeffersonian democracy. D) Jacksonian democracy. E) the fact that state legislators no longer desired to select them.

63)

What became known as the "Revolution of 1800"?

A) Jefferson's challenge of Adams in the 1800 presidential election and the subsequent peaceful transfer of power B) Jefferson's victory in the 1800 presidential election despite his open and public relationship with a slave girl, Sally Hemings C) Jefferson's ascendancy to the presidency in 1800 despite his humble origins and lack of means D) Jefferson's victory in the 1800 presidential election with a majority in the Electoral College and a minority in the popular vote E) Jefferson's successful dislodging of John Adams from the White House upon the latter's refusal to concede his defeat

64) Which of the following is a core aspect of European parliamentary democracies that differs from American democracies? A) Legislative and executive power is not divided. B) Legislative power is subject to closer review by the judiciary. C) A legislative majority does not go hand in hand with executive power in office. D) There is no governmental judiciary. E) None of these answers are correct.

65)

In his criticism of the Constitution, the economist Charles S. Beard argued that

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A) the Constitution's elaborate systems of power and representation were designed to protect the interests of the rich. B) the Constitution failed to protect the economic interests of the poorer states. C) the Constitution's commerce clause was inadequate to meet the nation's economic needs. D) the Constitution did not provide for sufficient protection of property. E) the Constitution gave too much power to the illiterate.

66) Which of the following aspects of U.S. government might be used as part of an argument that the U.S. is less democratic than some other democracies? A) the extension of popular direct election to office B) the frequency of election of its larger legislative body C) its extensive reliance on primary elections D) the frequency of election of its chief executive E) its staggered terms of office for members of the legislative houses and presidency

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 67) Explain why early Americans admired limited government.

68) Define limited government and its relation to liberty. Explain ways in which the Constitution limits government.

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69)

Define judicial review and explain its origin and importance.

70) The framers of the Constitution understood democracy and republic to mean different things. Explain this difference and identify which concept the framers favored.

71) To what extent is the U.S. system less democratic, and to what extent is it more democratic, than other systems of government today?

72) Explain how provisions for majority rule have changed throughout U.S. history. Include examples from the Jacksonian era and the Progressive movement.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_14e 1) D 2) B 3) E 4) A 5) B 6) D 7) C 8) A 9) A 10) E 11) E 12) C 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) B Version 1

27) E 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) E 40) C 41) E 42) C 43) C 44) E 45) B 46) A 47) E 48) C 49) A 50) A 51) B 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) B 58) D 59) E 60) A 61) E 62) B 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) E 67) Two main factors were the colonists' English heritage and prerevolutionary experiences. In terms of the former, the colonial way of life of settlers in the New World offered enormous freedoms unheard of in Europe. With respect to their heritage, the British king was restricted by Parliament, which could make laws and had local representation, and the English people had certain rights, such as a trial by jury. In addition, the colonial charters served as prototypes for constitutionalism and limited government because each provided for an elected representative assembly.

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68) Limited government is a government that is subject to strict limits on its lawful uses of power, and hence its ability to deprive people of their liberty. The framers established a number of major ways the Constitution limits the government. One was confining the scope of government to grants of power—those powers granted to the national government by the Constitution. Powers not granted to it are denied to it unless they are necessary and proper to the carrying out of granted power. Another method was denials of power—powers expressly denied to the national and state governments by the Constitution. A further aspect of limited government was separated institutions sharing power: the division of the national government's power among three branches, each of which is to act as a check on the other two. The Bill of Rights further limited government by specifying individual rights that the national government must respect. Federalism divided political authority between the national government and the states, enabling the people to appeal to one authority if their rights and interests are not respected by the others. Elections of leadership provided the people with a method of removing leaders from office if they are not satisfied with their performance. Some analysts include judicial review in this list, even though it is not explicitly provided for in the Constitution. 69) Judicial review is the process whereby the courts, especially the Supreme Court, judges the constitutionality of executive and legislative actions. Judicial review is important first because it dramatically increases the power of the judicial branch to check the actions of the other two branches. Second, judicial review is a powerful instrument for protecting limited government. The 1803 landmark case of Marbury v. Madison set the precedent for judicial review by invalidating an act of Congress.

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70) As the framers understood the word democracy, it referred to a political system in which the people decided public issues, either directly or through representatives, and without any curbs on their power. In a republic, on the other hand, the power of the people was checked by a higher law (i.e., the Constitution), which prevented a majority from using the apparatus of government to prosecute or exploit a minority. The framers supported the republican system because they feared a democracy would lead to tyranny of the majority. While this threat could never be eliminated totally, the framers believed that properly structured representative institutions would greatly diminish the threat. Thus, they believed that political power, though responsive to the public, must be separated from direct control by voters if sound policies are to result. For the framers, republic meant a government that consists of carefully designed institutions that are responsive to the majority but not captive to it.

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71) By some standards, the American system of today is a model of representative government. The election of its larger legislative chamber takes place more frequently than does that ofany other democracy. In addition, the United States makes wide use of the primary system to select party candidates, and it carriesthe principle of direct election of officials further than any other current form of government. On the other hand, the U.S. system is less democratic than some European and other democratic governments. Here, popular majorities must work against the barriers to power devised by the framers—divided branches, staggered terms of office, and separate constituencies. The link between an electoral majority and a governing majority is less direct in the United States than in many democratic systems. In European democracies, for instance, legislative and executive power is not divided, is not subject to close check by the judiciary, and is acquired through the winning of a legislative majority in a single national election. 72) The Constitution made only a small provision for majority rule; the House of Representatives was the only popularly elected institution. During the Jacksonian era, the power of the majority increased, partly through the linking of a state's electoral votes to its popular votes. The Progressives furthered this development through, for example, direct election of U.S. senators, the introduction of the primary election, and the initiative.

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CHAPTER 3 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The 2010 Affordable Care Act A) was ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in 2012. B) increased the control that states had over health insurance. C) was passed by strong bipartisan majorities. D) was enacted as a voluntary program with no penalties for nonparticipation. E) None of these answers are correct.

A federal system is one where

A) constitutional authority is centralized in a national government. B) constitutional authority is decentralized, only residing in state governments. C) constitutional authority is divided between a national government and state governments. D) constitutional authority is unlimited. E) constitutional authority is divided among multiple branches of the national government.

________ opposed the ratification of the U.S. Constitution. A) George Washington B) Patrick Henry C) James Madison D) Benjamin Franklin E) John Adams

4) The writers of the Constitution established a federal system of government, in part because

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A) the states already existed as established entities and had to be preserved. B) few states in history had successfully established unitary governments. C) Locke and Montesquieu had concluded it was superior to other systems of government. D) the British political system was based on the federal principle. E) the states would be valuable sources of revenue for a federal government.

Sovereignty refers to A) a government headed by a king. B) a division of authority between the national government and the states. C) supreme and final governing authority. D) subnational (state) governments. E) None of these answers are correct.

In 1787, most countries in the world had a _______ form of government. A) confederal B) federal C) unitary D) democratic E) theocratic

Which choice describes the American change in governmental structure in 1787? A) unitary to confederal B) confederal to unitary C) federal to unitary D) confederal to federal E) federal to confederal

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In America today, public education is primarily the responsibility of A) the national government. B) state and local governments. C) the National Education Association (NEA). D) the American Federation of Teachers (AFT). E) the U.S. Department of Education.

Which of the following is a national power only? A) law enforcement B) intrastate commerce C) borrowing money D) transportation E) national defense

10)

Which of the following is almost exclusively a state power? A) chartering banks B) delivering mail C) law enforcement D) registering voters E) loaning money

11) Which of the following is a concurrent power held by both the national government and state governments? A) chartering local governments B) issuing currency C) taxation D) foreign affairs E) national defense

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12)

The Constitution allows states to A) raise an army in peacetime. B) print money. C) make commercial agreements with other states without the consent of Congress. D) govern intrastate commerce. E) govern interstate commerce.

13)

Which of the following statements about the Tenth Amendment is accurate?

A) Because it cannot define the federal government's lawful power, it has not proved a strong protection against the growth of federal power at the expense of the states. B) Because it defines state powers too narrowly, it has not proved a strong protection against the growth of federal power at the expense of the states. C) It has proven to be a strong force and preventive against the "nationalization" of the federal system. D) Because of its ambiguous nature, it has proved incompatible with the American federal system. E) It has vastly exceeded the Anti-Federalists' intent in first proposing the amendment.

14) Which of the following was an argument in favor of federalism at the time of the writing of the Constitution? A) Federalism will protect liberty. B) Federalism will moderate the power of government. C) Federalism will provide for a stronger national government than existed under the Articles of Confederation. D) Federalism will be less likely to produce an all-dominant faction. E) All these answers are correct.

15)

According to ________, a large republic is less likely to have an all-powerful faction.

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A) Patrick Henry B) George Mason C) James Madison D) John C. Calhoun E) John Marshall Harlan

16)

The enumerated powers in Article I of the Constitution were intended to

A) limit the powers of the state governments. B) ensure that neither small nor large states would be at a disadvantage. C) ensure that neither northern nor southern states would be at a disadvantage. D) establish a government strong enough to forge a union that was secure in its defense and stable in its economy. E) limit the power of the presidency.

17) The federal government's power to tax, regulate commerce among the states, and declare war are all examples of ________ powers. A) reserved B) enumerated C) implied D) concurrent E) None of these answers are correct.

18)

Which of the following is NOT an enumerated power? A) public education B) regulation of commerce C) declaration of war D) taxation E) All these answers are correct.

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19)

Which of the following is most closely related to the concept of implied powers? A) necessary and proper clause B) supremacy clause C) Tenth Amendment D) commerce clause E) power to tax

20)

The elastic clause is related to which of the following concepts? A) enumerated powers B) reserved powers C) implied powers D) concurrent powers E) All these answers are correct.

21)

According to the Anti-Federalists, too strong of a national government meant A) eventual encroachment upon the sovereignty of the states. B) that a new constitutional convention would have to convene every few years. C) that a monarchy was preferable to a republic. D) that effective commerce between and among the states was an impossibility. E) that slavery would be abolished immediately.

22)

The Tenth Amendment addressed the concerns of Anti-Federalists about A) individual freedoms. B) the meaning of the commerce clause. C) popular representation in Congress. D) the powers of state governments. E) the Electoral College.

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23)

Viewed in historical terms, federalism has been a

A) contentious and dynamic system that has evolved over time to make for a progressively stronger national government. B) theoretical principle, in that constitutional provisions for federalism have virtually no impact on the relationship between the nation and the states. C) flawed principle, in that the relationship between the nation and the states has been a constant source of problems without many positive benefits. D) fixed principle, in that the relationship between the nation and states is almost completely defined by provisions of the Constitution. E) poor replacement for the confederal system that existed before the Constitution.

24)

McCulloch v. Maryland

A) ruled in favor of state-centered federalism. B) asserted that the necessary and proper clause was a restriction on the power of the national government. C) affirmed that national law is supreme to conflicting state law. D) established the Supreme Court's power to judge constitutional issues. E) allowed for a narrow reading of the Constitution.

25) Which of the following individuals would agree that each state should be allowed to determine for itself the extent to which national authority restricts its actions? A) John Marshall B) John C. Calhoun C) Lyndon Johnson D) Franklin D. Roosevelt E) None of these answers are correct.

26)

The doctrine of nullification is most closely associated with

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A) Thomas Jefferson. B) Andrew Jackson. C) Roger B. Taney. D) John C. Calhoun. E) John Marshall.

27)

All of the following individuals embraced a "nationalist view" of federalism EXCEPT A) John Marshall. B) Roger Taney. C) Franklin D. Roosevelt. D) Lyndon B. Johnson. E) Alexander Hamilton.

28)

Through its Dred Scott decision, the Supreme Court A) ruled that "free land" made "free men." B) upheld free Blacks' rights of citizenship. C) upheld the principles of the Missouri Compromise. D) soothed sectarian tensions. E) ruled that Congress could not outlaw slavery anywhere in the United States.

29) From President Abraham Lincoln's perspective, the decision to wage a civil war against the southern states is best summarized in what fashion? A) States that allowed slavery were no longer sovereign. B) The states were older than the Union. C) Southern states had abused the "reserved powers" amendment. D) The Union was older than the states. E) None of these answers are correct.

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30)

Dual federalism held that A) the states were equal to the national government in all respects. B) a precise separation of national and state authority was both possible and desirable. C) national and state authority were indivisible. D) the Senate and the House were equal in their federal authority. E) None of these answers are correct.

31)

What was the impact of the Industrial Revolution on the concept of dual federalism?

A) It brought about the immediate end of the concept. B) It created dominant business interests that raised questions about the suitability of dual federalism as a governing concept. C) It had no impact at all upon the concept. D) It led to passage of the Tenth Amendment. E) It made the doctrine of nullification a political reality.

32) A blending of state and national authority is associated with ________ federalism, while a separation of national and state authority is associated with ________ federalism. A) dual; fiscal B) dual; cooperative C) cooperative; dual D) picket-fence; cooperative E) cooperative; pyramid

33) The only counterforce that was potentially strong enough to control the business trusts of the late 19th and early 20thcenturies was

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A) government. B) the buying public. C) organized labor. D) business competitors. E) farmers.

34) The period of dual federalism (1865–1937) was marked by ________ in the area of commerce. A) congressional supremacy B) state-government supremacy C) presidential supremacy D) business supremacy E) national supremacy

35)

The "separate but equal" standard was created by A) Congress. B) the Supreme Court. C) the state supreme court of Virginia. D) President Ulysses S. Grant. E) Justice John Marshall Harlan.

36) Which decision is indicative of how the Supreme Court interpreted the Fourteenth Amendment and state discretion in civil rights matters in the decades after the Civil War? A) Brown v. Board of Education B) the Dred Scott decision C) Plessy v. Ferguson D) McCulloch v. Maryland E) Gibbons v. Ogden

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37)

In Lochner v. New York (1905), the Supreme Court ruled that A) the doctrine of separate but equal was constitutional. B) state regulation of labor practices violated firms' property rights. C) the Fourth Amendment did not apply to interstate commerce. D) factory practices could only be regulated by the states. E) factory practices could only be regulated by the federal government.

38) At the worst depths of the Great Depression, approximately ________ of workers were unemployed. A) 10 percent B) 15 percent C) 25 percent D) 40 percent E) 60 percent

39)

In significant decisions early in the New Deal era, the Supreme Court A) invalidated key pieces of FDR's New Deal legislation. B) upheld FDR's "court-packing" proposal. C) ruled that segregation violated the Fourteenth Amendment. D) ruled that public accommodations were part of interstate commerce. E) invalidated the commerce clause.

40)

During the Great Depression of the 1930s, the national government

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A) provided vast sums to business firms to keep them out of bankruptcy. B) provided health care to Americans on a temporary basis, as a means of alleviating economic hardships. C) asserted the power to regulate the nation's economy. D) provided vast sums to the states so they could meet their citizens' welfare needs. E) utilized laissez-faire capitalism in its policies.

41) Which of the following made the rise of contemporary federalism so pressing during the Great Depression? A) the states' increased economic interdependency B) the refusal of the Supreme Court to protect corporations C) the deadlock between the president and the House of Representatives D) the economic isolation of the individual states and metropoles E) the isolation of the national economy from foreign events

42) The expansion of national authority in the 20th century first became evident in which decade? A) 1930s B) 1950s C) 1960s D) 1980s E) 1990s

43)

Devolution is the A) passing of authority from the national government to the state and local levels. B) expansion of national authority that began in the 1930s. C) contraction of state authority and the expansion of local government authority. D) expansion of national authority that began in the 1960s. E) None of these answers are correct.

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44)

National authority has greatly expanded in the 20th century, in large part because

A) the states and the federal government have become increasingly interdependent. B) constitutional amendments have opened the way for wider application of national authority. C) the state governments have shown themselves to be an ineffective level of government. D) the Democrats have been in control of Congress for most of the century. E) Americans like the idea of "big government."

45) A public policy program on which national, state, and local policymakers collaborate is an example of A) dual federalism. B) cooperative federalism. C) unitary federalism. D) confederal federalism. E) cosponsor federalism.

46)

________ is an illustration of cooperative federalism. A) The U.S. Postal Service B) Medicaid C) A marriage license D) A driver's license E) All these answers are correct.

47)

Fiscal federalism refers to the

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A) coordinated fiscal policy decisions of the federal government and the states. B) expenditure of federal funds on programs run in part through state and local governments. C) national banking system first established by Alexander Hamilton in the 1790s. D) fact that both the federal government and the states have the power to tax. E) ability of the states to manipulate federal decision making.

48)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The federal government raises roughly the same amount of revenue from taxation as all state and local governments combined. B) The federal government raises more tax revenue than all state and local governments combined. C) State and local governments combined raise twice as much revenue from taxation as the federal government. D) State and local governments combined raise three times as much revenue from taxation as the federal government. E) State and local governments combined raise six times as much revenue as the federal government.

49) Roughly one in every ________ dollars spent by local and state governments in recent decades was raised not by them but by the government in Washington. A) two B) five C) ten D) fifty E) one hundred

50)

If a state accepts a federal grant-in-aid, it must

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A) comply with federal restrictions on its use. B) reimburse the federal government after a specified period. C) match the funds with twice that amount in state funds. D) reduce its income tax rates to adjust for the increased income. E) None of these answers are correct.

51)

In what decade did federal grants-in-aid NOT expand significantly? A) 1960s B) 1970s C) 1980s D) 1990s E) 2000s

52) ________ receive(s) more revenue from the federal government than do most other states or regions. A) The Dakotas, Minnesota, and Wisconsin B) The states of the Mississippi Delta south of Illinois C) New England D) Washington, D.C. E) The states of the Southern Atlantic coast

53) Political conservatives who favor more political power devolved back to the states would likely prefer which of the following? A) categorical grants B) block grants C) Pell grants D) higher tax rates for the wealthy E) None of these answers are correct.

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54)

Federal grants-in-aid used only for a designated activity are called A) categorical grants. B) block grants. C) revenue-sharing grants. D) targeted grants. E) streamlined grants.

55)

________ advocated a "new federalism." A) President Ronald Reagan B) President George W. Bush C) President John Kennedy D) President Lyndon Johnson E) President Jimmy Carter

56)

What did Reagan promote as part of his version of "new federalism"?

A) an increase in federal funding of state education initiatives B) a reduction of the Supreme Court's role in determining the line between federal and state finance C) the use of block grants over categorical grants D) increased policy collaboration between states and the federal government E) a reduction in federal enumerated powers

57)

What did Newt Gingrich declare about federalism in 1994?

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A) that government had moved too far away from the federalism of the early 20th century B) that power was beginning to swing back to the federal government C) that the 1960s-style federalism was dead D) that federalism was the only system that could preserve the power of the states E) that the federal government had betrayed the promise of states' rights in the Constitution

58)

The TANF aspect of the Welfare Reform Act

A) was a categorical grant that restricted federal assistance to three years but limited state discretion in how to use the funds. B) was a block grant that, among other aspects, restricted a family's access to federal assistance to five years. C) was a categorical grant that placed no time restrictions on federal assistance but dramatically limited state discretion in how to use the funds. D) was a block grant with no time or activity restrictions on how to use federal funds. E) ended direct federal welfare assistance to the states in grants of any form.

59) Which of the following would one NOT expect to apply to a state's active poverty relief program that can be classified as cooperative federalism? A) Aspects of the program are administered by both the federal and state government. B) The program receives funding by both the federal and state government. C) Both the state and federal government would participate in determining eligibility of individuals receiving aid. D) Federal regulations would make the program appear somewhat uniform when compared to the same cooperative federalism program in other states. E) The state government provides most of the general administration, and a federal agency does most of the provision of relief to individuals.

60)

During the Great Depression, Americans turned to the federal government when

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A) the states refused to do anything. B) the federal government switched parties. C) it was clear that the states would be unable to help. D) the Supreme Court overturned the state's right to regulate commerce. E) President Roosevelt lost the election.

61) Which of the following weakened the response to the COVID-19 epidemic in the federal system in 2020? A) States were unfamiliar with health crises. B) The Trump administration applied the Defense Production Act in a heavy-handed manner. C) The federal government responded very late to the health crisis. D) All state governors responded very aggressively to the health crisis. E) The Trump administration forced a mask mandate on state governors.

62)

The Affordable Care Act A) increased state control over health insurance. B) decreased state control over health insurance. C) had no significant impact on state control over health insurance. D) ended government regulation of health insurance. E) None of these answers are correct.

63)

From 1789 to 1865, the most significant issue of federalism was

A) the application of the Bill of Rights to action by the state governments. B) the survival of the Union and federalism itself. C) whether business trusts would be regulated primarily by the states or by the national government. D) whether the states would respect the sovereignty of neighboring states. E) laissez-faire capitalism.

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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 64) Describe the differences between a federal system of government and a unitary system.

65)

Explain the differences among enumerated, implied, and reserved powers.

66) Beginning with the Articles of Confederation and continuing through the modern period, explain how the commerce power of the national government has related to the issue of national authority.

67) Explain what is meant by fiscal federalism, and describe how it has strengthened the authority of the federal government.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_14e 1) E 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) E 10) D 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) E 15) C 16) D 17) B 18) A 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) E 29) D 30) B 31) B 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) C 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) B 48) B 49) B 50) A 51) C 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) A 56) C Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) E 60) C 61) C 62) B 63) B 64) The United States has a federal system of government, in which sovereign authority is divided between a national government and state/regional governments. In other words, federalism is a system where sovereignty, or ultimate governing authority, is divided between national and regional governing levels. In a unitary system, sovereignty is vested solely in the national government, and all subunits of that government have authority only to the degree that the national government grants— grants which it can also withdraw. 65) The powers of the national government are listed (enumerated) in Article I of the Constitution. They are designed primarily to allow the national government to declare war, regulate interstate commerce, issue currency, and establish an army and navy. Implied powers allow the national government a degree of flexibility to enable it to respond to changing circumstances; the necessary and proper clause, also called the elastic clause, gives Congress the power to make all laws that are necessary and proper to the execution of its enumerated powers. All powers not specifically granted to the national government and not specifically denied the states are reserved for the states by the Tenth Amendment, which was meant to guard the states against encroachment by the national government.

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66) Under the Articles, the national government had no effective control over commerce, which contributed to the economic problems that resulted in the writing of the Constitution. The Constitution gave the national government the power to regulate interstate commerce, thereby facilitating the development of the United States as a national entity. The Industrial Revolution created an unprecedented degree of national interdependence. Until the 1930s, however, the Supreme Court sharply limited national economic regulatory policies by ruling that commerce among the states included transportation but excluded areas related to production (such as the use of child labor). During the New Deal, however, the Supreme Court ruled that Congress's commerce power was as "broad as the needs of the nation," opening the constitutional path to a national economy regulated by policies made in Washington, D.C. 67) Fiscal federalism refers to the expenditure of federal funds on programs run in part through state and local governments. Fiscal federalism has strengthened federal authority by enabling Washington to use federal funds to influence state and local priorities and place restrictions on how state and local governments conduct programs funded with this money. The federal government provides some or all of the money through grants-in-aid (cash payments) to states and localities, which then administer the programs. Categorical grants, a form of grants-in-aid, allow the federal government a lot of influence because they can only be used for specific activities determined by the federal government. With block grants, the federal government specifies the general area in which the funds must be used, but state and local officials select the specific projects.

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CHAPTER 4 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The term civil liberties refers to specific individual rights that A) apply in civil cases but not in criminal cases. B) apply in civil cases but not in military ones. C) are constitutionally protected from infringement by government. D) are constitutionally protected from infringement by individuals. E) are not covered by the First Amendment.

The individual right that is the most basic of democratic rights is A) the right to an attorney. B) freedom of expression. C) the right to a jury trial. D) the right to an adequate education. E) protection against illegal searches and seizures.

Which constitutional amendment protects the individual against self-incrimination? A) First B) Second C) Fourth D) Fifth E) Ninth

Like all other rights, the right of free expression is

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A) spelled out in precise terms in the Bill of Rights. B) not absolute. C) fully respected by public officials. D) protected from action by federal officials but not state officials. E) None of these answers are correct.

The right to an attorney is guaranteed by the ________ Amendment. A) First B) Fifth C) Sixth D) Ninth E) Tenth

Which of the following amendments contains a due process clause? A) First B) Third C) Tenth D) Fourteenth E) Twenty-First

7) The individual freedoms in the Bill of Rights were extended by the Fourteenth Amendment to include protection from deprivation of due process rights by A) actions of the president. B) the actions of individuals. C) actions of the federal government. D) actions of state and local governments. E) actions of the U.S. military.

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8) The inclusion of certain provisions of the Bill of Rights through the Fourteenth Amendment, so that these rights are protected from infringement by the state governments, is called A) the preferred position doctrine. B) procedural change. C) selective incorporation. D) the absorption doctrine. E) prior restraint.

9) How did the Supreme Court's position on the rights of the criminally accused in state courts change in the 1960s? A) The Supreme Court began to allow states greater freedom to interpret the rights of the accused. B) The Supreme Court began to dramatically reduce federal power to force the states to make special accommodations for the rights of accused minorities. C) The Supreme Court began to protect the rights of the accused from action by the states. D) The Supreme Court's position did not change noticeably. E) The Supreme Court ceased to enforce the practice of selective incorporation.

10)

In Mapp v. Ohio, the selective incorporation process was extended to include A) criminal proceedings in the states. B) civil cases. C) pleas of insanity. D) children (minors) accused of crime. E) indigent litigants.

11)

Gideon v. Wainwright is to the Sixth Amendment as Mapp v. Ohio is to the

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A) First Amendment. B) Fourth Amendment. C) Fifth Amendment. D) Eighth Amendment. E) Tenth Amendment.

12) According to Freedom House, which of the following countries has the highest degree of freedom? A) Japan B) Mexico C) Guatemala D) Russia E) United States

13)

The freedoms of speech, press, assembly, and religion are found in A) the First Amendment. B) the Fourth Amendment. C) the Sixth Amendment. D) the Tenth Amendment. E) the Fourteenth Amendment.

14)

Which of the following is NOT protected by the First Amendment? A) freedom of speech B) freedom of press C) freedom of assembly D) freedom of bearing arms E) freedom of religion

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15)

Which of the following is true about the Sedition Act of 1798? A) The act prohibited malicious newspaper stories about the president. B) The Supreme Court ruled the act unconstitutional. C) The Senate voted it down, while the House passed it. D) Thomas Jefferson strongly supported it. E) The state governments refused to enforce it.

16)

In Schenck v. United States (1919), the Supreme Court ruled that A) the Espionage Act was unconstitutional. B) speech could be restricted when the nation's security is at stake. C) speech unrelated to national security can never be restricted. D) speech by unpopular groups can be restricted more than speech by popular groups. E) all forms of political dissent are constitutional.

17) If a person yells "Fire!" in a crowded theater when there is no fire, and people are hurt in the ensuing panic, that individual has abused their freedom of speech, according to the doctrine of A) malice. B) clear and present danger. C) unlawful assembly. D) privacy. E) prior restraint.

18)

Justice Holmes's clear-and-present-danger test holds that government can

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A) restrict speech that threatens national security. B) restrict any speech of an inflammatory nature. C) imprison political dissidents during times of war without following normal procedures. D) engage in prior restraint of the press whenever national security is at issue. E) restrict speech that is disrespectful to specific classes of citizens.

19) The conviction of members of the U.S. Communist Party in the early 1950s was initially upheld as a lawful restriction of the right A) not to incriminate oneself. B) of free speech. C) to a jury trial. D) to confront one's accusers in a court of law. E) to worship any religion of choice.

20) In its 2011 Snyder v. Phelps ruling, the Supreme Court held that Westboro Baptist Church protests at military funerals A) were unconstitutional because the funerals were military, but they would have been constitutional at civilian funerals. B) would need specific prior approval by a federal judge. C) were a constitutionally protected form of free speech. D) could not be considered constitutionally protected freedom of assembly. E) were a state matter and must be decided on a case-by-case basis in state courts.

21) test.

In its 1969 Brandenburg v. Ohio ruling, the Supreme Court established the ________

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A) imminent lawless action B) Lemon C) SLAPS D) clear-and-present-danger E) cry wolf

22)

The Supreme Court

A) has ruled that even forms of symbolic speech considered to be dangerous to the public are protected. B) ruled, during the Vietnam War, that the burning of draft registration cards was a protected form of symbolic speech. C) has reduced its protection of symbolic speech dramatically, and has recently ruled against flag burning as a form of protected symbolic speech. D) has protected symbolic speech much more substantially than it has protected verbal speech. E) has generally protected symbolic speech almost as substantially as it has protected verbal speech.

23)

In the Johnson flag-burning case, the Supreme Court ruled that flag burning A) is an imminent danger to public safety. B) is not symbolic speech. C) cannot be prohibited even though it may be offensive. D) can be prohibited by the national government but not by the states. E) could be banned by Congress.

24)

Government can lawfully prevent a political rally from taking place

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A) under no circumstances; people have an unconditional right to express their views. B) when the rally would require unduly expensive police protection. C) when the views of those holding the rally are unpopular. D) when it can demonstrate that harmful acts will necessarily result from the rally. E) None of these answers are correct.

25)

According to the Supreme Court, which is true regarding freedom of assembly?

A) Individuals have the right to command immediate access to a public auditorium. B) Individuals have the right to hold a public rally in the middle of a busy intersection at a time of their choosing. C) Public officials can regulate the time, place, and conditions of public assembly, provided the regulations are reasonable. D) Public officials can prohibit assembly by unpopular groups. E) Freedom of assembly is an absolute right, because it is in the First Amendment.

26)

The Supreme Court's position on prior restraint of the press is that

A) national security needs are of highest priority. B) only classified government documents are subject to prior restraint. C) prior restraint can never be exercised by government. D) prior restraint should occur only under very compelling circumstances, and it is better to hold the press responsible for what it has printed than to restrict what it may print. E) prior restraint should be used fairly frequently in a democracy.

27)

According to the Supreme Court, prior restraint on the press is only acceptable if A) lower federal courts approve the action. B) the government can clearly justify the restriction. C) the press itself willingly accepts that restraint. D) the press is careless in its claims. E) the press is malicious in its intent.

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28) to as

Spoken words that are known to be false and harmful to a person's reputation are referred

A) libel. B) slander. C) blasphemy. D) obscenity. E) symbolic speech.

29)

Libel applies to defamation of an individual's reputation through the A) written word. B) spoken word. C) written and spoken word. D) written, spoken, and symbolic word. E) None of these answers are correct.

30)

The establishment clause prohibits government from A) establishing exceptions to the Bill of Rights. B) establishing exceptions to the Fourteenth Amendment. C) favoring one religion over another or supporting religion over no religion. D) interfering with freedom of assembly. E) interfering with the right to bear arms.

31)

According to the Supreme Court, prayer in public schools violates

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A) the free exercise clause. B) the establishment clause. C) the exclusionary rule. D) procedural due process. E) the clear-and-present-danger test.

32)

School prayer in the public schools was ruled unconstitutional in A) Escobedo v. Illinois (1964). B) Engel v. Vitale (1962). C) Buckley v. Valeo (1976). D) Gitlow v. New York (1925). E) Roth v. United States (1957).

33)

According to the Supreme Court, what is the status of prayer in the public schools?

A) Formal prayer is not allowed, but moments of silence are constitutional. B) State-supported prayers are not allowed in public schools. C) Prayer is now allowed, but each school must allow students to leave the classroom when prayers are read aloud. D) Teacher-led bible readings in public schools are constitutional. E) Student-led prayers at public school football games are constitutional.

34)

The Lemon test is designed to

A) test a state's practice of guaranteeing procedural due process rights. B) ensure the secular nature of a government action or policy. C) prevent a prosecution or defense from creating a biased jury. D) test state adherence to rights protected by proxy in the Fourteenth Amendment. E) ensure that a defendant has been given access to counsel from the time of arrest through a trial.

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35)

In the 2014 case of Burwell v. Hobby Lobby Stores, the Supreme Court ruled that

A) the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act does not require employers to provide insurance for employees. B) companies with only a few owners can refuse, on religious grounds, to include contraceptives in employees' health coverage. C) businesses can decide which employees deserve employer-paid health insurance based on employee performance. D) the free exercise of religion clause in the First Amendment does not apply to the secular business practices of corporations. E) All these answers are correct.

36)

In 1987 the Supreme Court ruled that creationism A) has as much evidence supporting it as the theory of evolution does. B) must be taught in public schools whenever evolution is taught. C) is a scientific theory, not a religious doctrine. D) is a religious doctrine, not a scientific theory. E) is both a scientific theory and a religious doctrine.

37) What was the main conclusion of the Supreme Court's 2008 decision in District of Columbia v. Heller and 2010 decision in McDonald v. Chicago? A) The Second Amendment applies only to federal law, not state law. B) Cities and states can ban gun ownership, but the federal government cannot. C) Citizens are allowed to own guns for legitimate purposes, such as for protecting the home. D) Governments can ban ownership of guns, except for people who serve in the military or the National Guard. E) Governments cannot place any restrictions on gun ownership.

38)

The Supreme Court has reasoned that a right of privacy is provided by

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A) the Civil Rights Act of 1964. B) the Ninth Amendment, which says that people's rights are not limited to those enumerated in the Constitution. C) the Tenth Amendment, which reserves to the people and the states those powers not granted to the federal government. D) implication in the freedoms in the Bill of Rights. E) the Civil Rights Act of 1991.

39)

The right to privacy was instrumental in which decision? A) Roe v. Wade B) Mapp v. Ohio C) Schenck v. United States D) Miranda v. Arizona E) New York Times Co. v. United States

40)

In Planned Parenthood v. Casey (1992), the justices

A) ruled that states are free to adopt abortion laws of their choosing. B) allowed a restriction on abortion services as long as it did not cause an "undue burden" on the woman. C) invoked the Ninth Amendment for the first time in an abortion decision. D) invalidated the right to an abortion in the early months of pregnancy. E) None of these answers are correct.

41)

In Bowers v. Hardwick (1986), the Supreme Court justices determined that A) the right of privacy includes abortion in the early months of pregnancy. B) search warrants are not needed in murder investigations. C) freedom of speech and freedom of assembly sometimes conflict. D) state militia members have the right to peacefully assemble. E) the right to privacy does not include homosexual acts.

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42) In 2020, which state had passed a law requiring abortion providers to have admitting privileges at a hospital within 30 miles of the abortion clinic? A) Louisiana B) Massachusetts C) Alaska D) California E) Washington

43) Why did abortion rights advocates object to the Louisiana law requiring abortion providers to have admitting privileges at a hospital within 30 miles? A) They were concerned about the women's welfare. B) They wanted to hold healthcare in their state to the highest standard. C) They were simply following the recommendations of the professional obstetrician organizations. D) They knew that abortions often had complications. E) None of these were professed or credible reasons for the law.

44) In the case of McNabb v. United States, Justice Felix Frankfurter defined the "history of liberty" primarily in terms of whether A) governments had observed procedural guarantees. B) those convicted are actually guilty. C) those convicted have the opportunity for appeal. D) those convicted are treated humanely while imprisoned. E) everyone is treated fairly in every case.

45)

In the Constitution, procedural due process is protected in various ways by the

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A) Fourth Amendment. B) Fifth Amendment. C) Sixth Amendment. D) Eighth Amendment. E) All these answers are correct.

46)

The Fourth Amendment protects Americans from A) any search conducted without a warrant. B) unreasonable searches. C) unreasonable searches conducted only by federal officers. D) all searches conducted by state officers. E) searches conducted only by local officers.

