A+ GUIDE TO MANAGING AND TROUBLESHOOTING PCs LAB MANUAL 4TH EDITION ( EXAMS 220-801 & 220-802) BY M by QuentinAxel

A+ GUIDE TO MANAGING AND TROUBLESHOOTING PCs LAB MANUAL 4TH EDITION ( EXAMS 220-801 & 220-802) BY MICHAEL MEYERS TEST BANK Chapter 01_The Path of the PC Tech 1.

Which of the following has developed and sponsors A+ Certification? A. CompTIA B. Cisco C. Prometric and Pearson VUE D. Microsoft

Which one of the following does not accurately describe a tested domain for the CompTIA A+ 220-801 exam? A. PC Hardware B. Laptops C. Networking D. Printers E. Organizational Policies

Which one of the following does not accurately describe a tested domain for the CompTIA A+ 220-802 exam? A. Mobile Devices B. Software C. Operating Systems D. Troubleshooting E. Security

How much experience does CompTIA recommend before taking the A+ certification exams? A. 1 year B. 500 hours C. 1,000 hours D. 9 months hands-on

Which statement is true of both the CompTIA A+ 801 and 802 exams? A. Both exams are in adaptive format. B. Each exam contains 100 questions. C. Each exam contains 80 questions. D. Both exams cover Windows 2008 Server.

Which of the following operating systems will be tested on the exam? A. Linux B. Mac OS X C. Windows 8 D. Windows Vista

Which exam includes focus on mobile devices, such as Apple iOS and Google Android devices? A. 220-801 B. 220-701 C. 220-802 D. 220-702

Effective which date are the A+, Network+, and Security+ certifications no longer considered "lifetime certifications"? A. January 1, 2011 B. January 1, 2012 C. December 31, 2010 D. December 31, 2011

Other than retaking exams, what must a certified professional earn to maintain their CompTIA A+, Network+, and Security+ certifications? A. 20 CEUs per year B. 20 CEUs over a three-year period C. 10 CEUs per year D. 10 CEUs over a three-year period

10. What is the valid period for the A+ certification? A. 2 years B. 1 year C. Lifetime D. 3 years 11. You should consider completing A+.

, and

12. The A+ Hardware exam tests your knowledge of just about every common device on PCs. 13. You can visit

certifications after

, expecting you to be able to identify

to find the nearest testing center and schedule your A+ exams.

14. Most companies that provide CompTIA A+ training offer discount

15. Microsoft Windows XP Professional, Windows XP Home, and Windows XP systems are covered on both of the A+ exams. 16. The Operating Systems domain is a part of the

exam.

17. To renew your A+ certification, you must earn 20 18. Effective January 1, 2011, there is no longer 19. The A+ certification is valid for 20.

over a three-year period. .

years.

is not covered on the A+ exams.

21. Who administers the A+ Certification exams?

operating

22. What two exams must you pass to become CompTIA A+ certified?

23. What operating systems do the CompTIA A+ exams focus on?

24. What are the numbers of the two CompTIA A+ exams?

25. Is Windows 8 covered on the CompTIA A+ exams?

26. If you passed the A+, Network+, or Security+ exams before the January 1, 2011, deadline, what must you do to recertify?

27. Which newer version of Windows is now tested on the 2012 A+ exams?

28. How can a certified professional renew their A+ certification?

29. How many CEUs, over what time period, must be earned to maintain the A+ certification?

30. What are generally considered to be valid CEUs?

Chapter 01_The Path of the PC Tech Key 1. (p. 2)

Which of the following has developed and sponsors A+ Certification? A. CompTIA B. Cisco C. Prometric and Pearson VUE D. Microsoft Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 01 #1

2. (p. 7)

Which one of the following does not accurately describe a tested domain for the CompTIA A+ 220801 exam? A. PC Hardware B. Laptops C. Networking D. Printers E. Organizational Policies Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 01 #2

3. (p. 7)

Which one of the following does not accurately describe a tested domain for the CompTIA A+ 220802 exam? A. Mobile Devices B. Software C. Operating Systems D. Troubleshooting E. Security Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 01 #3

4. (p. 2)

How much experience does CompTIA recommend before taking the A+ certification exams? A. 1 year B. 500 hours C. 1,000 hours D. 9 months hands-on Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 01 #4

5. (p. 6)

6. (p. 6)

Which of the following operating systems will be tested on the exam? A. Linux B. Mac OS X C. Windows 8 D. Windows Vista Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 01 #6

7. (p. 8)

Which exam includes focus on mobile devices, such as Apple iOS and Google Android devices? A. 220-801 B. 220-701 C. 220-802 D. 220-702 Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 01 #7

8. (p. 4)

Effective which date are the A+, Network+, and Security+ certifications no longer considered "lifetime certifications"? A. January 1, 2011 B. January 1, 2012 C. December 31, 2010 D. December 31, 2011 Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 01 #8

9. (p. 5)

10. (p. 5)

What is the valid period for the A+ certification? A. 2 years B. 1 year C. Lifetime D. 3 years Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 01 #10

11. (p. 4)

You should consider , , and after completing A+. CompTIA Network+; Microsoft Certified Professional; Cisco

certifications

Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 01 #11

12. (p. 7)

The A+ Hardware exam tests your knowledge of identify just about every common device on PCs. computer components

, expecting you to be able to

Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 01 #12

13. (p. 8)

You can visit www.vue.com

to find the nearest testing center and schedule your A+ exams. Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 01 #13

14. (p. 9)

Most companies that provide CompTIA A+ training offer discount vouchers

. Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 01 #14

15. (p. 6)

Microsoft Windows XP Professional, Windows XP Home, and Windows XP operating systems are covered on both of the A+ exams. Media Center Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 01 #15

16. (p. 5)

The Operating Systems domain is a part of the 220-802 or Operating Systems

exam. Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 01 #16

17. (p. 5)

To renew your A+ certification, you must earn 20 Continuing Education Units (CEUs)

over a three-year period. Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 01 #17

18. (p. 4)

Effective January 1, 2011, there is no longer lifetime certification

. Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 01 #18

19. (p. 5)

The A+ certification is valid for three

years. Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 01 #19

20. (p. 6-7)

is not covered on the A+ exams. Windows 8 Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 01 #20

21.

Who administers the A+ Certification exams?

(p. 8)

Pearson VUE administers the A+ Certification exams. Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 01 #21

22.

What two exams must you pass to become CompTIA A+ certified?

(p. 4-5)

To become A+ certified, you must pass both the Hardware and Operating Systems exams. Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 01 #22

23.

What operating systems do the CompTIA A+ exams focus on?

(p. 6)

The CompTIA A+ exams focus on the following Microsoft Windows operating systems: Windows XP Professional (32-and 64-bit), Windows XP Home, Windows XP Media Center, Windows Vista Home Basic, Windows Vista Home Premium, Windows Vista Business, Windows Vista Enterprise, Windows Vista Ultimate, Windows 7 Starter, Windows 7 Home Premium, Windows 7 Professional, Windows 7 Ultimate, and Windows 7 Enterprise. Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 01 #23

24.

What are the numbers of the two CompTIA A+ exams?

(p. 5)

The CompTIA A+ exams are popularly called Hardware (220-801) and Operating Systems (220-802). Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 01 #24

25.

Is Windows 8 covered on the CompTIA A+ exams?

(p. 6-7)

The current CompTIA A+ exams do not include coverage of Windows 8. Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 01 #25

26. (p. 4)

If you passed the A+, Network+, or Security+ exams before the January 1, 2011, deadline, what must you do to recertify? Nothing. Individuals who passed the exams and earned the certifications before the deadline are still considered "certified for life." Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 01 #26

27.

Which newer version of Windows is now tested on the 2012 A+ exams?

(p. 6)

Windows 7 Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 01 #27

28.

How can a certified professional renew their A+ certification?

(p. 4-5)

Certified professionals will need to either retake the exam or perform sufficient continuing education as specified by CompTIA. Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 01 #28

29.

How many CEUs, over what time period, must be earned to maintain the A+ certification?

(p. 5)

20 CEUs over 3 years. Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 01 #29

30.

What are generally considered to be valid CEUs?

(p. 5)

Professionals can participate in industry events and seminars, complete a presentation, participate in IT training, teach a course, or earn another higher-level certification. The number of CEUs that you earn by completing each of these requirements varies, and each requires that you submit documentation to CompTIA for their review. Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 01 #30

Chapter 01_The Path of the PC Tech Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 01

# of Questions 12 12 6 30

Chapter 02_Operational Procedures Student:

Which one of the following is not an assertive fact-seeking question? A. When did it last work? B. Has software or hardware changed recently? C. What did you do to cause the problem? D. What applications were running when it locked up?

Who should you contact if you notice dangerous cables or other hazardous materials at a customer site? A. Your boss B. Hasmat C. MSDS D. Building Services

Which one of the following is not generally included in a typical technician toolkit? A. Torx→ wrench B. Philips-head screwdriver C. Flat-head screwdriver D. Hammer E. F: Parts retriever

Which one of the following does not emit radio waves? A. Cell phone B. Baby monitor C. Wireless network device D. Microwave oven E. Hemostat

What do anti-static mats and wrist straps use to prevent anti-static charges from racing through devices? A. Extractors B. Resistors C. Potential depressors D. Multimeters

What should you avoid learning at all costs? A. Dependability B. Customer passwords C. Versatility D. Responsibility

How do you show users the error of their ways without creating anger or conflict? A. Using a stern tone of voice B. Electrical potential C. Doing their job for them D. Assertive communication

What is process of asking questions after a person has described a situation called? A. Respectful communication B. Sensitivity awareness C. Eliciting answers D. Versatility

To show that you are dependable and responsible, what should you always be? A. Versatile B. On time C. Adaptable D. Reciprocal

10. What is the most important thing you should do at the completion of any work? A. Document your work B. Get paid C. Elicit solutions D. Elicit answers 11. You should respect other people's property and follow the Rule. 12.

, also known as the Golden

means to tell the truth and

means to do the right thing.

13. Speaking clearly and eliciting answers in a non-judgmental and non-accusatory manner are examples of . 14. At the completion of work, you should with the customer.

the problem and solution and

15. Anti-static wrist straps, mats, and bags are used to prevent 16. Most companies require a signed 17. Completing the

to perform work.

protects from worry and litigation.

18.

bags help prevent ESD while parts are stored.

19.

can affect PC speakers and wireless networks, among other equipment.

20.

and

can both cause safety issues if not properly attended to while working on

equipment. 21. What is the first step in assertive communication?

22. What should you do if a coworker calls you for assistance while you are working with a customer?

23. What are the keys to effective relationships when dealing with customers?

24. Should you build customer confidence and trust in your technical abilities by memorizing customer passwords and confidential document locations?

25. Is EMI more dangerous than ESD?

26. What item, when left loose, can get caught in equipment fans?

27. What should be removed before working on equipment, to reduce risk of electric shock?

28. Why must a Work Authorization be accomplished?

29. What are some examples of equipment that can be affected by radio frequency interference (RFI)?

30. What should sensitive parts be stored in to help prevent damage from ESD?

Chapter 02_Operational Procedures Key 1. (p. 25)

2. (p. 33)

Who should you contact if you notice dangerous cables or other hazardous materials at a customer site? A. Your boss B. Hasmat C. MSDS D. Building Services Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 02 #2

3. (p. 34)

Which one of the following is not generally included in a typical technician toolkit? A. Torx→ wrench B. Philips-head screwdriver C. Flat-head screwdriver D. Hammer E. F: Parts retriever Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 02 #3

4. (p. 32)

Which one of the following does not emit radio waves? A. Cell phone B. Baby monitor C. Wireless network device D. Microwave oven E. Hemostat Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 02 #4

5. (p. 30)

What do anti-static mats and wrist straps use to prevent anti-static charges from racing through devices? A. Extractors B. Resistors C. Potential depressors D. Multimeters Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 02 #5

6. (p. 23)

What should you avoid learning at all costs? A. Dependability B. Customer passwords C. Versatility D. Responsibility Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #6

7. (p. 25)

How do you show users the error of their ways without creating anger or conflict? A. Using a stern tone of voice B. Electrical potential C. Doing their job for them D. Assertive communication Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #7

8. (p. 27)

What is process of asking questions after a person has described a situation called? A. Respectful communication B. Sensitivity awareness C. Eliciting answers D. Versatility Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 02 #8

9. (p. 23)

To show that you are dependable and responsible, what should you always be? A. Versatile B. On time C. Adaptable D. Reciprocal Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #9

10. (p. 29)

What is the most important thing you should do at the completion of any work? A. Document your work B. Get paid C. Elicit solutions D. Elicit answers Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #10

11. (p. 23)

You should respect other people's property and follow the Golden Rule. Ethic of Reciprocity

, also known as the

Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 02 #11

12. (p. 22)

means to tell the truth and

means to do the right thing.

Honesty; integrity Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #12

13. (p. 25)

Speaking clearly and eliciting answers in a non-judgmental and non-accusatory manner are examples of . assertive communication Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 02 #13

14. (p. 29)

At the completion of work, you should with the customer. document; follow up

the problem and solution and

Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #14

15. (p. 29)

Anti-static wrist straps, mats, and bags are used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)

. Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 02 #15

16. (p. 24)

Most companies require a signed Work Authorization

to perform work. Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #16

17. (p. 24)

Completing the paperwork

protects from worry and litigation. Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #17

18. (p. 30)

bags help prevent ESD while parts are stored. Anti-static Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #18

19. (p. 32)

can affect PC speakers and wireless networks, among other equipment. Radio frequency interference (RFI) Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #19

20. (p. 34)

and on equipment. Loose hair; jewelry

can both cause safety issues if not properly attended to while working

Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #20

21.2 1 .

What is the first step in assertive communication?

(p. 25)

The first step in assertive communication is to show respect for others, and the second step is to state the problem clearly without accusation. Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #21

22.2 2 .

What should you do if a coworker calls you for assistance while you are working with a customer?

(p. 25)

If you get a work-related call, politely excuse yourself, walk away for privacy, and keep the call brief. Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 02 #22

23.23. What are the keys to effective relationships when dealing with customers? (p. 22-29)

Being on time, avoiding accusatory questions, demonstrating integrity, treating others with respect, and using other assertive communications are guidelines you should always follow to deal with customers effectively. Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #23

24.2 4 .

Should you build customer confidence and trust in your technical abilities by memorizing customer passwords and confidential document locations?

(p. 23)

No. Avoid learning other folks' passwords, and always respect confidential customer property. Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 02 #24

25.2 5 .

Is EMI more dangerous than ESD?

(p. 31)

No. EMI (electromagnetic interference) isn't nearly as dangerous as ESD (electrostatic discharge). Although EMI can cause damage, ESD is the greatest killer of PCs and components. Difficulty: Hard Meyers - Chapter 02 #25

26.2 6 .

What item, when left loose, can get caught in equipment fans? Hair

(p. 34)

Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #26

27.2 7 .

What should be removed before working on equipment, to reduce risk of electric shock? Jewelry

(p. 34)

Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #27

28.2 8 .

Why must a Work Authorization be accomplished?

(p. 24)

To record the customer's name, billing information, time and date, and scope of work. Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #28

29.2 9 .

What are some examples of equipment that can be affected by radio frequency interference (RFI)? PC speakers and wireless networks can both be affected by RFI.

(p. 32)

Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #29

30.3 0 .

What should sensitive parts be stored in to help prevent damage from ESD? Anti-static bags

(p. 30)

Difficulty: Easy Meyers - Chapter 02 #30

Chapter 02_Operational Procedures Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 02

# of Questions 18 2 10 30

Chapter 03_The Visible PC Student:

Which of the following is not a type of USB connector? A. IEEE 1394 B. mini-B C. A D. B

Which connector type has a slight D-shape? A. BNC B. DB C. DIN D. RJ

Which of the following connector types is most commonly used in the back of a PC? A. BNC B. Centronics C. DB D. RJ

RJ-11 jacks are almost exclusively used for A. modems B. printers C. monitors D. scanners

What is the most common general-purpose connection for PCs? A. DB 9 B. IEEE 1394 C. FireWire D. USB

How many pins are on a typical FireWire connector? A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8

What type of keyboard connector is used by most modern PCs? A. DIN B. DB C. IEEE 1394 D. USB

Traditional external modems plugged into a(n) A. serial port B. parallel port C. telephone D. expansion slot

NICs usually have a single A. USB B. RJ-11 C. RJ-45 D. DIN

connection.

10. What type of floppy drive is used in modern PCs? A. 3.5 inch B. 5 inch C. 5.5 inch D. 6 inch 11. Which of the following optical media types is popular for today's high-density movies? A. CD-RW B. DVD-R C. DVD-RW D. Blu-ray 12. RAM storage is not measured in which of the following types of units? A. Bytes B. Megabytes C. Megahertz D. Gigabytes 13. Modern PCs are showing up with what special type of port for external hard drives and optical drives? A. eSATA B. PS/3 C. S/PDIF D. Parallel 14. Which types of video connectors are common today? A. LGA and PGA B. VGA and DVI C. PATA and SATA D. IEEE 1394 and Serial 15. Which statement is not true? A. SATA drives use a narrow cable. B. A terabyte is 10000 gigabytes. C. PATA drives use a ribbon cable. D. Optical drives use PATA or SATA connections. 16. All internal and external modems have two A. RJ-11 B. RJ-45 C. DB D. USB

sockets.

17. What two parts of your PC are much more sensitive to ESD than others? A. RAM and NICs B. RAM and modem C. CPU and motherboard D. CPU and RAM 18. How many pins are on a VGA connector? A. 9 B. 15 C. 25 D. 40

19. In which component does all of the processing and storage take place? A. Monitor B. System unit C. Mouse D. Keyboard 20. Micro-A and micro-B connectors are what type of connectors, although less commonly seen? A. Parallel B. Firewire C. Serial D. USB 21. Expansion cards plug into

22. RAM is measured in

23. A(n)

takes standard power and converts it into power your PC can use.

24. The

performs all the calculations that take place inside the PC.

25. Every

has a make, a model, and a package type.

26. The predominant AMD CPU package type is called a(n)

27. Everything in a PC connects either directly or indirectly to a(n) 28. Motherboards use multipurpose components.

that enable the addition of optional

29. The device that connects to an expansion slot is generically called a(n) 30. The

provides the necessary electrical power for the PC to operate.

31. Programs and data that are not currently being used by the CPU are stored on . 32. PATA, SATA, and SCSI are three types of 33. Special

drives can read, write, delete, and rewrite data to special discs.

34. DB connectors used in PCs can have from sockets. 35. USB devices are

drives.

pins or

, meaning you can remove them while power is still on.

36. A USB device.

connector is on the end of the cable, where it plugs into the USB

37. Sound cards use

connectors.

38. FireWire devices are

, meaning you can remove them while power is still on.

39. Digital cameras using USB connection often use the smaller connector.

-style

40. In newer systems, one S/PDIF connection replaces all of the

connections.

41. A mouse typically uses a(n)

connector.

42. Groups of connected computers used for sharing information are also known as . 43. A(n)

port was previously used to connect external modems to the PC.

44. Today, almost all printers come with

ports.

45. A(n)

component is inside the system unit.

46. A(n) paper.

is a thin, flat piece of circuit board often slightly larger than a piece of

47. CD-ROM and DVD drives are actually cable.

-type drives and connect with a ribbon

48. A video card uses a 15-pin female video interface (DVI) connector.

connector or the unique, video-only digital

49. The interface between the network and the PC is provided by

50. All PCs have a keyboard port that uses either a dedicated mini-DIN connector or a(n) connector. 51. The two ATA standards in use today are 52. A DVI connector is used for 53. A(n)

and .

allows a user to select graphical items on a computer screen.

54. The HDMI connector is used for

55. FireWire connectors are also known as

56. The central processing unit (CPU) is also called the

57. DB connectors are technically called

connectors.

58. USB devices are hot-swappable and can be inserted and removed without system.

the

59. The floppy drive connects to the computer via a(n)

cable.

60. PATA hard drives connect to the computer via a(n)

cable.

61. Parallel ports use a(n)

female DB connector.

62. External modems traditionally connected to a(n) today.

but often connect to USB ports

63. Most generic desktop PCs have only

hard drive, but most accept more.

64.

discs are often used for storing data with capacities starting at 25 GB.

65.

commands tell the computer what to do to get work done.

66. Operating systems and applications are often called

67. Most PC memory is installed on a(n)

68. All motherboards use multipurpose expansion slots that enable you to add 69. Hard-drive capacity is measured in

70. The fuchsia-colored connector on the back of computer is for 71. What is S/PDIF?

. . .

72. What are the functions of a sound card?

73. What is the limitation of a Compact Disc-Recordable (CD-R) drive?

74. What does SCSI stand for?

75. Most modems have two sockets for what type of connections?

76. What are eSATA ports used for?

77. What is used to prevent the CPU from overheating?

78. Many PCs have two round mini-DIN connectors. What are these for?

79. List the names of any three major connector types.

80. What is a floppy controller?

81. Name the two common types of hard drives.

82. What types of connections do modern printers have?

83. List the four stages through which a computer functions.

84. What is the most common connector for a network cable?

85. What is the most common AMD CPU package?

86. What are expansion slots?

87. What are the two RJ-11 sockets on modems used for?

88. What does a sound card need to play and record sounds?

89. What legacy port allowed an electronic musical instrument to be connected to a sound card?

90. List the features of USB.

91. What are the advantages of FireWire connectors?

92. What are the uses of the two types of RJ jacks?

93. How can you identify a DB connector?

94. How do SATA drives connect to the motherboard?

95. What are some characteristics of SCSI drives?

96. What are the characteristics of PATA drives?

97. What is the purpose of the power supply?

98. What can be found on the front of a PC case?

99. What are the PC components for which a motherboard provides sockets or connectors?

100.What is a heat sink?

101.In addition to a heat sink, what helps keep a CPU cool?

102.When does electrostatic discharge (ESD) take place?

103.What is the most common type of memory stick found in PCs today?

104.What enables a computer to read one or more types of optical discs?

105.What are the characteristics of a floppy drive?

106.What are the two most common input devices?

107.What is the purpose of random access memory (RAM)?

108.Older-style keyboards and mice plug into which kind of ports?

109.Less commonly seen, mini-A, micro-A, and micro-B are what type of connectors?

110.All of the processing and storage takes place in which device?

111.What is the display device that provides a visual output for the computer called?

112.Which device is used for providing keyed input and is based on a typewriter?

113.What is the primary pointing device used to control a graphical pointer on the monitor for input called?

114.What devices provide sound output?

115.Which peripheral provides printed paper output?

116.Storage devices include which components?

117.Output devices include which peripherals?

118.Input devices include which components?

119.Which components are considered part of the system unit?

120.Which optical media drive can write to a disk multiple times?

Chapter 03_The Visible PC Key 1. (p. 46) A 2. (p. 47) B 3. (p. 47) C 4. (p. 48) A 5. (p. 46) D 6. (p. 47) C 7. (p. 46) D 8. (p. 51) A 9. (p. 48) C 10. (p. 57) A 11. (p. 58) D 12. (p. 55) C 13. (p. 52) A 14. (p. 49) B 15. (p. 57) B 16. (p. 51) A 17. (p. 55) D 18. (p. 49) B 19. (p. 43) B 20. (p. 47) D 21. (p. 49) slots 22. (p. 55) bytes 23. (p. 56) power supply 24. (p. 54) microprocessor 25. (p. 54) CPU 26. (p. 55) pin grid array (PGA) 27. (p. 56) motherboard 28. (p. 56) expansion slots 29. (p. 56) expansion card or card 30. (p. 56) power supply 31. (p. 57) hard drives 32. (p. 57) hard 33. (p. 58) optical drives 34. (p. 47) 9; 37 35. (p. 46) hot-swappable 36. (p. 46) B

37. (p. 49) audio 38. (p. 47) hot-swappable 39. (p. 46) mini-B 40. (p. 50) mini-audio 41. (p. 51) light green mini-DIN or universal serial bus (USB) 42. (p. 50) networks 43. (p. 51) serial 44. (p. 52) USB 45. (p. 53) internal 46. (p. 56) motherboard 47. (p. 57) PATA 48. (p. 49) DB 49. (p. 50) NICs (network interface cards) 50. (p. 49) USB 51. (p. 57) parallel ATA (PATA); serial ATA (SATA) 52. (p. 49) video 53. (p. 50) mouse 54. (p. 49) video 55. (p. 47) IEEE 1394 56. (p. 54) microprocessor 57. (p. 47) D-sub (D-subminiature) 58. (p. 46) restarting 59. (p. 57) ribbon 60. (p. 57) ribbon 61. (p. 52) 25-pin 62. (p. 51) serial port 63. (p. 57) one 64. (p. 58) Blu-ray 65. (p. 41) Programming 66. (p. 41) software 67. (p. 55) stick 68. (p. 56) expansion cards 69. (p. 57) gigabytes (GB); terabytes (TB) 70. (p. 52) printers using a parallel port 71. (p. 50) The Sony/Philips Digital Interface Format (S/PDIF) connection replaces all of the mini-audio connections on systems that support it. 72. (p. 49-50) Sound cards perform two functions: They take digital information and turn it into sound, outputting the sound through speakers. They also take sound that is input through a microphone and turn it into digital data. 73. (p. 58) You can only record data once. 74. (p. 57) small computer system interface

75. (p. 51) Two RJ-11 jacks are used: one to connect the modem to the telephone jack and the other for an optional telephone. 76. (p. 52) Connecting external hard drives and optical drives. 77. (p. 54) A cooling fan and a heat sink assembly are used to prevent the CPU from overheating. 78. (p. 46) One is for the keyboard, and the other is for the mouse. 79. (p. 45) The major types of connectors are DIN, USB, FireWire, serial, parallel, RJ, audio, DVI, and HDMI. 80. (p. 57) The floppy drive connects to the computer via a ribbon cable, which in turn connects to the motherboard. The connection to the motherboard is known as the floppy controller. 81. (p. 57) The two common types of hard drives are PATA (parallel ATA) and SATA (serial ATA). 82. (p. 52) Most printer models now come with USB, FireWire, Ethernet, and Wi-Fi 802.11 b/g/n options. Older printers connected via the parallel port. 83. (p. 42) The four stages are input, processing, output, and storage. 84. (p. 48) An RJ-45 connection is the most common. 85. (p. 55) A pin grid array (PGA) 86. (p. 56) Expansion slots are connectors for expansion cards that enable optional devices to communicate with the CPU. 87. (p. 51) One RJ-11 socket is used to connect the modem to the telephone jack on the wall. The other socket is used to connect an optional telephone, which can be used when the modem is not in use. 88. (p. 50) A sound card requires at least a set of speakers (or headset) to play sounds and a microphone to record sounds. 89. (p. 50) A 15-pin female DB port was used to connect an electronic musical instrument to a sound card. 90. (p. 46) The features of USB are that USB devices are hot-swappable; that they come in three sizes—A, B, and mini-B; and that they support a wide variety of devices, such as mice, keyboards, printers, and cameras. 91. (p. 47) FireWire connectors transfer data at very high speeds and are popular with devices such as digital video cameras. 92. (p. 48) RJ-11 is a phone jack and is almost exclusively used for modems. The slightly wider RJ-45 jack is used for one popular type of network cable. Most network cards have an RJ-45 socket. 93. (p. 47) DB connectors are all shaped like a D. 94. (p. 57) They connect with a narrow cable that is different from the ribbon cables used with PATA drives. 95. (p. 57) Small computer system interface (SCSI) drives are generally faster and more expensive than ATA drives, so they usually show up only in high-end PCs such as network servers or graphics workstations. 96. (p. 57) PATA drives are inexpensive and easy to install. They connect to the computer via a ribbon cable. Most motherboards come with a built-in PATA controller. 97. (p. 56) The power supply provides the necessary electrical power to make the PC operate. The power supply takes standard 110-volt AC power (United States) and converts it into 12-volt, 5-volt, and 3.3-volt DC power. A number of connectors lead out of the power supply. Every power supply provides special connectors for the motherboard and a number of other general-use connectors that provide power to any device that needs electricity. 98. (p. 53) The front of a PC case usually has buttons to turn the system on and off, lights to tell you the status of the system, and access doors for removable media. 99. (p. 56) A motherboard provides sockets or connectors for the microprocessor, RAM, and power, as well as connectors for media drives, hard drives, and external devices. 100. (p. 54) A heat sink is a big slab of copper or aluminum that helps draw heat away from the processor. 101. (p. 54) Fans are usually mounted on top of the CPU to keep it cool. 102. (p. 55) ESD takes place only when two objects that store different amounts of static electricity come into contact. 103. (p. 55) Dual inline memory modules (DIMMs) are very common today. 104. (p. 58) Optical drives read CD, DVD or Blu-ray discs. 105. (p. 57) A floppy drive connects to the computer via a ribbon cable. Floppy drives store a relatively tiny amount of data and are disappearing from use. The most common type of floppy drive is the 3.5-inch floppy drive. 106. (p. 42) The keyboard and the mouse are the two most common input devices.

107. (p. 55) RAM is used to store program data that is currently being used by the CPU. 108. (p. 46) Regular-sized DIN ports 109. (p. 47) They are all USB connectors. 110. (p. 44) The system unit 111. (p. 44) The monitor 112. (p. 44) The keyboard 113. (p. 44) The mouse 114. (p. 44) Speakers 115. (p. 44) The printer 116. (p. 57-58) Hard drives, floppy drives, and optical drives 117. (p. 44) Monitors, speakers, and printers 118. (p. 44) Keyboards, mice 119. (p. 54-55) CPU, RAM. 120. (p. 58) CD-RW, DVD-RW.

Chapter 03_The Visible PC Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 03

# of Questions 39 13 68 120

Chapter 04_Visible Windows Student:

The primary interface to the computer is the Windows A. mouse B. keyboard C. desktop D. Control Panel

Any Windows session begins with A. rebooting B. the desktop C. logon D. the taskbar

One of the main jobs of the taskbar is to show the A. clock B. Control Panel C. Device Manager D. Start button

What is the official name of the system tray (the area to the far right on the taskbar)? A. Clock B. Notification area C. Start button D. Start menu

Access to all drives and folders in XP is provided through A. Control Panel B. services C. My Computer D. Device Manager

To access an extra menu in just about any view, you can A. left-click B. right-click C. scroll D. bang

the mouse.

Where can you find files that have been deleted? A. My Computer B. Control Panel C. Recycle Bin D. My Network Places

Windows provides access to most of the maintenance, upgrade, and configuration utilities interface. A. Administrative Tools B. Control Panel C. Device Manager D. System Registry

Which key can you press to access help from just about anywhere? A. F1 B. F3 C. F5 D. F10

10. System management utilities such as Disk Defragmenter can be accessed from the A. File B. Accessibility C. System Tools D. Communications

menu.

11. Which Control Panel applet is used to configure the overall appearance of the desktop in Windows Vista and 7? A. Accessibility B. Personalize C. System D. Multimedia 12. Which utility allows users to view and configure hardware and drivers in a Windows PC? A. MSconfig B. SysEdit C. Device Manager D. MSInfo 13. The icons in the Control Panel of a Windows system are links to files with the extension A. .BIN B. .CPL C. .CPP D. .COM

14. Microsoft Management Console is a shell program that holds individual utilities called A. applets B. batch-runs C. snap-ins D. binary executables

15. Windows combines almost all of the snap-ins into an applet in the Control Panel called A. System B. Device Manager C. Administrative Tools D. Scheduled Tasks

16. Which one of the following is not a valid Windows 7 edition? A. Windows 7 Home Starter B. Windows 7 Home Premium C. Windows 7 Professional D. Windows 7 Business E. Windows 7 Ultimate 17. Which of the following is a stripped-down edition of the OS designed to complement the limited role of the netbook? A. Windows XP Home B. Windows NT C. Windows 7 Starter D. Windows Vista Home Basic

18. How much RAM can a 64-bit processor address? A. 16 terabytes B. 16 gigabytes C. 4 terabytes D. 4 gigabytes 19. The library folders are located under C:\Users\Public. A. Shared B. Public C. My Documents D. Private 20. Where can applets be found? A. Control Panel B. Device Manager C. My Computer D. Services program 21. What is the tool used to examine and configure the hardware and drivers within a system? A. Control Panel B. Device Manager C. My Computer D. Services applet 22. How is a problem shown in Device Manager? A. Red exclamation point B. Yellow "X" C. Red "X" D. Green check mark 23. Where do 32-bit programs go in 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and Windows 7? A. C:\Program Files B. C:\Documents C. C:\Program Files (x86) D. C:\My Documents (x32) 24. Which one of the following is not a valid Windows Vista edition? A. Windows Vista Home Basic B. Windows Vista Home Premium C. Windows Vista Professional D. Windows Vista Business E. Windows Vista Ultimate 25. Which file system is the most secure? A. Windows Vista Enterprise B. FAT32 C. NTFS D. FAT 26. Which one of the following operating systems is covered on the current CompTIA A+ exams? A. Windows NT B. Windows 2000 C. Windows XP Tablet PC Edition D. Windows 7

27. Which version of Windows lacks the ability to log on to a Windows domain, encrypt files and folders, and support multiple CPUs? A. Windows XP Home B. Windows XP Professional C. Windows Vista Business D. Windows Vista Ultimate 28. How can you easily determine what version of Windows your computer is running? A. Go to the manufacturer's web site and enter your computer's serial number. B. Right-click the desktop and select Properties. C. Click Start | Run and enter Version. D. Right-click My Computer/Computer and select Properties. 29. You have a 32-bit CPU and a 32-bit version of Windows. What is the maximum amount of RAM your system can use? A. 2 GB B. 4 GB C. 16 TB D. 512 MB 30. 32-bit versions of Windows are designed to run on which architecture? A. x43 B. x32 C. x86 D. x64 31. What type of CPUs are x64 operating systems and software primarily designed for? A. 32-bit B. x86 C. 64-bit D. 8086 32. What can you use in Windows Vista to run a problem program that worked in a previous operating system? A. Compatibility mode B. Emulation mode C. 64-bit mode D. 32-bit mode 33. Which of the following are not the proper video requirements for running the Aero desktop? A. DirectX 8 or better B. 128 megabytes of video RAM C. WDDM driver D. Pixel Shader version 2.0 34. Which one of the following statements is true? A. Left-click anything and select Properties to view its properties. B. The notification area is to the left of the Start button. C. In Windows XP the Quick Launch toolbar is not displayed on the taskbar by default. D. Windows 2000/XP use Computer and Windows Vista/7 uses My Computer. 35. How do you make file extensions in Windows Explorer visible in Windows XP? A. Click Organize | Folder and the Search Options | View tab and uncheck Hide extensions for known file types. B. Click Tools | Folder Options | View tab and uncheck Hide extensions for known file types. C. Click Organize | Folder Options | View tab and uncheck Hide extensions for known file types. D. Click Tools | Folder and Search Options | View tab and uncheck Hide extensions for known file types.

36. What does Windows Vista use in place of the former My Documents, My Pictures, and My Music folders? A. Favorites, Desktop, and Downloads B. Letters, Photos, and Audio C. Documents, Pictures, and Music D. .TXT, .JPEG, and .MP3 37. What is the default amount of drive space set aside for the Recycle Bin in Windows XP? A. 2% B. 5% C. Varies according to drive size D. 15% 38. What shows all the current network connections in Windows Vista? A. My Network Places B. Network C. Network Neighborhood D. Internet Explorer 39. Which of the following is located on the desktop and uses Microsoft Gadgets? A. Hot Keys B. System Folder C. Recycle Bin D. Sidebar 40. Which function key is for help? A. F5 B. F1 C. F2 D. F3 41. What does pressing the Ctrl-Esc hot-key combination produce? A. Switches between open programs B. Opens IE8 C. Start menu D. Quits program 42. What does pressing Ctrl-X do when working with a text document? A. Copy B. Cut C. Paste D. Undo 43. What does pressing the Windows Key-L key combination do? A. Locks the computer. B. Opens the Locate menu. C. Shows the desktop. D. Opens the System Properties dialog box. 44. Which edition of Windows can only be purchased directly from Microsoft, and includes extra features designed for large businesses? A. Windows Vista Business B. Windows 7 Ultimate C. Windows 7 Professional D. Windows 7 Enterprise

45. Which of the following features are not supported by Windows Vista Basic and Windows 7 Starter? A. Network access B. NTFS File System C. Aero desktop D. File sharing 46. Which feature, supported by Windows 7 Enterprise and Windows Vista Enterprise, is not supported by the Home or professional versions? A. Bit Locker Drive Encryption B. NTFS File System C. Aero Desktop D. Multi-user capability 47. The Libraries feature, which aggregates folders from multiple locations and places them in a single, easyto-find spot in Windows Explorer, is only supported in which edition of Windows? A. Windows XP Media Center B. Windows XP C. Windows Vista D. Windows 7 48. Which version of Windows 7 adds support for joining domains? A. Windows 7 Professional B. Windows 7 Home Premium C. Windows 7 Starter D. Windows 7 Home Basic 49. What does pressing the F3 function key do? A. Rename. B. Refreshes the current window. C. Opens the Search Menu. D. Help. 50. Which version of Windows uses "pinned" applications instead of Quick Launch? A. Windows 2000 B. Windows 7 C. Windows Vista D. Windows XP 51. Windows Vista Home Basic and Windows 7 Starter do not support the

52. The Windows XP tool used to copy backup files and folders from an "old" computer to be transferred to a "new" computer is the . 53. The tool used to schedule a program to start at any time you wish is called 54. In Windows operating systems, the utilities called snap-ins. 55. Windows 7 uses

is a shell program that holds individual

applications instead of Quick Launch.

56. The tool that can be used to restore Windows XP and later system files to a previous state is .

57. The tool that's similar to the DOS command prompt is known as the

58. The Microsoft Management Console allows a technician to create his or her own tools by adding . 59. While browsing in Windows Explorer windows, you notice that many files do not have any extensions but you want to see them. You know you need to change the "Hide extensions for known file types" setting. In Windows 2000 or Windows XP, you access this setting via . 60. On deleting a file from the Windows operating system, a copy of the file is placed in a special folder called the . 61. In Windows 2000 or Windows XP, the Display and Add/Remove Programs applets are found in the . 62. The Start button, the Quick Launch area, the running programs area, and the system tray are all found on the of a Windows desktop. 63. Clicking the operating system.

button enables a user to view the programs loaded on the Windows

64. Most of the snap-ins in Windows are available in the Panel.

folder in Control

65. Windows assigns different icons to different types of files based on their 66. The and operating system tools.

applet of the Control Panel provides access to essential system information

67. The in a Windows operating system enables users to examine and configure all the hardware and drivers in a Windows PC. 68. The more.

tool enables you to tell what has happened on a PC in the last week or

69. Errors have appeared on a user's screen, but the user has forgotten what they were. You can view these errors in the . 70. Windows combines snap-ins into an applet in the Control Panel called 71. In a Windows XP system, the real-time data. 72.

snap-in of the Performance console can monitor

aggregate folders from multiple locations and place them in a single, easy-to-find spot in Windows Explorer.

73.

provides a one-page aggregation of event messages, warnings, and maintenance messages.

74. Home Starter is not a valid edition of

75. The Performance console consists of two snap-ins called the Logs and Alerts. 76.

and Performance

enables you to see at a glance what's been done to the computer over a period of time, including software installations and uninstallations, failures of hardware or applications, and general uptime.

77. Windows 7 drops Reliability Monitor from this tool and calls it 78. Reliability and Performance Monitor is the tool found in Windows

. .

79. All versions of Windows provide a special folder structure for each places to store personal data. 80. The System Root in Windows XP is 81.

so users have their own

is the name of the performance utility in Windows Vista.

82. In a Windows operating system, the tool provides a handy snapshot of the system with all resource and driver information in a fairly easy-to-read report format. 83. Windows has a (n)

utility that enables a user to clean out unnecessary files.

84. Windows operating systems use a robust and secure file system called the

85. The Control Panel is populated by a large number of programs called 86.

and

are the Windows XP editions available in 64-bit

versions. 87. All 32-bit versions of Windows were designed to run on the

architecture.

88. The initial user interface for Windows XP Professional in a domain is called the . 89. The initial user interface for Windows XP, Vista, and 7 is called the 90. The Windows

is your primary interface to the computer.

91. Windows Aero offers and transparency and open windows in 3-D format.

, which allow you adjust

92. The runs along the bottom of all Windows desktops and can contain up to four areas, depending on your version and configuration of Windows. 93. The section to the right of the taskbar is called the notifications area, also known as the . 94. Characters at the end of filenames such as .EXE, .TXT, or .JPG are called file . 95. The is a Windows Vista tool that sits on the desktop and contains helper applications called Microsoft Gadgets. 96. Keys such as F1, F2, and F3 offer the user help, rename, and search menus or options. These keys are collectively known as keyboard keys. 97. To switch between open programs, press the 98. To paste text, press the

hot-key combination. hot-key combination.

99. Pressing the

Windows shortcut key combination will lock the computer.

100.The technical name of the folder where Windows is installed is 101.Windows stores offline Web pages in

. by default.

102.64-bit versions of Windows Vista and 7 store 32-bit applications in the folder. 103. The

-bit processor can access up to only 4GB of RAM.

104. The Control Panel is made up of a large number of programs called 105. The 106.

is used to configure all of the hardware and drivers in a Windows PC.

editions of Windows Vista and 7 can only be purchased directly from Microsoft, and include extra features designed for large businesses.

107. The

-bit processor can access up to 16TB of RAM.

108. The

hard-drive encryption feature is not supported by the Home or Professional

versions. 109. The

version of Windows 7 is the minimum required version for joining

domains. 110. Windows 7

includes everything that Windows 7 has to offer.

111. What tools can be accessed via the System Tools menu in Windows XP?

112. Name two Aero features that provide a faster and smoother desktop.

113. What is a system tray and what does it display?

114. What would you use in Windows Vista Business, Ultimate, or Enterprise to perform a complete PC

backup?

115. What would you use in Windows Vista to measure performance and reliability?

116. What are the startup options you can set for Services?

117. Name three different editions of Windows XP.

118. How does the Windows operating system indicate that a device has a problem?

119. What is Microsoft Management Console (MMC)?

120. What is the purpose of the Windows Services applet?

121. What would you use in Windows 7 to measure performance and reliability?

122. Where are user documents stored in Windows 7?

123. Name the editions of Windows 7:

124. The most basic and most widely released edition of Windows 7 is:

125. What provides a one-page aggregation of event messages, warnings, and maintenance messages in

Windows 7?

126. You are installing Windows on a system. What file system are you likely to install and why?

127. Which Windows XP edition includes the Media Center and PVR programs that enable you to watch and

record television and organize your media?

128. Name the four most common versions of Windows Vista.

129. Which version of Windows Vista adds an upgraded Windows Media Center PVR application similar to

the one found in Windows XP Media Center?

130. How much RAM can a 32-bit CPU use?

131. What are the four video requirements to support the Aero desktop?

132. By default, are files erased in Windows when you delete them?

133. What does Windows Vista replace My Network Places with?

134. What UI feature comes with Windows Vista that enables the use of Gadgets?

135. Which Windows key shortcut will allow you to lock the computer?

136. Which Windows key shortcut will allow you to open Windows Explorer?

137. What Windows keyboard shortcut would you use to bring up the System Properties dialog box?

138. What Windows Vista/7 tool has replaced the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard used in Windows XP?

139. What tool in Windows Vista/7 Enterprise and Ultimate editions allows you to encrypt files, folders, or

entire hard drives?

140. Which Microsoft XP operating solution designed for tablet PCs is not tested on the A+ exam?

141. Which tool in Windows 7 provides a one-page aggregation of event messages, warnings, and

maintenance messages?

142. Which version of Windows does Windows 7 "fix"?

143. Which edition is the most basic and most widely released edition of Windows 7?

144. Which is the only version of Windows to use the Sidebar?

145. Which tool in Windows 7 tracks CPU, memory, disk, and network usage on your computer and displays

that information in a wide variety of charts and graphs?

146. Which file system did the Windows 9x versions use?

147. Which versions of Windows contain the Activate Windows tool?

148. Which hot key's function is to "Undo last command"?

149. "My Network Places" in XP has been replaced with what in Vista and Windows 7?

150. What is a new feature in Windows 7 that creates links to files and folders and collects them in one place?

Chapter 04_Visible Windows Key 1. (p. 78) C 2. (p. 78) C 3. (p. 82) D 4. (p. 83) B 5. (p. 84) C 6. (p. 99) B 7. (p. 92) C 8. (p. 99) B 9. (p. 93) A 10. (p. 104) C 11. (p. 100) B 12. (p. 101) C 13. (p. 101) B 14. (p. 110) C 15. (p. 112) C 16. (p. 65) A 17. (p. 73) C 18. (p. 74) A 19. (p. 91) B 20. (p. 100) A 21. (p. 101) B 22. (p. 103) C 23. (p. 96) C 24. (p. 65) C 25. (p. 66) C 26. (p. 65) D 27. (p. 69) A 28. (p. 72) D 29. (p. 74) B 30. (p. 76) C 31. (p. 76) C 32. (p. 77) A 33. (p. 80) A 34. (p. 83) C 35. (p. 88) B 36. (p. 96) C

37. (p. 92) C 38. (p. 92) B 39. (p. 92) D 40. (p. 93) B 41. (p. 93) C 42. (p. 94) B 43. (p. 94) A 44. (p. 72) D 45. (p. 79) C 46. (p. 74) A 47. (p. 90) D 48. (p. 74) A 49. (p. 93) C 50. (p. 84) B 51. (p. 79) Aero Desktop 52. (p. 107) Files and Settings Transfer Wizard 53. (p. 108) Scheduled Tasks 54. (p. 110) Microsoft Management Console (MMC) 55. (p. 84) "pinned" 56. (p. 108) System Restore 57. (p. 110) command line, command-line interface, or command prompt 58. (p. 110) snap-ins 59. (p. 88) Tools | Folder Options | View tab or the View tab on the Folder Options dialog box 60. (p. 92) Recycle Bin 61. (p. 100) Control Panel 62. (p. 83) taskbar 63. (p. 83) Start 64. (p. 112) Administrative Tools 65. (p. 86) file extensions, or just extensions 66. (p. 100) System 67. (p. 101) Device Manager 68. (p. 113) Event Viewer 69. (p. 113) Event Viewer 70. (p. 112) Administrative Tools 71. (p. 113) System Monitor 72. (p. 90) Libraries 73. (p. 115) Action Center 74. (p. 65) Windows 7

75. (p. 113) System Monitor 76. (p. 114) Reliability Monitor 77. (p. 114) Performance Monitor 78. (p. 114) Vista 79. (p. 89) user account 80. (p. 94) C:\Windows 81. (p. 114) Reliability and Performance Monitor 82. (p. 104) System Information 83. (p. 106) Disk Cleanup 84. (p. 66) NT File System (NTFS) 85. (p. 100) applets 86. (p. 65) Windows XP Home; Windows XP Professional 87. (p. 76) x86 88. (p. 78) Logon screen 89. (p. 78) Welcome screen 90. (p. 78) Desktop 91. (p. 80) Transparency; Flip 3D 92. (p. 82) taskbar 93. (p. 83) System tray 94. (p. 86) extensions 95. (p. 92) Windows Sidebar 96. (p. 93) function 97. (p. 93) Alt-Tab 98. (p. 94) Ctrl-V 99. (p. 94) Windows Key-L 100. (p. 94) %SystemRoot% 101. (p. 95) %SystemRoot%\Offline Files 102. (p. 96) C:\Program Files (x86) 103. (p. 74) 32 104. (p. 100) applets 105. (p. 101) Device Manager 106. (p. 72) Enterprise 107. (p. 74) 64 108. (p. 72) BitLocker 109. (p. 74) Professional 110. (p. 74) Ultimate 111. (p. 104) Activate Windows, Backup, Character Map, Disk Cleanup, Disk Defragmenter, Files and Settings Transfer Wizard, Scheduled Tasks, Security Center, System Information, and System Restore 112. (p. 80) Transparency and Flip 3D

113. (p. 83) The section on the right end of the taskbar is called the system tray. It displays the system time and icons for various programs such as the network status, volume controls, and icons for battery state and PC Card status on laptops. 114. (p. 106) Windows Complete PC Backup 115. (p. 114) Reliability and Performance Monitor 116. (p. 115) Automatic (Delayed Start), Automatic, Manual, and Disabled 117. (p. 65) Windows XP Professional, Windows XP Home, and Windows XP Media Center 118. (p. 103) In the Windows Device Manager, a device with a problem—for example, a resource allocation conflict—is indicated with a red "X" or a black exclamation point. 119. (p. 110) The MMC is a shell program in Windows that holds individual configuration utilities called snap-ins. 120. (p. 115) The Services applet enables the user to view the status of all services available on the system, including the services that are not running. 121. (p. 108) Resource Monitor 122. (p. 97) C:\Users\<User Name>\My Documents. 123. (p. 65) Windows 7 Starter, Home Basic, Home Premium, Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise. 124. (p. 73) Windows 7 Home Premium, which includes a lot of media functionality and some advanced network functions. 125. (p. 115) Action Center 126. (p. 66) NTFS. It is far more powerful than FAT or FAT32 and includes significant security features. 127. (p. 71) Windows XP Media Center 128. (p. 65) Windows Vista Home Basic, Windows Vista Home Premium, Windows Vista Business, and Windows Vista Ultimate 129. (p. 72) Windows Vista Home Premium 130. (p. 74) A 32-bit CPU can only use a maximum of 4 gigabytes of RAM. 131. (p. 80) DirectX 9 capability or better, At least 128 megabytes of video RAM, Windows Display Driver Model (WDDM) driver, and Pixel Shader version 2.0 132. (p. 92) No. They are moved to the Recycle Bin. 133. (p. 92) Network is used in Windows Vista to show all current network connections. 134. (p. 92) Windows Sidebar is a tool that sits on the desktop and enables small helper applications—called Microsoft Gadgets—to run. 135. (p. 94) Windows Key-L 136. (p. 94) Windows Key-E. 137. (p. 94) Hold down the Windows key and press the Pause key. 138. (p. 107) Vista and 7's Windows Easy Transfer is an aggressively updated version of the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard from Windows XP. 139. (p. 72, 74) BitLocker 140. (p. 65) Windows XP Tablet PC Edition. 141. (p. 115) Action Center 142. (p. 73) Windows Vista 143. (p. 73) Windows 7 Home Premium. 144. (p. 92) Windows Vista 145. (p. 108) Resource Monitor 146. (p. 66) FAT. 147. (p. 105) All versions of XP, Vista, and 7 148. (p. 93) CTRL-Z

149. (p. 92) "Network" 150. (p. 90) Libraries

Chapter 04_Visible Windows Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 04

# of Questions 66 17 67 150

Chapter 05_Visible Networks Student:

Which topology has all of the computers on the network connecting to a central wiring point? A. Bus B. Ring C. Star D. Mesh

In which topology do all computers connect to the network via a main line? A. Bus B. Ring C. Star D. Mesh

In which topology do all computers on the network attach to a central ring of cable? A. Bus B. Mesh C. Star D. Ring

Which topology connects each computer to every other computer via a dedicated line? A. Bus B. Mesh C. Star D. Ring

Which topology combines aspects of the other topologies? A. Mesh B. Ring C. Hybrid D. Star

Which topology describes how the network is laid out on paper, similar to an electronic schematic? A. Logical B. Physical C. Hybrid D. Mesh

Which topology describes the actual layout of the computer network, with cables running diagonally through the ceiling space or snaking their way through walls? A. Logical B. Physical C. Hybrid D. Mesh

What is a practical application of a topology and other critical standards? A. A network technology B. A logical topology C. A physical topology D. A domain

Data is moved from one PC to another in discrete chunks called A. messages B. bursts C. packets D. frames

10. How long is a MAC address? A. 64 bits B. 32 bits C. 48 bits D. 16 bits 11. How are MAC addresses represented? A. 32 binary digits B. 12 hexadecimal characters C. IP address D. DNS name 12. All network interfaces cards (NICs) made have what item "burned" into them? A. Domain name B. DNS name C. IP address D. MAC address 13. A frame contains all of the following EXCEPT: A. MAC address of the sending NIC B. MAC address of the receiving NIC C. IP address D. A cyclic redundancy check (CRC) 14. Digital Equipment, Intel, and Xerox invented the first network in the mid-1970s and created what eventually became . A. Ethernet B. NetBEUI C. TCP/IP D. NetBIOS 15. Regardless of the different cables or connectors, all sub-flavors of Ethernet use the same . A. cabling B. frame type C. connectors D. packet 16. Which of the following speeds is NOT typically employed by Ethernet? A. 10BaseT B. 100BaseT C. 1,000BaseT D. 10,000BaseT 17. What is the general cable distance limit of an Ethernet segment? A. 300 yards B. 1000 meters C. 1 mile D. 100 meters

18. Which device makes all computers share a given bandwidth? A. Switch B. Hub C. Router D. DNS server 19. Which connector is typically used in Ethernet? A. RJ-45 B. RJ-ll C. RG-58 D. AWG 22-26 20. Which organization established the UTP cable categories? A. CompTIA B. Microsoft C. TIA/EIA D. Cisco 21. Which of the following is a valid NetBIOS name? A. BOBBY-PC B. Mike-PC C. Mike1 D. accounting1 22. Who receives a broadcast sent to the MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF? A. The router B. Every computer on the segment C. The sending computer D. A specified destination computer 23. What is useful for resolving MAC addresses, but eats up bandwidth? A. Switches B. Broadcasts C. Routers D. Unicasts 24. A group of computers that is able to hear each other when one of them sends a broadcast is called a . A. LAN B. WAN C. DOMAIN D. WORKGROUP 25. A wide-spread group of computers connected using long-distance technologies is called a . A. LAN B. WAN C. DOMAIN D. WORKGROUP 26. What device typically separates broadcast domains? A. Domain controller B. DNS server C. Switch D. Router

27. Which protocol is not suited for larger networks because it is broadcast-based? A. TCP/IP B. DNS C. NetBIOS/NetBEUI D. Ethernet 28. What type of address consists of four sets of eight binary numbers (octets) separated by a period? A. IP address B. MAC address C. DNS address D. DHCP address 29. What tells the computer what part of its IP address is the network ID? A. IP address B. MAC address C. Domain name D. Subnet mask 30. What's the minimum number of IP addresses that a router must have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 0 D. 3 31. What is a method used to correlate IP addresses with more human-friendly designations? A. TCP/IP B. DHCP C. DNS D. NetBEUI 32. What does the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) regulate? A. Ethernet standards B. CAT ratings C. Top-level domains D. TIA/EIA 568 specifications 33. Which of the following is an example of a domain name? A. 192.168.24.1 B. www.totalsem.com C. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF D. BOBBY-PC 34. All of the following items are typically entered when configuring IP information EXCEPT: A. IP address B. Subnet mask C. Default gateway D. MAC address 35. If the "Obtain an IP address automatically" option is selected, which protocol will be used? A. DNS B. DHCP C. TCP/IP D. NetBIOS 36. Which protocol provides your computer with all the IP information it needs to get on the network? A. DHCP B. DNS C. NetBIOS D. TCP/IP

37. Which device keeps databases of IP addresses and their corresponding names? A. Switch B. Domain controller C. DNS server D. Router 38. What is needed to allow your computer to send data to anything outside your network ID? A. MAC address B. Default gateway C. DNS server D. DHCP server 39. What is the range of numbers for each octet of an IP address? A. 0-1024 B. 00-FF C. 0-255 D. 1-256 40. What type of cabling is rarely seen in networking implementations? A. CAT 6 B. CAT 5 C. Unshielded twisted pair D. Shielded twisted pair 41. Which of the following is NOT one of the three network organizations? A. Workgroup B. Domain C. Homegroup D. Broadcast domain 42. In which type of network organization are all systems connected to the network equal? A. Domain B. Workgroup C. LAN D. WAN 43. Which network organization model offers centralized security and control? A. Domain B. Workgroup C. LAN D. WAN 44. What are the systems called that run a server product and hold the domain's user accounts? A. DNS servers B. Homegroups C. Domain controllers D. Workgroup managers 45. Which of the following do not use or require local user accounts? A. Segments B. Workgroups C. Homegroups D. Domains 46. Homegroups were introduced in which version of Windows? A. Windows 7 B. Windows Vista C. Windows XP D. Windows 95

47. What are shared by default in a homegroup? A. Folders B. Libraries C. Files D. Hardware 48. How many homegroups can a computer be a member of at one time? A. 1 B. 5 C. 10 D. 2 49. Which of the following are NOT sharing options when configuring homegroups? A. Specific people B. Nobody C. Homegroup (Read/Write) D. Everyone 50. All homegroup data is A. readable B. compressed C. encrypted D. copied 51.

between systems.

is the physical and logical design for the network to connect all of the computers together.

52. A 53. The

topology connects each computer to every other computer via a dedicated line. topology is how the network is laid out on paper, similar to an electronic schematic.

54. A is a practical application of a topology and other critical standards to provide a method to get data from one computer to another on a network. 55. Data is moved from one PC to another in discrete chunks called 56. The 57.

is 48 bits long, providing more than 281 trillion MAC addresses. contain the MAC address of the network card to which the data is being sent.

58. A data check to verify that the data was received in good order is called a 59.

invented the first network in the mid-1970s and created what eventually became the Ethernet standard.

60. Most modern Ethernet networks employ one of three speeds, 10BaseT, 100BaseT, or 61. Modern Ethernet networks all use a

topology.

62.

improve bandwidth drastically by putting the computer on its own separate network.

63. The connection between a computer and a switch is called a 64. Ethernet segments are generally limited to 65.

cabling is the specified cabling for 10/100/1,000BaseT and is the predominant cabling system used today.

66. Twisted pair cabling consists of

gauge wire twisted together into color-coded pairs.

67. UTP cables come in categories that define the maximum speed at which data can be transferred, called . 68. UTP categories fall under the 69.

specification.

cabling consists of twisted pairs of wires surrounded by shielding to protect them from EMI, or electromagnetic interference.

70. 10BaseT and 100BaseT standards require 71. 100BaseT requires at least

pairs.

to run.

72. 1,000BaseT needs all four pairs of wires in a

cable.

73.

connects your telephone to the telephone jack in the wall of your house.

74.

is the standard for UTP connectors.

75. The 76.

has two standards for connecting the RJ-45 connector to the UTP cable. take care of addressing, security, and other functions.

77. Protocols are combined into groups, called 78. During the 1980s, IBM developed the Windows. 79.

. , the default protocol for early versions of

protocol handled naming conventions, while

chopped up data for delivery via

frames. 80. The larger the network is, the more bandwidth

eat up.

81. WANs are typically connected via one or more 82. 83.

use broadcasting to send frames to their computers on the network. is a suite of network protocols invented in 1983 that quickly became the de facto protocol suite for any computer connecting to the Internet.

84. The

is the unique identification number for your system on the network.

85. IP addresses consist of four sets of eight binary numbers (octets) separated by a 86. The octet numbers range from 0 to 255—this is called

87. Every computer in the same broadcast domain as a computer will have some numbers in common— called the . 88. Routers are devices that have at least two 89. Special computers, called names.

, keep databases of IP addresses and their corresponding

90. The Internet has regulated domain names and domain name qualifiers, called 91. When configuring IP information, the 92. The 93.

is the IP address on the LAN side of your router.

service makes manual IP address configuration unnecessary. are the most basic and simplistic of the three network organizations.

94.

work well for smaller networks because there are fewer users, connections, and security concerns.

95.

reside on the domain controllers instead of local PCs.

96. Computers on the network must join a

to access resources.

97. Microsoft introduced a new feature in Windows 7 called 98. All homegroup data is 99. Each

between systems.

can be a member of only one homegroup at a time.

100.The

regulates the TLDs.

101.How does DNS work?

102.What are the most common network topologies?

103.Describe the star topology.

104.What is meant by hybrid topology?

105.What is the difference between the logical topology of a network and the physical one?

106.What are the characteristics of a network technology?

107.What does every NIC made have?

108.How do we represent MAC addresses?

109.What do frames contain?

110.How did the Ethernet standard develop?

111.What is common to all flavors of Ethernet?

112.How does a star-bus topology help a network stay functioning?

113.Describe twisted-pair cabling.

114.Describe CAT levels.

115.Who established CAT levels?

116.What is shielded twisted pair (STP)?

117.What two types of RJ connectors are used for networking?

118.Describe RJ-11.

119.What are the two primary standards used for connecting the RJ-45 connector to the UTP cable?

120.Describe the color-coding scheme in UTP cabling.

121.Discuss network protocols.

122.Discuss how NetBIOS/NetBEUI communicates on the network.

123.What is a LAN?

124.What is a broadcast domain?

125.What is a WAN?

126.How are broadcast domains separated?

127.Why is NetBIOS/NetBEUI not used in WANs?

128.Describe TCP/IP.

129.Describe an IP address.

130.What is a subnet mask?

131.What is a default gateway?

132.What device has at least two IP addresses: one that connects to your LAN's switch and one that connects to the "next network"?

133.Describe top-level domains (TLDs).

134.What items are configured when entering IP address information into a host?

135.Describe DHCP.

136.What is the most basic and simplistic of the three network organizations?

137.What is an advantage of using workgroups?

138.What do workgroups lack that domains can provide?

139.What are the three workgroup options?

140.What does a domain use that a workgroup does not?

141.What type of network organization do larger networks that need more control use?

142.How do domains handle resource access?

143.What do domains require to run?

144.What are systems that store domain user accounts called?

145.How is logging on to a domain different than logging on to a local PC?

146.Homegroups were designed around what basic idea?

147.In what versions of Windows do homegroups appear?

148.How are homegroups accessed in terms of accounts?

149.What four options are given in terms of sharing homegroups to users?

150.When can additional libraries or even folders be shared in homegroups?

Chapter 05_Visible Networks Key 1. (p. 128) C 2. (p. 128) A 3. (p. 128) D 4. (p. 128) B 5. (p. 128) C 6. A 7. (p. 129) B 8. (p. 129) A 9. (p. 130) D 10. (p. 130) C 11. (p. 130) B 12. (p. 130) D 13. (p. 130) C 14. (p. 131) A 15. (p. 131) B 16. (p. 131) D 17. (p. 132) D 18. (p. 132) B 19. (p. 133) A 20. (p. 133) C 21. (p. 135) A 22. (p. 135) B 23. (p. 135) B 24. (p. 137) A 25. (p. 136) B 26. (p. 137) D 27. (p. 137) C 28. (p. 137) A 29. (p. 138) D 30. (p. 138) B 31. (p. 138) C 32. (p. 139) C 33. (p. 139) B 34. (p. 139) D 35. (p. 139) B 36. (p. 139) A

37. (p. 138) C 38. (p. 138) B 39. (p. 137) C 40. (p. 133) D 41. (p. 141) D 42. (p. 141) B 43. (p. 141) A 44. (p. 145) C 45. (p. 145) D 46. (p. 147) A 47. (p. 147) B 48. (p. 147) A 49. (p. 150) D 50. (p. 148) C 51. (p. 128) Topology 52. (p. 128) mesh 53. (p. 129) logical 54. (p. 129) network technology 55. (p. 130) frames 56. (p. 130) MAC address 57. (p. 130) Frames 58. (p. 131) cyclic redundancy check (CRC) 59. (p. 131) Digital Equipment, Intel, and Xerox 60. (p. 131) 1,000BaseT 61. (p. 131) star bus 62. (p. 132) Switches 63. (p. 132) segment 64. (p. 132) 100 meters or less 65. (p. 133) Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) 66. (p. 133) AWG 22-26 67. (p. 133) CAT Levels 68. (p. 133) TIA/EIA 568 69. (p. 133) Shielded twisted pair (STP) 70. (p. 133) two 71. (p. 133) CAT 5 72. (p. 133) CAT 5e or CAT 6 73. (p. 133-134) RJ-11 74. (p. 133) RJ-45

75. (p. 134) TIA/EIA 76. (p. 135) Network protocols 77. (p. 135) protocol stacks 78. (p. 135) NetBIOS Extended User Interface (NetBEUI) 79. (p. 135) NetBIOS; NetBEUI 80. (p. 135) broadcasts 81. (p. 136) routers 82. (p. 136) LANs 83. (p. 137) TCP/IP 84. (p. 137) IP address 85. (p. 137) period 86. (p. 137) dotted-decimal notation 87. (p. 137) network ID 88. (p. 138) IP addresses 89. (p. 138) domain name service (DNS) servers 90. (p. 139) top level domains (TLDs) 91. (p. 138) default gateway 92. (p. 139) DHCP 93. (p. 141) Workgroups 94. (p. 141) Workgroups 95. (p. 141) User accounts 96. (p. 145) domain 97. (p. 147) HomeGroup 98. (p. 148) encrypted 99. (p. 147) computer 100. (p. 139) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) 101. (p. 138) When a domain name is used, such as www.totalsem.com, in an Internet browser, the computer queries the DNS server to get www.totalsem.com's IP address and use that to find the right machine. 102. (p. 128) The most common network topologies are called bus, ring, star, and mesh. 103. (p. 128) A star topology has all of the computers on the network connecting to a central wiring point (usually called a switch). 104. (p. 128) There are hybrid topologies, such as star bus or star ring, which combine aspects of more than one topology. 105. (p. 129) The logical topology is how the network is laid out on paper, with nice straight lines and boxes, similar to an electronic schematic. The physical topology describes the actual physical layout of the computer network, with cables running diagonally through the ceiling space or snaking their way through walls. 106. (p. 129) A network technology defines many aspects of a network, from the topology to the frame type, cabling, and connectors used— everything necessary to get data from one computer to another. 107. (p. 130) Every network interface card (NIC) in the world has a built-in identifier, a binary address unique to that single network card, called a media access control (MAC) address. 108. (p. 130) MAC addresses are binary, but we represent them by using 12 hexadecimal characters. 109. (p. 130-131) Frames contain the MAC address of the network card to which the data is being sent, the MAC address of the network card that sent the data, the data itself (varies in size depending on the type of frame), and a data check to verify that the data was received in good order (called a cyclic redundancy check—CRC).

