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10:

A 25-year-old woman with no medical problems comes in for her annual exam. She expresses the worry that she has PMDD. She reports feeling bloated and moody when she has her period. The most appropriate initial management for this patient is a: treating her for hypothyroidism b: asking her to keep a menstrual diary for 2 months c: ordering a pelvic ultrasound d: giving her a prescription of fluoxetine to be taken only during the luteal phase

11:

A patient keeps a menstrual diary for 2 months. The diary reveals that she has bloating, fatigue, anxiety, insomnia, and tearfulness in the days prior to her menses and that the symptoms resolve completely after her menses starts. She reports that her insomnia is so bad that it prevents her from being efficient at work because she is not well rested. The most likely diagnosis for this patient is a: bipolar disorder b: PMDD c: major depressive disorder d: PMS

12:

A patient with PMDD asks for some treatment options. You respond that the treatment that has clearly demonstrated benefit for her condition is a:

GnRH agonist b: sertralin e c: danazo l d: ovarian suppression with high-dose depot medroxyprogesterone

13: a: Light therapy b: Vitamin

Which of the following has been shown to significantly improve the symptoms of women with PMS?

E c: Evening primrose d: Aerobic exercise

14:

Which of the following would be the first line of treatment in the management of symptoms of PMS?

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