47) In deciding two 2014 cases involving the legality of searching a suspect's cell phone, the Supreme Court ruled that A) the cell phone can be searched only if there is sufficient other evidence that it contains information relevant to the crime. B) the cell phone can be searched if officers believe it may contain information that will lead to the arrest of other suspects. C) the cell phone can be searched as long as the search is approved by a higher police authority, such as a precinct captain or county sheriff. D) the cell phone cannot be searched in most circumstances without a warrant. E) the cell phone cannot be searched under any circumstances.

48)

When can police legally begin their interrogation of a suspect?

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A) immediately upon arrest B) after the suspect has been warned that their words can be used as evidence C) only after the suspect has met with an attorney D) after the suspect has been arrested and is in the custody of the police E) after the suspect has been formally charged with a specific crime

49) "You have the right to remain silent....Anything you say can and will be used against you in a court of law....You have the right to an attorney." This is called the A) preferred position doctrine. B) clear-and-present-danger test. C) Miranda warning. D) fairness doctrine. E) None of these answers are correct.

50) In what instance did the United States Supreme Court depart from the "wall-ofseparation" doctrine in 2020? A) by ending the gender segregation of bathrooms in universities B) by overruling the Glass-Steagall Act and its separation of commercial from investment banks C) by striking down state law providing scholarship funds to secular but not religious private schools D) by letting transgender individuals join the military E) by allowing funds from religious institutions to subsidize public education

51)

Gideon v. Wainwright required the states to

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A) temporarily abolish the death penalty. B) expand the exclusionary rule to both felony and misdemeanor cases. C) furnish attorneys for defendants in felony cases who cannot afford them. D) grant speedy trials to defendants after 90 days of delay. E) provide more funding for education.

52) In her dissent against Chief Justice Roberts's ruling against a Montana state law providing scholarship funds for students in secular, but not religious, private schools, Justice Sonia Sotomayor argued that A) churches had enough private charity to draw on. B) religious schools should ask students to live a life of humble poverty without scholarships. C) the ruling went against her commitment to atheism. D) the separation of church and state was beneficial to both and was weakened in this ruling. E) neither secular nor religious schools should enjoy subsidies from public funds.

53)

The exclusionary rule states that A) federal law cannot be applied in state courts. B) the laws of one state court cannot be applied in the courts of another state. C) after seven years, the statute of limitations applies, except in murder cases. D) evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible in court. E) state law cannot be applied in federal courts.

54)

Since the 1980s, the Supreme Court has addressed the exclusionary rule by

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A) expanding its application to virtually all criminal cases both at the state and federal levels. B) determining that the rule was unconstitutional, in that it weakened the effectiveness of the police in maintaining an orderly society. C) expanding its application to federal cases only. D) expanding its application to state cases only. E) None of these answers are correct.

55)

The inevitable discovery exception

A) holds that the exclusionary rule can be waived in cases where failure to convict can lead to further public harm. B) holds that otherwise excludable evidence can be admitted in trial if police believed they were following the proper procedures. C) allows the use of normally inadmissible evidence that would have been discovered by other means or through other forms of evidence. D) has effectively invalidated the exclusionary rule. E) holds that a convicted person may not appeal the conviction when their own actions would have ultimately led to further unlawful acts.

56)

Which of the following is true of the appeal process?

A) The Constitution guarantees at least one appeal after conviction, but many states continue to challenge this guarantee in court. B) Both the federal and all state constitutions guarantee an appeal after conviction. C) The Constitution does not guarantee an appeal after conviction, but the federal government and all states permit at least one appeal. D) There are no guarantees of appeal at the federal or state level, but the appeal process has been effectively certified through common practice. E) The guarantee of appeal in the states was established as part of selective incorporation as applied to the Fourteenth Amendment.

57)

Which state has the highest incarceration rate?

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A) Vermont B) Florida C) Louisiana D) North Dakota E) California

58)

What is the greatest restriction on appeals in the United States? A) the refusal by state appeals court judges to grant even a first appeal B) a federal law that bars in most instances a second federal appeal by a prisoner C) the lack of any formal right of appeal in the federal process D) a federal law that bars a first federal appeal to persons convicted of homicide E) the very low income of some convicted persons, which reduces their ability to appeal

59) Which of the following countries comes closest to the United States in terms of the percentage of its citizens who are behind bars? A) Singapore B) Japan C) Great Britain D) Romania E) Russia

60) In a 2004 case involving the issue of whether a U.S. citizen accused of terrorist acts is entitled to constitutional protections, the Supreme Court held that such citizens A) are protected only if they live in the United States. B) are protected only if they have not been previously convicted of a crime. C) are protected only if law enforcement officials decide they deserve such protections. D) must be handled by military courts. E) do have the right to challenge their own detentions in court.

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61)

The USA Patriot Act A) grants the government new powers of surveillance. B) increased the capacity of the federal government to combat terrorism domestically. C) allowed the creation of a phone records–gathering program by the NSA. D) was enacted in response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001. E) All these answers are correct.

62)

The Edward Snowden leaks about the NSA surveillance program

A) indicated that the NSA was listening to all American cell phone conversations. B) showed that the NSA was diligent about getting court orders to monitor electronic communications. C) led President Obama to quickly terminate the program. D) brought changes in how Americans' phone data was stored for NSA retrieval. E) in reality shared little or no new information.

63) Which of the following, relative to the others, is typically more protective of individual rights? A) the U.S. Congress B) the general public C) public opinion D) the presidency E) the judiciary

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 64) What is meant by selective incorporation? Discuss the history of this process and its importance to the protection of individual rights.

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65) Discuss the differences between the First Amendment's establishment and free exercise clauses.

66) Explain the concept of procedural due process and list several of the procedural rights protected by the Constitution. Do these rights apply to all levels of government? Explain.

67) How has the Supreme Court interpreted the Eighth Amendment's prohibition against cruel and unusual punishment in recent years? Explain.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_14e 1) C 2) B 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) E 13) A 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) E 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) B 33) B 34) B 35) B 36) D 37) C 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) E 42) A 43) E 44) A 45) E 46) B 47) D 48) B 49) C 50) C 51) C 52) D 53) D 54) E 55) C 56) C Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) E 60) E 61) E 62) D 63) E 64) Selective incorporation refers to the absorption of certain provisions of the Bill of Rights, including freedom of speech and the press, into the Fourteenth Amendment. These rights are thereby protected from infringement by the states. After the Civil War, the Fourteenth Amendment was debated in Congress. There was no indication its framers intended it to protect First Amendment rights, such as freedom of speech and the press, from state action. Seventy years later, the Supreme Court invoked the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause in a free speech case, which was followed by a series of cases that established the process of selective incorporation. In doing so, the Court declared certain rights to be a fundamental part of democratic society and, therefore, to be protected from state intervention. At first, the Court included only free expression rights in its interpretation. In the 1960s, selective incorporation was also used to protect fair trial rights.

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65) The establishment clause has been interpreted by the courts as meaning that the government may not favor one religion over another or support religion over no religion at all. Thus, a wall of separation must be maintained between church and state, though the Supreme Court has allowed government aid to religious activity when that aid is nonreligious in nature and offers no preference to one religion over another. The free exercise clause means that Americans are free to hold any religious beliefs they want, although they are not always free to act on their beliefs. The Supreme Court has allowed government interference when the exercise of religious belief conflicts with otherwise valid law. 66) Procedural due process refers to procedures or methods that government must follow before a person can legally be punished for an offense. The U.S. Constitution offers procedural safeguards designed to protect a person from wrongful arrest, conviction, and punishment. These procedures include prohibitions on unreasonable search and seizure, self-incrimination, double jeopardy, and excessive bail or fine, and include guarantees of legal counsel, jury trial, speedy trial, and the confrontation of witnesses. These rights apply to the federal government through the Bill of Rights and have been extended to cover state action by selective incorporation through the Fourteenth Amendment. 67) The Supreme Court has typically let Congress and the state legislatures determine the appropriate penalties for crime. It has upheld some challenged state punishments in high profile cases, and some states continue to have extremely high incarceration and execution rates. With regard to the death penalty, however, the Court has placed some limits on states' ability to execute prisoners, particularly mentally retarded and juvenile ones. The Court has also banned life-without-parole sentences for juveniles and the mentally ill. Version 1

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CHAPTER 5 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The focus of civil liberties is ________, and the focus of civil rights is ________. A) the rights of individuals protected from infringement by the government; equal rights in the treatment of members of differing groups B) equal rights in the treatment of members of differing groups;the rights of individuals protected from infringement by the government C) the rights of individuals under a government; the rights of society as a whole D) the rights of individuals to privacy and expression; the rights of individuals with respect to imprisonment and punishment E) the Tenth Amendment; the Fourteenth Amendment

Disadvantaged Americans have generally gained their rights A) through the enlightened policies of advantaged Americans. B) through judicial action only. C) through a continual struggle for greater equality. D) mainly through action by the states rather than the federal government. E) by waiting patiently for public opinion to back their cause.

3) Culminating in a historic victory in 1954, advancement of civil rights for Black Americans in the early 20th century came mostly through A) legal action. B) legislative action. C) presidential decree. D) bureaucratic action. E) campaigning through mass media.

4) The Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas ruling (1954) held that racial segregation in schools violated the

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A) due process clause of the Fifth Amendment. B) due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. C) equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. D) Civil Rights Act. E) establishment clause of the First Amendment.

One example of a policy that aimed chiefly to overcome de facto discrimination is A) the Equal Rights Amendment. B) the Voting Rights Act of 1965. C) busing to achieve racial integration in the schools. D) the Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas ruling. E) the Fourteenth Amendment.

Which of the following is true?

A) Public schools are more racially segregated now than they were at the beginning of forced busing programs. B) Busing was found to improve student's racial attitudes and minority students' performance on standardized tests. C) The migration of large numbers of white families from urban to suburban schools has made it more difficult to desegregate urban schools. D) The Supreme Court prohibited forced busing across school district lines in cases where those lines were not drawn deliberately to keep races apart. E) All these answers are correct.

7) The Supreme Court's ruling in the Swann case on busing differed from the Brown decision in that Swann

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A) addressed the problem of de facto discrimination. B) applied to many northern communities in addition to communities in the South. C) sanctioned the use of busing in desegregation. D) dealt specifically with the issue of busing. E) All these answers are correct.

8) In 2007 the Supreme Court ruled that the pursuit of racial integration in public schools through busing A) was a practice that should be left to state governments to adopt or reject. B) should be enacted and monitored by the federal government to ensure full compliance. C) was as necessary to ensure racial justice as was the ending of de facto segregation in 1954. D) was a permanent solution to an intractable problem. E) deprived students of their Fourteenth Amendment right to equal protection.

Since the latter part of the busing era, the trend in public schools has been A) toward greater integration. B) toward greater segregation. C) to rely more and more on busing. D) to reinstate de jure racial segregation. E) to retain the gains in racial integration achieved through the 1970s, but not to further

them.

10)

The Supreme Court concept of suspect classifications suggests that

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A) it is impossible to impose quotas fairly because they require classifications of merit based on race. B) it is inherently suspect to classify one school district or public facility reserved for a particular race as inferior or superior to another. C) laws that classify people differently on the basis of their race or ethnicity are presumed to have discrimination as their purpose. D) any form of classification of people based on race or gender is not a sufficient basis on which to overturn an established federal law. E) any law designed to specifically affect members of different genders in different ways is inherently discriminatory.

11)

In applying the reasonable-basis test, courts tend to

A) require government only to show that a particular law is reasonable. B) assess whether a law had the support of a two-thirds majority of legislators at the time of passage. C) determine whether a law is working well and, if so, to allow it to remain in effect. D) prohibit any law that results in the unequal treatment of Americans. E) interpret the equal protection clause in a strict manner.

12)

Any law that attempts a racial or ethnic classification is subject to the A) reasonable-basis test. B) strict-scrutiny test. C) intermediate-scrutiny test. D) precedent-basis test. E) suspect-classification test.

13)

Any law that includes a gender classification is subject to the

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A) reasonable-basis test. B) strict-scrutiny test. C) intermediate-scrutiny test. D) precedent-basis test. E) suspect-classification test.

14)

In the 1967 decision in Loving v. Virginia, the Supreme Court A) first explicitly applied the strict-scrutiny test. B) ruled that Virginia could restrict marriage between adults. C) held that interracial marriage did not have constitutional protection. D) countered judicial reasoning it had used thirteen years earlier in its Brown decision. E) All these answers are correct.

15) A law that placed restrictions on courses girls could take in high school would be evaluated by the courts using the A) reasonable-basis test. B) strict-scrutiny test. C) intermediate-scrutiny test. D) precedent-basis test. E) suspect-classification test.

16)

In the case of United States v. Virginia (1996), the Supreme Court ruled that

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A) strict racial quotas were a valid means of ensuring racial diversity on college campuses. B) private colleges could refuse to admit prospective students on the basis of sexual orientation. C) male-only admissions policy at a state-supported military academy was unconstitutional. D) because female instructors created an undue distraction at all-male universities, the schools in question could discriminate against women in their hiring practices. E) colleges affiliated with a particular religion could not take the religious persuasion of job candidates into consideration during the hiring process.

17)

The Fourteenth Amendment applies to discriminatory action by A) government only. B) private parties only. C) both government and private parties. D) the president specifically. E) Congress specifically.

18)

The Civil Rights Act of 1964 was aimed at eliminating discrimination

A) by governments in their conduct of elections (e.g., registration, placement of polling booths). B) by private individuals in their social relations—bigoted statements and other acts of prejudice are unlawful under most circumstances. C) by governments in their job practices and provision of services (e.g., schools, roads). D) by private individuals in their employment practices and in their operation of public accommodations (e.g., hotels, restaurants). E) All these answers are correct.

19) The modern civil rights movement had a peak moment with the March on Washington in ________.

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A) 1954 B) 1960 C) 1963 D) 1968 E) 1973

20)

The March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom A) brought about greater rights for the disabled. B) came in response to the passage of the Civil Rights Act. C) was conducted by women seeking fairer treatment in the workplace. D) was conducted by women seeking the right to vote. E) was conducted by Black Americans seeking equality of rights.

21) During theMarch on Washington for Jobs and Freedom , the important speech about the dream of an America where people are judged by character and not skin color was delivered by A) Jesse Jackson. B) Martin Luther King Jr. C) Thurgood Marshall. D) John F. Kennedy. E) Robert F. Kennedy.

22)

When the United States first came into being, married women were permitted to A) vote. B) hold office. C) serve on juries. D) own and dispense property without the husband's consent. E) None of these answers are correct.

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23)

The movement for women's rights was initially aligned with A) the abolition movement. B) the Progressive movement. C) the labor movement. D) the modern civil rights movement. E) the modern environmental movement.

24)

The first large and well-organized attempt to promote women's rights came in 1848 in A) Boston, Massachusetts. B) San Francisco, California. C) Minneapolis, Minnesota. D) Seneca Falls, New York. E) Madison, Wisconsin.

25)

Women in America obtained the right to vote in ________. A) 1790 B) 1865 C) 1890 D) 1920 E) 1974

26) Politically, the fight to pass major civil rights legislation in Congress in the 1960s was led primarily by

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A) southern Democrats. B) southern Republicans. C) Republicans. D) Democrats. E) an about equal coalition of Democrats and Republicans.

27)

Which of the following groups is most likely to identify with the Democratic Party? A) Hispanics B) Black Americans C) white women D) white men E) white southerners

28)

Which of the following groups is LEAST likely to identify with the Democratic Party? A) Hispanics B) Black Americans C) white women D) white southerners E) white northerners

29)

How many states ratified the Equal Rights Amendment? A) none of them B) only a few C) about half D) nearly three-fourths E) all but three of them

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30) The fight to give Hispanic farm laborers better working conditions and wages in the late 1960s was conducted primarily in A) Arizona. B) California. C) Oregon. D) Washington. E) New Mexico.

31)

Native Americans A) have always been legal citizens of the United States. B) were not given citizenship status en masse until the 20th century. C) do not today have the full legal rights of other U.S. citizens. D) are U.S. citizens unless they choose to live on a reservation. E) have numbered roughly 10 million in the United States since the 1700s.

32)

Native Americans were denied citizenship in the United States until ________. A) 1789 B) 1856 C) 1924 D) 1972 E) 1998

33)

The first Asian immigrants to come to America in large numbers A) settled primarily in the Midwest and Northeast. B) did not arrive until the early 20th century. C) were welcomed as equals by most whites. D) were brought in as laborers in mines and railroad construction. E) All these answers are correct.

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34)

In 1960, the greatest percentage of immigrants to America came from A) Europe. B) Asia. C) Latin America. D) Africa. E) Australia.

35)

In 2010, the greatest percentage of immigrants to America came from A) Europe. B) Asia. C) Latin America. D) Africa. E) Australia.

36) Which of the following had the greatest impact on increasing voting rates by Black Americans? A) the Nineteenth Amendment B) the Twenty-Fourth Amendment C) the ending of whites-only primaries D) the Civil Rights Act of 1964 E) the Voting Rights Act of 1965

37)

The Voting Rights Act of 1965

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A) expired in the late 1990s. B) prohibits discrimination in voting and voter registration. C) was strengthened by the 2013 Supreme Court decision Shelby County v. Holder. D) applies only to federal elections, not state and local elections. E) has no significant provisions for enforcement.

38) The 2013 Supreme Court decision Shelby County v. Holder interpreting the Voting Rights Act A) declared the entire Voting Rights Act unconstitutional. B) was a victory for the Obama administration in general and Attorney General Eric Holder in particular. C) argued that Congress had set standards for federal oversight that were no longer relevant. D) requires states be more diligent in ensuring that minorities have full voting rights. E) was all the more emphatic because it had a unanimous 9–0 vote.

39)

Housing in America

A) falls largely outside the scope of the law—people are free to rent or sell property to whomever they want. B) is an area where equality in practice is now nearly a reality; people of similar incomes, regardless of race or color, find it equally easy to qualify for home mortgages. C) is an unimportant civil rights issue, since housing patterns almost completely reflect the personal preferences of people and are not substantially influenced by past or present racial bias. D) continues to evidence a high degree of racial segregation. E) None of these answers are correct.

40)

The Civil Rights Act of 1968 addressed

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A) voting. B) hiring. C) education. D) housing. E) work conditions.

41)

The policy of affirmative action arose when

A) it became apparent that disadvantaged Americans would not attain equal employment through the 1964 Civil Rights Act alone or through individual lawsuits. B) the Supreme Court declared in Bakke that the Fourteenth Amendment requires government and large firms to hire more women and minorities. C) the Supreme Court ruled that de facto discrimination is unlawful. D) private firms decided on their own that a more diverse workforce was actually a more productive and effective workforce. E) the Supreme Court rendered its Adarand v. Peña decision in 1995.

42) De jure discrimination and de facto discrimination are two ways in which some Americans are treated as less equal than others. Examples of governmental actions or public policies designed to address each of these forms of discrimination are A) the Brown decision ( de jure), and affirmative action ( de facto). B) affirmative action ( de jure), and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 ( de facto). C) the Voting Rights Act of 1965 ( de jure), and the Brown decision ( de facto). D) the Supreme Court's busing decisions ( de jure), and affirmative action decisions ( de facto). E) None of these answers are correct.

43)

Equality of result policies are primarily directed at ________ discriminatory effects.

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A) de jure B) de facto C) religious D) gender E) due process

44)

One reason that affirmative action is so controversial is that

A) since the 1980s the Supreme Court has imposed it on the American public despite congressional attempts to end it. B) most Americans admit that they oppose programs that ensure equal treatment for minorities. C) it is applied only to private businesses and schools, not to government programs and institutions. D) the Supreme Court has repeatedly declared it unconstitutional both in principle and in practice. E) it is viewed as giving preferential treatment, which is unpopular, instead of simply ensuring equal treatment.

45)

The central issue in the Bakke case was A) school desegregation. B) sexual harassment. C) affirmative action. D) Native Americans' civil rights. E) comparable worth.

46)

The Supreme Court's decision in the University of California Regents v.

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Bakke

case

A) invalidated the principle of affirmative action. B) ruled that Bakke could not be admitted to medical school. C) established quota systems as a legitimate basis of affirmative action. D) upheld the principle of affirmative action while invalidating a particular means of achieving it. E) None of these answers are correct.

47) The Supreme Court halted the general use of reserved funding in the granting of federal contracts to minority businesses in the 1995 case of A) Adarand v. Peña. B) Fullilove v. Klutznick. C) Craig v. Boren. D) Rostker v. Goldberg. E) United States v. Virginia.

48) How did the Supreme Court justify its pro-affirmative action ruling in Fisher v. University of Texas (2016)? A) It argued the University of Texas had overstepped its bounds in its affirmative action policy, but that the federal government had no jurisdiction to either strike it down or approve it. B) It argued the University of Texas had kept overly holistic or idealistic criteria and goals out of its admissions process with respect to minority students. C) It argued the University of Texas's 10-percent quota for minority students reflected the bare minimum that a diverse society should strive for in higher education admissions. D) It argued the University of Texas had very narrowly tailored its use of ethnicity and race as admission factors for a compelling interest in diversity. E) It argued that even public education institutions, because they accept private tuition money, are allowed to make any affirmative action policy they desire.

49)

With regard to affirmative action, the Supreme Court in recent years has

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A) moved to outlaw it. B) moved to narrow its application. C) asked Congress to clarify the policy. D) asked the president to clarify the policy. E) asked the state legislatures to clarify the policy.

50)

Which type of household has the LOWEST percentage of families living in poverty? A) two-parent family B) single-parent family C) male-headed family D) female-headed family E) All these household types have about the same percentage living in poverty.

51)

Which statement about women's rights is correct?

A) The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) was ratified by the necessary 38 states in 1982. B) The women's rights movement began in the era of World War I and within a few years achieved voting rights for women. C) Women have made clear gains in the areas of appointive and elective offices. D) "Comparable worth polices" that might have benefited women workers have been invalidated by the Supreme Court. E) All these answers are correct.

52)

What was politically significant about Geraldine Ferraro in 1984?

A) She became the first woman to be elected governor of a state. B) She became the first woman to run on the national ticket of a major political party. C) She became the first woman to serve as attorney general of the United States. D) She was the first woman to hold the top position in the U.S. House of Representatives. E) She was the first person to hold the top position in the U.S. Senate.

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53)

The first woman ever to serve on the U.S. Supreme Court was appointed by A) President Truman. B) President Eisenhower. C) President Kennedy. D) President Reagan. E) President Carter.

54) Today, women currently hold about ________ of the seats in the House of Representatives. A) 7 percent B) 19 percent C) 28 percent D) 37 percent E) 49 percent

55)

Which country has the highest proportion of women serving in its national legislature? A) Sweden B) United States C) Japan D) Germany E) Canada

56) The average hourly pay for full-time female employees is about ________ percent of that for full-time male employees.

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A) 50 B) 60 C) 65 D) 82 E) 93

57)

Native Americans

A) today number more than 2 million. B) have a far higher infant mortality rate than the national average. C) can now teach children exclusively in their native language in schools run by the Bureau of Indian Affairs. D) are less than half as likely to finish college as other Americans. E) All these answers are correct.

58)

All the following statements about Hispanic Americans are true EXCEPT that

A) they are the fastest-growing minority in the United States. B) they have made major political gains in terms of electing local officials, particularly in the southwestern states. C) they are healthier and have a longer life expectancy than would be expected from their education and income levels. D) their average annual income is relatively close to the national average. E) they are one of the nation's oldest ethnic groups.

59)

Of the following states, which tends to have larger numbers of Caribbean Hispanics? A) California B) Texas C) New York D) New Mexico E) Arizona

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60) How did the United States Supreme Court respond to the Trump administration's cancellation of the DACA program? A) It affirmed the cancellation on the grounds that this policy lay within the executive branch's authority. B) It overruled the administration on the grounds that the cancellation violated the Dreamers' Fourteenth Amendment rights. C) It overruled the administration on the grounds that it had demonstrated racial bias in the past. D) It overruled the administration on the grounds that it had not provided an adequate justification for its policy. E) It affirmed the administration's cancellation of the program, arguing that America should come first.

61)

Until 2020, job discrimination against LGBTQ workers was A) legal in many states. B) explicitly supported in the constitution. C) unheard of. D) explicitly prohibited by federal law. E) explicitly prohibited in most state constitutions.

62) Which member of the United States Supreme Court wrote in a 2020 ruling on workplace discrimination against members of the LGBTQ community, that "an individual’s homosexuality or transgender status is not relevant to employment decisions." A) Sonia Sotomayor B) John Roberts C) Clarence Thomas D) Neil Gorsuch E) Ruth Bader Ginsberg

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63) ________ were more than twice as likely to die from COVID-19, in 2020, than ________. A) Black Americans; white Americans. B) Children; adults C) Women; men D) Rural Americans; urban Americans. E) White Americans; Black Americans

64)

Why are Black Americans dying from COVID-19 at twice the rate of white Americans? A) White doctors discriminate against them. B) Black Americans are suspicious of doctors. C) Black Americans are more averse to mask-wearing. D) Black Americans have a higher incidence of poverty-related comorbidity factors. E) Black Americans have fewer friends and family that support them.

65)

All of the following statements about Asian American rights are true EXCEPT that

A) Asian Americans have not attained a proportionate share of top business positions. B) Asian Americans are an upwardly mobile group but are underrepresented in top positions in society due to past and present discrimination. C) Asian Americans have the highest percentage of two-parent families of any racial group. D) Asian Americans have made notable educational advancements. E) Asian Americans have the second highest median family income of any group.

66) Asian Americans account for about ________ of professionals and technicians in the United States.

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A) 1 percent B) 5 percent C) 10 percent D) 15 percent E) 25 percent

67) In 2015, the Supreme Court ruled that state bans on same-sex marriage violated the Fourteenth Amendment in which case? A) Obergefell v. Hodges B) Loving v. Virginia C) Grutter v. Bollinger D) Shelby County v. Holder E) Lau v. Nichols

68) In which of the following measures are Asian Americans underrepresented compared to whites and even other minorities like Hispanics and Black Americans? A) holding top business positions B) managerial jobs in the tech sector C) higher-income families D) political representation E) placement in higher education

69)

In 2004, ________ instituted same-sex marriage. A) California B) Texas C) Vermont D) Massachusetts E) Alabama

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70)

Public support for same-sex marriage has A) decreased significantly since the 1990s. B) increased significantly since the 1990s. C) remained steady since the 1990s. D) increased slightly since the 1990s. E) decreased slightly since the 1990s.

71)

Regarding same-sex marriage, it is true that

A) the marriage issue has been the primary focus of the LGBTQ community until recently. B) several states have recently reversed earlier legal approval of the practice. C) younger people are more likely to approve of it than older people are. D) it first became legal in New York. E) it is a state issue that is beyond federal control or influence.

72)

Which of the following statements is true of age discrimination in the United States?

A) The courts have not given government and employers any leeway in establishing age-based policies. B) Forced retirement for reasons of age is not permissible even if justified by the nature of a particular job or the performance of a particular employee. C) Age discrimination is among the forms of discrimination prohibited by the U.S. Constitution. D) Mandatory retirement ages for most jobs have been eliminated by law. E) Hiring bias on the basis of age is still allowed by all private companies but has been mostly abolished in government and public agencies.

73)

Which of the following is true of discrimination against the disabled in the United States?

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A) The Americans with Disabilities Act grants protections to the disabled only in the employment sphere. B) Congress passed the Americans with Disabilities Act in 1975. C) Before 1975, four million children with disabilities were getting either no education or an inappropriate one. D) Through the Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975, Congress required that schools receiving federal funding provide all children, however severe their disability, with a free and appropriate education. E) Discrimination against the disabled is among the forms of discrimination prohibited by the Constitution, but it has also been strengthened through various statutes.

74)

According to Gunnar Myrdal, what is America's curse? A) greed B) racial discrimination C) obesity D) street violence E) religious intolerance

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 75) What is the equal protection clause? What three tests are associated with discrimination in law?

76) Discuss the racial problems addressed by the Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas decision and the Civil Rights Act of 1964. What provisions of the Constitution provided the basis for each of these decisions?

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77) Describe the provisions and impact of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and the Civil Rights Act of 1968.

78) What is affirmative action? What is the Supreme Court's general position on affirmative action?

79) What is equality of result? What relation does it have to de facto and de jure discrimination?

80) Describe the current state of civil rights and other measures of equality for Black Americans.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_14e 1) A 2) C 3) A 4) C 5) C 6) E 7) E 8) E 9) B 10) C 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) C 17) A 18) D 19) C 20) E 21) B 22) E 23) A 24) D 25) D 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) D 29) D 30) B 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) E 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) E 45) C 46) D 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) C 52) B 53) D 54) B 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) E 58) D 59) C 60) D 61) A 62) D 63) A 64) D 65) E 66) B 67) A 68) D 69) D 70) B 71) C 72) D 73) C 74) B

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75) The equal protection clause is part of the Fourteenth Amendment, which reads in part that no state shall "deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws." This clause has been used by the courts to protect minority and disadvantaged groups from discrimination. The tests associated with legal discrimination are the reasonable-basis test and the strict-scrutiny test. The first test stipulates that some inequalities (such as unequal tax rates for people of different income levels) are acceptable as long as they are related to legitimate government interests. The second test is premised on the belief that raceand ethnicity-based classifications are "suspect classifications" assumed to have discrimination as their purpose. There is a third form of judgment—an "intermediate" category, which has been used with regard to sex classifications and is less rigid than the strict-scrutiny test but more rigid than the reasonable-basis test. For example, the exclusion of women from the military draft has been judged by the courts to be constitutional, whereas most other forms of gender discrimination in law have been judged unconstitutional.

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76) In Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas (1954), the Supreme Court justices overturned the 1896 Plessy v. Ferguson ruling. The U.S. Supreme Court unanimously ruled that segregated schools were inherently unequal, and thus they violated the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. The Court further stated that the maintenance of separate school systems generates feelings of social inferiority on the part of minority students. Because the Fourteenth Amendment applies only to acts of government, private firms are not affected by it. In the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Congress used its commerce power to entitle all persons equal access to establishments serving the general public, and to forbid discrimination in hiring, promotion, and payment of employees in medium and large firms. Congress's commerce power was utilized to restrict discrimination in public places and employment. 77) The 1964 Civil Rights Act entitles all persons to equal access to restaurants, bars, theaters, hotels, and other public accommodations. It also bars discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin in the hiring, promotion, and wages of employees of medium-size and large firms. Although this legislation had a major immediate impact on limiting discrimination in access to public accommodations, it did not immediately result in equality of opportunity or hiring practices. The act did not require employers to prove that their employment practices were not discriminatory, and many continued to give preferential treatment to white males. The concentration of the Civil Rights Act of 1968 was equality in housing. To prevent discrimination in housing, this act prevented building owners from refusing to sell or rent housing because of a person's race, religion, ethnicity, or sex. An exception is allowed for owners of small multifamily dwellings who reside on the premises.

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78) Affirmative action is a deliberate effort to counteract de facto discrimination and provide full and equal opportunity in areas such as education and employment for traditionally disadvantaged groups. This policy attempts to require providers of opportunities to show that their policies are not discriminatory. The Supreme Court has limited the application of affirmative action in recent years. In general, the Supreme Court has allowed practices seeking to redress instances of discrimination unless those practices infringe on the rights of individuals or unless they involve the strict use of quotas. The Supreme Court has upheld affirmative action programs when they are "narrowly tailored" to achieve the desired goal, not broad actions. 79) Equality of result is the aim of policies intended to reduce or eliminate discriminatory effects so that members of traditionally disadvantaged groups may obtain the same benefits of society as members of traditionally advantaged groups. De facto discrimination is discrimination that is a consequence of social, economic, and cultural biases and conditions. De jure discrimination is discrimination based on law. Equality of result is intended to combat the effects of de facto discrimination. Busing and affirmative action are examples of policies designed to achieve equality of result. Many Americans, however, believe that the government should only address de jure discrimination.

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80) There are no longer any de jure civil rights barriers to Black Americans in the United States, but a number of de facto barriers remain that continue to limit progress toward full equality. Rates of poverty and joblessness for Black Americans continue to be much higher than those of white Americans and affect all levels of Black families. About 35 percent of Black children live below the government poverty line, and more than half grow up in a single-parent household, which correlates with a number of developmental and educational problems. Good progress has been made in getting Black elected officials into office, though the number is still not representative of the total Black population. The election of Barack Obama to the presidency was a particularly important achievement.

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CHAPTER 6 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) In his definition of public opinion, the author states that the politically relevant opinions of private individuals become public opinion when they A) first enter people's heads. B) are openly expressed. C) become part of the conflict between the Republican and Democratic parties. D) are measured in opinion polls. E) become part of the conflict between populists and libertarians.

The process by which individuals acquire their political opinions is called A) popular culture. B) social communication. C) socioeconomic change. D) political socialization. E) political assimilation.

The process of political socialization in the United States is

A) normally cumulative; political beliefs attained earlier in life tend to be retained to a substantial degree. B) highly structured; children are subjected to an intense system of governmentmandated political indoctrination. C) highly effective; Americans are the best-informed citizens in the world. D) extremely narrow; most Americans get nearly all their opinions from a single source. E) usually uniform; there are almost no differences in the opinions of various groups, such as northerners and southerners.

What are the two distinguishing characteristics of political socialization?

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A) Schools are the most influential agent of political socialization, and political socialization is strongest during childhood. B) Family is the strongest agent of political socialization, and political socialization is strongest during high school and college. C) Political socialization is cumulative, and it is most heavily developed during childhood. D) Political socialization is transitory, and it is most heavily developed during young adulthood. E) Political socialization occurs primarily among educated populations, and it is most heavily developed during adulthood.

Which of the following is/are NOT a primary socializing agent? A) peers B) school C) church D) family E) All these answers are correct, as none identifies a primary socializing agent.

Which of the following would NOT be considered a secondary socializing agent? A) leaders B) the media C) peers D) church E) None of these answers are correct, as all represent secondary socializing agents.

7) As an agent of political socialization, the American family will likely have its greatest effect on an individual's

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A) party identification. B) choice and form of higher education. C) professional career. D) knowledge of particular public policies. E) rate of political participation.

8) Students are most likely to hear stories about America's heroes and greatness when they are in A) elementary school. B) middle school. C) high school. D) an undergraduate college program. E) graduate school.

Elisabeth Noelle-Neumann's "spiral of silence" theory contends that

A) most individuals are reluctant to speak out against the dominant opinion. B) people tend not to express their views until asked. C) people holding deviant opinions tend to be more vocal, and hence silence the majority. D) most individuals like to challenge dominant opinions. E) All these answers are correct.

10)

Which of the following is true of Americans' pride in their democracy?

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A) Americans' pride in their democracy has increased slightly in recent decades, largely as a result of participation in foreign wars. B) Americans' pride in their democracy is relatively low compared to most other countries. C) Americans' pride in their democracy has stayed relatively consistent in recent decades and is comparatively high compared to most other countries. D) Americans' pride in their democracy has decreased rapidly in recent decades, largely as a result of increasing partisanship. E) Americans' pride in their democracy has decreased rapidly in recent decades, largely as a result of the ongoing difficulty of participation in foreign wars.

11)

Party identification refers to

A) the percentage of polled individuals that claim membership in a particular party. B) formal membership in a political party. C) a person's sense of loyalty to a political party. D) a political party's platform—the stances on issues that define its beliefs. E) the ability of individual citizens to identify the major issue positions of the major political parties.

12)

In terms of party identification, slightly more than half of adults call themselves A) liberals. B) fully Republican or Democrat. C) Republicans. D) fully independent. E) Democrats.

13)

Which of the following statements about party identification is true?

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A) Most independents do not lean Democratic or Republican. B) Currently, more people identify as Republicans than as Democrats. C) Currently, more people identify as Republican than as Democrat. D) Switching party identification happens most often among the middle-aged and older. E) More adults call themselves independent now than call themselves Democrat.