110. (p. 131) Digital Equipment, Intel, and Xerox invented the first network in the mid-1970s and created what eventually became the Ethernet standard. 111. (p. 131) Over the years, Ethernet has gotten faster and used different types of cabling, resulting in sub-flavors of Ethernet—but ALL use the same frame type. 112. (p. 131) A star bus network does not go down if a single cable breaks—but it does if the switch or hub breaks. 113. (p. 132-133) Twisted pair cabling consists of AWG 22-26-gauge wire twisted together into color-coded pairs. Each wire is individually insulated and encased as a group in a common jacket. 114. (p. 133) UTP cables come in categories that define the maximum speed at which data can be transferred (also called bandwidth). Major categories include CAT 1, 3, 5. 5e, 6, and 6a. 115. (p. 133) The Telecommunication Industry Association/Electronics Industries Alliance (TIA/EIA) establishes the UTP categories, which fall under the TIA/EIA 568 specification. 116. (p. 133) Shielded twisted pair is cable consisting of twisted pairs of wires surrounded by shielding to protect them from EMI, or electromagnetic interference. It is rare to see, usually found only in locations with excessive electronic noise or areas requiring very high security. 117. (p. 133) RJ-11 and RJ-45 118. (p. 133) RJ-11 connects your telephone to the telephone jack in the wall of your house. It supports up to two pairs of wires, though most phone lines use only one pair. The other pair is used to support a second phone line. RJ-11 connectors are primarily used for telephone-based Internet connections and are not used in any common LAN installation. 119. (p. 134) The TIA/EIA has two standards for connecting the RJ-45 connector to the UTP cable: the TIA/EIA 568A (T568A) and the TIA/EIA 568B (T568B). Both are acceptable to use. 120. (p. 134) The wires in UTP are color-coded with a standardized color and match to a particular pin (1-8) in the connector. The TIA/EIA standards indicate which color is matched to each pin. 121. (p. 135) Network protocols take the incoming data received by the network card, keep it organized, send it to the application that needs it, and then take outgoing data from the application and hand it to the NIC to be sent out over the network. Network protocols take care of addressing, security, and other functions. Protocols are combined into groups, called protocol stacks. 122. (p. 135) NetBIOS/NetBEUI was great for small networks, but it relied on individual computers sending out frames addressed to the MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF—which meant everybody. This is called broadcasting. Broadcasts eat up bandwidth, but they're great for a node trying to get a MAC address for another node. However, the larger the network is, the more bandwidth broadcasts eat up. 123. (p. 136) A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers that are close to each other, almost always a group of computers that are able to "hear" each other when one of them sends a broadcast. 124. (p. 136) If a group of computers (a LAN) are connected by one or more switches, they are called a broadcast domain. 125. (p. 136) A wide area network (WAN) is a wide-spread group of computers (LANs) connected using long-distance technologies. WANs are typically connected via one or more routers. 126. (p. 136) Routers separate LANs (broadcast domains) and do not typically forward broadcasts between two LANs. 127. (p. 137) NetBIOS/NetBEUI was great for a single LAN, but because it is broadcast-based it was not able to function across routers. 128. (p. 137) TCP/IP is a suite of network protocols invented in 1983 that quickly became the de facto protocol suite for any computer connecting to the Internet. 129. (p. 137) An IP address is the unique identification number for your system on the network. Part of the address identifies the network, and part identifies the local computer (host) address on the network. IP addresses consist of four sets of eight binary numbers (octets) separated by a period. 130. (p. 138) Every computer in the same broadcast domain as this computer will have some numbers in common—this is called the network ID, and computers having the same network IDs are said to be on the same network or LAN. The subnet mask tells the computer what part of its IP address is the network ID. 131. (p. 138) The IP address of the LAN side of your router (the port connected to your LAN) is the address your computer needs to send data to anything outside your network ID. This is called the default gateway. 132. (p. 138) A router 133. (p. 139) The Internet has regulated domain names and domain name qualifiers, called top level domains (TLDs). New TLDs are added occasionally to keep up with the changing Internet. The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) regulates the TLDs. 134. (p. 139) When you're configuring a computer to connect to a network, you must enter the IP address, the subnet mask, default gateway, and at least one DNS server. 135. (p. 139-140) If you have DHCP running on your network and your computer is configured to obtain an IP address automatically, your computer boots up and will broadcast a DHCP request. The DHCP server provides your computer with all the IP information it needs to get on the network, and it makes manual IP address configuration unnecessary.

136. (p. 141) The workgroup 137. (p. 141) Workgroups work well for smaller networks because there are fewer users, connections, and security concerns. 138. (p. 145) Workgroups lack centralized control over the network. Domains offer centralized security and control. 3. You can use one account on all computers. Everyone logs in with the same account and all shares are by default assigned to the same account. 2. You can create the same accounts (same user name and same password) on all the computers and give sharing permissions to all the users for all the shares. 1. You can make people log in using another user account on the computer that has the shares. 139. (p. 144) Three options to enable resource access in a workgroup are:

140. (p. 145) Domain accounts. 141. (p. 145) Domains 142. (p. 145) Domains make it possible to track each user, each resource, and what each user can do to each resource. 143. (p. 145) Domains require a computer running a version of Windows Server, usually Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2. However, Windows Server 2003 can also implement domains. 144. (p. 145) Systems running the Windows Server products that store domain accounts are called domain controllers (DC). 145. (p. 146) When logging on to a domain, Windows prompts for a username instead of showing all of the domain users on the network. A user can use the <domain>\<domain user name> format to log on if needed. One of the key features of domains is the ability to log on to any computer on the domain using the same domain account (called single sign-on); no local computer accounts are needed. 146. (p. 147) Homegroup uses the idea that people want to connect data, not folders. 147. (p. 147) Microsoft introduced this feature in Windows 7. 148. (p. 148) A homegroup connects a group of computers using a common password—no special user names are required. 149. (p. 150) The four sharing options are: Nobody (the item is not shared), Homegroup (Read), Homegroup (Read/Write), and Specific people. 150. (p. 150) Sharing additional libraries or even folders is done by right-clicking on an item after the homegroup is set up.

Chapter 05_Visible Networks Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 05

# of Questions 28 32 90 150

Chapter 06_Microprocessors Student:

How many clock cycles does the CPU require to act on a command? A. At least two B. At least three C. At least four D. At least five

One billion cycles per second is equivalent to A. 1 gigahertz B. 1 hertz C. 1 megahertz D. 1 terahertz

How many bits make up a byte? A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32

Four bits make up a A. byte B. nibble C. quad D. word

64 bits make up a A. byte B. nibble C. quad word D. double word

Which of the following stores the data that the CPU actively uses? A. CD B. Floppy diskette C. Hard drive D. RAM

1 megabyte is equivalent to A. 1,048,476 B. 1,048,576 C. 10,048,576 D. 10,480,576

Which of the following is equivalent to 1024 bytes? A. 1 kilobyte B. 1 megabyte C. 1 nanobyte D. 1 terabyte

The CPU uses a series of actions to complete a task. What is this series of actions called? A. Core B. Thread C. Pipeline D. Cycle

bytes.

10. Which of the following terms is used to define the first cache that the CPU uses? A. L1 cache B. L2 cache C. L3 cache D. L4 cache 11. What kind of RAM is cache typically made of? A. Fast RAM B. Cool RAM C. Multi-RAM D. SRAM 12. What is used to hold a CPU in place? A. ZIF B. ZAF C. ZAP D. ZOO 13. What cache was historically on the motherboard but now often comes on the CPU? A. L1 B. L2 C. Motherboard cache D. CPU cache 14. CPUs typically run faster than the clock. What do they use to do this? A. Dividers B. Speed enhancers C. Speed uppers D. Multipliers 15. All of the following are general-purpose CPU registers EXCEPT: A. AX B. CX C. DX D. SX 16. Main system memory is usually called: A. DRAM B. SRAM C. BRAM D. CRAM 17. What typically connects a CPU to RAM? A. Bus B. Clock C. MCC D. EDB 18. Intel's Pentium and Celeron series of CPUs are intended for which target market? A. Mobile devices B. Budget Desktop PCs C. Servers D. Mainstream/enthusiast desktop

19. Which of the following is an important difference between desktops and mobile devices, in terms of CPU needs? A. Mobile devices need to consume more electricity. B. Desktops run with less heat. C. Mobile devices need to consume less electricity. D. Desktops require extended battery life. 20. What newer technology automatically configures CPU multipliers and speeds? A. CPUID B. Jumpers C. MMX D. SRAM 21. How much RAM can a 64-bit processor theoretically access? A. 4 GB B. 16 GB C. 4 EB D. 16 EB 22. Which technology allows a computer to run more than one operating system at a time? A. Multiplying B. Pipelining C. Virtualization D. Caching 23. Newer CPUs process instructions and commands in what type of execution? A. Linear B. Parallel C. Serial D. Caching 24. All of the following are stages in the pipelining process EXCEPT: A. Read B. Fetch C. Decode D. Execute 25. What is the practical limit for modern CPU clock speeds? A. 3 GHz B. 4 GHz C. 5 GHz D. 8× 26. Because CPU makers can't make the processors run much quicker, they are instead doing what? A. Combining multiple CPUs on a single chip B. Combining L1 and L2 cache onto the motherboard C. Making the RAM run quicker D. Raising their prices 27. Which term describes the four-step process a CPU uses to execute? A. Pipelining B. Caching C. Preloading D. Bursting

28. If the number of wires in a CPU's address bus is 20, what is the maximum amount of RAM the CPU can handle? A. 1,048,576 bytes B. 302 bytes C. 260 megabits D. 2120 kilobytes 29. What type of RAM is used in the CPU's cache? A. BRAM B. CRAM C. DRAM D. SRAM 30. Which cache on the CPU is used first? A. L3 B. L2 C. L1 D. L0 31. Combining many CPUs) into a single chip is called: A. Multiprocessor processing B. Multicore processing C. Hyper-threading D. Multi-threading 32. What chip, in modern CPUs, optimizes the flow of information into and out of the CPU? A. IMC B. MCC C. SRAM D. DRAM 33. Which type of processor is sometimes integrated with the CPU to handle certain tasks more efficiently, such as video processing? A. L2 B. MCC C. IMC D. GPU 34. Which type of socket package do AMD chips use? A. LGA B. PGA C. VGA D. GPU 35. What technology is designed to help prevent damage to CPUs when they are installed? A. Socket Lock B. LGA C. PGA D. ZIF 36. Which type of coolers are heat-sink and fan assemblies that are included with a retail-boxed CPU? A. Liquid coolers B. OEM CPU coolers C. Specialized CPU coolers D. internal coolers

37. What is applied to the CPU before attaching the heat-sink/fan assembly? A. Alcohol prep B. Protective film C. Thermal compound D. Glue 38. What performance-enhancing technique usually voids most manufacturers' warranties? A. Overclocking B. Underclocking C. Overpowering D. Undercooling 39. Which type of socket package do Intel processors use? A. LGA B. PGA C. L1 D. L2 40. A sudden CPU shutdown usually indicates what condition? A. Faulty RAM B. Overclocking C. Overheating D. Faulty IMC 41. A catastrophic failure is usually indicated by any of the following EXCEPT: A. Overheated or burnt components B. Sudden computer shutdown C. Windows Stop Error D. Increased system performance 42. What tells the CPU what to do with the data in the registers? A. MCC B. Instruction Set C. Registers D. IMC 43. Which component requires a constant electrical charge and a periodic refresh of the circuits? A. DRAM B. SRAM C. MCC D. GPU 44. Which of the following CPUs are targeted at the mobile device platform? A. AMD Turion B. AMD Opteron C. Intel Xeon D. Intel Pentium 45. Which type of cache was originally located outside the CPU on the motherboard, but has since been relocated to the CPU for better performance? A. AX B. L1 C. L3 D. L2

46. In early computers, the CPU ran at the same speed as which component? A. Motherboard B. RAM C. Address Bus D. Hard disks 47. How much RAM can 32-bit processors access? A. Up to 16 EB B. Up to 16 GB C. Up to 4 GB D. Up to 4 EB 48. Which technology enables the CPU to simulate the actions of a second processor? A. Emulation B. Multithreading C. Multicore processing D. Virtualization 49. What performance enhancement is accomplished through jumpers, CMOS settings, or software configuration? A. Multicore processing B. Virtualization C. Hyper-Threading D. Overclocking 50. What technology requires that the OS and applications be written specifically to handle multiple threads? A. Emulation B. Multicore processing C. Hyper-Threading D. Virtualization 51. The communication device of the CPU is called the

52. In the binary system, the number represents the Off state.

represents the On state and the number

53. The moment.

numbering system is used to describe the state of a wire at any given

54. The temporary storage areas of a CPU are called 55. The

determines the speed at which a CPU and the rest of the PC operate.

56. The system crystal is a quartz oscillator soldered to the 57. A(n) processing.

is a series of commands sent to a CPU in a specific order for

58. Devices that hold ones and zeros that the CPU accesses are known generically as .

59. The

enables the CPU to communicate with the RAM.

60. PGA CPUs are

in shape with hundreds of tiny pins.

61. Intel designed

sockets to make CPU insertion and removal easier.

62. The memory closest to the CPU is called 63. A(n)

helps to set data aside in a special fast storage area.

64. Some CPUs include three caches. They are the caches. 65. RAM is measured in

, and

66. The CPU can access data quickest when it's stored in

67. Forcing a system to run faster than the speed it's designed for is called

68. The speed at which the CPU and the rest of the system operate is determined by the . 69. A(n)

is the series of steps that the CPU uses to process a command.

70. With

, each individual pipeline can run more than one thread at a time.

71. The connection between the CPU, the MCC, and the RAM is called the

72. Almost all current CPUs have A(n) , moved from the motherboard chip into the CPU to optimize the flow of information into and out of the CPU. 73. The video processing portion of the computer traditionally has a discrete microprocessor unique to video capabilities, known as the . 74. The connection between the CPU and the L2 cache is called the 75. The

identifies what to do with the data in the registers.

76. Computers use 77.

for the main system memory.

processors are intended for higher-end servers.

78. The CPUs of heat.

must consume as little electricity as possible, to conserve battery life and limit

79. All modern CPUs run at some multiple of the

speed.

80. Processor speeds on the motherboard are automatically configured through a function called . 81.

-bit processors can access up to 16 EB of RAM.

82. The four stages of pipelining are 83. SRAM

as many instructions as possible.

84. CPU packages with more than two CPUs are called 85. Most mobile processors run at computers.

. speeds than the processors used in desktop

86. The ability of the CPU to slow down during low demand times is called Intel CPUs. 87. When installing a CPU, you should place the CPU.

where the heat sink meets the

88. Not applying thermal compound to your heat sink can cause your system to . 89. A(n)

consists of a hollow metal block, a pump, and a cooling device.

90. Transferring and storing data to and from the CPU in byte-sized chunks is done via . 91. RAM is arranged in 92. Added 93. A(n) cool.

-sized rows. might be necessary to keep an overclocked CPU from overheating. and A(n)

for

connect to the CPU and keep it

94. The device that retrieves data from RAM and places it on the external data bus is called the .

95. Three things to consider when installing a CPU are and .

96. ZIF sockets are now universal and are easily identified by their removal arm. 97.

is done through jumpers, CMOS settings, or software configuration.

98. The motherboard uses the

functions to set CPU options automatically.

99. Apply a small amount of

to the CPU before attaching the heat sink.

100.

usually exceed the OEM heat sinks in the amount of heat they dissipate.

101.What is placed on the external bus to tell the CPU what to do?

102.What is a clock cycle?

103.List the general-purpose registers of the Intel processor.

104.What happens if the CPU is made to run faster than its clock speed?

shape and

105.What is overclocking?

106.What is a program?

107.What is memory?

108.What is the primary CPU package for AMD CPUs?

109.What is the purpose of ZIF sockets?

110.What is a 32-bit processor?

111.What is the purpose of the CPU cache (also known as RAM cache)?

112.What is the purpose of the internal cache?

113.What is a pipeline?

114.What is an integrated graphics processing unit (GPU)?

115.What is Hyper-Threading?

116.What is multicore processing?

117.Which CPUs are typically designed for the mainstream and enthusiast desktop market?

118.What runs at some multiple of the system clock speed?

119.What drove 64-bit processing to be developed?

120.How do newer CPUs support virtualization?

121.List the three different types of CPU cache.

122.Name the two primary manufacturers of processors today.

123.What makes parallel execution possible?

124.How is the integrated graphics processing unit (GPU) ideal for mobile devices?

125.What is clock speed?

126.What is a clock?

127.Define RAM.

128.What is an address bus?

129.What is one big advantage of OEM CPU coolers?

130.What is a wait state?

131.What type of very fast memory is built into the CPU?

132.What are some of the key factors in selecting a CPU?

133.What are three examples of Intel-based sockets?

134.How many pins does an AMD Socket 940 have?

135.What is used to keep CPUs within normal operating temperatures?

136.What causes CPUs to heat up?

137.For a CPU to work, what configuration items must be set properly?

138.What is used in case you need to go back to CMOS defaults?

139.What risks come with overclocking a CPU?

140.What will newer CPUs usually do before overheating?

141.What can too much heat dope (thermal paste) do to the CPU?

142.What are some factors that can cause CPU overheating?

143.What type of event is the Windows Stop error (or Blue Screen of Death) considered?

144.The Atom processor is used for what type of platform/market?

145.What are CPU code names used for?

146.What do 64-bit CPUs do for backwards compatibility?

147.What are the four stages of pipelining?

148.Which type of cache was originally located outside the CPU on the motherboard?

149.What reduces wait states by using built-in, very high-speed RAM called static RAM (SRAM)?

150.What may cause different CPUs to require different types and capacities of RAM?

Chapter 06_Microprocessors Key 1. (p. 161) A 2. (p. 162) A 3. (p. 165) B 4. (p. 165) B 5. (p. 165) C 6. (p. 165) D 7. (p. 168) B 8. (p. 168) A 9. (p. 175) C 10. (p. 178) A 11. (p. 176) D 12. (p. 184) A 13. (p. 178) B 14. (p. 173) D 15. (p. 159) D 16. (p. 165) A 17. (p. 166) C 18. (p. 171) B 19. (p. 172) C 20. (p. 174) A 21. (p. 174) D 22. (p. 174) C 23. (p. 175) B 24. (p. 175) A 25. (p. 180) B 26. (p. 180) A 27. (p. 175) A 28. (p. 167) A 29. (p. 176) D 30. (p. 178) C 31. (p. 180) B 32. (p. 181) A 33. (p. 181) D 34. (p. 184) B 35. (p. 185) D 36. (p. 186) B

37. (p. 187) C 38. (p. 189) A 39. (p. 184) A 40. (p. 190) C 41. (p. 191) D 42. (p. 160) B 43. (p. 165) A 44. (p. 171) A 45. (p. 178) D 46. (p. 162) A 47. (p. 174) C 48. (p. 179) B 49. (p. 188) D 50. (p. 180) C 51. (p. 158) external data bus 52. (p. 158) 1; 0 53. (p. 158) binary 54. (p. 159) registers 55. (p. 162) system crystal or system clock 56. (p. 162) motherboard 57. (p. 164) program 58. (p. 164) memory 59. (p. 166) MCC or address bus 60. (p. 184) square 61. (p. 185) zero insertion force (ZIF) 62. (p. 178) L1 cache 63. (p. 178) cache 64. (p. 178) L1; L2; L3 65. (p. 165) bytes 66. (p. 165) RAM or SRAM 67. (p. 188) overclocking 68. (p. 162) system crystal 69. (p. 175) pipeline 70. (p. 179) Hyper-Threading 71. (p. 178) frontside bus 72. (p. 181) integrated memory controller (IMC) 73. (p. 181) integrated graphics processing unit (GPU) 74. (p. 178) backside bus

75. (p. 160) instruction set 76. (p. 165) DRAM 77. (p. 170) Intel Xeon/Itanium 78. (p. 172) mobile devices 79. (p. 173) system clock 80. (p. 174) CPUID 81. (p. 174) 64 82. (p. 175) fetch, decode, execute, and write 83. (p. 176) preloads 84. (p. 180) multicore 85. (p. 173) lower 86. (p. 172) Speedstep 87. (p. 187) thermal compound or heat dope 88. (p. 187) overheat or fail 89. (p. 186) liquid cooling system 90. (p. 165) random access memory (RAM) 91. (p. 165) byte 92. (p. 189) cooling 93. (p. 185) heat sink; fan 94. (p. 166) memory controller chip (MCC) 95. (p. 183) socket type; cooling; performance 96. (p. 185) square or squarish 97. (p. 188) Overclocking 98. (p. 174) CPUID 99. (p. 187) thermal compound 100. (p. 186) Specialized CPU coolers 101. (p. 160) A command placed on the external data bus is called a line of code or an instruction. 102. (p. 161) A single charge to the CLK wire is called a clock cycle. 103. (p. 159) The general-purpose registers of the Intel processor are AX, BX, CX, and DX. 104. (p. 189) If the CPU is made to run faster than its clock speed, it will overheat and may stop working. 105. (p. 189) Overclocking means running a CPU faster than its maximum clock speed. 106. (p. 164) A program is a series of commands sent to a CPU in a specific order for performing a certain task. 107. (p. 164) Memory is the storage area used by devices to store ones and zeros for the CPU to access. 108. (p. 184) The primary CPU package for AMD CPUs is the pin grid array (PGA). 109. (p. 184) ZIF sockets are used to make CPU insertion and removal easier. 110. (p. 174) A processor having a 32-bit address bus and 32-bit registers is known as a 32-bit processor. 111. (p. 178) The CPU cache is used to move data from RAM to CPU. 112. (p. 178) The internal cache is used to store a backlog of commands so that when the CPU encounters a wait state, the processor processes the other commands in the cache.

113. (p. 175) A pipeline is the series of steps that the CPU needs to perform to process a command. 114. (p. 181) A graphics processor that can handle certain tasks much more efficiently than the standard CPU, so it is sometimes integrated with it 115. (p. 179) The ability of each individual pipeline to run more than one thread at a time. 116. (p. 180) A design that combines multiple CPUs (or cores) into a single chip, creating a multicore architecture and executing multiple threads at once 117. (p. 171) Intel's Core i7/i5/i3, Core 2 Duo, and AMD's Phenom II, A-Series, Phenom, Athlon X2 118. (p. 173) The CPU 119. (p. 174) Increases in EDB and address-bus size, as well as new technologies such as MMX and SSE 120. (p. 174) They enable hardware-based virtualization support, making virtualization easier and more resource efficient. 121. (p. 178) L1, L2, and L3 122. (p. 170) Intel and AMD 123. (p. 175) Multiple pipelines, dedicated cache, and the capability to work with multiple threads or programs at one time 124. (p. 181) It enhances the overall performance of the computer while reducing energy use, size, and cost. 125. (p. 161) The maximum number of clock cycles that a CPU can handle is called clock speed. 126. (p. 161) A clock is a special signal used to "crank" the CPU. 127. (p. 165) RAM is group of semiconductor chips on small cards that snap into the computer and hold data that the CPU can work with. 128. (p. 166) An address bus is a set of wires that are connected internally through the CPU to address RAM. 129. (p. 186) You know they will work with your CPU. 130. (p. 176) A wait state occurs when the CPU is going faster than RAM, causing a pipeline stall. 131. (p. 176) Static RAM (SRAM) 132. (p. 182) Get the right CPU for the right purpose; determine if the motherboard supports Intel or AMD processors, determine what type of socket the motherboard has. 133. (p. 183) LGA 775, LGA 1155, LGA 1156, LGA 1366. 134. (p. 183) 940. 135. (p. 185) A combination of heat-sink and cooling-fan assemblies. 136. (p. 185) Electrical power usage and regulation 137. (p. 188) The motherboard speed, multiplier, and voltage 138. (p. 190) The CMOS clear jumper setting 139. (p. 189) It can cause system instability, lockups, frequent reboots, or damage; and it may destroy the CPU. 140. (p. 190) Shut themselves down 141. (p. 187) It can impede the flow of heat from the CPU to the heat sink and cause the CPU to heat up rapidly. 142. (p. 190) Too much thermal paste, not enough thermal paste, faulty fan power connection, and environmental heat and/or lack of adequate ventilation 143. (p. 191) Catastrophic failure 144. (p. 192) Mobile devices 145. (p. 171) To keep track of different variations within models—CPUs labeled as the same model may have CPUs inside that are very different from earlier versions of that model. 146. (p. 174) They still support 32-bit processing for 32-bit operating systems (such as Windows XP) and 32-bit applications. 147. (p. 175) Fetch, Decode, Execute, and Write. 148. (p. 178) L2 cache

149. (p. 176) L1, L2, and L3 cache 150. (p. 181) Integrated memory controller (IMC).

Chapter 06_Microprocessors Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 06

# of Questions 24 53 73 150

Chapter 07_RAM Student:

In SDRAM, what does the S represent? A. SIMM B. Synchronous C. Speedy D. Storage

Where are programs stored when they not running? A. BIOS B. DRAM C. Hard drive D. RAM

When the user loads a program, where is it copied before it is run? A. BIOS B. Hard drive C. RAM D. ROM

What unit is used to measure the capacity of RAM? A. Bit B. Byte C. Hertz D. Meg

Which of the following is a mass storage device? A. CPU B. Cache C. Hard drive D. RAM

SDRAM comes on a stick known as a A. DIPP B. RIMP C. SIMM D. DIMM

What do most laptops use instead of a DIMM? A. CRIMM B. Micro-RIMM C. SO-DIMM D. L-DIMM

A DIMM in any one of the DIMM slots is referred to as A. a bank B. pop DIMM C. filled DIMM D. full DIMM

What was the width in bits of the original 8088 processor's frontside bus? A. 1 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16

on most modern PCs.

10. Most 8088 machine language commands need A. 1 B. 2 C. 8 D. 16

byte(s).

11. Which of the following DIMMs is used in laptops? A. 144-pin SO-DIMM B. 168-pin DIMM C. 184-pin DIMM D. 195-pin DIMM 12. How many pins are in a DDR3 DIMM? A. 72 B. 200 C. 168 D. 240 13. Modern CPUs since the Pentium have a data bus that is A. 40 B. 56 C. 55 D. 64

bits wide.

14. What is RDRAM also known as? A. RIMM B. DIPP C. SIMM D. SIPP 15. What type of computer uses the 68-pin micro-DIMM and 144-pin SO-DIMM? A. Desktop PC B. Laptop C. Mainframe D. Mobile 16. DDR SDRAM for laptops comes in A. 168-pin DIMMs B. 172-pin micro-DIMMs C. 172-pin micro-CRIMMs D. 184-pin CRIMMs

17. How many pins does a DDR3 SODIMM have? A. 241 B. 204 C. 200 D. 168 18. Which statement is true? A. DDR2 sticks will fit in DDR sockets. B. DDR2 sticks will fit in DDR3 sockets. C. DDR3 sticks will fit in DDR2 sockets. D. DDR3-1066 has a PC3-8500 PC speed rating. 19. AMD's answer to RDRAM was A. AMDRAM B. ECC DRAM C. FPM RAM D. DDR-SDRAM

20. All unused RIMM slots on an RDRAM motherboard should have a device called a them. A. CRIMM B. DIMM C. SIMM D. SO-RIMM 21. DDR SDRAM for desktops comes in A. 168-pin DIMMs B. 168-pin SIPPs C. 184-pin DIMMs D. 184-pin SIPPs

installed on

22. What does excessive disk thrashing indicate? A. Excessive RAM B. Excessive hard disk space C. Insufficient RAM D. Insufficient hard disk space 23. If Windows generates parity errors with the same addresses, the A. BIOS B. processor C. power supply D. RAM

is probably at fault.

24. What is the delay in RAM response time called? A. Parity B. ECC C. Latency D. Page fault 25. When choosing RAM for a modern system, what should you consider first? A. Technology, capacity, speed B. Non-maskable interrupts C. BSoDs D. 72-pin SIMMs 26. Which of the following is correct about the DDR speed rating of DDR400 RAM? A. It has a clock speed of 800 MHz. B. It has a clock speed of 400 MHz. C. It has a clock speed of 100 MHz. D. It has a clock speed of 200 MHz. 27. SDRAM uses the A. access B. clock C. motherboard D. system

speed.

28. The user has to install RIMMs in pairs, as the A. DRAM B. FPM RAM C. RDRAM D. SDRAM

chip employs dual-channel architecture.

29. RAM with a PC rating of PC1600 has a clock speed of A. 100 MHz B. 200 MHz C. 400 MHz D. 1600 MHz 30. RAM with a DDR2 speed rating of DDR2-800 has a core RAM clock speed of A. 100 MHz B. 200 MHz C. 400 MHz D. 800 MHz 31. RAM with a DDR2 PC speed rating of PC2-3200 has a core RAM clock speed of A. 100 MHz B. 200 MHz C. 400 MHz D. 800 MHz 32. The panic button inside the PC is called A. CRIMM B. ECC C. MI D. NMI

33. Chipsets that support a feature called triple-channel memory usually support which type of memory? A. DDR3 B. DDR2 C. SO-DIMM D. DIMM 34. What do PCs use on the hard drive as an extension of system RAM? A. L2 cache B. System file C. Page file D. SO-DIMM 35. What are the minimum system RAM requirements for Windows XP? A. 8 GB B. 4 GB C. 1 GB D. 64 MB 36. What are the minimum system RAM requirements for Windows Vista (32-bit)? A. 8 GB B. 4 GB C. 1 GB D. 64 MB 37. What are the minimum system RAM requirements for Windows 7 (64-bit)? A. 4 GB B. 2 GB C. 1 GB D. 128 MB

38. Which version of Windows comes with the Memory Diagnostics Tool, which can automatically scan your computer's RAM when you encounter a problem? A. Windows 7 B. Windows XP C. Windows 2000 D. Windows Server 2003 39. Where does the system swap programs from RAM to when the PC starts running out of real RAM? A. CRIMM B. L2 C. Page file D. ECC 40. What feature, supported by some chipsets, works a lot like dual-channel before it, but with three sticks of RAM instead of two? A. Tripled-channel memory B. B.DIMM C. Overclocking D. Parity 41. All running programs on the user's PC are stored on the

42. The memory controller chip (MCC) controls memory access to the CPU. On modern PCs the MCC handles bits. 43. Early RAM technologies used a form of error checking called 44. Instead of parity, modern servers employ motherboards that support checking. 45. Access speed of RDRAM is measured in 46. The cells.

. for error

functions like an electronic spreadsheet, with numbered rows containing

47. The average PC motherboard accepts no more than four sticks of RAM. A motherboard that accepts more (such as six or eight sticks) uses DRAM. 48. Windows XP needs

MB of RAM as a reasonable minimum.

49. The main difference between SDRAM and DRAM is that SDRAM is 50. Windows Vista needs 51. RAM sticks can be single or

GB of RAM as a reasonable minimum. sided.

52. NMIs manifest themselves to the user in the form of a blue screen called the

53. RAM slots are organized electronically into

54. The DIMM is capable of delivering

bits at a time.

55. The ratio of the width of the CPU's external data bus to the width of the SIMM or DIMM is equal to . 56.

RAM is tied to the system clock.

57. The PC needs to automatically detect any DIMM you have installed. It does this through the use of a unique chip called installed on every DIMM stick. 58. A special type of RAM called

is used for error checking on DRAM.

59. As SDRAM was not fast enough for the Pentium 4,

was developed.

60. Because RDRAM could be used only with Intel components, AMD developed 61. A passive device called 62. The

ensures that all RIMM slots are populated. doubles the output of SDRAM by making two processes every clock cycle.

63. DDR SDRAM for laptops comes in

or 172-pin micro DIMMs.

64. If a computer does not boot or you get a blank screen, you probably have not installed the correctly. 65. GDDR3 is a type of memory used solely in 66. The

cards.

stick is used in RDRAM.

67. The dual-channel DDR works only when 68. The two types of parity errors are 69. The message.

is installed in two slots. and

occurs when a Windows system locks up and shows a blue screen with an error

70. A system using DDR RAM with a 200 MHz RAM clock speed would require a PC speed rating of .

71. A system using DDR3 RAM with a 200 MHz RAM clock speed would require a PC speed rating of . 72. Bad RAM and parity errors can trigger a(n) 73. DDR SDRAM doubles the cycle. 74.

. of SDRAM by making two processes for every clock

platform supports triple-channel memory.

75. Some chipsets that support DDR3 also support a feature called 76.

processors do not support a triple-channel feature.

77. Windows uses a portion of the hard drive as an extension of system RAM, called a 78. Windows Vista 32-bit has a minimum system RAM requirement of 79. Windows 7 includes the encounter a problem.

, which can automatically scan your computer's RAM when you

80. Windows 7 64-bit has a minimum system RAM requirement of

81. Define memory.

82. How can a user determine the type of memory that a system would require to update or add memory?

83. What is a mass storage device?

84. How can excessive disk thrashing be diagnosed?

85. What is meant by random access memory?

86. What are RAM sticks?

87. What should you use while installing a SO-DIMM?

88. How does the extra ninth bit help parity checking?

89. What form of error checking was used by early RAM technologies?

90. When is the message "Parity error…" displayed?

91. Why is SDRAM called synchronous?

92. What's the worst that can happen if you mix DRAM speeds in a system?

93. What is the difference between DRAM and SDRAM?

94. List the five commonly used clock speeds for early SDRAM systems.

95. What is serial presence detect (SPD)?

96. How is DDR RAM faster than regular SDRAM?

97. What RAM was licensed by Intel to replace SDRAM?

98. List the prefixes commonly used to identify RAM for laptops.

99. What is the difference between DDR 400 and PC3200?

100.Why aren't DDR2 DIMMs and SO-DIMMS compatible with DDR DIMMs and SO-DIMMS?

101.What is the difference between a single-sided stick and a double-sided stick?

102.How can you see how much RAM you have from within a Windows operating system?

103.What is a page file?

104.What is disk thrashing?

105.What is a reasonable minimum RAM requirement for Windows XP and Vista?

106.What type of RAM should you use to take full advantage of triple-channel memory?

107.What happens if RAM is inserted into an incorrect bank?

108.Why should an anti-static wrist strap be used while installing DRAM?

109.How will a user verify added RAM in a PC?

110.What is an NMI?

111.What's the difference between PC2-3200 and DDR2-400?

112.What are phantom errors?

113.What does system lockup and page fault indicate?

114.What is the BSOD?

115.What does dual-channel DDR require?

116.Why is continuity RIMM (CRIMM) installed on a RDRAM motherboard?

117.What will tell you precisely what sort of module you need and how much RAM you can install?

118.What precautions must be taken when handling or installing DIMMs and RIMMs?

119.What is the significance of a real parity error?

120.What is dual-channel architecture?

121.How many bits of data does a modern MCC provide every time the CPU requests information?

122.What gives DDR3 such a huge boost in bandwidth over older RAM?

123.Which versions of Windows support a RAM cache or page file?

124.What are the memory requirements for Windows 7?

125.What are the minimum system memory requirements for Windows Vista?

126.What is a RAM cache?

127.How does Windows use the page file?

128.What is a page file?

129.What does Widows 7's Memory Diagnostics Tool do?

130.What are the minimum system memory requirements for Windows XP?

Chapter 07_RAM Key 1. (p. 203) B 2. (p. 199) C 3. (p. 199) C 4. (p. 203) B 5. (p. 199) C 6. (p. 203) D 7. (p. 204) C 8. (p. 204) A 9. (p. 200) C 10. (p. 200) A 11. (p. 204) A 12. (p. 208) D 13. (p. 204) D 14. (p. 204) A 15. (p. 203-204) B 16. (p. 203-204) B 17. (p. 208) B 18. (p. 208) D 19. (p. 205) D 20. (p. 205) A 21. (p. 205) C 22. (p. 213) C 23. (p. 210) D 24. (p. 209) C 25. (p. 211) A 26. (p. 206) D 27. (p. 204) B 28. (p. 204) C 29. (p. 206) A 30. (p. 207) B 31. (p. 207) A 32. (p. 220) D 33. (p. 208) A 34. (p. 211) C 35. (p. 214) D 36. (p. 211) C

37. (p. 214) B 38. (p. 221) A 39. (p. 211) C 40. (p. 208) A 41. (p. 199) RAM 42. (p. 200) 64 43. (p. 210) parity 44. (p. 210) error correction code (ECC) 45. (p. 204) MHz 46. (p. 199) DRAM 47. (p. 218) buffered or registered 48. (p. 214) 256 49. (p. 203) synchronous 50. (p. 214) 2 51. (p. 209) double 52. (p. 220) Blue Screen of Death (BSoD) 53. (p. 204) banks 54. (p. 204) 64 55. (p. 204) one bank 56. (p. 203) Synchronous 57. (p. 218) serial presence detect (SPD) 58. (p. 210) error correction code (ECC) DRAM 59. (p. 204) RDRAM 60. (p. 205) DDR SDRAM 61. (p. 205) continuity RIMM (CRIMM) 62. (p. 205) double data rate (DDR) SDRAM 63. (p. 205) 200-pin SO DIMMs 64. (p. 218) RAM sticks 65. (p. 208) video 66. (p. 204) RIMM 67. (p. 205) DDR SDRAM 68. (p. 219) real; phantom 69. (p. 220) Blue Screen of Death (BSoD) 70. (p. 205) PC3200 71. (p. 208) PC3-12800 72. (p. 220) non-maskable interrupt (NMI) 73. (p. 205) throughput 74. (p. 208) Intel's LGA 1366

75. (p. 208) triple-channel memory 76. (p. 205) AMD 77. (p. 211) RAM cache or a page file 78. (p. 211) 1 GB 79. (p. 221) Memory Diagnostics Tool 80. (p. 214) 2 GB 81. (p. 199) Any device that holds programs or data that the CPU can access via the address bus is defined as memory. 82. (p. 206) Open the system up and look, or check with the manufacturer. 83. (p. 199) A mass storage device is a device that can hold data when the computer is turned off. 84. (p. 213) Excessive disk thrashing can be diagnosed by simply observing the LED at work. Third-party tools such as Free Meter can also be used. 85. (p. 199) Random access memory means that any byte of that memory can be accessed as easily as any other byte, just like cells in a spreadsheet. 86. (p. 209) Chips soldered onto a card of some type are called RAM sticks. 87. (p. 217) You should use an anti-static wrist strap. 88. (p. 210) The extra ninth bit is used by the MCC to verify that the data is correct. 89. (p. 210) Early RAM technologies used parity as a form of error checking. 90. (p. 219) If an error is detected by the MCC, the system displays the "Parity error… "error message. 91. (p. 203) SDRAM is called synchronous because it is tied to the system clock. 92. (p. 216-217) It can result in random system lockups as often as every few seconds and loss of data. 93. (p. 204) SDRAM is tied to the system clock, whereas DRAM is not tied to the system clock. 94. (p. 204) The common clock speeds are 66 MHz, 75 MHz, 83 MHz, 100 MHz, and 133 MHz. 95. (p. 218) Serial presence detect (SPD) is a unique little chip installed on every DIMM stick that holds all the details, including its size, speed, and other technical information. 96. (p. 207) Double data rate SDRAM (DDR RAM) is faster than regular SDRAM because it doubles the throughput. 97. (p. 204) Intel licensed Rambus DRAM (RDRAM) through Rambus, Inc., to replace SDRAM. 98. (p. 203-204) Small outline (as in so-DIMM) and micro (as in micro-DIMM) 99. (p. 205-206) They are the same thing. They both have a clock speed of 200 MHz, a DDR speed rating of DDR400, and a PC speed rating of PC3200. 100. (p. 207) DDR2 DIMMs use 240 pins, and DDR2 SO-DIMMs use 200 pins. Neither will fit in DDR sockets, and they are not electronically compatible. 101. (p. 209) Single-sided sticks have chips on one side of the stick, while double-sided sticks have chips on both sides. 102. (p. 215) Select Properties for My Computer or Computer. 103. (p. 211) A page file is an area created in the hard drive that acts like virtual RAM when there is insufficient physical RAM to process data. 104. (p. 213) The process of moving the programs between RAM and the swap file excessively is called disk thrashing. 105. (p. 214) The reasonable minimum RAM requirement is 256 MB for Windows XP and 2 GB for Windows Vista. 106. (p. 208) You should use a minimum of three sticks of DDR3 RAM. 107. (p. 217) The system may not identify the RAM at boot-up if it is inserted into an incorrect bank. 108. (p. 217) All DRAM chips are extremely sensitive to static; therefore, an anti-static wrist strap should be used while installing DRAM to prevent ESD damage. 109. (p. 218) The machine will show a new RAM value, which verifies the added RAM on boot-up.

110. (p. 220) A non-maskable interrupt (NMI) is the interruption signal to the CPU; it occurs when the operating system shuts down certain functions in order to save data. 111. (p. 207) Nothing. Both have a core RAM clock speed of 100 MHz, a DDR I/O speed of 200 MHz, a DDR2 speed rating of DDR2-400, and a PC speed rating of PC2-3200. 112. (p. 220) Phantom errors are parity errors generated by Windows. 113. (p. 220) The system lockup and page fault often indicate bad RAM. 114. (p. 220) The BSOD, or Blue Screen of Death, is a blue screen with an error message on it that is displayed when a non-maskable interrupt occurs. 115. (p. 217) Two identical sticks of DDR, and they must snap into two paired slots. 116. (p. 205) RDRAM motherboards require that all RIMM slots be populated. CRIMM, a passive device, is installed in unused pairs of slots to enable the RDRAM system to terminate properly. 117. (p. 201) Your motherboard manual will tell you precisely what sort of module you need and how much RAM you can install in your system. 118. (p. 217) All RAM is extremely sensitive to static, so extreme caution must be used when working with RAM. Always use an anti-static wrist strap, available at any electronics store. SIMMs, DIMMs, and RIMMs must be handled like a piece of film, holding them only at the edges. 119. (p. 220) A real parity error will show up at the same place in memory each time, and it always indicates a bad RAM stick. 120. (p. 206) Dual-channel architecture refers to using two RAM sticks together to increase throughput. 121. (p. 202) A modern MCC provides 64 bits of data every time the CPU requests information from RAM. This is done to optimize the flow of data into and out of the CPU. 122. (p. 208) DDR3 doubles the buffer of DDR2 from 4 bits to 8 bits, includes XMP and uses higher-density memory chips. 123. (p. 211) All versions of Windows use a page file. 124. (p. 214) Minimum system requirements: 1 GB (32-bit), 2 GB (64-bit). Reasonable minimum: 2 GB. Solid performance: 4 GB. Power user: 8 GB 125. (p. 214) 1 GB (32-bit), 2 GB (64-bit). 126. (p. 211) A RAM cache is a block of cylinders on a hard drive set aside in what's called a page file, swap file, or virtual memory. 127. (p. 212) When the PC starts running out of real RAM because you've loaded too many programs, the system swaps programs from RAM to the page file, opening more space for programs currently active. 128. (p. 211) Also known as the RAM cache, it is a portion of the hard drive set aside to "swap" data to when system RAM becomes full. 129. (p. 221) It can automatically scan your computer's RAM when you encounter a problem. 130. (p. 214) 64 MB

Chapter 07_RAM Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 07

# of Questions 21 52 57 130

Chapter 08_BIOS Student:

Which of the following handles the interconnection between most of the devices and the CPU? A. Northbridge B. RAM C. ROM D. Southbridge

What are the Northbridge and the Southbridge collectively known as? A. Internal bus B. MCC C. Chipset D. Controllers

Where does the motherboard store the keyboard controller support program? A. DRAM B. Hard drive C. RAM D. ROM chip

How many MB of programs do system ROM chips store? A. 1.44 B. 2 C. 4 D. 65,536

Which of the following components is read-only? A. DRAM B. Hard disk C. RAM D. ROM

Which chip acts as a clock to keep the current date and the time? A. CMOS B. DVRAM C. RAM D. ROM

Which chip is used to store information that describes specific device parameters? A. BIOS B. CMOS C. ROM D. System BIOS

How can you easily clear the CMOS, including clearing the password? A. Unplug the PC. B. Unplug the PC and short the CMOS jumper. C. Issue a Clear CMOS command from the command line. D. This can't be done.

From where can the boot option be selected? A. Advanced BIOS Features B. Advanced Chipset Features C. CPU Soft menu D. Power management Setup

10. About 99 percent of the BIOS business is controlled by two companies. Of the following, which one is not a major BIOS manufacturer? A. Intel B. American Megatrends (AMI) C. Award Software D. Phoenix Technology 11. Which chip contains the system BIOS and can hold data permanently, even without electricity? A. Flash ROM B. NVRAM C. RAM D. ROM 12. Which chip can be reprogrammed to update its contents? A. Flash ROM B. RAM C. ROM D. System BIOS 13. Where does a SCSI host adapter store its BIOS? A. Option ROM B. Phoenix BIOS C. ROM D. System BIOS 14. Where do modern PCs store CMOS settings? A. BIOS B. Flash ROM C. NVRAM D. Southbridge 15. What's a method of clearing the CMOS password? A. Send it back to the factory. B. Flash the BIOS. C. Change the clock to 00/00/0000. D. Short a jumper on the motherboard. 16. What is POST? A. Post operative self test B. PC operating system test C. Power-on self test D. Personal overall starter test 17. The computer is beeping constantly after you've booted it. What's a likely problem? A. CPU B. Registry C. RAM D. Power supply 18. POST checks all of the following except: A. Software B. Memory C. CPU D. Video

19. What is used to change or remove device drivers in Windows? A. Control Panel B. CONFIG.SYS C. Device Manager D. SYSTEM.INI 20. Where should you look to interpret different beep codes? A. CPU manufacturer B. BIOS manufacturer C. Memory manufacturer D. Flash manufacturer 21. Where is POST located? A. System ROM B. CMOS C. POST expansion card D. RAM 22. Most modern systems have only a single beep code to indicate something is wrong. What is it? A. Three long beeps and one short beep B. One long beep and three short beeps C. A continuous set of short beeps D. A continuous set of long beeps 23. Which is the first electrical component to "wake up" when a computer is turned on? A. CPU B. Keyboard C. Mouse D. RAM 24. What are programs stored on ROM chips called? A. Applications B. Drivers C. Firmware D. Software 25. Upgrading the BIOS is also known as A. UROMing B. smoothing C. flashing D. forcing

26. Which of the following is not a common key or key combination to enter CMOS setup? A. Del B. Esc C. F1 D. Scroll Lock 27. Several lines at the end of POST are used to find the operating system. What is this called? A. CMOS B. Flash ROM C. Bootstrap loader D. boot.ini 28. What did Intel create to go beyond the limits of the traditional 16-bit BIOS? A. EFI B. TPM C. DriveLock D. Chip creep

29. In 2005, what did Microsoft, Intel, AMI, Phoenix Technologies, AMD, HP, and Apple create to improve upon EFI? A. EEFI B. IEEEFI C. UEFI D. 802.EFI 30. Modern processors now include which functions of the traditional chipset directly on the CPU? A. Northbridge B. Southbridge C. MCC D. ECC 31. What is the Southbridge is now called in new AMD systems? A. Input/Output Controller Hub (ICH) B. Fusion Controller Hub (FCH) C. Memory Controller Chip (MCC) D. L3 Cache 32. What advanced BIOS feature offers support for multiple software-based machines? A. Multiprocessing support B. Multitasking support C. Emulation support D. Virtualization support 33. What is the Southbridge also known as in Intel systems? A. Fusion Controller Hub (FCH) B. BIOS Control Hub (BCH) C. Input/Output Controller Hub (ICH) D. Memory Controller Chip (MCC) 34. Many CMOS setup menus allow changes to the CPU, RAM, and GPU, which supports A. Overheating B. Overclocking C. Multitasking D. Multiprocessing

35. What is the term for BIOs-based security features that can track the PC's location if it is stolen? A. LoJack B. HiJack C. TPM D. BitLocker 36. What used to be an essential tool for techs, but today it is rarely used on a dead PC? A. POST B. POST card C. RAM counter D. voltage regulator 37. What BIOS feature allows a PC to boot without any local storage by retrieving an OS from a server over a network? A. BIOS B. CMOS C. PXE D. POST

38. The process of inserting a removable disk of some sort (usually a USB thumb drive) containing an updated BIOS file is called: A. POST B. Preboot Execution Environment C. Virtualization support D. Flashing ROM 39. All of the following are characteristics of UEFI motherboards EXCEPT: A. Limited to MBR partitions less than 2.2TB B. Supports 32-bit or 64-bit booting C. Not dependent on x86 firmware D. Can handle booting with drives larger than 2.2TB 40. In 2005, what did Microsoft, Intel, AMI, Phoenix Technologies, AMD, HP, and Apple create to improve upon EFI? A. EEFI B. IEEEFI C. UEFI D. 802.EFI 41. ROM chips are when the computer is turned off.

, meaning that the information stored on ROM is not erased even

42. The

includes the Northbridge and Southbridge chips on a motherboard.

43. The

chip handles the functions of the keyboard controller.

44. The keyboard controller stores the scan code in A(n) 45. A ROM chip on the motherboard is called

. .

46. Some CMOS setup programs allow you to control the ATA Security Mode Feature Set, also commonly referred to as . 47. The acts as a secure cryptoprocessor that can usually be turned on or off or else enabled or disabled in the CMOS setup program. 48. Programs stored on ROM chips are called 49.

refers to updating the system BIOS.

50. The Advanced Chipset Features screen deals with extremely low-level functions. 51. The Integrated Peripherals screen is used to configure, enable, or disable the .

52. Every time a key is pressed on the keyboard, the which key has been pressed. 53.

chip in the keyboard notices

is the primary tool used to manually change or remove the drivers for any particular device.

54. The CMOS Setup program can be configured to force users to enter a time the system boots for security purposes.

every

55. Windows keeps a list of what drivers should be loaded in a database called the

56. Some CMOS setup utilities enable you to create two passwords: one for boot and another for the CMOS program. 57. Video cards have their own

for internal functions.

58. A separate memory chip called the specific device parameters.

chip stores the information that describes

59. All devices need a BIOS. If it's not built into the system BIOS, devices bring their own BIOS with or . 60. The

program checks out the system every time the computer boots

61. The POST gives a long, rather annoying buzzing that doesn't stop. This indicates . 62. Upon power-up, the CPU determines whether the power supply is working correctly by monitoring a(n) wire. 63. The POST cards snap into the

slots in a system.

64. A bootable disk is also called a(n) 65. With the help of the Southbridge, the CPU uses the other parts of the PC. 66. The

disk. to communicate with all

extends the address bus to all the other parts of the PC.

67. The bootstrap loader is a few dozen lines of program. 68. Programs stored on erasable media are collectively called

code tacked to the end of the POST

69. The CPU uses the

to communicate with devices.

70. The component that stores data read by BIOS, but does not store programs, is known as . 71. The PCs.

screen in BIOS is one of the few menu items that aren't needed in modern

72. Many motherboards support the chassis.

feature provided by the computer case, or

73. When the computer is turned on or reset, it initiates a special program stored on the ROM chip, called the . 74. The CPU reads a special wire called proper voltage. 75. A(n)

as soon as the power supply provides the

chip stores the information that describes specific device parameters.

76. UEFI motherboards support a newer type of hard drive partitioning called possible to boot partitions larger than 2.2 TB. 77. A removable disk containing an updated 78.

, which makes it

is usually used to flash ROM.

enables you to boot a PC without any local storage by retrieving an OS from a server over a network.

79. Many PCs have CMOS setup menus that display information about the CPU, RAM, and GPU and include controls for them. 80. The can be used to change the voltage and multiplier settings on the motherboard for the CPU from the defaults. 81. What does the term chipset refer to?

82. What is a keyboard controller?

83. What is a scan code?

84. Why are ROM chips considered nonvolatile?

85. What are the functions of the system ROM?

86. Define basic input/output services (BIOS).

87. What handles the BIOS needs of hardware that is the same from one computer to another?

88. What handles the interconnections between most of the devices and the CPU?

89. What is the function of a complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) chip?

90. Describe ROM chips.

91. What happens if the CMOS battery is replaced with the computer unplugged?

92. How is the system BIOS on the Flash ROM updated to add support for a new technology?

93. What action needs to taken if the clock in Windows resets itself to January 1st every time the system is rebooted?

94. How can the CMOS password be reset?

95. What is the first line of defense for protecting hard disks from unwanted access when a system is lost or stolen?

96. What is a Registry?

97. What's the preferred method for editing the Registry?

98. What can accelerate the BitLocker Drive Encryption feature of Windows Vista/7?

99. How does a computer convey POST information to a user?

100.Define POST cards.

101.What has remained constant in the boot process from the oldest 8086 to the most recent microprocessor?

102.What is a bootstrap loader?

103.What is a boot sector?

104.What is a bootable disk?

105.What happens if the bootstrap loader locates a good boot sector?

106.How can a user change the order in which the boot loader searches devices for an operating system?

107.What is firmware?

108.Compare the function of the Northbridge chip versus the Southbridge chip.

109.Why does the address bus go to all the devices in the computer?

110.What needs to be done to determine the scan code stored inside the keyboard controller?

111.Where would you enable or disable Wakeup settings in the CMOS Setup Utility?

112.What enables the CPU to communicate with some of the core components of hardware in the system?

113.How do Flash ROM chips differ from older ROM chips?

114.What is the function of the CMOS Setup program?

115.How can the BIOS be upgraded?

116.What are the interfaces used to edit the Registry?

117.What is the function of the POST?

118.What should be done to resolve a CMOS configuration mismatch error?

119.After restarting your system, you notice that none of your CMOS settings changes are implemented. What is most likely the problem?

120.How is the Southbridge implemented in newer CPUs?

121.What is hardware virtualization support?

122.How do CMOS settings support overclocking?

123.What security feature do some PC manufacturers include to assist you if your PC is stolen?

124.What is PXE?

125.How is the ROM typically "flashed"?

126.What is UEFI?

127.What are some drawbacks to traditional BIOS?

128.How do UEFI motherboards overcome some of the limitations of BIOS MBR support?

129.How are POST cards typically used in today's PCs?

130.How do modern CPUs implement the Northbridge?

Chapter 08_BIOS Key 1. (p. 229) D 2. (p. 229) C 3. (p. 231) D 4. (p. 235) B 5. (p. 234) D 6. (p. 236) A 7. (p. 236) B 8. (p. 254) B 9. (p. 241) A 10. (p. 237) A 11. (p. 234) A 12. (p. 234) A 13. (p. 245) A 14. (p. 236) B 15. (p. 254) D 16. (p. 246) C 17. (p. 247) C 18. (p. 246) A 19. (p. 246) C 20. (p. 246) B 21. (p. 242) A 22. (p. 247) B 23. (p. 229) A 24. (p. 235) C 25. (p. 250) C 26. (p. 237) D 27. (p. 248) C 28. (p. 251) A 29. (p. 251) C 30. (p. 229) A 31. (p. 229) B 32. (p. 241) D 33. (p. 229) C 34. (p. 240) B 35. (p. 244) A 36. (p. 247) B

37. (p. 248) C 38. (p. 250) D 39. (p. 251) A 40. (p. 251) C 41. (p. 234) non-volatile 42. (p. 229) chipset 43. (p. 229) Southbridge 44. (p. 231) register 45. (p. 234) system ROM 46. (p. 244) Drive Lock 47. (p. 244) Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 48. (p. 235) firmware 49. (p. 250) Flashing ROM 50. (p. 242) chipset 51. (p. 242) onboard ports or ports 52. (p. 231) scanning 53. (p. 246) Device Manager 54. (p. 243) password 55. (p. 246) Registry 56. (p. 236) Setup 57. (p. 245) BIOS 58. (p. 236) complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) 59. (p. 245) option ROM; device drivers 60. (p. 246) POST 61. (p. 247) a problem with RAM 62. (p. 248) power good 63. (p. 247) expansion 64. (p. 248) system 65. (p. 229) data bus or external data bus 66. (p. 229) Southbridge 67. (p. 248) BIOS 68. (p. 235) firmware 69. (p. 229) address bus 70. (p. 236) CMOS 71. (p. 243) PnP/PCI Configurations 72. (p. 242) chassis intrusion detection 73. (p. 246) power-on self test (POST) 74. (p. 248) power good

75. (p. 236) complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) 76. (p. 251) GUID Partition Table (GPT) 77. (p. 250) BIOS file 78. (p. 248) Preboot execution environment (PXE) 79. (p. 242) overclocking 80. (p. 240) MB Intelligent Tweaker (M.I.T.) 81. (p. 229) The term chipset refers to the matched pair of Northbridge and Southbridge chips on a motherboard. 82. (p. 230) A keyboard controller is a special chip that connects the keyboard to the external data bus. 83. (p. 231) A scan code is the coded pattern of ones and zeros generated by the scanning chip in the keyboard whenever a key is pressed. 84. (p. 234) ROM chips are considered nonvolatile because the information stored on ROM is not erased, even when the computer is turned off. 85. (p. 234) The system ROM stores the keyboard controller programming. It also stores the programs for communicating with the floppy drive, the hard drive, the monitor, and a few other basic devices on the computer. 86. (p. 235) BIOS is a collection of hundreds of little device communication programs stored on the ROM chip. 87. (p. 233) The system BIOS supports all of the hardware that never changes, such as the keyboard. The BIOS needs support of the keyboard handled by the keyboard controller built into the Southbridge. The system ROM chip stores the BIOS for other unchangeable devices. 88. (p. 229) A chip known generically as the Southbridge is used to handle interconnections between most of the devices and the CPU. 89. (p. 236) A separate memory chip, often called a complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) chip, stores the information that describes specific device parameters. 90. (p. 234) First, ROM chips are nonvolatile, meaning that the information stored on ROM isn't erased when the computer is turned off. Second, traditional ROM chips are read-only, meaning that once you store a program on one, you can't change it. 91. (p. 250) CMOS is cleared. 92. (p. 234) The system BIOS on Flash ROM is updated by running a small command-line program combined with an update file to add support for a new technology. This is often referred to as flashing the BIOS. 93. (p. 250) If the clock in Windows resets itself to January 1st every time the system is rebooted, the CMOS battery on the motherboard is probably low and needs to be replaced. 94. (p. 254) The CMOS password can be reset by either removing the CMOS battery or changing the password reset jumper on the motherboard. 95. (p. 244) ATA Security Mode or DriveLock 96. (p. 246) A Registry is a system database file that stores the all configuration settings, including device driver information. 97. (p. 246) Device Manager is the preferred method for editing the Registry; editing the Registry directly can prevent the system from booting. 98. (p. 244) tamper-resistant TPM hardware 99. (p. 246) Beep codes and text messages are used to convey POST information to the user. 100. (p. 247) POST cards are special devices that are used to monitor the POST and identify the piece of hardware that is causing trouble. 101. (p. 248) The special built-in memory address sent by the CPU wire via its address bus, when the power good wire wakes up, has remained constant in the boot process from the oldest 8086 to the most recent microprocessor. 102. (p. 248) A bootstrap loader is the last BIOS function that looks for the operating system. 103. (p. 248) The boot sector is a special location on a bootable disk that contains programming designed to tell the system where to locate the operating system. 104. (p. 248) A disk that has a functional operating system is called a bootable disk or system disk. 105. (p. 248) If the bootstrap loader locates a good boot sector, it passes the control to the operating system and removes itself from the memory. 106. (p. 248) Most BIOS programs have CMOS settings that enable a user to change the order in which the boot loader searches devices for an operating system. 107. (p. 235) Firmware is a collection of programs that are stored on ROM chips.

108. (p. 229) The function of the Northbridge is to handle the memory, while the Southbridge handles the inputs and outputs to most of the other devices in the PC. 109. (p. 229) The address bus goes to all the devices in the computer to allow the CPU to send commands, through the chipset, to every device in the PC. 110. (p. 231) The keyboard controller needs to put the scan code command on the external data bus for the CPU to read in order to determine the scan code. 111. (p. 228) The Power Management Setup screen allows you to enable or disable Wakeup events. 112. (p. 233) The system BIOS, stored on the system ROM chip, enables the CPU to communicate with some of the core components of hardware in the system. 113. (p. 234) In the older ROM chips the contents could not be updated, but Flash ROM chips can be reprogrammed to update their contents. 114. (p. 236) The function of the CMOS Setup program is to enable a user to access and update the data on the CMOS chip. 115. (p. 250) BIOS can be upgraded through a process known as flashing the BIOS. A utility can be downloaded from the manufacturer and run. 116. (p. 246) The Control Panel and Device Manager are the interfaces used to edit the Registry. 117. (p. 246) The function of the POST is to check the system every time the computer boots. 118. (p. 249) To resolve a CMOS configuration mismatch error, replace the battery. 119. (p. 244) You exited CMOS setup without saving changes. 120. (p. 229) The Southbridge is now called the Input/Output Controller Hub (ICH) in new Intel systems and the Fusion Controller Hub (FCH) in new AMD systems. 121. (p. 241) Virtualization Support: A virtual machine is a powerful type of program that enables you to run a second (or third or fourth), softwarebased machine inside your physical PC. It recreates (or virtualizes) the motherboard, hard drives, RAM, network adapters, and more, and is just as powerful as a real PC. To run these virtual machines, however, you need a very powerful PC. CPU manufacturers have added hardware-assisted virtualization. 122. (p. 242) Many PCs have CMOS setup menus that display information about the CPU, RAM, and GPU and include controls for overclocking them. 123. (p. 244) Some PC manufacturers include LoJack security features in their BIOS—this way, if your PC is stolen, you can track its location, install a key logger, or even remotely shut down your computer. 124. (p. 244) Some BIOSes include a feature that enables a PC to use a preboot execution environment (PXE). A PXE enables you to boot a PC without any local storage by retrieving an OS from a server over a network. 125. (p. 250) Download the flashing program and BIOS file from the manufacturer and follow the instructions. Typically insert a removable disk of some sort (usually a USB thumb drive) containing an updated BIOS file. 126. (p. 250) UEFI acts as a super-BIOS, doing the same job in a 64-bit environment. UEFI supports 32-bit or 64-bit booting, handles all bootloading duties, and is not dependent on x86 firmware. 127. (p. 250) BIOS works only in 16-bit mode and depends on x86-compliant hardware. In addition, if there is more than one operating system loaded on a single drive, you need one of those installed OSes to act as a boot loader. Older BIOSes are limited in their ability to handle larger MBR partition support (>2.2 TB). 128. (p. 250) UEFI motherboards support a newer type of hard drive partitioning called GUID Partition Table (GPT) that makes it possible to boot partitions larger than 2.2 TB. 129. (p. 247) POST cards used to be an essential tool for techs, but today they are rarely used, and then only on a "dead" PC to determine at which level it's dead. If the POST card shows no reading, the problem is before the POST and must be related to the CPU. 130. (p. 229) Modern processors include the functions of the Northbridge directly on the CPU.

Chapter 08_BIOS Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 08

# of Questions 23 39 68 130

Chapter 09_Motherboards Student:

is the smallest motherboard version in the ATX standard. A. AT B. FlexATX C. MicroATX D. LPX

is a variant of the microATX created by Intel. A. AT B. FlexATX C. LPX D. NLX

The maximum dimensions of a FlexATX motherboard are A. 9.6 × 9.6 B. 9 × 7.5 C. 9 × 7 D. 9 × 5.6

Some chips on a motherboard handle the infrared connection. A. Super I/O B. RAM C. Southbridge D. Northbridge

The handles slow input and output devices such as the floppy drive and the keyboard. A. ECC B. MCC C. I/O controller D. Super I/O chip

are the lights that have positive and negative sides. A. Power buttons B. Reset buttons C. LEDs D. Chips

The function of each LED wire is usually printed on the A. monitor B. switch C. connector D. LED

Electrical surges and ESD can cause A. component B. RAM C. catastrophic D. connection

A (n) symptom is the most difficult symptom to diagnose. A. RAM B. catastrophic C. ethereal D. component

inches.

failure.

