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A 63-year-old woman with 6 months of early satiety and increased abdominal girth has an abdominal fluid wave and a palpable 12 cm nodular right adnexal mass. The next BEST step would be for her to obtain a: a diagnostic laparoscopy b: a staging laparotomy and debulking for her presumed ovariancancer c: a CT scan to get the exact dimensions of the mass d: chemotherapy e: an ultrasonography to determine if the mass is cystic or solid

14:

A 42-year-old woman, G2P2, who had a laparoscopic tubal fulguration 7 years ago, has abnormal uterine bleeding. Her menstrual cycle has been 28-30 days with a menstrual flow of 5-6 days. During the last 6 months, the interval has varied from 14 to 35 days and the menstrual flow has lasted from 1 to 14 days.

The uterus is irregular and firm and consistent in size with an 8-week gestation. Both ovaries are palpably normal in size. Urine pregnancy test is negative. The most appropriate next step in management is a: endometrial sampling b: laparoscopy c: transabdominal ultrasonography d: pelvic CT e: hysteroscopy

15:

A 19-year-old primigravid woman is seen because of vaginal bleeding. Her LMP was about 11 weeks ago; the vagina contains a small amount of dark blood and the cervix is long and closed. The uterus is enlarged and not tender. A pelvic ultrasonography demonstrates an intrauterine gestational sac but no fetal pole is identified. The patient is distraught but declines surgical management. Of the following, the most appropriate management of this patient's condition is a: combination oral contraceptivepills b: methotrexate intramuscular injection c: depot medroxyprogesterone acetate d: oral broad-spectrum antibiotic thearpy e: mifepristone pills and vaginal misoprostol

ANS: [cddbc eaecc beaae]