14)

Currently, the greatest percentage of Americans identify as A) Democrats or leaning Democrat. B) Republicans or leaning Republican. C) fully independent. D) Libertarians. E) Populists.

15) Historically, dramatic change in party identification is uncommon and is almost always a consequence of A) a change in the policy position of the president. B) major upheaval. C) popular satisfaction with a government initiative. D) a change in the law. E) a Supreme Court ruling.

16)

What has prompted increased calls for gun control in the United States? A) record-setting numbers of gun-related deaths B) the political activism of the National Rifle Association C) the political messages of the Obama administration D) the political messages of the Trump administration E) a sense of embarrassment over gun violence in the international community

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17) Friedrich Engels believed that communism would not take root in the United States because A) the poorer American classes still had enough material wealth to be happy with their station. B) American workers lacked sufficient class consciousness. C) the government was already providing substantial financial assistance to the working class. D) the Social Security system provided workers with a safety net not available to workers in Europe. E) the government of the U.S. was too militantly anti-communist and would not allow propaganda to spread.

18)

A general belief about the role and purpose of government is called A) conservatism. B) an ideology. C) socialization. D) politicization. E) None of these answers are correct.

19) Which of the following statements about Americans and ideology and political thinking is true? A) Liberalism and conservatism have such imprecise meanings that it is not useful to think about politics in these terms. B) Americans overwhelmingly identify themselves as liberals. C) Americans' political ideologies tend to go through one major left-to-right or right-toleft switch in their lives. D) Most Americans do not demonstrate blind faith in their party of choice. E) Americans are highly consistent in party identification and are rarely influenced by policies or candidates.

20)

In terms of the direction

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of public opinion on gun control, 6

A) gun rights advocates are in the majority. B) gun rights and gun control advocates are in agreement. C) gun control advocates feel more deeply about the issue than gun rights advocates. D) gun rights advocates feel more deeply about the issue than gun control advocates. E) the majority favors stricter gun control laws.

21)

In terms of the intensity of public opinion on gun control, A) gun rights advocates are in the majority. B) gun rights and gun control advocates are in agreement. C) gun control advocates feel more deeply about the issue than gun rights advocates. D) gun rights advocates feel more deeply about the issue than gun control advocates. E) the majority favors stricter gun control laws.

22)

In terms of the saliency of public opinion on gun control,

A) gun rights advocates are in the majority. B) gun control usually ranks high on the public's list of top issues. C) gun control advocates feel more deeply about the issue than gun rights advocates. D) those who favor gun rights are far more likely than those who favor gun control to give money in an effort to influence gun policy. E) gun control usually ranks low on the public's list of top issues.

23) Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to apply to economic or social liberals? A) They favor government activism in the area of distribution of economic benefits. B) They prefer a smaller role for government in upholding social and cultural traditions. C) They favor more government spending for the poor. D) They believe lifestyle choices should be left to the individual. E) They believe that government should be used to promote traditional values.

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24) Few developments illustrate the importance of ________ as sources of opinion more clearly than how Americans reacted to the threat posed by the COVID-19 coronavirus. A) experts B) foreign leaders C) relatives D) local merchants E) state-controlled newspapers

25) Which of the following was one of the unexpected side-effects of Americans heeding expert advice regarding COVID-19? A) Local businesses gained lots of new customers. B) Restaurants and event-sites made enormous profits. C) People in the healthcare sector got laid off. D) People travelled more because of remote work. E) Traffic and air pollution dropped to their lowest levels in decades.

26) A situation in which people base their concerns on a group identity and align themselves politically with those who share that identity is called A) an echo chamber. B) identity politics. C) identification. D) racism. E) deferred action.

27)

A conservative is opposed to government intervention

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A) in both the economic and social spheres. B) in the economic but not the social sphere. C) in the social sphere, but not the economic sphere. D) in neither the social sphere nor the economic sphere. E) only with regard to affirmative action.

28) Early in the COVID-19 coronavirus pandemic, despite countless news reports and official announcements, roughly a third of American adults were convinced that the virus was A) no more dangerous than the seasonal flu. B) only contagious through the exchange of bodily fluids. C) only contractible by people over 50. D) as dangerous as Ebola and AIDS. E) magically going to disappear with fall and winter weather.

29)

The most powerful religious force in contemporary American society is the A) Protestants. B) religious right. C) Catholics. D) Jews. E) Muslims.

30) Americans who attend religious services at least once a week are most likely to vote for which political party? A) Libertarian B) Democratic C) Republican D) Populist E) Green

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31) Which of the following groups in the U.S. shows a higher level of support for collective bargaining? A) workers in the service sector B) factory workers C) small farmers D) white-collar workers E) workers in the skilled crafts

32)

You are LEAST likely to find a "blue state" in which region? A) South B) Northeast C) northern Midwest D) West Coast E) Pacific Northwest

33) According to a recent Pew Research Center poll, young adults are substantially more likely than senior citizens to support A) stronger environmental regulations. B) affirmative action. C) religious teaching in public schools. D) strengthening social security. E) the use of military force.

34)

Women are less likely than men to favor

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A) affirmative action. B) abortion rights. C) higher levels of education spending. D) the use of force to settle international disputes. E) All these answers are correct.

35) The society of Northern Ireland is presented by the text as a demonstration of what difference with U.S. society? A) the lack of importance in measured public opinion for the political process B) the status of the family as a secondary agent of socialization instead of a primary agent C) the relatively small influence that government propaganda has on the individual D) the lack of religion as a defining frame of reference E) the lack of crosscutting between groups

36) ________ once said that he spent nearly all his adult life in government and yet had never seen a government. A) Theodore Roosevelt B) Woodrow Wilson C) Abraham Lincoln D) George W. Bush E) Harry Truman

37)

Which of the following is true of letter writers and demonstrators?

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A) They tend to be individuals who have participated in violent or physical expressions of political opinion. B) They tend to espouse a centrist ideological leaning. C) They tend to have a greater effect on policymakers than the public opinion polls of the general population. D) Roughly 10 percent of Americans participate in a mass demonstration or write a letter to the editor each year. E) Their opinions tend to be more extreme than those of the population as whole.

38) A member of Congress who wants to act on what the majority of his or her constituency thinks on a particular issue would be advised to respond to which of the following indicators? A) letters from constituents B) the editorial positions of newspapers in the constituency C) public demonstrations by constituents D) a poll based on a random selection sample of constituents E) the number of yard signs on major streets

39)

Which of the following is true about public opinion polling?

A) Opinion polls are the most relied-upon method of measuring public opinion. B) Polls can be erroneous at times. C) Sampling error decreases as the size of the sample increases. D) Polling accuracy diminishes when respondents are unfamiliar with the issues in question. E) All these answers are correct.

40) To accurately poll the citizens of the United States as opposed to the citizens of a single state,

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A) a much larger sample size will be required. B) the sample requirements will be nearly the same. C) a smaller sample size will be required. D) less randomization will be needed because the sample size will be larger. E) a larger sampling error can be accepted.

41)

The key factors in determining the accuracy of an opinion poll are

A) the population size and the sample size. B) the sample size and the timeline over which the sample was taken. C) the size of the sample and whether the sample was selected from the population by a random method. D) the sample size and whether the sample has the same percentage of men and women as the population. E) the anonymous nature of the sampling process and sample size.

42)

The accuracy of a poll is usually expressed in terms of A) population density. B) census parameter. C) population error. D) sampling error. E) interview error.

43) A properly drawn sample of one thousand individuals has a sampling error of roughly plus or minus A) 1 percent. B) 3 percent. C) 5 percent. D) 8 percent. E) 10 percent.

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44)

The most embarrassing Gallup poll failure in predicting a presidential election was A) 1928 Hoover–Smith. B) 1936 Roosevelt–Landon. C) 1948 Truman–Dewey. D) 1964 Johnson–Goldwater. E) 2000 Bush–Gore.

45)

Sources of polling error can include A) use of random telephone polling. B) unrepresentative samples. C) respondents' lack of knowledge or interest in the issue. D) question wording. E) All these answers are correct.

46)

The accuracy of polling is diminished when respondents

A) give what they regard as the socially correct response to certain questions even though they think differently. B) are asked about familiar issues. C) have an opinion and reveal it. D) admit they are not familiar with an issue and offer no opinion. E) None of these answers are correct.

47) What term do scholars use for a purported opinion offered by a respondent who is unfamiliar with the specific issue?

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A) uninformed response B) faulty opinion C) invalid answer D) confused response E) nonopinion

48)

Journalist Walter Lippmann suggested that

A) polling, even when done scientifically, cannot be trusted because it is in people's nature to be dishonest in response to political questions. B) the dominance of polling has brought about an ideological shift toward the more radical ends of the political spectrum among elected representatives. C) polling had provided political parties with even more entrenched power, reducing the influence of third party candidates. D) effective government cannot be run by politicians that base their public opinions on poll results. E) pollsters have more effect on the outcome of presidential elections in recent decades than have the people who do the voting.

49)

In general, public opinion A) determines specific government actions. B) is unrelated to government action. C) sets limits on government action. D) affects government action only on election issues. E) is strongest during a presidential election.

50)

Which of the following statements is true?

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A) Franklin Roosevelt had little faith that public opinion would preserve the Social Security program; he expected it to be dismantled within a few decades. B) Public opinion on the usefulness of the Social Security system tends to swing back and forth dramatically with the health of the national economy. C) George W. Bush attempted to privatize aspects of Social Security, only to back down in the face of determined resistance. D) Franklin Roosevelt attempted to increase the size of the Social Security system, but backed down in the face of strong public opinion against any expansion. E) The increase in tougher crime and sentencing laws in the 1990s went into effect despite indications that public opinion strongly opposed the trend.

51) Which of the following is true of the relationship between public opinion and shifts in major government policies? A) On highly salient and emotional issues in particular, public opinion tends to affect policy to a greater degree than policymakers' agendas affect public opinion. B) Leaders' opinions ultimately affect most policy issues more than the larger public opinion. C) Linguist Noam Chomsky claimed that democracy consistently preserved the will of the people over the will of elite interests. D) Analysts have found a pattern consistent with the claim that "public opinion has little influence over policy." E) All these answers are correct.

52) Which of the following actions by a member of Congress would likely lead Edmund Burke to classify that member as a "trustee"?

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A) The member votes for a declaration of war because her constituents favor it by large majorities, even though she personally opposes it. B) The member votes against a resolution declaring war because she agrees with her constituents that it is unwise to pursue military conflict at that time. C) The member votes against a resolution declaring war, believing it unwise, despite her constituents having a majority opinion in favor of the war. D) The member conducts extensive polling to determine the will of her constituents. E) The member declines to vote on the resolution for a declaration of war because she does not feel she understands the issue fully.

53) What was the primary cause for an increase in the public's support for a military invasion of Iraq during the six-month period leading to the start of the war? A) the inability of the United Nations to discover strong evidence of weapons of mass destruction B) mainstream media coverage of the actions of the Iraqi government C) grassroots efforts by conservative groups that argued it was necessary for greater national security D) the Bush administration's efforts to press the case for war E) election-year posturing on national security issues by congressional candidates for office

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 54) Discuss the major characteristics of the political socialization process through which Americans acquire their political opinions.

55) Identify and discuss the frames of reference that Americans rely upon when forming their political opinions.

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56) Define what is meant by a political ideology. Why is ideology important to consider when discussing the political thinking of the American people?

57) Explain the difference between the delegate and trustee views of political representation in a democracy.

58) Discuss the general relationship between public opinion and the policy actions of government.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_14e 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) D 20) E 21) D 22) E 23) E 24) A 25) E 26) B Version 1

27) B 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) E 36) B 37) E 38) D 39) E 40) B 41) C 42) D 43) B 44) C 45) E 46) A 47) E 48) D 49) C 50) C 51) A 52) C 53) D

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54) A first characteristic of political socialization is that most people's political outlook is formed uncritically during childhood. A second characteristic of political socialization is that its effect is cumulative; political orientations usually grow firmer with age. Political socialization takes place through a number of agents of socialization, both primary and secondary. Primary agents include the family, school, and church, with family being the most powerful of all agents of socialization. Secondary agents have a less intimate relationship with the individual, and include peers, the media, leaders, and major events. 55) The text outlines three of the major frames of reference through which Americans form their political opinions. The first is party identification, referring to a person's ingrained sense of loyalty to a political party. It often remains stable through adulthood, but can be influenced or changed by the issues or candidates of the moment. Another major frame of reference is political ideology, an individual's general belief about the role and purpose of government. In the United States, political ideology can be broadly broken down into groups such as economic or social liberals, and economic or social conservatives. (social liberals who are also economic conservatives are often called libertarians, while social conservatives that economic liberals are often called populists.) A third broad frame of reference is group orientations—the ways in which individuals see politics through the lens of a group affinity. There are many different kinds of groups, including those defined by religion, economic class, region, race and ethnicity, gender, and age.

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56) Political ideology is a general belief or beliefs about the proper role and purpose of government. Most Americans can be said to have ideological leanings, such as cultural (social) or economic liberal or conservative (sometimes also libertarian, or populist). Ideology can be a useful way of looking at how Americans think about government and in describing changes in public attitudes. In particular, it helps to understand whether or not an individual believes government should be active or inactive in the social or economic realms of public policy and life. 57) Two different views on how elected representatives should act in a democracy, delegate and trustee, each argue that public opinion should have different levels of influence on policymaking. The delegate view suggests that public opinion should have almost complete influence on policy and that representatives should act fully in response to the expressed desires of their constituents. The trustee view differs; it suggests that the public's concerns and desires should influence representative actions but that because the public may not always make perfect choices, representatives should use personal judgment about which policies to implement and how to implement them.

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58) Public opinion has a powerful though inexact influence on government. Although public opinion rarely determines exactly what government will do, public opinion serves to constrain the policy choices of officials. Some policy actions are beyond the range of possibility because the public will not accept change in existing policy or will not support policy that clearly conflicts with basic values. Many policy issues are sufficiently complex to limit public understanding of their intricacies, and thus elected officials may not be able to rely on wider public opinion. In addition, officials must anticipate the public response to policy, since people may react negatively to policies that fail or are followed by unfavorable developments. Evidence indicates officials are reasonably attentive to public opinion, particularly on highly visible issues of public policy.

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CHAPTER 7 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) When the nation was founded, who was eligible to vote? A) everyone—there was universal suffrage B) all males and females who were at least 21 years of age C) only males who owned property D) only citizens who had lived in the nation for at least ten years E) all native-born citizens

2) African American men technically gained suffrage with passage of the ________ Amendment. A) Fifteenth B) Nineteenth C) Twenty-First D) Twenty-Third E) Twenty-Sixth

Literacy tests were used to

A) disenfranchise African Americans in the South. B) finance election campaigns. C) ensure that women voted with their husbands, who legally controlled the money in a marriage. D) ensure that the people who voted would take the vote seriously. E) help subsidize public education in the North.

Women gained the right to vote

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A) with passage of the Bill of Rights. B) shortly after the Civil War. C) early in the 20th century. D) with passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965. E) during the era of Jacksonian democracy.

5) Eighteen-, nineteen-, and twenty-year-old Americans were granted the right to vote by the passage of the ________ Amendment. A) Fifteenth B) Nineteenth C) Twenty-First D) Twenty-Third E) Twenty-Sixth

In the past two decades, the level of turnout in presidential elections has averaged about A) 35 percent. B) 45 percent. C) 60 percent. D) 65 percent. E) 75 percent.

Voter participation in the United States A) tends to be highest during midterm elections. B) is lower than in nearly every other democracy. C) shows that the apathy of young citizens has worsened considerably since the early

1990s. D) has increased in all elections over the past two decades. E) has declined in all elections over the past two decades.

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________ elections tend to draw the largest percentage of voters in the U.S. A) Primary B) Mayoral C) Congressional D) Gubernatorial E) Presidential

9) In the United States, the primary responsibility for registration of the individual voter rests with the A) state and local governments. B) local courts. C) employer. D) individual. E) federal government.

10) One of the reasons voter turnout is lower in the United States than in western European countries is that A) Americans pay less attention to politics. B) U.S. registration laws place a greater burden on the individual. C) the U.S. population is not as well educated. D) Europeans must pay a huge fine if they fail to vote. E) None of these answers are correct.

11)

The "motor voter" law

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A) was passed in 1993. B) was supposed to make registration easier. C) requires state agencies to allow people to register when they apply for a driver's license. D) requires state agencies to allow people to register when they apply for public assistance. E) All these answers are correct.

12) Scholars estimate that turnout would be roughly ________ percentage points higher in the United States if the U.S. had European-style registration. A) 2 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10 E) 15

13)

Voter registration in the United States A) was introduced as a means of keeping white males without property from voting. B) began as a way of preventing voters from casting more than one ballot on Election

Day. C) is the responsibility of the government, which adds legally qualified individuals automatically to the registration rolls. D) applies to voting in general elections but not in primary elections. E) has vastly increased voter turnout.

14)

In the United States,

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A) the federal government prevents states from forcing residents to register in advance of the election instead of on Election Day. B) voter registration requirements have usually been set by the states. C) voter registration periods and locations are highly publicized by the states, but registration requirements prevent many from taking advantage of them. D) most states automatically register a person to vote when he or she acquires a driver's license. E) states with easier registration laws have shown no higher turnout rates than states with restrictive registration requirements.

15)

States with the most restrictive voter registration laws also have A) the lowest rates of verified voter fraud. B) turnout rates comparable to the national average. C) the highest rates of verified voter fraud. D) turnout rates well below the national average. E) the highest percentage of eligible voters registered.

16)

Unlike other democracies, the United States A) holds elections for the lower house of the legislature every four years. B) uses primaries to select political candidates. C) holds elections for its chief executive every six years. D) places the burden for voter registration on the government. E) penalizes eligible voters for failing to turn up and vote on Election Day.

17) Which of the following countries has had the highest estimated voter turnout in recent national elections?

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A) Denmark B) Germany C) United States D) Belgium E) France

18) Which of the following countries has had the LOWEST estimated voter turnout in major national elections in recent decades? A) Denmark B) Germany C) United States D) Belgium E) Canada

19)

Which of the following states has relatively low turnout in elections? A) Idaho B) Maine C) Minnesota D) Indiana E) These four states have similar turnout rates compared to the national average.

20)

The adoption of voter identification card requirements by states A) will likely cause a decline in voter turnout. B) is a policy intended to further the gains of the motor voter law. C) was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. D) will increase the voting power of poorer citizens. E) was a response to well-documented accounts of widespread electoral fraud.

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21)

Voter identification cards find the most support among A) Democrats. B) Republicans. C) Libertarians. D) liberals. E) poorer citizens.

22) Which of the following states had its voter ID law upheld by the Supreme Court despite the Court's admission that the law was created with partisan intentions? A) Maine B) New Hampshire C) North Carolina D) Indiana E) Wisconsin

23)

The frequency of elections in the United States reduces voter turnout by A) discouraging local politicians from playing an active role in presidential elections. B) creating more complex registration requirements. C) focusing too much attention on state and local elections. D) increasing the personal effort needed to participate in all elections. E) increasing the amount of taxes paid at the polls.

24)

What percentage of states hold their gubernatorial elections in nonpresidential years? A) 25 percent B) 33 percent C) 50 percent D) 66 percent E) 75 percent

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25) Which of the following best explains why many American citizens might not be registered to vote? A) They do not own cars. B) They have below average income. C) They lack education. D) They are socialists. E) They lack education, don't own a car, and are poor.

26)

Compared with U.S. citizens of higher incomes, those of lower incomes are

A) much less likely to vote in elections. B) about equally likely to vote in elections. C) much more likely to vote in elections. D) much less likely to vote in elections—a pattern that is also true in European democracies. E) None of these answers are correct.

27)

Education and income affect voter turnout A) more in the United States than in Europe. B) more in Europe than in the United States. C) only in national elections in the United States. D) only in national elections in Europe. E) None of these answers are correct.

28)

Voter turnout is LOWEST in which age group?

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A) young adults B) middle-aged adults C) older adults D) senior citizens E) Voter turnout is essentially the same for all age groups.

29)

All of the following tend to decrease voter turnout EXCEPT A) sharp policy differences between major parties. B) alienation. C) frequent elections. D) the burdens of voter registration. E) lack of interest in politics.

30)

As distinct from alienation, apathy is A) associated with a high rate of voter turnout. B) a feeling of powerlessness. C) a general lack of interest in politics. D) a sign that the political system is working properly. E) widespread among affluent Americans.

31) One's sense of civic duty and sense of apathy are attitudes that are usually acquired from one's A) economic status. B) community. C) education. D) parents. E) experience with voting.

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32)

Regular voters tend to be characterized by a

A) strong sense of alienation, which motivates them to try to change government. B) strong sense of civic duty. C) desire to use government as a vehicle to help other Americans rather than themselves. D) strong sense of independence, which motivates them to try to defeat incumbents. E) All these answers are correct.

33) Which of the following beliefs is widespread among Americans, according to a poll conducted by Stanford University? A) Governments routinely practice election fraud. B) Americans are less likely to commit voter fraud than Europeans. C) Americans carry out a meaningful amount of voter fraud every year. D) the American government protects fair elections worldwide. E) It is normal for presidents to reject election results on allegations of fraud.

34)

Voting

A) is a limited form of political participation. B) provides citizens with a regular way to express themselves politically. C) is the most widespread form of political participation. D) does not offer as full an opportunity for political participation as some other activities. E) All these answers are correct.

35) In comparison with citizens in western European democracies, Americans are LESS likely to

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A) vote in national elections. B) actively work in an election campaign. C) support the activities of political groups. D) contribute money to political groups. E) All these answers are correct.

36) Citizens in which of the following countries are most likely to talk to people about politics? A) Germany B) France C) Great Britain D) United States E) There is no difference among the four nations.

37) Citizens in which of the following countries are most likely to engage in political activities, such as volunteering for political campaigns? A) Germany B) France C) Great Britain D) United States E) There is no difference among the four nations.

38) The citizens of ________ are most likely to take an active part in campaigns during an election. A) the Netherlands B) Great Britain C) the United States D) Germany E) France

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39) Which of the following is a reason that Americans are more likely to work for a political campaign than are citizens in Europe? A) America's federal system provides more campaign opportunities. B) European candidates seldom need campaign workers. C) Americans have more leisure time than Europeans. D) U.S. candidates pay campaign workers, whereas European candidates do not. E) Laws in some U.S. communities require citizens to participate in campaigns.

40)

The chief obstacle to Americans' participation in community activities is the A) lack of opportunity, because there are few groups active at this level. B) lack of personal motivation to get involved. C) low potential for success, since key decisions are made at the national level. D) low potential for success, since key decisions are made at the state level. E) All these answers are correct.

41)

Volunteer activity in the United States is LOWEST in the A) Midwest. B) West. C) Plains states. D) South. E) Northeast.

42) When democratic governments came into existence, tax and food riots and other forms of protest greatly diminished. Why?

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A) Citizens had less-disruptive ways to express themselves. B) A government safety net ensured basic needs were met. C) Social scientists have been studying this phenomenon but do not have a conclusive answer. D) The wealth of citizens increased dramatically with democratic freedoms and liberty. E) None of these answers are correct.

43) A sustained action taken by citizens disenchanted with government in order to express their opposition and work to bring about social or political change is a A) political movement. B) voter upsurge. C) citizen lobby. D) popular resistance. E) regular election.

44)

Political protests A) have recently seen success in changing policy, primarily with liberal or leftist protest

groups. B) are seen by most Americans as something to be accepted but not admired. C) are more common in the United States today than in most European democracies. D) have become more spontaneous and unlawful in recent years. E) are today mostly aimed at local laws and local political targets.

45)

The Tea Party's key initial issue was A) support for American military involvement in Iraq. B) support for American military involvement in Afghanistan. C) opposition to President Obama's climate change policies. D) opposition to high taxes. E) opposition to the Occupy Wall Street movement.

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46)

The Tea Party A) is aligned with the moderate wing of the Republican Party. B) was able to develop an enduring institutional base within the Republican Party. C) has urged compromise with Democrats on tax and spending issues. D) has yet to have any of its supporters elected to Congress. E) All these answers are correct.

47)

Occupy Wall Street's main target has been

A) the widening income gap between the wealthiest 1 percent of Americans and the rest of society. B) the undue influence of the Tea Party in national politics. C) the high taxes paid by America's poor. D) the need to have better regulation of stock trading. E) the necessity of overthrowing capitalism and replacing it with socialism.

48)

In which of the following countries is the rate of protest the LOWEST? A) Sweden B) Germany C) France D) United States E) Spain

49)

When it comes to protest activities, a majority of Americans are

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A) actively involved in protests at one time or another in their lives. B) willing to contribute through financial support but not through active participation. C) not highly supportive of such activities, despite America's tradition of free expression. D) actively involved only later in their lives, when they feel more secure that a protest is justified. E) supportive of violent activities if the cause warrants such an approach.

50) Although “independents” are idealized in high school civics classes, their lack of partisanship makes it less likely that they have A) friends. B) a job. C) the ability to think critically. D) a stake in national elections. E) political interest.

51) Which of the following movements reached a new peak in response to the killing of George Floyd in Minnesota in 2020? A) Occupy Wall Street B) Black Lives Matter C) the Tea Party D) #MeToo E) the National School Walkout

52)

Why did

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Occupy Wall Street disappear almost as quickly as it appeared?

A) The Obama administration secured the necessary reforms. B) Large donors refused to respond to their funding requests. C) Economic prosperity had eliminated inequality by 2015. D) The movement refused large donations or ties to the Democratic Party. E) Harsh police practices destroyed the movement and landed its leaders in jail.

53) Which of the following statements about political participation and lower-income Americans is true? A) They need the most government help but are least likely to engage in collective action to seek it. B) They are best positioned to participate politically but show the highest level of apathy toward participation. C) Americans in the bottom fifth of income levels are twice as likely to engage in public protest as those in the top fifth.  D) Despite lower voting turnout levels, the high visibility of lower-income Americans leads to them having political influence roughly equal to that of wealthy Americans. E) They are more sought out by state and local governments, with the intent to register them as voters, than are wealthier Americans.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 54) Describe three systemic reasons Americans vote at a lower rate than western Europeans.

55)

Give at least three reasons that some Americans vote regularly while others do not.

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56) Why are people of higher income and education levels more likely to be politically active?

57) What does the author mean by unconventional activism? Provide examples, and describe Americans' attitudes toward unconventional activism.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_14e 1) C 2) A 3) A 4) C 5) E 6) C 7) B 8) E 9) D 10) B 11) E 12) D 13) B 14) B 15) D 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) D 24) E 25) E 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) C 34) E 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) D 42) A 43) A 44) B 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) D 49) C 50) E 51) B 52) D 53) A

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54) Americans vote at a lower rate than Europeans for several reasons. Although both American and European governments require their citizens to register to vote, European governments are usually responsible for locating and placing individuals on registration rolls. In the United States it is up to the individual to register. This personal responsibility discourages registration and hence lowers American voter turnout. The frequency of American elections reduces voter turnout by increasing the effort required to participate in all of them, and American elections are held during a workday instead of a holiday or weekend, making it even more difficult to get to the polls. Another reason for low voter turnout is the restrictive voter registration requirements that some states have in place. The United States also lacks the strong socialist or labor parties, politically-oriented trade unions, and class-based political ideologies that encourage the lower-income classes to vote in Europe. 55) One reason some Americans vote more regularly than others is that they have a more developed sense of civic duty. Civic duty is a belief that citizens have certain responsibilities, one of which is voting. Citizens who tend not to vote have a weak sense of civic duty. Another factor is age. Younger adults are less likely to live in the same place from one election to the next, making continued voter registration more difficult. Finally, voting is closely related to education and income levels. The higher the person's education and income levels, the more likely he or she will vote. This relationship is particularly strong in the United States because there is no socialist or labor party to appeal to people with lower incomes and education; and because these same people are less likely to own cars or homes, which again makes continued voter registration more difficult.

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56) Americans of lower income and education levels tend to vote less than those with higher income and education levels. People of higher income and education are more likely to possess the financial resources, communication skills, and time to engage in potentially rewarding political activities, such as voting. Also, the U.S. political system does not have many class-based organizations (like a socialist or labor party) that would encourage lower-income and less educated citizens to participate. In addition, the U.S. places relatively high barriers to voter registration, and lower-income Americans are less likely to have the resources to meet them, such as owning a car or a home. 57) Unconventional activism refers to political movements and protests. Political movements, or social movements, are usually channeled outside of conventional forms of participation like political lobbying, instead more often using marches or rallies against government policies. Protests can threaten established authority, such as during the civil rights movement, and occasionally provoke a violent response from government, as the Kent State and Jackson State shootings illustrate. Through demonstrations, protest lines, and marches, protesters dramatize their opposition to official policies. The increasing partisan divide in the U.S. has brought an increase in protest movements in recent years. Examples include the activities of the Tea Party and Occupy Wall Street (OWS). In general, most Americans are not highly supportive of protest politics. They generally see protest as something to be accepted but not necessarily admired, and would prefer that people voice their discontent through elections.

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CHAPTER 8 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Over the past five presidential elections, voters under 30 years of age have preferred the ________ nominee by an average of roughly ________ percentage points. A) Democratic; 20 B) Democratic; 5 C) Third-Party; 15 D) Republican; 20 E) Republican; 5

2) Which of the following is true of political campaigns and party politics in the United States? A) The United States lacks minor parties. B) National campaigns in the U.S. are candidate-centered, not party-centered. C) Party organizations at the local level are no longer major players in campaigns. D) Party organizations are less powerful than they used to be in part because of the rise of television advertising. E) In recent years, candidates of the major parties have moved toward the political center in order to attract more voters.

3) Why does the author think it possible that at some point in the future the Democratic Party will come to dominate U.S. elections?

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A) Young voters have remained loyal to the Democratic Party as they have aged. B) Poor voters have remained loyal to the Democratic Party as they have prospered. C) Immigrant voters have remained loyal to the Democratic Party as they have gained citizenship. D) Young voters have remained loyal to the Democratic Party as they have become more educated. E) Black voters have remained loyal to the Democratic Party even as racism has disappeared.

What does it mean when the text suggests that parties are "linkage institutions"?

A) They connect citizens with government. B) They create coalitions of like-minded voters. C) They link interest groups with government through monetary donations. D) They link America's political past with it's present. E) They provide policy continuity so that voters can understand what is at stake from one election to the next.

Political parties serve to A) offer citizens a choice in the direction of their government. B) allow a coalition of common interests join together for a political purpose. C) offer the public a choice between policies and leaders. D) bring numerous candidates for office under a common label. E) All these answers are correct.

The history of democratic government is virtually inseparable from the history of

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A) high voter turnout. B) the separation of powers. C) economic recessions. D) protest movements. E) political parties.

7) ________ warned Americans of the "baneful effects" of factions (political parties) in his 1797 farewell address. A) James Madison B) Thomas Jefferson C) George Washington D) Andrew Jackson E) Abraham Lincoln

Political parties in the United States originated partly as a political feud between A) Marshall and Adams. B) Adams and Jackson. C) Lincoln and Douglas. D) Cleveland and Bryan. E) Hamilton and Jefferson.

The first American political parties emerged from the conflict between

A) slave states and free states. B) the older eastern states and the newer western states. C) small farmers and states' rights advocates, and those favoring commercial and wealthy interests. D) business and labor. E) Protestants and Catholics.

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10)

What was especially unusual about the "Era of Good Feeling"? A) Political parties were banned. B) President Monroe ran unopposed in 1820. C) Jefferson's faction adopted the label "Republican." D) The president and vice president were from competing parties. E) Federalists won the election of 1820.

11)

________ is associated with the Era of Good Feeling. A) Abraham Lincoln B) Franklin D. Roosevelt C) James Monroe D) Andrew Jackson E) George Washington

12)

Andrew Jackson's contribution to the development of political parties was the A) forging of a coalition of Democrats and Whigs. B) introduction of primary elections. C) formation of a new type of grassroots party organization. D) formation of the Federalist Party. E) formation of the Republican Party.

13)

The issue of slavery gave birth to the ________ Party as a major political party. A) Federalist B) Democratic C) Republican D) Whig E) Populist

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14)

Abraham Lincoln was first elected in 1860 with ________ of the popular vote. A) 20 percent B) 40 percent C) 50 percent D) 60 percent E) 80 percent

15)

Democrats and Republicans have endured as the two major U.S. parties primarily due to A) the stability of their ideologies. B) the lack of good third-party candidates. C) a high degree of party discipline. D) their ability to adapt to changing circumstances. E) None of these answers are correct.

16)

All of the following are characteristic of a party realignment EXCEPT A) the emergence of unusually powerful and divisive issues. B) an enduring change in the parties' coalitions. C) an election in which voters shift their partisan support. D) a very close electoral result. E) an enduring change in the parties' policies.

17) The Democratic Party's long-time regional stronghold, "the Solid South," stemmed from a realignment during which historical period?

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A) Civil War era B) 1890s C) Great Depression D) 1980s E) None of these answers are correct.

18)

The election of ________ was a realigning election. A) 1840 B) 1872 C) 1932 D) 1960 E) 1976

19)

________ was the only Republican elected president from 1932 to 1964. A) Richard Nixon B) Barry Goldwater C) Dwight Eisenhower D) Herbert Hoover E) Calvin Coolidge

20) The most obvious sign of the party realignment of recent decades has been the strong tendency of A) the South to vote Republican. B) the Plains states to vote Republican. C) the West Coast to vote Democratic. D) Colorado to vote Democratic. E) the Midwest to vote Democratic.

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21)

The most recent party realignment had a realigning election in ________. A) 1960 B) 1968 C) 1980 D) 2012 E) The most recent party realignment had no single realigning election.

22) What demographic is most likely to support the new party during a major party realignment? A) senior voters B) younger voters C) the well-educated D) low-income voters E) Populists

23) It is relatively rare for a party nominee to get less than ________ of the partisan vote in a presidential or a congressional race. A) 50 percent B) 60 percent C) 70 percent D) 80 percent E) 90 percent

24)

Ticket splitting was most recently prominent during which decade?

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A) 1990s B) 1980s C) 1970s D) 1960s E) 1950s

25)

Which of the following is an indication of strong party loyalty? A) split-ticket voting B) an increase in independent voters C) straight-ticket voting D) the influence of short-term issues and candidates E) a focus on candidate charisma and personal style

26)

________ does NOT have a competitive multiparty system. A) Germany B) Great Britain C) The Netherlands D) The United States E) Canada

27)

The major reason for the persistence of the American two-party system is A) that there are naturally only two sides to political disputes. B) regional conflict. C) the existence of single-member election districts. D) the existence of state laws prohibiting the placement of a third major party on the

ballot. E) proportional representation.

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28)

The winner-take-all system is also known as the ________ system. A) plurality B) majority C) minority D) democratic E) proportional

29) Proportional representation systems encourage the formation of smaller parties by enabling parties to A) win legislative seats even though they do not receive a majority of votes in elections. B) receive campaign funds from government in proportion to their support in opinion polls. C) win legislative seats by lottery for parties that have no chance of winning majority support. D) share in patronage appointments, which serve as an incentive to lure campaign workers. E) advertise on television.

30) ________ representation systems are those in which seats in the legislature are allocated according to each political party's share of the popular vote. A) Plurality B) Populist C) Minority D) Democratic E) Proportional

31) ________ lost the 1964 presidential election in large part because his views were seen as too extreme.