10. A brand new system failing due to manufacturing defects and any system failing due to a shock of electrostatic discharge is often called a failure. A. burn-out B. burn-in C. ESD D. system 11. What type of failure results in the PC failing to boot? A. Burn-in failure B. Catastrophic failure C. Component failure D. Ethereal failure 12. The type of motherboard has a large keyboard and a split P8/P9 style of power socket. A. NLX B. WTX C. AT D. ATX 13. The main problem with form factors such as LPX and NLX was their A. big size B. incompatibility C. inflexibility D. low speed 14. The only dedicated connector on an AT motherboard is the A. printer B. sound C. keyboard D. monitor 15. A (n) cards). A. AMR B. PGA C. LGA D. AGP

plug.

slot was designed to take specialized devices (modems, sound cards, and network

16. The determines the type of processor and RAM required for a motherboard. A. chipset B. cache C. CPU D. form factor 17. Which of the following is not a version of the Small Form Factor (SFF)? A. Mini-ITX B. Nano-ITX C. Pico-ITX D. micro-ATX 18. AMR was quickly replaced with the more advanced A. DDR3 B. CNR C. AMD D. ICH

19. ATX motherboards use a feature called A. expended power supply B. hibernate C. soft power D. standby

that allows software to turn the power on and off.

20. The LPX and NLX form factors provided an insertion slot for the A. bus B. network C. riser D. installation 21. Shorter wires can easily handle double or quadruple the A. connection B. RAM C. clock D. performance 22. Many motherboards use a simple connector called a the front or back of the case. A. port B. cable C. dongle D. connector

card.

speed of the motherboard.

to make some physical ports accessible from

23. What determines the type of case a motherboard needs and provides a maximum expansion slot limit? A. Chipset B. Component C. Expansion slot D. Form factor 24. What provides support to USB and FireWire on computers? A. The case B. The chipset C. The motherboard D. The power supply 25. The motherboard mounts to the case via small connectors called A. fire wires B. LEDs C. nylon bolts D. standouts

26. What are the dimensions of a microATX motherboard? A. 9.6 by 9.6 inches B. 12 by 9.6 inches C. 6.7 by 6.7 inches D. 4.7 by 4.7 inches 27. What motherboard slot was specifically created by Intel to support video cards? A. PCI B. AGP C. ISA D. PCI-X

28. As of today, what is the fastest, most popular expansion bus in use? A. ISA B. AGP C. PCI D. PCIe 29. What type of hardware usually uses a three-wire connector supplied by most motherboards? A. Power supply fan B. CPU fan C. Case fan D. Hard drive fan 30. Every device soldered to the motherboard is designed to run at the speed of which component? A. the MCC B. system RAM C. the CPU D. the system crystal 31. All the data transfer and commands flow through the motherboard.

wires embedded in the

32. The motherboard.

defines the type of the processor and RAM required for the

33. The expansion slot limit.

determines the type of case a motherboard needs and provides a maximum

34. Old-style motherboards followed a form factor called 35. The AT type of motherboard has a split 36. The form factor of the necessary ports built in.

. style of power socket.

motherboard replaced the rear panel with all the

37. Most modern chipsets are composed of two primary chips: the . 38. Modern chipsets contain

chips to provide legacy support to the systems.

39. The

chip helps the CPU to work with the RAM.

40. The

is also called the Southbridge.

41. If you plug in LED wires backward, the LED will 42. The

and the

determines the initial built-in device support for a motherboard.

43. If you need to upgrade the memory, it is best to know how many supports.

the new RAM interface

44. A

failure prevents a PC from booting.

45. A motherboard.

failure arises due to faulty connections between a device and the

46. A buggy device driver may cause

symptoms.

47. The and enable the insertion of a special riser card.

form factors provided a central riser slot to

48.

motherboards enable companies to create systems that stand out from generic systems.

49. The drives such as hard drives.

often handles communication expansion devices and some mass storage

50. The

book contains all the technical information about motherboards.

51. A with a device.

failure can be avoided by wearing an anti-static wrist strap while working

52. If your motherboard suffers a catastrophic failure but occasionally works, what would you do to resolve it? 53. The 54.

has a maximum size of only 6.7 by 6.7 inches. failures are responsible for displaying blue screens in the midst of heavy

computing. 55. The

56. On AMD systems, the 57. The

chip in the chipset gets hot enough that it needs a cooling fan, while the doesn't need a fan. provides the communication with the video card. handles expansion devices and mass storage drives.

58. The determines the physical size of the motherboard as well as the general location of components and ports. 59. The

provides the foundation for the personal computer.

60. On an Intel-based machine, the Southbridge is referred to as the 61. AT and Baby AT motherboards lacked 62. The first

. ports.

form factor was known as LPX.

63. Intel, NVIDIA, and AMD manufacture

64. In addition to the Northbridge and Southbridge, most motherboard manufacturers add a third chip called a . 65. A central riser card is sometimes called a

66. FlexATX systems use a special

power supply.

67. The first Slimline form factor LPX was replaced by the

form factor.

68. USB and FireWire support is determined by the

69. A user needs to load proper chipset PC.

to create a stable and fully functional

70. Most FlexATX motherboards have maximum dimensions of just 71. Many motherboards have a port for connecting to 72. Case fans almost always use only

inches.

on the front of the case.

connectors.

73. Expansion slots connect to the rest of the PC through the

74. Every device soldered to the motherboard is designed to run at the speed of the 75. The original

was 32 bits wide and ran at 33 MHz.

76. The video-only version of PCI was called the 77. The 78.

is a 64-bit-wide bus, with enhanced speed, and is fully backward compatible. uses a point-to-point serial connection instead of PCI's shared parallel communication.

79. Hardware and drivers that make it through Microsoft's rigorous testing process are branded with the logo.

80. All versions of Windows offer the installation or driver upgrade.

, allowing the user to revert to previous drivers after an

81. What is the ITX form factor?

82. What should a user do to troubleshoot an ethereal failure?

83. What is the use of a form factor?

84. What is the most common form factor in use today?

85. List the characteristics that define the motherboard.

86. Why do ATX motherboards offer better performance as compared to AT motherboards?

87. What are the micro ATX form factor measurements?

88. List the various types of motherboard cases.

89. What are standouts?

90. What are PCBs?

91. List the different types of motherboard failures.

92. How should a catastrophic failure be resolved?

93. What are traces?

94. What is CNR?

95. RAID is sometimes included on a motherboard. What is RAID?

96. What motherboard components are typically added on to supplement the chipset?

97. Why are the chips in a chipset located centrally on modern motherboards?

98. What software normally ships with a motherboard?

99. What is a memory controller hub (MCH)?

100.How are LED wire functions determined if they are not printed on the connector?

101.What is a catastrophic failure?

102.Why do component failures occur?

103.What is the purpose of the removable face option of the motherboard?

104.If you have an ethereal-related problem with a motherboard, what should you do before replacing it?

105.What happens if an LED is wired incorrectly?

106.What are standouts?

107.What factors cause a motherboard to fail?

108.What are the initial steps for replacing a motherboard?

109.What are some integrated technologies you may find supported by motherboards?

110.What enabled manufacturers to produce PCs shorter than four inches?

111.List the ways in which a chipset defines the motherboard.

112.Where is RAM located on ATX motherboards?

113.Name some of the popular motherboard manufacturers.

114.Who created the ITX form factor?

115.What does the Super I/O chip handle?

116.After experiencing component failure on your motherboard, you've replaced the component, but things still don't work. What can you try before replacing the motherboard?

117.What comprises the last part of motherboard installation?

118.What is MCH?

119.What led to the creation of ATX form factor?

120.What is the three-part system that technicians should use when troubleshooting motherboard problems?

121.What are the four recommended steps to installing expansion cards?

122.What is the first diagnostic and troubleshooting tool in Windows you should check when dealing with a faulty hardware installation?

123.What is the primary troubleshooting step when an expansion board does not install or function properly?

124.What does a black "!" on a yellow circle (Windows XP) or triangle (Windows Vista/7) indicate in Device Manager?

125.What indicates a disabled device in Device Manager?

126.What steps should you take to correct a driver problem in Device Manager?

127.What should you remember to do after installing an older motherboard?

128.Describe the three varieties of ATX, in terms of size.

129.How do expansion bus and its slots connect to the rest of the PC?

130.Describe PCIe.

Chapter 09_Motherboards Key 1. (p. 265) B 2. (p. 265) B 3. (p. 265) B 4. (p. 268) A 5. (p. 268) D 6. (p. 289) C 7. (p. 298) C 8. (p. 278) A 9. (p. 290) C 10. (p. 291) B 11. (p. 290) B 12. (p. 262) C 13. (p. 263) C 14. (p. 262) C 15. (p. 271) A 16. (p. 261) A 17. (p. 266) D 18. (p. 286) A 19. (p. 289) C 20. (p. 263) C 21. (p. 263-264) C 22. (p. 270) C 23. (p. 285) D 24. (p. 270) C 25. (p. 288) D 26. (p. 265) A 27. (p. 286) B 28. (p. 275) D 29. (p. 271) C 30. (p. 272) D 31. (p. 260) trace 32. (p. 261) chipset 33. (p. 261) form factor 34. (p. 262) AT 35. (p. 262) P8/P9 36. (p. 264) ATX

37. (p. 268) Northbridge; Southbridge 38. (p. 268) Super I/O 39. (p. 268) Northbridge 40. (p. 269) I/O controller hub 41. (p. 289) not work 42. (p. 261) chipset 43. (p. 286) channels 44. (p. 290) catastrophic 45. (p. 291) component 46. (p. 291) ethereal 47. (p. 263) LPX; NLX 48. (p. 267) Proprietary 49. (p. 268) Southbridge 50. (p. 287) motherboard 51. (p. 291) catastrophic 52. (p. 292) Replace it. 53. (p. 266) Mini-ITX 54. (p. 291) Ethereal 55. (p. 268) Northbridge; Southbridge 56. (p. 268) Northbridge 57. (p. 268) Southbridge 58. (p. 285) form factor 59. (p. 261) motherboard 60. (p. 269) I/O controller hub (ICH) 61. (p. 262) external 62. (p. 263) Slimline 63. (p. 269) chipsets 64. (p. 269) Super I/O chip 65. (p. 263) daughterboard 66. (p. 265-266) Flex-ATX-only 67. (p. 263) NLX 68. (p. 270) motherboard 69. (p. 268) drivers 70. (p. 265) 9 × 7.5 71. (p. 270) audio jacks 72. (p. 271) three-wire 73. (p. 272) chipset 74. (p. 273) system crystal

75. (p. 274) PCI bus 76. (p. 275) Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) 77. (p. 275) PCI-X 78. (p. 275) PCIe 79. (p. 281) Designed for Windows 80. (p. 282) driver rollback 81. (p. 266) The ITX is a Small Form Factor (SFF) motherboard developed by Via Technologies geared towards small and special purpose computers. 82. (p. 292) To troubleshoot an ethereal failure, a user must either flash the BIOS or replace the motherboard. 83. (p. 261) A form factor is used to determine the type of case required by the motherboard. 84. (p. 264) ATX 85. (p. 261) The characteristics that define the motherboard are components, chipset, expansion slots, and layout. 86. (p. 264) The RAM in the ATX motherboard is closer to the Northbridge and the CPU, which enables it to offer better performance compared to AT motherboards. 87. (p. 265) A svelte 9.6 by 9.6 inches, or about 30 percent smaller than standard ATX. 88. (p. 287) The various types of motherboard cases are desktop, mini-tower, mid-tower, cube, and tower. 89. (p. 288) Standouts are small connectors that help the motherboard to mount on the case. 90. (p. 261) Motherboards are actually layered printed circuit boards (PCBs). 91. (p. 290) The different types of motherboard failures are catastrophic, component, and ethereal. 92. (p. 292) A catastrophic failure can be resolved by replacing the old motherboard with a new one. 93. (p. 269) Traces are the wires embedded in the motherboard. Data and commands flow though these wires. 94. (p. 271) Communications and networking riser 95. (p. 271) Redundant Array of Independent (or Inexpensive) Disks 96. (p. 270) USB/FireWire, sound, RAID, and AMR/CNR 97. (p. 268) The chips in a chipset are located centrally on modern motherboards to facilitate communication between the CPU and other devices in the system. 98. (p. 269) All motherboards ship with a CD-ROM disc with drivers and support programs. 99. (p. 269) What the Northbridge is called on an Intel-based system. 100. (p. 289) If wire functions are not printed on the connector, the wires should be tracked to the LED or switch to determine its functions. 101. (p. 290) A catastrophic failure occurs due to manufacturing defects or electrostatic discharge resulting in the system not booting. 102. (p. 291) Component failures occur due to faulty connections between the device and the motherboard. 103. (p. 287) The purpose of the removable face option of the motherboard is to allow easy disassembly of the motherboard. 104. (p. 292) You can first attempt to fix the problem by flashing the BIOS. 105. (p. 289) The LED will not function properly if it is wired incorrectly. Screws then go into the standouts to hold the motherboard in place. 106. (p. 288) The motherboard mounts to the case via small connectors called standouts that slide into keyed slots or screw into the bottom of the case.

107. (p. 290) Installing cards, electrostatic discharge, or flexing the motherboard one time too many when swapping out RAM or drives can cause motherboard failure. 108. (p. 288) When replacing a motherboard, you should remove the old motherboard first. Then remove all the cards and anything that might impede removal or installation of the motherboard, such as hard or floppy drives.

109. (p. 270) Motherboards may support USB/FireWire, sound, RAID, AMR or CNR slots, modems, and network cards. 110. (p. 263) Combining built-in connections with a riser card enabled manufacturers to produce PCs shorter than four inches. 111. (p. 261) The chipset defines the motherboard by specifying the processor type, determining the type and capacity of RAM, and determining to a degree the built-in devices that are supported. 112. (p. 264) RAM is placed close to the Northbridge for easier access. 113. (p. 287) abit, ASUS, BIOSTAR, DFI, GIGABYTE, Intel 114. (p. 266) Via Technologies. 115. (p. 274268) The Super I/O chip handles access to older technologies such as floppy drivers, infrared connections, parallel ports, and modems. 116. (p. 292) Try upgrading by flashing the BIOS. 117. (p. 288) The last part of motherboard installation is connecting the LEDs and buttons on the front of the box. These usually include soft power, reset button, speaker, hard drive activity LED, and power LED. 118. (p. 269) MCH (memory controller hub) is the Northbridge on an Intel-based motherboard. 119. (p. 264) The demand for a form factor that had more standard connectors and was flexible enough for possible changes in technology led to the creation of the ATX form factor in 1995. 120. (p. 291) When troubleshooting motherboards, the three-part system—check, replace, verify good component—works for simpler and more complicated motherboard problems. 121. (p. 277-283) Knowledge, physical installation, device drivers, and verification 122. (p. 278) Device Manager 123. (p. 283) Your primary troubleshooting process is a reinstallation—after checking in with Device Manager. 124. (p. 284) It indicates that a device is missing, that Windows does not recognize a device, or that there's a device driver problem. A device may still work even while producing this error. 125. (p. 284) A black downward-pointing arrow on a white field in Windows Vista and Windows 7 indicates a disabled device. This usually points to a device that's been turned off manually or is damaged. A device producing this error will not work. Windows XP uses a red "X" for the same status indicator. 126. (p. 284) If you get a downward-pointing arrow or a red "X" error, first check that the device isn't disabled. Right-click on the device and select Enable. If that doesn't work (it often does not), try rolling back the driver (if you updated the driver) or uninstalling (if it's a new install). Shut the system down and make triple-sure you have the card physically installed. Then redo the entire driver installation procedure, making sure you have the most current driver for that device. If none of these procedures works, return the card—it's almost certainly bad. 127. (p. 290) Very old motherboards used to require techs to set jumpers to determine the bus speed for the motherboard. This enabled these motherboards to accommodate CPUs that needed a 100-MHz bus, for example, and other CPUs that needed a 66-MHz bus. 128. (p. 265-266) ATX motherboards come in three varieties to accommodate different types of cases. The full-sized ATX form factor is 12 by 9.6 inches. The micro ATX (μATX) motherboard is about 9.6 by 9.6 inches, and the mini-ITX is 6.7 by 6.7 inches. 129. (p. 272) They connect to the rest of the PC through the chipset. Exactly where on the chipset varies, depending on the system. On some systems the expansion slots connect to the Southbridge, and on other systems the expansion slots connect to the Northbridge. Finally, many systems have more than one type of expansion bus, with slots of one type connecting to the Northbridge and slots of another type connecting to the Southbridge. 130. (p. 274) PCI Express (PCIe) is the latest, fastest, and most popular expansion bus in use today. As its name implies, PCI Express is still PCI, but it uses a point-to-point serial connection instead of PCI's shared parallel communication. A PCIe device has its own direct connection (a pointto-point connection) to the Northbridge, so it does not wait for other devices.

Chapter 09_Motherboards Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 09

# of Questions 29 32 69 130

Chapter 10_Power Supplies Student:

What unit is used to measure voltage? A. Ampere B. Volt C. Watt D. Ohm

What is the unit of measuring current? A. Ampere B. Ohm C. Volt D. Watt

Which of the following units is used to measure resistance? A. Amp B. Ampere C. Ohm D. Watt

What type of voltage does a PC use? A. AC B. DC C. Ground D. LC

In an IEC-320 plug, which wire carries electrical voltage? A. Earth B. Ground C. Hot D. Neutral

Which of the following wires carries no voltage? A. Ground B. Hot C. Multimeter D. Neutral

A surge suppressor should be rated at a minimum of A. 330 B. 400 C. 800 D. 1,449

Power supplies come with a standard A. connector B. hole C. pin D. suppressor

The P1 connector from the power supply is plugged into the A. P1 B. P2 C. P3 D. P4

joules.

for the motherboard and interior devices.

socket.

10. Which connector is the most common type of connector used for devices that require 5 V or 12 V of power? A. Molex B. P1 C. P4 12 V D. sub-mini connector 11. The 3.5-inch floppy drive uses the A. mini B. Molex C. P1 D. P4 12V 12. Power supplies are rated in A. amperes B. ohms C. volts D. watts

connector.

13. What type of power connector is L-shaped? A. P1 B. Mini C. Molex D. SATA 14. A coworker is taking a computer overseas and asks you what concerns he should have. What do you tell him? A. There are no issues to be concerned about. B. His PC will not work overseas. C. Make sure he switches the power supply to 230AC. D. Make sure he switches the power supply to 115AC. 15. The standard modern power supply provides A. 3.3, 5, and 12 B. 5 and 12 C. 6 and 12 D. 12

volts of power.

16. Which of the following uses the soft power feature? A. AT B. ATX C. SATA connectors D. Molex power supplies 17. Which power supply never turns off? A. ATX B. AT C. P8, P9 D. P1 18. Molex connectors are used for A. central B. AC C. backup D. peripheral

power.

19. Most case fans have standard A. Molex B. mini C. micro D. sub-mini

connectors that are easy to plug in.

20. Expansion bays must be covered by the A. case sheath B. case cover C. slot lid D. slot cover

to maintain proper airflow inside the case.

21. The power supply has a 24-pin main motherboard that resembles a 20-pin P1 connector. A. EPS12 V B. Molex C. mini D. P4 21 V 22. Which industry group came up with a non-ATX standard motherboard and power supply called EPS12 V? A. Hardware System Infrastructure B. Server Power Infrastructure C. Server System Infrastructure D. Software System Infrastructure 23. A (n) power supply converts energy efficiently. A. Active PFC B. EPS 12V C. SPS D. UPS 24. What should be the outputs of the hot, neutral, and ground wires when tested with a multimeter? A. 0 V, 115 V, 0 V B. 0 V, 115 V, 2 V C. 112 V, 115 V, 0 V D. 115 V, 0 V, 0 V 25. How is DC voltage represented on multimeters? A. V with a ~ below it B. V with a dash below it C. V with a ~ above it D. V with a solid line above a dashed line 26. A PC doesn't work. What should you check first? A. Power supply voltages B. 12 V power supply C. Ensure DC plug is plugged in D. Ensure AC plug is plugged in 27. Power supplies are protected from spikes of AC current with the use of a A. fuse B. surge suppressor C. UPS D. All of the above

28. What UL rating should you look for on a surge suppressor? A. UL497A B. UL1497A C. UL1449 D. 1750 joules 29. How many watts of power does a typical hard drive in a PC require? A. 12 B. 15 C. 20 D. 18 30. How many watts of power does an Athlon64X2 CPU require at peak performance? A. 50 B. 70 C. 110 D. 200 31. The notches in the Molex connector that guide installation are called A. chamfers B. power C. ports D. sockets

32. Which is the latest ATX power supply standard? A. ATX12V 1.3 B. ATX12V 2.0 C. ATX12V 3.0 D. EPS12V 33. Which of the following is a correct statement? A. An open case allows better cooling. B. An open case ruins airflow and loses cooling efficiency. C. Cooling the PC is not recommended. D. Large cases do not require cooling. 34. What class of fire extinguisher should be used on an electrical fire? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D 35. What is the amount of amps and volts needed by a particular device to function called? A. Amperes B. Resistance C. Voltage D. Wattage 36. Large sags in electricity are also known as: A. Brownouts B. Blackouts C. Spikes D. Surges 37. What is it called when power cuts out completely? A. Sag B. Brownout C. Blackout D. Spike

38. Older power supplies with 12V rails previously only supplied how much power? A. 30 amps B. 3 amps C. 50 amps D. 16-18 amps 39. If a power supply is smoking or heating up, what is the best action to take? A. Stop using it and replace it immediately B. Replace the fuse C. Switch the voltage from 110 to 220 D. Replace the power supply fan 40. Modern power supplies have multiple: A. Fuses B. Connectors C. Fans D. Voltage selectors 41. The flow of negatively charged particles through matter is also known as 42. Wires have a slight

to the flow of electrons.

43. The pressure of electrons in a wire is called 44.

current allows electrons to flow in one direction around continuous circuits.

45.

current allows electrons to flow in alternate directions back and forth in a circuit.

46. The

in a computer converts AC power to DC.

47. The power supply connects to the power cord via a standard 48. The IEC-320 plug has three holes: the ground.

connector. , the

, and the

49. A (n)

is used to test AC outlets.

50. The

wire helps excess electricity to return safely to the ground.

51. A (n)

is also called a volt-ohm meter.

52. The wire to the other.

test by a multimeter checks whether electrons can flow from one end of the

53. A (n) outages.

is used to protect the computer from frequent power dips or power

54. A (n) against power dips.

will provide conditioned AC by filtering out noise and will also protect

55. All uninterruptible power supplies are measured in

56. A (n) from power surges.

is inserted between the power supply and the outlet to protect the system

57. A (n)

is the unit of electrical energy.

58. Mini connectors are often called

power connectors.

59. L-shaped power connectors are used for 60. A (n)

is used to create more connections to power all the devices in a PC.

61. Modern motherboards use a connector.

-or

-pin P1 power

62. A system you maintain locks up randomly. This is very likely due to problems. 63. In order to check power supply voltages, the power supply must be

64. The motherboard power connector is backward compatible with the older 20pin connector so that users don't have to buy a new motherboard if they use an ATX12V 2.0 power supply. 65. Every device in a PC requires a certain amount of amount of amps and volts it needs. 66. Modern ATX12V power supplies add the volt power. 67. The 68.

to function, derived from the

connector, providing additional 12-

provides basic cooling for the PC. provide extra cooling for key components.

69. The sends it outside. 70.

located near the top of the computer case takes air from inside the case and

assist in maintaining proper airflow and keeping the dust and smoke out of the case.

71. The V ~ sign stands for

current.

72. If a multimeter shows infinite there is no continuity.

between one end of a wire and the other, then

73. Higher-end PCIe cards have a dedicated 74. A (n)

-pin PCIe power connector.

has a power-conditioning feature.

75.

is the amount of electrons moving past a certain point on a wire.

76. The amount of amps and volts needed by a particular device to perform its function is expressed in . 77. A

can protect equipment during power sags.

78. To handle differing voltages in multiple countries, most power supplies are 79. Ideally, rails should be independent and not 80. Large sags in electricity are also known as 81. What is the function of the power supply?

82. What is an electron?

83. What is current?

from each other. .

84. What is a watt?

85. What is an FRU?

86. What are the two types of current?

87. What symbols do multimeters use to indicate DC and AC settings?

88. What is the purpose of a continuity test?

89. What devices can be used to protect a PC from faulty AC?

90. What is the power-conditioning feature of a UPS?

91. What is surge suppression?

92. What is the purpose of the P4 12 V connector?

93. How is additional 12-volt power supplied from a power supply?

94. How long does the ATX power supply remain on?

95. What is the correlation between volts, amperes, and wattage?

96. What is the soft power feature?

97. What should be checked if a system doesn't seem to have power?

98. What's a possible symptom of a power supply that is dying slowly?

99. What is the use of splitters?

100.How do fuses provide basic protection from overflow of electricity?

101.What is the purpose of slot covers?

102.What are the ways in which power supplies can fail?

103.You begin troubleshooting a computer that does not start. The fan in the power supply does not turn on when the PC is plugged into a known good AC outlet. What would you do?

104.What is the purpose of the exhaust fan in the computer case?

105.Describe case fans.

106.What are the functions of the power supply fan?

107.Where is the real on/off switch located on a PC?

108.What aspects of electric current can be measured using a multimeter?

109.How do the electrons flow in DC current versus AC current?

110.Describe a multimeter.

111.You suspect that a wire has a break in it. What can you do to test your theory?

112.How does a ground wire provide protection from overflow of electricity?

113.List the steps for powering a PC.

114.What is the recommended wattage for a new system?

115.How do today's power supplies handle increased loads from higher-end equipment?

116.How can a UPS help regulate power to a computer?

117.Why are older power supplies inadequate to deal with today's higher-end equipment power needs?

118.Why are modern power supplies better for computers that have many devices to connect for power?

119.How does a typical power supply deal with changing voltages in different countries?

120.Describe the Mini-ATX and micro-ATX power-supply form factors.

Chapter 10_Power Supplies Key 1. (p. 301) B 2. (p. 301) A 3. (p. 302) C 4. (p. 302) B 5. (p. 304) C 6. (p. 304) D 7. (p. 306) C 8. (p. 303) A 9. (p. 309) A 10. (p. 309) A 11. (p. 309) A 12. (p. 315) D 13. (p. 311) D 14. (p. 303) C 15. (p. 308) A 16. (p. 311) B 17. (p. 311) A 18. (p. 311) D 19. (p. 309) A 20. (p. 318) D 21. (p. 309) A 22. (p. 312) C 23. (p. 312) A 24. (p. 304) D 25. (p. 304) D 26. (p. 317) D 27. (p. 306) D 28. (p. 306) C 29. (p. 315) B 30. (p. 303) C 31. (p. 309) A 32. (p. 313) B 33. (p. 318) B 34. (p. 322) C 35. (p. 315) D 36. (p. 306) A

37. (p. 306) C 38. (p. 313) D 39. (p. 322) A 40. (p. 309) B 41. (p. 301) electricity 42. (p. 302) resistance 43. (p. 302) voltage 44. (p. 302) Direct 45. (p. 302) Alternating 46. (p. 301) power supply 47. (p. 303) IEC-320 48. (p. 304) hot; neutral 49. (p. 304) multimeter or circuit tester 50. (p. 304) ground 51. (p. 304) multimeter 52. (p. 304) continuity 53. (p. 307) uninterruptible power supply (UPS) 54. (p. 307) uninterruptible power supply (UPS) 55. (p. 307) watts 56. (p. 306) surge suppressor 57. (p. 306) joule 58. (p. 309) floppy 59. (p. 311) SATA hard drives 60. (p. 311) splitter 61. (p. 311) 20, 24 62. (p. 312) power supply 63. (p. 321) connected 64. (p. 309) 24-pin 65. (p. 302) wattage 66. (p. 312) P4 connector and unique 8-pin 67. (p. 317) power-supply fan 68. (p. 317) Case fans 69. (p. 318) exhaust fan 70. (p. 318) Slot covers 71. (p. 304) alternating 72. (p. 305) resistance 73. (p. 309) 6-pin or 8 74. (p. 307) uninterruptible power supply (UPS)

75. (p. 301) Current 76. (p. 302) watts 77. (p. 307) UPS 78. (p. 303) dual-voltage 79. (p. 313) draw power 80. (p. 306) brownouts 81. (p. 301) The function of the power supply is to take AC power from the wall socket and transform it into DC power to run the motherboard and other internal components. 82. (p. 301) An electron is a negatively charged particle. 83. (p. 301) Current is the amount of electrons moving past a certain point on a wire. 84. (p. 304) The amount of amps and volts needed by a particular device to perform its function is expressed in watts. 85. (p. 301) An FRU is a Field Replaceable Unit, such as a power supply, that a tech carries along in the field. 86. (p. 302) There are two types of current: alternating current (AC), in which electrons flow in two directions, and direct current (DC), in which electrons flow in one direction. 87. (p. 304) The symbol used by multimeters to indicate a DC setting is V with a solid line above a dashed line. The symbol used to indicate an AC setting is V ~. 88. (p. 304-305) A continuity test is used to determine breaks in wires and components. 89. (p. 307) UPS and surge suppressor 90. (p. 307) The power-conditioning feature of a UPS means that its battery filters the AC power to provide the PC with very smooth AC current. 91. (p. 306) Surge suppression is the protection of devices from voltage spikes. 92. (p. 312) The P4 12 V connector is a four-wire connector that is used to supply 12-volt power into the motherboard. 93. (p. 312-313) Voltage rails 94. (p. 316-317) The ATX power supply remains on as long as the power supply stays connected to the power outlet and supplies 5 V power to the motherboard. 95. (p. 301) The correlation between volts (V), amperes (A), and wattage (W) is V × A = W. 96. (p. 311) The soft power feature of the ATX motherboard refers to the fact that the system is always on when plugged in; this enables features such as power management. 97. (p. 317) Check whether it's plugged in and turned on. Then ensure that the power supply is working. 98. (p. 321) Random lock ups, random crashes, and intermittent failure to boot. 99. (p. 311) Splitters are used to create more connections to power all the devices in a PC. 100. (p. 302) When too much electricity passes through the fuse, the wire inside breaks. 101. (p. 318) Slot covers cover empty slots to maintain proper airflow and help to keep dust and smoke out of the case. 102. (p. 320) The two different types of power supply failure are sudden death and slowly over time. 103. (p. 320) Verify that the PC is turned on and, if so, check and/or replace the power supply. 104. (p. 318) The exhaust fan is used to take warm air from inside the case and send it outside. 105. (p. 317) Case fans are large square fans that snap into special brackets in the case, providing extra cooling for key components. 106. (p. 317) The functions of the power supply fan are to cool the voltage regulator circuits within the power supply and to provide a constant flow of outside air throughout the interior of the computer case. 107. (p. 317) The real on/off switch is located on the back of the system unit, on the power supply. 108. (p. 304) A multimeter provides the following measurements: AC voltage, continuity, DC voltage, and resistance. 109. (p. 302) In DC current, electrons flow in one direction around a continuous circuit, while in AC current, the electrons alternate direction back and forth in a circuit.

110. (p. 304) A multimeter is a device that can be used to measure various aspects of electricity. A multimeter consists of two probes, an analog or a digital meter, and a dial to set up the specified test. 111. (p. 304) Use a multimeter to measure the continuity of the wire. 112. (p. 302) A ground wire provides a path of least resistance for electrons to flow back to ground in case of an accidental overflow. 113. (p. 303) The steps involved in powering a PC are to obtain and maintain a constant supply of AC power, convert AC power to DC power, and control the heat generated by electricity. 114. (p. 302) At least a 400-watt power supply is a general recommendation for a new system. This is a common wattage and will give the system plenty of extra power for booting as well as for other components that might be added in the future. 115. (p. 313) Today's power supply manufacturers use single, high-amperage, 12-V rails, ignoring the 16-18 amp rule. You can find power supplies now with 12-V rails pushing 50 amps or more. 116. (p. 307) A UPS can act as a surge suppressor and power conditioner to protect from spikes and supply consistent power. It can also protect equipment during power sags, such as brownouts, and help supply power for a short period of time during a complete power loss. 117. (p. 313) In the past, 12-V rails only supplied about 18 amps, which wasn't enough to power all the high-end equipment that may be found in a system today. 118. (p. 309) In addition to being able to supply much more power than older power supplies, newer ones include a lot of connectors—up to 25 or even more. 119. (p. 309) Most power supplies are dual-voltage and compatible with both. They may have a switch on the back to accommodate multiple countries. 120. (p. 309) These are smaller power-supply form factors designed specifically for mini-ATX and micro-ATX cases, respectively.

Chapter 10_Power Supplies Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 10

# of Questions 29 41 50 120

Chapter 11_Hard Drives Technologies Student:

stores data in a unique pattern of 1s and 0s. A. FM B. MFM C. PMFM D. RLL

Each platter requires A. two B. three C. five D. eight

A is a circle where data is stored on a drive. A. cylinder B. head C. platter D. track

Which of the following hard drive geometry values is no longer relevant in today's PCs? A. Cylinder B. Head C. Sector D. Write precomp

Which interface requires a ribbon cable and a built-in controller on the drive itself? A. AT B. ATA C. PATA D. SATA

How many drives can be supported with ATA-2 (sometimes called EIDE)? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

Modern PATA drives use a A. mini B. Molex C. P1 D. sub

The interface enables non-hard drive devices to connect to the PC via the ATA controllers. A. ATA B. ATAPI C. EIDE D. PATA

How many wires does the SATA interface have? A. Four B. Eight C. Seven D. Eighty

heads.

connector for power.

10. How many pins does an EIDE (ATA) drive have? A. 7 B. 20 C. 40 D. 80 11. How many ATA devices can be connected to most PCs? A. One B. Two C. Four D. Six 12. Which of the following does not require jumper settings? A. PATA B. ATA C. AT D. SATA 13. The drive technology that supports only a single device per controller channel is known as A. AT B. ATA C. PATA D. SATA 14. What is a series of SCSI devices working together through a host adapter called? A. SCSI chain B. SCSI drive C. SCSI host adapter D. SCSI system 15. The SCSI host adapter uses the A. ribbon cable B. SCSI chain C. external port D. SCSI ID

to differentiate between devices.

16. What's the minimum number of drives needed for RAID 5? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four 17. A system with the A. ECHS B. IDE C. INT13 D. LBA

extension can handle drives up to 137 GB.

18. The standard features a 48-bit addressing scheme. A. ATA/ATAPI-6 B. ECHS C. INT13 D. LBA 19. What hard drive technology typically implements a 1.8-, 2.5-, or 3.5-inch form factor? A. SSD B. PATA C. SCSI D. SATA

20. Since any SCSI device might be on the end of a chain, most manufacturers build SCSI devices that can . A. echo B. self-terminate C. be terminated D. transfer data 21. Internal SCSI devices connect to the host adapter with a A. 50 B. 68 C. 100 D. 168

-pin ribbon cable.

22. What hot-pluggable external hard drive technology uses shielded cable with lengths up to two meters outside the PC? A. EIDE B. eSATA C. ePATA D. UltraDMA 23. Laptops, memory cards, USB thumb drives, and hand-held devices often use A. DNAD B. ST-506 C. solid-state D. ATAPI-2 24. ATA/66, ATA/100, and ATA/133 require a A. 30-wire B. 40-wire C. 50-wire D. 80-wire

technology.

cable.

25. What is the process of spreading data across multiple drives? A. Disk striping B. Disk mirroring C. Disk duplexing D. Parity 26. What do nonvolatile flash memory devices use to retain data when power is turned off or disconnected? A. ATAPI-6 B. ATA-7 C. AHCI D. NAND 27. Disk mirroring is also known as A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 2 D. RAID 3

28. How many devices are supported per SATA controller channel? A. 1 B. 2 C. 127 D. 15

29. Which RAID levels combined dedicated data drives with dedicated parity drives? A. RAID 2 and RAID 0 B. RAID 2 and RAID 5 C. RAID 3 and RAID 4 D. RAID 2 and RAID 4 30. Which operating system has built-in software for RAID 5? A. Windows XP Home B. Windows XP Professional C. Windows Server 2008 D. Windows Vista Home Premium 31. The mirroring technique in which each drive has its own controller is called A. diskduplexing B. disk striping C. disk striping with parity D. super-disk mirroring 32. SCSI ID numbers can range from 0 to A. 15 B. 25 C. 35 D. 45

33. What tool can you use in Windows to configure and manage hard drives and RAID levels? A. FDISK B. Disk Management C. AHCI D. Device Manager 34. How is hard drive spindle speed measured? A. Revolutions per minute (RPM) B. Bytes per second (BPS) C. Reads per second (RPS) D. Writes per second (WPS) 35. All of the following are common hard drive speeds EXCEPT: A. 5,400 B. 7,200 C. 9,600 D. 15,000 36. The SATA 2.0 specification has a speed of: A. 2 GBPS B. 3 GBPS C. 1.5 GBPS D. 6 GBPS 37. Some early versions of what specification used a 25-pin connector? A. SATA B. USB C. IDE D. SCSI 38. What add-on board might you also find a SSD hard drive attached to? A. ISA B. PCI C. AGP D. PCIe

39. Which SATA variety runs at 6 GBPS? A. SATA 2.0 B. SATA 1.0 C. SATA 3.0 D. SATA 6.0 40. Which newer port is found on laptops and enables you to connect an internal drive (HDD, SSD, or optical drive) to your laptop without an enclosure? A. SCSI B. eSATAp C. USB 3.0 D. SATA 41. Drive platters are made of aluminum and are coated with a (n) 42. ATAPI devices plug into a (n)

medium.

controller on the motherboard.

43. The direction of the

defines a 1 or a 0 on the hard drive.

44. Fluxes are grouped in runs using a data encoding system known as

45. An extremely advanced RLL method is known as

46. In early hard drives, the actuator arm was moved in fixed increments or steps using a (n) . 47. Hard drives today employ a (n)

to move the actuator arms.

48. To support RAID 5, you must have at least

drives.

49. Where a hard drive stores data is determined by the 50. Every

requires two heads.

51. Each group of tracks of the same diameter in a hard drive forms what is called a(n) . 52. The number of sectors in each track is referred to as the 53. The ATA-2 standard defined a way to get past the 504-MB limit with

value. .

54. After installing a PATA drive, it is not recognized. You verify the cabling. You should now check the . 55. ATA (IDE) drives connect to the computer via a(n)

plug and a controller.

56. PATA drives are designated as 57.

and

do not have mechanical moving parts and do not create heat or wear down as quickly as platter-based drives.

58. As per the PATA standard, if there is only one hard drive, the drive's jumper is set to . 59.

has up to three options that are set in CMOS: IDE or compatibility mode, AHCI, or RAID.

60. The hard drive at the end of a cable-select cable is the is the slave.

and the one in the middle

61. The either incorrectly.

on the SATA controller and power cables makes it impossible to install

62. With with.

there's no master, slave, cable select, or jumpers configurations to mess

63. SSDs use either data.

technology to store and retrieve

64. In current drives, the BIOS automatically updates the CHS values in the CMOS through a process called . 65. Most SCSI devices require you to set a termination.

for

66. Windows Vista supports hybrid hard drives (HHDs) and offers caching and booting.

for faster

67. Most current drives use an extremely advanced method of RLL called encoding. 68. The

describes the drive geometry to the CMOS.

69. A system with INT13 extensions can handle drives as large as 70. With ATA/ATAPI-6, drives can be as large as

. PB.

71. The non-chipset-based SATA controllers require a(n) 72. Disk striping with

protects data with fault tolerance.

to function.

73. Mirroring is also known as

74. Combining different types of RAID into a single array (such as RAID0+1) is known as solutions. 75. The maximum SATA-device cable length is

76. The general rule pertaining to SCSI is that users should terminate only the ends of the . 77. SATA enables installation of a parallel ATA device to a serial ATA controller by using a device called a (n) . 78. The process of connecting one SCSI device directly to another SCSI device is called . 79. The most common way to protect data is by a method called 80. Disk striping by itself does not provide

. of data.

81. Software RAID means the

is in charge of all the RAID functions.

82. Hardware RAID supports on.

, which allows drives to be removed with power

83. RAID that distributes data and parity information evenly across all the drives is known as . 84. RAID that does not provide any data redundancy is known as 85. A (n)

drive would be able to run at the speed of the SATA bus.

86. Faster drives mean better system performance, but they can also cause the computer to 87. With the introduction of ATAPI, the ATA standards are often referred to as ATA. 88. The 89. The SATA 90.

is the name used to describe the casing of external hard drives. specification runs at 1.5 GBPS. extends the SATA bus at full speed.

. instead of just

91. What is CHS?

92. What is RLL?

93. What is flux and flux reversal?

94. Explain the connections in a SCSI host adapter.

95. What is a sector?

96. What is S.M.A.R.T.?

97. Why does BIOS no longer require the landing zone geometry?

98. List any three features of solid-state drives.

99. What is the function of termination in a SCSI chain?

100.What is the primary controller?

101.What is the function of cable select jumper setting?

102.How do non-hard drive devices get their BIOS?

103.What does SATA use instead of a master/slave concept?

104.What is autodetection?

105.What are the four different technologies used for hard drives today?

106.What is sector translation?

107.What is INT13?

108.If a SCSI chain has internal and external drives, where does it need to be terminated?

109.What are some methods of terminating a SCSI chain?

110.What is disk mirroring?

111.What is disk duplexing?

112.What is the advantage of disk duplexing over disk mirroring?

113.What is disk striping?

114.What is ESATAP?

115.Describe the use of the 25-pin SCSI connector.

116.Describe the spindle or rotational speed of a hard drive.

117.What is the key factor in dealing with overheating from faster drives?

118.What are the specifications and matching speeds of SATA?

119.Which disks typically do not need defragmenting?

120.What is the purpose of AHCI?

Chapter 11_Hard Drives Technologies Key 1. (p. 332) D 2. (p. 334) A 3. (p. 334) D 4. (p. 335) D 5. (p. 345) B 6. (p. 339) D 7. (p. 359) B 8. (p. 341) B 9. (p. 337) C 10. (p. 339) C 11. (p. 345) C 12. (p. 337) D 13. (p. 337) D 14. (p. 348) A 15. (p. 350) D 16. (p. 354) C 17. (p. 344) C 18. (p. 345) A 19. (p. 336) A 20. (p. 351) B 21. (p. 348) B 22. (p. 347) B 23. (p. 336) C 24. (p. 345) D 25. (p. 352) A 26. (p. 336) D 27. (p. 352) B 28. (p. 337) A 29. (p. 354) C 30. (p. 356) C 31. (p. 352) A 32. (p. 350) A 33. (p. 356) B 34. (p. 335) A 35. (p. 335) C 36. (p. 337) B

37. (p. 348) D 38. (p. 336) D 39. (p. 346) C 40. (p. 348) B 41. (p. 331) magnetic 42. (p. 338) ATA 43. (p. 332) flux reversal 44. (p. 332) run length limited (RLL) 45. (p. 332) Partial Response Maximum Likelihood (PRML) 46. (p. 333) stepper motor 47. (p. 333) linear motor 48. (p. 354) 3 49. (p. 340) geometry 50. (p. 334) platter 51. (p. 334) cylinder 52. (p. 334) sectors/track or sectors per track 53. (p. 339) logical block addressing (LBA) 54. (p. 359) jumpers 55. (p. 337) 40-pin 56. (p. 338) master; slave 57. (p. 336) Solid-state drives (SSDs) 58. (p. 358) master or standalone 59. (p. 365) AHCI or Enabling AHCI 60. (p. 344) master 61. (p. 360) keying 62. (p. 346) SATA or eSATA 63. (p. 336) NAND (nonvolatile); SDRAM (volatile) 64. (p. 362) autodetection 65. (p. 351) jumper; switch 66. (p. 366) ReadyBoost 67. (p. 332) Partial Response Maximum Likelihood (PRML) 68. (p. 340) logical geometry 69. (p. 343) 137 GB 70. (p. 345) 144 71. (p. 366) software device driver 72. (p. 354) parity 73. (p. 352) RAID 1 74. (p. 355) multiple RAID

75. (p. 346) 1 meter or 40 inches 76. (p. 348) SCSI chain 77. (p. 346) SATA bridge 78. (p. 348) daisy-chaining 79. (p. 354) disk striping with distributed parity or RAID 5 80. (p. 352) redundancy or protection 81. (p. 355) operating system (OS) 82. (p. 356) hot-swapping 83. (p. 354) RAID 5 84. (p. 352) RAID 0 85. (p. 347) external SATA (eSATA) 86. (p. 335) overheat 87. (p. 345) ATA/ATAPI 88. (p. 337) external enclosure 89. (p. 337) 1.0 90. (p. 347) eSATA 91. (p. 334) CHS is the value of cylinders, heads, and sector/track that combine to define hard drive geometry. 92. (p. 332) RLL stands for run length limited, a special encoding system that allows hard drives to read and write data in groups (runs). 93. (p. 332) Each tiny magnetic field on the hard drive is called a flux that can switch back and forth through a process called flux reversal. 94. (p. 348) A SCSI host adapter has two connections. The first connector is for inside (internal) SCSI connections. The second connector is for devices on the outside (external) of the PC. All SCSI chains connect to the PC through the host adapter. 95. (p. 334) A sector is the smallest sliver of data capacity on a hard disk, storing 512 bytes of data. 96. (p. 343) S.M.A.R.T. is an ATA-3 feature that helps predict when a hard drive is going to fail by monitoring the hard drive's mechanical components. 97. (p. 333) Today's voice coil drives park the read/write heads automatically on the landing zone while not accessing data. Hence, the BIOS no longer requires the landing zone geometry. 98. (p. 336) The features of solid-state drives are no moving mechanical parts, little or no heat produced, less wear over time, and that they take up less space. 99. (p. 348) Termination is the process of putting resistors on the ends of the wire to prevent reflection of the signal in the wire. 100. (p. 362) The primary controller is the controller set to be the first place the system looks at boot-up to find the master drive where the operating system is stored. 101. (p. 359) In the cable select jumper setting, the position of a drive on the cable determines which one will be master or slave. 102. (p. 361) Non-hard drive devices get their BIOS from an option ROM or a software driver. 103. (p. 337) Each SATA drive connects to one port; drives aren't daisy-chained together. Motherboards typically have four ports for four SATA drives, but many have eight ports. A SATA host card can be added for more. 104. (p. 362) In autodetection, the BIOS routines ask the drive for the stored CHS values and automatically update the CMOS with the values returned. 105. (p. 330) PATA, SATA, solid-state, and SCSI 106. (p. 340) The process of translating the logical geometry into the physical geometry and vice versa is called sector translation. 107. (p. 343) The INT13 extension is a set of BIOS commands that completely ignore the CHS values but feed the LBA a stream of addressable sectors. 108. (p. 348) It needs to be terminated on both the internal and external sections.

109. (p. 351) Jumpers, switches, or auto-termination are some methods of terminating a SCSI chain. 110. (p. 352) The process of reading and writing data at the same time to two hard drives is called disk mirroring. 111. (p. 352) Disk duplexing is a mirroring technology that uses two separate controllers to write data to two separate drives. 112. (p. 352) disk duplexing is faster than disk mirroring because one controller does not write each piece of data twice. Additionally, the redundancy of controllers ensures that the system will continue to work even if the primary drive's controller stops working. 113. (p. 352) Disk striping is the process of spreading data among multiple drives. 114. (p. 348) This port physically combines a powered USB connection with a speedy eSATA connection; you can connect a USB, eSATA, or special eSATAp cable into the port. eSATAp enables you to connect an internal drive (HDD, SSD, or optical drive) to your laptop without an enclosure, using a single cable to power it and send/receive data. 115. (p. 349) This connector was much more popular on Apple devices, though it did see use on PCs with the old SCSI Zip drives. The connector is now obsolete. 116. (p. 335) Hard drives run at a set spindle speed, measured in revolutions per minute (RPM). Older drives ran at a speed of 3600 RPM, but new drives are hitting 15,000 RPM. The faster the spindle speed, the faster the controller can store and retrieve data. The common speeds are: 5400, 7200, 10,000 and 15,000 RPM. 117. (p. 335) Airflow 118. (p. 346) SATA 1.0: 1.5 Gbps; SATA 2.0: 3 Gbps; and SATA 3.0: 6 Gbps 119. (p. 361) Solid State Drives. Because solid-state drives access data without having to find that data on the surface of a physical disk first, there's never any reason to defrag one. Also, SSDs have a limited number of read/write operations before they reach the end of their useful lives, and the defragmentation process uses those operations needlessly. 120. (p. 365) Windows Vista and later operating systems support the Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI), a more efficient way to work with SATA HBAs. Using AHCI unlocks some of the advanced features of SATA, such as hot-swapping and native command queuing.

Chapter 11_Hard Drives Technologies Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 11

# of Questions 17 57 46 120

Chapter 12_ Implementing Hard Drives Student:

Windows can create partitions using the A. basic B. extended C. volume D. system

disk.

The takes control of the boot process from the system BIOS. A. boot sector B. CMOS C. MBR D. POST

How many partitions can be active at any given point in time? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Five

All basic hard drive partition tables support up to A. one B. two C. four D. six

The stores the location of the operating system boot files. A. boot sector B. MBR C. partition table D. partition boot sector

The operating system is stored in a(n) A. basic B. dynamic C. extended D. primary

Which of the following is the default primary partition for Windows? A. C: B. E: C. D: D. F:

A PC can boot to both Windows XP and Linux or Windows Vista. What is this called? A. Dual-boot B. Integrated C. MBR enabled D. Schizophrenic

How many extended partitions can be created in a hard drive? A. One B. Two C. Five D. Six

partitions.

partition.

10. In Windows, each A. cylinder B. file C. format D. partition

is assigned a drive letter from C: to Z:.

11. Which of the following is not a volume type on a dynamic disk? A. simple B. stripped C. primary D. mirrored 12. Where do some PC makes hide a backup copy of the OS for later restoration? A. Swap partition B. Hidden partition C. Simple volume D. Dynamic volume 13. What tool can you use to find additional space on your hard drive? A. Convert B. Defrag C. Disk Cleanup D. Disk Management 14. What tool in Windows is used to partition and format a drive? A. Disk Management B. Disk Administrator C. FDISK D. RAID 15. A volume is similar to a primary partition, but it is not a primary partition. A. mirrored B. simple C. spanned D. striped 16. A is a place in the directory structure of an existing volume that you can point to a volume or partition. A. partition table B. volume boot sector C. stripe set D. mount point 17. An entire physical drive can be added to another drive as a folder by creating a A. mount point B. simple volume C. spanned volume D. striped volume

18. What will happen to your data if you try to convert a dynamic disk back to a basic disk? A. Data will be lost. B. Data will be converted to basic data. C. You will get a BSOD. D. A new Backup Volume will be created.

19. To change a basic disk to dynamic, right-click the drive icon and select A. format B. partition C. Convert to Dynamic Disk D. New Volume 20. To make dynamic volume bigger, right-click the volume and choose A. Span Volume B. Convert to bigger C. Expand Volume D. Extend Volume

21. By default, what is the maximum size of an NTFS dynamic disk? A. 2 TB B. 16 TB C. 18,446,744,073,709,551,616 bytes D. 16 EB 22. Which of the following codes indicates that a sector in the hard drive is bad? A. FFFF B. FFF7 C. 0007 D. 0000 23. Which type of interface does the Windows Vista installation partitioning page use? A. Text based B. Dynamic based C. GUI based D. Basic based 24. If you move a dynamic disk from one computer to another, how will this drive be displayed in Disk Manager? A. Failed B. Formatting C. Unallocated D. Foreign drive 25. In Windows Vista, what can't you create unless you already have three primary partitions? A. Extended partitions B. Active partitions C. Page files D. Word documents 26. Which is the proper path to compress or encrypt a file or folder in Windows? A Right-click it in My Computer or Computer and select Properties to open the Properties dialog box. . Then Click the Advanced button. B. Right-click it and select Properties. In the Properties dialog box, select the Quota tab and make changes. C. Right-click the folder or file and select Initialize Encryption and Compression. D. Click Start and type compress or encrypt in the Run line. 27. Which file system enables a user to adjust the cluster size? A. FAT8 B. FAT16 C. FAT32 D. NTFS

28. What type of problem does the error message "No BOOT Device" indicate? A. CMOS B. Connectivity C. Partition D. Installation 29. What tool can be used to verify a hard disk on Windows? A. Check Disk B. Disk Defragmenter C. Error-checking tool D. ScanDisk 30. A (n) is a drive that functions like a folder on another drive. A. extended partition B. mount point C. primary partition D. secondary partition 31. How many MBRs can exist on a disk? A. 1 B. 4 C. One per drive letter D. One per primary partition 32. If using primary partitions, how many drive letters is a disk limited to? A. 4 B. 1 C. 26 D. 5 33. When using dynamic disks, which version of Windows can create RAID 5 volumes? A. Windows 7 Professional B. Windows Vista Enterprise C. Windows Server D. Windows 7 Ultimate 34. What newer type of drive partitioning overcomes the limits of MBR drives? A. Dynamic disks B. GPT C. MBR2 D. LBA 35. How many partitions has Microsoft limited Windows to under GPT partitioning? A. 4 B. 64 C. 32 D. 128 36. Which version of Windows supports booting from a GPT drive? A. Windows Vista 64-bit B. Windows 7 32-bit C. Windows XP 64-bit D. Windows Vista Enterprise 32-bit 37. What are drive structures called in Windows 7 Disk Management? A. Drives B. Partitions C. Volumes D. Sectors

38. Which file system is a newer version of FAT and allows file sizes larger than 4 GB? A. NTFS B. FAT64 C. HPFS D. FAT16 39. When Windows Vista and 7 create volumes, what type are the first three you create? A. primary B. extended C. logical D. boot 40. Windows 7 Professional, Enterprise, and Ultimate editions can create a mirror set with two drives for data redundancy, which is also known as . A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6 41. The process of dividing a physical hard disk into logical groups of cylinders is known as . 42. While drive geometry is needed by the hardware in the computer, the operating system can't use the drive until it is and . 43. A group of cylinders on a hard drive is called a (n)

44. A (n) organizes each partition on the hard disk in such a way that the operating system can store files and folders. 45. To enable a single hard drive to store more than one operating system, it would need to be . 46. Partitioning creates a (n) 47. The

and a partition table on the disk. contains the MBR and the partition table.

48. When you install an operating system, you must set that partition as 49. The drive. 50.

program in Windows enables a user to create additional partitions on a hard

occurs as files begin to separate over time.

51. To boot from a hard drive, it must contain the

partition.

52. A graphical tool in Windows that is used to check and correct a fragmented drive is called the .

53. A storage type unique to Windows 2000/XP/Vista is known as 54. Dynamic disks are divided into 55.

instead of partitions.

is a tool used to get rid of files in the Recycle Bin, temporary Internet files, and downloaded program files.

56. The

feature of NTFS provides security for files and folders.

57. A (n) is created to use extra space from a completely different dynamic disk to increase the size of a simple volume. 58. The

file system provides encryption of files.

59. The encryption capability in NTFS is called

60. The

tool can be used to help eliminate unneeded files.

61. The

tool checks for bad clusters in the hard disk.

62. CHKDSK and Scan Disk are two maintenance tools that have been combined into the tool in Windows. 63. The chunks.

program in Windows is used to rearrange the files into neat, contiguous

64. In the FAT system, formatting marks good sectors as 65. In FAT16,

enables a user to format partitions larger than 32 MB in size.

66. Using two or more volumes in a set is known as a(n)

volume.

67. Before storing data on a hard disk, create a(n) the drive.

and root directory by formatting

68. Any removable media that has a bootable OS is generically known as a(n) 69. One of the benefits of mount points is that they don't require a(n) 70. A hard drive can be formatted with 71.

creates a file system and root directory.

in Windows.

. .

72. Most drives today use built-in sectors. 73. The Internet files.

that constantly checks the drives for bad

tool can be run to clear up space on the hard drive occupied by temporary

74. A bad sector is marked as bad in the drive's internal error map by the 75. You should unit" errors.

your hard drive if it gets a lot of "Trying to recover lost allocation

76. Disk Management will show a System disk as communicating properly with the computer.

if it is healthy and

77. FAT32 does not work on drives larger than 78. You should never defrag a (n)

. because it can shorten its lifetime.

79. A GPT is not limited to any number of 80. On a GPT drive, LBA 0 is the

partitions. .

81. List the major improvements or refinements of NTFS.

82. What box would you check to make a file unreadable?

83. What are the two different styles of partitioning in use by Windows systems?

84. What are the different types of basic disk partitions?

85. What is a boot sector?

86. What is the function of the master boot record (MBR)?

87. What is a volume boot sector?

88. What are the different types of volumes in dynamic disks?

89. A user has an extended partition in the hard drive and no primary partition. How will the user boot the system?

90. What is FDISK?

91. What are the purposes of the tools FDISK and Disk Management?

92. What is a benefit of extended partitions over primary partitions?

93. What would you do if you wanted to run both Windows XP and Vista on your PC?

94. What is the difference between Disk Management and FDISK?

95. What are the differences between basic and dynamic disks?

96. What is the difference between extending a disk and spanning a disk?

97. What option is used to convert a basic disk into a dynamic disk in Windows?

98. The C: drive is a volume. What do you know about the disk?

99. What type of volume can be used to increase the read and write speed on a dynamic disk?

100.What is a mount point?

101.What is the advantage of using mirrored volumes?

102.What is a file allocation table, or FAT?

103.What does high-level formatting do?

104.What are clusters?

105.What is the purpose of defragmentation?

106.Where does NTFS keep the backup copy of the master file table (MFT)?

107.List any two advantages of NTFS over other file systems.

108.What is the purpose of encryption in NTFS?

109.What is the Ultimate Boot CD?

110.List a few possible errors you might see if boot files or data become corrupt.

111.What is an error correction code (ECC)?

112.What would you use to set limits on the amount of drive space usage for users?

113.If you currently have two hard drives and an optical drive installed in your system and you add a new hard drive, what drive letter will be assigned to the new drive?

114.What are some symptoms of a dying hard drive?

115.Why would you use FAT over NTFS on USB thumb drives?

116.Describe FAT64.

117.Which consumer versions of Windows support dynamic disks?

118.Compare the globally unique identifier partition table (GPT) to the MBR partitioning scheme.

119.What are the differences in the abilities of Windows XP, Vista, and 7 to resize partitions?

120.What are some differences between Windows XP, Vista, and 7 in partition naming?

Chapter 12_ Implementing Hard Drives Key 1. (p. 375) A 2. (p. 376) C 3. (p. 377) A 4. (p. 377) C 5. (p. 376) D 6. (p. 376) D 7. (p. 377) A 8. (p. 409) A 9. (p. 376) A 10. (p. 377) D 11. (p. 402) C 12. (p. 380) B 13. (p. 412) C 14. (p. 381) A 15. (p. 378) B 16. (p. 407) D 17. (p. 407) A 18. (p. 378) A 19. (p. 402) C 20. (p. 405) D 21. (p. 390) B 22. (p. 384) B 23. (p. 392) C 24. (p. 399) D 25. (p. 400) A 26. (p. 390) A 27. (p. 390) D 28. (p. 417) B 29. (p. 410) C 30. (p. 407) B 31. (p. 376) A 32. (p. 376) A 33. (p. 407) C 34. (p. 379) B 35. (p. 379) D 36. (p. 380-381) A

37. (p. 379) C 38. (p. 379-380) B 39. (p. 400) A 40. (p. 406) B 41. (p. 375) partitioning 42. (p. 375) partitioned; formatted 43. (p. 375) partition or volume 44. (p. 375) file system 45. (p. 375) partitioned 46. (p. 376) master boot record (MBR) 47. (p. 376) boot sector 48. (p. 377) active 49. (p. 381) Disk Management 50. (p. 386) Fragmentation 51. (p. 377) active 52. (p. 388) Disk Defragmenter 53. (p. 376) dynamic disks 54. (p. 378) volumes 55. (p. 414) Disk Cleanup 56. (p. 390) Access Control List (ACL) 57. (p. 378) spanned volume 58. (p. 389) NTFS 59. (p. 390) encrypting file system (EFS) 60. (p. 414) Disk Cleanup 61. (p. 410) Error-checking 62. (p. 410) Error-checking 63. (p. 412) Disk Defragmenter 64. (p. 384) 0000 65. (p. 384) clustering 66. (p. 378) striped 67. (p. 375) file system 68. (p. 392) boot device 69. (p. 408) drive letter 70. (p. 412) Disk Management 71. (p. 375) Formatting 72. (p. 416) error correction code (ECC) 73. (p. 414) Disk Cleanup 74. (p. 416) error correction code (ECC)

75. (p. 415) replace 76. (p. 399) Online or Healthy 77. (p. 400-401) 2 TB 78. (p. 412) solid-state drive (SSD) 79. (p. 379) primary 80. (p. 379) protective MBR 81. (p. 389) Redundancy, security, compression, encryption, disk quotas, and cluster sizing. 82. (p. 390) Click the Encrypt contents to secure data checkbox and then click OK to keep your file safe from prying eyes. 83. (p. 375) Windows systems of today offer two radically different styles of partitioning called basic disks and dynamic disks. Basic disks are traditional disks used on initial installations. Dynamic disks were introduced in Windows 2000 and allow added capabilities. 84. (p. 375) The two different types of basic disk partitions are the primary partition, which supports bootable operating systems, and the extended partition, which is not bootable. 85. (p. 376) A boot sector is the very first sector of the physical hard drive containing the master boot record (MBR) and the partition table. 86. (p. 376) The function of the MBR is to look for a partition in the partition table with a valid operating system. 87. (p. 376) The first sector of the first cylinder of each partition is called the volume boot sector. 88. (p. 378) The different types of volumes in dynamic disks are simple volumes, spanned volumes, striped volumes, mirrored volumes, and striped with parity. 89. (p. 376) The user cannot boot from the extended partition. To boot on a hard drive, it is necessary to have an active primary partition. 90. (p. 380) FDISK is an older command-line program that was used to partition hard drives before Windows 2000. 91. (p. 380-381) The FDISK and Disk Management tools are used to partition the drive in Windows 9x/Me, Windows NT, and Windows 2000/XP/ Vista, respectively. 92. (p. 376) Unlike primary partitions that can be only a single drive, extended partitions can hold multiple logical drives. 93. (p. 377) Create a dual-boot or multiboot system with different operating systems on different partitions. 94. (p. 380-381) Disk Management is a graphical tool used by Windows 2000/XP/Vista, while FDISK is a command-line interface tool used by Windows 9x/Me to partition a hard drive. 95. (p. 375-376) Basic disks can be divided into primary and extended partitions, while dynamic disks are divided into volumes. Dynamic disks allow you to turn two separate drives into a single partition, while basic disks do not. Dynamic disks allow you to enlarge their partitions without first deleting the partition or losing data, whereas basic disks do not allow you to do this without using specialized third-party tools. 96. (p. 378) Extending allows you to extend the size of a simple volume to any unallocated space on a dynamic disk. Spanning allows you to use extra space from different dynamic disks to create a spanned volume. 97. (p. 403) The Convert to Dynamic disk option in Disk Management is used to convert a basic disk into a dynamic disk in Windows. 98. (p. 402) It has been converted to dynamic. 99. (p. 378) A striped volume spreads out blocks of each file across multiple disks, increasing the read and write speed. 100. (p. 407) A mount point is a data structure created by a combination of dynamic disks and NTFS. It is a drive that functions like a folder mounted into another drive. 101. (p. 378) The advantage of using mirrored volumes is that data is simultaneously written to two drives. If one volume fails, the other can take its place. 102. (p. 388) A file allocation table, or FAT, is a special data structure that keeps track of the data stored on the hard drive. It keeps track of which sectors store various parts of a file. 103. (p. 384) High-level formatting creates the FAT, identifies sectors that can hold data, and marks bad sectors that can't hold data. 104. (p. 384) Clusters are sets of contiguous sectors acting as single unit in the FAT. 105. (p. 412) Defragmentation is used to rearrange the clusters of a file into contiguous chunks, thereby increasing the performance of hard drives. 106. (p. 389) NTFS keeps the backup copy of the most critical parts of the master file table (MFT) in the middle of the disk, reducing the chances that a serious drive error can wipe out both the MFT and the copy.

107. (p. 389) NTFS uses an enhanced file allocation table called the master file table (MFT). NTFS uses the Access Control List (ACL) feature to secure files and folders. NTFS allows compression of files and folders to save space on a hard drive. NTFS allows encryption of files with the encrypting file system. NTFS enables use of disk quotas. NTFS allows cluster sizes to be adjusted. 108. (p. 390) Encryption is used to make files unreadable for unauthorized users. 109. (p. 420) The Ultimate Boot CD is a compilation of utilities all included on a single bootable CD. 110. (p. 416) Some of the errors you might see if boot files or data becomes corrupt are "Cannot find COMMAND.COM," "Error loading operating system," "Invalid BOOT.INI," "NTLDR is missing or corrupt," "The following file is missing or corrupt," and "Unable to load file." 111. (p. 416) If the ECC detects a bad sector, it marks the sector as bad in the drive's internal error map. 112. (p. 390) Disk quotas enable administrators to set limits on drive space usage for users. 113. (p. 375, 377) The current two hard drives would be C: and D:, and the optical drive would E:. The new drive would be F:. 114. (p. 417) A continuous high-pitched squeak, a series of clacks interrupted with a short pause, and/or a continuous grinding or rumbling sound indicate a hard drive may be dying. 115. (p. 391) Microsoft sees NTFS as too powerful for what most people need from flash drives, such as permissions. Additionally, user accounts can change from computer to computer, which would make thumb drives difficult to use when moving to different machines. 116. (p. 391) The newer file system, called exFAT or FAT64, breaks the FAT32 4-GB file-size barrier, supporting files up to 16 exabytes (EB) and a theoretical partition limit of 64 zettabytes (ZB). The exFAT file system extends FAT32 from 32-bit cluster entries to 64-bit cluster entries in the file table. Nevertheless, like FAT32, exFAT still lacks all of NTFS's extra features such as permissions, compression, and encryption. 117. (p. 376) Only the high-end editions of each version of Windows support dynamic disks. This includes Windows XP Professional; Windows Vista Business, Ultimate, and Enterprise; and Windows 7 Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise. 118. (p. 376, 379) The globally unique identifier partition table (GPT) is similar to the MBR partitioning scheme, but most of the MBR scheme's limitations have been fixed. While MBR drives are limited to four partitions, a GPT drive can have an almost unlimited number of primary partitions. MBR partitions can be no larger than 2.2 TB, but GPT partitions have no such restrictions, and can support partitions up to zettabytes. 119. (p. 381) Windows XP can nondestructively resize a partition to be larger, but not smaller. In Windows Vista and Windows 7, you can nondestructively resize partitions by shrinking or expanding existing partitions with available free space. 120. (p. 381-382) Drive structures on an MBR or GPT disk are called partitions, regardless of which operating system is used—XP follows this convention. Dynamic disks (Microsoft proprietary) use volumes—not partitions. In Windows Vista and 7, they are called partitions during installation but volumes in Disk Management.

Chapter 12_ Implementing Hard Drives Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 12

# of Questions 15 60 45 120

Chapter 13_Removable Media Student:

What is the storage capacity of the present day 3½-inch floppy disk? A. 60 KB B. 160 KB C. 1.44 MB D. 1.66 MB

What is the device that is used to read a floppy disk? A. Floppy drive B. CD-ROM drive C. Zip drive D. DVD drive

The key preventive maintenance performed on floppy drives is A. adjusting cables B. cleaning C. replacing disks D. resetting CMOS

What will happen if the floppy drive cable is installed backward when installing a floppy drive? A. Data will be corrupt. B. Formatting won't work. C. LED will blink repeatedly. D. The floppy drive will not work.

What is the speed of 32X Speed CD-ROM drives? A. 32× 3600 KBps480 B. 24× 3600 KBps C. 32× 4800 KBps D. 32× 4800 MBps480

Which of the following would prove more damaging to a CD-RW? A. Scratching the bottom of a disc B. Errors while burning the disc C. Scratching the top of a disc D. Power failure while viewing a disc

CD-ROMs store data using A. macro chip pits B. macroscopic pits C. microchip pits D. microscopic pits

CD-ROM drives use a A. disk B. driver C. laser D. light

burned into a glass master CD-ROM with a powerful laser.

and mirrors to read the data off a CD-ROM.

All modern CD-R drives allow you to burn additional data onto a CD-R disc until the disc is full. What are these drives called? A. Multi-CD-Rs B. Multiburner drives C. Multisession drives D. Single-session drives

10. What kind of memory do USB drives use? A. Flash B. PATA C. SATA D. SCSI 11. What is the storage capacity of a single-layer Blu-ray Disc? A. 7.8 GB B. 25 GB C. 50 GB D. 15.6 GB 12. An 8×4×32× CD-RW drive reads at a speed of A. 8× B. 16× C. 24× D. 32×

13. What is the storage capacity of a DVD-18 DVD-ROM? A. 4.37 GB B. 7.95 GB C. 8.74 GB D. 15.90 GB 14. While booting, most PCs will first look for an operating system in the A. A: B. B: C. C: D. D:

drive.

15. If the floppy drive is installed on the middle connector, which drive letter is it assigned? A. A: B. B: C. C: D. F: 16. How much data can the highest capacity Blu-ray Disc store? A. 16 GB B. 25 GB C. 50 GB D. 30 GB 17. What are the two Blu-ray Disc writable formats? A. BD-R and BD-RE B. BD-ROM and BD-RW C. BD-R and BD-RW D. BD-RW and BD-RE

18. You may need to change the A. Region codes B. ISO imagery C. Boot order D. USB settings

in CMOS to install a new OS from the installation media.

19. DVD-ROM is the DVD-equivalent of the standard A. CD-RAM B. CD-ROM C. CD-RW D. CD-R

data format.

20. Which of the following is a group of compression standards for both audio and video? A. Microsoft Picture Experts Group (MPEG) B. Monitor Picture Experts Group (MPEG) C. Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG) D. Moving Picture Experts Group (MPEG) 21. Which is not a valid Secure Digital card type or form? A. SDHC B. MicroSD C. MiniSD D. SDLC 22. Which of the following is not a valid standard for recordable DVD? A. DVD-R B. DVD-RW C. DVD-RAM D. DVD-ROM 23. ATAPI CD-ROMs have regular A. 40-pin B. 50-pin C. 55-pin D. 60-pin

PATA (IDE) connectors and master/slave jumpers.

24. The file on a CD or DVD disc determines if the disk is autoplay or not. A. command.com B. NTOSKRNL C. autoexec.bat D. autorun.inf 25. Which of the following is a complete copy of a CD that can be burned to another CD to make a duplicate? A. CD copy B. ISO file C. Burn image D. CD-RW 26. Be sure to orient the colored stripe on the side of the floppy cable to controller. A. pin 0 B. pin 1 C. pin 34 D. the red pin

on the motherboard floppy

27. What can be used to read different USB cards? A. Card reader B. FireWire controller C. USB bridge D. UB hub 28. What is USB flash memory typically known as? A. Flash floppies B. CDs C. Thumbs D. Thumb drives 29. By default, which Windows version allows you to burn music and data directly to disc? A. Windows 2000 B. Windows XP C. Windows Vista D. Unix 30. What is the DVD region code for the U.S.A. and Canada? A. Region 2 B. Region B C. Region 1 D. Region C 31. Conventionally, if there is only one floppy drive, which drive letter should it be assigned? A. A: B. B: C. C: D. D: 32. The inability of the source device to keep up with the burner is known as A. buffer overload B. buffer underrun C. ISO overrun D. ISO underrun 33. What tool can be used to burn data to an optical disk in Windows XP? A. Windows Movie Maker B. Windows Media Player C. Windows Explorer D. Command prompt 34. Which of the following is the fastest external optical drive interface? A. USB 3.0 B. eSATA C. Firewire D. SCSI 35. Windows Media Player allows you to burn what type of files to CDs? A. Music B. Video C. ISO D. Data 36. Which type of DVD media has a storage capacity of 7.95 GB? A. Dual-sided, dual-layer B. Single-sided, dual-layer C. Dual-sided, single-layer D. Single-sided, single-layer

37. Secure Digital Extended Capacity (SDXC) cards have a storage capacity of: A. 4 MB to 4 GB B. 4 GB to 32 GB C. 32 GB to 2 TB D. 128 MB to 2 GB 38. What is the wavelength of the blue-violet laser that Blu-Ray uses? A. 128-nm B. 700-nm C. 650-nm D. 405-nm 39. Which tool comes built-in with Windows Vista/7 and allows you to create video DVDs? A. Windows Media Player B. Windows DVD Maker C. Group Policy D. Nero 40. Windows A. 7 B. Vista C. XP Home D. XP Professional

has the built-in ability to burn ISOs without the need for third-party tools.

41. A standard floppy disk today has a storage capacity of 42.

MB.

cards come in two sizes: 3.3-mm thick and 5-mm thick.

43. A thumb drive would be plugged into a 44.

port.

flash media cards have a storage capacity of 32 GB to 2 TB.

45. When a CD-ROM is inserted into a system, Windows searches for a special text file called . 46. The CF form factor can hold a small hard drive with platters and read/write heads. These are known as . 47. To read data from memory sticks in cameras, PCs typically have 48. Floppy drives connect to the computer via a(n) 49. The

cable.

settings enable the user to change the default boot order.

50. Windows systems reserve the drive letters 51. The floppy ribbon cable plugs into the 52.

and

for floppy drives. on the motherboard.

cable connectors usually have a distinct orientation notch in the middle.

53. A user can turn an A: drive into a B: drive or vice versa by swapping the 54. The 3½-inch floppy drive uses the small

power connector.

55. CDs, DVDs, and BDs are generically known as

media.

56. The replacement for the VHS tape was

57. Blu-ray Disc eliminated the

format.

58. To repair a scratched CD-ROM, you can use a(n)

59. The CD File System is more officially known as 60. DVDs come in both

-sided and

61. The "RE" in BD-RE stands for

-sided formats. .

62. The two sizes of CD-ROMs are

and

63. The "RW" in CD-RW stands for

64.

optical drives often use USB, FireWire, or eSATA connections.

65. SATA optical drives use standard

66. Secure Digital High Capacity (SDHC) cards have a storage capacity of 67. 68. Windows 69.

is referred to as DL DVD. can burn ISO images. is a tool in Windows Vista and 7 that can be used to burn video.

70. What are the two different families of flash memory cards?

cables. .

71. After installing a new DVD drive, how can you determine whether Windows recognizes it?

72. How can you enable or disable Autoplay in Windows XP?

73. What is the difference between CD-R and CD-RW?

74. What happens if the floppy disk is removed from the floppy drive when the read/write LED is on?

75. What can't CD and DVD drives read or play?

76. What was introduced to stop piracy and represents various geographical locations?

77. How can a disc be retrieved from a CD drive that has no power?

78. How does the location of a floppy drive on the connector determine the drive letter?

79. How can you change the default boot order?

80. What does the color of a CD-R disc mean?

81. What does the BURN-Proof technology developed by Sanyo do?

82. What are the recommended minimum system video requirements for Blu-ray?

83. What happens if the Boot Up Floppy Seek option is disabled?

84. What is a multisession drive?

85. What is the media file format that is a replacement for ISO-9660 and all of its various extensions?

86. What is the basic advantage of using CD-RW over CD-R?

87. What are the functions of the three multiplier values in the CD-RW drive specs?

88. How much data can a DVD with the lowest capacity hold?

89. What does ATAPI-compliant mean?

90. List the two formats of DVDs.

91. After removing the power supply on a PC, you realize the Windows installation CD is still in the CD drive. How can you get it out?

92. How can a CD be cleaned?

93. What is the best way to wipe a CD?

94. Where can you check for optical drive firmware updates?

95. What is buffer underrun?

96. What is an ISO image file?

97. What solid-state device is bootable and can replace floppies, CDs, and DVDs?

98. What is the difference between floppy drives and floppy disks?

99. Which Windows tool allows you to view optical drive status information and perform driver updates?

100.Standard floppy disks are

inches in size.

Chapter 13_Removable Media Key 1. (p. 429) C 2. (p. 429) A 3. (p. 454) B 4. (p. 431) D 5. (p. 439) C 6. (p. 438) C 7. (p. 437) D 8. (p. 438) C 9. (p. 440) C 10. (p. 429) A 11. (p. 445) B 12. (p. 441) D 13. (p. 444) D 14. (p. 432) A 15. (p. 431) B 16. (p. 445) C 17. (p. 446) A 18. (p. 431) C 19. (p. 444) B 20. (p. 444) D 21. (p. 435) D 22. (p. 445) D 23. (p. 447) A 24. (p. 449) D 25. (p. 450) B 26. (p. 431) B 27. (p. 435) A 28. (p. 434) D 29. (p. 450) C 30. (p. 453) C 31. (p. 430) A 32. (p. 456) B 33. (p. 450) C 34. (p. 449) B 35. (p. 450) A 36. (p. 444) B

37. (p. 435) C 38. (p. 446) D 39. (p. 450) B 40. (p. 450) A 41. (p. 430) 1.44 42. (p. 434) CompactFlash (CF) 43. (p. 434) universal serial bus (USB) 44. (p. 435) Secure Digital Extended Capacity (SDXC) 45. (p. 449) AUTORUN.INF 46. (p. 434) microdrives 47. (p. 435) card readers 48. (p. 430) 34-pin ribbon 49. (p. 431) CMOS 50. (p. 430) A:; B: 51. (p. 431) floppy controller 52. (p. 431) Ribbon 53. (p. 431) connectors 54. (p. 432) mini 55. (p. 437) optical 56. (p. 437) digital versatile disc (DVD) 57. (p. 437) High-Definition DVD (HD DVD) 58. (p. 438) polishing kit 59. (p. 439) ISO-9660 60. (p. 443) single (SS); dual (DS) 61. (p. 446) rewritable 62. (p. 440) 650 MB (74 minute); 700 MB (80 minute) 63. (p. 440) rewritable 64. (p. 446) External 65. (p. 447) SATA; eSATA 66. (p. 435) 4 GB to 32 GB 67. (p. 443) Dual-layer DVD 68. (p. 450) 7 69. (p. 450) Windows DVD Maker 70. (p. 434-435) USB thumb drives and memory cards. 71. (p. 437) By opening My Computer or Computer and verifying a DVD drive is present or by looking in Device Manager. 72. (p. 449) By right-clicking the drive in My Computer and toggling the Turn off Autoplay selection in the Autoplay tab. 73. (p. 440) A CD-R is recordable but can only be recorded once. A CD-RW is rewritable and can be rewritten many times. 74. (p. 430) Removing the floppy disk from the floppy drive when the read/write LED is on can damage the floppy disk.

75. (p. 437) CD and DVD drives can't read or play Blu-ray Discs. However, most Blu-ray drives can play CDs and DVDs. 76. (p. 453) DVD and Blu-ray Disc region codes 77. (p. 454) Most drives have a small hole in the front. Pushing a small wire such as a straightened paperclip into the hole will open the drive. 78. (p. 431) If the floppy drive is installed on the end connector, it becomes the A: drive; if the drive is installed on the middle connector, it is the B: drive. 79. (p. 431) The default boot order can be changed by using the CMOS Settings screen. 80. (p. 440) Usually nothing. The color is derived from the organic inks used in the burning process but is just a choice of the manufacturer. 81. (p. 457) It has eliminated the buffer underrun issue. 82. (p. 451) You need an HDCP-compliant (either DVI or HDMI) video card and drivers if you plan on watching Blu-ray movies in HD resolution. 83. (p. 432) If the Boot Up Floppy Seek option is disabled, the PC does not check the floppy disk during the POST, thus speeding up the boot process. 84. (p. 440) A multisession drive allows you to go back and burn additional data on a CD-R disc until the disc is full. This drive also has the ability to "close" a partially filled CD-R so that no more data may be burned onto that disc. 85. (p. 441) Universal data format (UDF). All movie DVDs use this format. 86. (p. 440) The advantage of CD-Rewritable (CD-RW) over CD-Recordable (CD-R) is that CD-Rewritable technology enables a user not only to burn a disc, but also to burn over existing data on it. 87. (p. 439) Of the three multiplier values in the CD-RW drive specs, the first value shows the CD-R write speed, the second value shows the CDRW rewrite speed, and the third value shows the read speed. 88. (p. 443) A DVD with the lowest capacity can hold 4.37 GB of data. 89. (p. 442) ATAPI-compliant means you don't have to install special software or drivers for a device to be recognized. Virtually all optical drives are ATAPI-compliant. 90. (p. 443) The two DVD formats are single-layer (SL) and dual-layer (DL). 91. (p. 455) The disc inside a powerless CD drive can be ejected manually by inserting a wire into the hole in front of the CD drive and pushing the internal release lever. 92. (p. 455) Disc cleaning kits are available, but a CD can also be cleaned with a damp, soft cloth, wiping from the center of the disc to the edge. Mild detergent can be used if necessary. CDs should never be cleaned using a circular motion or in the dishwasher! 93. (p. 455) The best way to wipe a CD is to wipe from its center to its edge. 94. (p. 457) Almost all optical drive manufactures offer firmware updates. Check the manufacturer's Web site. 95. (p. 456) Buffer underrun is the inability of the source device to keep the burner loaded with data, thereby creating errors on the burned CDs. 96. (p. 450) An ISO image file is a bit-by-bit image of the data to be burned on the CD or DVD. 97. (p. 434) USB thumb drive 98. (p. 430) Floppy drives read floppy disks, while floppy disks are the storage media that are inserted in the floppy drives. 99. (p. 449) Device Manager 100. (p. 430) 3½

Chapter 13_Removable Media Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 13

# of Questions 36 15 49 100

Chapter 14_Installing Windows Student:

Which program can be used from within the Windows GUI to start an upgrade to Windows XP? A. WIN.exe B. WINNT.exe C. WIN32.exe D. WINNT32.exe

A (n) installation includes a complete copy of a hard disk volume, including all preinstalled application software programs. A. multiboot B. remote C. image D. in-place

Which setting enables you to adjust settings for the display of date, time, math separators, and currency symbols? A. administrative tools B. hardware C. locale D. network connections

What program is used to check hardware and software compatibility in Windows XP Professional? A. Winnt/checkupgradeonly B. Upgrade Advisor C. HCL/checkupgradeonly D. HCL32/checkupgradeonly

A (n) is a fix for a single problem within an operating system. A. driver B. patch C. service pack D. update

When combined together, accumulated patches are called A. Windows update B. hotfixes C. service packs D. updates

The recommended amount of memory for a Windows XP computer is A. 64 B. 128 C. 170 D. 512

What online tool can be used to check your hardware and software and report compatibility issues for an upgrade to Windows XP? A. HCL B. Windows catalog C. Windows Update D. Upgrade Advisor

MB of RAM.

Which log file tracks the complete installation process? A. SETUPAPI.LOG B. INSTALLATION.TXT C. SETUPLOG.TXT D. UNATTEND.TXT

10. What is the fundamental link between the user and the PC's hardware? A. Drivers B. CMOS C. Operating system D. NTOSKRNL.EXE 11. All of the following are preparation tasks you should complete before even starting an upgrade or installation EXCEPT: A. Identify hardware requirements B. Select an installation method C. Determine your computer's network role D. Install drivers 12. After installing Windows, activation is mandatory within use mode or be disabled. A. 15 B. 20 C. 30 D. 45

days or the system will go into a limited-

13. The minimum memory requirement for a Windows XP Professional computer is A. 54 B. 64 C. 100 D. 128

MB.

14. It is not possible to upgrade to Windows XP Professional from which of the following? A. Windows 98 (all versions) B. Windows NT (Service Pack 4) C. Windows 2000 Professional (including service packs) D. Windows XP Home Edition 15. What is the ultimate authority that identifies whether hardware components are compatible with the operating system? A. EULA B. Windows Logo'd Product List C. MPA D. USMT 16. Which of the following statements is not true concerning upgrade paths to Windows Vista? A Windows XP Pro requires a Clean Install to go Vista Home Basic or Home Premium and an Upgrade . Install to go to Vista Business or Ultimate. B. Windows XP Home requires an Upgrade Install to go to any version of Windows Vista. C. Windows XP Professional x64 requires a Clean Install to go to any version of Windows Vista. D. Windows 2000 Professional can be upgraded to any version of Windows Vista. 17. The tool in Windows Vista and Windows 7 has replaced the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard. A. Windows Easy Transfer B. Easy Transfer cable C. Sysprep D. Hardware abstraction layer

18. Installing an operating system onto a hard drive with no previous OS installed is known as a (n) . A. clean install B. upgrade Install C. multiboot install D. new install 19. The minimum size of the boot partition for Windows XP should be at least A. 1.5 B. 2 C. 10 D. 15

GB.

20. What must you normally accept when installing a Windows operating system? A. Default settings B. Slow response time C. A plethora of GUIs D. A EULA 21. Which of the following does not represent the minimum hardware requirement for a Windows Vista computer? A. 1 GHz 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) CPU B. 512 MB RAM for Vista Basic and 1 GB RAM for all other editions C. 20-GB HD with 15 GB available for Vista Basic and 40 GB HD with 15 GB free for all other editions D. Support for DirectX 8 and pixel shader 1.0 22. For a Windows Vista Ultimate computer, a video card must support DirectX 9, 128 MB of graphics RAM, pixel shader 2.0, plus . A. VGA support at 600 × 800 B. a WDDM driver and 32 bits per pixel C. a DVI driver and 16 bits per pixel D. SVGA support at 1024 × 768 23. All of the following are possible ways to start a recovery to restore the PC back to its factory settings EXCEPT: A. special recovery partition B. set of recovery discs C. hitting a certain key during boot-up D. start the recovery console 24. Which log file tracks the complete installation process, Registry updates, and reboots of a Windows XP machine? A. BOOTLOG.TXT B. DETLOG.TXT C. SETUPLOG.TXT D. REGISTRY.TXT 25. Which log file tracks each piece of hardware as it is installed on Windows XP? A. BOOTLOG.TXT B. SETUPAPI.LOG C. SETUPLOG.TXT D. REGISTER.TXT 26. A (n) is a combination of fixes. A. driver B. patch C. service pack D. update

27. What tool can be used to set up scripted installations for Windows XP? A. Setup Manager B. Unattended Manager C. Sysprep Manager D. Remote Installation Services Manager 28. During a (n) installation, the new operating system can be installed into a different subdirectory on a different drive, leaving the old operating system intact and usable. A. automated B. clean C. multiboot D. upgrade 29. What is the Windows installation option that inherits all previous settings, hardware, and applications? A. automated B. clean C. multiboot D. upgrade 30. Which installation option is usually initiated by accessing a shared network directory? A. clean B. multiboot C. scripted D. upgrade 31. What log file do Windows Vista and Windows 7 create during phases of the installation process to track errors? A. Setuplog.txt B. setuperr.log file C. SetupAPI.log D. insterror.log 32. What is a method of sanitizing media that does not involve destruction? A. Standard formatting B. Partitioning C. Deleting D. Low-level formatting 33. Which of the following is NOT an iteration of the Windows hardware compatibility list? A. Windows Certified Hardware List B. Hardware Compatibility List C. Windows 7 Compatibility Center D. Windows Logo'd Product list 34. Which of the following is a valid Windows 7 installation folder? A. WINNT B. Windows C. Win7 D. Windows7 35. Which version of Windows uses Remote Installation Services (RIS) to host a network-based image for deployment? A. Windows Server 2008 B. Windows Vista C. Windows 2000 D. Windows 7

36. Which of the following versions of Windows can be upgraded to Windows 7 32-bit versions? A. Windows XP Professional 32-bit B. Windows Vista Home Premium 32-bit C. Windows Vista Enterprise 64-bit D. Windows XP Professional 64-bit 37. Which of the following upgrades can be performed using the built-in Windows Anytime Upgrade feature? A. Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate B. Windows Vista Home Premium to Windows 7 Home Premium C. Windows XP Home to Windows Vista Home Premium D. Windows XP Home to Windows 7 Home Premium 38. How many processor cores can 32-bit editions of Windows 7 use? A. 2 B. 256 C. 64 D. 32 39. Which versions of Windows Vista come on the installation disc? A. All B. Windows Vista Ultimate only C. Windows Vista Home Premium and Windows Vista Ultimate only D. Windows Vista Home Basic and Windows Vista Home Premium only 40. If the product key is left blank in Windows Vista, a 30-day trial of which edition can be installed? A. Windows Vista Ultimate B. Windows Vista Home Basic C. Any D. Windows Vista Home Premium 41. While installing Windows XP or Vista, the hardware and software and reports any potential conflicts.

Wizard automatically checks the

42. While performing a(n) installation, the operating system is installed onto an empty hard drive with no previous operating system installed. 43. A variation of a clean installation is a(n) 44. The GUI.

installation.

program is used to start an upgrade in Windows XP from the Windows

45. Two popular programs used for creating images are . 46. Beginning with Windows 2000 Server, Microsoft introduced to initiate either a scripted installation or an installation of an image. 47. A (n)

and

, which can be used

installation is used for re-creating standard configurations.

48. Your computer's role can be either standalone or part of a workgroup or

49. Unlike Windows 2000 and XP, the and reside on the same partition in Windows Vista and Windows 7.

files must all

50. Any modern Windows computer, except Windows XP Home Edition, can be a member of a workgroup or a member of a(n) . 51. During the text display portion of a Windows XP installation, the computer completes inspection of the hardware and then displays the . 52. During the text display portion of a Windows XP installation, the hard drive can be . 53. Current operating systems are available in

-bit and

-bit versions.

54. Neither Windows Vista nor Windows 7 allows you define the

55. After the initial text mode installation process, Windows XP shifts into mode. 56. Pressing the key during the start of the text mode installation for Windows XP will allow you to use a third party SCSI or RAID driver. 57. The HCL is now known as the

58. Microsoft designed Windows to run on several hardware platforms using a layer of software tailored specifically for the hardware, called the . 59. The Windows XP installation requires the boot partition to be at least size. 60. The with Windows.

GB in

provides searchable lists of hardware and software that are known to work

61. The examines hardware and installed software and provides a list of devices and software that are known to have issues with Windows XP. 62. 63. The

using Windows Vista or 7 requires you to put each installation on a different partition. program starts the Windows XP setup.

64. The Windows Vista replacement for Setup Manager is 65. Windows generates a number of special text files called progress of certain processes.

. files that track the

66. The

file tracks the complete installation process.

67. Prior to an upgrade, data should be

68. To create a Windows XP unattended script file, the installation CD would be used. 69. The compatibility.

tool from the Windows

utility in Windows XP Professional checks for hardware and software

70. Windows will be disabled if the installation.

process is not completed within 30 days of

71. A solid wipe of a hard drive may still leave sensitive data called

behind.

72. A (n) makes up a PC.

provides the fundamental link between the user and the hardware that

73. A (n)

CPU is the minimum requirement for a Windows Vista computer.

74. Windows 7 Starter and Home Premium support only one 75. If installed on Windows 7, available hard disk space.

requires an additional 1 GB of RAM and an additional 15 GB of

76. OEM computer manufacturers such as Dell or HP sometimes include a special on their hard drives to help you restore a system to its factory settings. 77. Perform a disk scan (error-checking) and a disk

before upgrading operating systems.

78. A computer can be standalone (meaning not a part of a network) or in one of two network roles. The two network roles are and . 79. The boot order of the computer is controlled through a(n) program. 80.

tells Microsoft who the official owner or user of the product is.

81. Windows Server 2008 and 2008 R2, implement 82. A (n) intervention.

-based setup

to replace RIS.

is done when scripts are included to configure the installation without any user

83. Windows Vista and Windows 7 enable you to shrink the

84. Neither Windows Vista nor Windows 7 allows you define the 85. Microsoft uses the term

to define an upgrade installation.

86. A usually begins with empty hard disk or one on which you are completely replacing an existing installation. 87. The of the device or software will usually provide some form of information either on the product box or on their Web site concerning Windows compatibility. 88. Microsoft provides a Web site where you can search by model number of hardware or by a software version to see if it is compatible with Windows 7, called the . 89. A free utility, usually called , can be run on a system to see if the hardware and software will work with a newer version of Windows. 90. Before starting an OS upgrade, make sure you have shut down all other

91. What is the disadvantage of performing a clean installation?

92. What is an upgrade installation?

93. What is an image or a cloned copy created by a third-party tool such as Norton Ghost?

94. Name three types of Windows Vista installation methods.

95. What is a EULA?

96. Name three types of Windows XP installation methods.

97. What are some common post-installation tasks?

98. What happens when Windows installs default drivers that are much older than the drivers currently available for a piece of hardware?

99. What is a service pack?

100.What are the minimum CPU, memory, and hard disk requirements for a Windows XP Professional computer system?

101.What are the recommended CPU, memory, and hard disk requirements for a Windows XP Professional computer system?

102.What are the possible upgrade paths to Window XP Professional?

103.What should you do with RAID hardware before upgrading or installing the operating system?

104.What tool is used for migrating files and settings for computers with multiple users in a Windows Server domain?

105.What is a clean installation of an OS?

106.What are the two methods of activating Windows XP?

107.What key is used to install additional mass-storage device drivers if needed during an installation or upgrade?

108.What is the minimum hard drive space needed for a Windows XP computer?

109.What measures need to be taken if a system locks up during the setup stage of installation?

110.What should be done after the installation of Windows to ensure the system is up to date?

111.What is the process of moving data and users to a new system called?

112.What is the difference between the required minimum and recommended minimum hardware requirements for a Windows computer?

113.How does smart recovery mode help in completing a failed Windows installation?

114.What process and tools are provided for an unattended installation of Windows XP?

115.Define registration.

116.Define activation.

117.What is the problem with a system if it displays a "No Boot Device present when booting off the startup disk" error during installation?

118.What is the problem with the system if it displays a "Windows Setup requires xxx amount of available drive space" error during installation?

119.What can cause lockups during installation?

120.What are the two log files created by Windows during installation?

121.What is the upgrade path to Windows 7?

122.How can you upgrade from one edition of Windows 7 to another?

123.What additional hardware is required for Windows XP mode in Windows 7?

124.How many processor cores can Windows 7 use?

125.How many physical CPUs can Windows 7 use?

126.What are the differences in setup phases between Windows XP and Vista/7?

127.How are product keys linked to the different editions of Vista and 7?

128.During a Windows installation, what must you do if you receive the "RAID Array Not Detected" error?

129.What is the Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)?

130.What items are needed for a network installation of Windows?

Chapter 14_Installing Windows Key 1. (p. 470) D 2. (p. 471) C 3. (p. 473) C 4. (p. 475) B 5. (p. 504) B 6. (p. 504) C 7. (p. 474) D 8. (p. 475) D 9. (p. 503) C 10. (p. 466) C 11. (p. 467) D 12. (p. 476) C 13. (p. 474) B 14. (p. 474) B 15. (p. 469) B 16. (p. 477) D 17. (p. 508) A 18. (p. 470) A 19. (p. 474) B 20. (p. 473) D 21. (p. 477) D 22. (p. 477) B 23. (p. 512) D 24. (p. 503) C 25. (p. 503) B 26. (p. 504) C 27. (p. 492) A 28. (p. 470) C 29. (p. 470) D 30. (p. 494) C 31. (p. 503) B 32. (p. 510) D 33. (p. 469) A 34. (p. 471) B 35. (p. 472) C 36. (p. 478) B

37. (p. 478) A 38. (p. 479) D 39. (p. 486) A 40. (p. 487) C 41. (p. 468) Setup 42. (p. 470) clean 43. (p. 470) multiboot 44. (p. 470) winnt32.exe 45. (p. 471) Norton Ghost; Clonezilla; or Acronis True Image 46. (p. 472) Remote Installation Services (RIS) 47. (p. 471) image 48. (p. 473) domain 49. (p. 471) boot; system 50. (p. 473) domain 51. (p. 480) End User License Agreement (EULA) 52. (p. 481) partitioned 53. (p. 478) 32, 64 54. (p. 471) install folder 55. (p. 481-482) graphical 56. (p. 480) F6 57. (p. 469) Windows Logo'd Product list 58. (p. 502) hardware abstraction layer (HAL) 59. (p. 474) 1.5 60. (p. 469) Windows Logo'd Product List 61. (p. 475) Upgrade Advisor 62. (p. 471) Multibooting 63. (p. 470) winnt32 64. (p. 498) Automated Installation Kit (AIK) 65. (p. 503) log 66. (p. 503) setuplog.txt 67. (p. 503) backed up 68. (p. 492) Setup Manager 69. (p. 468) Upgrade Advisor 70. (p. 476) Microsoft Product Activation (MPA) 71. (p. 510) remnants 72. (p. 466) operating system 73. (p. 477) 1 GHz 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) 74. (p. 479) CPU

75. (p. 479) Windows XP Mode 76. (p. 512) recovery partition 77. (p. 479) defragmentation 78. (p. 473) Workgroup; Domain 79. (p. 475) BIOS 80. (p. 475) Registration 81. (p. 500) Windows Deployment Services (WDS) 82. (p. 471) unattended installation 83. (p. 471) C: partition 84. (p. 471) installation folder 85. (p. 470) in-place upgrade 86. (p. 470) clean installation 87. (p. 470) manufacturer 88. (p. 469) Windows 7 Compatibility Center 89. (p. 475) Upgrade Advisor 90. (p. 470) open applications 91. (p. 470) The disadvantage of performing a clean installation is that all applications will have to be reinstalled, and each application will have to be reconfigured according to the user's preferences. 92. (p. 470) An upgrade installation is an installation of Windows on top of a previously installed version. 93. (p. 471) An image is a complete copy of a hard disk volume on which an operating system and all required application software has been preinstalled. 94. (p. 471) The following methods are available: DVD disc, USB drive, over a network, and special-order CD-ROMs. 95. (p. 473) The EULA is the End User License Agreement. 96. (p. 471) The following methods are available: Bootable CD, installing using files from a network location, image installation, and Remote Installation Services for Windows XP. 97. (p. 504) Some common post-installation tasks are updating the OS with patches and service packs; upgrading drivers; restoring user data; and identifying any problems. 98. (p. 504) The hardware will still work and the drivers can be upgraded later. 99. (p. 504) A service pack is a set of patches bundled together to address problems that may cause the OS to become unstable. 100. (p. 474) A Windows XP Professional system requires an Intel or AMD 233 MHz CPU, 64 MB of RAM, and a 2 GB hard disk with 1.5 GB of free space. 101. (p. 474) A Windows XP Professional system requires an Intel or AMD 300 MHz CPU, 512 MB of RAM, and 4 GB of available hard disk space. 102. (p. 474) Possible upgrade paths to Window XP Professional are from Windows 98, Me, Windows NT 4.0 Workstation (Service Pack 5 and later), Windows 2000 Professional (including service packs), and Windows XP Home. 103. (p. 480) When dealing with RAID (in any version of Windows), make sure you have the latest drivers on hand for the installation. Put them on a thumb drive just in case the Windows installer can't detect your RAID setup. 104. (p. 508) The User State Migration Tool (USMT) is used to transfer files and settings for multiple users in larger networked environments. 105. (p. 470) A clean installation of an operating system means installing it onto an empty hard drive with no previous OS installed. 106. (p. 476) You can activate Windows XP over the phone or over the Internet. 107. (p. 480) Press F6 for a third-party SCSI or RAID driver. 108. (p. 474) The minimum hard drive space needed for a Windows XP computer is 1.5 GB.

109. (p. 503) If a system locks up during setup, the user must perform the following steps: 1. Unplug the system without pressing Ctrl-Alt-Del. 2. Turn the system on and boot into Setup. 3. Rerun the Setup program. 110. (p. 504) The operating system should be updated with patches and service packs and upgrading drivers. 111. (p. 505) Migration is the process of moving data and users to a new system. 112. (p. 474) The required minimum is what Microsoft says is required in order to install Windows. The recommended minimum is what's required to get acceptable performance. 113. (p. 503) When a Windows installation process fails due to system lockups and reinstallation is carried out, Windows detects a partial installation and starts the smart recovery mode at the point it stopped. You can find Setup Manager on the Windows installation disc in the \Support\Tools folder. Double-click the DEPLOY cabinet file, and then rightclick setupmgr.cab and select Extract. 114. (p. 492) For automating a Windows XP install, Microsoft provides Setup Manager to help you create a text file—called an answer file— containing all of your answers to the installation questions. This enables you to do an unattended installation, which means you don't have to sit in front of each computer throughout the installation process.

115. (p. 476) Registration is the process of informing Microsoft of the official owner or user of a product by providing contact information such as name, address, company, phone number, and e-mail address. Registration is optional. 116. (p. 476) Activation, also known as Microsoft Product Activation (MPA), is a way to fight software piracy by ensuring that each license for Windows is used on a single computer only. 117. (p. 502) If the system displays "No Boot Device present when booting off the startup disk" error, then either the startup disk is bad or the CMOS is not set to look at the disk drive first for boot-up. 118. (p. 502) "Windows Setup requires xxx amount of available drive space" indicates the drive isn't formatted or there isn't enough space. 119. (p. 503) Nonresponsive hardware query, faulty optical discs, optical drives, or hard drives can cause lockups. 120. (p. 503) The two log files created by Windows are SETUPLOG.TXT and SETUPAPI.LOG. Both logs track the progress of the installation, with SETUPLOG.TXT tracking the complete installation and SETUPAPI.LOG tracking the installation of hardware. 121. (p. 478) The upgrade path to Windows 7 can only be from Windows Vista, and it must be 32-bit to 32-bit or 64-bit to 64-bit. All XP editions require a clean installation to upgrade to 7. 122. (p. 478) When upgrading to a higher edition with more features—from Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate, for example, you can use the built-in Windows Anytime Upgrade feature. 123. (p. 479) Windows XP mode requires an additional 1 GB of RAM and an additional 15 GB of available hard disk space. 124. (p. 479) The 32-bit editions of Windows 7 can handle up to 32 processor cores, and the 64-bit editions of Windows 7 support up to 256 processor cores. 125. (p. 479) Windows 7 Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise can handle two physical CPUs, whereas Windows 7 Starter and Home Premium support only one physical CPU. 126. (p. 485) Windows XP has two set up phases—a text phase and a graphical phase. Windows Vista and 7 only have a graphical installation process. 127. (p. 486) All editions of Vista or 7 come on the respective discs. The product key not only verifies the legitimacy of purchase; it also tells the installer which edition you purchased. With Vista, leaving the product key blank allows you to install a trial (30-day) version of any edition. With Windows 7, leaving the product key blank enables you to install a trial version of only the edition named on the box or disc label. 128. (p. 501) Get the driver disc from the manufacturer and run setup again. Press F6 when prompted very early in the installation process. You will be prompted for the disk later in the installation process. 129. (p. 500) PXE uses multiple protocols such as IP, DHCP, and DNS to enable your computer to boot from a network location. It is enabled in the BIOS System Setup, and the boot order must specify PXE or Network as the first boot option. Not every NIC supports PXE. To boot from a network location without PXE, you can create boot media that forces your PC to boot from a network location. 130. (p. 500) An installation image is hosted on a network server that all clients can contact. If using Windows Server 2003, it will use Remote Installation Services (RIS). Windows Server 2008 and 2008 R2 use Windows Deployment Services (WDS). The client will need to have a PXEsupported NIC and be configured to boot from PXE or Network in its BIOS.

Chapter 14_Installing Windows Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 14

# of Questions 34 32 64 130

Chapter 15_Windows Under the Hood Student:

What coding standard allows programmers to write databases and applications to locate and access a database without worrying about the application or operating system used? A. ODBC B. Component Services C. Java D. Microsoft .NET

What tool is provided in Windows to facilitate object sharing between applications and computers? A. The Registry B. TCP/IP C. Component Services D. ODBC

Data Source Administrator enables you to create and manage what kind of entries that point OBDC to a database? A. DNS B. DSN C. DHCP D. DCOM

Which Windows 7 tool gives you an overview of how a PC has behaved over time, showing important events such as application or OS crashes? A. Performance console B. Reliability and Performance Monitor C. System Monitor D. Reliability Monitor

What is the name of the MMC that opens the Windows performance tool? A. perfmon.mmc B. monitor.mmc C. perform.msc D. perfmon.msc

What is the scale range for the Windows Experience Index? A. 1.0 to 7.9 B. 1 to 10 C. 1 to 5 D. 1 to 100

Which is NOT a feature of the Windows XP Performance console? A. Objects and Counters B. Data Collector Sets and Reports C. System Monitor D. Performance Logs and Alerts

Which command-line utility was previously called tlist in Windows XP? A. tasklist B. taskkill C. taskmgr D. perfmon

What is the MMC that opens the Services Control Panel applet? A. regserv.mmc B. perfmon.msc C. service.mmc D. services.msc

10. How is the amount of CPU time a process is using measured in Task Manager? A. Nanoseconds B. Seconds C. Percentage D. Kilobytes 11. What file extension does a process usually end with? A. .jpg B. .exe C. .doc D. .msc 12. Processes are usually referred to by their A. globally unique identifier (GUID) B. service name C. executable name D. process identifier (PID)

13. A process started by Windows has which user name associated with it? A. Administrator B. Windows C. System D. The logged in user 14. Which tab in task manager can be used to stop a stubborn application? A. Applications tab B. Services tab C. Processes tab D. Performance tab 15. Which tab shows you every running process on your computer? A. Applications tab B. Services tab C. Processes tab D. Performance tab 16. What is the one-stop place for anything you need to do with applications, processes, or services? A. Program Manager B. Task Manger C. Administrative Tools D. Services Manager 17. All of the following are ways to start Task Manager EXCEPT: A. Press CTRL-ALT-DELETE and select Task Manager B. Go to Start | Run or Start | Search, type taskmgr, and press ENTER C. Press CTRL-SHIFT-ESC D. Press CTRL-SHIFT-F1 18. Windows runs many processes simultaneously, known as A. multiprocessing B. multitasking C. parallel processing D. serial processing

19. Which file replaces the boot.ini file used in previous operating systems? A. Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file B. Ntoskrnl.exe C. bootmgr D. Winload.exe 20. Which file is the Windows Vista/7 Boot Manager? A. Ntldr B. Ntoskrnl.exe C. Bootmgr D. Winload.exe 21. Which of the following does Windows XP support? A. master boot record (MBR) B. GUID partition table (GPT) C. UEFI D. Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file 22. All of the following are Windows system files EXCEPT: A. ntldr B. ntoskrnl.exe C. ntdetect.com D. boot.ini 23. Which of the following is a Windows boot file? A. ntldr B. ntoskrnl.exe C. ntdetect.com D. ntbootdd.sys 24. If a SCSI hard drive is used, which additional system file is needed? A. ntldr B. ntoskrnl.exe C. ntdetect.com D. ntbootdd.sys 25. Which of the following is the Windows XP kernel file? A. ntoskrnl.exe B. ntbootdd.sys C. winload.exe D. ntldr 26. Which command-line tool is used to change the Boot Configuration Data file? A. winlogon.exe B. taskmgr.exe C. notepad D. bcdedit.exe 27. Which boot.ini switch tells Windows XP to start the Recovery Console? A. /recovery B. /lastknowngood C. /cmdcons D. /noexecute 28. Which element of boot.ini's ARC naming convention specifies the number of the disk on the adapter? A. Rdisk(x) B. Disk(x) C. Multi(x) D. Partition(x)

29. What text file tells ntldr the OSs that are available and where to find the boot partition for each of them? A. bootmgr B. boot.ini C. Boot Configuration Data D. Ntoskrnl.exe 30. Which element of boot.ini's ARC naming convention specifies a SCSI adapter? A. Rdisk(x) B. Disk(x) C. Multi(x) D. Partition(x) 31. Which command can modify the Registry by adding (or registering) dynamic link library (DLL) files as command components? A. regedit B. reg C. regsrv32 D. regedt32 32. Which command is a full-featured command-line Registry editor? A. regedt32 B. regsrv32 C. reg D. regedit 33. What feature allows you to import a new or backup subkey? A. Add B. Merge C. Create D. Redo 34. What would be a common reason to edit this Registry key: HKLM\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run? A. Change Windows boot options B. Reset a password C. Change the Windows Product Key D. Delete autostarting programs 35. If you are manually editing the Registry, all of the following could happen EXCEPT: A. The computer may become infected with malware. B. Applications might not start. C. Utilities might not work. D. The computer might not boot. 36. Which of the following key value data types is limited to exactly 64 bits? A. QWORD B. DWORD C. Binary D. String 37. Which of the following key value data types is limited to exactly 32 bits? A. QWORD B. DWORD C. Binary D. String

38. Which of the following key value data types can be used for any form of data? A. QWORD B. DWORD C. Binary D. String 39. Which Registry root key defines the standard class objects used by Windows? A. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG B. HKEY_USERS C. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE 40. Which Registry root key contains all the data for a system's non-user-specific configurations? A. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG B. HKEY_USERS C. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE 41. Which Registry root key root key defines which option is being used currently, if more than one is specified in HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE? A. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG B. HKEY_USERS C. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER 42. Which of the following is NOT a Registry element shown in the Registry editor? A. Root keys B. Subkeys C. Values D. Programming code 43. How is the Registry organized? A. tree structure B. flat structure C. relational structure D. peer structure 44. How do most technicians access the Registry? A. Component Services B. ODBC C. Registry Editor D. Computer Management 45. All of the following are used to edit the Registry EXCEPT: A. regedt32.exe B. regedit.exe C. reg D. taskmgr 46. What are Registry files called? A. Hives B. Nodes C. DSNs D. Leafs

47. What is stored in the \%SystemRoot%\System32\config folder? A. Boot files B. Registry C. Group policy D. System files 48. All of the following is stored in the Registry EXCEPT: A. My Documents B. Hardware information C. Network information D. Application information 49. How many root keys are in the Registry? A. 7 B. 4 C. 6 D. 5 50. A named group of functions that defines what you can do with the object it represents is called a: A. hive B. counter C. class object D. performance object 51. The

is a huge database that stores everything about your PC.

52. Registry files are called

53. Before Windows XP, Windows came with two Registry editors: . 54. Root keys are composed of 55. There are

and the much older

main subgroups, or root keys.

56. The associations).

root key defines the standard class objects used by Windows (i.e., file types and

57. The

root key stores all of the personalized information for all users on a PC.

58. HKEY_CURRENT_USER stores the

settings

59.

data types are the most flexible type of value and are very common.

60.

store nothing more than long strings of ones and zeros.

61. These values are like binary values but are limited to exactly 32 bits, and are called 62.

values are like binary values but are limited to exactly 64 bits.

63. The command can modify the Registry in only one way, adding (or registering) dynamic link library (DLL) files as command components. 64. Windows XP was the last Microsoft operating system to use a very old boot process known as . 65. Windows Vista and 7 use a far more flexible, complex, and powerful Windows Boot Manager, called . 66. In Windows XP, the files that start the operating system are called the 67. In Windows XP, the system files consist of

files.

required files:

68. In Windows XP, the additional system file required if you're using a SCSI hard drive is 69. The ntoskrnl.exe file is also known as 70. The

files are NOT capable of booting the system.

71. Whichever drive holds the core OS files is called the

72. The file is a text file that lists the OSs available to ntldr and tells ntldr where to find the boot partition for each of them. 73. The boot.ini file uses the 74. The 75. In Windows XP,

naming system.

switch in the boot.ini file tells Windows to start the Recovery Console detects the installed hardware on the system.

76. Unlike older versions of Windows, Vista/7 supports both BIOS and 77. Bootmgr starts and reads data from a(n) operating systems installed on the system.

file that contains information about the various

78. The BCD file replaces the boot.ini file used in previous operating systems and can be altered by using the command-line tool . 79. Pressing CTRL-SHIFT-ESC will open Windows

80. A process started by Windows has the user name

81. To identify a process, you use the

, not the process name.

82. By default, the Task Manager shows only processes associated with the 83.

, a free tool, gives you the ability to see which processes depend on others.

84. The best way to work with services is to use the

applet.

85. The permissions.

tab of Task Manager enables you to log off or log off other users if you have the proper

86. The

command enables you to view running processes on a local or remote system.

87. You can kill a process using the 88. Windows XP provides a tool called the as CPU and RAM usage over time.

command, using either the name or the PID. that logs resource usage so you can track items such

89. A (n) is a system component that is given a set of characteristics and can be managed by the operating system as a single entity. 90. A (n)

tracks specific information about an object.

91. The snap-in enables Windows XP to create a written record of just about anything that happens on your system. 92.

in Windows Vista adds an excellent Resource Overview, a Reliability Monitor tool, and a much more flexible way to use counters with Data Collector Sets and Reports.

93.

in Windows 7 functions almost identically to Reliability and Performance Monitor in Windows Vista.

94. The runs on a scale from 1.0 to 7.9 and gives you a pretty good gauge of the relative strengths and weaknesses of a system. 95. You can find the 96. The 97.

98.

tool in Windows 7 as part of the Action Center Control Panel applet. tool in Windows 7 gives you an overview of how a PC has behaved over time.

in Reliability and Performance Monitor (Windows Vista) and Performance Monitor (Windows 7) group counters you can use to make reports. assists in object sharing between applications and computers on a network.

99.

is a coding standard that enables programmers to write databases and applications to be able to locate and access a database without any concern about what application or operating system is used.

100.Microsoft's tool to configure ODBC is called the 101.What is Open Database Connectivity (ODBC)?

102.What is the Registry?

103.Where is the Registry stored?

104.Which two executable files start the Registry editor?

105.What are the five root keys of the Registry?

106.What are subkeys and values?

107.What does the HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG do?

108.What does the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE root key contain?

109.What are the four most common types of key values?

110.What are the risks of manually editing a Registry?

111.What are some common reasons to manually edit the Registry?

112.What does the Registry Editor's Export feature do?

113.What is the reg command?

114.What is one key difference between the XP and the Vista/7 boot process?

115.What are Windows XP's system files?

116.Which are the Windows XP boot files?

117.Which set of files starts a Windows XP computer?

118.Where can the XP operating system files reside?

119.In boot.ini's ARC naming system, what does the multi(x) entry mean?

120.What does the Disk(x) entry signify in the boot.ini file?

121.What does the /noexecute switch for the boot.ini file mean?

122.Which boot.ini switch tells Windows to boot the Last Known Good set of files?

123.Which two files load the Registry in Windows XP?

124.What does the winload.exe file do in Windows Vista/7?

125.Where must the boot and system files reside in Windows Vista and Windows 7?

126.What are three ways to start the Task Manager?

127.Describe the Applications tab in Task Manager.

128.Describe a process in Windows.

129.What happens if you select the End Process button in Task Manager?

130.What are two ways to open the Services Control Panel applet?

131.How are services controlled?

132.Which tab in Task Manager allows you to troubleshoot network performance issues?

133.What does the "Users" tab in Task Manager allow you to do?

134.Which command enables you to view running processes on a local or remote system?

135.What does the taskkill command-line utility do?

136.What performance tool does Windows XP provide?

137.What is a performance object?

138.How does a performance counter work?

139.What does System Monitor do?

140.Which snap-in enables Windows to create a written record of just about anything that happens on your system?

141.How did Microsoft improve the performance console in Windows Vista?

142.How does the performance tool in Windows 7 differ from the one in Windows Vista?

143.What is the initial screen in the Reliability and Performance Monitor (Vista) and the Performance Monitor (Windows 7)?

144.What is the name of the Microsoft Management Console (MMC) that opens the performance tools in Windows?

145.What is the Windows Experience Index?

146.What does the Reliability Monitor in Windows 7 do?

147.Where do you find the Reliability Monitor in Windows 7?

148.What are Data Collector Sets?

149.How must you access Component Services in Windows?

150.What does the ODBC Data Source Administrator do?

Chapter 15_Windows Under the Hood Key 1. (p. 548) A 2. (p. 546) C 3. (p. 548) B 4. (p. 542) D 5. (p. 542) D 6. (p. 542) A 7. (p. 539) B 8. (p. 538) A 9. (p. 535) D 10. (p. 530) C 11. (p. 531) B 12. (p. 531) D 13. (p. 531) C 14. (p. 530) A 15. (p. 532) C 16. (p. 530) B 17. (p. 530) D 18. (p. 529) B 19. (p. 529) A 20. (p. 525) C 21. (p. 525) A 22. (p. 525-528) B 23. (p. 525) B 24. (p. 525) D 25. (p. 525) A 26. (p. 529) D 27. (p. 527) C 28. (p. 527) A 29. (p. 526) B 30. (p. 527) B 31. (p. 524) C 32. (p. 524) C 33. (p. 524) B 34. (p. 523) D 35. (p. 523) A 36. (p. 522) A

37. (p. 522) B 38. (p. 522) D 39. (p. 520) C 40. (p. 522) D 41. (p. 522) A 42. (p. 523-524) D 43. (p. 519) A 44. (p. 523) C 45. (p. 523-524) D 46. (p. 519) A 47. (p. 519) B 48. (p. 519) A 49. (p. 519) D 50. (p. 520) C 51. (p. 519) Registry 52. (p. 519) hives 53. (p. 519) regedt32.exe; regedit.exe 54. (p. 520) subkeys 55. (p. 519) five 56. (p. 520) HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT 57. (p. 520) HKEY_USERS 58. (p. 521) current user 59. (p. 522) String value 60. (p. 522) Binary values 61. (p. 522) DWORD value 62. (p. 522) QWORD 63. (p. 524) regsrv32 64. (p. 524) ntldr (NT Loader) 65. (p. 525) bootmgr 66. (p. 525) system 67. (p. 525) three 68. (p. 525) ntbootdd.sys 69. (p. 525) the Windows kernel 70. (p. 525) boot 71. (p. 525) boot partition or boot volume 72. (p. 526) boot.ini 73. (p. 526) Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) 74. (p. 527) /cmdcons

75. (p. 528) ntdetect.com 76. (p. 528) UEFI 77. (p. 529) Boot Configuration Data (BCD) 78. (p. 529) bcdedit.exe 79. (p. 530) Task Manager 80. (p. 531) System 81. (p. 531) process identifier (PID) 82. (p. 531) current user 83. (p. 535) Process Explorer 84. (p. 535) Services Control Panel 85. (p. 538) Users 86. (p. 538) tasklist 87. (p. 538) taskkill 88. (p. 539) Performance console 89. (p. 539) object 90. (p. 540) counter 91. (p. 540) Performance Logs and Alerts 92. (p. 542) Reliability and Performance Monitor 93. (p. 542) Performance Monitor 94. (p. 542) Windows Experience Index 95. (p. 542) Reliability Monitor 96. (p. 542) Reliability Monitor 97. (p. 546) Data Collector Sets 98. (p. 546) Component Services 99. (p. 547) Open Database Connectivity (ODBC) 100. (p. 547) ODBC Data Source Administrator 101. (p. 547) Open Database Connectivity (ODBC) is a coding standard that enables programmers to write databases and the applications that use them in a way that they can query ODBC to see how to locate and access a database without any concern about what application or operating system is used. 102. (p. 519) The Registry is a huge database that stores everything about your PC. This includes hardware information, network information, user preferences, file types, and application information. 103. (p. 519) Every version of Windows stores the numerous Registry files (called hives) in the \%SystemRoot%\System32\config folder and each user account folder. 104. (p. 519) Entering either regedit or regedt32 at a command prompt (or in the Start | Run dialog box or Start | Search bar) now brings up the Registry editor. 105. (p. 519-520) The five main subgroups, or root keys are HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT, HKEY_CURRENT_USER, HKEY_USERS, HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE, and HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG. 106. (p. 520) Root keys are composed of subkeys. A subkey also can have other subkeys, or values. 107. (p. 522) If the values in HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE have more than one option, such as two different monitors, this root key defines which one is being used currently. 108. (p. 522) HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE contains all the data for a system's non-user-specific configurations. This encompasses every device and program in your PC.

109. (p. 522) String, binary, DWORD, and QWORD 110. (p. 523) Manually editing the Registry may risk breaking things in Windows: applications might not start, utilities might not work, or worst of all, the computer might not boot—approach with caution! 111. (p. 523) Common reasons to manually edit the Registry include deleting autostarting programs (HKLM\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run) and removing Registry keys left behind by programs that do not completely uninstall. 112. (p. 523) Registry Editor's Export feature enables you to save either the full Registry or only a single root key or subkey (with all subkeys and values under it) before you edit it. If you need to restore that key, use the File | Import command, or just right-click on the icon and click Merge. 113. (p. 524) The reg command is a full Registry editing tool. You can view Registry keys and values, import and export some or all of a Registry, and even compare two different versions of a Registry—plus a lot more. 114. (p. 524-525) Windows XP was the last Microsoft operating system to use a very old boot process known as ntldr (NT Loader). Windows Vista introduced the far more flexible, complex, and powerful Windows Boot Manager (or bootmgr), which Windows 7 also uses. 115. (p. 525) The system files consist of three required files: ntldr (begins the boot process), boot.ini, nttdetect.com, and ntbootdd.sys (only if you're using a SCSI hard drive). 116. (p. 525) The Windows XP boot files consist of ntoskrnl.exe (the Windows kernel), the \Winnt\System32\Config\System file (which controls the loading of device drivers), and device drivers. 117. (p. 525) The boot files are NOT capable of booting the system—the system files (ntldr, ntdetect.com, and boot.ini) do that. The system files start the PC and then, at the end of that process, point the CPU to the location of the boot files. The CPU communicates with ntoskrnl, and the GUI starts to load. 118. (p. 525) The Windows XP operating system files can reside on any partition or volume in the PC—such as D:\Windows, for example, instead of C:\Windows. Whichever drive holds the core OS files is called the boot partition or boot volume. 119. (p. 527) Multi(x) is the number of the adapter and always starts with 0. The adapter is determined by the boot order you set in your CMOS setting. Any drive on the PATA controller will get the value multi(0) placed in its ARC format. Any SATA drive will get multi(1). 120. (p. 527) Disk(x) is only used for SCSI drives, but the value is required in the ARC format, so with ATA systems it's always set to disk(0). 121. (p. 528) Newer CPUs come with Data Execute Protection (DEP) to prevent unruly programs from causing system lockups. The setting for this, /noexecute = optin, is the default on Windows systems. 122. (p. 528) /lastknowngood 123. (p. 528) ntldr and ntoskrnl.exe 124. (p. 529) Winload.exe readies your system to load the operating system kernel itself. It loads the hardware abstraction layer, the system Registry, and the drivers for any boot devices into memory before the operating system itself takes over. 125. (p. 529) Unlike Windows XP, the boot files and system files must all reside on the same partition in Vista/7. 126. (p. 530) 1) Pressing CTRL-SHIFT-ESC; 2) going to Start | Run or Start | Search, typing taskmgr, and pressing ENTER; and 3) pressing CTRLALT-DELETE and selecting Task Manager. 127. (p. 530) The Applications tab shows all the running applications on your system. Use it if an application will not close normally to force it to shut down. Switch To enables you to bring any program to the front, and New Task enables you to start any program you wish, as long as you know the filename of the program. 128. (p. 530-531) A process is named after its executable file, which usually ends in .exe but can also end with other extensions. All processes have a user name to identify who started the process. A process started by Windows has the user name System. All processes have a process identifier (PID). To identify a process, you use the PID, not the process name. 129. (p. 535) If you select a process and click the End Process button, you'll instantly end that process. If the process is an application, that application will close. 130. (p. 535) 1. Click on the Services button at the bottom of the Services tab in the Task Manager or go to Control Panel | Administrative Tools | Services. 2. You can also open the Services applet from the Start | Run dialog box or Start | Search bar. Type services.msc and press ENTER. 131. (p. 535) To configure a service, right-click on the service name. The context menu enables you to start, stop, pause, resume, or restart any service. Click on Properties to see a dialog box. 132. (p. 538) The Networking tab shows network traffic activity and can help troubleshoot network performance problems. 133. (p. 538) The Users tab enables you to log off or log off other users if you have the proper permissions. 134. (p. 538) tasklist 135. (p. 538) You can kill a process using the taskkill command, using either the name or the PID.

136. (p. 539) Performance console 137. (p. 539) An object is a system component that is given a set of characteristics and can be managed by the operating system as a single entity (such as a processor). 138. (p. 540) A counter tracks specific information about an object—many counters can be associated with an object. 139. (p. 540) System Monitor gathers real-time data on objects such as memory, physical disk, processor, and network, and displays this data as a graph (line graph), histogram (bar graph), or simple report. 140. (p. 540) The Performance Logs and Alerts snap-in 141. (p. 542) Reliability and Performance Monitor in Windows Vista still has a complete Performance console with all the objects and counters you see in Windows XP, but it adds an excellent Resource Overview, a Reliability Monitor tool, and a much more flexible way to use counters with Data Collector Sets and Reports. 142. (p. 542) Performance Monitor in Windows 7 functions almost identically to Reliability and Performance Monitor in Windows Vista, but Microsoft pulled out the Reliability tool to make the remaining tool smaller and tighter. 143. (p. 542) The initial screen is the rate and improve your computer's performance screen, which shows how your computer's hardware stacks up in the Windows Experience Index. 144. (p. 542) perfmon.msc 145. (p. 542) The Windows Experience Index runs on a scale from 1.0 to 7.9 and gives you a pretty good gauge of the relative strengths and weaknesses of a system. 146. (p. 544) The Reliability Monitor tool gives you an overview of how a PC has behaved over time, showing important events such as application or OS crashes. 147. (p. 544) You can find the tool in Windows 7 as part of the Action Center Control Panel applet. 148. (p. 545) Microsoft included Data Collector Sets in Reliability and Performance Monitor and Performance Monitor, groupings of counters you can use to make reports. You can make your own Data Collector Sets (User Defined) or you can just grab one of the predefined system sets. Data Collector Sets not only enable you to choose counter objects to track, but also enable you to schedule when you want them to run. 149. (p. 547) In order to access Component Services, you must make a custom MMC. 150. (p. 548) Data Source Administrator enables you to create and manage entries called Data Source Names (DSNs) that point OBDC to a database. DSNs are used by ODBC-aware applications to query ODBC to find their databases. You will rarely use Data Source Administrator unless you're making your own shared databases.

Chapter 15_Windows Under the Hood Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 15

# of Questions 29 32 89 150

Chapter 16_NTFS, Users and Groups Student:

What does Windows use to provide incredibly powerful file and folder protection? A. NTFS B. Everyone Group C. FAT32 D. Guest Account

What is the process used to determine that someone using a computer is who he says he is? A. Credibility B. Authorization C. Authentication D. Honesty

What is the process that states what a user can and cannot do on a system? A. Access B. Authorization C. ACL D. Inheritance

What is an individual record for a particular user on a single computer called? A. Group account B. Single account C. Specialized account D. Local user account

Giving someone just enough permission to accomplish their tasks is called? A. AAA B. principle of least privilege C. Authentication, authorization, and accounting D. Good business practice

All of the following are good password practices EXCEPT: A. Don't use a spouse or pet's name B. Only give your passwords to administrators C. Make it at least eight characters in length D. Use numbers and special characters

Which of the following is a good security practice? A. Use blank passwords. B. Do not enable secure boot settings. C. Assign a complex password to the administrator account. D. Turn password requirement off.

Selecting while adding a new user in Windows Vista/7 makes that user a member of the local Users group. A. Restricted User B. Standard User C. New User D. Default User

What tool is used in Windows XP to manage users and groups? A. Users and Passwords applet B. User accounts and Groups applet C. Users and Groups applet D. User Accounts applet

10. Which versions of Windows cannot join a domain and use the Windows Welcome screen by default? A. Windows Tablet PC Edition B. XP Professional C. XP Home and Media Center D. Vista Ultimate 11. An account that belongs only to the Local Users group is said to be a(n) account. A. administrator B. guest C. restricted D. limited

user

12. What option can you turn off in the Windows XP Select logon and logoff options to require users to type a user account name? A. Use the Welcome screen B. Use Fast User Switching C. Do not use User Account Name D. Enter Password only 13. By default, what applet is used in Windows Vista Home Premium to manage user accounts? A. User Accounts B. User Accounts and Family Safety C. Users and Passwords D. Users and Groups 14. What permissions dialog feature in Windows Vista is used protect both standard users and administrators from doing certain things that could harm a computer? A. Parental Controls B. User Account Control C. Primary Controls D. Mandatory Control 15.

ratings such as E, T, and M can be used to allow or block computer game use? A. ESRB B. ETM C. UAC D. TPM

16. A strong password is at least punctuation symbols. A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 256

characters long and contains letters, numbers, and

17. Windows XP and Windows Vista allow users to create a floppy or USB they forget a password. A. TPM B. password reset disk C. encryption key D. key fob

in case

18. Which of the following statements is not true? A. Standard users in Vista are prevented from uninstalling applications. B. The Local Users and Groups tool is used to add new groups. C. Standard users in Vista can run most applications. D. The guest account is enabled by default in Windows XP. 19. Windows XP Home and Professional standalone or workgroup-only systems run in a specialized networking mode called . A. File and Folder sharing B. File and printer sharing C. Simple file sharing D. Domain sharing 20. What two sets of data does every folder and file on an NTFS partition list? A. User and group access and level of access B. Read and Execute C. NTFS and FAT permissions D. Encryption and decryption attributes 21. When you create a new file or folder on an NTFS partition, you become the that file or folder. A. administrator B. developer C. owner D. changer

22. You own a file and have prevented all access to the file. Who can take ownership of the file away from you and then access the file? A. No one B. Administrator or anyone with the Take Ownership permission C. Standard users D. NTFS users 23. With the accounts. A. Change B. List C. Read & Execute D. Modify

permission, you can give or take away permissions for other

24. Which folder permission allows you to do anything except delete files or subfolders? A. Full Control B. Modify C. List Folder Contents D. Read 25. What is the name used to describe when a file or folder gets the same permissions for the same users/ groups that the parent folder has? A. Inheritance B. Traversal C. NTFS propagation D. Permission sharing 26. What happens to a file or folder permission if it is copied from one NTFS partition to another? A. The original retains permissions, and the copy inherits permissions from new location. B. Both original and copy retain permissions. C. Both inherit permissions from the new location. D. The original inherits permissions from new location, and the copy retains permissions.