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A) James Weaver B) Jimmy Carter C) George McGovern D) Richard Nixon E) Barry Goldwater

32) Which of the following groups is most closely aligned with the Democratic Party, voting roughly nine-to-one Democratic in presidential elections? A) Hispanic Americans B) white Protestants C) Christian fundamentalists D) African Americans E) Roman Catholics

33) Why did the Trump and Biden campaigns spend millions of dollars to amass huge voter lists? A) to raise funds later B) to control how these voters cast their ballots C) to spy on their social media practices D) to register these people for the vote through their mechanisms E) to enroll these people into the Democratic Party organization

34)

Which of the following is/are vital to large campaigns' ability to generate funding? A) large contact lists B) policies that attract large corporate sponsorships C) an agenda that appeals to the poor D) a diverse selection of foreign donors E) wealthy candidates

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35)

Which demographic is in particular key to the future of both parties? A) Hispanic voters B) African American voters C) middle-class voters D) Jewish voters E) senior voters

36) Which voting demographic, despite being conservative on issues such as abortion and same-sex marriage, sides heavily with the Democratic Party? A) Hispanics B) African Americans C) the middle class D) the affluent E) seniors

37)

If a minor party gains a large following, it is almost certain that A) the major parties will join together to attack the minor party. B) Congress will enact legislation to make it difficult for the minor party to get on the

ballot. C) party in-fighting will tear it apart. D) one or both major parties will absorb its issues, and the minor party will lose support. E) the media will attack the minor party.

38)

Which of the following is an example of a single-issue party?

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A) Populists B) Green Party C) Socialist Workers Party D) Libertarian Party E) Greenback Party

39) In 20th-century American history, the most important minor parties were ________ parties. A) ideological B) single-issue C) factional D) reform E) non-aligned

40) A candidate for which minor party in 1912 managed to earn more votes than one of his major party opponents? A) Socialist B) Prohibition C) Bull Moose D) Reform E) Populist

41) A(n) ________ party is a minor party that bases its appeal on the claim that partisan politics is having a corrupting influence on government and policy. A) third B) reform C) single-issue D) ideological E) factional

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42)

In 1992, ________ won 19 percent of the popular vote in the presidential election. A) Bill Clinton B) George H. W. Bush C) Ross Perot D) Pat Buchanan E) Ralph Nader

43)

________, a Populist, won six western states in the presidential election of 1892. A) William Jennings Bryan B) Theodore Roosevelt C) Chester Arthur D) James B. Weaver E) Benjamin Harrison

44)

A recent YouGov/More in Common

poll found that

A) Americans’ understanding of opposing partisans is highly accurate. B) Americans believe that nearly twice as many in the opposing party hold extreme views as the number who actually hold such views. C) nine out of ten Democrats prefer an all-open border policy to a policy of secure borders. D) most Republicans believe that Muslims are unfit for citizenship. E) the news media’s tendency to educate us plays down partisan conflict.

45) Which of the following represents the greatest blow to the organizational strength of U.S. parties?

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A) the national convention B) the direct primary C) Jacksonian democracy D) the emergence of PACs E) voter registration

46)

All of the following use top-two primaries EXCEPT A) New York. B) Washington. C) California. D) Nebraska. E) Louisiana.

47)

About 95 percent of all political activists in the United States work at A) the national level. B) the state level. C) the local level. D) the national and state levels. E) Republican and Democratic party headquarters.

48) Regarding state party organizations, the day-to-day operation is usually the responsibility of the A) central committee. B) state chairperson. C) national chairperson who oversees all state party organizations. D) state governor or top leaders in the legislative branch. E) None of these answers are correct.

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49)

At the state level the central committees

A) endorse candidates in their state-wide primaries but do not have formal control over who is chosen. B) have the final say in who will be chosen as the candidates for national office from their party in their home state. C) provide only general guidance for the state organizations. D) are prevented from participating in fundraising and voter registration because they receive government funding. E) concentrate most strongly on national elections.

50)

National party organizations can dictate the day-to-day decisions of A) local party organizations only. B) state party organizations only. C) local and state party organizations. D) neither local nor state party organizations. E) party leaders in Congress.

51)

Local party organizations

A) typically concentrate on elections that are not defined by local boundaries. B) are more powerful today than at any time in history. C) have more power than their western European counterparts. D) are still important, but their role in congressional, statewide, or presidential campaigns is secondary to that of candidates. E) are unimportant in the political system today.

52)

Which of the following are key players in the modern campaign?

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A) pollsters B) media consultants C) fundraising specialists D) campaign consultants E) All these answers are correct.

53) On average, how much money must a U.S. senator raise every week of his or her six-year term in order to acquire enough to launch a competitive bid for reelection? A) $300 B) $3,000 C) $30,000 D) $300,000 E) $3,000,000

54)

James Carville and Roger Ailes are both examples of A) minor party candidates who earned more than 5 percent of the vote. B) campaign strategists who have earned legendary reputations. C) congressional incumbents whose reelection bids were derailed by smear campaigns. D) national chairpersons of one of the two major parties. E) lobbyists jailed for their illegal soft money contributions.

55)

Negative campaigning in presidential elections was first used in A) the early years of the country. B) Andrew Jackson's campaigns for the presidency. C) the 1860 election. D) the Depression years. E) the 1960s.

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56)

Negative television campaign ads A) are less prominent now than they were three decades ago. B) now constitute the largest share of political ads. C) can only be run by the official campaign of a candidate. D) are, while negative, usually factually accurate. E) None of these answers are correct.

57)

The principal medium for election politics is A) radio. B) newspaper ads. C) magazine ads. D) television. E) social media.

58)

Television first appeared as a tool for campaign ads during the A) 1940s. B) 1950s. C) 1960s. D) 1970s. E) 1980s.

59)

The main reason for the high cost of American political campaigns is the cost of A) complying with Federal Election Commission rules. B) actually raising campaign funds. C) paying campaign managers. D) paying pollsters. E) paying for television ads.

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60)

Some analysts predict that soon the most important medium of election politics will be A) television. B) the Internet. C) radio. D) newspapers. E) magazines.

61)

Prospective voting is characterized by A) a sudden shift in the vote from one party to another. B) choices based on party loyalty. C) choices based on a candidate's past performance. D) choices based on what candidates promise to do if elected. E) the symbolism of a candidate's personality.

62) ________ is based on judgment about the past performance of an elected official or political party. A) Prospective voting B) Retrospective voting C) Split-ticket voting D) Straight-ticket voting E) None of these answers are correct.

63)

What condition must be met if a PAC spends money to support a particular candidacy?

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A) The spending effort cannot be coordinated with the candidate. B) The money must be used to support a general party or issue, not the individual candidate. C) The money has to be spent or donated in amounts equal to or less than $2,500. D) The PAC cannot be affiliated with a political party. E) The money must go toward purchasing media ads only.

64) Which of the following is an accurate representation of the public's opinion about leaders and their accountability? A) Most citizens have a high opinion of Congress as a whole but say they have little confidence in their local representative in Congress. B) Most citizens have a high opinion of both Congress as a whole and their local representative in Congress. C) Most citizens have a low opinion of Congress as a whole but say they have confidence in their local representative in Congress. D) Most citizens have a low opinion of Congress as a whole and also of their local representative in Congress. E) Most citizens do not feel that their local representatives in Congress should be held accountable for the votes they have to make in order to stay in line with their party's platform.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 65) What is meant by a party realignment?

66)

Why have the Democratic and Republican parties been so durable since the Civil War?

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67) Explain why the single-member district system of elections tends to promote a two-party system. Also, compare the single-member district system with proportional representation systems.

68)

How do European parties differ from American parties?

69)

What are primary elections and what impact have they had on party organizations?

70) Explain how party coalitions in the U.S. reflect the nature of party competition. Does coalition formation tend to moderate or radicalize parties? Explain.

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71) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the United States' shift to candidatecentered campaigns.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_14e 1) A 2) D 3) A 4) A 5) E 6) E 7) C 8) E 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) C 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) E 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) A 30) E 31) E 32) D 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) D 38) E 39) C 40) C 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) B 45) B 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) C 50) D 51) D 52) E 53) C 54) B 55) A 56) B Version 1

57) D 58) B 59) E 60) B 61) D 62) B 63) A 64) C 65) A party realignment occurs when many significant social groups alter their voting behavior and switch their allegiance from one political party to another. Such realignments have three basic elements: the emergence of unusually powerful and divisive issues; an election contest or contests in which the voters shift their partisan support; and an enduring change in the parties' policies and coalitions.

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66) Analysts believe that the durability of the Democratic and Republican parties is due to their remarkable ability to adapt during times of crisis. These two major parties have survived many periods of social, economic, and political unrest not by maintaining a consistent ideology, but by adapting to changing needs and realigning elections. (For example, the elections of the Great Depression of the 1930s produced fundamentally new Democratic and Republican parties.) Instead of being destroyed by these elections, the parties emerged with new bases of support, new policies, and even new philosophies. Democrats and Republicans remained the dominant parties in America. After the Great Depression, the Democrats became the country's majority party and emphasized a new social and economic role for national government. The party survived—indeed succeeded—only by responding to the crisis and adapting its policies to address the current needs of the people. Such capacity for adaptation has ensured the Democrats' and Republicans' longevity and dominance in America's two-party system.

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67) In a single-member district system, each constituency selects only one representative for an office, on the basis of which candidate receives a plurality of the vote. This system promotes a two-party system in America. It discourages minor parties because it is, essentially, a winnertake-all contest. For example, if a minor party receives 20 percent of the vote in each congressional district, it would win no seats in Congress. Despite the fact that one in five voters voted for the minor party, the winning candidate in each district would be the major-party candidate with the larger proportion of the remaining 80 percent of the vote. In contrast, a system of proportional representation is not a winner-take-all contest. In European democracies, for example, seats in the legislature are allocated according to a party's share of the popular vote; if a minor party wins 20 percent of the vote, it receives 20 percent of the legislative seats. America's single-member district system disadvantages minor parties and, therefore, promotes a two-party system. 68) In Europe, where there are no primary elections, parties are stronger and have much tighter control over nominations, campaigns, candidate funding, and elections. American parties, due to federalism and a tradition of individualism, remain loose associations of local, state, and national organizations. The European proportional representation system also results in the viability of smaller parties that can get representation in legislatures even with a small proportion of the vote. 69) A primary election is a method of nominating party candidates in which the party nominee is chosen by voters rather than by party leaders. Primary elections weaken party organization by depriving the party of control over the candidates who will run under its banner.

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70) The overriding goal of a major American political party is to gain control of government by getting its candidates elected to office, which means that political compromise is essential. The major parties must appeal to different groups that may disagree on some issues; a reasonable amount of compromise is therefore necessary. The parties must also appeal to many of the same groups. The result is, in most circumstances though not all, a moderate form of political conflict in which the parties' coalitions overlap substantially in terms of the groups that comprise them. The median voter theorem encapsulates this idea by suggesting that the further a party drifts from the center, the more vulnerable it makes itself to losing voters to the other major party. 71) One advantage of candidate-centered campaigns is that they bring flexibility and new blood to electoral politics. This means the political system can more quickly adapt to new realities. Also, candidate-centered campaigns encourage national officeholders to be more responsive to local interests, because personal support among local constituents is the key to re-election. A disadvantage is that officeholders' accountability to the public is reduced, because an incumbent can always blame other officeholders for policy problems. Another disadvantage is that candidate-centered campaigns increase the influence of powerful and wealthy interest groups to influence candidates with donations and monetary support.

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CHAPTER 9 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The theory that society's interests are most effectively represented through group action is A) republicanism. B) constitutionalism. C) elitist theory. D) pluralist theory. E) interest-group liberalism.

Another name for an interest group is A) pressure group. B) cabal. C) political party. D) coalition. E) constituency.

Which of the following is NOT an interest group function? A) working to influence the courts B) addressing a broad and diverse range of public issues C) working to influence policymakers D) promoting public policies E) working to influence legislators

4) The most fully organized interests are those that have which of the following as their primary purpose?

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A) environmental protection B) economic activity C) civil liberties D) labor reform E) reform of government

Economic groups have an advantage over noneconomic groups in part because A) they nearly always have larger memberships. B) they are organized primarily for political purposes. C) they have better leadership. D) they have greater access to financial resources. E) their members are committed to their causes.

Some groups pursue collective goods. A collective good is one that A) cannot be selectively granted or denied to individuals; it belongs to all. B) is provided by a public service organization. C) is secured by the president. D) is secured by Congress. E) None of these answers are correct.

A basic reason for the existence of so many interest groups in the United States is A) the American tradition of free association. B) the extent of diverse interests in American society. C) America's federal system of government. D) the separation of powers in American government. E) All these answers are correct.

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8) In the 1830s, the Frenchman Alexis de Tocqueville wrote that the "principle of ________" was nowhere more evident than in America. A) hard work B) the separation of church and state C) association D) citizenship E) statesmanship

9) The citizens of ________ have the largest number of organized interest groups at their disposal. A) the United States B) Germany C) Italy D) France E) Great Britain

10)

The most numerous economic groups are A) labor groups. B) business groups. C) professional groups. D) occupational groups. E) farm groups.

11)

Roughly how many American workers currently belong to unions?

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A) one in two B) one in four C) one in six D) one in ten E) None of these answers are correct.

12)

The dominant labor interest group is A) the Teamsters Union. B) United Auto Workers. C) the AFL-CIO. D) the International Brotherhood of Electrical Workers. E) the Communication Workers of America.

13)

A purposive incentive is defined as A) a goal of direct economic gain. B) the satisfaction of contributing to a worthy goal or purpose. C) a goal benefiting a specific group. D) any common purpose that brings groups together. E) corporate profit.

14)

Citizens' interest groups are distinguished from economic interest groups by the fact that

A) their leaders are elected by secret ballot among the group's members. B) there is no material incentive for members in their pursuit of the group's goals. C) they do not lobby government officials directly, but rely instead on public service announcements to get their views across to society. D) they always pursue goals in which there is a high level of agreement among society members. E) All these answers are correct.

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15)

An interest group like the National Rifle Association would be an example of a(n) A) philosophical interest group. B) ideological group. C) professional group. D) business group. E) single-issue group.

16)

Which of the following organizations is NOT an example of a single-issue group? A) Sierra Club B) National Rifle Association C) a climate change group D) a right-to-life group E) American Conservative Union

17)

The air we breathe is an example of a A) private good. B) negative externality. C) material good. D) mass-produced good. E) collective good.

18) The situation in which individuals are tempted not to contribute to a cause because they will get the benefits even if they do not participate is called the

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A) size factor. B) free-rider problem. C) special-interest paradox. D) disincentive factor. E) zero-sum game.

19) About ________ of people who regularly listen to National Public Radio do not donate money to their local station. A) 10 percent B) 30 percent C) 50 percent D) 70 percent E) 90 percent

20)

In an effort to overcome the free-rider problem, noneconomic groups have

A) deliberately restricted the size of their membership. B) joined up with economic groups. C) convinced government to limit the distribution of public goods to those who have contributed to the group's efforts. D) used Internet resources and computer-assisted mailing lists to target potential donors. E) adopted taxes for nonmembers.

21)

Economist Mancur Olson refers to what aspect of interest groups as "the size factor"?

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A) Larger interest groups are able to draw on greater financial resources, which makes them more capable of getting the ear of lawmakers and thus achieving policy change. B) The interests of groups with large memberships will typically prevail over the interests of smaller groups. C) Small groups are ordinarily more united on policy issues and often have more resources, enabling them to win out more often than large groups. D) The smaller an interest group, the more likely that its motivating issue will be subsumed by the agenda of a larger interest group. E) Small interest groups can often enhance their bargaining power by linking themselves to the agenda of a larger interest group that has greater resources.

22) Which citizens' group did a Fortune magazine survey rank as the nation's most powerful lobbying group? A) the NAACP B) the AFL-CIO C) the AARP D) MADD E) Common Cause

23)

Most lobbyists receive support from elected officials in direct exchange for A) money. B) information. C) bribery. D) coercion. E) deception.

24)

Effective inside lobbying is based upon

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A) countering the aims of other groups. B) providing useful and persuasive information to key officials. C) mobilizing the group's members. D) bribing or threatening officials. E) using the media to exert pressure.

25) According to a study by the Center for Responsive Politics, what was roughly the amount spent on lobbying per hour that Congress was in session? A) more than $10,000 B) more than $100,000 C) more than $1 million D) more than $10 million E) more than $1 billion

26) The limits of interest groups' use of extreme tactics might be gauged by the congressional Democratic backlash against the ________, which tried to block the North American Free Trade Agreement in 1993. A) ACLU B) Sierra Club C) Izaak Walton League D) AARP E) AFL-CIO

27)

The 2017 Tax Cut and Jobs Act revealed the power of A) business groups. B) consumers. C) labor unions. D) environmental activists. E) educators.

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28)

Which of the following is true about the 2017 Tax Cut and Jobs Act? A) When the legislation was passed, individual taxpayers saw no clear benefit. B) Corporations had their income tax rate reduced from 35 percent to 21 percent. C) Whereas the individual tax cut has no time limit, the corporate tax cut will end in 10

years. D) Unless the cut is extended, three-fourths of taxpayers will be paying a higher rate than they would have under the previous tax law. E) Corporations got the smallest cut, having their income tax rate reduced from 35 percent to 34 percent.

29)

"Agency capture" occurs when

A) a regulatory agency funnels money back into the lobbying organizations that are seeking policy changes. B) regulatory agencies side with the industries they are supposed to regulate rather than with the public. C) the executive branch takes back control of a regulatory agency. D) a regulatory agency must be dismantled because it has become corrupted. E) an election results in the replacement of an agency's leadership through appointive positions under a new president.

30)

The influence of interest groups through the courts occurs through A) initiating lawsuits. B) lobbying for certain judges to be appointed to the bench. C) outside lobbying only. D) PACs. E) both initiating lawsuits and lobbying for certain judges to be appointed to the bench.

31)

Which of the following groups primarily uses litigation as its lobbying method?

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A) NRA B) ACLU C) NAACP D) AARP E) NEA

32)

An amicus brief

A) is a written document in which a group explains to a court its position on a legal dispute the court is handling. B) is a written document in which an interest group lays out its policy preference for targeted lawmakers. C) prevents a lobbyist group from making campaign donations to policymakers over a specific issue. D) provides evidence for prosecutors of an illegal monetary relationship between a lawmaker and an interest group or PAC. E) prevents PACs from donating more than $5,000 to a single candidate during a primary election.

33)

The term iron triangle refers to

A) a tightly-knit set of lobbying groups. B) the relationship among the Congress, the military, and defense contractors. C) a small and informal but relatively stable set of bureaucrats, legislators, and lobbyists who are concerned with promoting a particular interest. D) the strategy of lobbying all three branches of government simultaneously. E) a corrupt relationship among the president, Congress, and the Supreme Court.

34) In the dynamics of an iron triangle, what benefit do interest groups provide to friendly government agencies?

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A) services for constituents B) travel funds C) campaign contributions D) administration of mutually beneficial policies E) lobbying support for agency programs

35)

A main difference between iron triangles and issue networks is that

A) an iron triangle includes members of the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, while issue networks bypass the judicial branch. B) issue networks involve a stable group of bureaucrats, legislators, and lobbyists, while iron triangles exclude lobbyists in an attempt to reach impartial decisions. C) issue networks are generally less stable than iron triangles, in that the members of an issue network may change as the issue develops. D) issue networks, being less formal, rely on outside lobbying only, while iron triangles use inside lobbying only. E) All these answers are correct.

36) An informal grouping of officials, lobbyists, and policy specialists who come together temporarily around a policy problem is a(n) A) iron triangle. B) issue network. C) caucus. D) policy system. E) ideological network.

37)

Why have issue networks become more prevalent?

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A) the increasing power of corporate lobbying B) the increasing diversity of interest groups C) the increasing influence of PACs D) the instability of candidates' positions E) the increasing complexity of policy problems

38) When Democratic lawmakers took control of the House of Representatives in 2019, they consulted closely with A) labor lobbyists on legislative issues affecting labor. B) oil companies on energy policy. C) tech giants from Silicon Valley on social media regulation. D) foreign companies from China and Europe. E) Wall Street lobbyists advising on financial deregulation.

39)

Outside lobbying does NOT include A) developing and maintaining close contacts with policymakers. B) the use of campaign contributions to legislators who favor the interest group. C) pushing their message through public relations and advertising. D) targeting group resources on key election races. E) rousing citizens to contact their elected officials and express their support.

40) To have great influence, an outside lobbying group must generally have one of two things: a lot of money or A) detailed policy information. B) a strong legal team. C) high visibility. D) a committed membership E) close relationships with executive branch officers.

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41) Under federal law, PACs can contribute up to ________ per candidate for federal office in a primary election. A) $1,000 B) $5,000 C) $25,000 D) $50,000 E) $100,000

42) Under federal law, PACs can contribute up to ________ per candidate for federal office for a primary election and general election combined. A) $2,000 B) $10,000 C) $40,000 D) $50,000 E) $100,000

43)

What did Alexis de Tocqueville call the United States in the 1830s? A) a nation of joiners B) a joint nation C) a nation on a journey D) an annointed nation E) a nation of lobbyists

44)

The largest number of PACs are those associated with

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A) single-issue groups, such as environmental groups and right-to-life groups. B) labor. C) business. D) agriculture. E) foreign governments.

45)

The second-largest number of PACs are those associated with A) citizens' groups. B) labor. C) business. D) agriculture. E) foreign governments.

46)

PACs tend to contribute the most money to A) incumbents. B) challengers. C) independents. D) liberal Democrats. E) liberal Republicans.

47) The Supreme Court decision in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010)

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A) allows corporations and labor unions to spend unlimited funds on campaigns as long as there is no coordination with the candidate. B) limits PACs by reducing the amount of money they can raise through contributions made by small donors. C) has forced candidates for office and elected officials to make public the amounts of campaign contributions they have received from PACs and which PACs make those donations. D) has strengthened the argument that PACs constitute a better system of campaign finance than one based on wealthy donors. E) has forced corporations and labor unions to legally divorce themselves from the PACs they sponsor.

48) The Supreme Court ruling in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010) ultimately led to the creation of A) super PACs. B) PACs. C) election reform. D) independent-expenditure-committees (IECs). E) the AARP.

49) The Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010) ruling held that corporation and union spending on elections A) must be coordinated with election campaigns. B) can be unlimited but not coordinated with election campaigns. C) must go directly to election campaigns if exceeding $5,000 per candidate. D) must be preapproved by the Federal Election Commission. E) must be no more than $5,000 per federal candidate per election.

50)

Super PACs have been criticized primarily for

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A) being a tool that provides unfair advantages to liberal Democrats. B) leveling the playing field for monetary influence in federal elections. C) making it more likely that minor parties will gain control of government. D) giving too much influence to the wealthy. E) refusing to abide by FEC regulations.

51) Which of the following statements would NOT be accepted by supporters of the pluralist view of interest groups? A) People's separate interests are a legitimate basis of public policy. B) The group interest process correctly excludes some of the smallest groups from influence because they lack strong public support. C) The opinion of the majority should always prevail, in a policy dispute, over the opinion of a more intense and directly affected minority. D) Most interests benefit from the workings of the group system, which is a reason to support a policy process that is responsive to groups. E) Public policy should represent the diversity that exists in society.

52)

Political scientist Theodore Lowi has questioned pluralist theory by suggesting that

A) special interests should never receive benefits from government. B) there is no concept of the public interest in a system that gives special interests the ability to determine the policies affecting them. C) policies that favor a series of minorities are inherently fairer than policies that ignore small groups in favor of a majority. D) the sum of people's special interests is a rough approximation of society's collective interest. E) Madisonian theory has created a perfect balance of special interest and common good.

53) How do pluralists counter the argument that well-funded interest groups have more influence on policymaking than other interest groups?

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A) They argue that noneconomic groups are generally better organized and motivated, which balances out better funding in other groups. B) They argue that there is almost always a wealthy counter-group to every wealthy interest group. C) They deny that certain types of interest groups or wealthier ones have more policy influence. D) They argue that level of funding is a good determinant of how much the general public wants to see a particular interest advanced. E) They argue that the system is relatively open and almost all interests are included.

54)

A flaw in pluralism theory is the fact that

A) the interest group system is unrepresentative, because some interests are far better organized and more powerful than others. B) the public interest is never served by policies that promote special interests. C) larger groups always prevail politically over smaller groups. D) political parties better represent different interests than do interest groups. E) All these answers are correct.

55)

In acknowledging the dilemma inherent in group activity, James Madison

A) argued that the free-rider problem would hurt some groups more than others. B) claimed that government could listen to all groups but should only enact policies that promote the interests of majority groups. C) worried that government would be overly dominated by groups, but recognized that a free society is obliged to permit the advocacy of self-interest. D) argued that government must restrict the activities of groups, so that political parties could act as the major instrument of democracy. E) All these answers are correct.

56) In which of the following nations are citizens LEAST likely to participate in even one group activity?

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A) Italy B) France C) Great Britain D) United States E) Germany

57) James Madison's solution to the problem of factions (special interests) has, in the modern policy process, actually contributed to the problem by A) suppressing the claims of special interests, thereby making it more difficult for them to get their opinions heard by officials. B) resulting in greater divisions of power that allow special-interest groups more points of access and outsized influence in the policy process. C) eroding the strength of political parties, thereby increasing the opportunity for group influence. D) weakening the legislative branch, thereby allowing groups to bully Congress into accepting their demands. E) eroding the power of the mass media, thereby increasing the opportunity for group influence.

58) Which of the following is an interest group more likely to champion than a political party? A) a controversial issue B) a particular candidate C) a broad range of ideological ideas D) a policy that would have a broad impact E) an issue that has the broad backing of the general public

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 59) Identify the defining characteristics of an interest group. How do interest groups differ from political parties?

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60) Define economic groups. Identify four types of economic interest groups and the constituencies they serve.

61)

Compare outside lobbying and inside lobbying.

62) Define citizens' (or noneconomic) interest groups and identify the types of noneconomic interest groups and the constituencies they serve.

63) What is the importance of the distinction between private goods (individual goods) and collective goods (public goods) in assessing why some interests are more highly organized than others? What type of group particularly benefits from this situation?

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64)

Compare iron triangles and issue networks.

65) Define a PAC. What limitations do PACs face when raising funds? What limitations do they face when contributing funds? Who are the primary recipients of PAC contributions, and why? In what significant ways does a PAC differ from a super PAC?

66) Discuss interest-group liberalism and indicate how Madison's constitutional solution for controlling groups has itself become part of the problem in American politics.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_14e 1) D 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) E 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) B 15) E 16) E 17) E 18) B 19) E 20) D 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) E Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) B 30) E 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) E 35) C 36) B 37) E 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) D 51) C 52) B 53) E 54) A 55) C 56) B Version 1

57) B 58) A 59) An interest group is any organization that actively seeks to influence public policy. Interest groups are a linkage mechanism, serving to connect citizens with government. Although political parties are also linkage mechanisms, they serve a much broader range of issues in order to appeal to more constituents. Interest groups concentrate on trying to change specific policies, while political parties have winning elections as their primary goal. Interest groups may also seek to exert influence on elections, but pushing specific policies is their ultimate focus. 60) Economic groups promote the economic interests of their members. Corporations, labor unions, farm groups, and professional associations are among the types of groups that exist primarily for economic purposes. Business groups, which make up more than one-half of all lobbying groups in Washington, D.C., concentrate their activities on policies that are concerned with business. Business interests are also represented by associations such as the National Association of Manufacturers and the U.S. Chamber of Commerce. Labor groups seek to promote policies that benefit workers in general and union members in particular. They have been politically active for a long time, and the AFL-CIO is the largest labor group. Farm groups represent various segments of the farm community; for example, the American Farm Bureau Federation promotes agribusiness and large farms, while the National Farmers Union promotes the interests of smaller family farms. Professional groups, such as the American Medical Association, represent various professions and attempt to influence policy on their behalf.

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61) Inside lobbying is based on close contacts with legislative, executive, and judicial officials and relies upon the use of information and personal persuasion as means of gaining support for the goals of the interest group. Outside lobbying aims to bring public pressure to bear on officials and rests upon grassroots activity (e.g., a letter-writing campaign) and electoral support in the form of group endorsements, votes, and financial contributions. The type of pressure outside lobbying uses can involve having constituents directly contact lawmakers, using advertising, media, and public relations, and supporting candidates through money and endorsements. 62) Citizens' (or noneconomic) groups are organized around purposive incentives, which are opportunities to support a cause in which a person believes. Nearly every conceivable issue or problem has its citizens' group, and so the constituencies served by citizens' groups are incredibly diverse. Some citizens' groups, like the NAACP or the National Organization for Women, work to advance the interests of a particular social grouping. Other citizens' groups are dedicated to the promotion of a political ideology, like the American Conservative Union (ACU) or Americans for Democratic Action (ADA). Most citizens' groups have an issue-specific policy agenda and are called single-issue groups. Singleissue groups are organized to influence policy in just one area; examples are the Sierra Club, the National Rifle Association, and the various rightto-life and pro-choice abortion-related groups. However, citizens' groups are very difficult to classify because they differ so widely in focus and goals and can have overlapping traits. A single-issue group might be highly ideological or highly pragmatic.

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63) Economic groups offer members private (or individual) incentives that benefit them directly, which is a powerful reason to join the group. An example of a private good is a benefit that a labor union member obtains through the union. Citizens' groups offer collective goods (public goods), which are goods that all people share, such as a clean environment. The fact that such goods are available to nonmembers as well as members is a disincentive for many to participate. This situation, called the free-rider problem, can plague citizens' groups. Economic groups are less affected by the free-rider problem. Economic groups also have ready access to financial resources in the form of profits or dues, while citizens' groups typically have more trouble obtaining financial resources—though recent advances in computer-aided direct mail and Internet-based fundraising have improved the financing capabilities of many citizens' groups. 64) An iron triangle is a small and informal but relatively stable set of bureaucrats, legislators, and lobbyists who are concerned with the development of policies beneficial to a particular interest. All sides of an iron triangle benefit from the relationship, which is why such relationships tend to be iron-clad or likely to endure. An issue network is an informal relationship among officials and lobbyists who are linked by common expertise and concern with a given policy area, such as energy, communication, the environment, or trade, and who come together temporarily around an issue problem. Issue networks are different from iron triangles because the latter are temporary and ad hoc (a response to a particular issue) and are based on shared expertise, while the former are more enduring and are based on common interest. Although they are less stable, issue networks have become a more prevalent manner in which to wield political influence.

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65) A PAC is the political action committee of an interest group that tries to gain influence by contributing money to the campaigns of political candidates. PAC contributions account for roughly a fifth of total contributions to congressional campaigns. Their role is less significant in presidential campaigns, which are larger in scale and depend on a wider range of funding sources. PACs face limitations on their efforts to raise funds. They can raise money for election campaigns by soliciting voluntary contributions from group members. Limitations also exist on the levels of contribution. A PAC can contribute no more than $10,000 to a candidate for federal office—$5,000 in the primary and $5,000 in the general election. The primary recipients of PAC contributions are incumbents. Congressional incumbents are highly likely to win and thus to remain in a position to make public policy. For this reason, the great bulk of PAC contributions are given to incumbents seeking reelection. Super PACs are not allowed to give money directly to candidates or parties, but they are otherwise more or less free to spend as much as they want. 66) Interest-group liberalism holds that there is no concept of society's collective interest in a policy system that enables special interests to determine for themselves which policy benefits they receive. Regardless of how many interests are served by the system, the public interest is not served, because each policy decision is the result not of majority rule but of minority or special-interest rule. Madison's constitutional solution to the problem of special interests was to separate powers in government and create checks and balances so no one faction could dominate government. In practice, this fragmentation of political power allows interest groups, even single-issue groups, to access the government at many levels and exert an undue influence on policy.

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CHAPTER 10 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The news provides a refracted version of reality because it A) emphasizes dramatic and compelling news stories. B) is biased in favor of a Republican viewpoint. C) is biased in favor of a Democratic viewpoint. D) is biased in favor of a liberal perspective. E) is biased in favor of a conservative perspective.

Of the following, the news media are most likely to focus on A) events that are timely. B) events that affect small numbers of people. C) events that occur in other countries. D) events experienced by ordinary citizens. E) complex events that are difficult to report.

The term framing is used to describe the

A) media's ability to influence what is on people's minds. B) process of selecting certain aspects of reality and then crafting news stories around those aspects. C) media's obligation to convey a uniform and standard interpretation of a situation. D) nature of media reporting when objectivity has weakened and the system has tilted in favor of yellow journalism. E) primary right of the media that is protected by the First Amendment.

Historically, the American press has shifted from

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A) a political to a journalistic orientation. B) objectivity to subjectivity. C) a journalistic to a political orientation. D) partisan to very partisan. E) negative to positive.

The Gazette of the United States was founded to promote the policies of President A) Warren Harding. B) Grover Cleveland. C) William Henry Harrison. D) James Madison. E) George Washington.

Early American newspapers A) were written and copied by hand. B) were so inexpensive that nearly everyone read a daily paper. C) could not have survived without political party support. D) were more widely read than today's papers. E) All these answers are correct.

What technology led editors to substitute news reports for partisan commentary? A) radio B) telegraph C) broadcast TV D) cable TV E) power-driven printing presses

The yellow journalism of the late 19th century was characterized by

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A) its appearance solely in weekly and monthly magazines. B) the emphasis on sensationalism as a way of selling newspapers. C) prejudice against Asian people and countries. D) an unwillingness to take editorial positions because of a fear of losing circulation. E) the desire to present the news in an objective manner.

9) The circulation battle of which two newspapers may have contributed to the outbreak of the Spanish-American War? A) Chicago Tribune and Boston Herald B) Los Angeles Times and New York Times C) New York Journal and New York World D) Gazette of the United States and National Gazette E) San Francisco Examiner and San Francisco Chronicle

10)

Yellow journalism contributed most notably to public support for the A) Spanish-American War. B) Civil War. C) War of 1812. D) Mexican War of 1848. E) American Revolution.

11)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Objective journalism is based on the communication of facts in a fair manner. B) Yellow journalism attempts to describe what is taking place or has occurred. C) The New York Post is the bulletin board of major newspapers. D) Objective journalism is based on the communication of facts and fairness, while yellow journalism attempts to describe what is taking place or has occurred. E) None of these answers are correct.

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12)

Objective journalism is based on the idea that the reporter's job is to A) report the facts and present both sides of a partisan debate. B) report what political leaders want them to report. C) discover what other reporters are saying and provide a uniform interpretation of

events. D) scrutinize the partisan debate, and inform the news audience about which party has the better argument. E) All these answers are correct.

13) During the early 20th century, which newspaper developed a reputation as the country's best newspaper? A) Washington Times B) Miami Herald C) Los Angeles Times D) New York Times E) Chicago Tribune

14)

The federal government's licensing of broadcasting was based primarily on

A) the fact that broadcasting is a national medium. B) the scarcity of broadcasting frequencies. C) the fact that broadcasting was invented after the First Amendment was adopted. D) the desire of national officials to control the content of broadcast news and entertainment. E) a desire to censor reporters so that they would stop criticizing governmental officials.

15) The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has regulatory oversight over which of the following?

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A) broadcast radio B) magazines C) Internet content D) newspapers E) All these answers are correct.

16)

The FCC's requirement for radio stations relating to equal airtime

A) included the print media. B) prohibited broadcasters from selling or giving time to political candidates without offering the same to their opponents. C) required broadcasters to air equal amounts of programming that supported both major political parties. D) required broadcasters to give equal time to news programming and commercial advertising. E) required broadcasters to give equal time to third parties as well as the Democrats and Republicans in debates.

17) The FCC restriction requiring broadcasters to "afford reasonable opportunity for the discussion of conflicting views of public importance" was known as the A) "Equal Time" rule. B) objective-reporting model. C) signaling function. D) common-carrier function. E) Fairness Doctrine.