27. In Windows XP, what box would you check for local sharing and security on the Properties Sharing tab to stop sharing a folder? A. Disable shared documents B. Do not share this folder C. Encrypt contents to secure data D. Make this folder private 28. In Windows Vista, once you have selected a specific user to share a folder or file with, which permissions can you assign? A. Private or Public folder B. Reader, Contributor, or Co-owner C. Writer, Reader, or Contributor D. NTFS, FAT32, or FAT 29. What gives local administrators access to resources whether they log on locally or remotely? A. Administrative shares B. Simple file sharing C. Shared folders D. Public folders 30. The only true way to protect your data from access by any other user is called? A. Regular backups B. Authorization C. Encryption D. Authentication 31. What tool do Windows Vista Ultimate and Enterprise editions offer that can be used to encrypt entire hard drives? A. NTFS B. BitLocker C. TPMs D. TrueCrypt 32. What does BitLocker drive encryption require on a motherboard to validate on boot that a Windows Vista computer has not been tampered with? A. EFS B. IPC$ C. Core i7 D. TPM 33. Who has complete control over a folder or file by default? A. Owner B. Administrator C. All users D. Power users 34. Windows 7 has a new way to share files and folders, in the form of libraries, called: A. Domain B. Workgroup C. Homegroup D. File group 35. An unpopular, but necessary, security feature introduced in Windows Vista was: A. NTFS B. UAC C. EFS D. WAC

36. Which of the following actions does NOT require administrative-level privileges? A. Adding or removing a user account B. Installing a driver for a device C. Configuring Parental Controls D. Copying a file to removable media 37. A digitally signed, third-party program or non-core OS program has what UAC classification? A. Verified B. Published by Windows C. Unverified D. Blocked program 38. If you use the System Configuration utility (msconfig) and select Disable UAC on the Tools tab, what further action is required to turn off UAC? A. Log off B. Log on as a different user C. Reboot D. Nothing 39. How many levels of UAC did Microsoft include in Windows 7? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 40. Which one of the following is NOT a UAC level in Windows 7? A. Always notify B. Only notify me when I make changes C. Notify me only when programs try to make changes D. Never notify 41. In a Windows system, a collection of accounts that share the same access capabilities is called a(n) . 42. In a Windows, a super account exists called the 43. In a Windows XP system, except that they cannot install new devices.

account. have rights almost equal to that of the administrator,

44. Members of the group are almost as powerful as Administrators, but they cannot install new devices or access other users' files or folders unless the files or folders specifically provide them access. 45.

for files and folders is controlled by the NTFS file system.

46. If you do not select the Use the Welcome screen checkbox in the User Accounts applet, you will get the logon screen. 47. To create and manage user accounts in Windows, you must a member of the group.

48. Windows XP Home and Windows XP Media Center only use the Windows screen before you log on to a system. 49. In a Windows XP system, an account that belongs only to the Local Users group is called a(n) account. 50. To create a new user in Windows XP, open the User Accounts applet in Control Panel and click . 51.

allows you to switch to another user without logging off the current user.

52. Similar to Windows XP, the guest, administrator, and a(n) that is a member of the Administrators group are created when you set up a Windows Vista computer. 53. To change an account type in Windows Vista Business or Ultimate, you would select from within Control Panel Classic View. 54. User Account Control (UAC) can be turned on or off in the Control Panel. 55. Managers and parents can use users in Windows Vista.

applet in the

to monitor and limit the activities of standard

56. Parental Controls allow you to limit time use as well as restrict access to types of and . 57. A(n) password.

should be created and used at a later time to help users if they forget a

58. A strong password should be at least

characters in length.

59. Strong passwords should include letters, numbers, and

symbols.

60. In a Windows XP system, are almost as powerful as administrators, but they cannot install new devices or access other users' files unless access is provided. 61. Most often, the 62. The

account remains disabled for every version of Windows. tool can be used in Windows to add new groups to your computer.

63. The Local Users and Groups tool is located in the Computer Management applet of the . 64. The

tab lets you view and set file and folder permissions.

65. A user account with the accounts.

permission can give or take away permissions for other

66. You can do anything you want to a file or folder with the

permission.

67. If you have the Full Control permission on a folder and only the Read permission on a file within that folder, you will actually get the permission on the file. 68. The explicit

permission overrules inheritance.

69. If an object is

within an NTFS partition, that object retains its permissions.

70. If an object is from an NTFS partition to a FAT32 partition, the original object retains its permissions and the copy gets no permissions at all. 71. In a Windows XP system, the computer. 72. In a Windows Vista system, the computer.

folder is accessible by all users on the

folders are accessible by all users on the

73. When you want to give users just enough—but no more—permissions to accomplish their tasks, you are following the principle of . 74. To create and manage users, you must have

privileges.

75. Windows enables logged-on users to create a

they can use if they forget a password.

76. Like Windows XP, the home editions of Windows Vista and 7 (Home Basic and Home Premium) offer only groups. 77. It's considered best practice to assign

to groups and then add user accounts to groups.

78. If an administrator wants to access a folder or file they do not have permission to access, they can go through a process called . 79. All versions of Windows have permission 80. You'll need a

turned on by default.

to join a homegroup, to protect the security of any shared data.

81. What shares give administrators access to local resources and are hidden by default?

82. What do the most recent professional versions of Windows use to encrypt files?

83. What is a group?

84. Name five of the built-in groups offered in the various versions of Windows.

85. Similar to Windows XP, the Home editions of Windows Vista offer only which three groups?

86. List the standard permissions for a folder.

87. List the standard permissions for a file.

88. What are the capabilities and limitations of the Power Users group?

89. What modern encryption technology is especially useful for protecting data stored on laptops?

90. What is used to recover from a legitimate BitLocker failure?

91. How do you enable BitLocker drive encryption in Windows Vista Ultimate or Enterprise?

92. What is Fast User Switching?

93. What can happen if the password requirements are turned off in Windows?

94. Good security practice dictates that you should assign a password to the administrator account and never allow users to use what kind of passwords?

95. What basic information does Windows ask you to provide in the New Group dialog box?

96. What logon style is automatically used when a Windows XP Professional computer is joined to a domain?

97. What accounts do limited users see in the User Accounts applet?

98. What do you use in order to create a new user account in Windows XP?

99. What principle are you following if you give a user just enough access and permission to allow them to do their job?

100.List a few examples of the default subfolders in the Windows Vista Public folder.

101.Name the three target sharing permissions you can assign to a user account in Windows Vista.

102.What are the premade folders that are accessible by everyone on a computer called in Windows XP?

103.What are the two key data-related protection processes called?

104.Which local group allows you to do anything on a computer?

105.What are some of the changes you can make in the User Accounts applet of the Windows Vista Control Panel?

106.List some of the actions you can take on the User Controls page of the Parental Controls applet.

107.List a few good practices you should follow concerning passwords.

108.Which Windows XP group has almost the same rights as Administrators, except they cannot install new devices or access other users' files or folders unless the files or folders specifically provide them access?

109.List some of the specific group types available in the professional editions of Windows Vista that enable people to check on the performance and reliability of a computer.

110.What happens to the permissions of the copy of a file when it is copied from an NTFS hard drive to a FAT32 USB thumb drive?

111.What three things all work together to enable you to share a Windows PC securely with multiple user accounts?

112.How does Windows 7 add to the file sharing capabilities in Windows Vista?

113.If a standard user attempts to do something that requires administrator privileges, what kind of prompt does he or she get?

114.What did Microsoft do to make User Account Control (UAC) less bothersome to users in Windows 7?

115.Describe the Power Users group in Windows XP.

116.What is a password reset disk?

117.What is the principle of least privilege?

118.How do groups help administrators manage users and permissions?

119.Which groups does Windows XP provide by default?

120.Which user has complete control over a file or folder by default?

Chapter 16_NTFS, Users and Groups Key 1. (p. 554) A 2. (p. 555) C 3. (p. 555) B 4. (p. 555) D 5. (p. 555) B 6. (p. 556) B 7. (p. 556) C 8. (p. 559) B 9. (p. 559) D 10. (p. 561) C 11. (p. 560) D 12. (p. 561) A 13. (p. 562) B 14. (p. 565) B 15. (p. 565) A 16. (p. 556) B 17. (p. 557) B 18. (p. 558) D 19. (p. 574) C 20. (p. 569) A 21. (p. 570) C 22. (p. 570) B 23. (p. 570) A 24. (p. 570) B 25. (p. 572) A 26. (p. 572) A 27. (p. 571) D 28. (p. 576) B 29. (p. 579) A 30. (p. 579) C 31. (p. 580) B 32. (p. 581) D 33. (p. 570) A 34. (p. 577) C 35. (p. 582) B 36. (p. 583) D

37. (p. 585) A 38. (p. 587) C 39. (p. 588) D 40. (p. 588) B 41. (p. 558) group 42. (p. 558) administrator 43. (p. 558) power users 44. (p. 558) Power Users 45. (p. 555) Authorization 46. (p. 561) classic 47. (p. 558) Administrators 48. (p. 561) Welcome 49. (p. 559) limited user 50. (p. 560) Create a new account 51. (p. 562) Fast User Switching 52. (p. 555) local account 53. (p. 559) User Accounts 54. (p. 565) User Accounts 55. (p. 565) Parental Controls 56. (p. 565) games; specific applications 57. (p. 557) password reset disk 58. (p. 556) eight 59. (p. 556) punctuation 60. (p. 558) power users 61. (p. 558) guest 62. (p. 567) Local Users and Groups 63. (p. 567) Administrative Tools 64. (p. 569) Security 65. (p. 570) Change 66. (p. 570) Full Control 67. (p. 571) Full Control 68. (p. 572) Deny 69. (p. 572) moved 70. (p. 572) copied 71. (p. 574) Shared Documents 72. (p. 576) public 73. (p. 555) least privilege 74. (p. 556) administrator

75. (p. 557) password reset disk 76. (p. 559) three 77. (p. 569) permissions 78. (p. 570) Take Control 79. (p. 572) inheritance 80. (p. 578) password 81. (p. 579) Administrative shares give administrators access to local resources and are hidden by default. 82. (p. 579) The professional versions of Window use a feature called Encrypting File System (EFS) to encrypt individual files and folders. 83. (p. 558) A group is a collection of accounts that share the same access capabilities. 84. (p. 558) Administrators, Power Users, Users, Backup Operators, Replicator, Everyone, Guests, Help Services Group, Remote Desktop Users. 85. (p. 559) Administrators, Users, and Guests 86. (p. 570) The standard permissions for a folder are Full Control, Modify, Read & Execute, List Folder Contents, Read, and Write. 87. (p. 571) The standard permissions for a file are Full Control, Modify, Read & Execute, Read, and Write. 88. (p. 558) The Power Users group is almost as powerful as the Administrators group, but Power Users cannot install new devices or access files they don't have specific permissions to access. 89. (p. 580) BitLocker Drive Encryption encrypts an entire hard drive. It is especially useful for protecting data on laptop computers, which can be easily stolen. 90. (p. 580) You need an accessible recovery key or recovery password to recover from a legitimate BitLocker failure. 91. (p. 580) To enable BitLocker, double-click the BitLocker Drive Encryption icon in the Classic Control Panel, or select Security in Control Panel Home view and then click Protect your computer by encrypting data on your disk. 92. (p. 562) Fast User Switching enables you to switch to another user without logging off of the currently running user. 93. (p. 556) Anyone with physical access to your computer can turn it on and do whatever they want. 94. (p. 556) Never allow users to use blank passwords. 95. (p. 567) You are asked to provide a group nameand description. 96. (p. 562) If your Windows XP computer is a member of a Windows domain, your system automatically uses the Windows Classic style, including the requirement to press Ctrl-Alt-Del to get to the user name and password text boxes. 97. (p. 559) Limited users see only their own account in User Accounts. 98. (p. 559) The User Accounts applet. 99. (p. 555) The principle of least privilege dictates that users should get enough clearance to do their jobs and no more. 100. (p. 578) Subfolders in the Windows Vista Public folder include Public Documents, Public Downloads, Public Music, Public Pictures, and Public Videos. 101. (p. 576) Once you select a user account, you can assign the Reader, Contributor, or Co-owner permission levels. 102. (p. 575) Shared Documents 103. (p. 555) Authentication and authorization 104. (p. 558) Local administrators group 105. (p. 559) You can change your picture, turn UAC on or off, manage user accounts, and change your password in the User Accounts applet of the Windows Vista Control Panel. 106. (p. 565) You can take the following actions on the User Controls page of the Parental Controls applet: Turn Parental Controls On or Off, Turn Activity Reporting On or Off, Control allowed websites, Control time limits, Control game access, and Allow or block specific programs. 107. (p. 556-557) You should follow these practices concerning passwords: Use eight or more characters; use combinations of letters and numbers; never give passwords out over the phone; never write your password down on a sticky note; don't use the names of your spouse, kids, or pets; and create a password reset disk. 108. (p. 558) Power users.

109. (p. 559) Some of the specific performance and reliability group types available in the professional editions of Windows Vista are Event Log Readers, Performance Log Readers, and Performance Monitor Users. 110. (p. 572) The copy has no permissions at all. 111. (p. 554) User accounts, groups, and NTFS enable you to securely share a Windows PC with multiple user accounts. 112. (p. 578) Windows 7 keeps the file sharing options of Windows Vista and adds homegroups to the mix. Instead of sharing individual files or folders, you can use HomeGroup to share libraries, such as your Documents or Music libraries. Any files in your shared libraries will be automatically accessible to everyone in the homegroup, though you can also use more specific permissions. You'll need a password to join a homegroup, to protect the security of any shared data. 113. (p. 584) A UAC dialog box that prompts for the administrator password. 114. (p. 588) To make UAC less aggressive, Microsoft introduced four UAC levels: The top level (Always notify) means you want UAC to work exactly as it does in Vista, displaying the aggressive consent form every time you do anything that typically requires administrator access. The two levels in the middle are new and are very similar - "Don't notify me when I make changes", and "Notify me only when programs try to make changes". The bottom option (Never notify) turns off UAC. 115. (p. 558) Microsoft created the Power Users group to give users almost all of the power of an administrator account (to handle most of the situations just described) without actually giving users the full power of the account. Assigning a user to the Power Users group still required someone who knew how to do this, however, so most folks at the small office/home level simply ignored the Power Users group. 116. (p. 557) Windows enables logged-on users to create a password reset disk they can use if they forget a password. This is very important to have. If you lose your password and an administrator resets it, you might not have access to all of the files you had access to before, especially if they were encrypted. When you reset a password with a password reset disk, you can log on with the new password and still have access to previously encrypted files. 117. (p. 555) The principle of least privilege states that you want to give users just enough—but no more—permissions to accomplish their tasks. 118. (p. 558) Groups make Windows administration much easier in two ways. First, you can assign a certain level of access for a file or folder to a group instead of to just a single user account. You can make a group called Accounting, for example, and put all of the accounting user accounts in that group. If a person quits, you don't need to worry about assigning all of the proper access levels when you create a new account for his or her replacement. 119. (p. 558) Windows XP Professional provides seven built-in groups: Administrators, Power Users, Users, Backup Operators, Replicator, Everyone, and Guests. These built-in groups have a number of preset capabilities. You cannot delete these groups. 120. (p. 570) The user that created the file or folder.

Chapter 16_NTFS, Users and Groups Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 16

# of Questions 53 22 45 120

Chapter 17_Maintaining Windows Student:

What will the Windows Update Express button download onto your computer? A. All updates B. Device driver updates C. Medium- and high-priority updates D. High-priority updates

Which choice will prevent the installation of unsigned drivers? A. Ignore B. Warn C. Block D. Prevent

To have your system automatically contact Microsoft's Web sites and download critical updates, you would enable . A. Automatic Updates B. Last Known Good C. Driver rollbacks D. Driver updates

Which version of Windows requires you to select the Custom option in Windows Update to see if updated device drivers are available? A. Windows 7 B. Windows Vista C. Windows Server 2008 D. Windows XP

What will the Windows Update Custom button allow you to select? A. Optional and high-priority updates B. High-priority updates only C. Optional updates only D. Other program updates only

In which version of Windows MUST drivers be signed, with no exceptions? A. Windows 7 64-bit B. Windows 7 32-bit C. Windows XP D. Windows Vista, all editions

The best tool to use when optimizing device drivers is A. Task Manger B. Device Manager C. Performance Console D. System Configuration tool

Which option restores an updated driver to the original one? A. Uninstall B. Update Driver C. Roll Back Driver D. Disable

The purpose of Windows Update is to allow users to A. easily install high-priority updates B. easily update drivers C. easily update virus signatures D. easily download viruses

10. Which setting in Automatic Updates would you choose to have updates automatically download and install with no intervention? A. Automatic B. Download updates for me C. Notify me D. Turn off automatic updates 11. By default, Windows creates a A. boot disk B. device driver C. license D. restore point

every time new software is installed.

12. All of the following are tabs in Performance Options EXCEPT: A. Visual Effects B. Advanced C. Data Execution Prevention (DEP) D. Error-checking 13. Which version of Windows has the Memory usage setting in the Advanced tab of Performance Options? A. Windows XP B. Windows Vista C. Windows 7 D. Windows Server 2008 14. What is the default Driver Signing setting? A. Block B. Cancel C. Ignore D. Warn 15. Which option in the Device Manager is used to remove an updated driver? A. Driver Details B. Roll Back Driver C. Uninstall D. Update Driver 16. What Windows Vista tool replaced the Backup program used in Windows XP? A. Backup and Restore Center B. Complete Computer Backup C. Backup2 D. Restore and Backup Computer 17. Actions or schedules that start a program are called A. triggers B. actions C. conditions D. criteria

in Version 2.0 of the Task Scheduler.

18. What works in the background to stop viruses and other malware from taking over programs loaded in system memory? A. Data Execution Prevention B. Task Manager C. System Monitor D. Performance Console 19. All of the following are choices NT Backup gives after you click Advanced Mode EXCEPT: A. Backup Wizard (Advanced) B. Restore Wizard (Advanced) C. Automated System Recovery Wizard D. Registry Backup (Advanced) 20. What tool can be used to identify files that can be deleted to gain more hard drive space? A. Disk Cleanup B. Disk Restore C. Disk Defragmenter D. System Restore 21. Which version of Windows cannot back up to an optical disk? A. Windows 7 B. Windows Vista C. Windows XP D. Windows Server 2008 22. Which backup media is slowest and stores data in a sequential order? A. CD B. Tape C. DVD D. USB Thumb Drive 23. Which of the following backup types does not turn off the archive bit? A. Full B. Differential C. Incremental D. Normal 24. Which of the following backup types backs up only files that have changed since the last backup? A. Copy B. Normal C. Full D. Incremental 25. Which of the following backup media types are not supported in Windows Vista/7? A. Tape B. Network C. Flash media D. Optical discs 26. Which version of Windows allows a user's libraries to be backed up? A. Windows XP B. Windows Vista C. Windows 7 D. Windows Server 2008 R2

27. What does the System Restore tool add automatically to restore points? A. Encryption B. Password C. Date and Time D. File name 28. System Restore will do all of the following before restoring the system EXCEPT: A. Prompt you to close all open programs B. Prompt for a password C. Shut down the system D. Tell you that the process is reversible 29. Which of the following will NOT cause an automatic restore point to be created in Windows Vista and 7? A. Installing software B. Installing updates C. No restore point being created for a certain amount of time D. Editing the registry 30. All of the following are common types of Windows updates EXCEPT: A. Important B. Recommended C. Optional D. Required 31. The process of keeping software updated in a safe and timely fashion is known as . 32. The tools used to update device drivers are

and

33. Microsoft's primary distribution tool for handling patch management is a Web site and a Control Panel applet called . 34. 35. A (n)

are individual fixes that come out fairly often. is a large bundle of updates plus anything else Microsoft might choose to add.

36. With the button, Windows Update will grab any high-priority updates—these are security patches—and install them on your computer. 37. 38. A (n)

updates address critical security or stability issues and are the most critical. update is an added feature or enhancement that is not critical.

39. The installation sequence has to be performed manually if an installation CD lacks a(n) installation program. 40. Unsigned drivers will not be installed if the Options dialog box.

option is selected from the Driver Signing

41.

updates include device drivers, language packs, and other nonessential updates.

42.

updates must be installed manually.

43. The properly.

option shows you every update applied to the system and any that failed to install

44. Windows XP Performance Options has three tabs called , and .

45. In the Windows XP Automatic Updates options, simply flashes a dialog box that tells you updates are available but does not download anything until you allow it. 46. In the Windows XP Automatic Updates options, Windows Update to keep the system patched.

is the recommended option to allow

47. Only users with administrative privileges can install updates in Windows 48. The newer versions of 49. You should

also include an option to compress old files. the Registry before performing maintenance tasks on it.

50. Many programs load at startup. The Windows XP maintain every program or service that loads at startup. 51. The Windows troubleshooting options.

utility allows you to see and

System Configuration utility offers Normal, Diagnostic, or Selective startup

52. The executable command-line program for Windows XP backup is

53. A (n) backup includes only files with the archive bit turned on. It copies only the files that have been changed since the last backup and then turns off the archive bits. 54. Microsoft did not provide a utility to clean the 55. You can run the disk Error-checking tool by using the

. command from a command line.

56. The tool will scan the drive for bad sectors, lost clusters, and similar problems, and repair them if possible. 57. Run on a regular basis to keep your system from slowing down due to files being scattered in pieces on your hard drive.

58. You can perform Error-checking by using the command from a command line or rightclicking a drive, selecting Properties then Tools, and clicking . 59. The

Wizard in Windows XP allows a user to configure the update program.

60. The Update Driver button in the device's Properties box opens the 61. The program.

Wizard.

applet in the Windows Vista Control Panel is used to uninstall or change a

62. To uninstall or run many programs in Windows Vista with administrative privileges, you can right-click the program and select . 63. The tab in the Windows XP Performance Options dialog box has the settings for processor scheduling, memory usage, and virtual memory. 64. The settings in the Windows XP Performance Options dialog box enable a user to allocate a greater share of memory to either programs or the system cache. 65. Windows supports the media are inserted into a computer.

feature, which looks for a file called autorun.inf when removable

66. In Windows Vista, you should select Windows to an earlier point in time.

in the System Recovery Options to restore

67. The utility allows you to get rid of unnecessary downloaded program files, temporary internet files, and offline Web pages. 68. A (n) bits.

backup is identical to incremental backup, except it doesn't turn off the archive

69. The tool used to back up files and folders in Windows XP is called 70. Hardware profiles are not supported by 71. Which versions of Windows support hardware profiles?

72. What are three areas for you to consider for scheduled maintenance?

73. When configuring a scheduled task, what information do you need?

74. What is the function of the Roll Back Driver option?

75. What is the backup utility called in Windows XP?

76. What is the backup utility called in Windows Vista?

77. What function does the Disk Cleanup utility perform?

78. What is the function of the System Restore tool?

79. What are Performance Options used to configure?

80. In Windows Vista/7's Task Scheduler, what are triggers?

81. In Windows Vista/7's Task Scheduler, what are conditions?

82. Why was Driver Signing introduced?

83. What is the role of the Virtual Memory section in the Advanced tab of the Windows XP Performance Options dialog box?

84. What is the fastest way to schedule a backup in Windows XP?

85. What is the name of the Disk Defragmenter executable, and where is it located?

86. What are two switches you should use with chkdsk.exe?

87. What is the executable name for the System Configuration utility?

88. What is the System Configuration utility used for?

89. What is the function of Disk Cleanup?

90. How can you uninstall software?

91. What tab in the System Configuration utility allows you to select the type of startup you would like to use for the next boot?

92. Define Driver Signing.

93. What is the executable for the System Information tool?

94. What is the function of the Roll Back Driver option?

95. What does the System Information tool do?

96. Which tool gives you quick access to the DirectX Diagnostics Tool?

97. How has the Add or Remove Programs applet been changed in Windows Vista and 7?

98. Which option completely removes a driver, instead of just reverting to the previous one?

99. Which Windows Update setting is advised for most users?

100.How would you turn off all visual effects in Windows XP to simplify the display of menus?

Chapter 17_Maintaining Windows Key 1. (p. 598) D 2. (p. 617) C 3. (p. 601) A 4. (p. 598) D 5. (p. 598) A 6. (p. 617) A 7. (p. 618) B 8. (p. 618) C 9. (p. 597) A 10. (p. 601) A 11. (p. 632) D 12. (p. 620) D 13. (p. 620) A 14. (p. 617) D 15. (p. 618) B 16. (p. 627) A 17. (p. 606) A 18. (p. 620) A 19. (p. 622) D 20. (p. 603) A 21. (p. 622) C 22. (p. 625) B 23. (p. 626) B 24. (p. 626) D 25. (p. 625) A 26. (p. 630) C 27. (p. 632) C 28. (p. 632) B 29. (p. 635) D 30. (p. 600) D 31. (p. 597) patch management 32. (p. 600, 618) Microsoft Windows Update; Device Manager 33. (p. 600) Windows Update 34. (p. 597) Updates 35. (p. 597) service pack 36. (p. 598) Express

37. (p. 600) Important 38. (p. 600) recommended 39. (p. 611) Autorun 40. (p. 617) Block 41. (p. 600) Optional 42. (p. 600) Optional 43. (p. 601) View update history 44. (p. 619) Visual Effects; Advanced; Data Execution Prevention 45. "Notify me but don't automatically download or install them" 46. (p. 602) Automatic 47. (p. 603) Vista and 7 48. (p. 603) Disk Cleanup 49. (p. 604) back up 50. (p. 609) System Configuration or MSCONFIG.EXE 51. (p. 609) Vista 52. (p. 622) netback 53. (p. 626) incremental 54. (p. 604) Registry 55. (p. 605) chkdsk 56. (p. 605) Error-checking/chkdsk 57. (p. 605) Disk Defragmenter 58. (p. 605) CHKDSK; Check now 59. (p. 601) Automatic Updates Setup 60. (p. 618) Hardware Update 61. (p. 612) Programs and Features 62. (p. 612) Run as administrator 63. (p. 620) Advanced 64. (p. 620) Memory usage 65. (p. 611) Autorun 66. (p. 632) System Restore 67. (p. 603) Disk Cleanup 68. (p. 626) differential 69. (p. 622) Backup Utility 70. (p. 620) Windows Vista or 7 71. (p. 620) Only Windows XP. Windows Vista and 7 do not support hardware profiles. 72. (p. 606) Backups, defragmentation, error-checking 73. (p. 606) You can choose an executable program and define when you want that program to run as well as any special switches you may need to enter. 74. (p. 618) The Roll Back Driver option removes an updated driver, thus rolling back to the previous driver version.

75. (p. 622) Backup Utility (net backup) 76. (p. 607) The Backup and Restore Center 77. (p. 603) The Disk Cleanup utility calculates the disk space that can be freed, compresses old files, and deletes temporary Internet files. 78. (p. 632) The System Restore tool enables a user to create a restore point, making a copy of the computer's configuration at a specific point in time. That way, if the system crashes or becomes corrupt at a later time, the system can be restored to its previous state. 79. (p. 619) Performance Options are used to configure CPU, RAM, and virtual memory settings. 80. (p. 606) Triggers are actions or schedules that start a program. 81. (p. 606) Conditions are extra criteria that must be met for the program to run. 82. (p. 606) Driver Signing was introduced by Microsoft to protect Windows systems from bad device drivers. 83. (p. 620) The Virtual Memory section enables a user to modify the size of the page file on the disk. 84. (p. 607) Use the Backup or Restore Wizard. 85. (p. 608) It is called defrag.exe and is located in the System32 folder. 86. (p. 609) There are two switches you should use: /F to repair sectors and /R to tell Error-checking to attempt to recover data on known bad sectors. 87. (p. 609) msconfig 88. (p. 609) Techs use the System Configuration utility to edit and troubleshoot operating system and program startup processes and services. 89. (p. 603) Disk Cleanup calculates the space you will be able to free up and then displays the Disk Cleanup dialog box to allow you to choose what to delete. 90. (p. 612) To uninstall software, use the uninstall program for the application (if one exists) or use the Add/Remove programs (Windows XP) or Programs and Features (Windows Vista/7) applet in the Control Panel. 91. (p. 610) General 92. Driver Signing is a digital signature assigned to a device driver that has been tested by Microsoft. 93. (p. 616) msinfo32 94. (p. 618) The Roll Back Driver option removes an updated driver, thus rolling back to the previous driver version. 95. (p. 610) It collects information about hardware resources, components, and the software environment. 96. (p. 610) The System Information tool (msinfo32) 97. (p. 612) In Windows Vista and 7, Microsoft has replaced the Add or Remove Programs applet with Programs and Features, which does not have the Add New Programs feature. Programs and Features also adds UAC to the process. 98. (p. 618) The uninstall option. 99. (p. 603) Automatic (recommended) or Install updates automatically (recommended) 100. (p. 619) In Windows XP, right-click My Computer and select Properties, click the Advanced tab, and click the Settings button in the Performance section. On the Visual Effects tab, the Adjust for best performance option turns off all visual effects.

Chapter 17_Maintaining Windows Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 17

# of Questions 43 16 41 100

Chapter 18_Command Line Interface Student:

The text-based, DOS-like user interface is also known as the A. command-line B. graphical user C. mouse D. windows

In older Windows versions, the filename was restricted to A. two B. six C. eight D. ten

What separates the filename and extension? A. Colon B. Comma C. Hyphen D. Period

Current versions of Windows allow filenames of up to A. 8 B. 155 C. 255 D. 355

The ASCII standard defines A. 8 B. 255 C. 256 D. 257

Which of the following was the first universal file format? A. ASCII B. DOS C. EXE D. JPEG

Windows uses a (n) to organize the contents in drives. A. folder system B. hierarchical directory tree C. hierarchical file tree D. linear directory tree

What is another name for a folder? A. Directory B. Program C. System D. Tree

The location of a file is called its A. file B. folder C. path D. root

8-bit characters.

interface.

characters.

10. Which command shows the contents of the current directory? A. dir B. directory C. list D. show 11. Which command always navigates the command-line interface back to the root directory? A. cd.. B. cd\ C. cd/ D. cd\.. 12. Which command is used to create a new directory? A. newdir B. md\ C. md D. mfolder 13. Which command deletes a directory? A. deldir B. delfile C. delroot D. rd 14. Which attribute specifies that a file cannot be modified or deleted? A. Hidden B. Read-only C. Read-write D. System 15. Which attribute is used by backup software to identify files that have been changed since their last backup? A. Archive B. Hidden C. Read-only D. System 16. To add an attribute to a file, the attribute letter is preceded by a(n) A. asterisk (*) B. minus (-) C. percentage (%) D. plus (+)

sign.

17. Which wildcard character replaces a single character in the command-line interface? A. * B. % C. + D. ? 18. What command can be used to copy entire directories, including subdirectories? A. xcompact B. xcomp C. xcmd D. xcopy

19. Which key in the command-line interface brings back the previous command, one letter at a time? A. F1 B. F3 C. F10 D. F12 20. In Windows XP and Vista, the partitions. A. cipher B. color C. compact D. convert

command displays or alters the encryption of directories on NTFS

21. The command-line interface can be accessed by using the A. DOS B. Echo C. Settings D. Run 22. The cipher command works on A. attributes B. directories C. disk drives D. tables

dialog box in Windows.

23. The command-line interface tells a user it's ready to receive commands by displaying a specific set of characters called a(n) . A. command B. key C. prompt D. signal 24. What is the code used to display characters? A. ASCII B. Basic C. C# D. Directory Services 25. Which of the following is an unacceptable system filename under DOS 8.3 naming conventions? A. FRED.EXE B. SYSTEM.INI C. AUTOEXEC.BAT D. COMPTIAEXAM.TXT 26. Which of the following is not a valid Microsoft Office file extension? A. .docx B. .pptx C. .wpdx D. .doc 27. What command in Windows XP/Vista displays or alters the compression of files on NTFS partitions? A. compact B. cipher C. doskey D. xpntfs

28. Hard drives are assigned starting with the letter A. A: B. B: C. C: D. D:

29. A file not within a subfolder is said to be in the A. current directory B. Disk folder C. root directory D. window

30. A folder inside another folder is called a(n) A. root folder B. root file C. subfolder D. sub-system 31. All files have A. three B. four C. five D. six

attributes that determine the behavior of the file in special situations.

32. The standard copy/move commands can work on only one A. directory B. file C. program D. prompt

at a time.

33. In the command-line syntax, a directory is referred to by which character(s)? A. / B. \ C. : D. .. 34. A command switch is expressed by using which character? A. B. : C. C.\ D. / 35. Which of the following gives you all possible switches for a command? A. /? B. /H C. /S D. /P 36. Which of the following will allow you to go up a single directory level at a time? A. cd SPACE B. cd\ C. cd .. D. cd ENTER 37. Which of the following is an example of an external command? A. dir B. attrib C. md D. rd

38. Which command sets a file to "read only"? A. attrib /R B. attrib /r C. attrib -h D. attrib +r 39. Which command will copy encrypted files? A. copy B. robocopy C. xcopy D. move 40. Which of the following commands will power down a local or remote computer? A. restart B. poweroff C. shutdown D. reboot 41. Program filenames use the extension 42. The top level directory is also known as the 43. The Windows System File Checker, or simply Windows system files, folders, and paths.

directory. .exe, scans, detects, and restores important

44. Entering the command at a Command Prompt will scan, detect, and restore important Windows system files, folders, and paths. 45. In Windows, the user should type Enter key to access the command-line interface. 46. Entering the command drive volume- and sector-related issues.

in the Run/Search dialog box and press the

at a Command Prompt will scan, detect, and repair hard

47. If the TEST directory in the C: drive had a subdirectory called SYSTEM, it would be shown as . 48. An easy way to access the cmd.

is by opening the Run dialog box and typing

49. The current version of Windows can be discovered with the

command.

50. If you attempt to enter a command and receive the "Windows needs your permission to continue" dialog box, you should right-click a command-prompt shortcut and select . 51. The first

ASCII values are commands.

52. The the screen.

command shows only filenames and arranges them in five columns across

53. The user can delete all the files in a directory by typing Prompt. 54. The subdirectories.

at the Command

command will not delete a directory if it contains files or

55. All files have four situations.

, which determine how the file will behave in special

56. A command-line program that enables the user to inspect and change file attributes is . 57. In the command-line interface, there are two question mark (?).

characters: the asterisk (*) and

58. The command to find every file that starts with the letter C is

59. The command to rename files in the command-line interface is 60. Windows comes with a tool called subfolders. 61. The

that enables a user to copy entire folders and

command is used to change a file's attributes.

62. To make a directory, the command

is used.

63. The command-line interface tells a user it is ready to receive commands by displaying a specific set of characters called a(n) . 64.

is a 16-bit code that covers every character for the most common languages, plus a few symbols.

65. The

of a filename informs the computer of the type or function of the file.

66. The cd\ command always navigates back to the 67. The single directory level.

command followed immediately by two periods is used to navigate up a

68. The prompt is pointed at the C: drive. To change the focus to the D: drive, you would type .

69. If a file is hidden, it will not be displayed when the

command is executed.

70. A file cannot be modified or deleted if the

attribute is set.

71. The archive attribute is used by backup software to identify the files that have been since their last backup. 72. A tool similar to copy, but with extra capabilities that enable it to work with multiple directories, is . 73. The xcopy command with the for empty ones.

switch is used to copy all subdirectories except

74. Extra text typed after a command to modify its operation, such as /w or /p after dir, is called a . 75. The cd command is also known as the

command.

76. If you want to go up a single directory level, you can type cd followed immediately by 77. The dir, cd, and md commands are called executable file, cmd.exe.

commands, because they are "wrapped" in a single

78. If a command has its own executable file, it is called a(n) 79.

command.

is a "newer" file copy command, previously offered only as an add-on tool, is now included in Windows Vista and 7.

80. The

command will display the name of your computer.

81. What is the "eight-dot-three" file naming system?

82. What is a file format?

83. What are the four attributes of a file?

84. What command would remove the system, hidden, and read-only attributes from the file ntdetect.com?

85. What is the difference between a folder and a subfolder, or a directory and a subdirectory?

86. How can a user list all the switches for a command?

87. What does the extension part of a filename indicate?

88. What does the extension part of a filename instruct the computer to do with the file?

89. How does Windows organize the contents in drives?

90. How is xcopy different from the copy command?

91. What is a directory inside another directory called?

92. How can a user view the contents of a directory?

93. What is Unicode?

94. What program enables a user to inspect and change file attributes?

95. How is the wildcard character "?" used?

96. What is the output of the command move C:\docs\*.doc c;\back\*.sav?

97. What was the first universal file format?

98. How many characters does the ASCII standard define?

99. What are ASCII characters?

100.What does the format command do?

101.How can you find out what switches are available with the copy command?

102.How many files with the same name can exist in a single directory?

103.What is the exact location of a file called?

104.What character in a path is used to indicate a subdirectory within a directory?

105.What is a switch?

106.What is a wildcard used for in the command-line interface?

107.What is xcopy?

108.How is the command-line interface accessed in Windows?

109.Where would you select the Run as administrator box when creating an administrator shortcut for the Command Prompt in Windows Vista?

110.What response is displayed when a command is followed by the /? characters?

111.What does the command cd\ do?

112.How is the ? wildcard different from the * wildcard?

113.Why should the command del *.* be used very carefully?

114.What does the /E switch in the xcopy command do?

115.A user wants to change the name of a file from Filename1.BAT to Myfilename1.BAT. Which command would accomplish this task?

116. What is the correct path for a file named Marks.TXT on the C: drive in a directory called Students that is

residing in a directory called REPORT that is residing in the root directory?

117. What command is used to add the read-only attribute to the file command.com?

118. Which key is pressed, in conjunction with number keys from the numeric keypad, to get Unicode

characters to print to the screen?

119. In the Windows Advanced Boot Options menu, which option loads the GUI into Safe Mode and then

overlays that with a command-line interface for rapid access to a prompt?

120. How does Windows view each program and piece of data on the hard drive?

Chapter 18_Command Line Interface Key 1. (p. 644) A 2. (p. 648) C 3. (p. 648) D 4. (p. 648) C 5. (p. 649) C 6. (p. 649) A 7. (p. 651) B 8. (p. 651) A 9. (p. 651) C 10. (p. 652) A 11. (p. 654) B 12. (p. 655) C 13. (p. 656) D 14. (p. 659) B 15. (p. 659) A 16. (p. 660) D 17. (p. 661) D 18. (p. 665) D 19. (p. 669) A 20. (p. 671) A 21. (p. 647) D 22. (p. 671) B 23. (p. 644) C 24. (p. 649) A 25. (p. 648) D 26. (p. 649) C 27. (p. 670) A 28. (p. 650) C 29. (p. 651) C 30. (p. 651) C 31. (p. 659) B 32. (p. 665) A 33. (p. 651) B 34. (p. 652) D 35. (p. 652) A 36. (p. 654) C

37. (p. 659) B 38. (p. 660) D 39. (p. 666) B 40. (p. 669) C 41. (p. 648) .exe; .com 42. (p. 651) root 43. (p. 668) sfc 44. (p. 669) sfc /scannow 45. (p. 647) cmd 46. (p. 667) chkdsk /f /r c: 47. (p. 651) C:\TEST\SYSTEM 48. (p. 647) command-line interface 49. (p. 647) cmd 50. (p. 647) Run as administrator 51. (p. 650) 32 52. (p. 653) dir /w 53. (p. 663) del *.* 54. (p. 656) rd 55. (p. 659) attributes 56. (p. 659) attrib.exe 57. (p. 661) wildcard 58. (p. 661) dir c*.* 59. (p. 662) ren or rename 60. (p. 665) xcopy 61. (p. 659) attrib 62. (p. 655) md; mkdir 63. (p. 644) prompt 64. (p. 650) Unicode 65. (p. 648) extension 66. (p. 654) root directory 67. (p. 654) cd 68. (p. 655) d: 69. (p. 659) dir 70. (p. 659) read-only 71. (p. 659) changed 72. (p. 665) xcopy 73. (p. 670) /S 74. (p. 652) switch

75. (p. 654) chdir 76. (p. 654) two periods 77. (p. 659) internal 78. (p. 659) external 79. (p. 666) Robocopy 80. (p. 668) hostname 81. (p. 648) Each filename in DOS is broken down into two parts: the filename and the extension. The filename cannot be longer than eight characters. The extension can be up to three characters long. The filename and extension are separated by a period, or "dot." This naming system is known as the "eight-dot-three" naming system. 82. (p. 648) The unique method of organizing binary files stored on the hard drive is called a file format. 83. (p. 659) The four attributes of a file are archive, hidden, read-only, and system. 84. (p. 659) attrib -r -s -h ntdetect.com 85. (p. 651) All files are put into groups called folders or directories. Folders within folders are called subfolders. The DOS name for a folder is a directory. A directory inside another directory is called a subdirectory. Folders and directories refer to the same thing; the words are interchangeable. 86. (p. 652) A user can list all the switches for a command by typing the command followed by a slash and question mark (/?). The /? switch displays a help screen for that particular command. 87. (p. 648) The extension part of the filename indicates the type or function of the file. 88. (p. 648) The extension part of a filename tells the computer which program to launch when the file is opened. 89. (p. 651) Windows uses a hierarchical directory tree system to organize the contents in drives. All files are put into groups called folders. Any folder can have multiple subfolders and files. 90. (p. 665) The copy command can work on only one directory at a time. For copying files in multiple directories, the xcopy command can be used. 91. (p. 651) A directory inside another directory is called a subdirectory. 92. (p. 652) A user can view the contents of a directory by using the dir command. 93. (p. 650) Unicode is a 16-bit code used to display characters. Unlike ASCII, Unicode can display every character in the most common languages. 94. (p. 659) attrib.exe, an external DOS program, enables a user to inspect and change file attributes. 95. (p. 661) The? wildcard replaces any single character. This replacement is useful when a user is looking for filenames with a specific number of characters. 96. (p. 665) This command will take all the files with the extension .DOC in the directory C:\Docs and copy them back to the same directory, into a single file called C. This occurs because DOS interprets the semicolon as "end of command." 97. (p. 649) ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) was the first universal file format. 98. (p. 649) The ASCII standard defines 256 eight-bit characters. 99. (p. 649) ASCII characters are all the letters of the alphabet (uppercase and lowercase), numbers, punctuation, foreign characters, box-drawing characters, and a series of special characters for commands such as a carriage return, bell, and end of file. 100. (p. 668) The format command allows you to format disks from the command line. 101. (p. 652) Entering copy /? will display additional switches such as /a /v and /y that are available for use with the copy command. 102. (p. 651) No two files with the same name can exist in a single directory. 103. (p. 651) The exact location of a file is called a path. 104. (p. 651) A backslash (\) is used to indicate a subdirectory within a directory. 105. (p. 652) Extra text typed after a command to modify its operation, such as the /w or /p after dir, is called a switch. 106. (p. 661) A wildcard is one of two special characters, asterisk (*) and question mark (?), that can be used in place of the whole or a part of a filename. Wildcards enable a DOS command to act on more than one file at a time. 107. (p. 665) xcopy is a command-line tool that can be used on multidirectory jobs.

108. (p. 644) In Windows, the command-line interface is accessed by typing cmd in the Run/Search dialog box or by choosing Start | All Programs | Accessories | Command Prompt. 109. (p. 647) You will find the Run as administrator box in the Advanced Properties dialog box. 110. (p. 652) Any command followed by the /? switch displays the help screen for that particular command. 111. (p. 654) The command cd\ will take the user back to the root directory. 112. (p. 661) The ? wildcard replaces any single character, while the * wildcard is used in manipulating or searching for multiple characters. 113. (p. 663) The command del *.* deletes every single file in the directory (and these files will not be placed in the Recycle Bin); therefore, the user must observe caution when using this command. 114. (p. 666) The /E switch tells xcopy to copy empty subdirectories. 115. (p. 662) The command ren Filename1.BAT Myfilename1.BAT will enable a user to change the name of the file. 116. (p. 651) The correct path is C:\REPORT\Students\Marks.TXT. 117. (p. 659) The command attrib +r command.com is used to add the read-only attribute to the file command.com. 118. (p. 650) ALT 119. (p. 648) Safe Mode with Command Prompt 120. (p. 648) Windows sees each program and piece of data as an individual file. Each file has a name, which is stored with the file on the drive.

Chapter 18_Command Line Interface Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 18

# of Questions 45 17 58 120

Chapter 19_Troubleshooting Windows Student:

What tool in the Windows operating system is used to monitor various log files? A. Device Manager B. Drivers C. Event Viewer D. System Restore

What tool is used to end programs that do not shut down normally? A. Control Panel B. Device Manager C. Event Viewer D. Task Manager

Which mode is identical to Safe mode but provides network support? A. Enable Boot Logging B. Safe Mode C. Safe Mode with Command Prompt D. Safe Mode with Networking

What key would you press during boot-up to get to the Advanced Startup Options menu? A. F1 B. F3 C. F5 D. F8

What recovery tool is available from the Windows installation CD? A. Automated System Recovery B. Last Known Good C. Recovery Console D. Safe Mode

Which Recovery Console command displays the current drive letter mappings? A. map B. md C. more D. systemroot

Which Recovery Console command lists contents of the selected directory on the system partition? A. dir B. del C. disable D. diskpart

All of the following could be indications of a hardware boot failure EXCEPT: A. Blank screen/error messages B. Sounds/smells (clicking hard drive, burning components) C. Windows login screen appears D. Failure to boot

All of the following are common text errors that could occur during the boot process EXCEPT: A. Windows could not log you on B. Invalid BOOT.INI C. NTLDR Bad or Missing D. No Boot Device Present

10. When do Windows XP boot failures occur in the startup process? A. After the Windows login screen appears B. Between the time POST ends and the Loading Windows screen begins C. Before POST starts D. After the GUI starts 11. Which automatic startup option should you choose when Windows' startup fails immediately after installing a new driver but before you have logged on again? A. Last Known Good Configuration B. Enable VGA Mode (XP)/Enable Low-Resolution Mode C. Safe Mode with Networking D. Safe Mode with Command Prompt 12. Which automatic startup option should you choose when you require a default VGA driver to troubleshoot a video problem? A. Last Known Good Configuration B. Enable VGA Mode (XP)/Enable Low-Resolution Mode C. Safe Mode D. Safe Mode with Command Prompt 13. Which of the following is NOT a section of the Windows XP Event Viewer? A. System B. Security C. Hardware D. Application 14. Which section of the Windows XP Event Viewer would record audit events? A. Application B. Security C. System D. Audit 15. All of the following are types of events recorded in Event Viewer EXCEPT: A. Errors B. Warnings C. Information D. Alerts 16. The Windows Vista/7 Event viewer uses all of the following event types EXCEPT: A. Critical B. Error C. Alert D. Information 17. Which tool can you use to temporarily prevent programs from autoloading? A. System Configuration B. Task Manager C. Performance Monitor D. Event Viewer 18. Which one of the following is NOT a service startup type? A. Automatic B. Enabled C. Manual D. Disabled

19. Which of the following tools enables you to see all applications or programs currently running or to close an application that has stopped working? A. System Monitor B. Event Viewer C. System Configuration D. Task Manager 20. Which of the following tools enables you to check and replace a number of critical files, including the important DLL cache? A. System File Checker B. System Configuration utility C. Recovery Console D. Windows Recovery Environment 21. The Action Center is found in which version of Windows? A. Windows XP B. Windows Vista C. Windows 7 D. Windows Server 2008 22. All of the following are components of the Windows Experience Index, EXCEPT: A. Primary hard disk B. Memory C. Processor D. Network card 23. What is the single biggest problem with uninstalling software? A. Administrator privileges B. Unregistered DLL files C. File permissions D. Driver issues 24. If you insert a software disc, which file does Windows look for automatically? A. startup.inf B. setup.exe C. autorun.inf D. bootmgr 25. Which one of the following is NOT a setting in Windows XP's Compatibility tab? A. Run in 256 colors B. Run in 640 × 480 screen resolution C. Disable visual themes D. Use protected memory 26. Which of the following settings in Windows 7's Compatibility tab disables all display features such as Aero? A. Disable advanced features B. Disable display scaling on high DPI settings C. Disable desktop composition D. Disable Aero desktop 27. Which of the following operating systems can you install Windows XP mode into? A. Windows 7 Home Premium B. Windows Vista Ultimate C. Windows XP Professional 64-bit D. Windows 7 Professional

28. What feature enables you to copy a file that is in use? A. Volume Shadow Copy Service B. System Restore C. Recovery Console D. Windows Recovery Environment 29. Under VSS, if any of the following criteria are met, you will have at least one previous version of a file, EXCEPT: A. The file or folder was backed up using the backup program. B. The system rebooted while the file was in use. C. You created a restore point. D. The file or folder was changed. 30. What must be enabled for the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) to function? A. Automatic Restore Points B. Recovery Console C. System Protection D. Windows Recovery Environment 31. The are loaded into memory.

option starts Windows normally and creates a log file of the drivers as they

32. Use the Advanced Startup Option for Windows Vista or Windows 7 if you need to disable required driver signatures at boot-up. 33. To install the Recovery Console, you would enter is the drive letter where you place the installation CD).

at the command line (where d

34. Your system won't boot, and you suspect that a virus has corrupted the boot sector of your system partition. To fix this problem, you enter in the Recovery Console. 35. Your system won't boot, and you suspect that the boot.ini file is corrupt. To fix this problem, you enter in the Recovery Console. 36. The Windows Stop Error is also known as the

37. The installation sequence has to be performed manually if an installation CD lacks a(n) installation program. 38. Each time you successfully start and log on to your system, a portion of the Registry is saved. To access this, you can press F8 to get to the Advanced Startup Options and select . 39. A user has reconfigured the refresh rate on his monitor such that it no longer displays. To be able to access the settings, you would select from the Advanced Startup Options menu. 40. The

Recovery Console command clears the screen.

41. The

Recovery Console command lists all services on the system.

42. The

Recovery Console command displays the contents of a text file.

43. Many programs load at startup. The Windows XP maintain every program or service that loads at startup.

utility allows you to see and

44. The Windows installation media is called a Live DVD because memory and doesn't access or modify the hard drive.

loads directly from disc into

45. If you are having a problem running an application that worked in Windows XP, you should try running it using in Windows Vista/7. 46. The devices.

tool can be used in Safe mode to access the properties of all the

47. The system file checker helps ensure that critical 48. Windows starts in the 49. The 7.

are not modified.

mode when the Debugging Mode choice is selected. command is used to repair a corrupt bootmgr file in Windows Vista and

50. To uninstall or run many programs in Windows Vista with administrative privileges, you can right-click the program and select . 51. Device drivers that prevent Windows from loading often produce the infamous . 52. The applet uses the Windows Experience Index to provide information on how your computer stacks up against other systems. 53. Windows supports the feature, which looks for a file called autorun.inf when removable media are inserted into a computer. 54. In Windows Vista, you should select Windows to an earlier point in time. 55. The best way to recover from a bad Registry load is to use the

in the System Recovery Options to restore

boot option.

56. In Windows XP, starts up Windows loading only very basic drivers for the mouse, VGA monitor, keyboard, mass storage, and system services. 57. The system partition.

Recovery Console command writes a new partition boot sector on the

58. The

Recovery Console command is used to remove a directory.

59. The Ntbtlog.txt file is saved in the

folder.

60. From the Windows Advanced Startup Options menu, if you decide that you just want to start Windows normally, without rebooting, choose the option. 61. What are some of the different types of Safe modes available?

62. What is the function of the System Restore tool?

63. How can the Recovery Console be accessed if it wasn't installed before a problem occurred?

64. What does Windows provide to support older programs?

65. A system won't start due to a corrupted sound driver that is accessed as the system is booted. What can be done to resolve the problem?

66. A system won't start due to a corrupt sound driver that is accessed as the system is booted. The correct sound driver is available on a network computer. What can be done to resolve the problem?

67. What error common on older systems occurs when a program tries writing to a protected area of memory?

68. What must happen for Windows XP to load the main operating system?

69. What should you do if you get a text error message during boot?

70. What is the Recovery Console?

71. What can the Recovery Console be used for?

72. How can the Recovery Console be used to resolve boot problems?

73. What should you do if the boot.ini file is missing or corrupted?

74. Describe an ASR recovery.

75. What are the general rebuild options if a system boot issue can't be fixed?

76. What are the risks of the typical recovery options?

77. What are two critical files required to boot Windows Vista and Windows 7?

78. Describe the Windows Preinstallation Environment (PE).

79. What is the difference between the Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE or Windows RE) and the Windows Preinstallation Environment (WinPE or Windows PE)?

80. How do you access the Windows Recovery Environment in Windows 7?

81. What five options do you have in the Windows Recovery Environment?

82. What tasks does the Startup Repair option perform?

83. In Windows 7, what starts automatically if your system detects a boot problem?

84. What Windows 7 tool repairs the master boot record, boot sector, or BCD store?

85. What tool views and edits the BCD store?

86. What is the best way to restore a good Registry copy?

87. How should you replace the Registry in Windows XP?

88. Where are the backup Registry files located in Windows Vista/7?

89. What would cause the computer to automatically boot into Safe mode?

90. Which advanced startup option causes Windows to create the Ntbtlog.txt file?

Chapter 19_Troubleshooting Windows Key 1. (p. 706) C 2. (p. 712) D 3. (p. 703) D 4. (p. 706) D 5. (p. 683) C 6. (p. 685) A 7. (p. 685) A 8. (p. 682) C 9. (p. 682) A 10. (p. 682) B 11. (p. 705) A 12. (p. 705) B 13. (p. 707) C 14. (p. 707) B 15. (p. 707) D 16. (p. 709) C 17. (p. 711) A 18. (p. 712) B 19. (p. 712) D 20. (p. 712) A 21. (p. 714) C 22. (p. 716) D 23. (p. 718) A 24. (p. 717) C 25. (p. 719) D 26. (p. 720) C 27. (p. 721) D 28. (p. 722) A 29. (p. 723) B 30. (p. 723) C 31. (p. 705) Enable Boot Logging 32. (p. 706) Disable Driver Signature Enforcement 33. (p. 684) 34. (p. 685) fixboot 35. (p. 686) bootcfg /rebuild 36. (p. 701) Blue Screen of Death (BSOD)

37. (p. 717) Autorun 38. (p. 705) Last Known Good Configuration 39. (p. 705) Enable VGA Mode (XP) or Enable Low-Resolution Mode (Vista/7) 40. (p. 685) cls 41. (p. 685) listsvc 42. (p. 685) more or type 43. (p. 703) System Configuration or MSCONFIG.EXE 44. (p. 687) Win PE 45. (p. 719) Compatibility mode 46. (p. 703) Device Manager 47. (p. 712) DLLs 48. (p. 705) kernel debug 49. (p. 696) bcdedit 50. (p. 718) Run as administrator 51. (p. 701) Windows Stop error or Blue Screen of Death (BSoD) 52. (p. 716) Performance Information and Tools 53. (p. 717) Autorun 54. (p. 691) System Restore 55. (p. 705) Last Known Good Configuration 56. (p. 702) Safe mode 57. (p. 685) fixboot 58. (p. 685) rd or rmdir 59. (p. 705) %System Root% 60. (p. 706) Start Windows Normally 61. (p. 702-706) Safe Mode, Safe Mode with Networking, Safe Mode with Command Prompt, Enable Boot Logging, Enable VGA Mode (2000/ XP), Enable Low-Resolution Mode (Vista), Last Known Good Configuration, Directory Services Restore Mode, Debugging Mode, and Start Windows Normally 62. (p. 712) The System Restore tool enables a user to create a restore point, making a copy of the computer's configuration at a specific point in time. That way, if the system crashes or becomes corrupt at a later time, the system can be restored to its previous state. 63. (p. 683) The Recovery Console can be accessed from the Windows installation CD by running Setup, selecting Repair, and then selecting Recovery Console. 64. (p. 719) Windows XP, Vista and 7 provide different forms of compatibility modes to support older programs and applications. 65. (p. 702) Press F8 to access the Advanced Startup Options and choose Safe mode. While in Safe mode, fix the problem with the driver. 66. (p. 703) Press F8 to access the Advanced Startup Options, and choose Safe Mode with Networking. While in Safe Mode with Networking, get the correct driver from the network computer and fix the problem with the driver. 67. (p. 722) General protection fault (GPF) 68. (p. 682) For Windows XP to start loading the main operating system, the critical system files ntldr, ntdetect.com, and boot.ini must reside in the root directory of the C: drive, and boot.ini must point to the Windows boot files. 69. (p. 683) If you get one of the catastrophic error messages with a Windows XP system, you have three possibilities to get back up and running: You first should attempt to repair. If that fails, attempt to restore from a backup copy of Windows. If restore is either not available or fails, your only recourse is to rebuild. 70. (p. 683) The Recovery Console provides a command-line interface for working with Windows before the GUI starts.

71. (p. 683) Use the Recovery Console to manually restore Registries, stop problem services, rebuild partitions (other than the system partition), and use the EXPAND program to extract copies of corrupted files from an optical disc or floppy disk. 72. (p. 685) It can be used for repairing the MBR, reinstalling the boot files, and rebuilding boot.ini. 73. (p. 686) If the boot.ini file is gone or corrupted, run this command from the Recovery Console: bootcfg /rebuild 74. (p. 686) If you use the Automated System Recovery (ASR) backup, this will restore your system to a previously installed state, but you should use it as a last resort—you lose everything on the system that was installed or added after you created the ASR disk. 75. (p. 686) You could simply reboot to the Windows CD-ROM and install right on top of the existing system, but that's usually not the optimal solution. You could also swap the C: drive for a blank hard drive and installing a clean version of Windows; then copy files and settings back over later. Most OEM systems come with a misleadingly named Recovery CD, or recovery partition. The Recovery CD is a CD-ROM that you boot to and run. The recovery partition is a hidden partition on the hard drive that you activate at boot by holding down a key combination specific to the manufacturer of that system. 76. (p. 686) Both "recovery" options do the same thing—restore your computer to the factory-installed state. If you run one of these tools, you will wipe everything off your system—all personal files, folders, and programs will go away! Before running either tool, make sure all important files and folders are backed up on an optical disc or spare hard drive. 77. (p. 687) Two critical boot files risk corruption in Windows Vista and Windows 7, bootmgr and bcd. 78. (p. 687) With Windows PE, you can boot directly to the Windows DVD. This loads a limited-function graphical operating system that contains both troubleshooting and diagnostic tools, along with installation options. 79. (p. 687) Windows RE is the repair tools that run within Windows PE. WinPE powers WinRE 80. (p. 687) First, you can boot from the Windows installation media and select Repair. Second, you can use the Repair Your Computer option on the Advanced Boot Options (F8) menu, and third, you can create a system repair disc before you have problems. Go to Control Panel | System and Security | Backup and Restore and select Create a system repair disc. 81. (p. 688) Startup Repair, System Restore, System Image Recovery (Windows 7) or Windows Complete PC Restore (Vista), Windows Memory Diagnostic (Tool), and Command Prompt. 82. (p. 689) Repairs a corrupted Registry by using the backup on the hard drive, restores critical system and driver files, runs the equivalent of the Recovery Console's fixboot and fixmbr, rolls back any non-working drivers, uninstalls any incompatible service packs and patches, runs chkdsk, and runs a memory test to check RAM. 83. (p. 690) Startup Repair 84. (p. 696) bootrec 85. (p. 696) bcedit 86. (p. 701) The best way to do this is the Last Known Good Configuration boot option. 87. (p. 701-702) Boot to the Windows installation CD-ROM, get to the Recovery Console, and copy backup Registry files from the repair directory. 88. (p. 702) You can find the backed-up Registry files in \Windows\System32\config\RegBack. 89. (p. 703) In most cases, when Windows automatically boots to Safe mode it is because someone has set the System Configuration utility to force Windows to do so. 90. (p. 705) Enable Boot Logging starts Windows normally and creates a log file of the drivers as they load into memory. The file is named Ntbtlog.txt and is saved in the %SystemRoot% folder.

Chapter 19_Troubleshooting Windows Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 19

# of Questions 20 14 56 90

Chapter 20_Input Devices Student:

How many USB devices are supported by one host controller? A. 32 B. 63 C. 127 D. 128

What kind of connector does a legacy serial port use? A. 9-pin DB B. 15-pin DB C. SCSI D. FireWire 2.0

Which chip converts serial data to parallel data? A. Serial chip B. Parallel chip C. Southbridge D. UART

Which standard defines everything about serial ports? A. USB-10 B. IEEE 1394E C. RS-232 D. SSL-232

In a USB connection, what connects to the host controller? A. Device B. Root hub C. USB port D. Child controller

Where do most USB devices get their power? A. Self-powered by AC B. Self-powered by DC C. USB devices don't need power D. USB bus

How fast does a Hi-Speed USB device run? A. 1.5 Mbps B. 12 Mbps C. 400 Mbps D. 480 Mbps

How fast does a Low-Speed USB device run? A. 1.5 Mbps B. 12 Mbps C. 400 Mbps D. 480 Mbps

How fast does a Full-Speed USB device run? A. 1.5 Mbps B. 12 Mbps C. 400 Mbps D. 480 Mbps

10. What is the maximum length of a USB cable? A. 1 meter B. 3 meters C. 5 meters D. 10 meters 11. What is IEEE 1394? A. FireWire B. SCSI C. USB 1.0 D. USB 2.0 12. How many pins does a FireWire connector have? A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8 13. How fast is IEEE 1394a? A. 12 Mbps B. 400 Mbps C. 480 Mbps D. 800 Mbps 14. How fast is IEEE 1394b? A. 12 Mbps B. 400 Mbps C. 480 Mbps D. 800 Mbps 15. How many devices are supported by FireWire? A. 32 B. 63 C. 127 D. 128 16. What's the maximum length of a FireWire cable? A. 1 meter B. 3 meters C. 4.5 meters D. 5 meters 17. Which of the following devices would be fastest for a printer? A. Bluetooth B. Serial C. Parallel D. USB 2.0 18. What can be used to create a digital copy of an existing photo, document, or drawing? A. FireWire printer B. Scanner C. TWAIN printer D. USB camera 19. What do most modern digital cameras use for film? A. 34 mm B. 48 mm C. SD cards D. Parity RAM

20. What do most digital cameras plug into? A. COM port B. Parallel port C. UART D. USB port 21. What type of pen or hand device reads UPC code and connects to either a PS/2 or USB port? A. KVM B. Bar code reader C. Fingerprint scanner D. UPS reader 22. What type of biometric device is commonly used with USB thumb drives, keyboards, and laptops? A. Retina scanner B. Touch screen analyzer C. Fingerprint scanner D. KVM scanner 23. What technology is commonly used in kiosks and with PDAs and tablet PCs that don't require a mouse or keyboard? A. TWAIN B. Webcam C. Biometric D. Touch screen 24. What device allows multiple computers to be viewed and controlled by a single mouse, keyboard, and screen? A. Webcam B. KVM switch C. MKS switch D. Touch screen switch 25. What type of connection do most Webcams use? A. USB B. IEEE 1394a C. PS/2 D. IEEE 1394b 26. Which was the first widely adopted USB standard? A. 1.0 B. 1.1 C. 2.0 D. 3.0 27. Which ports, often coded blue to distinguish them from older ports, are fully backward-compatible? A. USB 3.0 B. USB 2.0 C. Serial D. USB 1.1 28. Which USB ports are typically used to interface with the PC? A. A B. B C. mini-A D. mini-B

29. FireWire has been replaced in practice by all of the following EXCEPT: A. USB 3.0 B. eSATA C. Serial D. USB 2.0 30. Examples of biometric identifiers include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Fingerprints B. Retina or iris patterns C. Voice pattern D. Personal Identification Number (PIN) 31. If a port is disabled, the Windows Vista/7 Device Manager will display a(n) over the port. 32. Use a cloth dampened with and grime. 33. A (n) it.

to clean off keyboard key dirt

KVM switch communicates with and monitors all systems connected to

34. The speed of USB 2.0 is

Mbps.

35. The speed of IEEE 1394a is

Mbps.

36. The speed of IEEE 1394b is

Mbps.

37. TWAIN is short for

38. A scanner's box advertises "2400 × 2400 dpi." This refers to the scanner's

39. The number of colors a scanner can represent is identified by the

in bits.

40. The quality of pictures produced by a camera is expressed as some number of . 41. If you want a camera that can produce quality 8 × 10 inch prints, you should look for one with . 42. Most cameras have two levels of zoom. These are . 43. For Internet video communication, 44. After installing a biometric device, the next step is to device can recognize you.

and

are commonly used. your identity so that the

45. Bar code readers read the

code.