18) During the era of objective journalism, the commitment of newspapers to two-sided news reporting

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A) did not extend to their editorializing. B) was enshrined in the editorial section. C) was uniform throughout the sections of a newspaper. D) caused democracy in the United States to deteriorate. E) All these answers are correct.

19)

Partisan talk radio got its start A) after the abolition of the Fairness Doctrine. B) on the day of Rush Limbaugh's first broadcast. C) after cable television led the way. D) in the early 1990s after the election of Democrat Bill Clinton. E) during the late 1930s.

20)

Which of the following networks pioneered the partisan model for cable news reporting? A) Fox News B) ABC C) NBC D) CBS E) PBS

21)

The reason the news product is designed to fascinate as well as to inform is

A) that news organizations are fundamentally businesses and must obtain revenue to survive. B) of the high level of illiteracy. C) that the print media wish to emulate the broadcast media. D) of the need to compete with Hollywood productions. E) None of these answers are correct.

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22)

On-the-scene coverage of a natural disaster is an example of the press's role of A) watchdog. B) signaler. C) partisan advocate. D) common-carrier. E) interpreter.

23)

The media perform the signaling role by A) informing the public of breaking events and new developments. B) serving as an open channel for leaders to express their opinions. C) exposing officials who violate accepted performance and moral standards. D) acting as the public's representative. E) All these answers are correct.

24)

Agenda-setting is an action that falls under which of the major roles played by the press? A) common-carrier B) signaling C) watchdog D) partisan advocate E) news interpreter

25) The coverage of the spread of the COVID-19 coronavirus is the most powerful illustration of the media's ________ power since September 11th. A) agenda setting B) bias C) yellow journalism D) framing E) signaling

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26)

The news media's common-carrier role is based on the idea that

A) the news will be available to all citizens. B) various news organizations should interpret the news in nearly the same way. C) the press should not charge for public service announcements. D) the press should provide a channel through which political leaders can communicate their views to the public. E) the press should be patriotic in the reporting of the news.

27)

Which institution receives the most news coverage from the national press? A) the presidency B) U.S. House of Representatives C) U.S. Senate D) U.S. Supreme Court E) the federal bureaucracy

28)

Presidential candidates in the 1960s, compared with today, A) received more negative coverage. B) were largely ignored by the media. C) were hounded by the media incessantly. D) had longer sound bites, on average, in broadcast television newscasts. E) None of these answers are correct.

29)

The Watergate scandal illustrates the

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A) futility of media attempts to forecast political events. B) inadequacy of the media as a common-carrier to the public. C) power of the media to serve as watchdog to safeguard against abuses of power. D) ability of the press to serve as the public's representative in political disputes. E) abuse of power by journalists in the United States.

30) The COVID-19 coronavirus outbreak is a strong example of the press's ________ function. A) common carrier B) judicial C) entertainment D) politicizing E) constitutional

31)

Which of the following would be an example of priming in action? A) The evening news centers its coverage of a major city around violent crimes each

night. B) A news viewer expects violent crime to escalate because the evening news starts with a violent crime each night. C) The evening news replays sound bites from local politicians each night on the evening news. D) The evening news regularly characterizes Democrats as soft on crime. E) The evening news consistently covers natural disasters and crimes and does little reporting on political developments.

32)

According to scholars, the way that journalists frame their stories has

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A) a priming effect. B) a watchdog function. C) a deleterious effect. D) a compromising influence. E) a partisan influence.

33)

People are “primed” to see a politician as self-serving when A) the press frames a politician as seeking to win at all costs. B) the politician has secretly and illegally diverted funds from public sources. C) the press tries to frame that politician as noble and caring. D) the press fails to counter that narrative early on. E) that is the politician's character—and only when that is in fact the case.

34)

Which of the following statements about partisan-centered communications is accurate?

A) Most partisan Internet sites seek to demonize a particular group or ethnicity. B) Fox and MSNBC use a largely partisan model of newscast presentation. C) Most partisan Internet sites seek to intensify partisan outrage. D) The presentation of opinions and news on the Internet has recently been trending less partisan. E) Liberal and conservative partisan talk shows differ in the nature of language and images they use to achieve their goals.

35) ago?

What did it mean for Americans to live in a low-choice media system only a few decades

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A) Most locations had a single daily newspaper and three television networks—ABC, CBS, and NBC. B) Most locations had no paper, and had only FOX and CNN. C) Most locations had only a radio station and a telegraph line. D) Most locations had only dial-up Internet and AOL News. E) Most locations had only cable news, online news, newspaper, and radio.

36)

One special contribution of Internet-based news is that it A) has expanded freedom of the press to a larger number of Americans. B) provides slower, more deliberative reporting. C) offers more unbiased reporting. D) prevents rampant editorializing. E) None of these answers are correct.

37)

The "long tail" is a phenomenon related to the A) partisan flavor of talk shows. B) degree of editorializing by broadcast news. C) pattern and rate of Internet news readership. D) increase in the age gap of news readership. E) partisan nature of Internet news.

38)

Which of the following was a common feature in the low-choice media system? A) Each outlet featured nearly the same lineup of stories told in much the same way. B) Americans had access only to inferior forms of journalism like the yellow press. C) Most of the press Americans could access was racist. D) The media Americans had access to all told wildly different stories. E) The state of the nation's media was depressing.

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39)

Which of the following is a consequence of the high-choice media system? A) a growth in the traditional public affairs audience B) greater control by people over what they see and hear C) a merging of the three tiers of public affairs audiences D) a higher proportion of objective news sources to partisan news sources E) a de-aging of the overall news and public affairs audience

40)

Which of the following is a characteristic of the "inattentive audience"? A) greater susceptibility to disinformation B) greater resistance to partisan messages C) an accurate but shallow understanding of politics D) a preference for objective journalism E) a desire to only consume news through social media

41)

Staunch conservatives are most likely to pay regular attention to A) MSNBC. B) NPR. C) The Daily Show. D) Rush Limbaugh. E) Fox News.

42)

One consequence of today's high-choice media system is A) that individuals are more informed. B) a narrowing in the information divide. C) that individual choice is actually more limited. D) an increase in the number of people who use partisan outlets as their primary news

source. E) None of these answers are correct.

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43) What development brought about a dramatic reduction in television's capacity to generate an interest in news? A) an increase in newspaper circulation B) the loss of objective journalistic standards C) the rapid spread of cable TV D) the rise of Internet news consumption E) a drop in education levels in the United States

44) During what decade did the American television network news audience change from a growing to a shrinking one? A) the 1960s B) the 1970s C) the 1980s D) the 1990s E) The audience has not yet begun to shrink.

45)

Which of the following is true of age differences in news consumption? A) News consumption has been growing in young adults as a result of higher Internet

use. B) News consumption has declined in all age groups except for those 60 and older. C) Older adults are more likely than younger adults to get their news from the Internet. D) The average cable news viewer is older than 50. E) Adults under 30 are more likely to consume news through the Internet than those over 50.

46)

Which of the following is associated with people's exposure to partisan news outlets?

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A) misunderstanding of their own party's philosophy B) greater political interest and engagement C) gaining a more nuanced view of opposing political opinions D) the formation of less extreme political opinions E) a lower level of news consumption

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 47) Identify the term partisan press. Why was the partisan press superseded by the objective press?

48) What steps did the government have to take to regulate broadcast media, and why were those steps necessary?

49) How do the motivations of the press often lead to more coverage of dramatic or highconflict stories than less "exciting" news?

50)

Explain the four functions of the modern media.

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51)

Explain how the concept of outrage has intensified partisanship in news coverage.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_14e 1) A 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) E 6) C 7) B 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) E 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) B 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) A 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) A 36) A 37) C 38) A 39) B 40) A 41) E 42) D 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) B

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47) A partisan press is one that concentrates on advancing a particular ideological or partisan viewpoint. The American media, with few exceptions, no longer follows this pattern. At one time, the American press was quite partisan. In the early years of the country, the first newspapers were created specifically to espouse a particular political viewpoint and could not survive without the patronage of a political party. This situation changed with technological innovations such as the telegraph and power-driven printing press, which changed the economics of American newspapers. Partly as a reaction against the excesses of a new, sensationalist "yellow journalism," newspapers then turned to the objective model of reporting, which concentrates on objective reporting of facts and aims to report on differing sides of controversial issues. They accomplished this in part by a direct company policy focus on objective reporting and a new focus on the professional ethics of objective journalism by journalism schools. 48) The development of the broadcast media brought initial chaos primarily because nearby stations often used the same or adjacent radio frequencies, interfering with each other's broadcasts. Congress passed the Communications Act, which regulated broadcasting, and created the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) to oversee the process. Broadcasters now had to be licensed, and because the number of frequencies is limited, licensing required political impartiality. The FCC enforced an "equal time" provision, which prohibits broadcasters from selling or giving airtime to a political candidate without offering to sell or give an equal amount of airtime to other candidates for the same office.

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49) The press is motivated to produce news that attracts and holds audiences. This leads journalists to cover immediate events more than long-term policy issues and to emphasize stories with conflict or crime rather than less exciting stories. Especially after the introduction of cable news and widespread choice in televised news, a greater focus on entertainment in news story style has been used to attract viewers. Local news stations have specifically emphasized crime stories to attract and keep an audience. In the early 1990s "If it bleeds it leads" became the mantra of local TV news, and crime became the most heavily reported national issue. 50) The modern media effectively perform four significant roles: those of signaler, common-carrier, watchdog, and partisan advocate. The signaling role requires the press to bring relevant events and problems into public view. In its common-carrier role, the press serves as a channel through which political leaders can address the public. The watchdog role requires the press to scrutinize official behavior and uncover evidence of deception, carelessness, or corruption. Finally, the press functions as a partisan advocate. Although the traditional media perform this last function to a degree, the newer media (radio and tv talks shows, certain Internet sites and blogs) specialize in it.

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51) Outrage has become the selling card of conservative and liberal talk shows on radio and TV alike. Outrage is also the approach of most partisan Internet sites. Name calling, misrepresentation, mockery, character assassination, belittling, and imagined catastrophe are the tools designed to make the target look stupid, inept, or dangerous. On conservative talk shows, for example, gun control isn’t about trigger locks or background checks but instead about guns as cultural identity. The clearest example is fake news—entirely fictional stories that originate on the Internet and aim to undermine a political opponent. Not all partisan programs fit the outrage model. Fox and MSNBC newscasts, for instance, largely stick to the objective-journalism model and differ primarily in what they choose to highlight.

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CHAPTER 11 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The framers of the Constitution saw the ________ as the preeminent component of the federal government. A) Supreme Court B) bureaucracy C) Congress D) president E) None of these answers are correct.

2) The spending bill of 2020 meant to cushion the economic impact of the COVID-19 outbreak illustrates the dual nature of Congress: A) both a lawmaking institution for the country and a representative assembly for states and districts. B) handling both fiscal and monetary economic policy. C) both doling out money and overseeing tax collection. D) both enacting and reviewing the constitutionality of laws. E) both printing money and spending it.

The framers of the Constitution regarded Congress as A) the preeminent branch of the federal government. B) the branch with the least of all the powers of government. C) a body that was most to resemble British traditions in parliamentary government. D) a compromise on the issue of slavery. E) the body solely imbued with the power to veto the laws.

House incumbents have about a(n) ________ chance of winning reelection.

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A) 57 percent B) 65 percent C) 74 percent D) 82 percent E) 92 percent

Senate incumbents have about a(n) ________ chance of winning reelection. A) 57 percent B) 65 percent C) 74 percent D) 84 percent E) 98 percent

In an average election, about one in ________ House seats is a truly competitive election. A) two B) three C) four D) five E) six

7) Legislation whose tangible benefits are targeted solely at a particular legislator's constituency is often criticized as A) pork. B) logrolling. C) gerrymandering. D) private legislation. E) public interest legislation.

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Congressional staffers spend most of their time on A) constituency service and legislative matters. B) legislative matters. C) constituency service and public relations. D) legislative matters and constituency service. E) public relations.

Campaign fundraising tends to be a much greater challenge for A) challengers than for incumbents. B) Republican candidates. C) Democratic candidates. D) candidates in urban areas than for candidates in rural areas. E) men than for women.

10) Which of the following is/are the top priority of the vast majority of representatives in the House? A) tax cuts B) environmental deregulation C) reelection D) election reform E) campaign finance reform

11) More than ________ of all PAC contributions in recent elections have gone to incumbents.

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A) 10 percent B) 30 percent C) 50 percent D) 70 percent E) 85 percent

12)

Redistricting happens after the census, which is conducted every ________ years. A) 4 B) 8 C) 10 D) 15 E) 20

13)

Redistricting A) happens every 4 years. B) is conducted by state legislatures. C) must be approved by Congress. D) must be approved by the highest court in each state. E) has little appreciable effect on who wins or loses congressional races.

14)

Incumbents may have some problems in reelection campaigns if

A) disruptive issues such as general public discontent with Congress become prominent. B) the incumbent is tainted with charges of personal misconduct or corruption. C) the election is a midterm election, and the incumbent is of the same party as the president. D) they appear vulnerable, and contributors from outside the state or district might target the race and donate money to the challenger. E) All these answers are correct.

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15)

In midterm elections, A) the president's party usually loses seats. B) voter turnout is substantially higher than in presidential elections. C) half the House is up for reelection. D) voters are more likely to have weaker ties to political parties. E) All these answers are correct.

16) of

Compared to House incumbents, Senate incumbents are more likely to face the problem

A) raising enough money to run a strong campaign. B) an electorate that is inclined to judge their fitness for reelection in the context of pork-barrel legislation and other favors for the local community. C) a strong challenger. D) name recognition. E) All these answers are correct.

17) One must be ________ years of age to serve in the U.S. House of Representatives, and ________ years of age to serve in the U.S. Senate. A) 18; 21 B) 21; 25 C) 25; 30 D) 35; 45 E) 40; 50

18)

Which of the following groups is overrepresented in Congress?

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A) blue-collar workers B) homemakers C) clerical workers D) women E) lawyers

19) In which of the following legislative sessions did Democrats have the majority in the House of Representatives? A) 2011–2012 B) 2013–2014 C) 2015–2016 D) 2017–2018 E) None of these answers are correct.

20)

Which of the following statements is true? A) Political parties are unimportant in the organization of the U.S. Congress. B) Party-line voting rarely occurs in Congress. C) Party-line voting has increased in recent years. D) Partisanship makes virtually no difference in the votes cast in Congress. E) None of these answers are correct.

21) Which of the following gives members of Congress a certain amount of independence from their party leaders?

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A) Incumbents largely win election through their own efforts. B) Members of Congress operate in a federal system. C) House Representatives are more beholden to their state governors than to their party leaders. D) The American political system does not really have an official party leadership. E) Representatives can win their leaders' attention by crafting creative legislative proposals.

22)

What percentage of state legislators are women? A) less than 5 percent B) more than 20 percent C) more than 40 percent D) about 50 percent E) about 60 percent

23) the

The second-most powerful elected national official (after the president) is often said to be

A) chair of the House Appropriations Committee. B) president pro tempore of the U.S. Senate. C) Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives. D) chair of the Senate Foreign Relations Committee. E) Senate majority leader.

24) Compared with the Senate majority leader, the Speaker of the House has more power because

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A) the House places more limits on debate. B) the House is the larger chamber in terms of membership. C) the House has less of a tradition as a chamber of equals. D) the Speaker strictly controls the rules of debate. E) All these answers are correct.

25)

The most powerful person from the minority party in the House is the A) minority whip. B) minority leader. C) deputy whip. D) Speaker of the House. E) None of these answers are correct.

26)

In contrast with the Speaker of the House, the Senate majority leader A) plays a key role in formulating the majority party's legislative positions. B) seeks to develop influential relationships with his or her colleagues. C) cannot compel an end to floor debate on a bill. D) holds a position that is defined in the Constitution. E) None of these answers are correct.

27) Senators are generally less likely to take directions from their leaders than House members because

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A) senators are prohibited by their state legislatures from taking orders from others. B) senators think of themselves as being equals and generally expect to have more autonomy. C) senators are more highly paid than House members and are thus immune from financial threats. D) House rules mandate that all party members on major bills vote according to the directions of their leaders. E) All these answers are correct.

28)

A standing committee in the House or Senate A) is a permanent committee. B) has jurisdiction over a particular policy area. C) has authority to draft, rewrite, and recommend legislation. D) has leadership usually organized according to the seniority principle. E) All these answers are correct.

29)

Most of the legislative work of Congress is performed by

A) the standing committees and their subcommittees with jurisdiction over particular policy areas. B) the joint committees chosen to coordinate actions between the two chambers of Congress. C) the select committees chosen to study special problems on a temporary basis. D) the steering committees that decide how the party stands on particular bills. E) party leaders in both chambers.

30)

Committee staffs within Congress

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A) concentrate on constituency relations. B) perform an almost entirely legislative function. C) concentrate on public relations. D) split their time between legislative functions and public relations. E) are devoted to logistical functions and committee public relations.

31) by a

When the House and Senate pass different versions of a bill, the differences are resolved

A) conference committee. B) standing committee. C) select committee. D) rules committee. E) joint committee.

32) A bill has been approved in the House and Senate, albeit in slightly different versions. The bill now goes to A) the president for his or her veto or signature. B) a conference committee. C) the standing committees in the House and Senate where the bill originated. D) the House Rules Committee. E) the Senate Rules Committee.

33)

Which one of the following statements about the seniority principle is most accurate?

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A) The seniority principle is based on the length of time the member has spent in Congress. B) Because of seniority, committee chairs exercise absolute power over their committees. C) The seniority system is not absolute, and it is applied less uniformly than in the past. D) Seniority is no longer used at all in the choice of committee chairs. E) Seniority is used in the Democratic Party, but not in the Republican Party.

34)

Bills are formally introduced in Congress by A) members of Congress only. B) executive agencies. C) interest groups. D) the Supreme Court. E) All these answers are correct.

35)

Most of the work on legislation in Congress is done A) by committees and their respective subcommittees. B) on the floor of the House and Senate. C) by conference committees. D) by the president. E) by bureaucratic agencies.

36)

Committees kill more than ________ of the bills submitted in Congress. A) 10 percent B) 25 percent C) 40 percent D) 66 percent E) 90 percent

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37)

Mark up of a bill means that

A) a president has crossed out sections of the bill that he or she finds personally objectionable. B) a bill has been approved after floor debate has finished. C) witnesses at committee hearings suggest modifications of the bill. D) the House Speaker and Senate majority leader have written a bill in a way that they favor. E) None of these answers are correct.

38) Defining the conditions and scheduling a bill for floor debate in the House of Representatives is the responsibility of the A) Ways and Means Committee. B) Rules Committee. C) Budget Committee. D) Appropriations Committee. E) Judiciary Committee.

39)

If the Rules Committee applies the closed rule to a bill, A) no amendments will be permitted. B) the bill will not be allowed a vote. C) the bill will require a two-thirds majority for passage. D) no further floor debate is allowed. E) no filibusters will be allowed to prevent a vote.

40)

The scheduling of bills in the Senate is left up to

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A) the Senate Scheduling Committee. B) the Senate majority leader. C) each of the Senate committees. D) the Senate historian. E) the Senate parliamentarian.

41) What is the procedural tactic employed in the Senate to prevent a bill from coming to a vote? A) mark up B) filibuster C) cloture D) pocket veto E) conference committee

42)

Through a vote for cloture, the Senate A) confirms presidential appointees. B) can end a filibuster. C) overrides a presidential pocket veto. D) accepts the House version of a bill. E) closes its legislative session for the year.

43)

For a bill to pass in either chamber of Congress, it must A) receive the support of a third of its members. B) receive the support of a simple majority of its members. C) receive the support of two-thirds of its members. D) be passed within two weeks of its passage by the other chamber. E) be passed within a month of its passage by the other chamber.

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44)

To override a presidential veto, Congress must vote at a minimum by a A) simple majority in each chamber. B) three-fifths majority in each chamber. C) two-thirds majority in each chamber. D) four-fifths majority in each chamber. E) simple majority in the House and a three-fifths majority in the Senate.

45)

What must happen for a bill to be referred to a full congressional chamber for action? A) approval by the Speaker of the House or Senate majority leader B) belief by the majority party that the bill has a chance of passing C) passage through conference committee D) a majority committee vote recommending passage E) approval from the president

46)

The dominant policymaking political institution during most of the 19th century was A) the president and the executive branch. B) Congress. C) the Supreme Court. D) the bureaucracy. E) the mass media.

47) role?

Which of the following is one of the three major functions of Congress's policymaking

A) lawmaking B) constituent service C) appease special interests D) inform the people E) check the Supreme Court

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48) Congress's inability to consistently provide leadership on broad national issues is primarily due to A) the lack of talented leadership in Congress. B) the fragmented nature of Congress. C) constitutional restrictions on Congress's lawmaking powers. D) the constant threat of a presidential veto. E) opposition from the mass media.

49) There are currently ________ voting members of the U.S. House of Representatives and ________ voting members of the U.S. Senate. A) 535; 100 B) 435; 100 C) 150; 31 D) 300; 100 E) 600; 300

50) In initiating broad legislative proposals, the president enjoys all of the following advantages over Congress EXCEPT A) being more likely to take a national perspective on policy issues. B) being granted more authority by the Constitution in the area of lawmaking. C) being assisted by literally hundreds of policy specialists. D) having the authority to make policy decisions even when there are conflicting views within the executive branch, while congressional leaders cannot impose their views on other members who disagree with them. E) a lack of fragmentation.

51)

Most members of Congress are

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A) more likely to side with local interests than national ones on narrow issues. B) controlled by special interest groups. C) interested only in the work of the subcommittee on which they serve. D) opposed to the seniority system. E) more interested in oversight than in making laws.

52)

Congress typically takes presidential proposals A) as a starting point for negotiation if it has enough support. B) only if the dominant party is the same as the president's party. C) and most often fast-tracks them into law. D) and tables them until they expire. E) None of these answers are correct.

53) Since the founding of the United States, the debate over the representation function of Congress has centered on whether A) key decisions should be made by a small number of representatives in committee or by the whole membership in floor debate. B) the primary concern of a representative should be the interests of the nation or of his or her constituency. C) Congress or the president should lead in policymaking. D) the House or the Senate is more responsive to the public. E) the House or the Senate should take the lead on foreign policy issues.

54) The trading of votes between members of Congress so that each gets the legislation he or she wants is called

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A) gerrymandering. B) pandering. C) logrolling. D) pork-barreling. E) cloturing.

55) Which of the following statements is true about congressional members over the last three decades? A) Republicans have become more conservative. B) Republicans have continued to be moderate. C) Republicans have become more liberal. D) Democrats have become more moderate. E) Democrats have become more conservative.

56)

The oversight responsibility of Congress is A) relatively easy to carry out. B) becoming less and less important to the nation. C) empowered by control of yearly budgets. D) the most time-consuming task for most legislators. E) None of these answers are correct.

57) What is the biggest reason that Congress does not vigorously pursue its oversight function? A) the sheer magnitude of the task B) its inadequacy as a means of controlling the bureaucracy C) its inadequacy as a means of controlling the power of the president D) its inadequacy in generating publicity for members of Congress E) its inadequacy as a means of controlling the judiciary

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58)

Congressional oversight is most likely to occur when it involves A) executive agency abuse of legislative authorization. B) congressional activities of a questionable nature. C) allegations of misconduct by individual low-level bureaucrats. D) allegations of misconduct by state governments. E) unpopular decisions of the Supreme Court.

59)

Which of the following received a unanimous vote in the Senate in the past five years? A) the Tax Cut and Job Growth Act B) the COVID-19 coronavirus relief bill of 2020 C) the repeal of the Affordable Care Act D) the confirmation of Supreme Court justice nominee Brett Kavanaugh E) the cancellation of U.S. membership in the Paris agreement

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 60) Why do congressional incumbents have such a high rate of reelection?

61)

How does redistricting affect the careers of U.S. House members? Explain.

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62) Briefly contrast the functions of standing committees with joint, select, and conference committees.

63) Explain the difficulties involving the representation function of Congress. How does the representation function conflict with the lawmaking function of Congress?

64)

What is congressional oversight and how strongly is it pursued by Congress?

65) Congress is a decentralized, fragmented institution. What are the implications of these realities on its lawmaking/policymaking role? Explain.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_14e 1) C 2) A 3) A 4) E 5) D 6) E 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) E 12) C 13) B 14) E 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) E 19) E 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) E 25) B 26) C Version 1

27) B 28) E 29) A 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) A 36) E 37) E 38) B 39) A 40) B 41) B 42) B 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) B 51) A 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) A 56) C Version 1

57) A 58) A 59) B 60) Incumbents have a great advantage in congressional elections due to the various benefits that incumbency provides. Among these are the ability to claim credit for congressional achievements, provide porkbarrel legislation, perform constituent services, and garner publicity. Incumbents have the advantage of well-established mailing lists and support networks and the congressional privilege of the "frank," which affords them some free use of postal services. Incumbents have a decided advantage over their challengers in terms of ability to raise campaign funds; PACS are particularly kind to incumbents. House members, not senators, may also benefit from gerrymandering—the redrawing of election districts to make them less competitive. 61) The U.S. House seats are reallocated every ten years following the completion of the U.S. census. States that have gained population since the previous census may acquire additional House seats, while states that have lost population may lose seats. Redistricting usually benefits House incumbents because it allows for gerrymandering, or the drawing and redrawing of district boundaries to benefit a single part—and thus to benefit the incumbents of its party. However, should an incumbent of the opposition party have his or her district redrawn, it could cut into their established base of support. Additionally, if a state population does not grow or it loses population, redistricting may be required to reduce its number of representatives in the House, which would eliminate one or more House members in that state.

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62) Standing committees are permanent and do most of the work in Congress. They also have the most legislative authority; they can draft and rewrite legislation as well as recommend to the full chamber whether the legislation should pass. Select committees, in contrast, deal with a specific issue but do not produce legislation. Joint committees also do not provide legislation, but have members of both houses and perform and advisory function. Conference committees exist specifically to reconcile differing versions of the same bill from both the House and Senate. 63) The representation function of Congress is complex. Members of Congress are in Washington to serve the interests of the state or district constituency that elected them. Given their concern for reelection, members of Congress often promote local interests over national interests, especially when the issue at stake is a narrow one. Local representation can affect committee memberships and the distribution of federal funds. However, the representative function can be limited in that most constituents have little to no knowledge of most of the bills and issues that come before Congress. The representation function also occurs through parties, which group the interests of like-minded voters, but lately the partisan nature of parties has directly interfered with the lawmaking function of Congress. Polarization has led to gridlock and the inability to make policy and pass laws on issues even when most members of Congress agree that something needs to be done. Partisan party politics can also hurt the representation function, especially with respect to local interests, as it increasingly leads to a nationalization of congressional politics.

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64) Congressional oversight is the responsibility of Congress to see that the executive branch carries out laws faithfully and spends money properly. Oversight is carried out largely through the committee system of Congress, with each standing committee overseeing part of the executive branch. The biggest obstacle to effective oversight is the sheer magnitude of the task. With its several million employees and huge budget, the bureaucracy is beyond comprehensive scrutiny. Oversight is not vigorously pursued unless members of Congress are annoyed with an agency, have discovered that a legislative authorization is being abused, or are intending to modify an agency program. Congress tends toward disinterest in oversight if the presidency is the target and the president is of the same party as the congressional majority. 65) Congress has a fragmented nature: It has many members divided into both parties and committees, members with particular local interests, a division between two houses, and sometimes one chamber in the hands of one party and the other chamber in the hands of the opposing party. The lawmaking implications of this situation are several: Narrow legislation is more likely to pass than broad initiatives; and broad legislation, when capable of being passed, is likely to take a great deal of time and bargaining before it will pass. Over time, the presidency has become much more capable of leadership on national issues because of its greater control and lack of fragmentation.

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CHAPTER 12 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The presidency is an A) extraordinarily strong office with sufficient powers to enable the president to control national policy under virtually all circumstances. B) inherently weak office, in that presidents have almost no capacity to influence the major directions of national policy. C) office in which power is conditional, depending on whether the political support that gives force to presidential leadership exists or can be developed. D) office where power depends almost entirely on its occupant; strong leaders are always successful presidents, and weak ones never succeed. E) office where power is fairly constant, regardless of the occupant or the circumstances.

A president's power has largely depended on A) the margin of victory in the presidential campaign. B) whether circumstances favor strong presidential leadership. C) the president's ability to come up with good ideas. D) the president's skill at balancing the demands of competing groups. E) midterm elections.

Which of the following did the framers want from a president? A) national leadership B) administration of the laws C) direction in foreign affairs D) command of the military E) All these answers are correct.

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4) Who said the following: "Donald Trump is the first president in my lifetime who does not try to unite the American people—does not even pretend to try. Instead, he tries to divide us.” A) Donald Trump's former Secretary of Defense James Mattis B) Donald Trump's own daughter Ivanka Trump C) Speaker of the House Nancy Pelosi D) Congresswoman Alexandria Ocasio-Cortez E) MSNBC host Rachel Maddow

The presidency was created by Article ________ of the U.S. Constitution. A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) VII

What did Alexander Hamilton argue about war in Federalist No. 69?

A) Congress is the only body with enough deliberative powers to be able to justly declare war. B) War under any circumstances is unjust, even in self-defense. C) A president should be allowed to declare war, because only the executive can react quickly enough. D) A surprise attack on the United States is the only justification for war by presidential decree. E) Building a strong military for engagement in foreign wars would be a key ingredient in establishing executive authority.

What did the Supreme Court rule about executive agreements in 1937?

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A) They are legally binding in the same way that treaties are. B) They can only be issued in matters of national security. C) They will only be binding if reviewed and approved by both houses of Congress. D) They can only be made with the approval of a president's entire cabinet. E) They were ruled unconstitutional and are no longer used by the executive.

The president's constitutional roles, such as chief executive and commander in chief,

A) are based on very precise constitutional grants of power. B) are rooted in tradition only; they have no basis in the language of the Constitution. C) are not subject to check by Congress. D) have expanded in practice to be more powerful than the writers of the Constitution intended. E) are absolute powers under the Constitution.

The Whig theory holds that the presidency

A) is a shared office, where the president and the cabinet are equally powerful. B) is a limited office whose occupant is an administrator who carries out the will of Congress. C) is the office most representative of the people. D) should provide strong leadership in the area of foreign policy but not in domestic policy. E) is subordinate to the Supreme Court.

10)

How did Theodore Roosevelt change the conception of the presidency?

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A) He altered the stewardship theory to reduce the power of the presidency while remaining an activist president. B) He sought to act only within the confines of expressly-granted constitutional authority. C) He rejected the idea of the "strong presidency." D) He cast aside the stewardship theory in favor of the Whig theory. E) He cast aside the Whig theory in favor of the stewardship theory.

11) Which of the following is a reason for the relatively weak presidency during the 19th century, as compared to the presidency in the 20thcentury? A) the smaller size and complexity of the federal government B) the sectional nature of the nation's major issues C) the U.S. government's smaller role in world affairs D) all of these factors: the smaller size and complexity of the federal government; the sectional nature of the nation's major issues; and the U.S. government's smaller role in world affairs E) None of these answers are correct.

12)

The president's role in foreign policy increased largely because

A) Congress proved so inept in foreign affairs that the American people demanded a change. B) America became more of a world power. C) of the need to coordinate national economic policy and foreign policy, a task to which the presidency was well suited. D) of the desire of U.S. business to expand into Latin America and Asia, which required executive action at the highest level. E) of attitudes held by the American public.

13) What prompted former Marine General and former Secretary of Defense James Mattis to say that Trump was the first president in his lifetime trying to divide the country?

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A) Trump sent federal officers into several cities forcefully suppress the demonstrations that followed the police murder of George Floyd, an unarmed and handcuffed Black man in Minneapolis. B) Trump waited weeks before granting federal aid to the overwhelmingly Democratic state of California as it suffered the worst fires in its history. C) Trump had nominated a social conservative Supreme Court justice nominee to replace the deceased Justice Ruth Bader Ginsberg even though voting had already begun in the 2020 election. D) Trump had disparaged Mexican immigrants as predominantly rapists and pushed for the shooting of migrants that tried to cross the border illegally. E) Trump repeatedly called the press "the enemy of the people," disparaged them at his many rallies, and condoned deliberate police attacks on the press in the May and June protests of 2020.

14)

Which of the following is NOT a formal barrier to the presidency? A) natural-born citizenship B) at least 14 years of U.S. residency C) at least 35 years of age D) no more than two terms in office E) whiteness

15) The use of the primary system to select delegates to the presidential nominating convention began in A) the early 1800s during the presidency of Thomas Jefferson. B) the 1830s during the presidency of Andrew Jackson. C) the early 1900s. D) the 1930s during the presidency of Franklin Roosevelt. E) the 1970s in the aftermath of the Vietnam War and student protests.

16) In the 1970s, a reform of the nominating process required all states to choose their delegates through

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A) popular voting. B) elections in state houses. C) elections by state senates. D) national party conventions. E) caucuses only.

17)

Which phrase in the Constitution establishes the president as chief executive?

A) "He shall take care that the laws be faithfully executed, and shall commission all the officers of the United States." B) "He shall call forth the militia to execute the laws of the Union, suppress insurrections and repel invasions." C) "He shall execute chiefly and supremely over the federal agencies and the states." D) "The president of the Senate shall, in the presence of the Senate and House of Representatives, open all the certificates." E) "The president shall be commander in chief of the Army and Navy of the United States, and of the militia of the several states."

18) How many candidates did the Republican Party field in 2016 for the presidential nominating race? A) just one B) 4 C) 8 D) 18 E) 23

19) gain

Candidate strategy in the early presidential nominating contests is designed chiefly to

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A) momentum. B) the support of the party's organizational leaders. C) the support of the party's congressional leaders. D) the endorsement of the mass media. E) the support of partisan rivals.

20)

Which state typically holds the first presidential caucus? A) Kansas B) Minnesota C) Iowa D) Nevada E) Nebraska

21)

Which state typically holds the first presidential primary? A) Vermont B) New Hampshire C) New York D) California E) Florida

22) that

The president's role of chief diplomat rests largely on provisions in the U.S. Constitution

A) grant the president the power to “appoint” and “receive” ambassadors. B) authorize the president to negotiate, ratify, and enter into treaties. C) empower the president to assume the additional office of "Secretary of State" in national emergencies. D) bestow upon the president the right to legislate for the public safety. E) grant the president all "necessary and proper" powers.

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23)

Why does the president also occupy a role as chief legislator?

A) He has the power to veto. B) He also serves as the president of the Senate. C) The majority leader in the House of Representatives is a cabinet-level position. D) The Speaker of the House gets appointed by the president. E) Bills may originate with the House of Representatives, the Senate, or the president's legislative office.

24)

What do political experts refer to as the invisible primary? A) the midterm election preceding the presidential one B) the Iowa caucus C) the year leading up to the Iowa contest D) the South Carolina primary E) the California primary

25) In 2020, Joe Biden considered a number of candidates for the vice presidency before giving the nod to A) Kamala Harris from California. B) Beto O'Rourke from Texas C) Bernie Sanders from Vermont. D) John Kasich from Ohio. E) Elizabeth Warren from Massachusetts.

26)

Which of the following has become a significant challenge for modern-day presidents?

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A) getting their work done, since they lack the staff of representatives or senators B) maintaining control over what is done in their name C) getting their staff to obey them D) effectively communicating the president's message to the public E) finding experienced personnel for their small staffing pool

27) Which of the following statements about the president's National Security Council is accurate? A) It is a committee that operates under the direction of the Department of Homeland Security. B) It is a group of senators from both parties with significant foreign affairs experience. C) Its staff of nearly 400 people includes many foreign and defense policy experts. D) The National Security Council drafts legislation the president submits to the House for an up or down vote. E) The National Security Council connects the Executive Office of the President with major diplomats at the United Nations.