46. The part of the USB host controller that makes the physical connection to the USB port is the . 47. The different speeds defined by USB 1.1 are -Speed.

-Speed and

48. Hi-Speed USB was introduced with USB version

49. You system doesn't have enough USB ports. You can add a(n) single USB port into more ports. 50. IEEE 1394 is also known as 51.

that extends a

comes in two speeds: IEEE 1394a, which runs at 400 Mbps, and IEEE 1394b, which runs at 800 Mbps.

52. Many computers come with a built-in digital cards. 53.

specifically designed for SD

are the distinctive, measurable characteristics used to label and describe individuals.

54. Two peripherals are commonly used for controlling PC games are 55. Joysticks and gamepads previously used a special 56. A 57. Choose better quality.

; now they use USB.

enables users to paint, ink, pencil, or otherwise draw on a computer. (built into the camera lens) over

58. Digital picture quality is often expressed in 59. Webcams measure their resolution in

(uses software built into the camera) for

. , just like digital cameras.

60. Windows allows only one program at a time to use a

61. What is the UART?

62. What is the most important rule to remember when installing USB drivers?

63. None of the USB devices work in a system. What would you check first?

64. What do optical mice use to track their movements?

65. What should you use to clean a keyboard?

66. Your ball mouse has stopped responding smoothly, and you are having trouble pointing at objects on the screen. What is the likely problem?

67. Name two of the technologies that take advantage of biometric devices.

68. Name two of the most basic and necessary I/O devices.

69. What is an advantage of optical mice over ball mice?

70. What type of connection is USB?

71. A scanner advertises a color depth of 16 bits. How many colors can it display?

72. What are KVMs that do not continuously communicate with all connected systems called?

73. What types of ports do modern bar code readers use?

74. When using scanners, what dictates how big a file the scanner can handle?

75. What are the different sizes of digital memory cards commonly available for digital cameras?

76. A friend has a two-megapixel camera and asks you if she can use it to create 8 × 10 photos. What do you tell her?

77. How can you gauge the quality of a digital camera?

78. What are the different speeds of USB?

79. When choosing a Webcam, what features should you consider?

80. What do biometric devices scan?

81. What is a touch screen?

82. How do webcams "track" the user?

83. How well does Windows support drivers for webcams?

84. How would you troubleshoot issues with webcams?

85. Describe digital camera quality issues.

86. Describe the frame rate used in webcams.

87. Describe a digitizer.

88. Where are game controllers and joysticks configured in Windows?

89. What are biometric identifiers?

90. What is a common software program used to manipulate images and capture images from scanners?

Chapter 20_Input Devices Key 1. (p. 732) C 2. (p. 731) A 3. (p. 731) D 4. (p. 731) C 5. (p. 732) B 6. (p. 733) D 7. (p. 734) D 8. (p. 734) A 9. (p. 734) B 10. (p. 735) C 11. (p. 739) A 12. (p. 738) C 13. (p. 739) B 14. (p. 739) D 15. (p. 738) B 16. (p. 738) C 17. (p. 734) D 18. (p. 746) B 19. (p. 753) C 20. (p. 753) D 21. (p. 749) B 22. (p. 748) C 23. (p. 749) D 24. (p. 750) B 25. (p. 756) A 26. (p. 734) B 27. (p. 735) A 28. (p. 735) A 29. (p. 738) C 30. (p. 748) D 31. (p. 740) down arrow 32. (p. 742) water; isopropyl alcohol 33. (p. 750) active 34. (p. 734) 480 35. (p. 739) 400 36. (p. 739) 800

37. (p. 746) Technology Without An Interesting Name 38. (p. 747) resolution 39. (p. 747) color depth 40. (p. 754) megapixels 41. (p. 754) 10 megapixels 42. (p. 755) optical; digital 43. (p. 756) webcams 44. (p. 749) register 45. (p. 749) Universal Product 46. (p. 732) USB root hub or just root hub 47. (p. 734) Low; Full 48. (p. 734) 2.0 49. (p. 735) USB hub 50. (p. 738) FireWire 51. (p. 739) Firewire 52. (p. 754) media reader 53. (p. 748) Biometric identifiers 54. (p. 751) joysticks and gamepads 55. (p. 751) joystick connector 56. (p. 752) digitizer or pen tablet 57. (p. 755) optical zoom; digital zoom 58. (p. 754) megapixels 59. (p. 756) pixels 60. (p. 756) webcam 61. (p. 731) The universal asynchronous receiver/transmitter (UART) does the conversion between the serial data and the parallel data for a serial port. 62. (p. 737) Always install the device driver before you plug in the device. 63. (p. 740) If no USB devices are working in a system, you should check CMOS first. 64. (p. 744) Optical mice use LEDS or lasers and a camera to track their movements. 65. (p. 742) A cloth dampened with a little water or isopropyl alcohol and compressed air can be used to clean a keyboard. 66. (p. 744) The ball mouse is dirty and needs to be cleaned. 67. (p. 748) Fingerprint scanners, retinal scanners, or voice recognition software 68. (p. 741, 743) Keyboards and mice are the most basic and necessary I/O devices. 69. (p. 744) Optical mice require less maintenance compared to ball mice because ball mice pick up dirt easily and must be cleaned to work smoothly. 70. (p. 736) USB is a two-way () connection. 71. (p. 747) It can display 65,536 colors. 72. (p. 750) Passive KVMs do not continuously communicate with all connected systems. 73. (p. 749) Older bar code readers used serial ports, but all of the newer readers use either PS/2 or USB ports.

74. (p. 747) RAM and, to a lesser extent, the processor speed dictate how big a file a scanner can handle. 75. (p. 754) Digital memory cards in sizes ranging from 1 GB to more than 32 GB are commonly available for digital cameras. 76. (p. 754) To create quality 8 × 10 photos, a ten-megapixel camera would be needed. A five-megapixel camera can create quality 4 × 6 photos. 77. (p. 754) Digital cameras that can capture a higher number of megapixels (5 megapixels or more) and have a higher optical zoom (at least 3×) are usually better quality. Although not universally true, bigger digital cameras are usually better in terms of quality because they can pack in more features and sensors. 78. (p. 734) USB comes in Low-Speed (1.5 Mbps), Full-Speed (12 Mbps), Hi-Speed (480 Mbps), and Super Speed (5 Gbps). You should consider frame rate: 30 frames per second (fps) is considered the best. 79. (p. 756) You should consider image quality: 1.3 megapixels is about the best quality you can use before your video becomes so large it will bog down the connection.

80. (p. 748) Biometrics devices scan a unique aspect of a physical body part, such as a fingerprint, thumbprint, retina, or head. Some biometric devices are used for recognition and can recognize a voice. 81. (p. 749) A touch screen is a monitor with some type of sensing device across the face that detects the location and duration of contact, usually by a finger or stylus. 82. (p. 756) Many cameras now can track you when you move, to keep your face in the picture—they recognize a human face with little or no "training" and rotate position to keep your face in the picture. 83. (p. 757) Windows has limited drivers for webcams, so use the ones that come with the product—they also usually come with application software. 84. (p. 757) To troubleshoot camera issues, go through the general I/O troubleshooting steps first, and make sure to turn off other programs that may be trying to use the camera—Windows allows only one program at a time to use a webcam. 85. (p. 754) Quality is usually expressed as some number of megapixels, and ranges from 1 megapixel (older) to 5, 10, and higher megapixels on newer cameras. A higher megapixel count usually means better quality pictures. Camera zoom features also affect picture quality. Choose optical zoom (built into the camera lens) over digital zoom (uses software built into the camera) for better quality. 86. (p. 756) The frame rate affects video quality. A higher frame rate makes for smoother video; 30 frames per second is considered the best. 87. (p. 752) A digitizer (otherwise known as a pen tablet) enables users to paint, ink, pencil, or otherwise draw on a computer. It receives input using a special surface. Most digitizers connect to your PC via a USB connection and should include both drivers and a configuration utility. Some may require specific graphics software to function. 88. (p. 751) In Windows XP and Vista, they can be configured using the Game Controllers Control Panel applet. In Windows 7, open the Start menu and select Devices and Printers. Right-click on the controller and select Game controller settings. 89. (p. 748) Biometric devices prove who we are based on biometric identifiers, which are the distinctive, measurable characteristics used to label and describe individuals. Examples include fingerprints, retina scans, voice patterns, etc. 90. (p. 746) The GNU Image Manipulation Program (otherwise known as GIMP).

Chapter 20_Input Devices Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 20

# of Questions 30 19 41 90

Chapter 21_Video Student:

What is the property by which phosphors continue to glow after being struck by an electron beam? A. Refresh rate B. Response rate C. Dot pitch D. Persistence

What happens to the color produced by a glowing phosphor as the intensity of the electron stream increases in a CRT monitor? A. It gets brighter. B. It gets darker. C. It gets lighter. D. It gets thinner.

What is identified by calculating the number of horizontal pixels times the number of vertical pixels in a monitor? A. Brightness B. Color C. Size D. Resolution

Which of the following is not applicable for LCDs? A. They are thinner and lighter. B. They do not emit potentially harmful radiation. C. They flicker a lot. D. They use much less power.

What unit measures the brightness of a monitor? A. Bits B. Pixels C. mm D. Nits

What do LCD monitors use to provide brightness for the monitor? A. Bright light B. Cold cathode fluorescent lamp C. Pixels D. Solar bulbs

What is the ratio of the darkest to the lightest spots in a monitor? A. Brightness B. Contrast C. Depth D. Pixel

How many watts does a typical CRT monitor consume? A. 100 B. 200 C. 120 D. 240

What unit measures a monitor's dot pitch? A. Bits B. Pixels C. DPI D. Nits

10. What is thin film transistor (TFT) also known as? A. Active matrix B. Dual scan matrix C. Dual-scan passive matrix D. Passive matrix 11. What does DPMS stand for? A. Data power-management signaling B. Degauss power-management signaling C. Digital power-management signaling D. Display power-management signaling 12. How many bits of video RAM are needed to display an ASCII character? A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16 13. What was the resolution of the earliest graphics cards? A. 100 × 50 B. 115 × 100 C. 320 × 200 D. 210 × 400 14. What term identifies how many colors can be displayed on a screen? A. Color depth B. Pixels C. Megahertz D. Nits 15. 3-D objects in a computer game are composed of a group of points. What are these points called? A. Pixels B. Dimension C. Triodes D. Vertices 16. What protocol supports direct access to the hardware for joysticks and other game controllers? A. DirectCPU B. DirectInput C. DirectX D. DirectY 17. What is the name of the special built-in circuit in a monitor that can be used to eliminate magnetic buildup? A. Degaussing coil B. Degaussing circuit C. Degaussing magnet D. Degaussing tube

18. What is the number of horizontal pixels times the number of vertical pixels called? A. Dot Pitch B. Horizontal Refresh Rate C. Vertical Refresh Rate D. Resolution 19. When the red, green, and blue colors meet at a single point on a display, the colors combine. What will be seen at this point? A. Pixel B. Vertice C. Multiple pixel D. Single white dot 20. Which of the following symptoms is indicative of an insulation rupture on the flyback transformer of a monitor? A. A single white dot on an otherwise black screen B. Big color blotches C. Bird-like chirping sounds D. Hissing or sparking sounds 21. VGA devices can display a total of 262,000 colors. How many colors can they display at a time? A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64 22. What does AGP stand for? A. Accelerated Graphics Port B. Active Graphics Port C. Advanced Graphics Port D. Application Graphics Port 23. What do 3-D game programs use to send standard video commands to the device driver? A. AGIs B. AKIs C. APIs D. ARIs 24. In a 3-D world, what is a small picture that is tiled over and over again on walls, floors, and other surfaces? A. Dot B. Pixel C. Signal D. Texture 25. What unit measures an LCDS brightness? A. Bits B. Pixels C. Megahertz D. Nits 26. What term describesany single combination of resolution and color depth you can set for your system? A. Mode B. Brightness C. Horizontal refresh rate D. Nit

27. What controls the point of impact of an electron beam? A. Dot B. Pixel C. Texture D. Yoke 28. What fast expansion card standard has replaced PCI and AGP? A. LCD B. DirectX C. PCIe D. DVI 29. Which central Windows locations provide settings for resolution, refresh rate, driver information, and color depth? A. Display adapters and applets B. Windows XP Personalization and Windows Vista Display applets C. The Display and Device Manager D. Windows XP Display and Windows Vista Personalization applets 30. Which DVI connector accepts either a DVI-D or DVI-A connection? A. DVI-I B. 15-pin A/D C. DVI-DAD D. DVI to VGA adapter 31. What are the best connections for outputting to television? A. MIDI B. DVI to VGA adapter C. HDMI D. DVI-TV 32. Which LCD components are powered by a high-voltage electrical circuit that can give you a nasty shock? A. CCFL frontlights B. Convergers C. Low-voltage bnodes D. Inverters 33. What should be used to clean LCD monitors? A. Liquid window cleaner B. Ammonia wipes C. Windshield washer liquid D. Antistatic monitor wipes 34. What type of displays use a technology called twisted nematic (TN)? A. TFT B. CRT C. Plasma D. LED 35. What does one nit equal? A. Ten candelas/m2 B. One candela/m C. One candela/m2 D. One lumen/m2

36. All of the following are characteristics of plasma display panels EXCEPT: A. Overscan B. Burn-in C. Suitable for PCs D. High quality image 37. Which of the following displays use analog signals instead of digital ones? A. LCD B. CRT C. LED D. Plasma 38. What must a video card have to support a given combination of color depth and resolution? A. RAM B. GPU C. AGP bus D. HDMI connector 39. Which one of the following is NOT a main manufacturer of display adapters? A. NVIDIA B. Intel C. AMD D. Cisco 40. All of the following are characteristics of an integrated GPU EXCEPT: A. Can be a separate chip attached to the motherboard B. Uses more electricity C. Uses less electricity D. Can be built into the Northbridge chip 41. The speed at which the refresh rate. 42. VRR stands for

moves across the screen is known as the horizontal

43. A color LCD screen is composed of a many tiny liquid crystal molecules called . 44. A single port that is similar to a PCI slot and is dedicated to video is the 45. In a (n) 46.

matrix LCD display, the screen is refreshed two lines at a time. video mode supports 1920 × 1200 resolution and 24-inch widescreen

monitors. 47. Video cards have a (n) 48. The 49. RAMDAC stands for

that offloads 3-D rendering duties from the CPU. applet in Windows XP can be used to set screen resolution. .

50. A cheap monitor.

adapter can be used to connect a DVI connection to an analog

51. The is a screen that lies directly behind the phosphors in a CRT and allows only the proper electron gun to light the proper phosphors. 52. If your LCD makes a distinct hissing noise, a(n) 53. A resolution of

is about to fail.

represents full HDTV 1080p.

54. Monitors that meet the consumption by roughly 75 percent.

specification for DPMS can reduce monitor power

55. A good contrast ratio, which is the difference between the darkest and lightest spots that the monitor can display, is . 56. The is the amount of time it takes to draw the entire screen and get the electron guns back to the upper-left corner. 57. The speed at which the electron beam moves across the screen is known as the 58. LCD monitors need a(n) 59. All LCD monitors have a(n) picture possible.

signal. resolution that enables them to display the sharpest

60. Most digital LCD monitors come with a(n) 61. The VESA specification pertains to

connector. and can reduce power consumption.

62. A typical CRT monitor uses about 120 watts. In contrast, a typical LCD monitor uses about watts. 63. Direct access to the hardware for MIDI devices is supported by the protocol. 64. When IBM introduced the VGA standard in video cards, it offered 16 colors at a resolution of pixels. 65. The video RAM and the

are the two major components of the video card.

66. A pixel is made up of a group of red, green, and blue phosphors, called a(n)

67. A modern

projector shines light through an LCD panel.

68. If you hear bird-like chirping sounds emanating from your computer at regular intervals, it usually indicates a problem with the . 69. The takes commands from the CPU and translates them into coordinates and color information that the monitor understands and displays. 70. In the PC gaming world, is a small picture that is tiled over and over again on walls, floors, and other surfaces to create the 3-D surfaces. 71. In the PC gaming world, a true 3-D object is composed of a group of points called . 72. To update your display adapter driver, navigate to the Properties dialog box for your adapter, select the Driver tab and then click the button to start the Hardware Update Wizard. 73. All LCD monitors have a (n) 74. Windows supports

refresh rate. technology, enabling you to use multiple monitors.

75. On the Monitor tab of Display Settings, select the monitor.

checkbox to use a second

76. Using DPMS, a typical CRT monitor's power consumption will be reduced to approximately watts and a LCD monitor will be reduced to about watts. 77.

doubles the input/output rate of GDDR4.

78. Most connections on video cards these days natively support analog signals, and will use a simple adapter to connect a VGA cable to the video card. 79.

is the best connection for outputting to television, and comes in three standard sizes, Standard, Mini, and Micro.

80. The

applet in Windows XP has five tabs by default.

81. What will happen if the phosphors in a monitor have too much or too little persistence?

82. What is a CRT monitor?

83. How do you access the DirectX Diagnostic Tool in Windows?

84. Where do you enable transparency or change the color scheme and intensity in Windows Vista?

85. What is the actual screen measurement from one edge of the screen to the opposite diagonal called?

86. What is VRR?

87. Why are there three electron guns in a CRT monitor?

88. What is a shadow mask?

89. A composite connector provides a video signal through a single cable. What does a component adapter provide?

90. What substance in a CRT monitor emits light?

91. When discussing a monitor, what is a pixel?

92. What is the the time it takes for sub-pixels to go from pure black to pure white and back again?

93. What is the vertical refresh rate on a CRT monitor?

94. What is a phosphor?

95. How can a monitor's screen resolution be changed?

96. What are the advantages of LCD monitors over CRTs?

97. What variations are included in the DVI standard?

98. What is a dual-scan passive matrix?

99. What does a video card need to support in order to run a 120 Hz monitor or television?

100.Where is the video image stored in a video card?

101.What happens when a monitor's degaussing circuit is used?

102.What is the function of RAMDAC?

103.What is a monitor's viewable image size?

104.In an LCD monitor, what is a CCFL?

105.What is the standard that specifies how to reduce monitor power consumption?

106.What is the VRR?

107.What is sidebanding?

108.What is anti-aliasing?

109.What are the advantages of TFT over passive displays?

110.What is DirectX?

111.What are the subsets of DirectX?

112.List some of the most commonly used monitor resolutions.

113.How do monitors eliminate the magnetic buildup in the shadow mask?

114.What provides a central location for all display settings, including resolution, refresh rate, driver information, and color depth?

115.How can excessive heat affect the display?

116.What will Windows do if you set the resolution too high?

117.What does a flickering image on an LCD usually mean?

118.What does a dim image on an LCD usually mean?

119.What can cause HD playback issues?

120.Why should you practice good cable management when moving monitors?

Chapter 21_Video Key 1. (p. 766) D 2. (p. 768) A 3. (p. 768) D 4. (p. 769) C 5. (p. 775) D 6. (p. 818) B 7. (p. 776) B 8. (p. 782) C 9. (p. 775) C 10. (p. 772) A 11. (p. 781) D 12. (p. 783) B 13. (p. 783) C 14. (p. 783) A 15. (p. 804) D 16. (p. 807) B 17. (p. 812) A 18. (p. 768) D 19. (p. 783) D 20. (p. 811) D 21. (p. 785) B 22. (p. 786) A 23. (p. 806) C 24. (p. 805) D 25. (p. 775) D 26. (p. 785) A 27. (p. 766) D 28. (p. 788) C 29. (p. 795) D 30. (p. 780) A 31. (p. 792) C 32. (p. 773) D 33. (p. 813) D 34. (p. 772) A 35. (p. 775) C 36. (p. 778) C

37. (p. 779) B 38. (p. 783) A 39. (p. 789) D 40. (p. 790) B 41. (p. 767) electron beam 42. (p. 767) vertical refresh rate 43. (p. 771) sub-pixels 44. (p. 786) Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) 45. (p. 772) dual-scan passive 46. (p. 785) WUXGA 47. (p. 788) graphics processing unit (GPU) 48. (p. 794) Display 49. (p. 779) Random Access Memory Digital-to-Analog Converter 50. (p. 791) DVI to VGA 51. (p. 768) shadow mask 52. (p. 773) inverter 53. (p. 785) 1920 × 1080 54. (p. 781) Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA) 55. (p. 776) 450:1 56. (p. 767) vertical refresh rate (VRR) 57. (p. 767) horizontal refresh rate (HRR) 58. (p. 779) digital 59. (p. 774) native 60. (p. 780) Digital Video Interface (DVI) 61. (p. 781) Display Power-Management Signaling (DPMS) 62. (p. 782) 33 63. (p. 807) DirectMusic 64. (p. 785) 640 × 480 65. (p. 782) graphics processor 66. (p. 769) triad 67. (p. 776) front-view projector 68. (p. 811) monitor power supply 69. (p. 788) graphics processor or graphics processor unit (GPU) 70. (p. 805) texture 71. (p. 804) vertices 72. (p. 803) Update Driver 73. (p. 801) fixed 74. (p. 800) Dual View

75. (p. 801) Extend the desktop onto this monitor 76. (p. 781) 25, 2 77. (p. 790) Graphics Double Data Rate, version 5 (GDDR5) 78. (p. 780) DVI 79. (p. 792) HDMI 80. (p. 794) Display 81. (p. 766) The perfect amount of persistence is necessary to create the illusion of a solid picture. Too much persistence results in the image being smeary, while too little persistence causes the image to flicker. 82. (p. 765) A CRT monitor is a Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) display. It contains a large cathode ray tube, which is a type of airtight vacuum tube. One end of this tube is a slender cylinder that contains three electron guns. The other end of the tube, which is fatter and wider, is the display screen. 83. (p. 806) To access DirectX settings in Windows Vista/7 simply enter dxdiag in the Start search box or in Windows 2000/XP go to the Accessories | System Tools area. 84. (p. 794) To enable transparency or change the color scheme and intensity in Windows Vista, go to Control Panel | Personalization | Window Color and Appearance. 85. (p. 778) viewable image size (VIS) 86. (p. 767) The amount of time taken to draw the entire screen and get the electron guns back up to the upper-left corner is called the vertical refresh rate (VRR). 87. (p. 768) A CRT has three electron guns to display the three colors of red, blue, and green. 88. (p. 768) A shadow mask is a screen situated directly behind the phosphors in a CRT, which allows only the proper electron gun to light the proper phosphors; for example, the red electron beam is prevented from striking the blue and green phosphors. 89. (p. 792) A component adapter uses a split signal using red, green, and blue connectors. 90. (p. 768) All CRT monitors contain dots of phosphorous or some other light-sensitive compound that glows red, green, or blue (RGB) when an electron gun sweeps over it. These dots are evenly distributed across the monitor. 91. (p. 768) A pixel, derived from the term picture element, is the smallest element of a display that can be independently assigned color or intensity. In a CRT monitor, a pixel is the area of phosphors lit at one instant when the electron guns are turned on. 92. (p. 775) This is the LCD's response rate. Response rate is measured in milliseconds. 93. (p. 767) The vertical refresh rate (VRR) is the time it takes to draw the entire screen and return the electron guns to the upper-left corner. 94. (p. 768) A monitor is a grid of red, green, and blue light-sensitive dots called phosphors. Normal CRT monitors have three electron guns that fire electrons of different intensities (not colors) at the colored phosphors. 95. (p. 794) Screen resolution can be changed by moving the Screen Resolution slider in the Settings tab of the Display Applet (Windows XP) or in the Monitor tab of the Display Settings (Windows Vista). 96. (p. 765, 769) LCD monitors are preferred over CRTs because LCD monitors are thinner and lighter, use less power, are flicker-free, and do not emit potentially harmful radiation. 97. (p. 780) The DVI standard includes DVI-D, DVI-A, and DVI-I. Both DVI-D and DVI-I come in single-link and dual-link varieties, with duallink offering significantly higher resolutions. 98. (p. 772) Dual-scan passive matrix is a method of display in which the screen is refreshed two lines at a time. 99. (p. 780) A video card needs to support Dual-Link DVI to run a 120 Hz monitor or television. 100. (p. 779) The video image is stored in the video RAM inside a video card. 101. (p. 812) When the degaussing circuit is used, an alternating current is sent through a coil of wire surrounding the CRT. This current generates an alternating magnetic field that demagnetizes the shadow mask. 102. (p. 779) RAMDAC takes the digital signal from the video card and turns it into analog signal for the analog CRT. 103. (p. 778) A monitor's screen size that is measured from one edge of the screen to the opposite diagonal end of the screen (not including the housing) is called viewable image size. 104. (p. 773) A CCFL is a cold cathode fluorescent lamp, used in an LCD monitor as a backlight to provide brightness.

105. (p. 781) The Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA) specification for Display Power-Management Signaling (DPMS) is the standard that defines how to reduce monitor power consumption. 106. (p. 767) The amount of time it takes to draw the entire screen and get the electron guns back to the upper-left corner is called the vertical refresh rate (VRR). 107. (p. 787) Sidebanding is a feature in AGP whereby a second data bus enables the video card to send more commands to the Northbridge while receiving other commands at the same time. 108. (p. 774) Anti-aliasing is an edge-blurring technique that softens the jagged corners of pixels when running at lower than native resolution. 109. (p. 772) The advantages of a thin film transistor (TFT) are faster picture display, crisp definition, and tighter color control. 110. (p. 806) DirectX is a set of protocols introduced by Microsoft that helps programmers to control certain pieces of hardware and talk directly to that hardware. 111. (p. 806) The subsets of DirectX include DirectDraw, Direct3D, DirectSound, DirectInput, DirectMusic, DirectPlay, and DirectShow. 112. (p. 768) Some common resolutions are 640 × 480, 800 × 600, 1024 × 768, 1280 × 1024, and 1600 × 1200. 113. (p. 812) Most monitors have a special built-in circuit called a degaussing coil to eliminate the magnetic buildup. 114. (p. 794) The Display applet (Windows XP) or the Personalization applet (Vista/7) 115. (p. 810) Excessive heat inside the case—even with the video card fan running—can cause issues, such as a simple shutdown or screen distortion. Check fans and clean out dust from the PC. 116. (p. 810) Windows will automatically restore your previous settings after a few seconds if you don't click on anything. 117. (p. 812) A flickering image with an LCD usually points to either a very inexpensive panel with too much light bleed from the backlight or a dying CCFL backlight. LEDS don't flicker, so you won't see this issue with those types of LCDS. Replace the backlight if necessary. 118. (p. 812) A dim image, especially on only the top or bottom half of the screen, points to a dead or dying backlight in a multi-backlight system. Replace as necessary. 119. (p. 813-814) This usually involves an HDCP issue—all equipment, including the video card, monitor, and cable must support HDCP. Only HDMI, DVI, and Display Port cables support HDCP—VGA doesn't. 120. (p. 813) To prevent cables from getting snagged, pulling monitors to the floor.

Chapter 21_Video Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 21

# of Questions 18 42 60 120

Chapter 22_Local Area Networking Student:

What identifies a PC on a network? A. Default gateway B. DNS C. IP address D. Subnet mask

What are the IP addresses 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254 used for? A. APIPA link-local addresses B. Hard-coded MAC addresses C. IPv6 loopback addresses D. Ephemeral port numbers

How many host nodes are supported on a single class C network? A. 65,534 B. 192 C. 129 D. 254

Which of the following utilities enables a machine to check whether it can communicate with another machine? A. IPCONFIG B. Ping C. Sys D. TELNET

What is the default subnet mask for class C addresses? A. 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.255

Which of the following utilities shows the route that a packet takes to get to its destination? A. IPCONFIG B. NSLOOKUP C. Ping D. TRACERT

All of the following can be used as alternative cabling for Ethernet EXCEPT: A. Multimode fiber B. Single mode fiber C. Coaxial cable D. Serial cable

Which device is used to perform a loopback test on a NIC? A. Crossover cable B. Link light C. Ephemeral port tester D. Loopback plug

What command would you use to map a share to a drive letter on a computer? A. NET USE B. NET VIEW C. NET UNC D. NET SHARE

10. What is the full UNC path for a machine named SERVER2 sharing its C: drive as HOMEBASE? A. \\SERVER2\HOMEBASE B. \SERVER2\\HOMEBASE C. C:\SERVER2\HOMEBASE D. C:\\SERVER2\\HOMEBASE 11. What box would you check in the Windows Vista Map Network Drive dialog box to reconnect a mapped network folder at logon? A. Automatic reconnection B. Connect \\server\share C. Reconnect at logon D. Always reconnect 12. After entering IPCONFIG at a command prompt, you notice you are using an IP address in the 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254 address range. What is most likely the reason you were assigned one of these addresses? A. The DHCP server is down. B. IPv6 addresses are not available. C. The DNS server is down. D. IPv4 addresses are not available. 13. Which operating systems install both IPv4 and IPv6 by default? A. Windows XP and Windows Vista B. Windows 2000 and Window XP C. Windows Vista and Windows 7 D. Windows XP and Windows 7 14. How many cables does multimode fiber require? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 1 15. Which cabling type uses LEDS? A. Coax B. Multimode fiber C. Single mode fiber D. Shielded twisted pair 16. What is the impedance measured in both RG-6 and RG-59 coax cables? A. 50 ohms B. 10 MBps C. 75 ohms D. 100 MBpsT 17. Which connector is used in coax cable implementations when connecting to a cable modem? A. F-Type B. BNC C. RJ-45 D. TST

18. What kind of cable is most commonly used in 10/100/1000BaseT Ethernet star bus topology networks? A. RG-8 and RG-62 coaxial B. UTP C. Fiber D. HDMI 19. What central connection box is used in Ethernet star bus networks? A. Switch B. Transceiver C. MAUS D. Gateway 20. On which device is any incoming signal on any port re-created (repeated) and sent out on every connected port on the device? A. Switch B. Hub C. Router D. Bridge 21. Which component emits a sound when it receives an electrical signal along the wire at a certain frequency? A. Tone generator B. Time-domain reflectometer C. Multimeter D. Tone probe 22. Which device is used to connect two Ethernet networks that use completely different media internally, such as UTP to fiber or even UTP to wireless? A. Hub B. Router C. Switch D. Bridge 23. Which system is basically a headless system (no monitor, no keyboard, and no mouse) that you plug into a network and is used to share its hard drives? A. Router B. Server C. NAS D. Domain Controller 24. What do most fiber Ethernet networks use? A. 62.5/125 multimode cable B. RG-59 or RG-6 cable C. UTP or STP cable D. RJ-45 and BNC connectors 25. Which is not a fiber connector? A. ST B. SC C. BNC-T D. MT-RJ 26. Which type of horizontal UTP cabling should be used, according to TIA/EIA? A. Multimode B. Single mode C. Solid core D. Stranded core

27. What should you enter at a command prompt to see all of your TCP/IP settings? A. IPCONFIG /RENEW B. IPCONFIG C. IPCONFIG /ALL D. IPCONFIG /RELEASE 28. What is the standard connector used for UTP Ethernet installations? A. BNC B. RJ-11 C. RJ-45 D. LC 29. How tall is a 2U device? A. 1.75 inches B. 3.5 inches C. 4 inches D. 7 inches 30. What is the default subnet mask for class A addresses? A. 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.255 31. Network techs use a device called a(n) 32. A (n)

for help in tracing cables.

measures impedance in network cabling.

33. After making your own cable, you should test it with a (n) 34. Machines that connect LANs are called 35. The off.

. .

in Windows Vista can be used to turn file, folder, or printer sharing on or

36. To have network connectivity, you need a (n) and a (n) .

, a (n)

37. The most common type of patch panel today uses a special type of connecter called a 38. The Internet uses the

protocol.

39. Part of an IP address identifies the network, and part identifies the the network. 40. The IP address 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334 is an example of a(n) address. 41. The IPv4 loopback address is

address on

42. The number of available network addresses for a Class A range is 43. The most famous TCP/IP service is called Web.

. , the language of the World Wide

44. My Network Places in Windows XP is called

in Windows Vista/7.

45. Ethernet networks are usually connected via a cable called 46. The

provides a common point for connection for network devices.

47. All rack-mounted equipment uses a height measurement known simply as a(n)

48. When you set the IP address manually, the IP address is not subject to change and is called a (n) . 49. A powerful command-line program that enables you to determine the information on a DNS server is . 50. By default, the TCP/IP protocol is configured to receive an IP address automatically from a (n) server on the network. 51. NIC LEDS, also known as network connection.

give you clues about what's happening with your

52. In a TCP/IP network, the subnet.

combines with the IP address to determine the

53. The alternative method to create the IPv6 address uses the

address of the network card.

54. The earliest Ethernet networks were connected using 55. A local router, also called a(n) 56. The

sends data outside of a LAN.

utility shows the route that a packet takes to get to its destination.

57. Windows offers two types of permissions called permissions. 58. A (n)

cable.

and

sends data out of the NIC and checks to see if it comes back.

59. A cable with a center cable surrounded by insulation, which in turn is covered with a shield of braided cable, is a (n) cable.

60. Bandwidth-sharing problems on Ethernet networks caused by using a hub can be resolved by replacing the hub with a (n) . 61. What is a tone generator?

62. List the address range for network classes A, B, and C.

63. List four useful Windows TCP/IP testing tools.

64. What three entries should be entered for the Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) properties when using a static IP address?

65. What is usually the issue when failing to connect to a new resource?

66. What is the first thing you should do if you fail to connect to a previously used resource?

67. What is the difference between half-duplex and full-duplex?

68. NIC LEDS are the first thing to check if you are having connectivity issues. Explain what the various LED lights can tell you when troubleshooting.

69. Name four popular fiber optic connectors.

70. In addition to UTP, what other types of cabling can be used for Ethernet?

71. Which type of fiber uses laser light?

72. How does multimode fiber work?

73. What are the major differences in fiber standards?

74. Describe coaxial cabling.

75. How are coaxial cables measured, in terms of impedance?

76. What type of connectors does coax use?

77. What is the binary equivalent of the number 255?

78. Define coaxial cable.

79. What is the downside to using hubs?

80. What is the main difference between a switch and a hub?

81. Describe a NAS.

82. Describe a router.

83. Who defines structured cabling standards?

84. What is the difference between solid core and stranded core UTP cabling?

85. What is the purpose of the telecommunications room?

86. Describe standardized equipment racks in a telecommunications room.

87. What is the purpose of client software?

88. What is a patch panel?

89. What is the purpose of the TRACERT utility?

90. What area is the source for most network cabling failures?

Chapter 22_Local Area Networking Key 1. (p. 834) C 2. (p. 838) A 3. (p. 836) D 4. (p. 840) B 5. (p. 836) C 6. (p. 843) D 7. (p. 823) D 8. (p. 861) D 9. (p. 857) A 10. (p. 856) A 11. (p. 855) C 12. (p. 838) A 13. (p. 846) C 14. (p. 823) A 15. (p. 824) B 16. (p. 824) C 17. (p. 825) A 18. (p. 823) B 19. (p. 825) A 20. (p. 825) B 21. (p. 862) D 22. (p. 826) D 23. (p. 826) C 24. (p. 823) A 25. (p. 823) C 26. (p. 829) C 27. (p. 842) C 28. (p. 823) C 29. (p. 830) B 30. (p. 838) A 31. (p. 862) toner 32. (p. 861) Time-Domain Reflectometer (TDR) 33. (p. 861) cable tester 34. (p. 827) routers 35. (p. 841) Network and Sharing Center 36. (p. 859) NIC; protocol; network client

37. (p. 831) 110 block, or sometimes a 110-punchdown block 38. (p. 835) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) 39. (p. 836) local computer (host) 40. (p. 846) IPv6 41. (p. 837) 127.0.0.1 42. (p. 837) 129 43. (p. 840) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) 44. (p. 854) Network 45. (p. 823) unshielded twisted pair (UTP) 46. (p. 825) hub or switch 47. (p. 830) U 48. (p. 841) static IP address 49. (p. 842) NSLOOKUP 50. (p. 841) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) 51. (p. 851) link lights 52. (p. 836) subnet mask 53. (p. 848) Media Access Control (MAC) 54. (p. 824) coaxial 55. (p. 839) default gateway 56. (p. 843) TRACERT 57. (p. 853) network, NTFS 58. (p. 861) loopback test 59. (p. 824) coaxial 60. (p. 825) switch 61. (p. 862) Network techs use a device called a toner for help in tracing cables. Toner is the generic term for two separate devices that are used together: a tone generator and a tone probe. 62. (p. 837) The address range for each of the network classes are class A—1 to 126, class B—128 to 191, and class C—192 to 223. 63. (p. 842) PING, IPCONFIG, NSLOOKUP, TRACERT 64. (p. 841) IP address, Subnet Mask, and Default gateway 65. (p. 862) Failure to connect to a new resource is usually a network configuration issue. 66. (p. 863) Verify that you are not already connected by using nbtstat -s. 67. (p. 850) Modern network NICs and switches are full-duplex, meaning they can send and receive data at the same time. Older devices are halfduplex, meaning they can send and receive, but not at the same time. 68. (p. 851) A solid green light means connectivity, a flashing green light means intermittent connectivity, no green light means no connectivity, and a flashing amber light means there are collisions on the network. 69. (p. 823) ST, SC, LC, and MT-RJ 70. (p. 823-824) Fiber and coaxial (coax) cabling. 71. (p. 824) Single mode fiber 72. (p. 824) Multimode fiber uses LEDS and transmits multiple light signals at the same time, each using a different reflection angle within the core of the cable. The multiple reflection angles tend to disperse over long distances, so multimode fiber optic cables are used for relatively short distances and are slower than single mode fiber.

73. (p. 824) The major differences in fiber standards are the speed and distance limitations and the way they interconnect. 74. (p. 824) Coax cable consists of a center cable (core) surrounded by insulation. This in turn is covered with a shield of braided cable. The center core actually carries the signal. The shield effectively eliminates outside interference. The entire cable is then surrounded by a protective insulating cover. 75. (p. 824) Coax standards are rated by impedance, which is measured in ohms—both RG-6 and RG-59 have 75-ohm impedance. 76. (p. 824) Coax most commonly uses two different types of connectors. A BNC connector uses a quarter-twist connector, and an F-type connector uses a screw connector. BNC is uncommon, but F-type is on the back of all cable modems and most televisions. 77. (p. 836) The binary equivalent of the number 255 is 11111111. 78. (p. 824) Coaxial cable is a cable within a cable—two cables that share the same center or axis. 79. (p. 825) The downside to hubs is that all connected devices have to share the total bandwidth. 80. (p. 825) A switch looks like a hub, but a switch automatically creates point-to-point connections between any two computers. By separating every connection, each computer can use the full bandwidth of the switch. 81. (p. 826) You can use a networked attached storage (NAS) system instead of a server for file sharing across a network. A NAS is basically a headless system (no monitor, no keyboard, and no mouse) that you plug into a network. A NAS does only one thing: share its hard drives. Almost all NAS devices use some form of Web interface for configuration, enabling you to control the NAS from a Web browser on any PC in the network. 82. (p. 827) A router connects LANs using the TCP/IP protocol. A router must have at least two connections—one into a network and one out to another network. More powerful routers have many different connections. 83. (p. 827) Structured cabling standards are defined by the Telecommunications Industry Association/Electronic Industries Alliance (TIA/EIA). 84. (p. 829) All UTP cables come in one of two types: solid core or stranded core. Each wire in solid core UTP uses a single solid wire; in stranded core each wire is actually a bundle of tiny wire strands. TIA/EIA specifies that horizontal cabling should always be solid core. 85. (p. 828) The telecommunications room is the heart of the basic star—where all the horizontal runs from all the work areas come together. The central component of every telecommunications room is one or more equipment racks, which provide a safe, stable platform for all the different hardware components. 86. (p. 830) All equipment racks are 19 inches wide, but they vary in height. You can mount almost any network hardware component into a rack, including rack-mount servers and UPSs. All rack-mounted equipment uses a height measurement known simply as a U. A U is 1.75 inches. A device that fits in a 1.75-inch space is called a 1U; a device designed for a 3.5-inch space is a 2U; and a device that goes into a 7-inch space is called a 4U. Most rack-mounted devices are 1U, 2U, or 4U. 87. (p. 852) To access data or resources across a network, a Windows PC needs to have client software installed. For a Windows system accessing a Windows server, it is installed by default. 88. (p. 831) A patch panel is simply a box with a row of female connectors (ports) in the front and permanent connections in the back, to which you connect the horizontal cables. The most common type of patch panel today uses a special type of connecter called a 110 block, or sometimes a 110-punchdown block. UTP cables connect to a 110 block using a punchdown tool. 89. (p. 843) The TRACERT utility shows the route that a packet takes to get to its destination. 90. (p. 828) The work area may be the simplest part of the structured cabling system, but it is also the source of most network failures.

Chapter 22_Local Area Networking Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 22

# of Questions 40 18 32 90

Chapter 23_Wireless Networking Student:

What is another name for the Service Set Identifier parameter? A. Network address B. Network name C. Network path D. Network protocol

Most WAPs support filtering, in which data packets that do not contain the appropriate address are rejected. What kind of address is filtered? A. MAC B. SSID C. WEP D. WPA

Which of the following provides a security improvement that WPA addresses over WEP? A. EAP B. IrDA C. SWAP D. TCP/IP

Which of the following wireless networking standards supports data throughput of up to 11 Mbps? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11c D. 802.11g

What is the theoretical maximum range of the 802.11a wireless networking standard? A. 150 feet B. 200 feet C. 250 feet D. 300 feet

At what frequency range does the 802.11a-based wireless technology operate? A. 7 GHz B. 5 GHz C. 3 GHz D. 1 GHz

At what frequency range do the 802.11b- and 802.11g-based wireless technologies operate? A. 2.4 GHz B. 3.4 GHz C. 4.4 GHz D. 5.4 GHz

What is the speed at which the 802.11g wireless technology transfers data? A. 11 Mbps B. 20 Mbps C. 54 Mbps D. 64 Mbps

What is the central connection point for a wireless network working in infrastructure mode? A. EAP B. WAP C. WEP D. WPA

10. What is the maximum capacity for data transfer between infrared devices? A. 1 Mbps B. 2 Mbps C. 3 Mbps D. 4 Mbps 11. Which of the following represents a security improvement in WPA2 over WEP and WPA? A. EAP B. IrDA C. AES D. TCP/IP 12. How many bits does WEP encryption use to scramble data packets? A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50 13. What device centrally connects wireless network nodes in the same way that a hub or switch connects wired Ethernet PCs? A. Network interface card B. Network operating system C. Service Set Identifier D. Wireless access point 14. What method do wireless networks use to determine if other nodes are currently broadcasting? A. CSMA/CD B. CSMA/CA C. Dipole antennae D. MIMO 15. What 802.11n feature increases its range and speed? A. MIMO B. CSMA/CA C. SSID D. WPA-PSK 16. What frequencies does 802.11n use? A. 2.4 and 5 GHz B. 11 and 54 MHz C. 5 and 24 GHz D. 2.4 and 11 MHz 17. What wireless technology is often used to connect headsets to smartphones? A. WPA-Enterprise B. WPA-PSK C. AES D. Bluetooth

18. What is a very small wireless network preconfigured to do a specific job called? A. PAN B. WAN C. LAN D. MAN 19. What is the maximum distance of a Class 3 Bluetooth device? A. 100 meters B. 10 meters C. 1 meter D. 5 meters 20. What enables you to connect to the Internet through a PDA, cell phone, or smartphone? A. 802.11b B. 802.11n C. MAC filtering D. Cellular wireless network 21. What type of wireless network can quickly be used to share files, folders, and printers without a WAP? A. Ad hoc B. Infrastructure C. Enterprise D. WAN 22. Today, which of the following is not considered a good security practice when setting up a WAP? A. Change the default SSID. B. Change the default admin user name and password. C. Enable WEP encryption. D. Disable SSID broadcasting. 23. What allows you to specifically allow or deny access to a WAP? A. OFDM B. MAC filtering C. SSID broadcasting D. NTFS Permissions 24. What WPA/WPA2 encryption version uses a RADIUS server for secure authentication? A. WPA/WPA2-PSK B. SSIDv3 C. WPA/WPA2-Enterprise D. SSIDv4 25. What WAP settings should be adjusted in an environment with overlapping Wi-Fi signals? A. Channel and frequency B. SSID and MAC filtering C. Default user name and password D. Encryption protocols 26. What is the gain from a typical WAP? A. 1 dB B. 2 dB C. 10 dB D. 12 dB

27. What is the standard straight-wire omnidirectional wireless antenna called? A. Omnipole B. Unipole C. Dipole D. Bipole 28. What should you check first when troubleshooting wireless connectivity issues? A. Wireless configuration utility B. Wireless NIC link light C. Encryption settings D. Dipole gain 29. Where should you look for WAP firmware updates? A. CMOS B. Device Manager C. Windows update D. Manufacturer's Web site 30. Assuming the wireless NIC is able to pass packets, what would you check next to resolve connectivity issues? A. Wireless configuration utility B. WAP setting C. Administrative tools D. Manufacturer's Web site 31. Wireless Zero Configuration was first introduced with which operating system? A. Windows 2000 B. Windows XP C. Windows Vista D. Windows 7 32. Which of the following will allow you to plug a single Ethernet cable into the WAP to provide both power and a network connection? A. PoE B. SID C. ESSI D. PoW 33. Which of the following does WPA use to provide a new encryption key for every sent packet? A. SSH B. WEP C. SSL D. TKIP 34. Which of the following has a security flaw that allows a hacker to guess an eight-digit code? A. WPA B. WEP C. WPS D. WPA2 35. When using an omni-directional antenna, where is the best place to keep it in your home or office? A. On the roof B. Near the outside wall C. In the center D. In a basement

36. What should you consider decreasing on a WAP to prevent others from receiving your wireless signal? A. Encryption strength B. Power C. Range D. Number of clients 37. A wireless service area that can be extended by adding more WAPs is called: A. WAP B. SID C. BSS D. EBSS 38. All of the following methods can be used to increase a wireless network's range EXCEPT: A. Reduce transmitting power B. Install multiple WAPs C. Install a stronger replacement WAP D. Install a signal booster 39. All of the following use the 2.4 GHz and 5.8 GHz bands EXCEPT: A. Industry B. Scientific C. Medical D. Military 40. Which of the following standards is now considered obsolete? A. 802.11a B. 802.11 C. 802.11g D. 802.11n 41. Wireless networks using infrared light are limited to those that use the protocol. 42. Wireless access points can act as high-speed

and Internet routers.

43. To protect wireless systems, the default SSID name should be

44. Wireless devices operate using the

networking scheme.

45. To protect wireless systems, SSID

is turned off.

46. Wireless networks running in mode use one or more wireless access points to connect the wireless network nodes to a wired network segment. 47. WPA2 uses the

for encryption.

48. The IEEE 802.11 wireless Ethernet standard defines methods by which devices may communicate using radio waves. 49. The 802.11g standard is backward-compatible with

50. Products that adhere to the 802.11b standard provide a maximum of the 2.4 GHz band.

channels in

51. Communication between infrared devices is enabled in

mode.

52. The maximum distance between infrared devices is

53. Communication will fail if the encryption level, key, and wireless client node.

do not match on the

54. A valid user name and password may be required while configuring encryption using the or wireless protocols. 55. IrDA links are direct

and are susceptible to interference.

56. A (n) combines an infrared transceiver with an Ethernet NIC and translates the IrDA protocol into an Ethernet signal. 57. Devices such as interference.

and

can cause a great deal of

58. Two or more wireless nodes communicating in ad hoc mode form what's called a(n) . 59.

is a handy way of creating a type of "accepted users" list to limit access to your wireless network and Internet routers.

60. Microsoft Windows fully supports the IEEE as , to lock down wireless networks. 61. Like 802.11g, slower 802.11b/g devices.

standard, more commonly known

WAPs can run in the 2.4-GHz ISM band, supporting earlier,

62. The IEEE organization has made first-generation Bluetooth the basis for its 802.15 standard for wireless . 63. A (n) phone, or smart phone.

enables you to connect to the Internet through a network-aware PDA, cell

64. You can easily add wireless Ethernet and Bluetooth capabilities using adapters. 65. Almost all wireless headsets are now

66. With either 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz.

802.11n WAPs, you can choose which band to put 802.11n traffic on,

67. You should place a WAP with an omnidirectional antenna in the

of an area.

68. If your WAP is configured for 128-bit encryption, all nodes must use 69. Changing the default network.

for a WAP is the first step in setting up a new wireless

70. A service area that is extended by adding WAPs is called a (n)

71. Using , you only need to plug a single Ethernet cable into the WAP to provide both power and a network connection. 72. WPA uses the

, which provides a new encryption key for every sent packet.

73. The developers of Wi-Fi created , a standard included on most WAPs and clients to make it easier for end users to configure secure connections. 74. A WPS-capable WAP will have a (n) 75. When using a (n)

-digit numeric code printed on the device.

antenna, keep it near the center of your home or office.

76. To prevent others from picking up your wireless signal, the radio power until you can get reception at the furthest point inside your home or office, but not outside. 77. You can install multiple WAPs to permit another's. 78. Installing a wireless 79. 80.

between one WAP's coverage area and

can give you even more power.

is by far the most widely adopted wireless networking type today. was invented to replace the nest of cables that currently connects most PCs to their various peripheral devices—keyboard, mouse, printer, speakers.

81. Name the two wireless radio wave networks a technician may see on the job.

82. What is the purpose of a wireless access point?

83. How is data transmitted in a wireless network?

84. Because nodes on a wireless network can't easily detect collisions, which protocol is an option to transfer data over a network?

85. What are the two wireless network modes?

86. What is an Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)?

87. What is an Extended Basic Service Set (EBSS)?

88. What methods do wireless networks use to secure access and data that is being transferred on the network?

89. What is the function of WEP?

90. Why should a user upgrade from WEP or WPA to WPA2?

91. List the variations of the 802.11 standard used in Wi-Fi wireless networks.

92. List the features of the 802.11a standard.

93. What is the purpose of an infrared access point device?

94. Explain what the CA means in CSMA/CA.

95. Name the two wireless modes used by 802.11 wireless networks.

96. What are the throughput, range, and frequency of the 802.11n wireless standard?

97. What are the throughput, range, and frequency of the 802.11g wireless standard?

98. What are the throughput, range, and frequency of the 802.11b wireless standard?

99. Name the three classes of Bluetooth and their maximum distances.

100.Who typically controls the settings for a cellular network card connection?

101.List five devices or objects that can block or interfere with wireless radio signals.

102.What feature enables 802.11n devices to make multiple simultaneous connections and support 100+ Mbps speeds?

103.At what range is the maximum throughput speed of 802.11 networks typically achieved?

104.What are the only two requirements for an ad hoc wireless network?

105.What can you do to make your new 802.11n WAP most secure?

106.Describe spread-spectrum.

107.Describe Power over Ethernet (POE).

108.Describe WPA's use of TKIP.

109.What are the two ways to set up WPS?

110.What is the security flaw in WPS?

Chapter 23_Wireless Networking Key 1. (p. 874) B 2. (p. 875) A 3. (p. 876) A 4. (p. 878) B 5. (p. 878) A 6. (p. 878) B 7. (p. 878) A 8. (p. 878) C 9. (p. 872) B 10. (p. 880) D 11. (p. 876) C 12. (p. 878) C 13. (p. 874) D 14. (p. 872) B 15. (p. 879) A 16. (p. 879) A 17. (p. 881) D 18. (p. 881) A 19. (p. 881) C 20. (p. 882) D 21. (p. 874) A 22. (p. 875) C 23. (p. 875) B 24. (p. 876) C 25. (p. 886) A 26. (p. 888) B 27. (p. 888) C 28. (p. 892) B 29. (p. 892) D 30. (p. 892) A 31. (p. 893) B 32. (p. 872) A 33. (p. 875) D 34. (p. 876) C 35. (p. 877) C 36. (p. 877) B

37. (p. 874) D 38. (p. 877) A 39. (p. 878) D 40. (p. 871) B 41. (p. 880) IrDA (Infrared Data Association) 42. (p. 872) switches 43. (p. 875) renamed 44. (p. 872) CSMA/CA 45. (p. 875) broadcasting 46. (p. 874) infrastructure 47. (p. 876) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) 48. (p. 878) spread-spectrum 49. (p. 878) 802.11b 50. (p. 879) 14 51. (p. 874) ad hoc 52. (p. 880) 1 meter 53. (p. 893) passphrase or password 54. (p. 876) WPA; WPA2 55. (p. 880) line-of-sight 56. (p. 880) infrared access point 57. (p. 877) cordless phones; microwaves 58. (p. 874) Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS) 59. (p. 875) MAC address filtering 60. (p. 876) 802.11i; Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) 61. (p. 879) 802.11n 62. (p. 881) Personal Area Networks (PANs) 63. (p. 882) cellular wireless network 64. (p. 871) USB, PCI, PCIE, or PC Card 65. (p. 881) Bluetooth 66. (p. 879) dual-band 67. (p. 877) center or middle 68. (p. 893) 128-bit encryption 69. (p. 875) SSID 70. (p. 874) Extended Basic Service Set (EBSS) 71. (p. 872) Power over Ethernet (POE) 72. (p. 875) Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) 73. (p. 876) Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) 74. (p. 876) eight

75. (p. 877) omni-directional 76. (p. 877) decrease 77. (p. 877) "roaming" 78. (p. 877) signal booster 79. (p. 871) Wi-Fi 80. (p. 881) Bluetooth 81. (p. 871, 881) 802.11 wireless (Wi-Fi) and Bluetooth 82. (p. 872) The purpose of a wireless access point is to extend the capabilities of a wireless Ethernet network or to share a high-speed Internet connection. 83. (p. 871) Wireless networks use either radio waves or beams of infrared light to communicate with each other. 84. (p. 873) Wireless nodes can optionally use the Request to Send/Clear to Send (RTS/CTS) protocol while transferring data over a network. 85. (p. 874) The two wireless network modes are ad hoc, also known as a peer-to-peer network with no WAP, and infrastructure mode, which uses a WAP as a central access point. 86. (p. 874) An Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS) is a network where two or more wireless nodes communicate in ad hoc mode. 87. (p. 874) A single wireless access point servicing a given area that can be extended by adding more wireless access points is called an Extended Basic Service Set (EBSS). 88. (p. 874-877) Wireless networks use a unique SSID (network name), MAC filtering, and encryption through Wireless Equivalent Privacy (WEP), Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA), or Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) to secure access to a network and the data that is being transferred on the network. 89. (p. 875) Although not as secure as WPA or WPA2, the function of WEP is to provide security to a wireless network by encrypting data while in transit over the airwaves. 90. (p. 876) WPA2 offers true end-to-end encryption using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) and other improvements that provide a secure wireless environment. 91. (p. 878-879) The variations of the 802.11 standard used in Wi-Fi wireless networks are 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n. 92. (p. 878) The features of the 802.11a standard are that it operates at 5 GHz, theoretically has a range of up to 150 feet, and that it offers throughput at speeds of up to 54 Mbps. 93. (p. 880) An infrared access point device is used to enable Ethernet network communication using IrDA. 94. (p. 872) CA means collision avoidance. It differs slightly from the collision detection standard used in wired Ethernet. Wireless nodes listen in on the wireless medium using CA to see if another node is currently broadcasting data. 95. (p. 874) The two modes used by 802.11 wireless networks are ad hoc and infrastructure. 96. (p. 879) 802.11n throughput is 100+ Mbps. Range is 300+ feet. Frequencies are 2.4 and 5 GHz. 97. (p. 878) 802.11g throughput is up to 54 Mbps. Range is 300 feet. Frequency is 2.4 GHz. 98. (p. 878) 802.11b throughput is up to 11 Mbps. Range is 300 feet. Frequency is 2.4 GHz. 99. (p. 881) Class1, 100 meters; class 2, 10 meters; and class 3, 1 meter. 100. (p. 882) Typically the provider, rather than the user or administrator. 101. (p. 877) Answers can include cordless phones, baby monitors, electrical fuse boxes, air conditioning units, microwave ovens, and metal plumbing. 102. (p. 879) Multiple in/multiple out (MIMO) enables the devices to make multiple simultaneous connections. With up to four antennae, 802.11n devices can achieve amazing speeds. 103. (p. 877) Less than 25 feet. 104. (p. 874) The only requirements in an ad hoc mode wireless network are that each wireless node be configured with the same network name (SSID) and that no two nodes use the same IP address. 105. (p. 874-877) To make your 802.11n WAP most secure, change the WAP default user name and password, disable SSID broadcasts, use WPA2 encryption, and use MAC address filtering. 106. (p. 878) Spread-spectrum broadcasts data in small, discrete chunks over the frequencies available within a certain frequency range.

107. (p. 872) Most WAPs draw their power from a wall outlet, like any other electronic device. More advanced WAPs, especially those used in corporate settings, can also use a feature called Power over Ethernet (POE). Using POE, you only need to plug a single Ethernet cable into the WAP to provide both power and a network connection. 108. (p. 875) WPA uses the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), which provides a new encryption key for every sent packet. This protects WPA from many of the attacks that make WEP vulnerable, though TKIP has flaws of its own and has since been deprecated. 109. (p. 876) WPS works in one of two ways: Some devices use a push button. First, you press the button on the WPS-compatible device for a short moment (usually two seconds). You then have a set time (usually two minutes) to press the button on the WAP. This should automatically configure a secure connection. Some devices enable you to use a code. A WPS-capable WAP will have an eight-digit numeric code printed on the device. To access the WAP, just enter the code in Windows as you would a WPA/WPA2 password. Now you're on the network. 110. (p. 876) WPS has a security flaw. A hacker can use a program to repeatedly guess the eight-digit code. Because of how the code is set up, it's very easy to guess. As long you have WPS enabled on your WAP, you are vulnerable. The only way to stop this hack is to shut down WPS. Check the WAP manufacturer's Web site for instructions on turning off WPS.

Chapter 23_Wireless Networking Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 23

# of Questions 32 40 38 110

Chapter 24_The Internet Student:

The Internet consists of millions of computers all over the world interwoven together through longdistance, high-speed, fiber-optic networks. What are these called? A. Backbones B. Connectors C. Root servers D. Telephones

The Internet was designed to survive failures. What model does it use to achieve this? A. Centralized B. Decentralized C. Interwoven D. Secure

What provides the basic software structure for communication on the Internet? A. Chat B. TCP/IP C. Telnet D. Ethernet

What service provides the structure for the World Wide Web? A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) B. Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) D. Internet Service Provider (ISP)

What is the router to which you connect at the ISP called? A. World Wide Router B. Primary controller C. Subnet mask D. Default gateway

Tier 1 and Tier 2 providers lease their Internet connections to A. Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) B. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) C. Internet service providers (ISPs) D. World Wide Web (WWW)

What are encrypted tunnels that create private networks through the Internet called? A. NATs B. Emulated terminals C. VPNs D. PPTPs

What device converts analog signals to digital and vice versa, enabling computers to talk to each other via standard commercial telephone lines? A. Modem B. Server C. Telephone D. Terminal

Which of the following transfers data via analog signals? A. Connector B. ISP C. Modem D. Telephone wire

10. What type of signal does a computer use to communicate? A. Analog B. Digital C. Encrypted D. Wave 11. What effectively hides all of your computers and makes them appear invisible to other computers on the Internet? A. NAT B. IMAP4 C. Port 80 D. Remote Desktop 12. What allows you to give anyone control of your desktop through an e-mail invitation? A. Secure Shell B. SMTP C. Proxy D. Remote Assistance 13. What component in the computer converts individual serial bits of data into 8-bit parallel data that the PC can understand? A. RAM B. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) C. Modem D. Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter (UART) 14. What is the amount of time a packet takes to get to its destination called? A. Latency B. Handshaking C. TTL D. PTS 15. What is the unit of measurement, also known as one cycle per second, that expresses the speed of phone lines? A. Baud B. Byte C. Digit D. Flux 16. The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) sends telephone transmissions across what type of lines? A. Analog B. Digital C. Integrated D. Steel 17. Almost all A. analog B. digital C. external D. internal

modems connect to a PCI or PCI Express expansion bus slot inside the PC.

18. What allows you to make voice calls over a computer network? A. Satellites B. Tunneling C. Encryption D. VoIP 19. Dial-up links to the Internet use PPP. What is PPP? A. A connector B. A drive C. A program D. A protocol 20. How many lines does the Basic Rate Interface (BRI) setup use? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four 21. What kind of cable does broadband cable use to provide high-speed Internet access? A. Regular cable TV cables B. UTP C. Fiber-optic D. Telephone lines 22. Broadband cable typically offers speeds of 1-10 Mbps for upload. What is the typical speed for download? A. 1 Mbps B. 2 Mbps C. 6-50+ Mbps D. 4 Mbps 23. You are setting up a broadband connection for your home computer. A UTP cable is used to connect to the cable modem. What does the other end of the UTP cable connect to? A. Central processing unit (CPU) B. Modem C. Network interface card (NIC) D. Port 24. What port numbers are used by FTP? A. 443 and 444 B. 20 and 21 C. 23 and 25 D. 80 and 110 25. What is the most widely used standard for receiving e-mail? A. SMTP B. HTTP C. IMAP4 D. POP3 26. What tool enables multiple computers to use the Internet connection provided by one computer on the network? A. Internet Connection Firewall (ICF) B. Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) D. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)

27. What protocol uses port numbers 67 and 68? A. DHCP B. DNS C. HTTP D. FTP 28. What port number is used for sending e-mail? A. 23 B. 25 C. 110 D. 144 29. Which servers provide Web sites and Web pages that users can access? A. File B. Mail C. Network D. Web 30. You want to allow ActiveX controls to run when you visit a Web site. What would you configure? A. Security settings of your web browser B. Security settings of your firewall C. Privacy settings of your Web browser D. SSL settings of your Web browser 31. Which software enables multiple connections to the Internet to go through one protected PC? A. Firewall B. Mail server C. Network D. Proxy server 32. What should you check if your Web browser refuses to run a Java program? A. Hardware B. Microsoft settings C. Operating system D. Security settings 33. What port number is used by HTTPS? A. 43 B. 143 C. 443 D. 343 34. What high-speed competitor to cable has DSL providers fielded directly to user's homes using fiber? A. FTTP B. FTP C. SFTP D. FTTN 35. Which of the following is NOT a cellular technology that provides data services? A. GSM B. LTE C. HSDPA D. ISDN 36. Which high-speed Internet technology uses line-of-sight? A. ISDN B. Satellite C. GSM D. LTE

37. What technology requires that your PC be always on to provide connectivity to other hosts? A. WiFi B. ISDN C. ICS D. GSM 38. What protocol uses SSH for the secure transfer of files? A. SFTP B. FTP C. SMB D. SNMP 39. What is the most common VoIP application protocol? A. SSH B. SIP C. SSL D. SFTP 40. Which protocol enables operating systems and applications to access distributed directories? A. SNMP B. SAMBA C. SMB D. LDAP 41. Both DSL and cable modem Internet connections can be used by two or more computers if they are part of a (n) . 42. Internet backbones span the major cities of the Earth and interconnect at special locations called . 43. TCP/IP provides the basic

structure for communication on the Internet.

44. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the service that provides the structure for the , the graphical face of the Internet. 45. Modems convert digital signals from the PC into analog signals for the outgoing line. 46.

provides control over a remote server with the fully graphical interface.

47.

enables you to give anyone control of your desktop.

48. Telephone wires transfer data via analog signals that continuously change wire. 49. Almost all the PC.

on a

modems connect to a PCI or PCI Express expansion bus slot inside

50. Dial-up links to the Internet have their own hardware protocol called

51. The process of sending telephone transmission across fully digital lines end-to-end is called service. 52. Satellite connections to the Internet get the data beamed to a(n) office.

on a house or an

53. Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) enables one system to share its Internet connection with other systems on the . 54. PCs that connect via a home-based LAN to a single computer for access to the Internet are called client computers. The single computer they connect to is called a (n) . 55. To access a web page on the Internet, a(n) 56.

program is required.

uses ports 20 and 21.

57.

is an insecure terminal emulation program because it sends user names and passwords in clear text.

58.

has replaced Telnet in most cases because it uses an encrypted connection.

59. The most common method of encrypting personal information sent over Web sites is . 60. POP3 is an abbreviation for

61. The server that handles outgoing e-mail is called the

server.

62. External modems can convert

signals to digital and vice versa.

63. The command prompt utility applications running on your computer are using.

can be used to see exactly what port numbers the

64. You can use

to make calls over your computer network.

65. When accessing a Telnet server, a user must provide a(n) before access is granted.

and a(n)

66. Windows XP and Vista offer an alternative to VNC called

67. By not allowing internal private IP addresses to be visible on the Internet, as a firewall, protecting your internal network from probing or malicious users from the outside.

acts

68. The interwoven framework for communication on the Internet is made possible by routers that connect to more than one other routers. 69. V standards are international standards for

technology.

70. ISDN service consists of

channels and

71. The default gateway is a (n)

channels.

that is connected to at the ISP.

72. Individual serial bits of data are converted into 8-bit parallel data through the chip. 73. The oldest family of chat programs is based on the 74.

protocol.

emulates SMB and makes non-SMB operating systems on a network look like Windows.

75. Type the command at the command prompt to show all the connections between your computer and any other computer. 76. Most wireless hotspots do not provide any level of

77. One popular service is AT&T's U-verse, which offers speeds up to 24 Mbps for downloads and 3 Mbps for uploads. 78. WiMAX and LTE are current

high-speed cellular technologies.

79. If you want to connect a number of computers using wired connections, you'll need to get a . 80. In settings.

, you can click on the wrench icon in the upper-right corner of the browser to access

81. Telnet has been all but replaced by 82. What is the Internet?

because of its lack of security.

83. What are backbone routers?

84. What does IMAP4 allow you to do?

85. What is the key reason for interweaving the backbones of the root Internet servers?

86. What is TCP/IP?

87. In what pattern does a modem transmit data?

88. What are the two requirements for connecting to an ISP?

89. What is a default gateway?

90. Which technologies do PCs use to connect to ISPs?

91. Describe cellular data services.

92. What is a modem?

93. What is a VPN?

94. What is the function of the Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter (UART) chip?

95. What is a proxy server?

96. How is phone line speed measured?

97. Which TCP/IP service uses port 443?

98. Which TCP/IP service uses port 80?

99. What is the advantage of using a USB modem over a serial-port modem?

100.What is Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)?

101.What is Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) service?

102.What channels make up an ISDN service?

103.What is the bandwidth of channels in an ISDN service?

104.How is data received via satellite connections?

105.What is Internet Connection Sharing (ICS)?

106.What is an ICS host computer?

107.What is a client computer in an ICS setting?

108.What may have to be disabled when configuring a new small office router?

109.What are Web servers?

110.How can you check latency using the ping utility?

111.How is using a SOHO router an alternative to ICS?

112.How is anonymous logon done with FTP sites? What username and/or password is required?

113.What is Telnet?

114.Describe serial communications.

115.Describe ISDN channels.

116.What is a terminal adapter (TA)?

117.Explain satellite connections to the Internet.

118.If you have only local connectivity and can't reach the Internet, what could be the problem?

119.What is QoS?

120.What command can you use to show all the connections between your computer and any other computer?

121.What is SAMBA?

Chapter 24_The Internet Key 1. (p. 901) A 2. (p. 901) B 3. (p. 902) B 4. (p. 919) A 5. (p. 904) D 6. (p. 903) C 7. (p. 934) C 8. (p. 905) A 9. (p. 905) D 10. (p. 905) B 11. (p. 915) A 12. (p. 932) D 13. (p. 905) D 14. (p. 931) A 15. (p. 906) A 16. (p. 910) B 17. (p. 905) D 18. (p. 930) D 19. (p. 908) D 20. (p. 910) A 21. (p. 911) A 22. (p. 911) C 23. (p. 912) C 24. (p. 921) B 25. (p. 925) D 26. (p. 918) B 27. (p. 921) A 28. (p. 921) B 29. (p. 921) D 30. (p. 923) A 31. (p. 924) D 32. (p. 924) D 33. (p. 920) C 34. (p. 912) A 35. (p. 913) D 36. (p. 914) B

37. (p. 918) C 38. (p. 930) A 39. (p. 930) B 40. (p. 936) D 41. (p. 911-912) local area network (LAN) 42. (p. 901) network access points (NAPs) 43. (p. 902) software 44. (p. 919) World Wide Web 45. (p. 905) telephone 46. (p. 932) Remote Desktop 47. (p. 932) Remote Assistance 48. (p. 905) voltages 49. (p. 905) internal 50. (p. 908) Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP). 51. (p. 910) Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) 52. (p. 914) satellite dish 53. (p. 918) network 54. (p. 918) ICS host computer 55. (p. 919) browser 56. (p. 928) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) 57. (p. 929) Telnet 58. (p. 929) Secure Shell (SSH) 59. (p. 920) HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) 60. (p. 925) Post Office Protocol version 3 61. (p. 925) SMTP 62. (p. 905) analog 63. (p. 940) NETSTAT 64. (p. 930) Voice over IP (VoIP) 65. (p. 929) username; password 66. (p. 932) Remote Desktop 67. (p. 915) Network Address Translation (NAT) 68. (p. 901) backbone; backbone 69. (p. 905) modem 70. (p. 910) Bearer or B; Delta or D 71. (p. 904) router 72. (p. 905) Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter (UART) 73. (p. 942) Internet Relay Chat (IRC) 74. (p. 937) SAMBA

75. (p. 940) netstat 76. (p. 912) encryption 77. (p. 912) fiber-to-the-node (FTTN) 78. (p. 914) 4G 79. (p. 915) router 80. (p. 924) Google Chrome 81. (p. 929) Secure Shell (SSH) 82. (p. 901) The Internet is a large network of computers that allows users to communicate with one another over vast distances. 83. (p. 901) The piece of equipment that makes the tiered Internet concept work is called a backbone router. Backbone routers connect to more than one other backbone router, creating a big interwoven framework for communication. 84. (p. 925) IMAP4 allows you to receive e-mail and search through messages on the mail server to find specific keywords and select the messages you want to download onto your machine. 85. (p. 901) The key reason for interweaving the backbones of the root Internet servers is to provide alternative pathways for data if one or more servers were unavailable. 86. (p. 902) TCP/IP is a protocol suite that provides the basic software structure for communication on the Internet. 87. (p. 905) A modem transmits data as a series of individual ones and zeros. 88. (p. 905) Connecting to an ISP requires two things: connectivity hardware, such as a modem, and software, such as protocols and applications such as browsers. 89. (p. 904) The router that is connected to at the ISP is referred to as the default gateway. 90. (p. 904) PCs connect to ISPs through dial-up (analog or ISDN), dedicated (such as DSL, cable, and LAN), wireless, and satellite technologies. 91. (p. 914) Cellular data services have evolved over the past two decades through four loosely defined generations. Current and future technologies like WiMAX and LTE are considered 4G. WiMAX offers wireless speeds up to 10+ Mbps. 92. (p. 905) A modem is a device that enables computers to talk to each other via standard commercial telephone lines by converting analog signals to digital signals, and vice versa. 93. (p. 934) A VPN is an encrypted tunnel between computers (or a computer and a remote network) that creates a private network through the Internet. 94. (p. 905) A modem performs serial communication. The individual serial bits of data are converted into 8-bit parallel data that the PC can understand through the Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter (UART) chip. 95. (p. 924) A proxy server is software that enables multiple connections to the Internet to go through one protected PC. Many corporations use proxy servers to filter employee Internet access. 96. (p. 906) Phone line speed is measured in baud, which is the number of cycles per second. 97. (p. 920) Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) uses port number 443. 98. (p. 921) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses port 80. 99. (p. 907) A USB modem offers simple plug and play and easy portability between machines. It does not require an external electrical source and gets the required power from the USB connection. 100. (p. 908) Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a streaming hardware protocol developed especially for dial-up Internet access. 101. (p. 910) The process of sending telephone transmission across fully digital lines end-to-end is called Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) service. 102. (p. 910) An ISDN service consists of two types of channels: Bearer, or B, channels and Delta, or D, channels. 103. (p. 910) B channels carry data and voice information at 64 Kbps. D channels carry setup and configuration information at 16 Kbps. 104. (p. 914) Satellite connections to the Internet get data beamed to a satellite dish mounted on a house or office. A receiver handles the flow of data and eventually sends it through an Ethernet cable to the NIC in the user's PC. 105. (p. 918) Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) is a process that enables one system to share its Internet connection with other systems on the network. It provides a quick and easy method for multiple systems to use one Internet connection.

106. (p. 918) The PC that connects to the Internet and then shares that connection via ICS with other machines on a LAN is called the ICS host computer. 107. (p. 918) PCs that connect via LAN to the ICS host computer are referred to as client computers. 108. (p. 939) If you are configuring a router for a small office, the router's built-in DHCP server might conflict with a domain controller on the network. 109. (p. 921) Web servers are servers that provide Web sites and Web pages that are accessed by users. 110. (p. 931) Run ping on some known source, and take note of the average round-trip time at the bottom of the screen. This is your current latency to that site. 111. (p. 937) SOHO routers allow multiple users to easily share a broadband connection without having to leave a Windows computer running all the time. They provide NAT that allows you to share a single IP address while acting as an effective firewall. Configuration of SOHO routers is done through special Web pages built into the routers. 112. (p. 928) The most common method of logging on to public FTP sites by providing the username as "anonymous" and an e-mail address as a password is known an anonymous logon. 113. (p. 929) Telnet is a terminal emulation program for TCP/IP networks that enables the user to connect to a server and run commands directly on to the server. Telnet has for the most part been replaced by Secure Shell (SSH), which provides an encrypted session. 114. (p. 905) It transmits data as a series of individual onesand zeros. 115. (p. 910) ISDN service consists of two types of channels: Bearer, or B, channels and Delta, or D, channels. B channels carry data and voice information at 64 Kbps. D channels carry setup and configuration information and carry data at 16 Kbps. 116. (p. 911) A terminal adapter (TA) is an interface device that enables a system to support a direct LAN or ISDN connection. 117. (p. 914) Although early satellite technology required uploads through a slow modem (26-48 Kbps) and fast downloads through the dish, newer technology uses the modem only for the initial setup, sending both downloads and uploads through the dish. 118. (p. 939) Local connectivity means you can access network resources but not the Internet. This is a classic symptom of a downed DHCP server, but you might also have a problem with your router. Ping your default gateway to see if it responds; if it's successful, look at its configuration through the router's configuration Web page. 119. (p. 941) You can control what's going through your router using Quality of Service (QoS). QoS is a feature that enables you to limit the bandwidth for certain types of data based on application protocol, the IP address of a computer, and other criteria. 120. (p. 940) To see what's happening on your network, open a command prompt and type netstat, which shows all the connections between your computer and any other computer. 121. (p. 937) The Server Message Block (SMB) protocol dates back to the old NetBIOS naming service, and was used to send a PC's name around a network. Other operating systems copy SMB using a popular program called SAMBA. SAMBA makes non-SMB operating systems on a network look like Windows.

Chapter 24_The Internet Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 24

# of Questions 25 13 83 121

Chapter 25_Multimedia Student:

What is the result of increasing the sampling rate for sound capture? A. Higher amplitude B. Better sound reproduction C. Stereo sound D. Higher frequency

What is the process for capturing sound waves in an electronic format? A. Downloading B. Media C. Recording D. Sampling

What is the unit of measurement of the sampling rate when recording sound waves? A. Gigahertz B. Kilohertz C. Megahertz D. Tetrahertz

A sound wave has three primary characteristics. The first two are amplitude and frequency. What's the last one? A. Loudness B. Melody C. Noise D. Timbre

What is the measurement of the number of different sound characteristics captured during sampling? A. Bit depth B. File size C. Sound quality D. Wavelength

What is the rate of a CD-quality sound capture when captured with 16-bit depth and in stereo? A. 11.1 B. 22.1 C. 44.1 D. 88.1

What is the format of a MIDI file? A. MP3 B. bmp C. text D. WAV

Music can be produced by electronically emulating various instruments. What is this process called? A. AM synthesis B. Emulated table synthesis C. FM synthesis D. Wave table synthesis

What are the two biggest issues with TV tuner cards? A. Only available in ISA and PCI expansion options B. Poor reception and driver incompatibility C. Tuner cards don't fit well in laptops or Netbooks D. Not compatible with HDTV or coaxial connections

10. How can you turn off some of the automatically loading helper applications before you start the video capture process? A. Shut down and restart the system. B. Update your video cards drivers in Device Manager. C. End the process or process tree in Windows Task Manager. D. Stop and restart the A/V Sync Service. 11. What does MIDI stand for? A. Microsoft instrument digital interface B. Mild instrument digital interface C. Musical instrument digital interface D. Multiple instrument digital interface 12. MIDI sound cards can play multiple instruments at once based on the number of instruments stored on the sound card. What is this called? A. Pillory B. Polyphone C. Polyphony D. Pylons 13. How many samples of instruments are contained on most modern sound cards? A. 16 B. 32 C. 64 D. 128 14. Which player is commonly used to play Audio Interchange File Format (AIFF) files? A. CD B. QuickTime C. RealMedia D. Windows Media 15. Streaming media is the broadcast of data that is played on the computer and immediately A. cached B. discarded C. published D. saved 16. What measure describes the relative quality of an input port? A. Noise-to-noise ratio B. Noise-to-signal ratio C. Signal-to-noise ratio D. Signal-to-signal ratio 17. What's the minimum number of connections most sound cards come with? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five

18. What is the line out connector used for? A. External device B. Microphone C. MIDI input D. Speaker 19. What do older systems require to get sound from the CD-ROM drive to the sound card? A. Audio cable B. IrDA cable C. Media cable D. Video cable 20. How many channels of sound is the Dolby Digital sound standard designed to support? A. Two B. Four C. Five D. Eight 21. What does DTS stand for? A. Data Theatre Systems B. Digital Theatre Systems C. Dolby Theatre Systems D. Dynamic Theatre Systems 22. What sound standard do games typically use? A. DigitalX B. DirectX C. Dolby Digital D. Dynamic 23. What speaker installation uses either a single digital (S/PDIF) connection or three separate cables? A. Digital B. Multiple C. Regular D. Surround 24. What feature was introduced in DirectX version 3 and offered a range of commands to place a sound anywhere in 3-D space? A. D3 B. DS3D C. EAX D. EPX 25. For the best recording, what would you want? A. High noise-to-noise ratio B. High noise-to-signal ratio C. High signal-to-noise ratio D. High signal-to-signal ratio 26. Sound cards install proprietary software to support the A. application B. configuration C. program D. system

features not provided by Windows.

27. In the Dolby Digital and DTS standards, a system can have five speakers with a subwoofer. What nomenclature defines this? A. 5.1 B. 6.1 C. DD 5 D. DTS 5 28. What is it called when a sound is placed in a 3-D space? A. Digital audio B. Positional audio C. Sampling D. Sound modeling 29. In a 2.1 speaker system, what are the pair of standard stereo speakers called? A. Amplifiers B. Audio drivers C. Satellites D. Sound chips 30. In what version of DirectX were EAX standards incorporated into DirectX? A. 4.0 B. 5.0 C. 7.0 D. 8.0 31. What should you check first when a system's sound isn't working? A. Audio cable B. Modem C. Sound card D. Volume control 32. What will enable your TV tuner card to pick up TV broadcasts in most places? A. Windows XP Media Center B. An antenna C. Windows Vista Ultimate D. HDTV 33. Which of the following is an open format that can compress sound files without losing any data? A. MP3 B. FLAC C. MIDI D. WMA 34. Which is NOT a characteristic of a condenser microphone? A. Inexpensive B. High quality sound C. Require power D. Usually found in recording studios 35. All of the following are characteristics of a dynamic microphone EXCEPT: A. Rugged B. Do not require separate power C. Suitable for everyday PC use D. Usually found in recording studios

36. What enables you to input MIDI information using an external MIDI-enabled device? A. Video capture card B. TV tuner card C. Digital audio workstation D. S/PDIF 37. What device is used between you and the microphone to minimize certain noises? A. Capture card B. Pop filter C. S/PDIF connector D. Condenser microphone 38. What devices often look and feel like standard music keyboards? A. MIDI controller B. Digital audio workstation C. S/PDIF D. Capture card 39. Which of the following older sound formats are much less popular than other recorded formats on computers, but are still fully supported by Windows and all sound hardware? A. MIDI B. MP3 C. MP4 D. MPEG-2 40. All of the following are video capture and playback issues EXCEPT: A. Dropped frames B. Sync problems C. Missing codecs D. Outdated drivers 41. The process of capturing the state or quality of a particular sound wave a set number of times each second is called . 42. The number of characteristics of a particular sound that are captured is measured by the of the sample. 43. Programmers have written algorithms to store full-quality WAV files as compressed files, also known as . 44. MIDI is short for

45. Early processors used electronic emulation of various instruments, a technique often called . 46. Compressor/decompressor programs that allow storing of full-quality WAV files as compressed files are called . 47. Sound cards play MIDI files using either wave table synthesis or the technology. 48. The

file format is proprietary to RealMedia.

49. A (n) or receiver.

connector allows a sound card to connect directly to a 5.1 speaker system

50. The three most popular streaming media players are and Windows Media Player.

51. ASX and RM are compressed audio/video file formats that were specially created to over the Internet. 52. The handles the communication among the application, operating system, and CPU and translates commands into sounds coming out of the speakers. 53. In Windows XP, settings for sound playback, sound recording, and MIDI music playback can be configured on the tab of the Sounds and Audio Device Properties dialog box. 54. Subwoofers provide

-frequency sounds.

55. Almost every sound card has an input for a powered 56. Most sound cards have at least

. connections.

57. The Sounds and Audio Devices (Windows XP) or Sounds (Windows Vista/7) applets are examples of sound programs. 58. The line in port connects to an external device to allow you to computer. 59. The

sounds into a

connector connects to the rear speakers for surround audio output.

60. The multifunction analog/digital out connection acts as a special digital connection to digital devices. 61. A microphone, sound card, and software enable you to

audio.

62. When both the video and audio streams of your video file are compressed, the file is placed into some sort of container file or . 63. Types of speaker systems are configured in the Devices applet of a Windows XP PC. 64. DirectX version 3 introduced sound anywhere in 3-D space.

tab of the Sounds and Audio

, which offered a range of commands to place a

65. Surround-sound speakers either use a single digital (S/PDIF) connection or need separate cables. 66. The most common sound problem is a(n)

problem.

67. The most difficult sound problems are

problems.

68. In case of application problems, most sound players will display a(n) 69.

are sets of audio presets that gave developers the capability to create a convincing sense of environment in entertainment titles and a realistic sense of distance between the player and audio events.

70. Hardware manufacturers have to ensure that their sound cards are compatible. 71. To compete with the Dolby Digital standard, supports the 5.1 speaker system.

created a standard that also

72. In the technique, the sound processor adjusts and matches the sound and the requested timing with a prerecorded WAV file from its memory. 73. A MIDI file tells the sound card what which instrument.

to play, how long to play them, and on

74. The standard used in games for sound output is

75. The configuration program used in Windows Vista to configure sound settings is 76. The number of jacks required by a typical stereo or 2.1 speaker system is 77. Every modern PC comes with

. .

processing capabilities built in.

78. Although much less popular than other recorded formats on computers, every Windows computer and every sound card still fully supports . 79. Most chipset makers have adopted

for their better motherboard offerings.

80. Some video capture devices are external, while others are internal

cards.

81. What is sampling?

82. What unit is used to measure sampling rate?

83. What are the three measurable characteristics of a sound wave?

84. What defines CD-quality sound capture?

85. List some of the standard video wrappers.

86. What are codecs?

87. Which are the two technologies that sound cards use to play MIDI files?

88. What is FM synthesis?

89. What is the major drawback to FM synthesis?

90. What is wave table synthesis?

91. What is streaming media?

92. Which audio/video file formats were specially created to stream over the Internet?

93. When shopping for a sound card, what characteristics should be compared?

94. What are the activities that a sound processor handles?

95. What high-definition audio standard did Intel design to support true surround sound?

96. What does the number 5 indicate in the standard number 5.1?

97. How does signal-to-noise ratio affect microphone recording?

98. What improvements were introduced with DirectX version 3?

99. What are the three major steps for sound card installation in a Windows system?

100.What are the channels of sound that the Dolby Digital standard supports?

101.What is DirectX?

102.What is DirectSound3D (DS3D)?

103.How do Environmental Audio Extensions (EAX) help developers?

104.What is the standard for audio effects in gaming that was created by Creative Labs?

105.What types of connections do surround-sound speakers use?

106.In the realm of sound systems, what are satellites?

107.What are the five tabs in the Windows XP Sounds and Audio Devices applet?

108.What are the three categories into which sound-related problems can be divided?

109.When do configuration errors occur?

110.What are MIDI files?

111.What kind of connectors are standard for TV tuner cards?

112.What is FLAC?

113.How does a microphone work?

114.Describe a condenser microphone.

115.Describe a dynamic microphone.

116.What does a pop filter do?

117.What is a digital audio workstation?

118.What kind of software enables you to write out notes on sheet music either by hand or with a MIDI device?

119.What is a MIDI controller?

120.How do you access the volume controls in Windows Vista and 7 if the speaker icon does not show up in the system tray?

Chapter 25_Multimedia Key 1. (p. 953) B 2. (p. 953) D 3. (p. 953) B 4. (p. 953) D 5. (p. 954) A 6. (p. 954) C 7. (p. 954) C 8. (p. 955) C 9. (p. 980) B 10. (p. 976) C 11. (p. 954) C 12. (p. 955) C 13. (p. 955) D 14. (p. 955) B 15. (p. 957) B 16. (p. 959) C 17. (p. 959) B 18. (p. 960) A 19. (p. 967) A 20. (p. 962) C 21. (p. 962) B 22. (p. 962) B 23. (p. 962) D 24. (p. 962) B 25. (p. 959) C 26. (p. 968) B 27. (p. 962) A 28. (p. 962) B 29. (p. 962) C 30. (p. 963) D 31. (p. 970) D 32. (p. 978) B 33. (p. 956) B 34. (p. 965) A 35. (p. 964) D 36. (p. 965) C

37. (p. 965) B 38. (p. 965) A 39. (p. 954) A 40. (p. 975) D 41. (p. 953) sampling 42. (p. 954) bit depth 43. (p. 954) codecs 44. (p. 954) musical instrument digital interface 45. (p. 955) FM synthesis 46. (p. 954) codecs 47. (p. 955) FM synthesis 48. (p. 956) RM 49. (p. 962) Sony/Philips Digital Interface (S/PDIF) 50. (p. 968) Winamp; iTunes 51. (p. 955) stream 52. (p. 958) sound processor 53. (p. 968) Audio 54. (p. 959) low 55. (p. 959) microphone 56. (p. 959) three 57. (p. 968) configuration 58. (p. 960) import 59. (p. 960) rear out 60. (p. 961) external 61. (p. 954) capture 62. (p. 974) wrapper 63. (p. 968) Volume 64. (p. 962) DirectSound3D (DS3D) 65. (p. 966) three 66. (p. 970) hardware 67. (p. 971) application 68. (p. 971) error message 69. (p. 963) Environmental audio extensions (EAX) 70. (p. 962) DirectX 71. (p. 962) Digital Theatre Systems (DTS) 72. (p. 955) wave table synthesis 73. (p. 954) notes 74. (p. 962) DirectX

75. (p. 968) Sound applet 76. (p. 962) one 77. (p. 953) sound 78. (p. 954) MIDI 79. (p. 958) Intel High Definition Audio 80. (p. 972) PCI or PCIe 81. (p. 953) Sampling is the process through which sound waves are recorded in an electronic format. 82. (p. 953) The sampling rate is measured in units of thousands of cycles per second, or kilohertz (KHz). 83. (p. 953) The measurable characteristics of a sound wave are amplitude, frequency, and timbre. 84. (p. 954) A sound capture is considered CD quality when recorded at 44.1 KHz, with 16-bit depth, and in stereo. 85. (p. 974) Some of the standard video wrappers are ASF, AVI, Flash Video, MOV, MPEG-2, and OGG. 86. (p. 954) Codecs are algorithms consisting of a series of instructions in code that compress/decompress sound files into smaller files. 87. (p. 955) Sound cards play MIDI files using one of these two technologies: FM synthesis or wave table synthesis. 88. (p. 955) FM synthesis is a technique used by early processors, which used electronic emulation of various instruments to produce music and other sound effects. 89. (p. 955) The major drawback to FM synthesis is that although the modulation sounds commendable for a single note, it sounds electronic. This modulation increases as you go up or down the scale from that prime note. 90. (p. 955) Wave table synthesis is the technique by which a sound processor takes a prerecorded WAV file from its memory and adjusts it to match the specific sound and timing requested. 91. (p. 957) Streaming media is a broadcast of data played on a computer and immediately discarded. 92. (p. 955) ASX and RM are compressed audio/video file formats specially created to stream over the Internet. 93. (p. 953) The five basic characteristics that define the quality of sound cards are processor capabilities, speaker support, recording quality, jacks, and extra features. 94. (p. 958) The activities that a sound processor handles are communications among the application, operating system, and CPU; and translation of commands into sounds coming out of the speakers. 95. (p. 958) Intel designed the Intel High Definition Audio (HDA) standard to support true surround sound with many discrete speakers. 96. (p. 962) The number 5 in the standard number 5.1 indicates the number of speakers: two in front, two in back, and one in the center. 97. (p. 959) The higher the signal-to-noise ratio, the better the quality of the recording. 98. (p. 962) DirectX version 3 introduced DirectSound3D (DS3D), which offered commands to place sound anywhere in 3-D space. This is known as positional audio. 99. (p. 966) The three major steps for sound card installation are physical installation, device driver installation, and configuration. 100. (p. 962) The Dolby Digital sound standard supports five channels of sound. They are front left, front right, front center, rear left, and rear right. Dolby Digital also supports a subwoofer. 101. (p. 962) DirectX is a standard that simplifies the programming needed to create and play sound and video. It thus eliminates the need to program sounds in different ways for each sound card option. 102. (p. 962) DirectSound3D (DS3D) is a set of commands to place a sound anywhere in 3-D space. 103. (p. 963) Environmental Audio Extensions (EAX) enable developers to create a convincing sense of environment in entertainment titles and a realistic sense of distance between the player and audio events. 104. (p. 963) Environmental Audio Extensions (EAX) is the standard for audio effects in gaming. 105. (p. 966) Surround-sound speakers either use an S/PDIF connection or need three separate component cables. 106. (p. 962) A pair of standard stereo speakers is known as satellites. 107. (p. 968) The Windows XP Sounds and Audio Devices applet has five tabs: Audio, Hardware, Sounds, Voice, and Volume. 108. (p. 970) Sound problems can be divided into three categories: hardware, configuration, and application problems.

109. (p. 971) Configuration errors occur when the sound card is physically good but some settings are not properly configured. These errors almost always occur during installation, but they can also appear on a working system when the drivers are installed incorrectly. 110. (p. 954) MIDI files are specialized text files that store notes that can be played by a sound card. 111. (p. 979) TV tuner cards come with a standard coaxial connection. 112. (p. 956) FLAC (Free Lossless Audio Codec) is an open format that can compress sound files without losing any data—it can even decompress a file back into an exact copy of the original. FLAC can reduce the size of audio files by up to 60 percent. 113. (p. 964) A microphone records sound by detecting vibrations and turning them into an electronic signal. 114. (p. 964) Condenser microphones are often found in recording studios because they can record a wide range of sound at a high quality, but they are larger, more delicate, and must be powered. Condenser microphones can be very expensive. 115. (p. 964) Dynamic microphones use a different technology to record sound and are often found at live music events because they're much more rugged, don't need to be powered, and still sound great. They are less expensive and suitable for everyday PC use. 116. (p. 965) It can help increase your audio quality when you place it between yourself and the microphone to minimize the poppy noise of plosive sounds (like the letters p and b). 117. (p. 965) It is a type of software that enables you to input MIDI information using an external MIDI-enabled device. 118. (p. 965) Music notation software 119. (p. 965) MIDI-enabled devices, also known as MIDI controllers, come in several form factors, but most look and feel like standard music keyboards. 120. (p. 970) In Windows Vista and Windows 7, right-click on the taskbar and select Properties. Click the Customize button under Notification area. Use the Notification Area Icons applet to enable the volume controls.

Chapter 25_Multimedia Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 25

# of Questions 37 5 78 120

Chapter 26_Portable Computing Student:

How many pounds do Netbooks weigh? A. Not more than 3 B. Not more than 6 C. Not more than 9 D. Not more than 12

What type of screen does a portable device use? A. CRT B. LCD C. LED D. Plasma

Which device invented at IBM has a pencil eraser-sized joystick at the center of the keyboard? A. Touchpad B. TouchStick C. Trackball D. TrackPoint

Which laptop pointing device is most commonly used today? A. Trackball B. TouchStick C. Touchpad D. TrackPoint

What main advantage does a desktop replacement offer? A. Accessibility B. Ease of operation C. Mobility D. Reusability

Who started the tablet PC initiative in 2001? A. Apple B. Microsoft C. Google D. Acer

What is the primary pointing device for a tablet PC? A. Stylus B. Trackpoint C. Touchpad D. Mouse

All of the following are single-function ports EXCEPT: A. RJ-45 B. HDMI C. Audio D. USB

What key do most portables use, along with another key, to cycle through display options when using multiple monitors? A. Function (FN) B. Control (CTRL) C. Alternate (ALT D. Spacebar (SP)

10. You can synchronize most handheld devices to a PC using which port? A. FireWire B. PS/2 C. IEEE 1284 D. USB 11. What is gradually replacing portable-specific expansion slots? A. FireWire B. PS/2 C. IEEE 1284 D. USB 12. Which program is used to sync a mobile device with a system running Windows Vista or Windows 7? A. Activesync B. Sync Center C. Device Manager D. IrDA 13. Which portable hand-held device storage technology is currently the most popular? A. UMPC B. CF C. HDD D. SD, Mini SD, and Micro SD 14. How many different physical sizes do PC Cards come in? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four 15. Which is the high-performance serial replacement for PC Cards? A. ExpressCard B. VisaCard C. PCMCIE D. Type IV 16. Which two types of finish are available for laptop LCD screens? A. Type I and Type II B. Stylus and Ni-Cd C. SXGA+ and WSXGA+ D. Matte and high gloss 17. Which is the successor to APM and specifies global and sleeping power states? A. ACPI B. SMM C. Energy Star D. Li-Ion

18. What are Type III PCI cards typically used for? A. Flash memory B. Modem C. NIC D. Hard drive 19. Which PC card type is used for input/output devices? A. Type II B. Type III C. Type I D. Mini A 20. How can built-in Wi-Fi and Bluetooth adapters be turned on or off without shutting down a laptop? A. Safely Remove Device dialog box B. Hardware Removal Gadget C. Physical switch or function key combination D. Ctrl-Alt-Del and Ctrl-Esc key combinations 21. Which port can support the keyboard and mouse in portable devices? A. PS/2 B. RS-232 C. IEEE 1284 D. FireWire 22. What do many laptops support via VGA, DVI, HDMI, or DisplayPort? A. USB and eSATA B. HDTV C. Printers and faxes D. External monitors 23. What technology is used in laptop video cards to reduce cost? A. USB memory B. Dual video cards C. Shared memory D. Dual processors 24. APM and ACPI can be configured in Windows settings. Where else can it be configured? A. BIOS B. CMOS C. PCI D. LAN/Ring 25. A laptop has a video card using shared memory. It needs to work as a 256 MB video card but only has 64 MB on board. How much memory must it borrow? A. 128 MB B. 192 MB C. 256 MB D. 320 MB 26. What can be used to connect a notebook computer to nonportable components such as a printer, a scanner, a monitor, or a full-sized keyboard? A. Legacy device B. Port extender C. Port replacer D. Port replicator

27. Port replicators can be used to connect parallel printers. In this scenario, what is the parallel printer? A. Docking station B. Legacy device C. Port extender D. Port repeater 28. Which devices provide common PC ports along with extra features for DVD drives or PC Card slots? A. Docking stations B. Legacy devices C. Port extenders D. Port replicators 29. A laptop has 1 GB of RAM installed, but only 924 MB is being reported by Windows. Why? A. Some memory is being used for cache. B. Shared memory is being used by video. C. Windows counts bytes differently. D. Windows is always off by about 10%. 30. One of the features of power management enables the CPU to slow down or stop its clock without erasing register information. What is this called? A. Energy Management Mode B. Power Management Mode C. Resource Management Mode D. System Management Mode 31. Batteries should be charged to at least how much when in storage? A. 70-80 percent B. 10-20 percent C. 80-100 percent D. 0-10 percent 32. What's a problem with nickel-cadmium batteries? A. Battery memory B. Low capacity C. Explode if overcharged D. Can't be carried easily 33. Which of the following types of battery is the most toxic and should be disposed of carefully? A. Li-Ion B. Ni-Cd C. Ni-Li D. Ni-MH 34. What batteries are a popular replacement for Ni-Cd batteries? A. Li-Ion B. Ni-Ion C. Ni-Li D. Ni-MH 35. Which batteries cannot be used as replacement batteries in other systems? A. Li-Ion B. Ni-Cd C. Ni-MH D. Ni-Ion

36. Which strategy can reduce power consumption in portable devices? A. Offline files B. Viewing files on remote servers C. Working with files on a USB drive D. Working with files through remote desktop 37. Which of the following is NOT a step in disassembling a portable device? A. Document and label pieces B. Organize parts C. Refer to manufacturer's documentation D. Use normal-sized PC tools 38. Which of the following specialized portable PC parts would likely have to be purchased directly from the manufacturer? A. Internal wireless card B. SSD C. HDD D. RAM 39. Which of the following is a typical upgrade most technicians would easily accomplish on a portable PC, with little teardown? A. Motherboard B. CPU C. RAM D. DC jack 40. Which of the following is NOT a portable PC part that is easily replaced? A. Battery B. SSD C. Optical Drive D. LCD 41. Many portable computers have adjust it accordingly. 42. To conserve battery life, select the Options. 43. The

, meaning they can detect outlet voltage and

power plan in Windows Control Panel Power

mode takes everything in active memory and stores it on the hard drive.

44. ACPI S3 is known as 45. PC Cards come in two flavors: 46. Express Cards connect either to the bus. 47. Card Bus cards support up to 48. The most common PC Cards are Type

or standby mode. and CardBus. bus or a(n)

different functions. cards.

49. The two flavors of parallel PC cards are 16-bit and

50. Type I PC cards are most commonly used for 51. Most portable devices use a special keys on the keyboard when pressed.

. key, which adds a third option to certain

52. Shared memory technologies include

and

53. When working with APM and ACPI settings, it's important to realize that settings will override settings. 54. The technology that allows video cards to borrow memory from Windows is called . 55. Usually, the first laptop upgrade is to add more 56. PC batteries should always be kept charged to 57.

. when in storage.

batteries are a variation of Li-Ion that that places the heart of the battery—the electrolyte— into a solid polymer shape rather than an organic solvent.

58. One technology used in PC LCD displays is also used in portable LCD displays—the which provide for the greater viewing angle and better color quality. 59. To take full advantage of SMM, Intel put forward the the standard in 1996.

panels,

specification in 1992 and

60. When there is no power management, the system is said to be running at a(n) level as defined by APM. 61. With power management enabled, an unused device may or may not be shut down in the APM level. 62. In the ACPI Soft power off mode, devices used to wake a system such as , and remain on. 63. In the ACPI programs.

level, the CPU stops, although the RAM still stores all

64. The power button can be configured to turn the system off, enter standby, or even hibernate. This comes from the standard. 65. Windows allows the user to configure power settings using the

applet.

66. Windows provides a feature that takes everything in active memory and stores it on the hard drive just before the system powers down. This mode is known as . 67. When a PC comes out of hibernation, Windows reloads all the files and applications into . 68. An Energy Star peripheral device must have the ability to turning off.

down without actually

69. Configuring the system to go into Standby or to turn off the monitor or hard drive after a set period of time is called adjusting the . 70.

is the comparison of the screen width to the screen height.

71. The applet used in Windows to configure power settings is the

applet.

72. In the LCD resolutions WXGA, WSXGA, and so forth, the W in front of the letters indicates . 73. Two technologies NOT used on portables are

and organic light-emitting diode (OLED).

74.

offer a solution with a low-cost, robust computing platform and longer battery life.

75.

are thin, light, and powerful.

76. Tablets come in two form factors: keyboard). 77.

(with a fold-out keyboard) and

(no

allows applications to accept pen strokes as input without first converting the pen strokes into text or mouse-clicks.

78. Portable PCs have a standard

audio out port.

79. Most laptops support a second

via an analog VGA port or a digital port of some kind.

80. Most laptops have a (n)

wired Ethernet connection.

81. What is the main advantage of a touchpad over other pointing device options for laptops?

82. What are portable-specific expansion slots?

83. What is the main type of battery used in today's portables?

84. When should you allow a portable battery to drain all the way down?

85. Name the types of RAM used in both older and newer laptops.

86. List the three physical types of PC Cards.

87. How do Windows Vista and Windows 7 differ from Windows XP in terms of power plans?

88. When talking about PC Cards, what do card services mean?

89. What is the relationship between PC Cards and Cardbus Cards? Can one fit into another slot?

90. Describe shared memory.

91. What hard drive technology is most common in laptops today?

92. What common PC ports are provided by port replicators?

93. What is the main difference between docking stations and port replicators?

94. What does "hot-swappable" mean, and what is another term manufacturers use?

95. What kind of RAM will you typically find in newer laptops?

96. Describe how to add or replace RAM in a laptop.

97. What is the most common battery used in laptops today?

98. What is battery calibration?

99. Why can't you throw a used nickel-cadmium battery in the trash?

100.How should nickel-cadmium batteries be disposed of?

101.What might happen if Li-Ion batteries are overcharged?

102.What is native resolution for WUXGA?

103.What is System Management Mode?

104.What are Energy Star devices?

105.What are some manual ways to conserve power on a portable when using the battery?

106.What power plan would you select in Windows Vista to maximize your laptop's performance?

107.List the four APM power-usage operating levels for a system.

108.What is hibernation?

109.Describe Lithium polymer batteries.

110.What is the native resolution of WSXGA+?

111.Describe the ACPI global (G) and sleeping (S) system power state specifications.

112.What is a docking station?

113.Describe offline files.

114.What are the four steps to disassembling a portable PC?

115.What are the two standard upgrades every tech should know how to perform on a portable PC?

116.How would you replace RAM in a portable PC?

117.What is shared memory?

118.What are two reasons to replace a portable's HDD with an SSD?

119.If you replace a portable battery due to power or charging issues and the problem persists, what else could the problem be?

120.Failure to remove the battery and the AC adapter can result in what kind of issue when replacing internal components?

Chapter 26_Portable Computing Key 1. (p. 1027) A 2. (p. 987) B 3. (p. 988) D 4. (p. 989) C 5. (p. 990) C 6. (p. 992) B 7. (p. 992) C 8. (p. 996-997) D 9. (p. 997) A 10. (p. 1002) D 11. (p. 1002) D 12. (p. 1010) B 13. (p. 1001) D 14. (p. 999) C 15. (p. 1000) A 16. (p. 990) D 17. (p. 1005) A 18. (p. 1000) D 19. (p. 1000) A 20. (p. 1008) C 21. (p. 1001) A 22. (p. 1024) D 23. (p. 1018) C 24. (p. 1005) B 25. (p. 1018) B 26. (p. 1002) D 27. (p. 1002) B 28. (p. 1003) A 29. (p. 1018) B 30. (p. 1005) D 31. (p. 1004) A 32. (p. 1003) A 33. (p. 1003) B 34. (p. 1004) D 35. (p. 1004) A 36. (p. 1010) A

37. (p. 1015) D 38. (p. 1016) A 39. (p. 1017) C 40. (p. 1023) D 41. (p. 1013) auto-switching power supplies 42. (p. 1008) Power saver 43. (p. 1006) Hibernate 44. (p. 1006) Sleep 45. (p. 1000) 16-bit 46. (p. 1000) Hi-Speed USB 2.0; PCI Express 47. (p. 1000) eight 48. (p. 1000) II 49. (p. 1000) Card Bus 50. (p. 1000) flash memory 51. (p. 987) Function (FN) 52. (p. 1018) Turbo Cache; Hyper Memory 53. (p. 1005) Windows; CMOS 54. (p. 1018) shared memory 55. (p. 1017) RAM or memory 56. (p. 1004) 70-80 percent 57. (p. 1004) Lithium polymer (LiPO) 58. (p. 990) In-Plane Switching (IPS) 59. (p. 1005) Advanced Power Management (APM); Advanced Configuration Power Interface (ACPI) 60. (p. 1006) Full On 61. (p. 1006) Enabled 62. (p. 1007) keyboard; LAN; USB 63. (p. 1006) S1 64. (p. 1006) Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) 65. (p. 1008) Power Options 66. (p. 1008) hibernate or hibernation 67. (p. 1008) Random Access Memory (RAM) 68. (p. 1005-1006) shut 69. (p. 1008) sleep timers 70. (p. 989) Aspect ratio 71. (p. 1008) Power Options 72. (p. 989) widescreen 73. (p. 990) plasma 74. (p. 991) Netbooks

75. (p. 992) Ultrabooks 76. (p. 993) convertibles; slates 77. (p. 993) Digital ink 78. (p. 996) 3.5-mm 79. (p. 996) monitor 80. (p. 998) RJ-45 81. (p. 989) The main advantage of using touchpads is they use no moving parts, thus extending the life of a laptop. 82. (p. 999) The makers of portable computers have developed methods for you to add features to a portable via specialized connections known generically as expansion slots. These are slowly fading away due to the dominance of USB. 83. (p. 1003) Today, only Li-Ion is used because that battery chemistry provides the highest energy density for the weight and has few problems. 84. (p. 1004) Never drain a battery all the way down unless required to do so as part of a battery calibration (where you, in essence, reset the battery according to steps provided by the manufacturer). Rechargeable batteries have only a limited number of charge-discharge cycles before overall battery performance is reduced. 85. (p. 1017) Older laptops use either 72-pin or 144-pin SO-DIMMs with SDRAM technology. Newer DDR, DDR2, and DDR3 systems primarily use 200-pin SO-DIMMs, although some laptops use micro-DIMMs. 86. (p. 1000) The three types of physical PC Cards are Type I, Type II, and Type III. 87. (p. 1008) Vista and Windows 7 offer power plans that enable better control over power use by customizing a balanced, power-saver, or highperformance power plan. 88. (p. 1000) The card services level recognizes the function of a particular PC Card and provides specialized drivers necessary to make the card work. 89. (p. 1000) A CardBus Card is one version of a PC Card that uses the parallel bus. CardBus Cards are 32-bit, 3.3 V cards that can have up to two distinct functions or devices. Regular PC Cards will fit into and work in CardBus slots, but CardBus PC Cards will not fit into and work in regular card slots. 90. (p. 1018) Shared memory reduces the cost of video cards in laptops by allowing them to borrow system memory from the operating system. 91. (p. 1019) SATA drives in the 2.5-inch drive format rule in most laptops today. 92. (p. 1002) Port replicators provide common PC ports such as serial, parallel, USB, network, and PS/2. 93. (p. 1002-1003) Docking stations and port replicators are essentially the same; however, docking stations provide additional features such as a DVD drive or PC Card slots for extra enhancements. 94. (p. 1000) Hot-swappable refers to the ability to plug in and replace PC Cards without powering down the PC. Manufacturers also use the term "hot-pluggable" instead of "hot-swappable." 95. (p. 1017) Most newer laptops include DDR, DDR2, or DDR3 and primarily use 200-pin SO-DIMMS, although some laptops use micro-DIMMs 96. (p. 1017) To add or replace RAM in a laptop, first make sure you have the correct RAM. Many portable PC makers use proprietary RAM solutions, which means you need to order RAM directly from the laptop's manufacturer. However, some manufacturers use standard SO-DIMMs or micro-DIMMs, which are much cheaper. To install the RAM, remove all electrical power first, then unscrew or pop open a panel on the underside of the laptop. Then press out on the restraining clips, and the RAM stick will pop up. Gently remove the old stick of RAM and insert the new one by reversing the steps. 97. (p. 1003) The most common battery used today is Li-Ion. 98. (p. 1004) A battery calibration is where you reset the battery according to steps provided by the manufacturer. 99. (p. 1005) A nickel-cadmium batteries has highly toxic metals inside the battery that are unsafe and hazardous to the environment, and thus must be disposed of properly. 100. (p. 1005) Contact a specialized disposal company or a recycling center. In case there aren't any near you, you can also contact any battery manufacturer/distributor. 101. (p. 1004) Li-Ion batteries can explode if they are overcharged. 102. (p. 989) Widescreen UXGA has a native resolution of 1920 × 1200. 103. (p. 1005) System Management Mode is the suite of features that enable the CPU to slow down or stop its clock without erasing the register information, as well as enabling power savings in peripherals.

104. (p. 1006) Energy Star devices are devices that are compliant with the Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA) standards. To be an Energy Star device, a peripheral must have the ability to shut down without actually turning off and show that they use much less power than the nonEnergy Star equivalent. 105. (p. 1006) Using the on/off switch or keyboard combination for disabling the Wi-Fi antenna, for example, and shutting off Bluetooth, reduce the output of the LCD backlight, disable backlit keyboards, and use offline files to reduce Wi-Fi and USB port usage. 106. (p. 1008) To maximize your laptop's performance, you would select the High performance power in Windows Vista. 107. (p. 1006) The four APM power-usage operating levels for a system are APM Enabled, APM Standby, APM Suspend, and Full On. 108. (p. 1006) Hibernation is the process where critical information is written to the hard drive during suspension. When the PC comes out of hibernation, Windows reloads all the files and applications into RAM. 109. (p. 1004) Lithium polymer (LiPO) batteries are a variation of Li-Ion that that places the heart of the battery—the electrolyte—into a solid polymer shape rather than an organic solvent. This enables the batteries to take on unusual forms beyond the simple cylinder or rectangle shapes. 110. (p. 989) Widescreen SXGA Plus has a native resolution of 1680 × 1050. 111. (p. 1006) G0 (S0) Working state; G1 Sleeping state mode (further subdivided into four S states: S1 CPU stops processing, power to CPU and memory (RAM) is maintained; S2 CPU is powered down; S3 Sleep or Standby mode, power to RAM still on; S4 Hibernation mode; information in RAM is stored to nonvolatile memory or drive and powered off. G2 (S5) Soft power off mode, certain devices used to wake a system—such as keyboard, LAN, USB, and other devices—remain on, while most other components are powered to a mechanical off state (G3). G3 Mechanical off mode, the system and all components, with the exception of the real-time clock (RTC), are completely powered down. 112. (p. 1003) A docking station is a device that a laptop can be plugged into (usually with a proprietary connector) to add additional ports and hardware. Like a port replicator, docking stations offer legacy and modern and single- and multifunction ports. However, docking stations also include extra features such as a DVD drive or PC card. 113. (p. 1010) Windows Vista and Windows 7 enable you to designate the files and folders you need as offline files, storing a local, duplicate copy of the files and folders on your hard drive. When you connect your laptop into your office network, those offline files are automatically synced with the files and folders on the file server. To designate a folder and its contents as offline files, right-click on the folder you want and select Always available offline from the menu. 114. (p. 1015) First, document and label every cable and screw location. Second, organize any parts you extract from the laptop. Third, refer to the manufacturer's documentation; and fourth, you need to use the appropriate hand tools. 115. (p. 1017) Every CompTIA A+ tech should know how to perform the two standard upgrades to portable computers: adding RAM and replacing a hard drive. 116. (p. 1017) There's no standard location for RAM placement in portables. More often than not, you need to unscrew or pop open a panel on the underside of the portable. Then you press out on the restraining clips and the RAM stick pops up. Gently remove the old stick of RAM and insert the new one by reversing the steps. 117. (p. 1018) Some laptops (and desktops) support shared memory. Shared memory reduces the cost of video cards by reducing the amount of memory on the video card itself. Adding more system RAM to a laptop with shared memory will improve laptop performance. Although it might appear to improve video performance, it'll improve overall performance because the OS and CPU get more usable RAM. 118. (p. 1019) First, the SSD will use a lot less electricity than an HDD, thus extending battery life. Second, any SSD is much faster than an HDD and performance across the board will be boosted. 119. (p. 1021) You might encounter a situation where the real problem wasn't the battery but an inadequate or malfunctioning charging system. 120. (p. 1022) Failure to remove the battery and the AC adapter can and probably will result in a shorted-out laptop motherboard.

Chapter 26_Portable Computing Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 26

# of Questions 33 24 63 120

Chapter 27_Mobile Devices Student:

All of the following are characteristics of mobile devices EXCEPT: A. Small size B. Has identical functionality as a PC C. Can have Apple IOS D. Can be an Android device

What type of touchscreens uses the electrical current in your body to determine the movement of your fingers across the screen? A. Capacitive B. Reactive C. Resistive D. LCD

The ability to use multiple fingers to do tasks such as expand or shrink an image on the screen is called: A. Biometrics B. Resistive touch C. Multitrack D. Multitouch

What does a resistive touchscreen use to provide input? A. Stylus B. Finger C. Mouse D. Keyboard

Which touchscreen devices require periodic screen calibration? A. Capacitive B. Reactive C. Resistive D. LCD

Which screen property means that the view rotates right along with the display? A. Orientation B. Acceleration C. Landscape D. Portrait

What technology in a touchscreen enables you to switch easily from portrait view to landscape view? A. LCD B. Gyroscope C. Accelerometer D. Operating system

What do some devices feature that can detect the position of the tablet or phone in 3-D space? A. Resistive touchscreen B. Capacitive touchscreen C. Accelerometer D. Gyroscope

All of the following have an operating system presence in the mobile device market EXCEPT: A. Apple B. Google C. Microsoft D. Unix

10. All of the following are "apps" EXCEPT: A. Electronic book reader B. Racing game C. Photo viewer D. Gyroscope 11. Which mobile operating system is generally considered "closed source"? A. Apple iOS B. Google Android C. Red Hat Linux D. Microsoft Windows 7 12. Which mobile operating system is generally considered "open source"? A. Apple iOS B. Google Android C. Red Hat Linux D. Microsoft Windows Phone 7 13. Which mobile operating system has a very small presence in the mobile device market? A. Apple iOS B. Google Android C. Red Hat Linux D. Microsoft Windows Phone 7 14. Mobile devices have all of the following hardware characteristics in common with PCs EXCEPT: A. FRUs B. CPU/GPU C. Storage D. Motherboard 15. Every mobile device has what size audio jack for plugging in earbuds or speakers? A. 4 mm B. 2.5 mm C. 3.5 mm D. 3.5 cm 16. Mobile devices that offer microSD slots are usually running which mobile operating system? A. Apple iOS B. Android C. Microsoft Windows 7 D. Red Hat Linux 17. Which processor does an Apple iPad use? A. i7 B. Tegra C. ARM D. i5 18. Which manufacturer of mobile devices offers the least expansion capability for its products? A. Apple B. Google C. Microsoft D. HP

19. Which wireless technology do most mobile devices use to connect to external devices, such as keyboards? A. 802.11g B. Bluetooth C. 802.11a D. WiMAX 20. All of the following are necessary configuration settings that a mobile device must have to connect to an 802.11 wireless network, EXCEPT: A. Encryption B. Login information C. SSID D. DNS server address 21. What term refers to Internet connectivity that requires a signal to jump from cell tower to cell tower and from your provider to another provider? A. Data jumping B. Data roaming C. 3G D. 4G 22. What is the main disadvantage of data roaming, especially when in another country? A. Cost B. Range C. Speed D. Throughput 23. What technology requires that devices be "paired"? A. 802.11g B. Bluetooth C. Micro USB D. Data wiping 24. Bluetooth devices require what kind of security measure in order to be paired? A. Digital certificate B. Token C. Password D. PIN 25. What is an important consideration in the discovery process of pairing Bluetooth devices? A. Security B. Bandwidth C. Power usage D. Distance 26. What service can be difficult to set up on mobile devices, because of the different types of servers available? A. Texting B. Media C. Web D. E-mail 27. Which group of mobile devices can sync with the iCloud service? A. Smartphones B. Android C. Apple D. Tablets

28. Which device allows for data synchronization both to and from the device? A. iPhone B. iPad C. Android D. iTouch 29. All of the following are measures to take to prevent a data breach from a lost or stolen device EXCEPT: A. Passcode lock B. Preset number of failed login attempt restrictions C. Locator service D. "Phone home" mode 30. Which of the following features allows you to remove data from a lost or stolen device? A. Remote wipe B. Locator service C. Mobile device lock D. Passcode 31. Mobile devices have a default screen called the 32. Tapping an icon will usually 33.

screen.

a program or app.

is when you can use multiple fingers to do tasks such as expand or shrink an image on the screen.

34.

touchscreens use the electrical current in your body to determine the movement of your fingers across the screen.

35.

touchscreen devices required periodic screen calibration, the resetting of the location of screen items to match where you need to touch.

36. Mobile devices feature rectangular screens, just like desktop displays, but almost all of them easily. 37. The

of the screen rotates along with the display, so by default, up is always up.

38. Some devices feature a gyroscope that can detect the position of the tablet or phone in 39. Apple services.

runs on all Apple devices, such as the iPhone smartphone and the iPad tablet

40.

currently has a very small presence in the mobile devices market.

41.

are written for specific mobile platforms and sometimes for specific devices.

42.

tightly controls the user experience, insisting that all developers of apps follow the same guidelines.

43.

gives the OS away and developers create versions suited to their devices.

44. You can also go to a (n) market for apps developed "for Android" that probably will work with your device, but there's no guarantee that they'll work on all Android devices. 45. The ASUS Transformer uses a (n)

processor.

46. Mobile devices usually have no

and no upgradeability.

47. Every mobile device has a single

audio jack for plugging in earbuds or speakers.

48.

devices offer the least expansion capability of all the mobile devices.

49. Devices that use

come with a variety of connections and expansion capabilities.

50. Many offer microSD slots, and a few feature Micro USB or even full-sized

ports.

51. Most mobile devices expand their physical capabilities wirelessly, most often using

52. All mobile devices store network access information automatically, creating a profile of that network based on the . 53. When accessing a wireless network, the mobile device's properly for WPA or WPA2.

settings must be configured

54. By default, mobile devices that use cellular networks for Internet connectivity use 55. Bluetooth devices must be 56. Once you type in the

with mobile devices. , Bluetooth devices can pair and connect.

57. Most mobile devices have Bluetooth 58.

disabled by default to conserve battery life.

-based tablets assume you'll have a Gmail account as your primary account, so that option is offered as a distinctive icon on the home screen.

59. You cannot take a(n) PC. 60. Both Apple and Google offer device.

device, connect it to another computer, and copy files from it to the

for discovering the whereabouts of a misplaced mobile

61. What are two ways to recover from mobile device theft?

62. What is the first thing you should do to proactively protect your mobile device from data loss?

63. Describe passcodes for mobile devices.

64. What does device locking do?

65. How can you prevent physical damage to your mobile device?

66. What are the differences in synchronizing Apple and Android devices?

67. What is iCloud?

68. How do Apple iPhones and iPads backup data?

69. Describe the cable connector used to synch or back up mobile devices.

70. What are the common types of email accounts that can be set up on a mobile device?

71. What hard drive technology is most common in mobile devices?

72. What common information is normally needed to set up an e-mail account on a mobile device?

73. Describe the Bluetooth pairing process.

74. Describe the ways to conserve power when using Bluetooth.

75. Describe data roaming.

76. Describe how mobile devices connect to 802.11 Wi-Fi networks.

77. How do most mobile devices connect to external devices such as keyboards?

78. What are some of the expansion connections that Android devices offer?

79. Why do Apple devices offer the least expansion capability of all the mobile devices?

80. In terms of expansion and connection, what do most mobile devices have in common?

81. What FRUs are usually present on a mobile device?

82. What three components do mobile devices usually have in common with PCs?

83. What is Microsoft's current presence in the mobile device world?

84. How does Android differ from iOS in terms of app development and device support?

85. How compatible is the open-source market for Android apps?

86. Describe Apple's system for application (app) development.

87. Describe some of the apps available for mobile devices.

88. Describe the availability of cameras on mobile devices.

89. What does a gyroscope do on a mobile device?

90. What does an accelerometer do on a mobile device?

Chapter 27_Mobile Devices Key 1. (p. 1035) B 2. (p. 1037) A 3. (p. 1036) D 4. (p. 1037) A 5. (p. 1037) C 6. (p. 1038) A 7. (p. 1038) C 8. (p. 1038) D 9. (p. 1038) D 10. (p. 1038) D 11. (p. 1041) A 12. (p. 1043) B 13. (p. 1038) D 14. (p. 1043) A 15. (p. 1043) C 16. (p. 1044) B 17. (p. 1043) C 18. (p. 1044) A 19. (p. 1045) B 20. (p. 1046) D 21. (p. 1047) B 22. (p. 1047) A 23. (p. 1048) B 24. (p. 1048) D 25. (p. 1048) C 26. (p. 1048) D 27. (p. 1050) C 28. (p. 1051) C 29. (p. 1052-1053) D 30. (p. 1053) A 31. (p. 1035) home 32. (p. 1036) start 33. (p. 1036) Multitouch 34. (p. 1037) Capacitive 35. (p. 1037) Resistive 36. (p. 1038) rotate

37. (p. 1038) orientation 38. (p. 1038) 3-D space 39. (p. 1038) iOS 40. (p. 1038) Microsoft 41. (p. 1039) Apps 42. (p. 1041) Apple 43. (p. 1042) Google 44. (p. 1043) open-source 45. (p. 1043) NVIDIA Tegra 46. (p. 1043) field replaceable units (FRUs) 47. (p. 1043) 3.5-mm 48. (p. 1044) Apple 49. (p. 1044) Google Android 50. (p. 1044) USB 51. (p. 1044) Bluetooth 52. (p. 1046) SSID 53. (p. 1046) encryption 54. (p. 1047) data roaming 55. (p. 1048) paired 56. (p. 1048) PIN code 57. (p. 1048) discovery 58. (p. 1049) Android 59. (p. 1050) Apple 60. (p. 1053) locator services 61. (p. 1053) First, make sure you have your data backed up, and second, remotely wipe your mobile device to prevent data loss. 62. (p. 1052) Protect your data from access by putting a good passcode lock on the device. 63. (p. 1052) Passcodes require you to type in a series of letters, numbers, or motion patterns to unlock the mobile device each time you press the power button. They are usually implemented through the device's settings app. 64. (p. 1052) Mobile devices also have a preset number of failed login attempt restrictions that, when exceeded, lock up the mobile device. 65. (p. 1051) For physical damage, the first step is to get a protective cover or sleeve for the mobile device. You should also use a screen protector to prevent scratches, avoid putting heavy objects on the device, and keep the device away from liquids. 66. (p. 1051) With Apple, you can sync files—especially media files—to the iPhone or iPad. You cannot take an Apple device, connect it to another computer, and copy files from it to the PC. Android devices work like a USB thumb drive, and data can flow both ways. 67. (p. 1050) In late 2011, Apple introduced a cloud-based storage solution called iCloud. With iCloud, you can have all your iPhone or iPad data backed up and thus accessible from anywhere. 68. (p. 1050) Apple iPhones and iPads synch through Apple iTunes installed on a Mac or PC, a free program that you download from Apple. Music, videos, contacts, pictures, and so on, can be stored locally. You can choose to back up all the apps on your iPhone or iPad to iTunes as well. This single source for backup makes it easy to recover from something catastrophic happening to your Apple device. If you replace an Apple device, for example, you can simply sync that new device, and all your files, contact information, and apps copy to the new device. 69. (p. 1050) Most tablets and many smartphones use a proprietary dongle for syncing through a USB port on the computer. This is the same dongle used to recharge the battery. Many smartphones use a micro-USB-to-regular-USB cable to connect to the PC. 70. (p. 1049) Exchange, POP3, or IMAP, as well as web-based email such as Gmail or Yahoo!

71. (p. 1043) Solid State Drives (SSD) 72. (p. 1048) Server type (Exchange, IMAP, or POP3), port setting, and security type, such as SSL or TLS. 73. (p. 1048) You turn on Bluetooth on the smartphone or tablet, then power on the Bluetooth device. Return to the mobile device to select it to pair with the Bluetooth device, and then enter the appropriate personal identification number (PIN) code. Once you type in the PIN code, the devices connect. 74. (p. 1048) Most mobile devices have Bluetooth discovery disabled by default to conserve battery life. Actively seeking pairing uses electricity, as does completed pairing, so use Bluetooth only when you need it and be prepared for the battery hit. 75. (p. 1047) Many mobile devices can use the cellular data services. By default, mobile devices that use cellular networks for Internet connectivity use data roaming—they jump from cell tower to cell tower and from your provider to another provider without obvious notice. This can get expensive, especially outside your own country. Turn data roaming off if you don't need it. 76. (p. 1046) When you want to connect to a Wi-Fi network, you need to turn Wi-Fi on and then actively connect to a network. The network must be properly configured with WPA or WPA2 encryption, and you also need to have the logon information to access the network. Usually a settings app helps you connect—view the available networks, select the one you want to join, and type in the passphrase or passcode. All mobile devices store network access information automatically, creating a profile of that network based on the SSID. If the SSID of a network changes after you've connected to that network, your mobile device will fail to connect, so you will need to delete and recreate the profile. 77. (p. 1045) Bluetooth 78. (p. 1044) Many offer microSD slots, and a few feature Micro USB or even full-sized USB ports. 79. (p. 1044) Ports are proprietary and are used to charge and connect to very few external devices. 80. (p. 1043) Every mobile device enables you to attach some kind of peripheral or external storage device, but each device differs on expansion capabilities. Every mobile device has a single 3.5-mm audio jack for plugging in earbuds or speakers. 81. (p. 1043) Mobile devices usually have no field replaceable units (FRUs) and no upgradeability. 82. (p. 1043) A motherboard, a CPU/GPU, and some type of storage, usually a solid-state drive (SSD), which uses less electricity. 83. (p. 1038) Microsoft has a small but growing presence in the mobile devices market with Windows Phone 7 and Windows 8. 84. (p. 1041-1042) Apple's iOS is very tightly controlled. Android differs greatly from Apple iOS in that Google gives the OS away and developers create versions suited to their devices. 85. (p. 1043) You can also go to an open-source market for apps developed "for Android" that probably will work with your device, but there's no guarantee that they'll work on all Android devices. 86. (p. 1041) Apple has created a closed-source or single-source system, meaning that if you want to get an app for your iPhone or iPad, you can get it only from the Apple App Store. Apple must approve any app before it goes into the App Store, and Apple reserves the right to revoke permission on any app that fails to measure up. 87. (p. 1040-1041) Accessing e-mail, surfing the Web, taking notes, making entries in a calendar, multimedia apps that enable you to listen to music, take pictures, watch YouTube videos, and view photos, instant messaging tools and, in the case of smartphones, telephone capabilities; games; location and GPS apps. 88. (p. 1039-1040) Most mobile devices today come with one or two cameras for taking digital photos and movies and for video conferencing. Manufacturers initially offered low-resolution cameras and camcorders that produced poor-quality photos and grainy videos, but some current devices offer crystal-clear, high-definition videos with flash photos and optical zoom. 89. (p. 1038) Some devices feature a gyroscope that can detect the position of the tablet or phone in 3-D space—this also enables more intuitive control over onscreen devices such as a plane's joystick. 90. (p. 1038) An accelerometer enables you to switch easily from portrait view to landscape view.

Chapter 27_Mobile Devices Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 27

# of Questions 27 15 48 90

Chapter 28_Printers Student:

What kind of printer creates an image on paper by physically striking an ink ribbon against the paper's surface? A. Laser B. Dot-matrix C. Thermal D. Impact

What are 9-pin dot-matrix printers generically called? A. Economy B. Near-letter C. Draft D. Letter

What kind of printer is used with multipart forms such as with point of sale machines? A. Dot-matrix B. Daisy-wheel C. Inkjet D. Color

What type of printer works by ejecting ink through tiny tubes? A. Laser B. Inkjet C. Dot-matrix D. Impact

In laser printers, what component applies a positive charge to the paper, drawing the negatively charged toner particles to the paper? A. Transfer corona B. Turning gears C. Laser D. Toner

How is laser printer resolution measured? A. Color per inch B. Dots per inch C. Pixels per inch D. Bits per inch

What should you do if your dot-matrix printer output is covered with dots and small smudges? A. Replace the drum. B. Clean the platen. C. Clean the printhead. D. Replace the cartridge.