28) Which of the following was the most important responsibility President Trump assigned to his vice president Mike Pence in 2020? A) heading the COVID-19 task force B) heading the task force on the opioid epidemic C) steering the Middle East peace initiative D) overseeing proposals for police reform E) running the national initiative on social media regulation

29)

States that apply the unit rule

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A) grant all their electoral votes as a unit to the candidate who wins the state's popular vote. B) hold a single primary for presidential candidates from each major party. C) use the caucus instead of the primary for presidential candidate selection. D) do not use the Electoral College system. E) are not considered to be states in which there is a competitive race between candidates.

30)

The only two states that are exceptions to the unit rule are A) Michigan and Montana. B) New Hampshire and Vermont. C) Maine and Nebraska. D) Georgia and Louisiana. E) Rhode Island and Oregon.

31) Which of the following patterns emerged in the travel behavior of Donald Trump during his first three years in office? A) He maintained a strict separation between electioneering and governing. B) He predominantly visited states that had narrow margins of victory in the 2016 presidential election. C) He kept travel to a minimum out of concern over the spread of COVID-19. D) He only traveled abroad, not overseas. E) He delegated most of his travel responsibilities to his vice president, Mike Pence.

32)

Which of the following units is NOT included in the organization of the EOP?

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A) WHO B) OMB C) NSC D) NEC E) DHS

33) Which of the following states is most likely to vote Republican in the next presidential election? A) Pennsylvania B) New York C) Vermont D) Colorado E) Texas

34) Which of the following was a way in which Donald Trump could claim attention with breaking news in just seconds? A) devising new executive orders B) sending out a tweet C) nominating a Supreme Court justice D) writing an angry letter to Nancy Pelosi E) offering aid to states suffering from the consequences of climate change

35)

Which of the following is a formal constitutional requirement for becoming president? A) must be at least 40 years of age B) must be resident in the United States for at least 10 years C) must be a natural-born citizen D) must be a white male E) must be a Protestant

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36)

Who among the following did NOT serve as a state governor prior to being president? A) Ronald Reagan B) Bill Clinton C) John F. Kennedy D) George W. Bush E) Jimmy Carter

37)

Which of the following is true of the vice presidency?

A) Presidents in the 19th century paid more attention to their vice presidents and granted them more authority. B) The Constitution assigns no executive authority to the vice president. C) Jimmy Carter reduced the power of the vice presidency by removing the vice president's office from the White House. D) The constitutional powers of the vice presidency have been increased by Congress twice during U.S. history. E) Daniel Webster and Henry Clay accepted nominations to the vice presidency as stepping stones to the presidency.

38)

The Executive Office of the President (EOP) was created in ________. A) 1789 B) 1804 C) 1865 D) 1888 E) 1939

39)

Which of the following is part of the Executive Office of the President?

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A) Office of Management and Budget B) National Economic Council C) National Security Council D) Office of Legislative Affairs E) All these answers are correct.

40) The presidential advisory unit that, as a whole, has declined significantly as an advisory resource for the president in the last century is the A) National Economic Council. B) Office of Management and Budget. C) White House Office. D) National Security Council. E) cabinet (as a whole).

41) The president is able to appoint more than ________ people to top positions in the administration. A) 250 B) 800 C) 2,000 D) 8,000 E) 24,000

42)

The president's success is most dependent on winning over A) the courts. B) the bureaucracy. C) the foreign service. D) Congress. E) his or her chief of staff.

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43) Which president, because of the circumstances of the day, was able to accomplish more in the first few months than any other president has in a comparable amount of time? A) Ronald Reagan B) Theodore Roosevelt C) Bill Clinton D) Barack Obama E) Franklin Roosevelt

44)

The honeymoon period occurs during

A) a president's second term only. B) the first part of a president's term. C) the period of a president's term immediately following a successful foreign policy initiative. D) the period of a president's term immediately following a successful domestic policy initiative. E) the State of the Union address.

45)

A president is likely to propose the most new programs A) during his or her first year in office. B) after reelection to a second term. C) immediately after Congress enacts a major presidential initiative. D) when international conditions are stable. E) during his or her last year in office.

46) Political scientist Aaron Wildavsky's "two presidencies" thesis holds that a president is likely to be most successful with Congress on initiatives involving

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A) social welfare policy. B) foreign policy. C) tax policy. D) economic policy. E) environmental policy.

47)

How did Donald Trump use the 1977 International Emergency Economic Powers Act? A) He secured funding for a border wall. B) He barred Muslims from entering the country. C) He blocked funding from sanctuary cities. D) He started a trade war with China E) He lowered tariffs on German steel.

48)

Which of the following is true of the president's veto power?

A) The presidential veto is an executive tool of near unlimited power. B) The threat of a veto has never proven to be enough to make Congress bend to the president's demands. C) Congress can usually muster the two-thirds majority in each chamber required to override a presidential veto. D) The veto is as much a sign of presidential weakness as of strength, because it arises when Congress refuses to accept the president's ideas. E) Obama was able to use the veto to force Congress to give him full restoration of a food stamp provision that he wanted.

49) Political scientist Richard Neustadt argues that presidential power, at its core, is the power to

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A) threaten. B) persuade. C) veto. D) make war. E) appoint Supreme Court justices.

50) What is the most important factor in determining whether or not a president will get what he or she wants from Congress? A) the partisan makeup of Congress B) how often the president threatens to veto bills C) whether or not the president has ever served in Congress D) the president's ability to do personal favors for members of Congress E) whether a president is serving a first term or a second term

51) If the U.S. House of Representatives chooses to impeach a president, who conducts the trial? A) the U.S. Supreme Court B) the U.S. House of Representatives C) the U.S. Senate D) the Federal Bureau of Investigation E) the Department of Justice

52) The forced removal of a president from office through impeachment and conviction requires action by the A) House of Representatives only. B) Senate only. C) House and Senate in a joint session. D) House and Senate in separate proceedings. E) Supreme Court in a judicial proceeding.

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53)

Which president narrowly survived an impeachment conviction? A) Andrew Johnson B) John Quincy Adams C) Theodore Roosevelt D) Warren Harding E) Calvin Coolidge

54)

How many presidents have been impeached in U.S. history? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4

55)

The War Powers Act was enacted in order to

A) guide the military in its use of force in field situations where it is impractical to seek direction from the president. B) allow the president more leeway in committing U.S. troops to combat. C) define the relationship between the United States and its allies. D) limit the president's war-making power. E) weaken Congress in foreign policy matters.

56)

Which of the following is a provision of the War Powers Act?

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A) It prohibits the president from sending troops into combat. B) It requires hostilities to end within 60 days unless Congress extends the period. C) It requires Congress to consult with the president whenever feasible before passing measures that will restrict president-ordered military action. D) It requires the president to inform Congress within one month of the reason for the military action. E) It removes from Congress the power to restrict the timing or size of presidentinitiated military actions.

57)

A president's policy initiatives are significantly more successful when the president

A) has the strong support of the American people. B) is a former member of Congress. C) is on good terms with other world leaders. D) is in office when the economy goes bad, which creates a demand for stronger leadership. E) None of these answers are correct.

58) In the modern era, the practice of using the presidency as a bully pulpit (Theodore Roosevelt) is summed up in the phrase, "________." A) going public B) spin control C) air wars D) lobbying the bureaucracy E) manipulating the media

59) Which of the following is typical of post-WWII presidents with respect to public popularity?

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A) leaving office with less than 50 percent approval ratings B) starting office with very low approval ratings C) experiencing a steady increase in approval ratings during their first terms D) seeing spikes in popularity during economic downturns E) seeing drops in popularity during stressful international challenges

60) Which of the following describes what political scientist Hugh Heclo calls "the illusion of presidential government"? A) the inability of the president to influence the legislative priorities of Congress, even though the party in power pays lip-service to the president's agenda B) the presidential image-building through public relations that contributes to the idea that the president is in charge of the national government C) the belief by the public that Congress should follow the presidential agenda, regardless of whether or not the majority party is the same as the party of the president D) the image-building that the president's foreign policy strength lends to the rest of his agenda E) the image strength lent by the sheer size of the executive establishment, even though the president has little direct control over most of it

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 61) Explain the difference between the Whig theory of the presidency and the stewardship theory. Which is the norm today?

62) Recount the use of impeachment with respect to the presidency over the nation's history. For what reasons has impeachment been used, and has results were produced?

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63) Identify the four systems of presidential selection that the United States had during its history. What has been the overriding reason for the changes that have taken place?

64) Discuss the circumstances that contribute to the success or failure of presidential influence on national policy.

65) Discuss the relationship between the president and Congress. Why does the president need congressional support? What conditions affect the success of the president with Congress?

66) Discuss the relationship of presidential power to public support for the president, and explain why this relationship is both an asset and a liability for the president.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_14e 1) C 2) B 3) E 4) A 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) E 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) E 15) C 16) A 17) A 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) E 24) C 25) A 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) E 33) E 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) B 38) E 39) E 40) E 41) C 42) D 43) E 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) D 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) A 54) D 55) D 56) B Version 1

57) A 58) A 59) A 60) B 61) The Whig theory holds that the presidency is a limited or constrained office whose occupant is confined to the exercise of expressly-granted constitutional authority. In this tradition, the president has no implicit powers for dealing with national problems but is primarily an administrator, who is charged with carrying out the will of Congress. James Buchanan was a proponent of this theory. The stewardship theory maintains that the president should be a strong, assertive, and forceful leader. In this tradition the president can do anything that is not specifically forbidden by the Constitution. Proponents of this tradition have included Theodore Roosevelt. The changes to the federal government led by Franklin Roosevelt cemented the stewardship model as the norm today.

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62) Impeachment—the removal of the president from office—is Congress’s ultimate sanction within its constitutional authority. Only on three occasions has Congress taken steps to curb the president'suse of power.In 1868, AndrewJohnson came within one Senate vote of being removed from office for his opposition to Congress’s Reconstruction policies after the Civil War. In 1974, Richard Nixon’s resignation halted congressional proceedings on the Watergate affair that almost certainly would have ended in his impeachment and removal from office. In 1998, the House of Representatives impeached President Clinton on grounds he had lied under oath about a sexual relationship with intern Monica Lewinsky. The Senate acquitted Clinton by a 55–45 vote. the Senate in 2020 reached the same conclusion in the impeachment trial of Donald Trump. The House had passed two articles of impeachment, one for abuse of power and one for obstruction of Congress in conjunction with Trump’s withholding of military assistance to Ukraine in return for Ukraine initiating a corruption investigation against Joe Biden. In sum, impeachment has been misused for political purposes in some instances and fallen short of delivering the remedy—removal of the president—in the other cases.

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63) The first system was used from 1788 until 1828 and centered on the Electoral College. Party nominees were recommended by congressional caucuses, although electors were somewhat independent in their voting. The second system involved the use of the party convention, and was in place from 1832 to the early twentieth century. Party nominees were chosen in national party conventions by delegates selected by state and local party organizations; and Electoral College members cast their ballots for the popular-vote winner in their respective states. The third system was the party convention/primary system, used from the early twentieth century until 1968. This system was similar to the second system, in that most convention delegates were chosen by the party organizers, although some were now selected through primary elections. The fourth system came into being after the 1968 election and is the party primary/open caucus system. Here the majority of national convention delegates are chosen through primary elections and open caucuses, and thus the key factor is support of rank-and-file voters. Each succeeding system was justified as being more legitimate in that it granted ordinary citizens a greater voice in the selection of a president.

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64) Whether a president succeeds or fails in getting his or her policies enacted depends on the force of circumstance, the stage of the presidency, the relationship with Congress, the foreign or domestic nature of the policy issue, and the level of public support for the president. Circumstances such as the decisiveness of election victory and the emergence of a compelling national problem often create conditions that affect the president's influence, and yet are beyond his/her control. Success rates for presidential initiatives are strongly related to whether or not the president is of the same party as the majority in Congress, and whether the majority is sizable or weak. Presidents tend to receive more support from Congress on foreign policy issues than on domestic policy issues. Finally, support for presidential initiatives tends to be highest during the honeymoon period of a presidential term and wanes as the president's term in office lengthens. Very high levels of public support can give the president immense power, while very low levels of public support can encourage even members of the president's own party to oppose the presidential agenda.

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65) Congress is a presidential constituency, in that the president must serve the interest of members of Congress if he or she expects their support. The president needs congressional support to enact policies. In the American system of separated powers, the president must work for the backing of Congress on many issues and policies. Without congressional authorization and funding, most presidential proposals do not get implemented. On the other hand, members of Congress look to the president for policy leadership, which provides the president with the opportunity for successful policy making. Whether congressional backing is forthcoming depends on several factors, including the president's ability to work with Congress, the circumstances of the period (whether there are urgent national problems that most people agree requires a policy response), and the party composition of Congress (presidents are more likely to succeed when a congressional majority is of the same party). 66) The president's election by the whole nation and his or her position as sole chief executive makes the presidential office the primary focus of Americans' policy and leadership expectations. In turn, public support gives force to presidential leadership. Public support of the president is typically highest during the first months in office. Because the public expects so much of the president, the president cannot always meet the public's expectations. Many conditions can lead to a decline in public support, and with that, a weakening of the president's claim to lead Congress and others. On the other hand, when national conditions are favorable, the president gets a disproportionate share of the credit from the American people, which gives added strength to the president's efforts. Economic conditions in particular make a huge difference in the level of public support for the president.

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CHAPTER 13 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) What responsibility did the federal government have in the crash of the Boeing 737 MAX equipped with MCAS? A) Government programmers had developed the MCAS. B) Government bureaucrats had required the installation of the foreign-designed system on the Boeing. C) The FAA had thoroughly tested MCAS and not found any flaws with it. D) The FAA had given Boeing wide latitude in judging the safety of MCAS itself. E) The FAA had forged the documentation approving the MCAS system.

Bureaucracy is based on which of the following principles? A) hierarchical authority B) job specialization C) formalized rules D) hierarchical authority, job specialization, and formalized rules E) None of these answers are correct.

Modern bureaucracy in America is best characterized in terms of A) inefficiency, inflexibility, and red tape. B) hierarchy, specialization, and rules. C) honesty, efficiency, and patronage. D) corruption, incompetence, and spoils. E) waste, red tape, and lack of rules.

In promoting their agency's goals, bureaucrats rely on

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A) their expert knowledge. B) the backing of the president and Congress. C) the support of clientele groups. D) all of these: their expert knowledge; the backing of the president and Congress; and the support of clientele groups. E) None of these answers are correct.

5) Which of the following agencies or departments is likely to have strong allies from a group of particular states in Congress? A) the Department of State B) the Central Intelligence Agency C) the Environmental Protection Agency D) the Department of Agriculture E) the Federal Trade Commission

6) In the late 1800s, rapid economic growth placed new demands on the federal government and led it to A) create new federal departments built around economic interests. B) establish the Senior Executive Service. C) reorganize the cabinet in order to make it the center of economic policy making. D) both create new federal departments built around economic interests, and establish the Senior Executive Service. E) None of these answers are correct.

The Department of ________ was founded in 1889.

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A) Health and Human Services B) State C) Labor D) Homeland Security E) Agriculture

The number of employees in the federal bureaucracy is about ________. A) 80,000 B) 800,000 C) 2.8 million D) 4.8 million E) 8 million

Compared to the president and Congress, the bureaucracy A) is held in higher esteem by the public. B) is authorized by a constitutional amendment rather than by the original Constitution. C) has a more direct impact on the daily lives of Americans. D) has changed very little during the nation's history. E) is more easily controlled by the voters.

10) The cabinet department with the largest number of full-time civilian employees is the Department of A) State. B) Defense. C) Labor. D) Health and Human Services. E) Education.

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11)

The Department of ________ was created in 2002. A) Transportation B) Energy C) Education D) Veterans Affairs E) Homeland Security

12)

Which of the following statements does NOT correctly describe independent agencies? A) They have a more narrow area of responsibility than that of cabinet departments. B) Their heads are appointed by an independent commission. C) They include organizations like the CIA and NASA. D) They sometimes exist independent of cabinet departments. E) Their heads are appointed by the president.

13) Whenever Congress has a perceived need for ongoing control of an economic activity, it has tended to create a A) regulatory agency. B) cabinet department. C) presidential commission. D) government corporation. E) blue ribbon panel.

14) The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) are

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A) all agencies within cabinet departments. B) all independent agencies. C) respectively, an independent agency, an agency within a cabinet department, and a regulatory agency. D) two cabinet departments and a regulatory agency. E) respectively, an agency within a cabinet department, an independent agency, and a regulatory agency.

15)

Federal regulatory agencies have responsibility primarily in the area of A) economic policy. B) social welfare policy. C) foreign and defense policy. D) law enforcement policy. E) environmental policy.

16)

Regulatory agencies have A) administrative, legislative, and judicial functions. B) legislative and executive functions, but no judicial functions. C) adjudicative and law enforcement functions. D) multilateral, law enforcement, and executive functions. E) None of these answers are correct.

17)

Amtrak is an example of a(n) A) cabinet department. B) government corporation. C) independent agency. D) regulatory agency. E) presidential commission.

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18)

Most federal civil servants are hired on the basis of A) merit criteria. B) patronage. C) previous job experience in the private sector. D) the personal preferences of immediate supervisors. E) a lottery system.

19) When it was developed during the Jackson administration, the patronage system was designed to A) provide jobs to merit appointees. B) tie the administration more closely to the people it served. C) increase congressional control of the bureaucracy. D) increase judicial control of the bureaucracy. E) provide jobs to lawyers.

20)

As distinct from the patronage system, the merit system for managing the bureaucracy

A) allows the president to appoint top officials of executive agencies, thus making the bureaucracy more responsive to election outcomes. B) provides for presidential leadership of the bureaucracy, thus giving it greater coordination and direction. C) provides for a neutral administration in the sense that civil servants are not partisan appointees, thus ensuring neutral work. D) provides that all programs will be evaluated regularly to determine whether they merit continued funding. E) All these answers are correct.

21)

The ________ established a merit system for certain federal positions.

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A) Morrill Act B) Hatch Act C) Pendleton Act D) Taft-Hartley Act E) National Performance Review

22)

The federal bureaucracy today is

A) extremely wasteful and unresponsive to the public it serves. B) an ineffective institution in comparison with bureaucracies of democracies with unitary systems. C) more responsive to the public at large than to the particular interests that depend on its various programs. D) a mix of the patronage and merit systems, with the vast majority of positions being filled by merit. E) mostly dominated by patronage politics.

23)

The administrative concept of neutral competence holds that the bureaucracy should

A) be staffed by people chosen on the basis of ability and do its work fairly on behalf of all citizens. B) stay out of conflicts between Congress and the president. C) be structured on the basis of the principles of specialization, hierarchy, and formal rules. D) not allow in-fighting between agencies. E) be staffed by partisan presidents.

24)

Which of the following is true of federal employees and labor unions?

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A) Federal employees are prohibited from forming labor unions. B) Federal employees can form labor unions, but their unions by law have limited authority. C) There are no restrictions on the creation and powers of labor unions by federal employees. D) Among federal employees, only employees of government corporations can legally form labor unions. E) Federal employees can form labor unions but are not allowed to participate in collective bargaining.

25)

Federal civil service employees cannot legally A) be fired from their jobs. B) go on strike. C) belong to a union. D) be restricted in their political activities. E) hold certain key jobs in election campaigns.

26) At the start of the annual budget cycle, the OMB assigns each agency a budget limit based on A) the president's directives. B) its own projections of what is affordable. C) the Justice Department's instructions. D) congressional guidelines. E) the guidelines of the Commerce Department.

27)

Which of the following steps in the federal budgetary process occurs earliest?

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A) The agencies work on their budgets. B) The president consults with the OMB on agency instructions. C) Congress completes work on the appropriations bills. D) Congress adopts a budget resolution. E) The president submits budget proposals to Congress.

28)

Which of the following steps in the federal budgetary process occurs latest? A) The agencies work on their budgets. B) The president consults with the OMB on agency instructions. C) Congress completes work on the appropriations bills. D) Congress adopts a budget resolution. E) The president submits budget proposals to Congress.

29)

Upon reaching Congress, what first happens to the president's budget proposal? A) It is subjected to floor debate. B) It goes to the House and Senate budget committees. C) It is reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. D) It is marked up by the full Senate before moving to the House. E) It is referred to the House and Senate appropriations committees.

30)

What is the congressional equivalent of the Office of Management and Budget? A) House Appropriations Committee B) Senate Appropriations Committee C) Congressional Budget Office D) House Sergeant at Arms E) General Accounting Office

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31) What happens to the president's budget if it is approved by a vote of the House and Senate? A) It is reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. B) It has reached its final approval and is implemented. C) It is sent to the president to sign or veto. D) It is given to the president for any further executive changes to be added. E) It is referred to the House and Senate appropriations committees for implementation.

32)

The federal government's fiscal year starts on A) January 1. B) March 1. C) April 15. D) July 1. E) October 1.

33)

Policy implementation refers to the bureaucratic function of

A) carrying out decisions made by Congress, the president, and the courts. B) regulating the distribution of funds to individuals and corporations. C) delegating legislative authority to smaller operating units of the bureaucracy. D) both regulating the distribution of funds to individuals and corporations, and delegating legislative authority to smaller operating units of the bureaucracy. E) None of these answers are correct.

34)

What is the chief way administrative agencies exercise control over policy?

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A) through the budget B) by forming an iron triangle C) rule-making for legislation D) promoting an agency point of view E) whistleblowing

35)

Bureaucrats tend to follow A) the wishes of the president. B) the wishes of Congress. C) their own agency's point of view. D) the expectations of the general public. E) the wishes of federal judges.

36)

Bureaucrats are ________ and elected officials are ________. A) generalists; specialists B) generalists; generalists C) specialists; generalists D) specialists; specialists E) popular; unpopular

37)

________ is/are most likely to understand trade issues in the United States.

A) The president B) Members of the Senate C) Career bureaucrats in the Department of Commerce and the Federal Trade Commission D) Members of the House E) Federal mediators

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38) The special interests that benefit directly from a bureaucratic agency's programs are called A) clientele groups. B) pressure groups. C) entitlement groups. D) programmatic groups. E) recipient groups.

39)

Which of the following was the most recent example of a high-level bureaucratic failure? A) Intelligence assessment on the eve of the September 11 attacks B) the response to the COVID-19 virus C) the government response to Hurricane Katrina D) the counting of ballots in the 2020 election E) the postal service's delivery of Christmas mail in 2019

40) The United States Supreme Court ruled in 2020 that Congress could not place conditions on the president's ability to remove an agency's director. What agency stood at the center of this ruling? A) NOAA B) CFPB C) CIA D) IRS E) SEC

41) High-ranking civil servants recruited for the bureaucracy in Great Britain tend to have a college major specializing in

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A) natural sciences and engineering. B) social sciences, humanities, or business. C) law. D) public administration. E) journalism.

42)

Studies have found that the U.S. federal bureaucracy A) becomes far less effective as it grows over time. B) is much less accountable than the bureaucracies of European democracies. C) compares favorably in performance to government bureaucracies elsewhere. D) is one of the least representative of minorities compared to others worldwide. E) falls far short of the effectiveness of most foreign bureaucracies.

43)

What were the "reinventing teams"?

A) teams appointed by Congress to propose budget cuts to the federal bureaucracy B) groups of executive officials that were under the influence of "agency capture" C) congressional committees designed to find ways to reduce the size of the national bureaucracy D) teams that were formed under the National Performance Review to analyze and make recommendations about bureaucratic effectiveness E) teams appointed by Congress to decide which branches of the federal bureaucracy could be eliminated

44) The National Performance Review addressed which of the following issues about the bureaucracy?

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A) responsiveness B) accountability C) efficiency D) the need to reduce red tape E) All these answers are correct.

45) Which of the following was the most recent broad initiative aimed at making the bureaucracy more responsive? A) the Brownlow Commission B) the National Performance Review C) the Hoover Commission D) the Volcker Commission E) None of these answers are correct.

46) The president can hire about ________ full-time partisan employees to help implement the presidential agenda. A) 60 B) 150 C) 400 D) 600 E) 2,000

47) The typical presidential appointee spends about ________ on the job before leaving for other employment. A) six months B) one year C) two years D) three years E) four years

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48) Which of the following statements about how the courts hold the federal administrative agencies accountable is accurate? A) The courts are considered the first line of defense against agency heads that have overreached in their administrative power. B) The courts will typically support administrators if administrators have consistently administered the law. C) Legally, the bureaucracy derives its power from precedent applied by the courts. D) The courts rarely grant administrators any discretionary authority. E) The courts have no power to make an agency change its policy.

49)

Congress oversees the bureaucracy by using

A) sunset provisions. B) the Government Accountability Office. C) oversight hearings. D) all of these: sunset provisions, the Government Accountability Office, and oversight hearings. E) None of these answers are correct.

50)

How has the Government Accountability Office's role changed?

A) It has acquired wide judicial and adjudication powers to deal with inter-agency disputes. B) It has changed from a presidential-executive support agency to largely a congressional support agency. C) It has been given broader powers over time to actually grant additional funds or take away funds directly from agencies. D) It has its broad powers limited from general oversight down to keeping track of agency spending. E) It has moved from a limited role of keeping track of agency spending to also monitoring whether the agency is implementing policies in the way Congress intended.

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51)

Legally, the bureaucracy derives general authority for its programs from A) acts of Congress. B) federalism. C) regulatory rulings. D) court rulings. E) the will of the people.

52)

The courts have tended to support administrators as long as their agencies A) choose rules that save money. B) apply a reasonable interpretation of a statute. C) follow what the president demands of them. D) have adequate funding. E) don't come into conflict with state governments.

53) The Senior Executive Service was established in ________ and consists of about ________ career civil servants. A) 1887; 800 B) 1911; 800 C) 1933; 1,300 D) 1961; 1,300 E) 1978; 7,000

54) When an individual believes that he or she was improperly disadvantaged by a bureaucrat's decision and contests the decision, the dispute is usually handled by

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A) an administrative law judge. B) a congressional oversight committee. C) a federal appeals court. D) a departmental or agency adjudication office. E) the Supreme Court.

55)

The Senior Executive Service (SES)

A) is composed of civil employees that can be fired more easily than normal career civil servants. B) was designed to combat abuse of the patronage system. C) is composed of civil employees that can be assigned by the president to any position within the bureaucracy. D) has been more successful in practice than its proponents anticipated. E) assigns most of its senior executives to work within a different agency than the one in which they originally worked.

56)

An administrative law judge A) usually works in any agency that needs her or his services. B) runs trials, but all decisions are made by juries. C) can gather evidence and take testimony. D) issues only advisory opinions. E) seeks to protect federal agencies, not individual citizens.

57) Which of the following is true of the federal government's demographic representativeness?

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A) Because the federal government has reduced efforts to specifically promote women and minorities, the proportion of white males that hold top administration positions has increased in recent years. B) If all employees are taken into account, the federal bureaucracy comes reasonably close to being representative of the nation's population. C) Women and minorities are better represented in Congress and the judiciary than they are among the top ranks of administrators. D) The concept of a demographically representative civil service was first endorsed by President Reagan in 1984. E) There has been much more improvement in the representation of minorities in the civil service than in the representation of women.

58) Which group saw the largest percentage increase of SES positions between 1982 and 2011? A) African Americans B) Hispanics C) women D) white men E) All of these groups had about the same percentage increase.

59) About two of every three Senior Executive Service positions in the federal bureaucracy are held by A) women. B) males. C) African Americans. D) Latino Americans. E) Asian Americans.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 60) Discuss the historical process by which the federal bureaucracy grew from its original size to its present size.

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61) Identify four of the five major types of organizations within the federal bureaucracy, and give examples of each.

62) The two main systems of bureaucratic employment are the patronage and merit systems. Describe their respective goals and the major problems associated with each system.

63)

What is the federal bureaucracy's main function?

64)

What is the "agency point of view"? Why is it important?

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65)

Discuss three major sources of bureaucratic power.

66)

Identify the major ways that the bureaucracy is held accountable by the president.

67)

Identify the major ways that the bureaucracy is held accountable by Congress.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_14e 1) D 2) D 3) B 4) D 5) D 6) A 7) E 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) E 12) B 13) A 14) E 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) C 32) E 33) A 34) C 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) A 39) B 40) B 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) E 45) B 46) E 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) E 51) A 52) B 53) E 54) A 55) C 56) C Version 1

57) B 58) C 59) B 60) The bureaucracy has been transformed by changes in the demands on government as a result of social, economic, and technological developments. As the economy grew and became more complex and interdependent, the bureaucracy grew in response to the demands of major economic interests (e.g., agriculture, commerce) and the need of the public for protection from exploitation by powerful economic interests. Later, Franklin Roosevelt's New Deal led to the biggest expansion of the federal bureaucracy and the creation of a host of new regulatory and welfare agencies. Still later, Lyndon Johnson's Great Society and the increasing complexity of society resulted in the formation of agencies (e.g., Department of Transportation and the Department of Housing and Urban Development) to deal with issues that were traditionally in the realm of state governments. 61) The five major types of organizations within the federal bureaucracy are the cabinet department, independent agency, regulatory agency, government corporation, and presidential commission. Examples of cabinet departments are the Department of Defense, Department of State, and Department of Treasury. The CIA and NASA are examples of independent agencies. Regulatory agencies include the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). The National Railroad Passenger Corporation (Amtrak) and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) are government corporations. Presidential commissions include the Commission on Civil Rights and the Commission on Fine Arts.

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62) The patronage system was designed to make the bureaucracy more responsive to election outcomes by allowing the president to appoint executive officials and was championed by Andrew Jackson. The problem is that these officials may not have the knowledge or expertise to do their job properly. Abuse of this system led to it being labeled the "spoils" system—a device for the awarding of government jobs to friends and party hacks. The merit system is designed to provide administration that is neutral (evenhanded, nonpartisan) and competent (efficiently executed). The problem is that once entrenched, bureaucrats can become a powerful political force in their own right. 63) The federal bureaucracy's primary function is policy implementation. Policy implementation refers to the process of carrying out the authoritative decisions of Congress, the president, and the courts. This task occurs for the most part within the confines of the federal budget and can be relatively straightforward (in the case of agencies that are charged with the delivery of services), but there are also many areas where agency employees have discretionary authority. 64) Bureaucrats look to their agency's interests, a perspective that is called the agency point of view. This point of view develops through long careers serving a particular agency; professionalism can also encourage the agency point of view. If agencies are to operate in the fragmented American political system, they must fight for the power they require to conduct their programs effectively. In other words, they must play politics. They must devote themselves to building enough support to permit the effective administration of their programs. If they do not, their goals will suffer because other agencies that are willing to play politics will grab the available funding, attention, and support.

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65) The three sources of bureaucratic power are expertise, client groups, and friends in high places. A first major source of bureaucratic power is expertise. Since most of the problems that the federal government confronts do not lend themselves to simple solutions, expert knowledge is essential in addressing them. Much of the expertise is held by bureaucrats. The second main source is the support of clientele groups; they are special interests that benefit directly from an agency's programs and thus have a vested interest in supporting it. Such groups place pressure on Congress and the president to retain the programs that benefit them. The third source is having friends in high places—the president and Congress. Both need the resources and expertise of the bureaucracy to achieve their goals, just as the bureaucracy needs their political support to attain its goals. 66) The president can hold the bureaucracy accountable in a number of ways. The president can appoint and fire agency heads and some other top bureaucrats. In addition, the president can reorganize the bureaucracy (subject to congressional approval). Moreover, the president can adjust the annual budget proposals of agencies, particularly through using the powerful Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Presidential executive orders can be used to force agencies to conduct specific administrative actions. Large-scale review programs, like the National Performance Review begun in 1993, can also be used to shed light on needed improvements.

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67) There are a number of ways that Congress can hold the bureaucracy accountable. The most substantial control that Congress exerts over the bureaucracy is through its "power of the purse." Congress has constitutional authority over spending; it decides how much money will be appropriated for agency programs. Second, it can pass new or revised legislation that limits the bureaucracy's discretion or abolishes existing programs. Third, Congress also has control through its oversight function. It can investigate the bureaucracy's activities and force bureaucrats to testify about their activities. Fourth, it can write sunset laws that expire on a given date.

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CHAPTER 14 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) In its ruling in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission, the Supreme Court A) invalidated the use of union money in federal election campaigns. B) lifted restrictions in corporate and union spending in federal election campaigns. C) placed restrictions on the amounts that individuals can donate to federal election campaigns. D) placed limits on the amounts that corporations can donate to federal election campaigns. E) eliminated the provision for matching federal campaign funds in presidential elections.

In Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission, the Supreme Court

A) issued a decision that led to a decrease in political spending in campaigns. B) upheld the 2002 Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act. C) ruled that corporations cannot legally be considered persons. D) actively substituted its judgment for that of elected officials. E) nullified the power of the Federal Election Commission to monitor campaign spending.

Federal judges are A) nominated by the Senate and approved by both houses of Congress. B) nominated by the president and approved by the Senate. C) nominated by the president and approved by both houses of Congress. D) elected by majority vote in their respective districts. E) elected by majority vote in their respective states.

What are the constitutional requirements for being a federal judge?

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A) at least 30 years old and a citizen of the United States B) at least 25 years old and a citizen of the United States C) at least 30 years old and a resident of the specific judicial district D) at least 30 years old and a lawyer in good standing with the state bar E) There are no constitutional requirements for being a federal judge.

5) The constitutional provision that federal judges and justices hold office "during good behavior" A) has meant, in effect, that they will serve until they die or choose to retire. B) has eliminated any legal ability by Congress to remove a judge from office. C) has removed all presidential influence over judicial policy. D) was intended to give voters control over the conduct of federal judges. E) None of these answers are correct.

Federal judges are

A) nominated by the president. B) confirmed by the U.S. Senate. C) appointed for an indefinite period, providing they maintain "good behavior." D) all of these: nominated by the president, confirmed by the U.S. Senate, and appointed for an indefinite period providing they maintain "good behavior." E) None of these answers are correct.

How long do federal judges serve? A) two years B) four years C) eight years D) ten years E) until they retire, die, or are removed through the impeachment and conviction

process

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The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in legal disputes involving A) foreign diplomats. B) the president. C) Congress. D) private parties. E) free speech and equal protection issues.

The power of the Supreme Court is most apparent in its ability to A) issue advisory opinions when Congress is considering a new bill. B) impeach federal judges who consistently ignore its rulings. C) declare another institution's action to be unconstitutional. D) override any decision of a state court. E) issue advisory opinions to the president on a regular basis.

10)

A writ of certiorari is

A) a request to a lower court to submit to the Supreme Court a record of the case it has been requested to hear. B) the statement explaining the reasoning behind a Supreme Court decision. C) the official transcript of Supreme Court proceedings. D) a statement from a group not directly involved in a Supreme Court case, indicating the group's opinion on the legal issue at hand. E) an application for a waiver of court fees due to indigence.

11)

In which of the following situations is the Supreme Court most likely to grant certiorari?

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A) A state government has a legal conflict with a city government. B) A lower court ruling conflicts with a previous Supreme Court ruling. C) The justices believe a lower court made a mistake in a routine ruling. D) A key issue in state law must be settled. E) Lower courts have made the same consistent but incorrect ruling on a single issue.

12)

The Supreme Court grants certiorari to fewer than ________ cases each year. A) 10 B) 30 C) 50 D) 75 E) 100

13) Regarding Supreme Court procedures, which one of the following statements is NOT accurate? A) When part of the majority, the chief justice decides which justice will write the majority opinion. B) A concurring opinion is a view written by a justice who votes with the majority and agrees with its reasoning. C) A dissenting opinion is an opinion of a judge who votes against the majority. D) Attorneys who argue a case before the Supreme Court operate under strict time limits. E) The Court's opinion, not the decision, is used as the primary legal basis for lower court actions based on the decision.

14) A written Supreme Court opinion that, in the absence of a majority opinion, represents the reasoning of most of the justices who side with the winning party is a

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A) plurality opinion. B) concurring opinion. C) leading opinion. D) prevailing opinion. E) per curiam.

15)

A concurring opinion

A) explains the chief justice's position on a case. B) is a separate view written by a justice who votes with the majority but disagrees with its reasoning. C) is delivered when the Court interprets a constitutional issue. D) is delivered when at least two justices, but less than a majority, hold the same opinion in a case. E) explains why the Court accepted the case in the first place.

16) A written Supreme Court opinion that disagrees with what the majority of the justices decided is a(n) A) majority opinion. B) plurality opinion. C) dissenting opinion. D) concurring opinion. E) adjunct opinion.

17) A Supreme Court opinion written when the majority of the justices agree on the legal reasoning for the decision is a(n)

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A) majority opinion. B) plurality opinion. C) dissenting opinion. D) concurring opinion. E) adjunct opinion.

18) Compared with the decision in a Supreme Court case, the opinion is more significant because it A) determines the losing party in a case and the penalty to be imposed on this party. B) reveals the conflicts between the justices, which the president and Congress can use in determining their position on judicial appointments and new legislation. C) informs others of the Court's interpretation of the laws and thereby guides their decisions. D) addresses the constitutional aspects of a case, whereas the decision addresses the statutory aspects. E) None of these answers are correct.

19)

With regard to the lower courts, the Supreme Court's primary responsibility is A) establishing legal precedents that will guide their decisions. B) correcting any technical mistakes the lower courts make in the cases they hear. C) settling jurisdictional disputes among federal judges. D) settling jurisdictional disputes between state and federal judges. E) All these answers are correct.

20)

The lowest level of the federal court system is the

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A) circuit court of appeal. B) highest level of the state courts. C) district court. D) justice of the peace. E) supreme judicial tribunal.

21)

There are ________ federal district courts. A) 2 B) 13 C) 50 D) 94 E) 435

22)

The federal district courts

A) are the chief trial courts of the federal system. B) are the only federal courts where the two sides present their case to a jury for a verdict. C) are the courts that, in practice, make the final decision in most federal cases. D) exist in each state. E) All these answers are correct.

23) Although federal district courts are theoretically bound by Supreme Court precedents, they sometimes deviate because

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A) the facts of a case are seldom precisely the same as those of similar cases decided by the Supreme Court. B) federal judges may decide a different legal reasoning is justified. C) ambiguities or unaddressed issues in Supreme Court rulings give lower courts some flexibility in deciding cases. D) of all these factors: The facts of a case are seldom precisely the same as those of similar cases decided by the Supreme Court; federal judges may decide a different legal reasoning is justified; and ambiguities or unaddressed issues in the Court's rulings give lower courts some flexibility in deciding cases. E) None of these answers are correct.

24)

The U.S. courts of appeals A) hear new evidence in appealed cases. B) review district court decisions. C) are the highest courts to use juries. D) decide for the Supreme Court the cases it will review. E) None of these answers are correct.

25)

There are ________ federal courts of appeal. A) 2 B) 13 C) 50 D) 94 E) 435

26)

Of the 13 courts of appeals in the United States,

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A) all are assigned geographically to groups of states to deal with disputes over state laws. B) one is devoted to issues involving military tribunals and the District of Columbia. C) five have jurisdiction over disputes involving foreign territories or countries and the District of Columbia. D) eleven have jurisdiction over a "circuit" comprised of the district courts in anywhere from three to five states. E) three are devoted to dealing with disputes involving the overlapping contradictions between state and federal laws.

27)

The United States has two court systems, state and federal. The federal system A) has discretionary jurisdiction over all cases arising in the state system. B) is the only one with appellate courts. C) is the only one based on the constitutional doctrine of the separation of powers. D) is the only one that has judges who are appointed to office. E) None of these answers are correct.

28)

The merit plan applies to A) selection of judges in the federal system. B) selection of judges in some states' systems. C) jurisdiction in the federal system. D) jurisdiction in the state systems. E) None of these answers are correct.

29)

The Supreme Court is likely to grant a hearing when a case involves

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A) an issue of state law as opposed to an issue of federal law. B) an issue of private law as opposed to an issue of public law. C) an issue that is being decided inconsistently by the lower federal courts. D) the possibility that an innocent person has been wrongly convicted of a crime. E) an issue dealing with state constitutional law.

30) Less than ________ of the cases heard by federal appeals courts are later reviewed by the Supreme Court. A) 1 percent B) 10 percent C) 25 percent D) 33 percent E) 50 percent

31)

In selecting judges, the states rely on what method? A) political appointment B) competitive elections of a partisan nature C) competitive elections of a nonpartisan nature D) merit selection E) All these answers are correct.

32)

What is the most common method in the states for the selection of judges? A) appointment by the state supreme courts B) promotion from within the legal establishment C) appointment by the governor D) election to office E) appointment by state legislatures

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33)

The "federal court myth" overlooks the fact that

A) most cases arise under state law, not federal law. B) nearly all cases that originate in state courts are never reviewed by federal courts. C) federal courts must confine themselves to the federal aspects of a case when reviewing a state court decision. D) most cases arise under state law, not federal law; nearly all cases that originate in state courts are never reviewed by federal courts; and federal courts must confine themselves to the federal aspects of a case when reviewing a state court decision. E) None of these answers are correct.

34) More than ________ of the nation's legal cases are decided in state or local court systems. A) 10 percent B) 25 percent C) 50 percent D) 75 percent E) 95 percent

35)

In most instances, A) criminal cases are tried in federal courts and civil cases are tried in state courts. B) criminal cases are tried in state courts and civil cases are tried in federal courts. C) both criminal cases and civil cases are tried in federal courts. D) both criminal cases and civil cases are tried in state courts. E) None of these answers are correct.

36) What term describes whether the legal claim in a case is real and significant rather than speculative or based on future conditions that might not materialize?

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A) ripeness B) standing C) brief D) mootness E) judicial conference

37)

The appointment of federal judges is influenced most substantially by A) partisanship. B) logrolling. C) pork barreling. D) affirmative action. E) personal friendships.

38) When asked if he had made any mistakes as president, ________ replied, "Yes, two, and they are both sitting on the Supreme Court." A) Ronald Reagan B) Jimmy Carter C) Richard Nixon D) Lyndon Johnson E) Dwight Eisenhower

39) Which of the following Supreme Court justices was appointed by President Dwight Eisenhower? A) Sandra Day O'Connor B) John Stevens C) Earl Warren D) Louis Brandeis E) David Souter

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40)

In which of the following ways is the Supreme Court less diverse than in the past? A) There are fewer women on the current Court than in some previous years. B) Far more appointees come from elective office. C) Far more appointees come from the appellate courts. D) There are fewer minority judges on the current Court than in previous years. E) The average age of Court members is much higher than it has been in previous years.

41)

Compared to Supreme Court nominations, those for the lower federal courts

A) are, although much greater in number, irrelevant to a president's policy agenda. B) are not subject to partisan consideration. C) have typically involved nominees who held elective office, particularly a seat in the U.S. Senate. D) do not involve recommendations from senators or House members. E) None of these answers are correct.

42)

________ was the first Black justice to serve on the U.S. Supreme Court. A) Clarence Thomas B) Antonin Scalia C) Robert Bork D) Thurgood Marshall E) Laurence Tribe

43) Which of the following Supreme Court justices was appointed during the administration of George H. W. Bush?

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A) Sandra Day O'Connor B) Clarence Thomas C) Sonia Sotomayor D) Robert Bork E) John Paul Stevens

44)

According to the Constitution, the federal courts can issue a decision only

A) in response to a case presented to it. B) in cases where the U.S. government is one of the parties involved in the dispute. C) in cases heard previously by a state court and appealed by the losing party. D) in cases where the U.S. government is one of the parties involved in the dispute, and where the cases were heard previously by a state court and appealed by the losing party. E) None of these answers are correct.

45)

The laws applicable to a case A) reveal the relevant circumstances of the case and are determined solely by trial

courts. B) are more important than the facts of a case and supersede the facts when the two conflict. C) constrain the judiciary, because court decisions must be based on applicable laws. D) apply only in the area of criminal cases and not in the area of civil disputes. E) None of these answers are correct.

46)

The facts of a case A) are largely irrelevant, in that the judiciary has wide freedom with decisions. B) affect which law or laws will apply to the case. C) are important only if the case involves a statutory dispute. D) are important only if the case involves a constitutional dispute. E) are important about 50 percent of the time.

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47)

The term stare decisis refers to A) adherence to precedent. B) judicial activism. C) judicial restraint. D) judicial review. E) excessive partisanship.

48)

Precedent, while not an absolute constraint on the courts, is needed to

A) preserve the courts as a counter-majoritarian institution. B) maintain legal consistency over time, so confusion and uncertainty about the law can be avoided. C) check the president in the area of public law. D) balance the policy making authority of Congress. E) check the president in the area of foreign policy.

49) is a

A judicial decision that establishes a rule for settling subsequent cases of a similar nature

A) writ of certiorari. B) landmark decision. C) writ of mandamus. D) precedent. E) writ of error.

50) The Supreme Court’s ruling in Bostock v. Clayton County (2020), involving LGBT discrimination in the workplace, illustrates

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A) the ambiguity that sometimes exists in the law. B) the inherent racism of the judicial system. C) the institutional sexism of American jurisprudence. D) conditions in which the U.S. Supreme Court is not making law. E) the clear political partisanship of every Supreme Court justice.

51) The appointment of which Supreme Court justice in 2006 swung the Supreme Court to the right? A) Ruth Bader Ginsburg B) Samuel Alito C) John Roberts D) Elena Kagan E) Antonin Scalia

52)

Of the following Supreme Court justices, which has been or was the most conservative? A) Anthony Kennedy B) Earl Warren C) Ruth Bader Ginsburg D) Clarence Thomas E) Thurgood Marshall

53)

Of the following Supreme Court justices, which has been or was the most liberal? A) Anthony Kennedy B) Earl Warren C) Ruth Bader Ginsburg D) Clarence Thomas E) Thurgood Marshall

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54)

Studies by political scientists show that Supreme Court justices A) are strongly influenced by their political beliefs. B) are slightly influenced by their political beliefs. C) are not influenced by their political beliefs. D) strive to ensure that their political beliefs do not influence their decisions. E) all share the same political beliefs.

55)

Which of the following is true with regard to the Supreme Court and public opinion?

A) The Court ignores public opinion in order to make decisions that are based on enduring values rather than the public's passing whims. B) Because justices stay on the bench for life and never face the scrutiny of an election, they remain largely uninformed about public opinion. C) The Court attempts to stay close enough to public opinion so as to avoid outright defiance of its decisions. D) The Court attempts to follow public opinion very closely in order to create public enthusiasm for its rulings. E) None of these answers are correct.

56)

An amicus curiae ("friend of the court") brief provides a court with the view held by A) an interest that is not a direct party to the case. B) the Justice Department. C) the House and Senate judiciary committees. D) the American Bar Association. E) the solicitor general.

57)

The Supreme Court decision in Marbury v. Madison is significant

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A) as the first instance of the court ruling on a state matter. B) as the first use of judicial activism. C) for the establishment of judicial review. D) as the first instance of the Court ruling on a disagreement between states. E) as the Court's first non-majority opinion.

58) Which legal doctrine holds that in nearly every instance, policy issues should be decided by elected lawmakers and not by appointed judges? A) judicial activism B) judicial restraint C) judicial legitimacy D) appellate jurisdiction E) judicial executive power

59)

Opposition to the judiciary's creative policy-making role is a consistent tenet of judicial A) activism. B) liberalism. C) restraint. D) conservatism. E) relativism.

60)

According to the doctrine of judicial restraint, the judiciary should

A) defer to decisions made by the legislature. B) deny most appeals for retrials. C) deny individual rights when they conflict with the majority's desires. D) decline to make any decision that requires judges to give added meaning to the words of the Constitution. E) conform to the will of the people as measured by public opinion polls.

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61)

The long-serving chief justice that established the principle of judicial review was A) Charles Evans Hughes. B) Hugo Black. C) Clarence Thomas. D) John Marshall. E) Benjamin Cardozo.

62)

The principal of judicial review grants the judiciary the authority to

A) make political decisions; judges can overturn any congressional or presidential decision they personally dislike. B) decide which laws apply to a particular case. C) ignore public opinion when making decisions. D) invalidate the actions of other institutions when judges believe they have acted unconstitutionally. E) strike down certain sections of the Constitution.

63)

Over the last two decades, the Supreme Court can best be said to be practicing judicial A) activism. B) liberalism. C) restraint. D) socialism. E) relativism.

64)

Which of the following is true of the history of judicial activism and restraint in the U.S.?

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A) John Marshall tried to shape the Court around the principal of judicial restraint. B) Judicial activism is sometimes unfairly associated with liberal justices. C) For a long period after the Civil War, the Court became activist by trying to heavily regulate economic expansion. D) The last two decades have seen a largely liberal Supreme Court act in activist ways. E) Judicial restraint has been the norm for the vast majority of time the Court has existed.

65) What counterargument did the four dissenting justices offer in the case of Citizens United in 2010? A) They argued that corporations and unions are not what the framers had in mind in when referring to “the people” in the First Amendment. B) They claimed that the First Amendment allowed for unlimited campaign spending by corporations and unions. C) They insisted that if the First Amendment has any force, it prohibits Congress from fining or jailing citizens, or associations of citizens, for simply engaging in political speech. D) They argued that there was no constitutional provision limiting marriage to only a man and a woman. E) They insisted that the court had an obligation to review a president's public statements and use them for context in ruling on his public policy statements.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 66) What role does partisanship play in federal court appointments?

67) What is meant by the term jurisdiction? What is the difference between original and appellate jurisdiction as it applies to the U.S. Supreme Court?

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68)

Describe the four types of U.S. Supreme Court opinions.

69)

Describe the relationship between the federal and the state court systems.

70) Distinguish between the facts of a case and the relevant laws of a case. Discuss the three main sources of laws.

71)

Discuss the doctrines of judicial restraint and judicial activism.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_14e 1) B 2) D 3) B 4) E 5) A 6) D 7) E 8) A 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) E 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) E 23) D 24) B 25) B 26) D Version 1

27) E 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) E 32) D 33) D 34) E 35) D 36) A 37) A 38) E 39) C 40) C 41) E 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) D 53) E 54) A 55) C 56) A Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) C 60) A 61) D 62) D 63) A 64) B 65) A 66) Federal judges are political officials who exercise the authority of a separate and powerful branch of government. They bring their political views to office and have opportunities to promote these views. Accordingly, they are appointed through a partisan process. Presidents usually nominate a jurist of their own party to a federal court vacancy, and at times, partisanship has played a major part in the U.S. Senate's confirmation or rejection of a controversial nominee. Partisanship used to be enough of a qualification by itself for the Senate to reject a Supreme Court nominee, but it has become less common for a nominee to be blocked solely on this basis. 67) A court's jurisdiction is its authority to hear cases of a particular kind. Jurisdiction is determined partly by the stage of a legal dispute. Original jurisdiction refers to the authority to be the first court to hear a case. Appellate jurisdiction is the authority to review cases that have already been tried in lower courts and are appealed to higher courts by the losing party; such courts are called appeals courts or appellate courts. The Supreme Court's original jurisdiction includes legal disputes involving foreign diplomats or two or more states. However, the Supreme Court does its most important work as an appellate court. Its appellate jurisdiction extends to cases arising under the Constitution, federal law, regulations, and treaties. Version 1

68) There are four types of U.S. Supreme Court opinions: majority, plurality, concurring, and dissenting. A majority opinion is a written opinion of the majority of the Court's justices stating the reasoning underlying its decision on a case. A plurality opinion is a written opinion that, in the absence of a majority opinion, presents the reasoning of most of the justices who decide in favor of the winning party. A concurring opinion is a written opinion of one or more justices who voted with the majority position but disagree with the majority's reasoning on a case. A dissenting opinion is a written opinion of one or more of the justices who disagree with the majority's decision and opinion. 69) As a consequence of the separation of state and federal governments in the U.S. system, court cases can arise under either federal law or state law. Most cases fall under the latter; over 95 percent of the nation's legal cases are decided in state or local courts. Cases that originate in state courts can be appealed to a federal court only if a federal issue is involved, which is usually not the case. When a federal court does become involved in a state case, it often confines itself to the federal aspects of the case, such as whether the defendant's constitutional rights were in fact violated.

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70) The legal constraints on a court when hearing a case fall into two categories—the facts and the laws. The facts are the relevant circumstances of the particular case. The laws are the rules that apply in such instances. The laws can come from three sources. The first is the Constitution. The courts respect the purpose and intent of the Constitution and strive for reasonable interpretations of its provisions. The second is legislative statutes: the federal courts are constrained by statutes and by administrative regulations derived from the provisions of statutes. Most federal cases the courts adjudicate arise under statutory law (enacted by Congress) and administrative regulations (developed by the bureaucracy from statutory provisions). The third is interpretation of precedent, or stare decisis. Precedent is a legal principle developed through earlier court decisions. This principal states that a court's decision on a case should be consistent with previous rulings.

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71) The doctrine of judicial restraint holds that the judiciary should be highly deferential to the judgment of legislatures. The restraint doctrine rests on a presumption that elected lawmakers are acting constitutionally and should have broad discretionary authority to decide public policy. The job of judges is to work within the confines of laws made by elected officials, seeking to discover their application to specific cases, rather than searching for new principles that essentially change these laws. Judicial restraint is based on the premise that when a court assumes policy functions that traditionally belong to elected institutions, the longterm effect is to undermine the fundamental premise of selfgovernment—the right of the majority to choose society's policies. Judicial activism is the idea that judges should take a broad view of judicial power and involve themselves extensively in interpreting the U.S. Constitution. According to this tradition, the courts should not be overly deferential to the elected branches of government; indeed, the courts should develop new principles when judges perceive a compelling need to do so, particularly in the realm of individual rights.

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CHAPTER 15 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) What was one significant difference between the beginning of the Great Depression and the economic fallout of the COVID-19 epidemic in 2020? A) In 2020, government stepped in to steady the economy through adjustments in interest rates and government spending. B) Government rushed the production of emergency supplies in 2020, something it not when it was needed in 1929. C) In the Great Depression, the resulting unemployment was not as severe. D) Unemployment was a big factor during the Great Depression, but not during COVID-19. E) The federal government focused on inflation in 2020.

2) The $2 trillion stimulus bill that Congress enacted in early 2020 in response to the COVID- 19 coronavirus pandemic included A) $500 billion for financially strapped firms. B) $200 million for foreign aid. C) $1 trillion for personal protective equipment. D) $100 million for a salary increase for U.S. senators. E) $300 million to counter the unequal exposure to COVID of the African American community.

3) In The Wealth of Nations (1776), Adam Smith made all of the following arguments for laissez-faire capitalism, EXCEPT that A) the desire for profit is the invisible hand that guides a capitalist system. B) the government should not be allowed any role whatsoever in the economy. C) private firms should be left alone to make their production and distribution decisions. D) firms will produce a good when there is a demand for it. E) certain areas of the economy are better run by government agencies.

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The Tennessee Valley Authority is A) an electricity industry owned by the United States. B) a private industry regulated by the United States. C) a private electricity industry exempt from government regulation. D) a private environmental organization that receives federal funding. E) a private environmental organization with power to regulate industry.

5) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship today between government and the economy in the United States? A) The economy is largely self-regulating. B) The government subsidizes economic interests but otherwise leaves them to operate as they please. C) The government is the driving force in the U.S. economy; business has a secondary role. D) The government has an important role in regulating and maintaining the U.S. economy. E) The government owns most of the means of production in the United States.

Economic efficiency requires

A) that the free market not be regulated by government. B) that the output of goods and services is the highest possible given the amount of input used to produce them. C) the economy to be organized around large firms. D) economic transactions to be fair to each party. E) economic transactions to be equal to each party.

7) Which of the following government agencies regulates various aspects of business operations?

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A) Federal Trade Commission B) Interstate Commerce Commission C) Consumer Financial Protection Bureau  D) all of these: the Federal Trade Commission; the Interstate Commerce Commission; and the Antitrust Division of the Justice Department E) None of these answers are correct.

The term externalities refers to A) regulations imposed on a firm by government. B) a nation that is a trading partner of another nation. C) the costs of production that are incurred by society. D) tariffs imposed on American goods exported to other countries. E) None of these answers are correct.

Advocates of deregulation are primarily concerned with A) efficiency. B) equity. C) externalities. D) public safety. E) political expediency.

10)

What did Congress do in 1995 to reduce overregulation?

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A) It cut funding for regulatory agencies like the EPA and Securities and Exchange Commission. B) It passed the Airlines Deregulation Act, which eliminated government-set airfares and the requirement that airlines provide service to smaller-sized cities. C) It restricted the president's ability to directly request administrative regulations from agency heads. D) It cut the budget of the Food and Drug Administration. E) It enacted legislation that prohibits administrators in some instances from issuing a regulation unless they can show that its benefits outweigh its costs.

11) The Great Recession, which began in 2008, was precipitated primarily because the federal government was too lax in regulating A) computer technology. B) the buying and selling of stocks. C) interest rates charged to banks. D) subprime mortgages. E) the buying and selling of junk bonds.

12)

Passed in 2010, the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Act

A) loosens restrictions on large financial institutions considered "too big to fail." B) allowed low interest rates and small down payments for first-time home buyers and small business entrepreneurs. C) empowers government to more closely oversee financial activities. D) sought to promote environmental protection, consumer protection, and worker safety. E) required warning labels on all "hazardous" consumer goods, such as cigarettes.

13) A ruling by the Food and Drug Administration that a drug is dangerous to use and therefore cannot be marketed is an example of regulation for the purpose of

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A) supply-side safety. B) demand-side safety. C) equity. D) efficiency. E) profit.

14)

The ________ established minimum wages. A) Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 B) Banking Act of 1934 C) Airlines Deregulation Act of 1977 D) Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 E) Homestead Act of 1862

15)

The Progressive Era of government regulation focused on

A) strengthening consumer protection by preventing credit agencies from gouging individuals with high levels of debt. B) bolstering worker safety by increasing the power of unions and forcing better safety practices on businesses. C) increasing environmental protection and strengthening the EPA. D) regulating troubled economic sectors, such as banking. E) stopping corrupt business practices, such as the selling of unsafe food and drugs.

16) The creation of the Food and Drug Administration and the passage of the Securities and Exchange Act were intended to A) promote equity in the economy. B) eliminate the problem of externalities in the economy. C) destroy the legal foundations of the business trust. D) promote efficiency in the economy. E) None of these answers are correct.

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17)

________ authored Silent Spring in 1962. A) Al Gore B) George W. Bush C) Greenpeace D) Rachel Carson E) The Sierra Club

18)

Which of the following is correct about environmental policy?

A) Environmental regulation has not markedly improved air and water conditions since its initial establishment and growth. B) The Environmental Protection Agency was proposed by a Republican president and enacted by a Democratic Congress. C) Conservation and deforestation are the highest-profile environmental issues today in the United States. D) The EPA has the authority to levy fines and sanctions on businesses. E) None of these answers are correct.

19)

Which of the following is true of the climate change issue?

A) Scientists theorize that the use of carbon-based fuels is most responsible for rising temperatures. B) Most scientists doubt the evidence behind the theory that humans are helping to cause temperature increases. C) U.S. policymakers are relatively uniform in their desire to avoid costly measures to reduce carbon emissions. D) Most Western countries have not taken major steps to reduce carbon emissions. E) U.S. participation in the Paris accord is the only major initiative it is currently undertaking to deal with climate change.

20) Which of the following has been a major impediment to any U.S. action to reduce its carbon emissions as a means of reducing climate change? Version 1

A) the continual slowing down of the U.S. economy B) the lack of power in the presidency to affect policy change on the issue C) the lack of any regulatory agencies that might be able to enforce carbon reduction measures D) the overwhelming disinterest of the American people E) the fragmented nature of the U.S. political system

21) Which of the following partly contributed to a rise in the number of people who denied climate change? A) a polar vortex over the central United States B) an El Nino in the Pacific C) a European Union report challenging climate change D) record snow falls in Southern California E) massive rains in the Mississippi River Valley

22)

Which country has the highest annual emissions of carbon dioxide? A) United States B) China C) Japan D) France E) Great Britain

23)

Government benefits for business include all of the following EXCEPT A) loan guarantees and direct loans. B) corporate tax breaks. C) a national transportation system. D) minimum wage laws. E) a national education system.

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24)

What was a major change brought about by the National Labor Relations Act of 1935? A) It established the national minimum wage. B) It broke up business monopolies in order to give workers more choice in employers. C) Workers were given the right to bargain collectively. D) It eliminated the ability of companies to bargain directly with unions. E) It reduced the ability of workers to go on strike indefinitely.

25) Judged in the context of the full range of public policies, the government in the United States has been A) equally hostile to the interests of business and labor. B) equally supportive of the interests of business and labor. C) substantially more supportive of business than labor. D) substantially more supportive of labor than business. E) substantially more supportive of left-wing radicals than conservatives.

26)

Government subsidies to small and large farmers are designed in large part to

A) increase tax revenue levied on farm production and exports. B) stabilize farm income, which would otherwise fluctuate greatly due to market and weather conditions. C) promote farm conservation so as to preserve the productive capacity of U.S. agriculture. D) encourage rural development. E) encourage urban development.

27) Which president's use of government policy as economic stimulus ushered in the modern era of U.S. government fiscal policy?

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A) Thomas Jefferson B) Franklin Roosevelt C) Lyndon Johnson D) Woodrow Wilson E) William Clinton

28) Farm subsidies account for approximately ________ of net agricultural income, making America's farmers among the most heavily subsidized in the world. A) one-tenth B) one-seventh C) one-fifth D) one-third E) two-thirds

29) Fiscal policy is a mechanism the government employs to influence the economy. Fiscal policy is based on A) the idea that a balanced budget is the key to a healthy economy. B) the money supply. C) the government's taxing and spending decisions. D) the importance of maintaining a 12-month (fiscal year) economic cycle. E) the projections of the Federal Reserve Board.

30) In John Maynard Keynes's demand-side economic theory, an economic recession can be shortened through

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A) government spending programs. B) the natural workings of the free-market system. C) raising tariffs in the global economy. D) a determination on the part of government not to spend any more than it receives in taxes. E) tax cuts for the wealthy.

31)

A fiscal policy solution to inflation would be to A) increase government spending. B) lower tariffs and other barriers to trade. C) decrease government spending. D) raise the discount rate. E) decrease the tax rate.

32) If the economic problem is low productivity and high unemployment, the fiscal policy action on the demand side would be to A) increase taxes. B) cut business taxes. C) increase spending. D) decrease spending. E) None of these answers are correct.

33)

Which of the following statements is true?

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A) The national debt was eliminated in 1998. B) Demand-side policy cannot be used to slow down an economy. C) Demand-side stimulation typically provides more immediate help to low-income citizens than does supply-side stimulation. D) The highest budget deficit in U.S. history was $59 billion. E) Demand-side policy suggests that government spending should increase more during an economic recession than an economic depression.

34) Keynesian economics emphasizes ________ as a means of curtailing economic downturns. A) reduced taxes B) increased government spending C) decreased regulation D) decreased inflation E) increased taxes

35)

Democrats in Washington have usually responded to high levels of unemployment with A) reduced government spending. B) increased government spending. C) increased government taxes. D) decreased government taxes. E) decreased government regulation.

36)

The 2020 economic stimulus bill included A) cash payments directly to individuals and families. B) stringent budget cuts to get spending in line with reduced fiscal revenue. C) an increase in interest rates to curb inflation. D) strict reforms at the SEC to prevent future crises of a similar nature. E) a massive bailout of the automobile industry.

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37)

Supply-side economics is based primarily on A) stimulation of the business (supply) component. B) government stimulation of consumer demands. C) a repudiation of trickle-down theory. D) increases in taxation. E) increases in government regulation.

38) on

The tax cuts pushed by President George W. Bush while in office were premised largely

A) demand-side economics. B) supply-side economics. C) helping the lowest-income Americans. D) monetary policy. E) Keynesian economics.

39) Supply-side economics, as implemented by President George W. Bush's administration, involved A) the supply component of the supply-demand equation. B) stressing the importance of tax cuts for businesses. C) stressing the importance of tax cuts for the wealthy. D) an increase in the budget deficit. E) All these answers are correct.

40) The total amount of money the federal government spends each year in excess of its yearly revenues is the

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A) trade deficit. B) budget deficit. C) national debt. D) credit imbalance. E) income disparity.

41)

About how much of annual federal spending goes to pay interest on the national debt? A) $40 million B) $400 million C) $40 billion D) $400 billion E) $900 billion

42)

When was the last time the U.S. government had a balanced budget? A) 1970s B) 1980s C) 1990s D) 2000s E) None of these answers are correct.

43)

The total cumulative amount the federal government owes to its creditors is known as A) a trade deficit. B) a budget deficit. C) the national debt. D) a credit imbalance. E) income disparity.

44)

Monetary policy includes all of the following assumptions, EXCEPT that

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A) the money supply is the key to sustaining a healthy economy. B) too little money in circulation contributes to inflation. C) too little money in circulation contributes to a slowdown in consumer buying. D) too little money in circulation contributes to rising unemployment. E) too much money in circulation contributes to inflation.

45)

The Federal Reserve System A) was created in 1933. B) is run by a congressional committee. C) regulates only national banks. D) was created specifically to conduct fiscal policy. E) None of these answers are correct.

46)

The Federal Reserve plays a large part in establishing ________ policy. A) monetary B) military C) fiscal D) budgetary E) security

47)

The Fed chair A) is appointed by the president, with no approval from the Senate. B) serves a four-year term. C) rarely cares about monetary policy. D) has absolute authority over the Fed. E) All these answers are correct.

48)

The Fed is directed by a board of governors whose seven members

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A) serve for 14 years. B) hold office during good behavior—in essence, a lifetime appointment. C) serve for 4 years. D) retain their seat as long as the president who nominated them is in office. E) serve for no more than three consecutive 6-year terms.

49) The Federal Reserve controls the money supply through all of the following actions EXCEPT A) raising the percentage of funds members banks are required to hold in reserve. B) raising the interest rate that member banks are charged when they borrow from the Federal Reserve. C) lowering the percentage of funds memberbanks are required to hold in reserve. D) lowering the interest rate that member banks are charged when they borrow from the Federal Reserve. E) lowering the tax rate on individuals.

50)

If the Fed wanted to act to reduce unemployment, it would A) sell securities. B) raise the reserve rate. C) decrease the interest rate on loans to member banks. D) discourage businesses from expanding. E) encourage people to save more and spend less.

51) During what has become known as the Great Recession, the Fed began to purchase the assets of member banks. This new monetary control mechanism used by the Fed was known as

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A) subprime borrowing. B) the Greenspan Plan. C) quantitative easing. D) hyperinflation. E) "Too big to fail."

52)

The highest rate of inflation (13 percent) since World War II occurred in ________. A) 1955 B) 1963 C) 1979 D) 1991 E) 2002

53)

Who was appointed Fed chair in 2018? A) Ben Bernanke B) Milton Friedman C) Alan Greenspan D) Janet Yellen E) Jerome Powell

54)

Monetary policy differs from fiscal policy in that A) it has to be exercised by the legislature. B) the policy goals are very different. C) it is a slower process than fiscal policy. D) it can be implemented more quickly than fiscal policy. E) None of these answers are correct.

55)

A major point of debate surrounding the Federal Reserve's role in economic policy is

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A) the Fed's political accountability. B) whether the president should be able to veto the Fed's decisions. C) the issue of competence. D) whether Congress should be able to reject the Fed's decisions. E) None of these answers are correct.

56) The federal government has assumed a permanent, strong role in the economy, contributing to its stability and efficiency, since A) the 1860s. B) the 1930s. C) the 1960s. D) the 1980s. E) the 2000s.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 57) Define the term fiscal policy and explain how fiscal policy can be used in response to economic conditions.

58) Define the term monetary policy, and describe three ways the Fed implements monetary policy.

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59)

Describe Adam Smith's laissez-faire model of economics.

60) Explain the difference between economic efficiency and economic equity as principles that justify government regulation of the economy.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_14e 1) A 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) E 11) D 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) E 16) A 17) D 18) B 19) A 20) E 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) E 40) B 41) D 42) C 43) C 44) B 45) E 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) E 50) C 51) C 52) C 53) E 54) D 55) A 56) B Version 1

57) The government's efforts to maintain a stable economy are made mainly through its taxing and spending decisions, which together are referred to as its fiscal policy. The main school of thought associated with fiscal policy is demand-side economics, which originated in the theories of economist John Maynard Keynes. In different forms, demand-side economics has influenced government policy since the New Deal programs of Franklin D. Roosevelt in the 1930s. When there is an economic downturn, government can increase its spending or cut individual taxes as a means of stimulating consumer (demand-side) spending. When the economy is inflationary, the opposite actions can be taken as a way of dampening consumer demand. Fiscal policy can also take a supply-side form, as it did in part during the Reagan and George W. Bush years. Supply-side emphasizes business production and investment. The economy can be stimulated through a reduction in taxes on firms and high-income individuals. 58) Monetary policy is based on manipulation of the amount of money in circulation. Monetarists believe in tightening or loosening the money supply as a way of slowing or invigorating the economy. Economist Milton Friedman was a proponent of monetarism. Control of the money supply rests with the Federal Reserve System, or the Fed for short. The Fed can influence monetary policy by lowering or raising the interest charged when member banks borrow money from their regional Federal Reserve bank, by raising or lowering the percentage of money members banks must hold in reserve, and by buying selling of government securities.

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59) Laissez-faire capitalism holds that private individuals and firms should be free to make their own production and distribution decisions. As argued by Adam Smith in The Wealth of Nations (1776), demand for a good or service will result in it being provided by the private sector, while a decline in demand will result in a cutback in supply. The incentive that drives this process is profit. According to Smith, the desire for profit is the invisible hand that guides the private economic system toward the greatest wealth for all. Smith did acknowledge that certain areas of the economy, such as roadways, are natural monopolies and are better handled by government than by private firms. No country today follows a purely free-market model, though the United States tends strongly toward the private side. 60) An economy is a system of production and consumption of goods and services allocated through exchange. Economic efficiency results when the output of goods and services is the highest possible given the amount of input (such as labor and material) that was used to produce them. Economic equity occurs when an economic transaction is fair to each party. A transaction can be considered fair if each party enters into it freely and ethically. These principles can be the basis of government regulation. Efficiency is desirable but does not always occur naturally. Government may intervene when necessary to enhance efficiency, as in the case of monopolistic competition in which a firm's domination of the market enables it to produce and sell goods inefficiently. Government may also intervene to enhance equity. For example, in the case of a prescription drug company where the consumer is not in a position to determine whether a firm's claims about the drug's safety are valid, society must rely upon government regulations. Laws that prevent monopolistic practices or impose drug-safety standards on pharmaceutical firms are examples of regulation for purposes of efficiency and equity, respectively. Version 1

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CHAPTER 16 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Who among the framers of the Constitution noted that no issue was more likely to provoke conflict than how society's resources are distributed? A) John Adams B) Alexander Hamilton C) Benjamin Franklin D) James Madison E) Thomas Jefferson

2) Which of the following most accurately describes the American middle class between 1970 and 2015? A) The middle class grew dramatically in number. B) The middle class came to receive more than half the nation's income. C) Their share of the nation's income fell by almost 20 percent. D) Their numerical size and share of the nation's income remained remarkably constant. E) None of these answers are correct.