You are printing from a dot-matrix printer and notice the characters look chopped off at the top. What should you try adjusting? A. Toner B. Printhead C. Cartridge D. Drum

What is heated by tiny resistors or electroconductive plates at the end of each tube in an inkjet printer? A. Ink B. Toner C. Toner powder D. Nozzle

10. What kind of printers tend to have problems with ink drying out inside the nozzles when the printer is not used for a period? A. Color B. Laser C. Inkjet D. Dot-matrix 11. The term sublimation means to cause something to change from a solid into a(n) into a solid. A. vapor B. viscous C. liquid D. crystal

form and then back

12. The dye-sublimation printing technique is an example of what method of color printing? A. CKMY B. CYMK C. CMYK D. CKMY 13. How are dots put onto the surface of paper from a direct thermal printer? A. Transferred B. Etched C. Embedded D. Burned 14. When a thermal printhead passes over the film ribbon, what melts onto the paper? A. Wax B. Toner C. Dye D. Ink 15. What kind of printer relies on a photoconductive process? A. Dot-matrix B. Inkjet C. Laser D. Thermal 16. Why do laser printers usually use a laser as the light source? A. Because of the intensity B. Because of the brightness C. Because of the precision D. Because of the inexpensiveness 17. What does the primary corona wire charge? A. Fuser assembly B. Paper C. Toner D. Drum

18. During the laser printer process, after the erase lamp exposes the entire surface of the photosensitive drum to light, what happens to the photosensitive coating? A. It becomes bright. B. It becomes electrically charged. C. It becomes conductive. D. It becomes nonconductive. 19. The toner in a laser printer is a fine powder. This powder is made up of plastic particles bonded to what other types of particles? A. Nickel B. Polyester C. Aluminum D. Iron 20. In a laser printer, what are the pressure roller and heated roller used for? A. To melt the toner to the paper B. To fuse the toner to the paper C. To burn the toner to the paper D. To apply the toner to the paper 21. At the end of the laser printing process, what is cleaned? A. Toner B. Laser head C. Photosensitive drum D. Power unit 22. What causes dark ghosting on printed pages? A. A damaged laser B. A damaged toner C. A damaged head D. A damaged drum 23. In a laser printer, what must be done to the drum to make it receptive to new images? A. Cleaned B. Discharged C. Heated D. Charged 24. In a laser printer, what is used to write a positive image on the surface of the drum? A. Toner B. Marker C. Laser D. Head 25. Toner particles are composed mostly of A. carbon B. power C. plastic D. Teflon

, allowing them to be melted to the page.

26. How many separate power supplies do laser printers typically have? A. At least two B. At least three C. At least four D. At least five

27. What kind of printout usually results from an empty toner cartridge? A. Blank B. Dirty C. Vertical white lines D. Embossed effect 28. What is the fuser assembly in a laser printer almost always separate from? A. Laser head B. Gearbox C. Drum D. Toner cartridge 29. What charges the paper in a laser printer? A. Primary corona B. Transfer corona C. Fuser assembly D. Laser 30. What should be added to a laser printer to resolve a memory overflow problem? A. RET B. RIP C. ROM D. RAM 31. What needs to be vacuumed or replaced periodically in a laser printer? A. Ozone filter B. Drum C. Toner cartridge D. Powder 32. Which of the following printers transfer data to the printer one character or one line at a time? A. Impact B. Laser C. Dye-sublimation D. Thermal 33. A laser printer creates an image of dots and holds it in memory before printing it. What is this image of dots called? A. Raster B. Laser C. Vector D. High-resolution 34. What kind of printer uses a grid of tiny pins, also known as printwires, to strike an inked printer ribbon and produce images on paper? A. Dot-matrix B. Inkjet C. Laser D. Thermal 35. What kind of chip is used by a laser printer to translate the raster image sent to the printer into commands for the laser? A. RAM B. RIP C. ROM D. UART

36. Which of the following printers uses heat or a mechanical method to move ink onto paper? A. Dot-matrix B. Inkjet C. Impact D. Laser 37. What's the standard that defines backward-compatible, high-speed, bidirectional parallel ports? A. IEEE 1284 B. IEEE 1394a C. IEEE 1394b D. RS-232 38. A standard parallel cable used for older printers has a DB-25 connector on one end. What type of connector is on the other end? A. Centronics B. FireWire C. USB A D. USB B 39. Assuming a printer is in good working order and online, what should you check next if nothing prints? A. Calibration B. Port settings C. Printer emulation D. Print spooler 40. What Control Panel applet is used to manage printers and faxes in Windows XP? A. Printers B. Hardware C. Printers and Faxes D. Printers and Hardware 41. Printers that create an image on paper by physically striking a (n) paper's surface are known as impact printers. 42.

against the

printers use a grid of tiny pins, also known as printwires, to strike an inked printer ribbon and produce images on paper.

43. Thermal dye transfer printing is sometimes called

printing.

44. If, when printing a document on a dot-matrix printer, the characters look chopped off at the top or bottom, the needs to be adjusted. 45. NLQ stands for

46. A common problem with inkjet printers is the tendency for the the printer is not used, even for a relatively short time. 47. A laser printer's 48. Print speed is measured in

is measured in dots per inch, or dpi. .

to dry out when

49. The term and then back into a solid. 50. The printing.

means to cause something to change from a solid form into a vapor

printing technique is an example of the CMYK method of color

51. Dye-sublimation printing is also known as

printing.

52. A (n) equipment.

combines the functions of printer, fax, and scanner in one piece of

53. A (n) procedures.

contains important information regarding hazardous materials and safety

54. In thermal wax transfer printers, the thermal melts the wax onto the paper.

passes over the film ribbon and

55. Laser printers rely on the

properties of certain organic compounds.

56. In a laser printer, the photosensitive compounds.

is an aluminum cylinder coated with particles of

57. A laser printer's exposes the entire surface of the photosensitive drum to light, causing any electrical charge present in the particles to bleed into the grounded drum. 58. When a laser printer's is charged with an extremely high voltage, an electric field forms, enabling voltage to pass to the drum and charge the photosensitive particles on its surface. 59. The iron particles.

in a laser printer is a fine powder made up of plastic particles bonded to

60. A laser printer's transfer corona applies a positive charge to the paper, drawing the charged toner particles to the paper. 61. Laser printers use a chip called the printer into commands to the laser. 62. A laser printer's

to translate the raster image sent to the

assembly permanently attaches toner to the paper.

63. A laser printer's heated roller has a nonstick coating to prevent the to it. 64. The printing process ends with the photosensitive drum.

and

from sticking

cleaning of the

65. The Add Printer Wizard allows you to set up a local or

printer.

66. In Windows, a default printer is identified by a(n)

67. A laser is used to write a (n)

image onto the surface of the drum.

68. Every particle on a laser printer's drum that is hit by the laser will release most of its charge into the drum. 69. Mostly composed of plastic,

particles can be melted on to the paper.

70. Most laser printers have a special periodically.

filter that needs to be vacuumed or replaced

71. The two key features of an inkjet printer are the print . 72. Dot-matrix printers that use output.

and the print

pins produce letter quality or near-letter quality

73. Ink is stored in special small containers called 74.

printers use an electro-photographic imaging process to produce high-quality and high-speed output of text and graphics.

75. Most printers connect to a PC via a DB-25 parallel port or a(n) 76. The tiny pipes that squirt ink onto the paper are called 77. Thermal dye transfer printing is sometimes called 78. Today, the typical interface. 79.

port. . printing.

printer uses a standard RJ-45 Ethernet cable or wireless

starts the physical part of the printing process.

80. If you attempt to use a printer shared by another PC, but Windows pops up with an "Access Denied" error, you might not have to use the printer.

81. What are printwires in dot-matrix printers?

82. What does "draft quality" mean when referring to printers?

83. What does "letter quality" mean when referring to printers?

84. What are snapshot printers?

85. How do thermal wax printers work?

86. What is a photosensitive drum?

87. What causes a laser printer to output blotchy print?

88. What are the steps of the laser printing process?

89. How many power supply units are in a laser printer?

90. What is an MSDS?

91. What is resolution enhancement technology (RET)?

92. Why do laser printers have sensors?

93. What is a raster image processor (RIP)?

94. What is a graphical device interface (GDI)?

95. What is printer emulation?

96. Paper is not feeding properly through an inkjet printer. What's a likely reason?

97. What could cause vertical white lines to appear on laser output?

98. What causes misaligned or garbage printouts?

99. What should you do if your dot-matrix printer output is covered with dots and small smudges?

100.A printer doesn't work after connecting it with a USB connection. What's a likely reason?

101. What can cause a laser printer to generate printouts with poorly formed characters?

102. What is the purpose of the paper-feed component in an inkjet printer?

103. How do inkjet printers move ink using the heat method?

104. What is print resolution?

105. What is the purpose of a laser printer's primary grid?

106. What is a transfer corona?

107. How do impact printers and laser printers differ with regard to transfer of data to the printer?

108. List the two kinds of thermal printer.

109. When discussing laser printers, what does the term photoconductive mean?

110. What is the purpose of a print spooler in Windows?

111. How can a diagnostic print page test be performed on a laser printer?

112. What printing subsystem does Windows Vista include to enhance color management and better print

layout fidelity?

113. What are the 7 steps involved in printing from a laser printer?

114. Describe the exposing phase of the laser printing process.

115. What removes the paper's positive charge during the fusing stage of the laser printing process?

116. During what stage of the laser printing process is all residual toner left over from printing the previous

page removed, usually by scraping the surface of the drum with a rubber cleaning blade?

117. What type of printers does Windows attempt to automatically detect and install?

118. How does Windows separate the types of printers during installation?

119. How do you install a standalone network printer using its IP address?

120. What happens if you are a member of a Windows 7 homegroup, and printer sharing is enabled?

Chapter 28_Printers Key 1. (p. 1059) D 2. (p. 1059) C 3. (p. 1059) A 4. (p. 1059) B 5. (p. 1065) A 6. (p. 1061) B 7. (p. 1084) B 8. (p. 1059) B 9. (p. 1060) A 10. (p. 1085) C 11. (p. 1062) A 12. (p. 1062) C 13. (p. 1063) D 14. (p. 1063) A 15. (p. 1063) C 16. (p. 1064) C 17. (p. 1064) D 18. (p. 1063) C 19. (p. 1065) D 20. (p. 1065) B 21. (p. 1074) C 22. (p. 1087-1088) D 23. (p. 1073) D 24. (p. 1064) C 25. (p. 1065) C 26. (p. 1065) A 27. (p. 1087) A 28. (p. 1065) D 29. (p. 1065) B 30. (p. 1066) D 31. (p. 1068) A 32. (p. 1059) A 33. (p. 1072) A 34. (p. 1059) A 35. (p. 1072) B 36. (p. 1059) B

37. (p. 1069) A 38. (p. 1070) A 39. (p. 1071) D 40. (p. 1075) A 41. (p. 1059) ink ribbon 42. (p. 1059) Dot-matrix 43. (p. 1062) dye sublimation 44. (p. 1059) printhead 45. (p. 1059) near-letter quality 46. (p. 1085) ink 47. (p. 1061) resolution 48. (p. 1062) pages per minute (ppm) 49. (p. 1062) sublimation 50. (p. 1062) dye-sublimation or thermal dye transfer 51. (p. 1062) thermal dye transfer 52. (p. 1090) multifunction peripheral (MFP) 53. (p. 1083) material safety data sheet (MSDS) 54. (p. 1059) printhead 55. (p. 1063) photoconductive 56. (p. 1064) photosensitive drum 57. (p. 1064) erase lamp 58. (p. 1064) primary corona 59. (p. 1065) toner 60. (p. 1065) negatively 61. (p. 1072) raster image processor (RIP) 62. (p. 1065) fuser 63. (p. 1065) toner 64. (p. 1074) physical; electrical 65. (p. 1075) network 66. (p. 1079) checkmark 67. (p. 1065) positive 68. (p. 1065) negative 69. (p. 1065) toner 70. (p. 1066-1067) ozone 71. (p. 1059) resolution; speed 72. (p. 1059) 24 73. (p. 1060) ink cartridges 74. (p. 1063) Laser

75. (p. 1069) universal serial bus (USB) 76. (p. 1085) nozzles 77. (p. 1062) dye sublimation or dye-sublimation 78. (p. 1070) network 79. (p. 1073) Charging 80. (p. 1081) permission 81. (p. 1059) Printwires are an array or grid of tiny pins that strike an inked printer ribbon and produce images on paper. 82. (p. 1059) Draft quality is the name generally used for 9-pin dot-matrix printers. 83. (p. 1059) Letter quality or near-letter quality is the name generally used for 24-pin dot-matrix printers. 84. (p. 1062) Snapshot printers are smaller but specialized printers that use dye-sublimation specifically for printing photos at a reduced cost compared to their full-sized counterparts. 85. (p. 1063) Thermal wax printers use rolls of film coated with colored wax. The thermal printhead passes over the film ribbon and melts the wax onto the paper. 86. (p. 1064) The photosensitive drum is an aluminum cylinder coated with particles of photosensitive compounds. The drum itself is grounded to the power supply, but the coating is not. 87. (p. 1088) A blotchy print occurs due to uneven dispersion of toner, especially if the toner is low. Other reasons include foreign objects lodged in the fusing rollers or photosensitive drums, and the paper being wet in spots. 88. (p. 1071) Most laser printers perform the printing process in a series of seven steps: process, charge, write, develop, transfer, fuse, and clean. 89. (p. 1065) There are at least two separate power supplies inside a laser printer: the primary power supply and the high-voltage power supply. 90. (p. 1083) A material safety data sheet (MSDS) is a posted form detailing important safe use and emergency response procedures. It is typically posted anywhere hazardous chemicals are used. 91. (p. 1073) Resolution enhancement technology (RET) enables a printer to insert smaller dots among characters, smoothing out the jagged curves. 92. (p. 1067) In laser printers, sensors are used to detect a broad range of conditions such as paper jams, empty paper trays, or low toner levels. 93. (p. 1072) Laser printers use a chip called the raster image processor (RIP) to translate the raster image sent to the printer into commands to the laser. 94. (p. 1068) The graphical device interface (GDI) is a component used in Windows to handle print functions. The GDI uses the CPU rather than the printer to process a print job and then sends the completed job to the printer. 95. (p. 1079) Printer emulation means to use a substitute printer driver for a printer, as opposed to one made exclusively for that printer. 96. (p. 1085) The most likely reason is that the rollers have a problem. You can clean them and/or give them a textured surface by rubbing them with a nonmetallic scouring pad. 97. (p. 1088) Vertical white lines are usually due to clogged toner, preventing the proper dispersion of toner on the drum. 98. (p. 1083) Misaligned or garbage printouts invariably point to a corrupted or incorrect driver. 99. (p. 1083) You need to clean the platen with denatured alcohol. If the image is faded and you know the ribbon is good, try adjusting the printhead closer to the platen. If the image is okay on one side of the paper but fades as you move to the other, the platen is out of adjustment. 100. (p. 1083) The driver wasn't installed first. In almost all cases, you must install the driver before you plug a USB printer into your computer. 101. (p. 1089) Poorly formed characters indicate either a problem with the paper (or other media) or a problem with the hardware. 102. (p. 1060) The paper-feed component in an inkjet printer is used to drag, move, and eject paper. 103. (p. 1060) Inkjet printers use tiny resistors at the end of each tube to boil the ink, creating a tiny air bubble that ejects a droplet of ink. 104. (p. 1061) Print resolution, measured in dots per inch (dpi), refers to the density of ink, which affects print quality. 105. (p. 1064) The primary grid regulates the transfer of voltage, ensuring the surface of the drum receives a uniform negative voltage between ~600 and ~1000 volts. 106. (p. 1065) A transfer corona is a thin wire in a laser printer that applies a positive charge to the paper, drawing the negatively charged toner particles to the paper.

107. (p. 1059, 1063) Impact printers transfer data to the printer one character or one line at a time, whereas laser printers transfer entire pages at a time to the printer. 108. (p. 1063) The two kinds of thermal printer are direct thermal printer and thermal wax transfer printer. 109. (p. 1063) Laser printers rely on the photoconductive properties of certain organic compounds. Photoconductive means that the particle of certain organic compounds will conduct electricity when exposed to light. 110. (p. 1071) The print spooler enables you to queue up multiple print jobs that the printer will handle sequentially. 111. (p. 1087) A diagnostic print page test can be performed by either holding down the On Line button as the printer is started or using the printer's maintenance software. 112. (p. 1068) XML Paper Specification (XPS) print path 113. (p. 1071) Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning. 114. (p. 1073) A laser is used to create a positive image on the surface of the drum. Every particle on the drum hit by the laser releases most of its negative charge into the drum. 115. (p. 1074) A static charge eliminator 116. (p. 1074) The cleaning stage 117. (p. 1075) With USB printers (and infrared printers), Windows won't even wait for you to do anything—once you connect a printer (or point the IR beam at a compatible PC), Windows immediately detects and installs the printer. 118. (p. 1076) Windows divides printer installation into two scenarios: a printer connected directly to a PC (your local PC or another PC on a network), or a standalone printer directly connected to a switch or router. 119. (p. 1076) If you need to install a standalone network printer using its IP address, uncheck the "Automatically detect and install my Plug and Play printer" option in Windows XP and click Next. In Windows Vista and Windows 7, click "Add a local printer." In the Create a new port dropdown box, select Standard TCP/IP Port. Click Next. Type the IP address here. 120. (p. 1078) If you are a member of a Windows 7 homegroup and printer sharing is enabled, all printers connected to the homegroup are shared with you automatically.

Chapter 28_Printers Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 28

# of Questions 31 18 71 120

Chapter 29_Securing Computers Student:

What is it called when a user accesses resources in an unauthorized way? A. Authorized access B. Normal C. Unauthorized access D. Virus attack

Which of the following is not considered grayware? A. Pop-ups B. Spyware C. Adware D. Phishing

Most computer attacks are accomplished through what type of attack? A. Port scanning B. Social engineering C. Buffer overflows D. Password cracking

What word describes the process of cleaning up after a virus infection? A. Remnants B. Remediation C. Quarantine D. Declassification

What is the process of using or manipulating people inside the networking environment to gain access to that network from the outside? A. Internal virus B. Inside attack C. Hacking D. Social engineering

What is the act of trying to get people to give their user names, passwords, or other security information by pretending to be someone else electronically called? A. Phishing B. Dumpster diving C. Phunting D. Compliance

What is it called when a hacker goes through the garbage looking for information? A. Dumpster diving B. Infiltration C. Garbage scan D. Wastebasket diving

Physical security, authentication, the file system, users and groups, and security policies combine to make what? A. Access control B. Authentication C. Encryption D. Secure servers

How does a computer determine who can or should access it? A. Access control B. Authentication C. Encryption D. Secure servers

10. A user has a credit card-sized card used to prove her identity with a PIN. What is this card called? A. Authorization card B. Biometric card C. Smart card D. Task card 11. What is Microsoft's encryption method of choice for providing transparent encryption between the server and the client? A. IPSec B. HTTPS C. Digital certificate D. PAP 12. What could a computer use to determine a user's identity with the most authority? A. Biometric device B. Password C. User name D. Firewall 13. Sally is a member of multiple groups. A file has been granted different permissions to the different groups. What is Sally's effective permission? A. Combined permissions of all groups B. Full Control C. Most restrictive permissions of all groups D. Impossible to say 14. To lock down security settings on a single computer in a workgroup, what would you use? A. Group Policy B. Local Security Settings C. Account Lockout Policy D. Password Policy 15. To lock down security settings on a single computer in a domain, what would you use? A. Group Policy B. Local Security Settings C. Account Lockout Policy D. Password Policy 16. What is a piece of malicious software that gets passed from computer to computer by attaching itself to a program? A. Spyware B. Trojan C. Virus D. Worm 17. What is a software program that looks like one thing (such as a utility or a game) but is actually doing something else (such as modifying CMOS settings)? A. Spyware B. Trojan C. Virus D. Worm

18. What is a complete program that travels from machine to machine through computer networks and has the capability to cause malicious problems? A. Spyware B. Trojan C. Virus D. Worm 19. Together, what are viruses, Trojans, and worms called? A. Grayware B. Helpful software C. Malware D. Spyware 20. Antimalware programs can passively monitor your computer's activity. In this mode, what are they called? A. Grayware B. Spyware C. Virus shields D. Virus swords 21. To make sure antivirus programs are as useful as possible, what should be updated regularly? A. Browser B. Security updates C. Signatures D. Windows updates 22. What type of virus attempts to change its signature to prevent detection by antivirus programs? A. Grayware B. Spyware C. Polymorph D. Stealth 23. What type of program runs in the background on your PC, sending information about your browsing habits to the company that installed it on your system? A. Adware B. Grayware C. Pop-ups D. Spyware 24. What type of program isn't destructive by itself, but leaches bandwidth in networks? A. Adware B. Grayware C. Pop-ups D. Spyware 25. Which current authentication method is typically used over a LAN? A. CHAP B. Kerberos C. MS-CHAP D. PAP 26. What can be used to create entries in the Security log whenever a user logs on? A. Event auditing B. Object access auditing C. Event tracking D. Success logging

27. What is simply observing someone's screen or keyboard to get information, often passwords? A. Shoulder surfing B. Tailgating C. Dumpster diving D. Phishing 28. All of the following are considered environmental controls EXCEPT: A. Air conditioning B. Temperature controls C. Humidity controls D. Closed circuit cameras 29. What is the correct humidity range for computer equipment? A. 0-20 percent B. 10-20 percent C. 30-40 percent D. 60-80 percent 30. All of the following are characteristics of employee ID badges EXCEPT: A. Even relatively small organizations use them. B. They control building access. C. They store authentication information. D. They are used to store encryption keys. 31. Not all access is malicious, but it should still be prevented; for example, a user may poke around a network share and see sensitive information. 32. A (n) is signed by a trusted authority that guarantees that the public key you are about to get is actually from the Web server and not from some evil person trying to pretend to be the Web server. 33. A common to give up secure information.

attack is where an attacker uses the telephone and convinces a user

34. A device that can prove who you are based on your fingerprint is known as a(n) device. 35. Sally is a member of the Sales group and the Marketing group. The Marketing group has Full Control permission to a folder named NewProducts, and the Sales group has Read permission to the same folder. Sally's permission to the folder is . 36. The tool used to set local policies on an individual system is

37. The tool used to apply policy settings to multiple computers in an Active Directory domain is . 38. Malicious software is also known as 39. Following someone through the door is an example of

. .

40. A program that looks useful, such as a game or a utility, but is actually maliciously doing something else to the system is known as a (n) . 41. A complete program that travels from machine to machine through computer networks and can cause so much activity that it can overload a network is a (n) . 42. To detect executable viruses, an antivirus program uses a library of

43. Boot sector viruses that use various methods to hide from antivirus software are known as viruses. 44. The scrambling code used to attempt to modify a (n) is actually used as the signature to detect the virus.

virus to prevent detection

45. The list of viruses your antivirus program can recognize is called the 46. Unsolicited e-mail is more commonly known as

file. .

47. Surprise browser windows that appear automatically when you visit a Web site are . 48. A (n) is a device or software (or combination of both) used to protect an internal network from unauthorized access from the Internet. 49. Windows XP and later come with an excellent software firewall, called the

50. The authentication encryption used in Windows network operating systems is . 51. Microsoft's encryption method of choice over private connections such as ISDN or T1 is . 52. The security protocol that works with HTTP to create secure Web sites is

53. When configured to do so, Windows will create an entry in the Security Log when someone tries to access a certain file or folder—this is called auditing 54. You are tasked with ensuring that any time a file or folder is accessed, details of the access are logged. This is an example of . 55. Access control is the process of implementing methods to ensure unauthorized users can't access your system. Two primary methods are physical security and .

56.

reduce the viewing angle, making it impossible for anyone to read the screen except those directly in front of it.

57. When the screen lock feature is enabled, a user won't be able to return to the desktop until they've entered the . 58. A

is something the user knows, like a password or personal identification number (PIN).

59. A (n)

is something the user has, like an ID card or security token.

60. A (n) retinal pattern.

(also called a biometric) is something that is part of the user, like a fingerprint or

61. List the four interlinked topics that should be considered when implementing access control.

62. What command line utility can you use to go from FAT32 to NTFS?

63. What are the benefits of incidence reporting?

64. Define social engineering.

65. What is a common LAN authentication protocol used today?

66. List five ways to increase security protection for a wireless network.

67. Describe a smart card.

68. You identify a server that is using FAT32 as the file system. You decide to change it to an NTFS drive. What command would you enter at the command line?

69. Define effective permissions.

70. What tool is used to set security policies on an individual system?

71. What can be used to set security policies for users or computers in a domain?

72. Define malware.

73. What is the difference between a virus and a worm?

74. What is a Trojan horse?

75. What are two important things to do to protect systems from a worm?

76. Define antivirus signature.

77. What is a polymorph virus?

78. What is a stealth virus?

79. Where can you find Event Viewer?

80. What is spyware?

81. What is encryption on a network?

82. What open standard encryption mechanism is used for both LANs and remote access, such as VPNs?

83. What is contained in a digital certificate?

84. What is a form of authentication where a user must use two or more factors to prove his or her identity?

85. Describe a security token.

86. How is the Guest account a security risk?

87. How can a technician identify an action or content as prohibited?

88. What are some common rules regarding data and device preservation?

89. What is adware?

Chapter 29_Securing Computers Key 1. (p. 1101) C 2. (p. 1120) D 3. (p. 1102) B 4. (p. 1132) B 5. (p. 1102) D 6. (p. 1103) A 7. (p. 1102) A 8. (p. 1107) A 9. (p. 1109) B 10. (p. 1110) C 11. (p. 1142) A 12. (p. 1112) A 13. (p. 1113) A 14. (p. 1114) B 15. (p. 1114) A 16. (p. 1124) C 17. (p. 1124) B 18. (p. 1124) D 19. (p. 1119) C 20. (p. 1127) C 21. (p. 1127) C 22. (p. 1127) C 23. (p. 1120) D 24. (p. 1119) B 25. (p. 1142) B 26. (p. 1116) A 27. (p. 1102) A 28. (p. 1105) D 29. (p. 1106) C 30. (p. 1108) D 31. (p. 1101) unauthorized 32. (p. 1142) digital certificate 33. (p. 1102) social engineering 34. (p. 1112) biometric 35. (p. 1113) Full Control 36. (p. 1114) Local Security Settings

37. (p. 1114) Group Policy 38. (p. 1119) malware 39. (p. 1102) tailgating 40. (p. 1124) Trojan 41. (p. 1124) worm 42. (p. 1127) signatures 43. (p. 1127) stealth 44. (p. 1127) polymorph 45. (p. 1129) definition 46. (p. 1123) spam 47. (p. 1120) pop-ups 48. (p. 1133) firewall 49. (p. 1136) Windows Firewall 50. (p. 1142) Kerberos 51. (p. 1142) IPSec 52. (p. 1142) Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) 53. (p. 1116) object access auditing 54. (p. 1116) object access auditing 55. (p. 1109) authentication 56. (p. 1108) Privacy filters 57. (p. 1108) password 58. (p. 1109) knowledge factor 59. (p. 1109) ownership factor 60. (p. 1109) inherent factor 61. (p. 1107) They are physical security, authentication, users and groups, and security policies. 62. (p. 1112) When you run into a multiple-drive system that has a second or third drive formatted as FAT32, you can use the CONVERT command-line utility to go from FAT or FAT32 to NTFS. 63. (p. 1117) Incidence reporting provides a record of work you've accomplished. It also provides a piece of information that, when combined with other information you might or might not know, reveals a pattern or bigger problem to someone higher up the chain. 64. (p. 1102) Social engineering is the process of using or manipulating people inside the networking environment to gain access to that network from the outside. 65. (p. 1142) Kerberos 66. (p. 1144-1145) Wireless security measures include using WPA2 encryption, disabling DHCP and using static IP addresses, changing WAPs default SSID and disabling SSID broadcast, changing WAPs default user name and password, updating WAP firmware, and turning on WAP firewall settings. 67. (p. 1110) A smart card is a credit card-sized card with circuitry that can be used to identify the bearer of the card. 68. (p. 1112) To convert a FAT32 drive to NTFS, you use the command CONVERT X: /FS:NTFS (with X being the letter of the drive). 69. (p. 1113) Effective permissions are the combined permissions that are assigned to a user account and any groups that the user account is a member of. 70. (p. 1114) The Local Security Settings tool can be used to set local policies on an individual system. 71. (p. 1114) Group Policy can be used to set policies at the domain level.

72. (p. 1119) Malware is malicious software—computer programs designed to break into computers or cause havoc on computers, including viruses, worms, Spyware, Trojan horses, adware, and grayware. 73. (p. 1124) A virus runs on a single computer, attaching itself to programs on that computer. A worm travels from computer to computer through a computer network and takes advantage of security flaws in the operating system. 74. (p. 1124) A program that's designed to do something useful, such as a game or a utility, but actually does something else, often malicious. 75. (p. 1124) To protect systems from a worm, first be sure to use antivirus software. Second, because worms attack holes in the operating system, make sure the operating system is up to date with security patches. 76. (p. 1127) An antivirus signature is a code pattern of a known virus. Antivirus software works with a library of signatures that are updated regularly. 77. (p. 1127) A polymorph virus is a virus that attempts to change its signature to prevent detection by antivirus programs. 78. (p. 1127) A stealth virus is usually a boot-sector virus that uses various methods to hide from antivirus software. For example, it might hook on to a software interrupt or make copies of innocent-looking files. 79. (p. 1116) Event Viewer is located in Administrative tools in the Control Panel. 80. (p. 1120) Spyware is a family of programs that run in the background on the PC, sending information about a user's browsing habits to the company that installed it. 81. (p. 1141) Encryption is the process of making packets or data unreadable. 82. (p. 1142) IP Security (IPSec) 83. (p. 1142) A digital certificate contains a public key used for encrypting/decrypting and a signature from a trusted authority to prove where the certificate came from. 84. (p. 1109) Multifactor authentication 85. (p. 1110) Security tokens are devices that store some unique information that the user carries on his person. They may be digital certificates, passwords, or biometric data. They may also store an RSA token. RSA tokens are random-number generators that are used with user names and passwords to ensure extra security. Most security tokens come in the form of key fobs. 86. (p. 1113) The Guest account is the only way to access a system without a user name and password. Unless you have a compelling reason to provide guest access, you should always make sure the Guest account is disabled. 87. (p. 1118) The Acceptable Use Policy defines what actions employees may or may not perform on company equipment. 88. (p. 1119) 1.Isolate the system. Shut down the system and store it in a place where no one else can access it. 2. Document when you took control of the system and the actions you took: shutting it down, unplugging it, moving it, and so on. Don't worry about too much detail, but you must track its location. 3. If another person takes control of the system, document the transfer of custody. 89. (p. 1120) The term adware generally refers to programs that support themselves using revenue from ads, like all those "free" Internet game sites. Every once in a while those ads can lead to spyware being installed on a system, so many authors lump adware into the grayware category.

Chapter 29_Securing Computers Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 29

# of Questions 18 13 58 89

Chapter 30_Virtualization Student:

Which of the following is a virtualization product that works on Mac operating systems? A. Virtual PC B. Parallels C. KVM D. Hyper-V

Which VMware product is used on Mac systems? A. ESX B. Virtual PC C. Fusion D. Hyper-V

Which of the following creates a complete environment for a guest operating system to function as though that operating system were installed on its own computer? A. Emulation B. Translation C. Virtualization D. Polyinstantiation

What is the term for an environment created by software, with sight and sound provided by video and audio equipment, primarily used for gaming and simulation? A. Virtual reality B. Virtual machine C. Hypervisor D. Sandbox

Which of the following describes software or hardware that converts the commands to and from the host machine into an entirely different platform? A. Hypervisor B. Virtual machine manager C. Supervisor D. Emulator

All of the following are virtual machine managers EXCEPT: A. VMware Workstation B. KVM C. Microsoft Virtual PC D. Snes9X

Which of the following are important reasons to implement virtualization? (Choose all that apply.) A. Hardware increases B. Research and testing C. System recovery D. System installation

All of the following are advantages to using virtualization in research and testing environments EXCEPT: A. Product testing B. Security testing C. Development testing D. Hardware testing

All of the following are examples of hypervisors EXCEPT: A. ESX B. Virtual PC C. Hyper-V D. Oracle VM Server

10. All of the following are characteristics of VMware's ESX Server EXCEPT: A. Support for large storage B. Ability to move running VMs C. Automatic fault tolerance D. Requires Linux host OS 11. How many processors can an ESX server support? A. 32 B. 64 C. 2 D. 1 12. Which virtualization product is used on Windows 7 to support Windows XP mode? A. Hyper-V B. Parallels C. Fusion D. Virtual PC 13. What is another term for a virtual machine? A. Host B. Guest C. Emulator D. Environment 14. Which of the following operating systems, when added as a virtual machine, requires a separate, licensed copy? A. Microsoft Windows B. Ubuntu Linux C. FreeDOS D. OpenBSD 15. Most virtual machine managers replace the CTRL-ALT-DELETE key sequence with: A. CTRL-ALT-INSERT B. CTRL-ALT-ESC C. CTRL-ALT-FN D. ALT-F4 16. A virtual machine that is not powered on is stored as a: A. Hard drive B. Process in RAM C. Set of files D. Snapshot 17. An advantage of virtualization that enables a VM to be replicated is known as: A. System restoration B. System installation C. System recovery D. System duplication

18. Which hypervisor product easily interfaces with large storage, such as network attached storage and storage area networks? A. KVM B. ESX C. Fusion D. Parallels 19. Which of the following is an open-source virtual machine manager developed by Red Hat? A. Virtual PC B. Xen C. Virtual Box D. KVM 20. Which program would be commonly used to manage ESX? A. VMware Player B. Virtual PC C. vSphere Client D. KVM 21. All of the following are characteristics of Hyper-V EXCEPT: A. Free B. Microsoft product C. Requires Windows Server 2008 D. Simple to use 22. All of the following virtualization products are free EXCEPT: A. ESXi B. VMware Workstation C. Hyper-V D. Virtual PC 23. Which of the following terms describe a point-in-time backup of a virtual machine? A. Full backup B. Differential backup C. Snapshot D. System state backup 24. Which of the following is the first step a virtual machine takes when it is powered on? A. POST B. Instant-on C. Snapshot D. Multiboot 25. Which of the following is the most limiting factor in a host's ability to run virtual machines? A. Hard disk space B. Network bandwidth C. CPU D. RAM 26. Which of the following advantages to virtualization provides significant cost savings in utility usage? A. Hardware consolidation B. Power savings C. System recovery D. System duplication

27. Which of the following requires an underlying operating system in order to create and manage virtual machines? A. Hypervisor B. Virtual Switch C. Virtual PBX D. Virtual machine manager (VMM) 28. VMware Fusion is a popular virtual machine manager for which operating system? A. Solaris B. Linux C. Mac OS X D. Windows 7 29. The term "bare-metal" virtualization software refers to which of the following? A. Hypervisors B. VMMs C. Virtual switches D. Hardware consolidation 30. A less-popular hypervisor is: A. ESX B. Oracle VM Server C. Hyper-V D. Virtual PC 31. Microsoft's hypervisor is known as 32.

is an example of virtualization software for the Mac platform.

33. VMware's ESX hypervisor can support up to 34. Microsoft Virtual PC is a popular 35.

perform chores that previously required multiple physical boxes.

36. A (n) 37.

processors.

removes the need for an operating system on the VM-supporting machine.

creates a complete environment for a guest operating system to function as though that operating system were installed on its own computer.

38. An example of a guest operating system that must be licensed is 39. 40. A (n) 41. 42. A (n)

is an example of a popular open-source virtualization program. environment is called a virtual machine (VM). is an environment primarily used for gaming and simulation. operating system is physically installed on a machine.

43. Both and are used to create and manage virtual machines and their interactions with their host environments. 44. A normal

uses programming called a supervisor.

45. A hypervisor allocates physical 46.

to virtual machines.

enables software written for a different platform to run, but does not virtualize hardware.

47. A (n) is software or hardware that converts the commands to and from the host machine into an entirely different platform. 48. Most VMMs enable you to use either the host machine's optical drive or a (n) guest operating system. 49. A VM goes through a (n)

process just like any computer.

50. Virtualization helps to

the number of physical machines.

51. Inactive virtual machines are stored as

to install the

52. With virtualization, you can place multiple virtual servers on a single physical system, reducing use. 53. Virtualization makes it possible to increase machine.

and run a number of servers on a single

54. The most popular reason for virtualization is to keep a high 55.

percentage.

enable you to make a point-in-time exact copy of the virtual machine that can be used in case of an emergency restore.

56. An advantage of virtualization in a testing environment is the ability to perform production. 57.

enables the mass deployment of numerous servers with similar baseline operating systems.

58.

before

hypervisors do not require an operating system.

59. ESX Server is an example of a (n) 60. VMware Workstation is an example of a (n)

. .

61. Describe a virtual machine manager (VMM).

62. List four popular VMMs.

63. Describe hypervisors.

64. List two popular hypervisors.

65. List five advantages of virtualization.

66. What is an example of Linux-based or open-source VMM?

67. How do virtualized operating systems handle security?

68. How is rebooting a concern with virtual machines?

69. How does Windows 7 implement Windows XP Mode?

70. What is the difference between a host operating system and a guest operating system?

71. Discuss "virtual reality."

72. Define virtualization.

73. How does a hypervisor allocate hardware?

74. Describe the difference between emulation and virtualization.

75. Describe the role of a supervisor in the context of single-OS machines.

76. What are two important reasons to virtualize?

77. Discuss how virtualization enables power savings.

78. Discuss how virtualization enables hardware consolidation.

79. Discuss how virtualization enables system duplication.

80. Discuss how virtualization enables system recovery.

81. Discuss how virtualization assists in research and testing.

82. Explain why the use of "bare-metal" hypervisors is better in a large-scale implementation.

83. List four features of VMware's ESX hypervisor.

84. What is a hardware concern of emulation?

85. Describe the Microsoft family of virtualization products.

86. Which type of virtualization product works better in smaller-scale implementations, and why?

87. What are important considerations during the installation of a virtual machine?

88. Describe the hardware factors that affect virtualization scalability.

89. What is KVM?

90. What are two virtualization products available for Mac operating systems?

Chapter 30_Virtualization Key 1. (p. 1165) B 2. (p. 1165) C 3. (p. 1152) C 4. (p. 1153) A 5. (p. 1156) D 6. (p. 1156) D 7. (p. 1161,1162) B 8. (p. 1162) D 9. (p. 1166) B 10. (p. 1166) D 11. (p. 1166) A 12. (p. 1152) D 13. (p. 1152) B 14. (p. 1157) A 15. (p. 1159) A 16. (p. 1161) C 17. (p. 1161) D 18. (p. 1166) B 19. (p. 1165) D 20. (p. 1163) C 21. (p. 1166) C 22. (p. 1163) B 23. (p. 1161) C 24. (p. 1159) A 25. (p. 1160) D 26. (p. 1161) B 27. (p. 1163) D 28. (p. 1165) C 29. (p. 1163) A 30. (p. 1166) B 31. (p. 1166) Hyper-V 32. (p. 1165) Parallels (or Fusion) 33. (p. 1166) 32 34. (p. 1164) virtual machine manager 35. (p. 1161) Virtual machines 36. (p. 1163) hypervisor

37. (p. 1152) Virtualization 38. (p. 1157) Windows 39. (p. 1165) KVM 40. (p. 1152) guest 41. (p. 1153) Virtual reality 42. (p. 1155) host 43. (p. 1155) hypervisors; virtual machine managers 44. (p. 1155) operating system 45. (p. 1155) hardware 46. (p. 1156) Emulation 47. (p. 1156) emulator 48. (p. 1157) ISO file 49. (p. 1159) POST 50. (p. 1161) reduce or consolidate 51. (p. 1161) files 52. (p. 1161) electrical power 53. (p. 1161) RAM 54. (p. 1161) uptime 55. (p. 1161) Snapshots 56. (p. 1162) testing 57. (p. 1161) System duplication 58. (p. 1163) Bare-metal 59. (p. 1166) hypervisor 60. (p. 1163) virtual machine manager 61. (p. 1163) A virtual machine manager is virtual machine software that runs on top of a host operating system. 62. (p. 1163-1165) Any four of the five following programs: VMware Workstation, Microsoft Virtual PC, Parallels, KVM, VirtualBox 63. (p. 1166) A hypervisor is software that does not need a host operating system. 64. (p. 1166) VMware's ESX, Microsoft's Hyper-V, and Oracle's VM Server 65. (p. 1160-1162) Power savings, hardware consolidation, system recovery, system duplication, research and testing 66. (p. 1165) KVM 67. (p. 1160) Virtualized operating systems use the same security features as real operating systems. For each virtual machine user account, you'll need to keep track of user names, passwords, permissions, and so on, just like on a normal PC. 68. (p. 1161) Rebooting virtual machines is easy, but keep an eye on your physical machine. If your PC goes down, it brings all your virtual machines down with it! Be sure to back up mission-critical virtual machines to an external hard drive—remember that a virtual machine is just a file on your hard drive. You can always install the backed-up virtual machines on another physical machine if necessary. 69. (p. 1164) It uses Virtual PC and a copy of Windows XP to create a virtual machine on your PC. 70. (p. 1152, 1155) A host operating system is physically installed on a machine. A guest operating system is the virtual machine that runs on the host through a virtual machine manager. 71. (p. 1153) "Virtual reality" is a world created by software, with sight and sound provided by video and audio equipment, primarily used for gaming and simulations. It uses equipment such as goggles and special gloves that enable you to "see" and "move" objects. 72. (p. 1152) Virtualization is a technology that convinces a guest operating system it is running on its own hardware.

73. (p. 1155) The hypervisor handles input and output requests an operating system would make of normal hardware, and allocates real hardware to virtual machines (drives, RAM, media, and so on) balancing the needs of the virtual machines with each other and those of the host. It also enables easy addition and removal of virtual hard drives, virtual network cards, virtual RAM, etc. 74. (p. 1156) Virtualization uses hardware from a host system, divides it into individual virtual machines, and then abstracts hardware that is the same platform. It cannot virtualize hardware that is a different platform (for example, an Intel platform cannot virtualize a Sony PlayStation). Emulation is very different, in that it enables software written for a different platform to run, but it does not virtualize hardware. 75. (p. 1155) For a single machine, the supervisor programming handles very low-level interaction among hardware and software (that is, task scheduling, allotment of time and resources, and so on). It does not have the ability, as a hypervisor does, to coordinate hardware resources among several machines. 76. (p. 1160) Two important reasons to virtualize are to reduce the number of physical machines and to take advantage of the ease of managing virtual machines as files (backups, security, portability, and so on). 77. (p. 1161) Before virtualization, each server OS needed to be on a unique physical system. With virtualization, you can place multiple virtual servers on a single physical system, reducing electrical power use significantly. Expanding this electricity savings over an enterprise network or on a data center is cost effective and "green." 78. (p. 1161) A physical high-end server represents a substantial investment in hardware—multiple processors, RAID arrays, redundant power supplies, and RAM. Setting up multiple physical high-end servers can be very expensive. Virtualization makes it possible to increase RAM and run a number of servers on a single server, which consolidates several physical machines into one box. 79. (p. 1161) System duplication takes advantage of the fact that VMs are simply files that can be copied, moved, and replicated. This allows VMs to be mass-duplicated by copying the files to the target machines. This is very useful for mass-deploying numerous servers with similar baseline operating systems, as in research or teaching environments. 80. (p. 1161) The most popular reason for virtualization is to keep a high uptime percentage. If a system goes down, you need to quickly restore the system from a backup. This can be very time-consuming. Virtualization makes it possible to shut down the VM and simply reload an alternative copy. A technique called snapshotting will also speed up recovery times. Snapshots enable you to make a point-in-time exact copy of the virtual machine that can be used in case of an emergency restore. 81. (p. 1162) Virtualization makes it possible to reduce the number of physical research and testing machines. It is useful for product testing, security testing, development testing before going into production, and research. 82. (p. 1163) In environments that have few virtual machines, VMMs are sufficient to manage the infrastructure. In large-scale implementations, where there could be entire data centers and server farms virtualized, bare-metal hypervisors are more scalable. They also tend to handle hardware and performance better. 83. (p. 1166) Support for large storage (SAN and NAS), transparent and automatic fault tolerance, the ability to move running VMs from one server to another, and support for up to 32 CPUs (depending on version) 84. (p. 1156) Emulating another platform (using a PC to run Sony PlayStation 2 games, for example) requires hardware several times more powerful than the platform being emulated. 85. (p. 1164, 1166) Microsoft's large-scale contender in virtualization is Hyper-V. It was previously only part of Windows Server 2008, but now it is also available as a standalone product. It is available only for 64-bit systems. The smaller-scale VMM software from Microsoft is Virtual PC. It runs over various iterations of Windows, but it has some limitations. It officially supports only Windows VMs, but Linux can be installed as well. 86. (p. 1163) Virtual machine managers (VMMs) work better in smaller-scale implementations. A VMM is virtual machine software that runs on top of a host operating system. It does not provide the hardware management and scalability that hypervisors do, because it only easily supports virtual desktops. 87. (p. 1160) Virtual disk size, virtual file location, allocated RAM, and any customization 88. (p. 1160) The number of virtual machines you will be able to accommodate on a physical machine depends on the amount of RAM available, the disk space required to store virtual hard disk files, CPU speed, network bandwidth, and the number and speed of network cards. 89. (p. 1165) KVM is an open-source virtualization product from Red Hat. It is one of the popular VMMs that represent the Linux/Unix world. It has an unusual feature in that it actually supports a few non-x86 processors, such as those used in the Mac (PPC) and Solaris world. Other opensource contenders include Xen and Oracles's VirtualBox. 90. (p. 1165) Parallels and VMware Fusion

Chapter 30_Virtualization Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 30

# of Questions 31 11 48 90

Chapter 31_The Right PC for You Student:

All of the following are ways to evaluate parts EXCEPT: A. Read the reviews B. Read the fine print C. Compare and contrast D. Test the next lowest model

What does CompTIA refer to as a SOHO PC? A. Thick client B. Thin client C. Virtualization workstation D. Graphics workstation

All of the following are minimum recommended system requirements for a Windows 7 64-bit thick client EXCEPT: A. 1 gigahertz (GHz) or faster 64-bit (x64) processor B. 2 GB RAM C. DirectX 11 video card D. 20 GB available hard disk space

Which of the following are motherboard considerations for a thick client? A. Monitor support B. RAM support C. Speaker support D. HDMI-capable

Which of the following is NOT a consideration when selecting a video card for a thick client? A. Onboard or on a dedicated card B. RAM C. Ports (VGA, HDMI) D. Multiple monitor support

Which of the following is the recommended monitor specification for a thick client? A. CRT B. LED-backlit LCD monitor C. Passive Matrix D. Active Matrix

What technology can be an inexpensive redundant storage option for thick clients? A. RAID 6 B. RAID 0 C. RAID 1 D. RAID 5

Which of the following is a system designed to handle only very basic applications with an absolute minimum amount of hardware required by the operating system? A. Video workstation B. Virtualization workstation C. Thick client D. Thin client

A single-purpose system, like a point-of-sale machine (cash registers) is an example of what type of computer: A. Thick client B. Thin client C. Workstation D. Server

10. What is a technology that enables you to run more than one operating system at the same time on a single computer called? A. Multiprocessing B. Simulation C. Emulation D. Virtualization 11. What is the most important hardware component in virtualization? A. RAM B. Disk storage C. Video D. Sound 12. Who of the following are the primary users of graphics workstations? A. Gamers B. Photographers C. Video editors D. Sound technicians 13. All of the following are important hardware consideration in a graphics workstation EXCEPT: A. Monitor B. CPU C. Video card D. Sound card 14. Digitizer tablets are primarily used in what type of workstation? A. Graphics workstation B. Virtualization workstation C. Digital audio workstation D. General purpose workstation 15. Which type of PC is more likely to require a very high-end sound interface? A. Graphics workstation B. Virtualization workstation C. Digital audio workstation D. Thin client 16. Which type of PC will make use of specialized input devices, referred to as control surfaces that mimic the look and feel of older, analog mixing consoles? A. Virtualization workstation B. Digital audio workstation C. Graphics workstation D. Home-theater PC 17. Which PC combines the requirements of a graphics workstation and an audio workstation? A. Home-theater PC B. Virtualization workstation C. Video workstation D. Gaming PC

18. Which component of a video workstation is important due to the large size of video files? A. Storage B. GPU C. RAM D. Video card 19. A home server PC usually fills all of the following roles EXCEPT: A. Media streaming B. Virtualization C. File sharing D. Print sharing 20. Which is the primary performance consideration for a home server PC that streams media? A. High-end graphics B. Theater-quality sound C. Large amounts of RAM D. Fast network connection 21. What term refers to a preconfigured device that contains multiple hard drives and attaches to your network? A. SAN B. NAS C. RAID 0 D. RAID 5 22. Which type of system enables you to play music and watch movies and television? A. Home-theater PC B. Video workstation C. Graphics workstation D. Digital audio workstation 23. What connection type does a home-theater PC use to provide support for large monitors at high resolution? A. VGA B. HDMI C. RCA D. USB 3.0 24. What type of connection carries both the video signal and the surround-sound audio signal and can be plugged into the television directly from the PC? A. RCA B. VGA C. DVI D. HDMI 25. What type of certified devices connect to your home network, discover each other, and share media? A. Wi-Fi B. DVI C. DLNA D. HDMI 26. All of the following are software tools for audio/video playback EXCEPT: A. Windows Media Center B. XBMC C. Plex D. iCloud

27. All of the following are considered the minimum recommended hardware for a budget gaming PC EXCEPT: A. Quad-core CPU with a speed of 3 GHz or more B. 4 GB of RAM C. Graphics card capable of running 10 FPS D. Cooling system that can handle the increased heat 28. What is the minimum recommended monitor resolution for a budget gaming PC? A. 800 × 600 B. 640 × 480 C. 1920 × 1080 D. 1024 × 768 29. Which of the following is NVIDIA's technology for linking multiple graphics cards? A. HDMI B. i7 Extreme Edition C. CrossFire D. Scalable Link Interface 30. How many graphics cards can currently be linked together under AMD's Crossfire technology? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 5 31. Research reviews of your part by 32.

reviews of hardware are written by professionals.

33. Check the return and

policy of the manufacturer and the retailer.

34. CompTIA calls a general-purpose SOHO computer a

client.

35. The minimum recommended RAM for a Windows 7 64-bit thick client is 36. The realistic recommended processor for a thick client is a with at least cores. 37. Consider whether to use a (n)

or faster 64-bit (x64) processor

or a dedicated video card.

38. For a thick client, look for cards that have decent RAM and several 39. A good-quality, widescreen, LED-backlit LCD monitor no smaller than across will serve through several thick-client builds.

. inches diagonally

40. A (n) is a system designed to handle only very basic applications with an absolute minimum amount of hardware required by the operating system. 41.

can help consolidate multiple machines into one box, saving floor space, electricity, etc.

42.

is the most important hardware component in virtualization.

43. A powerful 64-bit CPU that supports

will also help your virtual machines run smoothly.

44. The primary need for a graphics workstation is a 45. Many monitors require 46.

to accurately display colors.

frequently make use of specialized input devices, such as digitizer tablets.

47. A (n) workstation needs a high-quality audio interface with inputs that enable you to connect professional microphones and instruments. 48. Audio workstations frequently make use of specialized input devices, referred to as mimic the look and feel of older, analog mixing consoles. 49.

, that

combine the requirements of a graphics workstation and an audio workstation.

50. CAD/CAM workstations should also have a professional-level 51. A (n)

PC may stream media and be a file or print server.

52. Both Windows Media Player and

have a feature to share media files on a local network.

53. Hardware needs on a home server apply primarily to the capacity. 54. Both DVI and Display Port can support 55. The home server should connect via streaming.

speed and

HDTV resolution. to minimize any lag or dropped frames during

56. For the best output, the sound card connects to the stereo receiver via 57.

card.

carries both the video signal and the surround-sound audio signal into the television directly from the PC.

58.

certified devices connect to your home network, discover each other, and share media.

59.

means building your PC in a way that keeps it relevant for a few years.

60. For budget gaming systems, look for sound cards that support extra channels, more bits, and higher . 61. What are two ways to approach extreme gaming PCs that make them very expensive?

62. Describe the current technologies that employ multiple graphics cards.

63. How many graphics cards can be linked in the current technologies?

64. What will you need in order to use 3-D technology in your gaming system?

65. What are two types of reviews you should use to evaluate parts?

66. What should you look for in the "fine print" regarding a part?

67. What is a "thick client?

68. What are the realistic recommended hardware specs for a thick client?

69. Why does the size of the case matter?

70. What should be the motherboard considerations for a thick client?

71. What kind of monitor is recommended for a basic thick client?

72. Describe a thin client.

73. How is virtualization implemented on workstations?

74. What are hardware considerations on a virtualization workstation?

75. Describe what a graphics workstation is used for.

76. What are the primary hardware considerations of a graphics workstation?

77. What specialized input devices do digital audio workstations use?

78. What would a video workstation usually use two monitors for?

79. What interfaces might a video workstation have?

80. How would you share a printer on a home server PC?

81. What type of RAID should you use on a home server PC?

82. Describe NAS.

83. What components does an optimal home theater have?

84. What is the preferred connector for a home-theater PC?

85. What kind of sound should a home-theater PC support?

86. With what kind of connector should the sound card connect to the stereo receiver?

87. What kind of speaker setup is recommended for a PC?

88. Describe what kind of signal HDMI carries.

89. What kind of case fits in with a home-theater system?

90. What kind of connections are needed to stream media?

Chapter 31_The Right PC for You Key 1. (p. 1172) D 2. (p. 1173) A 3. (p. 1173) C 4. (p. 1174) B 5. (p. 1175) D 6. (p. 1175) B 7. (p. 1175) C 8. (p. 1176) D 9. (p. 1176) B 10. (p. 1176) D 11. (p. 1176) A 12. (p. 1176) B 13. (p. 1177) D 14. (p. 1178) A 15. (p. 1178) C 16. (p. 1178) B 17. (p. 1178) C 18. (p. 1178-1179) A 19. (p. 1179) B 20. (p. 1182) D 21. (p. 1182) B 22. (p. 1182) A 23. (p. 1182) B 24. (p. 1183) D 25. (p. 1185) C 26. (p. 1186) D 27. (p. 1189) C 28. (p. 1189) C 29. (p. 1191) D 30. (p. 1191) A 31. (p. 1172) the name and model number 32. (p. 1172) Industry 33. (p. 1172) warranty 34. (p. 1173) thick 35. (p. 1173) 2 GB 36. (p. 1173) 2-GHz; 2

37. (p. 1174) onboard 38. (p. 1174) ports 39. (p. 1175) 20 40. (p. 1176) thin client 41. (p. 1176) Virtualized servers 42. (p. 1176) RAM 43. (p. 1176) hardware virtualization 44. (p. 1177) large, high-quality monitor 45. (p. 1177) calibration 46. (p. 1178) Graphic designers 47. (p. 1178) digital audio 48. (p. 1178) control surfaces 49. (p. 1178) Video workstations 50. (p. 1179) graphics 51. (p. 1179) home server 52. (p. 1180) iTunes 53. (p. 1182) network; hard drive 54. (p. 1183) 1080p 55. (p. 1182) Ethernet 56. (p. 1183) S/PDIF 57. (p. 1183) HDMI 58. (p. 1186) Digital Living Network Alliance (DLNA) 59. (p. 1188) Future-proofing 60. (p. 1189) sample rates 61. (p. 1191) Money is no object, and buy the biggest and the best—even if you never use it. 62. (p. 1191) NVIDIA and AMD have both developed their own technology for linking multiple graphics cards. NVIDIA calls their technology Scalable Link Interface (SLI), while AMD calls theirs CrossFire. 63. (p. 1191) You can link up to four video cards together for more power than any current PC game could use. 64. (p. 1192) To use 3-D, you'll need both a display and video card that supports the technology. 65. (p. 1172) Industry reviews written by professionals and personal reviews written by people who purchased and use the part 66. (p. 1172) Learn everything you can about the part, read the technical specifications, and check the return and warranty policy of the manufacturer and the retailer. 67. (p. 1173) CompTIA calls a general-purpose SOHO computer a thick client. They do not have the fastest or best parts, but they are not low-end systems. They support about 90% of home and small-office users. 68. (p. 1173) 2-GHz or faster 64-bit (x64) processor with at least two cores, 4 GB RAM, a blank 500-GB hard disk, and a DirectX 11 video card. 69. (p. 1173) Mid-towers will have plenty of drive bays for future expansion, and they will also support almost any motherboard. 70. (p. 1174) Total RAM support, RAID support, USB (including versions and number of ports), onboard video, and onboard wireless 71. (p. 1175) A good-quality widescreen, LED-backlit LCD monitor no smaller than 20 inches diagonally across will serve through several system builds.

72. (p. 1176) A thin client is a system designed to handle only very basic applications with an absolute minimum amount of hardware required by the operating system. Examples of thin clients include single-purpose systems, like point-of-sale machines (cash registers). They are usually very small compared to thick clients. 73. (p. 1176) With workstations, virtualization is most often used to run a second OS on top of the OS installed on the computer's hard drive. 74. (p. 1176) RAM is the most important thing in virtualization. A powerful 64-bit CPU that supports hardware virtualization will also help your virtual machines run smoothly. 75. (p. 1176) Professional photographers and graphic designers use graphics workstations. Their foremost requirements are having the clearest view possible of their images and image editing software. The primary need for a graphics workstation is a large, high-quality monitor. 76. (p. 1177) The graphics workstation should have a multicore 64-bit CPU and lots of RAM, as well as a professional-level graphics card. 77. (p. 1178) Audio workstations frequently make use of specialized input devices, referred to as control surfaces, which mimic the look and feel of older, analog mixing consoles. They have a large number of programmable inputs that make controlling the software much faster and more accurate than with just a mouse and keyboard. 78. (p. 1178) To view the video stream on one monitor and the video editor on the other. 79. (p. 1179) Video workstations frequently have the same audio interfaces and control surfaces as audio workstations, and they also have video interfaces that enable editors to connect to various cameras. 80. (p. 1180) Open the Devices and Printers applet in the Control Panel, right-click on an installed printer, choose Printer properties, and then check the Share this printer checkbox on the Sharing tab. 81. (p. 1182) Use a RAID 1 configuration at a minimum (need two identical drives). If you can afford it and your motherboard supports it, get three identical drives and run in RAID 5. 82. (p. 1182) Network attached storage (NAS) is a preconfigured device that contains multiple hard drives and is attached to your network.. The NAS usually connects via Ethernet—instead of connecting to the hard drive(s) on a server PC on the network, you connect to the NAS's hard drives. 83. (p. 1182) A monitor, television, or projector; surround-sound speakers; a stereo receiver; a home theater PC; and network connectivity (such as a cable box or Ethernet) 84. (p. 1182) A home-theater PC must provide support for large monitors at high resolution—usually via an HDMI connector. 85. (p. 1183) The home-theater PC needs a sound card or built-in sound processor that supports 5.1 or 7.1 stereo. 86. (p. 1183) For the best output, the sound card connects to the stereo receiver via S/PDIF, through either the optical connector or coaxial connector. 87. (p. 1183) Your sound setup should include 5.1 or 7.1 surround sound speakers, connected to a receiver. The receiver controls the speakers, unless you plug the speakers directly into the PC. 88. (p. 1183) HDMI carries both the video signal and the surround-sound audio signal. 89. (p. 1184) You can get a case for a PC that stacks nicely with other home-theater components. CompTIA calls this style of case an HTPC, although that's not an industry-standard form factor. 90. (p. 1184) A home-theater PC needs access to content, usually through Gigabit Ethernet, to get streaming media. It could use Wi-Fi (802.11n or better), though wired is best, especially for HD content. For a television signal, the PC needs a television tuner.

Chapter 31_The Right PC for You Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 31

# of Questions 27 14 49 90

Chapter 32_The Complete PC Tech Student:

All of the following are part of the computing process EXCEPT: A. Input B. Processing C. Output D. Memory

What are the four primary stages of the computing process? A. Keyboard, CPU, monitor, mouse B. Input, loading, processing, storing C. Input, processing, storage, output D. Processing, displaying, storing, output

What is the first step of the troubleshooting theory? A. Identify the problem. B. Establish theory of probable cause. C. Test the theory. D. Verify full system functionality.

What are spare parts that you take with you to a worksite or workstation called? A. System units B. FRUs C. CMOS settings D. Backups

What software tool allows you to reset a lost or forgotten password? A. Torx B. 7-Zip C. FRU D. Password clearer

What usually contains a Torx wrench, a Phillips-head screwdriver, and a pair of tweezers? A. Tech toolkit B. Boot bag C. FRU box D. ZIP tote

What helps you track the troubleshooting history of a machine over time? A. Event Viewer B. Documenting C. Performance Monitor D. User-generated problems

What kind of report should detail what happened and where it happened? A. Down time B. Formalized C. Incident D. Performance

What is always recommended before making any major changes to a critical system? A. Test your theory. B. Add more RAM. C. Back up. D. Reboot using Low Resolution mode.

10. What is an FRU? A. A field-replaceable unit B. A free-reigning usability C. A failed removable unit D. A fire reduction utility 11. If a theory is not confirmed, what should you do next? A. Make changes B. Implement the solution C. Establish a new theory or escalate D. Verify full functionality 12. If you can't get the computer or peripheral working in a fairly short period of time, what should you do? A. Clean up. B. Reload. C. Escalate the problem. D. Ask the user to wait while you call your supervisor. 13. Sally has fixed a multitray printer that was jamming. After cleaning it and installing a maintenance kit, she verifies the original problem is no longer present. What else should she do? A. Clean up and go. B. Reinstall the drivers. C. Tell the customer to be more careful about keeping the printer clean. D. Test all trays. 14. If a user or a technician becomes injured on the job, what should be done? A. Don't tell anyone. B. Escalate the problem. C. Establish a theory of probable cause. D. Create an incident report. 15. What is the process of continuous or constant downloading from a game server called? A. MMORPG B. Stream loading C. Steam loading D. Triggering 16. Input, processing, storage, and output are collectively referred to as the 17.

requires specific devices, such as the keyboard and mouse, that enable you to tell the computer to do something, such as open a program or type a word.

18. The operating system (OS) provides a (n) and other chips can process your request.

and tools so that the microprocessor

19. Spare RAM sticks, a video card, a NIC, and a power supply are all examples of

20. After you have successfully solved the user's problem, have the user sit down and the task to ensure full system functionality. 21. When you press a keyboard key, the input, and then sends the information to the CPU.

reads the grid of your keyboard, discovers your

22. An FRU is also known as a (n)

23. The is nothing more than a set of steps you use along with the computing process to diagnose and fix a computer. 24. After you test a theory to determine cause, you should establish a (n) the problem and implement a solution. 25. While attempting to identify the problem, you should changes to the computer.

to resolve

the user and identify user

26. After verifying full system functionality, you should document , and . 27. What are the four primary stages of the computing process?

28. Explain escalation.

29. Explain the troubleshooting theory.

30. At what stage of the troubleshooting theory process should backups be performed?

31. List five FRU examples.

32. List three tools found in a typical technician toolkit.

33. What is a critical preventive measure to consider in almost every case?

34. What is the best way to verify full system functionality?

35. What software utilities should you include in your traveling toolkit for troubleshooting purposes?

36. When you encounter a partially functional computer, you should consider making backups. What should you include in the backup?

37. What are the six major steps in troubleshooting?

Chapter 32_The Complete PC Tech Key 1. (p. 1199) D 2. (p. 1199) C 3. (p. 1205) A 4. (p. 1212) B 5. (p. 1212) D 6. (p. 1211) A 7. (p. 1210) B 8. (p. 1210) C 9. (p. 1206) C 10. (p. 1212) A 11. (p. 1208) C 12. (p. 1208) C 13. (p. 1209) D 14. (p. 1210) D 15. (p. 1205) B 16. (p. 1199) computing process 17. (p. 1199) Input 18. (p. 1199) interface 19. (p. 1212) FRUs 20. (p. 1213) perform 21. (p. 1201) keyboard controller 22. (p. 1212) field replaceable unit or spare part 23. (p. 1205) troubleshooting theory 24. (p. 1206) plan of action 25. (p. 1206) question 26. (p. 1210) findings; actions; outcomes 27. (p. 1199) The four primary stages of the computing process are input, processing, storage, and output. 28. (p. 1208) Escalation is the process your company (or sometimes just you) goes through when you—the person assigned to repair a problem— are not able to get the job done. It's okay to escalate because no one can fix every problem. 29. (p. 1205) The troubleshooting theory includes talking to users to determine how and when the problem took place, determining a cause, testing, verifying, and documenting. 30. (p. 1206) Backups should be performed during the identification stage of the troubleshooting theory process, before making any changes. 31. (p. 1212) FRU examples include RAM sticks, PCI or PCIe video card, NIC, power supply, keyboard, and mouse. 32. (p. 1211-1212) A typical technician toolkit includes a Torx wrench, Phillips screwdrivers, tweezers, software utilities, and FRUs. 33. (p. 1210) Educate the user. Take advantage of the time with the user to informally train him about the problem and provide as much education as possible. 34. (p. 1209) The best way to verify full system functionality is to have the user do whatever she needs to do on the repaired system for a few minutes while you watch.

35. (p. 1211-1212) Software troubleshooting utilities include malware cleaners, anti-malware, boot tools, password cleaner, and ZIP file tool. 36. (p. 1206) Back up essential data such as e-mail, favorites, important documents, and any data not stored on a regularly backed-up server. 37. (p. 1205-1206) The six major steps in troubleshooting are to identify the problem; establish a theory of probable cause; test the theory; establish a plan of action; verify full system functionality; and document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Chapter 32_The Complete PC Tech Summary Category Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Hard Difficulty: Medium Meyers - Chapter 32

# of Questions 15 3 19 37