A tax where the marginal tax rate increases as income rises is a(n) A) progressive income tax. B) inflationary income tax. C) regressive income tax. D) capital gains tax. E) entitlement-based income tax.

Which of the following is true of American unions in the 1950s?

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A) The right to unionize was severely restricted by two important Supreme Court rulings. B) Unionized workers saw their wages fall below the wages of their non-union counterparts. C) Unions and union workers gained control of all major industries. D) Union demands prevented the United States from benefitting from the manufacturing boom that had followed the end of World War II. E) A third of America's workers were unionized.

What benefit was provided for veterans through the GI Bill? A) free health care services, a precursor to what became Medicare B) free housing in new manufacturing centers C) a wage bonus for service members entering the civilian workforce D) cash for college and vocational training; and nearly interest-free loans E) None of these answers are correct.

6) Which of the following was NOT one of the claims Republican congressman John Curtis of Utah made about the 2017 Tax Cuts and Jobs Act? A) It would simplify the tax code. B) It would make American businesses more competitive. C) It would generate hundreds of thousands of American jobs. D) It would produce real economic growth E) It would generate revenue to lessen the budget deficit.

Which of the following has led to gains for top earners since 2001?

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A) changes in tax policy B) changes in the nation's job market C) the "compression effect" described by economist Paul Krugman D) a booming goods and services sector E) All these answers are correct.

8) Which of the following has led to wage stagnation among lower- and middle-income workers in recent decades? A) changes in tax policy B) changes in the nation's job market C) the "compression effect" described by economist Paul Krugman D) a booming goods and services sector E) All these answers are correct.

Today, most union members work as A) teachers and farm laborers. B) farm laborers. C) factory laborers. D) teachers, police, and civil servants. E) transportation workers.

10)

U.S. job growth since the 1970s has mostly occurred in which area(s)? A) services B) manufacturing C) agriculture D) construction and agriculture E) the service sector

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11)

Poverty is a condition that today affects roughly one in ________ Americans. A) two B) three C) seven D) twenty E) fifty

12)

The poverty line is defined as A) the income level below which 10 percent of the American people live. B) three times the annual cost of a thrifty food budget. C) the annual cost of all goods and services that a person can reasonably be expected to

want. D) the percentage of homeless people. E) the income level below which 20 percent of the American people live.

13)

In 2018, the poverty line was about ________ in annual income for a family of four. A) $19,000 B) $26,000 C) $28,000 D) $33,000 E) $38,000

14)

About one in ________ American children lives in poverty. A) three B) five C) eight D) twelve E) twenty

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15)

Which of the following is a true statement about poverty in American society?

A) Rural women have a lower poverty rate than rural men. B) In the 1960s, most Americans believed that government had no business trying to alleviate poverty. C) Poverty is less common in the suburbs than in inner cities or rural areas. D) Poverty has been virtually eliminated in the United States. E) Poverty is most apparent in the case of elderly Americans.

16)

Overall, child poverty rates are highest in the A) Midwest. B) West. C) South. D) Northeast. E) Middle Atlantic.

17)

Which of the following Western democracies has the highest poverty rate? A) Canada B) Great Britain C) France D) Germany E) United States

18)

What distinguishes SNAP from programs like Medicare or Social Security?

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A) Its funding depends on revenue raised with tariffs. B) Only the United States offers a program like SNAP; it is not known elsewhere in the world. C) It is classified as an entitlement rather than welfare. D) SNAP does not come with the same stigma as other welfare programs. E) SNAP provides an in-kind benefit.

19) ________ orchestrated the enaction of the largest set of antipoverty programs in the nation's history. A) Franklin Roosevelt B) John Kennedy C) Dwight Eisenhower D) Richard Nixon E) Lyndon Johnson

20)

An entitlement program is a program

A) that provides indirect payments to individuals, such as funding for public schools. B) benefiting individuals and designed specifically to alleviate the hardships of old age. C) that requires the payment of benefits to any individual who meets the eligibility criteria. D) of social welfare for which citizenship is the only criterion of eligibility. E) None of these answers are correct.

21)

The defining characteristic of a social insurance program is that

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A) eligibility is restricted to individuals who paid special payroll taxes during their working years. B) it is administered jointly by the national government and the states. C) it is targeted at those who are most in need of welfare assistance. D) it is administered through private insurance companies. E) None of these answers are correct.

22)

What are the two broad groups that welfare programs fall into? A) public assistance and in-kind assistance B) equity and efficiency C) positive and negative D) social insurance and public assistance E) subsidized and social insurance

23)

Which of the following is a social insurance program? A) TANF B) Medicaid C) food stamps D) Medicare E) All these answers are correct.

24)

The social insurance program Social Security was established in the A) 1920s. B) 1930s. C) 1940s. D) 1950s. E) 1960s.

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25)

Social insurance programs have high levels of public support because

A) of the perception that recipients have earned the benefits. B) they are based on an equality principle—all citizens are eligible for the benefits and all recipients receive the same level of benefits. C) their cost is consistently below the spending level for public assistance programs. D) of the necessity of increased taxes to fund them. E) None of these answers are correct.

26)

The Social Security benefits that retirees receive are funded primarily by

A) income tax contributions they made in the past, which were put into a trust fund from which current payments are made. B) payroll taxes on those who worked or are now working. C) equal contributions from the national and state governments. D) borrowed funds, which contribute to the national debt. E) None of these answers are correct.

27)

Why are administrative costs relatively high for food stamp and Medicaid programs? A) widespread eligibility that swells recipient rolls B) the need to administer payroll taxes C) the need for constant monitoring of means and means testing D) constant public opposition to the programs E) All these answers are correct.

28)

Medicare

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A) is funded through general tax revenues. B) is one of the least popular government programs. C) is paid for through a payroll tax. D) provides health care to all adults over age 50. E) None of these answers are correct.

29) According to a Kaiser Family Foundation study, about ________ of Medicare spending is for expenses other than patient care, while some private insurance companies spend about ________ on similar nonpatient expenses. A) 20 percent; 10 percent B) 50 percent; 20 percent C) 2 percent; 20 percent D) 20 percent; 2 percent E) None of these answers are correct.

30)

Medicare was enacted in ________. A) 1938 B) 1947 C) 1965 D) 1997 E) 2010

31)

Public assistance programs are funded through A) payroll taxes paid only by employees. B) payroll taxes paid only by employers. C) payroll taxes paid by both employees and employers. D) general tax revenues. E) sales taxes.

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32)

The term means test refers to

A) the tax on a portion of the social security benefits of upper-income retirees. B) the need to prove that an applicant's income is low enough to qualify for public assistance. C) the mandatory physical examination that Medicare and Medicaid applicants must undergo before they can receive benefits. D) the mandatory psychological examination that Medicare and Medicaid applicants must undergo before they can receive benefits. E) None of these answers are correct.

33)

________ was terminated in 1996. A) The Food Stamps program B) Medicaid C) Medicare D) SSI E) AFDC

34) Which of the following is true of the Temporary Assistance to Needy Families program of 1996? A) It offered training programs to teach job skills to able-bodied adults. B) It increased assistance to children living without parents. C) It eliminated the cap on welfare assistance in times of national economic downturns. D) It offered direct welfare payments from the federal government, cutting out the state as a distributor. E) It included health insurance for poor families until the Affordable Care Act replaced that provision.

35)

The passage of TANF has resulted in which of the following?

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A) the reduction of the child poverty rate B) a greater awareness of poverty in American society C) a reduction in single parent households D) a dramatic reduction in the size of the welfare rolls E) a greater stigma associated with EITC

36) The number of families receiving assistance under TANF had dropped by ________ within five years of its enactment. A) 10 percent B) 25 percent C) 50 percent D) 75 percent E) There was no measurable change.

37)

All of the following are true of the Head Start program EXCEPT that it A) began as part of Lyndon Johnson's War on Poverty in the 1960s. B) seeks to give children the tools to succeed by the time they reach kindergarten. C) currently only enrolls a third of eligible children. D) is fully funded at the present time. E) is designed to assist preschool children.

38)

The EITC (Earned Income Tax Credit) represents a reallocation of income to A) wealthy individuals. B) lower-income working individuals. C) middle-class taxpayers. D) corporations. E) all working families.

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39)

________ is an example of an in-kind benefit. A) The Food Stamps program B) Social Security C) Unemployment insurance D) Supplemental Security Income E) None of these answers are correct.

40)

The Food Stamps program is

A) criticized because some believe it allows undeserving people to get aid. B) criticized because some think it stigmatizes its users by identifying them publicly as welfare cases. C) an in-kind benefit. D) criticized because some think it is too costly. E) All these answers are correct.

41) Which of the following welfare programs would be most suitable for a 28-year-old single widower with three children who lives in rural West Virginia and has never had a paying job in his life? A) Medicare B) SSI C) AFDC D) AARP E) TANF

42)

In contrast with Medicare, the Medicaid program is

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A) a public assistance program. B) funded totally by the states. C) funded by payroll taxes. D) very popular with the general public. E) None of these answers are correct.

43) Which of the following is true of American opinions about public assistance and social insurance programs? A) Americans prefer money as the primary form of welfare assistance. B) There is a widespread belief among Americans that the government spends more than it does on public assistance programs. C) Americans prefer government jobs through government programs as the primary form of welfare assistance. D) The vast majority of Americans believe there should be absolutely no government services for the poor of any kind. E) None of these answers are correct.

44) The widespread use of means testing in the United States tends to match what cultural trait of Americans? A) individualism B) cruelty C) preference for jobs in the service sector D) a disinterest in reducing poverty E) mistrust of foreign influences

45)

Why are Social Security and Medicare considered highly efficient programs?

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A) They have an integrated vertical structure. B) They have built-in sunset provisions. C) They are administered at the local level where government is more responsive to changes in the needs of beneficiaries. D) They do not require a large bureaucracy to administer them. E) Costs are shared by the state and federal government.

46)

Which of the following is true of Social Security and Medicare?

A) Eligibility requirements make sure that all Social Security beneficiaries have an absolute economic need for the benefit. B) Spending on TANF and SSI exceeds the total of all spending on public assistance programs. C) Most retirees are not eligible to receive Social Security benefits. D) Social Security income is decided as follows: the lower your income while working, the larger your Social Security benefit upon retirement. E) Families in the top fifth of the income population receive more in Social Security and Medicare benefits than the government spends in total on TANF, SSI, food stamps, and housing subsidies for the poor.

47)

Americans are most likely to support equality of A) opportunity. B) outcome. C) income. D) achievement. E) living standards.

48)

The Supreme Court has ruled that

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A) the federal government must provide at least half the cost of educating each child through public education systems. B) the federal government is responsible for ensuring that each state provides an adequate education for each child. C) states have no official responsibilities in the field of education. D) states are obliged to give all children an education that is "equal" across communities. E) states are obliged to give all children an "adequate" education.

49) Of the following countries, which has the lowest educational performance, as based on standardized tests? A) Canada B) Britain C) Germany D) Japan E) United States

50)

The best predictor of how well schools perform on standardized tests is the A) salary levels of the teachers. B) population density of the community. C) level of local school board control over policy. D) community's wealth. E) ratio of private to public schools in the community.

51)

________ was called "the great leveler" when it began in the early nineteenth century.

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A) Social welfare B) Public education C) The federal government D) The Internal Revenue Service E) Social Security

52)

More than 90 percent of the funding for public education comes from A) the federal government. B) state governments. C) local governments. D) state and local governments. E) private sources.

53)

Which of the following is true of the federal government's role in education?

A) The federal government provides roughly 25 percent of total school funding throughout the country. B) The federal government provides roughly 70 percent of total school funding throughout the country. C) The federal government's role in education was relatively small before the 1960s. D) The 1965 Higher Education Act devolved a good deal of education policy back to the states. E) Pell grants remain the states' largest source of financial control over school policies.

54)

The Department of Education A) is one of the largest executive departments. B) was created to give the federal government a majority control over school funding. C) was created in the 1930s as part of the New Deal. D) dictates the school curriculum across the country. E) None of these answers are correct.

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55) In which of the following ways does education in the United States differ from education in western European countries? A) Schools are more even in quality, though of lower quality overall. B) Local and state government has less control over schools. C) There are fewer institutions of higher education. D) Per-pupil spending is much higher. E) There is a greater diversity of income among students within each school.

56) How did passage of theEvery Student Succeeds Act improve on the provisions of the former No Child Left Behind Act? A) It eliminated the sanctions on underperforming schools. B) It eliminated the requirement for national standardized testing. C) It gave states more control over the form of student testing. D) It reduced state control over the nature of curricula. E) It established a single uniform national standard for what constitutes "underachievement."

57)

Charter schools

A) are publicly funded and have no more freedom in choosing students than do public schools, though they have greater freedom in determining curricula. B) are privately funded and have total freedom in determining curricula. C) are publicly funded but have more freedom in determining curricula than public schools. D) are promoted primarily by Democrats as a strong, publicly-funded method of improving education. E) were opposed by President Obama through executive orders to drain their funding.

58)

In which of the following ways has the student loan issue changed since the 1970s?

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A) Colleges have shifted much of their costs to students, making student loans bigger and more common. B) States have helped keep public college costs down by providing low-interest student loans. C) The federal government has essentially stopped offering Pell grants, which has increased use of private student loans. D) The student loan issue has not changed much, as it still requires massive borrowing by most college students. E) Student loan debt has decreased and is now exceeded by credit card debt.

59)

To what was political scientist Robert Lane referring in using the term market justice?

A) Americans prefer that society's material benefits be allocated through the economic marketplace rather than through government policies. B) Government should not use fiscal policy to attempt to flatten the ups and downs of a market economy. C) Americans should increase the size of the federal welfare state in order to mitigate the harmful influences of the market. D) The market tends to eliminate weak businesses and reward strong ones. E) The strength of the market economy of the United States is precisely what provides the welfare state with the revenue it needs to help the most underprivileged citizens.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 60) What is meant by the poverty line? Which Americans are most likely to live in a household with an income below the poverty line? What is meant by "the feminization of poverty"?

61)

Discuss what is meant by a social insurance program, and provide examples.

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62)

Discuss what is meant by a public assistance program, and provide examples.

63) Discuss the history of public education in the United States and who today is responsible for education funding and policies.

64) Why is growth in service sector jobs less desirable than growth in manufacturing industry jobs?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_14e 1) D 2) C 3) A 4) E 5) D 6) E 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) E 11) C 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) E 18) E 19) E 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) C 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) E 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) A 40) E 41) E 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) E 47) A 48) E 49) E 50) D 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) E 55) D 56) C Version 1

57) C 58) A 59) A 60) The government defines the poverty line as three times the annual cost of a thrifty food budget for an urban family of four. Families whose income falls below that line are officially considered poor. Poverty strikes all types of Americans but is concentrated in certain groups. One in five children live below the poverty line. Single-parent, femaleheaded families are also much more likely to live below the poverty line than two-parent families. Poverty is also high among minority-group members. Poverty is also prevalent in rural areas. Most poor children live in families with a single parent, usually the mother. Single-parent, female-headed families are roughly five times as likely as two-income families to fall below the poverty line. 61) Social insurance programs are those programs in which recipients attain eligibility for benefits through special payroll taxes paid when they were employed. The self-financing feature of these programs accounts for their strong public support. The premier social insurance program is Social Security for retirees, and it enjoys widespread public support. Social Security is an entitlement program, meaning that any individual who meets the eligibility criteria is entitled to the benefit. Government cannot decide one day to cancel an entitlement program or to deny the benefit to some previously eligible recipients while granting it to others. Another social insurance program is Medicare. This program provides medical assistance to retirees and is funded primarily through payroll taxes. Since it is based on an insurance principle, Medicare is also popular with most Americans.

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62) Public assistance programs are funded through general tax revenues and are available only to the financially needy. Eligibility for such programs is established by a means test, which is a demonstration that the applicant has a genuine economic need for the benefit. In short, applicants for public assistance must prove that they are poor. Such assistance is usually termed welfare, and its recipients are termed welfare cases. Public assistance programs have much less public support than social insurance programs, due in part to a cultural bias against government handouts. Five examples of public assistance programs are Supplemental Security Income (SSI), Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF), food stamps, subsidized housing, and Medicaid. 63) During the nation's first century, the question of a free education for all children was a contentious issue between wealthy interests and egalitarians who saw free public education as a means of enabling ordinary people to get ahead. The egalitarians won out. Public schools quickly sprang up in nearly every community. Equality continues to be a guiding principle of American public education. Education is largely the responsibility of state and local governments. They provide roughly 90 percent of school funding and determine the bulk of school policies. The federal government became more active in education policy after World War II when the public became more aware of deficiencies in the nation's education system. Since the 1960s the federal government has played an even larger, though still secondary, role in education policy.

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64) U.S. job growth since the 1970s has been primarily concentrated in the service sector, but this job growth has been less beneficial from both a numbers and income standpoint than growth in manufacturing jobs. Although many in the service sector do well, there is a higher proportion of jobs (like food service or hotel staff) that pay less on average than low-level manufacturing jobs. Additionally, manufacturing jobs in general generate more related jobs and economic activity than service sector jobs. For example, car production not only requires workers to produce the cars, but also related work in sales and repair.

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CHAPTER 17 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Why did the Trump administration decide to provide farmers with a $16 billion emergency subsidy? A) They had suffered disproportionately from climate change. B) They had been especially hard hit by the economic fallout of the COVID-19 epidemic. C) They had suffered great losses as a result of Obama's Affordable Care Act. D) Trump's trade war against China had cut farmers' incomes in half. E) Trump's own rural upbringing and deep roots in the Midwest made Trump partial to the farmers' plight.

NATO membership is primarily composed of A) the U.S. and other countries in the Americas allied with it. B) the U.S. and other nuclear weapon–armed nations. C) the U.S., Russia, China, and smaller industrialized nations. D) the U.S. and its European and Asian allies. E) the U.S., Canada, and European countries.

Which agency has the primary responsibility for diplomacy? A) Department of Defense B) National Security Council C) Department of Commerce D) Department of State E) Central Intelligence Agency

There are roughly ________ countries in the world.

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A) 50 B) 100 C) 200 D) 300 E) 500

5) The phrase that best describes the shift in America's world position from the pre- to the post-World War II eras is "________." A) internationalism to isolationism B) isolationism to internationalism C) containment to isolationism D) interventionism to isolationism E) None of these answers are correct.

The foundation of U.S. policy toward the Soviet Union after World War II was A) détente. B) unilateralism. C) containment. D) internationalism. E) isolationism.

The basis for containment policy was the assumption that

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A) the Soviet Union could be stopped from achieving its global ambitions only by the forceful use of American power. B) the spread of nuclear weapons was a danger to the world and must be prevented. C) trade should be tailored to benefit the fully industrialized nations through the formation of economic communities. D) an arms race between the Soviet Union and the U.S. would inevitably escalate and therefore must be prevented through negotiations at an early stage. E) terrorism could be identified and isolated in specific countries.

8) Since World War II, the United States has engaged in military hostilities roughly ________, usually at the instigation of ________. A) 150 times; the president B) 200 times; the Senate C) 5 times; the public D) 2 times; House of Representatives E) 450 times; big corporations

Which of the following events in American foreign policy occurred first? A) Korean War B) war in Kosovo C) Vietnam War D) fall of the Soviet Union E) Persian Gulf War

10)

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the Cold War?

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A) It never became an actual shooting war between the United States and the Soviet Union. B) The U.S. pursued a policy of containment. C) It included U.S. support for governments being threatened by communism. D) The global power structure was bipolar. E) All these answers are correct.

11)

Roughly how many American soldiers lost their lives in the Korean War? A) 1,000 B) 5,000 C) 35,000 D) 155,000 E) 500,000

12)

Which of the following is true about the Vietnam War?

A) U.S. combat forces left Vietnam in 1973. B) North Vietnamese forces took over the country in 1975. C) It was the most painful and costly application of the containment doctrine. D) U.S. forces were technically superior in combat to the communist fighters, although the war had no front lines and few set battles. E) All these answers are correct.

13)

Roughly how many American soldiers lost their lives in the Vietnam War? A) 35,000 B) 58,000 C) 123,000 D) 427,000 E) 650,000

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14)

For the United States, the lesson learned from the Vietnam War was that A) public opinion could be ignored by leaders during wartime. B) nuclear weapons had utility in a war of insurgency. C) there were limits on America's ability to get its own way in the world. D) the national interest required a total disengagement from Asian affairs. E) constant bombing will force an enemy to concede defeat.

15)

In 2002, President George W. Bush labeled Iraq, Iran, and North Korea the "________." A) evil empire B) coalition of the willing C) axis of evil D) axis powers E) axis of rogue nations

16) How was President George W. Bush able to convince Americans that the invasion of Iraq in 2003 was necessary? A) He used the news media to carry his message. B) He relied on his allies in the Democratic Party, like Hillary Clinton, to make his case to the public. C) He offered compelling evidence . D) He let his congressional opponents take the limelight and discredit themselves. E) He repeatedly invoked Saddam Hussein's failed assassination plot against his father, George H. W. Bush.

17)

Who initiated the Strategic Arms Limitation Talks (SALT)?

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A) Lyndon Johnson B) Leonid Brezhnev C) Ronald Reagan D) Richard Nixon E) Bill Clinton

18)

The SALT treaty A) brought a settlement to the Korean War. B) ended the Vietnam War. C) reduced the nuclear weapons arsenals of the U.S. and the Soviet Union. D) established zones of control in postwar Germany between the U.S. and the Soviet

Union. E) limited the number of standing forces that the Soviet Union could keep in Western Europe.

19)

The Soviet Union eventually collapsed because of

A) its heavy defense expenditures. B) its isolation from Western technology and markets. C) its inefficient centralized command economy. D) all of these: heavy defense expenditures; isolation from Western technology and markets; and its inefficient centralized command economy. E) None of these answers are correct.

20)

Which president called for a "new world order"? A) Bill Clinton B) Ronald Reagan C) George H. W. Bush D) Dwight Eisenhower E) George W. Bush

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21)

Which of the following is true of the 1990–1991 Gulf War? A) It was a successful military operation. B) It resolved the regional conflicts that prompted the original aggression by Iraq. C) It was waged entirely by U.S. military forces. D) It created a fiscal crisis because of the financial burden it placed on the United

States. E) None of these answers are correct.

22)

The Dayton Accords A) brought the deployment of peacekeeping troops to Bosnia. B) ended the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan. C) ended the placement of Soviet missiles on Cuban soil. D) established the coalition that attacked Iraq in the Persian Gulf War in 1990. E) brought a peaceful dissolution of the Soviet Union.

23) The idea that major nations should act together in response to problems and crises is called A) the one-world concept. B) détente. C) multilateralism. D) internationalism. E) containment.

24)

________, the former president of Serbia, was tried for war crimes.

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A) Slobodan Milošević B) Mikhail Gorbachev C) Saddam Hussein D) Lech Walesa E) None of these answers are correct.

25)

Upon assuming the presidency in 2001, George W. Bush A) declared that he would reduce America's military presence abroad. B) embraced his father's multilateral approach to world affairs. C) declared the United States would participate in the International Criminal Court. D) declared the United States would participate in the Kyoto Protocol. E) All these answers are correct.

26) China's expansionist foreign policy is especially troubling for the United States today due to its relatively new but increasingly close relationship with A) Russia. B) Iran. C) Japan D) Latin America. E) North Korea.

27)

The first U.S. military action after the September 11, 2001, attacks was an invasion of A) Afghanistan. B) Kosovo. C) Iraq. D) Somalia. E) Panama.

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28)

Which is the longest war in American history? A) Vietnam War B) World War II C) World War I D) Iraq war E) Afghanistan war

29)

With ISIS’s battlefield defeat in Iraq and Syria, the fear now is that

A) some of its soldiers will slip into Europe. B) it will form a coalition with Russia for the conquest of the Crimean peninsula. C) it will help Saddam Hussein regain power in Iraq. D) it will join forces with Somali pirates and terrorize the Indian Ocean. E) it will congregate in North African refugee camps to form an army for the invasion of Europe.

30) The assessment of Brian Michael Jenkins, adviser to the National Commission on Terrorism, strongly contradicts A) Donald Trump's claims that he has defeated ISIS and eradicated the threat of Islamic terrorism. B) the assumptions among other foreign policy experts that the Islamic State is still thriving. C) the warnings of European experts that Russia is preparing a dirty bomb. D) the warnings of South Asian government officials that Islamic terrorism is on the rise in their region. E) the assessment of Democrats that terrorism remains a threat in the Middle East.

31) What three groups turned to infighting and internal violence after the U.S. removal of Saddam Hussein's old Iraqi regime?

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A) Sunnis, Saudis, and Kurds B) Sunnis, Shiites, and Kurds C) Kurds, al Qaeda, and Saudis D) Arabs, Shiites, and Sunnis E) Kurds, Shiites, and Saudis

32) President Obama ordered bombing raids against a radical Sunni group that had seized large parts of territory in A) Syria and Iraq. B) Egypt and Libya. C) Turkey and Armenia. D) Afghanistan and Iran. E) Morocco and Algeria.

33)

The annual defense budget in the United States represents A) about 5 percent of annual worldwide military spending. B) about 15 percent of annual worldwide military spending. C) about 35 percent of annual worldwide military spending. D) about 55 percent of annual worldwide military spending. E) about 67 percent of annual worldwide military spending.

34)

Defense spending is second-highest in A) Russia. B) the United States. C) China. D) Great Britain. E) Germany.

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35)

Defense spending is highest in A) Japan. B) the United States. C) France. D) Great Britain. E) Germany.

36)

The policy of deterrence is based on the idea that

A) when threatened, a nation should strike first so that its enemy is deprived of the option of a surprise attack. B) economic links with another country will deter it from aggression. C) modern warfare requires a flexible response policy. D) a nation will be deterred from launching a full-scale nuclear attack by the knowledge that it too would be obliterated. E) preemptive strikes are preferable to passive behavior.

37)

The nuclear triad consists of A) land-based missiles, bombers, and tactical nuclear weapons. B) bombers, jet fighters, and submarine-based missiles. C) land-based missiles, submarine-based missiles, and bombers. D) bombers, land-based missiles, and cruise missiles. E) None of these answers are correct.

38) been

Since the Cold War ended, U.S. policy makers' chief concern with nuclear weaponry has

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A) the possibility of a computer error in the U.S. or former Soviet weapons systems that could mistakenly launch a nuclear missile. B) the spread of nuclear technology to rogue nations or terrorist groups. C) the use of a tactical nuclear weapon in ethnic conflicts in Eastern Europe. D) the possibility that, in the process of dismantling the U.S. and former Soviet arsenals, a nuclear warhead could be accidentally detonated. E) the spread of nuclear technology to NATO forces.

39) When was the last time the United States fought an all-out conventional war that required a military draft and the full mobilization of the country's industrial capacity? A) Iraq war B) Vietnam War C) Korean War D) World War II E) World War I

40) Harvard's Joseph Nye would most likely conclude that the United States places a disproportionate emphasis on A) soft power. B) hard power. C) NATO. D) the U.S. Navy. E) its infantry.

41) What characteristic of states like Montana and Wyoming contributes to the comparatively high military recruitment from those areas?

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A) a high number of military installations B) its rural nature, with few well-paying jobs available to young adults C) a strong military tradition D) state mandates for public service E) enlistment bonuses offered to recruits from those states

42)

Which of the following is the measure of success in an unconventional war? A) winning the support of the people B) territory gained C) enemy soldiers killed D) combat units destroyed E) enemy soldiers wounded

43)

Which of the following makes America's war on terrorism a "new kind of war"? A) Law enforcement plays a key role. B) "Soft" targets such as airports and major events must be protected. C) The terrorists are not seeking to take over specific regions or countries. D) The focus of the war is on groups rather than nations. E) All these answers are correct.

44)

America's war on terrorism is aimed primarily at A) individuals. B) groups. C) regions. D) nations. E) nongovernmental organizations.

45)

The term "asymmetric war" best applies to

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A) regional wars. B) transnational terrorism. C) conventional wars. D) nuclear war. E) wars between neighboring countries with different population sizes.

46)

Which president first warned of the consequences of the military-industrial complex? A) Dwight Eisenhower B) Richard Nixon C) John F. Kennedy D) Ronald Reagan E) Jimmy Carter

47)

The United States produces about ________ percent of the world's goods and services. A) 5 B) 20 C) 50 D) 66 E) 75

48)

The European Union produces about ________ of the world's goods and services. A) one-tenth B) one-fifth C) one-quarter D) half E) None of these answers are correct.

49)

The three major economic centers of the world are the

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A) United States, Canada, and Mexico. B) Pacific Rim, China, and the United States. C) United States, the Pacific Rim, and the European Union. D) United States, Russia, and Brazil. E) None of these answers are correct.

50)

Which of the following is true about the trade imbalance in the United States?

A) The United States has not had a trade surplus since 1975. B) Over the past decade, the U.S. trade deficit has exceeded $300 billion every year. C) The United States has the largest trade deficit of the top three economic centers. D) All of these are true: The United States has not had a trade surplus since 1975; over the past decade, the U.S. trade deficit has exceeded $300 billion every year; and the United States has the largest trade deficit of the top three economic centers. E) None of these answers are correct.

51)

According to the Switzerland-based World Economic Forum,

A) the United States has never had a trade surplus. B) the United States has had trade surpluses more than deficits in recent years. C) the United States has the most favorable balance of trade in the world. D) the United States is a larger market than the European Union and the Pacific Rim combined. E) the United States is economically more competitive than its major rivals.

52) Which of the following is NOT an economic element of the United States in relation to its position in the world economy?

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A) Although it has a trade deficit with most competitors, it exports more goods than it imports. B) It has a wide base of natural resources. C) It has the most diversified economy among its major competitors. D) It is the most economically competitive of its major competitors. E) All of these answers are correct, as not one is anaccurate statement.

53)

The European Recovery Plan is better known as the A) Truman Doctrine. B) Marshall Plan. C) Carter Doctrine. D) Clinton Manifesto. E) Reagan Decree.

54) Which of the following terms most accurately describes the international economy today? A) unilateralism B) isolationism C) interdependence D) protectionism E) insurgency

55)

The United States pursues its economic policy goals through which of the following? A) World Bank B) foreign aid C) International Monetary Fund (IMF) D) all of these: the World Bank, foreign aid, and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) E) None of these answers are correct.

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56) Which of the following makes the United States the strongest of the world's three economic centers? A) Its vast, fertile plains and advanced farming methods have made it the world’s leading agricultural producer. B) Its trade surplus is easily the world’s largest. C) The United States ranks among the top three countries worldwide in the production of manufactured consumer goods. D) The United States ranks among the top five nations in the extraction of gold. E) The American working population is more hard-working and intelligent than workers anywhere else in the world.

57) Which of the following statements about recent developments in trade and protectionism in the United States is true? A) Although Donald Trump made protectionism a big part of his campaign, he has not taken any concrete protectionist actions with respect to trade. B) New protectionist measures in the United States have largely eliminated its trade deficit. C) Most U.S. presidents have leaned toward protectionism over free trade since World War II. D) President Donald Trump withdrew the United States from NAFTA in 2017. E) Free-trade agreements with Panama, Colombia, and Korea passed with far more Republican than Democratic support in Congress.

58) Which country was the only one to side with Russia in a UN Security Council vote censuring Russia for its annexation of the Crimea? A) France B) Poland C) China D) Algeria E) Nigeria

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59)

Two of the most important sources of imported oil for the United States are A) Saudi Arabia and North Africa. B) Iraq and the Persian Gulf. C) Russia and Turkey. D) Venezuela and the Middle East. E) Canada and Latin America.

60)

The United States

A) spends the most on foreign aid in dollar terms, but several countries spend more on a per capita basis. B) spends the most on foreign aid on a per capita basis, but several countries spend more in dollar terms. C) spends the most on foreign aid both in dollar terms and on a per capita basis. D) spends less on foreign aid both in dollar terms and on a per capita basis than several other countries. E) None of these answers are correct.

61) Placing more emphasis on diplomacy, economic sanctions, and foreign aid as the means of protecting U.S. interests, rather than emphasizing the threat or use of military force, is known as what type of power? A) hard power B) soft power C) modern power D) economic power E) true power

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 62) Define the term containment policy. What was the basis for this policy?

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63)

How does public opinion exhibit varying levels of importance in defense policy?

64)

Describe the military-industrial complex and discuss its influence on defense spending.

65) Discuss the relative strengths and weaknesses of the U.S. economy relative to those of leading competitor nations.

66)

Describe how the U.S. relationship to global free trade has changed over time.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 17_14e 1) D 2) E 3) D 4) C 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) E 11) C 12) E 13) B 14) C 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) E 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) B 36) D 37) C 38) B 39) D 40) B 41) B 42) A 43) E 44) B 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) C 49) C 50) D 51) E 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) E 58) C 59) E 60) A 61) B 62) Containment had its roots in the failed appeasement of Germany's Hitler and a desire to not make the same mistake with the Soviet Union. The United States was locked in a sprawling conflict with the Soviet Union, which had engineered takeovers of Poland, Hungary, Czechoslovakia, and the other Eastern European countries. Thereafter, U.S. security policy was designed to contain Soviet power. President Harry Truman and other American leaders regarded Soviet communism as an implacable foe, a view that led to the formulation of the doctrine of containment—the idea that the Soviet Union could be stopped from achieving its global ambitions only by the forceful use of American power. Containment policy led the U.S. into costly wars, the most damaging of which was Vietnam. 63) The U.S. public usually supports the judgments of its political leaders about the use of military force. In nearly all military initiatives of the past half-century, Americans have backed the action. If wars seem to continue indefinitely with high losses and no resolution in sight, public opinion can erode, as in the case of the Vietnam War. In most national security policies, however, the general public is not interested or informed enough to exert any serious effect.

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64) The military-industrial complex has three components: the military establishment, the industries that manufacture weapons, and the members of Congress from states and districts that depend heavily on the arms industry. The military-industrial complex is an aggregation of interests that benefit from a high level of defense spending, regardless of whether all these expenditures are necessary for national security. President Eisenhower warned about the military-industrial complex and the fact that defense spending was big business, and many believe that the size of American defense spending reflects the workings of the military-industrial complex rather than the requirements of national security. 65) The United States represents one of the three major economic centers in the world, along with Europe and the Pacific Rim. It has the most diversified and competitive economy compared to its chief competitors, and has a huge abundance of varied natural resources. Its agricultural production is particularly strong, and it is able to produce three-fourths of its own oil needs. The United States also has a strong military to protect its economic interests. On the other hand, the United States has a large national debt and the world's largest trade deficit. The U.S. has not had a trade surplus since 1975, and over the past decade its deficit has exceeded $300 billion every year.

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66) For most of the United States' post-World War II history, it has been a champion and supporter of free trade as a means of improving its own economy and global prosperity. As globalization took hold in the 1980s, the level of global interdependence among economies, including that of the U.S., accelerated. Although the U.S. remains as interconnected with other countries as ever and is still largely supportive of the global free trade regime, the appearance of a large and enduring trade deficit in the 1970s has sometimes weakened its commitment. Some elected representatives oppose free trade, especially if they are from manufacturing-heavy states. The election of Donald Trump to the presidency brought to the forefront his "America First" policy, a major departure from the position of every president since World War II on free trade. He has withdrawn the U.S. from the Trans-Pacific Partnership and threatened withdrawal from other free trade agreements, though he has sometimes made contradictory statements in favor of free trade with some groups.

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